Power Plant Engg MCQ

PART A
SET 1
“Flaws of Steam as a Working Fluid and Vapor Cycle Characteristics”.
1. Addition of an infinitesimal amount of heat at the highest temperature is because?

a) to initiate reheating
b) to initiate regeneration
c) to initiate superheating
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum temperature gained in steam cycles using the best available material is about
600 degree Celsius while the critical temperature of steam is about 375 degree Celsius, which necessitates
large superheating and permits addition of an infinitesimal amount of heat at the highest temperature.
2. High moisture content is involved during expansion of steam because?

a) to ensure uniform heating
b) to ensure uniform cooling
c) to obtain a higher temperature of heat addition
d) to obtain a lower temperature of heat addition
Answer: c
Explanation: In order to obtain a higher temperature of heat addition, heat moisture content is involved
during expansion of steam.
3. What is the relation of mean temperature of heat addition and cycle efficiency?
a) both are inversely proportional
b) both are directly proportional
c) both are independent of each other
Answer: b
Explanation: The cycle efficiency is a function of mean temperature of heat addition. Hence, both are
directly proportional to each other. The need for high pressure is only forced due to weak characteristics of
steam.
4. Temperature of heat rejection in a condenser can be lowered by using?

a) lubricant
b) oil
c) refrigerant
d) diesel
Answer: c
Explanation: A refrigerant in the form of coolant is used to lower the temperature of heat rejection.
5. The use of which of the following becomes necessary during expansion of steam?
a) reheat
b) regeneration
c) refrigeration
d) superheat
Answer: a
Explanation: In order to obtain a higher temperature of heat addition, heat moisture content is involved
during expansion of steam. The use of reheat thus, becomes necessary.
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6. Which is the drawback of the steam as a working substance in a power cycle?
a) in a vapour power cycle, maximum temperature which can be obtained with best available material is
more than the critical temperature of water and requires large superheating
b) it allows only small amount of heat addition at the highest temperature
c) it requires reheat and reheater tubes are costly
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the drawbacks mentioned are correct.
7. For maximum efficiency of vapour power cycle, what should be the critical temperature of working
fluid?
a) the working fluid should have critical temperature as low as possible
b) the working fluid should have critical temperature as high as possible
c) the critical temperature does not affect the efficiency of the vapour power cycle
Answer: b
Explanation: More the critical temperature, more efficient will be the working.
8. The specific heat of the ideal working fluid used in vapour power cycle
a) should be constant
b) should be large
c) should be small
Answer: c
Explanation: The specific heat of a fluid is the amount of energy the fluid takes in heating water for 1
degree Celsius.
9. What is the importance of the freezing point of the working fluid in the vapour power cycle?
a) freezing point of working fluid should be below the room temperature
b) freezing point of working fluid should be above the room temperature
c) freezing point of working fluid should be equal to the room temperature
d) does not have any importance
Answer: a
Explanation: For the efficient working of a working fluid, its freezing point should be below the room
temperature.
10. When two vapour cycles are coupled in series and heat rejected by one is absorbed by another, the
cycle is called as?
a) Dual vapour cycle
b) Binary vapour cycle
c) Coupled vapour cycle
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Binary vapour cycle is a cycle where two vapour cycles are coupled in series and heat rejected
by one is absorbed by another.
11. The engines which are operating on gas power cycle are?
a) cyclic
b) non-cyclic
c) either cyclic or non-cyclic

Answer: c
Explanation: The cyclic nature is totally dependent on power cycle; it can be cyclic as well as non-cyclic
depending on the gas power cycle.
Set 2
“Binary Vapour Cycle”.
1. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range of
a) 15 to 20%
b) 35 to 45%
c) 70 to 80%
d) 90 to 95%
Answer: b
Explanation: The efficiency of a Rankine cycle lies in the range of 35-45 percent mostly.
2. Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of p1 and high pressure limit of p2
a) has higher thermal efficiency than the Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
b) has lower thermal efficiency than Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
c) has same thermal efficiency as Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
d) may be more or less depending upon the magnitudes of p1 and p2
Answer: a
Explanation: For two pressure limits, the thermal efficiency of a Rankine cycle is more than that of the
Carnot cycle operating between the same pressure difference which is evident in the P-V diagrams of both
the cycle.
3. Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant

a) improves in summer as compared to that in winter
b) improves in winter as compared to that in summer
c) is unaffected by climatic conditions
Answer: b
Explanation: Rankine cycle efficiency depends upon condenser temperature.
4. Rankine cycle comprises of

a) two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
b) two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
c) two isothermal processes and two constant pressure processes
Answer: b
Explanation: A rankine cycle is a thermodynamic cycle which comprises of two isentropic and two isobaric
processes which is a major thermodynamic cycle in various applications.
5. In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by

a) change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
b) change of enthalpy between inlet and outlet
c) change of entropy between inlet and outlet
d) change of temperature between inlet and outlet
Answer: b
Explanation: The power output from the turbine is given by the change of internal energy between inlet
and outlet.

6. Regenerative heating i.e., bleeding steam to reheat feed water to boiler
a) decreases thermal efficiency of the cycle
b) increases thermal efficiency of the cycle
c) does not affect thermal efficiency of the cycle
d) may increase or decrease thermal efficiency of the cycle depending upon the point of extraction of
steam
Answer: b
Explanation: Bleeding decreases the thermal efficiency of the cycle as it reheats feed water to the boiler.
7. Regenerative cycle thermal efficiency

a) is always greater than simple Rankine thermal efficiency
b) is greater than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency only when steam is bled at particular pressure
c) is same as simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
d) is always less than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency
Answer: a
Explanation: A regeneration is done to increase the efficiency of a reheat cycle so naturally the efficiency of
a regenerative cycle is much more than a Rankine cycle.
8. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the optimum value of the fraction of steam extracted for feed
heating
a) decreases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
b) increases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
c) is unaffected by increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
Answer: b
Explanation: In case of regenerative feed heating cycle, the optimum value of the fraction of steam
extracted for feed heating decreases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency. As the efficiency of
regenerative cycle is more than the Rankine cycle.
9. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the greatest economy is affected

a) when steam is extracted from only one suitable point of steam turbine
b) when steam is extracted from several places in different stages of steam turbine
c) when steam is extracted only from the last stage of steam turbine
d) when steam is extracted only from the first stage of steam turbine
Answer: b
Explanation: Steam extraction is an important factor in deciding the economy of a regenerative cycle. The
greatest economy is affected when steam is extracted from several places in different stages of steam
turbine.
10. The maximum percentage gain in Regenerative feed heating cycle thermal efficiency
a) increases with number of feed heaters increasing
b) decreases with number of feed heaters increasing
c) remains same unaffected by number of feed heaters
Answer: a
Explanation: In case of regenerative feed heating cycle, the optimum value of the fraction of steam
extracted for feed heating decreases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency. As the efficiency of
regenerative cycle is more than the Rankine cycle. Naturally, the maximum percentage gain in regenerative
feed heating cycle thermal efficiency increases with number of feed heaters increasing.

Set 3
“Binary Vapour Cycle – II”.
1. How can we differentiate Rankine cycle from Carnot cycle?

a) Heat addition process of Rankine cycle is reversible isothermal whereas heat addition process of Carnot
cycle is reversible isobaric
b) Heat addition process of Rankine cycle is reversible isobaric whereas heat addition process of Carnot
cycle is reversible isothermal
c) Heat addition process of Rankine cycle is reversible isentropic whereas heat addition process of Carnot
cycle is reversible isothermal
d) Both cycles are identical except the working fluid used
Answer: b
Explanation: Heat addition process of Rankine cycle is reversible isobaric whereas heat addition process of Carnot
cycle is reversible isothermal. This is one of the major differences in both the cycles.
2. What is the relation between efficiencies of Rankine cycle and Carnot cycle for the same pressure ratio?
a) (ηr) = (ηc)
b) (ηr) > (ηc )
c) (ηr) < (ηc )
Answer: c
Explanation: The relation between efficiencies of Rankine cycle and Carnot cycle for the same pressure
ratio is given by,
(ηr) < (ηc ).
3. If Tm be the mean temperature of heat addition in Rankine cycle as shown in diagram,

what will the formula for efficiency of Rankine cycle?
a) (ηr) = ( T3 / Tm)
b) (ηr) = 1 – (T3 / Tm)
c) (ηr) = 1 – (T2 / Tm)
d) (ηr) = (T2 / Tm)
Answer: b
Explanation:The required formula becomes
(ηr) = 1 – (T3 / Tm).

4. The maximum efficiency of Rankine cycle (ηr) is the function of
a) the mean temperature of heat addition (Tm) only
b) the mean temperature of heat addition (Tm) and temperature of steam at the exit of the turbine
c) the mean temperature of heat addition (Tm) and temperature of steam at the entry of the turbine
d) the mean temperature of heat addition (Tm) and temperature of steam at exit of the condenser
Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum efficiency of Rankine cycle (ηr) is the function of
the mean temperature of heat addition (Tm) only.
5. What is the effect of superheated steam on efficiency of Rankine cycle?

a) efficiency of Rankine cycle decreases with increase in superheat of the steam
b) efficiency of Rankine cycle increases with increase in superheat of the steam
c) efficiency of Rankine cycle is not affected by change in superheat of the steam
Answer: b
Explanation: The effect of superheated steam on efficiency of Rankine cycle is that the efficiency of
Rankine cycle increases with increase in superheat of the steam.
6. What is the effect of increase in pressure at which heat is added on the pump work in the Rankine cycle?
a) the pump work increases with increase in pressure of heat addition
b) the pump work decreases with increase in pressure of heat addition
c) the pump work does not change with increase in pressure of heat addition
d) the pump work either increases or decreases with increase in pressure of heat addition
Answer: a
Explanation: The effect of increase in pressure at which heat is added on the pump work in the Rankine
cycle is that the pump work increases with increase in pressure of heat addition.
7. When the pressure at which heat is added in Rankine cycle increases, the moisture content at the
turbine exhaust
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains same
d) cannot say
Answer: a
Explanation: With an increase in the pressure at which heat is added in Rankine cycle increases, the
moisture content at the turbine exhaust increases.
8. What is the condition for increasing the chances of corrosion of blades of turbine?
a) decrease in the pressure difference between which the Rankine cycle operates
b) increase in the pressure difference between which the Rankine cycle operates
c) both a and b
Answer: b
Explanation: The condition for increasing the chances of corrosion of blades of turbine is an increase in the
pressure difference between which the Rankine cycle operates.
9. What is the maximum content of moisture allowed at the turbine exhaust in the steam power plant?
a) 50 %
b) 60 %
c) 30 %
d) 15 %

Answer: d
Explanation: The maximum content of moisture allowed at the turbine exhaust in the steam power plant is
15 %.
10. Which of these is a binary cycle?

a) Mercury-steam cycle
b) Mercury-water cycle
c) Mercury-Sodium cycle
Answer: a
Explanation: The binary cycle is mainly a Mercury-Steam cycle.
Set 4
“Coupled Cycles”.
1. The mercury steam cycle represents how many coupled Rankine cycles?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: The mercury steam cycle represents 2 fluid cycles where 2 Rankine cycles have been coupled
in series.
2. In the mercury steam cycle, the mercury cycle is called?

a) bottoming cycle
b) middle cycle
c) topping cycle
Answer: c
Explanation: The mercury steam cycle has the mercury cycle as the topping cycle.
3. In the mercury steam cycle, the steam cycle is called?

a) bottoming cycle
b) middle cycle
c) topping cycle
Answer: a
Explanation: The mercury steam cycle has the steam cycle as the bottoming cycle.
4. Apart from mercury & steam, which of these is a component of tertiary cycle?
a) nitrogen di-oxide
b) water
c) carbon di-oxide
d) sulphur di-oxide
Answer: d
Explanation: The tertiary cycle is mercury-steam-sulphur dioxide cycle.
5. The addition of sulphur dioxide in a tertiary cycle is at?

a) high temperature

b) low temperature
c) too high temperature
Answer: b
Explanation: The tertiary cycle is mercury-steam-sulphur dioxide cycle. Here, addition of sulphur dioxide is
at low temperature.
6. Which of these can also be used as a topping fluid?

a) Sodium
b) Calcium
c) Boron
d) Titanium
Answer: a
Explanation: Apart from mercury, only Sodium or Potassium are suitable enough to be used as a topping
fluid.
7. Which of these can be used as a fluid in the bottoming fluid?

a) Mercury
b) Ammonia
c) Calcium
d) Sodium
Answer: b
Explanation: Apart from Sulphur dioxide, Ammonia is the most suitable bottoming fluid.
8. In case of Sodium-mercury-steam cycle, which is the topping fluid?

a) Mercury
b) Steam
c) Sodium
d) Cannot say
Answer: c
Explanation: Apart from mercury, only Sodium or Potassium are suitable enough to be used as a topping
fluid. Here, mercury is not a topping fluid so naturally, sodium becomes the topping fluid.
9. In case of mercury-steam-sulphur dioxide cycle, which is the bottoming fluid?

a) Mercury
b) Steam
c) Sulphur dioxide
d) Cannot say
Answer: c
Explanation: Sulphur dioxide, being the only bottoming fluid in the tertiary cycle is used as a bottoming
fluid.
10. The total loss in a tertiary cycle is?

a) sum of losses in the individual cycles
b) product of losses in the individual cycles
c) sum of products of individual losses
Answer: b
Explanation: The total loss in a tertiary cycle is product of losses in the individual cycles.

