Maluma PDF

The membrane tank of gas carriers consist of a thin layer supported through
insulation by
A) Outer hull
B) Inner hull
C) Membrane itself
D) Outer hull strengthening members
An oil tanker carrying noxious liquid substance (NLS) substances must have on
board _____
A) A certificate of fitness under the international code for the construction and
equipment of ships carrying dangerous chemicals in bulk (IBC) code.
B) IPPC for noxious liquid substances (NLS).
C) A certificate of fitness under the international code for the construction and
equipment of ships carrying liquefied gases in bulk (IGS) code.
D) None of them.
The type C independent of a gas carried ____
A) Does no require a secondary barrier.

B) Requires a secondary barrier.
C) Requires a partial secondary barrier.
D) Neither A, B or C.
Life rafts shall be provided whit a first aid outfit___
A) TRUE
B) FALSE
An immersion suit shall permit the person wearing it to ____
A) Climb up and dawn a vertical ladder at least 5m in length.

B) Perform normal duties associated with abandonment.
C) Swim a short distance through the water and board a survival craft.
D) All of them.
A material which reflects in the opposite direction a beam of light directed on it is
called ___
A) Retro reflective material.

B) Reflective material.
C) Mirror like material.
D) None of them.
Life rafts ____
A) Shall be stowed not less than 18 metres from the water level.
B) Shall be stowed at less than 18 metres from the water level.
C) Can be stowed at any height from the water level if drop tested satisfactorily at that
height.
D) Shall always be stowed at 18 metres from the water level.
The container of a life raft shall be marked with ___
A) (SOLAS)
B) Which type of emergency pack it carrier.
C) The date when last serviced.
D) All of them.
When using a life-line, the signal: 3 tugs by the attendant means:
A) Are you alright?

B) Danger, I am pulling you out.
C) I am giving more slack on the line.
D) I am picking up slack on the line.
The flammable range is ____
A) The concentration of vapour between lower flammable limit (LFL) and upper
flammable limit (UFL).
B) The temperature between flash point and ignition point.
C) A too-lean mixture.
D) A too-rich mixture.
A build up of hydrogen due to poor ventilation can be caused in the____
A) Paint locker.
B) Engine room.
C) Radio room.
D) Battery room.
A fire fighters outfit should consist of ____
A) A set of personal equipment.

B) Breathing apparatus along with a life-line.
C) A set of personal equipment and breathing apparatus with a life-line.
D) Protective clothing, boots and right helmet.
Why must the boats coxswain make it clear to everyone that s/he is in charge?
A) To preserve food and drinking water.

B) To ensure that her/his seat in the boat is reserved.
C) To establish proper leadership which is vital in any survival situation.
D) To coxswain should maintain a low profile and stick to her/his job of steering the boat.
Simulated launching of a freefall lifeboat is:
A) Training exercise done using a computer simulation.

B) Performed in the same way as an actual launch would be carried out.
C) An alternative to the 6 monthly launch required by IMO regulations.
D) A paper exercise.
Once the inflation of the davit-launched life rafts is complete, what should be
browsing lines be user for?
A) To pull the life rafts in tight so that it can be made fast, ready for boarding.
B) To act as a safety device when boarding.
C) There are no bowsing lines on davit-launched life rafts.
D) Clearing the boarding area of obstacles.
1. What does this sign mean?
release gripes
reléase falls
let go lifeboat
secure painter
2. Self contained breathing apparatus shall have compressed air in one or two bottles with at
least____ of free air and shall be capable of functioning for at least.
1000 litre/45min
1150 litre/35min
1200 litre/30min
1500 litre/1hour
3. Ship security alarm can be disclosed to

Port state inspectors
Vetting inspectors
Ships Agents
None of the above
3. You have to abandon your vessel –how soon after abandonment will you issue wáter to
survivors?
immediately
After 6 hours
After 12 hours
After 24 hours
4. What is the purpose of the control position on an enclosed lifeboat?

It is for sending out distress messages giving the ships last known position
It facilitates entering the names of all persons on board. This is an essential record keeping
requirement.
Its a place reserved for injured persons
its the position from which the boat is steered and the safety systems are operated
5 The face seal of an immersion suit is extremely important beacause it helps to prevent heat loss
from the head.
TRUE
FALSE
6. Cold water shock lasts for around:

30 seconds
2 minutes
30 minutes
1 hour
7. In general terms, what would you consider to be your best lifeboat?
The lifeboat allocated to you on the muster list
The rescue boat
The ship itself
The inflatable life raft
8. A mixture of vapour and air containing vapour between lower flammable limit (LFL) and upper
flammable limit a____.
lean mixture
Rich mixture
Volatile mixture
Flammable mixture
9. Arrangements for gas measurement in doublé full spaces and doublé bottom spaces in tankers
shall be provided.
TRUE
FALSE
10. The part labelled as 14 shown in the MSA explosimeter in the picture is a_______.
Indicating lamp
Ballast lamp
Induction coil
None of them
11. Identify the international maritime organisation (IMO) symbol

portable extinguisher water 50 litres
water extinguisher in position 50 litres on deck
50 no´s water extinguisher
Wheeled fire extinguisher water 50 litres
12. A dry chemical powder (DCP) fire extinguisher can be used to extinguish_____.
Class A & B fires
Class B & C fires
Class C & D fires
Class D fire
13. Identify the international maritime organisation (IMO) symbol:

Lubricating oil line
B class división
Compressed air line
Hydraulic oil line
Vetting inspectors
Ships agents
None of the above
15. The certificate of approval, endorsed by the administration for each lifeboat, must
contain____.
Information regarding the number of persons the lifeboat is approved to carry
Information regarding the administration which approved it and any operational restrictions.
The lifeboat model and serial number
All of them
16. An adult lifejacket shall allow the person wearing it to_____.

Swim a short distance
Board a survival craft
Both A & B
Neither A or B
17. Every lifebuoy shall be fitted with a grabline not less than___ times the outside diameter of the
body of the buoy in length
2
3
4
5
18. Radar transponders work on which frequency?

9 GHz
3 GHz
406 MHz
2182 KHz
19. The canopy of the life raft shall be provided with at least one viewing port
TRUE
FALSE
20. The buoyant smoke signal shall continue to emit smoke when submerged in water for a period
of____ seconds under 100 mm of water
15
10
5
20
21. The anti exposure suit shall be constructed with water proof materials such that it can be
unpacked and donned______.
With assistance within 5 minutes
Without assitance within 5 minutes
With assitance within 2 minutes
Without assistance within 2 minutes
22. The results of internal safety audit and review under ISM Code should be brought to the
attention of_____.
All personnel having responsibility of the ship
All the personnel having responsibility in the área involved
All the management personnel of the ship
All the management personnel responsible in the área involved
23. The protocol of 1988 on Harmonized System of Survey and Certification (HSSC) for Annex IV of
international Convention for the prevention of pollution from ships (MARPOL) 73/78 has not been
adopted till date
TRUE
FALSE
24. An indirect refrigeration cycle is a process

Where an external refrigeration plant is employed to condense the cargo vapour without it being
compressed.
Where boil off is compressed, condensed and returned to the tank in a single stage.
In which vapour boil off from cargo tank is condensed in a cargo condenser in which coolant is a
refrigerant gas such as R22.
Where boil off is compressed condensed and returned to the tank in two stages
25. Any increase in the sheer of a ship ____ the assigned freeboard from the tabular freeboard
Increases
Decreases
26. The immersion suit should be stored in a cool, dry place

TRUE
FALSE
27. Liqurfied natural gas (LNGs) can be carried in _______ ships.

fully-refrigerated
semi-pressurised
fully-pressurised
semi-refrigerated
28. simulated launching of a freefall lifeboat is:
a training exercise done using a computer simulation
performed in the same way as an actual launch would be carried out
an alternative to the 6 monthly launch required by IMO regulation
a paper exercise
29. the emission of flammable vapours in | system of the cargo tanks of tankers shall be such as to
minimise the possibillity of such vapours
bein admitted to enclosed spaces containing a source of ignition
collecting in the vicinity of deck machinery or equipment which may constitute an ignition hazard
neither A or B
both A & B
30. what do the letters E.P.I.R.B stand for?

enhanced plotted information radio broadcast
emergency position indicating Radio beacon
extremely powerfuul inmersed rescue boat
electronic precision iluminated radar buoy
31. what is the purpose of the canopy over the inflatable liferaft?
it is designed as a safety net to jump onto for rapid embarkation
the main purpose is to provide strength to the design of the raft
it is designed to give protection against exposure
it provides additional space for evacuees
32.how many people are normally needed to right a 25 person liferaft?

1
2
3
25 person liferaft are too heavy to right
33. After throwing a liferaft into the water, what should be done next?
jump into the water and swim to the container, then hold onto it.
throw a lifebuoy into the water as near to the liferaft as posible
climb down the embarkation ladder and board the liferaft
pull the painter all the way out and give it a tug to inflate the liferaft
34. If your lifeboat has an internal air supply, how long will the constant flow of air last?
A minimun of 2 minutes
a minimun of 5 minutes
35. what should be done before throwing the liferaft overboard, after securing the painter to a
strong point?
open the fiberglass case
inflate the liferaft
check that there is nothing in the sea below
untie the painter from the strong point
36. The international Maritime organisation (IMO) symbol represents ¨50 litres water
extinguisher¨
TRUE
FALSE
37. The international Maritime organisation (IMO) symbol represents

A CLASS HINGED FIRE DOOR WATER TIGHT
TRUE
FALSE
38. Identify the international Maritime organisation (IMO) symbol

B class hinged fire door
compressed air adaptor
compressed air main line with branch
main fire line to engine room with branch pipe
39. The part labelled as 11 shown in the illustration is a

drain pipe
dip tuve
strainer
all of them

Fixed fire extinguishing battery CO2
TRUE
FALSE
41. The cargo pump romos in tankers shall be provided with a fixed fire extinguishing system
suitable for machinery spaces of category A
TRUE
FALSE
42. Every lifeboat to be launched by a fall or falls, except a free fall lifeboat, shall be fitted with a
reléase mechanism and____.
the release control shall be clearly marked in a color that contrasts with its surroundings
the fixed structural connections of the release mechanism shall be designed with a safety factor of
6
both a & b
neither a or b
43. The life raft must be provided with

two daylight signalling mirrors with instructions on its use
one daylight signalling mirror
two daylight signalling mirrors
one daylight signalling mirror with instructions on its use
44. Davit launched life raft should be capable of being boarded by its full complement of persons
in not more than 3 minutes
TRUE
FALSE
45. An immersion suit shall permit the person wearing it to climb up and down a vertical ladder of
at least 20 metres in length
46. Every lifebuoy shall be constructed to withstand a drop into the water from the height at
which it is stowed above the waterline in the lightest seagoing condition or________ whichever is
the greater, without impairing either its operating.
20 metres
30 metres
20 feet
30 feet
47. the number of persons which a life raft be permitted to accommodate shall be equal to the
greatest whole number obtained by dividing by ____ of the volumen, measured in cubic meters, of
the main buoyancy tubes when inflated.
0.096
0.96
0.069
0.69
48. tabular freeboard in table A for a ship is

more than table B
same as table B
Less than table B
none of them
49. A list of noxious liquid substances (NLS) substances may be obtained from the
International bulk carrier (IBC) code
Bulk carrier (BC) code
international maritime dangerous goods code (IMDG) code
High speed craft (HSC) code
50. the functional requirements of safety management system (SMS) of a Company consists of
compliance with port state control requirements
procedures for reporting accidents and non-conformities with the provision of code
compliance with the U.S. coast guard and european unión requirements
compliance with ISO 9000 and 14000 requirements
51. The implementation of a convention by a member country of the international maritime
organisation (IMO) is done by
Ratification
Signature
Accession
The promulgation of local law
52. As persection 6 of the international safety management (ISM) code i.e. where the Company is
to provide adequate resources and personnel, one of the components for section 6 is
The appointment of a master, and a superintendent ashore and manning through an agent
To employ a qualified master
To employ a master who is qualified for command, conversant with the company´s safety
management system (ISM) given necessary support so that his duties can be safety performed.
To employ a master duty certified by the contracting government
53. The communication system provided onboard for use in an emergency may consist of
Automatic telephone system
PA system
UHF/ VHF
All of them
54. why is it important to keep the bowsing lines within the raft?
So that they can be used to tie the rafts together when the raft is clear
so that they can be used to tie evacuees together if the liferaft should sink
so that the dave hook can be raised ready for the next launch
so that they will be prevented from snagging and tipping up raft while it is being lowered
55. the outer diameter of every lifebuoy should not be

more than 800mm
more than 400mm
less than 400mm
less than 800mm
56. Since 1st july 2006, it has been mandatory for cargo ships and bulk carriers trading outside 20°
north or 20° south provide immersion suits for all persons on board.
TRUE
FALSE
57. Control stations are those spaces in which

the main navigation or radio equipment is located
an emergency source of power is located or fire control equipment is located
any of the 4 systems mentioned is A & B
all of the 4 systems mentioned in A & B
58. lifeboat batteries shall be recharged

from the ship´s power supply
with a solar battery charger
both A & B
none of them
59. Immersion suits are provided with a rescue loop. What is this designed for?
it is intended for pulling the wearer alongside the rescue boat
it is designed for attaching to a helicopter´s rescue hook
it is used for keeping survivors together in the water and preventing them from drifting apart
it is only used for storage and keeps the suits ready for immediate use
60. the totally revised chapter II-2 of safety of life at sea (SOLAS) 74 is applicable in entirety for
ships constructed on or after 1 july, 2002
ships constructed on or after 1st july 2004
ships constructed on or after 1 juy 2006
none of the option
61 machinery spaces of category A containing oil fired boilers or oil fuel units shall be provided
with
a fixed gas fire extinguishing system
a fixed high expansión foam fire extinguishing system
a fixed pressure water spraying and water – mist fire extinguishing system
any of A, b & C
62. When the boat is at a safe distance from the ship, the painter should be released.
TRUE
FALSE
63. How should gas bottles be stored?

Under the forecastle
In a refrigerated room
In two separate romos outside the engine room space
in the engine room workshop close to welding equipment
64. The stability of the life raft when in an inverted position shall be such that it will upright
automatically
TRUE
FALSE
65. Procedures for port state control (PSC) are not required to be put into force separately for all
the chapters of safety of life at sea (SOLAS) 74, as chapter 1, general provisions, a new regulation
about PSC has been added
TRUE
FALSE
66. The lifeboat shall be marked with

The number of persons for which the lifeboat is approved
the name and port of registry of the ship on each side
the number of the lifeboat and which ship it belongs to visible from above
all of them
67. An oil tanker carrying noxious liquid substance (NLS) substances must have on board
A certificate of fitness under the international code for the construction and equipment of ships
carrying dangerous chemicals in bulk (IBC) code
IPPC for noxious liquid substance (NLS)
carrying liquefied gases in bulk (IGC) code
None of them
68. the sea anchor in a life raft must be deployed automatically on inflation
TRUE
FALSE
69. Fuel oil, lubricating oil & other flammable oils shall not be carried in the
After peak tank
Double bottom tank
Settling tank
Fore peak tank
70. In the case of lifeboat to be launched by falls, the boat hooks shall be kept free for fending-off
purposes.
TRUE
FALSE
80. The venting arrangements in each cargo tank of a tanker

Shall be independent
May be independent or combined with other cargo tanks
May be independent or combined and may be incorporated into the inert gas piping
Non of them
81. What are tricing pennants?
life-lines at the sides of lifeboats to help people who have fallen in the water to get back into the
lifeboat
mooring ropes to secure the lifeboat to the bollar don the main deck
An emergency three flag signal to indicate that the vessel is in distress
A device to bring the boa tinto the ship´s side after partial release from the davits
82. The international maritime organisation (IMO) symbol represents

SECURE HATCHES
TRUE
FALSE
83. the hand flare shall

be contained in a water resistant casing
have brief instructions or diagrams illustrating its use printed on its casing
have a selft contained means of ignition
all of them
84. Lifebuoy self activating smoke signals shall continue to emit smoke when fully submerged in
water for a period of at least
10 seconds
5 seconds
3 seconds
6 seconds
85. Ethylene carriers are normally

Fully pressurised vessels
Semi- pressurised vessels
Fully refrigerated vessels
Neither A, B or C
86. The lamp fitted on the outside of the lifeboat shall provide illumination
For at least 24 hours
87. The life raft must be provided with anti sea sickness medicine sufficient for
At least twice the number of persons it can accommodate
At least the number of persons it can accommodate
at least 24 hours
at least 48 hours
88. A non-conformity is an observed___ where objetive evidence indicates the non-fulfilment of

specified requirements.
Fact
Condition
Situation
Procedure
89. The integral tanks of a gas carrier may be used for products provided the boiling point of the
cargo is not below
- 5°C
- 7°C
- 10°C
-15°C
90. MARVS is the ____ allowable relief valve setting of a cargo tank in a ship carrying liquefied
gases in bulk.
Minimun
maximun
average
practically
It is the responsibility of the Enclosed Space team members to monitor the atmosphere
constantly.
 TRUE
 FALSE
Consistent training is essential for effective protection of the ship.
 TRUE
 FALSE
A ship security level can be set by__________,
 The administration whose flag the ship is entitled to fly

 Maritime safety committee of International Maritime Organization (IMO)
 The administration of the coastal state
 The company
Which of the activities listed would not require the issuing of a Permit to Work?
 Hot work
 Entering a cargo tank
 Working aloft
 Collecting food from the cold store
A casualty in secondary shock should be made to
 Stand up
 Sit down
 Run
 Lay down and raise the feet
Corrosive poison causes
 Burns
 Cooling
 Either of the two
 None of them
C.P.R. represents___________.
 Cardio-pain relief
 Coronary-pulmonary relief
 Cardio-pulmonary Resuscitation
 All of them
With approaching heavy weather, what precautions must be taken with lifeboats?
 Remove all covers and secure the plug

 Lower boats to embarkation deck level and secure
 Check and tighten all lashings
 Place onboard additional provisions and rig the painters
Where will you find the requirements for navigational watch ratings under STCW?
 Regulation 11/4
 Regulation 11/3
 Regulation IV/1
 Regulation 11/2
1.- HOW FAR FROM LAND CAN GROUND FOOD WASTE BE DISCHARGED?
NOT LESS THAN 1 MILE

NOT LESS THAN 3 MILES
2.- ACCORDING TO ANNEX V OF MARPOL, NO GARBAGE CAN BE THROWN OVERBOARD INSIDE

THE SPECIAL AREAS. WHICH IS THE
PAPER GROUND UP TO LESS THAN 25 MM BEYOND 12 MILES OFFSHORE

GLASS GROUND UP TO LESS THAN 25 MM BEYOND 25 MILES OFFSHORE.
PAPER, METAL AND GLASS GROUND UP TO LESS THAN 25 MM BEYOUND 25 MILES
OFFSHORE.
COMMINUTED (GROUND UP) FOOD WASTE BEYOND 12 MILES OFFSHORE
3.- TO WHICH SHIPS DOES ANNEX II OF MARPOL APPLY?
ALL SHIPS
OIL TANKERS
ALL SHIPS CARRYING HARMFUL SUBSTANCES IN PACKAGED FORM
ALL SHIPS CARRYING NOXIOUS LIQUID SUBSTANCES (NLS) IN BULK
4.- WHERE ARE NOXIOUS LIQUID SUBSTANCES (NLS) IDENTIFIED?
INTERNATIONAL CODE FOR THE CONSTRUCTION AND EQUIPMENT OF SHIPS CARRYING

DANGEROUS CHEMICALS IN BULK (IBC CODE)
SOLAS
INTERNATIONAL MARITIME DANGEROUS GOODS (IMDG) CODE
INTERNATIONAL OIL TANKER AND TERMINAL SAFETY GUIDE (ISGOTT)
5.- WHAT TYPE OF VESSELS MUST CARRY A “PROCEDURES AND ARRANGEMENTS” MANUAL?
OFFSHORE SUPPLY VESSELS

LIQUEFIED NATURAL GAS (LNG) CARRIERS
VESSELS CARRYING NOXIOUS LIQUID SUBTANCES (NLS)
OIL TANKERS
6.- WHERE MUST RECORDS OF NOXIOUS LIQUID SUBSTANCE (NLS) DISCHARGES BE MADE?
IN THE OFFICIAL LOG BOOK

IN THE BRIDGE LOG BOOK
IN THE MARPOL LOG
IN THE CARGO RECORD BOOK
7.-IN THE EVENT OF AN OIL SPILL WHERE WOULD YOU FIND THE LIST OF CONTACTS OF THE
PEOPLE WHO SHOULD BE NOTIFIED?
IN THE P & A MANUAL

IN THE SHIPBOARD OIL POLLUTION EMERGENCY PLAN (SOPEP)
IN THE VESSELS OFFICIAL LOG BOOK
ON VESSELS EMERGENCY RESPONSE PLAN (VERP)
8.- WHICH AUTHORITY APPROVES A SHIPBOARD MARINE POLLUTION EMERGENCY PLAN?
IMO
OWNERS P&I CLUB
VESSEL CLASSIFICATION SOCIETY
THE FLAG STATE AUTHORITY
9.- WHERE WOULD YOU FIND DETAILED PROCEDURES OUTLINING YOUR ACTIONS IN THE EVENT
OF AN OIL POLLUTION INCIDENT?
IN MARPOL
IN THE VESSELS SOLAS MANUAL
IN THE VESSELS SHIPBOARD OIL POLLUTION EMERGENCY PLAN (SOPEP)
IN INTERNATIONAL OIL TANKER AND TERMINAL SAFETY GUIDE (ISGOTT)
10.- WHAT VESSELS MUST HAVE A (SOPEP)?
OIL TANKERS OVER 150 GRT AND OTHER VESSELS OVER 400 GRT
ALL OIL TANKERS
ALL VESSELS ENGAGED ON INTERNATIONAL VOYAGES
ALL OIL TANKERS AND OTHER VESSELS OVER 500 GRT
11.- WHICH CODE OR INDUSTRY GUIDANCE INCLUDES DETAILS OF MARINE POLLUTANTS?
INTERNATIONAL MARITIME DANGEROUS GOODS (IMDG) CODE

SOLAS
INTERNATIONAL OIL TANKER AND TERMINAL SAFETY GUIDE (ISGOTT)
COSWOP
12.- ADJACENT BALLAST TANKS AND COMPARTMENTS MUST BE EMPTIED AND VENTILATED
PRIOR TO ANY HOT WORK COMMENCING.
TRUE
FALSE
13.- HEATING COILS SHOULD BE OPENED, FLUSHED, AND INERTED PRIOR TO HOT WORK.
TRUE
FALSE
14.- IF SOMEONE ELSE TAKES OVER THE JOB SPECIFIED IN THE PERMIT, THE PERMIT SHOULD BE
REISSUED IN THEIR NAME.
TRUE
FALSE
15.- ON SOME JOBS IT WILL BE DIFFICULT TO ASSESS HOW LONG THEY NEED SO THE PERMIT
SHOULD NOT SPECIFY A TIME LIMIT.
TRUE
FALSE
16.- IF THERE IS A SLIGHT OIL SPILL OF ABOUT 30 ML WHILE BUNKERING IT SHOULD

BE__________
FIRST REPORTED TO THE SECOND ENGINEER

FIRST REPORTED TO THE MASTER
REPORTED TO THE CHIEF ENGINEER
IGNORED
17.- INTERNATIONAL CONVENTION FOR THE PREVENTION OF POLLUTION FROM SHIPS

(MARPOL) CONVENTION DEALS WITH _______________.
SAFETY
POLLUTION
REGISTRATION
COMPENSATION
18.- AFTER A SLIGHT OIL SPILL OF 30 ML DUE TO LEAKAGE IN THE BUNKERING HOSE WHILE
BUNKERING HAS BEEN REPORTED, YOU SHOULD ________________
APPLY DISPERSANTS TO THE SPILL

REPAIR THE LEAK ON THE HOSE WITH THE HELP OF A TAPE
TELL THE SUPPLIER TO REDUCE THE RATE OF PUMPING
STOP THE BUNKERING OPERATION
19.- WHICH ANNEX OF MARPOL REQUIRES A VESSEL TO CARRY A SEWAGE PLANT?
ANNEX 4
ANNEX 3
ANNEX 5
ANNEX 2
20.- HOW CLOSE TO LAND CAN NOXIOUS LIQUID SUBSTANCES (NLS) BE DISCHARGED OUTSIDE A
SPECIAL AREA?

21.- WHICH SHIPS MUST KEEP AN OIL RECORD BOOK?
ALL SHIPS
OIL TANKERS
CRUDE OIL TANKERS
CHEMICAL TANKERS
22.- THE PROCESS USED IN ORDER TO REDUCE WASTE TO ASH IS CALLED INCINERATION.
TRUE
FALSE
23.- WHAT IS MFAG?
MARINE FIRE RESPONSE GUIDE

MEDICAL FIRST AID GUIDE
MARINE FIRST AID GUIDANCE
MARPOL FIRST AID GUIDE
24.- IF UNFORESEEN EXTRA WORK IS REQUIRED DURING THE WORK COVERED BY THE PERMIT,
THIS WORK CAN BE DONE AS LONG AS AN OFFICER IS INFORMED AFTERWARDS.
TRUE
FALSE
25.- WHEN SYSTEMS ARE DISABLED TO ALLOW HOT WORK, OTHER CREW MEMBERS MUST BE
INFORMED.
TRUE
FALSE
26.- ANNEX II OF INTERNATIONAL CONVENTION FOR THE PREVENTION OF POLLUTION FROM

SHIPS (MARPOL) 73/78 DEALS WITH THE PREVENTION OF POLLUTION FROM SHIPS WITH
RESPECT TO_____________
HARMFUL SUBSTANCES IN PACKAGED FORM

NOXIOUS LIQUID SUBSTANCE (NLS)
BALLAST WATER
OIL
27.- DETAILED GUIDELINES FOR CONDITION ASSESSMENT SCHEME IS GIVEN IN _____________
INTERNATIONAL CONVENTION FOR THE PREVENTION OF POLLUTION FROM SHIPS

(MARPOL) 73/78
MARINE ENVIRONMENT PROTECTION COMMITTEE (MEPC) RESOLUTION
ASSEMBLY RESOLUTION
SAFETY OF LIFE AT SEA (SOLAS) 74
28.- AN OIL TANKER DELIVERED ON OR AFTER 1ST JANUARY 2010 MEANS AN OIL TANKER FOR
WHICH THE BUILDING CONTRACT IS PLACED ON OR AFTER__________________
1ST JANUARY 2010

1ST JANUARY 2007
1ST JANUARY 2005
1ST JANUARY 2001
29.- PART I OF THE OIL RECORD BOOK IS REQUIRED BY____________________
OIL TANKERS OF 150 GROSS TONNAGE AND ABOVE

OIL TANKERS OF 400 GROSS TONNAGE AND ABOVE
ALL SHIPS OF 400 GROSS TONNAGE AND ABOVE
ALL OF THEM
30- THE PREVENTION OF AIR POLLUTION INCLUDES__________
EXHAUST FROM INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINES

EXHAUST FROM BOILERS
EXHAUST FROM INCINERATORS
ALL OF THEM
31.- WHERE CAN A SHIP DISPOSE OF WASTE PLASTIC AT SEA?
ANYWHERE OUTSIDE THE 3 MILE LIMIT

OUTSIDE SPECIAL AREAS
BEYOND 25 MILES OFFSHORE
DISPOSAL OF PLASTICS IS NOT ALLOWED ANYWHERE AT SEA
32.- HOW LONG MUST GARBAGE LOG RECORDS BE KEPT?
1 YEAR
2 YEARS
3 YEARS
5 YEARS
33.- HOW FAR FROM LAND CAN PLASTICS BE DISCHARGED?

NONE OF THE OTHERS
34.- WHAT IS A SMPEP?
SHIPBOARD OIL PREVENTION EMERGENCY PLAN

SHIPS MACHINERY MAINTENANCE PLAN
SHIPBOARD MARINE POLLUTION EMERGENCY PLAN
SHIPS MARITIME POLLUTION RESPONSE PLAN
35.- THE DESIGNATED PERSON ASHORE IS RESPONSIBLE FOR THE UPDATE OF THE SHIPBOARD
OIL POLLUTION EMERGENCY PLAN (SOPEP)
TRUE
FALSE
36.- LOW TEMPERATURES WILL MAKE OIL MORE VISCOUS, AND SPREAD MORE SLOWLY.
TRUE
FALSE
37.- FROM 1 JULY 2010, WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM PERMITTED SULPHUR CONTENT OF FUEL OILS
IN AN EMISSION CONTROL AREA (ECA) ACCORDING TO MARPOL ANNEX VI?
0.005
0.01
0.015
0.045
38.- HOW LONG MUST AN OIL RECORD BOOK BE RETAINED ONBOARD FOR INSPECTION?
1 YEAR
2 YEARS
3 YEARS
5 YEARS
39.- WHICH OF THE ACTIVITIES LISTED WOULD NOT REQUIRE THE ISSUING OF A PERMIT TO
WORK?
HOT WORK
ENTERING A CARGO TANK
WORKING ALOFT
COLLECTING FOOD FROM THE COLD STORE
40.- ANY PIPELINES AND VALVES NOT INVOLVED IN THE HOT WORK CAN BE IGNORED.
TRUE
FALSE
41.- WHICH OF THE STATEMENTS DOES NOT BELONG ON THE HOT WORK PERMIT?
THE TIME AND DATE OF ITS VALIDITY

THE PRECISE LOCATION OF THE WORK
THE QUALIFICATIONS OF THE CREWMEMBERS TO DO THE WORK
THE PREPARATION WORK TO BE UNDERTAKEN BEFORE THE JOB CAN COMMENCE
42.- ANNEX VI OF INTERNATIONAL CONVENTION FOR THE PREVENTION OF POLLUTION FROM

SHIPS (MARPOL) 73/78 DEALS WITH THE PREVENTION OF POLLUTION FROM SHIPS WITH
RESPECT TO ______________
AIR
GARBAGE
BALLAST WATER
OIL
43.- THE DEPLETION OF THE OZONE LAYER IS RESPONSIBLE FOR___________________
CAUSING INFRA-RED RAYS TO PASS THROUGH

CAUSING INFRA-RED RAYS NOT TO PASS THROUGH
CAUSING ULTRA-VIOLET RAYS NOT TO PASS THROUGH
CAUSING ULTRA-VIOLET RAYS TO PASS THROUGH
44.- ANNEX II OF THE INTERNATIONAL CONVENTION FOR THE PREVENTION OF POLLUTION
FROM SHIPS (MARPOL) 73/78 HAS ENTERED INTO FORCE ON ___________.
2ND OCTOBER 1983

6TH APRIL 1987
19TH MAY 2005
1ST JANUARY 2007
45.- AN OIL TANKER DELIVERED ON OR AFTER 6TH JULY 1996 MEANS AN OIL TANKER FOR
WHICH THE BUILDING CONTRACT IS PLACED ON OR AFTER__________________
6TH JULY 1996

6TH JULY 1990
6TH JULY 1993
NONE OF THEM
46.- OIL TANKERS ON PASSAGE INSIDE A SPECIAL AREA MAY DISCHARGE OIL AT LESS THAN 30
LITRES / MILE.
TRUE
FALSE
47.- DISPOSAL OF GARBAGE WITHIN SPECIAL AREAS I.E MEDITERRANEAN SEA.
DISPOSAL OF ALL CATEGORIES OF GARBAGE IS PROHIBITED

DISPOSAL OF ALL CATEGORIES OF GARBAGE IS ALLOWED PROVIDED THAT DISTANCE
FROM NEAREST LAND IS 12 NM
DISPOSAL OF FOOD WASTE IS ALLOWED AT DISTANCE NOT LESS THAN 12 NM FROM THE
NEAREST LAND
DISPOSAL OF FOOD WASTE AND PAPER PRODUCTS IS ALLOWED AT DISTANCE NOT LESS
THAN 12 NM THE NEAREST LAND
48.- WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING SHOULD THE VESSEL CONSULT WITH BEFORE HOT WORK IS
AUTHORIZED?
THE MANAGERS, OPERATORS OR CHARTERERS

THE FLAG STATE AUTHORITY
THE CLASSIFICATION SOCIETY
THE INTERNATIONAL MARITIME ORGANIZATION
49.- THE FIRE WATCH MUST MONITOR ALL PERSONNEL WHO MAY ENTER THE AREA CARRYING
FLAMMABLE MATERIAL.
TRUE
FALSE
50.- PART I OF THE OIL RECORD BOOK RECORDS ________________
ACCOUNTS OF OIL DISCHARGED AS CARGO

ACCOUNTS OF MACHINERY SPACE BILGES
ACCOUNTS OF GRAIN DISCHARGED AS CARGO
ACCOUNTS OF NLS DISCHARGED AS CARGO
51.- CONDITION ASSESSMENT SCHEME IS A REQUIREMENT FOR __________________
PHASING OUT OF SINGLE HULL OIL TANKERS

CONTINUED OPERATION OF EXISTING OIL TANKERS BEYOND ITS EXPECTED LIFE
OIL; TANKERS THOSE ARE POORLY CONSTRUCTED
OIL TANKERS, THE MAINTENANCE RECORDS OF WHICH ARE DOUBTFUL
52.- GAS CARRIER (GC) CODE IS APPLICABLE TO A GAS CARRIER, THE KEEL OF WHICH IS LAID ON
OR___________
BEFORE 1ST JULY 1986

BEFORE 1ST JULY 1976
AFTER 1ST JULY 1986
AFTER 1ST JULY 1976
53.- THE NOx CODE IS REFERRED TO IN________________ OF INTERNATIONAL CONVENTION

FOR THE PREVENTION OF POLLUTION FROM SHIPS (MARPOL)
ANNEX I
ANNEX II
ANNEX IV
ANNEX VI
MEDICAL FIRST AID
1. a sprain is an injury to:

1) Ligament
2) Muscle
3) Tendon
4) Bone
2. When a casualty has a dislocated shoulder you must:
1) attempt to get the arm back in position
2) bend the arm and place it in an elevation sling
3) bend the arm and place it in a low sling
4) tie the arm to the side of body
3. Which of the injuries listed is best treated using an elevation sling?
1) Fractured collarbone
2) Fractured upper arm
3) Dislocated elbow
4) Fractured lower arm
4. How would you position a conscious casualty with a sucking wound on the left side of their
chest?
1) Sitting up and leaning toward the right
2) In the recovery position lying on the right
3) Sitting up and leaning towards the left
4) In the recovery position lying on the left
5. When applying a dressing to a sucking chest wound it should be:
1) Nonstick and sealed with top edge open
2) Nonstick and sealed with bottom edge open
3) Dressing cad secured on all sides
4) Dressing pad secured with bottom edge
6. A casualty has fallen from a height and appears to be unconscious. What would you do first?
1) Check their breathing
2) Check their pulse
3) Place them in the recovery position
4) Leave them and phone for help
7. When a casualty has a fractured base of skull they may have:
1) Blood stained fluid leaking from the ears only.
2) Blood stained fluid leaking from the nose only.
3) Blood stained fluid leaking from the ears or nose.
4) Blood stained fluid leaking from the mouth only.
8. A complicated fracture is one where there is:
1) A wound and bone is visible.
2) A wound and the bone is protruding.
3) Excessive bleeding from an open wound.
4) Damage to underlying tissue.
9. In a concussed casualty you will find:
1) One pupil slower to react to light than the other.
2) One pupil larger than the other.
3) Neither of the pupils react to light.
4) Both of the pupils react to light
10. In compression, the casualty will have:
1) Shallow breathing with strong and slow pulse.
2) Shallow breathing with strong and fast pulse.
3) Noisy breathing with strong and slow pulse,
4) Noisy breathing with strong and fast pulse.
11. A casualty has a chemical splash in the eye. You should:
1) inmerse their head in a basin of warm water.
2) Sit them down and open the eye to note any damage.
3) wash the eye out with the casualty lying down,
4) Place a pad over the eye.
12. A casualty has a wood splinter in their eye. How long do you take to wash it out?
1) At least 5 minutes
13. A casualty has an abdominal wound and bowel can be seen in the wound. What action would
you take?
1) Place a dry dressing pad firmly over the wound
2) Place a non stick dressing firmly over the wound
3) Place a damp dressing lightly over the wound
4) Place a damp dressing firmly over the wound
14. If a casualty has been trapped by crushing of their leg the rescuer should:
1) Not release them if trapped for longer than 10 minutes.
2) Not release them if trapped for longer than 15 minutes,
3) Only release them after 15 minutes
4) Only release them after
15. An amputated finger is to be preserved in ice. Before placing it in ice you should:
1) Wrap the finger in plastic and then padding.
2) Wash the finger and wrap it in plastic.
3) wrap the finger in padding,
4) Wrap the finger in padding and then plastic.
16. A casualty with chest pain should be:
1) Laid down and have their legs elevated.
2) placed in the recovery position
3) sat on a chair.
4) Positioned sitting up and supported.
17. If someone is suffering from hypoglycaemia, the their:
1) Blood sugar is too low.
2) pulse rate is too slow.
3) Temperature is too
4) Blood pressure is too low.
18. A casualty having an asthma attack will have:
1) Pale skin, normal breathing and fast pulse.
2) Red skin, fast breathing and slow pulse.
3) Normal skin, normal breathing and fast pulse,
4) Pale skin, noisy breathing and fast pulse,
19. A casualty has swallowed cleaning fluid, You should:
1) Give them lots of water to drink
2) Not let them drink anything at all.
3) Give them salty water to drink
4) Give them sips of water in drink
20. Which of the symptoms listed could indicate a spinal injury?
1) Pain at the spine or elsewhere
2) Loss of control of movement
3) Difficulty breathing
4) Loss of bladder control
5) Any of the above
21. In hypothermia the casualty will be:
1) Pale, sweating with a fast pulse.
2) Red, sweating with a fast pulse.
3) Pale, with a slow pulse,
4) Red with a slow pulse.
22. On rescue, a hypothermic casualty is unconscious. You should:
1) Give them hot drinks.
2) Wrap them in blankets.
3) Put them in a warm bath.
4) get them to walk around,
23. A casualty with heat exhaustion is:
1) Red and breathing slowly.
2) Pale and breathing fast.
3) Pale and breathing slowly.
4) Red and breathing fast.
24. A casualty with heat stroke is:
1) Red with a strong pulse.
2) Red with a weak pulse.
3) pale with noisy breathing.
4) pale with shallow breathing
1. Which Legislation specifies all of the characteristics and competencies required by members of
craft crews?
1) ism code
2) solas
3) stcw
4) marpol
5) 2. For fast rescue boat (FRBs) as defined by SOLAS, which of the fallowing is a mandatory
requirement?
1) A Certificate of Proficiency for the coxswain
2) Navigation and radio aids including an EPIRB
3) A first aid outfit
5) Immersion suits to be worn by all crew members

6) All of the above
5) 3. Under SOLAS, a rescue boat launch is recommended every month and must be
practised at least every:
1) Voyage
2) 6 months
3) 3 months
4) 2 months
6) 4. Who should check the crew's personal protective equipment before launching the
recue boat?
1) The coxswain
2) The officer directing the launch operation
3) The Master
4) The forward crew member
7) 5. Whereabouts in the boat should crew members position themselves while it is
being lowered?
1) The centre
2) The seaward side
3) The inboard side
8) 6. Are these statements about lowering the rescue boat True or False?
1) During lowering the painter should be kept tight. TRUE
2) When the boat reaches the water the painter should be released before the fail wire.
FALSE
3) During lowering, the rescue boats engine should always be started just before the boat
enters the water. FALSE
4) Once the hook is released, it should be pulled up a ample of metres on the winch to keep it
clear of the crew TRUE
7. Use your mouse to complete the following sentence correctly.
When approaching the casualty, the coxswain controls the boat
The forward crew member will lead the recovery of the casualty into de the boat.
The aft crew member will prepare the equipment needed to get the casualty into the boat.
Casualties should be laid down with their head to the stern.

If the casualty is unconscious, they should be recovered with their back to the sponson.
8. Are these statements about rescue boat operation True or False?
1) When picking up a casualty from the water the final approach should always be head to wind.
TRUE
2) When picking up a casualty from the water, they should be brought on board from the weather
side. TRUE
3) If it is necessary to cross the waves when running before the weather, increase power when
going up the wave and reduce it when going down the back. TRUE
4) Searches are best carried out by the rescue boat FALSE
10. When positioning the rescue boat for recovery of a casualty to a helicopter, the FRB will be
requested by the helicopter pilot to keep underway with the wind approximately:
1) 30° on the port bow
3) 30° on the starboard bow
11. If the rescue boat capsizes, the largest air pocket is likely to be found near the:
1) Stern.
2) Bow.
3) Centre.
4) None of the above.
12. The emergency device used by the coxswain to stop the engine if he is thrown overboard is
the:
1) Grab line
2) Painter
3) Kill cord
4) Fall wire
12. Select the correct words from the list to complete the statements about towing.
The rescue boat should be navigated across the bow of the casualty
On the rescue boat the towline should always be attached to a strongpoint at the stern
The towline is passed at the point of closest approach, which should be about one metre.
When towing a life raft, those inside the liferaft must spread out.
13. Are these statements about rescue boats True or False?
1) It is a requirement that the engines of standard rescue boats must restart once they have been
righted following a capsize. FALSE
2) Jet drive boats tend to be more manoeuvrable. TRUE
3) Jet drive boats tend to have more stability while stopped in the water. TRUE
4) Launch and recovery operations pose few hazards if the crew are well trained. FALSE
1. Tabular freeboard of a type A ship is less than that of a type B ship because
The hatch openings in a type A ship are smaller
The chances of egress of water in type A ship is less
The permeability of a type A ship is less
A type B ship can be flooded easily
2. Tabular freeboard is given in

The periodic table
The loadline convention
The Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) convention
The international Convention for the Prevention of Pollution From Ships (MARPOL)
convention
3. The Company should establish procedures to ensure that the ships are maintained in
conformity with the provisions of
Repair practices in vogue
Classification society rules
Practices as developed by the Company over the years
Revelant rules and regulations
4. An anniversary date as per Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) 74 means the day and month of
each year that corresponds to the date of ____ of the relevant document or certificate.
Initial survey or audit
Issue
Expiry
Final survey or audit
5. In a Moller Diagram the satured vapour and satured liquid line join at
Critical pressure
Critical point
Critical temperatura
Infinity
6. If the light on top of the life raft canopy is a flashing light it shall flash at a rate of not less
than 50 flashes and not more than 70 flashes per minute
TRUE
FALSE
7. Buoyant lifelines attached to lifebuoys shall have a diameter of
Not less than 10mm
Not more than 10mm
Not less than 8mm
Not more than 8mm
unpacked and donned
9. The stability of the life raft when in an inverted position shall be such that it can be righted
in a seaway by one person
TRUE
FALSE
10. The life raft shall be provided with watertight receptacles containing a total of _____ of
fresh water for each person the life raft is permitted to accommodate
1.0 litres
1.5 litres
2.0 litres
2.5 litres
11. The Jack knife in the lifeboat must not be kept attached to the boat with a lanyard
TRUE
FALSE

One copy of life saving signals
One copy of life saving signals on a water proof card
One copy of live saving signals on a water proof card or in a water proof container
None of them
13. Arrangements for gas measurement in double full spaces and doublé bottom spaces in
tankers shall be provided
TRUE
FALSE
14. For fire in accommodation, the methods of containment do not include
Fire doors and dampers
Sprinkler system
Smoke detector
Fire retardant materials
15. The condition of the immersion suit should be checked

Once a month
Once every 3 months
By the safety Officer
When in drydock
What is the SOLAS convention?

The Voluntary code for safety of life at sea
The international convention for the safety of life at sea
The convention on life saving appliances
The international life saving appliance code
-All on-load systems must have built in safeguards against early reléase:
TRUE
FALSE
-What’s the normal method of winching a single uninjured person into a helicopter
form a ship?
A highline
A lifting stretcher
A basket
A rescue hook or stop
-Immersion suits are provided with a rescue loop. What is this designed for?
It is intented for pulling the wearer alongside the rescue boat

It is designed for attaching to a helicopter’s rescue hook
It is used for keeping survivors together in the wáter and preventing them from
drifting apart
It is only used for storage and keeps the suits ready for immediate use
-You have a fire onboard in port – how is satability information passed on to the fire
services:
Verbally by the chief Officer

It is contained in the vessels Solas manual
Verbally by the Officer Off the Watch (OOW)
It is contained in the fire wallet
-Combustible material so far as fire protection, detection and extinction are

concerned, is a mterial which burns or gives of flammable vapours in sufficient
quantity for self ignition when heated approximately below______
600°C
700°C
750°C
800°C
-Valve or cock is fitteddirectly on the storage settling or daily service tank capable of
being closed from a safe position outside the space concerned
TRUE
FALSE
-Main cargo control stations, control stations, accommodation and service spaces in
oil tankers shall be positioned aft of ________
The cargo tanks
The slop tanks
Spaces which isolate cargo or slop tanks from machinery spaces
All of them
The food rations shall be kept in air tight packaging or be stowedin watertight
conatiners
TRUE
FALSE
-An adult lifejacket shall be have sufficient bouyancy and stability in calm fresh wáter
to lift the mouth o fan exhausted or unconscious person__________clear of the
wáter
Not less tan 100 mm

Not less tan 110 mm
Not less tan 120 mm
Not less tan 90 mm
-The knife in the life raft must not have a buoyant handel
TRUE
FALSE
-If the life raft can accommodate 13 persons or more, there shall be_____
Only one knife
Two knives
Three knives
An unspecified number of knives
-One of the functional requirements of the Safety Management System (SMS) of a

company consisto f_______
Compliance with the port state control requirement

Compliance with the requirements of U.S. Coast Guard and European Union
requirements
Compliance with ISO 9000 requirements
A safety and environment protection policy
-Adiabatic compression or expansión of a gas is an ideal process in which no gain

or no los of____ occurs
Heat
Temperature
Pressure
Volume
-The recommended International Maritime Organisation (IMO) noise level limit (db)
in machinery spaces not continuosly manned is____
90
110
75
85
-MARVS is the ____ allowable relief valve setting of a cargo tank in a ship carrying
liquefied gases in bulk
Minimum
Maximum
Average
Practically
As per section 6 of the International Safety Management (ISM) code i.e. where the
company is to provide adequate Resources and Personnel, one of teh components
for section 6 is_____
The appoinment of a Master, and a Superintendent ashore and Manning through an

Agent
To employ a qualified Master
To employ a master who is qualified for command, conversant with the company’s
Safety Management System (SMS) given necessary support so that his duties con
be safely performed
To employ a master duly certified by the contracting government

The periodic table
convention
Issue
Expiry
Critical pressure
Critical point
Infinity
TRUE
FALSE
Not less than 10mm
Not more than 10mm
Not less than 8mm
Not more than 8mm
unpacked and donned
TRUE
FALSE
1.0 litres
1.5 litres
2.0 litres
2.5 litres
TRUE
FALSE

None of them
TRUE
FALSE
Sprinkler system
Smoke detector

Once a month
Once every 3 months
When in drydock
16. What is the SOLAS convention?

An OBO may be assigned table __ of tabular freeboard while carrying oil.
---A
B-100
"B-60"
For initial verification for the purpose of issue of Document of Compliance (DOC) the conformity of
the company's Safety Management System (SMS) as per International Safety Management (ISM)
Code, including objective evidence demonstrating that the Company's safety management system
has been in operation for at least ___ and that a safety management system has been in operation
on board at least one ship type operated by the Company for at least ___ months.
Four months / Four Months
-----Three months / Three months
Two months / Two months
One month / One month
An International Certificate of Fitness for the carriage of liquefied gases in bulk is issued by __
confirming that the ship is in compliance with the relevant Gas Code.
A classification society
A recognized organization
---The Flag administration or a recognized organization duly authorised
The International Maritime Organization
One of the functional requirements of Safety Management System (SMS) of a company consists of
___.
Compliance with port state control requirements
---Procedures for reporting accidents and non-conformities with the provision of code
Compliance with the U.S. Coast Guard and European Union requirements
Compliance with ISO 9000 and 14000 requirements

he recommended International Maritime Organisation (IMO) noise level limit (db) in cabins &
hospitals is _.
---60
65
75
None of them
The luminous intensity of the light on top of the life raft canopy shall be _____in all directions of
the upper hemisphere.
Not more than 4.3 cd
Not less than 3.4 cd
---Not less than 4.3 cd
Life rafts shall be marked in block capitals of the Roman alphabet with ___.
No markings
---Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) A pack
Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) B Pack
Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) approved
The sea anchor permanently attached to davit launched liferafts shall be arranged for manual
deployment only.
---TRUE
FALSE
Means shall be provided in the lifeboat for ___.
All engine starting
Recharging the radio
Recharging searchlight batteries
---All of them
Every lifeboat shall consist of ___.
A compass
A magnetic compass
----An operational compass provided with suitable means of illumination
An operational compass
This International Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol represents EPIRB.
TRUE
FALSE
According to SOLAS - for carbon dioxide fire-fighting systems in machinery spaces the fixed piping
system shall be such that ....
100 % of the gas can be discharged into the space within two minutes.
---85 % of the gas can be discharged into the space within two minutes.
100 % of the gas can be discharged into the space within 3 minutes.
70 % of the gas can be discharged into the space within 2 minutes.
Identify the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol:
---9 litre portable water extinguisher
Water extinguisher in position 9 on W deck
Fire extinguisher water 9 litres
9 no's water extinguisher
Water Fog is used as an effective fire fighting medium because of its ___.
----Cooling effect
Smothering effect
Insulating effect
Non toxic nature

The dangers of Dry Distillation can be mitigated by ___.
Opening the access to introduce fresh air
---Cooling the compartment external boundaries by hosing it with water
None of A, B or D
Letting the fire burn out completely
Vent outlets from cargo tanks for cargo handling and ballasting in tanker while permitting high
velocity discharge shall not be less than ___.
1m above the cargo be less than tank
2m above the cargo tank
--3m above the cargo tank
4m above the cargo tank
On a tanker, properly sited radar scanners are unlikely to present an ignition hazard.
--TRUE
FALSE
The inert gas system for cargo tanks of a tanker shall be fitted with at least two blowers capable of
delivering to the cargo tanks at least___ of the volume of gas required to be supplied at the
maximum rate of discharge capacity of the ship.
115%
120%
--- 125%
130%
When getting clear of the stricken ship, what is the recommended procedure?
----Make sure the lifeboat is half a mile upwind from the ship.
Head down wind of the ship and clear of its bow and stern.
Stay within 100 metres of the ship, on the bow side.
Stay within 100 metres of the ship, on the stern side

The face seal of an immersion suit is extremely important because it helps to prevent heat loss
from the head.
---TRUE
FALSE
When putting your immersion suit on, how should you squeeze the air out?
Put fingers inside face seal, squat down and squeeze suit, remove fingers from face seal, stand up
again.
Use the pump provided.
Undo the zip, make a corkscrew twisting motion with your body, then do the zip up again before
the air gets back in.
Ask another crew member to assist.

Once the inflation of the davit-launched liferaft is complete, what should the bowsing lines be
used for?
To pull the liferaft in tight so that it can be made fast, ready for boarding.
To act as a safety device when boarding.
There are no bowsing lines on davit-launched liferafts.
---Clearing the boarding area of obstacles
When the boat is at a safe distance from the ship, the painter should be released.
---TRUE
FALSE
Lifejackets should be put on over the immersion suit.
---TRUE
FALSE
What should be done before throwing the liferaft overboard, after securing the painter to a strong
point?
Open the fiberglass case.
Inflate the liferaft.
----Check that there is nothing in the sea below.
Untie the painter from the strong point.
When may you leave the ship and board the liferaft?
When you hear the general emergency signal.
When the person in charge of the liferaft gives the order.
---When the Master or their deputy gives the order.
When you judge that it is no longer safe to stay on the ship.

What is the most detailed source of information available on the ship about emergency
procedures, survival and rescue techniques?
The ship’s safety management system
Manufacturers’ instruction manuals
---The ship’s SOLAS training manual
The ISM Code
Double hull spaces in tankers required to be fitted with inert gas systems in cargo tankers shall be
fitted with _
No inert gas connection
A blower system to maintain atmospheric air condition
A connection for the supply of inert gas
---A vent pipe only leading to atmosphere
How frequently must portable fire extinguishers be hydraulically tested
Every 10 years
----Every 5 years
Annually
Every 3 years
For prevention of fire, the fuel pipe lines in the machinery space are the volume of free CO2 shall
be calculated at __.
Jacketed between high pressure fuel pumps and fuel injectors
Arranged far from hot surfaces
Electrical installation screened
----All of them
When a wheel or other remote steering mechanism is also provided in the lifeboat, the tiller shall
be capable of controlling the rudder in case of failure of the steering mechanism.
---TRUE
FALSE
The searchlight in a lifeboat shall have a measured luminous intensity of ___.
---2,500 cd
2,000 cd
1,000 cd
1,500 cd
---2 buoyant rescue quoits and one jack knife
1 buoyant rescue quoit and one jack knife
2 buoyant rescue quoits and 2 jack knives
1 buoyant rescue quoit and 2 jack knives
One spare set of batteries and one spare bulb must be provided In a life raft in a water proof
container.
---TRUE
FALSE
The life raft canopy shall be provided with ____.
At least one viewing port
Means for collecting rain water
Means to mount a survival craft radar transponder
---All of them
The painter system of liferafts shall be such that when the life raft is released and inflated , the life
raft is not dragged under by the sinking ship.
---TRUE
FALSE
The Net Registered Tonnage of a ship is calculated from ___.
---The Gross Registered Tonnage
The volume of cargo spaces
The number of passengers
None of them
One of the component of the Safety Management System (SMS) of International Safety
Management (ISM) Code shall be ___.
To run company for a profit, Safe operation of ship and pollution prevention is a consequence
----To provide safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environment
The same as those of the International Safety Management (ISM) Code objectives i.e. no loss of
life, ensure safety and pollution prevention
To maintain a quality system as per ISO 9000 and 14000
Which equipment is supplied electricity from an emergency source of electrical power in cargo
ships?
----Navigation lights
Emergency fire pump
Emergency steering gear
Emergency air compressor
As per section 6 of International Safety Management (ISM) Code i.e. Resources and Personnel the
company is to provide adequate Resources and Personnel one of the component for section 6 is
___.
----To ensure persons involved in Safety Management System (SMS) have under gone a training ----
---course in shore based institute for understanding relevant rules, regulations codes and
guidelines
To ensure that all personnel involved in Safety Management System (SMS) have adequate
understanding of relevant rules, regulations codes and guidelines
To ensure understanding of Regulation, Rules, Codes and Guidelines is given by Master and Chief
Engineer in personnel after training
Understanding of relevant rules, regulations codes and guidelines are individual responsibility of
personnel
What is the heliograph used for?
To check the outside temperature
To warm the emergency food rations
As a first aid burns dressing
----As a means of signalling by reflecting the light of the sun
On Liquefied Gas Carriers (LNG) the fixed fire fighting system for cargo consists of a ___.
Foam system
Halon System
CO2 system
----DCP system
The passage of large volumes of vapours, air or inert gas mixture during loading, ballasting and
during discharging for protection of cargo tank structure against pressure or vacuum in tankers
shall be designed on the basis of the maximum designed load of the cargo tank venting system.
1.1
1.15
1.2
1.25
Cargo pump rooms, cargo tanks, slop tanks and cofferdam in oil tankers shall be positioned ___.
Aft of machinery spaces
----Forward of machinery spaces
Forward of the collision bulkhead
In any position of the ship
A Paint Room fire is most likely to be a ___.
Class A fire
---Class B fire
Class C fire
Class D Fire
Combustible material so far as fire protection, detection and extinction are concerned, is a
material which burns or gives of flammable vapours in sufficient quantity for self ignition when
heated approximately below ___.
600ºC
700ºC
---750ºC
800ºC
The buoyant rescue quoit in a life raft shall be attached to ____ of buoyant line.
Not more than 30 meters
Not than 50 meters
Not less than 50 meters
----Not less than 30 meters

The life raft must be provided with ____.
-----One rust proof graduated drinking
vessel Two rust proof graduated drinking
vessel One rust proof drinking vessel
Two rust proof drinking vessel
Every enclosed lifeboat shall have ___.

A highly visible colour on the exterior and interior
A highly visible colour in the interior and a colour on the exterior which does not cause
discomfort to the occupants
A colour on the exterior and interior which does not cause discomfort to the occupants
-----A highly visible colour on the exterior and a colour that does not cause discomfort to
the occupants in the interior
There shall be means inside the life raft to assist persons to pull themselves into the life raft from
the ladder.
----TRUE
FALSE
An MOB is fitted with ___.
Light and line
----Light and smoke
Light
Line
The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution From Ships (MARPOL) 73/78 contains
___.
V Annexes
---VI Annexes
VII Annexes
VIII Annexes
Free fall lifeboats shall be provided with seat belts of contrasting colours at adjacent seats.
---TRUE
FALSE
The thickness of the Semi-membrane tank of a Gas Carrier is ___.
Less than the membrane system
--More than that of the membrane system
The same as that of the membrane system
The same as that of the membrane system but two layers
The Gross Registered Tonnage of a ship is expressed in terms of ___.
Weight
Number
---Volume
None of them
For initial verification under International Safety Management (ISM) code, on satisfactory
completion of the assessment of the shore side safety management system,
arrangements/planning may commence for the assessment of the Company's ships.
---TRUE
FALSE
What is a SART?
----A survival craft radar transponder
A survival craft radio transmitter
A Search and Rescue Team on standby for maritime ermergencies
A Search and Rescue Training exercise
If you need to move position once you are in the water, you should:
Swim on your front.
---Swim on your back, using slow, rhythmic strokes.
Never attempt to swim in an immersion suit.
Always swim with another crew member.
Which of these would NOT be a good thing to do after abandoning ship?
Collect all the survival craft together.
Activate the Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB) and Search And Rescue
Transponder (SART).
Stay in the area that the ship sank in.
----Sail away from the area of the sinking ship in the direction of the nearest land.
When would you fire the pyrotechnics after launching the lifeboats and liferafts?
Once every hour immediately after launching.
---When you have sighted the rescue services or other ships/aircraft.
Once every hour during the hours of darkness.
On request from the rescue services.

At what point during the launch procedure are the doors and hatches secured on a fully enclosed
lifeboat?
Once the bottom plugs have been set
Once the painter has been passed out of the forward hatch and secured
---Once everyone is inside
Once the engine has been started
When launching a fully enclosed lifeboat, the FPDs should be removed:
---Before the boat starts to descend.
Just before the boat reaches the water.
Once the boat is in the water.
FPDs should never be removed.
In machinery spaces containing internal combustion machinery there shall be approved foam type
fire extinguishers each of at least __ capacity or equivalent, sufficient in number to enable foam or
its equivalent to be directed on to any part of the fuel.
30 litre
35 litre
40 litre
----45 litre
In machinery spaces containing internal combustion machinery there shall be approved foam-type
extinguishers of at least 45 litres or equivalent. In addition there shall be provided a sufficient
number of portable foam extinguishers or equivalent which shall be so located that no point in the
space is more than ____walking distance from an extinguisher.
6m
8m
----10 m
12 m
Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF) can be used as an effective extinguishing medium for ___.
Electrical fires
Metal fires
Gas fires
---Oil fires
How often would you expect the International shore connection to be checked and servicable
Monthly
Before each port visit
6 monthly
-----Quarterly
The extinguishing capability of all portable fire extinguishers shall have at least the equivalent to
that of a __ fluid extinguisher.
5 litres
7 litres
---9 litres
11 litres
An adult life jacket shall be so constructed that after demonstration, __% of persons can correctly
don it within a period of 1 minute without assistance.
90
100
----75
80
The weak link used in the life raft painter system shall be tensile tested and shall have a breaking
strength of ____.
----2.2 +/- 0.4 KN
Not less than 7.5 KN
Not less than 15 KN Not
less than 10 KN
Every lifebuoy shall have a mass of not less than __ Kgs.
3.5
-----2.5
One painter
---Two efficient painters
Two painters
One efficient painter
The thermal protective aid shall ____.
Cover the whole body
Be capable of being easily unpacked
Permit the wearer to remove it in the water
----All of them
What is the time required in minutes for the compressor to charge the air receiver from zero to
full in a motor ship?.
----25
30
A rust proof dipper and a rustproof graduated drinking vessel
----A rustproof dipper with lanyard and a rustproof graduated drinking vessel
A dipper with lanyard and a graduated drinking vessel with lanyard
A rust proof dipper with lanyard and a rustproof graduated drinking vessel with lanyard
Substances that have their Flash point less than 60 Deg C are ___.
----Flammable
Non flammable
Volatile
Non volatile
To protect the cargo area of a tanker, ___ shall be placed under the manifold area in the area of
pipe and hose connections to collect cargo residues.
A suitable portable receptacle
Sawdust in a container
---Drip pans
Sponge material
The dangers of Dry Distillation can be mitigated by ___.
Opening the access to introduce fresh air
----Cooling the compartment external boundaries by hosing it with water
None of A, B or D
Letting the fire burn out completely
An adult lifejacket shall have sufficient buoyancy and stability in calm fresh water to incline the
body backwards at an angle of_____ from the vertical position.
---not less than 20 degrees
Not more than 20 degrees
Not less than 10 degrees
Not more than 10, degrees

Provision shall be made for marking each life raft with the name and port of registry of the ship to
which it is to be fitted in such a form ___.
Neither B, C or D
That the ship identification can be changed at any time after opening the container
---That the ship identification can be changed at any time without opening the container
That the ship identification cannot be changed at any time
Thole pins or crutches shall be attached to the lifeboat by lanyards or chains.
TRUE
FALSE
The equipment used to keep the lifeboat alongside while removing the tricing in pendant is ____.
Bowsing in tackle
Gripes
----Painter
Tricing in pendant
The food ration required to be carried in a lifeboat must be kept in ____.
Airtight packaging
Watertight container
----Air tight packaging and water tight container
Air tight packaging or water tight container
The total mass of the life raft, its container and its equipment shall not be more than 185 kgs ____.
Unless the life raft is to be launched by an approved launching appliance
Unless the life raft is not required to be stowed in a position providing for easy side to side
transfer
----Both A & B
None of them
Entropy is expressed as intrinsic energy content per unit mass per unit absolute temperature and
expressed in ____.
Kilo Newton / kg Kelvin
Kilo bar/ kg. k
----KJ / kg.k
KCalory/kg.k
What is the full form of GESAMP?
--The Joint Group of Experts on the Scientific Aspects of Marine Environmental Protection
The Joint Group of Experts on the Scientific Aspects of Marine Pollution
The Group of Environmentalists on the Scientific Aspects of Marine Environmental Protection
Group of Experts on the Scientific Aspects of Marine Protection
Type C independent tanks are normally spherical or cylindrical pressure vessels that have design
pressures higher than ___.
0.7 bar
1.5 bar
2.5 bar
---2.0 bar
The Protocol of 1988 on Harmonized System of Survey and Certification (HSSC) for Annex II of
International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution From Ships (MARPOL) 73/78 entered into
force on ___.
3rd Feb, 2002
3rd Feb, 2001
---3rd Feb, 2000
3rd Feb, 1999

Liquefied Natural Gas (LNGs ) can be carried in ___ ships.
Fully-refrigerated
---Semi-pressurised
Fully-pressurised
Semi-refrigerated
The Shipboard Marine Pollution Emergency Plan for noxious liquid substances for Annex II of
force on ___.
1st Jan, 1999
1st Jan, 2001
----1st Jan, 2003
1st Jan, 2007
For initial verification under International Safety Management (ISM) code, on satisfactory
completion of the assessment of the shore side safety management system,
arrangements/planning may commence for the assessment of the Company's ships
-----True
False
Independent cargo tanks are basically of ___.
Two types, Type A and Type B
Four types, Type A, Type B, Type C and Type D
----Three types, Type A, Type B and Type C
Only one Type
The alphabets on both sides of the line passing through the circle in freeboard marking indicates
the initials of the
----The freeboard assigning authority
The Port State
The surveyor who assigned the freeboard
None of them
On a tanker, synthetic ropes should not be used for cargo samnpling.
---TRUE
FALSE
Procedures for Port State Control(PSC) are not required to be put into force separately for all the
chapters of Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) 74, as Chapter 1, General Provisions, a new regulation
about PSC has been added.
True
False
Which one is not a Convention Certificate?
International Load line Certificate
Cargo ship Safety Equipment Certificate
---Class Certificate
Cargo ship Safety Construction Certificate
The light on top of the life raft canopy cannot be manually controlled.
TRUE
----FALSE
Liferafts must be provided with ____.
1 sponge
No sponge
----2 sponges
Number is not specified
Double hull spaces and double bottom spaces must not be fitted with suitable connections for the
supply of air.
TRUE
----FALSE
Which piece of equipment transmits a distress signal with your vessel’s unique serial number?
Search And Rescue Transponder (SART)
Radar reflector
GMDSS
--------Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB)
What do the letters E.P.I.R.B. stand for?
Enhanced Plotted Information Radio Broadcast.
----Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon.
Extremely Powerful Immersed Rescue Boat.
Electronic Precision Illuminated Radar Buoy
To enter the water safely:
Jump as far off the side of the ship as you can.
First attach yourself to other crew members with the buddy line and lower the first person down
to the water using the line.
----Get as close as possible to the water then step off or use a rope or ladder.
Jump from the boat deck.
Why is it advisable to board a liferaft without getting wet if possible?
---Getting wet will increase the loss of body heat.
You might drink sea water which will make you more thirsty.
You could be attacked by sharks whilst in the water.
Getting wet will increase the body's insulation against cold.

Observation means a statement of _ made during a safety management _ and substantiated by
objective evidence .
---Fact / audit
Information / survey
Records / inspection
Information and records / survey and inspection
TLV - TWA for ignition properties of liquefied gases may be supplemented by TLV - STEL. STEL
represents ___.
---Short Term Exposure Limit
Source of Term Expansion Limit
Subtle Term Expansion Limit
Subdued Term Exposure Limit
The implementation of a Convention by a member country of the International Maritime

Organisation (IMO) is done by ___.
--Ratification
Signature
Accession
The Promulgation of local law
LPGs can be carried in ships which are ___.
Fully-pressurised
Semi-pressurised
---Types A, B and fully refrigerated
Fully-refrigerated
The company should establish procedures to ensure that the ships are maintained in conformity
with the provisions of ___.
Practices as developed by the company over the years
----Relevant rules and regulations
Radar Transponders work on which frequency?
----9 GHz
3 GHz
406 MHz
2182 KHz
The buoyant rescue quoit in a life raft shall be attached to not less than 30 meters of buoyant line.
----TRUE
FALSE
Every life raft shall be so constructed as to be capable of withstanding exposure for __ days afloat
in all sea conditions.
20
10
---30
The food rations provided in the life raft must be ____.
Palatable
Edible throughout the recommended shelf life
Packed in a manner which can be readily divided and easily opened.
----All of them
Every lifebuoy shall be fitted with a grabline not less than _ times the outside diameter of the body
of the buoy in length.
---4
The life raft shall be provided with watertight receptacles containing a total of ____ of fresh water
for each person the life raft is permitted to accommodate.
1.0 litres
---1.5 litres
2.0 litres
2.5 litres
For fires in accommodation, the methods of containment do not include _____.
---Sprinkler system
Smoke detectors
For the protection of machinery spaces in passenger and cargo ships a fixed fire detection and fire
alarm system shall be installed in ___.
Periodically unattended machinery spaces
Machinery spaces where the installation of automatic and remote control systems and equipment
systems has been approved in lieu of continuous manning of the space.
Machinery spaces where the main propulsion and associated machinery including the main
sources of electrical power are provided with various degrees of automatic or remote control and
are under continuous manned supervision from a control room
--------All of them
The three ways that Heat gets transferred are : Conduction, Convection, Radiation.
----TRUE
FALSE
Which piece of equipment communicates with nearby vessels’ radar?
---Search And Rescue Transponder (SART)
Radar reflector
GMDSS
Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB)
In which order should we place the priorities of survival, from highest to lowest?
----Protection from the environment, location, water, food.
Food, water, location, protection from the environment.
Location, protection from the environment, water, food.
Water, protection from the environment, food, location
A fully enclosed lifeboat’s descent can be stopped at any time by:
Pulling on the painter.
Signalling to the winch operator.
Increasing the tension on the brake control cable.
---Releasing the tension on the brake control cable.
What is a SART?
It is a Search And Rescue Training exercise
----It is a survival craft radar transponder
It is the Search And Rescue Team dispatched by the rescue services
It is a survival craft radio.

What instruction would you give to crew members who have to jump into the sea from a sinking
ship?
---Wear your lifejacket, but hold it down; block off your nose and mouth, keep your feet together
and jump feet first into the sea.
Throw your lifejacket into the sea, and dive after it, head first into the water.
Wear your lifejacket and dive head first into the sea.
Wear your lifejacket and jump vertically with your arms up above your head
What is the "Bowsing Tackle" as fitted on some lifeboats used for?
To hold the lifeboat alongside the ship after launching
To secure the bow of the lifeboat to the main deck bollards
---To hold the lifeboat close to the embarkation deck
A stretcher for safe embarkation of injured persons

Annex V of International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution for Ships (MARPOL) 73/78
Regulations for the prevention of pollution of Garbage from ship entered into force on ___.
31st Dec, 1986
31st Dec, 1987
----31st Dec, 1988
31st Dec, 1989
Ton as in GRT is derived from ___.
Weight
Number
--Volume
None of them
One of the components of Company responsibilities and authority under International Safety
Management (ISM) code should be ___.
---To define and document the responsibility, authority and interrelation of all personnel Who -----
----manage, perform and verify work to and affecting safety and pollution prevention
That the company appoints a master and finishes his responsibility and authority
To operate the ship affecting safety and environment protection by deputing a master and shore
based designated person and making them responsible
That the company appoints a designated person (s) and finishes with his responsibility and
authority
The electro-hydraulic steering pump motor is protected by ___.
An alarm indicator
---An overload trip
A circuit breaker
Short circuit protection
During boat mustering who takes the head count?
The Head master
----The Master
The Boat Commander
The 2nd Officer
The floating life raft shall be capable of withstanding repeated jumps on to it from a height of at
least ____above its floor, both with and without the canopy erected.
---4.5 metres
5.5 feet
5.5 metres
4.5 feet
An adult lifejacket shall have sufficient buoyancy and stability in calm fresh water to turn the body
of an unconscious person in the water from any position to one where the mouth is clear of the
water in not more than ___seconds.
10
---5
15
20
The floor of the life raft shall be ____.
Waterproof
Capable of being sufficiently insulated against cold
Neither A or B
---Both A & B
Lifelines shall be securely becketed around the inside and outside of the life raft.
---This is true.
This is false, they are becketed neither on the inside or the outside.
Only on the outside
Only on the inside
The light fitted inside the life raft can be manually controlled.
---TRUE
FALSE
The inflation of the life raft shall be completed within a period of ___ at an ambient temperature
of -30 deg C.
2 minutes
1 minute
---5 minutes
3 minutes
The knife in the life raft is to be stowed on the outside of the canopy.
---TRUE
FALSE
Fire extinguishing systems using halon 1211, 1301 and 2402 and perfluorocarbons are not yet
prohibited?
TRUE
A fixed fire system on board is provided for the ___.
Engine room
Cargo holds
Paint locker
---All of them
How much water should be given per day after the first 24 hours?
No rations are required for the first 5 days
----1 glass
Litre
Litres
Death generally occurs when the body temperature reaches:
35°C.
30°C.
--26°C.
20°C.
Which piece of signalling equipment will help helicopter pilots judge the surface wind speed and
direction?
---Smoke float
Heliograph
Parachute flare
Hand flare
Which of these requirements, regarding the launching and recovery arrangements for survival
craft, corresponds to the SOLAS regulations?
Means shall be available to prevent any discharge of water on to survival craft during
abandonment.
---Each lifeboat shall be provided with separate appliances that are capable of launching and
-----recovering the lifeboat.
Launching and recovery arrangements shall be such that the operator at all times can observe the
survival craft and life boat.
Different type of launching and recovery arrangements shall be used for similar survival craft on
board the ship
You should repair any tears in an immersion suit.
---TRUE
FALSE
How often should freefall lifeboats normally be launched, as a minimum?
There is no specified frequency
At least once a month
----At least once every six months
At least once a yea

TRUE
FALSE
form a ship?
A highline
A lifting stretcher
A basket

drifting apart
services:


600°C
700°C
750°C
800°C
TRUE
FALSE
The cargo tanks
The slop tanks
All of them
conatiners
TRUE
FALSE
wáter
Not less tan 100 mm

Not less tan 110 mm
Not less tan 120 mm
Not less tan 90 mm
TRUE
FALSE
Only one knife

Two knives
Three knives


requirements

Heat
Temperature
Pressure
Volume
90
110
75
85
Minimum
Maximum
Average
Practically

Agent
be safely performed
1.- Lifebuoy self-activating smoke signals shall emit smoke of a _____
A. Red colour.
B. Orange colour.
C. White colour.
D. Highly visible colour.
2.- Hot surfaces which may be impinged as a result of fuel system failure shall be properly
insulated for a temperature above____.
A. 120ºC
B. 220ºC
C. 320ºC
D. 420ºC
2.- Which of these are example of mechanical foam?
A. Protein Foam.
B. Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF) type foam.
C. Light water alcohol type concentrate.
D. All of them.
3.- Cargo ships shall carry at least__ fire-fighters outfit.
A. Two.
B. Three
C. Four
D. One
4.- The discharge of the vapour mixture from the vent outlets of cargo tanks during
loading and ballasting shall be through___.
A. One or more mast risers.

B. A number of high velocity vents.
C. Both A & B.
D. Either A or B.
5.- If the cargo hold is flooded to extinguish a fire ____
A. It can affect the stability of the ship due to free surface effect.
B. It must then be drained to avoid free surface effect.
C. It can cause cargoes like grain, paper pulp to swell and rupture shell plates & bulñk
heads.
D. All of them.
6.- Water fog is an excellent fire extinguishing medium as it ________________-.

 Cools the surroundings
 Removes oxygen from the atmosphere
 Dilutes the flammable mixture
 All of them
7.- An approved portable fire extinguisher may be substituted as an alternative to a

receptacle containing 0.1 m3 of sand or sawdust.
TRUE
FALSE
8.- Below what sea temperature should immersion suit be worn?

A. Below 10 deg Celsius
B. Below 16 deg Celsius
C. Below 5 deg Celsius
D. Below 12 deg Celsius
9.- Only certain of life jacket have to be fitted with a light and a whistle?
TRUE
FALSE
10.- If a person spends six hours in 0°C water when wearing an immersion suit, their body
temperature should not drop:
> (A) by more than 2°C.
(B) by more than 7°C.
(C) by more than 5°C.
(D) at all.
11.- What should be done before throwing the life raft overboard, after securing the
painter to a
strong point?
(A) Open the fiberglass case.
(B) Inflate the life raft.
> (C) Check that there is nothing in the sea below.
(D) Untie the painter from the strong point.
12.- The protocol on 1988 on harmonized system of survey and certification (HSSC) is not
required to enter into force for annex III and annex V of international convention for the
prevention of pollution from ships (MARPOL) 73/78.
TRUE
FALSE
13.- A major non-conformity means an identifiable deviation which poses a serious _____
to the safety of personnel or the ship or a serious _____ to the environment which
requires immediate corrective.
A. Danger/hazard.
B. Threat/risk.
C. Harm/danger.
D. Fear/disturbance.
14.- The design vapour pressure of the membrane tanks of gas carrier should not
normally exceed____
A. 0.15 bar
B. 0.18 bar
C. 0.22 bar
D. 0.25 bar
15.- The net registered tonnage of a ship is calculated from __
A. the gross registered tonnage.

B. The volume of cargo spaces.
C. The number of passengers.
D. None of them.
16.- The international maritime organisation (IMO) symbol represent rocket parachute
flares.
TRUE
FALSE
17.- Every lifebuoy shall be capable of supporting not less than ____ kgs of iron in fresh
water for a period of 24 hours.
A. 14
B. 14.5
C. 13.5
D. 15
18.- This international maritime organisation (IMO) symbol represents thermal protective
aids.
TRUE
FALSE
19.- The painter of a life raft shall not be less than 15 meters.
TRUE
FALSE
20.- Life rafts shall be provided with___
A. one tin opener

B. two tin openers
C. three tin openers
D. no tin opener.
21.- If the life raft can accommodate 13 persons or more, there shall be _____
A. only one knife

B. two knives
C. three knives
D. an unspecified number of knives.
22.- The life raft canopy shall be provided with means to mount a survival craft radar
transponder at a height of ____ above the sea.
A. 1 meter
B. 2 meters
C. 3 meters
D. 5 meters
23.- This international maritime organisation (IMO) symbol represent life raft in water.
TRUE
FALSE
24.- This international Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol represent “9 no’s water
extinguishers”.
TRUE
FALSE
25.- An explosimeter reading shows that a vapour mixture _____
A. is too rich to burn.

B. Is too lean to burn.
C. Can burn spontaneously.
D. Contains a certain percentage of gas.
26.- This international maritime organisation (IMO) symbol represent “No entry”.
TRUE
FALSE
27.- A portable foam applicator unit shall have a portable tank containing foam containing
liquid at least _____
A. 30 litres.
B. 25 litres
C. 20 litres.
D. 15 litres.
28.- This international maritime (IMO) symbol represents “fire line drains valves”.
TRUE
FALSE
29.- The relationship between current I, and voltage V, in a circuit is governed by the
resistance, R this is known as Ohm’s Law which is written as :
A. I = VR
B. R =VI
C. V= IR
D. R =V/I
30.- What is FPD?
A. Forward protection device.

