1

ATC AND AIRMANSHIP

RULES 0F AIR

1. If any country has promulgated an ADIZ, all aircraft operating in that area are to
obtain specific permission before entering the area for any peacetime missions
including SAR missions (True/False)

2. Unless authorised by the Commanding Officer for operational or specific flight

mission, VFR flights shall not be operated: -

(a) Between sunrise and sunset.

(b) In IMC.
(c) In air space class 'B'.
(d) Above FL 220.

3. Unless authorised by the Commanding Officer for operational or specific flight

mission, VFR flights shall not be operated: - (True/False)

(a) Between sunset and sunrise.

(b) In IMC.
(c) At Transonic/ Supersonic speed.
(d) In air space class 'A'.
(e) Above FL 200.

4. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level, the aircraft that
has the other on its right shall give way except as follows: -

(a) Power driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to

airships, gliders and balloons

(b) Gliders shall give way to Airships.

(c) Balloons shall give way to Gliders

(d) Helicopters shall give way to Fixed-wing aircraft

5. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level, the aircraft that
has the other on its right shall give way except as follows: - (True/False)

(a) Power driven heavier-than-air aircraft shall give way to

airships, gliders and balloons

(b) Airships shall give way to gliders and balloons.

(c) Gliders shall give way to balloons.

(d) Fixed-wing aircraft shall give way to helicopters.

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6. When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so

and there is danger of collision, each shall alter its heading to the
left. (True/False)

7. The overtaking aircraft, whether climbing, descending or in level flight shall keep
out of the way of the other aircraft by altering course to the right and no subsequent
change in the relative position of the two aircraft shall absolve the overtaking aircraft
from its obligation until it is well past and clear. (True/False)

8. An aircraft while landing or approaching to land has the right of way over other
aircraft in flight or on the ground or water. (True/False)

9. In the case of two or more flying machines or two or more gliders approaching an
airfield for the purpose of landing, the flying machine or the glider at the lower altitude
shall have the right of way but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of
another which is descending in a straight line for the purpose of landing. (True/False)

10. An aircraft, which is aware that another aircraft is compelled to land, shall give
way to that aircraft. (True/False)

11. In the case of two or more flying machines or two or more gliders approaching
an airfield for the purpose of landing, the flying machine or the glider at the lower
altitude shall have the right of way but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in
front of another which is descending in a straight line for the purpose of landing.
(True/False)

12. An Aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome shall not give way
to aircraft/helicopter taking off or about to take off. (True/False)

13. An aircraft operated on or in the vicinity of an airfield, shall whether or not within
an aerodrome traffic zone will make all turns to the left after taking off or when
approaching for a landing unless otherwise instructed. (True/False)

14. An aircraft operated, as a controlled flight shall maintain continuous listening

watch on the appropriate radio frequency and establish two-way communication as
necessary with the air traffic control unit. (True/False)

15. Between sunset and sunrise, except when otherwise ordered, navigation lights
are to be displayed by aircraft in flight, taxying or ground running. (True/False)

16. Anti collision lights, are to be switched on only after all engines have started up
(True/False).

17. Anti collision may be turned off during flight through cloud when the light beam
reflects into the cockpit (True/False)

18. Vehicles towing aircraft have right of way over all other traffic except aircraft
landing and taking off. All other vehicles must give way to aircraft. . (True/False)

19. Whenever approaching the downwind end of the duty runway, whether intending
to take off or not, pilots are to halt their aircraft at the marshalling point from where
they will move only after clearance.
(True/False)
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20. Aircraft are not to be taxied to test defective-brakes unless attended by wing tip
men with chocks. (True/False)

ATC Organisation and Procedure

21. An aircraft, which is aware that another aircraft is compelled to land, shall give
way to that aircraft. (True/False)

22. An Aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome shall not give way
to aircraft/helicopter taking off or about to take off. (True/False)

23. An aircraft operated on or in the vicinity of an airfield, shall whether or not within
an aerodrome traffic zone will make all turns to the left after taking off or when
approaching for a landing unless otherwise instructed. (True/False)

24. Between sunset and sunrise, except when otherwise ordered, navigation lights
are to be displayed by aircraft in flight, taxiing or ground running. (True/False)

25. The objective of naval air traffic control services is to notify appropriate
organisations regarding aircraft in need of SAR aid and assist such organisations as
required. (True/False)

26. The air traffic services comprise three services namely: - (True/False)

(a) Air traffic control service consisting of aerodrome control

service, approach control service and area control service.

(b) Flight information service.

