Sample Exam:

1. The patient have hperosmolar coma. What would be the patient's possible laboratory
results?

Serum Osmolarity: 280-300 mOsm/kg

Blood Glucose: 80-100 mg/dL

Glucose pH Ketones Osmolarity BUN

a. 115 7.35 +++ 300 >10
b. 110 8.0 - 370 6
c. 210 7.9 - 230 3
d. 195 7.6 +/- 325 9

2. A cryoprecipitate of an A positive donor was thawed for a B negative recipient at 10 am.

The unit was pooled at 11:30 pm and patient is for an X-ray session at 2 pm (session will take
2 hours). What course of action should be taken?
a. Find an ABO and Rh compatible blood
b. Transfused cryoprecipitate after X-ray session
c. Transfused cryoprecipitate before X-ray session
d. Discard the pooled cryoprecipitate due to late pooling

3. The range of linearity of a calcium method is being tested. Here are the results:

Concentration of Standard: Absorbance:

1.0 0.02
1.5 0.06
2.0 0.10
2.5 0.14
3.0 0.17
3.5 0.19
4.0 0.20

Using this method, the specimen should be diluted if it exceeds what concentration?
a. 2.5
b. 3.0
c. 3.5
d. 4.0

4. An old man rushed in the Emergency room last night has the following result:
BUN= High
Glucose= High
Creatinine= High
Na= normal
K= Normal
Osmolarity= 300 (Normal Value: 280-300 mOsm/kg)

Assuming that only one value is incorrect, which result should be in question in
respect to the other values?
a. Creatinine
 b. Sodium
c. Glucose
d. Osmolarity

5. Given the following LAP score, what would be the patient's possible condition?

5+ 4+ 3+ 2+ 1+ 0
Patient 0 0 2 1 2 0
Control 1 3 2 0 0 20

a. Polycythemiavera
b. Chronic myelogenouslekemia
c. Third trimester of pregnancy
d. Leukemoid reaction

6. Serum Amylase can be normal if:

a. Low HDL value
b. Increased triglyceride level
c. Very High Lipase level
d. Hemolyzed Sample

7. A sputum specimen from a patient with pneumonia gives the following biochemical
results:
TSI: A/A
Oxidase: positive
Indole: negative
VP: positive
Citrate: positive
Motility: nonmotile

What should the technologist do next?

a. Oxidase EDTA in blood stick
b. Citrate
c. Motility
d. VP

8. A patient’s CSF is tested in the laboratory. There is a band anodal to albumin in CSF
electrophoresis.
a. Repeat collection
b. Report the result
c. Further testing is required
d. Run new control

9. Fetal lung maturity can be assessed using which of the following amniotic fluid assays?
a. OD450
b. AFP
c. Acetylcholinesterase
d. Phosphatidyl glycerol
10. Stool was submitted to test for Rotavirus; positive result was obtained with enzyme
immunoassay. What should be done next?
a. cell culture
b. immune fluorescent staining
c. serological test
d. report as positive

11. Associated with alpha thalassemia?

a. Sickle cell
b. Persistent predominance of HbF
c. Bart’s hydropsfetalis and HbH
d. Predominance of HbA2 and HbF

12. Which of the following tests can be utilized to differentiate Salmonella from Citrobacter?
a. Gas and H2S production
b. Glucose and Lactose Fermentation
c. Lysine Decarboxylase and Lactose Fermentation
d. Lysine Decarboxylase and H2S production

13. Smear shows many RBC crenated cells, bizarre forms of monocytes, vacuole containing
granulocytes. The MT made another smear but got the same results. What could be the cause?
a. Patient with Kidney Disease
b. Specimen mix up
c. Vigorous Mixing
d. Smear from blood left standing for 8 hrs

14. The patient’s urine sample contains:

The patient might possibly have:

a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Nephrotic syndrome
c. Liver disease
d. Acute glomerulonephritis

15. Group O negative individuals have what agglutinins?

a. Anti-A and Anti-B
b. Anti-A, Anti-B and Anti-A,B
c. Anti-A, Anti-B, Anti-A.B and Anti-D
d. None
16. If a sample have High Lipase and Normal Amylase. The serum sample would look:
a. Hemolyzed
b. Icteric
c. Viscous
d. Lipemic