B. Fall preventer device.
C. Freefall protection davit.
D. Freefall passenger drill.
31.- The equipment used to keep the lifeboat alongside while removing the tricing in
pendant is ____-
A. Bowsing in tackle.
B. Gripes.
C. Painter.
D. Tricing in pendant.
32.- Paint lockers in a ship shall be protected by ____
A. A carbon dioxide system designed to give a minimum volume of free gas equal to
40% of the gross volume of the protected space.
B. A dry powder system, designed for at least 0.5 kg/m2 powder per cubic metre.
C. A water spraying or sprinkle system designed for 5 litres / square metre, minimum,
water spraying system which may be connected to the ship fire man.
D. All of them.
○The responsibility and authority of the shore based designated person or persons should include
From time to time, taking reports from the master and chief engineer about the safe operation of the ship
Receiving reports on audits, accidents of persons and tackling emergency situations and advising
accordingly
Monitoring the safety and pollution prevention aspects of the operation of the ship and ensuring adequate
resources and support
None of them
○The immersion suit shall be constructed with water proof materials such that following a jump from a
height of ____ into the water there is no undue ingress of water into the suit
Not more than 4.5 meters
Not less than 4.5 meters
Not less than 4 meters

Not more than 4 meters
○Every lifebouy shall be capable of supporting not less than ____ kgs of iron in fresh water for a period
of 24 hours
14
14.5
13.5
15
○Identify the International Maritime Organization (IMO) symbol
Radar trasnponder
None of them
EPIRB
Survival craft pyrotechnic distress signal
○The minimum number of thermal protective aids that must be provided in a life raft is
2
3
4
○The light fitted on top of the life raft canopy shall be capable of operating continuously for at least 12
hours
TRUE
FALSE
○Lifebouy self ignition lights shall be provided with a source of energy for a period of at least
4hrs
3hrs
1hr
2hrs
○The best way to fight a liquified gas fire is to
Starve the fire of fuel
Use a dry chemical powder (DCP) extinguisher to put it out

Use water hoses
Use foam extinguisher
PARTE C
1.- THE JACK KNIFE IN THE LIFEBOAT MUST NOT BE KEPT ATTACHED TO THE BOAT WITH A
LANYARD.
 TRUE
 FALSE
2.- THE POCKETS SHALL HAVE AN AGGREGATE CAPACITY OF AT LEAST______ FOR LIFERAFTS UP
TO 10 PERSONS.
 10 LITRES
 100 LITRES
 220 LITRES
 50 LITRES
3.- WITH FUEL AND OXYGEN PRESENT, WHAT IS THE THIRD SIDE OF THE FIRE TRIANGLE MOST
COMMONLY CAUSING A FIRE?
 GAS
 VAPOUR
 COMBUSTIBLE MATERIAL
 HEAT
4.- EVERY ENCLOSED LIFEBOAT SHALL BE CAPABLE OF SUPPORTING THE ENTIRE MASS OF THE
LIFEBOAT INCLUDING EQUIPMENT, MACHINERY AND A FULL COMPLEMENT OF PERSONS WHEN
THE LIFEBOAT IS IN THE CAPSIZE POSITION WITH THE HATCHES CLOSED AND WITH OUT
SIGNIFICANT LEAKAGE.
 TRUE
 FALSE
5- A LIFEJACKET SHALL HAVE BUOYANCY WHICH IS NOT REDUCED BY __________% AFTER 24

HOURS SUBMERSION IN FRESH WATER .
 MORE THAN 5
 LESS THAT 5
 MORE THAN 10
 LESS THAN 10
6.-THE FLOATING LIFERAFT SHALL BE CAPABLE OF WITH STANDING REPEATED JUMPS ON TO IT

FROM A HEIGHT OF AT LEAST_________ ABOVE IS FLOO, BOTH WITH AND WITHOUT THE
CANOPY ERECTED.
 4.5 METERS
 5.5 FEET
 5.5 METERS
 4.5 FEET
7.- A LIFE RAFT FOR USE WITH AN APPROVED LAUNCHING APPLIANCE SHALL WHEN THE
LIFERAFT IS LOADED WITH ITS FULL COMPLEMENT OF PERSONS AND EQUIPMENT BE CAPABLE
OF WITH STANDING A DROP INTO THE WATER FROM A HEIGHT OF ________ WITHOUT
DAMAGE THAT WILL AFFECT IT.
 NO MORE THAN 3 FEET

 NO LESS THAN 3 FEET
 NO MORE THAN 3 METERS
 NO LESS THAT 3 METERS
8.- THE BOUYANT RESCUE QUOIT IN A LIFERAFT SHOULD BE ATTACHED TO__________ OF

BOUYANT LINE.
 NOT MORE THAN 30 METERS

 NOT THAN 50 METERS
 NOT LESS THAN 50 METERS
9.- WHO MUST BE INFORMED BEFORE GOING OUT OF THE ACCOMMODATION DURING ROUGH
WEATHER AT SEA.
 THE MASTER
 THE CHIEF OFFICER
 THE CHIEF ENGINER
 THE BRIDGE WATCH KEEPING
10.- THE CANOPY OF A LIFERAFT SHALL HAVE SUFFICIENT HEADROOM FOR SITTING OCCUPANTS
UNDER ALL PARTS OF THE CANOPY.
 TRUE
 FALSE
11.- IDENTIFY THE IMO SYMBOL.
DECK ISOLATING VALVES
FIRE LINE DRAIN VALVES
WATER SPRAY SYSTEM VALVES
FIRE LINE DISTRIBUTION BOX

12.- A CLASS B FIRE IS MOST LIKELY TO OCCUR IN_________.
 A PASSENGER CABIN
 A BATTERY ROOM
 A RADIO ROOM
 ENGINE ROOM VILGES
13.- THIS (IMO) SYMBOL REPRESENT 50 LITRES WATER EXTINGUISHER.
 TRUE
 FALSE
14.- IDENTIFITY THE (IMO) SYMBOL.
 MAIN VERTICAL ZONE

 FIRE LINE VERTICAL
 FIRE RETARDANT MATERIAL INSERTED
 FIRE DOOR
 SPACE OR GROUP OF SPACES PROTECTED BY FIRE EXTINGUISHING SYSTEM POWER

 SPRINKLER SYSTEM
 SPACE PROTECTED BY SPRINKLER SYSTEM
 SPACE OF GROUP OF SPACES PROTECTED BY FIRE EXTINGUISHING SYSTEM WATER
ES P Y BLANCA
16.- ALL SHIPS SHALL CARRY AT LEAST ___________ EMERGENCY SCAPE BREATHING DEVICES
WITHIN ACCOMMODATION SPACES.
 5
 4
 3
 2
17.- IN ORDER TO PREVENT THE PROBABILITY OF IGNITION OF COMBUSTIBLE MATERIALS AND

FLAMMABLE LIQUIDS AND GASES ON BOARD THE SHIP THE FUNCTIONAL REQUIREMENT SHALL
BE__________.
 TO CONTROL LEAKS OF FLAMMABLE LIQUIDS AND TO LIMIT THE ACCUMULATION OF

FLAMABLE VAPOURS
 RESTRICTION ON THE IGNITABILITY OF COMBUSTIBLE MATERIALS AND RESTRICTION OF
IGNITION SOURCES
 SEPARATION OF IGNITION
 ALL OF THEM
18.- A BUILT UP OF HIDROGEN DUE TO POOR VENTILATION CAN BE CAUSE IN THE

____________.
 PAINT LOCKER
 ENGINE ROOM
 RADIO ROOM
 BATERY ROOM
19.- JET DRIVE RESCUE BOATS TEND TO BE MORE MANOEUVRABLE
 TRUE
 FALSE
20.- IF THE RESCUE BOAT CAPSIZES, THE LARGEST AIR POCKET IS LIKELY TO BE FOUND NEAR THE:
 STERN
 BOW
 CENTRE
 NONE OF THE ABOVE
21.- WHEN LAUCHING A RESCUE BOAT, WHAT SHOULD THE SHIP SPEED BE?
 NO MORE THAN 2 KNOTS

22.- WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM SPEED AT WHICH YOU WOULD ATTEMPT TO LAUNCH A RESCUE
BOAT FROM YOUR VESSEL?
 2 KNOTS
 3 KNOTS
 VESSEL MUST BE STOPPED
 5 KNOTS
23.- HOW SHOULD CHECK THE CREW´S PERSONAL PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT BEFORE LAUNCHING
THE RESCUE BOAT?
 THE COXSWAIN
 THE OFFICER DIRECTING THE LAUNCH OPERATION
 THE MASTER
 THE FORWARD CREW MEMBER
24.- WHEN THE RESCUE BOAT REACHES THE WATER THE PAINTER SHOULD BE RELEASED BEFORE
THE FALL WIRE.
 TRUE
 FALSE
25.-LAUNCH AND RECOVERY OPERATION OF RESCUE BOATS POSE FEW HAZARDS IF THE CREW
ARE WHEN TRAINED.
 TRUE
 FALSE
26.- WHEREABOUT IN THE RESCUE BOAT SHOULD CREW MEMBERS POSITION THEMSELVES
WHILE IT IS BEING LOWERED?
 THE CENTRE
 THE SEAWARD SIDE
 THE INBOARD SIDE
 ALL AFT
27.- RESCUE BOATS SHALL BE STOWED.
 IN A STATE OF CONTINUOUS READINESS FOR LAUNCHING IN NOT MORE THAN 5 MIN,

AND, IF THE INFLATED TYPE ARE, IN A FULLY INFLATE CONDITION AT ALL TIMES
 IN A STATE OF CONTINUOUS READINESS FOR LAUNCHING IN NOT MORE THAN 10 MIN.
28.- WHICH PIECE OF SIGNALLING EQUIPMENT WILL HELP HELICOPTER PILOTS JUDGE THE
SURFACE WIND SPEED AND DIRECTION?
 SMOKE FLOAT
 HELIOGRAPH
 PARACHUTE FLARE
 HAND FLARE
29.- NO LIFEJACKETS SHOULD EVER BE WORN INSIDE THE BOAT
 TRUE
 FALSE
30.- THE SHELTERS ON PARTIALLY ENCLOSED LIFEBOATS ARE CREATED BY.
 RIGID COVERS
 FOLDING CANOPIES
 A COMBINATION OF RIGID COVERS AND FOLDING CANOPIES
 A FIBREGLASS SHELL THAT IS OPERATED ELECTRONICALLY AND CAN COVER UP 80% OF
THE BOAT.
31.-WHAT IS THE PART OF THE LIFEBOAT INDICATED BY THE ARROWS?
 THE FALL
 THE GRIPE
 THE ON-LOAD RELEASE
 THE BOWSING IN TACKLE
32.- FOR PROTECTION OF ACCOMMODATION, SERVICE SPACES AND CONTROL STATIONS ON

TANKERS, ONLY METHOD______ SHALL BE USED.
 IC
 II C
 III C
 NONE OF THE OPTIONS
33.- UPON HEARING THE FIRE ALARM, YOU MUST:
 START THE CO2 RELEASE SYSTEM

 EVACUATE THE ENGINE ROOM INMEDIATELY
 START THE FIRE PUMP
 INFORM THE BRIDGE
34.- ALL ITEMS OF LIFEBOAT EQUIPMENT, SHALL BE
 SECURED WITHIN THE LIFEBOAT BY LASHINGS

 STORED IN LOCKERS OR COMPARTMENTS
 STORED IN BRACKETS OR SIMILAR MOUNTINGS ---
 ALL OF THEM
35.- SHIP SECURITY ALARM CAN BE DISCLOSED TO.
 PORT STATE INSPECTORS

 VETTING INSPECTORS
 SHIPS AGENTS
 NONE OF THE ABOVE------
36.- THE BASIC REQUIREMENT FOR THE INERT GAS SYSTEM SHAL BE_______
 PURGING AND INERTING

 A GAS FREEING EMPTY TANK
 TO MAINTAIN THE ATMOSPHERE IN CARGO TANKS WITH THE REQUIRED MINIMUM
OXYGEN CONTROL
 ALL OF THEM-----
37.- STEAM AS A FIRE EXTINGUISHING MEDIA IN GENERAL SHALL NOT BE PERMITTED BY THE
ADMINISTRATION.
 TRUE ------
 FALSE
38.- WHICH THROW OVERBOARD LIFERAFTS HAVE HYDROSTATIC RELEASE?
 ALL LIFERAFTS EXCEPT THE ONES STORED FORWARD

 THE ONES STORED INSIDE THE ACCOMMODATION
 ALL THROW OVERBOARD LIFERAFTS HAVE HYDROSTATIC RELEASE
 NO THROW OVERBOARD LIFERAFTS HAVE HYDROSTATIC RELEASE.
39.- WHEN THE BOAT IS AT A SAFE DISTANCE FROM THE SHIP, THE PAINTER SHOULD BE
RELEASED.
 TRUE
 FALSE
40.- AT WHAT POINT DURING THE LAUNCH PROCEDURE ARE THE DOORS AND HATCHES
SECURED ON A FULLY ENCLOSED LIFEBOAT?
 ONCE THE BOTTOM PLUGS HAVE BEEN SET

 ONCE THE PAINTER HAS BEEN PASSED OUT OF THE FORWARD HATCH AND SECURED
 ONCE EVERYONE IS INSIDE
 ONCE THE ENGINE HAS BEEN STARTED
41.- SINCE 1st JULY 2006, IT HAS BEEN MANDATORY FOR CARGO SHIPS AND BULK CARRIERS
TRADING OUTSIDE 20°NORTH OR 20° SOUTH TO PROVIDE IMMERSION SUITS FOR ALL PERSONS
ON BOARD.
 TRUE
 FALSE
What precautions should you take when you are painting in a confined compartment?
A. Follow enclosed space entry procedures

B. Close the compartments to keep dirt of dust from sticking to the paint
C. Heat compartment to dirty the paint quickly
D. Wear breathing apparatus
Testosterones are
A. Male hormones
B. Female hormones
C. Hermaphrodite hormones
D. All of them
The hours of work regulations apply to which members of the crew?
A. Master and watchkeeping officers

B. All members of the crew
C. Members of crew engaged specifically in the safety of the vessel
D. Crew working only tankers
Blood is manufactured in
A. The brain
B. Spieen
C. Bone marrow
D. None of them
If someone refuses a personal search, they cannot be allowed on board, what should you do if this
happens?
A. Call the authorities

B. Call your supervisor of ship security officer (SSO)
C. Call the police
D. Call the master
Any pipelines and valves not involved in the hot work can be ignored.
A. True
B. False
The skin of a casualty of frostbite feels
A. Warm
B. Supple
C. Hard and stiff
D. None of them
When crew members are working in confined spaces that have been cleared of hazardous
materials, ventilation should be provided
A. At least every 30 minutes

B. Continuously
C. If oxygen level is fall
D. if the tlv is exceeded
When should the atmosphere of an enclosed space be tested?
A. Before ventilation
B. Before and during entry
C. Every hour
D. Whenever someone feels dizzy
Every crew member shall participate in at least one abandon ship drill every
A. 15 days
B. Month
C. Two months
D. Article time on the ship
If multiple damage occur to a ship, which damage control will be undertaken first?
A. Fire
B. Flooding
C. Cooking
D. Power
All new personnel joining a vessel must under go a safety training induction by a responsible
officer
A. True
B. False
Recommendations on the safe use of pesticides on ships- IMO- 267E can be found in which IMO
code?
A. Solas
B. Marpol
C. BC code
D. International maritime dangerous goods (IMDG) code
Your crew list changes- who must you inform?
A. The company
B. Pilot authority
C. Ship chandler
D. Flag state authority <
What does the term “amidship” mean?
A. The middle of the ship lengthwise

B. The Centre-line across the ship
C. The middle of the accommodation
D. At 90 degrees to the fore and aft line.
After testing the atmosphere of a cargo hold, what must a responsible officer decide?
A. If some of the cargo has been stolen

B. If the cargo has been damaged
C. If the cargo has been tainted
D. If the cargo space is safe to enter
Hypothermia in the elderly is dangerous because
A. They go without adequate food

B. They do not feel like moving about
C. They are unable to look after themselves
D. All of them
The average quantity of urine manufactured in 24 hrs is
A. 500cc
B. 1000cc
C. 1500cc
D. None of them
What is the minimum rest period needed to maintain and avoid fatigue?
A. Not less than six hours in any 24 hours period

B. Not less than ten hours in any 24 hours period
C. Not less than twelve (12) hours a day
D. Not less than 4 hours a day but not every day of the week
Which of the following are point to be noted during the inspection of electro-hydraulic steering
gear?
A. Pressure in hydraulic system

B. Level in replenishing tank
C. Telemotor system
D. All of them
A casualty with chest pain should be:
A. Laid down and have their legs elevated

B. Placed in the recovery position
C. Sat on a chair
D. Positioned sitting up and supported
On a gas tanker, a tank of more than 20 m3 requires a minimum of
A. 1 release valve
B. 2 release valve
C. 3 release valve
D. None of them
Nose-bleeds can occur in the event of
A. A fracture of the skull

B. Very high blood pressure
C. A blow to the nose
D. All of them
An international ship security certificate shall be issued for a specific period, which shall not
exceed_____ years
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
The best type of stretcher for lifting an injured person out of an enclosed space is soft and flexible
A. True
B. False
Information about the location of water-tight bulkhead doors is obtained from
A. The GA plan
B. The damage control plan
C. The fire control plan
D. All of them
How is an enclosed space tested to check it is safe to enter?
A. By standing and smelling the atmosphere

B. By using an oxygen analyzer and an explosimeter
C. By a litmus test
D. By checking that the inert gas has less than 4% oxygen content
In the case of an emergency
A. If the ship is in port first call the police

B. If the ship is in port call for ambulance
C. Phone the media
D. None of them
Which of the following should the vessel consult with before hot work is authorized?
A. The managers, operators or characters

B. The flag state authority
C. The classification society
D. The international maritime organization
When testing a tank atmosphere prior entry, where should the readings be taken from
A. At the top pf the tank

B. At the bottom of the tank
C. At the tank mid depth
D. All pf the above positions
The four-hand seat carry is a good method for transporting a casualty who is
A. Unconscious
B. Partially conscious
C. Not willing to move
D. None of them
The following is a factor affecting the human element
A. Working conditions
B. Recruitment policy
C. Level of automation
D. All of them
A casualty has swallowed cleaning fluid. You should:
A. Give them lots of eater to drink

B. Not let them drink anything at all
C. Give them salty water to drink
D. Give them sips of water to drink
On board training material shall be provided in both the mess room and recreation room for the
fire fighting crew. It shall explain the following in detail:
A. The operation and use of the fire fighting system and appliances, fire doors, fire and
smoke dampers, escape system and appliances
B. General fire safety practice and precautions related to danger of smoking, electrical
hazards, flammable liquids and similar ship board hazards
C. General instructions for fire fighting activities and procedures
D. All of them
What do you need to check regularlyon a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) to make sure
you have enough air?
A. The cylinder
B. The facemask
C. The gauge and whistle assembly
D. The bypass valve
In secondary shock, if the casualty is feeling cold, give them
A. Alcohol to drink
B. Cold drinks
C. A warm tea or coffee
D. All of them
What is generally considered to be “safe” air?
A. Air containing 5.5% oxygen

B. Air containing 16.4% oxygen
C. Air containing 20.8% oxygen<
D. Air containing 28.1% oxygen
How much time does a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) set generally give someone
working in an enclosed space?
A. 10-15 minutes
B. 1 hour
C. 25-35 minutes
D. About 45 minutes
When would you use a fid?
A. When splicing a mooring line

B. When mix paint
C. When securing hatch covers
D. When shipping paint on deck
Under international ship and port facility security (ISPS) code you must provide employment
information about your crew
A. True
B. False
What percentage of your body heat can be lost through your head and neck in cold weather?
A. 0.1
B. 0.2
C. 0.4
D. 0.5
Which deckhands are not permitted to work aloft?
A. All ordinary seamen

B. Cadets or apprentices
C. Those under 18 years who have less than 1 year experience
D. All of the other options
Who issues the ISM “document of compliance”?
A. The flag state authority<<<

B. The P&I club
C. The classification society
D. IMO
It is ok to just do chest compressions during resuscitation rather than compressions and

ventilations.
A. True
B. False
The dislocation of a joint is the
A. Displacement of bones from their normal position in the joint

B. Replacement of bones in their normal position
C. Both of a % b
D. None of A&B
Every crew member shall participate in at least one fire drill every
A. 15 day
B. Month
C. Two months
D. Assignment on a ship
Heating coils should be opened, flushed and inerted prior to hot work
A. True
B. False
The enclosed space entry permit is sufficient to cover all work in an enclosed apace
A. True
B. False
Enclosed spaces are enclosed on all sides
A. True
B. False
The pulse of a casualty in secondary shock will be
A. Fast
B. Slow
C. Absent
D. All of them
To avoid fatigue you should have a balanced diet comprising mostly
A. Proteins and fats

B. Proteins and carbohydrates
C. Fats and carbohydrates
D. Fats, proteins and carbohydrates
What could best be described as the scope of a damage control plan?
A. Information about the effectiveness of watertight compartments

B. Information about the effectiveness of watertight bulkheads
C. Information about the effectiveness of watertight doors
D. Information about the effectiveness of watertight hatch covers
To aid rapid development of alertness requires a light level in the region of:
A. 100 lumens
B. 500 lumens
C. 750 lumens
D. 1000 lumens
Heating coils should be opened, flushed, and inerted prior to hot work
A. True
B. False
How often should synthetic line be end-for-ended in normal service?
A. After every third mooring in which they have been used

B. Monthly
C. At least every 4-6 months
D. Annually
Rh factor is also found in
A. Donkeys
B. Goats
C. Monkeys<
D. All of them
In the vent of pirates onboard you will
A. Co-operate with them

B. Try to fight with them
C. Go to the lifeboat
D. All of them
How is draught of 7.5 meters read from a draft mark?
A. At the bottom of 7.4

B. At the top of 7.4
C. At the bottom of 7.6
D. Midway between 7.4 and 7.6
One of the functional requirements of Safety Management System (SMS) of
company consists of_____.
 Compliance with port state control requirements

 Procedure to prepare for and respond to emergency situations
 Compliance with the U.S. cost Guard and European Union requirements
 Compliance with ISO 9000 and 14000 requirements
The atmospheric Boiling Point of Methane (CH4) is _____.
 -181.5°C
 -171.5°C
 -161.5°C
 -151.5°C
Absolute zero is the temperature at which the volume of a gas theorically

becomes zero. It has been accepted as being____.
 -273 0C
 -273.160 C
 -273.530 C
 -273.130C
Annual verification of the Document of Compliance should be_____.
 Within one month before or after the anniversary date

 Within two months before or after the anniversary date
 Within three months before or after the anniversary date
 Within four months before or after anniversary date
A chemical tanker carrying Noxious Liquid Substance (NLS) is required to

have____.
 An international Pollution Prevention Certificate (IPPC) for NLS Certificate

 A certificate of fitness
 Both
 None of them
A two-stage Direct Refrigeration cycle is a process____.
 Where an external refrigeration plant is employed to condense the cargo

vapour without it being compressed
 Where boil off is compressed, condensed and returned to the tank in a
single compressor
 In which vapour boil off from cargo tank is condensed in a cargo condenser
in which the coolant is refrigerant gas such as R22
 Where boil off is compressed condensed and returned to the tank in two
compressors
Marine pollutions from exhaust generated on board are mainly from the____.
 Lifeboat engines
 Emergency fire pump engines
 Incinerator
 None of them
A pillar transfers the load on___________.
 A deck to a lower deck or the double bottom

 The side shell to the bottom shell
 The inner bottom to the outer bottom
 The bottom to the deck
Side girders in the double bottom are__________.
 Intercostal between floors

 Continuous throughout their length
 Continuous between solid floors
 Continuous between watertight floors
The distance between the under side of the keel and the waterline is
the______.
 Moulded draught
 Extreme draught
 Freeboard
 Moulded depth
The ratio of the delivered power to the brake power is the____
 Engine efficiency
 Overall efficiency
 Shafting efficiency
 Propeller efficiency
Large modern oil tankers have______.
 Single hulls
 Single sides and double bottoms
 Double sides and single bottoms
 Double sides and double bottoms
The gunwale is the junction of _______.
 The bottom shell and the side shell

 The deck and a bulkhead
 A bulkhead and the bottom plating
 The upper deck and the side shell
How does port state control target a vessel?
 By the past record of the flag

 By the past record of the vessel
 At random
 All of them
The equation for an isothermal compression is
 V/T=C
 PV n=C
 PV r=C
 PV =C
A document of compliance is a document issued
 to a ship complies which the requirements of international safety

management (ISM) code
 to an owner which the requirements of international safety management
(ISM) code
 to an company which the requirements of international safety management
(ISM) code
 to a bare-bote charterer´s which complies with the requirements of
international Safety Management (ISM) Code
On a tanker, how many venting systems should there be?
 1
 2
 3
 4
All unsaturated hydrocarbons react with air to form unstable peroxides

which tend to induce polymerusation
 TRUE
FALSE
The document of compliance should be withdrawn by the administration or

at its request by the contracting government which issued the document
 if annual verification is not requested and not carried out in time

 when there is evidence of major non conformities with this code
 when deficiences both of A and B exist
 Either A or B
The pressure law for gas can be expressed as
 P1V1/T1=P2V2/T2
 P1/T1=P2/T2
 P1V1=P2V2
 V1/T1=V2/T2
Cryogenics is the study of the behaviour of matter of very_______

temperature
 High
 normal
 low
 neither A, b or c
TLV is the abbreviation for threshold limit value. it is the concentration of

gasses in the air to which personnel may be exposed____ per day or____ per
week
 6 hours, 30 hours
the International Convention for the prevention of pollution from ships

(MARPOL) 73/78 entered into force in
 1973
 1978
 1983
 1987
the chain locker is a compartment
 for keeping the various chains, ropes and wires used in the ship
 for accommodating prisoners
 for storing the anchor chain
 for storing lockers
one of the components of the safety and environment protection policy of

the company under the ism code should be to
 ensure compliance with international maritime organisation (imo) resolutions

a 787(19) on port state control
 ensure that the policy is mantained and implemented at all levels of the
organisation both ship based and shore based
 ensure compliance with regulations of chapter ix of safety of life at sea
(solas) 74
 ensure to mantain quality system as per policy of iso 9000 and 14000
annex III i.e. regulations for the prevention of pollution on harmful

substances carried by sea in packaged form entered into force on
_________.
 1 sty july, 1987

 1 sty july, 1989
 1 sty july, 1992
 1 st july, 1994
objective evidence means quantitative or qualitative ___ pertaining to safety

or to the existence and implementation of a safety management system
element which is based on ___ and wich can be verified
 information/observation
 records/measurement
 statements of facts/test
 information, records or statements of fact/observation, easurement or
testing
A chemical tanker has to comply with ________
 the international code for the construction and equipment of ships

carrying dangerous chemicals in bulk (ibc)
 the international code for the construction and equipment of ships
carrying liquified gases in bulk (igc) code
 the safe loading and unloading of bulk carriers (blu) code
 none of them
Cavitation describes______
 the formation of cavities in the propeller blades due to corrosion

 cavities in the shell plating caused by fouling
 small pockets in the hull structure in which water may collect
 the formation of cavities filed with vapour in a liquid due to the pressure
falling close to the vapour pressure
to reduce the scantlings of the side frames and bulkhead stiffeners in a deep
tank, it is necessary to fit _____________
 deck girders
 horizontal girders
 web frames
 hatch coamings
As per section 6 of the international safety management (ISM) code i.e where
the company is to provide adequate Resources and personnel, one of the
components for section 6 is____
 To ensure for providing familiarization training prior to sailing

 To ensure familiarization training by a shore based institute
 To establish procedures to ensure that new personnel are given proper
familiarization training related to safety and pollution prevention
 To ensure the master gives adequate familiarization training to new
personnel on safety prevention
Propeller cavitation may result in
 Damage to the propeller blades

 Cavitation erosion of the rudder
 Noise and vibration
 All of them
The chain locker is usually fitted
 Just aft of the stern

 Aft of the collision bulkhead
 Just forward of the collision bulkhead
 Forward of the anchor windlass
A panting stringer is a _______
 Transverse structure supporting the forecastle deck

 Girder supporting the deck plating
 Deep longitudinal structure supporting the side shell in the forward part of
the ship
 Structure to withstand compressive stresses
The charpy V notch test is used for determining
 Impact strength
 yield strength
 ultimate tensile strength
 hardness
Transverse watertight bulkhead
 increase longitudinal strength

 reduce rolling
 restrict flooding following damage
 reduce free surface effects
Killed steels
 are steels that are defective

 are low quality steels that should not be used for ship construction
 are preferred for ship construction, specially for the thick plates
 are special steels not meant for ship construction
The alphabets on both sides of the line passing througthth circle in the
freebord marking indicates the initials of the_____.
 Name on the owner of the ship
 Name of the Company of the ship
 Name of the master of the ship
 Classification society
What is the time required in minutes for the compressor to charge the air
receiver from zero to full in a motor ship?
 15
 20
 25
 30
Observation means a statement of________ made during a safty

management_____ and substantiated by objective evidence.
 Fact/ audit
 Information/survey
 Records/inspection
 Information and records / and inspection
For a fully refrigerated liquefied petroleum gas (LNG) carrier which will not
carry cargoes below_____________, the seconday barrier must be a
complete barrier capable of containing the whole tank volumen at a defined
Angie of heel.
 -65 C
 -60 C
 -55 C
 -50 C
Fusible plugs operate at a temperature of around___________.

 60 Deg C
 98 Deg C
 606 Deg C
 1013 Deg C
The type C independent tank of a gas carrier

 Does not require a secondary barrier
 Requires a secondary barrier
 Requires a partial secondary barrier
 Neither A, B or C
The bottom forward is strengthened to resist the efects of pounding
by__________.
 Reducing the frame spacing
 Increasing the thickness of the Shell plating
 Fitting solid floors at very frame
 All of them
Compared to a bulkhead with stiffeners, a corrugated

bulkhead____________.
 Has a lower weigth
 Is much heavier
 Has the same weigth
 Requires more welding
For a butt joint between plates between 10 and 20 mm thick the plate edges
must have___________.
 A single vee
 Square edges
 A doublé vee
 Sharp edges
A shaft tunnel is required in a ship when__________.

 The ship is propelled by steam turbines
 The main engine is forward
 The main engine is amidship
 When the main engine is located aft
The aftermost plate of the keel plating that is shaped to be wrapped around
the forward part of the sternframe is known as the______________.
 Cattin plate
 At keel plate
 Bas plate
 Stam plate
If for any reason a crank case inspection is necessary at sea___________.

 Then the turning gear should be engaged
 Then the indicator cocks should be shut
 The safety shoes and a helmet should be own
 All of them
You find that your cadet / trainee is trying to punch holes in gascket whils
keeping it on the workshop floor. You should.
 Shout at him
 Explain to him the correct procedure
 Tell him to hand over the job to someone else
 Let him continue
An average adjustor is____________.

 A surevoy
 A salver
 An insurer
 An independent person of integrity
Ordinary strength steels used in ship construction are required to have an

ultimate tensile strength of__________.
 210-350 N per sq mm
 550-700 N per sq mm
 400-520 N per sq mm
 820-1030 N per sq mm
All oily water discharge must be monitored to ensure that the oil content is
not greater than the permitted limit. This is:
 10 parts per million
For cutting a stainless steel plate using a gas cutting process, it is necessary
to_______________.
 Uses a cooling arrangement for the plate
 Provide additional heating arrangements
 Introduce an iron powder in the gas jet. i. e. Powder cutting
 Pre- heat the plate
What is the full form of gesamp?

 The the joint group of experts on the scientific aspects of marine
environment protection
 The joint group of experts on the scientific aspects of marine pollution
 The group of environment on the scientific aspects of marine
environmental protection
 Group experts on the scientific aspects of marine protection
The Protocol of 1988 on Harmonized System of Survey and Certification

(HSSC) for Annex II of International Convention for the Prevention of
Pollution From Ships (MARPOL) 73/78 entered into force on______________
 3rd Feb, 2002
 3rd Feb, 2001
 3rd Feb, 2000
 3rd Feb, 1999
The forward perpendicular is a vertical line drawn at _______________
 The forward extremity of the ship
 The intersection of the load water line and the stem bar
 The end of the bulbous bow
 At the forward draught marks
The Gross Registered Ton of a ship is expressed in terms of

________________
 Weight
 Number
 Volume
 None of them
The alphabets WNA in the illustration are the abbreviations for

______________.
 Within North Arctic
 Winter North Atlantic
 Winter North Arctic
 Within North Atlantic
Entropy is a thermodynamic property that can be used to determine the

__________ not available for work in a thermodynamic process
 Heat
 Work
 Energy
 Power
A ship carrying Noxious Liquid Substance (NLS) is required to have

 An International Pollution Prevention Certificate (IPPC) for NLS Certificate
 A Certificate of Fitness
 Both
 None of them
To get absolute temperature from Celsius to Kelvin add ______

 173
 290
 278
 273
The maximum allowable tank design pressure in the vapor space of a Type A
Independent tank on a Gas Carrier is _____________
 0.9 bar
 0.8 bar
 0.7 bar
 0.6 bar
In a welded lap joint of two plates ______________

 The plates are in one line edge to edge
 One plate is perpendicular to the surface of the other
 The two plates are placed one on top of the other
 One plate is inclined to the surface of the other
The forward perpendicular is a vertical line drawn at ____________

 The forward extremely of the ship
 The intersection of the load water line and the stem bar
 The end of bulbous bow
 At the forward draught marks
Accidents can result from improperly reset on/offload release mechanisms.
Which of the actions listed to avoid this happening does NOT belong on the
list?
 Make yourself fully aware of the paint coating required and grease all
moving parts.
 Check the manufacturers handbook on proper use of the mechanism.
 Make yourself fully aware of the correct procedures.
 Make yourself fully aware of the safety checks.
 Make yourself fully aware of all other launching equipment.
At what point during the launch procedure are the doors and hatches
secured on a fully enclosed life boat?
 Once the bottom plugs have been set.

 Once the painter has been passed out of the forward hatch and secured.
 Once everyone is inside.
 Once the engine has been started.
Are the statements about lifeboat operations True or False?
All on-load release systems must have built in safeguards against early
release.
 True.
When the boat is at a safe distance from the ship, the painter should be
released.
 True
A freefall lifeboat should be abandoned if the engine does not start.
 False.
What is a SART?
 A survival craft radar transponder.

 A survival craft radio transmitter.
 A Search and Rescue Team on standby for maritime emergencies.
 A Search and Rescue Training exercise.
When getting clear of the stricken ship, what is the recommended

procedure?
 Make sure the lifeboat is halfa mile upwind from the ship.
 Head down wind of the ship and clear of its bow and stern.
 Stay within 1 00 metres of the ship, on the bow side.
 Stay within 1 00 metres of the ship, on the stern side.
What is the purpose of the hydrostatic interlock in the keel?
 It prevents seawater entering the boat.

 It indicates the loaded of the boat and prevents overloading.
 It prevents release of the hooks until such time that the keel of the boat is
under water.
 It supplies cooling water to the lifeboat engine.
Why is it important for evacuees to board a freefall lifeboat extremely

carefully?
 Because the boat is in the water and they could get wet.
 Because it is in the stowed position and therefore at a steep angle.
 Because it is extremely væig ht-sensitive.
 Because sudden movements could dislodge it.
Once the partially enclosed lifeboat has been lowered to the embarkation
deck and securely bowsed, what is the next step in the launching procedure?
 The slip hook of the gripes is connected

 The sliding beam davits are removed
 The boat is lowered to the waterline.
 The person in charge and lifeboat crew enter the boat and prepare to board
the evacuees.
The shelters on partially enclosed lifeboats are created by.
 rigid covers.
 folding canopies.
 a combination of rigid covers and folding canopies.
 a fibreglassshell that is operated electronically and can cover up to of the
boat.
What are the gripes?
 They are special storage spaces onboard the lifeboat to hold food supplies.
 They secure the lifeboat to the bollards on the main deck
 They aid in I owering the boat by using the winch mechanism.
 They secure the lifeboats to the davits when stowed.

 before the boat starts to descend.
 just before the boat reaches the water.
 once the boat is in the water.
 FPDs shouId never be removed.
A fully enclosed lifeboat's descent can be stopped at any time by.
 pulling on the painter.

 signalling to the winch o*rator.
 increasing the tension on the brake control cable.
 releasing the tension on the brake control cable.
If your lifeboat has an internal air supply, how long will the constant flow of
air last?
 A minimum of 2 minutes.
In what way are VOCs bad for the environment?
 They cause acid rain.

 They pollute seawater.
 They create ground level smog.
 They are corrosive and flammable when they react with oxygen.
Who is responsible for ensuring that a ship is equipped with a means of

collecting VOCs before it enters a port or terminal where VOC controls are
implemented?
 The Designated Person Ashore

 The Chief Officer
 The Elaster
 The owner
The entire pipeline network in the vapour collection system must:
 be marked with the word 'VAPOUR'.

 be electrically bonded to the hull and electrically continuous.
 consist of flexible hosing.
 have a drain off at its highest point.
What is the colour scheme for marking the vapour control manifold?
 Yellow with red bands

 Black with red bands
 Yellow with black bands
 Red with black bands
The cylindrical safety stud on the manifold flange must be set:
 at the 6 0'clock position.

 at the 12 0'clock position.
 so that it is not in contact with flange face.
 parallel to the flange face.
On a tanker, under the international Convention For the Prevention of

Pollution (MARPOL) Annex VI, the vapour flow capacity of each Pressure
Vacuum valve must be at least:
 25% of the maximum loading rate of each tank

In the cargo tank pressure release system, over pressure alarms should be
set at:
 a minimum of 68% of the lowest pressure relief valve setting.

 a minimum of 75% of the I owest pressure relief valve setting.
 a minimum of 90% of the lowest pressure relief valve setting.
 a minimum of 125% of the I owest pressure relief valve setting.
On a tanker, The lower low pressure alarms in inerted vessels should be set
at not less than:
 100 mm water gauge (WG)

Countries and terminals can demand that only tankers fitted with vapour
collection systems may rate in VOC control areas.
 True
The overfill control system must be connected to the cargo gauging system.
 False.
Tanks should always be opened for sampling when loading is 90% complete.
 False.
What could happen if vapour passes over condensate?
 It could cause under-pressurisation.

 It could cause over-pressurisation.
 It could create a toxic cloud.
 It could generate static electricity and increase the risk of explosion.
Before arrival, you should check that, if tank atmospheres are inerted, they
contain:
 at least oygen.
 less than 8% oygen.
 at least nitrogen.
 less than nitrogen.
Where should the detonation arrestor be positioned before loading starts?
 Close to the terminal vapour connection.

 Close to the vessel vapour connection.
 In the cargo manifold.
 On the tank access vent.
Within what timescale should the US Expanded Declaration of Inspection

confirm that alarms have been tested?
 The last month

 The last
 The last 24 hours
 Alarms do not form part of the Expanded Declaration of Inspection
Loading should take place:

 as quickly as possible.
 extremely slowly throughout.
 starting rapidly and slowing down.
 starting slowly and increasing in stages.
After loading, non inerted cargoes must be allowed to settle for how long
before they are opened for sampling?
 5 minutes
 15 minutes
 30 minutes
 It is not necessary to wait
When lightering, what should there be on the vapour line of the discharging
vessel?
 low pressure alarm

 A high pressure alarm
 A PV valve
 An oxygen content analyser
What enclosed space hazard causes the most deaths among seafarers?
 Falls from height

 Lack of oxygen
 Toxic gases
 Fire
Which of the spaces listed. is NOT an 'enclosed space'?
 Ballast tank
 Cargo holds
 Fuel tank
 Pump room
 Paint locker
 Bridge
What is often the first sign of hydrogen sulphide (H2S) being present in a
space?
 The smell of lemons

 The smell of petrol
 The smell of rotten eggs
 The smell of burning
What enclosed space hazard is caused by the rusting of metal?
 Toxic gas poisoning

 A naemia
 Eye irritation
 Asphyxiation
Enclosed spaces are enclosed on all sides.
 False.
The only tasks that require enclosed space entry are cleaning and
maintenance.
 False.
What will happen if you stay in an atmosphere containing less than 6%

oxygen for 4 minutes or more?
 Death
 Muscle weakness
 Eye disturbance
 Nausea and vomiting
Why is it prohibited to enter a space that has been inerted?
 Because it will cause nausea

 Because you will die from lack of oxygen
 Because there is an explosion hazard
 Because it will irritate your eyes
Identify the international maritime organization (IMO) symbol
 Fire control plan

 Plan of fire fighting equipment
 Fire fighting plan
 Fire protection appliances or structural fire protection plan
Of the casualty has swallowed poison…..
 Make him vomit

 Do C.P.R.i casualty is unconscious
 Report to your superior
 All of them
This maritime organization (IMO) symbol represents “ Foam compound”.
 True
 False
Asphyxia occurs when there is….
 Pressure on the lungs

 Pressure on the stomach
 Pressure on the skull
 None of them
On a large turbo electric alternating current propulsion generator, the

device(s) that may be installed is/are_____.
 A CO2 fire extinguishing system

 Temperature detector coils inserted in the stator slots for measuring stator
temperature.
 Electric space heaters to prevent condensation of moisture.
 All of them
As part of the emergency procedures, two BA sets should be laid out on

deck
 True.
No more than one type of Permit to Work (the Enclosed Spaces Entry Permit)
should be issued for work in an enclosed space
 False
It is the responsibility of the team members in the space to monitor the

atmosphere constantly.
 True.
Whose responsibility is it to stay in visual and/or audio contact with the team
in the space?
 The stand by person's
Testing must indicate an oxygen reading that is no lower than it is outside

the space
 True
The preferred method of ventilating the enclosed space before entry is

natural ventilation.
 False
Before a working party enters an enclosed space, where should the rescue
equipment be kept ready?
 At the entrance
What should you do if the alarm goes off when you are in the space?
 Fit your EEBD and get out
What happens to the Permit to Work after the job is completed?
 It is signed by the officer in charge and given to the Master for filing.
What happens to the opening to the space after everyone has come out, e.g.
for a break, but when the work is not yet completed?
 It is closed and fenced off
Emergency procedures do not form part of the Action Plan
 False
If any of the parameters of the risk assessment change while the workers are
in the space, they must stop What they are doing and get out.
 True
On the SPACE card, what does the letter A stand for?
 Assess
Who is responsible for initiating and coordinating any emergency action

required?
 The OOW
What percentage of the world's C02 emissions is caused by the shipping

industry?
 2.7%
What is the SEEMP?
 A management tool to improve energy efficiency on the ship
What is the EEOI?
 A voluntary IMO measure to enable operators to measure the fuel efficiency

of individual ships.
What is the ISO14001?
 An international standard that establishes a framework of controls to

manage environmental protection.
What is the data collected through monitoring the SEEMP measures used
for?
 The planning stage in the next cycle of energy efficiency improvements
Who leads the SEEMP, analyzing the energy efficiency information to

establish which measures work best?
 The shore officer
Who monitors and manages the SEEMP on board?
 The chief engineer
In voyage planning, the aim is to plan:
 the optimum route.
Calculating how temperatures during the voyage may affect cargo is an

element of:
 weather routing.
Speed optimization is navigating at the:
 minimum fuel used per nautical mile.
Many SEEMP measures that apply to the engine room are routine procedures
and Will already be part of the ship’s maintenance programme.
 True
When Slow steaming is not an option, increasing the engine's RPM by a few
per cent can save several tons of fuel per day.
 False
Virtual Arrival is
 the reduction of the ship’s speed to meet a revised arrival time
The ship's optimum trim is largely dependent on:
 the cargo arrangements, the weather and planned speed.
The most energy efficient solution while alongside is to:
 have one auxiliary engine in operation, and to run fewer generator sat high
loads than several at high loads.
Cold ironing is:
 using electricity from shore rather than the ship.
Marine growths on the hull and propeller should be removed because a

smooth hull leads to better fuel efficiency.
 True
Ballast operations must be assessed to determine whether it would be better

to ballast slowly using one pump or do the operation quickly with several
pumps?
 True
Store rooms should never be kept closed and the lights turned off because
of the risk of accumulated gases.
 False
The main engine Power should be limited to:
 85% of the MCR and thermal load.
35.- Who leads the SEEMP, analyzing the energy efficiency information to
establish which measures work best?
Correct answer: I) The shore office.

36.-the cargo involved or stowed in the vicinity must be identified as quickly
as possible
Correct answer: I) True
37.- Boundary cooling from above will be required
Correct answer: False
38.-the availability of a charging compressor for BA cylinders is vital:
39.- The extent and possible source of the fire is assessed by
Correct answer: I) the emergency team
40.- When Head Office become involved they Will set up a communications
Centre and Will inform:
Correct form: I) all of the above.
41.- The main objective of boundary cooling is to:
Correct answer: I) limit the spread of fire from container to container.
42.- What is the main aim when tackling a container fire?
Correct answer: I) To cool it down and keep it cool.
43.- The procedures for dealing with cargoes classified as Dangerous Goods
can be found in:
Correct answer: I) the MFAG and EMS sections of the IMDG Code supplement.
44.- If fire is found in a container, one of the first control measures is:
Correct answer: I) to turn the ship so that the wind Will blow smoke and flames
away from the rest of the ship.
45.- Are the statements about dealing with a container fire True or False?
45.1 After the incident is over, the emergency suits and equipment must be
cleaned and stored safely for future use.

45.2 Water accumulation from boundary cooling Will be unlikely to cause a
problem.
46.- Below deck, a major fire should be fought with:
Correct answer: I) Smothering gas
47.- Many things can create the heat necessary to Create a fire. Of the
examples given below, which item does NOT belong?
Correct answer: I) Painted surfaces
48.- Spontaneous combustions may occur when:
Correct answer: I) dirty waste, rags, sawdust and Other rubbish, especially if
contaminated by oil, are left Lying about.
49.- The hazards presented by flammable gases are the same as those of the
vapour given off by Iow flashpoint liquids.
50.- A leaking gas Will either disperse upwards or downwards depending on

its vapour density„
51.- A leaking gas may find a remote source of ignition and carry a flame
back to the source of the leak
51.- Gas cylinders should be located outside the machinery space from
where the gas Will be piped.
52.- A mishandled acetylene cylinder may feel hot to the touch; if so it could
explode and should be cooled with a fine spray and jettisoned.
53.- What is a "hot work" permit?
Correct answer: I) A permit issued when laid down procedures controlling hot work
are in place and obeyed
54.- Direct heat transfer through a material. CONDUCTION
55.- Heated liquids or gases rise, carrying the heat from one a rea to another.
CONVECTION
56.- Heat energy transferred by radiating through a space, as in a cooking grill.
RADIATION
57.- What is the basic principle of fire prevention?
Correct answer: I) Remove one of the three of the "fire triangle."
58.- The at which a material produces enough flammable vapour for into flash if
exposed to an ignition source. FLASHPOINT
59.- The at which a material Will continue to burn when ignited. Ignition
60.- The at which a material Will spontaneously combust. Self-ignition
61.- The at which a material undergoes a chemical change which results in

combustion. Auto-ignition
62.- What, if any, precautions need to be taken before welding in the vicinity
of open, but empty, hatches?
Correct answer: I) Screens should be erected to prevent sparks dropping down

hatches or ventilators. Dunnage and Other combustible materials should be moved
to a safe distance.
63.- Why is the risk of a fire in the engine room potentially so great?
Correct answer: I) Because it contains air, fuel and heat.
64.- Is there a Connection between "good housekeeping and fire prevention

on board ship?
Correct answer: I) Yes, good housekeeping is an important element in the fire

prevention check list on board ship.
65.- Remote cut-off sand stops should be conspicuously marked and known to
galley staff
66.- Burners or heating plates must be shut off when cooking is finished.
67.- Extractor flues and ranges should always be kept clean.
68.- Means to smother fat or cooking oil fires, such as a fire blanket, should be
readily available
69.- Carbonaceous substances, such as wood, paper, bedding, packing cases
are found in many parts of the ship
70.- Flammable liquids include petroleum spirits, paints & amp; oils, paint
thinners & amp; kerosene
71.- Liquids which give off flammable include solids that melt to form a liquid such
as fats & amp ; waxes
72.- Metals such as magnesium& aluminum can easily be ignited & Will
burn vigorously
73.- What are the three elements found in the "FIRE TRIANGLE"?
Correct answer: I) Fuel, air and heat
74.- Dirty waste, rags, sawdust & Other rubbish especially if contaminated with oil -
generate heat spontaneously which may be sufficient to ignite flammable
mixtures.
75.- Oil soaked materials should not be stowed in close proximity to oil or
paints, or on or near to steam pipes.
76.- Materials in ship's stores including linen, blankets& similar absorbent materials
are also liable to ignite by combustion if damp or contaminated by oil
77.- If oil has soaked into absorbent materials, they should be cleaned and dried,
or destroyed.
78.- Which extinguisher methods are electrically conducting?
Correct answer: I) water/foam
79.- What would you consider to be your most important reaction on

discovering a fire?
Correct answer: Reporting by raising the alarm
80.- Successful fire fighting means removing one or more of the 3 elements
(fuel, heat, air) as quickly as possible. Effectively this puts out
81.-Most fires start as small ones.
82.- In accommodation areas, the most commonly available extinguishers are

water extinguishers.
83.- In all cases, portable fire extinguishing equipment should be operated strictly
in accordance with the maker´s instructions displayed on the extinguisher
body.
84.- After use, a modern hose must be laid out and drained by walking along it,
holding each part at shoulder level as you walk along.
85.- Protect couplings from salt spray with a light grease.
86.- After using a hose clean off any contaminants with a mild detergent. Dip the
coupling sand nozzles in fresh water before stowing away.
87.- Hoses must be maintained and tested regularly, and records kept of these
activities.
88.- Make sure nozzles are Clear and discharge hoses in good condition.
89.- Always check extinguishers carefully for signs of corrosion.
90.- Many injuries have been caused by people unscrewing extinguisher heads
under pressure.
91.- If you hear a high pressure "hiss", stop unscrewing. Make sure that pressure
relief holes are Clear.
92.- What type of extinguisher is most suitable for dealing with fires involving
carbonaceous materials?
Correct answer: I) Water extinguisher
93.- What are carbonaceous fuels?
Correct answer: I) Ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper, cloth:

those materials which burn to leave behind smouldering embers.
94.- In the list of actions below, which item does NOT belong?
Correct answer: I) open all doors.
95.- What do the words "starvation, "smothering and "cooling refer to in

relation to firefighting?
Correct answer: I) The means to remove one or more of the three elements of
combustion.
96.- A dry powder extinguisher acts as...
Correct answer: I) a flame inhibitor
97.- Powder extinguishers can be used on all of fires, but check the label of a
particular extinguisher as there are different kinds of powder extinguishers.
98.- Use foam extinguishers on liquid fires.
99.- Use C02 or dry powder extinguishers on fires involving electricity.
100.- NEVER use water extinguishers on liquids or electrical fires.
101.- Why should a c02 extinguisher be used with caution in confined areas?
Correct answer: I) It will displace the air and reduce the amount of oxygen
available.
102.- Ideally the adjustable jet/spray nozzle on a hose should be used as:
Correct answer: I) a spray of arc60 degrees.
103.- Water extinguishers are the most common. They work by cooling, reducing
the of the burning substance to a point where it can no longer burn.
104.- When using a water extinguisher, spray water directly onto the fire and
move the jet about quickly to break up the water into droplets to get the best
cooling effect.
105.- In bulky fires such as cotton waste, break up and spread out the material to
dissipate heat and to make sure it is all.
106.- Foam extinguishers work by smothering a fire, starving it of the air it

needs.
107.- If you see smoke coming from behind a closed door, what would be the
first essential action on your part?
Correct answer: I) Feel the heat of the door and handle brace your shoulder and
knee against the door, open the door slightly, investigate and close quickly. Then
raise the alarm and report clearly What the problem is.
108.- If a space is filling with smoke and fumes, any personnel not properly
equipped with breathing apparatus should.
Correct answer: I) get out of the space without delay; if necessary by crawling on
hands and knees.
109.- In fire-fighting, what does the term "boundary starvation refer to?
Correct answer: I) Removing the fuel from the boundary of a fire to stop it
spreading further
110.- Can you leave the control of the BA set to the wearer alone?
Correct answer: I) There should be a person assigned to check donning, testing

procedure, tending and elapsed time
111.- The vital task of the support party is to back up the fire fighters by fetching
additional equipment.
112.- The support party may also be called to stop the fire spreading by
undertaking boundary cooling or boundary starvation, or by removing
nearby fuel.
113.- The support party are also responsible for preparing the lifeboats& Other
lifesaving bringing up extra water and blankets, VHF radios, SARTs, & the
EPIRB.
114.- On hearing the alarm, the party musters at its designated station, to the
bridge & awaits instructions.
115.- The officer in charge of the Attack Party makes an immediate assessment of
the situation and commences appropriate initial activities, keeping in regular
contact with the bridge.
116.- The initial tasks of the Engine Room Party are to check that all pumps are
fully operational & that the emergency pump and generator are functioning
correctly.
117.- The First Aid Party musters at the exit to the hospital where they collect
stretchers, blankets first aid kit, & a resuscitator pack.
118.- The Attack Party, or Emergency Party, has the task of directly fighting the
fire.
119.- When the BA team has withdrawn, what action should be taken by the
team leader?
Correct answer: I) Thoroughly de-brief the BA team and pass the information to the
bridge.
120.- What is a good way to describe a ship when fighting a fire on board?
Correct answer: I) Potentially a six-sided box with four sides and a top and bottom
through which fire can spread.
121.- What is the first duty of an emergency party's group leader?
Correct answer: I) To muster his/her group at the pre-arranged muster station and
check that all are safe, and to report
122.- All communications should follow standard procedures. In the examples

given below, which item does NOT belong?
Correct answer: I) Shout out as loudly as you can to overcome background noise.
123.- On ships with only one emergency party, the Chief Office r Will usually
take charge.
124.- Selection should be done on the basis of experience physical condition,

age, specialist knowledge.
125.- The parties should be kept together as units.
126.- Each unit has specific duties & people should not deviate from them unless
expressly ordered to do so by the Master.
127.- Having formed the parties, the next task is to ensure crews are fully trained &
know their role & responsibilities, mustering arrangements& the location of
equipment
128.- Are the following statements True or False?
128.1.- If the fire is in the Engine Room, the Second Engineer Will automatically
take over because intimate knowledge of the location is essential. CORRECT
ANSWER: TRUE
128.2.- On ships with only one Emergency Party, the Chief Officer Will usually take
charge
CORRECT ANSWER: TRUE
128.3.- The members of the Emergency Parties must be frequently exchanged to

ensure that all crew members became familiar with all firefighting duties on board
ship.
CORRECT ANSWER: FALSE
129.- Remember that if a fire is contained or damped down, the amount of smoke
Will initially increase.
130.- If breathing Apparatus is used, at least two fire fighters must work
together.
131.- The amount of air breathed differs from to person, and according to the
exertion.
132.- When selecting a 3A team, at least one member of the team should be
familiar with the area.
133.- The first task of command and control is to provide the three C´s of
naval strategy. These three processes must be established quickly. Which
process does NOT belong?
Correct answer: chaos
134.- On mustering, the leader of each party must first of all:
Correct answer: take a roll call.
135.- The stability of the ship is principally the responsibility of the bridge team.
136.- Limiting the amount of water used helps maintain stability.
137.- Damping down should be continued until all signs of heating have ceased.
138.- After a fire has been extinguished, a 24-hour fire watch should be kept on
the area.
139.- Is it good practice to send one man into a smoke filled area wearing the
Breathing Apparatus (BA) while a second person remains outside the area
on stand-by?
Correct answer: I) It is preferable that BA should be used in teams of not less than
two fire fighters working together.
140.- Regular fire drills must be held. They must be taken seriously and must
include everyone on board.
141.- Some drills should cover training in the use and maintenance of
equipment.
142.- When holding drills take the opportunity to test communications.

143.- After each drill, hold a review with everyone to discuss how successful
it was and how it could be improved.
144.- What is the danger associated with thick smoke?
Correct answer: I) It is easy to lose your bearings and move closer to danger rather
than away from it.
145.- When planning to stop a fire spreading, one must never forget that:
Correct answer: I) |you must take into account the areas above and below the as
on all four sides.
146.- The fixed installation system can control a fire within a short space of
time. Why should the C02 fixed installation system be used with caution in
confined areas?
Correct answer: I) As it reduces the amount of oxygen, the engine room has to be
evacuated.
147.- that machinery spaces contain all the elements needed to start a fire
and
sustain it. What are these elements?
Correct answer: I) Heat, air and fuel
148.- When dealing with a fire emergency you should follow the advice of:
Find it; Isolate it, report it and Extinguish it. What does the term ISOLATE IT
mean?
Correct answer: I) Tostem the flow of any fuel to the fire.
149.- Machinery space fires typically fall into one of five categories. Which
category does NOT belong in the list given below?
Correct answer: I) Propeller shaft bearing overheating

150.- Removing protective lagging exposes hot surfaces and creates a source
of ignition.
151.- Leaving certain repair jobs unattended, even for a coffee break, could be the
cause of fire.
152.- Repairs using non-standard components may produce the conditions for a
fire to happen.
153.- Machinery space fi res are always serious and you must take every
precaution to avoid them happening.
154.- Machinery space fires are the biggest, single reason for the total Ioss of
ships and their cargo.
155.- If the crew cannot bring the engine room fire under control quickly,
then the fixed installation must be used sooner rather than later.
156.- Activity while using breathing apparatus (3A) in the conditions found in
the engine room must be strictly controlled to avoid the effects of heat and
humidity.
157.- The hazard presented by a liquid is usually classified according to its

flashpoint. How is flashpoint defined?
Correct answer: I) Flashpoint is the lowest at which vapour is given off in sufficient
quantity for there to be a flash if a spark or a flame is introduced.
158.- Always repair and replace leaking gaskets promptly.
159.- Check the operation of vent closures and fire doors regularly.
160.- It is hazardous to hold realistic fire drills in the engine room and such
drills should not be attempted
Correct answer: I) False

161.- Hot surfaces can vaporize flammable liquids, changing a safe product into
an unstable, combustible vapour.
162.- Around 2/3 of all engine room fires are caused by high pressure oil line
fractures.
163.- Pouring some liquids generates static.
164.- In the engine room, there are many sources of ignition. As well as obvious
ones, there are less obvious ones such as discharge of static producing sparks.
The hot, dry atmosphere of the engine-room is ideal for static build up.
165.- What is the most sensible approach to gain control of an ENGINE

ROOM fire?
Correct answer: I) Co-ordinate firefighting efforts by effective Command and

Control. The most sensible approach is "one shot and out".
166.- All firefighting features are there to protect the vessel and its crew.
What in your View is the most important measure one can take to maintain
their effectiveness?
Correct answer: I) Regular inspection, maintenance and testing.
167.- All electric wiring should be maintained and kept clean and dry. The rated
load capacity of the wires and fuses should never be exceeded.
168.- In the engine room all persons must be aware of the need to maintain clean
conditions, prevent oil leakage, and remove all combustible materials from
vulnerable positions.
169.-Suitable metal containers should be provided for the storage of cotton waste
and similar cleaning materials after use
170.- Wood, paints, spirits and tins of oil should not be kept in boiler rooms or
machinery spaces including steering gear compartments
171.- Dirty fuel oil burner tips are a hazard. It is essential to keep tips clean, with
regular cleaning and inspection.
172.- Cotton, if impregnated with oil may spontaneously ignite.
173.- Keep the bilge free of oil and scrupulously clean.
174.- Replace lagging that has become impregnated with oil.

175.- If, after hearing the fire alarm in the engine room, you cannot see
smoke or flames you should:
Correct answer: I) follow fire emergency procedures.
176.- The decision to use the fixed installation cannot be taken lightly. A number of
positive and negative factors need to be taken into account.
177.- Once the engine room has been flooded with a fixed installation, the vessel
Will probably be without Power for some time.
178.- The timely use of the fixed installation will, in nearly every case extinguish a
machinery space fire and preserve the ship.
179.- Once the machinery space is sealed the Master can order the release of
the fixed installation.
180.- Before using the fixed installation everyone must be out, and accounted
for.
181.- Ships are designed with safety in mind. The aim is threefold and
includes the design features listed below. Which feature does NOT belong?
Correct answer: I) To include essential supplies of heat, fuel and air.
182.- What is the volume equivalent of Liquefied Natural Gas to vapour?
Correct answer: I) I volume liquefied LNG= 600 volumes of vapour
183.- What is the volume equivalent of Liquefied Petroleum Gas to vapour?
Correct answer: I) I volume liquefied LNG= 250 volumes of vapour
184.- A BLEVE is when:
Correct answer: I) liquefied gas in a tank is heated by fire and causes the tank to
rupture.
The flash point of methane is:
-175°C
186.- The flash point of butane is:
Correct answer: I) -60°C
187.- What normally causes the most damage from a LNG fire?
Correct answer: I) The extreme heat
188.- When should the gas detection system's alarm be activated?
Correct answer: I) When the gas concentration reaches 30% of the cargo's LFL.
189.- How does a dry powder chemical extinguish a fire?
Correct answer: I) By breaking the reaction of the combustion process
190.- Smothering is most effective in:
Correct answer: I) fires in enclosed spaces.
191.- Foam is most effective for:
Correct answer: I) low vapour pressure pool fires.
192.- A LPG fire gives off more radiant heat than a LNG fire.
193.- C02 should only be used to inert spaces with a possible flammable
atmosphere that are not on fire.
194.- Water is the most effective medium for cooling and for reducing
damage to adjacent to liquefied gas fires.
195.- Hot training' is training in how to avoid accidents when carrying out hot
work (welding, etc).
196.- Dry chemical powder is indicated for:
Correct answer: I) extinguishing fires.
197.- In a pool fire, how should radiant heat-exposed containment vessels be

protected?
Correct answer: I) With water jets, sprays, screens or curtains
198.- In a pool fire, how should radiant heat-exposed containment vessels be

protected?
Correct answer: I) isolate the fuel source.
199.- How do you bend a fire?
Correct answer: I) By aiming water streams at a large area of the flame
200.- How often does SOLAS require fire drills to be held for ships' crews?
Correct answer: I) Once a month
201.- How many people should there be in the responder team if breathing
apparatus is to be used?
Correct answer: I) At least 2
202.- What is the next Step after the lifeboat is waterborne?
Correct answer: I) Checking that the hydrostatic interlock releases the interlock
lever.
203.- To operate the Control Handle, you must:
Correct answer: I) remove the safety pin or pins
204.- What is the final stage in the drill?
Correct answer: I) To re-prepare the boat and davit for emergency use
205.- What is the next Step after embarking the crew in the lifeboat?
Correct answer: I) Checking seat belts are fastened.
206.- Why do most lifeboat accidents occur, according to a recent survey?
Correct answer: I) Because the release gear has not been properly re-set.
207.- International regulations state that every crew member must take part
in at least one Abandon Ship drill:
Correct answer: I) every month.
208.- A lever on the cam is connected by a push-pull cable to the Main

Control Unit inside the lifeboat.
209.- At the Main Control Unit, the cables from each hook are attached to
quadrants which are controlled by the vertical spindle
210.- Any resistance felt during re-setting should always be questioned and
the reason established at once.
211.- The purpose of the hydrostatic interlock is to:
Correct answer: I) guard against premature release.
212..- A vertical spindle extends up through the hook housing, with its hook
tail conical in shape.
213.- Moving a lever inside the boat rotates the spindle of both hooks
simultaneously.
214.- The safety pins should be removed from the operating unit.
215.- The hooks should be fully locked behind their cam arrangements.
216.- You should ensure that the d rain plug is screwed down.
217.- What is the most important thing to know about your davit system?
Correct answer: I) The safe recovery load permitted
218.- The locking lever is positioned:
Correct answer: I) behind a Clear panel in the Control Unit.
219.- Over-riding the hydrostatic interlock is achieved by breaking the Clear

panel and operating the locking lever manually.

220.- Over-riding the hydrostatic interlock forms an important part of each
Abandon Ship driII.
221.- Hoisting should be stopped:
Correct answer: once the lifeboat has cleared the water.
222.- The safety pin should only be inserted when the helmsman's release
handle has dropped down into its slotted 'locked' position.
Correct answer: True
223.- Whatever the system on your boat, the bow and stern men should
inspect and pull on the hooks to check that they are securely locked and that
the cams are correctly positioned before reporting that the hooks are re-
locked.
224.- While the lifeboat is away from the ship, the Hook Release Handle must be
moved forward again, towards the closed position, as far as it Will go. The
locating pin in the handle is then directly above the slots in the side plates.
Order according to:
225.- Make sure there’s clear, deep enough water for the launch.
226.- Release the lifeboat securing devices.
227.- Pre-rig recovery lines.
228.- Disconnect the charging lead
229.- Muster the crew.
230.- After launch, which of these actions should be taken first?
Correct answer: I) Make sure there are no injuries
231.- According to IMO regulations, how often should a freefall lifeboat

launch take place?
Correct answer: I) every Six months

232.- What is the most important aspect to consider when recovering the
lifeboat?
Correct answer: Make sure not to endanger personnel.
233.- SOLAS requires that the lifeboat and the launching arrangements
should be checked
Correct answer: weekly.
ORDER CORRECTLY
234.- Ensure all crew are securely strapped in
235.- Last minute verbal check by Coxswain
236.- Start the engine, as appropriate
237.- Last minute warning immediately before launch by Coxswain
238.- Which of the following items should you take on board a freefall lifeboat
with you?
Correct answer: Nothing unless give n specific instructions to do so
239.- You need to make sure that your clothing allows for full contact with
the seat during the fall.
240.- You should keep your hard hat on inside the boat.
241.- No life jackets should ever be worn inside the boat
242.- If the lifeboat is not full then the crew should be distributed evenly
through the boat.
243.- Regular abandon ship drills must be carried out by all ships over.
Correct answer: 500 GT

244.- After launch, everyone should stay strapped in their seat
245.- Before the launch, one of the lifeboat crew should check that every
crew member is securely restrained.
246.- If you are responsible for bringing the SART on board you should hold
it carefully during the descent.
247.- Provided everyone is strapped in, freefall life boats are self-righting.
248.- A drill is a recognized procedure carried out within a realistic time frame with
safety being the priority. A training exercise is a recognized procedure carried out
for training, which can be stopped to explain detail Safety is the priority.
249.- Simulated launching is:
Correct answer: performed in the same way as an actual launch would be carried
out.
250.- It does not matter what size your immersion suit is
251.- All types of lifejacket work in combination with all types of immersion
suit.
Correct answer: false
252.- The face seal is extremely important because it helps to prevent heat
Ioss from the head.
Correct answer: true
253.- The suit should be stored in a cool, dry place.
254.- Regulations state that all immersion suits must be stored in cabins.

255.- You should immediately repair any tears or deterioration you find.
256.- During each inspection, the zip should be rubbed on both sides with:
Correct answer: the lubricant recommended by the manufacturer.
257.- To enter the water safely
Correct answer: get as close as possible to the water then step off or use a rope or
ladder.
258.- Which of the tasks listed is not appropriate when checking your suit?
Correct answer: Try the suit out in the shower, or if weather permits, in the sea.
260.- When putting your suit on, how should you squeeze the air out?
Correct answer: Put fingers inside face seal, squat down and squeeze suit, remove
fingers from face seal, stand up again.
261.- Lifejackets should be:
Correct answer: put on over the immersion suit.
262.- If you need to move position once you are in the water, you should:
Correct answer: swim on your back, using slow, rhythmic strokes.
263.- Which of the instructions about putting your immersion suit back in its
bag is not correct?
Correct answer: Do the zip right up
264.- You should check your suit's condition:
Correct answer: once a month.
265.- If a person spends Six hours in 0°C water when wearing an immersion suit,
their body temperature should not drop:
Correct answer: by more than 2°C
266.- Death generally occurs when the body temperature reaches
Correct answer: 26°C.
267.- Cold water shock lasts for around:

Correct answer: 2 minutes.
268.- With hypothermia, unconsciousness normally sets in when the body

temperature reaches:
Correct answer: 30°C
269.- Water conducts heat away from the body.
Correct answer: at more than 20 times the rate of air.
270.- The suit's buddy line is to:
Correct answer: prevent you from drifting away from Other crew members.
271.- Immersion Suits Will be most effective when:
Correct answer: you are fully dressed.
272.- The Difference Between Life and Death Test
Since Ist July 2006, it has been mandatory for cargo ships and bulk carriers trading
outside 20°North
Correct answer: everybody on board.
273.- What are the gripes?
Correct answer: They secure the lifeboats to the davits when stowed
274.- A fully enclosed lifeboat's descent can be stopped at any time by:
Correct answer: releasing the tension on the brake control cable.
275.- What is a SART?
Correct answer: A survival craft radar transponder.
276.- When launching a fully enclosed lifeboat, the FPDs should be removed:
Correct answer: just before the boat reaches the water.
277.- Which type of lifeboat is launched from a ramp?
Correct answer: Freefall lifeboats.
278.- What is the next Step in the launching procedure?

Correct answer: The person in charge and lifeboat crew enter the boat and prepare
to board the evacuees.
279.- When getting Clear of the stricken ship, what is the recommended
procedure?
Correct answer: Make sure the lifeboat is half a mile upwind from the ship.
280.- Accidents can result from improperly reset on/offload release mechanisms.
Which of the actions listed to avoid this happening does NOT belong on the list?
Correct answer: Make yourself fully aware of the paint coating required and grease
all moving parts
281.- All on-load release systems must have built in safe guards against early
release.
282.- When the boat is at a safe distance from the ship, the painter should be
released.
283.- A freefall life boat should be abandoned if the engine does not start
284.- The shelters on partially enclosed lifeboats are created by:
Correct answer: a combination of rigid covers and folding canopies.
285.- If your lifeboat has an internal air supply, how long Will the constant flow of
air last?
Correct answer: A minimum of 10 minutes.
286.- At What point during the launch procedure are the doors and hatches
Correct answer: Once everyone is inside.
288.- Why is it important for evacuees to board a freefall lifeboat extremely

carefully?
Correct answer: Because it is in the stowed position and therefore at a steep angle.
289.- What is the first action when boarding a throw overboard liferaft?
Correct answer: Check the liferaft for leaks and damage.
290.- When may you leave the ship and board the liferaft?
Correct answer: When the master or their deputy gives the order.
291.- How are throw overboard liferafts inflated?
Correct answer: By giving a strong pull on the painter at its full extent.
292.- Which throw overboard liferafts have hydrostatic release?
Correct answer: All liferafts except the ones stored forward.
293.- How many people are normally needed to right a 25 person liferaft?
Correct answer: 1
294.- As evacuees enter the liferaft, the supervising crew members sitting at the
entrance should:
Correct answer: direct one evacuee to the left and one to the right, and so on.
295.- SOLAS specifies that it must be possible to evacuate a ship within:
296.- What should you do f water enters the life raft?
Correct answer: Bail it out as soon as possible, using the baler and/or sponge
297.- Once the inflation of the davit-launched liferaft is complete, what should the
bowsing lines be used for?
Correct answer: To pull the liferaft in tight so that it can be made fast, ready for
boarding.
298.- When launching a davit-launched liferaft, and you have pulled the liferaft
shackle out of the canister, what should you do next?
Correct answer: Hook it on to the davit.
299.- Why is it important to keep the bowsing lines within the raft?
Correct answer: So that they Will be prevented from snagging and tipping up the
raft while it is being lowered.
300.- Where can you find out detailed information about liferaft equipment and
operation?
Correct answer: From the SOLAS training manual.
operation?
operation?
Correct answer: From the SOLAS training manual
303.- The priority after launching the liferaft is to get Clear of the ship using any
means possible.
304.- Marine Evacuation Systems have the disadvantage that evacuees may have
to enter the water before getting into the liferaft.
305.- Once a throw overboard liferaft is in the water, you should rig the
embarkation ladder
306.- What is the first action in launching a davit-launched liferaft?
Correct answer: Remove the ship's side rails.
307.- Which Annex of MARPOL deals with the prevention of pollution from
garbage?
Correct answer: Annex V
308.- Any photographs or visual evidence should include:
Correct answer: all the above
309.- Many ship data recorders only store data for no more than 12 hours.
Correct answer: True.

310.- Minor cuts and bruises don' t always have to be investigated and recorded.
311.- Altering or falsi6'ing records may be regarded as a criminal offence
312.- Altering or falsi6'ing records may be regarded as a criminal offence.
313.- The ship's obligations relating to the carriage of cargo are defined in:
Correct answer: The Hague and Hague-Visby Rules
314.- Why was there a lighting problem in the area where the incident occurred?
Correct answer: Because the electrician had failed to order replacement bulbs
315.- The most important document that provides evidence of the quantity and
condition of cargo carried on board is the:
Correct answer: Bill of Lading
316.- The main reason for a thorough investigation following an incident is to:
Correct answer: prevent it from happening again
317.- Crewmembers' notebooks are private documents and cannot be considered

as evidence.
318.- All items of evidence should be clearly labelled and securely packaged.
319.- Poor record keeping and filing may show the company in a poor light if a
case comes to court.
320.- The potential for latent failures can be reduced by the proper application of
workplace procedures aimed at identifying risks and possible safety issues. Which
of the activities listed is NOT relevant in this Context.
Correct answer: Agreeing times of meal breaks

321.- There should be no surprises and no secrets' Effective engine room
resource management depends on sharing information. 'What if' questions are
important so that there are alternative scenarios in mind if circumstances or
priorities change during the planned sequence of work
322.- You should not question the decisions of senior colleagues.
323.- You should only provide information when it is asked for
324.- You should feel comfortable asking for help when you need it.
325.- You should ask questions if there is something you don't understand
326.- Order in the correct form
the experience itself
reflection
generalization
planning
327.- order in the correct form
Latent failure
Preconditions
Active failure
Failed defenses/controls
328.- electricity
Correct answer: Hazard
329.- caustic substances

330.- equipment
Correct answer: Targets
331.- Other crew members
332.- noisy environments
333.- equipment manuals
334.- very hot surfaces
335.- You should follow the daily work plan regardless of the way the situation
evolves.
336.- Unwanted visitors or phone calls can distract you from the task in hand and
start a chain of events leading to an incident.
337.- Contradictory readings from instrumentation are quite common and are not a
cause for concern.
338.- You should not ignore 'gut feeling' about a situation even if you are not sure
What may be wrong.
339.- Active failures are often due to a human error.
340.- The 'traffic light' approach is a system for dealing with material changes in
circumstances. How many changes are required for the light to change from green
to amber?
Correct answer: 1
341.- To manage the situation requires controls over the hazards and defenses
for the targets. When the controls, or the defenses, or both fail we have an
event— the target is damaged or, in the case of a near miss, threatened by the
hazard.
342.- The Reference suggests there are three barriers which can often make
developing an effective engine room team harder. These are:
Correct answer: Culture, rank and certification.
343.- They should welcome positive safety ideas from all quarters.
344.- Record-keeping is an important part of the Safety Management System for

routine operations.
345.- Which of the following actions is not integral to the continuous improvement
cycle?
Correct answer: Shore office is notified.
346.- It is advisable to report and analyze hazardous occurrences because:
Correct answer: it identifies potential problems.
347.- Safety committee meetings should be attended by:
Correct answer: the person chairing the plus representatives from different
operational areas, ranks and nationalities, and anyone else who would like to
come.
348.- Risk assessment should be applied to:
Correct answer: any new or existing procedure or equipment.
349.- The Shipboard Management Team should not delegate any tasks to junior
officers.
350.- The investigation of accidents is required under

Correct answer: the ISM Code (The International Management Code for the Safe
Operation of Ships and for Pollution Prevention)
351.- Safety Officers should carry out inspections in each area of the ship that is
accessible by Crew members:
Correct answer: at least once every 3 months.
352.- They should rely on the safety officer to decide What training is needed.
353.- They should ensure the display of safety information when and where
appropriate.
354.- They are responsible for the safety of visitors to the ship.
355.- The most vital aspect of the DPA's safety management role is to:
Correct answer: ensure that the ship's SMS is operating as it should.
356.- Who is responsible for setting in place an appraisal system to review staff
safety awareness and identify any training needs?
Correct answer: The shore office
357.- What is the most important factor in maintaining a safe shipping operation?
Correct answer: management commitment
358.- Which of the statements about change management is correct?
Correct answer: Change management is a structured process for managing and

evaluating changes across the board.
359.- Gap analysis is:
Correct answer: the process of identi6'ing shortfalls and deficiencies, and

correcting them.
360.- The best way for the operator to analyze data for the purpose of identifying
trends is to:
Correct answer: use electronic systems.

361.- A main aim of TMSA is to:
Correct answer: complement the ISM code and SIRE reports
362.- Incidents and near misses are investigated to determine root causes.
363.- The fleet must be kept informed of all safety matters through daily meetings.
364.- It is expected that operators should update their TMSA submission:
Correct answer: at least once a year.
365.- There are four steps to the continuous improvement cycle. Step 1 should
always be:
Correct answer: planning.
366.- When auditing the system for TMSA, how far should operators go back to
collect historical data?
Correct answer: 6 months.
367.- When accepting a vessel, the vetting department Will perform a risk
assessment by analyzing a set of information. Which of the data listed Will they
NOT look at?
Correct answer: Charter rates
368.- With TMSA, vetting departments Will no longer need to carry out audits of
their regular operators' management systems.
369.- As far as vessels are concerned, TMSA mainly means following operating
procedures and keeping accurate and up-to-date
370.- If an operator has determined that they have moved up a stage, what should
they do?
Correct answer: Send a complete updated submission via OCIMF to the

companies that received their earlier submission.
371.- The operator inputs details of the records into the self-assessment
submission in an OCIMF standard format.
372.- The Customer Will have access to the SIRE report and Will use the data to
verify the operators TMSA input.
373.- The self-assessment of the TMSA Elements should be completed by:
Correct answer: the personnel who are directly involved in each one.
374.- maintenance work on non-critical equipment in a year may be up to:
Correct answer: 1%
375.- The majority of OCIMF members require and expect TMSA for tankers and
barges that carry their cargoes.
376.- TMSA is a mandatory requirement like the ISM Code.
377.- TMSA submissions are the of OCIMF and they can decide who sees them.
378.- I) Many ship data recorders only store data for no more than 12 hours.
379.- Poor record keeping and filing may show the company in a poor light if a
case comes to court.
380.- Any photographs or visual evidence should include:
Correct answer: all the above
381.- Why was there a lighting problem in the area where the incident occurred?
Correct answer: Because the electrician had failed to order replacement bulbs
382.- Altering or falsifying records may be regarded as a criminal offence.

383.- The ship's obligations relating to the carriage of cargo are defined in
Correct answer: The Hague and Hague-Visby Rules
384.- Which Annex of MARPOL deals with the prevention of pollution from
garbage?
Correct answer: Annex V
385.- The most important document that provides evidence of the quantity and
Correct answer: Bill of Lading
386.- The main reason for a thorough investigation following an incident is to:
Correct answer: prevent it from happening again
387.- All items of evidence should be clearly labelled and securely packaged.
388.- Crewmembers' notebooks are private documents and cannot be considered

as evidence.
389.- Minor cuts and bruises don't always have to be investigated and recorded.
390.- A casualty with a severe bleed at the right wrist is unconscious. What
position would you place them?
Correct answer: In the recovery position on the left side
391.- You are in a safe environment. What is the first action you should take on
discovering a casualty?
Correct answer: Shout at the casualty as you approach them to provoke a

response
392.- The immediate treatment for a hot burn is to:
Correct answer: cool the at a with water.