Set 5
“Combined Cycle Plants, Nuclear and Thermionic Power Generation”.
1. The maximum steam temperature in a power cycle in degree centigrade is?

a) 600
b) 500
c) 300
d) 100
Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum steam temperature in a power cycle is 600 degree centigrade.
2. The temperature in a dry bottom pulverised coal furnace, in degree Celsius is about?
a) 1200
b) 1300
c) 1400
d) 2000
Answer: b
Explanation: The temperature in a dry bottom pulverised coal furnace, in degree Celsius is about 1300.
3. What happens to the availability in a combined cycle plant?

a) decreases
b) increases
c) remains same
d) cannot say
Answer: a
Explanation: There is a great thermal irreversibility & a decrease of availability because of heat transfer
from combustion gases to steam through such a large temperature difference.
4. By superposing a high temperature power plant as a topping unit to the steam plant, the energy
conversion efficiency achieved is?
a) higher
b) lower
c) maximum
d) minimum
Answer: a
Explanation: By superposing a high temperature power plant as a topping unit to the steam plant, the
energy conversion efficiency achieved is higher from fuel to electricity.
5. Which of the following is not a type of Combined Plant?

a) Sodium- mercury-Potassium plant
b) Gas turbine-Steam turbine plant
c) Thermionic steam plant
d) Thermoelectric steam plant
Answer: a
Explanation: Sodium-mercury-potassium plants have two topping fluids which is impossible for a plant to
possess.
6. Which of these is not a component of nuclear reactor?

a) reactor core
b) refractor

c) control rod
d) biological shield
Answer: b
Explanation: A reflector rather than a refractor is a component of nuclear reactor.
7. Which of these is not a merit of nuclear power?

a) amount of fuel required is small
b) plant requires a huge amount of area
c) demand for coal and oil is reduced
d) most economical in large quantities
Answer: b
Explanation: A small amount of area is required.
8. The thermionic generator is essentially which kind of device?

a) low voltage & high current
b) high voltage & high current
c) low voltage & low current
d) high voltage and high current
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermionic generator is essentially a low-voltage & high-current device.
9. What efficiencies of thermionic power generator have been realised?

a) 50-60%
b) 40-50%
c) 10-20%
d) 30-40%
Answer: c
Explanation: Efficiency of 30-40% has been realised in thermionic generators.
10. The maximum electron current per unit area provided by an emitter is given by (where J=current
density, T=absolute temperature in K, ɸ=work function in keV, k=Boltzmann’s constant & A=emission
constant)
a) J= AT exp(-ɸ/kT)
b) J= AT (-ɸ/kT)
c) J= AT2 exp(-ɸ/kT)
d) J= exp(-Aɸ/kT2)
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum current density is given by Richardson-Dushman equation.
11. In an electron beam, the average kinetic energy of an electron is given by

a) 2KT
b) 3KT
c) 1.5KT
d) 2.5KT
Answer: a
Explanation: The average kinetic energy is equal to 2KT.

SET 6
“Gas Turbine-Steam Power Plant – I”.
1. What is the air standard cycle for a Gas-Turbine called?

a) Reheat cycle
b) Rankine cycle
c) Brayton cycle
d) Diesel cycle
Answer: c
Explanation: Brayton cycle is an ideal air standard cycle for a Gas turbine, which, like Rankine cycle, also
comprises of two reversible adiabatic & two reversible isobars.
2. What is the difference between a Rankine cycle & a Brayton cycle?

a) working fluid in a Brayton cycle undergoes phase change while it doesn’t in Rankine cycle
b) working fluid in a Brayton cycle doesn’t undergo phase change while it does in Rankine cycle
c) both are same
Answer: b
Explanation: The difference between a Rankine cycle & a Brayton cycle is that the working fluid in a Brayton cycle
doesn’t undergo phase change while it does in Rankine cycle.
3. Which of the following is a type of Gas Turbine Plant?

a) Single Acting
b) Double Acting
c) Open
Answer: c
Explanation: Open & Closed Gas Turbine plants are the two types.
4. Power is produced when the working fluid does some work on the?
a) Shaft
b) Fins
c) Blades
Answer: c
Explanation: For the production of power, the working fluid does some work on the blades of the turbine, thereby
producing Power.
5. A Gas Turbine is which type of combustion plant?

a) external
b) open
c) internal
d) cannot say
Answer: c
Explanation: Since for the production of power, the working fluid does some work on the blades of the
turbine, thereby producing Power. Hence, it is called an internal combustion plant.
6. Which among these is the main component of a gas turbine plant?

a) Condenser
b) Compressor
c) Boiler

d) Both (b) & (c)
Answer: b
Explanation: The main component of a Gas turbine plant is Compressor.
7. Which type of compressor is used in a gas turbine plant?

a) Reciprocating compressor
b) Screw compressor
c) Multistage axial flow compressor
d) Either (a) & (b)
Answer: c
Explanation: Multistage axial flow compressor is the compressor in practical usage in a gas turbine plant.
8. What part or % of power developed is utilised for driving the compressor?

a) 65 %
b) 70 %
c) 55 %
d) 80 %
Answer: a
Explanation: A total of 65 % of power developed in the gas turbine is used for driving the compressor.
9. The gas turbine power plant mainly uses which among the following fuels?
a) Coal and Peat
b) Kerosene oil and diesel oil and residual oil
c) Gas oil
d) Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel
Answer: d
Explanation: Natural gas and liquid petroleum fuel are among the two fuels used in a gas turbine.
SET 7
“Gas Turbine-Steam Power Plant – II”.
1. The heating value of gaseous fuels is about

a) 500 kJ/litre
b) 30 kJ/litre
c) 100 kJ/litre
d) 10 kJ/litre
Answer: b
Explanation: 30 kJ/litre is the heating value of gaseous fuels.
2. The compressor has to be started

a) Before starting the gas turbine
b) After starting the gas turbine
c) Simultaneously with starting of gas turbine
d) At any time during the operation
Answer: a
Explanation: Compressor has to be started before starting the gas turbine as the turbine work is used by
compressor.
3. Which of these is not a part of a Gas Turbine Plant?

a) Compressor

b) Gas Turbine
c) Combustion chamber
d) Boiler
Answer: d
Explanation: A Gas Turbine Plant has the following parts:
Compressor, Gas Turbine, Combustion chamber.
4. The major field(s) of application of gas turbine is (are)

a) Aviation
b) Oil and gas industry
c) Marine propulsion
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A Gas Turbine has applications in nearly all fields, the major ones being in the fields of
Aviation, Oil & Gas industry, Marine propulsion.
5. The following is (are) the limitation(s) of gas turbines.

a) They are not self-starting
b) Higher rotor speeds
c) Low efficiencies at part loads
Answer: d
Explanation: The limitations in the functioning of a Gas Turbines are inability of self-starting, excess rotor
speeds and inability to adjust to varying loads.
6. The ratio of heat actually released by 1kg of fuel to heat that would be released by complete perfect
combustion, is called
a) Thermal efficiency
b) Combustion efficiency
c) Engine efficiency
d) Compression efficiency
Answer: b
Explanation: Combustion efficiency is defined as,” The ratio of heat actually released by 1kg of fuel to heat
that would be released by complete perfect combustion”.
7. The percentage of total energy input appearing as network output of the cycle
a) Thermal efficiency
b) Combustion efficiency
c) Engine efficiency
d) Compression efficiency
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermal Efficiency is, “The percentage of total energy input appearing as network output of
the cycle”.
8. The following method(s) can be used to improve the thermal efficiency of open cycle gas turbine plant
a) inter-cooling
b) Reheating
c) Regeneration
Answer: d
Explanation: The various methods to improve the efficiency of open cycles include intercooling the feed

water from the compressor to the turbine and then employing regeneration & reheat to just use the power
of the reheated water in order to maximize the power output.
9. Which of the following is (are) used as starter for a gas turbine

a) An Internal combustion engine
b) A steam turbine
c) An auxiliary electric motor
Answer: d
Explanation: There are various methods by which a Gas Turbine can be started, they are by the use of an
Internal Combustion engine, a steam turbine, an auxiliary electric motor, etc.
10. Gas turbine is shut down by

a) Turning off starter
b) Stopping the compressor
c) Fuel is cut off from the combustor
d) Any of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The only way to stop a running Gas turbine is by cutting off the fuel supply so that the various
processes in the cycle are stopped.
SET 8
“Gas Turbine-Steam Power Plant – III”.
1. In gas turbine, intercooler is placed

a) before low pressure compressor
b) in between low pressure compressor and high pressure compressor
c) in between high pressure compressor and turbine
Answer: b
Explanation: The various methods to improve the efficiency of open cycles include intercooling the feed
water from the compressor to the turbine and then employing regeneration & reheat to just use the power
of the reheated water in order to maximize the power output. Here, this is done by placing the intercooler
before any of the above processes.
2. In gas turbine, the function of Re-heater is to

a) Heat inlet air
b) Heat exhaust gases
c) Heat air coming out of compressor
d) Heat gases coming out of high pressure turbine
Answer: d
Explanation: In order to make a thermodynamic process of larger efficiency, it is shifted towards
isothermal behavior. For this, the output from re-generator, which is at a higher temperature is cooled to
the temperature which is mid-way between the two temperature ranges. Then, it is again heated to the
final temperature thereby increasing the efficiency of the cycle.
3. The ‘work ratio’ increases with

a) increase in turbine inlet pressure
b) decrease in compressor inlet temperature
c) decrease in pressure ratio of the cycle

Answer: d
Explanation: The ‘work ratio’ increases when the turbine inlet pressure increases, the compressor inlet
temperature decreases, the pressure ratio of the cycle decreases.
4. In the centrifugal compressor, total pressure varies

a) directly as the speed ratio
b) square of speed ratio
c) cube of the speed ratio
d) any of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The total pressure in a centrifugal compressor is a function of speed ratio. It varies square of
the speed ratio.
5. The efficiency of multistage compressor is _____ than a single stage.

a) lower
b) higher
c) equal to
Answer: a
Explanation: The efficiency of multistage compressor is lower than a single stage.
6. In centrifugal compressor, power input varies as

a) directly as the speed ratio
b) the square of speed ratio
c) the cube of the speed ratio
Answer: c
Explanation: Power output in a centrifugal compressor varies as the cube of the speed ratio.
7. In the _____ heat transfer takes place between the exhaust gases and cool air.
a) Intercooler
b) Re-heater
c) Regenerator
d) Compressor
Answer: c
Explanation: The process of heat transfer between the exhaust gases and cool air takes place in
Regenerator.
8. In centrifugal compressor, the diffuser converts

a) Kinetic energy into pressure energy
b) Pressure energy into Kinetic energy
c) Kinetic energy into Mechanical energy
d) Mechanical energy into Kinetic energy
Answer: a
Explanation: The diffuser of a centrifugal compressor converts Kinetic Energy into Pressure energy.

SET 9
“Fuel Oil”.
1. The bulk of hydrocarbon belongs to which group?

a) paraffin
b) isoparaffin
c) cycloparaffin
d) aromatic
Answer: a
Explanation: A bulk of hydrocarbons in fuel oils belongs to paraffin series like methane, ethane.
2. Which of these is not a lighter fraction of fuel oil?

a) gasoline
b) aviation fuel
c) heavy diesel oil
d) boiler fuel
Answer: d
Explanation: Boiler fuel is one of the heavier fraction in the refining process of fuel oil.
3.Which of these properties specifies the minimum temperature at which fuel oil can be ignited?
a) pour point
b) flash point
c) heating value
d) viscosity
Answer: b
Explanation: The flash point is the minimum temperature at which fuel may be ignited.
4. Which of the following type of fuel does not contain ash?

a) coal
b) fuel oil
c) natural gas
d) synthetic fuels
Answer: c
Explanation: Because of its gaseous nature, natural gas is the cleanest of all fuel types as it does contain
ash and also produces no smoke on combustion.
5. Which of these gases is the reason for the maintenance of natural gas at cryogenic temperatures?
a) methane
b) ethane
c) propane
d) benzene
Answer: a
Explanation: The major component of natural gas is methane, whose critical temperature is -83C . So
cryogenic temperatures are needed to maintain them it in liquid state at moderate pressure.
6.The gas which contributes maximum to heating value of natural gas is

a) CO
b) CO2
c) H2
d) CH4

Answer: d
Explanation: CH4 gas contributes maximum to the heating value of natural gas.
7. A coal containing high percentage of durian is called

a) splint
b) bright
c) boghead
d) non-banded
Answer: a
Explanation: Coal containing high percentage of durian is called splint.
8. Low temperature carbonisation

a) produces less quantity of tar than high temperature carbonisation
b) is mainly producing smokeless domestic coke
c) is meant for production of ‘metallurgical coke’
d) produces higher temperature gas than high temperature carbonisation
Answer: b
Explanation: During this process, the fuel is broken down into solid residue called semicoke, a primary gas
and a watery condensate.
SET 10
“Coal-Oil & Coal-Water Mixtures – I”.
1. Which of the following is not considered a type of coal according to ASTM?

a) anthracite
b) bituminous
c) peat
d) lignite
Answer: c
Explanation: Because peat contains 90% of moisture and hence is not suitable as utility fuel.
2. Which of the following is not directly determined in the Proximate Analysis of coal?
a) Volatile Matter
b) Fixed Carbon
c) Moisture
d) Ash
Answer: b
Explanation: Fixed carbon is the difference between 100% and sum of the percentages of volatile matter,
moisture and ash.
3. Which of these is not a component of coal in Ultimate Analysis?

