Q and A

DAY 1
PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION (December 2018)

General and Oral Anatomy and Physiology and Biochemistry
1. Which of the following mesial root surfaces are unlikely to be thoroughly cleaned
with the use of floss?
A. Maxillary central incisor B. Mandibular first premolar
C. Maxillary first premolar D. Mandibular first molar
2. Which of the following cranial nerves have parasympathetic activity?

A. II, III, VII, IX B. II, V, IX, X
C. III, V, VII, IX D. III, VII, IX, X
E. V, VII, VIII, X
3. A patient is experiencing a lancinating, paroxysmal pain. This pain is occurring

in the posterior portions of his tongue, tonsils, nasopharynx, and pharynx. This
condition most likely represents a neuralgia of which of the following cranial
nerves?
A. V B. VII
C. IX D. X
E. XII
4. Which of the following structures converge to form the pterygomandibular raphe?

A. Superior pharyngeal constrictor and mylohyoid
B. Medial pterygoid and mylohyoid
C. Buccinator and superior pharyngeal constrictor
D. Buccinator and mylohyoid
E. Medial pterygoid and superior pharyngeal constrictor
5. The superior orbital fissure is located between which of the following bones?
A. Lesser wing of sphenoid and frontal bone
B. Ethmoid and maxilla
C. Greater wing of sphenoid and maxilla
D. Greater wing of sphenoid and lesser wing of sphenoid
E. Lesser wing of sphenoid and ethmoid
6. Which of the following is a type of syndesmosis?

A. Tooth in socket
B. Cranial sutures
C. Temporomandibular joint
D. Epiphyseal plate of long bones
E. Connection between radius and ulna
7. Insulin is produced by
A. Follicular cells B. Alpha cells
C. Chromaffin cells D. Sustentacular cells
E. Beta cells
8. Raschkow plexus is located

A. Within the cementum of a tooth.
B. Within the cell rich zone of tooth pulp.
C. Within the dentin of a tooth.
D. Within the cell free zone of tooth pulp.
E. Within the core of the dental pulp.
9. Infrahyoid musculature of the neck receives motor innervation from

A. C4-C6 B. Ansa cervicalis
C. Lesser occipital nerve D. Greater occipital nerve
E. C6-C8
10. Each of the following is true of nystagmus, except:

A. Initiation to the cerebellum and cerebral cortex can cause it.
B. It is defined as a rapid, involuntary movement of the eye.
C. The caloric test using warm water will initiate nystagmus to the contralateral
side.
D. The caloric test examines the vestibulo-ocular reflex.
E. It involves CN VIII lesions.
11. Sperm is stored in the

A. Epididymis B. Urethra
C. Testis D. Seminiferous tubules
E. Prostate gland
12. Each of the following is a function of skin, except

A. Sensation of touch, pain, and pressure.
B. Synthesis of Vitamin E from ultraviolet light.
C. Excretion via sweat glands.
D. Homeostatic regulation of body temperature.
E. Protection against physical and chemical stresses.
13. The vertebral artery enters the spine at which level?

A. C6 B. T2
C. T1 D. C5
E. C7
14. The function of the Salpingopharyngeus muscle is to

A. Open the auditory tube B. Raise the mandible
C. Propel food down to pharynx D. Retract the tongue
E. Protrude the mandible
15. The bony floor of the nasal cavity is formed by the:

A. Palatine process of the maxilla and the vertical part of the palatine.
B. Palatine process of the temporal and the horizontal part of the palatine.
C. Vomer and the vertical part of the palatine.
D. Palatine process of the maxilla and the horizontal part of the palatine.
16. The visual center of the cerebral cortex is located in the

A. Hypothalamus B. Parietal lobe
C. Occipital lobe D. Indusium griseum
E. Medulla oblongata
17. The folding of the embryo during the fourth week is the result of the
A. Prominent growth of the neural tissues.
B. Development of the umbilical arteries.
C. Development of the branchial arteries.
D. Twisting of the developing heart.
18. Urinary bladder differs from gallbladder in that urinary bladder

A. Is lined with transitional epithelium and gallbladder is lined with simple
columnar epithelium.
B. Has a mucosal layer and gallbladder has no mucosal layer.
C. Can be stretched and gallbladder cannot be stretched.
D. Contains smooth muscle and gallbladder contains no smooth muscle
19. Which of the following is not true of all diarthroidal joints?
A. The surface of the bearing joint is aneural.
B. The surface of the bearing joint is avascular.
C. The surface of the bearing joint is composed of hyaline cartilage.
D. A synovial membrane is present.
E. Movement is always possible.
20. Aldosterone causes:

A. Decreased renal excretion of potassium.
B. Decreased reabsorption of chloride.
C. Increased transfer of potassium into the cell.
D. Increased rental tubular reabsorption of sodium.
21. The most likely cause of essential hypertension is

A. Increased blood volume.
B. Increased cardiac output.
C. Increased blood viscosity.
D. Decreased peripheral resistance.
E. Generalized constriction of arterioles.
22. Blood leaving the lungs is saturated with O2 to the extent of approximately
A. 5 percent B. 25 percent
C. 50 percent D. 75 percent
E. 98 percent
23. The adequate stimulus for the Hering-Breuer reflex is the

A. Stretching of alveoli
B. Pressure of blood in the left atrium.
C. Pressure of blood in the right atrium.
D. Oxygen content of blood bathing the carotid bodies.
E. Carbon dioxide content of blood bathing the respiratory center.
24. Beriberi is associated with a deficiency in which of the following vitamins?

A. B B. D
C. K D. Thiamine
E. Ascorbic acid
25. Which of the following compounds is an intermediate in the biosynthesis of

cholesterol?
A. Squalene B. Hexosamine
C. Cholic acid D. Pregnanediol
E. Deoxycholic acid
26. Which of the following is not a theory of the effect of parathyroid hormone on
bone?
A. The hormone influences the rate of bone resorption.
B. The hormone causes a decrease in new bone formation.
C. The action of bone is related to its action on phosphate excretion.
D. The effect of parathyroid extract is to influence osteoclastic activity.
27. When does calcification begin in the permanent first molars?

A. At 4 months in utero B. At birth
C. 3-4 months after birth D. 10-12 months after birth
E. 6-7 years after birth
28. Which of the following permanent teeth is most likely to show an anomaly in
radicular morphology?
A. Maxillary canine B. Maxillary third molar
C. Maxillary first molar D. Mandibular first molar
E. Maxillary lateral incisor
29. Which cusp of permanent maxillary molars becomes progressively smaller from
first to second to third molars?
A. Mesiofacial B. Mesiolingual
C. Distofacial D. Distolingual
E. Cusp of Carabelli
30. The healthy free gingiva aids in the self-cleansing process by its
A. Tendency to direct food particles toward the occlusal surface.
B. Tendency to force particles away from the proximal space.
C. Tendency to deflect particles away from free gingiva onto the interdental papilla
D. Close adherence to the tooth surface below the height of contour of the cervical
enamel
E. None of the above.
31. The first succedaneous tooth to erupt is a

A. Mandibular first molar B. Maxillary central incisor
C. Maxillary lateral incisor D. Mandibular central incisor
32. The percentage of dentin that is organic is

A. 3 to 5 percent B. 10 to 15 percent
C. 25 to 30 percent D. 40 to 50 percent
E. 60 to 65 percent
33. The principal retractor of the mandible is the:

A. Superficial fiber of masseter muscle
B. Posterior fiber of temporalis muscle
C. Superior belly of lateral pterygoid muscle.
D. Anterior belly of digastric muscle
E. Anterior and middle fibers of temporalis muscle.
34. The temporalis muscle originates along the side of the skull and passes:
A. Medial to the zygomatic arch and inserts into the coronoid process of the
mandible
B. Lateral to the zygomatic arch and inserts into the coronoid process of the
mandible
C. Medial to the zygomatic arch and inserts into the medial side of the angle of
the ramus
D. Lateral to the zygomatic arch and inserts into the medial side of the angle of
the ramus.
35. Smooth muscle fibers differ from striated muscle fibers in that the smooth
muscle fibers are
A. Longer
B. Demonstrably single nucleated.
C. Incapable of hypertrophic changes
D. Multinucleated and of indefinite length.
36. The ligamentum arteriosum is

A. A ligament connecting the liver to the anterior abdominal wall
B. The remnant of a fetal channel connecting the right atrium to the left atrium.
C. A fibrous remnant of a fetal channel connecting the left pulmonary artery to the
aorta
D. None of the above.
37. Irritability is defined as the
A. Ability of a cell to contract when stimulate.
B. Property of protoplasm which enables a cell to move away from painful stimulus.
C. Property of a stimulated nerve cell exhibiting electrical activity.
D. Property of protoplasm responsible for a cell being sensitive to a stimulus.
38. Production of bile takes place in

A. The hepatic duct B. The gallbladder
C. von Kupffer’s cell D. The common bile duct
E. None of the above
39. A terminal web delimits the odontoblast from the odontoblastic process. This
aggregation of microfilaments found
A. Intracellularly at the basal aspect of the cells.
B. Intracellularly inserting into the junctional complex of the cell.
C. Extracellularly projecting into the predentin (Korff’s fibers).
D. Extracellularly connecting the junctional complexes of adjacent cell.
E. Extracellularly being continuous with fibers present in the cell-free zone.
40. The end-product of glycolysis under anaerobic conditions is

A. Lactic acid B. Pyruvic acid
C. Acetoacetic acid D. Oxaloacetic acid
41. Stimulation of sympathetic nervous supply to the gastrointestinal tract

generally causes:
A. Inhibition of motility.
B. Increases in HCL secretion.
C. Secretion by pancreatic acini.
D. An increase in the rate of colonic evacuation.
42. The final step in the complete metabolism of fat is carried out by means of
A. Anaerobic glycolysis. B. The tricarboxylic acid cycle.
C. The reductive fixation of CO2. D. The hexose monophosphate shunt.
E. The Krebs-Henseleit (urea) cycle.
43. The plasma protein sub fraction that contains antibodies found bathing mucous
surfaces (mouth, bronchial passages, small intestines) is:
A. IgA B. IgG
C. IgM D. IgD
E. IgE
44. Under normal conditions, the resting potential across a muscle membrane is
lower than the equilibrium potential for potassium because
A. Sodium permeability is equal to potassium permeability.
B. Sodium permeability exceeds potassium permeability.
C. The membrane has a low permeability to the sodium ions.
D. The membrane has a low permeability to the chloride ions.
45. The cornerstone of the oral cavity is:

A. Maxillary canine B. Mandibular canine
C. Maxillary first molar D. Mandibular first molar
E. Mandibular second molar
46. Which of the following portions of an ECG is related to propagation of the

cardiac impulse between SA node and the AV node?
A. QRS complex B. PR interval
C. QS interval D. QR interval
E. T wave
47. Which of the following groups of fibers of the periodontal ligament is most
resistant to forces along the long axis of the tooth?
A. Apical B. Oblique
C. Horizontal D. Alveolar crest
D. Interradicular
48. The most important function of hydrochloric acid in the stomach is

A. Hydrolysis of proteins
B. Neutralization of chyme.
C. Activation of pepsinogen.
D. Destruction of microorganisms.
E. Stimulation of pancreatic secretions.
49. The sphenomandibular ligament is attached to the

A. Lesser wing of the sphenoid bone and the neck of the mandible.
B. Spine of the sphenoid bone and lingula of the mandible
C. Spine of the sphenoid bone and the angle of the mandible.
D. None of the above.
50. The fate of Meckel’s cartilage is believed to be

A. Dissolution without contribution to any definitive structure.
B. Dissolution with minor contribution to ossification.
C. An active role in ossification of the mandibular body.
D. An active role in ossification of the alveolar process.
DAY 2
General and Oral Pathology, Microscopic Anatomy and Microbiology
1. Systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, idiopathic thrombocytopenic

purpura and thyroiditis are examples of
A. Arthus reaction
B. Autoimmune diseases
C. Anaphylactic reactions
D. Immediate hypersensitivity reactions
2. The ability of certain oral microorganisms to function as etiologic agents of

dental caries appears to be correlated with the capacity of these organisms to
produce
A. Proteolytic enzymes capable of hydrolyzing salivary proteins.
B. Capsules which inhibit the activity of phagocytic cells present in saliva.
C. Carbonic anhydrase, an enzyme active in decreasing the CO2 content of saliva.
D. An extracellular polysaccharide dextran-like substance involved in the formation
of dental plaque.
3. The greatest incidence of rubella associated with cardiac anomalies occurs when
the infection is established
A. During the first trimester in utero
B. During the second trimester in utero.
C. During the third trimester in utero.
D. Immediately post partem
4. Anaerobic bacteria lacking catalase are generally

A. Motile
B. Sensitive to H2O2.
C. Insensitive to H2O2.
D. Able to ferment lactate.
E. Producers to O2 and H2O from H2O2.
5. An increase in ventricular wall thickness in patients with hypertensive heart

disease is an example of
A. Neoplasia B. Metaplasia
C. Hyperplasia D. Hypertrophy
6. The most common causative organism in gram-negative sepsis is

A. Pneumococcus B. Virus organisms
C. Escherichia coli D. Streptococcus viridians
E. Streptococcus pyogenes
7. When horse serum is injected intravenously into a rabbit and again into the skin
two or three weeks later, what is the necrotizing reactions that occurs at the site
of the second injection?
A. Atopy B. Anaphylaxis
C. Serum sickness D. Arthus phenomenon
E. Prausnitz-Kustner reaction
8. Osteitis deformans is characterized by each of the following, except