17. Which of the following exhibit the greatest precision?

I- Mean: 54 SD: 1.8
II- Mean: 61 SD: 2.0
III- Mean: 58 SD: 1.3
IV- Mean: 42 SD: 1.2

a. II
b. III
c. I
d. IV

18. What should the technologist do first in doing a photometric determination of Iron serum?
a. Add a “ferroin” reagent to the sample
b. Perform ethanolic extraction to the sample
c. Incubate the sample with Chloride Ions for optimal binding
d. Reduced the Ferric ions to Ferrous form present in the sample

19. Given the Antibody Panel, what is the most probable genotype of the patient?

Cell D C c E e K Jka Jkb Lea Leb M N P1 ISS AHG CC

1 + + 0 0 0 + + + 0 0 0 + 0 0 3+ 4+
2 + 0 0 + 0 + + 0 + 0 0 + + 0 3+ 4+
3 + 0 + + + 0 + + + + + + + 0 0 0
4 + 0 + + + + 0 + 0 0 0 0 0 0 2+ 3
5 0 0 + + + 0 + + 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
6 0 0 + 0 0 0 + 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
7 0 + + 0 0 0 + 0 0 + 0 + + 0 0 0
8 0 0 + 0 0 0 0 + + 0 + + + 0 0 0
Auto 0 0 0

a. Anti-C
b. Anti-D
c. Anti-K
d. Anti-E

20. A Hemoglobin level of 9.2 g/dl; MCV of 102 and presences of few stomatocytes and
target cells in patient's blood sample would possibly indicate:
a. Cooley's Anemia
b. Bart's Hydropsfetalis
c. Liver disease with Folic acid deficiency
d. MegaloblasticAnemia
21. An oxidase negative coccobacillus inoculated from a urine specimen grows well on
MacConkey, giving a purplish hue. It is resistant to many antimicrobials.
a. Psedomonas
b. Acinetobacter
c. Escherichia
d. Serratia

22. Given the Assay control.

What should the technologist do?

a. Purchase another test machine
b. Open a new test kit
c. Rerun the new sample
d. Dilute the control

23. In case, a patient’s result is to edited. What should the technologist should do?
a. Keep a record in the logbook
b. Retain the original result on computer records for a week
c. Record the time, date and the technologist’s name who conduct the change
d. Report the new result.

24. An O negative mother gave birth to an O positive baby. The baby has Hemolytic anemia,
bilirubinemia and positive DAT. Without crossmatching, whose blood can be used for
exchange blood transfusuion?
a. Father
b. Mother
c. Brother
d. Rh null Blood

25. Which of the following tests can be utilized to differentiate Morganella from Providencia?
a. Phenylalanine Deaminase and Lysine Deamination
b. Indole test and Vogues-Proskauer test
c. Citrate and Gas production
d. Lactose fermentation and Methyl Red test

26. Polymerase Chain Reaction requires which of the following:

 a. primer, magnesium ion, thermolabile DNA
b. primer, magnesium ion, thermostable DNA
c. primer, magnesium ion, thermostabledDNA
d. primer, magnesium ion, thermolabiledDNA

27. Given the following cell count:

Lymphocyte= 25% Myelocyte=5%
Monocyte= 5% Promyelocyte= 20%
Basophil= 2% Myeloblast= 30%
Segmented neutrophil= 40% Metamyelocyte= 10%
Eosinophil= 1% Bands= 5%

The patient would probably have:

a. Leukemoid reaction
b. Acute Myelogenous Leukemia
c. Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
d. Polycythemia vera

28. A specimen taken from a patient suddenly rushed in the ER yesterday exhibited the
biochemical result on Tube#4.

Given that test controls are valid. The patient’s sample would probably have:
a. Neisseria meningitides: Meningitis
b. Klebsiella pneumonia: Pneumonia
c. Burkholderiacepacia: Cystic fibrosis
d. Vibrio cholera: Cholera