a) carbon
b) sulphur
c) ash
d) phosphor
Answer: d
Explanation: This component is not determined in Ultimate Analysis.
4. If M and A represent the percentages of moisture and ash respectively, the dry and ash free analysis in
Ultimate Analysis is obtained on dividing other components by the fraction of

a) {1-(M+A)}/100
b) {1-(M-A)}/100
c) {1-(A-M)}/100
d) 1-{(M+A)/100}
Answer: d
Explanation: The fraction of ash and moisture is given by (M+A)/100. So the dry and ash free part is 1-
{(M+A)/100}.
5. The extent of caking in coal is determined using

a) swelling index
b) grindability
c) weatherability
d) heating value
Answer: a
Explanation: Swelling index is the quantitative evaluation method devised to determine the extent of
calling in coal.
6. Coke devoid of volatile matter is called

a) caking coal
b) free-burning coal
c) agglomerate
d) coke
Answer: d
Explanation: Coke is the type of coal devoid of volatile matter.
7. Which of the following property is the inverse of the power required to grind coal to a particular size for
burning?
a) heating value
b) weatherabillity
c) grindability
d) sulphur content
Answer: c
Explanation: This property of coal is measured by the standard Grindability Index.
8. The design of steam generator greatly depends on

a) spontaneous combustion
b) sulphur content
c) ash softening temperature
d) heating value
Answer: c
Explanation: The ash softening temperature is the temperature at which ash becomes plastic. If the
furnace temperature is higher, ash forms molten slag and causes trouble in discharge.
SET 11
“Coal-Oil & Coal-Water Mixtures – II”.
1. Presence of ______________ in dry gaseous fuel does not contribute its calorific value.
a) hydrogen
b) sulphur
c) oxygen

d) carbon
Answer: c
Explanation: Oxygen does not contribute to the calorific value of dry gaseous fuels.
2. Improper storage condition results weathering of coal and spontaneous combustion, which increases its
a) caking index
b) yield of carbonised products
c) calorific value
d) friability and oxygen content
Answer: d
Explanation: Improper storage of coal causes loss of oxygen content, resulting in loss of heat value.
3.Laboratory gas is obtained by cracking of

a) fuel oil
b) gasoline
c) kerosene
d) diesel
Answer: c
Explanation: Kerosene on cracking gives laboratory gas.
4.Higher percentage of ash in coal meant for the production of metallurgical grade coke
a) causes brittleness in coke
b) increases abrasion resistance of coke
c) decreases hardness of coke
d) causes high toughness
Answer: b
Explanation: A high percentage of ash in coal meant for production of metallurgical grade coke causes an
increase in abrasion resistance in coke.
5. Carbon content by weight in air dried wood may be about _____________ %.

a) 25
b) 50
c) 10
d) 80
Answer: b
Explanation: Air dried wood has carbon content of about 50%.
6. Softening temperature of coal is a measure of which tendency of coal?

a) clinkering tendency
b) coking tendency
c) caking tendency
d) size tendency
Answer: a
Explanation: Clinkering tendency is responsible for the softening of coal.
7. Combustion of pulverised coal as compared to lump coal

a) can be done with less excess air
b) develops a low temperature flame
c) develops a non-luminous flames
d) provides a lower rate of heat release

Answer: a
Explanation: Pulverisation leads to less use of air.
8. Dry air required to burn 1kg of carbon completely may be around ________________ kg.
a) 11
b) 38
c) 2
d) 20
Answer: a
Explanation: 11kg of dry air is required to burn 1kg of carbon.
9. ‘Fat coal’ means a coal having

a) high volatile matter
b) low ash content
c) low calorific value
d) non-smoking tendency
Answer: a
Explanation: Coal having high volatile matter is called ‘fat coal’.
10. A good quality coal should have

a) high ash content
b) high sulphur
c) low fusion point of ash
Answer: d
Explanation: A good quality coal should have high carbon content.
11. Grindability of coal is 100. It implies that

a) it can’t be pulverised
b) it is easily pulverised
c) can be pulverised with difficulty
d) power consumption is high in pulverisation
Answer: b
Explanation: High grindability of coal implies easy pulverisation.
12. The difference in total carbon and fixed carbon of coal will be minimum in case of
a) lignite
b) bituminous coal
c) high temperature coke
d) anthracite
Answer: c
Explanation: Out of these options, high temperature coke has minimum difference.
13. Fuel gases containing hydrocarbons are not preheated before burning, because
a) they crack, thereby choking and fouling heat transfer surface
b) it reduces calorific value tremendously
c) it reduces flame temperature tremendously
d) there are chances of explosion during preheating
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrocarbons crack easily, hence they are not preheated.

SET 12
“ASynthetic Fuels, Biomass and Thermodynamic View”.
1. Production of producer gas from coke requires _____________ moles of nitrogen.

a) 3.76
b) 4.51
c) 2.23
d) 3.49
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. Which of the following mode is not used to liquefy coal?

a) hydrogenation
b) catalytic conversion
c) hydro pyrolysis
d) coal gasification
Answer: d
Explanation: In coal gasification, coal is gasified in a situ and the gas is conveyed to the surface. The other
processes are methods of coal liquefaction.
3. What are the first products in Fischer-Tropsch process?

a) CO+H2
b) CO2 +H2
c) Coke + H2O
d) Coke
Answer: a
Explanation: The first products in Fischer-Tropsch process are carbon monoxide and hydrogen.
4. ____________ prohibits the use of alcohols directly in petrol engines.

a) high cost and availability
b) low octane number
c) low flash point
d) low calorific value
Answer: a
Explanation: High cost is the reason for no use of alcohols in petrol engines.
5. Which of these is not a form of bioconversion route?

a) direct combustion
b) fermentation
c) thermochemical conversion
d) biochemical conversion
Answer: b
Explanation: Fermentation is breakdown of complex molecules in organic compounds. It is a type of
biochemical conversion.
6.Which of these is a product of pyrolysis process in dry thermochemical conversion?

a) methane
b) methanol
c) ammonia
d) pyrolytic oils

Answer: d
Explanation: Pyrolytic oils, gas and char are the products of pyrolysis process.
7. Which of these is an important measure of performance in for a power plant?

a) NPHR
b) AP
c) NTO
d) HHV
Answer: a
Explanation: NPHR- net plant heat rate is a most important measure of performance for power plant.AP-
auxillary power NTO-net turbine output NTHR-net turbine heat rate.
8. The overall efficiency of a power plant is given by

a) 3600/NTO
b) 3600/AP
c) 3600/HHV
d) 3600/NPHR
Answer: d
Explanation: The overall efficiency of a power plant is given by ɳ=3600/NPHR.
SET 13
“Draught System”.
1. Which of these terms defines the pressure difference in the furnace?

a) draught
b) duct
c) stack
d) chimney
Answer: a
Explanation: The term ‘draught’ is used to define the static pressure in the furnace, in the various ducts
and the stack.
2. The draught or pressure difference for a chimney of height of H metres is given by

a) Δp=gH(ρa-ρg)
b) Δp=gH(ρg-ρa)
c) Δp=gHρg
d) Δp=gH(ρa+ρg)
Answer: a
Explanation: The draught produced is given by Δp=gH(ρa-ρg).
3. Which of these is not a type of mechanical draft system for a furnace?

a) balanced draft
b) induced draft
c) forced draft
d) actuated draft
Answer: d
Explanation: The three types of mechanical drafts are balanced, induced and forced drafts.
4. Stack heat losses can be minimised by

a) using low c.v. fuels

b) controlling the excess air
c) oxygen enrichment of combustion air
d) maintaining proper draft in the furnace
Answer: b
Explanation: Excess amount of air leads to significant losses in energy due to heat loss through flue gases.
5. Which of these accentuates clinkering trouble on furnace grate burning coal?

a) low reactivity of carbonised residue containing high proportions of iron and sulphur
b) low forced draught and low fuel bed temperature
c) thick fire bed and preheated primary air
Answer: d
Explanation: All these reasons lead to clinkering.
6. Natural draught produced by a chimney depends upon

a) density of chimney gases
b) height of chimney
c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Answer: c
Explanation: Natural draught depends on density of gases in chimney and its height.
7. In a furnace employing forced draught compared to induced draught

a) the fan operates hot and hence blades are liable to corrosion and erosion
b) positive pressure exists in the furnace
c) air is sucked in, so air leaks are more and hence furnace efficiency is reduced
Answer: c
Explanation: A positive pressure exists in the furnace employing forced draught.
8.Which of the following types of the fans has the highest cost?
a) centrifugal fans
b) axial fans
c) primary fans
d) gas recirculation fans
Answer: b
Explanation: Axial fans have the highest cost.
9. Which of these is not a type of drive of variable speed control?

a) variable speed turbine
b) hydraulic coupling
c) multiple speed ac motor
d) electronically adjustable turbine drive
Answer: d
Explanation: Except ‘d’, all other are a type of drive in variable speed control.

SET 14
“Heat of Combustion-I”.
1. Internal energy of combustion products is ______________ than that of reactants.

a) less
b) more or less (depends on state of fuel)
c) same
d) more
Answer: a
Explanation: The internal energy of combustion is given by uRP=UP-UR which gives a negative value.
2. Higher efficiency in combustion of solid fuel cannot be achieved by

a) keeping flue gas temperature very high
b) proper fuel preparation
c) supplying correct quantity of combustion air
d) adopting efficient fuel-firing technique and equipment
Answer: a
Explanation: Keeping flue gas temperature very high does not result in increased efficiency of solid fuel.
3. Bomb calorimeter is used determine the calorific value of

a) solid fuels
b) liquid fuels
c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Answer: c
Explanation: Bomb calorimeter can be used to determine the calorific value of both solid and liquid fuels.
4. Which of these is not a reason for reduction in maximum flame temperature in actuality?
a) incomplete combustion
b) heat loss to exhaust gases
c) excess air requirements
d) heat loss to surroundings
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum flame temperature is defined on the temperature of products; hence it cannot be a
reason for reduction in flame temperature.
5. Grindability index of a coal is 100. It implies that the

a) coal can be easily pulverised
b) coal can be pulverised with great difficulty
c) coal can’t be pulverised
d) power consumption in grinding the coal will be very high
Answer: a
Explanation: Grindability of an object is the ease with which the object can be reduced into powdered
form. A measure of the same is the Grindability index of coal.
6. Tar yield in the low temperature and high temperature carbonisation of dry coal may be respectively
__________ percent.
a) 10 & 3
b) 3 & 10
c) 15 & 8

d) 10 & 20
Answer: a
Explanation: Tar yield in the low temperature and high temperature carbonisation of dry coal may be
respectively 10 & 3 percent.
7. High amount of sulphur and phosphorous in coke causes

a) decrease in its calorific value
b) increase in its strength
c) brittleness of steel made by using it
Answer: d
Explanation: None of the effects are caused by the increased strength of sulphur & phosphorus in coke.
8. The difference between the enthalpy of products & the enthalpy of reactants when complete
combustion occurs at specific temperature & pressure is called?
a) Enthalpy of burning
b) Enthalpy of Combustion
c) Enthalpy of complete combustion
Answer: b
Explanation: Enthalpy of Combustion is defined as, “The difference between the enthalpy of products &
the enthalpy of reactants when complete combustion occurs at specific temperature & pressure”.
9. The internal energy of products minus the internal energy of reactants for complete combustion at
specific temperature & pressure gives the internal energy of?
a) combustion
b) partial combustion
c) complete combustion
Answer: a
Explanation: The internal energy of products minus the internal energy of reactants is called the internal
energy of combustion.
10. HCV stands for?

a) Higher Combustion Value
b) Higher Convection Value
c) Higher Calorific Value
d) Higher Calorific Value
Answer: d
Explanation: HCV is an acronym for High Calorific Value.
SET 15
“Heat of Combustion-II”.
1. The heat transferred when the H2O in the products is in the liquid state is called?
a) HCV
b) LCV
c) LHV

Answer: a
Explanation: The heat transferred when the H2O in the products is in the liquid state is called HCV [Higher
Calorific Value].
2. The heat transferred when the H2O in the products is in the vapour state is called?
a) HCV
b) LCV
c) HHV
Answer: b
Explanation: The heat transferred when the H2O in the products is in the vapour state is called LCV [Lower
Calorific Value].
3. The maximum temperature achieved for given reactants is called?

a) Practical Flame Temperature
b) Critical Temperature
c) Theoretical Flame Temperature
Answer: c
Explanation: Theoretical Flame Temperature is the maximum temperature achieved for given reactants.
4. Maximum Theoretical Flame Temperature corresponds to?

a) Partial Combustion
b) Incomplete Combustion
c) Complete combustion
Answer: c
Explanation: Maximum Theoretical Flame Temperature corresponds to Complete Combustion.
5. In pure oxygen, the maximum flame temperature is

a) higher than the theoretical flame temperature
b) lower than the theoretical flame temperature
c) equal to the theoretical flame temperature
Answer: a
Explanation: In pure oxygen, the maximum flame temperature is higher than the theoretical flame
temperature because of dilution effect of Nitrogen.
6. Maximum permissible temperature in a gas turbine is?

a) Fixed
b) Variable
c) Linearly increasing
d) Linearly decreasing
Answer: a
Explanation: Maximum permissible temperature in a gas turbine is Fixed from metallurgical considerations.
7. Dissociation is directly proportional to temperature.

a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Dissociation is directly proportional to temperature as when the temperature increases, the
amount of dissociation also increases & vice-versa.
8. Spontaneity of a chemical reaction depends on?

a) Enthalpy of reaction
b) Energy of reaction
c) Gibbs Free Energy
Answer: c
Explanation: Gibbs free energy is the parameter which determines the spontaneity of the reaction after
determining its randomness.
9. For exothermic reactions, free energy change is?

a) positive
b) negative
c) zero
Answer: b
determining its randomness. For exothermic reactions, this energy difference has to be negative.
SET 16
“Heat of Combustion-III”.
1. The free energy of chemical elements at 1 atm & 25HoC is assumed to be?
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) Zero
Answer: c
Explanation: Initially, for a certain time. the change in the values of free energy change remains same and
equal to zero.
2. Effect of dissociation is lower for lean mixtures.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Effect of dissociation is directly proportional to the amount of oxygen present in the reaction.
3. The maximum turbine flame temperature can be can be controlled by?

a) amount of oxygen extracted
b) amount of air supplied
c) amount of air extracted
d)none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Turbine maximum flame temperature is controlled entirely by the amount of air supplied.
4.If the enthalpy change for a reaction is zero, ΔG° is equal to

a) TΔS°

b) -TΔS°
c) -ΔH°
d) lnKeq
Answer: b
determining its randomness.
5. Flue gas discharge velocity through chimney of a big thermal power plant may be around __________
m/sec
a) 0.5
b) 500
c) 10
d) 50
Answer: c
Explanation: Flue gas discharge velocity through chimney of a big thermal power plant may be around 10
m/sec.
6. Calorific value of coal middling generated in coal washeries during washing of coal may be around
__________ Kcal/kg.
a) 1000
b) 4000
c) 6000
d) 8000
Answer: b
Explanation: Calorific value of coal middling generated in coal washeries during washing of coal may be
around 4000 Kcal/kg.
7. Combustion of pulverised coal as compared to that of lump coal

a) develops a non-luminous flame
b) can be done with less excess air
c) develops a low temperature flame
Answer: b
Explanation: The amount of air required for combustion of pulverised coal is less in comparison to the
amount of air in the combustion of Lump Coal.
8. For endothermic reactions, Gibbs free energy change has to be?

a) negative
b) positive
c) zero
Answer: b
determining its randomness. For endothermic reactions, this energy difference has to be positive.