(c) Alerting service

27. Aerodrome control towers shall issue information and clearances to aircraft
under their control to achieve a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic on and
in the vicinity of an airfield with the object of preventing collision (True/False)

28. Aerodrome control towers are responsible for Alerting the safety services
(True/False)

29. If the runway in-use is considered unsuitable for the operation involved, the pilot
may request permission to use another runway. (True/False)

30. When operating under VMC, it is the responsibility of the pilot of an aircraft to
avoid collision with other aircraft (True/False)

31. An aircraft, which is aware that another aircraft is compelled to land, shall give
way to that aircraft. (True/False)

32. An Aircraft taxiing on the maneuvering area of an aerodrome shall not give way
to aircraft/helicopter taking off or about to take off. (True/False)

33. An aircraft landing or in the final stages of an approach to land will have priority
over an aircraft intending to depart. (True/False)
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34. An aircraft operated on or in the vicinity of an airfield, shall whether or not within
an aerodrome traffic zone will make all turns to the left after taking off or when
approaching for a landing unless otherwise instructed. (True/False)

35. An approach control unit may be combined with an approach radar unit or an
aerodrome control tower (True/False)

36. An approach control unit may share the functions of an area control centre.
(True/False)

37. Between sunset and sunrise, except when otherwise ordered, navigation lights
are to be displayed by aircraft in flight, taxying or ground running. (True/False)

38. Anti collision lights, are to be switched on only after all engines have started up
(True/False).

39. Vehicles towing aircraft have right of way over all other traffic except aircraft
landing and taking off. All other vehicles must give way to aircraft. (True/False)

40. Minimum Separation between Departing Aircraft, if aircraft are to fly on tracks
diverging by at least 450 immediately after take-off so that lateral separation is
provided is
(a) One minute separation
(b) Two minutes separation
(c) One and half minutes separation
(d) Non of the above

41. Minimum Separation between Departing Aircraft, when the proceeding aircraft is
40 knots or more faster than the following aircraft and both aircraft propose to follow
the same track.
(a) Two and half minutes between take-off
(b) One minute between take-off
(c) Two minutes between take-off
(d) Non of the above

42. Minimum Separation between Departing Aircraft, at the time cruising levels are
crossed if a departing aircraft will be flown through the same track.
(a) Two minutes separation
(b) Five minutes separation
(c) Three minutes separation
(d) Non of the above

43. An IFR flight shall not be cleared for an initial approach below the initial
approach altitude specified for the instrument approach or the aerodrome safety
altitude unless: -

(a) The pilot has reported passing an appropriate point

defined by a radio aid.
(b) The pilot reports that he has and can maintain the
aerodrome in sight.
(c) The aircraft position has been positively determined by
the use of radar.
(d) All the above
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44. IFR flight may be cleared to execute visual approach provided the pilot has the
airfield in sight and can maintain visual reference to the terrain (True/False)

45. A particular approach procedure will be carried out in accordance with the
procedures published in the instrument approach control unit to expedite traffic.
(True/False)

46. Instrument approach will be carried out in accordance with the procedures
published in the instrument approach charts of relevant radio NAVAID. (True/False)

47. A revised expected approach time shall be transmitted without any delay
whenever it differs from that previously transmitted by 5 minutes or more. (True/False)

48. The expected approach time shall be transmitted by the most expeditious means
(True/False)

49. As early as practicable after an aircraft has established

communication with approach control service, the following elements of information, in
the order listed, shall be transmitted to the aircraft,
(True/False)

(a) Runway in use

(b) Current meteorological information

(c) Current runway surface conditions in case of precipitation or other

temporary hazards.

(d) Changes in the operational status of visual and non-visual aids

essential for approach and landing.

50. At the commencement of final approach, the following information shall be

transmitted to the aircraft: -(True/False)

(a) Significant changes in mean surface wind and speed.

(b) Information on vertical wind shear and/or turbulence in the final approach
area
(c) Current visibility for the direction of approach and landing or
RVR.

51. If an arriving is making a straight in approach, a departing aircraft may take off in
any direction until 5 minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to be over the
instrument runway provided adequate instructions and clearances have been issued
to the aircraft for ensuring the laid down separation (lateral and vertical or both)
between the arriving and departing aircraft) (True/False)
52. The area control provides ATC service to controlled flights outside the
responsibility of Aerodrome and Approach control units. (True/False)

53. The objective of Air Traffic Advisory Service is to make information on collision
hazards more effective than it would be in the flight information service (True/False)
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54. Aircraft opting to use advisory service are required to comply with the
procedures as applicable to IFR flights. (True/False)

55. Air Traffic Advisory Service is provided to aircraft conducting IFR

flights in advisory areas or routes outside controlled air space
(True/False)

56. Flight information service shall be provided to all aircraft which are likely to be
affected by the information which are provided outside controlled air space by fight
information centre.(True/False)

57. Alerting Service shall be provided to any aircraft known or believed to be the
subject of unlawful interference. . (True/False)

58. The objective of Air Traffic Advisory Service is to make information on collision
hazards more effective than it would be in the flight information service (True/False)

59. Aircraft opting to use advisory service are required to comply with the
procedures as applicable to IFR flights. (True/False)

60. Initiating 'AIRMOVE' message in connection with extended flights is by

(a) Cdr (Air)
(b) Cdr (Ops)
(c) DATCO
(d) None of the above

61. __________is to ensure that the crash tender and/or crash boats and
ambulance are all instantly available properly manned and equipped

(a) Cdr (Air)

(b) Cdr (Ops)

(c) DATCO

(d) Non of the above

62. All incidents of importance or interest taking place during his watch are to be
recorded in the _______ log by the DATCO together with details of any action taken.
(a) Occurrence Log.
(b) Aircraft Movement Log.
(c) Airfield Surface Defects Log
(d) R/T Log