393.- Your casualty has an arterial bleed at the wrist. The first aid treatment is to:
Correct answer: press directly on the wound.
394.- When checking a casualty's ABC how long do you allow in order to check
their breathing?
Correct answer: I O seconds
395.- What is the ratio of ventilations to chest Compressions in resuscitation?
Correct answer: 2:30
396.- Indirect pressure to stop bleeding should be kept in place for:
Correct answer: I O minutes and released slowly.
397.- Arterial blood is:
Correct answer: bright red and spurting.
398.- A casualty is placed in the recovery position:
Correct answer: to maintain the airway
399.- During resuscitation, the rate of compression should be:
Correct answer: 1 00 per minute
400.- If you think a casualty is choking you should first:
Correct answer: ask them if are choking.
401.- A casualty in shock has:
Correct answer: pale dry skin and Slow pulse.
402.- The severity of a burn is assessed by:
Correct answer: its depth and its area.
403.- The causality’s palm is considered to be:
Correct answer: I % of the total body surface area.
404.- A burn should be cooled for a minimum of:
Correct answer: 20 minutes

405.- A casualty is found collapsed in an enclosed space. What should the rescuer
do first?
Correct answer: Raise the alarm
406.- Cold burns to the hands may be warmed up by being rubbed
407.- A shocked casualty who is thirsty may be given a drink of water.
408.- It is OK to just do chest compressions during resuscitation rather than

compressions and ventilations
409.- The casualty may be a danger to the rescuer.
410.- A sprain is an injury to:
Correct answer: ligament
411.- When a casualty has a dislocated shoulder you must:
Correct answer: tie the arm to the side of body.
412.- Which of the injuries listed is best treated using an elevation sling?
Correct answer: Dislocated el bow
413.- How would you position a conscious casualty with a sucking wound on the
left side of their chest?
Correct answer: Sitting up and leaning towards the left
414.- When applying a dressing to a sucking chest wound it should be:
Correct answer: nonstick and sea led with bottom edge open.
415.-A casualty has fallen from a height and appears to be unconscious. What
would you do first?
Correct answer: Check their breathing
421.- When a casualty has a fractured base of skull they may have:
Correct asnwer: blood stained fluid leakingfrom the ears or nose.
422.- A complicated fracture is one where there is:
Correct answer: damage to underlying tissue.
423.- In a concussed casualty you Will find:
Correct answer: both of the pupils react to light.
424.- In Compression, the casualty Will have:
Correct answer: noisy breathing with strong and Slow pulse.
425.- A casualty has a chemical splash in the eye. You should
Correct answer: wash the eye out with the casualty Iying dovvn.
426.- A casualty has a Wood splinter in their eye. How long do you take to wash it
out?
Correct answer: At least I O minutes
427.- A casualty has an abdominal wound and bowel can be seen in the wound.
What action would you take?
Correct answer: Place a dampdressing lightly over the vvound
428.- If a casualty has been trapped by crushing of their leg the rescuer should:
Correct answer: not release them if trapped for longer than 1 5 minutes.
429.- An amputated finger is to be preserved in ice. Before placing it in ice you

should
Correct answer: vvrap the finger in plasticand then padding.
430.- A casualty with chest pain should be:
Correct answer: positioned sitting up and supported
431.- If someone is suffering from hypoglycaemia, then their.
blood sugar is too lovv.
432.- A casualty having an asthma attack Will have:
pale skin, noisy breathing and fast pulse

433.- A casualty has swallowed cleaning fluid. You should:
give them sips of water to drinz
434.- Which ofthe symptoms listed could indicate a spinal injury?
Any of the above
435.- In hypothermia the casualty Will be:
pale, vvitha Slow pulse
436.- On rescue, a hypothermic casualty is unconscious. You should:
vvrap them in blankets.
437.- A casualty with heat stroke is:
red withastrong pulse.
438.- What is the maximum recommended daily alcohol consumption for a man?
3-4 units
439.- Are the statements about skin cancer True or False?
I) People vvith dark coloured skinsdo not need to worry about..000000000000ing

skin cancer.
false
2) It'sa good idea to wear sun screenand avoid the midday sun where possible.
true
3) A change ina mole onyour skin, particularly if itgets bigger, bleeds or changes
colour should be checked by a doctor.
True
440.- Are the statements about care ofteeth and gums True or False?
I) Keeping pur gums healthy isas importantas looking after your teeth themselves.
true
2) Smoking can make gumdisease worse and your teeth Will usually became
stained from the cigarette smoke.
true
3) Your brushing should try to remove the layer of which contains bacteria from
vvhere it collectsat the base of teeth.
True
441.- Which type of Hepatitis is often sexually transmitted?
2) Yes.
442.- Maize, bananas and bread consist mostly of:
carbohydrate.
445.- On average, how many calories a day do men that are fairly active require to
maintain their weight?
3000
446.- Are the statements about alcohol consumption True or False?
I) Men can normally consume more alcohol than women vvithout ill effects
. True
2) Overweight people candrink more thana thin person vvithout ill effects.
False.
3) Regularly drinking too much increases the risk of various ty*s of long term
illnesses.
True
4) Drinking heavily in the evening could leave you witha high level of alcohol inyour
bloodstream the next mormng.
True
447.- What percentage ofyour desirable maximum pulse rate should you aim to
reach in order to improve your level offitness without putting undue strain on your
heart?
4) Yes.
448.- Halfa pint of beer or lager would usually be equivalent to:
I unit.
449.- Are the statements about diet True or False?
I) Saturated fats can increase the amount of cholesterol in the bloodstream.
true
2) Youshould try to eat at least three portions of different vegetables and fruit every
day
. false
3) Youshould try to eat only very Small amounts of foods containing fatand/or
sugar.
Youdid notanswer a ny of the options on this part of the test
True
450.- Which ofthe diseases listed is not sexually transmitted?
Pneumonia
451.- To which food group do eggs, fish and nuts belong?
Proteins
452.- Exercise is important for maintaining health. What is the minimum amount
recommended to achieve some benefit?
30 minutes 3 times a
453.- The symptoms of sexually transmitted diseases:sw
may include all the above.
454.- In Search ofGood Health (Promoting Healthy Living On Board Ship) Test
Smoking can:
cause all the above.
455.- It'sa mandatory requirement for non crevv members boarding a vessel to
know to do inan emergency.
Correctansvvers= I) True.
456.- The standard signal for a general/abandon ship alarm is:
7 short, I long blast on the ship'swhistZsiren, bell or klaxon
457.- If you need to go through a Powered watertight door, What should you do?
The door must be operated by a trained and com*tent person.
458.- How much breathing time Will an EEBD (Emergency Escape Breathing
Device) give you, ifyou should need to get out of an enclosed space?
10-15 minutes
459.- Who needs to give you clearance to board a ship?
The company/agent and rulaster
460.- As you board the gangway from the quayside, What should you do with your
hands?
Keep them on the ropes on either side of the gangway.
461.- It'syour duty to board the ship, vvhether or notyou are satisfied vvith the
boarding arrangementS. Youdid notanswer a ny of the options on this part of the
test
False.
462.- If you want to enter a space which might have an oxygen deficient or toxic
atmosphers What should you do?
You should not go in
463.- Who should you inform when you leave the ship?
The Master or Chief Oficer
464.- To climba pilot ladder safely,you should keep your from the ladder by leaning
bacz
False
465.- When going on board a shipyoushould take vvithyou a hard hat

withadjustable chinstrap.
True
466.- Safety spectacles can be used to protectyour eyes againstany onboard

hazard.
False.
467.- What should you take with you to signal an emergency ifyou should find
yourself in trouble in a dark space on the ship?
A whistle or blinking light
468.- Inan emergency on board ship,youshould not use an elevator.
True
469.- What's the first thing that happens when you reach the top ofthe gangway or
ladder?
You sign in vvith the gangway watch.
470.- Flip-fiopsare recommended for use while on board in hot climates.
False
471. What kind of portable lighting Will you need if you're going onboard a tanker
or chemical carrier?
An intrinsicallysafe torch
472.- If you notice something on board that's suchasan unguarded opening, or oil
spilled ona walkway,you should report it to a ship's oficer as soonas possible.
True
473.- How can you find out your nearest exit?
Consult the ship's onboard safety plan or aska member of the ship's crevv.
474.- How Will you know when to board the accommodation ladder or gangway?
You'll be instructed to board by the gangway watch.

A permit issued to ensure correct proceduresare followed when hotwork is being

carried out.
476.- What is the "ABANDON SHIP" signal?
A command given only by the Master or his deputy.
477.- Ifyou have to abandon ship What type of clothing is best?
Put on extra clothing, preferably witha waterproof layer on top.
478.- Are the statements about medical emergencies True or False?
I) If there is an accident the first priority is to move the victim somevvhere warm.
False
2) aren minor accidentsshould be reported
True
3) Back injuries can easily result from using incorrect lifting techniques
True.
Water
480.- Drag the correct descriptions into place to match the symbols.
I) Liferaft.2) Primary route.3) Hose box vvith nozzIe.4) Lifejacket. 5) International

shore connection
481.- Where on board would you look for the muster list?
Muster lists must be put up in prominent places throughout the ship, including the
engine roomand crevv accommodati on spaces.
483.- If the accommodation is filling with smoke and fumes, you should:
get out of the space withoutdelay; if necessary by crawling on handsand knees.
484.- What is the muster list?

A list thatspecifies details of the ship'salarms, the ocation of the muster stations,
and actions to be taken by the crevv in an emergency.
485.- What would be your most important reaction on discovering a fire?
Reportit by raising the alarm
486.- Why should a Q02 extinguisher be used with caution in confined areas?
Itwill displace the air and reduce the amount of oxygenavailable.
487.- Complete the sentences about fire extinguishers by dragging the correct
ending onto each one.
Use foam extinguishers on liquid fires.

Use water extinguishers on fires involving carbonaceous materials.
Never use water extinguishers on fires involving electricity.
use C02 or dry povvder extinguishers on liquids or electrical fires.
488.- Are the statements about fire prevention True or False?
I) It's notyour job to prevent visitorssmoking in unauthorised places.
false
2) Youshould never smoke while Iying inyour bunz
true
3) Faulty electrical equipmentshould be taken out of service immediately.
true
489.- Are these statements about hazardous situations True or False?
I) Chemicals can enter the body through the respiratory system.
True
2) Prolonged immersion in hot water can cause dermatitis.
True.
3) Man-made cl Othing protects against static electricity which might cause a fire.
False.
490.- Are these statements about PPE True or False?

I) PPE is your first line of defence against accidents.
False
2) If you're notsure vvhether you're using the right kind of PPE,youshouId stop
vvhatyou're doing and check vvith pur immediate chief or safety officer.
True
491.- Clothing coated with or made from neoprene, rubber etc. is for protection
against:
strong solvents, oilsand grease.
492.- Safety harnesses must be worn when there is a danger offalling
2 metres or more.
493.- Are these statements about head protection True or False?
I) Sunlight causes deterioration to the Shell of the helmet.
True.
2) The bump cap is the of head PPE that provides the most protection.
False.
494.- Are these statements about eye protection True or False?
I) Eyes need to be protected from gases.
True
2) Safety spectacles, goggles, filtersand faceshields all provide the same level of
protection.
False.
495.- Are these statements about foot protection True or False?
I) Wellington boots protectagainst one of the most commonaccidents of and falls.
False.
2) 300ts protectagainst one of the most common problems: knocksand cuts to the
ankles.
True.
496.- Is this statement about fall arrest equipment True or False?
I) You should test fall arrest equipment before use by pulling hard.
True.
497.-Clothing made of bonded olefin is for protection against:
fibresand dust
498.- If your protective gloves come into contact with chemicals, you should:
wash them immediately.
499.- Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about noise
induced hearing loss.
Most noise problems are a bout prolonged exposure to only moderately high
levels. When you're working in an uncomfortable environment, though, which isn't

subject to constant noisg irs tempting to forgetabout protection, but it's alvvays
important.
500.- Are these statements about respiratory protection True or False?
I) Face maskswill help inan oygen deficient environment.
False
2) Most respiratory filtersare like sponges in that they can only absorbso much.
True.
501.- Is this statement about hand and arm protection True or False?
I) You can check the condition of rubber, plasticand latexgloves by blowing into
them to see if they inflate and remain infiated
True.
503.- Is this statement about noise induced hearing loss True or False?
I) Noise induced hearing loss occurs suddenly.
False.
504.- What is the minimum height for toeboard rise on an independent tied
scaffold?
150 mm
505.- A ledger on an independent tied scaffold is:
a pole used to keep the standards in each lift equidistant and strengthened
506.- Are the statements listed about inspections True or False?
I) Any inspection needs to be done by a supervisor.
True.
2) These inspectionsare done to keep the ship's records up to date.
False
3) A bad storm may mean thatanother inspection is required.
True.
4) The main focus of the inspectionshould be the condition of the poles.
False
True.
False.
True.
False.
508.- Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the
storage and use of
scaffolding equipment.
Tubesshould be stored... horizontally.
Steel and... aluminium componentsshould not be mixed vvhenstored.
MDF isseverely weakened when itgets... wet.
It's importantto ensure thatanything metal is nota.. corroded.
509.- What is the recommended maximum height for a free standing mobile tower?
9.6 metres
510.- Which ofthese items of personal protective equipment (PPE) is NOT usually
required when working at height?
Ear protectors
511.- Use your mouse to complete the following sentences correctly.
Scaffoldsshould only be erected on a sound base.
Usually,scaffolds Will be rigidly connected to a
Partly builtscaffoldsshould have notices attached at every point of access.
no answer
All platforms must have edge protection and guardrails, to prevent

materialsfalling.
Platform boards should be securely fixed so that they don't form a risk to anyone
underneath them.
512.- What is the usual rule governing the slope for a ladder when in use?
About I out for every4 up.
513.- Which ofthe faults listed might cause you to reject a ladder as unsafe?
All ofthe above.

514.- Are these statements about risk assessment True or False?
I) Before anyone can workat height, there needs to be a riskassessment.
True
2) Control ling access isa means of helping to provide protection for everyone.
True.
3) The use of individual protective equipment doesn't need to be considered until

after the scaffold has been erected
False.
4) The risk assessment process is complete once erection of the scaffold starts.
False.
515.- Of the questions listed, which does NOT need to be considered before the
erection or use of any access equipment?
How much do the people who Will be using it?
516.- What is the purpose of a tie on an independent tied scaffold?
To restrict any inward and outward movement of the scaffold.
517.- What is the minimum width specified by the regulations for a platform on an
independent tied scaffold?
600mm
518.- Are these statements about working from scaffolds and scaffold towers True
or False?
I) Slight overloading of the structure is permitted if it is for a short time.
False
2) Use of a scaffold tower is not dependent on weather conditions.
False
3) You should never use a ladder on top of a scaffold tower to gain extra height.
True
4) You should only use scaffold towers that have been built by people.
True
5) Any work at all on a scaffold must be covered by a Permit To WorZ
True
421.- When would you fire the pyrotechnics after launching the lifeboats and
liferafts?
When you have sighted the rescue services or Other ships/aircraft.
I) Some domestic substances found on ships are capable of damaging your

health.T
2) Some substances may react dangerously with other substances and should
never be mixed.T
3) It is safe to smoke in bed as long as you stay awake. F
4) It is important to read labels on chemical containers. T
423.- Which statement does not belong? Good health depends on:
I) sensible diet. NO
2) adequate sleep.NO
3) occasional excess of alcohol. YES
4) avoidance of recreational drugs. NO
5) avoi dance of excesses of tobacco. NO
6) regular exercise. NO
424.- Personal Safety in the Accommodation Test
Complete the following sentences by dragging the Correct ending onto each one.
Instruction plates, notices and operating indicators should be disposed of safely.
Flickering lights usually indicate faults in wiring or fittings which may cause electric
shock or fires.
Llany accidents can be prevented by always keeping things ship-shape and doing
things in an orderly fashion.
Dangerous articles such as razor blades and lighted cigarette ends should be
disposed of safely.
425.- Good housekeeping is an essential element in promoting health and safety

on board. Complete the
following sentences on correct procedures
Electric circuits .should not be overloaded.
Fixtures and fittings should be properly maintained.
All work and transit areas should be adequately lit.
Doors and drawers should be properly secured.
Garbage and waste materials should be cleared up and disposed of correctly and
promptly.
426.- Complete the following sentences by dragging the correct ending onto each
one.
Means of access to fire-fighting equipment, emergency escape routes and water

tight doors should never be obstructed.
No alarm system should be isolated without permission of the Master or Chief

Engineer.
Tools and Other equipment should never be left Iying around.
Whenever repairs are in progress warning notices should be posted
one.
Avoid disease by keeping air ducts clean and effective.
Always use handrails on both internal and external stairways.
dangerous equipment such as badly wired domestic appliances.
Don't play or interfere with fire extinguishers as it could cost someone's life.
Do not bring hazardous material into the accommodation.
428.- If you discover a defect in any equipment or a fitting within the

accommodation, such as in the
laundry room, air-conditioning units, tiles, carpets, light fittings etc. you should:
I) make a log book entry. NO
2) fix it best you can.NO
3) complain to the superintendent. NO
4) report it to a responsible person. YES
429.- Electrical fittings in your cabin. Which is the Correct statement?
I) Personal electrical appliances should only be connected to the ship's electrical

supply with approval from a responsible officer. YES
2) Clothing can be left to dry close to cabin heaters or light bulbs.NO
3) Hand pressing irons can be left switched on as long as the iron is left in the
upright position. NO
4) It is in order to use extension plugs In your cabin as long as the plug is fused.
NO
430.- SAFETY SIGNS: Match the symbol against the meaning
I) Prohibition - Do not.„.
2) Warning - Danger.
3) Mandatory –Must do....
4) Emergency escape, First aid and safe Condition - The safe way..
5) Fire Equipment- location or use of fire equipment.
one.
The prevention of fire on board ship is of utmost importance.
Drying clothing on or above the heaters should not be permitted.
Ashtrays or Other suitable containers should be provided and used at places

where smoking is authorised.
All electrical appliances should be firmly secured and served by connections

whenever possible.
one with your mouse.
Know the location of safety equipment in the engine room.
Use protective clothing to protect yourself against cuts,abrasions, heat and

chemicals.
Wear your hard hat to avoid injury from knocks or falling objects.
Remove sources of potential fire danger by good housekeeping.
Clear up spills to avoid slips and falls.
433.- Why is it important to read the labels on chemical containers carefully before
opening them?
I) To find out about any hazards from the contents . YES
2) To find out how to open the container. NO
3) To find out the cost of the contents and avoid waste. NO
4) To find out the quantity in the container .NO
Damaged orworn tools should not be used.
The proper tool of the right size should be used
When not in use, tools should be stowed away.
To avoid in jurya tool in use should be directed away from the body
Oily rags are dangerous if left Iying about.
Safety helmets should be worn in the engine room when there Is a risk of head
injury.
Spilled oil should always be cleared up immediately.
Good engine room housekeeping is essential as a precaution against fire in the

engine room.
If provided, the lifting handles should. be used when a floor plate is removed.
436.- Is it True or False to state the following?
I) Follow the correct procedureswhen operating watertightdoors. T
2) Pre-plan escape routes in case of emergency. T
3) Ordinary prescription spectacles Will afford adequate protection when working in

the engine room. F
437.- Is it True or False to state the following?
I) Remove rings and jewerley so that they don't become caught in moving
machinery. T
2) Spontaneous combustion is unlikely to occur in engine room spaces. F
3) Use your ear defenders to protect your ears against noise.T
438.- Who is responsible for your personal safety in the Engine Room?
I) am responsible for my own safety. (Others may also rely on you.)
439.- What must be done when machinery is not to be used?
2) In all cases, warning notices must be posted at or near the controls
440.- Normally, welding should only be undertaken when;
I) A fire watch is standing by
I) Chemicals should always be handled with the utmost care.T
2) Manufacturers' advice on the correct use of chemicals should always be

followed. T
3) Domestic chemical cleaning agents are harmless. F
4) Chemicals should not be mixed unless it is known that dangerous chemical

reactions Will not be caused.T
442.- The use of gloves. Match each type of glove with the uses suggested.
Rubber, synthetic or A/C g I oves best for handling acids, alkalis, solvents.
Leather gloves best for handling Sharp objects.

Heat resistant gloves best for handling hot objects
443.- The decision and the suitability of any person to undertake electric arc
welding should be taken by:
3) The senior oficer in charge
444.- No alarm system situated in the engine room should be isolated without the
permission of the:
3) Chief Engineer
445.- When alone in the engine room you must follow:
4) The notification procedure
446.- Mark the most important requirement. When going to the cold store, you
should:
3) Tell someone that you are going
447.- Some domestic cleaning substances contain bleach or caustic soda whilst
some disinfectants contain
carbolic acid. Which statement below does not belong?
3) They should be mixed together for Special cleaning requirements.
448.- Are the following statements True or False when you consider your presence
or work in the galley?
I) Large proportion of injuries to catering staff arise from slips and falls. T
2) The galley is the safest place to be working in on board ship. F
3) Broken glass or crockery should be picked up by hand as soon as possible. F
4) Galley staff need not take part in the ship's safety committee discussions. F
449.- What is the main reason that crockery and glassware should not be left
submerged in washing up water?
4) It may easily be broken and cause injury.
450.- The growth of food poisoning bacteria can be minimised by good

temperature control. Which statement does NOT belong?
3) Keep the food Iukewarm

451.- In case of a galley fire:
3) Use a fire blanket or the right type of extinguisher for the fire and raise the alarm
452.- How should knives and boards be used?
I) They should be colour coded and kept for specific food to prevent contamination.
453.- Complete the following sentences:
Catering staff should wear protective clothing when handling food and preparing
meals
Anyone With a septic cut, should stop working with food until it is completely
healed.
There should be no smoking in galleys, pantries,store rooms or Other places

where food is prepared.
Hand sand fingernails should be washed before handling food
It is important to wash hands after using the toilet
454.- Mechanical slicers. Complete the following sentences:
Check Mechanical slicers before you use them.
Mechanical slicers are safe When used correctly.
Never use your fingers to feed the food to the blade.
Never let yourself be distracted when using a mechanical cutter.
455.- Why is it necessary to wear proper footwear in the galley?
4) To avoid broken toes and scalds from spills.
456.- What should you do with food that is beyond the expiry date?
2) Throw it out
457.- Before you touch any food, you should first of all:
3) Make sure that your hands are really clean.
458.- A safe procedure for cleaning machines in the galley should be established.
For example, guards on slicing machines:
3) When removed for cleaning, should be securely replaced immediately the job is
done.
459.-What action should you take after making a spill?
2) Clear it up right away
460.- Galleys and pantries present particular fire risks. Care should be taken in
particular.
4) To avoid overheating or spilling fat or oil.
I) The health of people on board depends on the galley staff doing their job
properly. T
2) Because you carry out a task every day, there is no risk of injury in the galley. F
3) Temperature control is important in the preparation of microwave packs. T
4) You may leave the galley when food is cooking for a prolonged period of time.F
462.- Indiscriminate use of water in hosing down and washing equipment in the
galley can be very dangerous particularly around electric installations.
Dry cloths or holders and oven gloves should always be used to handle hot pans
and dishes
No one should be directly in front of an oven when the door is opened.
Catering staff should not at tempt to repair electric or o il fired ranges or microwave
ovenS.
Range guard rails should always be used in rough
463.- What precautions, if any, should be taken when water is used to hose down
and wash the galley?
2) Indiscriminate use of water in the galley is dangerous. Power to electrical

installations should be isolated.
Use protective clothing to protect yourself against cuts, abrasions, heat and
chemicals.
Clear up spills to avoid slips and falls.
Remove sources of potential fire danger by good housekeeping.
464.- The statements about personal protective equipment True or False?
I) Use your ear defenders to protect your ears against noise.T
2) Masks should be used whenever you work near dusty cargoes. T
3) While working on deck no Special foot wear is required. F
465.- Who is responsible for your personal safety on board?
I) am responsible for my own safety. (Others mayalso rely onyou.)
466.- Are the statements about possible hazards on bulk carriers True or False?
I) Opening access hatches could result in the release of flammable vapours. T
2) Any work with a naked flame or with weIding equipment requires the issuing of a
Permit to Work .T
3) Opening and closing the hatch covers is not likely to create any hazards. F
467.- Gas leaks should be investigated by:
2) authorised crew members wearing appropriate PPE.
468.- If you work alone you should:
I) let someone know where you are going.
469.- Are the statements about safety procedures True or False?
I) everyone should know the location of hazardous cargo and procedures for
dealing with it. T
2) You should never smoke in cargo spaces under any circumstances. T
3) When handling refrigerants such as CFCs,you shouId follow the safety

regulations.T
470.- Are the statements about safety procedures True or False?
I) You should consult the IMDG Code for recommended procedures about
hazardous cargo.T
2) 3efore connecting a temperature controlled container to power, you should
always ensure that the power switch is on. F
3) You should treat all cargo spills as hazardous until you know otherwise.T
471.- If you must be on deck in heavy weather, you should
I) wear a safety line.
472.- When checking the tops of containers for loose items, you should:
4) use a portable ladder and someone to hold it.
473. I) There is a constant risk of being struck by containers being handled either
on board ship or on the d ockside. T
2) On the can use any route to your ship. F
3) Only the cargo handlers are responsible for keeping access routes Clear of
obstructions. –F
474.- It is best to work:
3) in pairs.
475.- If there is a container fire with hazardous cargo, it should be dealt with by:
I) all available means and following the advice given in the IMDG Code.
521.- How often should freefall lifeboats normally be launched, as a minimum?
Correct answer: At least once every Six months.
522.- Muster lists can be found in the engine control room, bridge and
accommodation spaces such as the mess room. Correct answer: True
On passenger ships, Muster Cards Will include information on how to put on their
lifejacket.
Only certain of lifejacket have to be fitted with a light and a whistle. Correct
answer: False
523.- New crew members must be given a safety familiarization tour.

Correct answer: within 24 hours of joining the ship.
524.- Which of those listed is NOT a duty for Crew members, as specified on the
muster list?
Correct answer: Sounding the general emergency alarm signal.
525.- Which of the statements about lifebuoys is NOT true?
Correct answer: Lifebuoys must be permanently secured on each side of the ship.
526.- What is the most detailed source of information available on the ship about
emergency procedures, survival and rescue techniques?
Correct answer: The ship's SOLAS training manual.
527.- What is the SOLAS Convention?
Correct answer: The "International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea".
528.- What action should be taken after a drill has been conducted on board?
Correct answer: Itis essential to hold a debrief at the end of a drill.
529.- What is it essential to do before holding a lifeboat drill?
Correct answer: Check the lifeboats and their release gear thoroughly.
530.- What is a FPD?
Correct answer: Fall Preventer Device.
531.- The general emergency alarm signal is:
Correct answer: 7 or more short blasts followed by one long blast sounded on the
ship's whistle, siren, bell or klaxon.
532.- How often should rescue boat drills be held, as a minimum?
Correct answer: Once every three months.
Correct answer: A list that provides Clear instructions for every person on board to
follow in the event of an emergency.
534.- Which of the pieces of equipment listed Will you NOT need to take with you
when you board the life boat?
Correct answer: Pyrotechnics.
535.- What are the gripes?
Correct answer: They secure the lifeboats to the davits when stowed.
537.- When launching a fully enclosed lifeboat, the FPDs should be removed:
Correct answer: just before the boat reaches the water.
538.- Why is it important for evacuees to board a freefall lifeboat extremely

carefully?
Correct answer: because it is in the stowed position and therefore at a steep angle.
539.- Accidents can result from improperly reset on/offload release mechanisms.
Which of the actions listed to avoid this happening does NOT belong on the list?
Correct answer: Make yourself fully aware of the paint coating required and grease
all moving parts.
540.- All on-load release systems must have built in safeguards against early
release.
When the boat is at a safe distance from the ship, the painter should be released.
A freefall lifeboat should be abandoned if the engine does not start.
541.- What is a SART?
Correct answer: A survival craft radar transponder.
542.- If your lifeboat has an internal air supply, how long Will the constant flow of
air last?
Correct answer: A minimum of 10 minutes
544.- A fully enclosed lifeboat's descent can be stopped at any time by:
Correct answer: releasing the tension on the brake control cable.

545.- At What point during the launch procedure are the doors and hatches
Correct answer: Once everyone is inside.
546.- Once the partially enclosed lifeboat has been lowered to the embarkation
deck and securely bowsed, what is the next Step in the launching procedure?
Correct answer: The person in charge and lifeboat crew enter the boat and prepare
to board the evacuees.
547.- When getting Clear of the stricken ship, what is the recommended
procedure?
Correct answer: Make sure the lifeboat is half a mile upwind from the ship.
548.- The shelters on partially enclosed lifeboats are created by:
Correct answer: a combination of rigid covers and folding canopies
549.- Which type of lifeboat is launched from a ramp?
Correct answer: Freefall lifeboats.
550.- Once the inflation of the davit-launched liferaft is complete, what should the
Correct answer: To pull the liferaft in tight so that it can be made fast, ready for
boarding.
551.- As evacuees enter the liferaft, the supervising crew members sitting at the
entrance should:
Correct answer: direct one evacuee to the left and one to the right, and so on.
552.- When may you leave the ship and board the liferaft?
Correct answer: When the master or their deputy gives the order.
553.- Why is it important to keep the bowsing lines within the raft?
Correct answer: So that they Will be prevented from snagging and tipping up the
raft while it is being lowered
554.- The priority after launching the liferaft is to get Clear of the ship using any
means possible.

Marine Evacuation Systems have the disadvantage that evacuees may have to
enter the water before getting into the liferaft.
Once a throw overboard liferaft is in the water, you should rig the embarkation
ladder.
555.- SOLAS specifies that it must be possible to evacuate a ship within
556.- What is the first action in launching a davit-launched liferaft?
Correct answer: Remove the ship's side rails.
557.- How many people are normally needed to right a 25 person liferaft?
Correct answer:1
558.- What is the first action when boarding a throw overboard liferaft?
Correct answer: Check the liferaft for leaks and damage.
559.- When launching a davit-launched liferaft, and you have pulled the liferaft
Correct answer: Hook it on to the davit.
560.- What should you do f water enters the life raft?
Correct answer: Bail it out as soon as possible, using the baler and/or sponge.
561.- Which throw overboard liferafts have hydrostatic release?
Correct answer: All liferafts except the ones stored forward.
562.- How are thrown overboard liferafts inflated?
Correct answer: By giving a strong pull on the painter at its full extent.
operation?

564.- There are four main dangers faced by evacuees in a survival craft. Which
item does not belong in this list?
Correct answer: Inability to sleep
565.- Immersion suits should be put on and zipped up before entering an enclosed
lifeboat.
567.- How long can a well-nourished person normally survive without water?
Correct answer: 3-4 days
568.- How much water should be given per day after the first 24 hours?
Correct answer: 0.5 liters
569.- Look-out watches should be kept:
Correct answer: 24 hours a day.
570.- Which piece of equipment transmits a distress signal with your vessel's
unique serial number?
Correct answer: EPIRB
571.- Which piece of equipment communicates with nearby vessels' radar?
Correct answer: SART
572.- Which piece of signalling equipment is used for long range signalling?
Correct answer: Parachute flare
573.- What is the heliograph used for?
Correct answer: As a means of signalling by reflecting the light of the sun
574.- If you have had to enter the water, what is the best course of action?
Correct answer: Find an object to climb on to.
575.- Which piece of signalling equipment Will help helicopter pilots judge the
surface wind Speed and direction?
Correct answer: Smoke float

576.- What's the normal method of winching a single uninjured person into a
helicopter from a ship?
Correct answer: A rescue hook or strop
577.- What's the minimum number of crew required in the rescue boat?
Correct answer: 3 people
578.- When launching a rescue boat, what should the ship's Speed be?
Correct answer: No more than 5 knots
579.- What is the function of the inside watchman on board an inflated raft?
Correct answer: To check on injured personnel and on the state of the survival
craft
580.- Shock is a state of collapse that may occur after any serious injury. How
should victims be treated?
Correct answer: They should be kept warm, laid fiat and, if conscious, given
frequent sips of water — except for those with stomach injuries.
On bulk carriers, the following type of lifeboat is likely to be presnt:
Open lifeboat
Partially
Free fall life boat
Sailing lifeboat
The hydrostatic release unit shall be permanently marked on its exterior with
its type and serial number .
True
False
In the case of lifeboat to be launched by falls, the boat hooks shall be kept
free for fending-off purposes.
True
False
When using a life-line, the signal : 3 tugs by the wearer menas:
I am alrigth
Pull me out
I need more stack
Pick up the slack
The boarding ramp on a life raft shall be fitted at the entrance opposite the
browsing lines and the embarkation facilities.
True
False
out?

should
431.- If someone is suffering from hypoglycaemia, then their.
blood sugar is too lovv.
432.- A casualty having an asthma attack Will have:
pale skin, noisy breathing and fast pulse
433.- A casualty has swallowed cleaning fluid. You should:
give them sips of water to drinz
434.- Which ofthe symptoms listed could indicate a spinal injury?
Any of the above
435.- In hypothermia the casualty Will be:
pale, vvitha Slow pulse
436.- On rescue, a hypothermic casualty is unconscious. You should:
vvrap them in blankets.
437.- A casualty with heat stroke is:
red withastrong pulse.
438.- What is the maximum recommended daily alcohol consumption for a man?
3-4 units
439.- Are the statements about skin cancer True or False?
I) People vvith dark coloured skinsdo not need to worry about..000000000000ing

skin cancer.
false
2) It'sa good idea to wear sun screenand avoid the midday sun where possible.
true
3) A change ina mole onyour skin, particularly if itgets bigger, bleeds or changes
colour should be checked by a doctor.
True
440.- Are the statements about care ofteeth and gums True or False?
I) Keeping pur gums healthy isas importantas looking after your teeth themselves.
true
2) Smoking can make gumdisease worse and your teeth Will usually became
stained from the cigarette smoke.
true
3) Your brushing should try to remove the layer of which contains bacteria from
vvhere it collectsat the base of teeth.
True
441.- Which type of Hepatitis is often sexually transmitted?
2) Yes.
442.- Maize, bananas and bread consist mostly of:
carbohydrate.
445.- On average, how many calories a day do men that are fairly active require to
maintain their weight?
3000
446.- Are the statements about alcohol consumption True or False?
I) Men can normally consume more alcohol than women vvithout ill effects
. True
2) Overweight people candrink more thana thin person vvithout ill effects.
False.
3) Regularly drinking too much increases the risk of various ty*s of long term
illnesses.
True
4) Drinking heavily in the evening could leave you witha high level of alcohol inyour
bloodstream the next mormng.
True
447.- What percentage ofyour desirable maximum pulse rate should you aim to
reach in order to improve your level offitness without putting undue strain on your
heart?
4) Yes.
448.- Halfa pint of beer or lager would usually be equivalent to:
I unit.
449.- Are the statements about diet True or False?
I) Saturated fats can increase the amount of cholesterol in the bloodstream.
true
2) Youshould try to eat at least three portions of different vegetables and fruit every
day
. false
3) Youshould try to eat only very Small amounts of foods containing fatand/or
sugar.
Youdid notanswer a ny of the options on this part of the test
True
450.- Which ofthe diseases listed is not sexually transmitted?
Pneumonia
451.- To which food group do eggs, fish and nuts belong?
Proteins
452.- Exercise is important for maintaining health. What is the minimum amount
recommended to achieve some benefit?
30 minutes 3 times a
453.- The symptoms of sexually transmitted diseases:sw
may include all the above.
454.- In Search ofGood Health (Promoting Healthy Living On Board Ship) Test
Smoking can:
cause all the above.
455.- It'sa mandatory requirement for non crevv members boarding a vessel to
know to do inan emergency.
Correctansvvers= I) True.
456.- The standard signal for a general/abandon ship alarm is:
7 short, I long blast on the ship'swhistZsiren, bell or klaxon
457.- If you need to go through a Powered watertight door, What should you do?
The door must be operated by a trained and com*tent person.
459.- Who needs to give you clearance to board a ship?
The company/agent and rulaster
460.- As you board the gangway from the quayside, What should you do with your
hands?
Keep them on the ropes on either side of the gangway.

461.- It'syour duty to board the ship, vvhether or notyou are satisfied vvith the
boarding arrangementS. Youdid notanswer a ny of the options on this part of the
test
False.
462.- If you want to enter a space which might have an oxygen deficient or toxic
atmosphers What should you do?
You should not go in
463.- Who should you inform when you leave the ship?
The Master or Chief Oficer
464.- To climba pilot ladder safely,you should keep your from the ladder by leaning
bacz
False
465.- When going on board a shipyoushould take vvithyou a hard hat

withadjustable chinstrap.
True
466.- Safety spectacles can be used to protectyour eyes againstany onboard

hazard.
False.
467.- What should you take with you to signal an emergency ifyou should find
yourself in trouble in a dark space on the ship?
A whistle or blinking light
468.- Inan emergency on board ship,youshould not use an elevator.
True
469.- What's the first thing that happens when you reach the top ofthe gangway or
ladder?
You sign in vvith the gangway watch.
470.- Flip-fiopsare recommended for use while on board in hot climates.

False
471. What kind of portable lighting Will you need if you're going onboard a tanker
or chemical carrier?
An intrinsicallysafe torch
472.- If you notice something on board that's suchasan unguarded opening, or oil
spilled ona walkway,you should report it to a ship's oficer as soonas possible.
True
473.- How can you find out your nearest exit?
Consult the ship's onboard safety plan or aska member of the ship's crevv.
474.- How Will you know when to board the accommodation ladder or gangway?
You'll be instructed to board by the gangway watch.
A permit issued to ensure correct proceduresare followed when hotwork is being

carried out.
476.- What is the "ABANDON SHIP" signal?
477.- Ifyou have to abandon ship What type of clothing is best?
Put on extra clothing, preferably witha waterproof layer on top.
478.- Are the statements about medical emergencies True or False?
I) If there is an accident the first priority is to move the victim somevvhere warm.
False
2) aren minor accidentsshould be reported
True
3) Back injuries can easily result from using incorrect lifting techniques
True.
Water
480.- Drag the correct descriptions into place to match the symbols.
I) Liferaft.2) Primary route.3) Hose box vvith nozzIe.4) Lifejacket. 5) International

shore connection
481.- Where on board would you look for the muster list?
Muster lists must be put up in prominent places throughout the ship, including the
engine roomand crevv accommodati on spaces.
483.- If the accommodation is filling with smoke and fumes, you should:
get out of the space withoutdelay; if necessary by crawling on handsand knees.
A list thatspecifies details of the ship'salarms, the ocation of the muster stations,
and actions to be taken by the crevv in an emergency.
485.- What would be your most important reaction on discovering a fire?
Reportit by raising the alarm
486.- Why should a Q02 extinguisher be used with caution in confined areas?
Itwill displace the air and reduce the amount of oxygenavailable.
487.- Complete the sentences about fire extinguishers by dragging the correct
Use foam extinguishers on liquid fires.

Use water extinguishers on fires involving carbonaceous materials.
Never use water extinguishers on fires involving electricity.
use C02 or dry povvder extinguishers on liquids or electrical fires.
488.- Are the statements about fire prevention True or False?
I) It's notyour job to prevent visitorssmoking in unauthorised places.
false
2) Youshould never smoke while Iying inyour bunz
true
3) Faulty electrical equipmentshould be taken out of service immediately.

true
489.- Are these statements about hazardous situations True or False?
I) Chemicals can enter the body through the respiratory system.
True
2) Prolonged immersion in hot water can cause dermatitis.
True.
3) Man-made cl Othing protects against static electricity which might cause a fire.
False.
490.- Are these statements about PPE True or False?
I) PPE is your first line of defence against accidents.
False
2) If you're notsure vvhether you're using the right kind of PPE,youshouId stop
vvhatyou're doing and check vvith pur immediate chief or safety officer.
True
491.- Clothing coated with or made from neoprene, rubber etc. is for protection
against:
strong solvents, oilsand grease.
492.- Safety harnesses must be worn when there is a danger offalling
2 metres or more.
493.- Are these statements about head protection True or False?
I) Sunlight causes deterioration to the Shell of the helmet.
True.
2) The bump cap is the of head PPE that provides the most protection.
False.
494.- Are these statements about eye protection True or False?
I) Eyes need to be protected from gases.

True
2) Safety spectacles, goggles, filtersand faceshields all provide the same level of
protection.
False.
495.- Are these statements about foot protection True or False?
I) Wellington boots protectagainst one of the most commonaccidents of and falls.
False.
2) 300ts protectagainst one of the most common problems: knocksand cuts to the
ankles.
True.
496.- Is this statement about fall arrest equipment True or False?
I) You should test fall arrest equipment before use by pulling hard.
True.
497.-Clothing made of bonded olefin is for protection against:
fibresand dust
498.- If your protective gloves come into contact with chemicals, you should:
wash them immediately.
499.- Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about noise
induced hearing loss.
Most noise problems are a bout prolonged exposure to only moderately high
levels. When you're working in an uncomfortable environment, though, which isn't

subject to constant noisg irs tempting to forgetabout protection, but it's alvvays
important.
500.- Are these statements about respiratory protection True or False?
I) Face maskswill help inan oygen deficient environment.
False
2) Most respiratory filtersare like sponges in that they can only absorbso much.
True.
501.- Is this statement about hand and arm protection True or False?
I) You can check the condition of rubber, plasticand latexgloves by blowing into
them to see if they inflate and remain infiated
True.
502.- All seafarers must receive familiarization and basic safety training and
instruction in respect of PPE under.
the STCW/ convention.
503.- Is this statement about noise induced hearing loss True or False?
I) Noise induced hearing loss occurs suddenly.
False.
504.- What is the minimum height for toeboard rise on an independent tied
scaffold?
150 mm
505.- A ledger on an independent tied scaffold is:
a pole used to keep the standards in each lift equidistant and strengthened
True.
False
True.
False
True.
False.
True.
False.
508.- Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the
storage and use of
scaffolding equipment.
Tubesshould be stored... horizontally.
Steel and... aluminium componentsshould not be mixed vvhenstored.
MDF isseverely weakened when itgets... wet.
It's importantto ensure thatanything metal is nota.. corroded.
509.- What is the recommended maximum height for a free standing mobile tower?
9.6 metres
510.- Which ofthese items of personal protective equipment (PPE) is NOT usually
required when working at height?
Ear protectors
511.- Use your mouse to complete the following sentences correctly.
Scaffoldsshould only be erected on a sound base.
Usually,scaffolds Will be rigidly connected to a

Partly builtscaffoldsshould have notices attached at every point of access.
no answer
All platforms must have edge protection and guardrails, to prevent

materialsfalling.
Platform boards should be securely fixed so that they don't form a risk to anyone
underneath them.
512.- What is the usual rule governing the slope for a ladder when in use?
About I out for every4 up.
513.- Which ofthe faults listed might cause you to reject a ladder as unsafe?
All ofthe above.
514.- Are these statements about risk assessment True or False?
I) Before anyone can workat height, there needs to be a riskassessment.
True
2) Control ling access isa means of helping to provide protection for everyone.
True.
3) The use of individual protective equipmentdoesn't need to be considered until

after the scaffold has been erected
False.
4) The risk assessment process is complete once erection of the scaffold startS.
False.
515.- Of the questions listed, which does NOT need to be considered before the
erection or use ofany access equipment?
How much do the people who Will be using it?
516.- What is the purpose ofa tie on an independent tied scaffold?
To restrict any invvard and outward movement of the scaffold.

517.- What is the minimum width specified by the regulations for a platform on an
independent tied scaffold?
600mm
518.- Are these statements about working from scaffolds and scaffold towers True
or False?
I) Slight overloading of the structure is permitted if it is for a short time.
False
2) Use of a scaffold tower is notdependent on vveather conditions.
False
3) Youshould never use a ladder on top of a scaffold tower to gain extra height.
True
4) Youshould only use scaffold towers that have been built by people.
True
5) Any workatall ona scaffold must be covered by a Permit To WorZ
True

out?

should
- Personal Survival Series Part 2 - Lifeboats (Edition 2)
INTRODUCTION
However well designed and built a ship is, however carefully maintained the
equipment is, and however thoroughly prepared the crew are, emergencies will
always happen, Although your best course of action in an emergency is to stay on
ship if you can, it is possible that a serious fire or explosion, a collision, a grounding
or a leak could force you into the survival craft.
And on that day, your life — and other people's — Will depend on your behaviour,
skills and qualities, and those of your fellow seafarers.
 Correct procedures for mustering and leaving the ship must be followed
 You Will have to be completely familiar with your ship's survival craft and
how they should be launched and boarded, and with the signalling
equipment and pyrotechnics
 Leadership qualities WII be required, to enable an orderly and efficient
evacuation
 You must have the ability to stay calm and positive
Warning: If an evacuation should be necessary, do not jump into the Sea except
as a last resort, as the chances of surviving in cold water are very small.
Personal survival, SOLAS and the LSA Code
In the 19th century, all you could do in the event of an emergency at sea was rely
on your lifejacket and the wooden lifeboats, and hope that another ship soon
spotted you.
A number of regulations existed, but it was the loss of the White Star liner Titanic
that gave the greatest impetus to the development of international rules governing
safety of life at sea. After the 1912 disaster in which 1,503 people lost their lives,
the United Kingdom called maritime nations to a conference to draft a new
International convention for the safety Of Life at sea - the 1914 SOLAS convention.
The SOLAS Convention laid down rules that for the first time were internationally
applicable, and although the treaty has gone through many revisions since then,
many of the basic requirernents still stand, including:
• The "fundamental principle" that there should be enough space in the lifeboats for
everyone on board
• Lifejackets to be carried for every person on board requirements for embarkation

and stowage of lifeboats and liferafts
• Emergency lighting
• Special duties in an emergency to be allocated to each member of the crew
 regular musters of the crews, followed by boat and fire drills


SOLAS is still the most important international on maritime safety. Its Chapter Ill
‘Life-saving appliances and arrangements' relates closely to personal survival. As it
sets out for lifeboats, rescue boats and lifejackets according to type of ship.
The International Life-saving Appliance (I-SAI Code gives specific technical
requirements for life-saving appliances and is mandatory under SOLAS Regulation
111/34.
A lifeboat can be a life saver if it becomes necessary to abandon ship. But it

requires good seamanship skills to board and launch a lifeboat successfully, often
at a considerable height from the sea, especially in severe weather conditions and
at night, and as quickly as possible before the ship sinks.
These skills can only be gained by acquiring knowledge about the techniques and
procedures required for specific types of survival craft, and, most importantly, from
hands-on experience acquired through doing regular drills and, if possible, getting
involved in the maintenance of the equipment.
2.1 Types of lifeboat
The types of lifeboat most commonly found on ships are:
 davit-launched lifeboats, which are lowered to the waterline and secured

to the davits with gripes when stowed. This type of survival craft may be fully
enclosed, partially enclosed, or — increasingly rarely — open lifeboats.
 freefall lifeboats, which are launched from a ramp, without any restraining
apparatus, The occupants are secured by a harness and sit on shock
absorbent seats. This type of lifeboat is capable of floating free if the parent
ship should sink.
Familiarise yourself with which type(s) of lifeboat you have on board, and their
davit arrangements and type of release hook mechanisms, by looking at the ship's
SOLAS training manual (which can normally be found on the bridge, in the engine
control room and in accommodation areas such as the mess room and/or
recreation room).
Instructions for how to launch the lifeboats will be posted at muster and boarding
points.
TRAINER QUESTIONS
What type(s) of lifeboat does the ship have?
Have you consulted the SOLAS training manual to find out how they operate?
2.2 Before you board the lifeboat
Which lifeboat?
Find out which lifeboat you have been assigned to by consulting the Muster List,
and/or your Personal Muster Card. You should also be familiar with your lifeboat
from the regular abandon ship drills.
When to board?
No-one should board a lifeboat until the appropriate signal, as indicated on the
Muster List, has been received. (Normally the order to abandon ship is given
verbally by the Master or their deputy.)
What if your lifeboat is inaccessible?
If there should be a fire on one side of the ship, or another factor that prevents you
from launching your allotted lifeboat: go to the other side of the ship. Each side's
lifeboats WIII be able to cater for the whole crew.
What to check?
Before boarding, check whether the hooks are of the on-load type. If so, are FPDs
(Fall Preventer Devices) in place? If they are not the boat may not be confirmed
safe to enter.
What to bring?
Depending on your duties in an emergency, you may have to collect and bring with
you the supplies and equipment that will be needed for the time you will be
spending in the lifeboat: radio, extra food and water, extra cloth 'ng, SART (if it is
not already in the lifeboat), and EPIRB.
Remember that nobody is allowed to carry luggage on to a lifeboat. Everyone

should be wearing a lifejacket, but you may have to take it off if there is not enough
room to fit everyone in the lifeboat, Immersion suits should be carried, rather than
worn, unless you will be boarding an open lifeboat.
 If you work on a ferry or cruise ship, your duty may include assisting
passengers to put on their lifejackets.
Calming nervous passengers by explaining the boarding and launching procedure
will help to evacuate the ship quickly and safely.
TRAINER QUESTIONS
 What are your duties in an emergency?
 Where are the following emergency items located?
(a) SART
(b) EPIRB
(c) Drinking water and non-perishable food
(d) Flares
2.3 Launching procedure: Fully enclosed lifeboat
Preparing to launch
Once permission to board has been given by the bridge or by the lifeboat crew, the
launching procedure can begin.
1. Check that the water is free of obstacles and/or persons

2. Check that the harbour pins, lifeboat gripes and brake lever locking pin have
been removed.
3. Check that FPDs are in place (except in boats with locking devices at the
hooks)
4. Disconnect the power plug from the ship.
5. Lower the embarkation ladder.
6. Insert the drain plugs.
7. Pass the painter out of the forward hatch and secure it, if not already rigged.
8. Direct the evacuees to their seats and instruct them to strap themselves
firmly into their seats. Even distribution of weight is important,
9. Once everyone is inside, secure the doors and hatches.
10. The person in charge starts the engine.
Lowering the lifeboat into the water
If the lifeboat has to be lowered from on board the ship using the brake release
lever, the person who lowered the boat should then climb down the embarkation
ladder to board the lifeboat. This can be an extremely hazardous operation so you
should follow your company's safety procedures carefully.
Alternatively, you can lower the lifeboat from inside the boat. The person in charge
pulls on the self-lowering cable to start the descent and goes on pulling down until
it cannot be pulled any further.
The speed of descent will be controlled by the brake control cable on the davit and
it can be stopped at any time by releasing the tension on the cable.
Care with the gripes
People can be injured and the boat damaged if the gripes are fouled during the
lowering process, To reduce the risk of this happening:
 clear the auto release gripes manually beforehand

 release the gripes and move them clear of the boat before the boat is
moved
On-load and off-load release mechanisms
There are two methods of release on lifeboats and rescue boats:
1. 'off-load', which are fixed hook releases that only permit release when the
falls are slack, i.e. ‘off load'
2. 'on-load,' when the lifeboat can be released with the load on the hooks.
Safeguards
All on-load release systems must have built in safeguards against early release,
ensuring that both falls are released at the same time There are different types of
gear, and your SOLAS training manual will contain a detailed description of the
release mechanism fitted to the survival craft on your ship.
Familiarise yourself with how the release mechanism works
To minimise the risk of accidents, you should carefully read the manufacturer's
handbook for:
 the correct procedures and operation of the release mechanism, including

the procedure for resetting it after use'
 the safety checks that should be carried out
 how the rest of the launching equipment works
• Accidents have occurred because the lifeboats' release mechanisms were not
properly reset when they were last used, causing the system to release
prematurely during a launch or recovery.
Fall Preventer Devices (FPDs)
The purpose of FPDs is to prevent accidents during launching and recovery that
could result from failure with the hook release system. Often, the devices are in the
form of strops or slings. Wires or chains should not be used as FPDs as they do
not absorb shock loads,
It is extremely important that the ship's operating crew should be familiar with the
release equipment fitted to the lifeboat on their ship. Use of these should be as per
the company/Master's instructions, and detailed instructions on FPDs should be as
per the company/Master's instructions, and detailed instructions on FPDs should
be available in the ship's SOLAS training manual and/or at the launching stations.
TRAINER QUESTIONS
 What FPDs are our lifeboats equipped with?

 How do they work?
Launching the fully enclosed lifeboat step by step
1. Halt the lifeboat descent just before it reaches the water and adjust the
painter if required,
2. The person in charge should order the removal of the FPDs, just before the
boat reaches the water. As soon as this has been done, the crew member
should report back to the person in charge.
3. Lower the boat into the water and release the falls immediately.
4. Put the engine in gear.
5. Turn the lifeboat's rudder away from the ship.
6. Once the boat is at a safe distance, the painter should be released, and the
boat manoeuvred away.
2.4 Launching procedure: Partially enclosed lifeboats
Partially enclosed lifeboats have rigid covers over at least 20% of their length at
both ends, forming two shelters. There are folding canopies that two people can
erect over the open parts.
The release gear on partially enclosed lifeboats is similar to the type on totally
enclosed boats, but, as with all lifeboats, there are many variations in the system.
For example, if your vessel has an extending arm or sliding beam davits, you will
need to remove the sliphook of the gripes and the rest of the securing system
before the operation can begin.
TRAINER QUESTION
 If you have a partially enclosed lifeboat, are you familiar with its release
system?
1. The winch operator lowers the lifeboat to the embarkation deck where it is
securely bowsed alongside.
2. The person in charge and lifeboat crew enter the boat and prepare to board the
evacuees.
3. Boarding can begin.

 To enable a smooth boarding operation for passengers, the lifeboat party
will have opened the ship's rails and positioned the steps before directing
passengers to their seats.
4. The order to launch is given and the boat lowered to the waterline, either by a
winch operator or from within the boat.
5. Once in the water, the person in charge would release the boat from the falls
and clear the vessel as in Section 2.3 above.
• Is the area where the lifeboat will land free of obstacles?
10. If all the answers are affirmative, the release handle can be operated and the
lifeboat launched.
TRAINER QUESTIONS
 If your ship has freefall lifeboats, are you familiar with the type of safety
harness seat belt?
 How does it work?
2.6 What to do once the lifeboat is in the water
Getting clear
Getting clear of the stricken ship as fast as possible is now top priority. Judging the
safe distance from the ship is up to the person in charge and depends on
prevailing conditions and the type of emergency. A minimum distance would be a
ship's length, but half a mile upwind would be safe in all conditions.
Evacuees must immediately take anti seasickness tablets, as vomiting leads to

dehydration.
The person in charge now uses the onboard radio to contact the other survival craft
and get them together. Grouping the craft is important, as they will be more visible
to potential rescuers. It also helps to reduce an sense of isolation.
Activating the detection equipment
Once clear of the ship, the EPIRB (distress beacon) should be activated and
secured to the survival craft, and the SART (rescue transponder) should also be
mounted.
This equipment has limited battery life and operation.
Remember: when using a SART, do not use a radar reflector at the same time.
If the lifeboat should roll over
Modern designs of totally enclosed Iifeboats are designed to be self righting in the
event of capsizing, and the occupants will be held secure by their
harnesses/restraints.
Everyone should stay strapped into their seats, to minimise the risk of injury.
Extra protection
Some lifeboats have external cooling systems in case of fire, and internal air
supplies.
External cooling systems
In a fire, the external cooling system will cover the surface of the boat in water, It
must therefore only be operated with the embarkation hatch closed, so that water
cannot get into the lifeboat To activate it, the suction valve must be opened to allow
saltwater into the system.
With a sprinkler system, once the lifeboat is in the water, the spray pump is driven
by the engine. However, it is important to increase the RPM (revolutions per
minute) before putting the engine in gear or it may stall because of the added load
of the pump.
The system should always be flushed with fresh water after use in a drill.
Internal air supply
Some lifeboats have an internal air supply which is operated by opening individual
air bottles and the main air manifold. Some lifeboats have an internal air supply
which is operated by opening individual air manifold. The system will supply a
constant flow of air for a minimum of 10 minutes — enough to get the lifeboat's
occupants clear of burning oil or other noxious gases and smoke.
TRAINER QUESTIONS
 Are the lifeboats on the ship equipped with external cooling systems and/or
an internal air supply?
 If so, are you familiar with how to use them?
2.7 The importance of leadership
It is the role of the person in charge to take command of the evacuees and their
good leadership will be an important factor in everyone's survival. Bear in mind that
if you have passengers in the craft, they may need extra reassurance — your calm
and well rehearsed attitude towards the situation can be a great help.
Key points
 Your ship is your best lifeboat — do not leave it unless absolutely necessary
and never jump overboard unless there is no alternative.
 Knowing how to operate your ship's Iifeboat systems correctly could save
your life and other people's, so it is strongly recommended to spend time
reading your vessel's Muster List and SOLAS Training Manual.
There is no substitute for hands-on experience, which is why lifeboat drills are so
invaluable.
Whatever happens, try to stay calm and focused — this will reassure other people,
reduce the likelihood of making mistakes, and increase the chances of survival for
everybody on board.
3 APPENDICES
3.1 Glossary
Bowsing: The term 'bowsing' when used with regard to lifeboats and liferafts
means to pull/haul the boat/raft in to the ship's side with a tackle, to facilitate
boarding.
Davit-launched lifeboat/liferaft: A survival craft that is lowered to the waterline

while still attached to the davit falls, the speed of descent being controlled by the
davit winch brake.
EPIRB (Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon): This is a sophisticated

battery-operated radio beacon that transmits a signal with the vessel's unique
serial number, and (if the device also has a GPS receiver) the user's location: so
that a rescue co-ordination centre can identify them and so that rescuers in planes
or vessels can find the EPIRB It can be activated manually, and will activate
automatically when immersed in water.
Fall Preventer Device (FPD): A means of preventing accidents during launching

and recovery that could result from failure with the hook release system. FPDs
include strops, slings and hook-locking devices.
Free-Fall Lifeboat: A survival craft that drops to the waterline solely under the
influence of gravity and is not attached to the davit once it has been released,
Hanging off Pennant: A wire or strop that attaches the survival craft directly to the
davit for use when performing maintenance on the falls or release hook.
Harbour Pin: A pin that prevents the operation of the davit. Traditionally used to
prevent accidental release while alongside in port.
Hypothermia: This potentially fatal condition sets in when the body's core
temperature drops below 350C,
GMDSS (Global Maritime Distress and Safety System): Advanced

communication technology equipment such as EPIRBs and SARTs. Under
SOLAS, every cargo ship over 300 GT and every passenger ship engaged on
international voyages must have the means of providing essential GMDSS
functions including transmitting and receiving ship-to-shore distress alerts,
transmitting signals for locating, and transmitting and receiving ship-to-ship distress
alerts.
Immersion suit: A protective suit which reduces the body heat loss of a person
wearing it in cold water.
Lifeboat: A rigid boat used for abandoning ship in an emergency. These are
normally enclosed or partially enclosed, though open lifeboats may still be in use
on older ships.
Liferaft: An inflatable survival craft with a canopy, often equipped with hydrostatic
release.
MRCC: Maritime Rescue Co-ordination Centre.
MES: Marine Evacuation System. An appliance for the rapid transfer of persons
from the embarkation deck of a ship to a floating survival craft.
Personal Flotation Device: A personal flotation device is a device designed to

assist a wearer, either conscious or unconscious, disabled or exhausted, to keep
afloat with their mouth and nose (airway) above the water surface. Also referred to
as PFD, lifejacket, life preserver, Mae West, life vest, life saver, cork jacket, life
belt, flotation suit.
Radar reflector: a device made of intersecting pieces of metal that reflect

electromagnetic waves and so make the boat more visible on radar.
Recovery Strop: A soft strop or strops that connect between the release hook and
the survival craft to separate the heavy hook arrangement from the seafarer when
recovering the survival craft during heavy sea conditions. Also referred to as
'Heavy Weather Strops'.
Release Hook: The hook that connects the survival craft to the davit.
Remote Lowering Wire: The control wire by which the winch brake of a davit
launched lifeboat can be operated from within the lifeboat.
SAR: search and Rescue
SART: Search and Rescue Radar Transponder. A device that enables vessels to
pinpoint the SART within a range of around 5-8 nm. It works by day or night and in
all weathers, and is automatically activated into transmit mode by the signal sweep
of the radar of a passing vessel. The ship's radar screen will display a straight line
of dots, alerting it that there is a SART, presumably attached to a survival craft,
within 100m of the dot nearest the centre of the radar.
Senhouse slip: a quick release mechanism.
SOLAS: IMO International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea.
Survival Craft: A craft such as a lifeboat or liferaft that is capable of sustaining the
lives of persons in distress from the time of abandoning the ship.
TPA (Thermal Protective Aid): A bag or suit made of waterproof material

designed to provide protection against hypothermia, usually down to approximately
-300C.
3.2 Further information
Regulations and publications
SOLAS (Safety of Life at Sea) Convention, edition 2009. Chapter Ill is about life-
saving appliances and arrangements.
Life Saving Appliance (LSA) Code, edition 2009. The LSA Code provides
international standards for the life-saving appliances required by chapter Ill of the
SOLAS Convention.
IAMSAR (International Aeronautical and Maritime Search and Rescue)

Manual, jointly published by IMO and the International Civil Aviation Organization
(ICAO). Ships are required by SOLAS chapter V, Safety of Navigation, to carry an
up-to-date copy of IAMSAR Volume Ill, Mobile Facilities. Its function is to help with
performance Of a search, rescue or on-Scene co-ordinator function, and with
aspects of search and rescue that relate to the vessel's own emergencies
MCA MGN 71 (M): Musters, drills, on-board training and instructions, and
Decision Support Systems
MSC/Circ.1136, 15 December 2004, Guidance on Safety during Abandon Ship
Drills using Lifeboats
MSC.1/Circ.1206/Rev.1 of 11 June 2009. Measures to Prevent Accidents with

Lifeboats.
MSC.1/Circ.1327, 11 June 2009, Guidelines for the Fitting and Use of Fall
Preventer Devices (FPDs)
MSC.1/Circ.1185, Guide for coId water survival
IMO Pocket Guide to Recovery Techniques
Survival Craft, a Seafarer's Guide, published by OCIMF
Marine Survival and Rescue Systems, 2nd Edition, David J House, published by
Witherby
Naval Handbook for Survivors, published by The Nautical Institute
Extract from STCW Code requirements for training of personnel who assist
passengers
STCW sets out training requirements for seafarers on seagoing ro-ro passenger
ships and on passenger ships other than ro-ros:
 All personnel providing a direct service to passengers, including those

working in shops, bars and restaurants, are required to be able to
communicate effectively between themselves and with passengers during
an emergency, and be able to demonstrate the correct donning of
lifejackets.
 All personnel designated on muster lists to assist passengers in an
emergency are required to complete crowd management training.
 Masters, chief mates, chief engineer officers, second engineer officers and
any person having responsibility for the safety of passengers in emergency
situations onboard passenger ships must complete training in crisis
management and human behaviour.
3.3 Case studies
1. MSC NAPOLI: A well-managed evacuation, but over-heating of crew in

lifeboats
During the morning of 18 January 2007, when on passage in the English Channel,
the 4419 TEIJ container ship MSC Napoli encountered heavy seas, causing the
ship to pitch heavily. The ship was making good a speed of 1 1 knots and the
height of the waves was up to 9m. At about 1 105, the vessel suffered a
catastrophic failure of her hull in way of her engine room. The quickly assessed the
seriousness of the situation and decided to abandon ship.
A distress message was sent via MF DSC at 1125 and the crew started to
assemble on the bridge. A few minutes later, the vessel lost all electrical power.
However, lighting was soon restored when the ship's emergency generator started
automatically.
By now, the ship was stopped in the water, with her starboard side exposed to the
wind and sea, Consequently, the Master sent the bosun and three of the crew to
prepare the port lifeboat for launch, (It was evident during the investigation that the
master had placed a great deal of emphasis on the importance of safety drills and
the maintenance of lifesaving equipment, and that the preparation and lowering of
lifeboats had been well-practised in accordance with company policy,) Others were
sent to the provision locker to get cases of bottled water.
After all crew had been accounted for, the Master sounded the emergency alarm of
seven short, and one long blast on the ship's whistle to indicate to the crew to
make their way to the lifeboat station. He then called Ushant Traffic on VHF radio
to advise that he and his crew were abandoning into the lifeboat. The Master and
third officer were the last to enter the lifeboat, having collected the SART, EPIRB
and a number of the ship's documents. The lifeboat engine had been started and,
following verbal confirmation from the chief officer that all 26 crew members were
on board, the
Master ordered the chief engineer to lower the lifeboat by hauling down on the
confirmation from the chief officer that all 26 crew members were on board, the
Master ordered the chief engineer to lower the lifeboat by hauling down on the
rerrnte lowering wire.
The lifeboat smoothly descended the 16 metres to the sea. Once waterborne, the
bosun released the fore and aft falls from inside the lifeboat, However, the
crewman
sitting nearest the forward painter release could not pull the release pin sufficiently
far to allow the painter to disengage, He was squeezed between two other crew
and
his rnovement was restricted by his immersion suit. The painter was eventually cut
by
the chief engineer, who had a knife, and was able to reach the painter via the
lifeboat's forward hatch.
After clearing MSC Napoli, the lifeboat was manoeuvred to a position between 1
and
1 h miles away from the stricken vessel. The master then activated the EPIRB and
the SART.
The rnotion of the lifeboat was violent and the atrnosphere inside was very
unconfortable; all of the crew suffered from sea sickness Although the l'f±oat was
certified to accomrnodate up to 32 persons, the 26 crew wearing immersion suits

and
lifejackets were very cramped. They were very warm and several felt faint and
dehydrated. The situation became more tolerable after the crew cut off the gloves
Vdeotel 2011
from their immersion suits with the chief engineer's knife. This allowed them to use
111
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their hands more effectivel
and the were able to donk from lastic drinkin water
from their immersion suits with the chief engineer's knife. This allowed them to use
their hands more effectively, and they were able to drink from plastic drinking water
bottles they had brought with thern
On receipt of the "Mayday', CROSS Corsen initiated the assistance of a SAR
helicopter and a tug. When the crew abandoned, Falmouth MRCC was also
requested to assist. Falmouth MRCC activated two SAR helicopters. The first
helicopter arrived at the scene at 1150. Initially, a highline could not be passed to
the
lifeboat due to the severe weather conditions. However, at about 1230, a diver was
lowered from the helicopter into the sea and swam to the lifeboat A highline was
rigged and the helicopter crew recovered 13 survivors from the lifeboat. The
second
helicopter took over the winching operation at 1325, and by 1409 the remaining 13
survivors had been recovered.
source: MAIB
2. MS ESTONIA — a catastrophic chain of events
The incident
The Estonian-flagged ro-ro passenger ferry ESTONIA departed from Tallinn on 27
September 1994 at 1915 hrs for a scheduled voyage to Stockholm. She carned
989
people, 803 of whom were passengers,
The ship left harbour with all four main engines running, Sea conditions along the
Estonian coast were moderate, but became more rough when the ship left the
sheltered waters. The rolling and pitching of the vessel increased gradually, and
some passengers becarne seasick,
During his scheduled round on the car deck the seaman of the watch heard shortly
before 0100 hrs a metallic bang from the bow area as the vessel hit a heavy wave.
Further observations of unusual noise, starting at about 0105 hrs, were made
during
the following 10 minutes by many passengers and some crew rrEmbers who were
off
duty in their cabins.
At about 0115 hrs the visor separated from the bow and tilted over the stem. The
At about 0115 hrs the visor separated from the bow and tilted over the stem. The
ramp was pulled fully open, allowing large amounts of water to enter the car deck.
Very rapidly the ship took on a heavy starboard list. Passengers started to rush up
the staircases and panic developed at many places. Many passengers were
trapped
in their cabins and had no chance of getting out in tirne, Lifejackets were
distributed
to those passengers who managed to reach the boat deck. They jumped or were
washed into the sea, Some managed to clirrb into liferafts which had been
released
from the vessel. No lifeboats could be launched due to the heavy list.
At about 0120 the alarm was called over the public address system and soon after
this the general lifeboat alarm was given. Two Mayday calls from the ESTONIA
were
received at 0122 and 0124 hrs.
The list to starboard increased and water started to enter the accommodation
decks.
Flood' ng of the accommodation continued with considerable speed and the

starboard
side of the ship was submerged at about 0130 hrs. During the final stage of
flooding
the list was more than go degrees. The ship sank rapidly, stern first, and
disappeared
from the radar screens of ships in the area at about 0150 hrs.
Witnesses reported various problems with the survival craft: lifeboats irnpossible to
release because the lashings were too rusty and the list was too heavy, inability to
open the liferaft containers, liferafts that inflated and were then blown from the
deck
use t as Ings were too rusty an e 1st was too eavy, Ina lty to
open the liferaft containers, liferafts that inflated and were then blown from the
deck
into the water, rafts that did not inflate sufficiently, rafts that turned over so that the
occupants fell into the water.
Rescue efforts were initiated by MRCC Turku. About one hour after the ESTONIA
had sunk, four passenger ferries in the vicinity arrived on the scene of the accident
Rescue helicopters were summoned and the first one arrived at 0305 hrs.
During the night and early morning, helicnpters and asSsting ships rescued 138
people, of whom one later died in hospital. During the day and on the two following
days 92 bodies were recovered, Most of the missing persons accompanied the
vessel to the seabed. 852 people died in total.
Conclusions:
2.
Evacu ation
The tirne available for evacuation v.•es very short, between 10 and 20 minutes,
and there was no organised evacuation.
The evacuation was hampered by the rapid increase in the list, by narrow
passages, by transverse staircases, by objects coming loose and by crowding.
About 300 people reached the outer decks. Most victirns remained trapped
inside the vessel.
The lifesaving equiprnent in many cases did not function as intended.
Lifeboats could not be lowered,
The rapid increase in the list contributed to the large loss of life.
The lifeboat alarm was not given until about five minutes after the list
developed, nor was any informat'on given to the passengers over the public
address systern By the time the alarm was given, the list made escaping from
inside the vessel very difficult This together with problems in using lifesaving
equipment contributed to the tragic outcorne.
Rescue operation
The lifesaving equiprnent of vessels participating in the rescue operation
proved unsuitable for rescuing people from the water in the prevailing heavy
esav.ng equprne
vesse pa c pa ng In
rescue ope on
proved unsuitable for rescuing people from the water in the prevailing heavy
weather conditions.
The alarming of helicopters was late.
The helicopters had a key part in the rescue operation by rescuing rmst of the
people who had succeeded in climbing onto liferafts or lifeboats
One rescue man per helicopter was not enough due to the very exhausting
rescue work.
The main reasons for the delay in issuing alarms in general were that the
distress traffic was conducted separately from MRCC Turku, and that there
was only one person on duty at MRCC Turku, at MRCC Helsinki and at
Helsinki Radio, respectively.
In the Finnish MRCCs the instructions regarding distress traffic were
inadequate.
Soume: Joint Accident Investigation Commission of Estonia, Finland and Sweden.
3. Lifeboat hoisting incident
A vessel was secured alongside, waiting to resurne unloading her cargo. At about
1515, the crew members carried out a rrnnthly abandon ship drill, which on this
occasion involved launching the starboard lifeboat and checking the engine.
occasion involved launching the starboard lifeboat and checking the engine.
The totally enclosed lifeboat accordingly was lowered to the boat deck and six crew
members went on board. The davit winch brake was released and the lifeboat
lowered into the water, The srnall safety pin was withdrawn from the housing of the
control lever at the steering statiorL Then the remote control lever was pulled to
disengage the stud from the groove in the housing. The lever was moved from the
vertical position to the horizontal to open the on-load release hooks; the davit falls
were disengaged and the crew members made a run in the harbour.
At about 1600, the lifeboat was manoeuvred alongside the starboard side of the
vessel off the davits. The long links of the falls were engaged in the on-load
release
hooks, and the remote control lever was brought to the vertical position with some
difficulty The lifeboat was raised 30 to 40 cm above the water surface, but because
the forward hook did not lock, the lifeboat was again lowered into the water.
To make certain that the long link rernained engaged in the forward hook, tension
was maintained on the forward fall and the lever was again from the
horizontal position to the vertical. The hooks seemed to have locked and the
lifeboat
was hoisted to the level of the boat deck. Two crew tæmbers disentarked_ While
the
lifeboat was hanging approximately 8.3 rn above the water, the long link becarne
disengaged from the forward hook With the after hook still locked, the lifeboat
tipped
forward. The transom and part of the structure holding the after hook separated
from
the forward part of the lifeboat, and the boat fell to the water. The after hook
rernained hanging from the after fall, with the safety pin inserted in the hook.
Two of the four crew æmbers who were on board, and who were not wearing hard
hats, suffered head and other injuries. Another crew member broke his ribs, and
the
fourth suffered neck and leg injuries.
Analysis
On the first attempt, the crew had difficulty moving the lever to the vertical position.
They thought that to arm the hydrostatic hook release mechanism, they only had to
move the lever to the vertical position and engage the stud in the groove of the
Analysis
On the first attempt, the crew had difficulty moving the lever to the vertical position.
They thought that to arm the hydrostatic hook release mechanism, they only had to
move the lever to the vertical position and engage the stud in the groove of the
housing. On the second attempt, the crew concentrated on properly engaging the
long links of the falls in the hooks. The interlock device was not examined. Thinking
they had cocked the interlock device because the lever was in the vertical position
and the hook was engaged, the crew hoisted the lifeboat The safety pin of the
forward hook had not been replaced before the drill. Thus, the hook was engaged
only by the interlock device The presence of corrosion in the cable housing and the
breaking of the metal cable hampered the cocking of the interlock device. Since the
hook was not damaged, evidence indicates that the forward hook must have
released from the interlock device. The force of gravity exerted by the hook on the
partially cocked interlock device caused it to tip down. The hook pivoted, and the
long
link of the forward fall released from the hook.

Findings
1. The monthly inspection did not include checking the hydrostatic hook release
Mechanisrn
Insp on
n Incu c ec Ing e ros IC 00 re ease
mechanisrn
2. The interlock device was not completely cocked before the lifeboat was
hoisted back on board.
3. The forward hook released during the lifeboat hoisting manoeuvre, causing
the after hook to give way and resulting in the uncontrolled fall of the lifeboat.
4, The crew members who nere not wearing their hard hats suffered head
injuries.
The crew did not take all necessary actions to arm the hydrostatic hook release
mechanism before hoisting the lifeboat back on board. The monthly inspection did
not include checking the hydrostatic hook release mechanism. Thus, a safety pin
was
not replaced before the rmnthly abandon ship drill.
Source: Transportation Safety Board of Canada
Editor's note: This report pre-dated the introduction of FPD advice from IMO (MSC
Circ, 1327), and if FPDs had been in use the accident would not have happened.
In
this case both pins together would be deemed an FPD. One alone is not so
because the system is dependent on both falls.
4. Rescue boat accidents
1. A vessel was lifting the six-man glass reinforced plastic rescue boat aboard as
part of the routine training exercise, with two persons aboard, when one of the
eyes for the four leg lifting bridle pulled out of the hull of the boat which was
suspended approximately 0.5 rn above the water. The boat was quickly returned
to the water and to an upright postion afloat. Although shaken by the experience,
no staff were injured or fell out of the boat.
The bridle is designed so that two larger legs are attached fore and aft and take
rmst of the weight, with two smaller legs to stabilise port and starboard
A contributory cause to the failure, in addition to poor boat design: was found to
be that the lifting bridle was attached to the davit incorrectly. Consequently the
largernonger fore and aft legs being the outer pair munted on the master link, the
shorter port and starboard stabilising legs were outside the fore and aft legs
rger onger ore an a
ang
er pair rnoun on e mas er In
2.
shorter port and starboard stabilising legs were outside the fore and aft legs
rreking them shorter still and then taking extra strain for which they were not
designed, It is important that, when using multiple leg lifting bridle, it is attached
correctly.
A large cargo vessel vas at anchor. The opportunity was taken to carry out a drill
of the vessel's rescue boat. The boat is an open dory, made of glass reinforced
plastic For lifting, it has three eye-plates, one forward, and one each side at the
after end. Each eye-plate is bolted to the hull with four bolts. The heads of the
bolts are visible but not the shanks and nuts. The boat is lifted by a single arm
davit, with a three-part wire bridle, with one part to each of the eye plates.
The boat crew on board were wearing boiler suit, safety boots, helmet and a
lifejacket The boat was swung out with the four crew members on board. As
lowering commenced, the eye-plates on the port side aft suddenly detached from
the hull. The boat was left hanging starboard side up, Three of the boat's crew
plummeted into the sea, a distance of approximately 12 m. The officer in charge
of the boat was left hanging on. Having ascertained that the officer was able to
2011
TIVIDEOTEL
remain secure, the boat was lowered to the veter and the three crew members
were recovered, fortunately without long-term injury.
Source: CHIRP (UK Confidential Hazardous Incident Reporting Programme)
Maritime Feedback.
1-Are the statements about incineration True or False?
-Nothing else should be burned at the same time as plastics
-It is dangerous to try and incinerate aerosol cans
What size tankers are required to keep an oil record book?
 over 150 gross tons
MARPOL annex V applies to
 All ships
Which MARPOL Annex relates to the discharge of garbage?
 V
5-Are the statements about incinerator operation TRUE or FALSE?
-incinerator overheating is commonly caused by overloading

-if the incinerator chamber is overloaded the contents will go on burning even though the
burners have shut down
6-Information about the maximum weight and volume per charge recommended for your
incinerator
can be found in:
the manufactures manual
8-Which of the items listed should NOT be put into lavatories on board?
All the above
9-Extended aeration sewage treatment plants make use of:
aerobic bacteria
10-What is the minimum distance a ship must be from land before It is allowed to discharge
untreated
sewage?
12 nautical miles
11-Are the statements about plant maintenance True or False?
it is important to check and maintain the level of tablets in the chlorinator
the integrity of the pipe work should be checked regularly
12-Why are domestic cleaners used on shore not suitable for cleaning toilet: on board?
they would kill the bacteria on which the plant depends
13-Very rarely, someone may have to go inside the plant for maintenance. If so.
a proper risk assessment should be undertaken first

14-What is the minimum distance a ship must be from land before it is allowed to discharge
comminuted and disinfected sewage?
3 nautical miles
15-which MARPOL Annex relates to the sewage system?
IV
16-which ls the final stage of treatment in an extended aeration plant?
chlorination
17-Why are anaerobic bacteria not dasirable in a sewage system?
they can produce toxic or flammable gases
18-MARPOL annex IV applies to ships below 400 gross tons if they are certified to carry
more than:
15 people
What is the minimum gross tonnage for ships other than tankers that requires an ORB
to be kept?
20-ls the following statement about the completion of the ORB True or False?
Entries should always be made In Ink. TRUE
21-Is the following statement about record keeping True or False?
During any discharge of oily water overboard the ships speed must be noted and recorded
TRUE
22-Bilge water with less than 15ppm oil can be discharged:
anywhere outside the Antarctic special area
23-What size tankers are required to keep an Oil Record Book?
Over 150 gross tons
Mistakes should be erased or blanked out with Tipex. FALSE
25-Which MARPOL annex relates to the carriage of oil cargoes?
26-Is the following statement about the completion of the ORB True or False?
There should be no blank lines in the record book TRUE
The tank descriptions must match those used in the IOPP form A TRUE
Which of the areas listed is NOT a special area for oil pollution as defined in Annex I?
 The Caspian Sea
When sludge or other oily residues are discharged ashore, a receipt must be obtained
With reference to the oil record book, how long after the date of the last entry must the
Oil Record Book be retained on board?
 1 years
 2 years
 3 years
 4 years
Bunker transfer do not need to be included in the ORB.
33-What is the maximum permitted oil concentration when discharging oily water through the
Separator?
15 parts per million
34-Is the statement about chemical tanker operations True or FaIse?
Nitrogen is lighter than air and so may remain in the top of a tank even when reading
elsewhere in the tank show a good oxygen level. FALSE
35-ls the statement about chemical tanker operations True or False?