PART B
SET 1
Chemical & Nuclear Reactions – I”.
1. Heat is generated in a nuclear reactor (thermal) by

a) fusion of atoms of uranium
b) absorption of neutrons in uranium atoms
c) combustion of nuclear fuel
d) fission of U-235 by neutrons
Answer: d
Explanation: In a nuclear reactor, heat is generated by the fission of U-235 by neutrons.
2. Thorium-232 is converted into uranium-233 in a/an __________ nuclear reactor

a) heavy water moderated
b) fast breeder
c) thermal
d) enriched uranium
Answer: b
Explanation: The conversion of Thorium-232 into Uranium-233 is done in a fast breeder.
3. An electron has a mass that is approximately __________ that of the proton.

a) 1/1836
b) 1
c) 1836
Answer: a
Explanation: The mass of an electron is approx. 1/1836 times that of the mass of proton.
4. Which of the following may not need a control rod?

a) Candu Reactor
b) Liquid metal cooled reactor
c) Fast breeder reactor
Answer: d
Explanation: None of the reactors mentioned above require a control rod.
5. The amount of a radioactive material (having a half-life of 100 years) remaining after 400 years will be
__________ of its original weight.
a) 0.5
b) 0.25
c) 1/8
d) 1/16
Answer: d
Explanation: The amount of a radioactive material (having a half-life of 100 years) remaining after 400
years will be 1/16 of its original weight [by using radioactive decay formula].
6. The amount of a radioisotope remaining un-decayed after a time equal to four times its half-life will be
__________ percent.
a) 3.125

b) 6.25
c) 12.50
d) 25
Answer: b
Explanation: The amount of a radioisotope remaining un-decayed after a time equal to four times its half-
life will be 6.25 percent.
7. The time taken for a radioactive element to reduce to 50% of its original weight is __________ years, if
its half-life period is 12 years
a) 24
b) 6
c) 18
d) 48
Answer: c
Explanation: As per the radioactive decay rule, the required time will be 18 years.
8. Gas cooling as compared to water cooling of nuclear reactors

a) cannot attain a high temperature
b) is more efficient as gas has a higher specific heat.
c) can produce only saturated steam for feeding to power turbine
Answer: d
Explanation: None of the mentioned effects are produced by Gas cooling in comparison to water cooling.
9. The decay product of tritium is?

a) Hydrogen
b) Deuterium
c) Lithium
d) Helium
Answer: b
Explanation: Tritium decays into a Deuterium & a hydrogen atom.
SET 2
“Chemical & Nuclear Reactions – II”.
1. Which of the following may be used to measure the rate of nuclear disintegration?
a) Geiger-Muller Counter
b) Cold Chamber
c) Cyclotron
d) Van De Graph Generator
Answer: a
Explanation: Geiger-Muller Counter is used to measure the rate of nuclear disintegration.
2. The second underground nuclear test was conducted by India at

a) Pokhran
b) Narora
c) Jaisalmer
d) Kalpakkam
Answer: a
Explanation: Pokhran was the place where the second underground nuclear test was conducted by India.

3. Which of the following may not need a moderator?
a) Candu Reactor
b) Fast Breeder Reactor
c) Homogeneous Reactor
Answer: b
Explanation: Fast Breeder Reactor may not need a moderator.
4. The mass number of an element is not changed, when it emits __________ radiations.
a) α & γ
b) α, β, & γ
c) α & β
d) β & γ
Answer: d
Explanation: The mass number of an element is not changed, when it emits β & γ radiations.
5. Which of the following is not a naturally occurring nuclear fuel?

a) Uranium-238
b) Thorium-233
c) Plutonium-239
Answer: c
Explanation: Plutonium-239 is an artificial nuclear fuel.
6. Which is the most commonly used molten metal for cooling of nuclear reactors?
a) Zinc
b) Sulphur
c) Sodium
d) Manganese
Answer: c
Explanation: Sodium is the most commonly used molten metal for cooling of nuclear reactors.
7. One amu is equivalent to?

a) 931 MeV
b) 93.1 eV
c) 9.31 eV
d) 931 J
nswer: a
Explanation: 91 MeV constitutes one amu.
8. Fast breeder reactors do not

a) use molten sodium as coolant
b) use fast neutrons for fission
c) use Th-232 as fissile fuel
d) convert fertile material to fissile material
Answer: c
Explanation: Fast breeder reactors do not use Thorium-232 as fuel.
9. A boiling water reactor is the one, in which the

a) pressurised water is pumped into the core.
b) coolant water, after being heated in the reactor core, generates steam in a boiler

c) fuel and the coolant are thoroughly mixed to form a homogeneous solution
d) coolant water is allowed to boil in the core of the reactor
Answer: d
Explanation: A boiling water reactor is the one, in which the coolant water is allowed to boil in the core of
the reactor.
10. Commercial power generation from fusion reactor is not yet possible, because
a) it is difficult to initiate fusion reaction
b) the fuel required (e.g. deuterium and tritium) is scarce
c) it is difficult to control fusion reaction
d) quantity of fuel required for initiating fusion reaction is prohibitively high
Answer: c
Explanation: As fission reactions are hard to be controlled, the commercial power generation is not yet
possible.
11. Which is a fertile nuclear fuel?

a) U-233
b) U-235
c) Pu-239
d) Th-232
Answer: d
Explanation: Th-232 is the only fertile nuclear fuel amongst all the mentioned nuclear fuel.
12. Thermal shield is used in high powered nuclear reactors to

a) absorb the fast neutrons
b) protect the walls of the reactor from radiation damage
c) slow down the secondary neutrons
d) protect the fuel element from coming in contact with the coolant
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermal shield is used in high powered nuclear reactors to protect the walls of the reactor
from radiation damage.
SET 3
“Nuclear Fission”.
1. The function of moderators in nuclear reactor is to

a) absorb the secondary neutrons
b) slow down the secondary neutrons
c) control the chain reaction
Answer: b
Explanation: The function of moderators in nuclear reactor is to slow down the secondary neutrons.
2. Which of the following is not used as a nuclear fuel cladding material

a) Cadmium
b) Zircalloy
c) Ceramics
d) Stainless Steel
Answer: a
Explanation: Cadmium is not used as a nuclear fuel cladding material.

3. Nuclear fuel complex, Hyderabad is engaged in the job of
a) processing of uranium ore
b) manufacture of nuclear fuel elements/assemblies
c) treatment of spent fuel
Answer: b
Explanation: The Hyderabad complex is involved in the manufacturing of nuclear fuel elements.
4. Which one is different for the neutral atoms of the isotopes of an element ?
a) Number of electrons
b) Atomic weight
c) Atomic number
d) Number of Protons
Answer: b
Explanation: The isotopes are atoms of the same element but with a different atomic weight.
5. Thorium can be converted into U-233 in a __________ reactor.

a) fast breeder
b) liquid metal reactor
c) Curtis reactor
Answer: a
Explanation: Fast breed reactors are used to convert Thorium into U-233.
6. A moderator ______ the neutrons

a) accelerates
b) slows down
c) blocks
d) stops
Answer: b
Explanation: The function of a moderator is to slow down fast moving neutrons thus controlling the extent
of fission reaction.
7. __________ nuclear reactor does not require a heat exchanger to supply steam to power turbine.
a) pressurised water
b) boiling water
c) helium cooled
d) molten sodium cooled
Answer: b
Explanation: Boiling water nuclear reactor does not require a heat exchanger to supply steam to power
turbine.
8. If 4 gm of a radioisotope has a half-life period of 10 days, the half-life of 2 gm of the same istotope will
be __________ days.
a) 10
b) 5
c) 20
d) 30
Answer: a
Explanation: Applying Radioactive Decay law.

9. Thermal neutrons which are used to cause the fission of U-235 have energy __________ eV.
a) >1
b) <0.025
c) >200
d) 1-25
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermal neutrons which are used to cause the fission of U-235 have energy < 0.025 eV.
10. Pick out the wrong statement.

a) Positron is heavier than a proton
b) A, β-ray particle is identical with an electron
c) The nucleus of a hydrogen atom is identical with a proton
d) Mass of an electron is about 1/1800th of the lightest nucleus
Answer: a
Explanation: Positron is lighter than a proton.
11. Specific gravity of uranium and plutonium is about

a) 13
b) 9
c) 19
d) 27
Answer: c
Explanation: Specific gravity of Uranium & Plutonium is about 19.
12. Which of the following types of nuclear reactors is most prone to radioactive hazards?
a) Gas cooled reactor
b) Molten Sodium Reactor
c) Boiling water reactor
d) Pressurised water reactor
Answer: c
Explanation: Boiling water reactor is the most prone to radioactive hazards.
13. The velocity of thermal (slow) neutrons triggering nuclear fission reaction (having energy equal to 0.025
eV) is about __________ metres/second.
a) 1100
b) 2200
c) 3300
d) 4400
Answer: b
Explanation: The velocity of thermal (slow) neutrons triggering nuclear fission reaction (having energy
equal to 0.025 eV) is about 2200 m/sec.
14. Radioactive decay is a ________ change.

a) Physical
b) Chemical
c) Nuclear
Answer: c
Explanation: Radioactive decay is a nuclear phenomenon.
SET 4

“Chain Reaction and Nuclear Reactors”.
1. The atomic weight and atomic number of an element are A and Z respectively. What is the number of
neutrons in the atom of that element?
a) Z
b) A
c) A+Z
d) A-Z
Answer: d
Explanation: Number of neutrons = Atomic weight – Atomic number.
2. The time required for half of the __________ of a radioactive isotope to decay is called its half-life.
a) neutron
b) electron
c) proton
d) nuclei
Answer: d
Explanation: The time required for half of the nuclei of a radioactive isotope to decay is called its half life.
3. Thermal nuclear reactors using enriched uranium as fuel contains a maximum of __________ percent
fissile material i.e. U-235.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
Answer: c
Explanation: Thermal nuclear reactors using enriched uranium as fuel contains a maximum of 6 percent
fissile material i.e. U-235.
4. __________ moderator is used in a fast breeder reactor.

a) Heavy water
b) Graphite
c) No
d) Beryllium
Answer: c
Explanation: A fast breeder reactor doesn’t employ any moderator.
5. Nuclides having the same atomic number are termed as?

a) Isobars
b) Isotones
c) Isotopes
d) Isomers
Answer: d
Explanation: Isomers are nuclides having the same atomic number.
6. Main source of __________ is monazite sand

a) Uranium
b) Polonium
c) Halfnium
d) Thorium

Answer: d
Explanation: Thorium is the main source of Monazite Sand.
7. Emission of β-particles during radioactive decay of a substance is from

a) nucleus
b) innermost shell
c) outermost shell
Answer: a
Explanation: Emission of β-particles during radioactive decay of a substance is from the nucleus as all
emissions are nuclear phenomenon.
8. A fertile material is the one, which can be

a) converted into fissile material on absorption of neutron
b) fissioned by either slow or fast neutrons
c) fissioned by slow (thermal) neutrons
d) fissioned by fast neutrons
Answer: a
Explanation: A fertile material is the one, which can be converted into fissile material on absorption of
neutron.
9. The half-life period of a radioactive element depends on its

a) temperature
b) pressure
c) amount
Answer: d
Explanation: The half-life is independent of the mentioned factors.
10. Which is radioactive in nature?

a) Helium
b) Deuterium
c) Tritium
d) Heavy Hydrogen
nswer: c
Explanation: Tritium is a radioactive element.
11. The most commonly used nuclear fuel in boiling water reactor is
a) enriched uranium
b) plutonium
c) natural uranium
d) monazite sand
Answer: a
Explanation: Enriched uranium is the most commonly used nuclear fuel in boiling water reactor.
12. Enrichment of uranium is done to increase the concentration of __________ in the natural uranium
a) U-235
b) U-233
c) U-238
d) PU-239