63. A RANAD LOG giving full details and serviceability state of radio, radar and
navigational aids installed at the airstation is to be maintained at the ATC (True/False)

64. The RANAD log is to be seen by the Ground Radio Officer daily at the ATC and
countersigned. (True/False)

65. Civil aircraft are not permitted to land at naval airfields without prior permission
of Naval Headquarters even in emergency. (True/False)
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66. Civil aircraft landing in emergency at a naval airfield shall not be permitted to
take off without prior clearance by Naval Headquarters. (True/False)

67. For cases of unserviceability of crash tenders, the mock-up crash tender should
kept stand by for immediate use. (True/False)

68. Principal Extinguishing agents should be: - (True/False)

(a) Protein foam.
(b) Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF).
(c) Flouro Protein Foam (FP-70).
(d) Combination of these three agents.

69. The complementary extinguishing agents should be: - (True/False)

(a) CO2.
(b) BCF.
(c) Dry chemicals.
(d)Combination of these three agents.

70. The operational objective of the rescue and fire fighting service should be to
achieve response time of _____ minutes, to the end of each runway in optimum
visibility and surface conditions.
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c)
3
(d)
None of the above
VISUAL AND INSTRUMENT FLIGHT RULES

71. VFR flights in level cruising flight when operated above 3000 feet (900 meters)
from the ground or water are to be conducted at flight levels appropriate to the track
as specified in the system of cruising levels in force. (True/False)

72. An IFR flight shall be flown at a level, which is not below the minimum flight
altitude established by the DGCA. (True/False)

73. When no minimum flight level has been established the following method is to be
used for calculation: - (True/False)

(a) Height of the highest obstruction within 5nm (an operational

aircrew) and 10 nm (for under training aircrew) either side of intended track

(b) Add 1000 feet for obstruction above the height of 5000 feet AMSL
(Mountainous area/ high terrain) or add 1000 feet for obstructions below the
height of 5000 feet AMSL.

(c) Round off to next higher 100 feet.

(d) Choose next higher level as applicable.

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74. An aircraft electing to change the conduct of its flight from compliance with the
Instrument Flight Rules to compliance with the Visual Flight Rules shall notify the
appropriate ATS unit specifically that the IFR flight is cancelled and communicate
thereto the changes to be made to its current flight plan (True/False)

75. When an aircraft operating under IFR is flown in or encounters VMC, it shall not
cancel its IFR flight unless it is anticipated and intended that the flight will be
continued for a reasonable period of time in uninterrupted VMC. (True/False)

76. A controlled VFR flight authorised by ATC to operate within a control zone
under conditions below the visual meteorological conditions is called a special VFR
flight. (True/False)

77. The QFE is to be set on pressure altimeters before landing at or taking off from
a naval airfield. When this is set, the altimeter will read the true elevation AMSL of the
airfield. (True/False)

78. The QFE is to be normally used by all naval aircraft operating from ships and is
also to be made available to aircraft while landing at naval airfields if and when
required. On deck, altimeters so set will read zero (True/False)

79. The QNH/ QFE value should be supplied to air traffic control staff by the
meteorological staff at hourly intervals (True/False)

80. The QNH/ QFE value should be supplied to air traffic control staff by the
meteorological staff more frequently if the value has changed by one hectopascal or
more since the last half hourly value. (True/False)

81. The quadrantal rule is in operation from flight level 040 to flight level 145 above
which the semi-circular rule operates from flight level 150. (True/False)

82. The quadrantal rule is in operation from flight level 030 to flight level 140 above
which the semi-circular rule operates from flight level 150. (True/False)

83. The pressure datum on which quadrantal & semi-circular flight levels are flown is
the standard pressure datum 1013.2 hpc/ 29.92 inches/ 760 mm. (True/False)

84. VFR levels above FL-145 will be used by military aircraft unable to establish
contact with FICs. (True/False)

85. FL-145 is not to be used by aircraft as this is kept as a buffer between

quadrantal and semi-circular levels. (True/False)

86. When turning to port from one track to the next, aircraft should descend to the
new flight level and climb when turning to starboard. (True/False).

87. The lowest flight level available within 25 NM of an aerodrome is the first level
above the transition altitude of that aerodrome. (True/False).

88. Position reports are to be passed by aircraft in transit to the appropriate air traffic
control unit within controlled airspace under IFR at each designated reporting point.
(True/False).
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89. Position reports are to be passed by aircraft in transit to the appropriate air traffic
control unit during day every 30 minutes and during night every 15 (True/False).

90. Position reports are to be passed by aircraft in transit to the appropriate air
traffic control unit on entering/ leaving FIRs and control zones. (True/False).

91. Position reports are to be passed by aircraft in transit to the appropriate air traffic
control unit When changing from one area of responsibility to another. (True/False).

AIRFIELD CHARACTERISTIC
92. An airfield shall be equipped with at least two wind direction indicator which
shall be located so as to be visible from aircraft in flight or on the movement area and
in such a way as to be free from the effect of air disturbances caused by nearby
objects. (True/False).

93. The wind direction indicator (wind sock) should be in the form of a truncated
cone made of fabric and should have a length of not less than 3.6 m and a diameter at
the larger end, of not less than 0.9 m. (True/False).