A. Reversal lines with a characteristic, mosaic pattern.
B. Decreased serum calcium and elevated serum phosphorus.
C. Predisposition to development of osteogenic sarcoma
D. Irregular resorption and replacement of bone with a poorly mineralized osteoid
matrix.
9. Each of the following is commonly associated to congestive heart failure, except:

A. Dyspnea B. Cyanosis
C. Anasarca D. Ankle edema
E. Passive congestion of the liver.
10. A tumor composed of multiple tissues in which there may be representative of

all three embryologic layers is
A. A teratoma B. An adenoma
C. A carcinoma D. A sarcoma
E. A hamartoma
11. Rickettsia are distinguishable from viruses because:

A. Viruses contain DNA; rickettsia contains RNA.
B. Viruses contain RNA; rickettsia contains DNA.
C. Viruses contain either DNA or RNA; rickettsia contains both DNA and RNA.
D. Viruses contain both DNA and RNA; rickettsia contains either DNA or RNA.
E. Viruses contain either RNA or DNA; rickettsia contains neither DNA nor RNA.
12. Striated muscle, smooth muscle and cardiac muscle have in common the fact that
A. Hyperplasia of these elements is common.
B. Hypertrophy is a common response to injury.
C. They have a limited capacity to regenerate.
D. They need constant high O2 concentration to function.
13. Aspiration of material from carious teeth is associated with

A. Tuberculosis B. Lung abscess
C. Lobar pneumonia D. Bronchopneumonia
E. Interstitial pneumonia
14. A 65-year old male who demonstrate urinary retention or difficulty in voiding
his bladder most likely has
A. Carcinoma of the prostrate
B. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
C. Malignant neoplasm of the ureter
D. Bladder metastasis of bronchogenic carcinoma.
15. The end-product of glucose metabolism by Streptococcus mutans is

A. Lactate
B. Pyruvate
C. Citric acid
D. A combination of carbon dioxide and water
16. The epithelial change most predictive of cancer is

A. Acanthosis B. Dysplasia
C. Metaplasia D. Parakeratosis
E. Hyperkeratosis
17. Flaccid paralysis of skeletal muscle is characteristic of which of the following

diseases
A. Tetanus B. Anthrax
C. Botulism D. Syphilis
E. Tuberculosis
18. Children of parents with which of the following blood group combinations have
the high risk of erythroblastosis fetalis?
A. Rh + father and Rh + mother
B. Rh + father and Rh – mother
C. Rh – father and Rh + mother
D. Rh – father and Rh – mother
19. Acid phosphatase is elevated in which of the following malignancies?

A. Plasmacytoma
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Carcinoma of the thyroid
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
E. Adenocarcinoma of the prostate.
20. Which of the following statements is not characteristic of chronic myelogenous

leukemia?
A. It is common in adults.
B. It is characterized by massive splenomegaly.
C. It is the only leukemia with a specific chromosomal marker.
D. Microscopically, the cells resemble nearly normal granulocyte.
E. Because of the great number of WBC’s, infections are uncommon.
21. A patient presents with spontaneous necrotizing ulcers of the oral cavity. The
WBC is 1,986 while the differential CBC reveals lymphocytes:
68% Monocytes
28% Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
2% Eosinophils
1% Basophils
Which of the following diagnoses is the most appropriate for this patient?
A. Leukemia B. Agranulocytosis
C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Recurrent aphthous ulcers
22. The most likely diagnosis for patient with dysphonia, dysphagia, weight loss,
and a history of heavy cigarette smoking is
A. Laryngitis B. Tonsillitis
C. Laryngeal polyp D. Carcinoma of the lungs
E. Carcinoma of the larynx
23. Metachromatic granules are characteristically observed in properly stained

smears of
A. Salmonella typhi B. Escherichia coli
C. Brucella melitensis D. Bordetella pertussis
E. Corynebacterium diphtheria
24. The type of pericarditis which is regularly smooth and bright, becomes opaque
and granular, and macroscopically resembles two pieces of buttered bread pressed
together then pulled apart.
A. Fibrinous B. Serous
C. Purulent D. Caseous
E. Hemorrhagic
25. The most common cause for megaloblastic anemia is

A. Gastric bleeding
B. Lack of dietary iron.
C. Lack of dietary folic acid.
D. Lack of dietary pyridoxine.
E. Lack of absorption of Vitamin B12.
26. Which of the following conditions is suggested in a patient with nausea and
vomiting, pigmentation of the oral mucous membrane and skin, hypotension and
asthenia?
A. Myxedema B. Pineal tumor
C. Graves’ disease D. Addison’s disease
E. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
27. A patient with which of the following diseases is predisposed to develop

osteosarcoma?
A. Osteomalacia B. Ostepetrosis
C. Paget’s disease of the bone D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
E. Osteporosis
28. Presence of mamelons in adults indicates

A. Syphilis B. Malocclusion
C. Normal anatomy of the tooth D. None of the above.
29. “Tooth within a tooth”

A. Dens in dente B. Dens en dente
C. Leong’s premolar D. Fusion
E. Gemination
30. Lack of response at any level in a pulp vitality test can be used to
differentiate between a
A. Cementoma and a periapical granuloma.
B. Cementoma and an incisive canal cyst.
C. Globulomaxillary cyst and a traumatic bone cyst
D. Periapical granuloma and an apical periodontal cyst
E. Periapical granuloma and condensing osteitis
31. An oral examination of a three-year-old child revealed only deciduous canines

and first molar presents. During general observation of this child, it was noted
that the complexion was very light, the hair was fine and light and the overall
appearance of the face was that of an older person. Which of the following conditions
is suggested?
A. Cleidocranial dysostosis B. Osteogenesis imperfecta
C. Hereditary ectodermal dysplasia D. Crouzon’s disease
32. A patient has a 7x5cm. soft swelling at the angle of the mandible anterior the
sternocleidomastoid muscle. The patient states that he has been aware of the
swelling most of his life and that there has never been any pain associated with
the swelling. The regional lymph nodes are nonpalpable. Blood and urine tests are
within normal limits. Radiographic surveys of the teeth, jaws and cervical spine
are negative. Aspiration of the swelling reveals a yellow-brown fluid. What
condition is most suggestive on the basis of the clinical examination and the
laboratory findings?
A. Submylohyoid dermoid cyst B. Follicular ameloblastoma
C. Thyroglossal duct cyst D. Branchial cleft cyst
33. “Sulfur granules” are of diagnostic value in suspected cases of

A. Histoplasmosis B. Actinomycosis
C. Lead sulfide tissue deposits D. Scrofula
E. Furunculosis
34. Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath is derived from which of the following?
A. Inner dental epithelium and stellate reticulum
B. Inner dental epithelium and stratum intermedium
C. Outer dental epithelium and stellate reticulum
D. Outer dental epithelium and stratum intermedium
E. Inner dental epithelium and outer enamel epithelium
35. Compare with intertubular dentin, peritubular dentin is characterized by which

of the following?
A. Greater stainability
B. Higher quantity of fluids
C. Lesser content of inorganic salts
D. Higher content of inorganic salts
E. Greater content of large collagen fibers
36. An active fibroblast is characterized by

A. Multiple nucleoli
B. A bloated appearance.
C. A thick plasma membrane.
D. An unusually large nucleus.
E. Abundant endoplasmic reticulum.
37. It is possible to distinguish histologically between the stomach and the

duodenum because of the presence of:
A. Mucosal glands in the stomach only.
B. Submucosal glands in the duodenum only.
C. Simple columnar epithelium lining to stomach only.
D. Muscularis mucosa in the stomach only.
E. Smooth muscle in the external musculature of the duodenum only.
38. Each of the following is seen with DiGeorge syndrome, except

A. Hypercalcemia B. Thymic hypoplasia
C. Microdeletion of chromosome 22 D. Palatal clefting
39. Bence-Jones proteins are found in the urine of patients stricken with which of
the following illnesses?
A. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma B. Burkitt lymphoma
C. Multiple myeloma D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
E. Acute myelogenous leukemia
40. Which of the following is a type of irreversible cell injury?

A. Karyorrhexis.
B. Ribosomal detachment from endoplasmic reticulum.
C. Chromatin clumping.
D. Cellular and organelle swelling.
E. Bleb formation.
41. Which of the following is defined as a fluid-filled sac lined by true epithelium?
A. Granuloma B. Abscess
C. Cellulitis D. Cyst
E. All of the above
42. The smallest bacterium is

A. Chlamydia trachomatis B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Mycoplasma pneumonia D. Rickettsia rickettsii
E. Borrelia burgdorferi
43. Which of the following is true of syphilis infection?

A. The secondary form is characterized by gumma formation.
B. It is treated with penicillin.
C. It is caused by Mycobacterium infections.
D. The primary form includes a highly infectious maculopapular rash.
E. The tertiary stage is characterized by a painless ulcer.
44. Which of the following lab findings would be seen with nephrotic syndrome?
A. Hyperalbuminemia
B. Hypolipidemia
C. Hypocholesterolemia
D. Optimally functioning renal glomeruli
E. Proteinuria
45. Which of the following anemia resembles to appearance of periodontal disease?

A. Sickle cell anemia B. Thalassemia
C. Megaloblastic anemia D. Iron deficiency anemia
E. Pernicious anemia
46. A ranula is a:
A. Referendum phenomenon.
B. Malignant tumor of the maxillary sinus.
C. Malignant tumor of the sublingual gland
D. Benign tumor of the gallbladder.
47. Long standing chronic renal insufficiency may produce

A. Thyroid hypoplasia B. Thyroid hyperplasia
C. Parathyroid hypoplasia D. Parathyroid hyperplasia
48. Hirschsprung’s disease is a congenital absence of autonomic ganglia in the

smooth muscle resulting to very poor peristalsis, accumulation of feces, and
dilatation of the bowel. What organ is involved?
A. Lungs B. Stomach
C. Small intestines D. Colon
E. Rectum
49. The disease characterized by radiolucent bone lesion, anemia, hyperglobulinemia

and one or more bone marrow tumors containing predominantly plasma cells is
A. Leukemia B. Thalassemia
C. Multiple myeloma D. Hodgkin’s disease
E. Sickle cell anemia
50. Which of the following leukemia is considered to be the most uncommon?

A. Acute lymphocytic leukemia B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Monocytic myelogenous leukemia D. Aleukemic leukemia
E. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
DAY 1
Restorative Dentistry and Public Health, and Community Dentistry
1. Which of the following burs is mainly used for flattening the pulpal floor?
A. 3/4 B. 33 ½
C. 55 D. 169L
E. Any of the above
2. The facial embrasure form of a Class IV composite is best evaluated by viewing

the restoration from the:
A. Incisal B. Facial
C. Mesial and distal D. Gingival
3. Adaptation of a matrix band to the gingival aspect of a Class II Amalgam cavity

preparation may be most difficult in which of the following preparation?
A. A DO in a mandibular second molar
B. A DO in a mandibular second premolar
C. A DO in a maxillary first premolar
D. An MO in a maxillary first premolar
E. An MO in a maxillary second premolar
4. Overheating an amalgam restoration during a polishing procedure may cause injury

to
A. Ameloblasts B. Odontoblasts
C. Lamina dura D. Enamel cuticle
5. The pulp horns most likely to be exposed accidentally in a preparation of a

Class II cavity in the maxillary first molar are the:
A. Mesiobuccal and mesiolingual B. Mesiolingual and distolingual
C. Distolingual and distobuccal D. Distobuccal and mesiobuccal
6. In diagnosing dental caries, the estimated mean time for progression through the
tooth enamel is
A. 3-6 months B. 6 months upto 1 year
C. 2-3 years D. 3-4 years
D. A month
7. Erosion us chemically induced loss of tooth structure. Attrition is the

physiologic wear of teeth as a result of normal tooth to tooth contact.
A. The first statement is true, the second is false.
B. The first statement is false, the first is true.
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
8. A patient reports serious allergic reaction to Oil of Cloves. Which of the

following cements should be avoided?
A. BIS-GMA B. Glass ionomer
C. Phosphoric acid D. Ethoxybenzoic acid
E. Zinc Oxide-Eugenol
9. A bevel is contraindicated of the cavosurface angles of a Class I dental amalgam

preparation. Which of the following best explains why?
A. This type of margin is prone to microleakage
B. The cavosurface of the amalgam restorative material might fracture
C. A thin flange of the amalgam restorative material might fracture
D. As the tooth undergoes natural attrition, the amalgam margin can abrade.
10. Where is recurrent decay most seen in Class II composite?
A. Facioproximal B. Linguoproximal
C. Gingivoproximal D. Occlusal
11. Cost and amount of time expended to complete the job.