Answer: a
Explanation: Enrichment of uranium is done to increase the concentration of U-235 in the natural uranium.
13. Fuel for a nuclear reactor (thermal) is

a) Uranium
b) Plutonium
c) Radium
Answer: a
Explanation: Uranium is the fuel for a thermal reactor.
14. The first underground nuclear test was conducted by India at

a) Pokhran
b) Kalpakkam
c) Jaisalmer
d) Narora
Answer: a
Explanation: Pokhran had the very first underground nuclear test.
SET 5
“Radioactive Decay & Half Life – I”.
1. Fast breeder nuclear reactors using enriched uranium as fuel may contain upto a maximum of
__________ percent of U-235 (i.e. fissile material).
a) 15
b) 45
c) 65
d) 85
Answer: d
Explanation: Fast breeder nuclear reactors using enriched uranium as fuel may contain upto a maximum of
85 percent of U-235 (i.e. fissile material).
2. __________ have the same mass number, but different nuclear charge
a) Isotones
b) Isobars
c) Isotopes
d) Isoemtropic
Answer: b
Explanation: Isobars have the same mass number, but different nuclear charge.
3. Atoms with same number of neutrons, but different number of nucleons are called
a) Isobars
b) Isotones
c) Isotopes
d) Isoters
Answer: b
Explanation: Atoms with same number of neutrons, but different number of nucleons are called Isotones.
4. The half-life period of a radioactive substance is best determined by counting the number of alpha
particles emitted per second in a Geiger Muller counter from its known quantity. If the half-life period of a
radioactive substance is one month, then

a) it will completely disintegrate in two months
b) l/8th of it will remain intact at the end of four months
c) 3/4th of it will disintegrate in two months
d) it will completely disintegrate in four months
5. Which of the following ores contains maximum percentage of uranium?

a) Rescolite
b) Thorium
c) Pitchblende
d) Carnotite
Answer: c
Explanation: Pitchblende contains the maximum percentage of Uranium.
6. Percentage of U-238 in natural uranium is around

a) 29.71
b) 99.29
c) 0.015
d) 0.71
Answer: c
Explanation: Natural Uranium contains around 0.015% of U-238.
7. Uranium ore is currently mined & concentrated at

a) Khetri
b) Alwaye
c) Ghatsilla
d) Jadugoda
Answer: d
Explanation: Uranium ore is currently mined & concentrated at Jadugoda.
8. Graphite is used in nuclear reactor as

a) lubricant
b) fuel
c) retarder of neutron velocity
d) insulation lining of the reactor
Answer: c
Explanation: Graphite is used in nuclear reactor as retarder of neutron velocity.
9. A fast breeder reactor employs

a) U-235 as a fuel
b) water as a coolant
c) graphite as a moderator
Answer: a
Explanation: U-235 is used as a fuel in a fast breeder reactor.
10. A radioactive isotope undergoes decay with respect to time following __________ law
a) logarithmic
b) exponential
c) inverse square
d) linear

Answer: b
Explanation: A radioactive isotope undergoes decay with respect to time following exponential law.
11. U-235 content in enriched uranium, that is normally used in power reactors (e.g., at Tarapur atomic
power plant), is about __________ percent.
a) 50
b) 3
c) 85
d) 97
Answer: b
Explanation: U-235 content in enriched uranium, that is normally used in power reactors (e.g., at Tarapur
atomic power plant), is about 3 percent.
12. The half-life period of a radioactive element is 100 days. After 400 days, one gm of the element will be
reduced to __________ gm.
a) 1/2
b) 1/4
c) 1/8
d) 1/16
Answer: d
Explanation: The half-life period of a radioactive element is 100 days. After 400 days, one gm of the
element will be reduced to1/16 gm.
13. Which of the following is a non-fissile material?

a) Pu-239
b) U-235
c) U-232
d) Th-232
nswer: d
Explanation: Of the mentioned fuels, only Th-232 is the fissile nuclear fuel.
14. Fast breeder reactors are most usable in India, because of our largest __________ deposits.
a) Uranium
b) Plutonium
c) Thorium
Answer: c
Explanation: Fast breeder reactors are most usable in India, because of our largest Thorium deposits.
15. The main ore of thorium is?

a) Magnetite
b) Monazite Sand
c) Pitchblende
Answer: b
Explanation: Monazite Sand is the main ore of Thorium.
SET 6
“Radioactive Decay & Half Life – II”.

1. Commercial power generation from fusion reactor is not yet possible, because
a) it is hard to control fission
b) it is hard to initiate fission
c) it is a non-periodic process
Answer: a
Explanation: The inability of controlled fission makes it tough to enable commercial power generation.
2. First experimental observation of nuclear fission was done by

a) Rutherford
b) Hahn & Strassman
c) Plane
d) Fermi
Answer: d
Explanation: Fermi made the first experimental observation of nuclear fission.
3. Function of control rod in a nuclear reactor is to control

a) pressure
b) temperature
c) fuel consumption
d) absorption of neutrons
Answer: d
Explanation: Control rods control the absorption of neutrons.
4. “Critical mass” is the minimum mass of nuclear fissile material required for the
a) sustainment of chain reaction
b) economic power generation
c) power generation on commercial scale
Answer: a
Explanation: “Critical mass” is the minimum mass of nuclear fissile material required for the sustainment of
chain reaction.
5. Which of the following nuclear materials is fissile?

a) U-239
b) U-235
c) U-232
d) Pu-239
Answer: d
Explanation: Pu-239 is a fissile nuclear material.
6. Unit of Radioactivity is?

a) Curie
b) Angstrom
c) Fermi
d) Barn
Answer: a
Explanation: Curie is the unit of Radioactivity.
7. The ratio of neutrons to protons of an element having a mass number and atomic number of 80 and 40
respectively is

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1
Answer: d
Explanation: Number of neutrons = Atomic weight – Atomic number.
8. Critical energy should be __________ the neutron binding energy of the atom in order to initiate a
nuclear fission.
a) less than
b) equal to
c) either more or less
d) more than
Answer: d
Explanation: Critical energy should be more than the neutron binding energy of the atom in order to
initiate a nuclear fission.
9. The main ore of uranium is

a) cassiterite
b) chalcopyrite
c) pitchblende
d) monazite sand
nswer: c
Explanation: Uranium comes from its main ore Pitchblende.
10. Nucleus of tritium has how many neutrons?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: There are 2 neutrons in tritium.
11. Percentage of natural uranium present in uranium ore found in Jadugoda (Jharkhand) is
a) 2
b) 1
c) 0.1
d) 12
Answer: c
Explanation: Percentage of Uranium present in Jadugoda is 0.01%.
12. Coolant present in the primary circuit of a pressurised water reactor is high pressure
a) saturated steam
b) superheated steam
c) saturated water
d) sub cooled water
13. Candu reactor is a __________ nuclear reactor.

a) natural uranium fuelled heavy water cooled & moderated
b) highly enriched uranium (85% U-235) fuelled

c) homogeneous
d) fast breeder
Answer: a
Explanation: Candu reactor is a natural uranium fuelled heavy water cooled & moderated nuclear reactor.
14. Extraction of uranium from its ore is done using __________ methods.
a) chemical
b) pyrometallurgical
c) electrometallurgical
d) physical benefaction
Answer: a
Explanation: Extraction of uranium from its ore is done using chemical methods.
15. Atoms of U-238 and U-235 differ in structure by three

a) electrons
b) protons
c) neutrons
d) electrons & three protons
Answer: c
Explanation: The two atoms differ in the structure only in the number of neutrons.
SET 7
Fission Analysis – I”.
1. The immediate products of fission are called?

a) fission splits
b) fission fragments
c) fission products
d) fission scatters
Answer: b
Explanation: The immediate outputs of a fission reaction are called fission fragments while the same when
combined with the various by-products are called fission products.
2. Each neutron produces _________ neutron(s) per fission.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: Per fission of one neutron, there is a release of 3 neutrons & hence, fission reactions are hard
to control once started.
3. 1 Curie =
a) 3.615 x 1010 dis/s
b) 3.615 x 100.7 dis.s
c) 3.615 x 1012 dis
d) 3.615 x 10 dis/s
Answer: a
Explanation: The unit of radioactivity, Curie is given as,
1 Curie = 3.615 x 1010 dis/s

4. Te nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope H3 is?
a) Alpha emission
b) Gamma Emission
c) Beta emission
Answer: c
Explanation: The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope H3 is Beta Emission.
5. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Carbon 14 is?

a) Alpha emission
b) Gamma Emission
c) Beta emission
Answer: c
Explanation: The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Carbon 14 is Beta Emission.
6. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Krypton 87 is?

a) Alpha emission
b) Gamma Emission
c) Beta emission
Answer: c
Explanation: The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Krypton 87 is Beta Emission.
7. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Xenon 135 is?

a) Alpha & Beta emission
b) Gamma & Beta Emission
c) Beta emission
Answer: b
Explanation: The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Xenon 135 is Gamma & Beta Emission.
8. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Strontium 90 is?

a) Alpha emission
b) Gamma Emission
c) Beta emission
Answer: c
Explanation: The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Strontium 90 is Beta Emission.
9. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Barium 139 is?

a) Alpha & Beta emission
c) Beta emission
Answer: b
Explanation: The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Barium 139 is Gamma & Beta Emission.
10. The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Radium 223 is?
a) Alpha & Gamma emission

c) Beta emission
Answer: a
Explanation: The nuclear activity occurring in the radioisotope Radium 223 is Alpha & Gamma Emission.
SET 8
Fission Analysis – II”.
1. The half-life of H3 radioisotope is?

a) 12.26 yr
b) 5730 yr
c) 76 min
d) 28.1 yr
Answer: a
Explanation: The Half-life of tritium radioisotope is 12.26 years.
2 Readily fissile isotopes have ___________ half-lives.

a) short
b) long
c) both
Answer: b
Explanation: As the isotopes are fissile, naturally they will have more half-life.
3. The unit superseding Curie as the unit of Radioactivity is?

a) Decibel
b) Hectare
c) Becquerel
Answer: c
Explanation: Becquerel signifies number of disintegrations per second, much similar to the unit Curie.
4. A series of radioactive fissions is called a?

a) Fission Row
b) Fission Chain
c) Fission Column
Answer: b
Explanation: A series of radioactive fission reactions is called a Fission Chain.
5. Beta decay is usually accompanied by?

a) alpha decay
b) beta decay
c) gamma decay
d) gamma radiation
Answer: d
Explanation: The entire beta decay process involves the release of gamma radiation apart from various
factors.
6. The amount of energy in MW-days produced of each metric tonne of fuel is?
a) fuel ignition

b) fuel burnup
c) fuel Chain
d) fuel Column
Answer: b
Explanation: Fuel burnup is the amount of energy in MW-days produced of each metric tonne of fuel.
7. The number of newly born neutrons in an uncontrolled fission reaction is?

a) 2
b) 2.5
c) 2.47
d) 2.38
Answer: c
Explanation: The number of newly born neutrons in an uncontrolled fission reaction is 2.47.
8. The process of losing speed of newly born neutrons on collision with other freshly produced neutrons &
other obstacles in the way is called?
a) Dispersion
b) Diversion
c) Deviation
d) Scattering
Answer: d
Explanation: The process of losing speed of newly born neutrons on collision with other freshly produced
neutrons & other obstacles in the way is called Scattering.
9. In terms of speed, the newly produced neutrons are classed into how many types?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: b
Explanation: In terms of speed, the newly produced neutrons are classed in many types which are Fast,
Slow & Intermediate moving neutrons.
10. The velocity of a fast-moving neutron is?

a) 2 m/s
b) 2.4 x 1010 m/s
c) 4.4 x 1010 m/s
d) 4.4 x 106 m/s
Answer: d
Explanation: The velocity of the newly produced fast moving neutron is 4.4 x 106 m/s.
Set 9
“Pelton Wheel Turbine”.
1. For centrifugal pump impeller, the maximum value of the vane exit angle is
a) 100 to 150
b) 150 to 200
c) 200 to 250
d) 250 to 300

Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum value of the vane exit angle is 200 to 250.
2. In which turbine the pressure energy of water is first converted into kinetic energy by means of nozzle
kept close to the runner?
a) Impulse turbine
b) Reaction turbine
c) Both a and b
Answer: a
Explanation: Impulse Turbine is the one in which pressure energy of water is first converted into kinetic
energy by means of nozzle kept close to the runner.
3. The pressure of water is atmospheric and remains constant while passing over the runner in __________
a) Impulse turbine
b) Reaction turbine
c) Both a and b
Answer: a
Explanation: The pressure of water is atmospheric and remains constant while passing over the runner in
Impulse Turbine.
4. The energy of water entering the reaction turbine is _______

a) fully the kinetic energy
b) fully the pressure energy
c) partly the pressure energy and partly the kinetic energy
d) unpredictable
Answer: c
Explanation: The energy of water entering the reaction turbine is partly the pressure energy and partly the
kinetic energy.
5. Which of the following is an example of impulse turbine?

a) Propeller turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Kaplan turbine
d) Pelton wheel
Answer: d
Explanation: Pelton Wheel Turbine is an example of impulse Turbine.
6. The runner of __________ turbine always be under pressure of above atmospheric pressure
a) Turgo
b) Girand
c) Kaplan
Answer: c
Explanation: The runner of Kaplan turbine always be under pressure of above atmospheric pressure.
7. What is the head of water available at turbine inlet in hydro-electric power plant called?
a) head race
b) tail race
c) gross head

d) net head
Answer: d
Explanation: the head of water available at turbine inlet in hydro-electric power plant called Net Head.
8. Gross head is the difference between __________

a) head race and tail race
b) head race and net head
c) head race and friction losses
d) net head and friction losses
Answer: a
Explanation: Gross head is the difference between head race and tail race.
9. Which of the following hydraulic turbines has a construction given in diagram below?
a) Kaplan turbine
b) Francis turbine
c) Pelton turbine
d) Propeller turbine
Answer: c
Explanation: From the diagram above, it is clear that the turbine shown is a Pelton Wheel Turbine.
10. What is runaway speed of the runner of Pelton wheel?

a) maximum unsafe speed of the runner due to sudden increase in load on turbine
b) minimum safe speed of the runner due to sudden increase in load on turbine
c) maximum unsafe speed of the runner due to sudden decrease in load on turbine
d) minimum safe speed of the runner due to sudden decrease in load on turbine
Answer: c
Explanation: The maximum unsafe speed of the runner due to sudden decrease in load on turbine is called
runaway speed of the runner of Pelton wheel.
11. What is the formula for the velocity of water jet at the inlet of turbine?
Where,
H = Net head acting on Pelton wheel
Cv = coefficient of velocity of jet
a) V = Cv((gH)(1/2))
b) V = 2Cv((gH)(1/2))
c) V = Cv((2gH)(1/2))
d) V = 2Cv((gH)(1/2))
Answer: c
Explanation: The relation between the various quantities mentioned above is given by,
V = Cv((2gH)(1/2)).

