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1. SI units of solid angle is

(a) radian (b) revolution
(c) degree (d) steradian

2. Which one of the followings is not the SI unit of length?

(a) angstrom (b) micron
(c) radian (d) parsec

3. Which one of the followings is not the SI unit?

(a) kg (b) mol
(c) °C (d) cd

4. Which one of the followings is not the fundamental SI

(a) kelvin (b) ampere
(c) poise (d) metre

5. Candela is the SI unit of

(a) charge (b) luminous intensity
(c) power (d) refractive index

6. 1.2 kgm-3 when changed to gcm-3 reads

(a) 1.2x10-1 (b) 1.2x10-2
(c) 1.2x10-3 (d) 1.2x10-4`

7. Radius of a proton is equal to

(a) 1.2x10-13 cm (b) 1.2x10-13 m
(c) 1.2x10-14 m (d) 1.2x10-10 m

8. Which one of the followings represents the longest

(a) 1.24x104 mm (b) 1.24x104 m
(c) 1.24x102 km (d) 1.24x103 dm

9. Steradian is the angle subtended in

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(a) two dimensions
(b) three dimensions
(c) both in two and three dimensions
(d) none of these
10. The absolute uncertainty in the measurement 15.4 cm is
(a) 0.1 cm (b) 0.01 cm
(c) 0.05 cm (d) 0.5 cm

11. The fractional uncertainty in a measurement is defined as

(a) measured value – zero error
measured value
(c) error  measured value
measured value

12. The fractional uncertainty in measurement 15.4 cm is

(a). 0.006 (b) 0.0006
(c) 0.003 (d) none of these

13. Which instrument is suitable for measuring the length of a

metal bar about 10 cm long?
(a) Screw gauge (b) Vernier Calliper
(c) Metre rod (d) External jaws of a calliper

14. A metre rod is used to measure a length. The correct

order of accuracy of the instrument is
(a) 1 cm (b) 0.05 cm
(c) 0.01 cm (d) 0.1 cm

15. A micrometer screw gauge is used to measure the

diameter of a glass rod. The correct order of accuracy of
the instrument is
(a) 1 mm (b) 0.1 mm
(c) 0.01 mm (d) 0.0001mm

16. Which one of the followings is not suitable for the

measurement of time?
(a) simple pendulum (b) pulse rate
(c) ticker timer (d) vibrating mass-spring system

17. A simple pendulum can be used as a clock because

(a) its time period is 1 s
(b) its time period is constant

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(c) its period of oscillation is same every where
(d) it does not stop oscillating

18. One giga means

(a) 109 (b) 10-9
(c) 10-12 (d) 1012

19. One femto equals

(a) 1015 (b) 1012
(c) 10-12 (d) 10-15

20. One micrometer equals

(a) 10-3 m (b) 10-6 m
(c) 10-5 m (d) 106 m

21. An error of observation arising out of the negligence on

the part of the person is called
(a) random error (b) systematic error
(c) personal error (d) common error

22. Use of faulty apparatus introduces an error called

(a) experimental error (b) designing error
(c) random error (d) systematic error

23. Random error can be corrected by

(a) taking an observation carefully
(b) using a precise instrument
(c) taking several observations
(d) calibrating the instrument

24. Causes of systematic error in an instrument are

(a) unknown (b) known
(c) arbitrary (d) none of these

25. Significant figures in a measured value indicate

(a) the reading on an instrument
(b) doubtful numbers
(c) quantity which is reasonably reliable
(d) accurate numbers

26. The number of significant figures in the value 0.09810 are

(a) 4 (b) 3

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(c) 6 (d) 5

27. The number of significant figures in the value 1.90  10-31

(a) 34 (b) 28
(c) 3 (d) 2

28. The dimensions of weight are equal to the dimensions of

(a) weight density (b) mass density
(c) pressure (d) force

29. When rounded off to three significant figures, the value

6.735 should be written as
(a) 6.73 (b)6.70
(c) 6.74 (d) none of these

30. 9.845 is to be rounded off to three significant figures. The

value should be written as
(a) 9.84 (b) 9.85
(c) 9.80 (d) none of these

31. Given [q] = [M] [L-1] [T-1]; v, A and t represent velocity,

area and time respectively, which of the followings is
v t
(a) q  A (b) q  A
t v
1 v
(c) q  (d) none of these
A t

32. Given F = + bt2 where F denotes force and t time, the
dimensions of a and b are respectively
(a), [MLT-1] and [MLT-4] (b) [LT-1] and [T-2]
(c) [T] and [T-2] (d) [LT-2] and [T-2]

33. The dimensions of angular displacement are

(a) [L] (b) [LT-1]
(c) [L2] (d) [L0]

34. Which of the following quantities is not dimensionless?

(a) angle (b) stress
(c) Young's modulus (d) relative density

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35. The dimensional formula for energy per unit area per
second is
(a) [MT-1] (b) [MLT-1]
(c) [ML2T-1] (d) [MT-3]

36. Use of dimensional analysis involves in

(a) finding the units of a quantity
(b) deriving a mathematical formula
(c) checking the correctness of an equation
(d) all of these

37. Numbers carry

(a) no dimensions (b) arbitrary dimensions
(c) dimensions but no units (d) all of these

38. Only those terms can be added or subtracted which have

(a) different dimensions (b) same dimensions
(c) no dimensions (d) none of these

39. The dimensions of angular velocity are

-1 -1
(a) [LT ] (b) [T ]
2 -1
(c) [L T ] (d) none of these

40. The travel time of light from Earth to the moon (average
distance = 3.86  10 m) is about
(a) 8 seconds (b) 1.20 seconds
(c) 1.20 minutes (d) 12 seconds

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Key to Test Chapter 1

1 d 21 a
2 c 22 d
3 c 23 c
4 c 24 b
5 b 25 c
6 c 26 a
7 c 27 c
8 c 28 d
9 b 29 c
10 a 30 a
11 d 31 d
12 a 32 a
13 b 33 d
14 d 34 b
15 c 35 d
16 b 36 d
17 b 37 a
18 a 38 b
19 d 39 b
20 b 40 b

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1. Which graph best represents how the displacement of a
vertically thrown ball varies with time?

d d d d

t t t t

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2. Which graph best shows how the velocity of a vertically thrown

ball varies with time?
v v v v

t t t t

(a) (b) (c) (d)

3. A body whose instantaneous and average velocities are equal is

said to have
(a) constant acceleration (b) constant velocity
(c) variable velocity (d) variable acceleration

4. Inertia of a body is a measure of its

(a) mass (b) weight
(c) velocity (d) momentum

5. A body moving with velocity v has energy E. Its momentum is

E Ev
(a) (b)
v 2
(c) (d) Ev

6. An alternate unit to kg ms1

(a) J s (b) N s
(c) N m (d) N

7. Change of linear momentum of a body is called its

(a) acceleration (b) impulse

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(c) force (d) energy

8. A trolley of mass 3 kg moving with a speed of 4 ms1 collides

with and remains attached to a stationary trolley of mass 1 kg.
Their combined momentum, in kg ms1, after the collision is
(a) 4 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 12

9. Forces in nature always occur in

(a) single form (b) pair form
(c) triple form (d) any form

10. When two bodies move like a single body after colliding each
other, the collision is said to be
(a) perfectly elastic (b) partially elastic
(c) perfectly inelastic (d) partially inelastic

11. As a result of an elastic collision between two masses m1 and

m2 an exchange of velocity takes place. For collision of this
(a) m1 >> m2
(b) m1 = m2
(c) m1 << m2
(c) one of the masses must be initially at rest

12. If a shell is fired from a canon and explodes in air, then the
(a) momentum increases (b) momentum decreases
(c) kinetic energy increases (d) kinetic energy decreases

13. A ball thrown up with a velocity of 19.6 ms1 returns back into
the thrower’s hand after
(a) 1 s (b) 2 s
(c) 3 s (d) 4 s

14. Lead balls each of mass m kg fall on a horizontal plate at the

rate of n balls per second. If they strike the plate with a
velocity of v ms1 , the force exerted on the plate in N is
(a) mvn (b)
mn m
(c) (d)
v nv

15. From the top of a building a ball A is dropped while another ball
B is thrown horizontally at the same instant. Which ball will
strike the ground first?
(a) A (b) B
(c) Both at the same time (d) Nothing can be predicted

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16. In case of projectile motion, the maximum height attained by a
body is equal to its range. The angle of projection with the
horizontal is
(a) tan1 (1) (b) tan1 (2)
(c) tan1 (3) (d) tan1 (4)
17. The height H gained by a projectile is related to its maximum
range Rmax by
(a) H = 4 Rmax (b) H  max
(c) H = 2 Rmax (d) H  max
18. The horizontal range of a projectile is the same for the angles
(a) 600 and 800 (b) 400 and 700
0 0
(c) 45 and 55 (d) 400 and 500
19. The time taken by a projectile to reach maximum height is
v sin  2 v i sin 
(a) i (b)
2g g
v i sin  v i cos 
(c) (d)
g g
20. A ballistic trajectory is the path followed by
(a) an un-powered and unguided missile
(b) a powered and guided missile
(c) an un-powered but guided missile
(d) a powered and guided missile
21. A snooker ball moving with velocity v collides head-on with
another snooker ball of same mass at rest. If the collision is
elastic, the velocity of the second snooker ball is
(a) zero (b) uncertain
(c) v (d) 2 v
22. The time of flight of a projectile is
v sin  2 v i sin 
(a) i (b)
g g
v sin  2 v i cos 
(c) i (d)
2g g
23. The velocity of a projectile at the maximum height is
(a) vi sin (b) vi cos
(c) maximum (d) zero
24. With increasing angle of projection, the vertical height gained
by a projectile
(a) decreases gradually
(b) increases gradually
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) remains the same.

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25. The horizontal component of the velocity of a projectile moving
with initial velocity of 500 ms-1 at an angle of 600 to the x-axis
(a) 500 ms-1 (b) 1000 ms-1
(c) 250 ms (d) zero

26. A car is decelerating uniformly, its velocity changing from 30

ms1 to 15 ms-1 in 75 m. How much further will it travel before
coming to rest?
(a) 25 m (b) 50 m
(c) 75 m (d) 100 m
27. A body starts from rest at t = 0 and moves with constant
acceleration. Which graph below best represents how the
displacement s of the body varies with time?
s s s s

t t t t
(a) (b) (c) (d)

28. Laws of motion are valid in those systems which

(a) are non-inertial (b) are inertial
(c) are at rest (d) are in space

29. The force F exerted on a body colliding with F

another body changes with time as shown.
The area under the F – t graph represents the
body’s change of
(a) velocity (b) acceleration T
(c) momentum (d) kinetic energy
30. The graph shows a varying force F
applied on a body of 10 kg mass. If the X
gain in momentum in 5 s is 40 kgmsX
is equal to t
(a) 4 (b) 8 0 5s
(c) 10 (d) 15

31. Neutron (mass = 1 u) undergoes elastic collision with

stationary nitrogen nucleus (mass = 14 u). The velocity of
neutron after the collision is
(a) 0
(b) less than the velocity of nitrogen atom after collision
(c) equal in magnitude to its initial velocity but opposite direction
(d) less in magnitude than its initial velocity but with changed

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32. Area under the velocity – time graph represents
(a) speed (b) momentum
(c) velocity (d) distance covered

33. A body thrown up with a velocity of 9.8 ms1 reaches a

maximum height of
(a) 9.8 m (b) 4.9 m
(c) 19.6 m (d) 44.1 m

34. A force of 4 N acting on a body of mass 2 kg for 2 s produces a

rate of change of momentum of
(a) 1 kgms-1 (b) 2 kgms-1
(c) 4 kgms (d) 8 kgms-1

35. Dimensions of impulse are

(a) [MLT] (b) [MLT-1]
(c) [MLT2] (d) [MLT2]

36. Collisions of gas molecules with the walls of the container are
the example of
(a) inelastic collisions (b) elastic collisions
(c) partially elastic collisions (d) partially inelastic collisions

37. Gas molecules inside a container constitute

(a) an isolated system (b) a non-isolated system
(c) a conservative system (d) a non-conservative system

38. A ball bouncing off a wall

(a) obeys law of conservation of energy
(b) does not obey law of conservation of energy
(c) obeys law of conservation of momentum
(d) does not obey law of conservation of momentum.

39. Speed of a projectile is minimum at the

(a) point of landing (b) point of projection
(c) maximum height (d) none of these

40. What happens when a system of two bodies undergoes an

elastic collision?
(a) The momentum of the system changes
(b) The momentum of the system does not change
(c) The bodies come to rest after collision
(d) The energy conservation law is violated.

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Key to Test Chapter 3

1 c 21 c
2 a 22 b
3 b 23 b
4 a 24 b
5 c 25 c
6 b 26 a
7 b 27 b
8 d 28 b
9 b 29 c
10 c 30 b
11 b 31 d
12 b 32 d
13 d 33 b
14 a 34 d
15 c 35 b
16 d 36 b
17 b 37 a
18 d 38 d
19 c 39 c
20 a 40 b

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1. A crystalline solid has
(a) an ordered structure (b) low KE
(c) only vibrational energy (d) rotational energy

2. A solid having irregular arrangement of molecules is

(a) polymeric (b) ideal
(c) amorphous (d) crystalline

3. Molecules of a solid possess

(a) polymeric structure (b) ideal arrangement
(c) rotatory motion (d) translational motion

4. Array of points representing atoms, ions or molecules of a

crystal arranged at different sites in a three-dimensional
space is called
(a) crystal lattice (b) solid
(c) substance (d) compound

5. Force applied on a unit area of a crystal is called

(a) stress (b) strain
(c) flexibility (d) elasticity

6. SI unit of stress is
(a) N-m-2 (b) N
(c) dynes m-1 (d) N x m

7. A stress that changes one dimension only is called

(a) compressive stress (b) compressive stress
(c) linear stress (d) linear strain

8. Strain is the ratio of

(a) (b) force x area

Force Change in length
(c) (d)
Length Original length

9. The ratio of volumetric stress to volumetric strain is called

(a) Shear modulus (b) Bulk modulus
(c) Young's modulus (d) Shear strain

10. SI unit of stress is same as that of

(a) force (b) momentum
(c) pressure (d) length

11. The dimension of strain is

(a) dimensionless (b) [L]
(c) [L ] (d) [LT-1]

12. Crystals are classified into

(a) infinite groups (b) seven groups
(c) four groups (d) three groups

13. The maximum stress that a body can withstand is called

(a) elastic stress (b) plastic stress
(c) UTS (d) permanent stress

14. NaCl has

(a) cubical structure (b) trigonal structure
(c) tetragonal structure (d) Hexagonal structure

15. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Iron is less elastic than rubber
(b) Iron is more elastic than rubber
(c) Water is less elastic than air
(d) Water is equally elastic as air

16. A substance that undergoes a temporary deformation is

(a) ductile (b) brittle
(c) ceramic (d) organic

17. Glass is treated as solid liquid because it

(a) is beautiful and hard
(b) is hard and has arranged molecules

(c) is transparent
(d) has irregularly arranged molecules

18. Solids with high value of conductivity are called

(a) semiconductors (b) insulators
(c) conductors (d) non-metals

19. Conductivity of insulator is of the order of

(a) 107(-m)-1 (b) 10-6 to 10-4 (-m)-1
(c) 10-10 to 10-20 (-m)-1 (d) infinite

20. The conduction band lies

(a) below valence band (b) above the valence band
(c) inside the valence band (d) may be anywhere

21. A doped semi conductor is called

(a) P type (b) N type
(c) extrinsic (d) intrinsic

22. A pure semi conductor is called

(a) N type (b) P type
(c) intrinsic (d) extrinsic

23. A trivalent impurity is usually called

(a) acceptor (b) donor
(c) rectifier (d) transistor

24. Choose the correct answer:

(a) An elastic deformation is reversible
(b) An elastic deformation is irreversible
(c) A plastic deformation is reversible
(d) A plastic deformation is neither reversible nor irreversible

 E  2
25. The stress  required to fracture a solid is  = k  
 d 
where k is a dimensionless constant, E is Young's modulus
and d is the distance between the planes of atoms
separated in fracture. The quantity  must be
(a) energy per unit area (b) energy
(c) force per unit area (d) force

26. Crystalline solids have
(a) a short range order
(b) a long range order
(c) weak bonds for nearest neighours
(d) none of these
27. The amorphous solids have
(a) a short range order
(b) a long range order
(c) neither short nor long range order
(d) regular structure

28. Choose the correct statement:

(a) Conductors have no free electrons acting as charge carrier
(b) Conductors have a few free electrons acting as charge
(c) Conductors have large free electrons acting as charge
(d) Insulators have large free electrons acting as charge carriers

29. Which one of the followings is / are a semiconductor?

(a) carbon (b) phosphorous
(c) silicon (d) all of these

30. Electric conduction in a semi conductor takes place due to

the movement of
(a) electrons (b) protons
(c) holes (d) both electrons and holes

31. On increasing the temperature of a semiconductor

(a) the number of charge carriers will increase
(b) the number of charge carriers will decrease
(c) the average drift speed will increase
(d) the resistance of the semiconductor will increase

32. To make a p-type semi conductor, pure silicon should be

doped with the atoms of
(a) Germanium (b) Phosphorous
(c) Antimony (d) Boron

33. Choose the correct answer:

(a) p-type semiconductor is positively charged
(b) p-type semiconductor is negatively charged
(c) n-type semi conductor is negatively charged
(d) p-type semi conductor is uncharged

34. The electrical resistivity of pure germanium can be
decreased by
(a) decreasing the temperature only
(b) doping with donor impurities only
(c) doping with acceptor impurities only
(d) doping with either donor or acceptor impurities

35. A semi conductor is doped with an acceptor impurity.

Then the
(a) electron concentration will increase
(b) hole concentration will increase
(c) electron concentration will decrease
(d) hole concentration will decrease

36. Which of the following substances is / are diamagnetic?

(a) zinc (b) copper
(c) silver (d) all of these

37. The magnetization as well as demagnetization of

(a) steel is easy
(b) soft iron is difficult
(c). steel is difficult
(d) both soft iron and steel is difficult

38. A permanent magnet must have

(a) high retentivity (b) low retentivity
(c) low coercive force (d) low Curie's temperature

39. A paramagnetic material is placed in a magnetic field. The

magnetization is increased if the
(a) temperature is increased (b) temperature is decreased
(c) magnetic field is reversed (d) none of these

40. The loop area of the hysteresis curve is

(a) greater for soft iron than for steel
(b) greater for steel than for soft iron.
(c) equal for both steel and soft iron
(d) zero for soft iron.