A. Appropriateness B. Effectiveness
C. Adequacy D. Efficiency
E. Efficacy
12. Which of the following is the best methods for evaluating centric occlusion on
a newly placed onlay restoration?
A. Shim stock B. Articulating paper
C. Patient feedback D. Occlusal indicator wax
13. The proper zone of a gas-air blowpipe flame used for melting casting gold alloys
is:
A. The reducing zone
B. The oxidizing zone
C. The zone closed to the nozzle
D. A combination of oxidizing and reducing zone
14. It describes the chain of superiors from the highest to lower ranks
A. Centralization B. Span of control
C. Scalar principle D. Administration
E. Autonomy
15. Which of the following is most effective way to reduce injury to the pulp during
a restorative procedure?
A. Prepare dentin with slow-speed burs
B. Use anesthetics without vasoconstriction
C. Minimize dehydration of the dentinal surface
D. Keep the dentinal surface clean by frequent irrigation
16. In preparing Class I cavity for dental amalgam, the dentist will diverge the
mesial and distal walls toward the occlusal surface. The divergence serves to
A. Prevent undermining of the marginal ridges
B. Provide convenience form
C. Resist the force of mastication
D. Resist the forces of mastication
E. Extend the preparation into areas more readily cleansed
17. Each of the following is a reason for beveling a preparation for restoration
with composite resin, except
A. To expose more inorganic tooth structure
B. To increase the surface area of enamel for etching
C. To expose the ends rather than the sides of enamel rods
D. To enhance the enamo-resin marginal seal
18. Which of the following is the most related turbulence of molten gold in the
casting process?
A. Venting B. Volume of metal
C. Temperature of the ring D. Placement of the sprue
E. Position of the ring
19. Which of the following is most likely to cause delayed expansion in an amalgam
restoration containing zinc?
A. Heavy condensation
B. Excess mercury in the mix
C. Overtrituration of the amalgam
D. Contamination by moisture during manipulation
20. It is the study of the distribution and frequency of disease and injury in
human populations and those factors making groups susceptible to disease and injury.
A. Epidemiology B. Dental epidemiology
C. Descriptive epidemiology D. Experimental epidemiology
21. A hatchet or a similar instrument should be used on the gingival cavosurface

margin of a Class II amalgam preparation to ensure that:
A. A smooth gingival bevel is placed
B. An acute cavosurface bevel is placed
C. Adequate proximal retention is created
D. Unsupported enamel fragments are removed
22. Which of the following is the weakest phase of the set amalgam?
A. Beta-2 B. Gamma
C. Gamma-1 D. Gamma-2
E. Eta
23. This phenomenon proposes that flexure of the tooth at the cervical margin while
under load is responsible for the progressive breakdown of the brittle dental
tissues.
A. Erosion B. Attrition
C. Abrasion D. Abfraction
E. Both B and D
24. Retention grooves in the proximal box of a Class II cavity prepared amalgam
should be:
A. Elongated and rounded in dentin at facio-axial and linguo-axial angles extending
from the gingival floor to the axiopulpal line angle
B. Sharp and well-defined, extending from the gingival floor to the occlusal
cavosurface angle along facial and lingual line angles
C. Sharp and elongated at the DEJ of facial and lingual walls
D. Short and rounded at DEJ of facial and lingual walls
25. Used in preparing depth gauge grooves on a cusp that needs capping.
A. #169L B. #271
C. Flame-shaped diamond bur D. Paper disc
26. Fluorosis index was formulated by:

A. Green and Vermillion B. Dean
C. Gayford D. Hussy
E. Silness and Loe
27. The normal working hours for a public health worker shall not exceed by how
many hours a day?
A. 10 B. 8
C. 6 D. 12
28. The Magna Carta of Public Health Workers

A. RA 4419 B. RA 7305
C. RA 7530 D. RA 572
29. Which of the following best describe epidemic disease?
A. Diseases of significantly greater prevalence than normal
B. Normal disease prevalence
C. Disease occurring over a wide geographic area affecting an exceptional high
proportion of the population
D. Disease with insignificant prevalence
30. Capping of cusp/s should be considered for an onlay restoration when:

A. Occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 1/4 the distance
from the primary grooves to the cusp tip.
B. Occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 2/3 the distance
from the primary grooves of the cusp tip.
C. Occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 1/2 the distance
from the primary grooves to the cusp tip
D. Occlusal outline is extended up to the cusp slopes more than 1/3 the distance
from the primary grooves to the cusp tip.
31. Bur #901

A. Round bur B. Inverted cone
C. Pear-shaped D. Wheel bur
E. End-cutting bur
32. The position of the mesial and distal cavity margins in a Ferrier Class V direct
filling gold restoration should be
A. In an easily cleansable area
B. Parallel to the long axis of the tooth
C. At the respective line angles of the tooth
D. Perpendicular to the gingival margins
E. Just pass the extent of the carious lesions
33. In determining the caries rate of older adults, an epidemiology usually uses
DMFT index, because it can be difficult to ascertain why teeth are missing.
A. Both statements and the reason are correct and related
B. Both statements and the reason are correct but not related.
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is NOT.
D. The statement is NOT correct, but the reason is accurate
E. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct
34. In a preparation of normal depth in a mandibular molar, which would be closest

to the pulp?
A. 3/4 crown B. Full crown
C. Facial Class I amalgam D. Facial Class V amalgam
E. Occlusal Class I amalgam
35. The occlusal dovetail of the cast gold inlay resists dislodgement caused by the
A. Chewing of sticky food
B. Vertical masticatory forces concentrated in the area of the dovetail.
C. Horizontal component of forces tending to dislodge the restoration in a proximal
direction
D. Forces causing the restoration to rotate when the axio-pulpal line angle is the
axis of rotation.
36. A diagnostic aid to be used as a last resort to confirm the presence of a

carious lesion on the proximal surface of an anterior teeth is
A. Transillumination B. A small round bur
C. Mechanical separation D. An anterior radiograph
E. Fluorescent
37. Direct filling gold is heated prior to condensation to
A. Soften the gold.
B. Alter its crystal structure.
C. Drive off moisture and volatile compounds which have been placed on its surface.
D. Eliminate corrosive compounds which have accumulated on its surface.
E. All of the above.
38. The most frequent complaint of pain after placement of a dental amalgam
restoration is related to
A. Cold B. Heat
C. Sweets D. Galvanism
E. Biting pressure
39. The most practical means of determining the minimum time at which a polysulfide
rubber for safe removal from the mouth is to
A. Increase the amount of accelerator
B. Check the set of the material remaining in the syringe.
C. Allow the impression to remain in position for 2 minutes.
D. Allow the impression to remain in position for 20 minutes
E. Test for complete recover of the material by prodding it with a blunt instrument.
40. The accepted range of film thickness of luting agents is

A. 1-5um B. 10-20um
C. 20-40um D. 50-75um
41. What is the most common method to diagnose caries formation?

A. Bitewing radiograph B. Periapical radiograph
C. Exploration D. Transillumination
E. Visual
42. Bur #557

A. A cylindrical plain-cut fissure B. Tapered plain-cut fissure
C. Cylindrical cross-cut fissure D. Tapered dentate fissure
E. Round-nose fissure bur
43. The bevel on the cavosurface angle of an inlay preparation permits closer
adaptation of the gold margin structure because the:
A. Thin margin of gold can be drawn over pronounced marginal deficiencies to
eliminate the defect.
B. Wax pattern can be more accurately carved to the margins of the preparation
C. Wax margins are less likely to distort when the pattern is invested
D. Thinner margin of gold overlying the bevel is more malleable.
E. Both A and D
44. The effectivity date of Magna Carta of Public Health workers:

A. April 26, 1992 B. March 26, 1992
C. April 17, 1992 D. March 17, 1992
E. January 28, 1992
45. Refers to the measures taken to diagnose a disease that is already present
A. Tertiary prevention B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention D. Any of these
46. A composite restoration is wider than the diameter of the light tip of the
curing unit. In this situation, the restoration is cured by
A. Moving the tip over the surface for the required time
B. Placing the tip stepwise over each other and exposing each other area for the
required time
C. Positioning the tip far enough from the surface to illuminate the entire surface
D. Centering the tip on the surface and curing the entire restoration from this
position
47. What is the other name of population?

A. Sample B. Community
C. Universe D. Census
48. Which of the following weakens the dental amalgam?

A. Zinc in the alloy B. Copper in the alloy
C. High condensation pressure D. High final mercury content
49. Why do you break the contact in a Class II amalgam?

A. To allow matrix band to be placed properly
B. To obtain good contact between adjacent teeth
C. To place restoration in self-cleansing area
D. Allow instrumentation
E. All of the above
50. The operating distance from the patient’s mouth to the eyes of the operator
should be approximately:
A. 16” B. 12”
C. 24” D. 8”
DAY 2
Prosthetic Dentistry (Crowns and Bridge, Removable Partial Denture and
Complete Denture and Dental Materials)
1. The principal factor in minimizing the firing shrinkage of porcelain is the

A. Fusion temperature B. Uniformity of particle size
C. Ratio of the flux to feldspar D. Thoroughness of condensation
2. To be biologically and mechanically acceptable, a soldered joint of a fixed

bridge should be so formed that it:
A. Extends to the buccal margin of the retainer
B. Fills the entire interproximal space occluso-gingivally
C. Is thin occluso-gingivally and wide bucco-lingually
D. Is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact area
3. Which of the following explains why mandibular molars should not be placed over
the ascending area of the mandible?
A. The denture base ends where the ramus ascends.
B. The molars would interfere with the retromolar pads
C. The teeth in this area would encroach on the tongue space
D. The teeth in this area would interfere with the action of the masseter muscle
E. The occlusal forces over the inclined ramus would dislodge the mandibular denture
4. The speech sounds that bring the mandible closest to the maxilla are the:
A. “S” sounds B. “F” and “V” sounds
C. “T” and “Th” sounds D. Vowel sounds
5. The component common to most composite resin, sealants, bonding and glazing
agents, and resin cements for orthodontic bonds is:
A. Inorganic filler B. Benzoyl methyl ether
C. Methyl Methacrylate D. Bisphenol A-glycidyl methacrylate
6. When an RPD is completely seated, the retentive terminals of the retentive clasp
arms should be:
A. Passive and applying no pressure on the teeth
B. Contacting the abutment teeth only in the suprabulge areas
C. Resting lightly on the height of contour line on the abutment
D. Applying a definite, positive force on the abutment teeth in order to prevent
dislodgement of the RPD
7. The area of the buccal frenum of a complete mandibular denture must be thinned
to allow for contraction of which of the following muscles?
A. Caninus B. Masseter
C. Zygomaticus D. Triangularis
8. For maxillary major connectors, except where plating is used, the border of the
major connector should be at least ___ mm away from the gingival margin.
A. 4 B. 3
C. 5 D. 6
9. The distolingual extension of the mandibular impression for a complete denture

is limited by the action of the:
A. Stylohyoid muscle B. Lateral pterygoid muscle
C. Medial pterygoid muscle D. Masseter
E. Superior constrictor
10. In RPD design, Guiding planes serve to
A. Aid in balance occlusion
B. Assure predictable clasp retention
C. Form right angles to the occlusal plane
D. Eliminate the necessity for precision attachments
E. Eliminate the necessity for a back-action clasp
11. In constructing single complete dentures opposed by natural or predominantly

natural dentition:
A. A totally different procedure is followed in construction
B. Procedures are simpler since you dictated by one set of natural dentition
C. Less problems are expected to be encountered
D. More careful planning of both natural and denture’s occlusal surface is required.
12. Big Gilmore needle measures

A. Final setting time B. Initial setting time
C. Hardness D. Preliminary setting time
E. All of the above
13. The shoulderless preparation:

A. Greatly facilitate the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. Provide a well-defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. Is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. Requires building up the short mesial end of the crown
14. Main purpose of tilting the cast in surveying:

A. To locate the undercut
B. To locate the height of contour
C. To provide the most desirable path of placement
D. To aid in designing
15. The strength of dental investment for gold alloys is dependent upon the amount
of:
A. Silica B. Carbon
C. Gypsum D. Alumina
16. The function of Compensating curve

A. To help provide a balanced occlusion in complete dentures when the mandible is
protruded.
B. To aid in establishing an incisal guide plane
C. The same as the function of the Curve of Spee
D. None of the above
17. A porcelain jacket crown will fracture when

A. Used in end-to-end occlusion
B. Fabricated for a mandibular incisor
C. Allow to contact the opposing teeth in centric occlusion
D. Subjected to tensile forces by opposing teeth
E. Subjected to compressive forces by the opposing teeth
18. The primary stress bearing area on the lower arch:

A. Slopes of the residual ridge B. Buccal shelf
C. Crest of the alveolar ridge D. Retromolar pads
19. A tray of polysulfide rubber impression that lacks occlusal stops may result
in:
A. Holding the tray for the entire time in the mouth
B. A more prolonged period of setting in the mouth before the tray is removed
C. An inaccurate final impression because of permanent distortion during
polymerization
D. An accurate final impression because of elastic distortion during removal from
the mouth
20. When porcelain is baked against metal, it should possess a

A. High fusion expansion
B. High fusion temperature
C. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than, but close to, that of the
metal
D. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion greater than, but close to, that of the
metal.
21. Carnauba is a:
A. Dental Wax B. Gypsum products
C. Hydrocolloids D. Porcelain cement
E. Flux
22. The only available dental cement that will chemically bone to enamel is
A. Zinc oxide-eugenol B. Zinc phosphate cement
C. Zinc polycarboxylate cement D. Zinc silico-phosphate cement
23. The gold content of an 18K alloy is

A. 50% B. 75%
C. 100% D. 30%
24. The size of the sprue depends upon

A. Size of the wax pattern B. Height of the casting rings
C. Type of casting machine D. All of the above.
25. The most frequent areas of interferences for major connectors are
A. Lingually-inclined mandibular premolars
B. Lingually-inclined maxillary molars
C. Buccally-inclined maxillary molars and premolars
D. Bony areas on the buccal aspect of edentulous space.
26. The shoulder cervical finish

27. Which of the following cement bases has the highest elastic modulus to best
support an extensive amalgam restoration?
A. Zinc phosphate
B. Polymer-reinforced zinc oxide eugenol
C. Zinc polycarboxylate
D. Glass ionomer
28. The metal ion in glass ionomer which has raised concern over neurotoxicity is
A. Magnesium B. Aluminum
C. Tin D. Zinc
29. Which of the following systemic bone conditions requires annual relining and
rebasing?
A. Hyperparathyroidism D. Osteoporosis
C. Paget’s disease D. Compound odontoma
E. All of the above
30. The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is:
A. Failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gingival sulcus
B. Lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth
C. Lack of attention to tooth shape, position and contacts
D. Lack of prominent cusps, deep sulci, and sharp marginal ridges.
31. A good soldered joint must have

A. A triangular peripheral attachment
B. A complete and concave peripheral attachment
C. A partial and convex peripheral attachment
D. A partial and concave peripheral attachment
32. Which of the following syringe materials is the most rigid and, therefore the
most difficult to remove from the mouth?
A. Polyether B. Polysulfide
C. Addition silicone D. Condensation silicone
E. Reversible hydrocolloids
33. Occlusal rest seats for RPDs are prepared primarily to:
A. Protect occlusal surfaces
B. Stabilize the partial dentures
C. Resist lateral chewing forces
D. Resist vertical forces of occlusion
34. The chamfer cervical finish

35. A thin application of cavity varnish over the cut surface of a prepared tooth
just prior to the cementation of a crown or a bridge with zinc phosphate cement
will
A. Impede the seating of the restoration
B. Insulate the tooth against thermal change
C. Increase the possibility of thermal sensitivity
D. Reduce the possibility of irritation of the pulp
E. Increase the possibility of leakage of the restoration
36. The drug of choice for treating monilial infection is

A. Nystatin B. Penicillin
C. A sulfa drug D. Tetracycline
E. A steroid
37. A partially edentulous arch in which there is unilateral edentulous area with
natural teeth remaining both anterior and posterior to it.
A. Kennedy Class I B. Kennedy Class II
C. Kennedy Class III D. Kennedy Class IV
E. Kennedy Class V
38. Which of the following properties of dental materials is time-dependent?