12. Power required to drive a centrifugal pump is directly proportional to __________ of its impeller.
a) cube of diameter
b) fourth power of diameter
c) diameter
d) square of diameter
Answer: b
Explanation: Power required to drive a centrifugal pump is directly proportional to fourth power of its
impeller.
13. In a reaction turbine, the draft tube is used

a) to increase the head of water by an amount equal to the height of the runner outlet above the tail race
b) to transport water to downstream
c) to run the turbine full
d) to prevent air to enter the turbine
Answer: a
Explanation: In a reaction turbine, the draft tube is used to increase the head of water by an amount equal
to the height of the runner outlet above the tail race.
14. The specific speed from 160 to 500 r.p.m. of a centrifugal pump indicates that the pump is
a) high speed with radial flow at outlet
b) slow speed with radial flow at outlet
c) medium speed with radial flow at outlet
d) high speed with axial flow at outlet
Answer: d
Explanation: The specific speed from 160 to 500 r.p.m. of a centrifugal pump indicates that the pump is
high speed with axial flow at outlet.
15. Which of the following pump is preferred for flood control and irrigation applications?
a) Reciprocating pump
b) Axial flow pump
c) Mixed flow pump
d) Centrifugal pump
Answer: b
Explanation: Axial flow pump is preferred for flood control and irrigation applications.
Set 10
Kaplan, Francis and Deriaz Turbines – I”.
1. Kinematic similarity is said to exist between the model and the prototype, if both of them
a) are equal in size and shape
b) have identical velocities
c) are identical in shape, but differ only in size
d) have identical forces
Answer: b
Explanation: Kinematic similarity is said to exist between the model and the prototype, if both of them
have identical velocities.
2. The impeller of a centrifugal pump may have

a) vortex casing
b) volute casing

c) volute casing with guide blades
Answer: d
Explanation: The impeller of a centrifugal pump may have vortex casing, volute casing & volute casing with
guide blades.
3. In a Francis turbine runner, the number of blades are generally between

a) 2 to 4
b) 8 to 16
c) 4 to 8
d) 16 to 24
Answer: d
Explanation: In a Francis turbine runner, the number of blades are generally between 16 to 24.
4. The hydraulic efficiency of a reaction turbine, is the ratio of

a) actual work available at the turbine to energy imparted to the wheel
b) power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by the turbine
c) work done on the wheel to the energy actually supplied to the turbine
Answer: c
Explanation: The hydraulic efficiency of a reaction turbine, is the ratio of work done on the wheel to the
energy supplied to the turbine.
5. If the ratios of the corresponding forces acting at corresponding points are equal, then the model and
the prototype are said to have.
a) kinematic similarity
b) geometric similarity
c) dynamic similarity
Answer: c
Explanation: If the ratios of the corresponding forces acting at corresponding points are equal, then the
model and the prototype are said to have dynamic similarly.
6. In a reciprocating pump, air vessels are used to

a) increase delivery head
b) reduce suction head
c) smoothen the flow
d) reduce acceleration head
Answer: d
Explanation: In a reciprocating pump, air vessels are used to reduce acceleration head.
7. The ratio of quantity of liquid discharged per second from the pump to the quantity of liquid passing per
second through the impeller is known as
a) overall efficiency
b) volumetric efficiency
c) manometric efficiency
d) mechanical efficiency
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of quantity of liquid discharged per second from the pump to the quantity of liquid
passing per second through the impeller is known as volumetric efficiency.

8. The working of which of the following hydraulic units is based on Pascal’s law?
a) Hydraulic coupling
b) Air lift pump
c) Jet pump
d) Hydraulic press
Answer: d
Explanation: The working of which of the following hydraulic units is based on Pascal’s law Hydraulic press.
9. Which of the following pump is generally used to pump highly viscous fluid?
a) Air lift pump
b) Centrifugal pump
c) Screw pump
d) Reciprocating pump
Answer: a
Explanation: Air lift pump is used to pump highly viscous fluids up the height.
10. The maximum efficiency of jet propulsion of a ship with inlet orifices at right angles to the direction of
motion of ship, will be
a) 40%
b) 50%
c) 60%
d) 80%
Answer: b
Explanation: maximum efficiency of jet propulsion of a ship with inlet orifices at right angles to the
direction of motion of ship is 50%.
11. By fitting an air vessel to the reciprocating pump, there is always a saving of work done and
subsequently saving of power. This saving in case of a single acting reciprocating pump is
a) 84.8%
b) 74.8%
c) 64.8%
d) 54.8%
Answer: a
Explanation: Required percentage saving is 84.8%.
12. A Pelton wheel working under a constant head and discharge, has maximum efficiency when the speed
ratio is
a) 0.26
b) 0.36
c) 0.46
d) 0.56
Answer: d
Explanation: The maximum speed ratio of a Pelton wheel turbine is 0.56.
13. The cups at the periphery of the Pelton wheel are?

a) equiangular
b) equidistant
c) equimolar
Answer: b
Explanation: The buckets in a Pelton Turbine are equidistant.

Set 11
Kaplan, Francis and Deriaz Turbines – II”.
1. The maximum number of jets, generally, employed in an impulse turbine without jet interference are
a) 2
b) 6
c) 7
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: The maximum number of jets, generally, employed in an impulse turbine without jet
interference are 2.
2. A Francis turbine is used when the available head of water is

a) 0 to 25 m
b) 25 to 250 m
c) > 250 m
nswer: b
Explanation: Francis Turbine is used for high heads of water.
3. The overall efficiency of a reaction turbine is the ratio of

a) actual work available at the turbine to the energy imparted to the wheel
b) power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by the turbine
c) workdone on the wheel to the energy (or head of water) actually supplied to the turbine
Answer: b
Explanation: The overall efficiency of a reaction turbine is the ratio of power produced by the turbine to
the energy actually supplied by the turbine.
4. Manometric head, in case of a centrifugal pump, is equal to

a) Suction lift + Loss of head in suction pipe due to friction + Delivery lift + Loss of head in delivery pipe due
to friction + Velocity head in the delivery pipe
b) Energy per kN at outlet of impeller – Energy per kN at inlet of impeller
c) Workdone per kN of water – Losses within the impeller
Answer: d
Explanation: Manometric head, in case of a centrifugal pump = Suction lift + Loss of head in suction pipe
due to friction + Delivery lift + Loss of head in delivery pipe due to friction + Velocity head in the delivery
pipe = Energy per kN at outlet of impeller – Energy per kN at inlet of impeller = Workdone per kN of water
– Losses within the impeller.
5. The mechanical efficiency of an impulse turbine is

a) ratio of the actual power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by the turbine
b) ratio of the actual work available at the turbine to the energy imparted to the wheel
c) ratio of the Work done on the wheel to the energy of the jet
Answer: b
Explanation: The mechanical efficiency of an impulse turbine is ratio of the actual work available at the
turbine to the energy imparted to the wheel.

6. The speed of an imaginary turbine, identical with the given turbine, which will develop a unit power
under a unit head, is known as
a) unit speed
b) terrific speed
c) specific velocity
d) specific speed
Answer: d
Explanation: The speed of an imaginary turbine, identical with the given turbine, which will develop a unit
power under a unit head, is known as Specific Speed.
7. Geometric similarity is said to exist between the model and the prototype, if both of them
a) are equal in size and shape
b) have identical velocities
c) have identical forces
d) are identical in shape, but differ only in size
Answer: d
Explanation: Geometric similarity is said to exist between the model and the prototype, if both of them are
identical in shape, but differ only in size.
8. A centrifugal pump will start delivering liquid only when the pressure rise in the impeller is equal to the
a) manometric head
b) velocity head
c) kinetic head
d) static head
Answer: a
Explanation: A centrifugal pump will start delivering liquid only when the pressure rise in the impeller is
equal to the manometric head.
9. Slip of a reciprocating pump is defined as the

a) sum of actual discharge and the theoretical discharge
b) ratio of actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
c) difference of theoretical discharge and the actual discharge
d) product of theoretical discharge and the actual discharge
Answer: c
Explanation: Slip of a reciprocating pump is defined as the difference of theoretical discharge and the
actual discharge.
10. Multi-stage centrifugal pumps are used to

a) produce high heads
b) give high discharge
c) pump viscous fluids
Answer: a
Explanation: Multi-stage centrifugal pumps are used to produce high heads.
11. A hydraulic coupling belongs to the category of

a) power absorbing machines
b) energy transfer machines
c) power developing machines
d) energy generating machines

Answer: b
Explanation: A hydraulic coupling belongs to the category of energy transfer machines.
12. Discharge of a centrifugal pump is

a) inversely proportional to (diameter)2 of its impeller
b) inversely proportional to diameter of its impeller
c) directly proportional to (diameter)2 of its impeller
d) directly proportional to diameter of its impeller
Answer: a
Explanation: Discharge of a centrifugal pump is inversely proportional to (diameter) 2 of its impeller.
13. Which of the following turbine is preferred for 0 to 25 m head of water?

a) Kaplan Turbine
b) Pelton Turbine
c) Francis Turbine
Answer: a
Explanation: Kaplan turbine is preferred for low heads of water.
Set 12
“Diesel Engine Basics”.
1. If the temperature of intake air in internal combustion engine increases, then its efficiency will
a) remain same
b) increase
c) decrease
Answer: c
Explanation: The efficiency of an IC Engine is inversely proportional to the temperature of intake air.
2. The operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the engine cylinder is known as
a) Supercharging
b) Scavenging
c) Turbulence
d) Pre-ignition
3. The ignition quality of petrol is expressed by

a) Cetane number
b) Octane number
c) Calorific Value
Answer: b
Explanation: Octane number estimates the quality of petrol.
4. The mean effective pressure obtained from engine indicator indicates the
a) maximum pressure developed
b) minimum pressure developed
c) Instantaneous pressure at any point
d) Average pressure

Answer: d
Explanation: The mean effective pressure indicates the average pressure on the engine.
5. The probability of knocking in diesel engines is increased by

a) high self-ignition temperature
b) low volatility
c) high viscosity
d) all the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The probability of knocking in diesel engines is increased by keeping high self-ignition
temperature, low volatility, high viscosity, etc.
6. Reactors for propulsion applications are designed for

a) any form of uranium
b) natura uranium
c) enriched uranium
d) thorium
Answer: c
Explanation: Enriched uranium is the material that is used for making reactors for propulsion application.
7. Pour point of fuel oil is the

a) Minimum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off inflammable vapours in sufficient
quantity to ignite momentarily when brought in contact with a flame
b) Temperature at which it solidifies or congeals
c) It catches fire without external aid
d) Indicated by 90% distillation temperature i.e., when 90% of sample oil has distilled off
Answer: b
Explanation: The temperature at which fuel oil solidifies or congeals is called pour point of fuel oil.
8. The maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the order of(in degree Celsius)
a) 500-1000
b) 1000-1500
c) 1500-2000
d) 2000-2500
Answer: d
Explanation: The maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the order of(in degree Celsius) is
2000-25000 degree Celsius.
9. In compression ignition engines, swirl denotes a

a) Haphazard motion of the gases in the chamber
b) Rotary motion of the gases in the chamber
c) Radial motion of the gases in the chamber
Answer: b
Explanation: Swirl in a compression ignition engine denotes rotary motion of the gases in the chamber.
10. Supercharging is the process of

a) Supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding
atmosphere
b) Supplying compressed air to remove combustion products fully
c) Providing excess temperature to the sucked in gases

Answer: a
Explanation: Supercharging is the process of supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater
than the density of the surrounding atmosphere.
11. The object of supercharging the engine is

a) to increase the power output of an engine when greater power is required
b) to reduce mass of the engine per brake power
c) to reduce space occupied by the engine
Answer: d
Explanation: Supercharging is done to increase the power output of an engine, to reduce mass of the
engine per brake power & to reduce space occupied by the engine.
12. The compensating jet in a carburettor supplies almost constant amount of petrol at all speeds because
the
a) jet area is automatically varied depending on the suction
b) the flow from the main jet is diverted to the compensating jet with increase in speed
c) flow is produced due to the static head in the float chamber
d) the diameter of the jet is constant and the discharge coefficient is invariant
Answer: c
Explanation: The compensating jet in a carburettor supplies almost constant amount of petrol at all speeds
because the flow is produced due to the static head in the float chamber.
13. The ratio of the volume of charge admitted at N.T.P. to the swept volume of the piston is called
a) overall efficiency
b) mechanical efficiency
c) relative efficiency
d) volumetric efficiency
Answer: d
Explanation: Volumetric Efficiency is the ratio of the volume of charge admitted at N.T.P. to the swept
volume of the piston.
14. A moderator generally used in nuclear power plants is

a) heavy water
b) concrete
c) graphite & concrete
d) graphite
Answer: c
Explanation: A moderator generally used in nuclear power plants is made up of graphite & concrete.
15. In a diesel engine, the duration between the time of injection and ignition, is known as
a) delay period
b) period of ignition
c) burning period
d) pre-ignition period
Answer: a
Explanation: In a diesel engine, the duration between the time of injection and ignition, is known as delay
period.
Set 13