29. A child accidentally ingested a naphthalene ball. The child’s peripheral blood smear
should exhibit:
a. Basophilic Stipplings
b. Howell Jolly Bodies
c. Heinz Bodies
d. Pappenheimer Bodies
30. What is the metabolite of cocaine?
a. Tetrahydrocannabinol
b. 5-hydroindoleaceticacid
c. Bezoylecgonine
d. Vanillylmandelic acid

31. In intravascular hemolysis, the patient’s urine would exhibit hemoglobinuria after:
a. plasma haptoglobin depleted
b. plasma transferrin increases
c. serum haptoglobulin increases
d. serum transferrin increases

32. A sample came from a patient experiencing pneumonia for three consecutive days. The
sample gave the following results:

MAC: colorless colonies

TSI: A/A
Catalase: positive
Motility: negative
Indole: negative
Citrate: positive
Oxidase: negative

What should be done to confirm the results?

a. Check the MAC control
b. Repeat the Motility test
c. Repeat the Citrate test
d. Repeat the Catalase test

33. The patient's LDH level is very elevated. The technologist first diluted patient's 0.1 ml
serum sample with 1.9 ml of diluent. Then another dilution is done by adding 2 ml of the
patient's sample from the initial dilution with 3ml of diluent. The LDH concentration is
120 U/L. What is the patient's final LDH concentration?
a. 60 U/L
b. 120 U/L
c. 1200 U/L
d. 6000 U/L

34. A Group 0 D positive individual formed a high titer of Anti-D. What would be the
possible reason behind the patient's high titer of Anti-D?
a. Weak D
b. Partial D
c. Positional D
d. Exposure to a D positive blood.
35. Patient's peripheral blood smear:

What would be the patient's clinical condition?

a. Acute HemolyticAnemia
b. AngiogenicMyelofibrosis
c. Polycythemiavera
d. Thalassemia

36. Virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrheae.

a. Pili, Endotoxin, Polysaccharide capsule
b. Protein A, Endotoxin, Pili
c. Teichoic Acid, Pili, Exotoxin
d. Pili, Capsule, Exotoxin

37. An anaerobic gram negative cocci is found in a patient’s sample after jaw surgery. What
organism would it be?
a. Prevotella
b. Peptostreptococcus
c. Veilonella
d. Porphyromonas

38. A patient is undergoing unfractionated heparin theraphy and his APTT result remains
normal. What should the technologist do next?
a. Repeat APTT testing
b. Recollect patient's sample
c. Perform Antithrombin test
d. Increase Incubation time for APTT

39. Decrease of which of the following electrolytes would result to severe muscle spasms,
sudden heart infarction and in worst case an immediate death is?
a. Sodium
b. Glucose
c. Calcium
d. Inorganic Phosphorus
 40. In a stool sample culture, growth of Lactose fermenter Enterobacteriaceae, Staphylococci
spp and Enterococci are exhibited. What should the Technologists do next?
a. Report the colony growth of Enterococci as normal flora. Perform culture and
sensitivity test on the colonies of Lactose fermenter Enterobacteriaceae and Staphyloccoci
b. Report the colony growth of Lactose fermenter Enterobacteriaceae as normal flora.
Perform culture and sensitivity on colonies of Staphylococci spp and Enterococci.
c. Report the colony growth of Lactose fermenter Enterobacteriaceae, Staphylococci
spp and Enterococci as normal flora.
d. Report the colony growth of Staphylococci spp as normal flora. Perform culture
and sensitivity on colonies of Lactose fermenter Enterobacteriaceae and Enterococci.