A. Creep B. Resilience
C. Elastic limit D. Ultimate strength
E. Compressive strength
39. Which of the following direct retainers for a removable partial denture is
the most esthetics?
A. A bar clasp B. A circumferential clasp
C. An intracoronal attachment D. A round, wrought-wire clasp
40. In the construction of a removable partial denture, when is a lingual plate

preferred over a lingual bar connector?
A. When more rigidity is required
B. When the remaining teeth are widely spaced
C. Then the remaining anterior teeth are mobile
D. Then there is no space in the floor of the mouth
41. The relationship of the denture base to bone that resists dislodgement of the
denture in a horizontal direction is:
A. Support B. Pressure
C. Esthetics D. Stability
42. An overload of the mucosa will occur if the

A. Teeth used for replacement are nonanatomic
B. Bases covering the area are too small in outline
C. Bases covering the area are too large in outline.
D. Bases covering the area are overextended distally
43. The setting time of zinc oxide-eugenol impression paste may best be accelerated
by
A. Adding a drop of oleic acid to the mix
B. Chilling the mixing slab and the spatula
C. Adding a drop of water to the mix
D. Increasing the amount of eugenol
44. The lingual bar design that interferes least with phonetics involves
A. Placement close to the gingival margins of the teeth
B. Placement at the lowest level of the mucolingual fold in functions
C. Close contact with the lingual surface of the anterior teeth
D. Coverage of the lingual surface of the anterior teeth
45. A midline fracture of the maxillary denture is most often due to

A. The acrylic being too thin
B. The patient biting too hard
C. Use of poor grade of acrylic
D. Excessive resorption of the alveolar ridge
46. Also known as the emergency retentive force:

A. Atmospheric pressure B. Capillary attraction
C. Interfacial surface tension D. Cohesion
E. Adhesion
47. In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process can:

A. Limit the distal extension of the mandibular denture
B. Affect the position and arrangement of the posterior teeth
C. Limit the thickness of the denture flange in the maxillary buccal space
D. Determine the location of the posterior palatal seal of the maxillary denture
48. Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as an abutment tooth
for an FPD?
A. Tooth with pulpal involvement
B. Tooth with minimal coronal suture
C. Tooth rotated and tipped out of line
D. Tooth with short, tapered long root with long clinical crown
49. On the articulator, the incisal guidance is the

A. Horizontal guidance
B. Same as the condylar guidance
C. Mechanical equivalent of the Curve of Spee
D. Mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap
50. A dentist determined that it would be necessary to adjust a patient’s denture

teeth to correct the centric occlusion at the wax try-in appointment. Which of the
following should this dentist do?
A. Make a new centric relation record and remount
B. Make a new face bow and centric record
C. Make a slight occlusal adjustment in the mouth
D. Make adjusments only for Class II jaw relation patients
DAY 2
Roentgenology, Oral Diagnosis and Oral Surgery
1. A patient has received a tumoricidal course of cobalt therapy for a lesion of

the pharynx. His mandibular first molar has developed periapical abscess related
to caries. This tooth would be treated by
A. Administering an antibiotic and extracting.
B. Performing root canal therapy if at all possible.
C. Prescribing an analgesic compound plus an antibiotic
D. Incising and draining the abscess
E. Returning the patient to the radiotherapist
2. The most common disorder causing pain about the masticatory apparatus including
the TMJ, is
A. Myofascial pain dysfunction B. Trigeminal neuralgia
C. Degenerative arthritis D. Traumatic arthritis
E. Temporal arteritis
3. An excisional biopsy is characterized by

A. Using a trephine
B. Exfoliative cytologic techniques
C. Including normal tissue and most of the lesion
D. Including normal tissue and all of the lesion.
4. Most hospitals have dentists on their staffs and, as a rule, the dentists
A. Have privileges commensurate with training
B. Have unlimited privileges, once established as staff members
C. Serve probationary periods of 1-3 months and then have unlimited privileges
D. Must always have a physician present when operating.
5. The best tool for evaluation of fracture of the middle face is:
A. PA Skull B. Lateral Skull
C. Towne’s view D. Submentovertex
E. CT scan
6. An acute hypotensive episode developing very rapidly in a nervous, apprehensive,

healthy individual following the administration of 1.8ml of Carbocaine 3% with no
vasoconstrictor is due to
A. Increase vascular capacity
B. Decreased venous return to the right heart.
C. Widespread beta-receptor site stimulation of vascular wall smooth muscles in the
skeletal muscle mass
D. All of the above
7. Patients suffering from uncontrolled juvenile onset diabetes mellitus are usually
poor candidates for oral surgery because of
A. The high incidence of wound infection and poor healing
B. Their inability to follow postoperative instruction
C. Their tendency to hemorrhage profusely
D. Abnormal protein metabolism
E. Poor oral hygiene
8. Chronic osteomyelitis with proliferative periostitis of the mandible (Garre’s

chronic non-suppurative sclerosing osteitis) is characterized clinically mainly by
marked:
A. Endosteal bone formation B. Periosteal bone formation
C. Resorption of cortical bone D. Resorption of medullary bone
9. Three inherent characteristics of the radiographic film are

A. Distortion, density and contrast
B. Penumbra, contrast and detail
C. Definition, contrast and density
D. Definition, contrast and distortion
10. A 41-year old woman has periodic burning of her buccal mucosa. Clinical
examination reveals the presence of slightly elevated, grayish-white linear plaques.
Biopsy of one of these reveals mild surface keratosis, acanthosis, vacuolation of
many of the cells of basal cell layer, and a dense inflammatory cellular infiltrate
sharply delineated to the subepithelial connective tissue. The diagnosis most
consistent with these changes is
A. Leukoedema B. Leukoplakia
C. Lichen planus D. White sponge nevus
E. Pemphigus vulgaris
11. Cleft lip associated with cleft palate

A. Results from the failure of the facial process to fuse
B. May cause an impediment of speech in children
C. May interfere suckling in infants
D. Can be easily treated by surgical closure
E. All of the above
12. Epstein pearls are

A. The same as enamel pearls
B. Imperfections in the tooth buds
C. Seen in Vitamin D deficiency
D. Small keratin cyst on the newborn infants.
13. A patient has a swelling of long standing at the ala of the nose on the left
side. Examination reveals a swelling in the floor of the nostrils and beneath the
upper lip. There is no pain and regional teeth are vital. Radiographs show no bone
change. The preliminary diagnosis would be
A. Alveolar abscess B. Incisive canal cyst
C. Nasolabial cyst D. Dermoid cyst
E. Maxillary sinusitis
14. The removal of a root tip from the maxillary antrum, one should block the
A. Infraorbital nerve
B. Anterior superior alveolar nerve
C. Posterior superior alveolar nerve
D. Second division of the trigeminal nerve
E. Third division of the trigeminal nerve
15. The proper treatment of a localized osteitis following extraction of a tooth

includes:
A. Performing biopsy of the lesion
B. Topical application of an antibiotic in the socket
C. Placing the patient on systemic antibiotics
D. Gentle debridement of the wound by irrigation and placement of a sedative
dressing
E. Curetting the bony walls in the alveolar socket to stimulate bleeding and clot
formation
16. The most logical explanation for an abscess and maxillary canine causing
swelling beneath the eye is that the
A. Lymphatics drain upward in this region
B. Bone is less porous above the apex than below
C. Infection has passed into the angular vein has no valves
D. Apex lies above the attachment of the bone caninus and levator labii superioris
muscles
17. Following trauma to the maxillofacial area, cerebrospinal rhinorrhea occurs.

This fluid suggests
A. A Le fort I fracture B. A Le fort III fracture
C. A zygomatic arch fracture D. An alveolar process fracture
E. A bilateral condylar fracture
18. Incision for drainage in an area of acute infection should be performed when
A. Pain is acute B. Induration has occurred
C. Localization has occurred D. Oral temperature is over 130OF
E. There is danger of septicemia
19. Five days following surgical removal of a mandibular first molar, the patient
exhibits a painful socket, loss of the blood in the socket, normal temperature and
no swelling. Treatment of choice is to:
A. Apply internal heat
B. Prescribe Demerol
C. Institute antibiotic therapy
D. Irrigate the socket, place a sedative dressing and prescribe an analgesic
20. The most frequent cause of death occurring under general anesthesia in a healthy
out-patient is
A. Failure to premedicate
B. Reflex cardiac standstill
C. Overdosage of the anesthetic agent
D. Excessive carotid sinus stimulation
E. Airway obstruction with improper ventilation
21. Bifid ribs, multiple radiolucent lesions of the jaws, multiple basal cell nevi
and calcifications of the falx cerebri are found in
A. Horner syndrome B. Gardner syndrome
C. Sturge-Weber syndrome D. Basal cell nevus syndrome
E. Hereditary intestinal polyposis
22. Hematoma formation during or immediately following a posterior superior alveolar

nerve block anesthesia is most likely a result of damage of the
A. Facial artery B. Pterygoid venous plexus
C. Internal maxillary artery D. Small capillaries and arterioles
23. Treatment of syncope is most effectively accomplished by

A. Calling a physician
B. Administering 100 percent oxygen for five minutes.
C. Lowering the chair to place the patient’s head lower than his feet and massaging
his face and neck with a cold, wet towel
D. Bending the patient’s head forward between his knees and asking the patient to
raise his head against hand pressure
24. The best hemostatic agent for control of local hemorrhage is

A. Gelfoam B. Bone wax
C. Surgicel D. Vitamin K
25. Paresthesia elicited during a mandibular block injection are due to
A. Poor technique
B. Acid pH of local anesthetic solution
C. Contact the needle with the nerve block
D. Sodium conductance through the nerve membrane
26. Administration of cortisone affects healing in oral wounds by

A. Killing pathogenic bacteria
B. Decreasing the rate of repair
C. Stimulating the growth of endothelial cells
D. Increasing the rate of proliferation of fibroblasts
27. A dentist is using a film badge service to measure his radiation exposure. The
report from the film badge service indicates that the badge was expose to 475
millirems in the previous month. The dentist should
A. Stop taking radiograph immediately
B. Use lower speed film to reduce MaS
C. Report to a physician for a blood count
D. Increase target-film distance
E. Re-evaluate his radiation hygiene procedure.
28. The purpose of a step-down transformation in the x-ray apparatus is to

A. Control voltage to the tube film
B. Control potential between cathode and anode
C. Reduce unnecessary radiation
D. Reduce danger of “pitting” the focal spot on the anode
E. Both B and C
29. Lichen planus is a disease which occurs

A. More frequently in person under emotional stress
B. In deliberating individuals
C. Only on mucous membranes
D. In person with vitamin deficiencies
E. In alcoholics
30. Maxillary sinusitis may result from

A. Perforation of the antral floor following extraction
B. Upper respiratory tract infection
C. An acute periapical abscess
D. An allergy
E. Any of the above
31. An accentuation of osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity with a mosaic-pattern

is characteristically found in
A. Osteopetrosis B. Fibrous dysplasia
C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Paget’s disease of bone
E. Osteogenesis imperfecta
32. Which of the following cells are most radioresistant?