“Diesel Engine Types and their Applications – I”.
1. Nuclear Reactors are used

a) to produce heat for thermoelectric power
b) to propel ships, submarines, aircrafts
c) to produce fissionable material
Answer: d
Explanation: Nuclear reactors have wide range of usage which include producing heat for thermoelectric
power, ship propulsion, production of fissionable materials, etc.
2. Where reactor operation is designed with fast neutrons such as in reactors using highly enriched fuel,
the moderator used is
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Heavy Water
c) Graphite
d) No moderator is needed
Answer: d
Explanation: Where reactor operation is designed with fast neutrons such as in reactors using highly
enriched fuel, no moderator is required.
3. The expansion of fuel in a four stroke cycle diesel engine

a) starts at 15° after top dead centre and ends at 30° before bottom dead centre
b) starts at top dead centre and ends at 30° after top dead centre
c) may start and end anywhere
d) starts at 15° before top dead centre and ends at 30° after top dead centre
Answer: a
Explanation: The expansion of fuel in a four stroke cycle diesel engine starts at 15° after top dead centre
and ends at 30° before bottom dead centre.
4. A moderator, in nuclear power plants, is a medium introduced into the fuel mass in order to
a) slow down the speed of fast moving neutrons
b) control the reaction
c) reduce the temperature
d) extract heat from nuclear reaction
Answer: a
Explanation: A moderator, in nuclear power plants, is a medium introduced into the fuel mass in order to
slow down the speed of fast moving neutrons.
5. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines is about

a) 30%
b) 15%
c) 50%
d) 70%
Answer: d
Explanation: The thermal efficiency of diesel engines is about 70%.
6. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the charge is ignited at

a) 30° after bottom dead centre
b) 30° before bottom dead centre
c) 30° after top dead centre

d) 30° before top dead centre
Answer: d
Explanation: In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the charge is ignited at 30° before top dead centre.
7. The exhaust valve in a four stroke cycle petrol engine

a) opens at 50° after bottom dead centre and closes at 15° before top dead centre
b) opens at 50° before bottom dead centre and closes at 15° after top dead centre
c) opens at bottom dead centre and closes at top dead centre
d) may open and close anywhere
Answer: b
Explanation: The exhaust valve in a four stroke cycle petrol engine opens at 50° before bottom dead centre
and closes at 15° after top dead centre.
8. The brake power of a diesel engine, keeping other parameters constant, can be increased by
a) increasing the pressure of intake air
b) decreasing the density of intake air
c) decreasing the pressure of intake air
d) increasing the temperature of intake air
Answer: a
Explanation: The brake power of a diesel engine, keeping other parameters constant, can be increased by
increasing the pressure of intake air.
9. In a four stroke cycle, the minimum temperature inside the engine cylinder occurs at the
a) end of suction stroke
b) beginning of exhaust stroke
c) beginning of suction stroke
d) end of exhaust stroke
Answer: c
Explanation: In a four stroke cycle, the minimum temperature inside the engine cylinder occurs at the
beginning of exhaust stroke.
10. The effective inhibitor of pre-ignition is

a) alcohol
b) lead
c) water
Answer: c
Explanation: Water is the most effective inhibitor of pre-ignition.
SET 14
“Diesel Engine Types and their Applications – II”.
1. The reference fuels for knock rating of spark ignition engines would include
a) normal octane and aniline
b) iso-octane and normal hexane
c) iso-octane and alpha-methyl naphthalene
d) normal heptane and iso-octane
Answer: d
Explanation: The reference fuels for knock rating of spark ignition engines would include normal heptane
and iso-octane.

2. The purpose of testing an internal combustion engine is
a) to conform the data used in design, the validity of which may be doubtful
b) to satisfy the customer regarding the performance of the engine
c) to determine the information, which cannot be obtained by calculations
Answer: d
Explanation: The purpose of testing an internal combustion engine is to conform the data used in design, the
validity of which may be doubtful; to satisfy the customer regarding the performance of the engine & to
determine the information, which cannot be obtained by calculations.
3. Pre-ignition is caused by the spontaneous combustion of the mixture before the end of the compression
stroke, and is due to
a) overheated spark plug points
b) red hot carbon deposits on cylinder walls
c) cylinder walls being too hot
Answer: d
Explanation: Pre-ignition is caused by the spontaneous combustion of the mixture before the end of the
compression stroke, and is due to either overheated spark plug points, red hot carbon deposits on cylinder
walls, & cylinder walls being too hot.
4. The thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle for a compression ratio of 5.5 will be
a) 20%
b) 25%
c) 50%
d) 55%
Answer: c
Explanation: The Thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle for a compression ratio r is given by,
N = 1 – (1/r1.4-1).
5. The fuels in order of decreasing knock tendency for spark ignition engines are
a) Paraffin, aromatic, napthene
b) Paraffin, napthene, aromatic
c) Napthene, aromatics, paraffin
d) Napthene, paraffin, aromatic
Answer: b
Explanation: The fuels in order of decreasing knock tendency for spark ignition engines are Paraffin,
napthene, aromatic.
6. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the pressure inside the engine cylinder during the suction stroke is
__________ the atmospheric pressure.
a) equal to
b) below
c) above
d) middle
Answer: b
Explanation: In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the pressure inside the engine cylinder during the suction
stroke is below the atmospheric pressure.
7. Solid fuel fabricated into various small shapes, which are assembled to form fuel elements, is in the form
of
a) pallets

b) plates
c) pins
Answer: d
Explanation: Solid fuel fabricated into various small shapes are of the form of pallets, plates, pins, etc.
8. A diesel engine is __________ as compared to petrol engine, both running at rated load.
a) equally efficient
b) more efficient
c) less efficient
Answer: b
Explanation: A diesel engine is more efficient as compared to petrol engine, both running at rated load.
9. A higher compression ratio causes

a) increase in detonation
b) pre-ignition
c) an acceleration in the rate of combustion
d) any one of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: A higher compression ratio causes increased detonation, increased rate of combustion & pre-
ignition.
10. Which one of the following event would reduce volumetric efficiency of a vertical compression ignition
engine?
a) inlet valve closing before bottom dead centre
b) inlet valve closing after bottom dead centre
c) inlet valve opening before top dead centre
d) exhaust valve closing after top dead centre
Answer: a
Explanation: Inlet valve closing before bottom dead centre would reduce the volumetric efficiency of a
vertical compression ignition engine.
SET 15
“Diesel Engine Analysis”.
1. A fuel of cetane number 40 has the same ignition quality as a mixture of

a) 40% alpha methyl napthalene and 60% cetane
b) 40% cetane and 60% alpha methyl napthalene
c) 40% petrol and 60% diesel
d) 40% diesel and 60% petrol
Answer: b
Explanation: A fuel of cetane number 40 has the same ignition quality as a mixture of 40% cetane and 60%
alpha methyl naphthalene.
2. The control rods in the control system of nuclear reactors are used to
a) control fuel consumption
b) absorb excess neutrons
c) control temperature

Answer: b
Explanation: The function of control rods is to absorb the excess neutrons released during fission.
3. The pressure at the end of compression, in petrol engines, is approximately

a) 10 bar
b) 20 bar
c) 25 bar
d) 35 bar
Answer: a
Explanation: The pressure at the end of compression, in petrol engines, is approximately 10 bar.
4. If the speed of the engine is increased, the indicated power will

a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain same
Answer: a
Explanation: The speed of the engine & indicated power are inter related as they are directly proportional
to each other, so if one increases, the other also increases & vice-versa.
5. Number of working strokes per min. for a two stroke cycle engine are __________ the speed of the
engine in r.p.m.
a) equal to
b) one-half
c) four-times
d) twice
Answer: a
Explanation: Number of working strokes per min. for a two stroke cycle engine are equal to the speed of
the engine in rpm.
6. Reflector in nuclear power plants __________ neutron leakage.

a) increases
b) decreases
c) has no effect
Answer: b
Explanation: Reflector in nuclear power plants decreases neutron leakage.
7. In order to eliminate knocking in compression ignition engines, there should be

a) high self-ignition temperature of fuel
b) late auto-ignition
c) short delay period
d) low compression ratio
Answer: c
Explanation: In order to eliminate knocking in compression ignition engines, there should be a shorter
delay period.
8. Which of the following statement is correct?

a) Compression ratio for petrol engines varies from 6 to 10
b) Petrol engines work on Otto cycle
c) Higher compression ratio in diesel engines results in higher pressures

Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned statements are correct.
9. The injector nozzle of a compression ignition engine is required to inject fuel at a sufficiently high
pressure in order to
a) inject fuel at a high velocity to facilitate atomization
b) inject fuel in a chamber of high pressure at the end of compression stroke
c) ensure that penetration is not high
Answer: d
Explanation: The fuel injection is at a sufficiently higher pressure in order to inject fuel at a high velocity to
facilitate atomisation, to inject fuel in a chamber of high pressure at the end of compression stroke & to
ensure that penetration is not high.
10. The two reference fuels used for cetane rating are
a) cetane & iso-octane
b) cetane & normal heptane
c) cetane & alpha methyl naphthalene
d) cetane & tetra ethyl lead
Answer: c
Explanation: Cetane & alpha methyl naphthalene are the two reference fuels used for cetane rating.
11. In petrol engines, the delay period is of the order of

a) 0.001 sec
b) 0.002 sec
c) 0.003 sec
d) 0.004 sec
Answer: b
Explanation: The delay period in petrol engines is of the order of 0.002 sec.
12. The voltage required to produce a spark across the gap, between the sparking points is
a) 2000-4000 volts
b) 4000-6000 volts
c) 6000-10000 volts
d) 10000-12000 volts
Answer: c
Explanation: The voltage required to produce a spark across the gap, between the sparking points is 6000-
10000 Volts.
13. The scavenging efficiency of a tour stroke cycle diesel engine is

a) between 50-85%
b) between 95-100%
c) below 50%
d) between 85-95%
Answer: b
Explanation: The scavenging efficiency of a tour stroke cycle diesel engine is between 95-100%.
14. The specific fuel consumption per B.P. hour for a petrol engine is about
a) 0.2 kg
b) 0.25 kg

c) 0.3 kg
d) 0.35 kg
Answer: b
Explanation: The brake specific fuel consumption for a petrol engine is about 0.25 kg.
15. The material most commonly used for shielding is

a) Carbon
b) Concrete
c) Lead
Answer: c
Explanation: Lead is the material that is most commonly used for Shielding.
SET 16
“Pulverisation and Gasifiers”.
1. Temperature of preheated air used for the transportation of pulverised coal through pipes to the burner
of a boiler furnace is restricted to a maximum limit of about 300° C to avoid the
a) requirement of large volume of combustion chamber
b) incomplete combustion of coal
c) risk of explosion
d) chances of clinker formation
Answer: c
Explanation: Temperature of preheated air used for the transportation of pulverised coal through pipes to
the burner of a boiler furnace is restricted to a maximum limit of about 300° C to avoid the risk of
explosion owing to the reacting mixture.
2. The temperature at which plastic layer formation takes place during carbonisation of coal varies from
__________ °C.
a) 100-150
b) 350-450
c) 700-850
d) 550-650
Answer: b
Explanation: The temperature at which plastic layer formation takes place during carbonisation of coal
varies from 350 to 450 °C.
3. Which of the following is not a by-product recovered in a high temperature coal carbonisation plant?
a) Benzol
b) Ethylene
c) Pitch-cresosote mixture (PCM)
d) Naphthalene
Answer: b
Explanation: Apart from Ethylene all the others are by-products obtained in high temperature coal
carbonisation plant.
4. Pick out the wrong statement.

a) Regulation of furnace temperature and atmosphere (oxidising or reducing) is easily possible with
pulverised fuel firing
b) Low grade coal can be used, but generally high volatile matter coals are more suitable for making

pulverised fuel
c) Pulverised fuel can be completely burnt with less percentage of excess air compared to lump coal
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned statements are correct.
5. Flue gas discharge velocity through chimney of a big thermal power plant may be around __________
m/sec.
a) 0.5
b) 500
c) 10
d) 50
Answer: c
Explanation: Flue gas discharge velocity through chimney of a big thermal power plant may be around 10
m/sec.
6. Calorific value of coal middling generated in coal washeries during washing of coal may be around
__________ Kcal/kg.
a) 1000
b) 4000
c) 6000
d) 8000
Answer: b
Explanation: Calorific value of coal middling generated in coal washeries during washing of coal may be
around 4000 Kcal/kg.
7. Combustion of pulverised coal as compared to that of lump coal

a) develops a non-luminous flame
b) can be done with less excess air
c) develops a low temperature flame
Answer: b
Explanation: Combustion of pulverised coal as compared to that of lump coal can be done with less excess
air.
8. The decrease in the atomic number is not observed in case of

a) alpha emission
b) beta emission
c) gamma emission
Answer: b
Explanation: There is no change in the atomic number as the number of electrons remains the same.
SET 17
“Kinetic and Diffusion Control – I”.
1. Which of these is the outer most coating in the burning of a coke particle?
a) Oxygen
b) Carbon monoxide
c) Carbon dioxide

d) Ash Layer
Answer: a
Explanation: Oxygen, being a supporter of combustion helps in combustion of coke particle and so forms a
layer on the periphery of the coke particle.
2. Which law deals with the rate of diffusion of Oxygen per unit surface area of the particle?
a) Kirchhoff’s Law
b) Plank’s Law
c) Fourier’s Law
d) Fick’s Law
Answer: d
Explanation: Fick’s Law deals with the rate of diffusion of Oxygen per unit surface area of the particle.
3. If d is the diffusion coefficient and t is the boundary layer thickness. Then the mass transfer coefficient k
is given by?
a) k = d x t
b) k = d / t
c) k = d + t
d) k = d – t
Answer: b
Explanation: If d is the diffusion coefficient and t is the boundary layer thickness. Then the mass transfer
coefficient k is given by,
k = d / t.
4. Gobar gas is produced by the __________ of ‘gobar’ (cow dung).