Mechanical ventilation of the space and regular monitoring of oxygen and gas levels must
continue while personnel are inside an enclosed space TRUE
36-lf you are asked to perform a task which you feel is dangerous, what should you do?
Consult your safety officer or other senior officer
37-ls the statement about chemical tanker operations True or False?
Most deaths from fire are caused by asphyxiation and not from direct contact flames. TRUE
39-Are these statements about chemical hazards True or False?
Caustic soda is a corrosive chemical and can burn human tissue. TRUE
If you breathe carbon dioxide in an enclosed space, you will rapidly become unconscious.
TRUE
Certain flammable cargoes may emit flammable gases when they come into contact with
water. TRUE}
40-Are these statements about the pre-arrival meeting True or False?
The cargo emergency stopping arrangements should form part of the plan. TRUE
41-Static accumulators are:
Cargoes that can become electrostatically charged
42-Is the statement about chemical tanker operations True or False?
While topping off completing cargo operations, the officer of the watch should monitor activity
on deck via radio. FALSE
43-Are these statements about Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) True or False?
Most chemical suits protect against the vast majority of all the chemical risk TRUE
44-What is the maximum recommended initial pipeline velocity when loading static
accumulator oil?
1.0 meters/sec.
45-Which of the items listed has the potential to develop electrostatic charges?
Grain dust
46-Charged synthetics or plastic can generate:
High voltages and small currents.
47-A charge can develop in a cargo tank:
When it is being washed
48-Are the statements about possible static electricity hazards True or False?
Helicopters may develop a very substantial static charge when in flight. TRUE
Injecting CO2 under pressure can create high levels of static electricity .TRUE
49-The relationship between current, I, and voltage, V, in a circuit is governed by the

resistance, R. This is
known as Ohm‘s Law which is written as:
V=lR
50-Are the statements about stray currents True or False?
Properly sited radar scanners are unlikely to present a hazard TRUE
Stray currents can be generated by cathodic protection systems TRUE
When electric welding you should never use the hull as a return and only run put one cable
TRUE
51-Synthetic ropes should not be used:
In cargo tanks
52-An atom that is positively or negatively charged is known as:
An ion
53-Which of the oils listed does NOT act as a static accumulator?
Crude oil
54-When using a portable tank washing machine, you can pravent sparks being generated
by ensuring
It is:
Electrically connected to the hull
55-What is the minimum time that should elapse before dipping, ullaging or sampling after
static
accumulator oils have been loaded without the ullage space being inerted?
30 minutes
56-An atom with an extra electron is:
Negatively charged
57-To prevent arcing, modern practice recommends that ships are:
Insulated from shore at the cargo connections
58-STS transfer operations can result in considerable freeboard differences between the two
vessels. The steeper the orientation of the mooring lines, the less effective they will be in
resisting horizontal loads. Freeboard differences should be kept to a minimum and
consideration may be given to ballasting down the higher ship.
59-What is the typical air consumption per minute for a man wearing a BA set in an
emergency situation performing heavy work?
50-60 liters
60-How long should a hand held lamp be tested for?
20 seconds
61-Who should check the torches and communications prior to entry?
The officer in charge
62-At what pressure should the warning whistle sound (on a 207 bar set)?
45-50 bar
63-Prior to donning the BA, the by-pass valve should be:
Closed
64-Scaffolds should only be erected on a sound base.
Usually, scaffolds will be rigidly connected to a permanent structure.

Party built scaffolds should have notices attached at every point of access.
All platforms must have edge protection and guardrails, to prevent material falling.
Platform boards should be securely fixed so that they don’t form a risk to any one underneath
them.
65-Are the statements listed about inspections True or False?
Any inspection needs to be done by a supervisor TRUE
A bad storm may mean that another inspection is required TRUE
66- What is the minimum height for toe board rise on an independent tied scaffold?
150 mm
67- Which of the faults listed might cause you to reject a ladder as unsafe?
All of the above
68-Which of these items of personal protective equipment is not usually required when
working at height?
Ear protectors
69-What is the recommended maximum height a free standing mobile tower?
9.6 meters
70- Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the storage and use
of scaffolding equipment
Tubes should be stored horizontally
Steel and aluminum components should not be mixed when stored
MDF is severely weakened when it gets wet
It’s important to ensure that anything metal is not corroded
71-Are these statements about working from scaffolds and scaffold towers true or false?
Slight overloading of the structure is permitted if it is for a short time FALSE
Use of a scaffold tower is not dependent on weather conditions FALSE
You should never use a ladder on top of a scaffold tower to gain extra height TRUE
You should only use scaffold towers that have been built by competent people TRUE
Any work at all on a scaffold must be covered by a permit to work TRUE
72- Are these statements about risk assessment true or false?
Before anyone can work at height, there needs to be a risk assessment TRUE
Controlling access is a means of helping to provide protection for everyone TRUE
The use of individual protective equipment does not need to be considered until after scaffold
has been erected FALSE
The risk assessment process is complete once erection of the scaffold starts FALSE
73- A ledger on an independent tied scaffold is?
A pole used to keep the standards in each lift equidistant and strengthened
74-What is the usual rule governing the slope for a ladder when in use?
About 1 out for every 4 up
75- What is the purpose of a tie on an independent tied scaffold?
To restrict any inward and outward movement of the scaffold
76- What is the minimum width specified by the regulations for a platform on an independent
tied scaffold?
600mm
77- Of the questions listed, which does not need to be considered before the erection or use
of any access equipment?
How much do the people weigh who will be using it?
78- Abrasive wheels can kill people if they burst and shatter.
Abrasive wheels should never be used if they are cracked or damaged
You should always check the speed details on the wheel with those on the machine
The law requires you to use the safety equipment provided
The safety guard protects you if the wheel shatters and prevents any contact with the wheel
79- Fitting an oversized wheel is dangerous because

The guard will not close over an oversized wheel
80-which letters at the end of a wheel marker indicate that it is suitable for portable
machines?
BF
81-which of the items of information listed should be provided on the blotter or printed on the
wheel?
The diameter, thickness and bore
A manufacture’s code
The maxi in operating speed
82-are the statements about abrasive wheel procedures true or false?
The wheel should fit tightly onto the spindle FALSE
The spindle operating speed should be the same or less than the wheel speed TRUE
The ring test is performed with the wheel suspended from a ring in the center FALSE
All wheels should be kept in storage free from vibration and damp and away from extremes
of hot and cold TRUE
83-once the wheel has been dressed, how far should the work rest be set from the wheel?
1-2mm
84-Are the statements about abrasive wheel procedures true or false?
Grinding machines need regular routine maintenance TRUE
Hot work permits are not needed when abrasive tools are used FALSE
You should only grind magnesium alloys if you are sure there is an efficient dust extraction
system TRUE
New wheels do not need truing before use FALSE
85- Which is the hardest abrasive material used on abrasive wheel?
Diamond
86- which type of machine needs daily inspection?

240 volt machine
87-are the statements about suspicious behavior true or false?
Regular drills are important to build confidence and practice skills TRUE
A new crew member taking a lot of photographs of the ship is not a cause for suspicion
FALSE
It is important that gangway personnel are not distracted and allow unauthorized persons to
get on board TRUE
88-why is it important to remain vigilant?
It helps prevent crime
89-MARPOL annex VI specifies that the bunker delivery note (BON) should be kept available
for inspection for
3 years
90- Outside special areas, how many nautical miles from the nearest land can oil or oily
mixtures be discharged from an oil tanker?
50
91- Is the following statement about bunkering true or false?
The ullage should be checked once the transfer has been completed FALSE
92-the SEEMP is
A ship specific plan for managing the ship’s energy efficient
93-which of those listed is not a special area designated under MARPOL 73/78 annex 1?
The Caribbean Sea area
94- MARPOL annex VI limits the emissions into the atmosphere from ships of
Nitrogen oxides
95-improving the fuel efficiency of the vessel may require
Use of weather routing
Just in time arrival

Improved hull maintenance
Optimum trim
96- Is the following statements about bunkering true or false?
During transfer the deck scuppers should be plugged TRUE
97- MARPOL annex v affects
All ships (unless expressly provided otherwise)
98-which MARPOL annex deals with the regulations for the prevention of pollution of oil?
Annex 1
99- The disposal of plastics at sea is
Sticky prohibited everywhere
100- Sewage which has not been comminuted or disinfected
12 nautical miles from shore
101-ships may only discharge processed bilge water from machinery space into the sea if
certain very specific criteria are met. Which of those listed is correct?
The ship is proceeding on route
102-Is the following statements true or false?
103-Vessels smaller than 400 GT can discharge oil or oily mixture into the sea in the
Antarctic area FALSE
104-all oily water discharge must be monitored to ensure that the oil contents is not greater
than the permitted limit. This is:
15 parts per million
105- The term segregated ballast means
A ballast system completely separated from the cargo and fuel oil system
107-since 1 July 2010, what has been the maximum permitted Sulphur of fuel oil in an
emission control area (ECA) according to MARPOL annex VI?
1.0%
108-which MARPOL annex deals with garbage and waste disposal from ships?
109- Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the possible
consequences of falling to comply with the regulations in force.
Failure to comply may lead to penalties and loss of revenue for the shipping company. The
vessel may be required to retain her ballast and load less cargo. The ship may not be
allowed to dock or may be forced to go out to sea and exchange her ballast water. There
could be the risk of a heavy fine or even imprisonment
110-the current, recommended method of ballast water management is
Exchanged
111-the IMO guidelines contain a specimen format for a ballast water reporting form. Which
of the items of information listed does this form contain?
Vessel information
Voyage information
Ballast water management information (numbers of tanks discharged)
112-the IMO guidelines state that every ship that carries ballast water must have a ballast
water management plan
TRUE
113-which of the items listed is not included in the section of the IMO guidelines dealing with
ships operational procedures?
Training and education
114-Which of the actions listed does not form part of the duties of the designated ballast
water management officer?
Deciding whether sea conditions allow exchange to be undertaken safely
115-are the statements about ballast water exchanged true or false?
Ballast water exchanged at sea can have a serious effect on the ship’s structural integrity
TRUE
Sequential exchange of ballast water at sea must be carried out by emptying pairs of tanks at
a time to maintain the ship’s trim and stability TRUE
Correctly carried out, ballast water exchange at sea is a complete solution to the problem
FALSE
The master decides precisely how exchange at sea should be carried out FALSE
116- what is the minimum distance does far from shore mean for ships entering north
America great lakes ports or visiting ports further up Hudson river than the George
Washington bridge ?
200 miles
117- In order to replace approximately 95% of ballast water in a tank using the flow-through
method exchange, the amount of water pumped through the tank must be
3 x the tank’s volume
118- In the black sea, the comb jelly became a major contributor to the rapid decline in the
catch of which particular fish?
Anchovy
119- Which of the factors listed is not relevant for port state authorities when implementing
their ballast water management programmers and assessing risks?
The type of vessel concerned
120-the IMO has adopted a set of guidelines for the management of ballast water. At present,
these are:
Voluntary
121-exchanging ballast water at sea can affect the trim and draft. The engine intakes may
come out of the water. It can set up stresses in the hull leading to structural failure and could
cause a loss of stability. Even in calm weather, you must carry out this procedure with
extreme caution.
122-are the statements about treatment methods true or false?
The use of clean, treated fresh water for ballast solves the potential problems with ballast
water TRUE
The problems with the mechanical treatment of ballast water are expense and maintenance
of the filters TRUE
123-part four of the ballast water reporting form is a detailed history of the ballast water.
Which of the items of information listed would not be required?
The types of organism in the water
124- Are the statements about ballast water true or false?
Marine organisms carried in ballast water can damage the ship FALSE
Many countries have already introduced quarantine requirements for ballast water
management TRUE
Ballast water can carry disease from one part of the world to another TRUE
Organisms carried in ballast water which survive on discharge can multiply and cause
serious environmental TRUE
125-is this statement about risk assessment true or false?
Risk assessment should take place as soon as the barge arrives FALSE
126-drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about measuring the
volume of bunker fuel delivered
Throughout the bunkering operation, the ship’s representative on the barge should therefore
witness and monitor tank levels, by checking the reference heights and tank numbers in the
calibration tables supplied by the barge
127- Which information about the fuel oil that has been delivered does the BDN (bunker
delivery note) not include?
Flash point
1. Under European pollution laws, a seafarer can be found guilty of contributing to

a pollution incident trough ‘complicity’. What does ‘complicity’ mean?
Encouraging someone to commit an offence.
2. If you see or know of an unauthorized an illegal pollution discharge occurring

from your vessel at sea, what should you do?
Make sure the Master is told about it.
3. Under European pollution laws a seafarer can be found guilty of contributing to

a pollution incident through ‘inaction’. What does ‘inaction’ mean?
Suspecting an offence but doing nothing about it.
4. Oil cargoes may pose health hazards and these can be caused trough
ingestion, skin contact or inhalation. Which of these posess the greatest risk?
Inhalation
5. Are the statements listed true or false?

Most Marine oil spills result from oil tankers getting into difficulties. False
The majority of spills are less than seven tones. True
The quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small so no
special precautions need to be taken before starting. False
6. Are the statements about possible hazards associated with spills True or False?
Frequent or prolonged skin contact with benzene is not a cause of concem.
False
Inhalation or hydrogen supplied can be fatal. True
Your sense of smell can become rapidly de-sensitized, particularly to hydrogen
supplied. True
Most oil cargoes do not require the use of any special protective clothing or
equipment. False
7. When a spill moves with a tide or current at what percentage or the tide or
current speed does it move?
100%

In a real emergency, it may be necessary to close air vents to the engine room
and close sweater intakes. True
The OPA 90 Vessel Response Plan must always be available in English. True
The crew would not normally be mustered until a detailed emergency response
had agreed with the shore office. False.
9. Which of the items of information listed is NOT required by the standard from for
reporting incidents to the National Response Centre?
The number of crew on board.
10. Which of the actions listed are the responsibility of the Command Centre?
The coordination and distribution on information conceming the actual and
forecast condition of the spill.
The management of all tactical operations required to excuse the company’s
general emergency response plan.
Obtaining manpower, equipment, material, food, protective clothing and other
facilities needed to support the emergency response.
Setting compensation claims.
All of the above.
11. Which of these statements about the Qualified individual (QI) is NOT correct?
The QI must be a member of the ship’s crew.
12. Under OPA 90, who must be notified first in the event of an incident?
The National Response Centre in Washington D.C.
13. What do the initials SOPEP stand for?

Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan
14. In the event of a spill, where would the Master find the list of contacts who must
be notified.
In the SOPEP
15. The exercise shown in the video is based on the ship:

Running aground.
16. OPA 90 applies to:

All ships entering US waters whatever their flag.
17. How far from the shoreline do US waters extend?

200 nautical miles.
18. Fouling organisms removed from the seawater piping system should ideally be
discharged when the vessel is:
More than 50mm from shore.
19. Who should be responsible for dealing with the press and media?
A responsible individual in the shore office.
20. Above what size are ships, other than oil tankers, required to have a SOPEP?
400GT.
21. In seawater cooling systems, the filters should be:

Cleaned regularly when more that 50mm from shore.

In a real grounding, the master would instruct the engine room to stop the
engine. True
Depending on the circumstances, in a genuine emergency, oil could get in
through seawater intakes. True
Notification of the coastal state in mandatory under MARPOL if there is an
actual or probable discharge of oil. True
Notification of the coastal state is mandatory under MARPOL if there is an
actual or probable discharge of oil. False
23. To minimise chain locker effluent, the anchor chain is should be thoroughly
washed town:
After every hauling up.
24. Is the following statement about the implementation of the VGP true or false?
Vessels over 400 GT with graywater storage capacity should discharge when
more than 1mm from shore and while underway. True
25. Is the following hull cleaning is required in port, it should take place in dry dock.
If major hull cleaning is required in port, it should take place in dry dock. True
26. Firemain systems are included in the VGP because their water may contain:
Metal and chemicals.
27. If you found someone is possession of a 2 litre can of hazardous material,

which would you find most suspicious?
1 litres of lighter fuel.
28. What is the minimum ideal team size for searching accommodation and
workspaces?
2 including a leader.
29. What should you do when offered an ID by a visitor or official?

Take it, study it, then check it against the list.
30. Why is it important to remain vigilant?

It helps prevent crime.
31. Which type of vessel is NOT currently covered by the ISPS code?
Tug

Absorbents are substances which soak up oil like a sponge.
Absorbents are substances where oil sticks to the outside surface.
Synthetic sorbents absorb a lot of oil and don’t absorb water.
Natural products often soak up water as well as oil.
33. Drag the correct words from the list to complete the check procedures requited
when ballasting through the cargo system.
Check that the COW system has been isolated.
Check that the risers above the cargo pumps have been drained of oil.
Check that the valves into the tanks have been opened.
Check that the sea valve remains closed until the pump is started.
34. Drag the correct words from the list to complete the statements about
weathering of oil.
The lower the viscosity of the oil, the faster it will spread.
Low temperatures will make oil more viscous, and spread more slowly.
The higher the ambient temperature and the grater the wind speed, the more
oil will evaporate.
Over 36 to 48 hours, oil can mix with the sea to from a mousse.
35. Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about bunkering
procedures.
The transfer must start at a low flow rate.
Transfer rates will need to be carefully monitored.
A vigilant deck watch is essential, including a regular check on the mooring
arrangements.
Pipework and air vents must be continually checked for oil leaks.
Before disconnection all hoses must be drained.
36. Match the opening words with the closing words to identify some of the key
aspects of preparing for bunkering.
The hoses must be checked to confirm they are in good condition.
All scuppers must be plugged.
Portable pumps must be readily available.
The piping system must be correctly lined up.
37. Drag the correct words from the list to complete the statements about the
operation of OPA 90.
The Unfiled Command provides a top level found forum for producing a
cohesive plan of action.
All decisions, actions and communications must be logged on the ship.
Unless the Master has serious concems for safety on board, he will normally
follow the advice he receives from the command centre.
38. A full scale PREP to test both ship and shore based emergency response
capabilities must be carried out:
Once a year.
39. The exercise shown in the video is based on the ship:

Having a collision.
1. Is the following statement about bunkering True or False?

Once transfer begins all the hose and connections should be checked to
ensure they are tight under pressure. True.
2. Engineers believe that an oily water separator will become much more liable to
failure after.
7 years.
3. Which of the shipboard records listed are the authorities NOT likely to inspect if
the boards a vessel suspected of causing pollution.
Cargo Manifest.
4. According to HELMEPA, how many years does it take for a tin can to
disintegrate in the sea?
100 years.
5. If there is an accident discharge while on the high seas, does it need to be

logged?
Yes, all discharge must be logged.
6. Why have so many states tightened up their maritime pollution laws?

Too many ship owners, operators and crews were ignoring the previous,
exiting laws.
7. What does Canada’s legal principle of “reverse onus” mean in pollution cases?
An accused seafarer is guilty until proven innocent.
9. Is in the following statement about bunkering True or False?

Cleaning materials should be ready to deal with any accident spill. True.
10. What is the most common alteration to an ID?

The photograph.
11. Are the statements about recognising forms of identification True or False?
Regular drills are important to build confidence and practice skills. True.
You should not expect Port State Control officers to provide ID when they
come on board for an inspection. False.
The best way to avoid problems is to obtain as much information about
possible well in advance. True.
12. What should you done once you have checked an ID?
Write their name and details in the gangway long.
13. If an ID has visa stamps on it, is it more likely to be genuine?

Yes.
14. The Reference describes a standard shipboards security system in which the
type of clearance provided is matched to a colour code. Drag the colour to match
the clearance led.
Escorted at all times Red.
Access all areas Green.
Partial Escort Blue.
15. What is the IMO Code that now governs procedures for ships and ports?
International Ship and Port Facility Security Code (SPS).
16. If someone turns up with incorrect ID, what do you do?

Log it and report it to your supervisor (or SSO)
17. What do you if someone refuses to give you their ID?

Report it to your supervisor (or SSO).
18. How can a UV lamp help in spotting forgeries?

It shows changes in handwriting.
19. When you challenge someone how should you treat them?
Politely but firmly.
20. Why might you be suspicious of the clothes someone is wearing?

They seem to be the wrong type of clothes for the weather or for the job.
21. What should you do if you see a group of people on the dock studying your
ship?
Report in to you supervisor.
22. What should you do after challenging a visitor in the wrong part of the ship?
Escort them to the correct area.
23. Why is it important to report an incident of suspicious behavior?

It might be one of a series of incidents.
24. Whose behavior do you need to check?

Non-crewmembers and visitors.
25. You have reported an incident of suspicious behaviour to your supervisor.

What else should you do?
Record the incident in the appropriate long.
26. What should you do if you see a visitor in the wrong area of the ship?
Challenge them.
13.- which ofthese is it good practice to wear whenever you go into a tank?
1) A ATLDbadge
2)A lifting harness
3)An identity disk

4)A lifejacket
15.-what is a Neil-Robertson?
1)A type of breathing apparatus
2) A portable whinch
3)A type of stretcher
4)A special type of bandage for depp wounds
17.-If there is medical problem on board that no one is sure how to treat, what
should be done?
1) Check the medical guide and make a guess what the best treatment is
2) Keep the person warm and make for the nearest port
3) Radio for a helicopter evacuation
4) Radio for medical advice immediately
24.-Galleys and pantries present particular fire risks. Care should be taken in
particular:
1)when using steel utensils.
2)whilst boiling large quantities of food
3)prior to the serving of meals.
4)to avoid overheating or spilling fat or oil.
5)the statement is not correct-fire is unlikely to break out in the galley.
1) The health of people on board depends on the galley staff doing their job
properly. TRUE
2) Because you carry out a task every day, there is no risk injury in the galley.
FALSE
3) Temperature control is important in the preparation of microwave packs. TRUE

4) You may leave the galley when food is cooking for a prolonged period of time.
FALSE
26) Complete the followings sentences
A.-Indiscriminate use of water in hosing down and washing equipment in the galley
can be very dangerous particularly around electric installations.
Q.- Dry clothes or pot holders and oven gloves should:
A.- always be used to handle hot pans and dishes.
Q.-No one should be:
A.- directly in front of an oven when door is opened.
Q.- Catering staff should not:
A.- attempt to repair electric or oil fired ranges or microwave ovens.
Q.- Range guard rails:
A.- Should always be used in rough weather.
27.- What precautions, if any should be taken water is used to hose down and
wash the galley?
1)No precautions are necessary. Large amounts of water will help in achieving
thorough cleaning and insect/pest control.
2)Indiscriminate use of water in the galley is dangerous. Power to electrical

3) As long as one wears appropriate protective clothing, the practice of hosing

down with large amounts of water is correct procedure.
4) The water used should be cold and mixed with disinfectant so that germs will be
killed.
28.-Complete the following sentences by dragging the correct ending onto each
Q.-Use protective clothing to:
A.-protect yourself against cuts, abrasions, heat and chemicals.
Q.-Clear up spills to avoid:
A.-slips and falls.
Q.-Remove sources of potential fire:
A.-danger by good housekeeping.
Q.-Wear your hard hat to avoid:
A.-injury from knocks or falling objects.
29.-Complete the following sentences by dragging the correct ending onto each
Q.-The atmosphere in an enclosed space:
A.-may lack oxygen or contain toxic gases.
Q.-Whenever someone enters an enclosed space:
A.-there should be a back up team standins by.
Q.-The permit to work, or entry permit, must be authorised by:
A.- an appropiate officer.
Q.-Before any enclosed space entry is attempted:
A.-the atmosphere must be checked.
30.-The statements about personal protective equipment True or False?
1) Use your ear defenders to protect your ears against noise. TRUE
2) Masks should be used whenever your work near dusty cargoes. TRUE
3) While working on deck no special footwear is required. FALSE
31.- Who is responsible for your personal safety on board?
1) I am responsible for my own safety. (others may also rely on you).

2) The master is solely responsible for the safety of persons on board.
3) The ship’s safety officer is solely responsible for my safety on board.
4) The superintendent is responsible for my safety
32.- Are the statements about possible hazards on bulk carriers True or False?
1) Opening access hatches could in the release of flammable vapours. TRUE
2) Any work with a naked flame or with welding equipment requires the issuing of a
Permit to Work. TRUE
3) Opening and closing the hatc covers is not likely to create any hazzards. FALSE
33).- Gas leaks should be investigated by:
1) The designated team.
2) Authorised crew members wearing appropiatre PPE.
3) The Safety Officer.
4) The Master.
34).- If you work alone you should.
1) Let someone know where you are going.
2) Have a permit.
3) Ask permission from your manager.
4) Get on with it is not necessary to inform your crew members of your every
movement.
35).- Are the statements about safety procedures True or False?
1) Every should know the location of hazardus cargo and procedures for dealing
with it. TRUE
2)You should never smoke in cargo spaces under any circumstances. TRUE
3) When handling refrigerants such as CFCs, you should follow the safety
regulations. TRUE
36).- If you must be on deck in heavy weather, you should
1) wear safety line

2)wear protective goggles
3)mak sure someone is with you
4)inform your supervising officer.
37).-When checking the tops of containers for loose items, you should:
1) get the driver to carry out the crack
2) climb uo and have a look yourself
3) give a stevedore a le-up so that he can remove any loose item.
4)use a portable ladder and someone to hold it.
38).-Are the statements about access to the ship True or False?
1) There is a constant risk of being struck by containers being handled either on

board ship or on the dockside. TRUE
2)On the dockside, you can use any route to your ship. FALSE
3)Only the cargo handlers are responsible for keeping access routes clear of
obstructions. FALSE
39).- It is best to work:
1) in teams of 4
2) on your own.
3) in pairs
4) It does not matter how many people you work with, as long as all are properly
trained
40) .-If there is a container fire with hazardous cargo, it should be dealt with by:
1) all available means and following the advice given in the IMDG Code
2) crew members using a fire blanket
3) crew members using a fire extinguisher
4) crew members using the nearest available water supply

41).- Is the statement about fire prevention True or False?
1) Under certain conditions static electricity can cause spaks TRUE
42).-Is this statement about working practices True or False?
1) only intrinsically safe equipment should be used on deck and in tanks TRUE
43).- How long can you survive in a toxic hydrocarbon atmosphere?
1) an hour
2) 30 minutes
3) 2-3 minutes
4) a few seconds
44).-I s this statement about fire prevention True or False?
1) You should be careful when metal tools because they can generate a spark
when dropped. TRUE
45).- If you can smell a cargo vapour, it means that:
1) this is a normal situation on a tanker.
2) it is localized and not a problem.
3) you should carry out work more quickly
4) Something is wrong.
46).-I f you carrying a cargo you are not familiar with, for your own safety you
should:
1) consult the cargo
2) consult your senior officer
3) leave the cargo well alone
4) look at the ship’s manual.
47).- Is the statement about fire prevention True or False?
1) it is not your job to prevent visitors smoking in unauthorized places. FALSE
48).-If you wish to smoke, you should do so:

1) only on the cargo deck
2) only in your cabin
3) only in the designated areas
4) only in the designated areas and in the open air.
49) .-When entering an unoccupied confined space, your permit to work or entry
permit must be authorized by:
1) yourself
2) the master and the officer in charge
3) nobody. You do not need one.
4) any member f the engine room personnel.
50).- What is the time limit for hot work?
1) Only in the designated areas in the open air.
2) 1 hour
3) 2 hours
4) The time specified in the permit to work.
51).- Is the statement about working practices True or False?
1) Visitors to the ship can use their mobile phones in all areas away from the cargo
manifold. FALSE
52). - Your main defense against injury is:
1) our PPE
2) Lifesaving appliances on board
3) keeping to company procedures.

4) being very careful.
53).- Is this statement bout fire prevention True or False?
1) Apart from by the manifold during cargo transfer, the deck will be a vapour free
area. FALSE
54),- How should visitors to the ship be processed?
1) According to procedures laid down in the ship’s manual
2) According to company procedures
3) According to ISPS procedures
4) According to ISM Code procedures
55).-If petroleum cargo gets on your skin, you should:
1) wash it off immediately
2) find the first aid kit
3) report it to a senior officer
4) ignore it – petroleum cargo is harmless
56).- Are these statements about Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) True or
False?
1) PPE is your first line of defense FALSE
2) Most chemical suits protect against the vast majority of all chemical risks TRUE
57).- Are these statement about the pre-arrival meeting True or False?
1) The cargo emergency stopping arrangements should form part of the pairs.
TRUE
2) The exact schedule for the transfer of toxic cargoes will be announced. FALSE
58).-Are these statement about chemical hazards True or False?
1) Caustics soda is corrosive chemical and can burn human tissue. TRUE
2) All toxic chemicals circulate throughout the body and end up in the liver FALSE
3) If you breathe carbon dioxide in an enclosed space, you will rapidly become
unconscious TRUE
4) certain flammable cargoes may emit flammable gases when they come into
contact with water TRUE
59).- Is the statement bout chemical tanker operations True or False?
1) While topping off and completing cargo operations, the officer of the watch
should monitor activity on deck via radio. FALSE
60). - Static accumulators are:
1) cargoes that can become electrostatically charged.
2) Cargoes that must not be moved more than absolutely necessary
3) devices that monitor static electricity
4) devices that enable statics to be built up
61.-If you are asked to perform a task which you feel is dangerous, what should
you do?
1) Delegate it to a more experienced fellow crew member
2) Trust the person who told you to perform the task and go ahead with it
3) Argue assertively with the person who told you to do it
3) Consult tour safety officer or other senior officer.
62.-The statement about chemical tanker operation true o false?
Nitrogen is lighter than air and so may remain in the stop of tamk event readings
else where in the tank show a good oxygen level. FALSE
63.- Is the statement about tanker operations true or false?
1) Mechanical ventilation of the space and regular monitoring of oxygen and gas
levels must continue while personnel inside an enclosed space TRUE
64.- Is the statement about chemical tanker operations true or false?
1) Most deaths from fire are caused by asphyxiation and not from direct contact
with flame. TRUE
69.- correct answers:
Carbon monoxide CO
Chlorine CL2
Hydrogen Sulphide H25
Methane CH4
Oxygen O2
77.-Use your mouse to complete the following sentences about enclosed space
entry:
Before any enclosed space entry is attempted authorisation must obtained from a
responsible person.
The atmosphere in an enclosed space may lack oxygen or contain toxic gases.
Entering an enclosed space without informing someone often results in casualties.
The permit to work, or entry permit, should list all the precautions required before
and during entry.
Whenever someone enters an enclosed space a supervisor must remain by the

entry to monitor the ir safety.
108- Are these statements about different risk and risk assessment True or False?
A collision involving a high speed ferry could have very serious consequences
TRUE
2) The fact that it may become more difficult find well qualified officers in the future
should not really affect our business FALSE
Risk depend on circumstance so risk assessment must always be a dynamic

process TRUE
Effective risk assessment can improve financial performance TRUE
116- What is the definition give for the word “risk”?

It describes what would happen in case of the sudden operational failure of vital
piece of equipment on board ship.
It is a combination of two factors- the probability of something happening and the

consequences if it does.
An unintended event involving death or injury, and/or damage to the ship, other
property, or environment.
The outcome of an accident.
117-Datailed oil discharge producers in the ships manual are a good example of:
Engineered safety
Procedural safety
Human factory safety
Inherent safety
123. The final step we define in the risk assessment process is to monitor and
reassess to examine how the decisions work out in practice. Drag the correct
words from the list to complete the sentences about this process
Look for no answer what seemed
124- Which of these beliefs about a no-blame reporting system are justified?
A no-blame system encourages everyone to make sure that all incidents and near
misses are reported
127- When alone in the engine room you must follow:
The notification procedures
128- what must be done when machinery is not to be used ?
In all case, warning notices must be posted at or near the controls
129-is it true or false to state the following?
Remove rings and jewellery so that don’t become caught in moving machinery
TRUE
Spontaneous combustion is unlikely to occur in engine room space FALSE
Use your ear defenders to protect your ear against noise TRUE
130- follow the correct procedures when operating watertight doors TRUE
Pre-plan scape routes in case of emergency TRUE
Ordinary prescription spectacles will afford adequate protection when working in

the engine room FALSE
131- Know the location of safety equipment in the engine room
Use protective clothing to protect yourself against cuts, abrasions, heat and
chemical.
Remove sources of potential fire danger by good housekeeping
Clear up spills to avoid slips and falls
132- no alarm system situated in the engine room should be isolated the
permission of the
Chief engineer
133- chemicals should always be handled with the utmost care TRUE
Manufacturers advice on the correct use of chemicals should always be followed

TRUE
Domestic chemical cleaning agents are harmless FALSE
Chemicals should not be mixed unless it is known that dangerous chemical

reactions will not be caused TRUE
134- oily rags are dangerous if left lying about.
Safety helmets should be worn in the engine room when there is a risk of head
injury.
Spilled oil should always be cleaned up immediately.
Good engine room housekeeping is essential as a precaution against fire in the

engine room.
If provided, the lifting handles should be used when a floor plate is removed.
135- Who is the responsible for your personal safety in the engine room?
I am the responsible for my own safety
136- Why is important to read the labels on chemical containers carefully before
operating them?
To find out about any hazards from the contents
137- Normally, welding should only be undertaken when:
A fire watch is standing by
138- damaged or worn tool should not be used.
The proper tool of the right size should be used.
When not in use, tools should be stowed away.
To avoid injury a tool in use should be directed away from the body.
139- rubber, synthetic or pvc gloves best for handling acids, alkalis, solvents
Leather gloves best for handling sharp objects
Heat resistant gloves best for handling hot objects
139- The decision and the suitability of any person to undertake electric arc
welding should be taken by:
The senior officer in charge
140-
Prohibition
Warning- danger
Mandatory- must do
Emergency scape, first aid and safe condition the safe way
Fire equipment –location or use of the fire equipment
141- Nitrogen is one of the greatest hazard of enclosed space because
It has no smell
It given no warming symptoms to an effected person
A person can lose consciousness very quickly, sometimes in less than 20 seconds
142- which of those listed is not one of the general safety management objectives of the ism
code?
To specify who is competent to undertake hazardous procedures

Pale and breathing fast.
2. Which of the injuries listed is best treated using and elevation sling?.
Dislocated el bow
3. A casualty has swallowed cleaning fluid. You should:

Give them sips of water to drink.

Any of the above.
5. If someone is suffering from hypoglycaemia, then their:

Blood sugar is too low.

Positioned sitting up and supported.
7. When applying a dressing to a sucking chest wound is should be:

Non stick and sealed with top edge open.

Noisy breathing with strong and fast pulse.
9. A casualty has fallen from a height and appears to be unconscious. What would
you do first?
Check their breathing.
10. How would you position a conscious casualty with and sucking wound on the
Sitting up and leaning towards the left.

Pale, with a slow pulse.

Both of the pupils react to light.

Damage to underlying tissue.
14. A casualty has chemical splash in the eyes. You should:

Wash the eye out with the casualty lying down.
15. A casualty has an abdominal wound and bowel can be seen in the wound.
Place a damp dressing lightly over the wound.
16. Is the following statement about first aid procedures True or False?
The casualty may be a danger to the rescuer. True
17. Is the following statement about first aid procedures True or False?
A shocked casualty who is thirsty may be given a drink of water. False.
18. An amputated finger is to be preserved in ice. Before placing it in ice you

should:
Wrap the finger in plastic and then padding.

Wrap them in blankets.
20. A casualty has a wood splinter in their eye. How long do you take to wash it
out?
At least 10 minutes.

Tie the arm to the side of body.
22. Is the following statement about firs aid procedures true or false?
It is OK to just do chest compressions during resuscitation rather than
compressions and ventilations. True.
Blood stained fluid leaking from the ears or nose.
24. A casualty having and asthma attack will have:

Pale skin, noisy breathing and fast pulse.
Not release them if trapped for longer than 15 minutes.

Red with a strong pulse.
27. A sprain is an injury to:

Ligament.
28. Your casualty has an arterial bleed at the wrist. The first aid treatment is to:
Press directly on the wound
29. The immediate treatment for a hot burn is to:

Cool the area with water.
30. During resuscitation, the rate of compression should be:

100 per minute.
31. If you think a casualty is choking you should first:

Ask them if they are choking.
33. Why is it important to keep the bowsing lines within that raft?
So that they will be prevented from snagging and tipping up the raft while
it is being lowered.
34. How many people are normally needed to right a 25 person liferaft?
1.
35. Arterial blood is:

Bright red and spurting.
36. What is the ratio of ventilations to chest compressions in resuscitation?

2:30
37. A burn should cooled for a minimum of:

20 minutes
38. The casualty’s palm is considered to be:
1% of the total body surface area.
39. What is the first action in launching a davit-launched liferaft?

Remove the ships side rails.
40. The severity of a burn is assessed by:

Its depth and its area.
41. A casualty is found collapsed in an enclosed space. What should the rescuer
do first?
Raise the alarm.
42. A casualty is placed in the recovery position:

To maintain the airway.
43. When launching a davit-launched liferaft, and you have pulled the liferaft
Hook it on the bowsing line.
44. As evacuees enter the liferaft, the supervising crew member sitting at the
entrance should:
Direct one evacuee to the left and one to the right, and so on.
45. Indirect pressure to stop bleeding should be kept in place for:

10 minutes and released slowly.
46. When may you leave the ship and board the liferaft?
When the Master on their deputy gives the order.
47. When checking a casualty’s ABC how long do you allow in order to check their
breathing?
10 seconds.
48. Once the inflation of the davit-launched liferaft is complete, what should the
To pull the liferaft in tight so that it can be made fast, ready for boarding.
49. A casualty in shock has:

Pale clammy skin and fast pulse.
50. The severity of a burn is assessed by:

Its depth and its area.
51. Is the following statement about first procedures True or False?

Cold burns to the hands may be warmed up by being rubbed False.
52. Where can find out details information about liferaft equipment and operation?
From the SOLAS training manual.
53. SOLAS specifies that it must be possible to evacuate a ship within:

30 minutes.
124. Which of this beliefs about no blame reporting system are justified?
A no blame system encourages everyone to make sure that all the accidents
and near misses are reported.
127. what is the definition of the word risk?
It is a combination of two facts. The probability of something happening and the

consequences if it does.
131. The video shows an example of ship passing through the strait of Messina.
Which of the possible for managing the risk was regarded as unacceptable?
Taking the long route to port.
134 which of the activities listened would NOT required the using of a permit to
work?
Hot work, Entering a cargo tank, Working a loft.
135. what is the diefintion given for the word risk?
It is acombination of two factors the likelihood of something happening and

the consequences if it does.
138. are the statements about implementing a permit to work true or false?
*Only the work specified on the permit should be undertaken. TRUE
*On some jobs it will be difficult to assess how long they need so the permit should
not specify a time limit. FALSE
* if someone else takes over the job specified in the permit the permit should be
reissued in their name. TRUE
* If unforeseen extra work is required during the work covered by the permit , this
work can be done as long as an officer is informed afterwards. FALSE
141. which of those listed is NOT one of the six basic principlesof risk control?
Substitution
Safe working procedures
Training instructions and supervision.
142. Which of those listed is NOT one of the general safety management
objectives of the ISM code?
To provide for safe practices in ship operation and a safe working

environment.
To establish safeguards against all identified risks.
To continuously improve the safety management skills of personnel ashore

and aboard.
148. which of the statements does not belong in the list? A hot work permit should
sent out
The time and date of its validity. NO
The precise location of the work. NO
The qualification of the crew members to do the work. YES
The precise description of the work (including equipment and materials). NO
The preparation work to be undertaken before the job can commence. NO
The compartment at the lower forward extremity of ship is called______.
The aft peak

The double bottom
The forepeak
The forecastle
A watertight floor separates_______.
Two double bottom tanks

A hold from the double bottom
One hold from another
The tank top from the bottom shell
GOOD BUNKERING PRACTICE-962
1.-Which information about the fuel oil that has been delivered does the BDN (
BUNKER DELIVERY NOTE)
.-FLASH POINT
2.-The BDN ( BUNKER DELIVERY NOTE) must be kept on board at least:
-3 years
3.-The simple of fuel oil required for MARPOL should not be less tan:
-400ml
4.-What is the MARPOL annex VI máximum sulphur content limit for all marine fuel
oil used within a SECA?
-1.5% M/M
5.-In some ports such as singapore, a system of hands signals is required, and the
bunkering team should be familiar with these.
-start, wait, reduce pumping rate, increase pumpig rate,stop, finish.
6.-What are most of spills at sea caused by?
.-overspills during bunkering.
8.-Are these statements about bunker fuel true or false?
.-Bunker fuek used in the auxiliary engines as well as the main engines. true
.-Bunker fuel is the highest quallity product distilled from crude oil.
False
9.-When should fuel oil samples be taken?
.-Continuosly during transfer.
10.-What is the MARPOL, annex VI máximum sulphur content limit for all marine
fuel oils used outside a SECA?
.-4.5% M/M
11.-Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about
measuring the volumen of bunker fuel delivered,
.-Throughout the bunkering operation, the ship’s representative on the BARGE
should therefore witness and monitor tank LEVELS by cheking the reference
HEIGHTS and tank NUMBER in the CALIBRATION tables supplied by the barge.
12.-Are these statements about bunkering procedures true or false?
T.-When preparing for bunkering, any unused flanges should be blanked.
F.-A member of the ship’s engine department should board the barge to be in
overall control of the bunkering operation.
F.-The position of the hose should never be changed once the bunkering transfer
has started.
T.-The tank gauge can indicate a false measurement, depending on the vessel’s
trim.
13.-Is this statement about risk assessment true or false?

F.-Risk assesment should take place as son as the barge arrives.
14.-Which of the ítems listed is NOT regulated by MARPOL annex VI?

N.-Maximum sulphur content
N.-Quality of the fuel oil
N.-Information on the BDN
Y.-Emergency shut-down procedures
N.-Sampling procedures.
15.-Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about material
safety data sheets.
Material safety detalling any DANGEROUS characterics of the fuel oil should have
been received from the SUPPLIER in advance of the bunkering OPERATION and
the bunkering TEAM should be made familiar with them.
16.-How many fuel oil samples need to be taken?

.-4
SAFE CARGO STOWAGE AND SECURING TEST-747

1.-True or false
1.- Cargo should be stowed so as to leave gaps to make crew inspections
easier….f
2.- Placing cargo on strips of Woods is an excellent way of increasing friction at the
point of contact….t
3,.Cargo lashings should be attached to the ship-not to other cargo or lashing...t.
4.-it may sometimes be necessary to weld temporary securing points to the ships
structure….t
2.-Safe cargo stowage and securing test

wich of the information listed would NOT be included in the cargo securing
manual?
1.-all the necessary information regarding the correct loading, stowage and lashing
of the cargoes on board the ship….n
2.-lists of all the lashing equipment which will be carried on the ship….n
3.-details of all the likely cargo types which the ship may carry and how to lash
them properly in accordance with the SOLAS requirements….n
4.-the size limitations on individual havy items….y
3.-safe cargo stowage and securing test

leading a wire round a bar of its own diameter or smaller can reduce its breaking
load by up to.
.-50%

the video refers to the carriage of a large cased item. such items should be lashed:
1.-firmily at the base….n
2.-below the centre of gravity....n
3.-above the centre of gravity….y

the first priority when preparing a stowage plan is:
1.- the safety of the ship...y
2.-to th fit as much cargo as possible on board....n
3.-to guarantee that the ship can leave port on schedule….n
4.-to ensure acces ways are not obstructed….n

What is the maximum securing load value, (MSL), of a lashing consisting of a wire,
turnbuckle and shackle?
1.-the last msl figure of all the elements in the lashing, including the deck ring….y
2.-the mean of all the MSL values of the elements in the lashing….n
3.-the total of the MSL values of the elements in the lashing….n

are the statements listed true or false
1.-aceceleration forces on cargo increase the further it is from the centre of the
ship….t
2.-as the ship rises on a swell, the cargo effectively becomes lighter….f
3.-when the ship rolls, cargo lashings will be stretched and compressed
alternately….t
4.-if the lashings become to loose, an item can lose contact with the deck and
slide….t

the vertical lashing angles should not be greater than.
.-60 grados.

how should lashings be distributed at a cargo unit with single stowage pattern?
1.-equally to fore and aft….n
2.-equally to all sides….n
3.-80% to port and starboard, 20% to fore and aft….y
4.-50% to port and starboard, 50% to fire and aft….n

complete the following sentences about some common problems of cargo
stowage.
a pre-arranged stowage plan may show...INADEQUATE DISTRIBUTION OF
CARGO, OFTEN NOT REFLECTING SUITABLE CARGO HANDLING IN
SUBSEQUENT PORTS.
heavy cargo unitsmay be offered for shipment without..HEAVING SUITABLE
LIFTING AND SECURING POINTS.
cargo weights and dimensions may…DIFFER CONSIDERABLY FROM FIGURES
GIVEN WHEN IT WAS BOCKED.
cargo may not be…REALLY AVAILABLE AS NEEDED FOR LOADING
ACCORDING TO THE PLAN.

which of the stowage patterns listed is NOT a recognised pattern?
1.-single stowage.
2.-vertical stowage.--- correct
3.-side stowage.
4.-cross stowage.

the diagram shows a load of 80 tonnes with lashings to either side. what should be
the MSL of each lashing?
la imagen muestra un 80 tonnes en un recuadro.
.-20 tonnes.

complete the sentences about cargo stowage by dragging the correct ending onto
each one.
1.-The purpose of the cargo securing manual is...TO GIVE DETAILS ON THE
STOWAGE AND SECURING OF ALL CARGOES THE SHIP IS LIKELY TO
CARRY.
2.-Well managed cargo must be stowed...SO AS TO MAINTAIN THE STABILITY
OF THE SHIP.
3.-The stowage plan must be...FLEXIBLE ENOUGH TO ACCOMMODATE LAST
MINUTE CHANGES.
4.-During a voyage the cargo will be...SUBJECTED TO CONTINUALLY
CHANGING ACCELERATION FORCES.
938-HATCH COVERS- A PRACTICAL GUIDE

1.-Hatch covers a practical guide test
the main advantages of ultrasonic testing are:
1.-that it can be used whether tha holds are full or empty.
2.-that it reduces the risk of pollution.
3.-that it can be operated in all weather conditions.
4.-all of the above….y

the use of flexible hoses as a substitute for an approved non-return drainage
system:
1.-is good practice and is strongly recommended….n
2.-may be accepted as a temporary solution only….y
3.-is a bad practice-they should never be used….n

when opening or closing the hatch covers, wich of the occurrences listed could
signify a problem to be investigated further?
1.-uneven or unusual movement….n
2.-abnormal variation in speed….n
3.-unusual vibration….n
4.-all the above….y

true or false?
1.-bearing pads are intended to take the vertical load of the hatch cover….t
2.-the primary function of the cleats is to pull the hatch covers down for a tighter
seal….f
3.-over-tightening the securing devices may permanentyl damage the rubber
seals….t
4.-if wear of the steel-to-steel contact arrangements results in the rubber packings
becoming permanently deformed,the solution is to replace the rubbers….f

in order to remain water-tight, hatch covers must:
1.-not move at all when secured to the hatch coamings….n
2.-not move at all when the ship is flexing at sea….n
3.-move slightly when secured to the hatch coamings to allow for the ship flexing at
sea….y

what water pressure should be used when hose testing?
1.-1 bar….n
2.- 2-3 bar….y
3.-5 bar ….n

when checking the hatch covers while at sea you need to pay particular attention to
the area where the sea loads are greatest. this is:
1.-the forward 25% of the ships length….y
2.-the area just forward or the superstructure...n
3.-the forward 10% of the ships length...n

locators:
1.-are used to ensure steel-to-steel contact….n
2.-guide the panels into their correct closing position...y
3.-should be flexible...n

minor damage to compression bars, such as small cuts and gouges:
1.-are usually acceptable and should not affect the sealing ability….n
2.-should be added to the list of dry-dock repairs….n
3.-are unaceptable as compression bars must always be completely straight,levels
and structurally sound….y

during a hose test, the first indication that hatch covers are water-tight is if water is
seen:
1.-dripping from the drain valves….y
2.-leaking into the cargo hold….n
3.-dripping into the cargo hold and from the drain valves simultaneously….n
which of these statements about cleats is not correct?
1.-cleats should allow the panels to move to a limited extent….n
2.-cleats should be closed in a specific order….n
3.-cleats are used to hold the panels in place when at sea….n
4.-cleats should be tightenend very hard in order to prevent the panels flexing….y

packing rubbers should be replaced:
1.- if they have a permanent imprint….n
2.-every 2 years….n
3.-if there is a permanent imprint which exceeds the manufacturers specified
design limits….y

to prove that due diligence has been exercised, which of the documents and
records listed should be avalaible on board?
1.-manufacturers manual for the hatch covers….n
2.-records of inspection, maintenance and repair….n
3.-hatch cover test reports….n

in order to be efficent, the rubber packing needs to:
1.-be flexible and resilient….y
2.-be hard and resilient….n
3.-show a deep permanent imprint….n

hatch coaming brackets should be checked regulary for:
1.-deformation….n
2.-wastage….n
3.-cracks….n

are these statements about hatch cover operation true or false?
1.-when opening and closing the hatches at leas two crewmembers should be
involved….t
2.-you should never climb on the hatch covers while they are moving….t
3.-once the hatch covers are fully open the securing devices should be applied….t
4.-high expansion foam may sometimes be useful to help reduce the risk of leaks
round the hatch coaming….f

the hydraulic oil in the hatch cover power unit should be:
1.-replaced automatically every 2 years….n
2.-be analysed regulary and replaced as necessary….y
3.-kept at 35°c….n

the video states that a significant proportion of major bulk cargo claims are due to
hatch cover leakage- the figure given was approximately:
1.-one quarter….n
2.-one third….y
3.-one half….n

which of the methods listed would NOT be appropiate for testing hatch covers?
1.-chalk test….n
2.-air test….n
3.-x-ray examination….y
4.-light infiltration test….n
1.-967-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.
1.-drag abd drop the appropiate instruction on to the hands signals to the lifting
operator.
2.-Safe lifting of non-cargo loads.

All lifting equipments should be maintained:
1.-whrn it needs attention….n
2.-when it is broken….n
3.-once a year….n
4.- to the manufacturers recommendations….y

drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the crane and
equipment operator.
The operator should CHECK safety devices fitted to lifting APPLIANCES before
works starts and at regular intervals thereafter to ennsure that they are working
properly. The CONTROLS of liting appliances should be permanently and legibly
marked with their FUNCTION and their operating directions shown by ARROWS or
other simple means.

What is the recommended minimum number of people to be involved in a lift.?
1.-Two people….n
2.-Three people….y
3.-Four people….n
4.-Five people….n

Each piece of equipment for lifting must have a certificate. How long should that
certificate be for?
1.-one year….n
2.-two years….n
3.-three years….n
4.-five years….y
which of these statements is correct?
1.-SWL must never be exceeded on any piece of lifting equipment….y
2.-it is ok as long as you do not exceed the SWL by more than 10%....n
3.-it is ok as long as you do not exceed the SWL by more than 20%....n
4.-SWL can be exceeded if the person in charge of the lift gives you the authority
to do so….n

Who should be in charge of a lifting operation?
1.-the captain….n
2.-crane operator….n
3.-appointed signaller….n
4.-designated team leader….y

who should keep records of lifting equipment?
1.-the chief officer….y
2.-the safety officer….n
3.-a responsible crew member….n
4.-the bosun….n

which of these is usually the best method for the signaller to communicate to other
crew members involved in the lifting operation?
1.-flags….n
2.-walkie-talkie….n
3.-hand signals….y
4.-a clear voice….n

where should lifting appliances and associated equipment be stored?
1.-near the place last used….n
2.-in a dedicated central location….y
3.-each piece near the place it is likely to be most used…..n
4.-it does not matter as lang as it is properly logged….n

how often should a lifting appliance or item of loose lifting gear be inspected?
1.-every year….y
2.-every two years….n
3.-every three years….n
4.-every five years….n

are these statements about lifting do’s and don’ts false or false?
1.-at the start of the operation, you should lift the load in a smooth continuous
movement without stopping…..f
2.-never allow a load to be lifted over other people….t
3.-you should only lift people in a properly certified personnel basket….t

Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about typical
causes of lifting accidents.
1.-There might be poor COMMUNICATION between key PERSONNEL.Someone
might have DISABLED and endstopper, or a level switch, perhaps, or another
safety DEVICE on the lifting equipment. Or maybe someone has not checked that
the LOAD does not exced the SWL of the gear.

true or false.
1.-when lifting a load, SWL is not affected by the angle at which slings are used….f
2.-when carrying out risk assesment for lifting a load, you should check
maintenance records….t
3.-everyone involved in a lift should be wearing gloves….t
4.-the first action before carrying out a lift is to check weather and sea
conditions….f

What does SWL stand for
1.-Short working life….n
2.-Safe working load….y
3.-Soft working load….n
4.-Sequential weight lift….n
972-Working with tugs Test.

1.- True or false.
1.- The tugmaster and pilot must be made aware of the minimum speed of the
towed vessel….t
2.-The pilot must know the power of the tugs….t
3.-Communications channels should be left open and adaptable to further
agreement….f
2.-Working with tugs Test.
Why is it important to check and protect towlines regulary when offshore towing?
1.-because towlines tend to be longer….n
2.-because there is rarely a constant distance between the towing vessel and tow,
putting its own stress on the lines….n
3.-to minimise shock loads to the tow….n
4.-for all the reason above….y

how often should emergency towing drills be carried out on the vessel?
1.-once a year….n
2.-once a month….n
3.-every 3 months…n.
4.-every 6 months or when a significant number of crew members are replaced...y

who is legally responsible for any damage caused if there is a collision with dock
installations, jetties or another vessel when being towed?
1.-the tugmaster….n
2.-the master of the vessel being towed….n
3.-the pilot….n
4.-the owner of the towed ship….y

in mooring and towing, what is the main danger to seafarers on the deck of the
vessel being towed?
1.-death or injury caused by the failure of on-board ropes and gear….y
2.-collision with another vessel….n
3.-running aground….n
what size of tanker requires emergency towing arrangements to be fitted a both
ends?
1.-5,000 to 9,000 tonnes deadweight….n
2.-9,000 to 20,000 tonnes deadweight….n
3.-over 20,000 tonnes deadweight….y
4.-all the above….n

which of the statements about carrying out a risk assessment of towing operation is
correct?
1.-a standar risk assessment should be carried out only in excepcional
circumstances….n
2.-a stardard risk assessment should be carried out for each and every towing
operation….n
3.-a standard risk assesment should be carried out of each and every towing
operation, but varied for individual circumstances….y
4.- a standard risk assessment need to be carried out for most common towing
operations….n

which of the factors listed are important on a long tow?
1.-wing speeds….n
2.-knowing how much extra power the towing tugs can generate….n
3.-state of the tide at your destination….n
4.-speed and direction of any currents….n
5.-the nearest port should and emergency occur….n
select the correct towing situation.
1.-When tight control and manoeuvrability are required in restricted in restricted
waters: Alongside / hip tows.
2.-Where assisted steering and braking from the stern of the vessel is required:
Active escort tows.
3.-Better for longer distances and in open waters: Stern tows.
4.-Where the tug is standing close by the vessel in case it is needed: Passive
escort.

Which of the measures listed would NOT stop the tow line chafing and
endangering the tow?
1.-Pay out the tow line periodically….n
2.-fit a suitable protector to the tow line….n
3.-keep the tow line in one position….y
4.-monitor the tow line on the vessel being towed and freshen the contact point if
required….n

who would not be involved in approving all emergency towing gear.
1.-the master of the vessel….y
2.-a naval architect….n
3.-a marine engineer….n
4.-the appropiate classification society prior to use….n
are the statements about emergency towing true or false?
1.-communications must be established with local maritime authorities and the
towing vessel….t
2.-the disabled vessels position should be plotted frequently and reported to the
local authorities and assisting vessel(s)....t
3.- the disabled vessels rudder should not be used during the tow, even if it has
steering capability….f

are the statements about the pilot and the master of the vessel planning true or
false?
1.-the master should provide the pilot with a deck general arrangement showing
the layout and safe working load ( SWL ) of the mooring fittings….t
2.-the master should inform the pilot which fairleads, chocks, bitts and strong
points should be used for towing….t
3.- the pilots should inform the master of the SWL of the tugs equipment….f

the number of tugs required for towing will depend on.
1.-the type of tug used….n
2.- the weight of the vessel to be towed….n
3.- the support needed to tow the vessel to its destination….n
4.-the type of tugs used and the support needed….y

are the statements about towing offshore true or false.
1.-it is importan to consider the condition, size and loading of the towed vessel of
plataform….t
2.-wind, tide, current and sea conditions must all be taken into account….t
3.-details of the destination berth can be sorted out nearer the arrival time….f
4.-if something goes wrong, a contingency meeting should be held….f

when planning a safe tow, which of the actions below are important?
1.-good teamwork between everyone involved….n
2.-understanding of towing techniques, tug capabilities and the ships
requirements….n
3.-effective communications between the master, the pilot, the tugmaster, the
bridge team and deck crew….n
4.-agreeing a plan and operational procedures in advance….n

which of the items of information listed should the pilot give the master when
advising him about the forthcoming tow?
1.-the number ot tugs and the mode of towage....n
2.-the type of tugs to be used and their bollard pull(s)....n
3.-maximum planned speed for the passage….n
4.-the method by which the ships crew should take on board and release the tugs
tow line….n
5.-primary and secondary VHF channels for use in the operation….n
6.- all the above….y

which of the areas listed should be considered as a possible attachment point an
emergency tow line?
1.-structural members….n
2.-anchor windlass on the bow….n
3.-anchor chain-if secured from running out….n

are the statements about towing procedures true or false?
1.-ensure that the heaving line is long enough and ligh enough to allow the tug to
stand off as far as possible….t
2.-when casting off at the stern, drop the line onto the tugs deck below….f
3.-all radios should be tested before operations begin to ensure they are working
properly….t

are the statements about the planning of a tow by the pilot and tugmaster true or
false?
1.-there is no need to check the SWL of the vessels chocks, bitts and strong points
to be used for towing….f
2.-the maximum speed of the tug should be discussed….t
3.-details of the vessels passage into the harbour while accompanied by the tugs
should be discussed….t

towing by tugs is more hazardous than it used to be. which of the causes listed
does NOT contribute to this problem?
1.-increased vessel size making them more difficult to manoeuvre….n
2.-more traffic in general….n
3.-smaller, less powerful tugs….y
4.-more complex harbour operations….n
5.-greater variety of tug types….n
6.-difficulties in communication….n
match the hand signals on the righ with the pictures by dragging and dropping
them with your mouse:
1.-stop 2.-emergency stop 3.-hoist slowly 4.-raise 5.-lower 6.-make fast
1104-theory of mooring
1.- which of these factors can affect a ships moorings?
1.-wind….n
2.-currents….n
3.-the ships drafts….n
4.-all of these….y
2.--theory of mooring
what is the force of a wind at 60 metres compared to the same wind at sea level?
1.- much the same….n
2.-less….n
3.-greater….y
4.-depends on wind direction….n
how many times greater is the force of a three-knot current on a vessel’s hull
compared to that of a one knot current?
1.- the same….n
2.-double….n
3.-three times greater….n
4.-nine times greater….y
in ports with a large tidal range , what precaution should be taken to ensure a
vessel remains safely moored?
1.-use automatic self-tensioning winches….n
2.-use additional mooring lines forward and aft….n
3.-use the largest steel wire ropes the vessel has available….n
4.-check the tide tables and regulary inspect all morings….y
is the following statement true or false?
1.- you should avoid mixing lines made of different materials….t
what is a 6x 36 mooring wire?
1.-a rope constructed from six strands of an inner core made of one type of
synthetic fibre material, surrounded by 36 strands of a second layer of a different
type of synthetic fibre material….n
2.-a rope constructed from 36 strands of an inner core made of steel wire,
surrounded by six strands of a second layer of synthetic fibre material….n
3.-a rope constructed from 36 strands of an inner core made of steel wire,
surrounded by six strands of a second layer of synthetic fibre material….y
4.-a line constructed from 36 strands of an inner core made of one type of synthetic
fibre material, surrounded by six strands of a second layer made from a different
type of synthetic fibre material….n
what does MBL standd for?
1.-maximum bollard layers….n
2.-minimum breaking load….y
3.-maximum breaking load….n
4.-maximum berth length….n
8.-theory of mooring
how is the size of a wire rope measured?
1.-by the circumference….n
2.-by the diameter….y
3.-by the number of strands….n
4.-by the number of individual wires….n
when mooring lines change direction around rollers, fairleads of panama leads,
there can be a further loss of effectiveness of up to:
1.-25%....y
2.-30%....n
3.-10%....n
4.-50%....n
which of tnose listed is the strongest synthetic material commonly used in rope
construction?
1.-polyamide….N
2.-polyamide….N
3.-polypropylene….N
4.-HMPE….Y
Which is the only one of these materials that floats?
1.-polyester….n
2.- polyamide….n
3.-polypropylene….y
4.-aramid….n
how much elasticity does a high modulus synthetic fibre rope typically have?
1.- more than 20%....n
2.-1-2%....y
3.-4-5%....n
4.-about 10%....n
how much elasticity does a conventional synthetic fibre ropw typically have?
1.-about 30%....y
2.-about 10%....n
3.-about 4-5%....n
4.-about 60%....n
which lines may be deployed in a mooring arrangement to counteract any turning
force on a ship?
1.-spring lines….n
2.-head and breast lines….n
3.-head and stern lines….y
4.-breast lines….n
currents with a small angle off the bow:
1.-can create a considerable transverse force….y
2.-can usually be ignores….n
3.-are not very common….n
4.-will usually be weak….n
what percentage of a ropes MBL should the primary brake on a mooring winch be
set to?
1.-50%....n
2.-60%....y
3.-70%....n
4.-75%....n
which end of the brake should a rope fitted to a winch drum always pull against?
1.- the fixed or anchored end….y
2.-the floating end….n
3.-it doesn’t matter….n
4.-only the centre….n
how many rope layers should there be on the tension drum of a split drum winch?
1.-two….n
2.-three….n
3.-one….y
4.-several….n
1148-leadership and team working skills-vessel resourcee managment series part

7
1.-what type of situational leader would allow the team to allocate task and
processes?
1.-delegating leader….n
2.-telling leader….n
3.-managing leader….n
4.-supporting leader….y
2.-leadership and team working skills

among the strategies you can develop for coping with stress, which is the least
effective?
1.-use of alchohol….y
2.-physical exercise….n
3.-assertiveness training….n
4.-getting enough sleep….n
is the statement about resource management true or false?
1.-in a perceptual set there is a bias or readiness to perceive certain of the
available data and to ignore otheers….t

to participate effectively in your ships emergency procedures, you first need to:
1.-be trained for emergency duties….n
2.-understand what other emergency parties are doing….n
3.-be completely familiar with the entire set of personnel, equipment and duties….y
4.-become a member of one of the emergency response teams….n

which of the symptoms listed would not normally be one of the physical effects of
stress?
1.-heart rate increases….n
2.-body prepares for fight or flight….n
3.-lungs take on more air….n
4.-eyesight blurs….y

can you name one of the chief qualities of situational leadership?
1.-it emohasises clarity of communication….n
2.-it works in most environments for most people….y
3.-it rapidly assesses the situation….n
4.-it guarantees a set of standing orders in place….n
true or false
1.-when conducting an emergency drill it is generally not necessary to hold a
debrief afterwards….f

what qualities do you need for really effective drill?
1.-avoiding routine and creating surprise….n
2.-working with others to build teamwork….n
3.-taking it seriously….n
4.-careful planning….n

what is the golden rule when thinking about calling the master in a amergency?
1.-wait, things mighy improve….n
2.-surely somebody else can deal with this?….n
3.-if you are thinking about calling the master, call the master….y
4.-i’ll sort this out and prove myself….n

true or false?
1.-leadership and managements skills are essentially the same….f

what is the process called that can allow one wrong assumption to be made which
leads onto another until a particular view is created?
1.-vicious circle….n
2.-error chain….y
3.-bad faith….n
4.-information overload….n

which of the items listed is not an essential component of good resource
management?
1.-a strong sense of hierarchy….y
2.-good teamwork….n
3.-good leadership….n
4.-effective communication….n
5.-good situational awareness….n
926-(AIS) Automatic identification system.

1.-What is the VHF communications element of ais?
1.-two VHF transmitters, one VHF receiver, one dsc receiver….n
2.-one vhf transmitter, two vhf receiver, one dsc receiver….y
3.-one vhf transmitter, two vhf receivers, one dsc transmitter….n
4.-one vhf transmitter, one vhf receiver, one dsc receiver….n
2.-Automatic identification system.

true or false?
1.-radar gives a tagets position relative to own ship….t
2.-ais relies on other vessels transmitting information correctly….t
3.-ais supplies less information than radar….f
4.-radar is able to see targets that are not fitted with ais….t

what is the reporting speed or a normal vessel underway with a speed of less than
14 knots?
1.-10 times per miute….n
2.-10 times per hour….n
3.-once every 10 seconds….y
4.-once every 10 minutes….n

which vessels have to be fitted with ais?
1.-all solas vessels….n
2.-vessels of 500 GT and above trading internationally, all other vessels of 1000
GT and above….n
3.-all ships of 10,000 GT and above….n
4.-vessels of 300 GT and above trading internationally, all other vessels of 500 GT
and above….y

if clicks are heard when using the primary VHF what might this indicate?
1.-it is usual for this to occur and shows that the ais is working properly….n
2.-it highlights the possibility of a faulty AIS installation and should be investigated
and rectified….y

what does ais stand for?
1.- automatic identification system….y
2.-autonomous identification system….n
3.-automatic identification of ships….n
4.-automatic identify system….n

what does srm stand for?
1.-safety related message….y
2.-safety request message….n
3.-security related message….n
4.-none of these….n

which of the items listed is not included as AIS voyage related data?
1.-ETA a next port….n
2.-draught….n
3.-destination….n
4.-heading….y

what category does navigation status, such as at anchor, come under?
1.-static data….n
2.-voyage related data….n
3.-dynamic data….y
4.-safety related messages….n

what is the MKD?
1.-the unit which specially houses the VHF transceivers and GPS receiver….N
2.-the master key descryption circuitry that deals with AIS passwords….N
3.-the minimum kinect distance, which is the minimum distance that should
separate the AIS display unit from other equipment to avoid heat damage….N
4.-the minimum keyboard and display, which houses the AIS display and keyboard
and provides the minimum functionally as defined by IMO….Y

1.-It uses the DSC channel to allocate a unique frequency to each vessel….n
2.-it uses the long-range communication facility to allocate unique time slots to
each vessel….n
3.-vessels autonomously self organise unique time slots for their use….y
4.-vessels autonomously self organise unique frequencies for their use…n

which of the messages listed would be a legitimate of an AIS SRM?
1.-See you in rotterdam….n
2.-sighted semi-submerged container 4 miles south of berry head….y
3.-hi-have a nice day….n
4.-jus look at that sunset...n

which of the items listed is not included as AIS static data?
1.-Ships name….n
2.-call sign….n
3.-beam….n
4.-draught….y

what is the primary purpose of the AIS internal position fixing system?
1.-to generate position…n
2.-to generate a location position if the ship is involved in an accident….n
3.-to generate accurate time…y
4.-to generate accurate frequency….n
705- The safe use of electronics charts

1.-The safe use of electronics charts
what is the dual-fuel system?
1.-when the ECDIS can display radar and ARPA information at the same time….n
2.-when the ECDIS can display both a raster and vector chart on scren at the same
time….n
3.-when the ECDIS can display either a raster or vector chart….y
4.-when the ECDIS can be powered by either the ships power supply or its own
batteries….n
2.-are these statements about the ECDIS true or false?

1.-if an electronic chart system is not classified as an ECDIS, it should not be used
at all for primary navigation….t
2.-an ECDIS is any electronic chart system which can display vectors charts….f
3.-an ECDIS can display vector charts if available, or raster if vector is not
available….t
4.-generating an alarm when crossing a safety contour is a standared ECDIS
function….t

what should the master or bridge team agree upon about the ECDIS at the start of
a voyage?
1.-the colours used on the display screen….n
2.-during which watches it should be in operation….n
3.-what levels of information should be kept on displays as standard….y
4.-how loud the alarmsd should be….n

what does a raster chart look like?
1.-a standard paper char….y
2.-a standard paper chart without any shore navigational features….n
3.-a satellite photograph of a sea area….n
4.-a satellite photograph of a sea area laid over a standard paper chart….n

if you are using a n unofficial electronic chart how would yout system be classified?
1.-as an ECS….Y
2.-As an ECDIS….N
3.-as an RCDS….N
4.-As a SENC….N

Which of these is the most important factor to check before passage planning on
an ECDIS?
1.-the weather forecast….n
2.-the tide levels….n
3.-that the most recent chart updates have been received….n
4.-information downloads….n

how does an ECDIS in RCDS mode trigger an alarm about a navigational hazard?
1.-information on the possible hazard has to be entered into the system by the
operator….y
2.-such hazard can be pre-set automatically to trigger an alarm….n
3.-the potential hazard and location has to be entered electronically into the ECDIS
system….n
4.-the ECDIS system in RCDS mode is not capable of triggering an alarm….n

how does an ECDIS operator ensure the electronic chart in use is on the same
scale as other sensor information being input?
1.-by checking the scales on each item in operation and adjusting them to match
the ENC or RNC….n
2.-the ECDIS should provide an indication if there is a scale mis-match….y
3.-the ECDIS will not accept sensor information on a scale different to the
electronic chart….n
4.-by adjusting the scale of the ENC or RNC to match those of the sensors….n

if you have to plan your passage after the vessel is underway, when is the best
time to do it?
1.-as the vessel clears the harbour….n
2.-in the estuary….n
3.-a mile out to sea….n
4.-in deep sea areas….y

when does an ENC become a SENC?
1.-when it is updated with new navigational information….n
2.-when it is has been transformed by the ECDIS into a database format….y
3.-when it has been issued by a RENC….n
4.-when it is given IMO approval….n

what are the four main components of an ECDIS?
1.-a computer, printer, scanner, and display screen….n
2.-a computer,screen, electronic charts and radar….n
3.-a computer, electronic charts, display screen and speaker….n
4.-a computer, electronic charts, colour display screen and operators control….y

what must an ECDIS operator have when using the system in RCDS mode?
1.-conversion tables to re-calculate the different scale….n
2.-a second GPS system to provide an accurate position fix….n
3.-a portfolio of appropiate paper charts….y
4.-the latest ENC updates….n

when using ECDIS in RCDS mode what officially-approved back-up do you need?
1.-a second GPS….N
2.-another ECS….N
3.-paper charts….N
4.-ARPA….N

Which of these events would trigger only a visual warning on ECDIS?
1.-Failure of the positioning system….y
2.-crossing a safety contour….n
3.-deviation from route….n
4.-approaching a critical point….n

which of these is NOT a feature of vectors charts
1.-they are open to interrogation….n
2.-they are multi-layered….n
3.-they use the chart-by-chart system….y
4.-the allow zooming in to see more detail….n

how can an ECDIS operator know if part of this electronic chart is based on
unofficial data?
1.-the suspect section is marked in red….n
2.-the suspect section may have hatching around it….y
3.-the suspect section should flash….n
4.-the suspect section will have unofficial written across it….n

why is it important to use official electronic charts?
1.-they are in english and easier to undestand….n
2.-they have more detail than unofficial charts….n
3.-unofficial charts do not meet the regulations permitting their use in passage
planning….y
4.-unofficial charts are usually out of date….n

how many waypoints can an ECDIS normally store?
1.-9….n
2.-29….n
3.-99….n
4.-999….y

when using RNCs, what does the message shift not know mean when it appears
on an ECDIS screen?
1.-the operator has chosen a chart for display which the ECDIS does not have….n
2.-The operator tried to input data from another instrument not connected to the
ECDIS….n
3.-the ECDIS cannot match the datum of the RNC….y
4.-The ECDIS is signalling a prohibited manoeuvre by the operator….n

which chart display first appears on the ECDIS screen when it is switched on?
1.-star-up display….n
2.-head-up display….n
3.-standard display….y
4.-display base….n
what is the best method fo confirming the accuracy of information shown on the
ECDIS display?
1.-by visual observation….y
2.-radar….n
3.-comparison with a paper chart….n
4.-zooming in on the ECDIS display for more detail….n

what is the minimum periodd for which your navigational instruments should run
from your emergency power supply?
1.-12….n
2.-18….y
3.-24….n
4.-48….n

which organization has set the specifications for ECDIS?
1.-IMO….N
2.-USCG….N
3.-NOAA…N.
4.-IHO….Y

How many levels of warning does an ECDIS give alerting the operator to a hazard?
1.-two….y
2.-three…n.
3.-five….n
4.-one….n

which of these is a problem with vector charts?
1.-they are not capable of showing underwater hazards….n
2.-they are difficult to upgrade with new navigational information….n
3.-they do not yet cover every sea in the world….y
4.-they are difficult to operate….n

which of these navigational situations requires ECDIS to give more than a visual
alarm?
1.-loss of ships position data….n
2.-different references being used….n
3.-approach to a critical point….y
4.-the vessel crossing a specified area….n

what is the difference between an ENC and other electronic charts?
1.-An ENC has more navigational features than any other electronic chart….n
2.-an ENC is an officially approved vector electronic chart….y
3.-an ENC is an officially approved raster electronic chart….n
4.-an ENC is easier to view than other electronic charts….n
927.-navigating in ice
1.-the best to maintain while in ice depends on which two factors?
1.-the vessels course and wind speed….n
2.-the vessels tonnage and the desnsity of the ice….y
3.-the wather conditionsand the vessels tonnage….n
drag the appropiate words from the list to complete the sentences about the
responsibilities of the chief engineer.
he needs to aware of the dangers ice poses to the RUDDERS.
he needs to make sure the internal WATER circulation is functioning
he must ensure the engine has sufficient power to maintain MANOEUVRABILITY
he should ensure that the fuel oil being used will not freeze or CRYSTALLISE.
Ships built to the specification for ice class 1a should be able to cope with ice floes
up to a thickness.
1.-0.5 metres….n
2.-0.6 metres….n
3.-0.8 metres….y
4.-1.o metres….n
when following an iceberg through reasonably open ice, what is the ships speed
likely to be?
1.-4-5 knots….n
2.-5-6 knots….n
3.-6-7 knots….y
4.-8-10 knots….n
roughly what proportion of an iceberg is usually below the surface?
1.-¼….n
2.-⅓….n
3.-½….n
4.-⅞….y
why should all tanks be no more than 90% full when traveling in ice zones?
1.-to allow air to circulate….n
2.-to minimise the free surface effect….n
3.-because if they are full and freeze solid, they could split….y
when estimating ice drift you must consider the presence of sea currents. which of
the currents listed is NOT a recognised type of current in this context?
1.-permanent currents…n.
2.-periodic currents….n
3.-seasonal currents….y
4.-temporary currents….n
in calm conditions, at what sort of upper range is radar reliable dor detecting large
icebergs?
1.-5 to 8 miles….n
3.-12 to 15 miles….y
drag the appropiate words from the list to complete the sentences about
preparation for entering an ice zone.
the master orders checks on the ships SYSTEM to make sure all are prepared for
extreme cold, These will include checking the searchlights, greasing and
PROTECTING anchor winches, ensuring adequate protective clothing for the crew
and MONITORING the internal water supply. Bridge windows willa also require
heating to prevent condensation FREEZING.
what is the usual southerly llimit for icebergs in the northern hemisphere?
1.-35th parallel….n
2.-42nd parallel….y
3.-50th parallel….n
4.-62nd parallel….n
which of the principles listed is not one the three basic ship-handling rules when
moving through ice?
1.-keep moving…n
2.-work with the ice….n
3.-keep the vessels speed slow….n
4.-use the rudder frequently….y
if collision with pack ice is unavoidable, how should the ship enter the ice?
1.-at and angle of about 60°….n
2.-as squarely as possible….y
3.-with a glancing blow….n
4.-at an angle of 45°….n
are the statements about working with icebreakers true or false?
1.-the master of the icebreaker should ask the ship how they would like to
proceed….f
2.-all instructions from the icebreaker must be acknowledged and executed
immediately….t
3.-icebreaker signals are shown in the international code of signals….t
before entering an ice zone the master needs to brief his team. which of the items
listed would not need to feature in the briefing?
1.-number of crew onboard….y
2.-state of hull, machinery and equipment….n
3.-ice experiences of the officers and crew….n
4.-area of operation and acces to icebreakers….n
when icebergs break up the remains, which may also be dangerous, are know as
growlers and:
1.-mush….n
2.-shuga ice….n
3.-bergy bits….y
4.-brash ice….n
when ice is confirmed, various procedures need to be followed. which of those
listed is NOT necessary?
1.- the master must be informed and come to the bridge….n
2.-the master must report to the local authorities….n
3.-all crew must be woken and a muster taken….n
4.-the chief engineer must be informed that they are approaching ice….y
are the statements about travelling in icebergs zones true or false?
1.-in poor conditions icebergs can be difficult to see, blending in with the grey sky
and sea….t
2.-sea clutter may hide the radar reflections from an iceberg….t
3.-the sound of breakers where no lands is expected might indicate the presence
of a large iceberg….t
4.-when you approach pack ice it is always easy to see….f
what is the typical size of icebergs in the artic?
1.-about 45 m tall and 180 m long….y
2.-about 30 m tall and 250 m long….n
3.-about 75 m tall and 100 m long….n
what is the name given to the small ice plates that first start to form on the surface
of the sea as the temperature drops?
1.-brash ice….n
2.-frazil ice….y
3.-grease ice….n
4.-bergy bits….n
985-search and rescue:
1.-what is the minimum required range for a NAVTEX transmitterP
1.-50 nautical miles….n
3.-250 nautical miles….y
2.-search and rescue

which organisation jointly produce the IAMSAR manual?
1.-I….n
2.-II….n
3.-III….y
4.-All of them….n

what is a RCC?
1.-rescue co-ordination centre….y
2.-regional command centre….n
3.-rescue command control….n
4.-regional communications centre….n

at how many levels of importace can a DSC message be set?
1.-3….n
2.-4….y
3.-5….n
4.-6….n

what is the lowest classification of distress alert?
1.-unspecified….n
2.-uncertainty….y
3.-alert….n
4.-uncontrolled….n

how is the NAVTEX broadcast?
1.-518 khz….y
2.-NBDP on selected HF frequencies….n
3.-218 khz….n
4.-vhf channel 16….n

by what means can vessel beyond NAVTEX coastal transmmission range receive
MSI?
1.-COSPAS-SARSAT….N
2.-MarsaNET….N
3.-telesat….N
4.-safetyNET….Y

how many primary satellites make up the inmarsat system?
1.-2….n
2.-6….n
3.-5….n
4.-4….y

what are the three most important items contained in a DSC alert?
1.-the vessels identity, position and nature of the distress….y
2.-the vessels identity, position and number of crew….n
3.-the vessels position, number of crew and nature of the distress….n
4.-the vessels identity, level of alert and assistance required….n

in a SAR operation, who has overall responsibility for directing the operation?
1.-the aircraft co-ordinator….n
2.-the service provider….n
3.-the SAR mission co-ordinator….y
4.-the on scene co-ordinator….n

if you vessel receives a DSC distress alert and there is no initial response from any
SAR services, you should:
1.-respond yourself to the vessel in distress then relay it on to a MRCC….y
2.-report the message to your own ships owners and get instructions….n
3.-relay the distress message on your GMDSS and wait for a response….n
4.-log the message and continue to listen out….n

enhanced group calling (EGC) enables a SAR service to:
1.-transmit multiple messages simultaneously….n
2.-transmit the ame message in multiple languages simultaneously….n
3.-confirm the correct position of a vessel transmitting a distress signal….n
4.-transmit a message to a defined are….y

what is a SRU?
1.-search region unit….n
2.-search and rescue unit….y
3.-strategic resource unit….n
4.-search and recovey unit….n

what is the general means of communication within an A2 sea area?
1.-VHF….N
2.-MF….Y
3.-UHF….N
4.-VHF and NAVTEX….N

Roughly what latitude north and south marks the boundary of the A4 sea area?
1.-65°….n
2.-70°….n
3.-76°….y
4.-80°….n
what triggers transmission of a location signal form a SART?
1.-inmmersion in water….n
2.-a rada signal….y
3.-manual activation….n
4.-a satellite signal….n

with in approximately what range will a SART respond to a radar signal?
1.-5-8 nautical miles….y
2.-8-12 nautical miles….n

when can an alerting post crease direct communications with a vessel in distress?
1.-when it is located by a SAR authority….N
2.-when it is told to do so by a SRU….N
3.-when it switches communications to a working channel….N
4.-when it is told to do so by the MRCC….Y

what are the means of notifying SRU commanders that a SAR operation is to be
terminated?
1.-NAVTEX hard copy message….n
2.-R/T and NAVTEX….n
3.-R/T and SITREP….y
4.-SafetyNET transmission….n

GMDSS is required on all cargo ships over:
1.-250GT….N
2.-300GT….Y
3.-500GT….N
4.-1000GT….N

if a vessel receives a DSC distress alert what is the first thing that it should do?
1.-wait a while to see if a SAR authority respond….y
2.-immediately send a DSC acknowledgement….n
3.-call the vessel in distress on channel 16….n
4.-report the message to your own ships owners and get instructions….n

which organisations jointly produce the IAMSAR manual?
1.-IMO and IRS….N
2.-ICAO and NGS….N
3.-AIS and WHO….N
4.-IMO and ICAO….Y

Over which area of the earth are two inmarsat satellites permanently stationed?
1.-indian ocean….n
2.-pacific ocean….n
3.-equator….n
4.-atlantic ocean….y

what is the difference between wait and wait out?
1.-wait means there is a pause, while wait out means channels….n
2.-wait means there is going to be a long pause,while wait out means end of
transmission but will call you back….n
3.-wait means there is going to be a short pause,while wait out mensa there is
going to be a long pause….y
4.-wait means there is going to be a break in transmission, while wait out means
case transmission until further notice….n

what actual range do most NAVTEX transmitters achieve?
1102-offshore supply safety

1.-when should the toolbox talk or sale job analysis meeting for the cargo operation
at the installation be held?
1.- it is not necessary to hold the meeting, as personnel will already be familiar with
what to do…..n
2.-before leaving port….n
3.-when the vessel is more than one hour from the installation….n
4.-when the vessel is close to the installation….y

when there is mud and grease on deck from anchor handling or mooring
operations you should:
1.-stop the operation….y
2.-inform the master….n
3.-clean it up ass soon as possible….n
4.-consult your fellow crew members….n

if you recognise symptoms of fatigue in yourself, what should you do?
1.-finish the task then take a long rest….n
2.-finish the task then inform your supervisor….n
3.-stop for a cup of cofee and something to eat….n
4.-speak to yout supervisor….y

what part of the equipment is most often the first indication that something has
gone wrong during discharge of dry bulk product?
1.-the hose in the water….n
2.-the hose in the deck….n
3.-the manifold….n
4.-the installations vent….y
your main defence against injury is:
1.-your PPE….n
2.-life-saving appliances on board….n
3.-following correct operational procedures….y
4.-being very careful….n

dangerous cargoes should be:
1.-pre-slug and, ideally, capped….n
2.-stowed in a designated area away from the accomodation….y
3.-securely stowed in racks….n
4.-allowed to move freely….n

bridge personnel on offshore supply vessels are particularly susceptible to fatigue
because:
1.-they are not allotted sufficient rest hours in the schedule…n
2.-they tend not to delegate to officer…n
3.-their vessels are often manoeuvred for long periods while close to
installation….y
4.-they have to deal with so many officials...n

once the crane sling is attached, the crew must:
1.-remain where they are, while manitoring the operation….N
2.-communicate with the bridge….N
3.-withdraw to a position of safety…Y
4.-put on their PPE….N

Legislation on minimum rest hours for personnel assigned duty as officer in charge
of a wathc or as a rating in charge or a watch comes from:
1.-STCW….y
2.-the ISPS code….n
3.-OCIMF….n
4.-the marine safety forum….n

are the statements about personal safety while working on offshore supply vessels
true or false?
1.-when wearing a hard hat, chinstraps are optional, depending on the task in
hand….f
2.-caffeine helps to minimise fatique…f

if weather conditions are poor, who has the fina say about whether the operation
should go ahead or.
1.-the vessels master….Y
2.-the vessels owner….N
3.-the field supervisor….N
4.-the OIM...N

Are the statements about safety in offshore supply operations true or false?
1.-if a venting hose is used, it must be placed overboard, away from the jetty, and
properly weighted….t
2.-in poor weather, the cargo lashings should all be removed well in advance of the
discharge to the installation….f
3.-within the 500 metre zone, one man on the bridge and two men in the engine
room is considered good practice….f

where can you find out what PPE to wear when handling a particular bulk cargo?
1.-from the cargos MSDS…y
2.-you should know this already…n
3.-by asking the master....n
4.-what PPE you wear should not vary from cargo to cargo...n

well casing should be:
1.-stowed in a designated area away from the accommodation....n
2.-pre-slung and, ideally, capped….y
3.-securely stowed in racks….n
4.-allowed to move freely….n

once given permission to enter the 500 metre zone, the vessel should proceed to a
safe position. How far should this be from the installation?
1.-at least 25 metres….n
2.-at least 50 metres....y
if you arent sure how to go about an operation, should:
1.-finish it to the best of your ability….n
2.-take extra care when doing it….n
3.-ask your fellow crew members to do it for you….n
4.-stop and ask for help….y

why must the loading hoses be secured when pressuried air is used?
1.-in case they burst….n
2.-to prevent water getting in….n
3.-to stop them moving around….y
4.-it is not necessary to secure loading hoses when pressurised air is used….n
1106-maintenance of mooring systems

1.-
2.-maintenance of mooring systems

what provides a clear indication that a wire rope is becoming worn?
1.-wire snags appearing along its length….n
2.-a singing noise when it is under strain….n
3.-it becomes more pliant and easier to handle each time it is used….n
4.-a reduction in diameter….y

the brushes on a DC electrical winch systeam should be inspected:
1.-monthly….n
2.-after every mooring operation….n
3.-as specified in the companys service manual….y
4.-every six months….n

if a maintenance check shows signs that oil has penetrated the winch brake linings,
they should be:
1.-replaced as soon as possible….y
2.-thoroughly cleaned with an effective solvent…n.
3.-dried out by exposure to the air for 24 hrs….n
4.-replaced at the time of the next annual survey….n

in particular, what do polyethylene ropes have to be checked for?
1.-extra stretching….n
2.-discolouring due to chemical sensitivity….n
3.-unpleasant smell indicating chemical attack....n
4.-heat damage due to their low melting point….y

is the statements about aramid fibre ropes true or false?
1.-compared to other materials, aramid fibre ropes have reduced resistance to
ultra-violet light….t

how much abrasion damage to a synthetic fibre rope would mean it must be
discarded?
1.-any sign….n
2.-5%....n
3.-10%....y
4.-15%....n

why are wire ropes treated with lubrican?
1.-to prevent excessive stretching….n
2.-to lubricate the internal wires, so maintaining service and flexibility….y
3.-to prevent corrosion on the outside of the wire….n
4.-to make the wire stretch more….n

how often should synthetic lines be end-for-ended in normal service?
1.-after every third mooring in which they have been used….n
2.-monthly….n
3.-at least every 4-6 months….y
4.-annually….n

if the complte strand of a wire rope has broken, the rope should be:
1.-

when visually inspecting synthetic fibre ropes, an important factor to watch for is:
1.-dirt on the ropes….n
2.-unusual colours in the ropes lenght….n
3.-a change in the ropes lenght….n
4.-degradation of the rope surface due to prolonged exposure to sunlight….n
962.-good bunkering practice

1.-are these statements about bunkering procedures true or false?
1.-when preparing for bunkering, any unused flanges should be blanked….t
2.-a member of the ships engine department should board the barge to be in
overall control of the bunkering….f
3.-the position of the hose should never be changed once the bunkering transfer
has started….f
4.-the tank gauge can indicate a false measurement, depending on the vessels
trim….t

true or false
1.-bunker fuel is used in the auxiliary engines as well as the main engines….t
2.-bunker fuel is the highest quallity product distilled form crude oil….f

when should fuel oil samples be taken?
1.-at the start of transfer….n
2.-in the middle of transfer….n
3.-continuosly during transfer….y
4.-at the end of transfer….n

what are most oil spills at sea caused by?
1.- collision….n
2.-overspills during bunkering….y
3.-leaking barges….n
4.-corroded oil drums….n
5,.good bunkering practice

the sample of the fuel oil required for MARPOL should not be less than:
1.-100ml….n
2.-200ml….n
3.-300ml….n
4.-400ml….y

what is the MARPOL annex VI maximum sulphur content limit for all marine fuel oil
used within a SECA?
1.-0.5% m/m….n
2.-1.5% m/m….y
3.-2.5% m/m….n
4.-4.5% m/m….n

which of the items listed is NOT regullated by MARPOL annex VI?
1.-maximum sulphur content….
2.-quality of the fuel oil….n
3.information on the BDN….n
4.-emergency shut-down procedures….y
5.-sampling procedures….n
How many fuel oil samples need to be taken?
1.-2....n
2.-3….n
3.-4....y
4.-6….n

elige la imagen correcta, drag the commands to match the appropiate bunkering
hand signals
1.-start. 2.-wai 3.-reduce pumping rate 4.-increase pumping rate 5.-stop 6.-finish
drag the correct words form the list to complete the sentences about measuring the
volume of bunker fuel delivered.
Throughout the bunkering operation, the ships representative on the BARGE
should therefore witness and monitor tank LEVELS, by checking the reference
HEIGHTS and tank NUMBERS in the CALIBRATION tables supplied by the barge.