A. Lymphocytes B. Granulocytes
C. Erythroblasts D. Epithelial cells
E. Muscle cells
33. A 0.7-cm pedunculated, white rough-surfaced growth occurring on the hard palate
is most likely
A. An adenoid cystic carcinoma B. A pleomorphic adenoma
C. A keratoacanthoma D. A papilloma
E. A fibroma
34. The principal reason for placing an aluminum filter in the primary beam of
radiation is to
A. Reduce exposure time
B. Decrease development time of the films
C. Reduce radiation to the skin of the patient
D. Obtain greater definition of the images of teeth
35. The usual radiographic appearance of an osteogenic sarcoma is described as a

A. Sunburst pattern with radiopaque strands extending from the cortical plates
B. Cotton-wool appearance with an irregular peripheral border
C. Multicystic radiolucency with soap-bubble appearance
D. Discrete radiolucency with regular borders
36. In object localization, if the tube is shifted mesially, and the object in
question appears to move distally, then the object is said to be on the:
A. Buccal B. Lingual
C. Mesial D. Distal
E. None of these.
37. The universal forceps for extracting maxillary teeth is

A. 44 B. 150
C. 69 D. 18R and 18L
E. 151
38. Surgical blade which is used mainly for incision and drainage:
A. #11 B. #12
C. #15 D. #10
E. None of these
39. CAD/CAM means:

A. Computer-associated design/Computer-associated manufacturing
B. Computer-aided design/Computer-aided manufacturing
C. Computer-aided design/Computer-aided machine
D. Computer-acquired design/Computer-aided manufacturing
40. Dose equivalent is expressed in terms of:

A. Coulombs/kilogram (C/kg) B. Gray (Gy)
C. Sievert (Sv) D. Quality factor (QF)
41. Marsupialization involves the surgical excision of the deepest part of the cyst
lining to convert the cavity into a pouch. It is based on the principle that cysts
will shrink to smaller more manageable size when compressed.
A. First statement is true, the second statement is false
B. First statement is false, the second statement is true
C. Both first and second statements are true
D. Both first and second statements are false
42. Diazepam (Valium®) is contraindicated for use in a patient with a history of

A. Psychic depression B. Severe hypertension
C. Narrow angle glaucoma D. Coronary artery disease
43. Which of the following innervates the buccal gingiva of the maxillary second
premolar?
A. Buccal nerve B. Anterior palatine nerve
C. Posterior palatine nerve D. Middle superior alveolar nerve
E. Posterior superior alveolar nerve
44. Culture form a submandibular abscess following removal of an impacted third

molar reveals non-hemolytic streptococcus. The patient is allergic to penicillin.
Which of the following antibiotics should be prescribed?
A. Streptomycin 1gm a day
B. Tetracycline 250mg q.6.h
C. Erythromycin 250mg q.6.h
D. Chloramphenicol 250mg q.6.h
E. Cephalexin monohydrate 250mg q.6.h
45. Which of the following nerve injuries has paresthesia as the pathognomonic sign
and with axonal regeneration?
A. Neuropraxia B. Neurotmesis
C. Axonotmesis D. Both A and C
E. Both B and C
46. In Winter classification (WAR) of impacted tooth procedure, which of the

following lines refers to the level of access for elevating the impacted tooth?
A. Amber B. Red
C. White D. Blue
E. Orange
47. Diplopia is seen in which of the following facial fracture?

A. Nasal fracture with rhinorrhea
B. Craniofacial fracture
C. Zygomatic complex fracture (Tripod)
D. Cranial base fracture with ecchymoses on mastoid process
E. Le Fort I
48. Which of the following causes of temporomandibular disorders has fusion of

condyle, disk, and fossa complex as a result of the formation of fibrous tissue,
bone fusion, or a combination of the two?
A. Neurogenic inflammation B. Degenerative joint disease
C. Intracapsular ankylosis D. Extracapsular ankylosis
E. Myofascial pain and dysfunction
49. What is the most common facial fracture?

A. Le Fort I
B. Dish-face fracture
C. Nasal bone fracture
D. Subcondylar fracture with mandibular displacement
E. Zygomatic complex (Tripod) fracture
50. The posterior boundaries of cavernous sinus that results from the superior
spread of infection and it can cause fatality.
A. Pterygoid plexus and emissary veins
B. Superior and inferior ophthalmic veins and angular veins
C. Emissary veins and internal and external carotid veins
D. Jugular vein and basilar veins
DAY 2
Anesthesiology and Pharmacology
1. The most diuretic drugs act primarily by

A. Inhibiting the antidiuretic hormone
B. Promoting renal chloride excretion
C. Altering renal osmotic pressure balance
D. Increasing glomerular filtration rate
E. Retarding renal tubular sodium reabsorption
2. A drug’s usefulness as a therapeutic agent for man is most reliably assessed by

A. Determining the ratio of LD5 to ED95.
B. Determining the dose at which adverse effects develop.
C. Determining the dose that produces the desired therapeutic effect in man
D. Constructing a dose-response curve from the testing of a large population of
animals
E. Relating the dose that produces adverse effects in man to the dose that produces
the desired therapeutic effect.
3. Mixture of sulfonamides have an advantage over single sulfonamides in that

mixtures:
A. Decrease renal toxicity
B. Increase therapeutic effectiveness
C. Decrease acetylation, plasma binding arid acidity of the urines
D. Convert unusual bacteriostatic action to a bactericidal action
4. Neostigmine produces its effect by

A. Depressing the acetylcholinesterase release
B. Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase activity
C. Increase the rate of acetylcholine synthesis
D. Acting like acetylcholine at cholinergic receptor sites
E. Increasing the amount of acetylcholine released from nerve terminals
5. The immediate precursor of epinephrine is

A. Dopa B. Tyrosine
C. Tyramine D. Norepinephrine
E. Dopamine
6. The thiobarbiturates are characterized by

A. A rapid onset and very short duration of action
B. A rapid distribution from the brain into body tissues
C. A high percentage excreted as unchanged drugs
D. All of the above
E. Only A and B above.
7. Carbidopa, a dopa-decarboxylase inhibitor, is often used in treatment of

parkinsonism because its
A. Central action potentiates the action of dopamine
B. Central action potentiates the action of norepinephrine
C. Peripheral action decreases the metabolism of levodopa
D. Peripheral action inhibits stimulatory fibers from the central nervous system
8. Propylthiouracil is a drug used in the treatment of

A. Cancer B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Sodium retention D. Pheochromocytoma
E. Allergic manifestations
9. Which of the following generations of cephalosporins is the most extended?
A. First B. Second
C. Third D. Fourth
E. Fifth
10. Succinylcholine acts to block neuromuscular transmission by

A. Inhibiting cholinesterase
B. Inhibiting the central nervous system
C. Depolarizing the motor endplate of skeletal muscle
D. Inducing the formation of cholinesterase at the endplate
E. Block the release of acetylcholine at the endplate
11. A 5-grain aspirin tablet contains approximately how many milligrams of the
drug?
A. 75mg B. 150mg
C. 325mg D. 500mg
12. Which of the following is not a property of tetracycline antibiotics?

A. Absorption is impaired when taken with milk,
B. They predispose to monilial superinfection.
C. They form a stable complex with the developing tooth matrix
D. They have a low tendency for sensitization, but a high therapeutic index
E. They are effective substitute for penicillin for subacute bacterial endocarditis
prophylaxis
13. The only local anesthesia which increases the pressor activity of both
epinephrine and norepinephrine is
A. Cocaine B. Procaine
C. Dibucaine D. Lidocaine
E. Mepivacaine
14. Inhalation general anesthesia possess relatively low therapeutic indices, but
their clinical safety is greatly increase by
A. Rapid renal excretion
B. Rapid liver metabolism
C. Extreme ease in reversing tissue concentration
D. Ready reversal of effects by antagonists
15. Diazepam is preferred to barbiturate as an antianxiety agent because diazepam:

A. Produces no sedation
B. Is a very short-acting drug
C. Is substantially less expensive
D. Does not potentiate CNS depressants
E. Has less addiction potential
16. Amide-type local anesthetics are metabolized in the

A. Serum B. Liver
C. Spleen D. Kidneys
E. Axoplasm
17. Which of the following antibiotics is least likely to cause superinfections?

A. Gentamycin B. Tetracycline
C. Penicillin G D. Streptomycin
E. Chloramphenicol
18. In providing the pregnant patient with dental treatment, which of the following
principles should be followed?
A. No drugs, especially general anesthetics, should be administered during the
first trimester.
B. Local anesthetics, as far as is currently known, may be safely administered
during pregnancy
C. Beyond the first trimester, all drugs may be safely administered
D. All dental treatment should be postponed until the end of pregnancy
E. The patient should not be administered any analgesic during the entire pregnancy
19. The mechanism by which 70% ethyl alcohol may act as a disinfectant is attributed
to
A. A metabolic degradation product of ethyl alcohol
B. The lack of alcohol dehydrogenase of ethyl alcohol
C. The interference of ethyl alcohol with carbohydrate metabolism
D. The inebriating effect of ethyl alcohol on cells
E. The ability of ethyl alcohol to denture proteins
20. The administration of corticoids would be particularly contraindicated for

A. Chronic desquamative gingivitis B. Erythema multiforme
C. Pemphigus D. Lichen planus
E. Tuberculosis
21. An enzyme involved in the inactivation of epinephrine in the body is

A. Cholinesterase B. Choline acetylane
C. Carbonic anhydrase D. Cytochrome oxidase
E. Catechol-o-methyltransferase
22. Nitroglycerine dilates the coronary arteries in angina pectoris by

A. Decreasing the heart rate reflex.
B. Increasing the metabolic work of the myocardium
C. Direct action on the smooth muscle in the vessel walls
D. Increase the effective refractory period in the atrium
23. The antagonist of choice in the treatment of opioid overdosage is

A. Nalorphine (Nalline®) B. Naloxone (Narcan®)
C. Levallorphan (Lorfan®) D. Pentazocaine (Talwin®)
24. The most commonly used drugs in the treatment of mild hypertension are:
A. Reserpine and alpha-methyldopa
B. Alpha blocking agents and reserpine
C. Sedative and benzothiazine diuretics
D. Guanethidine and benzothiazine diuretics
E. Guanethidine and monoamine oxidase inhibitors
25. Most life-threatening adverse drug reactions affect the

A. Central nervous system
B. Liver and kidney systems
C. Bronchial smooth muscles
D. Cardiovascular and respiratory systems
26. Which of the following is NOT true of diazepam?

A. Structurally related to chlordiazepoxide (Librium®)
B. Increase in renal excretion of Na phenobarbital
C. Decrease in renal toxicity of sulfadiazine
D. Decrease in gastric acidity
E. Acid rebound
27. What does ED50 mean?

A. Lethal dose B. Therapeutic ratio
C. Medial lethal dose D. Median effective dose
28. Aplastic anemia is a serious toxic effect with particularly occurs after a
course of treatment with which of the following antibiotics?
A. Penicillin B. Tetracycline
C. Chloramphenicol D. Chlortetracycline
E. Lincomycin
29. Which of the following statements regarding local anesthesia is TRUE?

A. Onset and duration are independent of the tissue pH.
B. Recovery period is usually shorter than the onset time.
C. The smaller the concentration, the shorter the latency of onset of action
D. Degree and duration depend upon the intrinsic potency of the anesthesia
E. The larger the nerve fiber, the shorter the onset and the greater the duration.
30. The term bioavailability of a drug refers to:

A. The movement of a drug into the body tissues over time
B. The dissolution of a drug in the GI tract.
C. The measurement of the rate and amount of therapeutically active drug that
reaches the systemic circulation
D. The relationship between the physical and chemical properties of a drug and the
systemic absorption of the drug.
E. The amount of drug destroyed by the liver prior to systemic absorption from the
GI tract.
31. The average time for the onset of drug effect after subcutaneous administration
is:
A. Immediate B. 5 minutes
C. 15 minutes D. 30 minutes
32. All of the following drugs are useful for treating which common medical
condition?
Prednisone
Gold injections
Methotrexate
Nabumetone (Relafen)
Piroxicam (Feldene)
A. Osteoarthritis B. Systemic lupus erythematosus
C. Lyme disease D. Rheumatoid arthritis
33. When writing a prescription, b.i.d. is the abbreviation for:

A. Twice a day B. Every 4 hours
C. Three times a day D. Four times a day
34. All of the following are H1-receptor blockers except one. Which one is the
exception?
A. Diphenhydramine HCL (Benadryl)
B. Chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Trimeton)
C. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
D. Loratadine (Claritin)
E. Desloratadine (Clarinex)
35. In doing classical inferior alveolar nerve block, which groups of nerves are
affected?
A. Inferior alveolar nerve, lingual nerve and buccal nerve
B. Inferior alveolar nerve only
C. Inferior alveolar nerve and lingual nerve
D. Inferior alveolar nerve and buccal nerve
E. Inferior alveolar nerve and mylohyoid nerve
36. Short-acting anesthesia have a duration of:

A. 90-150 minutes B. 5-45 minutes
C. 180 minutes D. 45-75 minutes
37. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a nerve at rest:

A. Electrochemical gradient between the inside and outside of nerve membrane is –
70 to 90 mv.
B. K ions are concentrated inside while CI and Na ions are concentrated outside the
nerve membrane
C. Cl diffuses into the nerve membrane
D. Greater number of anions inside membrane and equal number of cations outside the
membrane
E. Na pump helps maintain the resting potential
38. Large bubbles (3-4mm) in the anesthetic cartridge are:

A. Caused by freezing and may no longer be considered sterile
B. Usually nitrogen gas bubbled into the cartridge to prevent oxygen which would
cause deterioration of the vasoconstrictor
C. Either A or B
39. Normal heartbeat in children.

A. 110-130 beats per minute B. 80-100 beats per minute
C. 60-80 beats per minute D. None of the above
40. Factors that determine the level of pain tolerance:

A. Fatigue B. Age
C. Weight D. Height
E. Both A and B only
41. Too much anesthesia can result to:

A. Paresthesia B. Hematoma
C. Anaphylaxis D. Localized osteitis
42. In greater palatine nerve block, the solution is deposited where?