41. To analytically measure a patient's HER2/neu, what should the technologist's employ?
a. Southern Blot
b. Immunohistochemistry
c. Western Blot
d. Northern Blot

42. Which of the following enzyme would best correlate with elevated Alkaline Phosphatase?
a. Acid Phosphatases
b. Gamma Glutamate Transferases
c. Aspartate Aminotransferases
d. Alkaline Aminotransferases

43. The results of a Kleuhauer-Betke stain indicate a fetomaternal haemorrhage of 60 ml of

whole blood. How many vials of Rh immune globulin would be required?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

44. Refer to the following cell panel:

Cell D C c E e K Jka Jkb Fya Fyb Lea Leb M N P1 ISS AHG CC

1 0 + + + 0 + 0 0 0 0 + + + + + 0 0 0
2 + 0 + + 0 + 0 + + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + +
3 0 0 + + 0 0 0 + + 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + +
4 + 0 0 + + 0 + 0 0 0 + 0 + 0 0 0 0 0
5 0 0 0 + + 0 + + + + 0 0 + 0 0 0 + +
6 + + 0 0 + + + 0 0 + 0 0 + + 0 0 0 0
7 + + 0 0 0 + + + 0 + + 0 + + 0 0 0 0
8 0 0 0 0 0 + 0 0 + 0 + + + 0 0 0 + +
Auto 0 0 0

What should the technologist do to confirm the antibody most likely present?
a. Report the antibody
b. Perform enzyme treatment
c. Perform Urine Neutralization
d. Repeat antibody cell panel
45. What is the fungi spp exhibited in the illustration below?

a. Curvularia
b. Alternaria
c. Nigrospora
d. Cryptococcus

46. Increased platelet count, bleeding and splenomegaly are seen in what condition?
a. Chronic MyelogenousLeukemia
b. Essential Thrombocythemia
c. Essential Thrombocytopenia
d. Absolute Polycythemiavera

47. A spectrophotometric technique based on the absorption of light by molecules. The

molecules lose some of the absorbed energy by irradiating light of a longer wavelength.
a. Nephelometry
b. Fluorometry
c. Potentiometry
d. Colorimetry

48. An ATCC control sample for Streptococcus agalactiae and Staphylococcus aureus utilized
for CAMP test give a negative result. What should the technologist do to determine if the
specimen control is actually Streptococcus agalactiae?
a. Repeat the CAMP test using more than the initial numbers of Staplyloccoccus
organism utilized from the initial CAMP test. Then increase the incubation time for the some
fastidious organism to have ample time to grow.
b. Perform a reverse CAMP test. Streak the test organism, Streptococcus agalactiae
down the center of the plate. Staphylococcus aureus is streaked at right angles to
Streptococcus agalactiae. A positive reverse CAMP test will result to formation of a narrow
head shaped hemolysis pointing towards Streptococcus agalactiae. .
c. Perform a reverse CAMP test. Streak the test organism, Clostridium perfringes
down the center of the plate. Streptoccuspyogenes is streaked at right angles to Clostridium
perfringes. A positive reverse CAMP test will result to formation of a narrow head shaped
hemolysis pointing towards Streptococcus agalactiae.
d. Perform a reverse CAMP test. Streak the test organism, Clostridium perfringes
down the center of the plate. Streptoccusagalactiae is streaked at right angles to Clostridium
perfringes. A positive reverse CAMP test will result to formation of a narrow head shaped
hemolysis pointing towards Streptococcus agalactiae.
49.

Given the Antibody Panel, what is/are the most probable genotype/s of the patient?

Cell D C c E e K Jka Jkb Lea Leb M N P1 ISS AHG CC

1 + + 0 + 0 + + + 0 0 0 + 0 0 3+ 4+
2 + 0 0 + 0 + + + + 0 0 + + 0 3+ 4+
3 + 0 + 0 + 0 0 + + + + + + 0 0 0
4 + 0 + + + + + + 0 0 0 0 0 0 2+ 3
5 0 0 + 0 + 0 0 + 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
6 0 0 + 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
7 0 + + 0 0 0 0 0 0 + 0 + + 0 0 0
8 0 0 + 0 0 + 0 + + 0 + + + 0 0 0
Auto 0 0 0

a. Anti-C and Anti-Lea

b. Anti-D and Anti-N
c. Anti-K and Anti- Jkb
d. Anti-E and Anti-Jka

50. Given the patient’s urinalysis result.

Color: Pale Yellow

Clarity: Slight Turbid
Specific Gravity: 1.033
pH: 8.5
Glucose: negative
Ketones: negative
Protein: negative
Bilirubin: negative
Urobilinogen: negative
Blood: negative
Nitrate: positive
Leukocyte Esterase: negative
Microscopic findings:
RBC: 1-3/ hpf
WBC: 0-2/ hpf