94. The distance between two adjacent markers shall be 1500 feet with the half way
marker marked with the letter 'M'. (True/False).

95. The distance between two adjacent markers shall be 1000 feet with the half way
marker marked with the letter 'M'. (True/False).

96. A yellow strip superimposed on the red square describes

(a) Presence of Temporary Obstructions.

(b) Landing Prohibited

(c) EmergencyLandingOnly

(d) None of the above

97. Two yellow diagonals superimposed on the red square.

(a) Presence of Temporary Obstructions

(b) Landing Prohibited

(c) Emergency Landing Only

(d) Non of the above

98. Two yellow bars superimposed on the red square

(a) Presence of Temporary Obstructions
(b) Landing Prohibited
(c) EmergencyLandingOnly
(d) Non of the above
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99. A white dumb-bell
(a) Runways and Perimeter Tracks only
(b) Runways, Perimeter Track and Grass Surfaces Service III
(c) Landing Area for Light Aircraft

100. A white dumb-bell with parallel black bars across the disc

(a) Runways and Perimeter Tracks only

(b) Runways, Perimeter Track and Grass Surfaces Service III
(c) Landing Area for LightAircraft

101. A white bar painted below a white cross

(a) Runways and Perimeter Tracks only
(b) Runways, Perimeter Track and Grass Surfaces Service III
(c) LandingAreaforLightAircraft
(d) Emergency Landing Only

102. Indication of Duty Runway is the large white landing T displayed in the signal
area and must never be illuminated, (True/False).

103. The auxiliary white landing T is to be placed on the port side of the down wind
end of the duty runway (True/False).

104. When airfields are abandoned, the signal square is to be obliterated and landing
T's and windsocks removed (True/False).

105 The layout of the gooseneck flares will be in this manner.

(a) At every 100 feet on either edge of the runway to provide runway edge
lights.

(b) Touch down points to be indicated by 2 flares on either side

(normally the third flares are to be doubled).

(c) Halfway to be marked by 2 flares on port side and 2 flares on

starboard side.

(d) Beginning and end of runway to be marked by 3 green and red

glim lamps respectively.

106. The layout of the gooseneck flares will be in this manner.

(a) At every 250 feet on either edge of the runway to provide runway edge
lights.

(b) Touch down points to be indicated by 3 flares on either side

(normally the third flares are to be doubled).

(c) Halfway to be marked by 5 flares on port side and 2 flares on

starboard side.
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(d) Beginning and end of runway to be marked by 3 green and red glim lamps
respectively.

107. The layout of the gooseneck flares will be in this manner.

(a) At every 210 feet on either edge of the runway to provide runway edge
lights.

(b) All turning points to be doubled

(c) Taxi holding position to be indicated by 4 gooseneck flares

(d) Displaced threshold to be marked by 5 flares on either side.

108. A perimeter road should be provided at airfield for vehicular and pedestrian
traffic to avoid runway crossing. However, if due to economic or other consideration, a
perimeter road is not feasible, a runway crossing point shall be established at the
airfield. (True/False)

109. Airfields requiring two runway crossing points are to have written approval of the
Flag Officer Naval Aviation. (True/False)

110. VEHICULAR TRAFFIC DURING NIGHT

(a) Observe a speed limit of 30 KMPH.

(b) Observe a speed limit of 20 KMPH.

(c) Observe a speed limit of 22 KMPH.

111. Safety vehicles while attending to an aircraft emergency or crash shall be

exempted from the speed and route restrictions and are to proceed to the scene of
crash as instructed Duty Air Traffic Control Officer. (True/False)

112. All M/T vehicles which are employed regularly on an airfield movement area are
to be painted bright orange. (True/False)

113. The runway controller's van is to be painted in black and white squares
(a) 13 inches by 13 inches
(b) 15 inches by 15 inches
(c) 1 inches by 12 inches
(d) 12 inches by 12 inches

114. Contractors equipment within the movement area on airfields, should carry

(a) an orange painted double crossed disc of two feet diameter fitted to a pole
of convenient height and mounted suitably on the equipment.

(b) an Red painted double crossed disc of two feet diameter fitted to
a pole of convenient height and mounted suitably on the equipment.
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(c) an orange painted double crossed disc of three feet diameter fitted to a
pole of convenient height and mounted suitably on the equipment.

115. Naval aircraft while operating in local flying areas or on exercises are to make
position report or "operations normal" call as follows:-

(a) Single engine -Every 10 minutes

(b) Twin/ multi engine aircraft operating singly - Every 20 minutes

(c) Twin/ multi engine aircraft operating in company Every 45 minutes

116. Naval aircraft while operating in local flying areas or on exercises are to make
position report or "operations normal" call as follows:-

(a) Single engine -Every 20 minutes

(b) Twin/ multi engine aircraft operating singly - Every 40 minutes

(c) Twin/ multi engine aircraft operating in company - Every 55 minutes

117. Naval aircraft while operating in local flying areas or on exercises are to make
position report or "operations normal" call as follows: -