Key to Test Chapter 17

1 a 21 c
2 c 22 c
3 d 23 a
4 a 24 b
5 a 25 a
6 a 26 b
7 c 27 a
8 d 28 c
9 b 29 d
10 c 30 d
11 a 31 a
12 b 32 d
13 c 33 d
14 a 34 d
15 b 35 b
16 c 36 d
17 b 37 c
18 c 38 a
19 c 39 b
20 b 40 b


Physics is the natural science that involves the study of matter and its
motion through space and time, along with related concepts such as
energy and force. It intersects with many interdisciplinary areas of
research, such as biophysics and quantum chemistry, and the boundaries
of physics are not rigidly defined.


Objective Portion, Short Questions,
Memory Tricks, Graphs, Conceptual Questions,
Experiment Based Questions, Labeled Diagrams


Ali Raza
Fauji Foundation Higher Secondary
School (Inter College) Talagang
June 9th, 2015




1. One coulomb is that unit of charge which when placed at 1 m form an equal and similar charge repels it
with a force
a. 5 X 109 dyne b. 5 x 109 N c. 9 x 109 dyne d. 9 x 109 N

2. The minimum charge on an abject is

a. 1 coulomb b. 1 state coulomb c. 1.6 x 10-19 d. None

3. Which of the following is correct

a. J = C/V b. J = V x A c. J = V/A d. J = C x V

4. One electron volt is

a. 1.6 x 10-12 ergs b. 4.8 x 10-10 ergs c. 300 ergs d. None

5. Polarization of matter is possible only for

a. Conductors b. Insulators c. Gases d. Semiconductors

6. The charge on the electron was calculated by

a. Faraday b. J. J. Thomson c. Millikan d. Einstein

7. The ink used in the photocopy machine

a. Black b. Blue c. Red d. Toner

8. There are two charges 1 µC and 6 µC, the ratio of forces acting on them will be
a. 1:25 b. 1:6 c. 1:1 d. 6:1

9. An electric field lines provides information about ________

a. Electric Force b. Direction c. Medium d. All of them

10. If two charges are experiencing a force of 10 N, when medium is Air, if the medium is change whose
permittivity is ‘2’ then force will be
a. 3 N b. 5 N c. 10 N d. 0.3 N

11. Unit of electric flux is

a. V.m b. N/C c. V.m2 d. N2/C2

12. Gauss’s law can be applied to

a. Plane surface b. Curved surface c. Any surface d. Closed surface

13. Objects may acquire an excess or deficiency of charge by

a. Electric force b. Heating c. Striking d. By rubbing

14. Coulomb’s law is only applicable for

a. Big charges b. Small charges c. Point charges d. Any charges

15. The force per unit charge is known as

a. Electric flux b. Electric potential c. Electric intensity d. Electric current

16. Electric field intensity is also known as

a. Electric potential b. Electric flux c. Potential gradient d. None

17. A basic technique when applying gauss’s law is to

a. Assume the field is constant in direction
b. Assume the field is constant is magnitude
c. Assume the field is constant in both magnitude and direction
d. Construct and imaginary surface about the charge


18. The work done in moving a charge along an equipotential surface is
a. Depends on the path taken b. Greater than zero
c. Equal to zero d. Negative

19. In the region where the electric field is zero, the electric potential is always
a. Positive b. Negative c. Constant d. Zero

20. The electric intensity is expressed in unit of N/C or

a. Volts b. Walt c. Joules d. V/m

21. The energy stored in the capacitor is

a. ½ CV2 b. ½ C2V c. ½ QV2 d. ½ Q2V

22. A charge of 0.01 C accelerated through a p.d of 1000 V acquires K.E.

a. 10 J b. 100 J c. 200 J d. 400 eV

23. If the charge on the particle is double then electric field is

a. Half b. Double c. Unchanged d. None

24. The electric potential at a point of distance 1 m from 2 µC charge is

a. 1.8 x 106 V b. 1.8 x 106 N/C c. 1.8 x 104 V d. 1.8 x 105 V

25. Capacity of a capacitor depends upon

a. Size of plate b. Distance b/w plates
c. Nature of dielectric between plates d. All of above

26. The area of plates of 1 farad capacitor separated 8.85 mm placed in the air is
a. 109 m2 b. 105 m2 c. 10-9 m2 d. 10-15 m2

27. The equation for the Stokes law is

a. 6πηrv b. 6ηrv c. 6 rv d. 8πηrv

28. A capacitor acts as blocking elements when applied signal is

a. A.C. b. D.C. c. Digital d. None

29. Inkjet printers works on the principle of

a. Electrostatic b. Electro dynamics c. Electro magnetism d. Electronics

30. The surface consider for gauss’s law is called

a. Closed surface b. Spherical surface c. Gaussian surface d. None

31. One giga electron volt

a. 106 eV b. 109 eV c. 1012 eV d. 1015 eV

32. Gravitational force does not depends on

a. Force b. Masses c. Distance d. Medium

33. Charge to mass ratio was firsts found by

a. Millikan b. J.J. Thomson c. Newton d. None

34. The medium used b/w the plates of capacitor is called

a. Polarization b. Dielectric c. Insulators d. Medium

35. The automobiles wind shield wipers works on

a. Electricity b. Cell
c. Charging and discharging of capacitor d. None

36. Selenium is a conductor material which when exposed to ________

a. Light b. Dark
c. Monochromatic light d. None of these

37. When capacitors are connected in parallel the net capacitance will
a. Increase b. Decrease c. Constant d. None


38. When two capacitors of same capacitance are connected in parallel and then in service, the capacitance
in these two cases are in ratio of
a. 1:4 b. 4:1 c. 6:1 d. 1:2

39. S.I. unit of permittivity of free space is

a. Farad b. Weber c. C2/N.m2 d. C2/N.m

40. A capacitors may be considered as a device for

a. Storing energy b. Increasing resistance
c. Decreasing resistance d. None

41. If a 10 µF and 2000 µF capacitors are connected in parallel the net capacitance will be
a. 6.7 µF b. 1990 µF c. 2010 µF d. None

42. A method for charging a conductor without bringing a charge body in contact with it is called
a. Magnetization b. Electrification
c. Electrostatic induction d. Electromagnetic induction

43. The field inside the hollow conductor will be

a. Zero b. Greater than zero c. E = kq/r2 d. Infinite

44. One volt is

a. One joule per coulomb b. One dyne per coulomb
c. One Newton per coulomb d. One watt per second

45. If the potential difference on a surface is equal to zero b/w any two points, then surface is said to be
a. A dielectric b. An equipotential surface
c. Polarized d. None

46. The electric flux through the surface of hollow sphere containing a point charge at its center depends
a. Radius of sphere b. Surface area
c. Magnitude of charge d. None of these

47. A charge of 2 C is in a field of intensity 2 N/C, the force on the charge is

a. 1 N b. 4 N c. 4  N d. 0 N

48. A line whose tangent at each point is in the direction of electric intensity at that point is called a line of
a. Voltage b. Electric force c. Charge d. Potential field

49. A unit of electric charge is

a. Volt b. Henry c. Ampere d. Coulomb

50. Potential gradient is defined as

E E r V
a. b.  c. d. 
V V V r

51. Large CR (Time constant) value has

a. Small time constant b. Large time constant
c. Equal time constant d. None of these

52. A capacitor of 2 μF is connected with a battery of 12 Volts, the charge stored in capacitor
a. 2.5 × 10 -5 C b. 2.4 × 10-6 C c. 2.4 × 10-5 C d. 2.4 × 10-6 C

53. An electric field can deflect

a. Neutron b. x – rays c.  – rays d. α – rays

54. The relative permittivity  r for germanium is

a. 16 b. 17 c. 18 d. 22

55. Xerography means

a. Type writing b. Wet writing c. Dry writing d. None of these



56. A 25 eV electron has a speed of

a. 2 × 106 m/sec b. 3 × 106 m/sec c. 5 × 106 m/sec d. 4 × 106 m/sec

57. If mica sheet is place between the plates, the capacity will
a. Increase b. Decrease c. Remain same d. None of these

58. The force exerted by two charged bodies on one another, obeys Coulomb’s law provided that
a. The charges are not too small
b. The charges are in vacuum
c. The charges are not too large
d. The linear dimension of charges is much smaller than distance between them

59. Coulomb Law is also known as

a. Electrostatic Law b. Force Law c. Inverse Square Law d. None

60. The ratio of Cvac. and Cmed is equal to

1 1 1
a. r b. c. d.
r  o

61. The ratio of the force between two small spheres with constant charges A. in air, B. in a medium of
dielectric constant K is
a. K2 : 1 b. 1 : K c. K : 1 d. 1 : K2

62. The force of proton in electric field of magnitude 106 N/c is

a. 1.6 × 10-15 N b. 1.6 × 109 N c. 1.6 × 1013 N d. 1.6 × 1013 N

63. A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a uniform electric field E parallel to the cylindrical axis.
The total flux for the surface of the cylinder is:
a. R / E c. 2R / E d. 2R E
2 2 2
b. Zero

64. In an inkjet printer the charged ink drops are diverted by the deflection plates
a. Towards the charging electrodes b. Towards the gutter
c. Towards a blank paper on which the print is to be taken d. In inkjet printer ink cannot be charged

65. The constant K in Coulomb’s Law depends upon

a. Nature of medium b. System of units c. Intensity of charge d. Both a & b

66. How many electrons are in one Coulomb?

a. 6.2 × 10-23 b. 6.2 × 10-21 c. 1.6 × 10-19 d. Zero

67. The force between two charges in 8 N. Now place a mica of relatively 4 between two charges as a
medium, the force then reduced to
a. 2 N b. 4 N c. 6 N d. 8 N

68. Selenium is an
a. Insulator b. Conductor c. Semiconductor d. Photoconductor

69. Find the potential at a point, where a charge of 1 × 10-3 coulomb is placed at a distance of 10 m is
a. 1 MV b. 1.9 kV c. 1.6 kV d. 0.15 kV

70. In Millikan’s experiment, we find the e/m for

a. Atom b. Electron c. Proton d. Neutron

71. The charge determined by the Millikan’s experiment is

qvd qvd mgd
a. q  b. q  c. g  d. None
m g v

72. The ratio of electrostatic force to the gravitational force between them is of the order of
a. 1036 b. 1038 c. 1040 d. 1042


73. The magnitude of the electric field on the surface of a sphere of radius ‘r’ having a uniform surface
charge density  is
   
a. b. c. d.
 2   r 2  r
74. Of the following quantities, the one that is vector in character is an electric
a. Charge b. Field c. Energy d. Potential Difference

75. Dielectric has the charge of the type inside it

a. Moving charge b. Static charge c. Both a & b d. None of these

76. The Coulomb’s force between two charges q1 and q2 separated by distance ‘r’ is F. If the separation
between two charges is doubled keeping charges constant, then Coulomb’s force becomes
a. 4F b. F/4 c. F/2 d. 2F

77. The dimensions of relative permittivity are

a. [A2T4ML-3] b. [ML-3A2T4] c. [ML3A2T2] d. None

78. An alpha particle has twice the charge of a proton. Two protons separated by a distance ‘d’ exert a force
‘F’ on each other. What must be the separation between the alpha particles so that they also exert a
force ‘F’ on each other?
d d
a. 2d b. c. 2d d.
2 2

79. The ratio of instantaneous charge and maximum charge on plates of capacitors at t = RC is
a. 36.8% b. 63.2% c. 20% d. 30%




1. If the length and diameter of conductor is double, the resistance is
a. Remain same b. Double c. Half d. Four time

2. The expression for the co-efficient of receptivity is

R R2  R1 R1  R2 R2  R1
a. b. c. d.
Ro  R2  R1 R

3. The reciprocal of resistivity is called

a. Resistance c. Conductivity
b. Conduction d. None

4. One coulomb per second is equal to

a. Joule c. Ampere
b. Volt d. Watt

5. In the metallic conductor the current is due to flow of charge

a. Positive c. Proton
b. Negative d. None

6. Conventional current flow from

a. Positive to negative c. Negative to negative
b. Negative to positive d. None

7. The main source for the current are

a. Two c. Four
b. Three d. Five

8. The drift velocity of electron at 0 oC is

a. zero c. 1 cm/sec
b. Maximum d. 10 cm/sec

9. In the thermocouple the heat energy is converted into

a. Mechanical energy c. Magnetic energy
b. Electric energy d. None

10. An electric heater 220 V, 440 W has a resistance

a. 2 Ω c. 0.5 Ω
b. 110 Ω d. 20 Ω

11. The heating effect of current utilized in

a. Iron c. Fan
b. Tube light d. Motor

12. Mathematical form of ohm’s law is

a. I = VR c. I = R/V
b. I = V/R d. R = IV

13. Ohm’s law is valid for only current flowing in

a. Conductors c. Diodes
b. Transistors d. Electric Areas

14. Through an electrolyte electric current is passed due to drift of

a. Free electrons c. Free electrons and holes
b. Positive and negative ions d. Protons


15. The e.m.f. of two cells can be compared by
a. AVO meter c. Potentiometer
b. Voltmeter d. Galvanometer

16. The post office box is based on the principle of

a. Galvanometer c. Voltmeter
b. Wheat-stone bridge d. None

17. At null point the current through the galvanometer is

a. Zero c. Minimum
b. Maximum d. None

18. A current of 10 A flows in a conductors of 10 Ω resistance for 1 mint the heat produce will be
a. 102 J c. 6 x 103 J
b. 6 x 10 J d. 6 x 104 J

19. The unit of conductivity is

a. Ω.m c. Ω.m-1
b. (η.m)-1 d. None

20. When the bulb is turned on, Ohm’s law is applicable

a. Yes c. May or may not
b. No

21. In series circuit the net resistance is

a. Increase c. Remain constant
b. Decrease d. None

22. Joule law can be expressed as

a. I2 Rt c. IRt2
b. IR2t d. V2/R

23. The graph b/w V and I in case of Ohm law is

a. Parabolic c. Slope
b. Curve d. Straight line

24. Resistance of supper conductor is

a. Finite c. Zero
b. Infinite d. Changes with material

25. The e.m.f. of a cell or battery is the voltage b/w its terminals, when
a. It is closed circuit c. Its internal resistance is zero
b. It is open circuit d. None

26. The S.I. unit of e.m.f. is same as

a. Work c. Power
b. Energy d. Voltage

27. The main type of resistors are

a. Two c. Four
b. Three d. Five

28. In the carbon resistor their value can be find by their

a. Wires c. Color
b. Terminals d. Spots

29. The third band is written in the form of power of

a. 2 c. 8
b. 6 d. 10

30. Tolerance color means

a. Greater c. Greater-less
b. Less d. None


31. If the first color red and 2nd band is green and third band is orange, then value of resistance is
a. 20000 c. 25000
b. 24000 d. None

32. If the tolerance color is gold then it value is

a. ± 2% c. ± 5%
b. ± 4% d. ± 6%

33. A variable resistors is called

a. Resistance c. Amplifier
b. Rheostat d. None

34. A heat sensitive resistor is called

a. Amplifier c. Thermistor
b. Diode d. Conductor

35. The temperature co-efficient of thermistor is

a. Positive c. Zero
b. Negative d. None

36. Thermistor can be used for the accurate measurement of

a. Voltage c. Temperature
b. Resistance d. Heat

37. A circuit, which has only one voltage source, is called

a. Network c. Complex circuit
b. Simple circuit d. None

38. The circuit that has more than one voltage source is called
a. Network
b. Simple circuit
c. Complex circuit
d. None

39. The algebraic sum of all the current at junction is zero, is Kirchhoff’s
a. 1st law c. 3rd law
b. 2nd law d. 4th law

40. The algebraic sum of voltages changes around a closed circuit or loop is zero, is Kirchhoff’s
a. 1st law c. 3rd law
b. 2nd law d. 4th law

41. If the resistance of a certain length wire, diameter 5 mm is 10 Ω if the diameter is charge to 10 mm, then
new resistance is
a. 40 c. 20
b. 5 d. 2.5

42. The unit for the consumption of electrical energy commonly used is
a. J c. kWh
b. Ws d. Wh

43. Heat generated by 40-watt bulb is one hour is

a. 24000 J c. 144000 J
b. 48000 J d. 14400 J

44. The principle of potentiometer

a. P.d  length c. P.d.  area
b. P.d  resistance d. None

45. A fuse is placed in series with circuit to protect against

a. High power c. High current
b. High voltage d. Over heating


46. If the resistor is traversed apposite to the direction of current, then potential is
a. Positive c. Zero
b. Negative d. None

47. When electricity passes through the liquid then process is called
a. Electro late c. Electro-conductor
b. Electrolysis d. None