Which information about the fuel oil that has been delivered does the BDN (Bunker
delivery note) NOT include?
1.-quantity….n
2.-density….n
3.-flash-point….y
4.-sulphur content….n
is this statement about risk assessment true or false?
1.-risk assessment should take place as soon as the barge arrive….f

The BDN ( bunker delivery note) must be kept on board for at least:
1.-3 years….y
2.-4 years….n
3.-5 years….n
4.-7 years….n

drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about material
safety data sheets.
Material safety data sheets detailing any DANGEROUS characteristics of the fuel
oil should have been received from the SUPPLIER in advance of the bunkering
OPERATION, and the bunkering TEAM should be made familiar with them.
1103-vessel general permit

1.-for which vessels greater than 79 feet is submission of a notice of intent (NOI)
required in order to obtain coverage under the VGP?
1.-Large fishing vessels….n
2.-merchant ships under 300 GT, with ballast water capacity of less than 8 cubic
metres….n
3.-merchant ships of 300 GT or above, or whose ballast water capacity is 8 cubic
metres or more….y
4.-all vessels, regardless of weight of ballast water capacity….n
2.-vessel general permit
true or false?
1.-the purpose of the VPG is to enable better control of pollution in US waters….t

true or false?
1.-annual inspections should be carried out in dry dock….f

VPG applies in waters:
1.-up to 1nm from the US coast and US inland waterways….n
2.-up to 3nm fromthe US coast and US inland waterways….y

inspections for effluent discharges should bee:
1.-every watch, weekly, quarterly and annually….y
2.-only weekly and annually….n
3.-only every watch and annually….n
4.-it is up to the EPA to carry out inspections, not the ship….n

if a discharge is made that could endanger health or the environment, what should
you do?
1.-report it to the US coast guard within 7 days….n
2.-report it to the EPA within 24 hours….y
3.-report it to the EPA within 7 days….n
4.-report it to the company within 24 hours, and they will contact the US coast
guard or EPA on the vessels behalf….n

when should simple corrective actions such as housekeeping be carried out?
1.-immediately….y
2.-no longer than 2 weeks….n
3.-no longer than 3 months….n
4.-before the vessels is re-launched from dry dock….n

when should changes requiring new parts or equipment to be installed without dry
docking be carried out?
1.-inmmediately….n
2.-within 2 weeks….n
3.-within 3 months….y
4.-within 6 months….n

all records must be kept on board from:
1.-6 months….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-2 years….n
4.-3 years….y

the penalty for knowingly making a false statement is:
1.-a fine of $5,000….n
2.-a fine of $10,000 and up to 2 years in prison….n
3.-a fine of $50,000 per day of violation and up to 3 years in prision….y
4.-a fine of $100,000 per day of violation and up 5 years in prison….n

under MARPOL annex I, the maximum permitted concentration of oil in any oily
discharges is:
1.-<1 ppm….n
2.-<5 ppm….n
3.-<50 ppm….n
4.-<15 ppm….y

which vessels may discharge untreated oily bilge water?
1.-any vessel….n
2.-no vessel….n
3.-vessels under 400 GT….y
4.-Vessels greater than 400 GT….n

if the vessel is on an ocean going voyage, it can only discharge ballast water in
VGP controlled waters if the ballast water has been exchanged in waters more
than:
1.-3nm from shore….n
4.-200nm from shore….y

is the following statement about the implementation of the VGP true or false?
1.-no vessel may discharge boiler blowdown within 1nm of federally protected
waters under any circumstances….f

true or false?
1.-vessels over 400 GT with graywater storage capacity should discharge when
more than 1nm from shore and while underway….t
true or false?
1.-if major hull cleaning is required in port, it should take place in dry dock….t

to minimise chain locker effluent, the anchor chains should be thoroughly washed
down:
1.-after every hauling up….y
2.-once a week….n
4.-before a entering port….n

firemain systems are included in the VGP because their water may contain:
1.-metal and chemicals….y
2.-bacteria and nutrients….n
3.-oil and grease….n
4.-solvents….n

in seawather cooling systems, the filters should be:
1.-cleaned regulary while in port….N
2.-cleaned regularly when more than 50nm from shor….Y
3.-replaced once a month….N
4.-maintained as usual. seawather cooling systems are not regulated by the
VGP….N

Fouling organisms removed from the seawater piping systems should ideally be
discharged when the vessels is:
1.-more than 1nm from shore….n
3.-more than 12 nm from shore….n
4.-more than 50 nm from shore….y
1115.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL SERIES
1.-Once the partially enclosed lifeboat has been lowered to the embarkation deck
ande securely bowsed, what is the next step in the launching procedure?
1.-the sliphook of the gripes is connected….n
2.-the sliding beam davits are removed….n
3.-the boat is lowered to the waterline….n
4.-the person in charge and lifeboat crew enter the boat and prepare to board the
evacuees….y

a fully enclosed ifeboats descent can be stopped at any time by:
1.-pulling on the painter….n
2.-signalling to the winch operator….n
3.-increasing the tension on the brake control cable….n
4.-releasing the tension on the brake control cable….y

the shelters on partially enclosed lifeboats are created by:
1.-rigid covers….n
2.-folding canopies….n
3.-a combination of rigid covers and folding canopies….y
4.-a fibreglass shell that is operated electronically and can cover up to 80% of the
boat….n

when lauching a fully enclosed lifeboat, theFPDs should be removed….
1.-before the boat stars to descend….n
2.-just before the boat reaches the water….y
3.-once the boat is in the water….b
4.-FPDs should never be removed….b
what is a SART?
1.-A survival craft radar transponder….y
2.-a survival craft radio transmitter….n
3.-a search and rescue team on standby for maritime emergencies….n
4.-a search and rescue training exercise….n

why is it important for evacuees to board a freefall lifeboat extremely carefully?
1.-because the boat is in the water and they could get wet….n
2.-because it is in the stowed position and therefore at a steep angle….y
3.-because it is extremely weight-sensitive….n
4.-because sudden movements could dislodge it….n

what are the gripes?
1.-they are special storage spaces onboard the lifeboat to hold food supplies….n
2.-they secure the lifeboat to the bollards on the main deck….n
3.-they aid in lowering the boat by using the winch mechanism….n
4.-they secure the lifeboats to the davits when stowed….y

true or false?
1.-all on-load release system must have built in safeguards against early
release….t
2.-when the boats is at a safe distance from the ship, the painter should be
released….t
3.-a freefall lifeboat should be abandoned if the engine does not start….f

if you lifeboat has an internal air supply, how long will the constant flow of air last?
1.-a minimum of 2 minutes….n
3.-a minimum of 10 minutes….y

accidents can result from improperly reset on/offload release mechanism. which of
the actions listed to avoid this happening does NOT belong on the list?
1.-make yourself fully aware of the paint coating required and grease all moving
parts….
2.-check the manufacturers handbook on proper use of the mechanism….y
3.-make yourself fully aware of the correct procedures….n
4.-make yourself fully aware of the safety checks….n
5.-make yourself fully aware of all other launching equipment….n

when getting clear of the stricken ship, what is the recommended procedure?
1.-make sur the lifeboat is half a mile upwind from the ship….y
2.-head down wind of the ship and clear of its bow and stern….n
3.-stay within 100 metres of the ship, on the bow side….n
4.-stay within 100 metres of the ship, on the stern side….n

at what point during the launch procedure are the doors and hatches secured on a
fully enclosed lifeboat?
1.-once the bottom plugs have been set….n
2.-once the painter has been passed out of the forward hatch and secured….n
3.-once everyone is inside….y
4.-once the engine has been started….n

which type of lifeboat is launched from a ramp?
1.-fire-protected lifeboats….n
2.-freefall lifeboats….y
3.-partially enclosed lifeboats….n
4.-fully enclosed lifeboats….n
1116-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
1.-which throw overboard liferafts have hydrostatic release?
1.-all liferafts except the ones stored forward….y
2.-the ones stored insie the accommodation….n
3.-all throw overboard liferafts have hydrostatic release….n
4.-no throw overboard liferafts have hydrostatic release….n
2.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL
how many people are normally needed to right a 25 person liferaft?
1.-1….y
2.-2….n
3.-3….n
4.-25 person liferafts are too heavy to right….n
true or false?
1.-the priority after launching the liferafts is to get clear of the ship using any means
possible….t
2.-marine evacuation system have the disadvantage that evacuees may have to
enter the water before getting into the liferaft….f
3.-once a throw overboard liferaft is in the water, you should rig the embarkation
ladder….f
as evacuees enter the liferaft, the supervising crew members sitting at the entrance
should:
1.-check that they have removed all sharp objects from their pockets….n
2.-check that they have brought all the necessary survival equipment….n
3.-direct one evacuee to the left and one to the right, and so on….y
4.-direct the first evacuees to sit on the buoayancy chambers,and then the rest to
left and right….n
what is the first action when boarding a throw overboard liferaft?
1.-use the painter to secure the liferaft alongside….n
2.-rig the ships boarding ladders….n
3.-check the liferaft for leaks and damage….y
4.-prepare the davit….n
once the inflation of the davit-launched liferaft is complete, what should the
browsing lines be used for?
1.-to pull the liferaft in tight so that it can be made fast, ready for boarding….y
2.-to act as a safety device when boarding….n
3.-there are no bowsing lines on davit-launched liferafts….n
4.-clearing the boarding area of obstacles….n
when launching a davit-launched liferaft, and you have pulled the liferaft shackle
out of the canister, what should you do next?
1.-let it go….n
2.-hook it on to the davit….y
3.-hook it on to the browsing line….n
4.-you should never pull the liferafts shackle out of the canister….n
what is the first action is launching a davit-launched liferaft?
1.-remove the ships side rails….y
2.-remove the liferafts securing straps….n
3.-prepare the davit….n
4.-check that the launch area is unobstructed….n
where can you find out detailed information about liferaft equipment and operation?
1.-from the ships safety management system….n
2.-from the manufacturers websites….n
3.-from the muster list….n
4.-from the SOLAS training manual….y
why is it important to keep the bowsing lives within the raft?
1.-so that they can be used to tie the rafts together when the raft is clear….n
2.-so that they can be used to tie evacuees together it the liferaft should sink….n
3.-so that the davit hook can be raisedd ready for the next launch….n
4.-so that they will be prevented from snagging and tipping up the raft while it is
being lowered….y
how are throw overboard liferafts inflated?
1.-by releasing the senhouse slip….n
2.-by opening the valise….n
3.-by using the pump supplied….n
4.-by giving a strong pull on the painter at its full extent….y
SOLAS specifies that it must be possible to evacuate a ship within:
1.-15 minutes….n
2.-30 minutes….y
3.-45 minutes….n
4.-one hour….n
when may you leave the ship and board the liferaft?
1.-when you hear the general emergency signal….n
2.-when the person in charge of the liferaft gives the order….n
3.-when the master or their deputy gives the order….y
4.-when you judge that it is no longer safe to stay on the ship….n
what should you do if water enters the life raft?
1.-let it out, using the drain plug….n
2.-nothing. the raft will remain buoyant in any case….n
3.-bail it out as soon as possible, using the baler and/or sponge….y
4.-contact other liferafts in the vicinity for assistance….n
1117-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4.-

1.-There are four main dangers faced by evacuees in a survival craft. which item
does not belong in this.
1.-drowning….n
2.-cold exposure….n
3.-lack of water….n
4.-lack of food….n
5.-inability to sleep….y
2.-PERSONAL SURVIVAL PART 4

true or false?
1.-immersion suits should be put on and zipped up before entering an enclosed
lifeboat….f

whats the recommended way of cooling yourself down in a hot climate when in a
liferaft?
1.-by taking regular dips in the sea….n
2.-by using the battery-operated fan provided….n
3.-by deflating the liferaft floor….y
4.-by paddling the raft to create an air current….n
how long can a well-nourished person normally survive without water?
1.-24 hours….n
2.-3-4 days….y
3.-8-10 days….n
4.-1 month….n

how much water should be given per day after the first 24 hours?
1.-no rations are required for the first 5 days….n
2.-1 glass….n
3.-0.5 litre….y
4.-1.5 litres….n

look-out watches should be kept:
1.-24 hours a day….y
2.-during daylight hours….n
3.-at night….n
4.-at the discretion of the person in charge….n

which piece of equipment transmits a distress signal with your vessels unique
serial number?
1.-SART….N
2.-radar reflector….N
3.-GMDSS….N
4.-EPIRB….Y
Which piece of equipment communicates with nearby vessels radar?
1.-SART….Y
2.-radar reflector….N
3.-GMDSS….N
4.-EPIRB….N

Which piece of signalling equipment is used for long range signalling?
1.-heliograph….n
2.-smoke canister….n
3.-parachute flare….y
4.-hand flare….n

what is the heliograph used for?
1.-to check the outside temperature….n
2.-to warm the emergency food rations….n
3.-as a first aid burns dressing….n
4.-as a means of signalling by reflecting the light of the sun….y

if you have had to enter the water, what is the best course of action?
1.-move as mucho as possible to keep your circulation going….n
2.-take off your boots or shoes….n
3.-find an object to climb on to….y
4.-keep your front into the wind and waves….n

which piece of signalling equipment will help helicopter pilots judge the surface
wind speed and direction?
1.-smoke float….y
2.-heliograph….n
3.-parachute flare….n
4.-hand flare….n

whats the normal methodd of winching a single uninjured person into a helicopter
from a ship?
1.-a highline….n
2.-a lifting stretcher….n
3.-a basket….n
4.-a rescue hook or strop….y

whats the minimum number of crew required in the rescue boat?
1.-2 people….n
2.-3 people….y
3.-4 people….n
4.-5 people….n

when launching a rescue boat, what shoul the ships speed be?
1.-no more than 2 knots….n
2.-no more than 5 knots….y

what is the function of the inside watchman on board an inflated raft?
1.-to prepare food and distribute the water….n
2.-to stop people from smoking….n
3.-to cheer up the occupants….n
4.-to check on injured personnel and on the state of the survival craft….y

shock is a state of collapse that may occur after any serious injury. how should
victims be treated?
1-they should be kept cool, and if conscious placed in an upright position….n
2.-they should be kept warm, laid flat and, if conscious, given frequent sips of
water- except for those with stomach injuries….y
3.-they should be given a small dose of medicinal brandy, then laid flat and given
rest….n
4.-none, wait untill rescue services arrive with speciallist personnel trained to deal
with such a medical emergency….n

1.-once every hour immediately after launching….n
2.-when you have sighted the rescue services or other ships/ aricraft….y
3.-once every hour during the hours of darkness….n
4.-on request from the rescue services….n
1119-MARPOL annex VI-
1.-For ships of 400 GT and above, the bunker delivery note must be kept on board
for at least:
1.-1 year….n
2.-3 years….y
3.-5 years….n
4.-7 years….n
2.-MARPOL annex VI
on or after 1/1/2012, the sulphur limit for all marine fuel oil used outside an ECA is:
1.-0.50% m/m….n
2.-1.50% m/m….n
3.-3.50% m/m….y
4.-4.5% m/m….n
3.-MARPOL annex VI
what is the minimum allowed combustion chamber gas outlet temperature fot the
incirenator?
1.-550°c….n
2.-850°c….y
3.-750°c….n
4.-650°c….n
4.-MARPOL annex VI
under the MARPOL Annex VI, there must be valid certification for the ships built on
or after which date?
1.-19 may 2000….n
2.-19 may 2002….n
3.-19 may 2003….n
4.-19 may 2005...y
5.-MARPOL annex VI
tier III NOx limits apply to engines installed on ships on or after:
1.-1 january 2000….n
4.-1 january 2016….y
6.-MARPOL annex VI
what is the Tier II NOx limit where the engine speed is less than 130 rpm?
1.-17.0….n
2.-9.8….n
3.-14.4….y
4.-3.4….n
7.-MARPOL annex VI
true or false.
1.-the incineration of PCBs is never allowed under Annex VI….T
8.-MARPOL annex VI
True or false.
1.-annex VI applies to all merchant ship types, however large or small, except
where specifically exempted….t
9.-MARPOL annex VI
which of the substances listed may be incinerated on board, as long as the ship is
not in a port, harbour or estuary?
1.-sewage sludge and sludge oil generated during normal shipboard operation….1
2.-waste, containing traces of heavy metals such as mercury and cadmium….n
3.-refined petroleum products containing halogen compounds….n
4.-MARPOL annex I,II ir III residues and any associated contaminated
packaging….n
5.-exhaust gas cleaning system residues….n
10.-MARPOL annex VI
on or after 1/7/2010, the sulphur limit for all marine fuel oils used inside an ECA is:
1.-1.00% m/m….y
2.-1.50% m/m….n
3.-2.0% m/m….n
4.-2.5% m/m…..n
11.-MARPOL annex VI
from the time the fuel oil is delivered, the fuel oil sample should be retained under
the ships control for:
1.-at least 6 months….n
2.-at least 12 months….y
12.-MARPOL annex VI
until 1/1/2012, the sulphur limit for all marine fuel oil used outside an ECA is:
1.-0.50% m/m….n
2.-1.50% m/m….n
3.-3.50% m/m….n
4.-4.5% m/m….y
13.-MARPOL annex VI
true or false?
1.-when taking the fuel sample for MARPOL, care should be taken not to shake the
primary sample quantity before filling the retained sample container….f
4.-nobodys. the ship is not required to be equipped with a means of collecting

VOCs….n
15.-MARPOL annex VI
true or false?
1.-vapour emission recovery regulations apply to tankers trading in all ports and
terminals….f
16.-MARPOL annex VI
the sample of fuel oil required by annex VI should be not less than:
1.-400 ml….y
2.-300 ml….n
3.-200 ml….n
4.-100 ml….n
17.-MARPOL annex VI
refrigerant and fire-fighting systems using hydro-chlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) may
be installed until:
1.-19 may 2010….n
2.-19 may 2012….n
18.-MARPOL annex VI
which of the substances listed is not controlled by MARPOL annex VI?
1.-halons….n
2.-freons….n
3.-VOCs….n
4.-NOx….n
5.-H2S….y
6.-SOx….n
19.-MARPOL annex VI
is the following statement relating to annex Vi true or false?
1.-in order to obtain an EIAPPC, a re-survey is not needed for engines which have
already been issued with statements of compliance with the NOx technical
code….t
20.-MARPOL annex VI
which atmospheric pollutant is released when crude oils or petroleum products are
trasnported, loaded and unloaded on ships?
1.-halons….n
2.-freons….n
3.-VOCs....y
4.-NOx….n
5.-H25….n
6.-SOx….n
1122-FIGHTING POLLUTION-
1.-true or false.
1.-the ullage should be checked once the transfer has been completed….f
2.-FIGHTING POLLUTION
sewage which has not been communited or disinfected can only be discharged
when the ship is more than:
1.-3 nautical miles from shone….n
2.-12 nautical miles from shore….y
3.-4 nautical miles from shore….n
the term segregated ballast means:
1.-a ballast system completely separated from the fuel oil system….n
2.-a ballast system completely separated from the cargo oil system….n
3.-a ballast system completely separated from the cargo and fuel oil systems….y
4.-none of the above….n
the disposal of plastics at sea is:
1.-allowed anywhere outside the designated special / areas….n
2.-allowed as long as they have passed through a comminutor….n
3.-allowed as long as the ship is no less than 12 nautical miles from the coast….n
4.-strictly prohibited everywhere….y
MARPOL annex V affects.
1.-all shipss ( unless expressly provided otherwise )....y
2.-ships of 150 GT and above….n
4.-ships carrying 12 or more passengers….n
according to HELMEPA, how many years does it take for a tin can do disintegrate
in the sea?
1.-1 month….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-10 years….n
4.-100 years….y
MARPOL annex VI limits the emissions into the atmosphere from ships of:
1.-nitrogen oxides….y
2.-methyl bromide….n
3.-carbon dioxide….n
4.-ozone….n
improving the fuel efficiency of the vessel may require:
1.-use of weather routing….n
2.-just in time arriva….n
3.-improved hull maintenance….n
4.-optimum trim….n
true or false?
1.-cleaning materials should be ready to deal with any accidental spill….t
since 1 july 2010, whats has been the maximum permitted sulphur content of fuel
oils in an emission control area ( ECA) according to MARPOL annex VI?
1.-0.5%....N
2.-1.0%....Y
3.-1.5%....N
4.-4.5%...N
Which MARPOL annex deals with the regulations for the prevention of pollution of
oil?
1.-annex I….Y
2.-annex II….N
3.-annex IV….N
4.-annex V….N
12,.FIGHTING POLLUTION
Ships many only discharge processed bilge water from machinery spaces into the
sea if certain very specific criteria are met. which of those listed is correct?
1.-the ship is sailing within a special area….N
2.-the ship is proceeding en route….Y
3.-the oil content of the effluent without dilution does not exceed 100 ppm….N
4.-the ship has in operation equipment as required by regulation 16(5) of annex 1
to MARPOL….N
TRUE OR FALSE.
1.-during fuel transfer the deck scuppers should be plugged….t
All oily water discharge must be monitored to ensure that the oil content is not
greater than the permitted limit. this:
1.-10 parts per million….n
2.-15 parts per million….y
outside special areas, how many nautical miles from the nearest land can oil or oily
1.-15….n
2.-35….n
3.-50….y
4.-75….n
the SEEMP is:
1.-a plan for monitoring environmental effectiveness on board….n
2.-a system for monitoring improvements is energy consumption….n
3.-a ship specific plan for managing the ships energy efficiency….y
true or false
1.-vessels smaller than 400 GT can discharge oil or oily mixture into the sea in the
antartic area….f
true or false
1.-once transfer begins all the hoses and connections should be checked to ensure
they are tight under pressure….t
which of those listed is not a special area designated under MARPOL 73/78 annex
1?
1.-the mediterranean sea area….n
2.-the baltic sea area….n
3.-the red sea area….n
4.-the caribbean sea area….y
5.-the black sea area….n
which MARPOL annex deals with garbage and waste disposal from ships?
1.-I….N
2.-IV….N
3.-V….Y
4.-VI….N
MARPOL annex VI specifies that the bunker delivery note ( BDN) should be kept
available for inspection for:
1.-6 months….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-2 years….n
4.-3 years….y
1174-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT-
1.-At which stage should garbage be separated out into different categories?
1.-at collection….y
2.-at processing….n
3.-at storage….n
4.-at discharge….n
2.-GARBAGE MANAGEMENT
is the following statement about the management of garbage true or false?
1.-every ship of 100 GT and above, every ship certified to carry 15 or more
persons, and fixed or floating platforms must all carry a garbage management
plan….t
how long does a tin can take a biodegrade?
1.-1 year….n
2.-10 years….n
3.-25 years….n
4.-50 years….y
true or false?
1.-offshore platforms may discharge non-harmful cleaning agents and addities in
deck and external surfaces wash water….f
after the last entry, the garbage record book must be kept on board the ship
or platform and available for inspection for a minimum of:
 6 months
 1 year
 2 years
 5 years
how much plastic garbage in the oceans is the estimated to have been generated
by boats, ship and platforms?
1.-80%....n
2.-100%....n
3.-20%....y
4.-50%....n
true or false
1.-the garbage management plan must cover the collection, processing, storage
and discharge of garbage….t
the revised MARPOL annex provisions for the discharge of garbage into the sea
have applied since:
1.-1 july 2013….n
4.-1 july 2014….n
true or false
1.-placards alerting crew and passengers to the discharge prohibitions must be
prominently displayed on the ship or platform….t
to what size does food waste need to be reduced before it can be discharged into
the sea at the specified distance from nearest land?
1.-1 cm….n
2.-50 mm….n
3.-25 mm….y
4.-there is no set size….n
in the garbage record book, each completed page must be signed by:
 the person designated in charge of garbage management

 the master
 the safety officer
 the officer of the watch
which of the areas listed is NOT specia AREA?
1.-The baltic sea….n
2.-the wider caribbean region….n
3.-the red sea….n
4.-the south china sea….y
true or false?
1.-garbage may be discharged to sea if it presents an imminent health risk….t
at what distance from the nearest land may ships outside special areas discharge
cooking, floating dunnage, paper and lining and packing materials?
1.-discharge of these materials is prohibited anywhere….y
4.-there is no specified distance….n
true or false
1.-once garbage has been incinerated, the resulting ash may be discharged into
the sea….f
which of the items listed is NOT considered garbage under the revised MARPOL
annex V regulations?
1.-food waste….n
2.-plastic….n
3.-domestic wastes….n
4.-operational waste….n
5.-fresh fish….y
6.-cargo residues…n.
7.-cooking oil….n
8.-fishing gear….n
true or false
1.-ships within special areas may discharge animal carcasses, on condition that it
is as far from the nearest land as possible and en route….f
at what distance from the nearest land may ships within special areas discharge
non-hamful cargo residues contained in wash water?
1.-3 nautical miles…n
4.-there is no specified distance….n
outside a special area, at what distance from the nearest land may ground food
waste be discharged into the sea by ships?
4.-no specified distance….n
who has overall responsibility for garbage procedures on the ship of platform?
1.-everyone is equally responsible….n
2.-the officer of the watch….n
4.-the person or persons designated in the garbage management plan….y
975-SHIPSHAPE: A GUIDE TO GOOD HOUSEKEEPING.

1.-When a piece of electrical equipment is being worked on, the electrician
removes the fuses in order to:
1.-use them where they are more urgently needed….n
2.-isolate the area….y
3.-act as a warning….n
4.-avoid the power draining away….n
2.-SHIPSHAPE: A GUIDE TO GOOD HOUSEKEEPING

ventilation systems should be efficiently maintained so that:
1.-fumes are drawn off….y
2.-the power supply does not surge….n
3.-the negative ions in the air continue to circulate….n
4.-the cargo is not affected….n
true or false?
1.-it is dangerous to secure oxyacetylene cylinders….f
2.-first aid kits should never be touched except in an emergency….f
3.-the purpose of keeping guards in place on machines is so that loose clothing is
not caught in the moving parts….t

who is primarily responsible for good housekeeping on board ship?
1.-the master….n
3.-the chief engineer….n
4.-everyone on board….y

true or false?
1.-when you have finished working below bottom plate level, the first thing you
should do is dispose of the oily rags and paper waste….f
2.-spilled oil is a fact of life on board ship and a certain amount left on the surfaces
is acceptable….f
3.-spare parts for tools and machinery should be labelled….t

when working on a ladder, you should keep any necessary tools:
1.-in your pocket….n
2.-in a container….y
3.-in your backpack….n
4.-attached to your belt….n

if a colour-coded pipe has faded or become obscured, you should:
1.-give it a good wash….n
2.-repaint it in a similar colour….n
3.-report it for repainting….y
4.-grit-blast it to remove the colour altogether….n

true or false?
1.-warning signs should be placed in the vicinity of hot pipes….t
2.-oily rags and waste paper can cause fumes and fire from spontaneous
combustion….t
3.-the chemicals required for cleaning equipment will have been approved for use
on board andd will not require any special precautions….f
977-PORT STATE CONTROL

1.-Which of the actions listed is NOT one that the PSCO can request following an
inspection?
1.-rectify the deficiency at the next survey….y
2.-rectify the deficiency at the next port….n
3.-rectify the deficiency within 14 days….n
4.-rectify the deficiency before departure….n
2.-PORT STATE CONTROL

Which of the conditions listed would NOT constitute clear grounds for a more
detailed inspection?
1.-crew members are not familiar with essential shipboard operational procedures
related to the safety of the ship or pollution prevention….n
2.-the crew accommodation is untidy and dirty….y
3.-the ships equipment does not appear to correspond substanially with the
requirements fo the relevant conventions….n

true or false.
1.-inspectors may ask to see the crew undertaking drills….t

true or false?
1.-a surveyor from a recognised organisation may be asked to attend the ship and
sort out remedial action acceptable to the PSCO….T

TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-Absence of valid ISM certification will lead to a detention….t

inspection reports must be retained on board the ship:
1.-for 2 years….y
2.-for 3 years….n
3.-for 4 years….n
4.-until the next inspection….n

which of the IMO conventions listed is NOT relevant for PSC inspection?
1.-loadlines….n
2.-SOLAS….n
3.-MARPOL….n
4.-intact stability code….y
4.-Colreg convention….n
true or false?
records of all drills should be retained for inspection
 true
the PSCO will always want to start the inspection with:
 a quick tour of the ship

 a check of previous report forms
 a through check of the ships documents
 a check on how well the crew can communicate with each other
true or false?
inspections can only board ships during the day and by appointment
 false
during the inspection the PSCO should be:
 left to go wherever he likes on his own

 accompanied by one or more ships officers
 accompanied by adn AB

Regulations concerning crew living and working conditions as well as the social
rights of seawaters are specified in a convention developed by:
1.-the international maritime organization (IMO)....N
2.-the international transport workers federation (ITF)....N
3.-the international chamber of shipping (ISC)....N
4.-The international labour organisation (ILO)….Y

Which of the conditions listed do PSCOs commonly find as deficiencies?
1.-charts not properly updated….n
2.-lack of proper maintenance….n
3.-unsatisfactory life saving appliances….n
4.-oil record book not kept properly….n

true or false?
1.-if the master feels the detention order is unfair he should ignore it and raise it
with his flag state at the next port….f

as a minimum the port state control officer will inspect:
1.-the ships certificate plus a general inspection of the ship which must include the
bridge….n
2.-the ships certificates plus a general inspection of the ship which may include the
engine room, bridge, deck and crew accommodation….y
3.-the ships certificates….n
4.-the ships certificates plus a general inspection of the ship which must include
crew accommodation….n
1171.-US PORT STATE CONTROL

1.-true or false.
1.-PSC examinations should last around 2-4 hours….t
true or false.
1.-the accommodation and lliving quarters are private and not subject to PSC
examinations….f

true or false
1.-PSCOs examine the workings of the vessel and not its certificates and
documentation….f

true or false.
1.-PSCOs are concerned with the environmental impact of invasive species….t

true or false
1.-detained vessels may challenge PSC findings….t

which of the IMO conventions listed is not relevant for PSC examination?
1.-loadlines….n
2.-SOLAS….n
3.-MARPOL….n
4.-Intact stability code….y
5.-COLREGS convention….n

during the examination the port state control officer should be:
1.-accompanied by one or more ships officers….y
2.-left to go wherever he likes on his own….n
3.-accompanied by an AB….n
4.-accompanied by the master throughout the entire process….n

true or false.
1.-the PSC examination does not include items covered under the vessel general
permit….f

in most cases the PSCO will want to start the examination with:
1.-a quick tour of the vessel….n
2.-a search for asian gypsy moth egg masses….n
3.-a thorough check of the ships documents….y
4.-a check on how well the crew can communicate with each other….n

true or false?
1.-crew members may be required to demonstrate equipment and procedures….t

true or false?
1.-PSC examinations are for officers only….f

true or false?
1.-PSCOs are concerned with vessels safety as well as the protection of US
ports….t

true or false?
1.-PSCOs do not have the authority to detain vessels that fail inspections….f

inspection reports must be retained on board ship:
1.-for 2 years….y
2.-for 3 years….n
3.-for 4 years….n
4.-until the next inspection….n

as a minimum the port state control officer will inspect:
the bridge….n
2.-the ships certificates plus a general inspection of the ship which may include the
engine room, bridge, deck and crew accommodation….y
3.-the ships certificates….n
crew accommodation….n
true or false.
1.-port state control (PSC) is administered by the united states coast guard and
customs and border protection….t

true or false….
1.-PSC examination can an will review log and record books….t

with regard to compliance with the ISPS code, when the PSCOs board the ship
they will check to see if:
1.-the gangway watch is well maintained….n
2.-the watchstander has adequate knowledge of vessel security….n
3.-an accurate record of visitors is being kept….n
4.-they are greeted and guided to meet the master….n
5.-all the above are true….y
594.-MARINERS ROLE IN COLLECTING EVIDENCE

1.-The most important document that provides evidence of the quantity and
1.-ships delivery order….n
2.-bill of landing….y
3.-maters receipt….n
4.-letter of credit….n

true or false?
1.-minor cuts and bruises dont always have to be investigated and recorded….f

the main reason for a thorough investigation following an incident is to:
1.-find out who is to blame….n
2.-prevement it from happening again….y
3.-kepp good records of what occurs on board….n
4.-all of the above….n

any photographs or visual evidence should include:
1.-the correct time, time zone and date….n
2.-some indication of scale, where appropiates….n
3.-separate notes about what the images show and who made them….n

true or false?
1.- poor record keeping and filing may show the company in a poor light if a case
comes to court….t

why was there a lighting problem in the area where the incident ocurred?
1.-the lighting switch was defective….n
2.-nobody had fitted replacement bulbs….n
3.-because the electrician had failed to order replacement bulbs….y

true or false?
1.-crewmembers notebooks are private documents and cannot be considered as
evidence….f
true or false?
1.-many ship data recorders only store data for no more than 12 hours….t

true or false?
1.-all items of evidence should be clearly labelled and securely packaged….t

which annex MARPOL deals with the prevention of pollution from garbage?
1.-annex I….N
2.-annex IV….N
3.-annex V….Y
4.-annex VI….N

The ships obligations relating to be carriage of cargo are defined in:
1.- the hague and hague-visby rules….Y
2.-the bill of lading….N
3.-the ships certificate of fitness….N
4.-SOLAS….N

TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-altering of falsifying records may be regarded as a criminal offence….t
2.-PERMIT TO WORK
which of the statements does NOT belong in the list? A permit to work shoul state:
1.-the qualification of the crewmember(s) to do the work….y
2.-the precise location and details of the work to be done….n
3.-the measures undertaken to make the job safe….n
4.-the nature and resuts of any preliminary tests….n
4.-PERMIT TO WORK
what is the ddefinition given for the word risk?
1.-it describes what would happen in case of the sudden operational failure of a
vital piece of equipment on board ship….n
2.-it is a combination of two factors- the likelihood of something happening and the
consequences if it does….y
3.-an unitended event involving death or injury, and/ damage to the ship, other
property, or the environment….n
4.-the outcome of an accident….n
6.-PERMIT TO WORK
nitrogen is one the greatest hazards of enclosed spaces because:
1.-it has no smell….n
2.-it gives no warning symptoms to an affected person….n
3.-a person can lose consciousness very quickly, sometimes in less than 20
seconds….n
4.-of all of the above….y
why entering cargo tanks or other enclosed spaces, what is the required
oxygen content for safe:
 21%
 19%
 24%.
 18%
8.-PERMIT TO WORK
which of those listed is NOT one of the general safety management objectives of
the ISM code?
1.-to provide for safe practices in ship operation and a safe working
environments….n
2.-to specific who is competent to undertake hazardous procedures….y
3.-to stablish safeguards against all identified risks….n
4.-to continuosly improve the safety managements skills of personnel ashore and
aboard….n
9.-PERMIT TO WORK
if you see or suspect and injury to someone in an enclosed space, what should you
do first?
1.-enter the space to assess the situation more fully….n
2.-raise the alarm….y
3.-increase the ventilation….n
4.-check the instruction on the permit to work….n
698.-BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT.

1.-Are the statements about ballast water exchange true or false?
1.-ballast water exchange at sea can have a serious effect on the ships structural
integrity….t
2.-sequential exchange of ballast water at sea must be carried out by emptying
pairs of tanks at a time to maintain the ships trim and stability….t
3.-correctly carried out, ballast water exchange at sea is a complete solution to the
problem….f
4.-the master decides precisely how exchange at sea should be carried out….f
the IMO guidelines state the every ship that carries ballast water must have a
ballast water
1.-true….y
2.-false….n
which of the factors listed is NOT relevant for port state authorities when
implementing their ballast water management programmes and assessing risks?
1.-highly disparate conditions between uptake and discharge ports….n
2.-ballast water age….n
3.-the type of vessel concerned….y
4.-knowledge of the presence of target organisms….n

in the black sea, the comb jelly became a major contributor to the rapid decline in
the catch of wich particular fish?
1.-salmon….n
2.-anchovy….y
3.-sturgeon….n
4.-sardine….n

which of the items listed is NOT included in the section of the IMO guidelines
dealing with ships operational procedures?
1.-precautionary practices, such as timely removal sediment….n
2.-port state considerations….n
3.-training and education….y
4.-ballast water management options….n
drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the possible
consequences of failing to comply with the regulations in force:
Failure to comply may lead to PENALTIES and loss of revenue for the shipping
company. The vessel may be required to retain her BALLAST and load less cargo.
The ship may not be allowed to DOCK or may be forced to go out to sea and
exchange her ballast water. There could be the risk of a heavy fine or even
IMPRISONMENT.

Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about ballast water
exchange.
Exchanging ballast at sea can affect the trim and DRAFT. The engine intakes may
come out of the water. It can set up STRESSES in the hull leading to structural
FAILURE and could cause a loss of stability. Even in calm weather, you must carry
out this procedure with exreme caution.

The IMO guidelines contain a specimen format for a ballast water reporting from.
Which of the items of information listed does this form contain?
1.-vessel information….n
2.-voyage information….n
3.-ballast water management information ( numbers of tanks discharged )....n

the IMO adopted a set or guidelines for the management of ballast water. at
present, there are:
1.-mandatory….n
2.-voluntary….y
in order to replace approximately 95% of ballast water in a tank using the flow-
through method of exchange, the amount of water pumped through the tank must
be:
1.-1.5 x the thanks volume….n
2.-2 x the tanks volume….n
3.-3 x the tanks volume….y
4.-4 x the tanks volume….n

what minimum distances does fra from shore mean for ships entering North
american great lakes ports or visiting ports further up the Hudson River than the
George Washington bridge?
1.-100 miles….n
2.-200 miles….y
3.-300 miles….n
4.-150 miles….n

which of the actions listed does NOT form part of the duties of the designated
ballas water management officer?
1.-ensuring the exchange conforms to the plan….n
2.-preparing the ballast water declaration form prior to entering port….n
3.-maintaining the ballast water log….n
4.-deciding wheter sea conditions allow exchange to be undertaken safely….y

true or false?
1.-the use of clean, treated fresh water for ballast solves the potential problems
with ballast water….t
2.-the problems with mechanical tratment of ballast water are expense and
maintenance of the filters….t
3.-heating the water of bombarding it with ultra-violet light or ultra-sound will kill
everything in the ballast water….f

true or false?
1.-marine organisms carried in ballast water can damage the ship….f
2.-many countries have already introduced quarantine requirements for ballast
water management…. t
3.-ballast water can carry disease from one part of the world to another….t
4.-organisms carried in ballast water which survive on discharge can multiply and
cause serious environmental problems….t

the current recommended method of ballast water management is:
1.-isolation….n
2.-treatment….n
3.-exchange….y

part hour of the ballast water reporting form is a detailed history of the ballast
water. which of the items of information listed would NOT be required?
1.-the date….n
2.-the types of organism is the water….y
3.-the port….n
4.-the water temperature at the time of the uptake….n
792.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS
1.-In the event of a spill, where would the master find the list of contacts who must
be notified.
1.-in the P&A Manual….n
2.-in the SOPEP….y
3.-In the safety management system….n

drag the correct words from the list to complete the check procedures required
Check that the COW SYSTEM has been isolated.
Check that the risers above the CARGO PUMPS have been drained of oil.
Check that the valves into the tanks have been OPENED.
Check that the sea valve remains closed until the pump is STARTED.

TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-In a real grounding, the master would instruct the engine room to stop the
engine….t
2.-depending on the circumstances, in a genuine emergency, oil could get in
through seawater intakes….t
3.-notification of the coastal state is mandatory under MARPOL if there is an actual
or probable discharge of oil….t
4.-notification of the coastal state is mandatory under MARPOL if there is an actual
or probable discharge of oil….f

who should be responsible for dealing with the press and media?
1.-the p&i club representative….n
2.-the ships master….n
3.-the first officer….n
4.-a responsible individual in the shore office….y

what do the initials SOPEP stand for?
1.-shipboard oil prevention emergency plan….n
2.-shipboard oil pollution emergency plan….y
3.-shipboard oil pollution energy plan….n
4.-shipboard oil prevention escape plan….n

the exercise shown in the video is based on the ship:
1.-having a collison….n
2.-running aground….y
3.-catching fire….n

true or false?
1.-most marine oil spills result from oil tankers getting into difficulties….f
2.-the majority of spills are less than seven tonnes….t
3.-the quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small and so no
special precautions need to be taken before starting….f

drag the correct words from the list to identify some of the key aspects of preparing
fo bunkering.
The hoses must BE CHECKED TO CONFIRM THEY ARE IN GOOD CONDITION.
All scuppers must BE PLUGGED.
The piping system must BE CORRECTLY LINED UP.

Above what size are ships, other than oil tankers, required to have a SOPEP?
1.-150 GT….N
2.-250 GT….N
3.-400 GT….Y
4.-500 GT….N

Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about bunkering
procedures.
The transfer must start at a LOW flow rate.
Transfer rates will need to be CAREFULLY monitored.
A vigilant deck watch is essential, including a regular check on the MOORING
ARRANGEMENTS.
Before disconnection all hoses must be DRAINED.
793-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.

1.-OPA 90 applies to:
1.-all oil tankers over 150 GT entering US waters….n
2.-all ships flying the US flag….n
3.-all ships entering US waters whatever their flag….y
4.-all oil chemical tankers entering US waters whatever their flag….n
2.-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.
how far from the shoreline do US waters extend?

true or false?
1.-most marine oil spills result from oil tankers getting into difficulties….f
3.-the quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small and so no
special precautions need to be taken before starting….f

drag the correct words from the list to identify some of the key aspects of preparing
for bunkering.
Portable pumps must BE READLY AVAILABLE.
The piping system mus BE CORRECTLY LINE UP.

procedures.
Transfer rates will need to be CAREFULLY MONITORED.
ARRANGEMENTS
Pipework and AIR EVENTS must be continually checked for oil details

Drag the correct words from the list to complete the check procedures required
Check that the COW SYSTEM has been isolated.
Check that the risers above the CARGO PUMPS have been drained of oil.

The exercise shown in the video s based on the ship.
1.-having a collision….y
2.-running aground….n
3.-catching fire….n

a full scale PREP to test both ship and shore based emergency response
1.-once a year….y
2.-three times a year….n
3.-once every two years….n
4.-twice a year….n

which of these statements about the qualified individual (QI) is NOT correct?
1.-the QI must speak fluent english….n
2.-the QI must be a member of the ships crew….y
3.-the QI has to be based in the USA….n
4.-The QI may authorise funds for the clean up….n

under OPA 90, who must be notified first in the event of an incident?
1.-the coast guard captain of the nearest port….n
2.-the shipping company headquarters….n
3.-the national response centre in washington D.C…..y
4.-the quaified individual….n

true or false?
1.-in a real emergency, it may be necessary to close ir vents to the engine room
and to close seawater intaks….t
2.-the OPA 90 vessel response plan must always be available in ENGLISH….t
3.-The crew would not normally be mustered until a detailed emergency response
had been agreed with the shore office….f

which of the actions listed are the responsibility of the command centre?
1.-the coordination and distribution of information concerning the actual and
forecast condition of the spill….n
2.-the management of all tactical operations required to execute the companys
general emergency response plan….
3.-obtaining manpower, equipment, material, food, protective clothing and other
facilities needed to support the emergency response….n
4.-settling compensation claims….n

which of the items of information listed is NOT required by the standard from for
reporting incidents to the national response centre?
1.-the ships position….n
2.-the type of product….n
3.-the number of crew on board….y
4.-the quantity at risk….n
drag the corrects words
The unified command provides a top level forum for PRODUCING a cohesive plan
of action.
All decisions, action and COMMUNICATIONSmust be logged on the ship.
Unless the master has serious concerns for safety on board, he will normally follow
the ADVICE he recives from the command centre.
The coast guard will take over operations only if they are asked of if they think
things are getting OUT OF CONTROL.
794-PREVENTION & REACTION TO MARINE OIL SPILLS.

1.-Use your mouse to complete the following sentence correctly.
ABSORBENTS are substances which soak up oil loke a sponge.
ADSORBENTS are substances where oil sticks to the outside surface.
SYNTHETIC SORBENTS absorb a lot of oil and dont absorb water.
NATURAL PRODUCTS often soak up water as well as oil.
oil charges may pose health hazzards and these can be causedd through
ingestion, skin contact of inhalation. Which of these posess the greatest risk?
1.-inhalation….y
2.-skin contact….n
3.-ingestion….n

drag the correct words from the list
1.-The LOWER the viscosity of the oil, the faster it will spread.
Low temperatures will make oil MORE viscous, and spread more slowly.
The higher the ambient temperature and the greater the WINDS SPEED, the more
oil will evaporate.
Over 36 to 48 hour, oil can mix with the sea to form a MOUSSE.

TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-Frequent or prolonged skin contact with benzene is not a cause of concern….f
3.-your sense of smell can become rapidly de-sensitised, particulary to hydrogen
sulphide….t
4.-most oil charges do not require the use of any special protective clothing or
equipment….f

drag the corrects words from the list to complete the check procedures required
check that the COW SYSTEM has been isolated
check that the risers above the CARGO PUMPS have been drained of oil.

Match the opening words with the closing words to identify some of the key
Portable pumps must BE READILY AVAILABLE.
The piping system must BE CORRECTLY LINED UP.

TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-Most marine oil spills result from oil tankers getting into difficulties….f
3.-the quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small so no special
precautions need to be taken before starting….f

when a spill moves with a tide or current at what percentage of the tide or current
speed does it:
1.-3%....n
2.-10%....n
3.-50%....n
4.-100%....y

drag the correct words
Transfer rates will need to be CAREFULLY MONITORED.
ARRANGEMENTS.
Pipework and AIR VENTS must be continually checked for oil leaks.
944-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.

1.-Under the MARPOL regulations, what is the maximum aoil concentration
permitted in oily water that is to be discharged?
1.-5 ppm….n
2.-15 ppm….y
3.-50 ppm….n
4.-100 ppm….n
2.-IT IS NOT WORTH IT.

which of the shipboard records listed are the authorities NOT likely to inspect if
they board a vessel suspected of causing pollution?
1.-tank sounding log….n
2.-cargo manifest….y
3.-garbage record book….n
4.-oil record book….n
under european pollution laws, a seafarer can be found guilty of contributing to a
pollution incident through complicy. what does complicy mena?
1.-encouraring someone to commit and offence….y
2.-working alongside someone committing an offence….n
3.-suspecting an offence but doing nothing about it….n
4.-failure to understand the proper procedures for operating an anti-pollution
system….n

why have so many states tightened up their maritime pollution laws?
1.-ship owners, operators and crews were unaware of the previous, existing
laws….n
2.-ship ownes, operators and crews felt the existing laws did not cover modern
vessels….n
3.-too many ship owners, operators and crews were ignoring the previous, existing
laws….y
4.-the EU felt that ship owners, operators and crews were confused by existing
laws….n

what might investigating authorities think suspicious when examining the oily water
separator?
1.-the system being very clean shiny….n
2.-elbows in pipelines….y
3.-maintenance records which are very well kept and fully up to date….n
4.-crewmembers who are very knowledge about how the system operates….n

if you are detained by the authorities because your vessel is accused of having
caused a pollution incident, how should you respond to their questioning?
1.-refuse to tell the investigation anything. Remain completely silent…n
2.-refuse to answer any questions about the pollution incident until you have been
adsived by either the master, the shipowners representative or their lawyers….n
3.-cooperate fully and answer all question truthfully….y
4.-the them you know nothing whatsoever about the incident, even if you do….n
if there is an accidental discharge while on the high seas, does it need to be
logged?
1.-only if its more than 100 litres….n
2.-only if it is more than three times the prescribed ppm….n
3.-only if it is within 200 miles of land….n
4.-yes, all discharges must be logged….y

engineers believe that an oily water separator will become much more liable to
failure after:
1.-5 years….n
2.-7 years….y
3.-10 years….n
4.-12 years….n

if you see or know of and unauthorised and illegal pollution discharge occurring
from your vessel at sea, what should do?
1.-make sure the master is told about it….y
2.-pretend you didnt see it or know about it….n
3.-make a note of when, where and how it occurred, and keep it yourself….n
4.-tell the person responsible to be more careful in future….n

what is the penalty for a pollution offence in european waters caused by serious
negligence?
1.-1-2 years in prison….n
2.-2-5 years in prison….y
3.-5-10 years in prison….n
4.-maximum 15 years in prison….n

if a vessel causes an illegal pollution discharge, who may now be held accountable
for it?
1.-the master….n
2.-the crew member responsible for the action which caused the discharge….n
3.-the ship owner….n
4.-everyone involved in operating the vessel….y

what might investigating authorities think suspicious when examining the oil record
book?
1.-entries made in pencil….n
2.-irregular spaces between entries….n
3.-pages tom out….n

under european pollution laws a seafer can be found guilty of contributing to a
pollution incident through inaction: What does inaction mean?
1.-forgetting to operate an anti-pollution system at the correct time….n
2.-operating an anti-pollution system incorrectly….n
3.-being aware of a polluting discharge but not knowing it was illegal….n
4.-suspecting an offence but doing nothing about it….y
whath does canada legals principle of reverse onus mean in pollution cases?
1.-an accused seafer is innocent until convicted unanimously by a jury….n
2.-an accused seafer is guilty until proven innoccent….y
3.-an accused seafer is held liable for the costs of cleaning up the pollution….n
4.-an accused seafer is not responsible for pollution if he proves the owners knew
the crew were acting illegaly….n

TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-satellite surveillance is increasingly being used to sport pollution and identify the
vessels causing it….t
2.-chemical fingerprinting techniques can identify the source of pollutants and link
them to specific vessels….t
3.-accidental pollution caused by damage to the ship or its equipment does not
exempt the master from liability….f
4.-port state control authorities often carry out concentrated inspection campaigns
targeting compliance with anti-pollution regulations….t

what is the minimum period for which the details in a vessels oil record book
should be kept?
1.-six months….n
2.-one year….n
3.-two years….n
4.-three years….y

which of the measures listed are being used in the fight against marine pollution?
1.-surprise inspections….n
2.-monitoring and tracking of suspect vessels….n
3.-extending investigations to an entire fleet….n
4.-encouraging whistleblowers to inform on illegal acts….n
1103-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.

1.-For which vessels greater than 79 feet is submission of a notice of intent (NOI)
required in order to obtain coverage under the VGP?
1.-Large fishing vessels….n
2.-merchant ships under 300 GT, with ballast water capacity of less than 8 cubic
metres….n
3.-merchant ships of 300 GT or above, or whose ballast water capacity is 8 cubic
metres or more….y
4.-all vessels, regardless of weight or ballast water capacity….n
2.-VESSEL GENERAL PERMIT.

true or false?
1.-the purpose of the VGP is to enable better control of pollution in US waters….t

true or false.
1.-annual inspections should be carried out in dry dock….f

VGP applies in water.
1.-up to 1 nm from the US coast and US inland waterways….n
2.-up to 3 nm from the US coast and US inland waterways….y
3.-up to 12 nm from the US coast and US inland waterways….n
4.-up to 20 nm from the us coast and US inland waterways….n

inspections for effluent discharges should be:
1.-every watch, weekly, quarterly and annually….y
2.-only weekly and annually….n
3.-only every watch and annually….n
4.-it is up to the EPA to carry out inspections, not the ship….n

if a discharge is made that could endanger health or the environment, what should
you do?
1.-report is to the US coast guard within 7 days….n
2.-report it to the EPA within 24 hours….y
3.-report it to the EPA within 7 days….n
4.-report it to the company within 24 hours, and they will contact the US coast
guard or EPA on the vessels behalf….n
when should simple corrective actions such as housekeeping be carried out?
1.-immediately….y
2.-no longer than 2 weeks….n
3.-no longer than 3 months…n
4.-before the vessel is re-launched from dry dock….n

we should changes requiring new parts or equipment to be installed without dry
docking be carried out?
1.-immediately….n
2.-within 2 weeks….n
3.-within 3 months….y
4.-within 6 months….n

all records must be kept on board for:
1.-6 months….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-2 years….n
4.-3 years….y

the penalty for knowingly making a false statement is:
1.-a fine of $5,000…n
2.-a fine of $10,000 and up to 2 years in prison….n
3.-a fine of $50,000 per day of violation and up to 3 years in prison….y
4.-a fine of $100,000 per day violation and up to 5 years in prison….n

under MARPOL annex I, the maximum permitted concentration of oil in any oily
discharges is:
1.-<1 ppm….n
2.-<5 ppm….n
3.-<50 ppm….n
4.-<15 ppm….y

which vessels may discharge untreated oily bilge water?
1.-any vessel….N
2.-no vessel….N
3.-vessels under 400 GT….Y
4.-Vessels under 400 GT….N

If the vessel is on an ocean going voyage, it can only discharge ballast water in
VGP, controlled waters if the ballast waters has been exchanged in waters more
than.
1.-3 nm from shore….n
4.-200 nm from shore….y

true or false?
1.-no vessel may discharge boiler blowdown within 1nm of federally protected
waters under any circumstances….f

true or false?
1.-vessels over 400 GT with graywater storage capacity should discharge when
more than 1nm from shore and while underway….t

true or false?
1.-if major hull cleaning is required in port, it should take place in dry dock….t

to minimise chain locker effluent, the anchor chain should be thoroughly washed
down:
1.-after every hauling up….y
2.-once a week….n
4.-before a entering port….n

firemain system are included in the VGP because their water may contain.
1.-metal and chemicals….y
2.-bacteria and nutrients….n
3.-oil and grease….n
4.-solvents….n

in seawater cooling systems, the filters should be:
1.-cleaned regularly while in port….N
2.-cleaned regularly when more than 50nm from shore….Y
3.-replaced once a month….N
4.-maintained as usual. seawater cooling systems are not regulated by the
VGP….N

Fouling organisms removed from the seawater piping system should ideally be
discharged when the vessel is:
4.-more than 50nm from shore….y
IN what way are Volatile Organic Compounds (VOC´s) bad for the
environment?
 they cause acid rain

 they pollute seawater
 they create ground level smog
 they are corrosive and flammable when they react with oxygen
2.-VAPOUR EMISSION CONTROL.

who is responsible for ensuring that a ship is equipped with a means of collecting
VOCs before it enters a port or terminal where VOC controls are implemented?
1.-the designated person ashore….n
2.-the chief officer….n
3.-the master….n
4.-the owner….y

the entire pipeline network in the vapour collection system must:
1.-be marked with the word VAPOUR….n
2.-Be electrically bonded to the hull and electrically continuous….y
3.-consist of flexible hosing….n
4.-have a drain off at its highest point….n
With regard to tanker cargo operations, what is the colour scheme for
marking the vapour control manifold?
 yellow with red bands

 black with red bands
 yellow with black bands.
 red with black bands

the cylindrical safety stud on the manifold flange must be set:
1.-at the 6 o clock position….n
2.-at the 12 o clock position…y
3.-so that it is not contact with flange face….n
4.-paralle to the flange face...n
Under MARPOL annex VI the vapour flow capacity of each PV valve must be
at least:

the lower low pressure alarms in inerted vessels should be set at not less
than:
 100 mm WG
 150 MM WG
 200 MM WG
 250 MM WG

TRUE OR FALSE?
1.-Countries and terminals can demand that only tankers fitted with vapour
collection systems may operate in VOC control areas….t

true or false?
1.-tanks should always be opened for sampling when loading is 90% complete….f
at what point during loading should you take a break to check cargo,
monitoring and alarm systems?
 when the tank is around 20cm full
 when the tank is around 2 m full
 when the ullage space in the tank is 20 cm
 when the ullage space in the tank is 2 m

after loading non interned cargoes must be allowed to settle for how long before
they are opened for sampling?
1.-5 minutes….n
2.-15 minutes….n
3.-30 minutes….y
4.-it is not necessary to wait….n
1119-MARPOL ANNEX VI.

1.-What is the tier II NOx limit where the engine speed is less than 130 rpm?
1.-17.0….n
2.-9.8….n
3.-14.4….y
4.-3.4….n
2.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.

what is the minimum allowed combustion chamber gas outlet temperature for the
incinerator?
1.-550°c….n
2.-850°c….y
3.-750°c….n
4.-650°c….n
3.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
true or false?
1.-vapour emission recovery regulations apply to tankers trading in all ports and
terminals….f
4.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.

true or false?
1.-the incineration of PCBS is never allowed under annex VI….T
5.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.

TRUE OR FALSE.
1.-When taking the fuel oil sample for MARPOL, care should be taken not to shake
the primary sample quantity before filling the retained sample container….f
6.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.

on or after 1/1/2012, the sulphur limit for all marine fuel oils used outside an ECA
is:
1.-0.50% m/m….n
2.-1.50% m/m….n
3.-3.50% m/m….y
4.-4.5% m/m….n
7.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.

on or after 1/7/2010, the sulphur limit for all marine fuel oils used inside an ECA is:
1.-1.00% m/m….y
2.-1.50% m/m….n
3.-2.0% m/m….n
4.-2.5% m/m….n
8.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.
the sample of fuel oil required by annex VI should be not less than.
1.-400 ml….y
2.-300 ml….n
3.-200 ml….n
4.-100 ml….n
9.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.

from the time the fuel oil is delivered, the fuel oil sample should be retained under
the ships control for:
2.-at least 12 months….y
10.-MARPOL ANNEX VI.

which atmospheric pollutant is released when crude oils or petroleum products are
transported, loaded and unloaded on ships?
1.-halons….n
2.-freons….n
3.-VOCs…y.
4.-NOx….n
5.-H25….n
6.-SOx….n

which of the substances listed may be incinerated on board, as long as the ship is
not in a port, harbour or estuary?
1.-sewage sludge and sludge oil generated during normal shipboard operation….y
2.-waste, containing traces of heavy metas such as mercury and cadmium….n
3.-refined petroleum products containing halogen compounds….n
4.-MARPOL annex I,II or III residues and any associated contaminated
packaging….n
5.-exhaust gas cleaning system residues….n
Whose responsibility is it to ensure that before a ship enters a port or

terminal where VOC controls are being implemented, it is equipped with a
means of collecting VOCs so that they can be returned to shoreside
facilities.?
 the owners
 the masters
 the administrations
4.-nobodys. the ship is not required to be equipped with a means of collecting
VOCs….n

true or false?
1.-annex VI applies to all merchant ship types, however large or small, except
where specifically exempted….t

true or false
1.- in order to obtain an EIAPPC, a re-survey is not needed for engines wuhic have
already been issued with statements of compliance with the NOx technical
code….t

for ships of 400 GT and above, the bunker delivery note must be kept on board for
at least:
1.-1 year….n
2.-3 years….y
3.-5 years….n
4.-7 years….n

tier III NOx limits apply to engines installed on ships on or after.

until 1/1/2012, the sulphur limit for all marine fuel oils used outside an ECA is:
1.-0.50% m/m….n
2.-1.50% m/m….n
3.-3.50% m/m….n
4.-4.5% m/m….y

under MARPOL annex VI, there must be valid certification for ships built on or after
which date?
1.-19 may 2000….n
2.-19 may 2002….n
3.-19 may 2003….n
4.-19 may 2005….y

refrigerant and fire-fighting systems using hydro-chlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) may
be installed untill:
1.-19 may 2010….n
2.-19 may 2012….n

which of the substances listed is not controlled by MARPOL annex VI?
1.-Halons….n
2.-freons….n
3.-VOCs….n
4.-NOx….n
5.-H25….y
6.-SOx….n
1122.-FIGHTING POLLUTION.
is the following statement about bunkering true or false?
1.-cleaning materials should be ready to deal with any accidental spills….t
Since 1 july 2010, what has been the maximum permitted sulphur content of fuel
oils in an emission control AREA (ECA) according to MARPOL annex VI?
1.-0.5%....N
2.-1.0%...Y
3.-1.5%....N
4.-4.5%....N
improving the fuel efficiency of the vessels may require:
1.-use of weather routing….n
2.-just in time arrival….n
3.-improved hull maintenance….n
4.-optimum trim….n
the term segregated ballast menas:
1.-a ballast system completely separated form the fuel oil system….n
2.-a ballast system completely separeted from the cargo oil system….n
3.-a ballast system completely separated from the cargo and fuel oil system….y
4.-none of the above….n
sewage which has not been comminuted or disinfected can only be discharged
when the ship is more than:
2.-12 nautical miles from shore….y
4.50 nautical miles from shore….n
which of those listed is not A SPECIAL AREA designated under the MARPOL
73/78 ANNEX 1?
1.-the mediterranean sea are….n
2.-the baltic sea….n
3.-the red sea area….n
4.-the caribbean sea area….y
5.-the black sea area….n
true or false?
1.-the ulllage should be checked once the transfer has been completed….f
the disposal of plastics at sea is:
1.-allowed anywhere outside the designated special area….n
2.-allowed as long as they have passed through a comminutor….n
3.-allowed as long as the ship is no less than 12 nautical miles from the coas….n
4.-strickly prohibited everywhere….y
all oily water discharge must be monitored to ensure that the oil content is not
greater than the permitted limit. this is:
2.-15 parts per million….y
true or false?
1.-once transfer begins all the hoses and connections should be checked to ensure
they are tight under pressure….t
MARPOL annex VI specific that the Bunker delivery note ( BDN ) should be kept
avilable for inspection for:
1.-6 months….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-2 years….n
4.-3 years….y
true or false?
1.-during fuel transfer the deck scuppers should be plugged….t
MARPOL ANNEX VI limits the emissions into the atmosphere from ships of:
1.-nitrogen oxides….y
2.-methyl bromide….n
3.-carbon dioxide….n
4.-ozone….n
THE garbage record book must be open for inspection at all times and kept,
after entry of the last record, for a minimum of:
 6 months
 1 year
 2 years
 5 years
MARPOL annex V affects:
1.-all ships (unless expressly provided otherwise)....y
4.-ships carrying 12 or more passengers….n
outside special areas, how many nautical miles from the nearest land can oil or oily
1.-15….n
2.-35….n
3.-50….y
4.-75….n
the SEEMP is:
1.- a plan for monitoring environmental effectiveness on board….n
2.-a system for monitorin improvements in energy consumption….n
3.-a ship specific plan for mnaging the ships energy efficiency….y
true or false?
1.-vessels smaller than 400 GT can discharge oil or oily mixture into the sea in the
antartic area….f
which marpol annex deals with garbage and waste disposal from ships?
1.-I….N
2.-IV….N
3.-V….Y
4.-VI….N
According to HELMEPA, how many years does it take for a tin can to disintegrate
in the sea?
1.-1 month….n
2.-1 year….n
3.-10 years….n
4.-100 years….y
3.-MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT.

which of these bellefs about a no-blame reporting system are justified?
1.-a no blame system that workers tend to get careless….n
2.-a no-blame system encourage the reporting of all incidents and nears misses
without fear of recrimination….y
3.-a blame culture is better as it forces everyone to take responsibility and obtain
better risk managements….n
4.-the no-blame system helps to ensure safe running of equipments….n

what is the definition given for the word RISK?
1.-IT describes what would happen in case of the sudden operational failure of a
vital piece of equipment on board ship….n
2.-it is a combination of two factors-the probability of something happening and the
consequence if it does….y
3.-an unintended event involving death or injury, and/or damage to the ship, other
property, or the environment….n
4.-the outcome of an accident….n
which of the questions below would not be appropiate?
1.-what do i particulary worry about as a manager or director?
2.-are there situations which i feel the need to manage myself because of fears
that something migh go wrong?
3.-are there activities which seem to create an above average number of problems,
accidents, incidetns and so on?
4.-how should i distribute the class survey schedule to the fleet?......y

which answer is the best
1.-to identify, assess and manage risks so as to reduce the chances of an
incident….y
2.-to provide crucial feedback as to equipment reliability….n
3.-to identify errors managements….n
4.-to identify sub standard components of deck and engine machinery….n

what is the meaning of hazard
1.-the sequence of events leading to a hazardous situation or accident….n
2.-the consequence of an accident….n
3.-the means of controlling risk….n
4.-a potential to threaten human life, health, property or the environment….y

Systematic risk assessment involves sixs steps,
IDENTIFY ALL HAZARDS
ASSESS RISKS
EXPLORE CONTROL OPTIONS
WEIGH UP COSTS AND BENEFITS
SELECT AND IMPLEMENT
MONITOR AND RE-ASSES

true or false?
1.-a collision involving a high speed ferry could have very serious
consequences….t
2.-the fact that it may become more difficult to find well qualified officers in the
future should not really affects our business….f
3.-risks depend on circumstances so risk assessment must always be a dynamic
process….t
4.-effective risk assessment can improve financial performance….t
1105 – Safe Mooring Practice (Edition 4) Test
* The first duty of a responsible officer in charge of mooring is to:
make sure there are enough crew members in the mooring party
ensure the right ropes have been selected for the mooring configuration
make sure the crew have been properly briefed
assess the risks involved in any given circumstances at the mooring station
* Ideally, what is the breaking load a carpenter stopper should have when
used on a wire rope?
At least half that of the rope

The same as the rope
Twice that of the rope
Three times that of the rope
* Once the tug line is made fast, the ship’s speed should be controlled:
by the tug Master .
by the ship’s Master.
by the officer controlling the mooring party.
in consultation with the Pilot and the tug Master.
* When considering a general mooring pattern for a ship, how should breast
lines be run?
As perpendicular to the ship’s centre line as far forward and aft as possible.
As perpendicular to the ship’s centre line and as close to midships as possible.
At as acute an angle as possible.
As close to the break of the forecastle as possible.
* How are winch pipelines best protected from damage by ice?
Apply grease to them

Drain all fluid out of them when not in use
Keep them covered up
Run a blowtorch along them every 6 hours
* Synthetic fibre ropes have a lower frictional hold against the bitts. How
many turns on the leading bitt are required before the figures of eight are
formed?
* What is the best way to prevent mooring lines from freezing solid in bad
weather?
Keep them stored below deck until they are needed.
Keep them well greased up.
Clear the ice from them daily using blowtorches and wire brushes.
Coat them with anti-freeze solution six hours before mooring operations begin.
* When tending lines alongside a berth, the most important general point to
consider is to:
keep a note of any missing rat guards.

keep all lines correctly tensioned, avoid any slack lines.
make sure all lines are the same length.
ensure the officer of the watch is informed of anything unusual.
* What does MBM stand for?
Multiple Buoy Maintenance
Multiple Buoy Mooring
Minimum Berth Maintenance
Maximum Buoy Mooring
* What does SPM stand for?
Safe Port Mooring
Ship Purpose Mooring
Single Purchase Mooring
Single Point Mooring
* The effectiveness of the restraint provided by the mooring system may be

reduced if:
the lines are too short.

the lines are too along.
the lines are at a very steep angle.
any of the above applies.
* In relation to tugs, what does girting mean?
A vessel capsized by its towline
Making a formal complaint of bad seamanship
A tug being forced backwards by its tow
A towline parting
* Who has the ultimate responsibility for giving orders regarding a towline
attached to a ship?
The tug Master
The ship’s Master
The pilot
The vessel’s deck officer
* What is the usual order of engaging mooring lines?
Spring lines first, then breast lines, then head lines and stern lines
Head and stern lines first, then spring lines, then breast lines
Spring lines first, then head and stern lines, then breast lines
Head line first, then breast lines and spring lines together, then the stern line
As agreed between the Pilot and ship’s Master
* When unmooring a ship, who decides in which order the lines are to be let
go?
The officer in charge of the mooring party
The Harbourmaster
The person in charge of the linesmen ashore
The Master in consultation with the Pilot
* When considering a ship’s mooring pattern, spring lines should be run:
as far apart as possible.
as close together as possible.
parallel to the ship’s longitudinal centre line.
perpendicular to the ship’s centre line.
* When considering a ship’s mooring pattern, in general, lines in the same

service should be:
the same size and material.
of mixed materials.
of mixed size and material.
of any size and material.
* What is the greatest risk when mooring?
Cold weather making operations difficult
A tug’s lines breaking
A line parting due to overloading and snapping back
Shore fittings giving way
974 – Shipshape: A guide to Good Housekeeping – On Deck
* Are the statements about good housekeeping procedures True or False?
Used rags or pieces of cloth should not be stored in the paint locker because they
may spontaneously ignite. TRUE
Fire extinguishers should not be touched and do not need maintenance. FALSE
At sea, all loose items, ropes and wires on deck must be properly secured. TRUE
A certain amount of rust scale is acceptable and removal should only be

undertaken at yearly intervals. FALSE
* Wich of the statements about drip trays is correct?
Drip trays at the manifold should be emptied of water regularly.
Drip trays at the manifold should be left covered so that they do not fill with water.
Drip trays should have a little oil in them as a protective lining.
Water must be left in the drip trays at the manifold so that they do not dry out and
crack.
* The bilge system in the cargo holds should be tested by:
the Safety Officer while in port.
blowing through the system with compressed air.
filling the bilge wells with water and pumping them dry.
the manufacturer.
* During bunkering, scuppers should be:
plugged.
not plugged.
It does not matter, as long as there is a warning notice placed nearby.
sectioned off.
* When wet, fibre ropes should be:
stored in a box near a heat source.
wound on to a reel.
dried using a heater.
dried naturally by flaking them out on deck.
* Before storing, mooring wires should be:
well lubricated with fresh water.
greased.
left out and not stored, as they will decay in an enclosed space.
stored as they are.
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentence about Good
Housekeeping.
Good Housekeeping should be seen as a work culture that encourages a strong

sense of teamwork, where everyone, regardless of rank, has responsibility and an
important part to play in the running of the ship-seeing the work not as a chore but
as an integral part of good seamanship.
* Oil residues should be cleared up with:
soap and water.
the appropiate solvent.
a dry rag.
paraffin.
* Are the statements about painting procedures True or False?
You should take care not to paint over labels or lubrication nipples. TRUE
After the work is completed, you can put the brushes in open baths of thinners in
the paint store as long as the entilation is switched on. FALSE
When returned to the paint store, all cans and containers should be tightly closed.
TRUE
* Who is primarily responsible for Good Housekeeping on board ship?
The master
The Safety Officer
The Chief Enginner
Everyone on board
* Which part of a winch, susceptible to salt water corrosion and stress, would
cause serious consequences if it failed during operation?
The control panel
The foundation plate
The side plates
976 – Shipshape: A Guide to Good Housekeeping – Accomodation and

Galley
* Are the statements about good galley procedures True or False?
Meat and fish should be kept in the same cold store. FALSE
Floors should be cleaned at the end of every meal service and at the end of the
day. TRUE
All food waste and packaging should be disposed of immediately in the nearest bin
to hand. FALSE
Food in the cold stores must be used in the correct date order. TRUE
* Who is primarily responsible for Good Housekeeping on board ship?