(a) Single engine -Every 20 minutes

(b) Twin/ multi engine aircraft operating singly - Every 30 minutes

(c) Twin/ multi engine aircraft operating in company - Every 45 minutes

(d) All Above

118. If five minutes after the reporting time no report has been received, the aircraft is
to be called on all the frequencies in use.(True/False)

119. Overdue action for naval aircraft in transit is to be initiated if it has failed to arrive
at or is not in R/T touch with the ship/airfield of destination or an alternate airfield and
has not been positively recognized by radar. (True/False)

120. The responsibility for initiating diversion shall rest with the Captain/ Commander
(Air) or with the Captain of the aircraft . (True/False)

121. When lost or in an emergency and unable to make radio-contact and no

transmitter, receiver operative, an aircraft is to

(a) Fly a triangular pattern to the left and hold each heading for two minutes
(jet aircraft flying above TAS of 300 Kts - I minute).

(b) Fly a triangular pattern to the right and hold each heading for one minutes
(jet aircraft flying above TAS of 300 Kts – 30 sec).

(c) Fly a triangular pattern to the right and hold each heading for two minutes
(jet aircraft flying above TAS of 300 Kts - I minute).
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122. When lost or in an emergency and unable to make radio-contact and both
transmitter and receiver inoperative, an aircraft is to

(a) Fly a triangular pattern to the left and hold each heading for two minutes (jet
aircraft flying above TAS of 300 Kts - I minute).

(b) Fly a triangular pattern to the left and hold each heading for one minutes (jet
aircraft flying above TAS of 300 Kts – 30 sec).

(c)Fly a triangular pattern to the right and hold each heading for two minutes
(jet aircraft flying above TAS of 300 Kts - I minute).

123. In the event of a radio communication failure, all transit/ extended flights flying
in VMC are to
(a) Continue to fly in VMC.

(b) Land at the nearest suitable airfield.

(c) All the above.

124. lf in IMC,when weather conditions are such that it does not appear feasible to
complete the flight in VMC then commence descent at or as nearly as possible to the
expected approach time last received and acknowledged. If no expected approach
time has been received and acknowledged, as nearly as possible to the estimated
time of arrival, specified in the flight plan. (True/False)

AIRFIELD LIGHTING

125. Aeronautical lights indicating a desired line of approach to a runway.

(a) Approach Lights

(b) Runway Lights

(c) Threshold Lights

(d) Taxiway Lights

126. Aeronautical lights arranged along the edge of the entire length of a runway.

(a) Approach Lights

(b) Runway Lights

(c) Threshold Lights

(d) Taxiway Lights

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127. Aeronautical lights so placed as to indicate the beginning of the runway.
(a) Approach Lights

(b) Runway Lights

(c) Threshold Lights

(d) Taxiway Lights

128. Aeronautical lights arranged along the length of the taxi track to indicate the
route to be followed by taxying aircraft.

(a) Approach Lights

(b) Runway Lights

(c) Threshold Lights

(d) Taxiway Lights

129. The layout of the gooseneck flares will be in this manner.

(a) At every 200 feet on either edge of the runway to provide runway edge
lights.

(b) Touch down points to be indicated by 3 flares on either side (normally the
third flares are to be doubled).

(c) Halfway to be marked by 2 flares on port side and 2 flares on starboard

side.

(d) Beginning and end of runway to be marked by 3 green and red glim lamps
respectively.

130. All M/T vehicles which are employed regularly on an airfield movement area
are to be painted bright orange (True/False)

131. The runway controller's van is to be painted in black and white squares 12
inches by 12 inches. (True/False)

132. All farm machinery, hay rakes, sweeps, elevators and wagons, whether animal
or tractor-drawn, are to display a yellow flag while employed on the airfield.
(True/False)
133. The pilot is responsible for the safety of the aircraft and is not required to
comply with marshalling instructions considered to be unsafe. (TRUE/FALSE).

134. Flame proof torches should be used and no naked lights should be permitted
within 30m of any refuelling or defuelling operation. (TRUE/FALSE).

135. Work on electrical or radio equipment, including R/T transmissions, should not
be conducted whilst refuelling is in progress, or within 15m of an aircraft which is
being refuelled(TRUE/FALSE).
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136. Refuelling should not be carried out within 40 m of an aircraft with engines
running. (TRUE/FALSE).

137. Lifepreservers are to be worn or carried, by all occupants of aircraft flying over,
or within five nautical miles of, the sea or any area of water more than five nautical
miles wide at high tide. (TRUE/FALSE).

138 The aircraft should always be ditched into wind if the surface of the water is
smooth or if the water is smooth with a very long swell. (TRUE/FALSE).

139. Distress signal means that “The aircraft is threatened by serious and imminent
danger and is in need of immediate assistance”. (TRUE/FALSE).

140. Urgency. “The calling station has a very urgent message to transmit concerning
the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of persons on board or within sight”.
(TRUE/FALSE).

141. In RT the Urgency is addressed as

(a) “Pan,Pan,Pan”
(b) “SOS,SOS,SOS”

142. In RT the Distress is addressed as

(a) “Mayday,Mayday,Mayday”
(b) “Pan,Pan,Pan”

143. If the pilot is not in contact with an ATC agency when the emergency occurs he
should transmit the emergency call and message on 243.0 MHz, with 121.5 MHz
being used as a back-up frequency, or on the HF frequency of 500 KHz.
(TRUE/FALSE).