48. Which one gives pure nature of the material

a. Resistively c. Temperature co-efficient
b. Conductivity d. None

49. Kirchhoff’s 1st law is also called law of conservation of

a. Charge c. Energy
b. Mass d. None

50. The resistivity of copper in Ωm is

a. 1.52 × 10-8 c. 1.56 × 10-8
b. 1.54 × 10-8 d. None

51. The wire used in Rheostat is made from

a. Constantan c. Manganin
b. Nichrome d. Tungsten

52. An ideal voltmeter would have an infinite

a. Current c. Resistance
b. Voltage d. None of these

53. Open electric transmission lines

a. Obey Ohm’s law c. Do not obey Ohm’s law
b. Obey at high temperature d. None of these

54. If three resistances of equal resistance R are connected in parallel, the net resistance will
a. 3R c. 3/R
b. R/3 d. R + 3

55. The fractional change in resistivity per Kelvin

a. co-efficient in resistance c. Resistance
b. co-efficient of resistivity d. None

56. An electric bulb rated at 220 V 140 watt is connected to 110 V power line, the current that flows in it is
a. 1.27 A c. 2.27 A
b. 1.83 A d. 2.83 A

57. Which one is non-ohmic?

a. Diode c. Copper wire
b. Carbon resistance d. Tungsten wire

58. Magnetic effect of current is utilized in

a. Iron c. Measurement of current
b. Thermocouple d. None

59. The unknown e.m.f can be determined by

R l
a. E x  E c. E x  E
r L
b. E x  E d. E x  lE
l r

60. Three two-ohm resistors are connected to form a triangle. The resistance b/w any two corners is
a. 3 / 4 ohm c. 4 × 3 ohm
b. 4 / 3 ohm d. 4 + 3 ohm


61. The resistivity of a material is  . If the area of cross-section of material is doubled and length is halved
then the resistivity of material is:
a.  c. 2 
b. 4  d.  / 4

62. Four bulbs of 10 W, 20 W, 30 W and 40 W are connected in parallel, the bulb that will shine more is
a. 10 W c. 30 W
b. 20 W d. 40 W

63. A source of 200 V provides a current of 10.0 Amperes to a house. The power delivered by the source is
a. 20 watt c. 2000 watt
b. 40 watt d. 200 watt

64. When the battery is connected at its ends, an electric field is set up at
a. Its ends c. Middle
b. Every point d. All of them

65. The value of resistance depends upon

a. Nature c. Physical state
b. Dimension d. All of them

66. Conductance is a quantity used to describe the

a. Physical state of the conductor c. Dimension of the conductor
b. Electrical properties of material d. All of them

67. The resistivity  of Aluminium in Ωm is

a. 2.59 × 10-8 c. 2.63 × 10-8
b. 2.60 × 10-8 d. None of these

68. The resistivity of Germanium in Ωm is

a. 0.7 × 10-8 c. 0.59 × 10-8
b. 0.5 × 10-8 d. None of these

69. The colour code for the colour Grey is

a. 7 c. 9
b. 8 d. 5

70. A zero ohm resistor is indicated by

a. A single silver colour band c. A silver black band
b. A single black band d. None of these

71. Thermo couples convert heat energy into

a. Mechanical energy c. Electrical energy
b. Chemical energy d. None of these

72. An accurate measurement of e.m.f of a cell is made by

a. A voltmeter c. A potentiometer
b. An ammeter d. All of them

73. The unknown e.m.f. can be determined and given by

R l
a. E x  E c. E x  E
r L
b. E x  E d. E x  lE
l r


74. Do bends in a wire affect its electrical resistance?
a. Yes c. Affects a little
b. No d. None of these

75. A 50-volt battery is connected across a 10-ohm resistor. The current is 4.5 A. The internal resistance of
the battery is:
a. 1.1 Ω c. 1.3 Ω
b. 1.2 Ω d. 1.4 Ω

76. A 25-watt and 40 watts bulbs were connected a series to a 220 V line. Which electric bulb will grow more
a. 25 watts bulb c. Both will have same incandescence
b. Neither will give light d. none

77. A 100-watt bulb and a 200-watt bulb are designed to operate at 110 V and 220 V respectively. The ratio
of their resistance is
a. 1 1
1 c.
b. 3
2 1




1. The origin of magnetism is
a.Iron c. Moving charge
b.Steel d.None of these

2. The poles of magnet are similar to

a. Geo poles c. Perpendicular to geo poles
b. Opposite to geo poles d. None

3. A moving charge is surrounded by

a. 2 fields c. 4 fields
b. 3 fields d. None

4. A photon while passing though a magnetic field are deflected towards

a. North pole c. Are ionized
b. South pole d. None

5. Iron is what type of magnetic material, it is

a. Diamagnetic c. Ferromagnetic
b. Paramagnetic d. Non-magnetic

6. Magnetism is related to
a. Stationary charges c. Stationary and moving charge
b. Moving charges d. Law of motion

7. If the angle between v and B is zero then magnetic force will be
a. Max c. Zero
b. Min d. None

8. When charge particle enter perpendicular to magnetic field, the path followed by it is
a. A helix c. Straight line
b. A circle d. Ellipse

9. The S.I. unit of magnetic flux is

a. Tesla c. Joule
b. Weber d. Newton

10. Tesla is the unit of

a. Electric field c. Magnetic field intensity
b. Magnetic field d. Electric field intensity

11. It is possible to set a charge at rest into motion with magnetic field
a. Yes c. Some Time
b. No d. None

12. Current carrying conductor carries current away from you direction of magnetic field with respect to you
a. Away from you c. Clock wise
b. Towards you d. Anti clockwise

13. The shape of magnetic field around a long straight current carrying wire is
a. Electrical c. Varies with current
b. Squire d. Circular

14. One Tesla is equal to

a. 104 G c. 106 G
b. 10-4 G d. 10-6 G


15. The flux through an area of 1 m2 in x -y plane in a magnetic field of 1 T directed along z-axis will be
a. Zero c. 0.5 web
b 1 web d. None

16. The toque in the coil can be increased by increasing

a. No, of tarns c. Area of coil
b. Current and magnetic field d. All of above

17. A current carrying loop, when placed in a uniform magnetic field will experience
a. Electric flux c. Magnetic flux
b. Torque d. Force

18. The magnetic flux will be max, for an angle of

a. 0° c. 90°
b. 60° d. 180°

19. The Weber and Maxwell are unit of measure of

a. Conductance c. Magnetic flux
b. Electric current d. Electric flux

20. One weber is equal to

a. N.A2/A c. N.A/m
b. N.m2/A d. N.m/A

21. An electron moves at 2 x 102 m/sec perpendicular to magnetic field of 2 T what is the magnitude of
magnetic force
a. 1 x 10-6 N c. 3.6 x 10-24 N
b. 6.4 x 10-17 N d. 4 x 106 N

22. The waveform of sinusoidal voltage, its frequency and phase can be found by
a. CRO c. Transistor
b. Diode d. Radio

23. The force on a charge particle moving parallel to magnetic field is

a. Maximum c. Zero
b. Minimum d. None

24. The presence of magnetic field around a current carrying conductor was detected by
a. H. orested c. Weber
b. Ampere d. Henry

25. Ampere’s law is applicable to

a. Circular path c. To any path
b. Rectangular path d. None

26. The unit of permeability of free space is

a. T.m/A c. T.m/A2
b. T.m2/A d. None

27. The value of  o is

a. 4  x 10-6 c. 4  x 10-8

b. 4  x 10-7 d. 4  x 10-9

28. The magnetic induction of solenoid is

a. µoNI c. µoN
b. µoNL d. None

29. A solenoid of length 500 m is wounded into 100 turns. A current of 10 A flows in it, the magnetic field
intensity is
a. 20 µo c. 2000 µo
b. 200 µo d. None


30. When charge particle enters in the uniform magnetic field, the magnetic force will be balance by
a. Electric force c. Centripetal force
b. Magnetic force d. None

31. The frequency of cyclotron is given by

qb qb
a. f = 2m c. f = 2
qb qb
b. f = 2rm d. f = mr

32. The e/m value of electron is

a. 1.7588 x 1011 c. 1.7588 x 109
b. 1.75599 x 1012 d. 1.7559 x 1014

33. F = Fe + Fm is
a. Electric force c. Lorentz force
b. Magnetic force d. None

34. The main part of C.R.O. is

a. Two c. Four
b. Three d. Five

35. In C.R.O. the deflecting plats are

a. Two c. Four
b. Three d. None

36. The material used in fluorescent screen is

a. Electric c. Phosphors
b. Magnetic d. None

37. The value of restoring torque in galvanometer is

a.   r c.   m
b.   c d. None

38. In the galvanometer the current is proportional to

a. Magnetic field c. Angle
b. Electric field d. None

39. When a small resistance is connected in parallel to the galvanometer it is called

a. Ammeter c. AVO meter
b. Voltmeter d. None

40. To find the shunt resistance we used equation

IgRg IgRs
a. Rs = I  Ig c. Rs = R  Ig

IsRg IsRs
b. Rs = I  Ig d. Rs = I  Ig

41. To convert a galvanometer into voltmeter we connect a resistance in

a. Series c. Series or parallel
b. Parallel d. None

42. AVO-meter is used to find

a. Current c. Resistance
b. Voltage d. All of above

43. An ideal voltmeter has

a. Small resistance c. Infinite resistance
b. High resistance d. None


44. an ammeter can be more sensitive if C/BAN is made
a. Very large c. Unaltered
b. Very small d. None

45. To increase the scale of galvanometer to twice of its initial value we need to connect a shunt
a. Rs = Rg c. Rs > Rg
b. Rs < Rg d. None

46. Which of the following is a hard magnet?

a. Iron c. Steel
b. Nickel d. All of them

47. Ammeter and galvanometer

a. Are always connected in series c. Both in series and parallel
b. Are always connected in parallel d. None

48. The sensitivity of galvanometer is directly depends on

a. Magnetic field c. Number of turns
b. Area of coil d. All of above

49. One Tesla is also equal to

a. web. m2 c. web. m
b. web. m-2 d. None

50. The dot product of magnetic field are area is called

a. Electric flux c. Ampere law
b. Magnetic flux d. None

51. One Henry is equal to

a. V. sec/A c. A. sec/V
b. V. A/sec d. None

52. The S.I. unit of Magnetic Permeability is

a. web/m2 c. web m/A
b. web A/m d. None of these

53. Shunt resistor is also called

a. By pass resistor c. Reactance
b. Specific resistor d. None

54. Synchronization controls of C.R.O. are used to synchronize

a. Frequency c. Voltage
b. Current d. All of them

55. In C.R.O. the anode are at positive potential with respect to cathode is
a. very high c. low
b. high d. very low

56. The e/m value for an electron is

4v 2v
a. Br c. B r
Zv 2v
2 2
b. Br d. B r

57. C.R.O. is same as

a. Radio c. Transistor
b. TV Picture tube d. None

58. Heating a magnet will

a. Weaken it c. Reverse its polarity
b. Strength it d. Demagnetize completely


59. Minimum current require to produced a deflection of 1 mm on a scale at a distance of 1 mm is
a. 0.1 A c. current sensitivity
b. 1 A d. 1 mA

60. 1 weber = _______

a. 106 Maxwell c. 1010 Maxwell
b. 108 Maxwell d. none

61. When the number of turns in a solenoid is doubled without any change in the length of the solenoid its
self-induction will be:
a. Four times c. Halved
b. Doubled d. None

62. The potential difference across the shunt resistor Rs is

V  I g Rs V  ( I g  I ) Rs
a. c.
V  ( I  I g ) Rs V  I g Rg
b. d.

63. In multi range ammeter

a. Resistances of different values are connected in series with galvanometer
b. Different resistances are connected in parallel with galvanometer
c. Some resistances are connected in parallel and some of them are connected in series
d. None

64. The S.I. unit of magnetic permeability is

a. TmA-2 c. Fm-1
b. TmA-1 d. None of these

65. A solenoid is a cylindrical, long and tightly wound coil of wire. When a current pass through it behaves
like a
a. Source of e.m.f c. Electromagnet
b. Magnet d. None of these

66. The brightness of the spot formed on the screen in controlled by the
a. Electron c. Potential
b. Proton d. None of these

67. Due to radial field, a moving coil galvanometer is

a. Comes to rest quickly c. Movement is frequent
b. Magnetic field becomes strong d. None of these

68. A very high resistor Rh is connected in series with the galvanometer in order to convert it into voltmeter
 Rg
a. I
 Rg
 Rg
c. V
 Rg
d. V

69. Magnetic flux passing normally, through a unit area is called

a. Magnetization c. Magnetic flux density
b. Magnetic field intensity d. All of these

70. The relation between Tesla (T) and Gauss (G) is given as
a. 1 T = 104 G c. 1 T = 10-4 G
b. 1 T = 106 G d. 1 T = 10-6 G


71. Couple necessary to produce unit twist is
a. Deflecting couple c. Torsion couple
b. Restoring couple d. None of these

72. In velocity selector method, the velocity of an electron is given by

2V 2V
v v
a. m c. me
3Ve 2 Ve
v v
b. m d. m

73. The beam of the electrons is provided by

a. Ionization of atoms c. Electron gun
b. Photoemission d. None of these

74. The resistance of a voltmeter should have a very high resistance

a. It does not disturb the circuit c. It same the galvanometer coil
b. It draws some current d. None of these

75. The waveform of sinusoidal voltage, its frequency and phase can be found by
a. C.R.O. c. Transistor
b. Diode d. Radio

76. The shunt resistance connected to a Galvanometer to convert it into a desired level current measuring
ammeter is
V Ig
Rs  Rg Rs 
a. I I  Ig
Rs 
I  Ig d. None

77. A vertical solenoid has 200 turns in a length of 0.4 m and carries a current of 3 A in anticlockwise. The
flux density in the middle in Tesla is about
a. 6 10 c. 60 10
4 4

b. 6 10
d. None




1. The induced e.m.f. is produce due to
a. Motion of coil
b. Motion of magnet
c. The rate of change of flux
d. None

2. Induced electric current can be explained using which law

a. Gauss’s law c. Ohm’s law
b. Faraday’s law d. Ampere law

3. In the motional e.m.f. the mechanical energy consumed is converted into

a. Heat energy c. Steam energy
b. Internal energy d. None

4. Generator works on the principle of

a. Torque on rectangular coil
b. Motional e.m.f.
c. Question is wrong
d. None

5. Lenz’s law is consistent with law of conservation of

a. Mass
b. Energy
c. Charge
d. None

6. An inductor is a circuit element that can store energy in the form of

a. Magnetic field
b. Electric flux
c. Electric field
d. None

7. The induced e.m.f. can also be increase by increasing

a. Current
b. Voltage
c. No. of turns
d. None

8. The negative sign with induced e.m.f. is due to

a. Faraday’s law
b. Lenz’s law
c. Ampere law
d. None

9. The best way to find the direction of induced e.m.f. in the circuit is
a. Faraday’s law
b. Lenz’s law
c. Ampere’s law
d. Right hand rule

10. The relation of motional e.m.f. is

a. E=BLV
b. E=qBl
c. E=Blq
d. E=qVB


11. If we increase the resistance of coil, the induced e.m.f. will be
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remain same
d. None

12. The self-inductance may be defined by

 
a. L = c. L =
 / t  / t
  / t 
b. L = d. L =
  / t
13. The mutual inductance between two coils is
a. M = -  /  p c. M = -  /  / t
b. M = d. None
 p / t

14. Inductance are measured by

a. Coulombs
b. Amperes
c. Volt
d. Henry

15. The self-inductance in case of D.C. circuit is

a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. negligible
d. None

16. An over loaded motor draws

a. Max. current
b. Min. current
c. Half
d. None

17. The self-inductance of a solenoid is

 c. L =  nlA 2
a. L =  n 2

  2 n
b. L =   n 2 d. L =  2
 

18. A current of 7 Amp/sec flows a steady rate, through a inductor of inductance 25 mh, what is the induced
a. 3.57 mv
b. 175 mv
c. 350 mv
d. None

19. The energy stored in the inductor is

a. ½ L I 2
b. ½ L2 I
c. ½ L2I2
d. None
20. The energy stored in the inductor per unit volume is
 2 
a. c.
2 0 4 0
  2
b. d.
2 o 4 o


21. What energy is stored in an inductor of 40 mH, when a current of 8 A passing through it
a. 160 mJ
b. 1.28 J
c. 1.6 mJ
d. None

22. Lamination of lamina core of transformer is to decrease its

a. Eddy current
b. Hysteresis
c. Electric resistance
d. Inductance

23. The co-efficient of mutual inductance is equal to

  p 
a.    c.  tp
 t 
 t 
b.   
  p  d. none

24. Mutual inductance is numerically equal to the e.m.f. induced in the secondary coil when the rate of
change of
a. One ampere in secondary coil
b. Magnetic flux
c. Current in one ampere in secondary
d. None

25. Mutual inductance exists

a. Within coil
b. Out of coil
c. B/w two coil
d. None

26. Alternating current changes

a. Its magnitude as well as direction
b. Only direction but not magnitude
c. Only magnitude but not direction
d. None

27. The coil in A.C. generator rotates with rotational speed of 10 rad/sec its frequency is
a. 2 π rad/sec c. 5 / π rad/sec
b. 5 π rad/sec d. None

28. The instantaneous value of A.C. voltage is

a. V = Vo sin 2  ft c. V = Vo sing 2  wt
b. V = Vo sin 2 ft d. None

29. In case of A.C. generator the slip rings

a. Move parallel to coil
b. Are stationary
c. Move along the direction of coil
d. None

30. The induced e.m.f. in A.C. generator is

a. VBL sin  c. NAB sin 
b. NESN sing  d. NIAB sin 

31. In Pakistan the frequency of A.C. is

a. 50 Hz
b. 100 Hz
c. 150 Hz
d. 220 Hz


32. The difference between A.C. and D.C. generator in due to
a. Slip rings c. Slip – chip
b. Commutators d. None

33. Two parallel conducting wires placed closer to each other carry current in the same direction will.
a. Attract each other
b. Repel each other
c. No effect
d. None of these