The master
The Safety Officer
The Chief Engineer
Everyone on board
* Are the statements about Good Housekeeping procedures True or False?
Clothes should be left to dry over heaters. FALSE
Bullheads should be cleaned using a hose and water. FALSE
Regular maintenances of power points is necessary to avoid faulty wiring and bad
earthing. TRUE
* Which Annex of MARPOL is concerned with waste and garbage?
Annex II
Annex VI
Annex IV
Annex V
* Why should the screens and fine mesh covers around ventilation apertures
be inspected and cleaned?
To reduce the risk of fire.
To reduce the risk of static electricity.
To reduce the risk of a blockage.
To comply with ISPS regulations.
* Are the statements about Good Housekeeping in the gallery True or False?
Grease build up on the extractor filters is a potential fire hazard. TRUE
The gallery will not normally be an area that Port State Control inspectors bother to
check. FALSE
Insecticides should never be used in galley areas. FALSE
* Whose responsibility is it to make sure taps and showers are properly

turned off and notleft dripping?
The steward’s
The maintenance engineer’s
Everyone’s
It does not matter as all water recycles through the system
* Empty aerosol canisters should be disposed of by:
careful incineration.
being bagged up separately and taken ashore to an appropiate facility.
squashing them and putting them in with the cardboard waste.
placing them in the plastics bin.
929 – Crew Resource Management – Engine Room
* The potential for latent failures can be reduced by the proper application of
workplace procedures aimed at identifying risks and possible safety issues.
Which of the activities listed is NOT relevant in this context.
Risk assessment
Using ‘Permit to Work’ systems
Agreeing times of meal breaks
Preparing daily work plans
Toolbox talks
* Good planning means thinking ahead. Everyon should have a clear picture
of what is likely to happen during the shift. Select the correct words from the
list to complete the sentences.
Ther should be no surprises and no secrets! Effective engine room resource

management depends on sharing information. ‘What if’ questions are important so
that there are alternative scenarios in mind if circumstances or priorities change
during the planned sequence of work.
* The Reference describes the process of learning from experience to avoid

repeating mistakes. Place the steps from the list in the correct order.
1 the experience itself
2 reflection
3 generalisation
4 planning
* The reference suggests there are three barriers which can often make
developing an effective engine room team harder. These are:
Age, rank an culture.
Age, rank and certification.
Culture, rank and certification.
Culture, certification and age.
* The ‘traffic light’ approach is a system for dealing with material changes in
circumstances. How many changes are required for the light to change from
green to amber?
1
2
* Select the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about
managing hazardous situations.
To manage the situation requires controls over the hazards and defences for the
targets. When the controls, or the defences, or both fail we have an event – the
target is damaged or, in the case of a near miss, threatened by the hazard.
* Are the statements about work situations True or False?
You should follow the daily work plan regardless of the situation evolves. FALSE
Unwanted visitors or phone calls can distract you from the task in hand and start a
chain of events leading to an incident. TRUE
Contradictory readings from instrumetation are quite common and are not a cause
for concern. FALSE
You should not ignore ‘gut feeling’ about a situation even if you are not sure what
may be wrong. TRUE
Active failures are often due to a human error. TRUE
* To understand the potential for incidents on board you need to identify

possible hazards and targets. Which of the following are hazards and which
are targets?
electricity Hazards
caustic substances Hazards
equipment Targets
other crew members Targets
noisy environments Hazards
equipment manuals Targets
very hot surfaces Hazards
* Are the statements about good communication in a team True or False?
You should not question the decisions of senior colleagues. FALSE
You should only provide information when it is asked for. FALSE
You should feel comfortable asking for help when you need it. TRUE
You should ask questions if there is something you don’t understand. TRUE
* Place the stages from the list in the correct order to show the build up that
can lead to an event.
Latent failure  Preconditions  Active failure  Failed defences/controls 

Event
948 – Target Tracking Devices (ARPA Update)
* Performance standards state that radar tracking devices must identify a

vessel’s relative motion trend within:
1 minute.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
5 minutes.
* What are the three required display range scales for ARPAs?
6, 12 and 24 nm
12, 18 and 36 nm
3, 6 and 12 nm
* The new IMO performance standards stipulate that historical information

should be available in the form of symbols that show at least:
2 equally time-spaced positions over the past 4 minutes.

* Are these statements about navigation True or False?
The prediction for CPA is based on the past history of tracked targets. TRUE
ECDIS is recognised by IMO as an aid for collision avoidance. FALSE
Ground stabilised True vectors are ideal for navigating around fixed objects. TRUE
Sea stabilisation shows own ship and all targets referenced to the sea, using input
from satellite navigation systems. FALSE
Manual acquisition is recommended for restricted coastal waters or in bad weather

conditions. TRUE
* Which of the following pieces of information is not provided by ARPAs on

tracked targets?
CPA
TCPA
bearing
vessel length
range
True track
speed
* The IMO requires there to be a trial manoeuvre facility included in all target
tracking devices on:
ships over 500 GT.
ships over 10,000 GT.
no ships: it is just an optional extra.
* How many targets should radars fitted on ships over 10,000 GT be able to
track simultaneously?
10
20
40
50
* AIS uses:
VHF frequencies and GNSS.
Radar and VHF frequencies.
Radar and GNSS.
* All new radar displays must be capable of displaying AIS targets from:
1 July 2002.
1 July 2005.
31 July 22007.
1 July 2008.
* Vessels capable of up to 70 knots must be able to handle craft with relative

speeds of up to:
100 knots.
140 knots.
160 knots.
180 knots.
* Are these statements about the operation of target tracking technologies

True or False?
In a guard zone, the arc and depth are pre-set by the manufacturer. FALSE
Due allowance should be made for the fact that CPAs can be out by more than 0.5
nm. TRUE
It is advisable to check whether the previous watch keeper has has altered the
settings and displays. TRUE
If the speed through water input is incorrect, the True vector calculations will self-
adjust. FALSE
Calculating the closest safe passing distance is dependent on the length of the
vessels. TRUE
* After a rapid manoeuvre, the radar picture may not be accurate for up to:
1 minute.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
5 minutes.
737 – Making the ISM Code Work for You
* What is the meaning of the word “observation” as used in the ISM Code?
It is a formal report made by the safety officer during the monthly onboard safety
meeting.
It is the ship’s position line as calculated by the navigatior at noon.
It is the master’s report to the Designated Person.
It is a statement of fact made during a safety management audit and substantiaded

by objective evidence.
* The following benefits of a Safety Management System (SMS) were claimed

in the video. Are the statement listed True or False?
ISM provides a framework by which your SMS can not only operate, but also
evolve, through input from everyone involved, including all members of a crew.
TRUE
The SMS can easily be tailored to specific company and shipboard needs and
practices. TRUE
Inevitably the SMS will be a burden to a well-run ship. FALSE
The SMS will be no more complex or burdensome than you need it to be. TRUE
* What are the language requirements of the ISM Code?
Knowledge of the English language with emphasis on maritime terms.
Procedures written in a working language or languages understood by the crew.
Compulsory language lessons for all crewmembers.
A language requirement for crew members is not mentioned in the ISM Code.
* An Interim Safety Management Certificate (SMC) may be issued to new

ships on delivery, and when a company takes responsibility for the
management of a ship which is new to the company. For what period of time
is such an Interim Management Certificate (SMC) valid?
One year.
Three months.
Six months.
One month.
* What is the minimum number of manuals required to complete a Safety
Management System?
One safety management manual.
None are required.
As many volumes as needed to ensure that the requirements are met.
One manual is required for each operational process.
* Are the following statements about non-conformities True or False?
Full reporting with follow-up action reduces the number of incidents. TRUE
Non-conformity reporting creates troubles for the crew. FALSE
It encourages a no-blame culture where appropiate correction or training is likely to

follow an identified error. TRUE
* What is the purpose of appointing a Designated Person(s)?
To provide a link between the highest level of management ashore and those on
board.
To write and maintain the Safety Management System.
To establish the person responsible for any non-conformity with the Safety
Management System.
To motivate the crew in the observation of the company’s policies.

* What would a typical Safety Management System consist of?
An extensive number of procedures manuals explaining every detail of all work

activities onboard ship and in the office.
Clear procedures to ensure safety and enviromental protection is planned,

organised, executed and checked in accordance with legislative and company
requirements.
A safety procedures manual as required in the form of a SOLAS training Manual.
A combination of the OPA90, the SOPEP and other training manuals.
* What is the advantage of fostering a “no-blame” culture?
It guarantees that he number of accidents will be reduced and in some cases

eliminated altogether.
With a no-blame culture accidents and dangerous occurences will be swept under
the carpet.
A “no-blame” culture will encourage the reporting of non-conformities which can

help improve the safety management system.
In a no-blame culture it is not necessary to report near misses.
* Complete the statements describing common factors in a successful

approach to ISM Code implementation by placing the correct words from the
boxes in the sentences:
Senior management within the company must fully and enthusiastically support the
code.
Foster a proactive attitude, and get people thinking about prevention.
Shore personnel must be as involved as those on board ship.
The company must foster a no-blame culture.
Non-conformities are treated as opportunities for improvement of the Safety

Management System.
Don`t look at auditors with an “us and them” attitude, they are there to help you
improve the system.
* Are the following marine standards mandatory or voluntary?
ISM Code Mandatory
STCW 95 Mandatory
ISO 9000 Voluntary
ISO 14000 Voluntary
* Complete the statements describing some of the points covered in the

video by placing the correct word from one of the boxes below into the
sentences:
The ISM Code is a key element in accident prevention.
Common factors that can contribute to a system not doing what was intended
include failure to get staff involved.
It is important to foster a no-blame culture.
Auditors can be helpful sources of information.
The safety management System should be a dynamic system.

An effective reporting system is one where reports are kept factual.
* The video states that the Safety Management System (SMS) needs to be a
dynamic system. Why is this True?
A dynamic system allows for adjustments and corrections when the ship’s
operational and/or crew needs and circumstances change.
In a dynamic system procedures remain fixed so that all concerned know what to
expect and what is required.
A dynamic system encourages legislative changes.
A dynamic system avoids the need for check lists and reports.
* Complete the statement describing a major non-conformity by placing the

correct words from the boxes in the sentence:
A major non-conformity means an identifiable deviation which poses a serious

threat to the safety of personnel or the ship or a serious risk to the environment
which requires immediate corrective action and includes the lack of effective and
systematic implementation of a requirement of the ISM Code.
* Complete the “Functional requirements for a Safety Management System”

by placing the correct words from the boxes in the sentences.
Functional requirements for a Safety Management System (SMS) must

include:
A safety and environmental protection policy.
Instructions and procedures to ensure safe operation of ships and protection of the
environment in compliance with relevant international and flag State legislation.
Defined levels of authority and lines of communication between, and amongst,

shore and shipboard personnel.
Procedures for reporting accidents and non-conformities with provisions of the

Code.
Procedures to prepare for and respond to emergency situations.
Procedures for internal audits and management reviews.
* What is “non-conformity”?
A “non-conformity” describes the Safety Management System.
A “non-conformity” is a report criticising the excessive use of forms and paperwork.
A “non-conformity” describes the non-fulfilment of charter party requirements.
A “non-conformity” is an observed situation where objective evidence indicates the

non-fulfilment of a specified requirement.
* Which one of the two statements given below is correct?
The ISM Code can only exist by the interaction of other parts of legislation and
organisations.
The ISM Code must be implemented independently of other legislative or company

requirements.
* The Code requires that safeguards are established against all identified
risks. How would you go about adentifying the risks associated with the
operation of your ship?
Carry out a form of risk assessment.
Ask the safety officer for his/her views.
Rely on instinct and past experience.
Let the marine superintendent decide.
* The people interviewed in the video warned against some of the problems
that can arise when implementing the Safety Management System. Complete
the statements describing what to guard against, by placing the correct
words from the boxes in the sentences.
Lack of clear individual responsibility for implementation.
Failure to involve staff.
Lack of appropriate training for key people.
Lack of commitment and/or direction.
Introduction of too many manuals and excessive paperwork.
* What procedures should be in place to deal with new personnel and

personnel transferred to new assignments related to safety and protection of
the environment on board your ship?
They should have at least five years experience in the job before being assigned
safety related duties as defined in the STCW convention.
Safety related and environmental protection related duties must only be given to
qualified watch keeping officers.
They must be given proper familiarisation with their duties.
They must be in possession of a valid first aid certificate.
738 – Wind, Waves and Storms Part 1 – Understanding Weather
* In the northern hemisphere, which direction will the wind normally be from
just before a cold front arrives?
SW
NW
SE
SE
* What is the biggest cause of high waves forming?
Depth of sea
Distance from nearest land
Wind
Latitude
* You observe a strong breeze of 25 knots accompanied by large waves with

foam crests and some spray. What Force on the Beaufort scale would this be
rated at?
* What is the minimum sea water temperature necessary for a hurricane to

develop?
7º
17º
26º
37º
* Which of these is NOT a meteorological classification of an air mass?
Tropical maritime
Polar continental
Tropical continental
Equatorial maritime
* Tropical maritime air is usually:
cold, dry ans stable
cold, wet and stable
warm, dry and stable
warm, moist and unstable
* In which direction do jet streams normally travel?
West to East
East to West
North to South
South to North
* At roughly what latitude does the warm air, that has risen from above the
equator, start to start to descend forming a belt of high pressure circulation?
15º
25º
30º
45º
* The breaking of long waves can be triggered by their meeting the

Continental Shelf. How deep is the Continental Shelf?
100 metres
200 metres
250 metres
400 metres
* What distance must visibility be reduced to before water vapour is classed

as fog?
500 m
1000 m
1500 m
2 km
* Artic air is usually:
cold and dry
cold and wet

temperate and wet
freezing and sharp
* In which direction does the Coriolis force deflect winds in the southern
hemisphere?
To the left
To the right
Clockwise
Anticlockwise
* Buys Ballot’s Law says that if seafarer faces the wind in the southern
hemisphere then the area of low pressure will be:
Directly ahead
Directly behind
To the left
To the right
* A depression is formed when:
polar continental air meets polar sea air
warm, damp air meets cold, dry air

any two air masses meet
two masses of tropical continental air meet
* Use the labels to correctly identify the fronts on the map.
* What is the most importan way of using air pressure measurements to

predict bad weather is coming ?
Noticing when the pressure reading hits 1000 mb

Noticing a steady, rapid fall in air pressure
Noticing a steady rise in air pressure
Noticing the air pressure level hasn`t changed by more than 1 mb in 24 hours
* What is a growler?
A Canadian term for a hurricane
An instrument for measuring sound dictance in fog
An unexpected large wave
A small iceberg
* During which month do most tropical storms form in the northern

hemisphere?
May
August
September
December
* What is normally the air pressure at sea level?
13 mb
103 mb
1013 mb
1310 mb
928 – Anchoring Safely
* What is the standard length for a shackle of cable?
20 metres
25 metres
27.5 metres
28.5 metres
* Most windlasses are currently designed to cope with a vertical lift of the
anchor and cable through a maximum water depth of:
60 metres
82 metres
90 metres
110 metres
* Drag the names from the list to indicate the appropriate parts on the
diagram.
* Roughly how many times stronger than the holding power of the brake is
that of the bow stopper?
1.15
2.0
1.25
1.5
* As the ship nears the anchorage, the anchoring plan will need to be
amended to incorporate:
local weather and sea conditions.
other ships in the anchorage.
local navigation warnings and regulations.
advice from pilot or VTS.
all of the above.
* The U-turn method of anchoring makes use of the fact that the force
required to move the ship in a straight line is much greater than that needed
to turn the vessel, by applying a force at right angles to the stern. Roughly
what is this factor?
1.5
2
2.5
* Are the statements about windlass operation True or False?
Slipping of the brake can generate heat which will cause the brake to fade. TRUE
The windlass brake is designed to arrest the motion of the ship. FALSE
On larger vessels the brake should always be manned by two people. TRUE
To avoid the parts seizing, brake use should ideally be practised at least once a
month for each windlass. TRUE
* Are the statements about windlass operation True or False?
Excess loads can lead to metal fatigue. TRUE
The walking out of cable, out of the vertical, is well within the capability of the
windlass. FALSE
The windlass must be checked repeatedly at every anchorage. TRUE
Cable should be paid out using the windlass motor. FALSE
* Drag the appropriate words from the list to complete the sentences about
anchoring.
As the ship approaches the anchorage the cables stopper is removed and the
brake is…released.
Safe anchoring demands precision…timing and accurate observation from all

involved.
When walking back with the gear engaged, it is important to match the…sternway
with the speed at which the cable is paid out.
* What is the ‘as new’ lifting power of the anchor windlass specified in Class
Rules for a ship of 150,000dwt?
10.6 tonnes force
32 tonnes force
38 tonnes force
480 tonnes force
* What is the anchor usually made of?
Mild steel
Cast iron
Stainless steel
Forged bronze
* Are the statements about anchor watch and security True or False?
If the ship moves sideways it could be a sign that the anchor is dragging. TRUE
Once the ship is securely anchored the signals can be taken down. FALSE
The Master should be informed of any changes that could affect the vessel. TRUE
It is important to check that any craft approaching or people trying to board are
legitimate visitors with appropriate identification. TRUE
* What is the number of the Colreg Rule that applies to anchored vessels?
20
28
30
32
1151 – Hydrodynamics and Interaction
* Is the following statement about interaction True or False?
The effects of interaction significantly raise the risk of collision in confined waters.
TRUE
* Is the following statement about Bernoulli’s effect True or False?
If the speed triples, Bernoulli’s effect increases by a factor of nine. TRUE
* Is the following statement about overtaking True or False?
Overtaking another vessel from astern should be planned to maximise the passing
distance. TRUE
* Is the following statement about navigation True or False?
When a vessel is navigating ahead in a straight path, the water flow around the hull
is practically symmetrical. TRUE
* Which of the actions listed is NOT recommended for frothy wash?
Reducing engine revolutions
Sound emergency stations
Reduce speed
Change propeller pitch

* Which of these aspects of pressure zones around a moving vessel is NOT
true?
In confined and shallow waters, sub-surface fields become critical.
The high pressure field at the stern breaks up before it is fully formed.
A sudden speed reduction eliminates the chance of directional control problems.
All pressure zones shrink as the ship decelerates.
* Where can a tug get a ‘free ride’?
The ‘Dead Spot’
The ‘Silent Spot’
The ‘Free Spot’
The ‘Sweet Spot’
* In which order should these statements be placed to illustrate Bernoulli’s

effect?
4 Any two unfixed objects will be drawn closer by a low pressure zone.
1 Water forced to flow through a narrow channel will acelerate as it enters the
constriction and slow down as it exits.
3 As a result, at the point of greatest constriction a low pressure zone is generated.
2 At the point of greatest constriction the water flow is fatest and the pressure is
reduced.
* Which of the items listed is NOT a factor in ship squat?
Angle to bank
Speed
Vessel sitting lower
Change of trim
* In bank suction, where is the low pressure zone most noticeable?
The quarter
The stern
Amidships
The bow
* How do you recognise flocculation of bottom mud?
Excessive aeration
Changes in engine sound
Unusual readings on echo sounder
Stern wave foamy in shallow water

* Is the following statement about Bernoulli’s effect True or False?
If the speed doubles, Bernoulli’s effect increases by a factor of eight. FALSE
* When starting the ‘Texas Chicken’ manoeuvre, why does each vessel make
a slight alteration to starboard?
It alters ship squat.
It allows for greater control of speed.
It creates rising pressure.
It disrupts the pressure field symmetry around both vessels, allowing their bow
pressure fields to mutually reject, so preventing a collision.
* How far away can a Very Large Crude Carrier affect the handling of another
ship in open water?
Three miles
Half miles
Ten miles
Five miles
* Is the following statement about overtaking True or False?

The overtaken vessel may slow down as it is affected by the pressure wave from
the passing ship. FALSE
* Hydrodynamics is the study of what?
The compression of fluids
Fluids in transition
The relationship between different kind of fluids
Fluids in motion
* Is the following statement about interaction True or False?
A vessel’s relative speed and distance has no real impact on interaction. FALSE
* Is the following statement about navigation True or False?
When navigation occurs close to a bank, the high pressure water pushing the
vessel away from the bank is known as bank suction. FALSE
1158 – Safe Handling and Use of Hazardous Stores and Paints On Board
* A workplace assessment may be valid:
for 6 months.
for 12 months.
for the duration of the job only.
Indefinitely.
* Is the following statement about paints and solvents True or False?
There is no risk of toxic inhalation when painting outdoors. FALSE
* Is the following statement about safety procedures True or False?
It is advisable to project the skin from chemicals by moisturising as often as

possible and using suitable pre-work barrier creams. TRUE
* Where should the officer in charge look for the product’s unique hazards
identification?
In the company’s Safety Management System.
Ask the Chief Engineer.
On the product can or drum.

In the MSDS.
Water should always be used if there is a fire. FALSE
Static electricity can only accumulate in electrical equipment. FALSE
The officer in charge of the job should find out about the sea state and the ship’s
course for the period of work. TRUE
The workplace user instructions should be handed out to people who will be
working with the products. TRUE
* Who is responsible for making sure that the completed work is recorded in
the Planned Maintenance System?
The standby person.
The officer in charge.
The safety officer.
The Chief Engineer.
* What is the control measure for the risk of a static electrical charge?
Earthing all the equipment.
Isolating all the machinery.
Putting up warning signs.
Continuous ventilation.
To prevent the buil-up of explosive concentrations of solvent vapour, ventilation is

required. TRUE
Spillages identified on the MSDS as marine pollutants should be collected with

absorbent material and then burnt. FALSE
* What is the first thing the standby person should do if they become aware
that someone is unconscious in an enclosed space?
Find the nearest person to assist.
Notify the officer in charge.
Assemble the fire fighting equipment.
Enter the space to lend assistance.
* What type of glove tends to be best for working with chemical products?
Leather
Kevlar
Fabric
Rubber/plastic/PVC
* Who should supervise a job in an enclosed space?
The standby person.
The officer in charge.
The safety officer.
The Chief Engineer.

* Which of the conditions listed is NOT a health risk from chemicals in paints,
adhesives, solvents or detergents/cleaners?
Cancer
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
Frostbite
Nausea
Asthma
Skin conditions
* How should ventilation be used to control the risks when painting in an

enclosed space?
Ventilation before the job starts.
Ventilation before and during the job.
Ventilation before, during and after the job.
Ventilation is not a control measure for painting in an enclosed space.
After finishing the job, you should shower as soon as possible, and change all your
clothing. TRUE
Most solvent-thinned paints and paint solvents are volatile and extremely
dangerous when their vapours are exposed to open flames, sparks or very high
temperatures. TRUE
* Why is it important for paint cans and solvents to be securely stored when
in the paint store?
Because a dangerous interaction could be caused if different products should

come into contact.
Because they could cause a dangerous imbalance of weight.
Because they could create an obstruction.
They do not need to be securely stored.
1129 – Coping with Stowaways (Edition 2)
* How does the FAL Convention define a stowaway?
Anyone who is on board without the permission of the Master or owner, but has
not paid for their passage.
Anyone who hides on board without the permission of the Master or owner, and
who Is still on board after the ship has left port.
Anyone who is on board after the ship has left port, but does not have the correct
documents, such as a passport, visa, or health certificates.
intends to remain on board after the ship has left port.
* Who has overall responsibility for preventing stowaways getting on board

when a ship is in port?
The harbour authorities
The agent
The ship’s Master and crew
The owners
* When is the best time to begin to prevent stotaways getting on board?
Before the ship arrives at a high-risk port.
While the ship is in a high-risk port.
Just before the ship sails from a high-risk port.
Before the ship arrives at a low-risk port.
* If stotaways are found on board while the ship is in port, who should the
Master inform?
The company Security officer (CSO)
The Ship’s agent
The P&I Club representative
The Flag state
All the above
* If stowaways are found while the ship is still in port, what is the Master’s
best course of action?
Sail on schedule, even if the stowaways are still on board.
Refuse to sail until the port authorities take the stowaways off.
Consult with the Company Security Officer and the ship’s owners or managers
about whether to sail or not.
Negotiate with the stowaways to persuade them to leave.
* From whom should you seek information about stowaway risks at a

particular port?
The P&I Club
The local agent
Your CSO
The port authority
All the above

* If stowaways are found on board after the ship has left port, who should the
Master inform first?
All the above
The company’s agent at the last port of call
The Company Security Officer (CSO)
The P&I Club
* It is safest for stowaways to be searched by:
the Master and another officer.
two crew members, one to search and the other to observe.
a crew member wearing protective clothing.
a single crew member using a hand-held metal detector.
* It is important to take possession of any papers or documents a atowaway

is carrying because:
the costs of repatriation can then be charged to the stowaway.
relatives must be informed of the stowaway’s location.
the ship’s flag state will then be able to issue a passport to the atowaway.
identifying the stowaway makes it easier for them to be disembarked.

* While stowaways are on board ship they are entitled to:
secure locked accommodation and an interview with the Master.
Food and water, reasonable accommodation, a lifejacket, and instruction in safety

procedures.
the same food and accommodation as a crew member.
* Who pays all the costs of keeping stowaways and returning them to their
country of origin?
The immigration authorities at the port of disembarkation
The ship’s owners or managers
The government of the stowaways’ country of origin
* Stowaways should never, ever, be allowed to:
work.
leave their locked accommodation.
walk on deck.
eat hot food.

* At what point should a stowaway be told they will be repatriated?
As soon as they are discovered
As late in the process as possible
Never
When being interviewed to establish their identity
* When a ship docks with stowaways on board, who decides whether they
can disembark?
The ship’s Master
The P&I correspondent
The port immigration authority
can disembark?
The United Nations
The Nautical Institute
Lloyd’s Register

1182 – Piracy & Armed Robbery (Edition 3)
* What es the IRTC?
A corridor in the Gulf of Aden with strategically positioned naval and military
support.
An office in Dubai to which the ship should report when entering the HRA.
An EU NAVFOR centre that provides 24 hour manned monitoring of vessels

transiting the Gulf of Aden.
A set of guidelines that bring together lessons learned by the international shipping
industry about safe transiting of the HRA.
* Is the following statement about citadels True or False?
A citadel is a space with good ballistic protection, no access through an external

hatch or door and from which the ship can be controlled. TRUE
* Is the following statement about citadels True or False?
If a citadel or a team of armed guards is used, it is not necessary to implement the

other protective measures. FALSE
* Ideally, at what point should the risk assessment for transiting the pirate
zone take place?
1 hour before entering the pirate zone
At the point of charter or fixing of the voyage
After registering with MSC-HOA
A special pirate zone-related risk assessment is not necessary
* When engaging in evasive manoeuvres, the aim is to:
keep the stiff in the bow positive pressure zone.
keep the skiff in the aft positive pressure zone.
keep the skiff in the negative pressure zone.
suck the skiff into the bow.
* Is this statement about security procedures True or False?
When assesing the risks for transiting a pirate zone, you need to analyse the
background factors that could shape the situation including visibility, sea state and
traffic patterns. TRUE
* Which of those listed is NOT a service offered by unarmed guards?
Auditing the ship for BMP
Advising on ship hardening
Providing specialist equipment and training for crew
Firing warning shots into the air with dummy rifles
Analysing security intelligence
* What is MSC-HOA?
A corridor in the Gulf of Aden with strategically positioned naval military support.

Companies must ensure that a UKMTO Vessel Position Reporting Form – Initial
Report has been submitted to MSC-HOA before the ship enters the HRA as
defined in BMP. FALSE
* What is UKMTO?
A corridor in the Gulf of Aden with strategically positioned naval and military
support.

* When armed guards have been engaged, who has the over-riding authority
on board?
The Guard Team Leader
The CSO
The Master
The OOW
* Is the following statement about security measures True or False?
The best positions for CCTV are to cover the poop deck, the rear of the bridge and
the Safe Muster Point or citadel. TRUE
* Which of those listed is NOT a fundamental requirement of BMP?

Use CCTV
Implement ship protection measures
Register at MSC-HOA
Report to UKMTO
* When did Somali pirates begin attacking international ships?
In the early 1960s
In the early 1990s
In the early 2000s
In 2008
* A safe Muster Point is:
a safe area low in the ship that offers the maximum physical protection.
a safe area on deck.
a safe area on the bridge.
another term for ‘citadel’.
* Most pirate attacks take place:
in the Bay of Bengal.

off the coast of South America.
In the South China Sea.
off the coasts of West and East Africa.
* Is the following atatement about security measures True or False?
If suspicious activity is apotted, the Master must raise the alarm and report
immediately to UKMTO/IMB and the shipping company. TRUE
* Is the following statement about security measures True or False?
A piracy drill should be held as soon as the ship is inside a pirate zone. FALSE
* At what point should you secure the citadel, if you have one?
When the crew are inside, waiting for the bridge team to arrive
When the piracy alarm sounds
When everyone, including the armed guards, is inside
When the crew and bridge team are inside, but not the armed guards

If using razor wire, this should be loosely attached so that you can take it off
quickly after use. FALSE
* What form of lighting should the ship leave on at night while transiting a
pirate zone?
No lights at all
All available lighting
Searchlights only
Navigation lights only
675 – Fire Fighting at Sea Part 3: Command and Control at the incident
* Complete the following entences.
The stability of the ship is principally the responsibility of the bridge team.
Limiting the amount of water used helps maintain stability.
Damping down should be continued until all signs of heating have ceased.
After a fire has been extinguished, a 24 hour fire watch should be kept on the area.
* Are the following statements True or False?
Regular fire drills must be held. They must be taken seriously and must include
everyone on board. TRUE
Some drills should cover training in the use and maintenance of equipment. TRUE
When holding drills take the opportunity to test communications. TRUE
After each drill, hold a review with everyone to discuss how succesful it was and
how it could be improved. TRUE
* On mustering, the leader of each party must first of all:
report to the bridge.
appoint an assistant.
take a roll call.
determine the incident site.
* Complete the following sentences about Emergency Parties.
On ships with only one emergency party, the Chief Officer will usually take charge.
Selection should be done on the basis of experience, physical condition, age,

specialist knowledge.
The parties should be kept together as units.
Each unit has specific duties & people should not deviate from them unless
Having formed the parties, the next task is to ensure crews are fully trained & know
their role & responsibilities, mustering arrangements & the location of equipment.
* Complete the following sentences on the use of Breathing Apparatus.
Remember that if a fire is contained or damped down, the amount of smoke will
initially increase.
If Breathing Apparatus is used, at least two fire fighters must work together.
The amount of air breathed differs from person to person, and according to the
exertion.
When selecting a BA team, at least one member of the team should be familiar
with the area.
* All communications should follow standard procedures. In the examples

given below, which item does NOT belong?
Identify the transmitting station.
Keep the communication as brief as possible.
Use standard phrases at dictation speed.
Do not interrupt the speaker.
Shout out as loudly as you can to overcome background noise.
* What is a good way to describe a ship when fighting a fire on board?
Potentially a six-sided box with four sides and a top and bottom through which fire
can spread.
A floating hazard where the possibility of explosion must be considered.
A vessel divided by fire-proof bulkheads in such a way that fire will be contained to
distinct and pre-determined fire zones.
An independent unit where outside assistance can never be provided.
* Is it good prectice to send one man into a smoke filled area wearing the
Breathing Apparatus (BA) while a second person remains outside the area
on stand-by?
It is a rule that when only two BA sets are available on board, one man entry is
essential with the second man on stand-by.
It is preferable that BA should be used in teams of not less than two fire fighters
working together.
Never send two persons together into an area in case an explosion injures both
persons.
There are no preferred methods of working with BA sets.
* The first task of command and control is to provide the three C’s of naval
strategy. These three processes must be established quickly. Which process
does NOT belong?
Communication
Co-ordination
Chaos
Control
* When the BA team has withdrawn, what action should be taken by the team
leader?
Instruct the BA wearers to change the bottles, then relax until called again if
necessary.
Check the equipment personally and ensure that it is safe for future use.
Thoroughly de-brief the BA team and pass the information to the bridge.
Make a note, act as you think best, and keep information to yourself as others,
such as the bridge team, must not be overloaded with information.
* Can you leave the control of the BA set to the wearer alone?
Yes, the wearer is best placed to know what is happening under given conditions
and control must be left to them.
All that is needed is for the wearer to be trained and understand how to read the
gauge.
There should be a person assigned to check donning, testing procedure, life-line

tending and elapsed time.
Such controls are not practical during actual emergency situations, but are helpful
during training sessions.
* What is the first duty of an emergency party’s group leader?
Waste no time and tackle the emergency. For instance in case of fire, extinguish it,
then report to the bridge.
To muster his/her group at the pre-arranged muster station and check that all are
safe, and to report.
Proceed straight to the problem site and await the arrival of his/her emergency
party.
Check the emergency equipment under his/her control.
* The video showed the activities of the Engine Room Party, the First Aid
Party, and the attack(Emergency) Party. Based on what you saw, complete
the following sentences.
The officer in charge of the Attack Party makes an immediate assessment of the
situation and commences appropriate initial activities, keeping in regular contact
with the bridge.
The initial tasks of the Engine Room Party are to check that all pumps are fully
operational & that the emergency pump and generator are functioning correctly.
The First Aid Party musters at the exit to the hospital where they collect stretchers,
blankets first aid kit, & a resuscitator pack.
The attack Party, or Emergency Party, has the task of directly fighting the fire.
* Complete the following sentences about the Support Party.
The vital task of the support party is to back up the fire fighters by fetching
additional equipment.
The support party may also be called upon to stop the fire spreading by
undertaking boundary cooling or boundary starvation, or by removing nearby fuel.
The support party are also responsible for preparing the lifeboats & other life
saving appliances, & bringing up extra water and blankets, VHF radios, SART’s, &
the EPIRB.
On hearing the alarm, the support party musters at its designated station, reports
to the bridge & awaits instructions.
* Are the following statement True or False?
If the fire is in the Engine Room, the Second Engineer will automatically take over
because intimate knowledge of the location is essential. TRUE
On ships with only one Emergency Party, the Chief Officer will usually take charge.
TRUE
The members of the Emergency Parties must be frequently exchanged to ensure

that all crew members become familiar with all fire fighting duties on board ship.
FALSE
969 – The Shipboard Management Role (Edition 2)
* It is advisable to report and analyse hazardous occurences because:
it shows whose fault they were.
It shows that the management team take safety seriously.
it is obligatory.
it identifies potential problems.

* Is this statement about the duties of the Shipboard Management Team True
or False?
They are responsible for the safety of visitors to the ship. TRUE
* Is this statement about safety management True or False?
Record-keeping is an important part of the Safety Management System for routine

operations. TRUE
* Risk assessment should be applied to:
new equipment only.
new procedures only.
new procedures are equipment only.
any new or existing procedure or equipment.
or False?
They should welcome positive safety ideas from all quarters. TRUE
* Safety Officers should carry out inspections in each area of the ship that is
accessible by crew members:
at least once a week.
at least once a month.
at least once every 3 months.
there is no recommended frequency for inspections.
* Who is responsible for setting in place an appraisal system to review staff

safety awareness and identify any training needs?
The shore office
The safety officer
The Master
The safety committee
or False?
They should rely on the safety officer to decide what training is needed. FALSE
* Which of the following actions is not integral to the continuous

improvement cycle?
Policy is planned and set.
Management processes are implemented.
Shore office in notified.
The effectiveness of management processes is measured.
Any adjustments are made.
or False?
They should ensure the display of safety information when and where appropriate.
TRUE
* The investigation of accidents is required under:
ISPS (The International Ship and Port Facility Security Code).
the ISM Code (The International Management Code for the Safe Operation of
Ships and for Pollution Prevention)
the Load Line Regulations.
the investigation of accidents is not required by any Convention, but is encouraged

on a voluntary basis by the International Maritime Organization.
* What is the most important factor in maintaining a safe shipping operation?
Clear safety manuals

Severe punishment for those who break the rules
Regular audits
Management commitment
* The most vital aspect of the DPA’s safety management role is to:
carry out risk assessments.
ensure that the ship’s SMS is operating as it should.
publish a policy statement demonstrating company commitment to safety.
approve tasks.
* Is this statement about safety management True or False?
The Shipboard Management Team should not delegate any tasks to junior officers.
FALSE
* Safety committee meetings should be attended by:
the person chairing the committee, plus representative from different operational
areas, ranks and nationalities, and anyone else who would like to come.
heads of department only.
the Master and heads of department only.
the regular committee members only.

945 – Pilot on Board! – Working Together
* When should a Master intervene during pilotage to take back Conduct of

Navigation from the Pilot?
When the Master believes an accident imminent but can be avoided if he gives the
correct orders.
When the Pilot does not accept the suggestions of the Master.
When the Master believes the Pilot’s actions will put the vessel behind schedule.
When the Master disagrees with the Pilot’s explanation for what he is doing.
* What words from the Master to the Pilot formally mark the point when the
vessel’s navigation becomes the responsibility of the Pilot?
The ship is yours, Pilot
You have Conduct of Navigation, Pilot
Over to you, Pilot
Captain’s off the bridge
* Who certificates and licenses a Pilot?

Individual Flag States
Local Competent Pilotage Authorities
The International Maritime Association
* Who should meet the Pilot at the embarkation point?
The Master
The officer of the Watch
Any deck officer
A deckhand who speaks English
* Groundings or collisions while a Pilot is on the bridge are most likely to

occur because:
the Pilot made a wrong decision.
the Bridge Team acted without the knowledge or approval of the Pilot.
communications between the Pilot and Bridge Team were poor.
the Master was not been on the bridge at the time of the accident.
* Which of the factors listed should be considered by the Master and Pilot in
any risk assessment of the pilotage?
The availability of tugs
The likely traffic conditions
The vessel’s manoeuvring characteristics
All the above
* Which of those listed is NOT a recognised type of Pilot?
Reef passage Pilot
Company choice Pilot
Night passage Pilot
Estuarial Pilot
* Is the following statement about good teamwork on the bridge True or

False?
Members will ask questions when they don’t understand something. TRUE

False?
Members will offer each other assistance if they think it is needed. TRUE
* For which of the items listed does it remain the Master’s responsibility to
give orders to the crew while under pilotage?
The vessel’s course
The vessel’s speed
VHF contact with VTS
Mooring party arrangements for docking
* Who can countermand a Pilot’s orders?
The Master
Any one of the bridge Team
Nobody
The Master and the Chief Engineer together
* What is a VDR?
Video digital recorder
Voyage data recorder
Voyage damage record
Vector display radar

* Which of these items does NOT usually feature in the Master-Pilot
Exchange?
The cargo manifest
The Master berth-to-berth plan
The Pilot’s pilotage plan
The Pilot Card
* Which of the items of information listed would a Pilot need to know before
taking over Conduct of Navigation?
The vessel`s last port of call
Its cargo
How long each member of the Bridge Team has been with the vessel
Any defects or problems with the vessel’s steering or propulsion systems
* Who specifies the standards required of local Pilots?
Individual Flag States
Local Competent Pilotage Authorities
The International Maritime Pilots Association

* Which of the items listed must be ready at the Pilot’s embarkation point?
Lifeline and lifebuoy
Signal lamp
Protective overalls
Ship’s safety instructions

False?
Members will never question the Master’s orders. FALSE
* As well as his own language, which other basic languages or

communication ability is a Pilot expected to have?
English and the IMO’s Standard Marine Communications Phrases
English, Spanish and the IMO’s Standard Marine Communications Phrases
English, Spanish, German and the IMO’s Standard Marine Communications

Phrases
The IMO’s Standard Marine Communications Phrases
* What information should the Pilot be given first when they reach the
bridge?
The ship’s Passage Plan
The Pilot Card
The manoeuvring Booklet
The ship’s position, heading and speed
* Who is in command of a vessel when under pilotage?
The Pilot
The Master
Both the Pilot and Master together
Whoever is senior officer on the bridge
* From which side of a vessel do Pilots normally prefer to board?
Port
Starboard
Lee
Windward
* Who is in command of navigation when under pilotage?
Whoever is senior officer on the bridge

The Master
Both the Pilot and Master together
The Pilot
946 – Safe Gangway & Ladder Operations
* The pilot ladder should not be longer than:
9 metres
12 metres
15 metres
20 metres
* Spreaders should be not more than:
2 steps apart.
4 steps apart.
6 steps apart.
8 steps apart.
* If it is not possible to repair or replace a defective part, what should you
do?
Paint it red as a warning that it is unsafe.
Attach a notice stating that the device must not be used and the reason why.
Verbally inform all relevant personnel that it is defective.
* Are the statement about pilot ladders and pilot boarding True or False?
It is the pilot’s duty to board regardless, even if he is not happy with boarding
arrangements. FALSE
Aluminium is likely to corrode less when in direct contact with mild steel. FALSE
Pilot ladders are made of lightweight aluminium so that they can easily be lifted by
crew members. FALSE
* Are the statements about gangways and accommodation ladders True or

False?
Accommodation ladders are strong enough to withstand any number of people

using them at once. FALSE
While in port, it is the port authority’s responsibility to ensure that gangways and
accommodation ladders are safely rigged. FALSE
Assessing the risks involved is essential, when any accommodation ladder,

gangway or pilot ladder is about to be operated. TRUE
* What should the pilot ladder be illuminated by?
The ship’s lights only.
A light attached to the ladder itself.
A light positioned forward of the ladder.
A light positioned aft of the ladder.
* The bottom platform of the accommodation ladder should be angled to:
10º
20º
not angled at all – completely flat
55º
* How often should accommodation ladder wires be renewed?
At least once every 2 years.
Not at all. They are durable and will last for the life of the ship.
* The clear step width between the side ropes should be at least:
40 cm wide.
60 cm wide.
80 cm wide.
* Accommodation ladders should be inclined to an angle of not more than:
35º
55º
45º
65º
* Cruise liners board their passengers by port controlled gangways or ship

gangways.
False
True
* In ships with a freeboard of more than 9 metres, the accommodation ladder

should be lowered to:
5-7 metres above the water line.
8-10 metres above the water line.

the water line itself.
* It in not necessary to inspect the underside of gangways or

accommodation ladder ladders, as they are protected from corrosion and
wear and tear.
True
False
* Handhold stanchions should be attached to the bulwark at around what

level?
10 cm above the bulwark top.
100 cm above the bulwark top.
10 cm below the bulwark top.
* Manufacturer’s accommodation ladder equipment manuals are kept:
in the accommodation area.
in box next to the equipment.
on the bridge/Chief officer’s office.

* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about risk
assessment.
The risks involved in operating and using an accommodation ladder, gangway or

pilot ladder must be assessed, to minimise the likelihood of accidents. Whether at
sea or in port, it is good semanship to make sure that the correct procedures and
safety measures have been applied. Risk assessment is an ongoing requirement
to ensure that correct procedures are established and followed.
1142 – Leadership and Team Working Skills – Vessel Resource Management

Series Part 1 – An Introduction to Resource Management
* If teamwork is divided into four main stages – forming, storming, norming

and performing, what qualities does the third stage – norming – require?
An ability to resolve differences
Flexibility and imagination
Confidence
Friendlines and openness
* When it comes to a commitment to safe working practices, what should

good leadership concentrate on?
Technological skills
Delegation
Time spent on safety drills and briefings
Self-reflection
* Is the following statement about resource management principles True or

False?
Good communication and effective communication are always the same thing.
FALSE
* A powernap should take no longer than:
ten minutes.
fifteen minutes.
twenty minutes.
half an hour.
* Which of the activities listed would NOT be considered part of situational

awareness?
Categorising information
Anticipating a future state
Interpreting information
Gathering information
* In Closed Loop Communication you should always:
keep to the facts.
maintain good eye contact.
be clear.
be brief.
do all of the above.
* There are four stages to managing your workload successfully. What is the
first stage?
Be organised
Remain calm
Remain alert
Familiarise yourself with the ship and your responsibilities
* The ideal manager is a SMART one. What does the A stand for?
Achievable
Adaptable
Accountable
Avoidable

False?
The greatest resource in resource management is the equipment you use and the
colleagues you work with. FALSE

False?
A virtuous circle is when one stage leads naturally onto the other to become a
natural flow. TRUE
* Situational awareness was first developed by which industry
The TV industry
The IT industry
The aviation industry
* Which of these definitions is wrong?

Sensory Memory – holds information for brief periods of time.
Working Memory – holds information about your technical skills.
Long Term Memory – this holds all the information acquired during your life.
1131 – Boarding and Leaving a Vessel at Sea
* What should the personnel transfer area on the launch be protected with?
Lifebuoys
Fenders
Non-slip paint
Stanchions
* What form of communication is preferable between the launch and ship
Hand signals
The spoken word
VHF radio
Flags
* Is the following statement about boarding procedures True or False?
It’s important to keep your body as far away as possible from the ladders as you
climb. FALSE
* A combination arrangement is:
a ladder which can be dismantled into several parts.
an accommodation ladder and fall arrestor.
a rope and plarform fitted with stanchions.
a pilot ladder and accommodation ladder.
* What should be the angle of slope for the accommodation ladder?
Less or equal to 45 degrees
Lees or equal to 75 degrees
* What should you do once you’ve been in structed to start boarding?
Stand on the bottom of the ladder until the receiving officer instructs you to move.
Climb 5 steps to take you clear of the launch.
Climb 10 steps then look round to check with the deckhand that it’s safe to
proceed.
Climb without stopping until you get to the top.
If the launch that approached has not been in communication with the ship, nobody
from it should be allowed to board. TRUE
* When leaving the ship and arriving at the bottom of the ladder, you should:
turn around so that you’re facing the launch.
move below the level of the launch deck.
step directly on to the deck.
step first on to the railings and then the deck.
As a passenger to be transferred to the ship, it is your duty to board regardless,

even if you are not happy with boarding arrangements. FALSE
* When should the PFD be worn?
When getting on to and off the launch
Throughout the operation from boarding the launch onwards
When you leave your seat on the launch to go to the personnel transfer area
A PFD is not necessary and could obstruct your passage up the ladder
* How high should the handrails on the after deck be?
Handrails are not required on the after deck
A minimum of 50 cm
A minimum of 75 cm
A minimum of 1 metre
* Which of the protective items listed is not required when boarding a

vessel?
Safety harness
Hard hat
PFD
Non-slip footwear with low heels

* The launch must be manned by at least:
1 person.
2 people.
3 people.
5 people.
* What boarding arrangement does the IMO consider safest for boarding
personnel at sea, on ships with a freeboard of 9 metres and above?
The combination arrangement
The accommodation ladder
The transfer basket
The pilot ladder
* Why is climbing a ladder up a ship’s side more risky while the ship is
underway than in port?
Because the launch and ship are both moving independently in the water
Because the same safety rules do not apply
Because the ladder is freely swinging around
Because of the lack of supervision

* When you reach the top of the ladder, how should you step across?
You should wait to be lifted on to the deck using the hoist.
You should step backwards on to the deck.
You should make sure you move both feet at once and then both hands.
You should step across moving one hand or foot at a time.
* Which of the items of equipment listed is NOT needed on the launch?
EPIRB
SART
Fire extinguishers
Lifebuoys
Survival craft
Heliograph
Distress signalling flares
* What is the maximum climb up a ship’s side?
5 metres
9 metres
12 metres
18 metres
The Master of the launch should make the final decision about which side of the
ship should be used for boarding. TRUE
* How many people are allowed on the pilot ladder at one time?
1 launch deckhand, 1 passenger, and 1 receiving ship’s officer
1 launch deckhand and 3 passengers
2 passengers
1 passenger
The accommodation ladder should lead forward. FALSE

Series Part 3 – The voyage Plan: Executing, Monitoring and Chart Correction
* Is the following statement about executing the voyage plan True or False?
The rules for dealing with traffic in coastal waters are to be found in ColRegs.
TRUE
* When making corrections on charts, you should first:
line up the tracing accurately using the reference points.
check you have an up to date list of lights, fog signals and radio signals.
start from the correction in the Notices to Mariners.
work out the clearest way the correction can be put on the chart.
* To avoid relying entirely on ECDIS whilst route monitoring what other

options should you consider as back up?
Maintaining a regular look-out
Keeping a navigation log
Checking the automatic ECDIS log
Ensure target tracking devices are set with an appropriate safe time
All of the above
* Where would you find details of the type of service available in different
ports?
The ship’s SOLAS training manual
The Admiralty List of Radio Signals
MARPOL
The charterer’s instructions
Once the ship has set off, it is the principal task of the Watchkeeping Officer to
navigate and monitor the ship’s progress according to the voyage plan with
absolutely no deviation from it. FALSE
* What size pen is recommended to correct paper charts to put in new

information?
.05nm
.15nm
.25nm
.5nm
* Which of these watchkeeping tasks after departure are carried out purely
automatically?
The Echo Sounder

Maintaining awareness of immediate hazards
The ECDIS monitoring route
The Autopilot
* Which of the services listed do VTS operators not provide?
ETA
Simple information
Traffic organisation
Navigational assistance
* Which of those listed is not a recognised message-marker?
Problem
Intention
Warning
Answer
Question
When position fixing, the best way of estimating the next fix is to do it at regular
intervals. TRUE
* Now you have finalised the voyage plan and had it approved by the Master,
you next need to:
check engine and steering gear.
check radars and target tracking equipment.
prepare the bridge.
inform the deck team and ensure the Watchkeeping Officers have signed it.
* What knock on effect does a delay in departure time have when considering
new weather conditions?
Change of tide heights and flow
A different choice of route
Review risk assessment
All the above

Series Part 4 – Bridge Watchkeeping
* When preparing to go on duty as Watchkeeping Officer, there are a number
of key tasks. What does the Reference suggest as the first?
Check the Standing Orders.
Go around the bridge with the officer you are relieving.
Examine the wheelhouse poster.
Find out how to operate the engine when the ship is working UMS.
* Whilst it is always good to get up on the bridge early when going on duty,
when is it particularly important?
At night
During bad weather conditions
When expecting a pilot
All of the above
* Is the following statement about bridge watchkeeping True or False?
Successful watchkeeping only requires the use of two independent electronic aids
as a countercheck without visual positioning. FALSE
* What command is used to complete the formal handover?

‘It’s all yours’
‘I’m finished here’
‘You’re in charge’
‘You now have the watch’
* When dealing with the cultural differences as a Watchkeeping Officer, what

quality is most helpful in building good teamwork?
Inflexibility
Assertiveness
Sensitivity
Detachment
* Which Colregs Rule concerns the keeping of a proper look out?
Rule 8
Rule 5
Rule 6
Rule 7
* If the situation has required the immediate presence of the Master on the
bridge what should you do next as Watchkeeping Officer?
Remain on the bridge to support the Master.
Leave the bridge.
Immediately log the events thus far.
Attempt to contact the other ship.
The formal handover should always be registered by the Voyage Data Recorder.
TRUE
* Under what conditions can the stand-on ship take action to avoid collision
in close quarter situations?
If the give-way ship doesn’t respond to VHS.
If the give-way ship has slowed down.
When it becomes apparent that the give way ship is not taking appropriate action.
There are no conditions under which the stand-on ship can take action.
Once the formal handover has taken place the Watchkeeping Officer has been
delegated responsibility within the limits set out by the Master’s standing orders.
TRUE
* As outgoing watchkeeper, what should you do if you think your relief is not
fit for duty?
Call the Master
Tell them to take over while you go and find someone who is fit.
Tell them to go and have a rest while you continue.
Tell them to switch to autopilot until ther are feeling better.
* What percentage of insured losses are said to be due to collision,

grounding and contact damage as a result of human error?
50 %
60%
70%
80%

Series Part 6: Working with Pilots
* On receiving the pilot, how far do regulations stipulate the ladder should be
on the starboard side above the water?
2 m.
1.5 m.
1 m.
2.5 m.
* If you need to use the PACE strategy when dealing with the pilot, what does
the A stand for?
Asking.
Alerting.
Arguing.
Acting.
* Is the statement about working with pilots True or False?
It is important that during the Master-Pilot exchange a common language is agreed

to facilitate ease of understanding. TRUE
* The bow thruster should always be handled by the Master.
True or False? FALSE

* Whilst approaching the berth, what will maintain the bridge team’s
awareness of the ship’s intended track?
The voyage plan.
The Master.
The Watchkeeping Officer.
Good communication from all on the bridge.
* What happens as soon as the pilot is safely on board?
The pilot is introduced to the Master.
The receiving officer reports a safe arrival to the bridge.
The pilot is given the pilot’s bag.
The ship’s speed is reduced.
* Which of the qualities listed are NOT useful in helping people work well
together?
Being respectful and courteous.
Asking questions when you do not understand something.
Not making allowances for cultural differences.
Being patient.
* Which of the areas of expertise listed does a pilot NOT bring to the bridge
team?
Relationship with the shore based support.
Greater experience in handling ships and tugs in port.
The voyage plan.
Knowledge of local traffic, tides and hazards to navigation.
* Is the statement about working with pilots True or False?
The Portable Pilot Unit significantly increases the manoeuvrability of larger vessels
in confined spaces. TRUE
* Once the pilot has taken over navigation of the ship, you as Watchkeeping
Officer should:
ensure the helmsman follows the pilot’s orders.
stop taking plot fixes.
assume the Master will now monitor the pilot.
not question the pilot’s orders.
* is the statement about working with pilots True or False?

Is is not necessary to create a good first impression since this won’t affect the
pilot’s ability to do his/her job. FALSE
1155 – Pilot Transfer Arrangements
* In ships with a freeboard of more than 9 metres, the accommodation ladder

should be lowered to a minimum of:
5 metres above the water line.
8 metres above the water line.
the water line itself.
* Who should meet the pilot at the embarkation point?
The Master
The Officer of the Watch
A responsible officer
A deckhand who speaks English
* Is the following statement about the pilot boarding arrangements True or

False?
It is the pilot’s duty to board regardless, even if he is not happy with boarding
arrangements. FALSE
* Accommodation ladders should be inclined to an angle of not more than:
35º
55º
45º
65º
* Is the following statement about the pilot ladder True or False?
It’s important to keep the steps properly painted. FALSE
* Spreaders should be not more than:
2 steps apart.
4 steps apart.
6 steps apart.
9 steps apart.
* Is the following statement about the pilot boarding arrangements True or
False?
Side doors used for pilot boarding should always open outwards. FALSE
* The clear step width between the side ropes should be at least:
40 cm.
60 cm.
80 cm.
30 cm.
* The pilot ladder must be combined with the ship’s accommodation ladder
when the freeboard is greater than:
5 metres.
8 metres.
10 metres.
9 metres.
* Is the following statement about the pilot ladder True or False?

A pilot ladder should have no shackles, knots or splices. TRUE
* Handhold stanchions should be attached to the bulwark at around what

level?
10 cm above the bulwark top
100 cm below the bulwark top
* Which of the items listed must be ready at the pilot’s embarkation point?
Signal lamp
Lifeline and lifebuoy
Protective overalls
Ship’s safety instructions

Series Part 8: Five Case Studies
* Is the statement about teamwork and procedures True or False?

Watch handovers should not take place in the middle of a manoeuvre. TRUE
* Which of the activities listed would NOT be an indication of a good team?
Members asking for clarification if they don’t understand.
Members offering one another support.
Members asking for help when they need it.
Members reluctant to raise an alert if a senior officer appears to be deviating from

the intended course.
Once the pilot has taken over, the bridge team can relax. FALSE
When mistakes have occurred it is important to find who was at fault. FALSE

It may be better to check the situation with a pair of binoculars rather than trying to
acquire targets on the ARPA. TRUE
* When it comes to learning from experience what is the final stage?
Reflection.
Planning.
Generalisation.
Training.
* Achieving a safe passage requires:
planning, approval, monitoring and execution.
planning, monitoring, correcting and execution.
appraisal, planning, execution and monitoring.
formulation, appraisal, monitoring and execution.
* What is the advantage of a bridge management style which encourages a

“team work” approach where everyone is aware of what is going on, where
everyone contributes, and feels free to speak up if something is not right?
Mistakes can normally be corrected before they become disasters.
This style saves time and money and places the ship operator in a competitive
position in the market place.
Navigation requires an autocratic command structure, The team work approach
does not apply to such conditions.
It allows the Master or Officer in charge of the Watch to relax.
966 – Sewage and Waste Water Treatment
* Very rarely, someone may have to go inside the plant for maintenance. If
so:
the Master should be consulted.
head office should give permission.
a proper risk assessment should be undertaken first.
* Which Marpol Annex relates to the sewage system?
II
III
VI
IV
* What is the minimum distance a ship must be from land before it is allowed
to discharge untreated sewage?
3 nautical miles
6 nautical miles
9 nautical miles
12 nautical miles
* Which country, mentioned in the video, insists on chlorination?
Canada
USA
Korea
* Why are domestic cleaners used on shore not suitable for cleaning toilets
on board?
They are too expensive
They are not strong enough
They damage the marine environment
They would kill the bacteria on which the plant depends
* Extenden aeration sewage treatment plants make use of:

aerobic bacteria.
anaerobic bacteria.
* Which of the items listed should NOT be put into lavatories on board?
Condoms
Cigarette ends and packets
Female sanitary products
Kitchen towels
All the above
* What is the minimum distance a ship must be from land before it is allowed
to discharge comminuted and disinfected sewage?
3 nautical miles
6 nautical miles
9 nautical miles
12 nautical miles
* Which is the final stage of treatment in an extended aeration plant?

Settling
Chlorination
Aeration
* Why are anaerobic bacteria not desirable in a sewage system?
They are not very efficient.
They can produce toxic or flammable gases.
They are not killed off by the chlorinator.
* MARPOL Annex IV applies to ships below 400 gross tons if they are
certified to carry more than:
10 people.
12 people.
15 people.
20 people.
* Are the statement about plant maintenance True or False?
It is important to check and maintain the level of tablets in the chlorinator. TRUE
The integrity of the pipe work should be checked regularly. TRUE

Cabin ventilation is not affected by the sewage plant at all. FALSE
1129 – Coping with Stowaways (Edition 2)
* How does the FAL Convention define a stowaway?
Anyone who is on board without the permission of the Master or owner, but has not
paid for their passage.
who is still on board after the ship has left port.
Anyone who is on board after the ship has left port, but does not have the correct
documents, such as a passport, visa, or health certificates.
intends to remain on board after the ship has left port.
* Who has overall responsibility for preventing stowaways getting on board

when a ship is in port?
The harbour authorities
The agent
The ship’s Master and crew
The owners
* When is the best time to begin to prevent stowaways getting on board?
Before the ship arrives at a night-risk port.
While the ship is in a high-risk port.
Just before the ship sails from a high-risk port.
Before the ship arrives at a low-risk port.
* If stowaways are found on board while the ship is in port, who should the
Master inform?
The company Security Officer (CSO)
The ship’s agent
The Flag state
All the above
* If stowaways are found while the ship is still in port, what is the Master’s
best course of action?
Sail on schedule, even if the stowaways are still on board.
Refuse to sail until the port authorities takes the stowaways off.
Consult with the Company Security Officer and the ship’s owners or managers
Negotiate with the stowaways to persuade them to leave.
* From whom should you seek information about stowaway risks at a

particular port?
The P&I Club
The local agent
Your CSO
The port authority
All the above
* If stowaways are found on board after the ship has left port, who should the
Master inform first?
All the above
The company’s agent at the last port of call
The P&I Club
* It is safest for stowaways to be searched by:
the Master and another officer.
two crew members, one to search and the other to observe.

a crew member wearing protective clothing.
a single crew member using a hand-held metal detector.
* It is important to take possession of any papers or documents a stowaway

is carrying because:
the costs of repatriation can then be charged to the stowaway.
relatives must be informed of the stowaway’s location.
the ship’s flag state will then be able to issue a passport to the stowaway.
identifying the stowaway makes it easier for them to be disembarked.
* While stowaways are on board ship they are entitled to:
food and water, reasonable accommodation, a lifejacket, and instruction in safety

procedures.
the same food and accommodation as a crew member.
* Who pays all the the costs of keeping stowaways and returning them to
their country of origin?
The immigration authorities at the port of disembarkation

The government of the stowaways’ country of origin
* Stowaways should never, ever, be allowed to:
work.
leave their locked accommodation.
walk on deck.
eat hot food.
* At what point should a stowaway be told they will be repatriated?
As soon as they are discovered
As late in the process as possible
Never
When being interviewed to establish their identity
can disembark?
The ship’s Master

The P&I correspondent
The port immigration authority
can disembark?
The United Nations
The Nautical institute
Lloyd’s Register
The international Maritime Organization
747 – Safe Cargo Stowage and Securing
* Are the statements listed True or False?
Cargo should be stowed so as to leave gaps to make crew inspections easier.

FALSE
Placing cargo on strips of wood is an excellent way of increasing friction at the

point of contact. TRUE
Cargo lashings should be attached to the ship – not to other cargo or lashings.
TRUE
It may sometimes be necessary to weld temporary securing points to the ship’s
structure. TRUE
* How should lashings be distributed at a cargo unit with single stowage

pattern?
Equally to fore and aft.
Equally to all sides.
80% to port and starboard, 20% to fore and aft.
50% to port and starboard, 50% to fire and aft.
* What is the Maximum Securing Load value, (MSL), of a lashing consisting

of a wire, turnbuckle and shackle?
The least MSL figure of all the elements in the lashing, including the deck ring.
The mean of all the MSL values of the elements in the lashing.
The total of the MSL values of the elements in the lashing.
* Are the statement listed True or False?
Acceleration forces on cargo increase the further it is from the centre of the ship.
TRUE
As the ship rises on a swell, the cargo effectively becomes lighter. FALSE
When the ship rolls, cargo lashings will be stretched and compressed alternately.
TRUE
If the lashings become too loose, an iterm can lose contact with the deck and slide.
TRUE
* Complete the sentences about cargo stowage by dragging the correct

The purpose of the Cargo Securing Manual is to give details on the stowage and
securing of all cargoes the ship is likely to carry.
Well managed cargo must be stowed so as to maintain the stability of the ship.
Side stowage may involve items of varying dimensions and weights.
The stowage plan must be flexible enough to accommodate last minute changes.
During a voyage, the cargo will be subjected to continually changing acceleration

forces.
* Leading a wire round a bar of its own diameter or smaller can reduce its
breaking load by up to:
25%
40%
50%
60%
* Complete the following sentences about some common problems of cargo
stowage.
A pre-arranged stowage plan may show… inadequate distribution of cargo, often

not reflecting suitable cargo handling in subsequent ports.
Heavy cargo units may be offered for shipment without… having suitable lifting and
securing points.
Cargo weights and dimensions may… differ considerably from figures given when
it was booked.
Cargo may not be… readly available as needed for loading according to the plan.
* The video refers to the carriage of a large cased item. Such items should be
lashed:
firmly at the base.
below the centre of gravity.
above the centre of gravity.
* The first priority when preparing a stowage plan is:
the safety of the ship.
to fit as much cargo as possible on board.
to guarantee that the ship can leave port on schedule.
to ensure access ways are not obstructed.

* Which of the stowage patterns listed is NOT a recognised pattern?
Single stowage.
Vertical stowage.
Side stowage.
Cross stowage.
* The vertical lashing angles should not be greater than:
20º
30º
45º
60º
* The diagram shows a load of 80 tonnes with lashings to either side. What
should be the MSL of each lashing?
* Which of the information listed would NOT be included in the Cargo
Securing Manual?
All the necessary information regarding the correct loading, stowage and lashing of
the cargoes on board the ship.
Lists of all the lashing equipment which will be carried on the ship.
Details of all the likely cargo types which the ship may carry and how to lash them
properly in accordance with the SOLAS requirements.
The size limitations on individual heavy items.

1101 – Dangerous and Difficult Bulk Cargoes: Best Practice and the IMSBC
Code
* A Group A bulk cargo is one that:
can have a chemical reaction leading to a dangerous situation.
does not either liquefy or chemically react.
can liquefy in the moisture content is too high.
could polymerise and form a solid mass.
* A Group B bulk cargo is one that:
can liquefy if the moisture content is too high.
can have a chemical reaction leading to a dangerous situation.
does not either liquefy or chemically react.
has a very low angle of repose.
* The Angle of Repose of a free-flowing bulk cargo in the hold is:
the angle formed by the cone at the top.
the maximum angle allowed between the vertical plane and the slope down from
the cone.
the maximum angle allowed between the horizontal plane and the slope up to the
cone.
* When ‘shall’ is used in the IMSBC Code (e.g. the temperature shall be
taken), it means:
recommended.
mandatory.
optional.
* The TML is:
the average moisture content of the cargo.
the difference between the average moisture content and the maximum allowed for
carriage.
the maximum temperature for loading.
the maximum moisture level allowed for carriage.
* The BCSN is:
the name under which a cargo is listed in the IMSBC Code.
the name for the cargo used in the shipper’s documentation.
the name for the cargo as used by the authorities in the port of loading.
* The first link in the Bulk Cargo Chain is:
the inspection of the cargo.
the suitability of the ship for the cargo.
the checking of the documentation provided by the shipper.
the analysis of the cargo samples.
* The suitability of the ship for a particular cargo should be checked:
when the vessel is fixed on charter.
after loading is completed but before the vessel sails.
in extreme and adverse weather conditions.
when the vessel starts loading.
* Which of the procedures listed are required when entering an enclosed

space?
Ventilating the space before entry.
Having a system of formal permits approving entry.
Testing the atmosphere before entry.
Having support outside the entry point in communication with those inside.
All the above.
* Which Section of the IMSBC Code contains provisions relating to potential

security risks of some bulk cargoes?
Section 10
Section 11
Section 12
Section 5
* Preparation of detailed documents about the cargo and a declaration as to

its acceptability is the responsibility of:
the Master.
the charterer.
the shipper.
the ship’s agent in the port of loading.
* Is the following statement about the carriage of bulk cargoes True or False?
Some cargoes may need to be carried under inert conditions. TRUE

Once the cargo has been loaded and the hold sealed, its temperature will not
change significantly. FALSE
Some cargoes may require the hold to be treated with barrier coating to protect
against corrosion. TRUE
Lower density cargoes should be stored in the lowest holds. FALSE
1126 – Bulk Carriers – Handle With Care (Edition 2)
* When restrictions on the carriage of cargoes are imposed, the ship should
be permanently marked with:
a solid square on its side shell aft.
a solid triangle on its side shell at midships.

a hollow triangle on its side shell forward.
a hollow square on its side shell at midships.
* SOLAS Chapter XII Regulation 14 Restrictions from Sailing with Any Hold
Empty defines an ‘empty hold’ as one that is loaded to:
less than 10% of the hold’s maximum allowable cargo weight.
less than 25% of the hold’s maximum allowable cargo weight.
more than 10% of the hold’s maximum allowable cargo weight.
there is no minimum or maximum allowable cargo weight for a hold.
* What is the result of overloading of the holds?
Liquefaction of the cargo
Oxygen depletion
Stress on the hull structure
A build-up of toxic gases
* The angle of repose of a free-flowing bulk cargo in the hold is:
the angle formed by the cone at the top.
the angle between the vertical plane and the slope down from the cone.
the angle between the horizontal plane and the slope up to the cone.
the angle between the vertical plane and the slope up to the cone.
* The TML is:
the maximum moisture level allowed for carriage.
the average moisture content of the cargo.
carriage.
carriage.
* ‘Shear force’ is when:
the hold is overloaded.
the hold is overloaded.
the ship bends or twists.
the upward and downward forces are not in balance along the length of the vessel.
* ‘Sagging’ is when:
the weight is concentrated at the ends of the ship, bending its structure.
the weight is concentrated in the middle of the ship, bending its structure.
a hold is overloaded.
liquefaction of the cargo causes it to increase in weight.
* ‘Hogging’ is when:
the weight is concentrated at the ends of the ship, bending its structure.
the weight is concentrated in the middle of the ship, bending its structure.
a hold is overloaded.
liquefaction of the cargo causes it to increase in weight.
* Trimming (of cargo) is:
loading the cargo slowly and at a steady rate.
the partial or total levelling of the cargo.
the partial or total levelling of the cargo.
cleaning the hold of cargo residue after discharge.
* The ship’s hatch covers must be marked with:
a solid equilateral triangle.
the ship’s IMO number.

hold identification numbers that correspond with the loading manual and
loading/discharge plan.
hold identification numbers that correspond with the relevant cargo numbers as set
out in the IMSBC Code.
* The IMSBC Code relates to:
the carriage of solid bulk cargo.
the handling of grain.
the safety of life at sea.
security on ships longer than 150m.
* The BLU Code relates to:
security on ships longer than 150m.
the carriage of grain.
the safety of life at sea.
the safe loading and unloading of bulk carriers.
* Which of the items listed does not need to be included in the loading plan?
Loading sequences, segregating dangerous cargoes where appropriate
Distance between conveyor belt and the holds

Total time to load
Appropriate loading and unloading rates for solid bulk cargoes
Appropriate loading and unloading rates for solid bulk cargoes
* The loading or discharge plan must be:
agreed and countersigned by the ship and the terminal.
signed by the ship only.
signed by the terminal only
agreed and countersigned by the ship, the terminal and the charterer.
* Homogeneous loading is where cargo is:
stowed in every other hold.
evenly trimmed.
loaded in two or more adjoining holds with neighbouring holds remaining empty.
loaded in every hold.
* Block loading is where cargo is:
stowed in every other hold.
evenly distributed.
loaded in two or more adjoining holds with neighbouring holds remaining empty.
loaded in every hold.
* While loading, what should happen if the loading and deballasting no

longer synchronise?
The loading must be speeded up.
The deballasting must be slowed down.
The ship and terminal must hold a meeting to discuss how best to proceed.
The ship and terminal must agree to suspend cargo operations until the ballasting
has caught up.
* How should cargoes with an angle of repose greater than 35 degrees be

loaded?
Trimmed so that the angle of repose is significantly less than 35 degrees.
Trimmed so that the angle of repose is significantly more than 35 degrees.
Loaded asymmetrically.
Cargoes with an angle of repose greater than 35 degrees should never be loaded.
* Is the following statement True or False?
The terminal representative should advise the Master when unloading has been
completed from each hold. TRUE
For some types of cargo the ship does not require a cargo declaration. FALSE
In the event of loss of hull integrity in way of the cargo holds, bulk carriers should
be evacuated as quickly as possible. TRUE
1139 – Dangerous Goods At Sea Part 1 – IMDG Code (Edition 6)
* Where can you find the Index in the Code?
Volume 2.
Supplement.
In each volume.
Volume 1.
* The IMDG Code may specify stowage location as:
‘on deck only’.
‘under deck only’.
‘packaged only’.
‘packed only’.
* Where in the IMDG Code are tank provisions found?
Part 4.
Part 5.
Part 6.
Part 7.
* Is this statement about the IMDG Code True or False?
Solid bulk cargoes are covered by the IMDG Code. FALSE
* What does the abbreviation MFAG stand for?
Maritime Federation of Associated Government.
Material For Accidents Guide.

Marine Fire Aid Guide.
Medical First Aid Guide.
How to secure the cargo is covered in the IMDG Code. FALSE
* Who fills in a container packing certificate?
The stevedore company loading the cargo on the vessel.
The person responsible for packing the container.
The shipper.
The Cargo Officer.
* The segregation requirements for packages are found in:
Part 1.
Part 6.
Part 2.
Part 7.
It is now mandatory for everyone involved in the shipping process to be fully

trained in the handling of dangerous goods. TRUE
* How many digits do UN numbers have?
2.
3.
4.
5.
* How many Classes of Dangerous Goods are there?
Seven.
Nine.
Eight.
Five.
* Which US publication describes the Hazmat training requirements for

vessels trading to the US?
Vessel General Permit.

US Coastguard Auxiliary Manual.
Vessel Safety Check Manual.
Code of Federation Regulations 49 CFR.
* Which Class covers Marine Pollutants not otherwise classified?
1.
2.
8.
9.
* Where can you find the Dangerous Goods List (DGL) in the Code?
The supplement.
In each volume.
Volume 2.
Volume 1.
* Where in the Code can an alphabetical list of Proper Shipping Names be

found?
The Supplement.
Volume 1.
The Appendices to volume 2.
The Index to Volume 2.
* What does the abbreviation IBC stand for?
International Bulk Cargo.
Intermediate Bulk Container.
Intermodal Bulk Container.
Internal Band Combustion.
* What is a PSN?
Packing Shipment Name.
Port Shipping Network.
Proper Shipping Name.
Pollution Safety Network.
* Hazard placards must be placed:
on all four sides.
on the back and front only.

on any two sides.
on the top and bottom.
* How does the process of stowage and segregation begin?
By consulting the Dangerous Goods List.
By contacting the shipper for information.
By checking the UN number and PSN in the Volume 2 Index.
By looking up the classification system in Volume 1.
* How often is the IMDG Code updated?
No regular period of time.
Every year.
Every two years.
Every five years.
* Where can you find the Ems and MFAG tables in the IMDG Code?
Volume 1.
The Supplement.
Volume 2.
In each volume.
* Who is responsible for checking that the goods are properly stowed,
segregated and secured?
The Chief Officer.
The Master.
The Officer in charge of loading.
The Office of the Watch.
* Which part of the IMDG Code deals with security provisions?
Part 1.
Part 2.
Part 5.
Part 6.
* How long must a dangerous goods note (DGN) be kept?
1 month.
3 months.
6 months.
12 months.
* Where in the IMDG Code would you look for reporting procedures?
The Supplement.
The Dangerous Goods List (DGL).
Volume 2.
Volume 1.
1140 – Dangerous Goods At Sea Part 2 – Expecting the Unexpected (Edition

6)
* Is this statement about dealing with Dangerous Goods True or False?
Burns from chemicals should be left for 24 hours before treating. FALSE
The use of water when dealing with a dangerous goods incident can result in the
spreading of a split corrosive substance. TRUE
* What does the abbreviation EmS stand for?
Emergency Procedures.
Emergency Plans.
Emergency Situations.
Emerging States.
The shipper’s declaration should contain all the information necessary to establish
the correct handling, stowage and segregation of the consignment. TRUE
* Where can you find the EmS and MFAG tables in the IMDG Code?
Volume 1.
The Supplement.
Volume 2.
In each volume.
* Organic peroxides are dangerous because they:

are flammable.
may react violently if in contact with water or other substances.
are toxic.
are corrosive.
* Is this statement True or False?
After an incident, equipment should be cleaned, maintained and, where necessary

changed. TRUE
* Where can you find the DGL in the Code?
Volume 2.
Supplement.
In each volume.
Volume 1.
* Where can you find the EmS schedule in the Code?
Column 15.
In the Supplement.
Column 4.
Volume 1.
* The flashpoint of a flammable liquid must be included in the dangerous

goods declaration if it is below:
30 degrees Celsius.
40 degrees Celsius.
60 degrees Celsius.
100 degrees Celsius.
* The positioning of goods in CTUs is defined as:
packaging.
stowing.
packing.
* What does the abbrevation MFAG stand for?
Maritime Federation of Associated Governments.
Material For Accidents Guide.
Marine Fire Aid Guide.
Medical First Aid Guide.

* Hydrochloric acid and caustic soda are good examples of cargoes which
are:
volatile.
toxic.
flammable.
corrosive.
* Is this statement True or False?
Some gases are heavier than air and may enter the accommodation via hatchways
or through open doors. TRUE
1141 – Dangerous and Difficult Bulk Cargoes – Minerals and Man – Made
Derivatives
* Is the following statement about ammonium nitrate cargoes True or False?
The correct Bulk Cargo Shipping Name (BCSN) is not so important because it is
easy to distinguish between the variants by eye. FALSE
* Is the following statement about coal cargoes True or False?
With coal cargoes, the ship needs the capability of measuring nitrogen and
hydrogen. FALSE
* Which of the DRI variants may be ventilated on passage?
DRI (B) and DRI (C)
DRI (A)
All of the DRI variants must be ventilated.
None of the DRI variants must be ventilated.
* Nickel ore ir regarded as potentially more and dangerous than other

cargoes in this category because:
it has a higher density.
its typical moisture content is more difficult to determine.
its Transportable Moisture Limit is lower.
it causes more oxygen depletion.
* DRI (B) and (C) must NOT be accepted if their moisture content is:
more than 0.3%
more than 3%.
more than 3.1%
more than 13%.
* Is the following statement about documentation True or False?
The shipper’s documentation for a mineral concentrate cargo must provide

accurate figures for moisture content and TML. TRUE
* Ventilation of a coal cargo should be:
avoided.
at a maximum level throughout the hold.
only on the coal’s surface.
only below the coal’s surface.
* Coal cargoes that have the capacity to self-heat should not be loaded if the
cargo’s temperature is higher than:
55ºC.
65ºC.
75ºC.
the ambient temperature.
* What can happen if ammonium nitrate cargoes UN 1942 or UN 2067 are

contaminated with fuel oil?
They can liquefy
They can explode
They can deplete the oxygen in the hold
They can give off toxic dust
* The purpose of the Can Test is to check:
homogeneity.
density.
moisture content.
stability.
* Why is it important for a mineral concentrate cargo to be evenly distributed

in the hold?
To avoid build-up of moisture
To reduce the risk of toxic fumes
To make it easier to measure the temperature

To avoid over-stressing of the ship’s structure
* The angle of repose for the safe carriage of all forms of ammonium nitrate
cargoes should be:
between 27º and 42º.
there is no recommended angle of repose.
* Ammonium nitrate cargoes UN1942 and UN 2067 must not be accepted if

the cargo’s temperature is higher than:
the ambient temperature.
60ºC.
50ºC.
40ºC.
* Dust precaution need to be taken when loading:
DRI (A).
DRI (A) and (B).
DRI (B) and DRI (C).

All three types.
* On passage with a mineral concentrate cargo, hatch covers are:
regularly opened to inspect the cargo.
regularly opened to vent gases built up in the hold.
left open throughout the voyage.
Left closed throughout the voyage.
* Which hazardous gas can DRI (B) and (C) produce?
Hydrogen sulphide
Nitrogen
Hydrogen
Methane
* Which of the risks listed does not apply to coal cargoes?
Production of methane
Oxidation
Production of hydrogen sulphide
Self-heating
Reaction with water
* Is the following statement about ammonium nitrate cargoes True or False?
Ammonium nitrate based fertilisers are hygroscopic. TRUE
* If combustion is detected in a coal cargo, it can usually be contained by:
using large amounts of water.
using the CO2 system.
using foam.
sealing the hold.
* DRI must NOT be accepted for loading if its temperature is:
higher than 55ºC.
higher than 65ºC.
higher than 75ºC.
higher than the ambient temperature.

687 – Working Aloft On Container Ships
* Are the statements about the proper maintenance of ladders True or False?
Ladders with missing rungs or witch cracked or otherwise damaged stiles should
not be used. TRUE
When ladders are not in use they should always be stored upright. FALSE
When ladders are not in use they should be kept safely in a dry ventilated space
away from heat sources. TRUE
All portable ladders should be checked regularly by a competent person and a

record of the inspection kept. TRUE
* Which of the statements does NOT belong in the list? A permit to Work
should set out:
normal working hours.
the location and details of the work to be done.
the results of any preliminary test undertaken.
the measures taken to make the job safe.
the safeguards that need to be taken during the operation.
the period of its validity (which should not exceed 24 hours) and any time limits
applicable to the work it authorises.
* Which of the checks listed should you make when you are required to rig
lights when working aloft?
Does this lighting rig have to be intrinsically safe?
Does the lamp have protection from shedding glass fragments on to persons
working or traversing below?
Does the lamp need to be of a low voltage type?
How can I get the light and any tools up to the working position?
All the above.
* When supervising work aloft in ice and rough weather you should:
Assess the risks involved to decide whether it is safe enough for a person to
ascend to the desired working position.
Be aware that in a well organised ship, no extra protection is required.
Get the work done quickly.
* True or False? Supervisors in charge of lashing operations must:
ensure that all unsecured lashing material is left in place. FALSE
ensure that proper cargo gear is used for handling of overheight cargo. TRUE
arrange for a container working platform for difficult lashing operations when
required. TRUE
make sure that they climb onto the hatch coaming to look into the hatch. FALSE
* Which of these general rules about using portable ladders is NOT correct?
Where necessary, and for heights greater than 2 metres above base level,
personnel must use a safety hamess with lifeline secured above the work position.
When portable ladders cannot be properly secured, they should be steadied by a

second person.
The cargo manifest.
When portable extending ladders are in use, there should be sufficient overlap
between the extensions.
Personnel negotiating a ladder should use both hands and not attempt to carry
tools or equipment in their hands.
To make staging, planks can be supported on rungs of ladders.
* When supervising work aloft in ice and rough weather you should:
Assess the risks involved to decide whether it is safe enough for a person to
ascend to the desired working position.
Be aware that in a well organised ship, no extra protection is required.
Get the work done quickly.
* When dealing with electric cables in damp conditions:
A rubber mat should not be used.
Rubber electrical gloves and rubber shoes should not be worn.