144 Use of Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR). SSR is also used to indicate an
emergency. Mode 3/A, code 7700 indicates an aircraft in emergency, 7500 reports a
hijack and code 7600 indicates a total radio failure. (TRUE/FALSE).

145. Search and Rescue Satellite Aided Tracking (SARSAT) is an alert and location
system detecting transmissions on 406, 243 and 121.5 MHz (TRUE/FALSE).

146. Pilots losing 2-way communications should set the transponder to Mode 3/A
Code 7600. (TRUE/FALSE).

147. The two main advantages of making an approach and landing into wind are that
the groundspeed is reduced to a minimum for a given airspeed and drift is eliminated.
(TRUE/FALSE).

148. Service aircraft are considered to be low flying when fixed wing aircraft, except
light propeller-driven aircraft, are operating below 2,000 ft above ground or water
level, or light propeller-driven aircraft and helicopters are operating below 500 ft above
ground or water level. (TRUE/FALSE).
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149. A designated area within a flight information region where air traffic advisory
service is available is called

(a)Advisory Area.
. (b) Advisory Route
(c) Aerodrome Control Service

150. A designated route along which air traffic advisory service is available is called

(a)Advisory Area.
. (b) Advisory Route
(c) Aerodrome Control Service

151. Air Traffic Control service for aerodrome traffic called Aerodrome Control
Service. (TRUE/FALSE).

152. ALERFA is the code word used to designate an alert phase.

(TRUE/FALSE).

153. DETRESFA is a code word used to designate a distress phase.

(TRUE/FALSE).

154. Naval aircraft while operating in local flying areas or on exercises are to make
position report or "operations normal" call as follows:- (TRUE/FALSE).

(a) Single engine -Every 20 minutes

(b) Twin/ multi engine aircraft operating singly - Every 30 minutes

(c) Twin/ multi engine aircraft operating in company - Every 45 minutes

155. The time that may be allowed to lapse after the ETA of the aircraft before
overdue action is initiated is as follows: - (TRUE/FALSE).

(a) Jet aircraft - At ETA.

(b) AII other aircraft except helicopters - 30 minutes after ETA or at the end of
notified endurance whichever is earlier.

(c) Helicopters - I hour after ETA or at the end of the notified endurance
whichever is earlier,

156. In a NDB letdown Sector 1 procedure is

(a) Parallel Entry

(b) Offset Entry

(c) Direct Entry

 17
157. In a NDB letdown Sector 2 procedure is
(a) Parallel Entry

(b) Offset Entry

(c) Direct Entry

158. In a NDB letdown Sector 3 procedure is

(a) Parallel Entry

(b) Offset Entry

(c) Direct Entry

159. International ground/air visual codes for “Require Assistance”

(a) V

(b) X

(c) N

(d) Y

160. International ground/air visual codes for “Require Medical Assistance”

(a) V

(b) X

(c) N

(d) Y

161 International ground/air visual codes for “YES or Affirmative”

(a) V

(b) X

(c) N

(d) Y
 18
162. International ground/air visual codes for “NO or Negative”

(a) V

(b) X

(c) N

(d) Y

NOTAM

163. There are _____international NOTAM offices in India.

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

164. Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi and Chennai are the international NOTAM offices in
India (True/False)

165. There are _____classes of NOTAMs

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

166. When advance information is not available and the NOTAM is distributed in
coded form by means of telecommunication, it is termed as Class I distribution.
(True/False)

167. When sufficient advance information is available NOTAMs are distributed in

printed form by mail by NAAI, these NOTAMs in plain language are termed Class II
distribution. (True/False)

168. When information is valid for more than 2 hours,NOTAM under_____ is issued

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) G
 19
169. When information is valid for less than 2 hours, NOTAM under_____ is issued

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) G

170. Information required by domestic operators only is issued under

NOTAM_______series.

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) G

171. Information regarding Defence Aerodromes is issued under

NOTAM_______series.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

172. NOTAM message identifier “N” carry the following meaning

(a) NOTAM contains new information

(b) NOTAM replaces a previous NOTAM
(c) NOTAM cancels a previous NOTAM

173. NOTAM message identifier “R” carry the following meaning

(a) NOTAM contains new information

(b) NOTAM replaces a previous NOTAM
(c) NOTAM cancels a previous NOTAM

174. NOTAM message identifier “C” carry the following meaning

(a) NOTAM contains new information

(b) NOTAM replaces a previous NOTAM
(c) NOTAM cancels a previous NOTAM

175. SNOWTAM is a special series NOTAM notifying the presence of hazardous

conditions due to snow, ice slush etc. (True/False)

176. SELCAL is a facility from ground to air only. (True/False)

177. The width of instrument Rwy 2400 M or more long should be 60 M. (T/F)

Miscellaneous

178. AIP India is published by

(a) DGCA (b) Govt. Of India (c) AAI (d) ICAO

 20
179. Air Ground communication used between A/C and aerodrome control tower
shall have at least coverage of

(a) 25 NM (b) 20 NM (c) 10 NM (d) No specified limit

180. The term waypoint is associated with

(a) Radar Control (b) Procedure Control

(c) Route Navigation (d) Area Navigation

181. SAR services in India are organized in accordance with ICAO Annexe

(a) Annex 2 (b) Annex 4

(c) Annex 11 (d) Annex 12

182. Minimum height for sustained rescue searches at Night is …………….

AGL/ASL

(a) 500’ (b) 250’ (c) 800’ (d) 1000’

183. No construction of building is permitted within radius of ……………. from

NDB/VOR site.