34. The back motor effect exist in the

a. Generator
b. Mater
c. A.C. Meter
d. None

35. The coil used in the generators is called

a. Commutators
b. Slip rings
c. Armature
d. None

36. The back ward generator is called

a. Electric motor
b. A.C. generator
c. Reverse generator
d. None

37. Electric motor are used in

a. Television
b. Radar
c. Tape recorder
d. All of above

38. The back e.m.f. exist in the

a. Generator
b. Motor
c. Transformer
d. None

39. The principle of transformer is

a. Amperes law
b. Mutual induction
c. Motional e.m.f.
d. None

40. A transformer is a device which step up or stop down

a. Energy
b. Power
c. Voltage
d. All of above

41. The coil which is connected to input is called

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Middle
d. None

42. In the actual transformer, the output is always

a. Equal to input
b. Less than input
c. More than input
d. None


43. A transformer changes 12 V to 1800 V and there are 6000 turns in secondary coil, the no of turn on
primary coil is
a. 40 c. 10
b. 20 d. 2

44. In ideal transformer when p.d. in double the current is

a. Doubled
b. Tripled
c. Halved
d. Same

45. Power is effectively supplied to primary coil of step up transformer by

a. A.C. generator
b. D.C. generator
c. Battery
d. Motor

46. An adopter is an example of

a. Step up transformer
b. Step down transformer
c. For both
d. None

47. The eddy current produced

a. Power loss
b. Heating
c. Both a and b
d. None

48. To overcome the eddy current, the core is

a. Laminated with insulation
b. With magnetic
c. With plastic
d. None

49. For a good transformer the hysterics loop are _______ in size.
a. Small
b. Large
c. Zero
d. None

50. To minimize the heating effect in the transmission lines

a. High current low voltage in used
b. High voltage low current in used
c. Same voltage and current in used
d. None

51. Load is a device which consume

a. Mechanical energy c. Frictional energy
b. Electrical energy d. None

52. Induced e.m.f is

a. Directly proportional to change in flux c. Inversely proportional to change of flux
b. Directly proportional to rate of change of flux d. None of these

53. A transformer is said to be efficient if

a. Output voltage = Input voltage c. Output power = Input power
b. Output current = Input current d. Output energy = Input energy

54. The ratio of e.m.f. of two cells is equal to

2 c.
1 2
b. 1 : 2 d. 2 : 1


55. If a 3 cm of wire is moved at right angle to the magnetic field with a speed of 2 miles/sec and if flux
density is 5 Tesla, what is the magnitude of induced e.m.f?
a. 0.03 V c. 0.6 V
b. 0.3 V d. 10 V

56. When a transformer is connected to 120 volt A.C. it supplies 3000 volt to device, the
current through secondary winding is 0.6 amps and current through primary is 2
amp, the no. of turns on primary is 400. What is the efficiency of transformer?
a. 75% c. 85%
b. 80% d. None of these

57. A.C. and D.C. have same

a. Effect in charging a capacitor c. Effect while passing through an inductor
b. Effect in charging a battery d. Heating effect through a resistor

58. Magnetic compass needle will be deflecting, if it is kept near

a. Static charge c. Semi conductor
b. Soft iron d. Accelerating charge

59. When motor is at its maximum speed the back e.m.f will be
a. Maximum c. Cannot tell
b. Zero d. None of these

60. Non-inductive resistances are used in decreasing

a. Mutual inductance c. Magnetic field
b. Self-inductance d. Heating effect

61. Self induction is greater in

a. A.C. circuits c. Both in A.C. & D.C.
b. D.C. circuits d. None

62. A solenoid is of area of cross section 2.0 cm2 and length 100 cm stores energy. When current of 5.0 A
flowing in it produces B = 0.1 T, then the stored energy is
a. (10-6μo) J c. (10-6/μo) J
b. (10 /μo) J
d. None

63. If the speed of rotation of A.C. generator is made four times of its initial value, the percentage increase in
an induced e.m.f is
a. 100% c. 300%
b. 400% d. None

64. In mutual induction, the mutual inductance of the two coils depends upon
a. Number of turns c. The distance between the two coils
b. Area of cross section of coil d. All of them

65. The devices in the circuit that consume electrical energy are known as
a. Inductor c. Load
b. Capacitor d. None of these

66. The back e.m.f effect in motors changes due to

a. Inductance of coils c. Voltage
b. Current d. None of these

67. In an ideal transformer, the following factors are used

a. Input and output power is same c. Currents are directly proportional to voltage
b. Currents are inversely proportional to voltage d. None of these

68. Radio frequency (R.F.) shielding of a coil means to protect from external circuit
a. Varying magnetic field c. Dust and heat
b. Magnetic field d. Electric field

69. The Jerks are created by the use of

a. Commutator c. Torques
b. Armature d. None of these


70. The application of mutual induction is a
a. Television c. D.C. motor
b. Radio d. Transformer

71. If the e.m.f. across the conductor of length 1m moving with a uniform speed at right angles to a magnetic
field of 0.5 T is 2 V, the velocity of the conductor is
a. 1 ms-1 c. 4 ms-1
b. 2 ms d. 8 ms-1

72. What is the self-inductance of a coil when a change of current from 0 to 2 A in 0.05 sec induces an e.m.f.
of 40 V in it?
a. 1 H c. 3 H
b. 2 H d. 4 H

73. A pair of coils has a mutual inductance of 2 H. If the current in the primary changes from 10 A to zero in
0.1 sec, the induced e.m.f. in the secondary will be
a. 100 V c. 300 V
b. 200 V d. 400 V

74. A copper ring is held horizontally and bar magnet is dropped through the ring with its length along the
axis of the ring. The acceleration of the falling magnet is
a. Equal to that due to gravity
b. Less than that due to gravity
c. More than that due to gravity
d. Depends on the diameter of the ring and the length of the magnet

75. An e.m.f of 0.003 V is induced in a wire when it moves at right angles to uniform magnetic field with a
speed of 4 m/sec if the length of the wire in the field is 15 cm, what is the flux density in Tesla?
a. 0.003
b. 0.005
c. 6
d. 12
e. 2000




1. The A.C. e.m.f. can be represented by the waveform called
a. Sinusoidal
b. Cosine wave
c. Tangent wave
d. None

2. The mean value of A.C. over a complete cycle in

a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Zero
d. None

3. The r.m.s. value of A.C. current in

a. 0.707 Io
b. 0.707 Vo
c. 0.708 Ro
d. None

4. In pure resistive A.C. circuit the voltage and current are

a. In phase
b. Voltage leads the current
c. Current leads the voltage
d. None

5. The waves, which can also pass through the vacuum, are
a. Matter wave
b. Mechanical wave
c. Electromagnetic wave
d. Transverse wave

6. A battery can pass only steady current through

a. Resistors
b. Capacitors
c. Inductors
d. All of above

7. The quality, which is called argument of sine or cosine function, is

a. t b. 2T
c. 2 d. 
 2

8. The unit used for capacitive reactance is

a. Volt
b. Ampere
c. Joule
d. Ohm

9. If the frequency of A.C. in large the reactance of capacitor is

a. Large
b. Small
c. Zero
d. None

10. In case of capacitor, the voltage lags behind the current by

a. 90o b. 60o c. 30o d. 180o


11. If the capacitance of capacitor is 1 µF and the frequency of A.C. is 50 Hz then reactance will be
a. 3184
b. 3190
c. 3140
d. 3150

12. In the pure inductor the resistance is

a. Zero
b. Maximum
c. Minimum
d. None

13. The magnitude of back e.m.f. in the inductor is

 
a.  L c.   L
t t
 p
b.  L d. None

14. In pure inductive circuit the voltage

a. Lead the current by 90o
b. Ledge the current by 90o
c. Remain same with current
d. None

15. The resistance of inductor is represented by

a. XC c. RL
b. XL d. None

16. If the frequency of A.C. is double inductor the reactance will be

a. Half
b. Same
c. Double
d. Triple
17. The average power dissipated in a pure inductor is
a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Zero
d. None

18. The device, which is used, for controlling A.C. without dissipation of energy is called
a. Inductor
b. Capacitor
c. Resistor
d. Choke

19. By increasing the frequency of A.C. through an inductor the reactance will be
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remain same
d. None

20. In case of phasor diagram the vector rotates

a. Clockwise
b. Anti clockwise
c. Remain stationary
d. None

21. In case of phasor diagram the velocity vector is called

a. Null vector
b. Unit vector
c. Phasor
d. None


22. The combine opposition of resistor capacitor and inductor is called
a. Reactance c. Impedance
b. Resistor d. None

23. The S.I. unit of impedance is called

a. Joule c. Ampere
b. Weber d. Ohm

24. When A.C. flow through RC series circuit the magnitude of voltage is
a. V =  R  Xc
2 2
c. V = IR
b. V =  R  X L
2 2
d. None

25. The impedance of RC – series circuit is

a. R = c. V =
b. Z = d. None

26. The magnitude of voltage in case of RL – service circuit

a. V = I R 2  XL2
c. V = IR
b. V = I R 2  Xc 2 d. None

27. The average power in case of A.C. series circuit is

a. P = VI c. P = VI sin 
b. P = VI cos  d. None

28. In equation P = VI cos  , the factor cos  is called

a. Cosine c. Power factor
b. Cos  d. None

29. At what frequency will a 1 H inductor have reactance of 500 ohms

a. 80 Hz c. 40 Hz
b. 60 Hz d. 20 Hz

30. In case of RLC series circuit the impedance of circuit is

a. Z = R2 + Xc 2  X L
c. Z = R 2  ( XL  Xc ) 2

R 2  X L  Xc 2
b. Z = d. None

31. The behavior of resistance is frequency

a. Dependent c. No, response
b. Independent d. None of these

32. At resonance frequency the power factor is

a. One c. Two
b. Zero d. Three

33. The frequency at which XL is equal to XC in called

a. Resonance frequency c. Non-frequency
b. Threshold frequency d. None

34. At resonance frequency the impedance of A.C. series circuit is

a. Maximum c. Cannot explain by give data
b. Minimum d. None

35. In parallel circuit of A.C. there will be maximum

a. Power c. Impedance
b. Voltage d. None


36. The electrical oscillators are used in
a. Metal detectors c. Diode
b. Amplifier d. None

37. The current which is produce due to changing electric flux is called
a. Displacement current c. Eddy current
b. Conduction current d. None

38. The fundamental requirement for the generation of electromagnetic wave is

a. Oscillation of electric charge c. Motion of electron
b. Motion of electric charge d. None

39. The speed of light was found by formula

1 c. c = 2  rt
a. c =
o o
b. c = s/t d. None

40. The super position of sonic wave on EM waves that causes a change in vertical shape of EM waves is
a. Frequency Modulation c. No, effect
b. Amplitude Modulation d. None

41. For the reception of electromagnetic wave we use a variable

a. Resistor c. Inductor
b. Capacitor d. None

42. A.M. stands for

a. Amplitude Modulation c. Accurate Measurement
b. Applied Metal d. None

43. F.M. stands for

a. Frequency Modulation c. Frequency Member
b. Frequency Metal d. None

44. The process of combing the low frequency signal with high frequency radio wave is called
a. Modulation c. Rectification
b. Amplification d. None

45. Which one gives more quality transmission?

a. A.M. c. S.W.
b. F.M. d. M.W.

46. An A.C. voltmeter reads 250 volts, its peak voltage is

a. 250 V c. 353.5 V
b. 350.5 V d. None of these

47. The types of modulations are

a. One c. Three
b. Two d. Four

48. In A.C. parallel resonance circuit, branch current may be granter then
a. Source current c. Applied voltage
b. e.m.f. current d. None

49. The angular frequency of resonance circuit is

a. W =
b. W =
c. W = LC
d. None


50. Natural or Resonant frequency of an LC circuit is
1 1
LC c.
a. 4 2 LC
b. 2 LC d.
51. What is the self-inductance of a coil in which an induced e.m.f of 2 volt is setup when current changes at
the rate of 4 A/sec.
a. 0.5 mH c. 2 H
b. 0.5 H d. 0.5 volt

52. When coil of high inductance is used for controlling A.C. without dissipation of energy is called
a. Inductor c. Impedance
b. Choke d. None

53. An A.C. choke is a coil consist of thick copper wire, wound closely over a
a. Soft iron core c. Soft iron laminated core
b. Hard iron core d. None

54. The power consumption in A.C. choke is

a. Small c. Zero
b. High d. Maximum

55. The reciprocal of impedance is called

a. Conductance c. Admittance
b. Inductance d. None

56. Which one is prefer for transmission of radio signal.

a. X – rays c. Larger than infra red
b. Infra red rays d. Smaller than infra red

57. Television programs are carried away by

a. Low frequency waves c. Microwaves
b. High frequency waves d. None

58. When a radio station is broadcasting a musical program, the antenna of its transmitter radiates
a. R.F. electromagnetic waves c. R.F. longitudinal waves
b. A.F. electromagnetic waves d. A.F. longitudinal waves

59. An A.C. varies as a function of

a. Voltage c. Voltage and current
b. Current d. Time

60. During each cycle A.C. voltage reaches its peak value
a. One time c. Four times
b. Two times d. None of these

61. At resonance, the value of the power factor in an LCR series is

a. Zero c. 1
b. ½ d. Not defined

62. In an LCR circuit, if V is the effective value of the applied voltage, VR is the voltage across R, VL is the
effective voltage across L, VC is the effective voltage across C, then:
a. V = VR + VL + VC c. V2 = VR2 + (VL – VC2)
2 2 2
b. V = VR + VL + VC 2
d. V2 = VL2 + (VR – VC)

63. The alternating current transmission for long distances has

a. Expensive c. Sometimes Both a and b
b. Low cost d. None of these

64. At high frequency the reactance of the capacitor is

a. Low c. Very large
b. Large d. None of these


65. The behaviour of resistance is frequency
a. Dependent c. No response
b. Independent d. None of these

66. In an inductor the phase difference between the current and voltage is
a. Current lags voltage by 90° c. Current leads voltage by 90°
b. Voltage lags current by 180 d. None of these

67. The combined effect a resistance R, an inductance L, a capacitance C is known as

a. Resistance c. Impedance
b. Reactance d. None of these

68. The condition of resonance reached when

a. XC > XL c. XL = XC
b. XL < XC d. None of these

69. The phase difference between coils of three phase A.C. is

a. 60° c. 90°
b. 45° d. 120°

70. Since there are three coils, the generator has the terminals
a. Two c. Six
b. Four d. Eight

71. Modulation is the process in which

a. Amplitude is change c. Both a & b
b. Frequency is change d. None of these

72. The frequency of modulated carrier waves is lowest when signal amplitude is
a. Maximum negative value c. Amplitude zero
b. Maximum positive value d. None of these

73. In a FM broadcast in VHF band channel width is

a. 75 c. 88
b. 25 d. 200

74. Find the impedance of an A.C. circuit when the current flowing in it is 100 mA and 10 volts are applied to
the circuit.
a. 500 Ω c. 23 Ω
b. 100 Ω d. 20 Ω

75. How many times per second will an incandescent lamp reach maximum brilliance when connected to a
50 Hz source?
a. 50 times c. 200 times
b. 100 times d. None of these

76. The peak value of sinusoidal voltage in an A.C. circuit is 50 V. The rms value of voltage is roughly equal
a. 70 V c. 35 V
b. 40 V d. 45 V

77. The magnetic field intensity at appoint due to rate of change of electric flux is
1  B     e
a. B  c. B  
2 r t 2 r t
1  e 1 t
b. B  d. B 
2 r t 2 r  e

78. In RLC series A.C. circuit, when XL = XC then impedance is

a. Minimum c. Zero
b. Maximum d. None




1. Which of the following substances possesses the highest elasticity?
a. Rubber b. Steel c. Glass d. Copper

2. What is the S.I. unit of modules of elasticity of substances?

a. Nm-2 b. Jm-2 c. Nm-1 d. Being number, it has no unit

3. What are the dimensions of stress?

a. MLT-2 b. ML-2T-1 c. ML-1T-2 d. ML0T-1

4. Which one of the following physical quantities does not have the dimensions of force per unit?
a. Stress b. Strains c. Young’s modulus d. Pressure

5. A rubber cord of cross-sectional area 2 cm2 has a length of 1m. when a tensile force of 10 N is applied,
the length of the cord increases by 1 cm. what is the young’s modules of rubber?
a. 2 x 108 Nm-2 b. 5 x 106 Nm-2 c. 0.5 x 10-6 Nm-2 d. 0.2 x 10-6 Nm-2

6. A wire of length L is stretched by a length L when a force F is applied at one end. If the elastic limit is not
exceeded, the amount of energy stored in the wire is _____________
a. FL b. ½ (FL) c. FL2/L d. ½ FL2/L

7. When a force is applied at one end an elastic wire, it produce a strain E in the wire If “y” is Young’s
modulus of the material of the wire, the amount of energy stored per unit volume of the wire is given by:
a. YE b. ½ YE c. YE2 d. ½ YE2

8. A wire, suspended vertically from one end, is stretched by attaching a weight of 20 N to the lower end.
The weight stretches the wire by 1 mm. how much energy is gained by the wire?
a. 0.01 J b. 0.02 J c. 0.04 J d. 1.0 J

9. A certain stress applied to an elastic material produces a certain strain in it. If the elastic limit is not
exceeded, the energy gained per unit volume of the material is given by_________
a. stress/strain b. ½ (stress × strain) c. stress x strain d. 2 (stress x strain)

10. A uniform steel wire of length 4 m and area of cross section 3 x 10-6 m2 is extended by 1 mm by the
application of a force. If the Young’s modulus of steel is 2 x 1011 Nm-2, the energy stored in the wire is:
a. 0.025 J b. 0.050 J c. 0.075 J d. 0.100 J