Circuits to be worked on must be properly isolated and locked off before work
starts.
* Are the statements concerning general rules for good housekeeping on top
of containers True or False?
The most important thing is to get the job done quickly. FALSE
Heavy objects, particularly discarded twistlocks, must be cleared from the tops of
containers. TRUE
Leave spare items handy in case you need them later. FALSE
All container doors must be properly secured. TRUE
* When considering the effects of fatigue, which of the points listed is NOT
relevant?
Has the seafarer been properly rested (under STCW requirements if applicable)?
If the work is to be lengthy, have adequate breaks been provided for when the
work permits is drawn up?
Have the number of breaks taken the environmental conditions into consideration?
Carefully administered stimulants (e.g. coffee) overcome most of the effects of

fatigue.
* Which of the statements about safety when working aloft is NOT correct?
Beware of open access covers and other uncovered openings.
Do not work on top of walkways where hatch lids are not in place.
Try to do several tasks at once, to save time.
Use proper fall protection.
Make sure that your work area is free of obstructions.
Always wear a hard hat with a fastened chin strap.
* What is the purpose of a Permit to Work?
It makes sure that the particular job to be performed will be safe.
It permits anyone who carries it to perform the duties outlined in the Permit.
It is a guide to a set procedure which, if followed, will make the job as safe as it can
be.
It is a notification to the officer on charge that the work concerned can be

completed.
* Which of the items of personal protective equipment listed is NOT normally

needed when working aloft on container ships?
Fall protection system.
Safety harness.
Ear protectors.
Good industrial footwear.
Safety helmets with chin straps.

High visibility clothing.
698 – Ballast Water Management
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about
ballast water exchange.
Exchanging ballast water at sea can affect the trim and draft. The engine intakes
may come out of the water. It can set up stresses In the hull leading to structural
failure and could cause a loss of stability. Even in calm weather, you must carry out
this procedure with extreme caution.
* In order to replace approximately 95% of ballast water in a tank using the

flow-through method of exchange, the amount of water pumped through the
tank must be:
1.5 x the tank’s volume.
2 x the tank’s volume.
* The IMO guidelines state that every ship that carries ballast water must
have a ballast water management plan.
True
False
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the
possible consequences of failing to comply with the regulations in force.
Failure to comply may lead to penalties and loss of revenue for the shipping
company. The vessel may be required to retain her ballast and load less cargo.
The ship may not be allowed to dock or may be forced to go out to sea and
exchange her ballast water. There could be the risk of a heavy fine or even
imprisonment.
* What minimum distance does ‘far from shore’ mean for ships entering
North American Great Lakes Ports or visiting ports further up the Hudson
River than the George Washington Bridge?
100 miles
200 miles
300 miles
150 miles
* Part four of the Ballast Water Reporting form is a detailed history of the
ballast water. Which of the items of information listed would NOT be
required?
The date
The types of organism in the water
The port
The water temperature at the time of the uptake
* The IMO has adopted a set of guidelines for the management of ballast
water. At present, these are:
mandatory.
voluntary.
* The current, recommended method of ballast water management is:
isolation.
treatment.
exchange.
* Which of the items listed is NOT included in the section of the IMO
Guidelines dealing with ships’ operational procedures?
Precautionary practices, such as timely removal of ballast sediment
Port State considerations
Training and education

Ballast water management options
* Are the statement about ballast water True or False?
Marine organisms carried in ballast water can damage the ship. FALSE
Many countries have already introduced quarantine requirements for ballast water
management. TRUE
Ballast water can carry disease from one part of the world to another. TRUE
Organisms carried in ballast water which survive on discharge can multiply and
cause serious environmental problems. TRUE
* In the Black Sea, the Comb Jelly became a major contributor to the rapid
decline in the catch of which particular fish?
Salmon
Anchovy
Sturgeon
Sardine
* The IMO guidelines contain a specimen format for a ballast water reporting
form. Which of the items of information listed does this form contain?
Vessel information
Voyage information
Ballast water management information (numbers of tanks discharged)
All the above
* Which of the factors listed is NOT relevant for port State authorities when
implementing their ballast water management programmes and assessing
risks?
Highly disparate conditions between uptake and discharge ports.
Ballast water age.
The type of vessel concerned.
Knowledge of the presence of target organisms.
* Are the statements about treatment methods True or False?
The use of clean, treated fresh water for ballast solves the potential problems with
ballast water. TRUE
The problems with mechanical treatment of ballast water are expense and
maintenance of the filters. TRUE
Heating the water or bombarding it with ultra-violet light or ultra-sound will kill
everything in the ballast water. FALSE
* Which of the actions listed does NOT form part of the duties of the
designated ballast water management officer?
Ensuring the exchange conforms to the Plan.
Preparing the ballast water declaration form prior to entering port.
Maintaining the ballast water log.
Deciding whether sea conditions allow exchange to be undertaken safely.
* Are the statements about ballast water exchange True or False?
Ballast water exchange at sea can have a serious effect on the ship’s structural
integrity. TRUE
Sequential exchange of ballast water at sea must be carried out by emptying pairs
of tanks at a time to maintain the ship’s trim and stability. TRUE
Correctly carried out, ballast water exchange at sea is a complete solution to the
problem. FALSE
The Master decides precisely how exchange at sea should be carried out. FALSE
736 – Lifeboat On-Load Release Mechanisms (Edition 2)
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the
Hook Release Handle.
While the lifeboat is away from the ship, the Hook Release Handle must be moved
forward again, towards the closed position, as far as it will go.The locating pin in
the handle is then directly above the slots in the side plates.
* Are these statement about the “cam-type” system True or False?
A lever on the cam is connected by a push-pull type cable to the Main Control Unit
inside the lifeboat. TRUE
At the Main Control Unit, the cables from each hook are attached to quadrants
which are controlled by the vertical spindle. FALSE
* Hoisting should be stopped:
once the lifeboat has cleared the water.
once the lifeboat is 3 metres out of the water.
once the falls are engaged.
only when the lifeboat has been returned to the davits.
* Are these statements about over-riding the hydrostatic interlock True or

False?
Over-riding the hydrostatic interlock is achieved by breaking the clear panel and
operating the locking lever manually. TRUE
Over-riding the hydrostatic interlock forms an important part of each Abandon Ship
drill. FALSE
* The locking lever is positioned:
behind a clear panel in the Control Unit.
above the Control Unit.
below the Control Unit.
in the bottom of the boat.
* Are these statements about re-locking the hooks True or False?
The safety pin should only be inserted when the helmsman’s handle has dropped
down into its slotted ‘locked’ position. TRUE
Whatever the system on your boat, the bow and stern men should inspect and pull
on the hooks to check that they are securely locked and that the cams are correctly
positioned before reporting that the hooks are re-locked. TRUE
* What is the next step after the lifeboat is waterborne?
Operating the Hook Release Handle.
Removing the safety pin.
Putting the engine into gear.
Checking that the hydrostatic interlock releases the interlock lever.
* To operate the Control Handle, you must:

release the hooks.
turn it anti-clockwise.
remove the safety pin or pins.
raise the locking lever clear of the quadrants.
* The purpose of the hydrostatic interlock is to:
release the hooks.
protect the push-pull cable.
guard against water entering into the mechanism.
guard against premature release.
* What is the most important thing to know about your davit system?
The braking system
The hoisting method
The safe recovery load permitted
The indicator system
* What is the final stage in the drill?

To return the craft to the davits in the stowed position.
To leave the craft.
To remove any build up of grease in the working parts.
To re-prepare the boat and davit for emergency use.
* Are these statements about the checks and preparations to be carried out
before a drill True or False?
The safety pins should be removed from the operating unit. FALSE
The hooks should be fully locked behind their cam arrangements. TRUE
You should ensure that the drain plug is screwed down. TRUE
* Are these statements about the “open-topped cone” system True or False?
A vertical spindle extends up through the hook housing, with its hook tail conical in
shape. FALSE
Moving a lever inside the boat rotates the spindle of both hooks simultaneously.
TRUE
* Is this statement about re-setting True or False?
Any resistance felt during re-setting should always be questioned and the reason
established at once. TRUE
* What is the next step after embarking the crew in the lifeboat?
Opening the hatches to allow air to circulate.
Starting the engine.
Checking seat belts are fastened.
Pulling the lowering control wire.
* Why do most lifeboat accidents occur, according to a recent survey?
Because the helmsman wraps the control wire round his hands.
Because crew members are not wearing their seat belts.
Because the release gear has not been properly re-set.
Because the hydrostatic lever is not overridden.
* International regulations state that every crew member must take part in at
least one Abandon Ship drill:
every week.
every month.
every voyage.
at the company’s discretion.

792 – Prevention & Reaction to Marine Oil Spills – Under Marpol
* Who should be responsible for dealing with the press and media?
The ship’s Master
The first officer
A responsible individual in the shore office
* Above what size are ships, other than oil tankers, required to have a
SOPEP?
150 GT
250 GT
400 GT
500 GT
Most marine oil spills result from oil tankers getting into difficulties. FALSE
The majority of spills are less than seven tonnes. TRUE
The quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small and so no

special precautions need to be taken before starting. FALSE
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the check procedures
required when ballasting through the cargo system.
Check that the valves into the tanks have been drained of oil.
bunkering procedures.

arrangements.
* The exercise shown in the video is based on the ship:

having a collision.
running aground.
catching fire.
In a real grounding, the master would instruct the engine room to stop the engine.
TRUE
Depending on the circumstances, in a genuine emergency, oil could get in through

seawater intakes. TRUE
Notification of the coastal state is mandatory under MARPOL if there is an actual or

probable discharge of oil. TRUE
Notification og the coastal state is mandatory under MARPOL if there is an actual

or probable discharge of oil. FALSE
* Drag the correct words from the list to identify some of the key aspects of
preparing for bunkering.

* In the event of a spill, where would the Master find the list of contacts who
must be notified.
In the P&A Manual
In the SOPEP
In the Safety Management System
* What do the initials SOPEP stand for?
Shipboard Oil Prevention Emergency Plan
Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan
Shipboard Oil Pollution Energy Plan
Shipboard Oil Prevention Escape Plan
793 – Prevention & Reaction to Marine Oil Spills – Under OPA 90
* OPA 90 applies to:
All oil tankers over 150 GT entering US waters.
All ships flying the US flag.
All ships entering US waters whatever their flag.

All oil and chemical tankers entering US waters whatever their flag.
* How far from the shoreline do US waters extend?
50 nautical miles
120 nautical miles
150 nautical miles
200 nautical miles
* Are the statements liste True or False?
Most marine oil spills result from oil tankers getting into difficulties. FALSE
The quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small and so no

special precautions need to be taken before starting. FALSE
* Drag the correct words from the list to identify some of the key aspects of
preparing for bunkering.


arangements.
* The exercise shown in the video is based on the ship:
having a collision.
running aground.
catching fire.
* A full scale PREP to test both ship and shore based emergency response
once a year.
three times a year.
once every two years.
twice a year.
* Which of these statements about the Qualified individual (QI) is NOT

correct?
The QI must speak fluent English
The QI must be a member of the ship’s crew.
The QI has to be based in the USA.
The QI may authorise funds for the clean up.
* Under OPA 90, who must be notified first in the event of an incident?
The Coast Guard captain of the nearest port
The shipping company headquarters
The National Response Centre in Washington D.C.

The Qualified Individual
In a real emergency, it may be necessary to close air vents to the engine room and
to close seawater intakes. TRUE
The OPA 90 Vessel Response Plan must always be available in English. TRUE
The crew would not normally be mustered until a detailed emergency response
had been agreed with the shore office. FALSE
* Which of the actions listed are the responsibility of the Command Centre?
The coordination and distribution of information concerning the actual and forecast
condition of the spill.
The managements of all tactical operations required to execute the company’s

general emergency response plan.
Obtaining manpower, equipment, material, food, protective clothing and other

facilities needed to support the emergency response.
Settling compensation claims.
All of the above.
* Which of the items of information listed is NOT required by the standard

form for reporting incidents to the National Response Centre?
The ship’s position
The type of product
The number of crew on board
The quantity at risk
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the statements about the
operation of OPA 90.
The Unified Command provides a top level forum for producing a cohesive plan of
action.
All decisions, actions and communications must be logged on the ship.
Unless the Master has serious concerns for safety on board, he will normally
The Coast Guard will take over operations only if they are asked or if they think
things are getting out of control.
794 – Prevention & Reaction to Marine Oil Spills – The Seaferer’s Role

arrangements.
Most marine oil spills result from oil tankers getting into difficulties FALSE
The quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small so no special

precautions need to be taken before starting. FALSE
* Match the opening words with the closing words to identify some of the key
* Oil cargoes may pose health hazards and these can be caused through
ingestion, skin contact or inhalation. Which of these posess the greatest
risk?
Inhalation
Skin contact
Ingestion
* Are the statements about possible hazards associated with spills True or
False?
Frequent or prolonged skin contact with benzene is not a cause concern. FALSE
Inhalation of hydrogen sulphide can be fatal.
 TRUE
Your sense of smell can become rapidly de-sensitised, particularly to hydrogen

sulphide. TRUE
Most oil cargoes do not require the use of any special protective clothing or
equipment. FALSE
* Drag the correct words from the list to complete the statements about
weathering of oil.
The lower the viscosity of the oil, the faster it will spread.
Low temperatures will make oil more viscous, and spread more slowly.
The higher the ambient temperature and the greater the wind speed, the more oil
will evaporate.
Over 36 to 48 hours, oil can mix with the sea to form a mouse.
* When a spill moves with a tide or current at what percentage of the tide or
current speed does it move?
3%
10%
50%
100%
* Use your mouse to complete the following sentence correctly.
Absorbents are substances which soak up oil like a sponge.
Adsorbents are substances where oil sticks to the outside surface.
Synthetic sorbents absorb a lot of oil and don’t absorb water.
Natural products often soak up water as well as oil.

944 – It’s not Worth It! – Maritime Pollution Offences Test
* If a vessel causes an illegal pollution discharge, who may now be held

accountable for it?
The Master
The crew member responsible for the action which caused the discharge
The ship owner
Everyone involved in operating the vessel
* Under European pollution laws, a seafarer can be found guilty of

contributing to a pollution incident through ‘complicity’. What does
‘complicity’ mean?
Encouraging someone to commit an offence.
Working alongside someone committing an offence.
Suspecting an offence but doing nothing about it.
Failure to understand the proper procedures for operating an anti-pollution system.
* If there is an accidental discharge while on the high seas, does it need to be

logged?
Only if it is more than 100 litres.
Only if it is more than three times the prescribed ppm.
Only if it is within 200 miles of land.
Yes, all discharges must be logged.
* Which of the measures listed are being used in the fight against marine
pollution?
Surprise inspections
Monitoring and tracking of suspect vessels
Extending investigations to an entire fleet
Encouraging ‘whistleblowers’ to inform on illegal acts
All of the above
* What does Canada’s legal principle of ‘reverse onus’ mean in pollution

cases?
An accused seafarer is innocent until convicted unanimously by a jury.
An accused seafarer is guilty until proven innocent.
An accused seafarer is held liable for the costs of cleaning up the pollution.
An accused seafarer is not responsible for pollution if he proves the owners knew
the crew were acting illegaly.
* What might investigating authorities think suspicious when examining the
oily water separator?
The system being very clean and shiny
Elbows in pipelines
Maintenance records which are very well kept and fully up to date
Crewmembers who are very knowledge about how the system operates
* Under European pollution laws a seafarer can be found guilty of

contributing to a pollution incident through ‘inaction’. What does ‘inaction’
mean?
Forgetting to operate an anti-pollution system at the correct time.
Operating an anti-pollution system incorrectly.
Being aware of a pollution discharge but not knowing it was illegal.
Suspecting an offence bot doing nothing about it.
* What is the penalty for a pollution offence in European waters caused by

serious negligence?
1-2 years in prison
2-5 years in prison
5-10 years in prison
Maximum 15 years in prison

* What is the minimum period for which the details in a vessel’s Oil Record
Book should be kept?
Six months
One year
Two years
Three years
* If you see or know of an unauthorised and illegal pollution discharge

occuring from your vessel at sea, what should you do?
Make sure the Master is told about it.
Pretend you didn’t see it or know about it.
Make a note of when, where and how it occurred, and keep it to yourself.
Tell the person responsible to be more careful in future.
* If you are detained by the authorities because your vessel is accused of

having caused a pollution incident, how should you respond to their
questioning?
Refuse to tell the investigators anything. Remain completely silent.
Refuse to answer any questions about the pollution incident until you have been
advised by either the Master, the shipowner’s representative or their lawyers.
Cooperate fully and answer all questions truthfully.

Tell them you know nothing whatsoever about the incident, even if you do.
* Why have so many states tightened up their maritime pollution laws?
Ship owners, operators and crews were unaware of the previous, existing laws.
Ship owners, operators and crews felt the existing laws did not cover modern
vessels.
Too many ship owners, operators and crews were ignoring the previous, existing
laws.
The EU felt that ship owners, operators and crews were confused by existing laws.
* Engineers believe that an oily water separator will become much more
liable to failure after:
5 years.
7 years.
10 years.
12 years.
* What might investigating authorities think suspicious when examining the

Oil Record Book?
Entries made in pencil
Irregular spaces between entries

Pages torn out
All the above
* Which of the shipboard records listed are the authorities NOT likely to
inspect if they board a vessel suspected of causing pollution?
Tank Sounding Log
Cargo Manifest
Garbage Record Book
Oil Record Book
Under MARPOL regulations, what is the maximum oil concentration

permitted in oily water that is to be discharged?
 5 ppm
 15 ppm
 50 ppm
 100 ppm
* Are the statements about enforcement of pollution regulations True or

False?
Satellite surveillance is increasingly being used to spot pollution and identify the
vessel causing it. TRUE
Chemical fingerprinting techniques can identify the source of pollutants and link
them to specific vessels. TRUE
Accidental pollution caused by damage to the ship or its equipment does not
exempt the Master from liability. FALSE
Port State Control authorities often carry out Concentrated Inspection Campaigns
targeting compliance with anti-pollution regulations. TRUE
947 – Immersion Suits Training – The Difference Between Life and Death
* When putting your suit on, how should you squeeze the air out?
Put fingers inside face seal, squat down and squeeze suit, remove fingers from
face seal, stand up again.
Use the pump provided.
Undo the zip, make a corkscrew twisting motion with your body, then do the zip up
again before the air gets back in.
* During each inspection, the zip should be rubbed on both sides with:
alcohol.
glycerine soap.
the lubricant recommended by the manufacturer.
* Water conducts heat away from the body:
as the same rate as air.
at twice the rate of air.

at more than 20 times the rate of air.
* Are the statements about immersion suits True or False?
It does not matter what size your immersion suit is. FALSE
All types of lifejacket work in combination with all types of immersion suit. FALSE
The face seal is extremely important because it helps to prevent heat loss from the
head. TRUE
* If you need to move position once you are in the water, you should:
swim on your front.
swim on your back, using slow, rhythmic strokes.
never attempt to swim in an immersion suit.
* Immersion suits will be most effective when:
you only have your underclothes on.
you are fully dressed.
* You should check your suit’s condition:

once a month.
once every 3 months.
it is up to the Safety Officer to check the condition of immersion suits.
* If a person spends six hours in 0ºC water when wearing an immersion suit,
their body temperature should not drop:
by more than 2ºC.
by more than 5ºC.
at all.
* Cold water shock lasts for around:
30 seconds.
2 minutes.
30 minutes.
* Are the statements about immersion suits True or False?
The suit should be stored in cool, dry place. TRUE
Regulations state that all immersion suits must be stored in cabins. FALSE
You should immediately repair any tears or deterioration you find. FALSE
* Lifejackets should be:
put on underneath the immersion suit.
carried with you until you are in the water or life-saving appliance.
put on over the immersion suit.
* With hypothermia, unconsciousness normally sets in when the body

temperature reaches:
35ºC.
30ºC.
26ºC.
* To enter the water safely:
jump as far off the side of the ship as you can.
first attach yourself to other crew members with the buddy line and lower the first
person down to the water using the line.
get as close as possible to the water then step off or use a rope or ladder.
* Which of the tasks listed is not appropriate when checking your suit:
See if there are any tears or deterioration in the material or seams.
Test the retro-reflective tape to find out if it is firmly attached.
Run the zip up and down to see if it works smoothly.
Undo any knots in the toggles.
Blow the whistle to see that it is functioning.
Try the suit out in the shower, or if weather permits, in the sea.
* Death generally occurs when the body temperature reaches:
35ºC.
30ºC.
26ºC.
* The suit’s buddy line is to:
help attach you to the life raft.
act as a reflective string which will be highly visible from the air.
prevent you from drifting away from other crew members.

* Which of the instructions about putting your immersion suit back in its bag
is not correct?
Make sure the floor is clean, brushing it if necessary.
Lay it flat on the floor
Do the zip right up
Fold the arms on to the chest
Put it into its bag
* Since 1st July 2006, it has been mandatory for cargo ships and bulk carriers
trading outside 20º North or 20º South to provide immersion suits for:
all rescue boat personnel.
everybody on board.
it is not mandatory, only recommended, to provide them for everyone on board.

On lifeboats to be launched by free fall launching, _________?
Both painters shall be stowed near the bow ready for use
The rocket parachute flare shall?
All of them
Every enclosed lifeboat shall be so constructed that it is?
None of them
Lifebuoy self-activating smoke signals shall continue to emit smoke when fully
submerged in water for a period of at least?
10 seconds
Traje de protección te dejara nadar al menos
At least 25 meters
Which of these vapours will have the lowest Flash point
Diesel
Each foam portable fire extinguisher shall have a capacity of at least
9 litres
Explosimeter MSA
When the BA team has withdrawn from a fire incident, what action should be taken
by the team leader?
Check the equipment personally and ensure that it is safe for future use
access doors, air inlets and openings to accommodation spaces, service spaces,
control stations and machinery spaces shall not face
the cargo area
How often would you expect a full inventory to be made of the fire fighting
equipment lockers
Every month
Cargo hoses and tank washing hoses shall have electrical continuity over their
entire lengths including couplings and flanges (except shore connections), and
shall be earthed for removal of electrostatic charges.
TRUE
What is the meaning of an incident according to MARPOL ?
probable discharge into the sea of a harmful substance, or effluents containing
such a substance.
When a casualty has a fractured base of the skull they may have
Blood stained fluid leaking from the ear or nose
A sprain is an injury to
Ligament
Under what circumstances a ship may burn fuel oil containing more than 1.5% of
Sulphur in Sox Emission Control Area (SECA)?
If the ship is fitted whit on-board exhaust gas- Sox cleaning systems.
For which vessels greater than 79 feet is submission of Notice Of Intent (NOI)
required in order to obtain coverage under the Vessel General Permit (VGP)
Merchant ships of 300 GT or above, or whose ballast water capacity in 8 cubic
meter or more.
Which IMO convention in concerned whit seafarer training

STCW
Notification of the coastal state is mandatory under MARPOL if there is an actual or
probable discharge of oil. TRUE
How would you position a conscious casualty with a sucking wound on the left side
of their chest?
Sitting up and leaning towards the left
Heat exhaustion is aggravated by

Loss of water and electrolytes
the hours of work regulations apply to which members of the crew

all members of the crew
in the event of frostbite, the casualty may complain of

pins and needles
it is ok just do chest compressions during resuscitation rather than compressions

and ventilations
FALSE
The compressor room a gas carrier has

An exhaust fan
Meetings should be conducted

All of them (record purpose, compile statistics, accountability)
A declaration of security (DoS) may also be completed between two ships

False
If you think a casualty is choking you should first

Open their mouth for check for any blockage
Ask them if they are choking
Torrey canyon is
The name of a ship that ran aground off the uk coast
Cospas-sarsat EPIRB work on

406 MHz
All Vessel General Permit (VGP) records must be kept on board for:
 6 months
 1 year
 2 years
 3 years
Cuanto tiempo tarda en presentarse los sintomas por infeccion de estafilosis

12 a 24 hrs
An azimuthing propeller___________________.
 Provides thrust only in the longitudinal direction.
 Provides thrust in the vertical direction.
 Provides thrust in a fixed direction.
 Provides thrust in a direction that can be varied nearly 360 degrees in the
horizontal.
Compared to the rest of the deck plating, the stringer plate

is___________________.
 Of the same thickness.

 Slightly thinner
 Much thinner
 Thicker
The International Convention of the Prevention of Pollution From Ships (MARPOL)

73/78 contains______________.
 V Annexes
 VI Annexes
 VII Annexes
 VIII Annexes
Transverse members connecting the side shell stringers port and starboard are
known as______________________.
 Forward beams
 Stringer beams
 Forepeak beams
 Panting beams
Independent cargo tanks are basically of ______________________.
 Two types. Type A and Type B.

 Four types. Type A, type B, type C and type D.
 Three types. Type A, type B and type C.
 Only one type.
Boiling point is the _____at which a product in liquid state exhibits vapour pressure
equal to the ________pressure.
 Temperature, atmospheric.
 Heat, 5 bar.
 Entropy, gauge.
 Volume, absolute.
The recommended international maritime organization (IMO) noise level limit (db)
in open recreation areas in the accommodation space is_____.
 60
 65
 75
 None of them
The protocol of 1988 on harmonized system of survey and certification (HSSC)

entered into force in all the six annexes of international convention for the
prevention of pollution from ships (MARPOL) 73/78 on a single date and year.
 True
 False
Cant frames are usually fitted___________.
 Amidships
 On deckhouse sides
 Cruiser sterns
 Transom sterns
What, if both are to blame in case of a collision of two vessels, each has to pay
what percentage of the other ship’s repair?
 0.25
 0.5
 0.75
 0.1
The duct fitted around a propeller in some in some vessels to improve propeller
efficiency is popularly known as a________________.
 Propeller duct
 Propeller pipe
 Kort nozzle
 Propeller tunnel
Slot welds are used in the construction of ___________.
 A double plate rudder

 A corrugated bulkhead
 A hatch cover
 A deckhouse
Procedures for port state control (PSC) are not required to be put into force
separately for all the chapters of safety of life at sea (SOLAS) 74, as chapter 1,
general provisons, a new regulation about PSC has been added.
 True
 False
Marine pollutions from exhaust generated on board are mainly from

____________.
 Main diesel plant

 Emergency fire pump engines
 Auxiliary power plant
 Both A & C
A passenger ship safety certificate is valid for a maximum period of _______.

 1 year
 5 years
 Unlimited
 2 years
Beam knees are brackets connecting_________________.
 The deck girders and deck transverses

 The deck beams and deck girders
 The deck beams and side frames
 The deck longitudinals and deck plating
The lower part of the shell plating at the after end terminates in the _______.
 Stern frame
 Stern bar
 Aft end of shell
 Rudder post
Solid floors in the double bottom are _________________.
 Watertight
 Made of very thick and heavy plates
 Boundaries of double bottom tanks
 Made of plates which have large lightening holes
Low hydrogen electrodes are specially required for welding___________.
 Higher strength steels

 Stainless steels
 High carbon steels
 Aluminium alloys
A partial perforated bulkhead on the centre line in the forepeak is called a ____.
 Wash plate
 Peak plate
 Floor plate
 Holed bulkhead
The moulded depth is measured at___________.

 The lowest point of the deck at side
 Amidships
 The forward perpendicular
 The after perpendicular
You find that your cadet/trainee is trying to punch holes in a gasket whilst keeping
it on the workshop floor. You should ____________.
 Shout at him.
 Explain to him the correct procedure
 Tell him to hand over the job to someone else
 Let him continue
This international maritime organization (IMO) symbol represents “CO2 release

nozzles”.
 True
 False
For an oil fire we should NOT use this type of extinguisher:
 Foam
 Water
 Dry chemical powder (DCP)
 CO2
Foam type portable fire extinguishers are best suited for combating fires
involving__________.
 Solid materials like wood, papers etc.

 Electrical cables & equipments
 Metallic solids
 Flammable liquids
Water fog is an excellent fire extinguishing medium as it ________________-.
 Cools the surroundings

 Removes oxygen from the atmosphere
 Dilutes the flammable mixture
 All of them
The life raft shall be marked with the _______________.

 Date of manufacture(month and year)
 Name of approving authority
 Number of persons it is permitted to accommodate
 All of them
A portable foam applicator unit shall have a portable tank containing foam
containing liquid at least__________________.
 30 litres
 25 litres
 20 litres
 15 litres
The liferafts shall be fitted with water pockets of highly visible colour.
 True
 False
Each of the separate compartments of the main buoyancy chamber of a life raft
shall be inflated through a ________________.
 Non return inflation valve on each compartment

 Separate inflation point in each compartment
 Manual pump
 None of them
The life raft shall______________________.
 Be capable of being inflated by one person

 Be inflated with non toxic gas
 Maintain its form when fully loaded
 All of them
A portable foam applicator shall be capable of producing effective foam suitable for
extinguishing an oil fire, at the rate of at least ____________________.
 1m3/min
 1.2m3/min
 1.5m3/min
 1.8m3/min
Identificar el símbolo organización marítima internacional

 Transpondedor de radar
 Las embarcaciones de supervivencia de radio portátil
 No de ellos
 RLS
Which of the following are points to be noted during the inspection of electro-
hydraulic steering gear?
 Pressure in hydraulic system

 Level in replenishing tank
 Telemotor system
 All of them
Identify the international maritime organization (IMO) symbol:
 B class hinged fire door

 Compressed air adaptor
 Compressed air main line with branch
 Main fire line to engine room with branch pipe
Lifebuoy self igniting lights shall be capable of withstanding a drop into the water
from the height at which it is stowed above the water line in the lightest sea going
condition or _____ meters whichever is the greater without impairing its operating
cap
 15
 30
 20
 25
Life saving appliances shall be constructed _____.
 With proper workmanship and materials

 So that, where exposed to sunlight, they will be resistant to deterioration
 Both A & B
 Neither A or B
This international maritime organization (IMO) symbol represents “1 no halon

extinguisher”.
 True
 False
Prior to entering an enclosed space at the athmosphere within is checked by an
explosimeter to_________.
 Ensure there are no hydrocarbon gasses

 Ensure minimum 21% oxygen
 Ensure there is no electrostatic charge
 None of them
Liferafts shall be provided with_______.
 One tin opener

 Two tin openers
 Three tin openers
 No tin opener
When considering burns, what percentage of the body´s surface area is comprised
by the neck and face?
 27%
 9%
 18%
 None of them
The attachment used to keep the lifeboat secure in the stowed position is called
the______________.
 Bowsing in tackle
 Gripes
 Painter
 Tricing in pendant
A common bacteria in cases of food poisoning is________________.
 Salmonella
 Staphylococci
 Either of the two
 None of them
El apéndice es una parte de la ________________.
 Estómago
 Cerebro
 Riñones
 Colon
When checking a casualty’s ABC how long do you allow in order to check their
breathing?
 5 seconds
 10 seconds
 15 seconds
 1 minute
What should you do once you have checked an ID?
 Write their name and details on a piece of paper

 Write their name and details in the ship’s log
 Write their name an details in the gangway log
 Tell them were to go next
A casualty has collapsed in an enclosed space. What should the stand-by person
do first?
 Carry the casualty to safety

 Assess the casualty’s breathing
 Stop any major bleeding
 Raise the alarm
Cosmopolitan crew management should consider___________.
 Group-recognition
 Whole-person
 Social-rank
 Political-insensitivity
It is important that gangway personnel are not distracted and allow unauthorized
persons to get on board.
 True
 False
breating?
 5 seconds
 10 seconds
 15 seconds
 1 minute
The following is a factor affecting the human element:
 Working conditions
 Recruitment policy
 Level of automation
 All of them
of their chest?
 Sitting up and leaning toward the right

 In the recovery position lying on the right
 Sitting up and leaning towards the left
 In the recovery position lying on the left
In compression, the casualty will have:
 Shallow breathing with strong and slow pulse

 Shallow breathing with strong and fast pulse
 Noisy breathing with strong and slow pulse
 Noisy breathing with strong and fast pulse
Cuando se utiliza una linea de vida, la señal: 4 remolcadores por la operadora

significa:
 ¿estás bien?
 Peligro, te estoy sacando
 Estoy dando mas holgura en la línea
 Estoy recogiendo la holgura en la línea
Where will you find requirements for navigational watch ratings under STCW?
 Regulation 11/4
 Regulation 11/3
 Regulation IV/1
 Regulation 11/2
Which authority issues the ISM ’document of compliance’?
 Flag state authority

 Classification society
 The P&I club
 IMO
Oil tankers of less than 20,000 tonnes dead-weight shall be provided with_____.
 A deck foam fire extinguishing system

 A fixed deck fire extinguishing system
 A fixed deck dry powder fire extinguishing system
 A fixed deck water spraying fire extinguishing system
After the flooding due to hull damage has been controlled, which damage repair
will be undertaken first?
 Damage in cargo holds below the waterline

 Damage to bulkheads
 Damage to machinery space
 Damage at or just above the waterline
The lowest temperature to which a flammable substance must be heated for it to

ignite is its_________.
 Flash point
 Flame point
 Ignition point
 Boiling point
Cada luz chaleco salvavidas tendrá una intensidad lumínica de _____.
 No inferior 0,75 cd
 No más de 0,75 cd
 No menos de 75 cd
 No más de 75 cd
On a cargo ship, the number of fire hoses should in no case be less tan_______.
 6
 5
 4
 7
This international maritime organization (IMO) symbol represents “flange in fire line
with direction of water flow”
 True
 False
Cada bote salvavidas estará provisto de un certificado de aprobación , aprobado

por la administración.
 Cierto
 Falso
Lifeboat davit winch wire (fall wire) is to be changed end to end at least every
_______.
 Year
 3 years
 30 months
 5 years
The equipmets in the life raft be stowed in a container which will float in water for at
least ________without damage to its contents.
 30 mins
 60 minutes
 12 hours
 15 minutes
For cargo ships of 6000 gross tonnage and upwards, with two pumps
simultaneously delivering water by two nozzles through any two adjacent fire
hydrants, the minimum pressure that should be maintained at all hydrants is
___________.
 0.25 N/mm2
 0.27 N/mm2
 0.30 N/mm2
 0.40 N/mm2
When a ship docks with stowaways on board, who decides whether they can
disembark?
 The ship’s Master
 The company security officer (CSO)
 The P&I correspondent
 The port immigration authority
If a casualty is bleeding from the mouth, they are advised to_______.
 Avoid cold drinks for 12 hours

 Avoid hot drinks for 12 hours
 Avoid any kind of liquids for 12 hours
 All of them
Heat is lost from the body by_________.
 Conduction
 Convection
 Radiation
 All of them
The number of persons which a life raft shall be permitted to accommodate shall
be equal to the number of persons having an average mass of _________, all
wearing suits and lifejackets.
 65 kg
 75 kg
 70 kg
 60 kg
Under what circumstances a ship may burn fuel oil containing more than 1.5% of
Sulphur in Sox emission control area (SECA)?
 If the fuel is burnt in an engine of less than 130 kW

 If the fuel is burnt in a boiler
 If the ship is in harbour
 If the ship is fitted with on-board exhaust gas-Sox cleaning systems
Torrey canyon is?
 The name of a ship that ran aground off the UK coast
Under what circumstances a ship may burn fuel oil containing more than
1.5% of Sulphur in SOx emission control area (SECA)?
 -If the ship is fitted with on -board exhaust gas-sox cleaning system
What is “non-conformity”?
 A “non-conformity” describes the Safety Management System.

 A “non-conformity” is a report criticising the excessive use of forms and
paperwork.
 A “non-conformity” describes the non-fulfilment of charter party
requirements.
 A “non-conformity” is an observed situation where objective evidence
indicates the non-fulfilment of a specified requirement.


 * Which one of the two statements given below is correct?

 The ISM Code can only exist by the interaction of other parts of legislation
and organisations.
 The ISM Code must be implemented independently of other legislative or
company requirements.
 * The Code requires that safeguards are established against all
identified risks. How would you go about adentifying the risks
associated with the operation of your ship?

 Carry out a form of risk assessment.
 Ask the safety officer for his/her views.
 Rely on instinct and past experience.
 Let the marine superintendent decide.

Port state control prima facie looks for_________.
A vessel documents including certificates.
The emergency fire pump
The bilge oil separator
The incinerator
What happens if the oily water separator, oil content exceeds the equipment
allowable level?
 The discharge pump would stop and alarm sounds

 A visible alarm
 An audible alarm
 The discharge is dumped to the bilge
The international convention for the prevention of pollution from ships

(MARPOL) Annex V applies to:
 All ships
 All ships of 400 gross tons or above
 All ships certified to carry more than 15 people
 All ships of 500 gross tons or above
The recommended international maritime organization (OMI) noise level limit

(db) in open recreation areas in the accommodation spaces is ___.
60
65
75
None of them
Liquefied natural gas (LNGs) can be carried in ____ ships
Fully-refrigerated
Semi-pressursed
Fully-pressurised
Semi-refrigerated
The thermal expansion and contraction, and other types there of of the semi-
membrane tank of a gas carried are accomodated by______.
The flat parts of the membrane
The rounded parts of the membrane
The thicker parts os the membrane
The insulation of the adjacent hull structure
Port state control authorities are guided by____.
Assembly resolution a 787(19)
Assembly resolution a 882(21)
Both of these
Neither of these
It can be seem from flammable range diagram of most hydro carbon gases
that the oxygen content if less than ____ percent makes the mixture non-
flammable.
10
14
International safety management (ISM) code regardless of the date of

construction is applicable to passenger ships including high speed craft not
later than____ .
1 st July, 1996
1 st July, 1997
1 st July, 1998
1 st July, 1999
The international convention for the prevention of the pollution fr m ships

1973, as modified by the protocol of _____ relating there to is known as in
short form marpol 73/___.
1976/76
1977/77
1978/78
1979/79
Solid floors are required at very frame space______.
Amidships
In longitudinally framed ships
In ships fitted with ducks keels
In the forward 25 per cent of the ship length
Transverse bulkhead have___.
Vertical stiffeners
Horizontal stiffeners
No stiffeners arrangements
Diagonal stiffeners
Plasma arc cutting involves the use of____.
De-ionised water
Low temperature electrodes
A water jet
An ionised gas
The compartment aT the lower forward extremity of the ship is called _____.
The aft peak
The double bottom
The forepeak
The forecastle
The double bottom may be used to carry_____.
Water ballast
Salid fuel
Hazardous liquids
Liquidfeid gases
The moulded depth is measured at____.

The lowest point of the deck at side
Amid ships
The forward perpendicular
The after perpendicular
Charles law for gas can be expressed in____.
 P1V1/T1= P2V2/T2
 P1/T1= P2/T2
 P1V1=P2V2
 V1/T1=V2/T2
Slot welds are used in the construction of_____.
A double plate rudder
A corrugated bulkhead
A hatch cover
A deckhouse
Beam knees are brackets connecting _____.
The deck girders and deck transverse
The deck beams and deck girders
The deck beams and side frames
The deck longitudinal and deck plating
Procedures for port state control (PSC) are not required to be put into force
separately for all the chapters of safety of life at sea ( SOLAS) 74, as chapter
1, general provisions, a new regulations about PSC has been added.
True
False
The duck fitted around a propeller is some vessels to improve propeller

efficiency is popularly known as a ____.
Propeller duct
Propeller pipe
Kort nozzle
Propeller tunnel
A passenger ship safety certificate is valid for a maximum period of____.
1 year
5 years.
Unlimited
2 years
A port facility security officer (PFSO) is the person designated as

responsible for:
All of them
where you find comprehensive guidance on damage control plan
assembly resolution
MEPC circular
MSC circular
SOLAS
Power ventilation of accommodation spaces, service spaces, cargo spaces,

control stations and machinery spaces shall be stopped___
From an easily accessible position outside the space being served
In cargo ships, fire protection and containment by thermal and structural

subdivision in accommodation, service spaces and control stations shall be
provided by method_____. In addition, the construction of internal divisional
bulkheads of non-combustible B or C class divisions generally without the
installation of an automatic sprinkler, fire detection and fire alarm system
III C
II C
IC
Neither A, B or C
When CO2 is used as a fixed gas fire extinguishing system in machinery

spaces the quantity of CO2 carried shall be sufficient to give a minimum
volume of free gas equal to the larger of the following
Either: 40% of the gross volume of the largest machinery spaces excluding the part
of the casing that is 40% or less of the horizontal area of the space concerned; or
35% of the gross volume of the largest machinery space including the casing
Portable water extinguisher can be used for fires involving
Solid materials like wood, papers, etc.
In machinery spaces containing internal combustion machinery there shall be

approved foam type fire extinguishers each at least_____ capacity or equivalent,
sufficient in number to enable foam or its equivalent to be directed on to any part of
the fuel.
30 litre
35 litre
40 litre
45 litre
A casualty in secondary shock feels

Thirsty
Hungry
Both
None of them
Postraumatic stress disorder will always affect seafarers for a long time
True
False
A life raft for use with an approved launching appliance shall when the life raft is
loaded with its full complement of persons and equipment, be capable of
withstanding a lateral impact velocity of not less than 3.5 m/seg
True
False
A certificate of approval, endorsed by the administration must be
Carried as part of the lifeboat equipment
Available whit the master
Displayed near the stowage area of the lifeboat
Fitted on the lifeboat
The lower portion of the pump room of oil tanker may be recessed into machinery
spaces of category A to accommodate pumps.
True
False
On a tanker, synthetic ropes should not be used for cargo sampling
True
False
The atmospheric boiling point of propane (C3 H8) is:
 -40.3°C
 -41.3°C
➢ -42.3°C
 -43.3°C
To get absolute temperatures from Celsius to kelvin add:

 173
 290
 278
➢ 273
What does DPA stand for?

➢ Designated person Ashore
 Dynamic position ashore
 Designated position Ashore
 None of them
In a single screw ship, the stern frame supports:

➢ Rudder stock
 Stern tube
 Propeller boss
 Bilge keel
Compared to the sheer forward, the sheer aft is:

 More
➢ Less
 The same
 Sometimes more, sometimes less
A non-destructive test of a welded joint may be carried out by ___________

• A tensile test
• A bend test
• A dye penetrant test
• A charpy V-notch test
Noise is ______
• Recorded according to sound pressure level
• Measured on a logarithmic scale of bel (b)
• Measured in decibel (db)
• All of them
You are on board a wood chip carrier which has completed a loaded passage
from Tasmania to Japan. An electrical officer has been instructed to go on
deck to assist with the opening of hatch covers in order to commence cargo
operations. What precautions specific to the operation are you going to
advise?
• Precautions against slippery decks
• To not enter the hold till the chief officer has checked the atmosphere in
there and approved in writing.
• That no more than five people should enter the hold at a time
• No precautions are necessary as the deck power is on they can do what
they want.
One of the objetives of the Safety Management System (SMS) of International

Safety Management (ISM) Code shall be to _______
• Ensure compliance with mandatory rules and regulations
• Ensure compliance with International Maritime Organization (IMO)
resolution A 787 (19) on port state control
• Ensure compliance of regulations of chapter (X of Safety of Life at Sea
(SOLAS) 74 and all 16 sections of ISM Code
• Maintain quality system as per objectives of ISO 9000 and 14000
The following are saturated hydro-carbons

• Methane and Ethane
• Methane and Propane
• Methane, Ethane , Propane and Butane
• Methane, Ethylene, Propylene, Butylene.
The document of compliance is issued to the company by the administration

 The administration
 A recognized organization (RO) of the administration
 Another contracting Government at the request of the flag Administration
 Any of Them
A passenger ship is defined as one capable of carrying more than

• 50 passengers
• 100 passengers
• 12 passengers
• 5 passengers
Deck beams are bracketed to the side frames by

• Girders
• Stringers
• Gussets
• Beam Kness
In a longitudinally stiffened deck, the deck plating is supported by

• Deck stringers
• Half Beams
• Closely spaced deck longitudinal
• Closely spaced deck beams
The transverse bulkhead nearest the forward end of the ship is the
• Collision Bulkhead
• Aft peak bulkhead
• Forward bulkhead
When capable of carrying cargoes below___________, the type A

independent tanks of gas carriers must have a secondary containment
system known as a secondary barrier.b
• 8
• 10
• 15
• 20
The international convention for the prevention of pollution from ships 1973,
as modified by the protocol of relating thereto is known as in short from
MARPOL 73/
• 1976/76
• 1977/77
• 1973/ 78
• 1979/79
Instead of inerting with gas, the hold space of type B independent tanks may
be filled with dry_____. Provided inerting can be achieved if the vapour
detection system shows cargo leakage.
• oxygen
• compressed air
• air
• compressed oxygen
Compared to the rest of the bottom Shell plating, the keel is:
• Thinner
• Thicker
• Of the same thickness
• Of the same width

Compared to the sheer forward, the sheer aft is
• More
• Less
• The same
• Some times more, sometimes less

Prolonged exposure to noise levels higher than 85 dBs______
 Is harmful to the human ear
 May cause hearing loss
 May be physically painful
 All of them
The recommended International Maritime Organisation (IMO) noise level limit
(db) in open recreation areas in the accommodation space is ______
a) 60
b) 65
c) 75
d) None of them
As per section 6 of International Safety Management (ISM) Code i.e.
Resources and Personnel the company is to provide adequate Resources
and Personnel one of the component for section 6 is _______
a) To ensure persons involved in Safety Management System (SMS) have
under gone a training course in shore based institute for understanding
relevant rules, regulations codes and guidelines
b) To ensure that all personnel involved in Safety Management System (SMS)
have adequate understanding of relevant rules, regulations codes and
guidelines
c) To ensure understanding of Regulation, Rules, Codes and Guidelines is
given by Master and Chief Engineer in personnel after training
d) Understanding of relevant rules, regulations codes and guidelines are
individual responsibility of personnel
In a Moller diagram the constant temperature lines between saturated vapour
and liquid curves are _______
a) Straight lines parallel to ordinate
b) Straight lines parallel to abscissa
c) Parabolic curves
d) Hyperbolic curves
The Membrane containment system of a Gas Carrier_____
a) Doesn’t require a secondary barrier
b) Requires a secondary barrier
c) Requires a partial secondary barrier
d) None of them
What are the Regulations regarding the carriage of dangerous goods on-
board?
a) The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution From Ships
(MARPOL) 73/78
b) Chapter XI-2 of Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS)
c) International Association of Classification Societies (IACS) instructions
d) International Maritime Dangerous Goods (IMDG) Code
1.-A reversible adiabtic process of a gas involves constant

a. Temperature
b. Entalphy
c. Entropy
d. Neither, A, B or C
2.-Which protective measure should be taken for noise level above 85 db?
a. Ear protectors should be worn
b. No individual daily exposure for over four hours continuously
c. Total exposure should not exceed eight hours in a day
d. All of them
3.- the gross registered tonnage of a ship is expressed in terms of
a. weight
b. number
c. volume
d. none of them
4.-procedures for port state control (psg) are not required to be put into force
separately for all the chapters of safety of life at sea (SOLAS) 74, as chapter,
general provisions, a new regulation about PSC has been added.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
The equation for adiabatic compression is….

 P/T = C
 PV n = C
 PV = C
 PV r = C
7. The tank side (bilge) brackets connect the double bottom structure to….
a. transverse bulkheads
b. longitudinal bulkheads
c. the shell plating and old frames
d. the deck above
8. The quasi propulsive coefficient (qpc) or propulsive coefficient is the ratio

of….
a. brake power
b. effective power and brake power
c. effective power and delivered power
d. thrust power and delivered power
9. Slot welds are used in the construction of….

a. a double plate rudder
b. a corrugated bulkhead
c. a hatch cover
d. a deck house
10. If n electric cable passes through a waterlight bulkhead, it is necessary to

fit…
a. a waterlight cable gland
c. a stuffing box
a. a waterlight door
b. d. a cable pipe
11. The plates in the collision bulkhead are arranged….

a. in vertical lines with thickness increasing towards the centre line
b. in vertical lines with the plates being of constant thickness
c. in horizontal lines with plates increasing in thickness from top to bottom
d. in horizontal lines with plates of constant thickness
12. If w is the wake fraction, the speed of advance of the propeller divided by
the ship speed is equal to…
a. 1-w
b. W
c. 1+w
d. 1/(1+w)
13. You are on board of wood chip carrier which has completed a loaded
passage from Tasmania to Japan. An electrical officer has been instructed to
go on deck to assiste with the opening of hatch covers in order to commence
cargo operations. What precautions specific to the operation are you going
to advise?
a. precautions against slippery decks
b. to not enter the hold till the chief officer has checked the atmosphere in
there and approved in writing
c. that no more than five people should enter the hold at a time
d. no precautions are necessary as the deck power is on, they can do what
they want
To participate effectively in your ship’s emergency procedures. You first
need to:
A. >Be trained for emergency duties
B. Understand what other emergency parties are doing
C. Be completely familiar with the entire set of personnel. Equipment and
duties
D. Become a member of one of the emergency response teams
The power available to propeller after deducting transmission losses is

the_______.
A. Delivered power x
B. Shaft power x
C. Thrust power
D. > Effective power
The propeller shafts in a twin screw ship are supports at the after ends of the
bossings by______
A. A spectacle frame
B. >Bossing frames
C. Shaft tubes
D. Thrust bearings
The joints between the plates in a strake are_______
A. >Seams
B. Butts
C. Laps
D. Fillets
The region of the ship in the forward 15 per cent of the length to withstand
fluctuations in water pressure due to ship motions in a seaway is called the
__________
A. >Strength region
B. Panting region
C. Strong region
D. Racking region
Radiographic tests are frequently used for__________
A. Destructive weld tests
B. > Non-destructive testing of welds
C. Tensile tests
D. Testing radio receivers
Freeboard is the minimum distance between the waterline and________
A. The top pf the deck beams at side
B. >The top of the deck planting at the Centre line
C. The upper side of the deck planting at side
D. The under side of the deck planting at side
If there is a slight oil spill of about 30 ml while bunkering it should be
___________.
 First reported to the master
 First reported to the flag state
 First reported to the chief engineer
 First reported to the harbour authorities
The International Code for the Construction and Equipment of Ships

Carrying Liquefied Gases in Bulk (IGC) Code is applicable to a Gas Carrier, if
the keel of which is laid on or ___________.
• Before 1st July 1986
• Before 1st July 1976
• After 1st July 1986
• After 1st July 1976
With regard to tanker operations, what should there be on the vapour line of
the discharging vessel?
 A low pressure alarm
 A high pressure alarm
 A pressure vacuum valve
 An oxygen content analyser
On a tanker, where should the detonation arrestor be positioned before
loading starts?
 Close to the terminal vapor connection

 Close to the vessel vapor connection
 In the cargo manifold
 On the tank access vent
Oil and water separate because of their differences in?

• Viscosity
• Specific gravity
• Temperature
• All the above
Whilst at sea, under what circumstance may untreated bilges be discharged

overboard in Special Areas?
 When proceeding at Full Ahead
 During the hours of darkness
 Only in the case of emergency
 If the bilges are only to be lowered and not pumped right out
With regard to incinerators, information relating to the maximum weight and

volume per charge which can be incinerator can be found in:
• The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships
(MARPOL) annex V
• The type approval certificate
• The Garbage Record Book
• The manufacturer`s manual
Which Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL)

Annex relates to the carriage of oil cargoes?
 II
 VI
 I
 IV
Annex II of the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution From

Ships (MARPOL) 73/78 has entered into force on ______________.
 2nd October 1983
 6th April 1987
 19th May 2005
 1st January 2007
With regard to tanker cargo operations, when loading a tanker, at what point
should you check the cargo, monitoring and alarm systems?
 When the tank is around 20 cm full
 When the tank is around 2 m full
 When the ullage space in the tank is 20 cm
 when the ullage face in the tank is 2 m
With regard to tanker cargo operations, prior to arrival in port, the cargo tank
atmospheres should be checked to ensure it is inserted and contains?
 At least 8% oxygen
 Less than 8% oxygen
 At least 8% nitrogen
 Less than 8% nitrogen
On a tanker, under the International Convention for the Prevention of

Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) Annex VI, the vapor flow capacity of each
Pressure Vacuum valve must be at least:
With reference to tanker cargo operations, loading should commence:

 As quickly as possible
 Extremely slowly throughout
 Starting rapidly and slowing down
 Starting slowly and increasing in stages
Which international convention for the prevention of pollution from ships
(MARPOL) annex relates to the discharge of garbage?
 II
 VI
 V
 IV
With reference to the oil record book, what is the minimum gross tonnage for
tankers that are required to maintain an oil record book?
 Over 100 gross tons


With reference to the Oil record book, what is the minimum gross tonnage
for ships others than tankers that are require to maintain an Oil record book?

On a Oily water separator, what maximum oil content may be discharged
overboard in “Special Areas”?
 No oil content is permissible
 15ppm
 25ppm
 50ppm
Which of the following sources is not one that is concern in terms of oily
water pollution?
 A hose bursting
 Condensation from the charge air cooler
 Galey waste
 A flange leaking during bunkering
When garbage is incinerated you must record:
 The date and time

 The category of garbage
 An estimate of the quantity burned in cubic meters
 All the above
On a oily water separator, what is the maximum oil content must at an oily
water separator discharge?
 1000ppm
 500ppm
 100ppm
 15 ppm
Bulwarks are_____.
Continuously welded to the sheer strake
Continuously welded to the deck plating
Connected at intervals to the deck by stays
Connected to the deck beams
The superstructure at the forward end of the ships is known as the______.
 Poop
 Bridge
 Quarter deck
 Forecastle
Most bulk carriers today have_______.
 Single sides and double bottoms

 Single hulls
 Double sides and single bottoms
 Double sides and double bottoms
The compartment at the lower forward extremity of ship is

called___________.
 The aft peak

 The double bottom
 The forepeak
 The forecastle
In times of crisis ship staff are looking for leader.
 True
 False
 Not always true
 It depends on the crisis
The vertical webs forming deep stiffeners around hatch opening are called
 Hatch coaming
The side shell plating port and starboard and the stem are bracketed
together at intervals by
 Breasthook
A bulkhead is
 A vertical partition subdividing the ship into compartments
The plating at the bottom of the ship on the centre line is called the
 Keel
The shell plating contributes to
 The longitudinal strength of the ship
The strake adjacent to the keel on each side is known as the
 Garboard strake
The effective management of personnel on board the ship

 Involves maintaining good relationships with the crew
Which of the impurities listed may prevent the Oily water separator (0WS) or
the Oil content monitor (OCM) from working properly?
 Soot
 Rust
 Paint chippings
 All the above
Annex VI of International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution From Ships

(MARPOL) 73/78 deals with the prevention of pollution from ships with respect to
 Air
 Garbage
 Ballast water
 oil
If when in port there is an urgent requirement to pump bilge water from the
vessel, what would you do?
 Pump the bilges over the sides via the oily mter separator.
 Lower the bilges only during night time.
 Pump the bilges only to a share or barge reception facility.
 Pump bilges in a dirty oil tank
Which of the areas listed is not a 'Special Area' for oil pollution as defined in
Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) Annex I.
 The Red Sea

 The Baltic
 The black Sea
 The Caspian sea
With reference to the Oil Record Book, each completed page must be signed
by:
 The Master.
 The Chief Engineer.
 The Officer of the Watch.
 The Officer appointed by the Master.
What is the purpose of the Oil Record Book?
 To record quantity of fuel onboard.

 To record all fuel bunkered and bilge discharges.
 To record fuel consumption.
 To record oily bilge levels.
When discharging oily water bilge water through the oily water separator,
what is the maximum permitted oil concentration?

The outboard deck strake is known as the
 Outer strake
 Side strake
 Deck stringer
 Gunwale strake
R-12 is being replaced with other refrigerants – why?
 It is expensive
 It is liable to destroy ozone layer
 It is toxic
 It does not have a good refrigerating effect
If a door is to be provided in a watertight bulkhead below the waterline, it

must be
 A hinged door
 A sliding watertight door
 A self-closing door
 None of them
One of the components of company responsibilities and authority under
international safety management (ISM) code should be
 To define and document the responsibility, authority and interrelation of all

personal who manage, perform and verify work to and affecting safety and
pollution prevention
 That the company appoints a master and finishes his responsibility and
authority
 To operate the ship affecting safety and environment protection by deputing
a master and shore based designated person and making them responsible
 That the company appoints a designated person and finishes with
responsibility and authority
Each life jacket shall be of a ________.

 Red colour
 Green colour
 Orange colour
 White colour
Heat is lost from the body by _______.

 Conduction
 Convection
 Radiation
 All of them.
If a casualty is bleeding from the mouth, they are advised to ____.

 Avoid cold drinks for 12 hours.
 Avoid hot drink for 12 hours.
 Avoid any kind of liquids for 12 hours.
 All of them.
Lifeboat davit winch wire (Fill wire) is to be changed end to end at least every
____________.
 Year
 3 years
 30 months.
 5 years
The number of person which a life raft shall be permitted to accommodate

shall be equal to the number of persons having an average mass of _____, all
wearing immersion suits and lifejackets.
 65 kg
 75 kg
 70 kg
 60 kg
Cospas – Sarsat EPIRB work on __________.

 9 Ghz
 3 Ghz
 406 Ghz
 2182 Ghz
Each lifeboat is provided with a certificate of approval, approved by the

administration.
 True
Lifeboats intended for launching down the side of a ship shall have skates
and fenders as necessary to facilitate launching and prevent damage to the
lifeboat.
 True
 False
Torrent Canyon is ___________.

 The name of a canyon.
 The name of a ship that ran aground off the UK coast.
 The same as “Grand Canyon”
 A castle
An incinerator on board is capable of incinerating ___________.

 All materials
 Only oil
 Only solids
 Selected materials
Under what circumstances a ship may burn fuel oil containing more than
1.5% of Sulphur in SOx Emission Control (SECA)?
 If the fuel is burnt in an engine of less than 130 kW.
 If the fuel burnt in a boiler
 If the ship is in harbour
 If the ship is fitted with on-board exhaust gas SOx cleaning systems.
On a tanker, the lower pressure alarm on inerted vessels should be set at not
less than:
 100 mm Water Gauge (WG)
With regard to tanker operations, what could happen if vapour passes over
condition?
 it could cause under – pressurization
 it could cause over – pressurization
 it could create a toxic cloud
 it could generate static electricity and increase the risk of an explosion.
How long must an Oil record book be retained on board for inspection?
 1 year
 2 years
 3 years
 5 years
The hours of work regulations apply to which members of the crew?

 Master and watchkeeping Officers
 All members of the crew
 Members of crew engaged specifically in the safety of the vessel
 Crew working only on tankers
Wich IMO convention is concerned with seafarer training?

 SOLAS
 MARPOL
 STCW
 UNCLOS
It is OK to just do chest compressions during resuscitation rather than

compressions and ventilations.
 True
 False
When a casualty has fractured base of skull they may have:

 Blood stained fluid leaking from the ears only.
 Blood stained fluid leaking from the nose only.
 Blood stained fluid leaking from the ears or nose.
 Blood stained fluid leaking from the mouth only.
How would you position a conscious casualty with a sucking wound on the
 Sitting up and leaning toward the right
 In the recovery position tying on the right
 Sitting up and leaning towards the left
 In the recovery position lying on the left
If you think a casualty is choking you should first:

 Ask them if they are choking
 Do 5 back slaps
 Do 5 abdominal thrusts
 Open their mouth to check for any blockage
Each light life jacket will have a light intensity of

 No less than 0.75 cd
 No more than 0.75 cd
 No less than 75 cd
 No more than 75 cd
Notification of the coastal state is mandatory under international Convention

for the Prevention of Pollution from strips (MARPOL) if there is an actual or
probable discharge of oil.
 True
 False
If you see a vessel that looks suspicious, you should:

 Proceed as quickly as possible
 Report it immediately to the relevant contact points.
 Change course
 Switch on all deck lights and searchlights
Why is it important to remain vigilant?

 It makes the port secure
 It keeps the crew busy
 It will improve safety performance
 it helps prevent crime
For cargo ships of 6000 gross tonnage and upwards, with two pups
simultaneously delivering water by two nozzles through any two adjacent fire
hydrants, the minimum pressure that should be maintained at all hydrants is
_________.
 0.25 N/mm
 0.27 N/mm
 0.30 N/mm
 0.40 N/mm
The drills of the crew shall take place within ______ of the ship leaving a port
if more than ____ of the crew have not participated in fire drills on board than
particular ship in the previous month.
 48 hrs / 50%
 36 hrs / 35%
 25 hrs / 25%
 13 hrs/ 12%
Lifebuoy self-activating smoke signals shall continue to emit smoke when
fully submerged in water for a period of at least ________.
 10 seconds
 5 seconds
 3 seconds
 6 seconds
In the event of injury to the joint there can be ______.

 Fracture
 Fracture- dislocation
 Dislocation
 All of them
Lifeboat batteries shall be recharged _______________.

 From the ship’s power supply
 With a solar battery changer
 Both A & B
 None for them
Liferafts accommodating _________ persons shall have at least two

diametrically opposite entrances.
 More than 20
 More than 10
 More than 8
 Less than 8
Every inflatable life raft shall be provided with ___.

 One repair outfit
 One topping up pump
 One first aid outfit
 All of them
Buoyant lifelines attached to lifebuoys shall have a breaking strength of

______.
 Not less than 5 kN.
 Not more than 5 kN
 Not more than 8 kN
 Not less than 8 kN
In secondary shock, if the casualty is feeling cold, give them ________.

 Alcohol to drink
 Cold drinks
 A warm tea or coffee
 All of them
In the event of frostbite, the casualty may complain of ________.

 Pins and needles
 Rubber and stocking
 Both A & B
 None of them
Identify the international maritime organization (IMO) symbol:

 Open hatches
 Secure hatches
 Open enclosed lifeboat
 Neither A, B or C
A lifejacket shall have buoyancy which is not redeced by ____________ %

after 24 hours submersion in fresh water.
 More than 5
 Less than 5
 More than 10
 Less than 10
The nervous system consist of the ___________

 Brain and spinal cord
 Lungs and taches
 Heart and arteries
 All of them
Each completed page of the oil record book must be signed by:
 The officer of the watch
 The chief engineer
 The master
 The chief officer
The prevention of air pollution includes____.
 Exhaust from internal combustion engines

 Exhaust from boilers
 Exhaust from incinerators
 All of them
This type of extinguisher should never be use on an electrical fire:
 Co2
 water
 dry chemical powder (dcp)
 sand
The buoyant rescue quoit in a life raft shall be attached to______________ of

buoyant line.
 Not more than 30 meters

 Not than 50 meters
 Not less than 50 meters
 Not less than 30 meters
The certificate of approval, endorsed by the administration for each lifeboat,

must contain____:
 Manufacturer’s name and address

 The lifeboat model and serial number
 Month and year of manufacture
 All of them.
An oil tanker delivered before 6th july 1996 means an oil tanker for which the
building contract is placed before
 6th july 1991

 6th july 1986
 6th july 1996
 6th July 1993
Which equipment is supplied electricity from an emergency source of

electrical power in cargo ships?
 Navigation lights
 Emergency fire pump
 Emergency steering gear
 Emergency air compressor
This international Maritime Organisation (OMI) Symbol represents lifebuoy.
 TRUE
 FALSE
A combustion process in which a flammable material burns with insufficient

oxygen to achieve complete combustion of the materials is known
as__________.
 Spontaneous combustion
 Auto-ignition
 Dry distillation
 Self-combustion
A portable foam applicator unit shall have a portable tank containing foam
liquid at least ________.
 30 litres
 25 litres
 20 litres
 15 litres
In cargo ships of 1000 gross tonnage and upwards at least two

independently driven fire pumps shall be provided. In addition __________.
 No other pumps are requierd to carry

 Two of the general service, bilge and ballast pumps are required to carry out
fire pump duty
 At least one of the general service, bilge and ballast pumps is required to
carry out fire pump duty
 At least the sanitary pump is required to carry out fire pump duty
When applying a dressing to a sucking chest wound it should be:
 Non stick and sealed with top edge open.

 Non stick and sealed with bottom edge open.
 Dressing pad secured on all sides.
 Dressing pad secured with bottom edge open.
Table "B" of tabular freeboard is applicable to a ship because
 The ship does not carry solid cargo

 The ship carries liquid cargo
 The ship carries NLS cargo
 All of them
There have been scientific studies on fatigue published in responsable

journals by
 US navy
 Indian navy
 Shipping Corporation of India
 None of them
Meetings should be conducted ____________.

 For record purposes.
 To compile statics.
 For accountability.
 All of them.
The compressor room in a gas carrier has _______.

 An exhaust fan
 A supply fan
 Both A&B
 None of them.
What would be the language of a Damage Control Plan?

 English
 One copy for each language undestood
 The common language taught to all of the seafarers
 The language spoken by the majority of the ratings
The safety management certificate (SMS) of a ship should be withdrawn by

the administration or at its request by the contracting government which
issued the SMC when_____.
 An internal safety audits shows major non-conformity
 An annual verification is not requested and not carried out
 There is evidence of a major non-conformity with the code
 An internal audit has not been carried out at all
The effective management of the ship`s crew implies
 The leadership that comes automatically with the rank

 Effective leadership
 An autocracy
 A dictatorship
With regard to tanker operations, who is the responsible for ensuring that a
ship is equipped with a means of collecting Volatile Organ Compounds
(VOC)`s before it enters a port or terminal where Volatile Organ Compounds
(VOC) controls are implemented.
 The Designated Person Ashore
 The Chief Officer
 The Master
 The Owner
to immobilise a fracture
 tie a bandage over the fracture site

 apply a bandage from above the upper joint to the fracture area
 apply a bandage from above the upper joint to below the lower joint
 all of them
an anti exposure suit shall permit the person wearing it to swin through the
water______ and board a survival craft
 at least 10 metres
one of the component of the safety management system (SMS) of international safety
management (ISM) code shall be
 To provide safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environment
a cofferdam in the double bottom generally consist of

 Two watertight floors close to each other
Other than in the machinery spaces of all ships, fire hoses shall have a length at least 10m but no
more than____.
 20
Helicopters may develop a very substantial static charge when in flight
 True
for a single screw ship moving at a steady speed in calm water, the thrust of
the propeller is normally
 less than the resistance of the ship
When a propeller starts cavitation, an increase in propeller rpm is likely to

_______
 Cause a proportionate increase in ship speed.

 Cause a negligible increase in ship speed.
 Cause a very high increase in ship speed.
 Cause a decrease in ship speed.
Hoppers at the two sides top and bottom are found in the cargo holds of
________.
 An oil tanker.
 A general cargo ship.
 A bulk carrier.
 A roro ship.
This International Maritime Organization (IMO) symbol represents “remote

control for emergency bilge pump”
• True
• False
In addition to having two fire-fighters outfits on all cargo ships, __ more units
need to be provided on tankers.
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
The maximum draft up to which a ship can be safely loaded is know as
__________
• Mean draft between fore and aft drafts
• Gross draft
• Net draft
• Load line draft
The atmospheric boiling point of ammonia nh3
 -34.5" C
 -30.4” C
 -31.4”6
 -33.4' C
Flammable is defined as capable of being ignited and expressed by a

flammable range Much is the
 Percentage volume of gas in air
 Percentage volume of gas in oxygen
 Percentage weight of gas In air
This International Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol

represents lifebuoy with line.
 TRUE
 FALSE
When you challenge someone how should you treat them?
 Aggressively
 Politely but firmly
 Apologetically
 Defensively
Hypothermia in the elderly is dangerous because
 They go without adequate food

 They do not feel like moving about
 They are unable to look after themselves
 All of them
A fracture is
 Bending, breaking or cracking of bone

 Bending, breaking or cracking of muscle
 Breaking ,bending or cracking of skin
 All of them
solid floors in the double bottom are
 watertight
 made of very thick and heavy plates
 boundaries of double bottom tanks
 made of plates which have large lightening holes
security level 2 entails _______
 minimum protective measures

 additional protective measures
 specific protective measures
 none of them
the part labeled as '6' shown in the MSA explosimeter in the picture is
 a curshioning air bulb

 an aspirator bulb
 both of them
 none of them
Swelling of the tongue can lead to________
 Difficulty in talking
 Difficulty in breathing
 Both A&B
 None of them
When the ship security alert system is activated, it initiates and transmit a
ship-to-shore security alert to:
 A company authority designated by the administration
 To any other ship
 Raise any alarm on board
 A nearby port facility
This international maritime organization (imo) symbol represents life raft:
 True
 false
entry into an enclosed space is to be made with oxygen content is at a

minimum of ___.
 19.5% by volume
 21% by volume
 1 PPM
 8% by volume
Identify the international Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol:
 Crowd control station

 Not A, C & D
 Embarkation station
 Muster station
Identify the international Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol:
 Start air supply

 Blow dry
 Life raft bellows
This international Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol represents lower life
boat to water.
 TRUE
 FALSE
This international Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol represents Lifeboat
 TRUE
 FALSE
This International Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol represents “Fire

extinguishing system for high pressure tanks”.
 TRUE
 FALSE
This international Maritime organisation (IMO) symbol represents for “Non

return valve”
 TRUE
 FALSE
This international Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol represents “10 no´s

CO2 fire extinguishers”.
 TRUE
 FALSE
This International Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol repreents “space
monitored by Gas detector (s)”.
 TRUE
 FALSE
The torch provided in the life raft must be of the water proof type
 TRUE
 FALSE
An international ship security certificate shall be issued for a specific period,

which shall not exceed_______years.
 2
 3
 4
 5
Every lifebuoy shall be fitted with a grabline not less than ________ times the
outside diameter of the body of the buoy in length.
 2
 3
 4
 5
On board training and drills for emergency preparedness for fire shall be
conducted and periodically evaluated to_________.
 Prevent occurrence of fire

 Identify areas where there may be a need of improvement
 Ensure that crew are familiar with escape routes
 Ensure that crew are familiar with fire pumps, fire lines and hydrants.
The canopy of the life raft shall be provided with means to mount a survival
craft radar transponder.
 True
 False
A damage control Plan is required for which type of ship?
 Container ship
 Passenger ship
 Oil tanker ship
 All of them
If there are two persons doing C.P.R the ratio is
 01:05
 02:15
 01:10
 All of them
The relationship between current I, and voltage, V, in a circuit is governed by

the resistance, R. This is known as the Ohm´s law which is written as:
 I=VR
 R=VI
 V=IR
 R=V/I
All merchant ships Muster Lists are required to be displayed in the
 Accommodation spaces
 Navigating bridge
 Engine room
 All of them
The device which shall be fitted to every lifeboat to secure a painter near its
bow_____.
 Shall be such that the lifeboat does not exhibit unsafe or unstable
chatacteristics
 Shall be such that the lifeboat does not exhibit unsafe or unstable
characteristic when being towed by the ship making headway at speeds of
up to 5 knots in calm water
 Both A & B
 Neither A & B
How many degrees of burn are there?
 3
 4
 5
 None of them
For initial verification for the purpose of issue of Document of Compliance

(DOC) the conformity of the company´s Safety Management System (SMS) as
per international Safety Management (ISM) Code, includig objective evidence
demonstrating that the Company´s safety management system has been in
operation for at least ______ and that a safety management system has been
in operation on board at least one ship type operated by the Company for at
least ______ months.
 Four months / four months

 Three months / three months
 Two months / two months
 One month / one month
Tons in GRT is derived from:
 Weight
 Number
 Volume
 None of them
The muster list shall show the duties assigned to different members of the
crew, one of them is:
 To apply the fixed fire extinguishing system in the engine room
 To apply the fixed fire extinguishing system in the cargo holds
 The manning of fire parties assigned to deal with fire
 The closing of all weather tight doors
frames are used to support the?
 side shell
the international ship and port facility Security Code (ISPS) was adopted on
12th Dec 2012, by resolution ___ of the conference of the contracting
Government to the international convention for the safety of life at sea
(safety of life at sea (SOLAS)) 74
 1
 2
 3
 4
An EEBD can be used for
 Firefighting
 Escaping a hazardous atmosphere
 Rescuing a casuality from a tanker
 Entering Oxygen deficient tanks
hoppers on both upper and lower sides are in the cargo holds of ______.
 An oil tanker
 A General Cargo Ship
 A bulk carrier
 A roro ship
What is the primary role of the emergency parties?

• To investigate the damage and move casualties out go danger
• To repair any damage to the pipework
• To gustes the crew in readiness for abandoning ship
• To report the emergency to the shore team
When an emergency situation is first detected, the first step is to:

• Notify the Coastal State
• Sound the alarm
• Search for any missing crew
• Make a detailed plan of action
For which of the following activities is the Senior Officer in charge of the
emergency responsible?
• Assigning tasks to each person in the emergency party
• Communicating with the Rescue Coordination Centre
• Keeping the shore office informed of developments
• Notifying the charterer, P&I club and other interested parties
What is the main aim when tackling a container fire?

• To cut a hole in it so that water can be sprayed inside
• To seal it off
• To haul it over the side
• To cool it down and keep it cool
Are the statements about emergencies True or False?

• The least common emergencies reported on container ships are fires and
leaks. False
• Loss of refrigeration in a HNS container may lead to fire/explosion risks
True
• Under the ISM Code, the ship is require to have an emergency plan. True
• The action plan is another word for the emergency plan False
Are the statements about dealing with emergencies True or False?

• Ships carrying HNS are required by law to have a shipboard pollution
emergency plan to deal specifically with incidents involving these
substances. True
• In an emergency, it is recommended not to make any kind of comment to
the media. False
• SITREPS are only required for legal reasons. False
• After the emergency has been dealt with, there will be an accident
investigation by the flag State. True
What should be done if the full review of the incident points up a procedure
that needs changing?
• Permission should be sought from IMO
• The DPA should not be consulted
• It should be Changed in line with recommendations
• It is illegal to change Emergency Response procedures
If extra emergency equipment is needed, what needs to be done?
• The emergency Response Team will liaise with the shore office to obtain it
• An email is sent by the ship to the Coastal State
• The Master will request it via the DPA
• This is the charterer`s responsibility
If monitoring of the emergency response action indicates that a change is

requires, what should be done?
• The shore office should be consulted
• The operation should be stopped
• The change should be implemented as soon as possible
• The Coastal State should be warned
There are four main dangers faced by evacuees in a survival craft. Which
item does not belong in this list?
• Drowning
• Cold exposure
• Lack of water
• Lack of food
• Inability to sleep
Is the statement about immersion suits True or False?

• Immersion suits should be put on and zipped up before entering an
enclosed lifeboat. False
Whats is the recommended way of cooling yourself down in a hot climate

when in a liferaft?
• By taking regular dips in the sea
• By using the battery-operated fan provided
• By deflating the liferaft floor
• By paddling the raft to create an air current
How long can a well-nourished person normally survive without water?

• 24 hours
• 3-4 days
• 8-10 days
• 1 month
How much water should be given per day after the first 24 hours?
• No rations are required for the first 5 day
• 1 glass
• 0.5 litre
• 1.5 litres
Look-out watches should be kept:

• 24 hours a day
• During daylight hours
• At night
• At the discretion of the person in change
Which piece of equipment transmits a distress signal with your vessel`s

unique serial number?
• SART
• Radar reflector
• GMDSS
• EPIRB
Which piece of equipment communicates with nearby vessel`s radar?

• SART
• Radar reflector
• GMDSS
• EPIRB
Which piece of signalling equipment it used for long range signalling?

• Heliograph
• Smoke canister
• Parachute flare
• Hand flare
What is the heliograph used for?

• To check the outside temperature
• To warm the emergency food rations
• As a first burns dressing
• As a means of signalling by reflecting the light of the sun
If you have had to enter the water, what is the best course of action?
• Move as much as possible to keep your circulation going
• Take odd your boots or shoes
• Find an object to climb on to
• Keep your front into the wind and waves
Which piece of signalling equipment will help helicopter pilots judge the
surface wind speed and direction?
• Smoke float
• Heliograph
• Parachute flare
• Hand flare
What is the normal method of winching a single uninjured person into a

helicopter from a ship?
• A highline
• A lifting stretcher
• A basket
• A rescue hook or strop
What is the minimum number of crew required in the rescue boat?
• 2 people
• 3 people
• 4 people
• 5 people
When launching a rescue boat, what should the ship`s speed be?
• No more than 2 knots
What is the function of the inside watchman on board an inflated raft?

• To prepare food and distribute the water
• To stop people from smoking
• To cheer up the occupants
• To check on injured personnel and on the state of the survival craft
Shock is a state of collapse that may occur after any serious injury. How
should victims be treated?
• They should be kept cool, and if conscious placed in an upright position
• They should be kept warm, laid flat and, if conscious, given frequent sips of
water - except for those with stomach injuries
• They should be given a small dose of medicinal brandy, them laid flat and
given rest.
• None; wait until rescue services arrive with specialist personnel trained to
deal with such a medical emergency
When would you fire the pyrotechnics after launching the lifeboats and
liferafts?
• Once every hour immediately after launching
• When you have sighted the rescue services or other ships/aircraft
• Once every hour during the hours of darkness
• On request from the rescue services
If teamwork is divided into four main stages - forming, storming, norming

and performing, what qualities does the third stage - norming - require?
• An ability to resolve differences
• Flexibility and imagination
• Confidence
• Friendliness and openness
The ideal manager is a SMART one. What does the A stand for?
• Achievable
• Adaptable
• Accountable
• Avoidable
A powernap should take no longer than:

• Ten minutes
• Fifteen minutes
• Twenty minutes
• Half an hour
Is the following statement about resource management principles True or

False?
• The greatest resource in resource management is the equipment you use
and the colleagues you work with. False

False?
• A virtuous circle is when one stage leads naturally onto the other to become
a natural flow. True
When it comes to a commitment to safe working practices, what should good

leadership concentrate on?
• Technological skills
• Delegation
• Time spent on safety drills and briefings
• Self-reflection
Situational awareness was first developed by which industry?

• The TV industry
• The IT industry
• The aviation industry

False?
• Good communication and effective communication are always the same
thing. False
Which of these definition is wrong?

• Sensory Memory - holds information for brief periods of time
• Working Memory - Holds information about your technical skills
• Long Term Memory - this holds all the information acquired during your life
Which of the activities listed would NOT be considered part of situational

awareness?
• Categorising information
• Anticipating a future state
• Interpreting information
• Gathering information
There are four stages to managing your workload successfully. What is the
first stage?
• Be organized
• Remain calm
• Remain alert
• Familiarize yourself with the ship and your responsibilities
In Closed Loop Communication you should always:

• Keep to the facts
• Maintain good eye contact
• Be clear
• Be brief
• Do all of the above
-Place the stages from the list in the correct order to show the build up that can lead to an
event
Failed defences / control eve

Latent failure preconditions Active failure
-
Are the statements about work situations true o false?
You sould follow the daily work plan regardless of the way the situation evolves? (F)
Unwanted visitors or phone calls can distract you from the task in handed start a chain of
events leading to an incident
(T)
Contradictory readings from instrumentations are quite common and are not a cause for
concern
( F)
You should not ignored gut feeling about a situation even if you are not sure what may be
wonrg
(T)
Active failures are often due to ahuman error
(T)
-the potential for latent failures can be reduced by the proper application of work place
procedures aimed at indentifying risk and possible safety issues.which of this activities
listed is not relevant in this context.
1) Risk assentment
2) using permit to work system
3) agreeing times of meal breaks
4) preparing daily work plans
5) toolbox talks
- are the statements about good communication in a team true or false?