A. Palatally to the distal aspect of upper first molar
B. Palatally to the distal aspect of third molar
C. Palatally to the distal aspect of second molar
D. Either A or B
E. Either A or C
43. Allergic reactions to local anesthetics are caused by

A. Improper injection technique B. Slow administration
C. Fast administration D. Rapid absorption
E. Antigen-antibody reaction
44. The dissociation constant of lidocaine is
A. 7.7 B. 7.9
C. 8 D. 8.1
45. Long lasting amide local anesthetics used for temporary relief of acutely
painful conditions such as trigeminal neuralgia.
A. Prilocaine B. Etidocaine
C. Bupivacaine D. Lidocaine
E. Mepivacaine
46. The most commonly used gauge-needle in pediatric patient is

A. 27 B. 32
C. 29 D. 30
47. Which herbal supplement below is known to be somewhat effective in treating

mild forms of mental depression?
A. Ginkgo biloba B. St. Johns Wort
C. Garlic D. Echinacea
E. Ginseng
48. Which of the following refers to the efficacy of a drug?

A. The relative concentrations of two or more drugs that produces the same drug
effect
B. The ability of a drug to produce a desired therapeutic effect regardless of
dosage
C. The dose of a drug that will kill a patient
49. Which of the following is NOT true regarding acetaminophen?

A. Antipyretic properties B. No cross-allergenic with aspirin
C. Anti-inflammatory properties D. Can be combined with codeine
E. May induce methemoglobinemia
50. Epinephrine is contraindicated in asthmatic patients because it exerts a beta-

adrenergic effect on bronchial smooth muscle.
A. Both statement and reason are correct and accurate
B. Both statement and reason are correct but not related.
C. The statement is correct but the reason is NOT.
D. The statement is NOT correct but the reason is an accurate statement
E. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct.
DAY 3
Orthodontics and Pediatric Dentistry
1. Ectopic or delayed eruption in the anterior segment of the arch is caused by

A. Presence of supernumerary teeth
B. Migration of the teeth
C. Discrepancy between size of teeth and size of arch
D. Premature loss of primary teeth
E. All of the above
2. Following extraction of the mandibular primary second molar in a 3 ½-year old

child, the treatment of choice is to
A. Place a removable appliance to replace the extracted tooth
B. Allow the permanent first molar to erupt and then maintain the space for the
premolar
C. Place a fixed appliance to guide eruption of the permanent first molar
D. Place a removable appliance to replace the extracted tooth and prevent elongation
of the opposing primary molar
3. The Father of Orthodontics is

A. Angle B. Dewey
C. Fauchard D. Kingsley
E. Hawley
4. The purpose of employing loops and helices in tooth-moving appliances is to

A. Provide a lighter force
B. Lengthen the period between adjustments
C. Provide a longer lever arm
D. All of the above
5. Dentinogenesis imperfecta differs from amelogenesis imperfect in that the former

is
A. A hereditary disturbance
B. The result of excess fluoride ingestion
C. Characterized by a brown color of the enamel
D. The result of faulty enamel matrix formation
E. Characterized by calcifications of the pulp chambers and the root canals of the
teeth.
6. In a mixed dentition space analysis, the most careful estimate will only be
accurate within
A. 0.5mm B. 2.0mm
C. 4.0mm D. 6.0mm
E. 8.0mm
7. The treatment of choice for a non-vital permanent incisor with immature root
development is
A. Pulpotomy
B. Silver point placement
C. Lateral condensation with gutta-percha
D. Retrograde root canal therapy with amalgam
E. Filling the canal with calcium hydroxide and CMCP
8. Which of the following items is probably the least cariogenic?

A. Gum B. Lifesaver
C. Ice cream D. Cookie
E. Soft drink
9. An interview with the parent prior to a child’s first appointment with the
dentist is helpful because it informs the dentist about
A. Whether the “tell-show-do” approach will be effective
B. The type of behavior response he may anticipate from the child
C. The probable need for strong restraint will be effective
D. Whether he will be able to use a local anesthetic with this child
E. All of the above
10. The most common hemophilia in male and child patient has a deficiency in which
of the following clotting factors?
A. VIII B. IX
C. X D. XI
E. XII
11. An eight-year-old patient has an end-on molar relation and normal vertical and
horizontal overlap. The mandibular lateral incisors are erupting slightly lingually.
The dentist should
A. Insert a lingual arch
B. Refer him to an orthodontist
C. Continue the routine dental care and developmental supervision
D. Institute orthodontic therapy to reposition the lateral incisor and to correct
the Class II molar relation
E. All of the above
12. In managing a seven-year-old child, the dentist should keep in mind that a
child this age is
A. Frequently negative B. Susceptible to praise
C. Generally uncooperative D. Prone to separation anxiety
E. Extremely afraid of strangers
13. A primary second molar of a seven-year old patient is extracted for orthodontic
purposes. The apical one-fourth of the mesiobuccal root fractures and remains in
situ. The dentist should:
A. Allow the root tip to remain in place and observe periodically
B. Use a root tip elevator to remove the roots
C. Make a flap at the buccal aspect and remove the tip surgically
D. Insert the thin beaks of the forceps into the socket and remove the root
E. Prescribe penicillins
14. Bimaxillary protrusion is

A. Class II Division I Subdivision B. Skeletal Class III
C. Class I D. Class II Division II
E. Class III type I
15. How many bones are present in a hand-and-wrist radiograph?

A. 27 B. 29
C. 30 D. 31
E. 33
16. In a child patient with a suspected case of leukemia and with a badly infected
primary tooth, the procedure of choice would be to
A. Administer antibiotics and refer the patient to a physician
B. Obtain consultation before determining the course of action
C. Obtain a blood count, admit the child to a hospital for extraction
D. Provide palliative treatment only
E. Extract the tooth under local anesthesia and refer the patient to a physician
17. A disadvantage of a removable space maintainer is that it

A. Is difficult to keep clean
B. Cannot be made esthetic
C. Will not maintain the vertical dimension
D. May not be worn
18. The most common local cause of malocclusion

A. Hypothyroidism B. Presence of supernumerary teeth
C. Early loss of primary teeth D. Late eruption of permanent teeth
E. Congenital absence of third molars
19. In an average child, teeth generally in the process of calcification at birth

are
A. All primary teeth only
B. All primary teeth and first molars
C. The primary anterior, canines, and first primary molars only
D. All primary teeth and all permanent teeth
20. The “V” principle of growth is best illustrated by the

A. Nasal septum B. Mandibular ramus
C. Mandibular symphysis D. Spheno-occipital synchondroses
E. Alveolar bone
21. Rectangular wire is used an adult orthodontic procedure in order to

A. Reduce the amount of force on the premolars
B. Prevent gingival irritation
C. Maximize the strength of the appliance
D. Facilitate fabrication
E. Prevent undesirable buccal and lingual tooth movements
22. Amalgam often tends to discolor the tooth. This can be inhibited by using
A. A rubber dam
B. Zinc-free alloy
C. An alloy containing zinc
D. Calcium hydroxide on the pulpal floor
E. Cavite varnish on all cut surfaces
23. What is the most uncommon malocclusion?

A. Class I B. Class II
C. Class III D. Normal occlusion
24. The Hawley retainer is the most common retainer in orthodontics because it can
use the palate for anchorage.
A. Both statement and reason are correct and accurate
B. Both statement and reason are correct but not related.
C. The statement is correct but the reason is NOT.
D. The statement is NOT correct but the reason is an accurate statement
E. NEITHER statement nor reason is correct.
25. The cranial vault is made up of a number of flat bones that are formed by ___,
___ cartilaginous precursors.
A. Endochondral bone formation; with
B. Intramembranous bone formation; without
C. Both endochondral and intramembranous bone formation; with
D. Both endochondral and intramembranous bone formation; without
26. The primary mandibular canines are usually exfoliated when a child is about:
A. 6-years old B. 7-9 years old
C. 9-12 years old D. 14-16 years old
27. A patient’s SNA angle is 78O. The SNB angle is 76O. This tells us that the
maxilla is ___, the mandible ___, and the skeletal profile is ___.
A. Prognathic; retrognathic; Class II B. Retrognathic; prognathic; Class III
C. Prognathic; prognathic; Class I D. Retrognathic; retrognathic; Class I
E. Retrognathic; retrognathic; Class II
28. Which of the following may cause extrusion of the maxillary first molar which
can cause an open bite?
A. Straight-pull headgear B. Reverse-pull headgear
C. Cervical-pull headgear D. High-pull headgear
29. All of the following statements are true, except:

A. The occlusal anatomy of primary teeth is not as defined as that of permanent
teeth; therefore, amalgam preps can be more conservative
B. Enamel and dentin are thicker in primary, therefore, amalgam preps are deeper
C. The pulpal horns of primary teeth are longer and pointed; therefore, amalgam
preps must be conservative to avoid pulpal exposure
D. Primary molars have an exaggerated cervical bulge that makes matrix adaptation
much more difficult
E. The occlusal table is narrower on primary molars
30. When treating a child who is obviously afraid, the dentist should:
A. Use restraint
B. Use the hand-over-mouth technique (HOME)
C. Permit the child to express his fear
D. Avoid all reference to the child’s fear
31. The minimum number of lobes which any normal tooth may develop is:
A. Two B. Three
C. Four D. Five
32. An active finger spring of a removable appliance usually touches the tooth with
a point contact. What is the most likely type of tooth movement produced in this
situation?
A. Tipping B. Extrusion
C. Intrusion D. Translation
33. The most commonly impacted tooth is the mandibular canine. The longer a tooth
has been impacted, the more likely it is to be ankylosed.
A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false.
D. The first statement is false, the second is true.
34. The existence of a forward shift of the mandible during closure to avoid incisor
interference is found in:
A. “True” Class III malocclusion B. “Pseudo” Class III malocclusion
C. Sunday bite D. All of the above
35. The permanent mandibular second premolar typically erupts when a child is about:
A. 5-6 years old B. 8-9 years old
C. 11-12 years old D. 13-14 years old
36. _____, alone or in combination with other drugs, is the most common sedative
agent used in pediatric dentistry.
A. Pentobarbital B. Secobarbital
C. Paraldehyde D. Chloral hydrate
37. What cephalometric analysis measurement is characteristic in Class I

malocclusion?
A. SNA angle of > 84O B. SNB angle of < 78O
C. ANB angle of < 4O D. Flat mandibular plane angle
38. The time required to upright a molar can vary from ____. The time required to
stabilize the molar can vary from ____.
A. 2-3 weeks; 1-2 months B. 2-6 months; 6-12 months
C. 1-2 months; 2-6 months D. 2-3 years; 6-12 months
E. 6-12 months; 2-6 months
39. Depth cuts can be used as a gauge to help establish the depth of the occlusal
reduction when preparing a primary tooth for a stainless-steel crown. Approximately
___ of the occlusal surface should be removed.
A. 1 to 1.5mm B. 3 to 3.5mm
C. 4 to 4.5mm D. 5 to 5.5mm
40. Which condition is appropriately treated at an early age?

A. Deviated midline in the absence of a functional shift
B. Mild crowding of lower permanent incisors
C. Two deciduous molars nearly in crossbite
D. Posterior crossbite with functional shift
41. A headgear appliance is used for:

A. Anchorage B. Traction
C. Both anchorage and traction D. Neither anchorage nor traction
42. Angle’s Class I occlusion represents ___% of the population. Angle’s Class II
represents ___%. While Angle’s Class III occlusion represents the remainder.
A. 40;55 B. 50;45
C. 60;35 D. 70;25
43. The success rates of mandibular nerve blocks are lower in children than in
adults because the mandibular anatomy is less developed children. The antero-
posterior position of the mandibular foramen is about the same or slightly more
mesial in children than in adults.
A. Both statements are true.
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false.
D. The first statement is false, the second is true.
44. Which appliance is probably the most widely used today by orthodontists?
A. Ribbon-Arch B. Band-and-loop
C. Edgewise D. Inclined plane
E. Begg appliance
45. Crossbites are often seen in the developing dentition in the molar region.
Treatment should always be as follows:
A. Both molars should be moved equal amounts for correction
B. One molar should be moved equal amounts for correction
C. The possibility of functional interference and shift of the mandibular should
be considered
D. One molar should be extracted
46. In cephalometric analysis of children with malocclusion, the angle ANB is

frequently used. In patients with severe Class II malocclusion, this angle is
A. Large B. Small
C. Normal D. Negative
E. Extreme
47. A ten-year old patient has mandibular canines trying to erupt into a space
insufficient by 2mm. Primary second molars are large and firmly in place. First
premolars are erupting.
An acceptable preventive orthodontic procedure for this case would be:
A. Disking the mesial proximal of the mandibular primary second molar
B. Extracting the mandibular primary second molar
C. Placing removable bite opener
D. Extracting the first premolar
48. To regain arch length in the anterior segment by moving the incisor labially,
one should:
A. Use a tongue blade
B. Used an inclined plane
C. Use a split-saddle acrylic space regainer
D. Evaluate the position of the teeth cephalometrically
49. Which of the following is related to the occipital anchorage?