11. The ratio stress to strains in young’s modules of the materials then tension is _______
a. Directly proportional to extension b. Directly proportional to strains
c. Directly proportional square of amplitude d. Inversely proportional to extension

12. Materials that undergo plastic deformation before breaking are called ___________
a. Brittle b. Ductile c. Amorphous d. Polymers

13. A wire is stretched by a force F, which causes an extension 1 and the energy stored in wire is ½ FL only
if _________
a. The extension of the wire is proportional to the force applied.
b. The weight of the wire is negligible
c. The wire is not stretched beyond its elastic limit
d. The cross sectional area of the wire remains constant

14. Formation of large molecule by joining small molecules is __________

a. Fusion b. Polymerization c. Crystallization d. Subtraction

15. Any alteration produced in shapes, length or volume when a body is subjected to same internal force is
a. Stiffness b. Ductility c. extension d. deformation


16. The energy band occupied by the valence electrons is called ________
a. Energy state b. Valence band c. Negative energy state d. Conduction band

17. The Curie temperature is that at which ______

a. Semi conductor becomes conductors
b. Ferromagnetic becomes paramagnetic
c. Paramagnetic becomes diamagnetic
d. Metal becomes super conductor

18. A ferromagnetic will become fully magnetized at _______

a. High voltage A.C. b. Low voltage A.C.
c. Alternating current at its peak value d. D.C. current is peak value

19. Coercion force is the force which opposes

a. Demagnetization b. Breakage c. Extension d. Surface cracking

20. Materials in which valence electrons are tightly bound to their atoms at low temperature are called _____
a. Semiconductors
b. Super conductors
c. Insulators
d. Conductors

21. The bulk properties of materials such as their mode of fracture, can be related to their
a. Polymerization b. Cleavage c. Microstructure d. Dislocation

22. The angular position of cells remains the same for a sample of a crystal this property is called
a. Isotropy b. Cleavage c. Homogeneity d. The external symmetry of form

23. The breaking of a crystal along definite direction is called

a. Cleavage b. Symmetry c. Isotropy d. Homogeneity

24. If the density of atoms remains the same along any direction in a crystal is called
a. Symmetry b. Homogeneity c. Isotropy d. Clearage

25. In simple cube, one atom or molecule leis at its

a. Four corners b. Nine corners c. Eight corners d. Six corners
26. The band theory of solids explains satisfactorily the nature of
a. Electrical insulators alone b. Electrical conductors alone
c. Electrical semi conductors alone d. All of the above

27. A vacant or partially filled band is called _____

a. Conduction band b. Valence band c. Forbidden band d. Empty band

28. A completely filled band is called _______

a. Conduction band b. Valence band c. Forbidden band d. Core band

29. The electrons in conduction band are free to ___________

a. Transport vibrations b. Transport signals c. Transport charge d. Transport impulses

30. Which one has the greatest energy gap _______

a. Semi-conductors b. Conductors c. Metals d. Non-metals

31. Many of the semi conductors are crystals of the type ________
a. Face centered cubic b. Body centered cubic
c. Simple cubic d. All of the above

32. With increase in temperature, the electrical conductivity of intrinsic semi conductors ______
a. Decreases b. Increases c. Remain the same d. First increases, then decreases

33. Holes can exists in_________

a. Conductors b. insulators c. semi conductors d. all of the above

34. In a semiconductors, the charge carriers are __________

a. Holes only b. Electrons only c. Both of these d. All of the above


35. The net charge on N-type material is ________
a. Positive b. Negative c. Both a & b d. Neutral

36. Very weak magnetic fields are detected by _____

a. Squids b. Magnetic resonance imaging
c. Magnetometer d. Oscilloscope

37. Energy needed to magnetic and demagnetize is represented by

a. Hysterics curve b. Hysterics loop area
c. Hysterics loop d. Straight line

38. Pentavalent impurities are called

a. Donor impurities b. Acceptor impurities
c. Sometimes donor and sometimes acceptors d. None of these

39. Minority carriers in N-type materials are

a. Electrons b. Protons c. Neutrons d. Holes

40. According to free electron theory the only energy possessed by electron is
a. Kinetic Energy b. Potential Energy c. Gravitational d. Electrical

41. The area under stress – strain graph is

a. Power b. Energy c. Momentum d. Impulse

42. Polymers are usually

a. Organic compounds b. Non-organic compounds
c. Acidic d. Alkaline

43. The resistance against any distortion by solid is

a. Toughness b. Ductility c. Stiffness d. None

44. Solid material that are brittle are

a. Toughness b. Ductile c. Stiffness d. None

45. The temperature at which conductors lose its resistivity is called

a. Supper temperature b. Kelvin temperature c. Critical temperature d. None

46. The magnetic domains are the small regions of the order of
a. Millimeter b. Micrometer c. Micron d. None

47. A bullet train move with max the speed of

a. 400 km/hr b. 450 km/hr c. 500 km/hr d. 550 km/hr

48. The first supper conductor was discovered by

a. Fermi b. Kimberling c. Weinberg d. None

49. Examples of brittle substances are

a. Glass b. Copper c. Lead d. None

50. Polymers have chemical combination with

a. Carbon b. Nitrogen c. Hydrogen d. All of them

51. Crystalline solids are also

a. Metals b. Ionic compounds c. Ceramics d. All of them

52. Young’s Modulus for copper is

a. 25 b. 55 c. 100 d. 110

53. When an atom is isolated its energy levels are

a. Distinct b. Very close c. Very very close d. None

54. The valence energy band can never be

a. Filled b. Partially filled c. Empty d. None of these


55. When semiconductor is doped by trivalent, it has
a. More electrons b. More holes c. Positive charge d. Negative charge

56. The field of long bar magnet is like a

a. Solenoid b. Torpid c. Pieces of magnet d. None

57. The curie temperature of Iron is

a. 600 oC b. 650 oC c. 700 oC d. 750 oC

58. The examples of diamagnetic are

a. Water b. Copper c. Antimony d. All of them

59. Strain is dimensionless and has

a. Units b. No units c. S.I. units d. None

60. How many types of strain are there

a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

61. The ability of a material to be hammered, pressed, bent, rolled, cut, stretched into useful shape is
a. Toughness b. Ductility c. Stiffness d. None

62. The Young modulus of elasticity is Y. If the forces is increased such that the extension produced
becomes double of its initial value then Young Modulus is
a. Double b. Halved c. Unchanged d. None

63. A hydraulic press contains 0.25 m3 oil of bulk modulus 5.0 × 107 Pa. The change in volume of oil when
subjected to pressure increase of 1.6 × 107 Pa is
a. – 8.0 × 10-4 m3 b. 4.0 × 10-4 m3
c. 2.0 × 10-4 m3 d. 10-4 m3

64. The resistivities of conductors, semiconductors and insulators are of the respective orders of
a. 108 Ω.m, 10-4 Ω.m b. 10-4 Ω.m, 104 Ω.m, 108 Ω.m
c. 10-4 Ω.m, 108 Ω.m, 104 Ω.m d. 104 Ω.m, 10-4 Ω.m, 108 Ω.m

65. Diamagnetic needle when placed between the poles of a magnet align itself in the direction
a. Parallel to B b. Anti parallel to B c. Perpendicular to B d. None

66. Crystalline solids are also

a. Metals b. Ionic compounds c. Ceramics d. All of them

67. With the rise of temperature the amplitude of atoms

a. Slow down b. Fixed c. Increases d. None of these

68. Crystal lattice is a repetition of

a. Atoms b. Molecules c. Unit cell d. All of them

69. Polymers have chemically combinations with

a. Carbon b. Nitrogen c. Hydrogen d. All of them

70. If the stress increased on a material is beyond the yield strength of the material is called
a. Plasticity b. Elasticity c. Still in elasticity d. None of these

71. Examples of brittle substances are

a. Glass b. Copper c. Lead d. None of these

72. Semiconductor materials have the conductivities generally lies between

a. 10-5 to 10-6 (Ω.m)-1 b. 10-6 to 10-4 (Ω.m)-1
c. 10-7 to 10-3 (Ω.m)-1 d. None of these

73. The electrons occupying the outermost shell of an atom and the electrons occupying in the energy band
are called
a. Energy band b. Valence band
c. Forbidden energy band d. None of these


74. Conductors are those materials in which the free electrons
a. Very large b. Very small c. Plenty of d. None of these

75. Doping is the process in which the small amount of impurity is added into the pure semiconductor lattice
in the ratio
a. 1 to 103 b. 1 to 104 c. 1 to 105 d. 1 to 106

76. The technological uses of super conductors are

a. MRI b. Magnetic levitation trains
c. Faster computer chips d. All of them

77. The magnetism produced by electrons within an atom is due to

a. Spin motion b. Orbital motion c. Both of these d. None of these

78. The combination of solenoid and a specimen of iron inside it make a powerful magnet called
a. Horse shoe magnet b. Bar magnet c. Electromagnet d. 10-10 to 1018

79. In the phenomenon of hysteresis, the magnetism and magnetizing current behaves as
a. 1 lags b. 1 leads B
c. 1 & B becomes equal d. None of these

80. A current which demagnetize the material completely is called

a. Applied current b. Coercive current c. Maximum current d. None of these

81. The energy need to magnetize and demagnetize the specimen during the each cycle of magnetizing
current is
a. Value of current b. Value of demagnetizing current
c. Value of magnetic flux density d. Area of the loop

82. The strain energy density is given by

1 1
a. U  ( Stress  Strain ) b. U  ( Stress  Strain )
2 3
c. U  Stress  Strain d. U  ( Stress  Strain ) 3

83. When the conductivity of a semiconductor is only due to breaking of the covalent bonds, the
semiconductor is called
a. Donor b. Acceptor c. Intrinsic d. Extrinsic

84. What is the S.I. unit of magnetic permeability?

a. Ampere per meter b. Ampere meter
c. Henry per meter d. Being a dimensionless number, it has no unit




1. A semi – conductor can be used as a rectifier because
a. It has low resistance to current flow when forward biased
b. It has high resistance to current flow when reversed biased
c. It has low resistance to current flow when forward biased and high resistance when reversed biased.
d. None of the above

2. In half ware rectification, the output D.C. voltage is obtained across the load for
a. The positive half cycle of input A.C.
b. The negative half cycle of input A.C.
c. The positive and negative half cycles of input A.C.
d. Either positive or negative half cycle of input A.C.

3. A bridge rectifier is preferable to an ordinary two diodes full ware rectifies because
a. It uses four diodes b. Its transforms has no counter tap
c. It needs much smaller transformer d. It has higher safety factor

4. The color of light emitted by LED depends on

a. Its forward biased b. Its reversed biased
c. The amount of forward current d. The type of semi conductor material used

5. A PN junction photodiode is
a. Operated in forward direction b. Operated in reversed direction
c. A very fast photo detector d. Dependent on thermally generated minority carriers

6. The emitter of a transistor is generally doped the heaviest because it

a. Has to dissipate maximum power b. Has to supply the charge carriers
c. Is the first region of transistor d. Must possess law resistance

7. For proper working of a transistor in normal circuits

a. Emitter base junction is reversed biased, collector base junction is forward biased
b. Emitter base junction is forward biased and collector base junction is forward biased
c. C-B junction is reversed biased, E-B junction is forward biased
d. C-B junction is reversed biased and E-B junction is reversed biased

8. In a properly biased NPN transistor most of the electrons from the emitter
a. Recombine with holes in the base b. Recombine in the emitter itself
c. Pass through the base to the collector d. Are stopped by the junction barrio

9. The current gain of a transistor is given by

a. E
b. B c.
d. E

10. When the E-B junction of a transistor is reversed – biased, collector current
a. Is reversed b. Increased c. Decreased d. Stops

11. An op-AMP has

a. Infinite AV b. Infinite Ri c. Zero Ro d. All the above

12. An inverting amplifier has Rf = 2mл and Ri = 2Kл, its scalar factor is
a. 1000 b. -1000 c. 10-13 d. -10-6

13. A diode characteristic curve is a graph between

a. Current and time b. Voltage and time
c. Voltage and current d. Forward voltage and reverse current


14. A NOR Gate is ON only when all its input are
a. ON b. OFF c. Positive d. High

15. A logic gate is an electronic circuit which

a. Makes logic decision b. Work on binary algebra
c. Alternates between 0 and 1 d. None of these

16. In positive logic, logic state 1 correspond to

a. Positive voltage b. Higher voltage level
c. Zero voltage level d. Lower voltage level

17. The output of a 2-input OR gate is zero only when its

a. Both input are zero b. Either input is 1 c. Both input are 1 d. Either input is 0

18. An XOR gate produces an output only when its two inputs are
a. High b. Low c. Different d. Same

19. An AND Gate

a. Implement logic addition b. Is equivalent to a series switching circuit
c. Is any or all gate d. Is equivalent to a parallel switching circuit

20. The only function of a NOT gate is to

a. Stop a signal b. Re-complement a signal
c. Invert an input signal d. Acts as a universal gate

21. A NOR gate is ON only when all its input are

a. ON b. OFF c. Positive d. High

22. Which of the following are electromagnetic waves

a. Sound waves b. Water waves c. Light waves d. Waves along a stretched string

23. The EM waves travel is free space with the velocity

a. Equal to the velocity sound b. Equal to the velocity light
c. More than the velocity of light d. Less than the velocity of light

24. A changing electric flux develops in the surrounding space

a. An electric field b. A magnetic field
c. An electromotive force d. Gravitational field

25. EM waves transport

a. Matter b. Wavelength c. Energy d. Charge

26. Waves emitted from the antenna are

a. Longitudinal waves b. EM waves c. Sound waves d. Radio waves

27. EM waves emitted from antenna are

a. Stationary b. Longitudinal c. Transverse d. All of the above

28. The waves from the antenna are

a. Expanding plane wave fronts b. Concentric spheres
c. Expanding curves d. None of the above

29. EM waves have frequency of the range of

a. 104 Hz b. 105 Hz c. 106 Hz d. 1012 Hz

30. Maxwell derived mathematically that velocity of EM-waves is

I I o I
o uo uo  o uo
a. b. c. d.

31. A junction between P and N materials forms

a. A rectifier b. An amplifier c. A semi conduction d. An oscillator


32. The forward current through a semiconductor diode circuit is due to
a. Minority carriers b. Majority carriers c. Holes d. Electrons

33. The device used for conversion of A.C. into D.C. is

a. An oscillator b. A detector c. An amplifier d. A rectifier

34. A photo diode is a semi conductor device usually made from

a. Bismuth b. Arsenic c. Antimony d. Silicon-dioxide

35. Specially designed semi conductor diodes used as fast counters in electronic circuits are
a. Photo diodes b. LED c. Solar cell d. Photo voltaic cell

36. The specially designed semi conductor diodes used as indicator lamp in electronic circuit are
a. Photo diodes b. Solar cell c. LED d. Photo voltaic cell

37. The term transistor stands for

a. Transfer of current b. Transfer of voltage
c. Transfer of resistance d. Transfer of charge

38. The thickness of depletion region is of the order of

a. 10-7 cm b. 10-6 cm c. 10-5 cm d. 10-4 cm

39. In amplitude modulation, the wave superimposed on EM waves are

a. Water waves b. Sound waves c. Light waves d. Matter waves

40. A junction diode when forward biased behaves as a device of

a. Zero resistance b. Infinite resistance c. Low resistance d. High resistance

41. The P.d across the depletion region of silicon is

a. 0.5 V b. 0.67 V c. 0.7 V d. 0.8 V

42. A Transformer used in rectification acts as

a. Step-up b. Step-down c. Center trapped d. None

43. The ratio of β shows the

a. voltage gain b. current gain c. input resistance d. None

44. The alarm requires a voltage for its activation is

a. low b. high c. Very High d. None

45. What is the gain of op – amplifier if R1 = infinity and R2 = 0 Ω

a. 15 b. 1000 c. 1 d. cannot tell

46. The resistance between positive and negative inputs of op – amplifier is

a. 100 Ω b. 1000 Ω c. 106 Ω d. None of these

47. Photo – voltaic cell have

a. Battery input b. No external bias c. No internal bias d. None

49. In NOR gate 1 + 1 = ________

a. 0 b. 2 c. 1 d. 3

50. Transistor can be used as

a. Oscillators b. Switches c. Memory unit d. All of them

51. NOT gate has only

a. One input b. Two inputs c. Many inputs d. None

52. The efficiency of half wave rectifier is roughly

a. 40% b. 60% c. 70% d. 90%

53. A photo – diode can switch its current ON and OFF in

a. Milli seconds b. Micro seconds c. Nano seconds d. None


54. A transistor is a circuit basically act as
a. Voltage amplifier b. Current amplifier c. Power amplifier d. None

55. Transistor is a device which has ________ terminals.

a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four

56. The Boolean expression X = A + B represents the logic operation of

a. NAND gate b. NOR gate c. OR gate d. NOT gate

57. A diode cannot be used as

a. Rectifier b. Detector c. Oscillator d. Amplifier

58. XOR gate is combination of

a. AND, OR and NOT gate b. NAND, OR and NOT gate
c. NOT, AND and OR gate d. NOT, AND and NOR gate

59. The open loop gain of op – amplifier is

a. Zero b. High c. Very high d. Low

60. The width of depletion region of a diode

a. Increases under forward bias b. Is independent of applied voltage

c. Increases under reverse bias d. None of these

61. A LED emits lights only

a. Forward biased b. Reverse Biased c. Un biased d. None of these

62. In a pn junction, the barrier potential offers opposition to only

a. Majority carriers in both regions
b. Minority carriers in both regions
c. Electrons in n – region
d. Holes in P – region