a) Fermentation
b) Condensation
c) Combustion
d) Distillation
Answer: a
Explanation: Fermentation is the process which converts cow’s dung into ‘Gobar Gas’.
5. Coking time in beehive coke oven is about

a) one week
b) 12 hours
c) 2-3 days
d) 2 weeks
Answer: c
Explanation: The total time of coking in a beehive oven is about 2-3 days.
6. __________ present in coal is not determined in its ultimate analysis.

a) Fixed Carbon
b) Total Carbon
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: a
Explanation: Fixed Carbon present in coal is not determined in its ultimate analysis. It is determined by
Proximate analysis of Coal.
7. The maximum adiabatic flame temperature is attained, when the fuel is burnt with
a) theoretically required amount of air.

b) less than theoretically required amount of air.
c) more than theoretically required amount of air.
d) theoretically required amount of oxygen
Answer: d
Explanation: The maximum adiabatic flame temperature is attained, when the fuel is burnt with
theoretically required amount of Oxygen.
8. Height of coke oven is limited (say maximum up to 7 metres) mainly by the

a) problem of uniform heating along its height.
b) structural strength of silica bricks
c) problem in door cleaning
d) buckling of ram of pusher car at the time of coke pushing
Answer: a
Explanation: Height of coke oven is limited (say maximum up to 7 metres) mainly by the problem of
Uniform heating as the heat is distributed along the height.
9. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?

a) Sub – bituminous
b) Anthracite
c) Lignite
d) Peat
Answer: b
Explanation: Among the given varieties of coal, the highest calorific value is possessed by the one which
has the maximum carbon content. Here, Anthracite has the maximum Calorific Value.
SET 18
Kinetic and Diffusion Control – II
1. Higher fuel combustion efficiency cannot be achieved by

a) preheating of fuel gases & combustion air
b) supplying correct amount of combustion air
c) reducing sulphur content in the fuel
d) adopting proper fuel firing technique & fuel preparation
Answer: c
Explanation: Higher fuel combustion efficiency cannot be achieved by reducing the sulphur content in the
fuel as sulphur content has nothing much to do with the combustion efficiency.
2. A particular coal is said to be free burning when it

a) gives smokeless burning
b) shows little or no fusing action
c) burns completely
Answer: b
Explanation: When a coal shows little or no fusing action, it is said to be free burning.
3. Bunsen burner is an example of a/an __________ burner.

a) inside mixing/premix type
b) submerged combustion
c) rotary cup
d) outside mixing/diffusion flame/nozzle mix type

Answer: a
Explanation: Bunsen burner is an example of a/an inside mixing/premix type burner.
4. The cooling medium used in dry quenching of coke is

a) nitrogen
b) air
c) phenolic water
d) carbon dioxide
Answer: a
Explanation: The cooling medium used in dry quenching of coke is nitrogen.
5. High amount of sulphur and phosphorous in coke causes

a) increase in its strength
b) decrease in its calorific value
c) brittleness of steel made by using it
Answer: c
Explanation: Steel is made brittle by the presence of high amount of sulphur and phosphorus in coke.
6. Cannel coal and boghead coal are the examples of

a) liptobiolites
b) humic coals
c) sapropelic coals
Answer: c
Explanation: Cannel coal and boghead coal are the examples of Sapropelic Coals. Sapropelic Coals are rich
in microscopic organic matter derived from waxy or resinous plant parts and have high yields of volatile
matter.
7. The difference between total carbon and fixed carbon of coal will be minimum in case of
a) anthracite
b) lignite
c) bituminous
d) high temperature coke (V.M < 0.5%)
Answer: d
Explanation: The difference between total carbon and fixed carbon of coal will be minimum in case of high
temperature coke. The high temperature coke has low volatile matter that is the erason for the same.
8. Out of the following fuels, the difference between the net and gross calorific value is maximum in case
of
a) fuel oil
b) blast furnace gas
c) bituminous coal
d) pitch
Answer: a
Explanation: The difference between the net and gross calorific value is maximum in case of
Fuel Oil.
9. Which of the following is the maximum coal producing state in India?

a) Orissa
b) West Bengal
c) Jharkhand

d) Assam
Answer: c
Explanation: Jamshedpur has the highest production of coal in India.
10. A good quality coal should have

a) low fusion point of ash
b) high sulphur
c) high ash content
Answer: d
Explanation: A good quality coal should have high concentration of carbon, low moisture content, etc.
11. __________ prohibits the use of alcohols directly in petrol engines.

a) High cost & difficult availability
b) Low octane number
c) Low flash point
d) Low calorific value
Answer: a
Explanation: High cost & difficult availability prohibits the use of alcohols directly in petrol engines.
12. The hottest part of the flame lies in its ____ zone.
a) non-luminous
b) luminous
c) yellow
d) unburnt gases
Answer: a
Explanation: The hottest part of the flame lies in its non-luminous zone.
13. Percentage of methane in coke oven gas may be around

a) 5
b) 15
c) 25
d) 35
Answer: c
Explanation: Percentage of methane in coke oven gas may be around 25%.
SET 19
“Coal Firing Systems – I”.
1. __________ of the coal is the basis for Seylor’s coal classification.

a) Proximate analysis
b) Calorific value
c) Ultimate analysis
d) Caking index
Answer: c
Explanation: Ultimate Analysis of the coal is the basis for Seylor’s coal classification.
2. Yield of pitch from distillation of high temperature tar is around __________ percent.
a) 10
b) 25

c) 65
d) 100
Answer: c
Explanation: Yield of pitch from distillation of high temperature tar is around 65 percent.
3. Caking index of the coal blend used for the manufacture of metallurgical coke should be around
a) 5
b) 40
c) 21
d) 48
4. High excess air in combustion of fuels results in

a) smoky flame
b) increased fuel consumption
c) incomplete combustion
Answer: b
Explanation: High excess air in combustion of fuels results in increased fuel consumption. More the
quantity of air in the fuel, more lean a mixture becomes.
5. The heat of combustion of a fuel

a) is equal to the heat of formation
b) is always negative
c) can’t be known without calculating it
d) is always positive
Answer: b
Explanation: The heat of combustion of a fuel is always negative as always some heat has to be given
(supplied) to the fuel for burning it.
6. _________ has the widest inflammability limit (explosion limit) of all the gases.
a) Carbon monoxide
b) Methane
c) Hydrogen
d) Acetylene
Answer: d
Explanation: Acetylene has the widest inflammability limit (explosion limit) of all the gases. That is another
factor due to which the gas is used in Gas welding.
7. Main constituents of benzol are

a) benzene, toluene & xylene
b) tar & creosote
c) ammonia & phenol
d) anthracene & phenol
Answer: a
Explanation: Benzol comprises of benzene, toluene and xylene.
8. With increase in moisture content of coal, its

a) calorific value increases sometimes
b) bulk density always decreases
c) clinkering tendency during combustion increases

Answer: d
Explanation: None of the mentioned factors behave in the manner when the moisture content increases.
9. Oxygen percentage (by weight) in atmospheric air is

a) 22
b) 20
c) 19
d) 21
Answer: d
Explanation: 21 % of the atmospheric air is Oxygen.
10. In flue gas analysis by Orsat’s apparatus, carbon dioxide is absorbed by

a) cuporus chloride
b) dilute potassium carbonate
c) potassium hydroxide
d) alkaline pyragllol solution
Answer: c
Explanation: In flue gas analysis by Orsat’s apparatus, carbon dioxide is absorbed by potassium hydroxide.
SET 20
“Coal Firing Systems – II”.
1. Presence of free moisture in coal is most disadvantageous during

a) combustion of fire slacks on the grates
b) its pulverisation
c) handling (e.g. when emptying wagons)
Answer: b
Explanation: As pulverisation of coal is a power consuming process, the presence of free moisture in coal is
most disadvantageous.
2. Abrasion index of blast furnace coke should be around __________ percent.

a) 20
b) 35
c) 80
d) 55
Answer: c
Explanation: Abrasion index of blast furnace coke should be around 80 percent. More this abrasion index,
which is an indicator of Abrasion; more is the combustibility.
3. Which of the following petrographic constituents of coal is non-coking?

a) Durain
b) Vitrain
c) Clarain
d) Fussain
Answer: d
Explanation: Among the mentioned petrographic constituents, Fussain is non-coking.

4. ‘Fat’ coal means a coal having
a) low ash content
b) non-smoking tendency
c) high volatile matter
d) low calorific value
Answer: c
Explanation: ‘Fat’ coal means a coal having high volatile matter.
5. Initial pressure of oxygen introduced into the ‘bomb’ of the bomb calorimeter for determination of
calorific value of coal/fuel oil may be around __________ atm.
a) 20-30
b) 60-65
c) 95-100
d) 3-5
Answer: a
Explanation: Initial pressure of oxygen introduced into the ‘bomb’ of the bomb calorimeter for
determination of calorific value of coal/fuel oil may be around 20-30 atm.
6. Proximate analysis of coal determines its __________ content.

a) moisture, ash, sulphur & volatile matter
b) moisture, volatile matter, ash & fixed carbon
c) moisture, sulphur, nitrogen & fixed carbon
Answer: b
Explanation: Proximate analysis of coal determines its moisture, volatile matter, ash & fixed carbon
content.
7. If the specific heat of gaseous products of combustion of a fuel is high, the abiabatic flame temperature
will be
a) very high, if the fuel is of low calorific value
b) low
c) high
Answer: b
Explanation: If the specific heat of gaseous products of combustion of a fuel is high, the abiabatic flame
temperature will below.
8. “Overfire burning” in a furnace is a phenomenon characterised by the

a) burning of carbon monoxide and other incombustibles in upper zone of furnace by supplying more air
b) supply of excess fuel
c) supply of excess air
Answer: a
Explanation: “Overfire burning” in a furnace is a phenomenon characterised by the burning of carbon
monoxide and other incombustibles in upper zone of furnace by supplying more air.
9. Atomising steam to fuel oil ratio in a burner should be around

a) 0.5
b) 1.5
c) 2.5
d) 3.5

Answer: a
Explanation: A low atomising fuel oil ratio is favourable enough to ensure good combustion.
10. Presence of free moisture in coal during its high temperature carbonisation
a) increases the loss of fine coal dust from the ovens when charging
b) protects the volatile products from pyrolysis (cracking) in the presence of hot coke and hot oven walls
c) reduces the coking time
Answer: b
Explanation: The presence of free moisture in coal during its high temperature carbonisation protects the
volatile products from pyrolysis (cracking) in the presence of hot coke and hot oven walls.

Power Plant Engg MCQ

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Power Plant Engg MCQ

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PART A

“Flaws of Steam as a Working Fluid and Vapor Cycle Characteristics”.

1. Addition of an infinitesimal amount of heat at the highest temperature is because?

2. High moisture content is involved during expansion of steam because?

4. Temperature of heat rejection in a condenser can be lowered by using?

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“Binary Vapour Cycle”.

3. Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant

4. Rankine cycle comprises of

5. In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by

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7. Regenerative cycle thermal efficiency

9. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the greatest economy is affected

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“Binary Vapour Cycle – II”.

1. How can we differentiate Rankine cycle from Carnot cycle?

3. If Tm be the mean temperature of heat addition in Rankine cycle as shown in diagram,

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5. What is the effect of superheated steam on efficiency of Rankine cycle?

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10. Which of these is a binary cycle?

2. In the mercury steam cycle, the mercury cycle is called?

3. In the mercury steam cycle, the steam cycle is called?

5. The addition of sulphur dioxide in a tertiary cycle is at?

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6. Which of these can also be used as a topping fluid?

7. Which of these can be used as a fluid in the bottoming fluid?

8. In case of Sodium-mercury-steam cycle, which is the topping fluid?

9. In case of mercury-steam-sulphur dioxide cycle, which is the bottoming fluid?

10. The total loss in a tertiary cycle is?

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“Combined Cycle Plants, Nuclear and Thermionic Power Generation”.

1. The maximum steam temperature in a power cycle in degree centigrade is?

3. What happens to the availability in a combined cycle plant?

5. Which of the following is not a type of Combined Plant?

6. Which of these is not a component of nuclear reactor?

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7. Which of these is not a merit of nuclear power?

8. The thermionic generator is essentially which kind of device?

9. What efficiencies of thermionic power generator have been realised?

11. In an electron beam, the average kinetic energy of an electron is given by

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“Gas Turbine-Steam Power Plant – I”.

1. What is the air standard cycle for a Gas-Turbine called?

2. What is the difference between a Rankine cycle & a Brayton cycle?

3. Which of the following is a type of Gas Turbine Plant?

5. A Gas Turbine is which type of combustion plant?

6. Which among these is the main component of a gas turbine plant?

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7. Which type of compressor is used in a gas turbine plant?

8. What part or % of power developed is utilised for driving the compressor?

“Gas Turbine-Steam Power Plant – II”.

1. The heating value of gaseous fuels is about

2. The compressor has to be started

3. Which of these is not a part of a Gas Turbine Plant?

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4. The major field(s) of application of gas turbine is (are)

5. The following is (are) the limitation(s) of gas turbines.

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9. Which of the following is (are) used as starter for a gas turbine

10. Gas turbine is shut down by

“Gas Turbine-Steam Power Plant – III”.

1. In gas turbine, intercooler is placed