A. Intra-oral force B. Extra-oral force
C. Tipping a tooth D. Bodily movement of a tooth
E. Occipital occlusion
50. The cotton pellet applied to the pulpal stumps in the formocresol pulpotomy
technique should be
A. Slightly dampened with formocresol B. Saturated with formocresol
C. Left in place for 15 minutes D. Left in place after the second visit
E. Left in place for 30 minutes
DAY 3
Jurisprudence, Ethics and Practice Management
1. An act to regulate the practice of dentistry, dental hygiene and dental technology
in the Philippines
A. Republic Act no. 9484 B. Republic Act no. 4419
C. Republic Act no. 8494 D. Republic Act no. 9844
2. Any person who shall practice dentistry, dental hygiene and dental technology
in the Philippines using a revoke or suspended certificate of registration and
professional identification card shall:
A. Suffer imprisonment for a period of not less than one year and one day nor more
than 2 years
B. Suffer imprisonment for a period of not less than two years and one day nor more
than 4 years
C. Suffer imprisonment for a period of not less than two years and one day nor more
than 5 years
D. Suffer imprisonment for a period of not less than three years and one day nor
more than 6 years
3. Whenever a dentist enters the dental corps of the AFP to serve, he shall assume
a rank of:
A. 2nd Lt. B. Lt. Col.
st
C. 1 Lt. D. SPO1
E. SPO4
4. Doctrine of quantum merit means:

A. The thing speaks for itself.
B. The patient is also responsible for his worsened condition
C. The dentist is responsible for the actions of his employees acting within the
scope of their tasks
D. The amount of fee should be equivalent to the reasonable value of the services
rendered
E. So use your own so as not to injure that of another
5. Sic utero tuo ut alienum non laedas means:

A. The thing speaks for itself
B. The patient is also responsible for his worsened condition
C. The dentist is responsible for the action of his employees acting within the
scope of their tasks.
D. The amount of fee should be equivalent to the reasonable value of the services
rendered.
E. So use your own so as not to injure that of another.
6. Announcement in print, websites, e-cards and other electronic form of

communication shall be posted within ____ days from the date opening.
A. 40 B. 30
C. 20 D. 10
E. 45
7. Salus populo suprema les est means:

A. The welfare of the supreme power is the supreme law.
B. The welfare of the people is the supreme law.
C. So use your own as not to injure others
D. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith
8. The “Bill of Right” of the Constitution is found in:
A. Article II B. Article III
C. Article IV D. Article V
9. Directional signboards may be used by the dentist but shall not be more than ___
along the street where the dentist is practicing:
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. 5
10. Otherwise known as Generic Act of 1988:

A. RA 768 B. RA 4419
C. RA 6675 D. RA 668
E. PD 223
11. An Act prescribing permanent residence and reciprocity as qualification for any
examination or registration for the practice of any profession in the Philippines.
A. RA 5181 B. RA 7112
C. RA 568 D. RA 3626
12. The Philippine Dental of 2007 provides for the following, except
A. Regulation, control and supervision of the practice of Dentistry, Dental hygiene
and Dental Technology in the Philippines.
B. Giving of licensure examination to graduates of recognized schools of dentistry,
dental hygiene and dental technology for the purpose of registration.
C. Accreditation of the various schools of dentistry.
D. Promotion and development of continuing dental education and research in the
country.
13. A dentist who fails practice in accordance with the required standard is guilt
of:
A. Illegal practice B. Moral turpitude
C. Unprofessional conduct D. All of these
E. None of these
14. The following are the powers and functions of the Board of Dentistry, except:
A. Study the conditions affecting the practice of dentistry, dental hygiene and
dental technology in the Philippines.
B. Ensure that all educational institutions offering dentistry, dental hygiene, and
dental technology comply with policies, standards and requirement of the course
prescribed by the CHED or TESDA in the areas of curriculum, faculty, library, and
facilities
C. Supervise and regulate the registration, licensure and practice of dentistry,
dental hygiene and dental technology in the Philippines
D. Issue, reinstate, suspend or revoke the certificate of registration and
professional identification card or cancel special permits for the practice of
dentistry, dental hygiene and dental technology
E. Confirmed appointment of the new members of Board of Dentistry.
15. An extraordinary remedy which is issued by a superior court to an inferior

court commanding the latter to send up the record of a particular case where a
question of justification of the same or irregularity in its proceedings is raised;
A. Mandamus B. Prohibition
C. Quo warranto D. Certiorari
16. In the Philippine Dental Act of 2007, dental hygienist refers to the following,
except:
A. A person who is a holder of a valid certificate of registration and professional
identification card and has undergone a two-year course in dental hygiene from a
government recognized school under a college of dentistry and passing the prescribed
board examination for dental hygienist,
B. Renders oral health promotion and preventive measures,
C. Performs scaling and polishing, oral examination, taking brief clinical history,
taking radiograph,
D. Giving oral health education to patients under the supervision of a licensed
dentist.
E. None of these
17. Defined as the systemic study of all laws, rules and regulations as well as
legal principles as doctrine governing and regulating dental practice:
A. Dental jurisprudence B. Law
C. Legal rights D. Dental jurisprudence and Ethics
18. The following the qualification of the members of the Board of Dentistry:
A. Be a member of the faculty of any school, college, or university where
undergraduate and graduate courses in dentistry are taught and where dental hygiene
and dental technology courses and review courses are offered, nor shall have,
directly or indirectly, any pecuniary interest in such institution
B. Preferably with two (2) years of teaching experience
C. Not be connected in any capacity with any business enterprise, firm or company
in the buying, selling or manufacture of dental goods, equipment, materials or
supplies.
D. All are correct.
E. None, all are incorrect.
19. The chairman and the members of the Board shall serve for a term of three years
from the date of their appointments and may be reappointed for another term.
A. The first statement is correct, the second is not.
B. The first statement is not correct, the second is correct.
C. Both statements are correct.
D. Both statements are incorrect.
20. A dentist may face this charge for violating the dangerous drug act;
A. Civil malpractice B. Illegal practice
C. Criminal malpractice D. Administrative malpractice
21. Any person who shall practice dentistry, dental hygiene or dental technology
in the Philippines without a certificate of registration and professional
identification card shall be punished by a fine of:
A. Not less than 50,000.00 nor more than 200,000.00
B. Not less than 100,000.00 nor more than 400,000.00
C. Not less than 200,000.00 nor more than 500,000.00
D. None of these
22. The Board can refuse to issue a certificate of registration to any successful
examinee or to any examinee registered without examination for the following
conditions, except:
A. Has been convicted by a court of competent jurisdiction of any criminal offense
B. Moral turpitude
C. Guilty of immoral and dishonorable conduct after investigation by the Board.
D. Declared to be of unsound mind
E. None of these.
23. A dentist who charges exorbitant fees is:

A. More successful than others B. Appreciated more by his patients
C. Likely to lose his patient’s confidence D. Practicing his right to earn money
24. It is the virtue that enables us to make right judgment:

A. Prudence B. Justice
C. Fortitude D. Temperament
25. Letters of building signs above the 1st floor shall be no bigger than ___ cm
in size?
A. 14 B. 16
C. 15 D. 25
E. 26
26. It is a process wherein there is analysis of the business plan into the functions
or activities to be performed, assignments are given of each task to a specific
person; and everything is presented in an organizational chart.
A. Dental practice administration B. Practice management
C. Dental practice planning D. All of the above
27. In treatment planning, the dentist should consider a patient’s ethnic identity
and heritage because the patient’s cultural background influences the formation of
his health-related beliefs and attitudes.
A. Both the statement and the reason are correct and related
B. Both the statement and the reason are correct but not related
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is accurate
E. Neither the statement nor the reason is correct.
28. The prime advantage of solo practice:

A. Sole control of personnel B. One-man policy decision
C. Possible tax advantage D. No implied partnership
E. quiet ambiance
29. The following factors should be considered by a dentist in establishing his fee
to a patient, except:
A. Nature of the case B. Dentist’s expertise of the case
C. Efforts and skill exerted D. Materials
E. Capacity of the patient to pay.
30. A dentist may advertise for the following purpose:

A. To let the public know of his definite fixed fees
B. To show his personal superiority or competence to perform services well
C. To give statements calculated to deceive the public
D. To repost special or exclusive methods of practice
31. Medical clearance must be filed with the patients’ dental record and must be
in his/her safekeeping for at least:
A. 5 years. B. 10 years
C. 6 years D. 15 years
E. 8 years
32. The following are advantages of heritage practice, except:

A. The rookie dentist must accept all patient transferees in most cases
B. Practice is retained in the family
C. The patient load is inherited by the beginner member
D. Easily accepts ideas related to the management of the clinic
E. All of the above.
33. The dental clinic shall have not more than ___ window or building sign per
exposure.
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. 5
34. The following are disadvantages of employee-employer relationship, except:

A. Personality clashes B. Compliance with policies
C. Communication gap D. Non-necessity for outlay of money
E. Gaining experience is limited
35. The following are objectives of dental practice, except:

A. Restore function and anesthetics
B. To be aware of the social & economic aspect of the profession
C. To be physically fit.
D. To keep abreast of new dental trends
E. To think of the patient as a whole total personality
36. These are laws which govern the relationship of the government with its citizens.
A. Private Law B. Divine law
C. Human law D. Public Law
E. Civil Law
37. The right of a patient to file a complaint against a dentist for a negligent
act done to him:
A. Rights in rem B. Rights in personam
C. Ethical duty of patient D. Rights
38. The Philippine Dental Act of 2007 was enacted on:

A. June 5, 2007 B. June 2, 2007
C. June 19, 2007 D. June 18, 2007
39. Which of the following principles requires health professionals to inform their
patients about treatment and to protect their confidentiality?
A. Justice B. Autonomy
C. Beneficence D. Nonmaleficence
40. This does not represent a general principle of the simplified training of a
dental assistant.
A. Do not acquaint the assistant with the vocabulary of dentist
B. Know what the duties of the assistant will be
C. Know the material for instruction
D. Have a plan for instruction.
41. _____ is of moral standard.

A. Dental Ethics B. Legal Rights
C. Ethics D. Morals
E. Law
42. An advantage of this methods of payments is proof of payment:

A. Cash B. Direct reimbursement
C. Personal checks D. Budget plans
E. Payment through HMOs
43. Which of the following represents the appropriate way for a practitioner to
manage a patient’s hostility and anger?
A. Using one’s authority as a dentist and issuing a firm warning.
B. Allowing the patient to control the situation.
C. Attempting to extinguish the behavior by ignoring it.
D. Identifying the underlying source of the patient’s anger
44. A right inherent in every state to take private property for public use upon
payment of just compensation to the owner. What power of the government can exercise
this?
A. Taxation B. Police power
C. Eminent domain D. A & B only
E. None of the choices.
45. A dentist who wants to establish and maintain a good practice must:
A. Advertise in selected magazines
B. Equip his clinic with the most modern facilities
C. Point out the deficiencies of other dentists
D. Employ a PR agent
E. Have satisfied patients
46. Drug of choice for angina pectoris

A. Benadryl B. Nitroglycerin
C. Epinephrine D. Amphetamine
E. Tetracycline
47. A dentist must continuously upgrade his skills because

A. He can maintain his social standing among his peers
B. He can increase his income
C. He should impress his patients with his credentials
D. It is his duty to his profession
E. Other professionals also have education programs
48. A dentist cannot use this title in his cards or office signs:
A. Doctor B. DDS
C. Dentist D. DMD
49. This is the best reason why a patient accepts the treatment proposed by the
dentist:
A. Failure to render fee estimate
B. Dentist seems too busy to do a good job
C. Rudeness of the dentist’s employees
D. Good preparation and case presentation by the dentist.
50. Letter for building signs on the 1s floor shall not be larger than ___ cm in
size.
A. 4x4 B. 5x5
C. 7x7 D. 8x8
E. 6x6
DAY 3
Periodontics and Endodontics Dentistry
1. Tetracycline are used as an anti-infective agent in the treatment of periodontal

disease of the added property of:
A. Inhibition of collagen synthesis B. Inhibition of interleukin alpha
C. Inhibition of arachidonic synthesis D. Enhances PMN’s chemotaxis
2. How should a periodontal probe be adapted in an interproximal area?

A. It should be parallel to the long axis of the tooth at the point angle
B. It should be parallel to the long axis of the tooth at the contact area
C. It should touch the contact area and the tip should angle slightly beneath and
beyond the contact area
D. It should be perpendicular to the long axis of the tooth in front of the contact
area.
3. When is endodontic treatment contraindicated?

A. The patient is not motivated to maintain the tooth
B. The canal appears to be calcified
C. Class III mobility and loss of bone support
D. The tooth needs periodontal crown lengthening before restoration
4. Gracey’s curette 15/16 is used in:

A. Anterior teeth and posterior teeth
B. Buccal and lingual surfaces of posterior teeth
C. Mesial surface of posterior teeth
D. Distal surface of posterior teeth
E. Buccal and lingual surfaces of anterior teeth.
5. Which of the following perforations has the poorest prognosis?