63. In the use of a transistor as an amplifier

a. The emitter-base junction is forward biased and the collector-base junction is reverse biased
b. The emitter-base junction is reverse biased and the collector-base junction is forward biased
c. Both the junctions are forward biased
d. Any of the two junctions may be forward biased

64. NAND gate is a combination

a. AND gate and NOT gate b. AND gate and OR gate
c. OR gate and NOT gate d. NOT gate and NOT gate

65. The reverse or leakage current of the diode is of the order of

a. Microampere b. Milli-ampere c. Both d. None of these

66. How many diodes are used for the full wave rectification is
a. Two b. Three c. Four d. None of these

67. A photodiode can turn its current ON and OFF in

a. Microsecond b. Millisecond c. Nanosecond d. None of these

68. The base of the transistor is very thin of the order of

a. 10-2m b. 10-4m c. 10-6m d. 10-8m

69. The gain A of the amplifier is

Vin V
a. A  b. A  c. A  V Vin d. None of these
V Vi

70. The positive sign of the gain indicates that

a. Input and output signals are not in phase b. Input and output signals are in phase
c. May be in phase or not d. None of these


71. The electronic circuits which implement the various logic operations are known as
a. Digital gates b. Logic gate
c. Voltage operated gate d. All of them
72. A diode characteristic curve is a plot between
a. Current and time b. Voltage and time
c. Voltage and current d. Forward voltage and reverse voltage

73. In a half-wave rectifier the diode conducts during

a. Both halves of the input cycle
b. A portion of the positive half of the input cycle
c. A portion of the negative half of the input cycle
d. One half of the input cycle

74. The output of a two inputs OR gate is O only when its

a. Both inputs are O b. Either input is 1
c. Both inputs are 1 d. Either input is zero

75. For typical transistor as an amplifier

Vout R Vout
a.  C b. 
Vin Rie Vin

Vout R Vout R
c.   ic d.   ie
Vin Rc Vin Rie

76. The resistance between (+) and (-) of ideal Op-Amp is

a. High b. Low c. Infinity d. Moderate

77. Temperature, pressure etc are converted into electronic information by devices called
a. LEDs b. Sensors c. Vacuum tubes d. None





1. An observer shoots parallel to a meter stick at very high speed (relativistic. and finds that the length of
meter stick is __________
a. Greater than one meter b. Less than one meter
c. One meter d. None of these

2. 0.001 Kg mass will be equivalent to

a. 2.5 GWh b. 25 GWh c. 0.26 GWh d. 250 GWh

3. Which of the following radiations has the greatest photon?

a. TV waves b. Microwaves c. X-rays d. γ - rays

4. Linear momentum of a photon is

a. Zero b. Hf/c2 c. hf/c d. c2/hf

5. The linear momentum of an x-ray photon of wavelength 0.1 Ao is

a. 6.625 x 10-23 NS b. 66.25 x 1023 NS c. 662.5 x 1023 NS d. Data is insufficient

6. Stopping potential for a metal surface incase of photo electric emission depends on
a. The threshold frequency for the metal surface
b. The intensity of incident light
c. The frequency of incident light and the work function for metal surface
d. None of these

7. Select an alternative form of uncertainty principle from the following

a. h/moca b. E. t  h c. mc2 = hf d. any of the above

8. The existence of ether wind was experimentally rejected by

a. Heisenberg Einstein b. Michelson and Morley
c. De-Broglie d. None

9. As the temperature of black body is raised, the wavelength corresponding to maximum intensity
a. Shifts towards longer wavelength b. Shifts towards shorter wavelength
c. Remains the same d. Shifts towards shorter as well as longer wavelength

10. Rest mass of photon is

a. Infinite b. Zero c. Very small d. Very large

11. The name of photon for quantum of light was proposed by

a. Ampere b. Planck’s c. Thomson d. Einstein

12. A photon is a ____________

a. Unit of energy b. Positively charged particle
c. Quantum of electromagnetic radiations d. Unit of wavelength

13. Which one of the following has the largest energy content?
a. 103 photons of wavelength 2 pm (Y-rays)
b. 102 photons of wavelength 1 mm (X-rays)
c. 106 photons of wavelength 50 mm (Infrared)
d. 106 photons of wavelength 200 mm (UV)

14. A transmitting station emits radio waves of wavelength  at power p. if h is plank’s constant C the speed
of light, what is the rate of emission of photon?
a. pc/h  b. hc/p  c. p  /hc d. ph/ck


15. After traveling through a vacuum, a photon of light entering into some transparent denser medium. Thus
the energy of light _________.
a. Increase because wave light decrease b. Decease because speed decrease
c. Remains same d. Increase then decrease

16. In a photo electronic effect, monochromatic light, is incident on a metal surface. If the incident light of
twice the intensity but the same wave length, the kinetic energy of the emitted electron ______
a. Becomes double b. Remains same
c. Becomes half d. First increase then decreases

17. If the wave length of incident radiation is increase in photo emission, then _________
a. The minimum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons increase
b. The minimum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons decrease
c. The minimum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons increase
d. The average kinetic of the photoelectrons decrease

18. If a photon is reflected from the mirror, then the change in momentum of each photon is ________
h h
a. Zero b. 2  c.  d. Ft

19. If n numbers of photon are striking on a metal surface, then the total momentum exerted is ______
nh 2nh
a.  b.  c. Zero d. nft

20. A photon of wavelength 900 mm behaves like a particle of mass ________

a. 5.53 x 10-36 kg b. 0 kg c. 2.46 x 10-36 kg d. 1.84 x 10-44 kg

21. The velocity of particle of mass m of de-Broglie wave length  is ________

2h mSc 2 2mc 2 h
a. m b. h c. h d. m

22. In Davison – Germer experiment, the diffracted proton from crystal shows ____________
a. Particle property b. Wave property
c. Light property d. Quantum property

23. If a diffracted grating is placed in the path of a light beam, it revels ______
a. Wave property b. Particle property
c. Energy particle d. Electromagnetic wave property

24. In electron microscope, electric and magnetic field are used as _______
a. Electromagnetic gun b. Source of electromagnetic waves
c. Deflected charged particle d. Converging source of electrons

25. A three dimensional image is obtained by ______________

a. Electron microscope b. Scanning electron microscope
c. Magnetic imaging d. None of the above

26. The uncertainty in momentum and position is due to its ___________

a. Property of matter and radiation b. Two dimensional motions
c. Emotion of certain wavelength d. Very high velocity

27. For confinement of electron in a box of radius 10-14 m. the electron speed should be ____
a. 107 m/sec b. Not be wave link
c. Be zero d. Should be greater than speed of light

28. The energy radiated is directly proportional to fourth power of Kelvin’s temperature is _____
a. Karl-Wein’s law b. Raleigh jeans law c. Stephens law d. Planck’s law

29. Compton effect proves the _______

a. Photon theory of light b. Deal nature of light
c. Wave nature of light d. Uncertain nature of light


30. Electron moves in the orbit as ______
a. Simple vibratory motion b. Standing wave motion
c. Vibratory motion like up and down d. S.H.M. like sound

31. The mass of an object will be doubled at speed

a. 1.6 × 108 m/sec b. 2.6 × 108 m/sec c. 2.6 × 107 m/sec d. None
32. The anti-particle of electron is
a. Proton b. Position c. Meson d. Neutron

33. The reverse process of pair production is

a. Annihilation b. Materialization c. Fission d. Fusion

34. The decrease in length with speed was explained by

a. Einstein b. Lorentz c. Bohr d. None

35. The famous Michel-son-Morley experiment proves that

a. Light is energy b. Earth rotates about its axis
c. Ether medium does not exist d. None

36. All the motion in this universe are

a. Absolute b. Uniform c. Variable d. Relative

37. On a hot day white clothes are cold because they are
a. Reflective b. Absorbers c. Radiators d. None

38. The radiation emitted by human body lies in the range of

a. Infrared region b. U.V. region c. Visible region d. None

39. The energy emitted is directly proportional to fourth power of temperature is

a. Lummer Law b. Stephen – Boltzmann Law
c. Wein’s Law d. None

40. Wein’s displacement law holds good for

a. Short wavelength b. Large wavelength c. All wavelengths d. None

41. Plank’s theory is hold good for

a. Short wavelength b. Large wavelength c. All wavelengths d. None

42. According to special theory of relatively the 4th variable is

a. Time b. Space c. Speed of light d. None

43. Pair production cannot possible in

a. Air b. Water c. Glass d. Vacuum

44. The wavelength of photon with energy of 16 × 10 -19 J is

a. 12.4 oA b. 1.24 oA c. 124 oA d. None

45. The concept of antimatter was predicted theoretically by Dirac in

a. 1928 b. 1930 c. 1935 d. None

46. The anti-particle of earth is

a. Sun b. Moon c. Black hole d. None

47. The minimum energy required for pair production is

a. 10.2 MeV b. 1.02 MeV c. 102 MeV d. None

48. Photo electric effect for visible light can be obtain from
a. Sodium – Potassium b. Carbon – oxygen
c. Helium – Neon d. None

49. Sound tracks of movies can be controlled by

a. Diode b. Rectifier c. Amplifier d. Photo – cell


50. The relation  MaxT  Contt . is
a. Wein’s Law b. Plank’s Law c. Stephen Law d. None

51. A. H Compton was awarded Nobel Prize in Physics in

a. 1927 b. 1923 c. 1921 d. 1919

52. The life time of an electron in an excited state is 10 -6 sec. What is uncertainly in energy for this time?
a. 2.35 × 10-20 J b. 1.09 × 10-20 J c. 1.05 × 10-26 J d. None

53. The photograph taken by electro-microscope is called

a. Photograph b. Electron micrograph c. Chronograph d. None

54. At stopping potential current passing through circuit is

a. Mini b. Very low c. Zero d. None

55. The value of Wein’s Constant is

a. 2.9 × 10-3 mol .k b. 1.38 × 10-3 m.k c. 3.51 × 10-3 m.k d. None

56. The reverse process of Photo-electric effect is

a. Compton Effect b. Pair-production c. Annihilation d. None

57. If work function is 4.14 eV, the threshold frequency of incident light is
a. 1012 Hz b. 1013 Hz c. 1014 Hz d. 1015 Hz

58. Each quantum is associated with radiation of

a. Intensity b. Energy c. Frequency d. None

59. Louis Broglie give the idea of Matter – wave in

a. 1924 b. 1925 c. 1926 d. 1928

60. A passenger passes a clock with a speed . The time period observed by him is:
3 2 2
a. t  t  b. t c. t  t d. t  t
2 3 5

61. The threshold frequency of metals is 2 × 10-4 Hz. The work function of metal is
a. 13.26 × 10-38 eV b. 13.26 × 10-38 J c. 13.26 eV d. None

62. The wavelength associated with electron moving with speed 5.6 × 106 m/s is
a. 12 nm b. 0.12 nm c. 1.2 nm d. 120 nm

63. The uncertainty in position of electron is 6.63 Ao. The uncertainty in momentum of electron is
a. 10-24 N-S b. 10-48 N-S c. 10-16 N-S d. 10-20 N-S

64. The concept of position is purely

a. Specific b. Relative c. Ordinary d. None of these

65. A quantity 1 is always
a. Greater than one b. Less than one c. Equal to one d. None of these

66. At higher temperature, the body emits long wavelength in the region
a. Infra red b. Ultraviolet c. Far-infra red d. None of these

67. The Steffen-Boltzmann has the value

a. 5.67 × 10-5 Wm-2K-4 b. 5.67 × 10-6 Wm-1K-4
c. 5.67 × 10-6 Wm-2K-4 d. 5.67 × 10-8 Wm-2K-4

68. The energy of photon of radio waves is only about

a. 10-6 eV b. 10-4 eV c. 10-10 eV d. 10-12 eV



69. The stopping potential when intensity is kept constant is

a. Same b. Different c. Both a and b d. None of these

70. The idea of quantization of energy was proposed by

a. Einstein b. Max Planck c. Compton d. None of these

71. Application of photoelectric effect is

a. Photo diode b. Photo transistor c. Photocell d. None of these

72. In Compton effect, the law/laws are conserved

a. Energy b. Momentum c. Both d. None of these

73. The equations of pair production is

a. hf = 2moc2 – KE(e-) + K.E. (e+) b. hf = 2moc2 + KE(e-) + K.E. (e+)
c. hf = 2mo2c2 + KE(e-) + K.E. (e+) d. hf = 2mo2c + KE(e-) + K.E. (e+)

74. Louis De Broglie received Nobel Prize in physics in

a. 1926 b. 1922 c. 1925 d. 1929

75. The high energy electrons penetrate the specimen to reasonable thickness and acquire sufficient energy
due to its
a. Short wavelength b. Extremely short wavelength
c. Long wavelength d. None of these

76. The best optical resolution is made by the microscope is

a. 0.1 μm b. 0.2 μm c. 0.3 μm d. None of these

77. In Compton effect  is always

a. Less than  b. Greater than  c. Equal to  d. None of these

78. Who discovered the idea of Ether?

a. Schrodinger b. De-Broglie c. Michelson & Morley d. None of these

79. Can pair production takes place in vacuum because of conservation of?
a. Energy b. Momentum c. Both d. None of these

80. Which of the following has the same dimension as h/moc?

a. Length b. Time c. Mass d. None

81. Photon ‘A’ has twice the energy of photon ‘B’. What is the ratio of the momentum of ‘A’ to that of ‘B’?
a. 4 : 1 b. 2 : 1 c. 1 : 2 d. None

82. An electron accelerated through a P.D, V has a wave associated with it of wavelength
  2 
a. 12.3 V A b. 12.3 / VA c. 12.3 / V A d. None




1. Ratio of the weight of H-atom to that of an electron is approximately ________
a. 183.336 b. 1836 c. 18360.00 d. 183.60

2. Photon of high frequency will be absorbed when transaction takes place from _________
a. 1st to 5th orbit b. 2nd to 5th orbit c. 3rd to 5th orbit d. 4th to 5th orbit

3. In Hydrogen spectrum, which one of the following series lies in the ultraviolet region?
a. Ballmer series b. Pfund series c. Lyman series d. Brackett series

4. In obtaining an x-ray photograph of our hand, we use the principle of _______

a. Photo electric effect b. Ionization
c. Shadow photograph d. Any of above

5. Excited atoms return to their ground stat in __________

a. 10-10 S b. 10-8 S c. 10-6 S d. 10-9 S

6. When we excite some atoms by heat collusion or electrical discharge, they will ______
a. radiate electromagnetic energy with a continues distribution of wavelength
b. Absorb particular wavelengths when white light is incident an them
c. Radiate electromagnetic energy of discrete characteristic wavelength
d. Emit either invisible or visible light

7. Hydrogen atom does not emit x-rays because __________

a. Its energy level is too close to each other b. Its energy level is too far apart
c. It is too small in size d. It has a single electron

8. Which one of following postulate is in accordance with the Rutherford’s model?

a. Continues spectra for atoms b. Discrete spectra for atoms
c. Either continues for atoms d. No spectrum

9. X-rays are ___________

a. Unknown nature b. High-energy electrons
c. High energy photon d. Radioisotopes

10. Ground state energy of the 4th orbit in a H-atom is ________

a. 13.60 eV b. 3.40 eV c. 0.85 eV d. -1.51 eV

11. Total number of series in hydrogen spectrum is _____________

a. Three b. Four c. Five d. Six

12. The radiations emitted from hydrogen filled discharge tube show _________
a. Bound spectrum b. Line spectrum c. Continuous spectrum d. Absorption spectrum

13. The electric potential energy of an electron is an orbit at a distance from the positive charge ________
a. Ke2/rn b. Ice2/rn2 c. –ke2/rn d. – ke2/rn2

14. Radiation with wavelength longer than red light________

a. Ultraviolet rays b. X-rays c. Infrared radiation d. Visible radiations

15. Brackett series is obtained when all transition of electron terminate on _____

a. 4th orbit b. 5th orbit c. 3rd orbit d. 2nd orbit

16. In an electronic transaction, atom cannot emit _________

a. γ - rays b. Infrared radiation c. Visible light d. Ultraviolet rays


17. Reverse process of photo electric effect is __________
a. Pair production b. Compton Effect
c. Animation of matter d. X-rays production

18. X - rays are similar in nature to _______

a. Cathode rays b. Positive rays c. γ - rays d. α - rays

19. The penetrating power of X-ray depends on their ____________

a. Applied voltage b. Frequency c. Source d. All of the above

20. When X-rays are passed through successive aluminum sheets, what happens to their thickness?
a. In increases b. It decreases
c. Remains same d. Sometimes increase sometimes decreases

21. The penetrating power of X-rays is comparable with that of __________

a. α - rays b. β - rays c. γ - rays d. All of above

22. Quality of X-rays depends upon _______

a. Filament current b. Accelerating voltage
c. Material of the target d. Both b and c

23. Radiation produced from TV picture tube is _________

a. γ - rays b. X - rays c. Far infrared d. Infrared

24. In an X - ray tube, electrons each of charge e are accelerated through V potential difference allowed to
hit a metal target, the wavelength of the X-rays emitted is ____
a. hc/ev b. he/vc c. ev/h d. impossible to predict

25. The minimum wavelength of X-rays can further be reduced by _________

a. Reducing the pressure of cooling the target
b. Increasing the temperature of the filament
c. Using a target element of higher atomic number
d. Increasing the potential difference between the cathode and the target

26. The characteristic X-rays spectrum is due to ____

a. The illumination of the target metal by ultraviolet radiation
b. The bombardment of the target by proton
c. The bombardment of target by electron
d. The absorption of Y-radiation by the target metal

27. The minimum wavelength of X-rays produced by the bombardment of electron on the screen of a TV set
where the accelerating potential is 2.0 kV will be ________
a. 6.2 x 10-10 m b. 9.1 x 10-18 m
c. 3.11 x 10 m d. 4 x 10-10 m