(a) 200 M (b) 300 M (c) 305 M (d) 400 M

184. The word spoken on R/T in one minute

(a) 80 (b) 50 (c) 100 (d) 125

185. In normal visibility condition PAPI lights should be visible from a distance of :-

(a) 4 NM (b) 3 NM (c) 5 NM (d) 8 NM

186. An isolated Parking Position should not be located with in …………… of other
parking areas building or Public area.

(a) 50 M (b) 75 M (c) 100 M (d) 150 M

187. The next available VFR level above F140 is

(a) F165 (b) F155 (c) F150 (d) F160

188. For more than 900 mtrs long runway, when the taxi holding position is
unmarked, the a/c waiting to enter runway shall be held at least:-

(a) 50 mtrs from runway edge

(b) 30 mtrs from runway edge
(c) 50 mtrs from runway center line
(d) 100 mtrs from runway center line
 21
189. In an air station vehicular traffic during night is to observe speed limit of:-

(a) 35 Kmph (b) 30 Kmph (c) 25 Kmph (d) 15 KMPH

190. In terms of VMC in flt in controlled air space the visibility should be at least

(a) 8 Kms (b) 5 Kms (c) 0 Kms (d) 10 Kms.

191. The clear way if provided should be

(a) Equal to TORA

(b) Equal to LDA
(c) Not more than half of TORA
(d) None of these

192. SSR code for RCF is:

(a) 7500(b) 7600 (c) 7700 (d) 7777

193. The speed indicated in Flight plan is :

(a) True Air Speed

(b) Indicated Air Speed
(c) Ground Speed

194. Details about all accidents/incidents involving a particular Squadron/Flight/Unit

are to be furnished in

(a) Blue Books (b) Red Books(c) Green Books (d) Purple Books

195. The maximum throw of a monitor of CFT is:

(a) 45 m (b) 55 m (c) 65 m (d) 75 m

196. The QNH is 1009 hpa and the TA is 4000’ therefore the TL will be

(a) F 050 (b) F 055 (c) F 045 (d) FL 040

197. The suction hoses are woven on metal coils so that these

(a) Do not collapse under atmospheric pressure applied from outside.

(b) Do not burst with over pressure.
(c) To retain its original position when the vacuum is created in the
system
(d) To make it fire retardant

198. ASR approach is termed as

(a) Precision Approach (b) Non Precision Approach

(c) Radar Approach (d) Visual approach
 22
199. Maximum reading of RVR is

(a) 1500 M (b) 1800 M (c) 2000 M (d) 2500 M

200. The expansion ratio of CO2 is

(a) 1 : 450 (b) 1 : 480 (c) 1: 540 (d) 1: 550

201. Surface wind speed variation shall be passed to aircraft when it exceeds

(a) 4Kts (b) 6 Kts (c) 08 Kts (d 10 Kts

202. Revised EAT is passed to an aircraft when it differs by

(a) 3 Mins (b) 5 Mins (c) 10 Mins (d) 15 Mins

203. Aircraft subjected to unlawful interference would display mode A and code.

(a) 7700 (b) 7600 (c) 7500 (d) 7800

204. Uncertainty phase for civil aircraft at night would commence when ops normal
call is over due by

(a) 15 Mins (b) 20 Mins (c) 25 Mins (d) 30 Mins

205. Aircraft is required to pass estimates before entering the respective FIR
boundary at least before

(a) 5 Mins (b) 10 Mins (c) 12 Mins (d) 15 Mins.

206. OPS normal call by service aircraft by night in transit is made after every

(a) 15 Min (b) 20 Mins (c) 30 Mins (d) 45 Mins

207. International HF voice distress frequency is

(a) 3023 KHz (b) 2182 KHz (c) 5080 KHz (d) 8992.5 KHz

208. Over head HT/LT lines shall not be permitted in take off/Approach surface
within ……………………. Mtrs of inner edge

(a) 2250 M (b) 3000 M (c) 3500 M (d) 2000 M

209. SGA should be ploughed at least ………….. with furrow

(a) Once a month (b) Once a week

(c) once in two months (d) Once in three month

210. The World Ocean is divided into …………………. NAV AREAS

(a) 08 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 20

 23
211. Designator for significant marked by Radio Nav aids shall consist of at least.

(a) Four letters (b) Six letters

(c) Five letters (d) No specification

212. ATC route N 563 means that route is

(a) Area Nav Route & form part of regional net work

(b) Area Nav Route but not forming part of Regional net work

(c) Route is neither part of area navigation nor part of regional net work.