What should the technologist do next?

a. Repeat Blood reagent strip test
b. Repeat Microscopic determination of urine
c. Recollect specimen
d. Centrifuge urine specimen and repeat analysis
51. What FANA test is a specific test that uses this?

a. Rheumatic Arthritis
b. Systemic Lupus Erythromatosus
c. Chronic Biliary Cirrhosis
d. Hepatitis C

52. A patient needs few units whole blood for tomorrow’s surgery. The patient antibody
screen reveals two antibodies: Anti- Jka and Anti K. The frequency of antigen negative Jka in
the population is 75% and antigen positive K in the population is 25%. How many units of
blood are needed to screen to find 5 units of compatible blood?

a. 8
b. 9
c. 26
d. 27

53. Given the Blood Picture.

What would be the patient’s condition?

a. Multiply Myeloma
b. Thalassemia
c. Hemorrhage after 6 days
d. Chronic MyelogenousLeukemia
54.The results of a Kleuhauer-Betke stain indicate a fetomaternal haemorrhage of 60 ml of
red blood cell. How many vials of Rh immune globulin would be required?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

55. Total Iron Binding Capacity is:

a. measure of blood’s capacity to bind Iron to Hemopexin
b. measure of blood’s capacity to bind Iron to Ceruloplasmin
c. measure of blood’s capacity to bind Iron to Tranferrin
d. measure of blood’s capacity to bind Iron to Ferritin

56. Given the Blood Picture. The patient most probably have:

a. Coronary Heart Disease

b. Anemia
c. Viral Infection
d. SezarySydrome

57. Detection of immune rubella antibodies is done by:

a. detecting IgG and IgM
b. detecting IgM
c. detecting IgG with 2 weeks interval
d. detecting IgG with 2 months interval

58. In intravascular hemolysis, patient’s plasma findings would reveals:

a. Decrease haptoglobulin level
b. Decrease transferrin level
c. Increase haptoglobulin level
d. Increase transferrin level
59. Given the following Biochemical Result.

What would be the most probable organism?

a. Yersinia pestis
b. Serratiamarsescens
c. Klebsiellaoxytoca
d. Enterobacteraerogenes

60. An enzyme that utilizes para-nitrophenylphosphate as its substrate and reacts best at pH
9.6 would be mostly elevated in cases of:
a. Prostatic carcinoma
b. Pernicious Anemia
c. Paget’s Disease
d. Pesticide poisoning

61. Documentation included with the laboratory procedure should contain:

a. Safety precautions
b. Reference laboratories where the test is also offered
c. Number of times the test is performed annually
d. Diagnostic sensitivity and specificity of method

62. A pink to red colonies growth in MAC.

TSI: A/A
Indole: positive
Citrate: positive
Lysine decarboxylase: negative

Given the following biochemical results, what is the reason for the discrepancy?
a. False negative Indole due to Red pigment
b. False positive Indole due to Red pigment
c. False positive Indole due to expired Indole slant
 d. False negative Indole due to not enough organisms

63. Description of morphology of ACTINOMYCESmycetoma.

b) broad base, branching, colored brown
c) broad base , septate, bacillary form
d) thin walled, branching, colored brown
e) thin walled, septate and bacillary form

64.
Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Day 4
WBC 5.02 5.04 5.03 5.04
RBC 3.97 3.95 3.92 3.25
Hgb 10.0 9.8 9.6 7.18
Hct 29.8 29.4 28.8 20.4
MCV 75.0 74.4 73.5 62.7
MCH 25.2 24.8 24.5 22.1
MCHC 33.6 33.3 33.3 35.1

Given the following patient’s result, what is the reason behind the patient’s sudden drop of
Hgb on Day 4?

a. Specimen Mix-up
b. Iron Deficiency Anemia
c. Lipemic Specimen
d. Clotted Specimen