28. Maximum frequency in the spectrum from x-rays tube is directly proportional to the ___________
a. Number of electron i.e. filament current
b. The kinetic energy of incident electron
c. The soft target, which can easily emit electron
d. All the above are correct

29. X-rays are diffracted by a crystal but not by a diffraction grating because ______
a. The ions in a crystal are well arranged
b. The lines in a diffraction grating cannot reflect X-rays
c. The perpetrating power of x-rays is which in a diffraction grating
d. The wavelengths of x-rays are of same order of magnitude as separation between atoms in a crystal

30. UV radiation can be produced by __________

a. Heating the filament b. Ionization of atoms
c. Electron excitation in the gas d. All the above

31. What is the velocity of a particle of mass m and de-Broglie Wavelength?

a. h/mλ b. 2h/mλ c. Mh/h d. (2hc/mx)½


32. Wave like characteristic of electron is demonstrated by _________
a. Line spectrum of atoms b. Production of X-rays
c. Diffraction by crystalline solids d. Photoelectric effect

33. Electron cannot exist in the nucleus; it is confirmed by observing that __________
a. At does emit Y-radiation
b. Its size as compare to proton and neutron is very small
c. No antiparticle of electron is present
d. The velocity of electron must by very high according to uncertainly principle

34. In normal state of energy, the incident high-energy photons will be _________
a. Stimulated b. Absorbed
c. Cause X-rays emission d. Cause laser production

35. In laser production, the state in which more atoms are in the upper state then in the lower one is called:
a. Metal stable state b. Normal state
c. Inverted population d. All the above

36. The meta stable state for an atom in laser light is _____________
a. 10-4 sec b. 10-5 sec c. 10-3 sec d. 10-8 sec

37. In He – Ne laser, the lazing action is produced by __________

a. Ne only b. He – Ne both c. Electrons of He d. Electrons of Ne

38. Reflecting mirrors in laser is used to ________

a. Further stimulation b. Lasing more
c. For production more energetic laser d. All the above

39. The velocity of laser light is __________

a. Less than ordinary light b. More than ordinary light
c. Equal to ordinary light d. Different for different colors or frequency

40. Laser beam can be used to generate

a. One dimensional images b. Two dimensional images
c. Three dimensional images d. None of these

41. X – rays is also known as

a. photon b. γ – rays c. breaking radiation d. none

42. Bremsstrahlung is phenomenon in which the rate of slowing down of electron is

a. small b. large c. very large d. None

43. The value of Rydberg’s constant is

a. 1.0974 × 107 m-1 b. 1.0794 × 107 m-1 c. 1.0974 × 10-7 m-1 d. None

44. The shortest wavelength radiation in Brackett series has wavelength

16 RH
a. b. c. 16 RH d. None
RH 16

45. Bohr’s theory is failed to explain

a. H – spectrum b. He – spectrum
c. Complex atoms spectrum d. None

46. The ionization energy of H – atom is

a. – 13.6 eV b. 13.6 eV c. ±13.6 eV d. None

47. Which one of the following is more coherent?

a. X – rays b. Normal light c. Laser d. γ – rays

48. Sunlight spectrum is

a. Discrete spectrum b. Line spectrum
c. Continuous spectrum d. None


49. Optical pumping exist in
a. X – rays b. Laser c. Spectrum d. None

50. A common He – Ne gas laser contain, He – Ne ration

a. 85 – 15 % b. 80 – 20% c. 70 – 30% d. None
51. The total energy of electron in an orbit around the nucleus is
a. Positive b. Negative c. Zero d. None

52. According to Bohr’s theory, the outer orbit Electron has ________ energy than inner orbits.
a. Greater b. Smaller c. Equal d. None of these

53. The name of electron was suggested by

a. Rutherford b. Chadwick c. Thomson d. Stony

54. X – rays was discovered by

a. Becquerel b. Mari – curie c. Roentgen d. Lane

55. The idea of laser was first introduced in 1958 by

a. Frank – white b. C.H.Towner c. Dr. Gilbert Young d. C.H.Towner

56. The ratio of volume of an atom to the volume of nucleus is

a. 103 b. 106 c. 109 d. 1012

57. The value of Plank’s constant is

a. 6.63 × 10-34 J.sec b. 6.63 × 10-34 J/sec c. 6.63 × 10-34 sec/J d. None

58. Laser is a device, which can produce

a. an intense beam of light b. Coherent light
c. Monochromatic light d. All

59. The total energy of electron in state n = α is

a. Positive b. Negative c. Zero d. None

60. When magnetic field is applied in the path X – rays , they will be moving in
a. Straight line b. Circular path c. Parabolic path d. None

61. With the help of laser beam we can produce

a. Fusion reaction b. Holograms
c. Fragment of kidney stone d. All of these

62. Continuous spectra is an example of

a. Atomic radiation b. Molecular radiation
c. Black body radiation d. None of these

63. Line spectra is an example of

a. Atomic radiation b. Molecular radiation
c. Black body radiation d. None of these

64. The quantized energy of first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is

a. 13.04 eV b. – 13.6 eV c. 13.6 eV d. 13.5 eV

65. Bremsstrahlung are those in which radiations are produced of

a. Long wavelength b. Short wavelength
c. Wavelength in X-rays region d. None of these

66. In LASER principle, a photon produces another photon by the process of

a. Excitation b. De-excite c. Ionization d. None of these

67. Characteristic X – rays are the X – rays which have

a. High energy photons b. Specific wavelengths
c. Specific frequencies d. All of these

68. X – rays can penetrate into a solid matter up to

a. Few millimeter b. Several millimeter c. Few centimeter d. Several centimeter


69. Computerized axial tomography (CAT-scanner) is a system in which X – rays are
a. Maximum through the subject b. Minimum absorptions through the subject
c. Depending upon the subject d. None of these

70. X – rays can cause cancer in living cells due to radiation exposure which is
a. Small b. Large c. Excessive d. None of these

71. In Laser a Meta-stable state is

a. An excite state b. In which an electron is usually stable
c. In which an electron reside 10-3 sec d. None of these

72. The Meta-stable state of Helium and Neon is

a. Different b. Identical c. Nearly identical d. None of these

73. Laser beam can be used for

a. Wilding of detached retinas b. Sealed off capillaries for prevention of disease
c. Destroy tissues in a localized area d. All of them

74. In Balmer series, the shortest wavelength radiations have wavelength equal to
 RH   4   RH 
a.  m b.   m c.  m d. (9 RH ) m
 4   RH   9 

75. The longest wavelength radiations in Brackett series have wavelength equal to
25 16 135
a.  RH b. RH c. d. None
16 25 27 R H

76. The wavelength of X – rays produced due to declaration of electrons is

V e he h V e
a.  b.   c.   d. 
m V e V e h




1. In nucleus of uranium, the number of neutrons will be ___________
a. 92 b. 235 c. 143 d. Different for different isotopes

2. During fusion of hydrogen into helium _______

a. Energy is absorbed b. Energy is released
c. Mass is increased due to energy absorption d. Mass is reduced due to energy absorption

3. One a.m.u is equal to _________

a. 1.66 x 10-27 kg b. 1.66 x 10-25 kg c. 1.66 x 10-20 kg d. All of above

4. According to which one of following law, the density of atom is uniform?

a. J.J. Thomson b. Rutherford’s Model
c. Bohr’s Model d. All of above laws

5. For chain reaction to buildup, the size of the radioactive target should be ______
a. 90 b. Greater than the critical size
c. Less than the critical size d. Equal to critical size

6. Antimatter consists of _____________

a. Antiproton b. Antineutron c. Positron d. All of above

7. Neutron and proton are commonly known as ____________

a. Nucleons b. Meson c. Boson d. Quartz

8. Half life of Radium is 1590 years. In how many years shall the earth loss all his radium due to radioactive
decay ?
a. 1590 x 106 years b. 1590 x 1012 years c. 1590 x 1025 years d. Never

9. Which one of the following radiation possesses maximum penetrating power?

a. α - rays b. β - rays c. γ - rays d. All have equal

10. Electrons
a. Can exist inside the nucleus b. Cannot exist inside the nucleus
c. Can exist both inside and outside the nucleus d. Don’t know

11. Radioactivity is a ______________

a. Spontaneous Activity b. Chemical property
c. Self disintegration property d. Both a and c

12. Energy liberated when one atom of U-235 undergoes fission reaction is ______
a. 200 MeV b. 40 MeV c. 30 MeV d. 20 MeV

13. Transuranic elements have atomic number ____

a. Greater than 72 b. Greater than 82 c. Greater than 92 d. Greater than 102

14. Nuclear force exist between

a. Proton – proton b. Proton – Neutron c. Neutron – Neutron d. All of the above

15. Mass defect per nucleons is _________

a. Binding energy of nucleus b. Packing fraction
c. Average energy of nucleus d. All of above are one & same thing

16. Tick the correct statement

a. Moderator slow down the neutron b. Moderator bring the neutrons to rest
c. Moderator absorb the neutron d. Moderator reflect the neutron



17. The bombardment of nitrogen with α - particles will produce ________

a. Neutron b. Proton c. Electron d. Positron

18. Diameter of an atom is approximately _______

a. 10-12 m b. 10-11 m c. 10-10 m d. 10-14 m

19. Radioactive decay obeys which one of the following data?

a. N = Noe-λt b. N = Noext c. N = Noe-xt/2 d. No = N (Iext)

20. Average energy required to remove one nucleon from the nucleus is called _____
a. Binding energy per nucleon b. Energy of decay
c. Destruction energy d. All of above

21. Fission chain reaction in a nuclear reactor can be controlled by introducing ________
a. Iron rod b. Graphite rods
c. Cadmium rods d. Platinum rods

22. Which one of the following possesses maximum velocity?

a. α - rays b. β - rays c. γ - rays d. All have same speed

23. Charge on an electron was determine by ______

a. Ampere b. Maxwell c. Milliken d. Thomson

24. Charge on neutron is _____________

a. +1.6 x 10-19 C b. -1.6 x 10-19 C c. Zero d. No definite charge

25. A particle having the mass of an electron and the charge of a proton is called
a. Antiproton b. Positron c. Gamma rays d. Photon

26. Mass of neutron is ____________

a. 1.67 x 10-13 Kg b. 1.67 x 10-27 Kg c. 9.1 x 10-31 Kg d. 1.67 x 10-19 Kg

27. Nuclei having the same mass number but different atomic number are ______
a. Isotopes b. Isobars c. Isotones d. Isomers

28. A mass spectrograph sorts out _______

a. Molecules b. Ions c. Elements d. Isotopes

29. Sum of the masses of constituent nucleons as compared to the mass of the resultant nucleus is _______
a. Smaller b. Greater
c. Same d. Sometimes smaller, sometimes greater

30. An α - particle is emitted from 88Ra226. What is the mass and atomic number of the daughter nucleus?
a. 224/84 b. 220/80 c. 222/86 d. 226/87

31. The unit of radioactivity “Curie” is equal to ___________

a. 3.74 x 109 disintegration per sec b. 3.70 x 1010 disintegration per sec
c. 3.55 x 10 disintegration per sec d. 3.60 x 1010 disintegration per sec

32. During fission process, a large amount of _____________

a. Heat energy is released b. Nuclear energy is released
c. Chemical energy is released d. Light energy is released

33. In liquid metal fast breeder reactor, the type of uranium used is _______
a. 92U235 b. 92U238 c. 92U234 d. 92U239

34. Radioactive materials can be identified by measuring their_______

a. Hardness b. Density c. Mass d. Half-life

35. If one or more of the neutrons emitted during fission can be used to build up further fission then the
reaction is self sustained and is known as ________
a. Fission reaction b. Fusion reaction c. Chain reaction d. Chemical reaction



36. Pair production takes place in the vicinity of heavy nucleus so that __________
a. Net energy is conserved b. Net charge is conserved
c. Net momentum is conserved d. All of the above

37. During an encounter with an atom α - particle knocks out _______

a. Protons b. Electrons c. Neutrons d. Nothing

38. The path of B-particle is_________

a. Rectilinear b. Carved c. Zigzag or erratic d. Elliptical

39. Which one of the following radiations are suitable for the treatment of an infection in the interior body?
a. α - rays b. β - rays c. γ - rays d. X - rays

40. Various types of cancer are treated by ___________

a. Cobalt 60 b. Strontium – 90 c. Carbon 14 d. Nickel – 63

41. Sterilizations of surgical instrument, medical supplies and bandages can be done by exposing them to a
beam of _________
a. α - rays b. β – rays
c. γ- rays d. ‘b’ & ‘c’ have equal antiseptic properties

42. Charge on α - particle is _________

a. +1 b. +2 c. -2 d. -1

43. B-particle ionizes an atom ________

a. Through direct collision b. Through electrostatic attraction
c. Through electrostatic repulsion d. All of above

44. TV sets and microwave oven emit ______

a. X - rays b. α - rays c. β - rays d. γ - rays

45. A β - particle in a single encounter _______

a. Loses a small fraction of its energy b. Loses most of its energy
c. Loses no energy at all d. Loses energy at all

46. Strontium -90 is used as _________

a. β - particle source b. α - particle source c. γ - particle source d. Neutrons source

47. The penetration power of β - particle as compared to a-particle is_______

a. 10 times more b. 100 times more c. 100 times less d. 10 times less

48. Geiger counter is suitable for ______

a. Fast counting b. Extremely fast counting
c. Slow counting d. All situations

49. A α - particle can produce fluorescence in ___________

a. ZnS b. Barium Palatino cyanide
c. Calcium tunzstate d. All of above

50. Pair production cannot take place in vacuum as ______ is not conserved
a. Energy b. Charge c. Mass d. Momentum

51. CFC is used in ____________

a. Refrigerator b. Aerosol spray
c. Plastic foam industry d. All of above

52. Average distance covered by α - particle in air before its ionizing power ceases is called its __________
a. Trajectory b. Range c. Firing level d. Limit

53. Which one of the following possesses greater penetrating power?

a. α - rays b. β - rays c. X-rays d. Neutron



54. The most useful tracer is ________

a. Sr -90 b. I -131 c. Ca -41 d. C -14

55. γ - rays are electromagnetic waves like ____________

a. Normal light b. Heat waves c. Microwaves d. X - rays
56. Charge on B-particle is __________
a. +1 b. -1 c. +2 d. -2

57. Why γ - rays are used to kill bacteria, to sterilize surgical equipments etc?
a. Charge less b. Mass less c. Highly penetrating d. All of above

58. B-particle ionizes an atom ________

a. Due to electrostatic force of attraction b. Due to electrostatic force of repulsion
c. Due to direct collision d. Due to gravitational force

59. B-particles possess greater penetration power than that of a-particle due to its ____________
a. Smaller ionization power b. Energy is not conserved
c. Neither greater nor smaller ionization power d. Same ionization power

60. Pair production can take places only with ______________

a. X-rays b. γ - rays c. UV-rays d. IR-rays

61. A device for producing high velocity nuclei is ___________

a. Cloud chamber b. Linear Acceleration
c. A mass spectrograph d. Wilson cloud

62. Which one of the following will be better shield against γ - rays?
a. Ordinary water b. Heavy water c. Lead d. Aluminum

63. The maximum safe limit does for persons working in nuclear power station are __________
a. 1 rem per week b. 5 rem per week c. 4 rem per week d. 3 rem per week

64. Radiations are used for the treatment of skin of a patient is __________
a. α - rays b. β - rays c. X - rays d. γ – rays

65. Strong nuclear force

a. Increase with magnitude of increasing charge
b. Decreases with magnitude of increasing charge
c. Is independent of charge
d. None

66. Complete the reaction

Z X A  X      .......  Q
Z 1

a. Neutrino b. Antineutrino c.  - particle d. None

67. Both Xenon and Cesium each have isotopes

a. 12 b. 33 c. 36 d. 39

68. Marie Curie and Pierre Curie discovered two new radioactive elements which
a. Uranium and Polonium b. Polonium and Radium
c. Radium and Uranium d. Uranium and Plutonium

69. The half of uranium – 238 is

a. 1.67 × 108 years b. 3.3 × 109 years c. 4.5 × 108 years d. 4.5 × 109 years

70. The  - particle ionizes the particles in its way and adopt the path which is
a. Curved b. Straight c. Zig – Zag d. None of these

71.  - particles can be deflected by collisions than the  -particles is

a. Difficult b. Very easily c. Easily d. None of these



72. Neutron interact with materials containing hydrogen atoms and knock out
a. Electron b. Proton c. Photon d. None of these

73. Neutron produces ionization by knocking out proton which is

a. Direct ionization b. Indirect ionization c. Both d. None of these

74.  - rays are absorbed by a sheet of

a. 1 ~ 5 mm of lead b. 1 ~ 10 mm of lead c. 5 ~ 10 mm of lead d. None of these

75. Tracks obtained by  - particles in Wilson Cloud Chamber is

a. Strong Continuous b. Discontinuous, not straight thin
c. Weak and no definite tracks d. None of these

76. The mixture of gas filled in a Geiger-Muller tube at atmospheric pressure at about
a. 0.01 mm of Hg b. 0.1 mm of Hg c. 10.00 mm of Hg d. None of these

77. The quenching of gas by a quenching gas is called

a. Quenching b. Self-quenching c. Forced quenching d. None of these

78. The dead time of Geiger Muller counter is of the order of

a. Micro second b. Milli second
c. More than millisecond d. None of these

79. As the solid-state detector absorbs so less energy of the incident particle and junction become from
surface. Therefore, it is called the detector as
a. Surface contact b. Surface barrier c. Surface dependent d. None of these

80. The solid-state detector operated at

a. Low b. High c. Very High d. None of these
81. The breakage of U produces the fragments as
a. Kr and Ba b. Sn and Mo c. Xe and Sr d. All of them