A. Perforation of a furcation area of a molar.
B. Perforation of a middle root area with a small file
C. Perforation slightly apical to the epithelial attachment
D. Perforation slightly coronal to the epithelial attachment
E. Perforation at the apex, 1mm. from its radiographic termination
6. A negative response to the electric pulp tester immediately after a severe

luxation of a tooth indicates that the:
A. Pulp is inflamed
B. Electric pulp tester is giving a false reading
C. Pulp is necrotic and should be removed
D. Blood supply is interrupted, and the negative response may be temporary
E. Neural transmission is interrupted, and the negative response may be temporary
7. Which type of periodontitis causes continued attachment loss in spite of

apparently appropriate therapy?
A. Juvenile periodontitis B. Adult periodontitis
B. Refractory periodontitis D. Rapidly progressive periodontitis
8. Which of the following is used to bleach a discolored, endodontically treated

tooth?
A. Ether B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Chloroform D. Sodium hypochlorite
E. Hydrogen peroxide
9. One objective of root canal obturation is to develop a fluid tight seal. Another
objective is to create a favorable biologic environment for the process of tissue
healing.
A. Both statements are TRUE.
B. Both statements are FALSE
C. The first statement is TRUE, the second is FALSE
D. The first statement is FALSE, the second is TRUE.
10. When root canal therapy is indicated for a vital tooth, which of the following
is the most biologically acceptable?
A. Filing to the radiographic apex and filling to the radiographic apex
B. Filing 0.5-1.0mm short of the radiographic apex and filling to the same length
C. Filing to the radiographic apex and filling 0.5-1.0mm short of the radiographic
apex
D. Filing 0.5-1.0mm beyond the radiographic apex and filling to the radiographic
apex.
11. The primary function of a root canal sealer is to:

A. Prevent discoloration
B. Seal dentinal tubules
C. Stimulate healing in the apical region
D. Medicate the canal to eliminate remaining bacteria
E. Fill the space between the solid cone material and the pulp canal wall.
12. Expanded Tetrafluoro-ethylene membrane is used in periodontal therapy to:

A. Regenerate bone
B. Cover and protect surgical wound
C. Barrier against collagen regeneration
D. Barrier for epithelial and gingival connective tissue proliferation
13. During a step-back enlargement of the canal space, one reason for recapitulation
after each increase in instrument size is to:
A. Maintain coronal curvature of the canal
B. Maintain the apical stop for filling with gutta-percha
C. Create a coronal funnel to facilitate filling with gutta-percha
D. Clean the apical segment of dentin fillings that are not removed by irrigation
14. Which of these is not a diagnostic feature of occlusal trauma?

A. Widening of periodontal surface B. Loss of alveolar bone
C. Periodontal pocket formation D. Increased in tooth mobility
15. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding gutta-percha points?

A. They contain 40% to 50% pure gutta-percha.
B. They can be heat sterilized
C. They adhere to dentin when compacted
D. They are not compressible.
16. Bone-fill procedures (new attachment) are most successful in treating:

A. Trifurcation involvements
B. Deep, two-wall craters
C. Narrow, three-wall defects
D. Osseous defects with one remaining wall
17. The primary difference between gingivitis and periodontitis is:

A. Bone infection
B. Depth of pockets
C. Lack of stippling of the gingival
D. Changes in color of the gingival
E. Apical migration of junctional epithelium beyond the CEJ.
18. Which of the following statements regarding sodium hypochlorite used as a root
canal irrigating solution is accurate?
A. It is buffered to a pH of 12 to 13, which increases toxicity.
B. It exhibits a chelating action on dentin.
C. It should be used in higher concentrations because of the increased free chlorine
available.
D. It is a good wetting agent that permits the solution to flow into canal
irregularities.
E. All of the above statements are accurate.
19. The most important principle governing the location and outline of the lingual
or occlusal opening into the pulp chamber is:
A. Preservation of tooth structure.
B. Direct access along straight lines.
C. Complete removal of the roof of the pulp chamber
D. Removal of all caries and defective restorative material.
20. After subgingival curettage, the expected result would be:

A. Increased edema B. Deeper gingival sulcus
C. Increased tooth mobility D. Shallower gingival sulcus
21. During calculus removal, the surface of the root feels smoothest following
scaling with:
A. A hoe B. An ultrasonic instrument
C. Periodontal files D. A rotary driven metal scaler
E. A periodontal curette
22. Gingival bleeding in chronic gingivitis is due to:

A. Detachment of epithelial attachment from tooth
B. Periodontal ligament is detached
C. Increased capillary fragility due to lack of vitamin C
D. Micro-ulceration of crevicular epithelium
23. Presence of gutta-percha beyond the apex is usually caused by which of the
following?
A. Use of too small master cone.
B. Excessive heating and compaction during warm, vertical condensation.
C. Destruction of the natural apical constriction.
D. All of the above.
24. Which of the following mucogingival surgical techniques is indicated in areas

where there is gingival recession that is narrow, adjacent to which a wide band of
attached gingiva exists, which can be used as a donor site?
A. Free gingival autograft B. Double papilla flap
C. Modified Widman flap D. Laterally positioned flap
25. A patient who presents with fiery red marginal and attached gingiva and
demonstrates ulcerated and necrotic epithelium that sloughs (or peels off) with air
blasts probably has:
A. Periodontitis
B. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
C. Desquamative gingivitis
D. Hyperplastic gingivitis
26. “J-shaped” radiolucency indicates
A. Infrabony pocket B. Vertical root fracture
C. Endodontically treated tooth D. Pulpal lesion
27. The primary function of the periodontal file is to:

A. Root plane
B. Remove heavy supragingival calculus
C. Crush or fracture heavy tenacious calculus
D. Completely remove heavy subgingival calculus
28. Which tooth will almost always have two canals?

A. Maxillary first premolar B. Maxillary second premolar
C. Mandibular first premolar D. Mandibular second premolar
29. Approximately, what percentage of mandibular first premolars may have two canals
with two apical foramina?
A. 5% B. 20%
C. 45% D. 65%
30. All of the following statements regarding ethylene diamine tetra-acetic acid
(EDTA) are true, except:
A. It is a chelating agent with the capability to remove the mineralized portion
of the smear layer
B. It can decalcify up to a 50um thin layer of the root canal wall Normally it is
used in a concentration of 17%
C. RC-Prep and EDTAC are other preparations of EDTA
D. The decalcifying process induced by EDTA is self-limiting
E. It is also an excellent irrigating solution
31. The most commonly used irrigant in endodontics, sodium hypochlorite (NaOCI) is
used in the concentration of:
A. 1% B. 2.6%
C. 5.25% D. All of the above
32. All of the following drugs can be associated with gingival hyperplasia, except:
A. Phenytoin (Oilantin) B. Cyclosporine A (Sandimmune)
C. Paroxetine HCI (Paxil) D. Nifedipine (Procardia)
E. Diltiazem (Cardizem)
33. The primary reason for the failure of a free gingival graft is:
A. Infection B. Edema
C. Disruption of the vascular supply D. The formation of scar tissue
34. The most common microorganisms present in peri-implantitis is:

A. Variety of virus
B. Gram-positive facultative anaerobic
C. Gram-negative strict aerobic
D. Gram-negative capnophilic facultative anaerobic
E. All of the above
35. In a commercial toothpaste, sodium benzoate functions as a (an):

A. Humectant B. Preservative
C. Surfactant D. Binder or thickener
E. Abrasive
36. A 4-year old child has a traumatized central incisor with a Class III (Ellis)
fracture. The injury occurred about one month ago, and examination indicates that
the pulp is necrotic. There are no other pathologic findings. Treatment of choice
is:
A. Watchful observation
B. Extraction and use of a space maintainer
C. Pulpectomy and root canal filling using gutta-percha points and cement
D. Endodontic treatment and root canal filling with a resorbable paste.
37. Circular fibers are present in the:

A. Free gingiva and encircle the tooth
B. Free gingiva and encircle alveolar bone
C. Attached gingiva and encircle alveolar bone
D. Periodontal ligament and encircle the tooth.
38. Used to dislodge heavy supragingival calcular deposits:

A. Sickles B. Chisels
C. Hoes D. Files
E. Curettes
39. From which of the following is the periodontal ligament derived?

A. Dental sac B. Dental papilla
C. Enamel organ D. Epithelial root sheath
D. Outer enamel epithelium
40. The root end is ultrasonically prepared during endodontic surgery for which of
the following reasons?
A. It results in apical cracks at low setting.
B. It results in larger, but cleaner, cavity walls.
C. It can make a deeper cavity more safely than a bur.
D. It does not require an acute angle of root resection.
E. None of these
41. Which of the following statements regarding pulp stimulation with cold is
accurate?
A. It is best accomplished with carbon dioxide snow.
B. It is an accurate assessment of pulp vitality.
C. It directly stimulates the pain fibers in the pulp.
D. It is best determined with a blast of air.
42. Calcium hydroxide is advocated as an interappointment medication primarily

because of:
A. Its ability to dissolve necrotic tissue.
B. Its antimicrobial activity.
C. Its ability to stimulate hard-tissue formation
D. Its ability to temporarily seal the canal.
43. Which of the following statements regarding Hedstrom (H-files) files are
accurate?
A. They are manufactured by machining a round cross-sectional wire.
B. They are effective when used in a reaming action.
C. They are safer than K-files, because external signs of stress are more visible
as changes in flute design.
D. They are aggressive because of a negative-rake angle that is parallel to the
shaft.
44. The smear layer on dentin walls acts to prevent pulpal injury for which of the
following?
A. It reduces diffusion of toxic substance through the tubules.
B. It resists the effects of acid etching of the dentin.
C. It eliminates the need for cavity liner or base.
D. Its bactericidal activity acts against oral microorganisms.
45. Which of the following teeth is most likely to exhibit C-shaped morphology?
A. Maxillary first premolar B. Mandibular first premolar
C. Maxillary first molar D. Mandibular first molar.
46. Curettage refers to

A. Soft tissue debridement of the gingival wall of a periodontal pocket
B. Removal of calcified deposits from the gingival sulcus and/or periodontal pocket
C. Scaling and/or planing of the root surface
D. Removal of dental plaque from the coronal surfaces
47. The first change in epithelial attachment as a result of inflammation is

A. Migration B. Detachment
C. Ulceration D. Proliferation
48. After a thorough prophylaxis, new plaque formation is initiated first by which
of the following? Organisms:
A. Floating in saliva which attach directly to the tooth surface
B. In pits, fissure, cracks, perikymata or margins of restorations which were not
removed
C. Migration onto the tooth from adjacent gingiva
D. Or food which become wedge around teeth
49. Attraction or fixation of microorganism in area of inflammation is known as

A. Diapedesis B. Anachoresis
C. Synthrophism D. Focal infection
50. Gingivitis during pregnancy results from an

A. Increase in local irritation by an alteration of the saliva
B. Alteration of tissue response to local irritation
C. Overgrowth of tissue which is unrelated to local irritation
D. All of the above

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DAY 1

PRE-BOARD EXAMINATION (December 2018)

2. Which of the following cranial nerves have parasympathetic activity?

3. A patient is experiencing a lancinating, paroxysmal pain. This pain is occurring

4. Which of the following structures converge to form the pterygomandibular raphe?

6. Which of the following is a type of syndesmosis?

8. Raschkow plexus is located

9. Infrahyoid musculature of the neck receives motor innervation from

10. Each of the following is true of nystagmus, except:

11. Sperm is stored in the

12. Each of the following is a function of skin, except

13. The vertebral artery enters the spine at which level?

14. The function of the Salpingopharyngeus muscle is to

15. The bony floor of the nasal cavity is formed by the:

16. The visual center of the cerebral cortex is located in the

18. Urinary bladder differs from gallbladder in that urinary bladder

20. Aldosterone causes:

21. The most likely cause of essential hypertension is

23. The adequate stimulus for the Hering-Breuer reflex is the

24. Beriberi is associated with a deficiency in which of the following vitamins?

25. Which of the following compounds is an intermediate in the biosynthesis of

27. When does calcification begin in the permanent first molars?

31. The first succedaneous tooth to erupt is a

32. The percentage of dentin that is organic is

33. The principal retractor of the mandible is the:

36. The ligamentum arteriosum is

38. Production of bile takes place in

40. The end-product of glycolysis under anaerobic conditions is

41. Stimulation of sympathetic nervous supply to the gastrointestinal tract

45. The cornerstone of the oral cavity is:

46. Which of the following portions of an ECG is related to propagation of the

48. The most important function of hydrochloric acid in the stomach is

49. The sphenomandibular ligament is attached to the

50. The fate of Meckel’s cartilage is believed to be

1. Systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis, idiopathic thrombocytopenic

2. The ability of certain oral microorganisms to function as etiologic agents of

4. Anaerobic bacteria lacking catalase are generally

5. An increase in ventricular wall thickness in patients with hypertensive heart

6. The most common causative organism in gram-negative sepsis is

8. Osteitis deformans is characterized by each of the following, except

9. Each of the following is commonly associated to congestive heart failure, except:

10. A tumor composed of multiple tissues in which there may be representative of

11. Rickettsia are distinguishable from viruses because:

13. Aspiration of material from carious teeth is associated with

15. The end-product of glucose metabolism by Streptococcus mutans is

16. The epithelial change most predictive of cancer is

17. Flaccid paralysis of skeletal muscle is characteristic of which of the following

19. Acid phosphatase is elevated in which of the following malignancies?

20. Which of the following statements is not characteristic of chronic myelogenous

23. Metachromatic granules are characteristically observed in properly stained

25. The most common cause for megaloblastic anemia is

27. A patient with which of the following diseases is predisposed to develop

28. Presence of mamelons in adults indicates

29. “Tooth within a tooth”

31. An oral examination of a three-year-old child revealed only deciduous canines

33. “Sulfur granules” are of diagnostic value in suspected cases of

35. Compare with intertubular dentin, peritubular dentin is characterized by which

36. An active fibroblast is characterized by

37. It is possible to distinguish histologically between the stomach and the

38. Each of the following is seen with DiGeorge syndrome, except

40. Which of the following is a type of irreversible cell injury?

42. The smallest bacterium is

43. Which of the following is true of syphilis infection?