(d) Route for aircraft flying at high attitudes

213. The passenger manifests are to be retained for a period of ……. And are to be
produced during the Annual Inspection of the ship/Air station

(a) 1 Year (b) 3 Months (c) 6 months (d) 3 Years

214. The responsibility for the upkeep of the hard surface of the Air Station lies with

(a) Air Station (b) AA (c) CWE (d) SATCO

215. The FLIP Part I is revised in every

(a) 1 year (b) 1-3 years (c) 3-5 years (d) 2 years

216. The estimated time required to proceed from one significant point to another

(a) EAT (b) EET (c) ETA (d) EOBT

217. The procedure to be followed when dealing with emergencies arising out of
Hijacking and other terrorist threats to civil aviation are given in DARA circular

(a) 9 of 1978 (b) 9 of 1988 (c) 9 of 1998 (d) 9 of 1974

218. The headquarters of ICAO is situated at

(a) London (b) Canada

(d) Montreal (d) Washington.

219. Alerting Message are accorded ICAO prefix priority Indicator

(a) FF (b) GG (c) SS (d) DD

220. The Standard ICAO abbreviation and codes are given in

(a) Doc 9137 (b) Doc 8400

(c) DOC 8168 (d) Doc 8071
 24

STATE TRUE /FALSE

221. Height of the clouds is measured by dectometer (T/F)

222. There is no intermediate approach area in a DF profile. (T/F)

223. Localizer cannot be used when the glide path is U/S (T/F)

224. RVR observation is made whenever visibility falls below 3000M. (T/F)

225. Splay angle of VOR final approach area is 10.3 degree. (T/F)

226. Printed communication between ATS unit should take transit time being no
longer than 5mins. (T/F)

227. Colour of caution zone lights is blue (T/F)

228.For Cat ‘C’ & ‘D’ type of A/C the angle between the outbound & inbound track of
instrument approach procedure is determined by 36/T formula (T/F)

229. Revised EAT is passed when it differs by 30 Minutes or more (T/F)

230. The recording of tapes for ATC communication is to be preserved for at

least 14days as per ICAO (T/F)

231. Butcheries are not permitted within 6 Kms of the aerodrome.(T/F)

232. QNH wrongly passed higher than the reported value will provide more
clearance (T/F)

233. In India class ‘D’ air space indicate the existing controlled air spaces.
(T/F)

234. The slope in transitional surface is 2.5 % (T/F)

235. MOC for NDB being used as step down ix is 200’ (T/F)

236. Aerodrome beacon should show W/G flashes between 15 and 25 per min. (T/F)

237. The stop way provided at the end of runway does not necessity mean that a
clear way has been provided (T/F)

238. An A/C experiencing unlawful interference can indicate on SSR by code 7600.
(T/F)

239. Longitudinal spacing between TDZM (Rwy Marking) should be 200 M. (T/F)

240. An A/C to which landing clearance has been issued shall be considered
overdue when it fails to land within 7 min of the clearance
(T/F)

241. The radius of inner horizontal surface is 3 Kms from ARP. (T/F)
 25

242. Normal climb gradient for missed approach segment is 5%. (T/F)

243. Foam can be used on hot undercarriage of an aircraft. (T/F)

244. The validity of airfield warning is two hours from time of issue. (T/F)

245. ‘Ops Normal’ call at night for Seaking aircraft in company is 30 minutes. (T/F)

246. Responsibility for initiating diversion shall rest with ATC.(T/F)

247. Movement area includes dispersal area also. (T/F)

248. The letter ‘Y’ in item 8 of flight plan indicates VFR first. (T/F)

249. SSR code 7700 means RCF. (T/F)

250. For having more than one runway crossing NHQ approval is to be taken. (T/F)

251. Runway less than 1800M length need not to have DTGM. (T/F)

252. A pilot may elect to fly IFR even when VMC exists (T/F)

253. Transition altitude in India is not less than 4000’ (T/F)

254. Second aircraft can be cleared for NDB let down when first aircraft report study
inbound in IMC (T/F)

255. DO can be cleared T/O within 45 sec. Behind B-737 provided Boeing has
crossed the end of R/W or has turned right or left after T/O. (T/F)

256. Threshold wing bar light are unidirectional (T/F)

257. Colour of caution zone lights is red. (T/F)

258. Airways are designated within the control area (T/F)

259. Fixed wing aircraft is to give way to Rotary wing. (T/F)

260. On pilots request other than duty R/W can be given provided traffic conditions
permit (T/F)

261. IAA can be below the A/F safety altitude. (T/F)

262. Gradually PAPI is being replaced by VASI. (T/F)

263. DA is associated with Precision approach (T/F)

264. Overdue action for helo in transit flight over the sea is after 01 hour after ETA or
endurance, which is earlier (T/F).

265. The code word to designate an alert phase is ALERFA. (T/F)

266. The a/c awaiting ADC number may be permitted for take off. (T/F)
 26

267. The runway edge lights will be installed not more than 200’ interval. (T/F)

268. An a/c carrying VIPs will have priority over Civil schedules services. (T/F)

269. Approach Control can perform the function of aerodrome control also. (T/F)

270. The width of instrument Rwy 2400 M or more long should be 60 M. (T/F)