82. The fuel / fuels used in the reactor are nowadays

a. Plutonium – 239 b. Uranium – 233 c. Uranium – 235 d. All of these

83. The temperature of the core of the reactor rises to about

a. 1000 oC b. 1100 oC c. 1200 oC d. 1300 oC

84. Plutonium can be fissioned by

a. Slow neutron b. Fast neutron c. Very slow neutron d. None of these

85. Ultraviolet radiation cause

a. Sum burn b. Blindness c. Skin Cancer d. All of them

86. Neutrons are particularly more damaging to

a. Legs b. Heart c. Eyes d. Brain

87. Radio isotopes can be made easily by bombardment with

a. Electrons b. Protons c. Neutrons d. None of these

88. Subatomic particles are divided into

a. Photons b. Leptons c. Hadrons d. All of these

89. Hadrons are the particle included

a. Protons b. Neutrons c. Mesons d. All of these

90. Lepton’s particles which experience no strong nuclear force are

a. Electrons b. Muons c. Neutrinos d. All of these

91. The charges on the quarks are

a. One unit b. Half unit c. Fraction d. None of these



92. Meson is made from

a. A pair of quarks b. A pair of anti quarks
c. A pair of quarks and anti quarks d. None of these

93. Fission nuclear reaction leads to a _____ stability.

a. Lesser b. Greater c. Medium d. None

94. If a radioactive isotope of silver have a half life of about 7.5 days. After 15 days the remaining isotope of
its original is
a. 25% b. 50% c. 7.5% d. 15%

95. A nuclide 86 R 220 decays to a new nuclide by two  -emissions, the nuclide S is
a. 84 S 212 b. 82 S 212 c. 80 S 220 d. None


1. The field around a moving charge is called
(a) gravitational field (b) electric field
(c) magnetic field (d) both electric and magnetic field

2. A current carrying wire is placed in a magnetic field. How

must it be oriented so that the force on it is zero?
(a) parallel (b) perpendicular
(c) at angle of 30° (d) at an angle of 60°

3. A straight current wire produces a

(a) circular electric field
(b) a circular magnetic field
(c) magnetic field of the shape of a bar magnet
(d) none of these

4. Of the three vector in F = I (L x B), which pair of vectors

may form any angle between them?
(a) F and L (b) F and B
(c) L and B (d) none of these

5. On changing the direction of L and B, the force

experienced by a current carrying conductor changes its
direction through
(a) 90° (b) 180°
(c) 0° (d) any possible angle

6. The diagram shows a current carrying wire passing

through the centre of a sheet of paper. How do the
strengths of the magnetic field at points X, Y and Z
(a) equal at X, Y and Z
(b) equal at X and Z but
stronger at Y
(c) equal at X and Z but X Y Z
weaker at Y
(d) stronger at X and Y than Z

7. SI unit of magnetic induction is
(a) Weber (b) tesla
(c) gauss (d) henry

8. 1 tesla equals
(a) 1 NA–1m–1 (b) 1 NA–1m
(c) 1 NAm–1 (d) 1 NAm

9. X, Y and Z represent three wires perpendicular to the

paper. Currents in X and Y are into the paper while that in
Z is out of the paper. The resultant force on Y due to the
current in X and Z is
(a) zero X Y Z
(b) in the direction from Y to Z   
(c) in the direction from Y to X
(d) in the direction dependent on the
current strength

10. The SI unit of magnetic flux is

(a) weber (b) weber m–2
(c) weber m–1 (d) tesla

11. 1 weber equals

(a) 1 Nm–1 A (b) 1 NmA–1
(c) 1 NA–1m–1 (d) none of these

12. The relation represents
(a) magnetic field (b) magnetic flux density
(c) magnetic flux (d) magnetic induction

13. Which one of the followings is not a unit of magnetic

(a) tesla (b) gauss
(c) weber (d) weber / ampere metre

14. A charged particle moving in a magnetic field experiences

a force in the direction
(a) of the field
(b) opposite to the field
(c) of its motion
(d) perpendicular to both field and motion

15. On changing the direction of v and B the force
experienced by a charge changes its direction through
(a) 90° (b) 180°
(c) 0° (d) any possible angle

16. When a stream of  - particles passes through the

magnetic field as shown, it is
(a) un-deflected N
(b) deflected towards the south
pole 
(c) deflected towards the north
(d) deflected into the plane of the S

17. A perpendicular magnetic field acts on a moving charged

particle so as to change its
(a) speed only (b) energy only
(c) direction of motion only (d) velocity.

18. The force experienced by a charged particle while passing

through an electric and a magnetic field is called
(a) electric force (b) magnetic force
(c) electromagnetic force (d) Lorentz force

19. A charged particle has been projected in a magnetic field.

The work done by the deflecting magnetic field on the
charged particle is
(a) positive (b) negative
(c) zero (d) meaning less

20. A metallic conductor of area A has n free electrons per

unit volume each carrying a charge and moving with a
drift velocity v. The current flowing through the conductor
(a) nAev (b) nAv/e
(c) nAe/v (d) nev/A

21. A singly charged ion is moving in a uniform magnetic field

of flux density B in a circle of radius r with speed v. The
flux density, which would maintain a doubly charged ion
of the same mass in the same circle at the same speed,
would be
(a) B/4 (b) B/2

(c) B (d) 2B

22. A particle of charge q and mass m entering a

perpendicular magnetic field follows a circular path of
radius r equal to
mv Bv
(a) (b)
qB qm
mB qB
(c) (d)
qv mv
23. A beam of electrons travelling in a horizontal direction is
deflected downwards by an electric field. The beam could
be returned to its original direction by applying
(a) another electric field at right angle to the directions of both
the path of electrons and the original electric field
(b) a magnetic field directed vertically upward
(c) a magnetic field in the same direction as the electric field
(d) a magnetic field at right angles to the directions of both
electric field and the path of electrons.

24. In a cathode ray tube the electrons are produced

(a) by applying an electric field to the x-plates
(b) by heating a metal filament
(c) by ionization of the air
(d) from a fluorescent material

25. A loop of wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field with

its plane perpendicular to the magnetic field. When a
current is passed through the loop, it
(a) experience a torque
(b) remains stationary
(c) experiences a force perpendicular to the field
(d) experiences a force parallel to the field

26. An N turn coil of cross-section area A is placed in a

uniform magnetic field with its plane parallel to B. When
current I is passed through it, the torque experienced by
it is
(a) BIA (b) BNA/I
(c) BINA (d) BIA/N

27. The current sensitivity of a galvanometer is given by the
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
n nC
28. The sensitivity of a galvanometer can be increased by
(a) decreasing the area of the coil
(b) decreasing the number of turns of the coil
(c) increasing the magnetic field
(d) using a fine suspension

29. A dead beat galvanometer is one

(a) which has large sensitivity
(b) which has small internal resistance
(c) which has small full scale deflection current
(d) whose coil comes to rest quickly

30. For accurate measurement of current through the circuit

the resistance of the ammeter should be
(a) large compared to the circuit resistance
(b) very small compared to the circuit resistance
(c) of the order of the circuit resistance
(d) none of these

31. The measure potential difference across a resistance, the

voltmeter is always connected in
(a) series
(b) parallel
(c) some times in series and some times in parallel
(d) none of these

32. A galvanometer whose resistance is 15  and which gives

full scale deflection when the current through it is 0.005 A
has a series resistance equals 985. The combination
forms a voltmeter, which can read up to
(a) 0.075 V (b) 1 V
(c) 4.925 V (d) 5V

33. A milliammeter reading upto 5 mA has a coil of resistance

90 . A resistor of 810  is connected in series with the
coil. This will convert milliammeter into
(a) milliammeter reading upto 45 mA
(b) milliammeter reading upto 50 mA

(c) voltmeter reading upto 4.5 V
(d) voltmeter reading upto 5.0 V

34. A good ammeter is one which

(a) can measure both AC and DC voltages
(b) has a linear scale of measurement
(c) has a very small internal resistance
(d) has a very large internal resistance

35. The coil of a galvanometer is placed in a radial magnetic

field so that its plane
(a) is always perpendicular to the magnetic field
(b) is always parallel to the magnetic field
(c) makes some angle with B.
(d) none of these

36. A galvanometer having 40  resistance and 100 mV full

scale deflection voltage is provided with a shunt
resistance of 0.05 . The maximum current, which this
galvanometer can read, is
(a) 1 A (b) 1.5 A
(c) 2 A (d) 0.05 A

37. When a volt meter is connected in parallel with the two

points whose potential difference is to be measured, then
the potential difference between those two points will
(a) increase slightly (b) decrease slightly
(c) does not change (d) cannot be predicted

38. An a.c. voltmeter always measures the

(a) peak value of a.c. voltage
(b) average value of a.c. voltage
(c) root measure value of a.c. voltage
(d) mean square value of a.c. voltage

39. An avometer is a device, which can measure

(a) current only
(b) voltage only
(c) resistance only
(d) current, voltage and resistance.

40. The 0 of the ohmmeter scale corresponds to
(a) 0 of galvanometer scale (b) ∞ of galvanometer scale
(c) 0 of ammeter scale (d) 0 of voltmeter scale

Key to Test Chapter 14

1 d 21 b
2 a 22 a
3 b 23 d
4 c 24 b
5 c 25 b
6 b 26 c
7 b 27 a
8 a 28 c
9 c 29 d
10 a 30 b
11 b 31 b
12 b 32 d
13 c 33 c
14 d 34 c
15 c 35 b
16 d 36 c
17 c 37 b
18 d 38 c
19 c 39 d
20 a 40 b

1. The induced current is produced in a circuit due to
(a) a source of emf
(b) a magnetic flux
(c) a changing magnetic flux
(d) an electric field

2. Rate of change of magnetic flux linking a circuit is directly

proportional to
(a) the magnetic field
(b) changing electric field
(b) induced emf
(d) induced current

3. The induced emf produced in a circuit lasts

(a) as long as the magnetic flux keep on changing
(b) indefinitely
(c) even after the magnetic flux stops changing
(d) none of the these

4. The current induced in a coil depends upon

(a) the resistance of the coil
(b) the strength of magnetic field
(c) the area of the coil
(d) all of these

5. Which of the following will produce an induced emf?

(a) By changing the magnetic flux..
(b) By changing the area of the coil in the magnetic field.
(c) By changing the orientation of the coil with respect to the
magnetic field.
(d) All of these.

6. When a magnet was pushed towards a solenoid, the

sensitive meter connected to the solenoid deflected to the
right. When the same magnet was pulled away from the
solenoid with the same speed, what was the deflection on
the meter?
(a) The same and to the right
(b) Greater and to the right
(c) Zero
(d) The same but to the left
7. A bar magnet with its N-pole facing a circular vertical loop
is moved towards the coil. The current induced in the coil
flows in
(a) clockwise direction
(b) first anticlockwise and then clockwise direction
(c) anticlockwise direction
(d) first clockwise and then anticlockwise direction

8. If a closed metallic loop is moved across a magnetic field

(a) no current is produced
(b) current is produced in it
(c) magnet will attract the loop
(d) magnet will repel the loop

9. The current produced due to phenomena of

electromagnetic induction is called
(a) positive current (b) negative current
(c) conventional current (d) induced current

10. Identify the phenomena by which an induced emf could be

(a) By moving a conductor across a magnetic field
(b) By rotating a coil in a magnetic field
(c) By moving a magnet across a stationary coil
(d) All of above

11. The induced current can be increased by

(a) increasing the number of turns of coil
(b) by moving the coil faster through the field
(c) by increasing the strength of field
(d) all of the above

12. A rod of unit length is moving at 30° through a 0.5T

magnetic field. If velocity of rod is 1 ms-1 then the emf
induced in the rod will be
(a) 0.25V (b) 0.5V
(c) 1V (d) 0.1V
13. A straight conductor is moved across a magnetic field. The
emf induced in the conductor is because of the
(a) rate of change of magnetic flux
(b) rate of cutting of magnetic flux
(c) Lenz's law
(d) motion of the conductor
14. The motional emf developed in a conductor depends upon
(a) its length (b) its velocity
(c) magnetic field (d) all of these

15. An emf of 0.003 V is induced in a wire when it moves at

right angle to a uniform magnetic field with a speed of
4ms–1. If the length of the wire in the field is 15 cm, the
magnetic flux density in Wbm-2 is
(a) 0.003 (b)0.005
(c) 6 (d) 12

16. A closed circular loop of wire of area 7.8 x 10–3 m2 is

placed so that its plane is at 30° to a uniform magnetic
field changing at 0.01 Ts–1.The emf, in V, induced in the
loop is
(a)3.9 x 10–5 (b) 6.8 x 10–2
(c) 7.8 x 10–5 (d) 1.6 x 10–3

17. Lenz's law

(a) is a consequence of the law of conservation of charge
(b) is a consequence of the law of conservation of energy
(c) relates induced current with induced emf
(d) relates induced emf with the magnetic field

18. The magnitude of the motional emf induced in a

conducting bar of length L moving through a magnetic
field B with velocity v is
(a) E = BvL (b) E = BvL sin
(c) E = vBL cos (d) E = vB/L

19. The mutual inductance between a primary and secondary

is the ratio of
(a) the emf induced in secondary to the emf applied in primary
(b) current induced in secondary to the current applied in
(c) emf induced in secondary to the rate of change of current in
(d) the magnetic flux in primary to the magnetic flux in
20. Mutual induction between two coils depends upon
(a) their size and shape
(b) the separation between the two coils
(c) the orientation of the two coils
(d) all of these
21. For two coils, with all other conditions remaining the
same, the mutual induction will be
(a) maximum when the entire magnetic flux of primary is linked
with the secondary
(b) maximum when the two coils are perpendicular to each other
(c) decreased by a factor µ, if the coils are wound over a
material of permeability µ
(d) independent of the size of secondary

22. The phenomenon of producing emf in a coil due to a

change of current in the coil itself is called
(a) mutual induction (b) mutual inductance
(c) self induction (d) self inductance

23. Henry is the unit of

(a) magnetic flux
(b) induced emf
(c) mutual inductance
(d) both self inductance and mutual inductance

24. The self inductance of a long solenoid with n turns per

unit length is
µonA µon2A
(a) L = (b) L =
l l
(c) L = µon Al (d) L =
25. A choke coil
(a) works on the principle of mutual induction
(b) works on the principle of self induction
(c) increases current in A.C.
(d) increases voltage in A.C.

26. A steady current of 1A in a coil of 1000 turns generates a

flux of 10–4 Wb to pass through the loop of the coil. The
energy stored in the inductor is
(a) 5 J (b) 0.05 J
(c) 0.5 J (d) 50 J

27. The energy density inside a solenoid is

(a) µm = B/2µo (b) µm = B2/µo
(c) µm = 2B2 / µo (d) µm = B2/2µo

28. The emf produced by a generator operating at constant

speed depends mainly on
(a) the thickness of the wire of the armature
(b) the thickness of the wire on the field magnet
(c) the strength of the magnetic field
(d) the length of the time the generator operates

29. Which of the followings converts mechanical energy into

electrical energy?
(a) Electric motor (b) Transformer
(c) Electric generator (d) None of these

30. The diagram shows how the emf of a simple generator

varies with time. What is the frequency and the maximum
value of the emf?
Frequency Maximum emf +2
(a) 200 Hz 2.0 V V
(b) 200 Hz 4.0 V
0 2.5 5 t (ms)
(c) 400 Hz 2.0 V
(d) 400 Hz 4.0 V
31. A transformer is a device which
(a) only steps down ac voltage
(b) only steps up ac voltage
(c) steps up or steps down ac voltage
(d) steps up ac power

32. A.C. is preferred to D.C for transmission of electricity

(a) most domestic appliances work on a.c.
(b) higher voltages can be used with a.c.
(c) wires having a.c. have no magnetic field around them
(d) the use of transformer enables power losses to be reduced

33. The working principle of transformer is

(a) self induction (b) Ampere's law
(c) mutual induction (d) Ohm's law

34. A transformer consists of 500 turns in primary and 200

turns in secondary. When a battery of emf 9V is connected
at the primary, the voltage obtained at the secondary is
(a) 3.6 V (b) 22.5 V
(c) 9V (d) zero

35. A step up transformer changes 220 V to 4400 V at 2A

current. The primary of the transformer has 100 turns.
The current in primary and the number of turns in
secondary are respectively
(a) 0.1 A and 5 turns (b) 40 A and 5 turns
(c) 0.1 A and 2000 turns (d) 40 A and 2000 turns

36. What is the purpose of a step down transformer?

(a) It makes the output current lower than the input current
(b) It makes the output voltage lower than the input voltage
(c) It makes the output voltage higher than the input voltage
(d) It makes the output voltage equal to the input voltage

37. Why is electrical energy transmitted at high voltage?

(a) The current in the transmission cable can be made as large
as possible
(b) Little energy is wasted in the transmission cables
(c) The transmission cables are safe to handle
(d)The transmission system does not require transformers

38. The percentage efficiency of a transformer is given by

(a) E  P  100 % (b) E  s  100 %
(c) E  100 % (d). E  s  100 %
39. The maximum value of EMF of an AC generator is given by
BN B
(a)  o  (b)  o 
(c)  o  (d)  o  BNA

40. Motor action always tends to rotate the coil in

(a) stronger part of the magnetic field
(b) perpendicular to the magnetic field
(c) weaker part of the magnetic field
(d) parallel to the magnetic field
Key to Test Chapter 15

1 c 21 a
2 b 22 c
3 a 23 d
4 d 24 c
5 a 25 b
6 d 26 b
7 a 27 d
8 b 28 c
9 d 29 c
10 d 30 a
11 d 31 c
12 a 32 d
13 b 33 c
14 d 34 d
15 b 35 d
16 a 36 b
17 b 37 b
18 b 38 d
19 c 39 d
20 d 40 c