You should not question the decition of senior colleages. (F)
You should only provide information when it is asked for (F)
You should feel confortable asking for help when they need it (T)
You should ask questions if there is something you don’t understand (T)
The reference describes the proccessof learning from experience to avoid repeating
mistakes.place the steps from the list in the correct order
The experience iself
reflection
generalisation
planning
-Select the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about managing hazardous
situations
To manage the situations requires control over the hazards and defences for the targets.when
the controls or the defences or both fail we have an event
The taget is damaged or in the case of a near miss threatened by the hazard.
-Goog planning means thinking ahead . everyone should have a clear picture
Of what is likely to happen during the shift. Select the correct words for the list to complete the
sentences.
There should be not surprises and not secrets effective engine room resourse mangment
depends
On charings informations. What if questionsare important so that there are alternative scenarios
in mind if circunstances or priorities change during during the planned sequence of work.
-To understand the potential of incidents on board you need to indentify possible hazard and
targets
Which of the following are hazards and wich are targets?
Electricity H
Causic substances H
Equipment T
Other crew members T
Noisy environment H
Equipment manuals T
Very hot surface H
The traffic lights approach is a system for dealing whit material changes in sircunstances .how
many changes are required for the light to change from green to amber
1
2
The reference suggests there are berries wich can often make developing an effective engine
room team harder .these are:
1)Age rank and culture
2)age rank and certification
3)Culture rank and certification

4)Culture certification and age
-if you have to pass through a powered watertight door with a load and your hands aren’t free
to operate each of the control, what you shpuld you do?
Take extra carewhen passing through
Pul the load throughusing a wire or cable
Inform the bridge in then do through
You mustn’t go through unless you ve got an autorised person to operate the door for you
Powered watertight doorsare designed so that they can be opened and closedwhen the ship is
listed to:
10 degrees
15 degrees
20 degrees
25 degrees
-which statement about the bridge control mode of operating a powered watertight door is
correct?
1)In brigge control you needto pump the door open manually
2) bridge controlis only for openingthe doors remotely,not for closing them
3)If yougo througha powered watertight door when its under bridge control the door will
start to close inmmediatly when you release the local control from the open position
-When is it permissible to leave an object in the opening of a powered watertight door?
1)If you are an authorized powered watertight door operator
2)at any time except under potentially hazardous conditions
3) at any time except when when the lights are flashing or the alarm sounds
4) never
-what should do if you discover a spill close to a powered watertight door?
1)be extra careful

2)clean it up as soon as practicable
3)report it to the master
4) let it evaporate
What should you do pass through a powered watertight door once the door is fully open?
 Whith one hand still on on the nearside controls in the open position ,reach through the
doorway with your other hand to lift the level on the farside control
 With one hand stillon the nearside controls in the open positions pass through the door
without touching the lever on the farside controls.
 Pass through the door with the door without touching either lever on either side of the
door.
-How much power will the emergency hand pump have , in the event of power loss to the
powered watertight doors hydraulic system?
1) Enough for 3 opening and closing movements

2) enough por 5 opening and closing moverments
3)unlimited movement it is manually controlled
4) there is no emergency hand pump
-are the statements about powered watertight doors true or false?
1) Powered watertight doors can also function as fire doors. (T)
2) The numbering on powered watertight doors signifies the amount of pressure they can
witshstand in tons (F)
-how often should bridge control testing of powered watertight doors be carried out ?
1) at least once a week

2)at least once every two weeks
3)at least once a month
4)at least once a year

-The amount of time that powered watertight doors take to close in local controls is regulated
as:
➢ 5-10 seconds
➢ 10- 20 seconds
➢ 20- 40 seconds
➢ 40-60 seconds
-What should you do if you need to open a powered watertight door and there is no power?
➢ Use a heavy metal object to force the door open
➢ Consult your supervisor
➢ Use the emergency power supply
➢ Use the emergency hand pump
Which of these circumstances may be described as potentially hazardous ?
➢ When the ship is entering or leaving port
➢ When the ship is securely moored along side
➢ When the ship is deep open water with no other ships around and in calm of wether
-Are the statements about powered watertight door operation true or false?
The alarm on a powered watertight door may be disabled if the door needs be constantly opened
and closed (F)
Under solas powered watertight door may may be kept closed at sea except to allow authorized
crew members (T)
The key to safe use of powered watertight doors is to treat them as if there are always in local
controls (F)
-powered watertight doors close with a maximum force of:
1) 100kg
2) 500kg
3)1ton
4) 2tons.
- What action should be taken if a powered watertight door starts closing in front of you?
1)jump through the door quickly before it closes
2)stand clear and use the indicated alternative exit
3) use the lever to operate the powered watertight door as you like
-when may an unahutorised person open and closed powered watertight door?
1) at any time
2) when the doors have been closed for more than one hour
3) Only in a emergency
4) at anchor
-the first correct step for going througha powered watertight is to:
1)sound the alarm
2) hold on to the control and wait for the door to open fully
3)use the control and pass throughas soon as the dooropen 50 centimetres
4) contact the bridge
-what is the first thing that should be done to find out the risk posed by the cargo?
1) the chartere should be contacted
2) the chief officershould inspect the container
3) the ship manual should be consulted
4) the cargo manifest should be consulted
-Which of the items listed does not form part of the ship’s emergency plan?
➢ Up to date compny contacts

➢ Rest hours
➢ Communication methods to be used on board
➢ Procedures for requesting assistance from third parties
-What are the risk from calcium hypoclorito cargo?

1) it can lead to thermal expancion
2) it can realase hydrogen sulphide a toxic gas
3)it can lead to under pressurization of the container
4) it can self-ignite and release oxygen causing the fire to burn continuously
-what is recommended procedure for dealing with a floating HNS?

1)neutralize with it a base
2)use oil spill response and containment tecniques
3)change vessel positions taking windin direction
4)two vessel in less voulnerable area
-below deck a major fire should be fought with:

1)smothering gas
2) calcium hypochlorite
3)injection of co2
4)water spray
1) If tha Engine Room, the secon Engineer Will automatically take over because intimate
knowledge of the location is essential
a) True
b) false
2) On ship with only one emergency party, the chief officer Will usually take charge
a) True
b) False
3) The member of the emergency parties must be frequently Exchanged to ensure that all
crew menbers become familiar whit all fire fighting duties on board ship.
a) True
b) False
The officer in charge of the Attack Party makes an immediate assessmenof the situation and
commences apropriate initial activities, keeping in regular contact whit the bridge.
The initial tasks of the Engine Room Party are to check that all pumps are fully aperational &that
the emergency pumps and generator are functioning correctly.
Tha first Aid Party muster at the exit to the hospital where they collect strechers first aid ki, & a
resuscitator pack.
The attack Party, or Emergency Party, has the task of directly fighting the fire.
The stability of the ship is principally the resposibility of the bridge team.
Limiting the amount of wáter used helps maintain stability.
Daping down should be continued until all sings of heating have ceased.
After a fiere has been extinguished, a 24 hour fire watch should be kept on the área.
What is the SART?
a) A sulvival carft radar transponder.
b) A survival craft radio transmitter.
c) A search and Rescue team on standby for maritime emergencies.
d) A search an Recues training exercise.
At what poing during the launch procedure are the doors and hatches secured on a fully
enclosed lifeboat?
➢ Once the bottom plugs have been set.
➢ Once the painter has been passed out of the forward Hatch and secured.
➢ Once everyone is inside.
➢ Once the engine has been started.
Why is it important for evacuees to board a freefall lifeboatextremely carefully?
➢ Because the boat is in the wáter and they could get wet.
➢ Because it is in the stowed position and therefore at a steep angle.
➢ Beacuse it is extremely weight-sensitive.

➢ Because sudden movements could dislodge it.
What are the gripe?
o They are special storage spaces onboard the lifeboat to hold food supplies.
o They secure the lifeboat to the bollards on the main deck.
o They aid in lowering the boat by using the winch mechanism.
o They secure the lifeboat to the davits when stowed.
Are the statements abaut lifeboat operations true or false?
All on-load relase systems must have built in safeguards against early reléase.
a. True
b. False
When the boat is at safe distance from the ship, the painter should be released.
a. True
b. False
A freefall lifeboat should be abondoned if the engine does not start.
a. True
b. False
If your lifeboat has an internal air supply, how long Will the constant Flow of air last?
a. A mínimum of 2 minutes.
b. A minimun of 5 minutes.
c. A minimum of 10 minutes.
d. A mínimum of 20 minutes.
What is teeh purpose of the hydrostatic interlock in the keel?
a. It prevents seawater entering the boat.
b. It indicates the loaded weight of the boat and prevents overloading.
c. It prevents relase of the hooks until such time that the keel of the boat is under water.
d. It supplies cooling wáter to the lifeboat engine.

When launching a fully enclosed lifeboat the FPDs should be removed:
a. Before the boat start to descend.
b. Just before the boat reaches the water.
c. Once the boat is the water.
d. FPDs shuold never be removed.
Oce the partially enclosed lifeboat has been lowered to the embarkation deck and securely
bowsed, what is the next step in the lauching procedure?
o The sliphook of the gripes is conected.
o The sliding beam davits are removed.
o The boat is lowered to the waterline.
o The person in charge and lifeboat crew enter the boat and prepared to board the
evacuees.
Accidents can result from improperly reset on/offload reléase mechanisms. Which of the actions
lited to avoid this happening does NOT belong on the list?
o Make yourself fuly aware of the Paint coating required and grase all moving parts.
o Check the manufacturer´s handbook on proper use of the mechanism.
o Make yourself fully aware of the correctprodures.
o Make yourself fully awere of the safety checks.
o Make yourself fully awere of all othger launching equiment.
A fully enclosed lifeboat´s descent can be stopped at any time by:
o Pulling on the painter.
o Signalling to the which operator.
o Increasing the tensión on the brake control cable.
o Releasing the tensión on the brake control cable.
The shelters on partially enclosed lifeboats are created by:
o Rigid covers.
o Folding canopies.
o A combination of rigid cover and folding canopies.
o A fibreglass Shell that is operated ellectronically and con up to 80% of the boat.
Which type of lifeboat is launched from a ramp?
o Fire-protected lifeboats.
o Freefall life boats.
o Partially eclosed lifeboats.
o Fully enclosed lifeboats.
When getting clear of the stricker ship, what is the recommended procedure?
o Make sure the lifeboat is half a mile upwind from the ship.
o Head dow wind of the ship and clear of its bow and sterm.
o Stay within 100 meter of the ship, on the bow side.
o Stay within 100 meter of the ship, on the sterm side.
How are throw overboard liferafts inflated?
o By releasing the senhouse slip.
o By opening the valise.
o By using the pump suplied
o By giving a strng pullo n the painter at its full extent.
Once the inflation of the davit-launched liferaft is complete, what should the wowsing lines be
used for?
o To pull the liferaft in tightt to that it can be made fast, ready for bording.
o To act as safety device when boarding.
o There are no bowsing line son davint-launched liferafts.

o Clearing the bording área of obtacles.
Why is it impotant to keep the bowsing line whitin the raft?
o So that they can be used to tie raft together when the raft is clear.
o So that they can be used to tie evacuees thogether if the liferaft should sink.
o So that the davit hook can be raised ready for the next launch.
o So that they Will be prevented from snagging and tipping up the raft while it is being
lowered.
What is the first action in launching a davit-lauched liferaft?
o Remove the ship´s side rails.
o Remove the liferaft´s securing straps.
o Prepared the davit.
o Chek that launch área is unobstructed.
When launching a davit-launched liferaft, and you have pulled the liferaft shakled out of the
canister, what should you do next?
o Let it go.
o Hook it on to the davit.
o Hook it on to the bowsing line.
o You should never pull the liferaft shakle oaut of the canister.
What is the first action when bording a thow overboard liferaft?
o Used the painter to secure the liferaft alongside
o Rig the ship´s boardingg ladders.
o Check the liferaftnfor leaks an damage.
o Prepare the davit.
SOLAS specifies that it must be posible to evacuate a ship winthing:
o 15 minutes.
o 30 minutes.
o 45 minutes.
o One hour.
Are the statements abaut liferaft operations true or false?
1) The priority after launching the liferaft is to get clear of the ship using ani means posible.
o True
o false
2) the disadvantage tha evacuees may have to enter the water before getting into the
liferaft.
o True
o false
3) Once a throw averboard liferaft is in the water, you should rig the embarkation Ladder.
o True
o False
How many people are normally needed to right at 25 person liferaft?
o 1
o 2
o 3
o 25 person liferafts are too heavy to right.
Which throw overboard liferafts have hydrostactic reléase?
o All liferafts except the ones stored forward.
o The ones stored inside the accommodation.
o All throw overboard liferafts have hydrostatic reléase.
o No throw overboard liferafts have hydrostatic reléase.

What should you do if wateer enters the life raft?
o let out, using the drain plug.
o Nothing. The raft Will remain buoyant in any case.
o Bail it out as son as possible, using the valer and/or spange.
o Contact other liferats in the vicinity for assistance.
Where can you find out detailed information abaut liferaft equiement and operation?
o From the ship´s safety management system.
o From the manufactures´websites.
o From the muster list.
o From the SOLAS training manual.
o When you hear the general emergency signal.
o When the person in charge of the liferaft gives the order
o When the master or their deputy give the order.
o When you judge that it is no longer safe to safe to stay in the ship.
As evacuees enter the liferaft, the supervising crew member sitting at the entrnce should:
o Check that they have removed all Sharp objets from their pockets.
o Check that they have brought all the necessary survival equiement.
o Direct one evacuee to the left and one to the right, an so on.
o Direct the first evacuees to sito n the buoyancy chamber, and then the rest to left and
righ.
A sprain is an injury to:
o Ligament.
o Muscle.
o Tendón.
o Bone.
When a casualty has dislocated shoulder you must:
o Attempt to arm back in position.
o Bentthe arm and place it in an elevation sling.
o Bend the arm and place it in low sling.
o Tie the arm to the side of side of body.
Which of the injuries listed is best treated using an elevation sling?
o Fractured collarbone.
o Fractured upper arm.
o Dislocated elbow.
o Fractured lower arm.
How would you position a conscious casualty with a sucking wound on the left side of their
chest?
o Sitting up and leaning toward the right.
o In the recovery position lying on the right.
o Sitting up and leaning towards the left.
o In the recovery position lying on the left.
o Non stick and sealed with to top Edge open.
o Non stick and sealed with bottom Edge open.
o Dressing pad secured on all sides.
o Dressing pad secured with bottom Edge open.
A casualty has fallen from a height and appears to be unconscious. What would you do first?
o Check their breating
o Check their pulse
o Place them in the recovery position

o Leave them and phone for help
When a casuality has a fractured base of skull they may have:
o Bloo stained fluid leaking from the ears only.
o Bloo stained fluid leaking from the nose only.
o Blood stained fluid leaking from the ears or nose.
o Blood stained fluid leaking from the mouth only.
A complicated fracture is one where there is:
o A wound and bone is visible.
o A wound and the bone is protruding.
o Excessive bleeding from an open wound.
o Damage to underlying tissue.
In a concussed casualty you Will find:
o one pupil slower to ract ti light tan the other
o one pupil large than the other.
o Neither of the pupils react to light.
o Both of the pupil react to light.
Are the statements about working in dark or smoke filled areas True or False?
a) You should use reference points. True

b) Try to remain calm. True
c) Keep in physical contact with a fellow team member. True
d) Communicate your position clearly to the control centre. True
What is the minimum capacity of air cylinders according to SOLAS?
 800 litres.
 1000 litres.
 200 litres.
 1500 litres.
When testing a BA set before use, what is the maximum acceptable pressure drop
after the cylinder valve has been closed?
 8 bar per minute.
Which of the factor listed is not likely to affect the amount of time an individual can
work with SCBA in a dangerous environment?
 Workload.
 Fitness.
 Time of day.
 Prevailing conditions.
Are the statements about emergency operations True or False?
 The entry party should check the door prior to entry. True
 The BA team should leave the danger area when their air pressure is down
to 80 bar. True
 Spare BA sets should be left in their stowage position in the event of an
emergency. False
 The emergency control centre should be controlled by a senior officer. True
What is the minimum percentage full that a BA set should be used?
 70%
 75%
 80%
 85%
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the main
components of a BA set.
Most modern BA sets have an air cylinder mounted on a back-plate. The air travels
through a cylinder valve and then through a first stage pressure reducer. Next,
there is a high pressure line that takes the air to a pressure gauge and warning
whistle assembly. A low pressure line takes the air to a demand valve which
houses the first breath mechanism and a by-pass valve. The demand valve is
attached to a facemask.
Who should check the torches and communications prior to entry?
 The officer in charge.

 The BA wearer.
 The master.
Prior to donning the BA, the by-pass valve should be:

 Closed.
 Open.
In an emergency or high stress situation, how can a supplementary air flow be

obtained for the facemask?
 Adjust the demand valve.

 Open the bypass valve.
 Close the bypass valve.
What is the safe level of oxygen in an atmosphere?
 18%
 19.5%
 21%
 22%
Prior to donning the BA, the first breath mechanism should be:
 Closed.
 Open.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about maintenance
of BA sets.
Each time breathing apparatus has been used it must be cleaned and the
facemask disinfected. A visual check should discover any damage that may have
occurred. In such cases, this must be reported to an officer and the BA set taken
out of service. Otherwise, clean the set with lanolin soap and use a disinfectant on
the facemask.
How long should a hand held lamp be tested for?
 10 seconds.
 20 seconds.
 30 seconds.
 1 minute.
The by-pass valve is closed by turning it fully:
 Anti-clockwise.
 Clockwise.
What is the typical air consumption per minute for a man wearing a Ba set in an
emergency situation performing heavy work?
 20-30 liters.
 50-60 litres.
 90-100 litres.
 10-15 litres.
OPA 90 applies to:
 All oil tankers over 150 GT entering US waters.

 All ships flying the US flag.
 All ships entering US waters whatever their flag.
 All oil and chemical tankers entering US waters whatever their flag.
How far from the shoreline do US waters extend?
 50 nautical miles.
Are the statements listed True or False?
 Most marine oils spills result from oils tankers getting into difficulties. False
 The majority of spills are less than seven tonnes. True
 The quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small and so
no special precautions need to be taken before starting. False
Drag the correct words from the list to identify some of the key aspects to preparing
for bunkering.
 The hoses must be checked to confirm they are in good condition.

 All scuppers must be plugged.
 Portable pumps must be readily available.
 The piping system must be correctly lined up.
procedures.
 The transfer must start at a low flow rate.

 Transfer rate will need to be carefully monitored.
 A vigilant deck watch is essential, including a regular check on the mooring
arrangements.
 Pipework and air vents must be continually checked for oil leaks.
 Before disconnection all hoses must be drained.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the checks procedures required
 Check that the COW system has been isolated.

 Check that the risers above the cargo pumps have been drained of oil.
 Check that the valves into the tanks have been opened.
 Check that the sea valve remains closed until the pump is started.
The exercise shown in the video is based on the ship:
 Having a collision.
 Running aground.
 Catching fire.
A full scale PREP to test both ship and shore based emergency response
 One a year.
 Three time a year.
 Once every two years.
 Twice a year.
Which of these statements about the qualified individual (QI) is NOT correct?
 The QI must speak fluent English.

 The QI must be a member of the ship’s crew.
 The QI has to be based in the USA.
 The QI may authorize funds for the clean up.
Under OPA 90, who must be notified first in the event of an incident?
 The coast guard captain of the nearest port.

 The shipping company headquarters.
 The national response centre in Washington D. C.
 The qualified individual.
Are the statements listed True or False?
 In a real emergency, it may be necessary to close air vents to the engine

room and to close seawater intakes. True
 The OPA 90 vessel response plan must always be available in English. True
 The crew would not normally be mustered until a detailed emergency
response had been agreed with the shore office. False
Which of the actions listed are the responsibility of the command centre?
 The coordination and distribution of information concerning the actual and
forecast condition of the spill.
 The management of all tactical operations required to execute the
company’s general emergency response plan.
 Obtaining manpower, equipment, material, food, protective clothing and
other facilities needed to support the emergency response.
 Settling compensation claims.
 All of the above.
Which of the items of information listed is NOT required by the standard form for
reporting incidents to the Nacional Response Centre?
 The ship’s position.

 The type of product.
 The number of crew on board.
 Tue quantity at risk.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the statements about the operation
of OPA 90.
 The Unified commands provides a top level forum for producing a cohesive
plan of action.
 All decisions, actions and communications must be logged on the ship.
 Unless the master has serious concerns for safety on board, he will normally
 The coast guard will take over operations only if they are asked or if they
think things are getting out of control.
Oil cargoes may pose health hazards and these can be caused through ingestion,
skin contact or inhalation. Which of these posess the greatest risk?
 Inhalation.
 Skin contact.
 Ingestion.
Are statements listed True or False?
 Most marine oils spills result from oil takers getting into difficulties. False
 The majority of spills are less than seven tonnes. True
 The quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small so no
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the check procedures requires
 Check that the COW system has been isolated.
 Check that the risers above the cargo pumps have been drained of oil.
 Check that the valves into the tanks have been opened.
 Check that the sea valves remain closed until the pump is started.
Use your mouse to complete the following sentence correctly.
 Absorbents are substances which soak up oil like a sponge.

 Adsorbents are substances where oil sticks to the outside surface.
 Synthetic sorbents absorb a lot of oil and don’t absorb water.
 Natural products often soak up water as well as oil.
procedures.
 The transfer must start at a low flow rate.

 Transfer rates will need to be carefully monitored.
 A vigilant deck watch is essential, including a regular check on the mooring
arrangements.
 Pipework and air vent must be continually checked for oil leaks.
 Before disconnection all hoses must be drained.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the statements about weathering
of oil.
 The lower the viscosity of the oil, the faster it will spread
 Low temperatures will make oil more viscous, and spread more slowly
 The higher the ambient temperature and the greater the wind speed the
more oil will evaporate
 Over 36 to 48 hours, oil can mix with the sea to form a mousse
Are the statements about possible hazards associated with spills True or False?
 Frequent or prolonged skin contract with benzene is not a cause of concern.
False
 Inhalation of hydrogen sulphide can be fatal. True
 Your sense of smell can become rapidly de-sensitised, particulary to
hydrogen sulphide. True
 Most ail cargoes do not require the use of any special protective clothing or
equipment. False
When a spill moves with a tide or current at what percentage of the tide or current
speed does it move?
 3%
 10%
 50%
 100%
Match the opening words with the closing words to identify some of the key
aspects of preparing for bunkering
 The hoses must be checked to confirm they are in good condition
 All scuppers must be plugged
 Portable pumps must be readily available
 The piping system must be correctly lined up
A casualy with a severe bleed at the right wrist is unconscious. What position would you place
them in?
1. In the recovery position on the right side
2. In the shock position with right arm elevated
3. Laid down flat on the deck
4. In the recovery position on the left side
You are in a safe environment. What is the first action you should take on discovering a
casualty?
1. Place the casualty in the recovery position
2. Shout at the casualty as you approach them to provoke a response
3. Feel for a pulse at the neck
4. Ckeck breathing
The immediate treatment for a hot burn is to:
1. Cool the are with wáter
2. Remove charred clothing
3. Apply antiseptic cream
4. Apply sterile dressing
You casualty has an arterial bleed at the wrist. The first aid tratment is to:
1. Apply a wound dressing and sling
2. Put the casualty in the recovery position
3. Apply a tourniquet
4. Press directly on the wound
When checking a casualty´s ABC how long do you allow in order to check their
breathing?
1. 5 seconds
2. 10 seconds
3. 15 seconds
4. 1 minute
What is the ratio of ventilations to chest compressions in resuscitation?
a) 2:30
b) 2:15
c) 30:2
d) 15:2
Indirect pressure to stop bleeding should be kept in place for:
a) 10 minutes and relea sed quicly
b) 10 minutes and relea sed slowly
c) 15 minutes and relea sed quickly
d) 15 minutes and relea sed slowly
Arterial blood is:
1. Bright red and gushing
2. Bright red and spurting
3. Dark red and spurting
4. Dark red and gushing
A casualty is placed in the recovery position :
1. When they are in shock
2. To aid breathing
3. To maintain the alrway
4. To make them more comfortable
During resuscitation,the rateo f compression should be:

1. 60 per minute
2. 80 per minute
3. 100 per minute
4. 120 per minute
1. Ask them if they are choking
2. Do 5 back slaps
3. Do 5 abdominal thrusts
4. Open their mounth to ckeck for any blockage
A casualty in shock has:
1. Pale chammy skin and slow pulse
2. Pale dry skin and fast pulse
3. Pale clammy skin and fast pulse
4. Pale dry skin ans slow pulse
the severity of a burn is assessed by:
1. Its depeth and its cause.
2. Its área and its cause
3. Its cause and its complexity
4. Its Depth and its área
The casualty´s pal mis considered to be:
1. 1% of the total body Surface área

A burn should be cooled for a mínimum of:
1. 10 minutes
2. 15 minutes
3. 20 minutes
4. 30 minutes
A casualty is found collapsed in an enclosed space. What should the rescuer do first?
1. Carry the casualty to safety
2. Assess the casualty´s breathing
3. Stop any major bleding
4. Raise the alam
Is the following statement about first aid procedures true or false?
1. Cold bums to the hands may be warmed up by being rubbed.
FALSE
1. It is OK to just do chest compressions during resuscitation rather than compressions and

ventilations
TRUE
1. The casualty may be a danger to the rescuer.
TRUE
1. A shocked casualty who is thirsty may be given a drink of wáter
FALSE
What is often the first sign of hydrogen sulphide (H25) being present in a space?
1. The smell of lemons

2. The smell of petrol
3. The smell of rotten eggs
4. The smell of burning
What enclosed space Hazard is caused by the rusting of metal?
1. Toxic gas poisoning
2. Anaemia
3. Eye irritation
4. Asphyxiation
1. Enclosed spaces are enclosed on all sides
False
1. The only tasks that require enclosed space entry are cleaning and maintenance
False
What wil happen if you stay in an atmosphere containing less than 6% oxygen for 4 minutes or
more?
1. Death
2. Muscle weakness
3. Eye disturbance
4. Nausea and vomiting
What is it prohibited to enter a space that has been inerted?
1. Because it Will cause nausea
2. Because you woll die from lack of oxygen
3. Because there is an explosión Hazard
4. Because it Will irriate your eyes

1. All enclosed spaces must hace clearly visible signs, indicating that they should not be
enteres with out the proper preparation and procedures
True
1. If you need to rescue someone from an enclosed space which has an atmosphere that has
been identified as dangerous, you must first puto n a BA (breathing apparatus) set.
True
Complete the following sentences about gaseous fuels
The hazards presented by flammable gases are the same as those of the vapour given off by low
flshpoint liquids
A leaking gas will either disperese upwards or downwards depending on its vapour density
A leaking gas may find a remote source of ignition and carry a flame back to the source of the
leak
Gas culinders should be located ouside the machinery space from where the gas will be
piped
A mishandled acetylene cylinder may feel hot to the rouch; if so it could explode and should
be cooled with a fine spray and jettisoned
What, if any, precautions need to be taken before welding in the vicinity of open, but empty,
hatches?
1. No special precaution are necessary when welding in the vicinity of empty hatches as long
as loading operations hace not started
2. Screens should be erected to prevent sparks dropping down hatches or ventilators.

Dunnage and other combustible materials should be moved to a safe distance.
3. Issue a “cold work” pemit.
4. Obtain permission from the harbour authorities and company head office.
What are the three elements found in the “FIRE TRIANGLE”?
1. Fuel, wáter and flame

2. Air, flame and heat
3. Fuel, air and heat
4. Fuel, air and flame
Heat Will always travel from hotter áreas to cooler ones, no matter how small the temperature
difference may be. Please match each example of heat transfer with the appropiate definition
Direct heat transfer through a material CONDUCTION
Heated liquids or gases rise, carrying the heat from one área to another CONVECTION
Heat energy transfered by radiating through a space, as in a cooking grill RADIATION
Spontaneous combustión may occur when:
1. A person smokes in bed and the lighted cigarette falls out of his/her hand as they fall
asleep.
2. Sparks escaping from the funnel or other engine exhaust, set fire to materials left lying
about on deck.
3. Incorrect procedures are followed in the sequence of lighting a boiler
4. Dirty waste, rags, sawdust and other rubbish, especially if contaminated bye oil, are left
lying about.
1. Shallow breathing with strong and slow pulse.
2. Shallow breathing with strong and fast pulse
3. Noisy breathing with strong and slow pulse
4. Noisy breathing with strong and fast pulse
A casualty has a chemical splash in the eye, you should:
1. Immerse their head in a basin of warm water
2. Sit them down and open the eye to note ant damage
3. Wash the eye out with the casualty lying down

4. Place and over the eye
A casualty has a wood splinter in their eye. How long do you take to wash it out?
1. At least 5 minutes
4. At least 20 minutes.
A casualty has an abdominal wound and bowel can be seen in the wound. What action would
you take?
1. Place a dry dressing pad firmly over the wound
2. Place a non stick dressing firmly over the wound
3. Place a damp dressing lightly over the wound
4. Place a damp dressing firmly over the wound
If a casualty has been trapped by crushing of their leg the rescuer should:
1. Not release them if trapped for longer than 10 minutes
2. Not release them if trapped for longer than 15 minutes
3. Only release them after 15 minutes
4. Only release after 10 minutes
An amputated finger is to be preserved in ice. Before placing it in ice yu should:
a) Wrap finger in plastic then padding
b) Wash the finger and wrap it in plastic
c) Wrap the finger in padding
d) Wrap the finger in padding and then plastic
a) Laid down and have their legs elevated.

b) Placed in the recovery positon
c) Sat on a chair
d) Positioned sitting up and supported
If someone is suffering from hypoglycaemia, then their:
1. Blood sugar is too low
2. Pulse rate is too slow
3. Temperature is too low
4. Blood pressure is too low
A casualty having an asthma attack will have:
1. Pale skin, normal breathing and fast pulse
2. Red skin, fast breathing and slow pulse
3. Normal skin, normal breathing and past pulse
4. Pale skin, noisy breathing and fast pulse
A casualty has shallowed cleaning fluid. You should:
1. Give them lots of water to drink
2. Not let them drink anything at all
3. Give them salty water to drink
4. Give them sips of water to drink
Which of the symptoms listed could indicate spinal injury?
1. Pain at the spine or elsewhere
2. Loss of control of movement
3. Loss of bladder control
4. Any of above
In hypothermia the casualty will be:

1. Pale, sweating with a fast pulse.
2. Red, sweating with a fast pulse
3. Pale, with a slow pulse
4. Red with a slow pulse.
On a rescue, a hypothermic casualty is unconscious. You should:
1. Give them hot drinks
2. Wrap them in blankets
3. Put them in a warm bath
4. Get them to walk around
A casualty with heat exhaustion is:
1. Red and breathing slowly
2. Pale and breathing fast
3. Pale and breathing slowly
4. Red and breathing fast
A casualty with heat stroke is:
1. Red with a strong pulse
2. Red with a weak pulse
3. Pale with noisy breathing
4. Pale with shallow breathing
In what way are VOCs bad for the environment?
1. They cause acid rain
2. They pollute sea water
3. They create ground level smog
4. They are corrosive and flammable when they react with oxygen
Who is responsible for ensuring that a ship is equipped with means of collecting VOCs before it
enters a port or terminal where VOC controls are implemented?
1. The designated person ashore
2. The chief officer
3. The master
4. The owner
the entire pipeline network in the vapor collection system must:
1. be marked with the word ‘VAPOUR’
2. be electrically bonded to the hull and electrically continuous
3. consist of flexible hosing
4. have a drain off at its highest point
What is the colour scheme for making the vapour control manifold?
1. Yellow with red bands
2. Black with red bands
3. Yellow with black bands
4. Red with black bands
The cylindrical safety stud on the manifold flange must be set:
1. At the 6 o’clock position
2. At the 12 o’clock position
3. So that it is not in contact with flange face
4. Parallel to the flange face
Under MARPOL annex VI the vapour flow capacity of each PV valve must be at least:
1. 25% of the maximum loading rate of each tank

How many venting systems should there be?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
In the cargo tank pressure release system, over pressure alarms should be set at:
1. A minimum of 68% of the lowest pressure relief valve setting
The lower low pressure alarms in inerted vessels should be set at not less than:
1. 100 mm WG
2. 150 mm WG
3. 200 mm WG
4. 250 mm WG
Is the following statement about vapour emission control true or false?
Countries and terminals can be demand that only tankers fitted with vapor collection system may
operate in VOC control areas
1. True
2. False
The overfill control system must be connected to the cargo gauging system
1. True
2. False
Tanks should always be opened for sampling when loading is 90% complete.
1. True
2. False
What could happen if vapour passes over condensate?
1. It could cause under-pressurisation
2. It could cause over-pressurisation
3. It could create a toxic cloud
4. It could generate static electricity and increase the risk of explosion
Before arrival, you should check that, if tank atmospheres are inerted, they contain:
1. At least 8% oxygen
2. Less than 8% oxygen
3. At least 8% nitrogen
4. Less than 8% nitrogen
Where should the detonation arrestor be positioned before loading starts?
1. Close to the terminal vapour connection
2. Close to the vessel vapour connection
3. In the cargo manifold
4. On the tank access vent
Within what timescale should the US expanded declaration of inspection confirm that alarms
have been tested?
1. The last month
2. The last week
3. The last 24 hours

4. Alarm do not form part of the expanded declaration of inspection
Loading should take place:
1. As quickly as possible
2. Extremely slowly throughout
3. Starting rapidly and slowing down
4. Starting slowly and increasing in stages
at what point during loading should you take a break to check cargo, monitoring and alarm
system?
1. When the tank is a round 20 cm full
2. When the tank is a round 2 m full
3. When the ullage space in the tank is 20 cm
4. When the ullage space in the tank is 2 m
After loading, non inerted cargoes must be allowed to settle for how long before they are
opened for sampling
1. 5 minutes
2. 15 minutes
3. 30 minutes
4. It is not necessary to wait
When lightering, what should there be in the vapour line of the discharging vessel?
1. A low pressure alarm
2. A high pressure alarm
3. A PV valve
4. An oxygen content analyser
Are the statements about emergency procedures true or false?

1. The emergency control centre should be set up as far from the emergency situation as
possible. false
2. Communication from the BA set wearer to the control centre should be made in English
only. false
3. Communications from the BA set wearer to the control centre should be spoken as quickly
as possible to conserve air. False
Which of the items of information listed does not need to be entered on an entry control
board
1. Name and rank of wearer
2. Cylinder content at time of entry
3. Time entry
4. Ambient temperature
At what pressure should the warning whistle sound (on a 207 bar set)?
1. 45-50 bar
2. 60-70 bar
3. 30-40 bar
1 .-All communications should follow standard procedures. In the examples given below,
which item does not belong?
a.- identify the transmitting station
b.- keep the communication as brief as possible
c.- use standard phrases at dictation speed
d.- do not interrupt speaker
e.- should out as loudly as you can to overcome background noise
2.-what is the first duty of an emergency party’s group leader?

a.- waste no time and tackle the emergency. For instance in case of fire, the extinguish,
then report to the bridge
b.- to muster his/her group at the pre arranged muster station and check that all are safe,
and to report
c.- proceed straight to the problem site and await the arrival of his/her emergency party
d.- check the emergency equipment under his/her control
3.- what is good way to describe a ship when fighting fire on board
a.- potentially a six- sided box with four sides and top and bottom through which fire can
spread
b.- a floating hazard where the possibility of explosion must be considered
c.- a vessel divided by fire-proof bulkheads in such a way that fire will be contained to
distinct and pre-determined fire zones
d.- an independent unit where outside assistance can never be provided
4.-when the BA team has withdrawn, what action should be taken by the team leader?
a.- instruct the BA to change the bottles, then relax until called again if necessary
b.-check the equipment personally and ensure that is safe for future use
c.- toughly de-brief the BA team and pass the information to the bridge
d.- make a note, act as you think best, and keep information to yourself as others, such as
the bridge team, must not be overloaded with information
5.- is it good practice to send one man into a smoked filled area wearing the breathing
apparatus (BA) while a second person remains outside the area on stand-by?
a.-it is a rule that only two BA sets are available on board, one man entry is issential with
the second man on stand by
b.- it is preferable that BA should used in teams of not less than two fighters working
together
c.- never send two persons together into an area in case an explosion injures both persons
d.- there are not preferred methods of working with AB sets

6.- on mustering the leader of each party must first of all
a.- report to the bridge
b.- appoint an assistant
c. take a roll call
d.- determine the incident site
7.-are the following statements true or false
a.- regular fire drills must be held. They must be taken seriously and must include
everyone on board T
b.- some drills should cover training in the use and maintenance of equipment T
c.- when holding drills take the opportunity to test communications T
d.- after each drill, hold a review with everyone to discuss how successful it was how it
could be improved T
8.- the first task of command and control is to provide the three c’s of naval strategy.
These three processes must be established quickly. Which process does not belong
a.- communication
b.- co-ordination
c.- chaos
d.- control
9.- can you leave the control of the BA set to the wearer alone
a.- yes the wearer is best placed to know what is happening under given conditions and
control must be left of them
b.- all that is nedded is for the wearer to be trained and understand how to read the gauge
c.- there should be a person assigned to check donning, testing procedure, lifeline
tending and elapsed time
d.- such controls are not practical during emergency situations, but are helpful during
training sessions
10.-in the list of actions below, which item does not belong, before using a fixed CO2
installation
a.- sound the fire alarm
b.- evacuate the area
3.- take a roll call to make sure no one is left there
c.- open all doors.
d.- shut all vents and accesses
11.- why should a CO2 extinguisher be used with caution in confined areas?
a.- it will increase the oxygen present in the confined area to a dangerous level
b.- it will not operate effectively in confined areas
c.- it may explode when exposed to heat
d.- it will displace the air and reduce the amount of oxygen available
12.- what are carbonaceous fuels?
a.- all low- flash liquids are referred to as carbonaceous fuels
b.- hydrocarbon product carried on tankers wich were derived from metamorphic rock
formations
c.- ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper , cloth :those materials which burn
to leave behind smouldering embers
d.- flammable gases under pressure in pipes, tanks or cylinders which can create a risk of
explosion whentemperature/pressure controls fail.
13.-if you see smoke coming from behind a closed door, what would be fist essential
action on your part?
a.-open the door and investigate to see if you can quickly put the ire out with the nearest
extinguisher before it gets out of control. Then raise the alarm and report what you have
achieved
b. you should raise the alarm, then wait until the fire party arrives.
c.- feel the heat of the door and handle, brace your shoulder and knee against the door
open the door slightly investigate and close quickly. Then raise the alarm and report
clearly what the problem is
d. activate the fixed halon or fixed CO2 installation without delay
14.- dry powder extinguisher suppress a fire by chemically interfering with the process of
combustion complete the following sentence, a dry powder extinguisher act as
a.- a flame inhibitor
b. a cooling agent
c. a smothering agent
d. a means of fuel starvation
15.- what do the word starvation smothering and cooling refer to in relation to fire fighting
a.- they are the words describing various fire detections systems
b. the means to remove one or more of three elements of combustion
c.- the conditions under which a fire may start
d.- the names of fire fighting equipments
16.-if a space is illing with smoke and fumes any personnel not properly equipped with
breathing
a.- get out of the spaced without delay, if necessary by crawling on hands and knees
b. raise the alarm look for the nearest fire extinguisher and take immediate fire fighting
action
c. search for others who may be in urgent need assistance

d. close all doors and portholes before making an escape from the area
17.- what type of extinguisher is most suitable for dealing with fire involving carbonaceous
materials
a. CO2 extinguisher
b. DRY powder extinguisher
c. foam extinguisher
d. water extinguisher
18.-with extinguisher methods are electrically conducting
a. CO2
b. Dry powder
c. water/foam
d. fire blanket
19.what would you consider to be your must be your most important reaction on
discovering a fire
a. closing doors and windows to remove the aire supply
b. tackle the fire with the nearest fire extinguisher
c. find the seat of the fire
d. report it by raising the alarm
20.- ideally the adjustable jet/spray nozzle on a hose should be used as
a.- a jet
b. a sprat of arc 30 degrees
c. a spray of arc 60 degrees
d. a spray of arc 90 degrees

21.- what us a hot work permit
a. a permit allowing seafarers to work on deck under direct sunlight’s
b. a permit allowing galley staff to start up the galley equipment
c. a permit allowing engineers to fire the main boiler
d. a permit issued when laid down procedures controlling hot work are in place and
obeyed
22.-spontaneous combustion may occur when
a.- a person smokes in bed and the light cigarette falls out of his/her hand as they fall
asleep
b.-sparks escaping from the funnel or other engine exhaust, set fire to materials left lying
on deck
c.- incorrect procedures are followed in the sequence of lighting a boiler
d.- dirty waste, rags, sawdust other rubbish, specially if contaminated by oil are left lying
about
23.- why is the risk of a fire in the engine room potentially so great
a.- because it is hot place
b.- because fuel tanks are located in the engine room spaces
c.- because it contains air, fuel and heat
d.- because ventilator are constantly supplying fresh air
24.- is there a connection between good housekeeping and fire prevention on board ship
a.- no the two are not related
b.yes, good housekeeping is important element in the fire check list on board ship
c.-no, it is not related to a potential heat energy source

d.-rubbish is not a problem as long as it is kept nearly together on board your ship in the
marpol containers provided
25.-what is a basic principle of fire prevention
a.- never to smoke in bed
b. remove one of three components of the triangle
c. keep all spaces well ventilated throughout the vessel
d.- to make an inspection of the vessel on completion of your period on duty
26.- many things can create the heat necessary to create a fire. Of the examples given
below, which item does not belong
a.- painted surfaces
b.- friction
c.- electrical energy
d.- chemical reactions
d.- compressed gases
e. hot surfaces
27.- in fire-fighting, what does the term boundary starvation refer to
a.-closing doors and hat hatches at the boundary of a fire
b.- cooling the area around a fire to stop it spreading
c.- removing the fuel from the boundary of a fire to stop it spreading further
d. mustering fire fighters and materials in the area near the fire
28.- the basic rules of fire fighting are common to all ships. They are contained in the
letters making up the word fire. From the options below which is the odd one out
F stands for:
I stands for:
R stands for:
E stands for:
a.- report it
b.- extinguishing it if is small enough for one portable extinguisher. If not E stands for
escape
c.- isolated it
d.- find it
e. first aid
complete the following sentences on the dangers of fire extinguishers
make sure nozzles are clear and discharge hoses in good condition
always check extinguishers carefully for signs of corrosion
many injures have been caused by people unscrewing extinguisher under pressure
if you hear a high pressure hiss, stop unscrewing. Make sure that pressure relief holes are
clear
-complete the following sentences about the support party
a.- the vital task on the support party is to back up the fire fighters by fetching additional
equipment
the support party mal also be called upon to stop the fire spreading by undertaking cooling
or boundary starvation, or by removing nearby fuel
the support party are also responsible for preparing the lifeboats and other life saving
appliances and bringing up extra and blankets VHF radios, starts and the EPIRB
on hearing the alarm, the support party musters at its designed station reports to the
bridge and awaits instructions
complete the following sentences on the use of breathing apparatus

remember that if a fire is contained or damped down the amount of smoke will initially
increase
if breathing apparatus is used at least two fire fighters must work together
the amount of air breathed from person to person and according the exertion
when selecting a BA team at least one member o the team should be familiar with the area
.- some useful terms
The temperature at wich a material produces enough flammable vapour for it to flash if
exposed to an ignition source flashpoint
The temperature at which a material will continue to burn when ignited ignition temperature
The temperature at which a material temperature will spontaneously combust self ignition
temperature
The temperature at which a material temperature undergoes a chemical change which

results in combustion auto ignition
.- flammable substances may be considered to fall into the following 4 categories solids,
liquid, gases and metals based on these complete the sentences below
Carbonaceous substances such as wood paper bedding and packing cases are found in
many parts of the ship
Flammable liquids include petroleum spirits, paints and oil paint thinners and kerosene
Liquids which given off flammable vapour include solids that melt to form a liquid such as
fats and waxes
Metal such as magnesium and aluminum can easily be ignited and will burn vigorously
.- dirty waste rags sawdust and other rubbish specially if contaminated with oil generate
heat spontaneously which may be sufficient to ignite flammable mixtures
Oil soaked materials should not be stowed in close proximity to oil or paints or on near to
steam pipes
Materials in ships stores including linen blankets and similar absorbent materials are also
liable to ignite by spontaneous combustion if damp or contaminated by oil
If oil has soaked into absorbent materials they should be cleaned and dried or destroyed
.- galleys and pantries present particular fire risk
Remote cutoff and stops should be conspicuously marked know to galley staff
Burners or heating plates must be shot off when cooking is finished
Extractors flues and ranges should always be kept clean
Means to smother fat or cooking oil fires such as a fire blanket should be readily available
.- successful fire fighting means removing one or more of the 3 elements fuel, heat , air, as
quickly as possible. Effectively this puts out the fire
Most fires start as small ones
In accommodation areas the most commonly available extinguisher are water

extinguishers
In all cases portable fire extinguishing equipment should be operated strictly in accordance
with the markers instruction displayed on the extinguisher body
Extinguisher summary
Powder extinguisher can be used on all types of fire but check the label of a particular
extinguisher as there are different kinds of powder extinguishers
Use foam extinguisher on liquid fires
Use CO2 or dry powder extinguisher on fires involving electricity
NEVER use water extinguisher on liquids or electrical fires
Care of hoses
After use a modern hose must be laid out and drained by walking along it, holding each
part at shoulder level as you walk along
Protect coupling from salt spray with light grease

After using a hose clean off any contaminants with a mild detergent couplings and nozzles
in fresh water before stowing away
Hoses must be maintained and tested and records kept of these activities
Emergency parties
On ships with only one emergency party, the chief officer will usually take charge
Selection should be done on the basis of experience physical condition age specialist
knowledge
The parties should be kept together units
Each unit has specific duties and people should not deviated from them unless expressly
ordered to do so the master
Having formed the parties the next task is to ensure crews are fully trained and know their
role and responsabilities mustering arrangements and the location of equipment
,. Fire extinguishers
Water extinguisher are most common they work by cooling, reducing the temperature of
the burnig substance to a point where it can no longer burn
When using a water extinguisher, spray water
Directly onto the fire and move the jet about quickly to break up the water into droplets to
get the best cooling effect
In bulky fires such as cotton waste, break up and spread out the material to dissipate heat
and to make sure it is all wetted
Foam extinguishers work by smothering a fire , starving it of the air it needs
Which of the items listed would not usually be found on the hose marking?
 Maximum allowable working pressure

 The type of service e.g. or chemical
 Month a year of manufacture; manufacturer´s serial number
 Minimum temperature recommendations
To participate effectively in your ship´s emergency procedures you first need to:
 Be trained for emergency duties.

 understand what other energy parties are doing
 Be complete familiar with the entire set of personal equipment and duties.
 Become a member of one of the energy
Below deck, a major fire must be fought with
 smothering gas
 calcium hypochlorite
 injection of co2
 Water spray
Are the statements about dealing with container fire true or false?
 after the incident is over, the emergency suit and equipment must be
cleaned and stored safely for future use TRUE
 water accumulation from boundary cooling will be unlikely to cause a
problem FALSE
When head office become involved they will set up a communications center and
will inform
 the P&I club

 the freight forwarders
 the next port agent
 all of the above
If fire is found in a container, one of the first control measures is:
 to speed up so that the flames and smoke will be dispersed more rapidly
 to launch the lifeboats ready for abandoning the ship
 to tum the ship so that the wind blow smoke and flames away from the rest
of the ship
 to contact the shore office for advice
Heat will always travel from hotter areas to cooler ones, no matter how small the
temperature different may be. Please match each example of heat transfer with the
appropriate definition
 Direct heat transfer through a material. CONDUCTION

 Heated liquids or gases rise, carrying the heat from one area to another
CONVECTION
 Heat energy transferred by radiating through a space assign a cooking grill
RADIATION
Many things can create the heat necessary to create a fire. Of the examples given
below, witch item does not belong?
 painted surface
 friction
 electrical energy
 Chemical reactions
 Compressed gases
 Hot surfaces
What would you consider to be you most important reaction on discovering a fire?
 Closing doors and windows to remove the air supply

 Tacked the fire with the nearest fire extinguisher
 find the seat of the fire
 report it by raising the alarm
Complete the following sentences about fire extinguishers
 Water extinguishes are the most common. They work by COOLING,

REDUCIN THE TEMPERATURE OF THE BURNING SUSBTANCE TO A
POINT WHERE IT CAN NO LONGER BURN
 When using a water extinguisher, spray water directly onto the fire AND
MOVE THE JET ABOUT QUICKLY TO BREAK UP THE WATER INTO
DROPLETS TO GET BEST COOLING EFECTS
 In bulky fires such as cotton aster break up end spread out the material to
DISSIPATE HEAT AND TO MAKE SURE IT IS ALL WETTED.
 Foam extinguisher by SMOTHERING A FIRE, STARVING IT OF THE AIR
IT NEEDS
Why should a co2 extinguisher be use with caution in confined areas?
 it will increase the oxygen present in the confided area to a dangerous level
 it will not operate effectively in confined areas
 it may explode when exposed to heat
 It will displace the air and reduce the amount of oxygen available
Dry powder extinguisher a fire by chemically interfering which the process of
combustion.
Complete the following sentences;
A dry powder extinguisher acts as
 a flame inhibitor
 a cooling agent
 a smoothing agent
 A means of fuel starvitation
STS transfer operations can result in considerable freeboard differences between
the two vessels. The Steeper the orientation of the mooring lines, the LESS effective
they will be in resisting HORIZONTAL loads. Freeboard differences should be kept
to a minimum and consideration may be given to ballasting down the HIGHER ship.
A casualty has fallen from height and appears to be unconscious. What would you
do first?
 CHECK THEIR BREATHING
In hypothermia the casualty will be
 PALE, WITH A SLOW PULSE
On rescue, a hypothermic casualty is unconscious. You should
 WRAP THEM IN BLANKETS
It is true or false to state the following?
- 1) Follow the correct procedures when operating watertight doors

TRUE.
- 2) Pre-plan escape routes in case of emergency TRUE.
- 3) Ordinary prescription spectacles will afford adequate protection when
working in the engine room FALSE
Complete the following sentences by dragging the correct ending onto each one
with your mouse
- Know the location of safety EQUIPMENT IN THE ENGINE ROOM

- Use protective clothing TO PROTECT YOURSELF AGAINST CUTS,
ABRASIONS, HEAT AND CHEMICALS.
- Wear your hard hat to avoid INJURY FROM KNOCKS OR FALLING
OBJECTS
- Remove sources of potential fire DANGER BY GOOD
HOUSEKEEPING
- Clear up spills to avoid SLIPS AND FALLS
No alarm system situated in the engine room should be isolated without the
permission of the:
 CHIEF ENGINEER
Which strap should be adjusted first after donning a facemask?
 CENTRE STRAP
Which of the items of information listed does not need to be entered on an Entry
Control Board:
 AMBIENT TEMPERATURE
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the main
components of a BA set.
Most modern BA sets have an air cylinder mounted on a BACK-PLATE.

The air travels through a cylinder valve and THEN THROUGH A FIRST
stage pressure REDUCER. Next, there is a high-pressure line that takes the
air to a pressure gauge and warning whistle assembly. A low-pressure line
takes the air to a DEMAND valve which houses the first breath mechanism
and a by-pass valve. The demand valve is attached to a FACEMASK.
The by-pass valve is closed by turning it fully.
 CLOCKWISE
- You should use reference points T

- Try to remain calm T
- Keep in physical contact with a fellow team member T
- Communicate your position clearly to the Control Centre T
of BA sets.
Each time breathing apparatus has been used it must be cleaned and the
facemask DISINFECTED. A visual check should discover any DAMAGE
that may have occurred. In such cases, this must be reported to an officer
and THE BA of service. Otherwise, clean the set with LANOLIN soap and
use a disinfectant on the facemask.
Are the statements about emergency operations True or False?
- The entry party should check the door prior to entry T

- The BA team should leave the danger area when their air pressure is
down to 80 bar T
- Spare BA sets should be left in their stowage position in the event of an
emergency F
- The emergency Control Centre should be controlled by a senior officer T
What is the minimum capacity of air cylinders according to SOLAS?
 200 LITRES

 OPEN THE BYPASS VALVE
What is the safe level of oxygen in an atmosphere?
 21%
When testing a BA set before use, what is the maximum acceptable pressure drop
after the cylinder valve has been closed?
 10 BAR PER MINUTE

If, after hearing the fire alarm in the engine room, you cannot see smoke or flames
you should
 Follow fire emergency procedures.
The fixed installation system can control a fire within a short space of time. Why
should the CO2 fixed installation system be used with caution in confined areas?
 As it reduces the amount of oxygen, the engine room has to be evacuated.
To operate the Control Handle, you must:
 Remove the safety pin or pins.

What is the next step after embarking the crew in the lifeboat?
 Checking seat belts are fastened.
If the rescue boat capsizes, the largest air pocket is likely to be found near the
 Bow.
According to IMO regulations, how often should a freefall lifeboat launch take
place?
 Every six months.
Are the statements about boarding the lifeboat True or False?
T: You need to make sure that your clothing allows for full contact with the seat during the
fall.
F: You should keep your hard hat on inside the boat.
F: No lifejackets should ever be worn inside the boat.
T: If the lifeboat is not full then the crew should be distributed evenly through the boat.
After launch, which of these actions should be taken first?
 Make sure these are no injuries.
Water conducts heat away from the body:
 At more than 20 times the rate of air
 Swim on you back, rhythmic strokes.
You should check your suit´s condition:
 Once a month.
If a person spend six hours in 0°C water when wearing an immersion suit, their body
temperature should not drop:
 By more than 2°C.
During each inspection, the zip should be rubbed on both sides with:
 The lubricant recommended by the manufacturer.

Once the partially enclosed lifeboat has been lowered to the embarkation deck and
securely bowsed, what is the next step in the launching procedure?
 The person in charge and lifeboat crew enters the boat and prepares to
board the evacuees.
Which type of lifeboat is launched from a ramp?
 Freefall lifeboats.
When getting clear of the stricken ship, what is the recommended procedure?
 Make sure the lifeboat is half a mile upwind from the ship.
At what point during the launch procedure are the doors and hatches secured on a
fully enclosed lifeboat?
 Once everyone is inside.
Why is it important for evacuees to board freefall lifeboat extremely carefully?
 Because it is in the stowed position and therefore at a step angle.
Which throw overboard liferafts have hydrostatic release?
 All liferafts except the ones stored forward.
What is the first action when boarding a throw overboard liferaft?
 Check the liferaft for leaks and damage.
What should you do if water enters the life rafts?
 Bail it out as soon as possible, using the baller and/or sponge.
Are the statements about liferaft operations True or False?
T: The priority after the liferaft is to get clear of the ship using any means possible.
F: Marine Evacuation System has the disadvantage that evacuees may have to enter the
water before getting into the liferaft.
F: Once a throw overboard liferaft is in the water, you should ring the embarkation ladder.
As long as there are no obvious faults present, hoses:

 Should be retired at an age that is determined in consultation with the hose
manufacturer
During cargo transfer operations al access to the accommodation should be kept:
 closed
Which stage and Check List requires agreement on the transfer area:
 Check List 1
Are the statements about fenders True or False?
F: Primary fenders are used to protect the bow and the stern of each ship if they go out of
the position
F: Secondary fenders are positioned alongside the entire body of the ship
T: Likely contact points should be identified on the bow and stem of each ship and fenders
positioned accordingly.
T: It is an advantage for secondary fenders to be light in weight
Which of the statements about mooring procedures is NOT correct?
 All mooring lines should be made of the same material.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the possible
consequences of failing to comply with the regulations in force
 Failure to comply may lead to penalties and loss of revenue for the shipping
company. The vessel may be required to retain her ballast and load less
cargo. The ship may not be allowed to dock or may be forced to go out to
sea and exchange her ballast water. There could be the risk of a heavy fine
or even imprisonment.
The IMO has adopted a set of guidelines for the management of ballast water. At
present, these are:
 voluntary
The current, recommended method of ballast water management is:
 Exchange
Is the statements about engine room watch keeping TRUE or FALSE?
T: You should always check local equipment gauges to ensure that remote gauges are
giving you correct reading
Which of the symptoms listed would NOT normally be one of the physical effects of
stress?
 Eyesight blurs
When conducing an emergency drill it is generally not necessary to hold a debrief

afterwards
 False
What is the golden rule when thinking about calling the Master in an emergency?
 If you’re thinking about calling the Master , call the Master
Can you name one of the chief qualities of situational leadership?
 It works in most environments for most people
Which of the items listed is NOT an essential component of good resource

management?
 A strong sense of hierarchy
What type of situational leader would allow the team to allocate task and process?
 Supporting leader
The procedures for dealing with cargoes classified as Dangerous Goods can be
found in:
 The MFAG and EMS sections of the IMDG Code supplement
The main objective of boundary cooling is to:
 Limit the spread of fire from container to container
Which stage and check list requires agreement on the language to be used during
the operation
 check list 2
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about risk assessment.
As a minimum, the risk assessment should:
- identify the hazards associated with the operation
- assess the risks according to the probability and significance.
- identify the means by which to control de risks
-state plans for recovery in the event of a loss of control
Which of the items listed is NOT relevant when agreeing information about cargo
handling compatibility
 The number of crew on board
Are the statements about mooring lines true or false?
- Ships equipped with steel wire mooring lines should fit soft rope tails to these mooring
lines (true)
- Rope tails should have a dry breaking strength up to 15% greater than that of the wires to
which they are attached (false)
- heaving lines and rope messengers should be made of material which can float (true)
- Crew should always be warned before lines are fired. (True)
Which of these statements about underway transfer is correct?

 all the above are correct
What should be the minimum length of a rope tails?
 11 meters
How frequently during the transfer should the rate be checked and logged
 every hour
Are the statements about unmooring procedures true or false?
- The stern lines should usually be let go first (false)
- Communications between mooring gangs need to be established and the method of

disengagement agreed (true)
-after disengaging, neither ship should attempt to stern of fall astern until both ships are
well separated (true)
- All cargo manifolds and cargo hoses must be securely blanked (true)
Which of the actions listed may need to be taken, or considered, in the event of any
emergency arising?
 all above
Which of these statements about manoeuvring is correct?
 no engine movement should be made unless the master of the manoeuvring

ship advises it
Which stage and check list requires agreement on the initial cargo transfer rate
 check list 4
What should be the maximum interval between the broadcasting of navigational

warnings while the operation is in progress?
 4 hours
Are the statements about communications procedures true or false?
- Hand-held radios should be issued on both ships only if there is a language problem
between the crews (false)
- Fixed VHF radios should not usually be used for regular operations (true)
- If communication breakdown occurs during an approach manoeuvre, the manoeuvre

should be aborted (true)
The IMO guidelines contain a specimen format for a ballast water reporting form.
Which of the items of information listed does this form contain?
 All the above
The IMO guidelines state that every ship that carries ballast water must have a
ballast water management plan
 true
In the black sea, the comb jelly became a major contributor to the rapid decline in
the catch of which particular fish
 anchovy
Are the statements about treatment methods true or false?
- The use of clean, treated fresh water for ballast solves the potential problems with ballast
water (true)
- The problems with mechanical treatment of ballast water are expense and maintenance
of the filters (true)
- heating the water or bombarding it with ultra-violet light or ultra-sound will kill everything
in the ballast water (false)
Which of the items listed is not included in the section of the IMO guidelines dealing
with ships operational procedures.
 training and education
Which of the factors listed is NOT relevant for port state authorities when
implementing their ballast water management programmes and assessing risks.
 The type of vessel concerned.
Exchanging ballast water at sea can affect the trim and DRAFT. The engine intakes may
come out of the water. It can set up STRESSES in the hull leading to structural FAILURE
and could cause a loss of stability. Even in calm weather, you must carry out this
procedure with extreme caution.
For a ship to operate with UMS notation it must be fitted with fully operational fire
protection systems with panels fitted:
 in engineers cabins and public areas
Which gas, requiring careful personnel safety precautions, is often found in quite
high levels in crude oil cargo vapours?
1) CO2
2) N2
3) HCl
4) H25
Are the statements concerning safety procedures during cargo operations True or
False?
1) A faulty circuit signalled by earth indicator lights should be immediately

traced and isolated. True
2) The potential for arcing between the two ships can be eliminated by
switching on cathodic protection systems. False
3) All ship to ship mooring lines should be insulated either by using the natural
properties of soft mooring lines or by attaching a soft rope tail of a suitable
length. True
4) Portable cellular telephones can usually be used safely during cargo
transfer. False
Are the statements about cargo transfer True or False?
1) Cargo transfer should begin at the agreed slow rate to enable the receiving
ship to check that the cargo pipeline system is correctly set. True
2) A materials safety data sheet should be provided for the receiving vessel
giving details of the particular properties of the cargo. True
3) Careful control of pump speeds will help prevent pressure surges. True
4) All ballast should be discharged overboard to reduce changes in freeboard.
False
Are the statements about ship and cargo handling compatibility True or False?
1) Only ships whose bridge wings are wider than the greatest ship’s breadth
should be used in STS transfer operations. False
2) Hose supports on both ships must be strong enough to prevent charging
damage to hoses. True
3) Both vessels should have manifold arrangements which comply with OCIMF
Recommendations. True
What do the letters MBR stand for?
1) Maximum bending radius

2) Maximum ballasting rate
3) Minimum bending radius
4) Manifold bore ratio
Are the statements about ballast water exchange True or False?
1) Ballast water exchange at sea can have a serious effect on the ship’s
structural integrity. True
2) Sequential exchange of ballast water at sea must be carried out by
emptying pairs of tanks at a time to maintain ship’s trim and stability. True
3) Correctly carried out, ballast water exchange at sea is a complete solution to
the problem. False
4) The Master decides precisely how exchange at sea should be carried out.
False
On any ship certified for unmanned machinery operation, within any 24 hour
period the machinery spaces must be manned for a minimum of:
1) 4 hours
2) 8 hours
3) 10 hours
4) 12 hours
Before you enter the engine room at the start of your duty period, you should:
1) Tell the Chief engineer.

2) Make sure the air conditioning is on.
3) Activate the dead man’s alarm
4) Ensure you have your life jacket with you
Before anyone starts work under a permit to work procedures, what is the first,
critical step?
1) The site is prepared in what is called the locked out procedure

2) A site inspection is made by an independent officer
3) The permit is placed somewhere in plain view
4) The crew don the relevant PPE
As duty engineer, what is the first thing you should do when you come on duty?
1) Activate the dead man’s alarm

2) Verify that the electrical generation plant and distribution system is running
properly.
3) Complete a round of the engine room before the mooring meeting
4) Inform the bridge of your intended entry and receive an acknowledgement
Is the statement about resource management True or False?
1) Leadership and management skills are essentially the same. False

What qualities do you need for a really effective drill?
1) Avoiding routine and creating surprise.

2) Working with others to build teamwork
3) Taking it seriously
4) Careful planning
5) All the above
The main objective of boundary cooling is to:
1) Limit the spread of fire from container to container

2) Reduce the amount of smoke generated
3) Stop the container exploding
4) Help the firefighting team to stay cool
The extent and possible source of the fire is assessed by
1) The first officer

2) The Master
3) The support team
4) The emergency team
Are the statements about dealing with a container fire true or false?
1) The cargo involved or stowed in the vicinity must be identified as quickly as

possible. True
2) Boundary cooling from above will be required. False
3) The availability of a charging compressor for BA cylinders is vital. True
What is a “hot work” permit?
1) A permit allowing seafarers to work on deck under direct sunlight

2) A permit allowing galley staff to start up the galley equipment
3) A permit allowing engineers to fire up the main boiler
4) A permit issued when laid down procedures controlling hot work are in place
and obeyed
What is the basic principle of fire prevention?
1) Never to smoke in bed

2) Remove one spaces well ventilated throughout the vessel
3) To make an inspection of the vessel on completion of your period on duty\
4) Keep all spaces well ventilated throughout the vessel
Is there a connection between “good housekeeping” and fire prevention on board
ship?
1) No, the two are not related

2) Yes, good housekeeping is an important element in the fire prevention
check list on board ship
3) No, it is not related to a potential heat energy source
4) Rubbish is not problem as long as it is kept neatly on board
Some useful terms…
The temperature at which a material produces enough flammable vapour for it to fish if
exposed to an ignition source. Flashpoint
The temperature at which a material will continue to burn when ignited. Ignition
temperature
The temperature at which a material temperature will spontaneously combust, self-ignition

temperature
Material temperature undergoes a chemical change which result in combustion auto

ignition
/Complete the following sentences
1. Dirty waste, rags, sawdust and other rubbish especially if contaminated whit
oil. Generate heat spontaneously which may be sufficient to ignite
flammable mixtures
2. Oil soaked materials should not be stowed in close proximity to oil or paints,
or on or near to steam pipes
3. Materials In ships stores including lines blankets and similar absorbent
material are also liable to ignite by spontaneous combustion if damp or
contaminated by oil
4. If oil has soaked into absorbent materials, they should be cleaned and dried,
or destroyed
Why is the risk of a fire in the engine room potentially so great?
1. Because it is a hot place

2. Because it contains air, fuel and heat
3. Because it contains air, fuel and heat
4. Because ventilations are constantly supplying fresh air.
What are the three elements found in the “Fire Triangle”?
1. Fuel, water and flame

2. Air, Flame and heat
3. Fuel, air and heat
4. Fuel air and flame
Spontaneous combustion may occur when
1. A person smokes in bed and the lighted cigarette

2. Sparks escaping from the funnel or other engine exhaust
3. Incorrect procedures are followed the sequence of lighting a boiler\
4. A Dirty waste, rags and other rubbish, especially if contaminated by oil, are
left lying about.
Witch of the impurities listed may prevent the OWS or the OCM from working
properly?
 All the above

Why are heating coil used in the bilge holding tank and the separator?
 It encourages as much separation as possible before the separator is turned

on
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the paragraph on separation
Discharge of oil from the top of the separator and water from the bottom is
controlled by solenoids- capacitance probes. The oil is pumped to a waste oil tank
while the water which still contains more than 15 ppm of oil, is drawn into a
coalescer
How dos the oil content monitor work?
 An infra-red lights is passed through the liquid onto a detector

Is the following statement about oil water separation True or False?
 False
Is the following statement about the operation of the ows and OCM true or false?
 True
 The master
Witch MARPOL Annex relates to the carriage of oil cargoes?
 I
Is the following statement about the completion of the ORB True or false?
True there should be no blank lines in the record book
Is the following statement about record keeping True or False?

False Bunker transfers do not need to be included in the ORB
True the tank description must match those used in the IOPP from A
For how long after the date of the last entry must the oil record book be kept?
 3 years
Witch of the areas listed is not a special area for oil pollution as defined in Annex I?
 The Caspian Sea

Is the following statement about the completion of the ORB true or False
False Mistakes should be erased or blanked out with TIpex
What is the minimum gross tonnage for ships other than tankers that requires an
ORB (oil record book) to be kept?

What is the maximum permitted oil concentration when discharging oily water
through the separator?

True during any discharge of oily water overboard the ships speed must be noted
and recorded
Blige water with less than 15 ppm oil can be discharged:
 Anywhere outside the Antarctic’s Special Area

Is the following statement about the completion of the ORB True or False?
True Entries should always be made in ink
True when sludge or other oily residues are discharged ashore, a receipt must be
obtained

 All the above
It is safest for stowaways to be searched by:
 Two crew members, one to search and the other to observe
It is important to take possession of any papers or documents a stowaway is

carrying because:
 Identifying the stowaway makes it easier for them to be disembarked
While stowaways are on board ship they are entitled to:
 Food and water, reasonable accommodation , a lifejacket and instruction in

safety procedures
Who pays all the costs of keeping stowaways and returning them to their country of
origin?
 The ship´s owners or managers
Stowaways should never, ever, be allowed to:
 Work
At what points should a stowaway be told they will be repatriated?
 As late in the process as possible
When a ship docks with stowaways on board, who decides whether they can
disembark?
 The port immigration authority
When a ship dock with stowaways on board, who decides whether they can
disembark?
 The international maritime organization
What is UKMTO?
 An office in Dubai to which the ship should report when entering the HRA
Most pirate attacks take place:
 Off the coasts of west and east Africa

Which of those listed is listed is NOT a service offered by unarmed guards?
 Firing warming shots into the air with dummy rifles
Is the following statement about citadels true or false?
If a citadel or a team of armed guards is used, it is not necessary to implement the other
protective measures
False
What form of lighting should the ship leave on at night while transiting a pirate
zone?
 Navigation lights only
Is the following statement about security measures true or false?
A piracy drill should be held as soon as the ship is inside a pirate zone.
 False
Which of those listed is not a fundamental requirement of BMP?
 Use cctv
Is this statement about security procedures true or false?
Companies must ensure that a UKMTO vessel position reporting form-initial has been
submitted to MSC-HOA before the ship enters the HRA as defined in BMP
 False
Is this statement about security procedures true or false?
If using razor wire, this should be loosely attached so that you can take it off quickly after
use.
 False
The best positions for CCTV are to cover the poop deck, the rear of the bridge and the
safe muster point or citadel.
 True
At what points should you secure the citadel, if you have one?
 When everyone, including the armed guards, is inside

A safe muster point is:
 A safe area low in the ship that offers the maximum physical protection.
Is the following statement about citadels true or false?
A citadel is a space with good ballistic protection, no access through an external hatch or
door and from which the ship can be controlled.
 True
When did Somali pirates begin attacking international ships?
 In the early 1990s
What is MSC-HOA?
 An EU NAVFOR centre that provides 24 hour manned monitoring of vessels

If suspicious activity is spotted, the master must raise the alarm and report immediately to
UKMTO/IMB and the shipping company.
 True
Ideally, at what points should the risk assessment for transiting the pirate zone take
place?
 At the point of charter or fixing of the voyage
 The master
Are the statements about incinerator caused by overloading?
1) Incinerator overheating is commonly caused by overloading TRUE

2) Most waste and garbage has the same calorific value
FALSE
3) If the incinerator chamber is overloaded the contents will go on burning even
though the burners have shut down
TRUE
For how long after the day of the last entry must the oil record book be kept?
 3 years
Which MARPOL annex relates to the discharge of garbage?
 V
Information about the maximum weight and volume per charge recommended for
your incinerator can be found in:
 The manufacture’s manual
For how long after the day of the last entry must the garbage record book be kept?
 2 years
MARPOL annex V applies to:
 All ships
Are the statements about the incineration true or false?
1) Nothing else should be burned at the same time as plastics TRUE

2) It is dangerous to try and incinerate aerosol cans TRUE
3) Small batteries from touche and the like can be burnt safely FALSE
What is the minimum distance a ship must be from land before it is allowed to
discharge comminuted and disinfected sewage?
 3 nautical miles
Very rarely, someone may have to go inside the plant for maintenance, if so:
 A proper risk assessment should be undertaken first
Which is the final stage of treatment in an extended aeration plan?
 Chlorination
Why are anaerobic bacteria not desirable in a sewage system?
 They can produce toxic or flammable gases
Extended aeration sewage treatment plants make use of:
 Aerobic bacteria
Which of the items listed should not be put into lavatories on board?
 All the above
Which MARPOL annex relates to the sewage system?
 IV
What is the minimum distance a ship must be from land before it is allowed to
discharge untreated sewage?
 12 nautical miles
Which country, mentioned in the video, insists n chlorination?
 Korea
Why are domestic cleaners used on shore not suitable for cleaning toilets on
board?
 They would kill the bacteria on which the plant depends
MARPOL annex IV applies to ships below 400 gross tons if they are certified to carry
more tan:
 15 people
Are the statements about plant maintenance true or false?
1) It is important to check and maintain the level of the tablets in the chlorinator
TRUE
2) The integrity of the pipe work should be checked regularly
TRUE
3) Cabin ventilation is not affected by the sewage plant at all
FALSE
What is the minimum gross tonnage for ships other tan tankers that requires an
ORB to be kept?
Is the following statement about record keeping true or false?
During any discharge of oil water overboard the ship’s speed must be noted and recorded
TRUE
Is the following statement about the completion of the ORB true or false?
Mistakes should be erased or blanked out with tipex FALSE

Is the following statement about record keeping true or false?
When sludge or other oily residues are discharged ashore, a receipt must be obtained
TRUE
1. A vertical spindle extends up through the hook housing, with its hook tail
conical in shape.
a. FALSE
2. Moving a lever inside the boat rotates the spindle of both hooks
simultaneously.
a. TRUE
Which legislation specifies all of the characteristics and competencies require by
members of rescue craft crews?
 ISM Code
 SOLAS
 STCW
 MARPOL
For Fast Rescue Boats (FRBs), as defined by SOLAS, which of the following is a
mandatory requirement?
 A Certificate of Proficiency for the coxswain

 Navigation and radio aids, including an EPIRB
 A first aid outfit
 Immersion suits to be worn by all crew members
 All the above
Are these statements about rescue boat operation True or False?
1. When picking up a casualty from the water the final approach should be
always be head to wind
a. TRUE
2. When picking up a casualty from the water, they should be brought on board
from the weatherside.
a. TRUE
3. If it is necessary to cross the waves when running before the weather,
increase power when going up the wave and reduce it when going down the
back.
a. TRUE
4. Searches are best carried out by the rescue boats
a. FALSE.
When positioning the rescue boat for recovery of a casualty to a helicopter, the FRB
will be requested by the helicopter pilot to keep underway with the wind
approximately.
 30° on the port bow
 30° on the starboard bow
 60° on the starboard bow
Water conducts heat away from the body:
 At the same rate as air.

 At twice the rate of air.
 At more than 20 times the rate of air
The suit’s buddy live is to:
 Help attach you to the life raft

 Act as a reflective string which will be highly visible from the air.
 Prevent you from drifting away from other crew members
Death generally occurs when the body temperature reaches:
 35°C
 30°C
 26°C
Are these statements about lifeboat operations true or false?
 All on-load release systems must have built in safeguards against early
release.
o TRUE
 When the boat is at safe distance from the ship, the painter should be
released.
o TRUE
 A freefall boat should be abandoned if the engine does not start
a. FALSE
The shelter on partially enclosed lifeboats are created by:
 Rigid covers
 Folding canopies
 A combination of rigid covers and folding canopies.
 A fiberglass shell that is operated electronically and can cover up to 80%
of the boat.
Accidents can result from improperly reset on/offload release mechanisms. Which
of the actions listed to avoid this happening does NOT belong on the list?
 Make yourself fully aware of the paint coating required and grease all
moving parts.
 Check the manufacturer’s handbook on proper use of the mechanism.
 Make yourself fully aware of the correct procedures.
 Make yourself fully of the safety check.
 Make yourself fully aware of all other launching equipment.
If your lifeboat has an internal air supply, how long will the constant flow of air last?
 A minimum of 2 minutes
How are throw overboard liferafts inflated?
 By releasing the Senhouse slip

 By opening the valise.
 By using the pump supplied.
 By giving a strong pull on the painter at is full extent
Why is it important to keep the bowsing lines within the raft?
 So that they can be used to tie the rafts together when the raft is clear.
 So that they can be used to tie evacuees together if the liferaft should sink.
 So that the davit hook can be raised ready for the next launch.
 SO that they will be prevented from snagging and tipping up the raft while it
is being lowered.
When launching a davit-launched liferaft and you has pulled the liferaft shackle out of the
canister, what should you do next?
 Let it go.
 Hook it on to the davit.
 Hook it on the bowsing line.
 You should never pull the liferaft shackle out of the canister.
How many people are normally needed to right a 25 person liferaft?
 1
 2
 3
 25 person liferafts are too heavy to right.
Where can you find out detailed information about liferaft equipment and operation?
 From the ship’s Safety Management System.
 From the manufacturers’ websites.
 From the Muster List.
 From the SOLAS training manual.
A casualty with a severe bleed at the right wrist is unconscious. What position
would you place them in?
 In the recovery position on the right side.

 In the shock position with right arm elevated
 Laid down flat on the deck.
 In the recovery position on the left side.
You are in a safe environment. What is the first action you should take on
discovering a casualty?
 Place the casualty in the recovery position.

 Shout at the casualty as you approach them to provoke a response.
 Feel for a pulse at the neck
 Check breathing.
The immediate treatment for a hot burn is to:
 Cool the area with water

 Remove charred clothing
 Apply antiseptic cream
 Apply a sterile dressing
During resuscitation, the rate of compression should be:
 60 per minute.
 80 per minute.
 100 per minute.
 120 per minute.
 Ask them if they are choking.

 Do 5 back slaps.
 Do 5 abdominal thrusts.
 Open their mouth to check for any blockage.
A casualty in shock has:
 Pale clammy skin and slow pulse.

 Pale dry skin and fast pulse.
 Pale clammy skin and fast pulse.
 Pale dry skin and slow pulse.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the paragraph on coalescer
operation.
The droplets of oil in the water are now so small that frictional force on their surfaces
prevents them from rising. To solve this problem the oily water is forced through a filter.
The water passes easily, but he oil droplets coalesce-growing larger in the process. This
enables them to separate.
Which of the sources listed is not one that is a concern in terms of oily water
pollution?
 A hose bursting
 A flange leaking during bunkering
 Galley wastes
 None of the above
Is the following statement about the operation of the OWS and OCM True or False?
Before starting separation, the OCM should be zero tested with clean water True
How does the oil content monitor work?
 An infra-red light is passed through the liquid onto a detector.

 An ultra-violent spectrophotometer is used.
 A colour monitoring strip is dipped in the tank and analysed.
Is the following statement about oily water separation True or False?
Equipment security is not a problem except on passenger ships. FALSE
Oil and water separate because of differences in:
 Viscosity
 Specific gravity
 Temperature
 All the above
Why are heating coils used in the bilge holding tank and the separation?
 It stops the oil water mixture solidifying

 It helps some of the oil to evaporate
on.
For how long after the date of the last entry must be the oil record book be kept?
 1 years
 2 years
 3 years
What is the maximum permitted oil concentration when discharging oily water
through the separator?

Bilge water with less than 15ppm oil can be discharged:
 anywhere
 anywhere outside the special areas
 nowhere at sea
 anywhere outside the Antarctic special area
Is the following statement about the completion of the ORB True or False?
Mistakes should be erased or blanked out with Tipex. False
Which MARPOL Annex relates to the carriage of oil cargoes?
 II
 VI
 I
 IV
1) When sludge or other oily residues are discharged ashore, a receipt must be obtained.
TRUE
 The date and time

 The category of garbage
 an estimate of the quantity in cubic metres
 all the a above
For how long after the date of the last entry must the garbage record book be kept?
 1 years
 2 years
 3 years
The bottom platform of the accommodation ladder should be angled to:
 10”
 20”
 Not angled at all – completely flat
 55°
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about risk
assessment.
The Risk involved in operating and using an accommodation ladder, gangway or pilot
ladder must be assessed, to minimise the likelihood of accidents. Whether at sea or in
port, it is good seamanship to make sure that the correct Procedures and safety measures
have been applied. Risk assessment is an ongoing requirement to ensure that correct
procedures are established and followed.
Are these statements about lifting dos and dons False or False?
 At the start of the operation, you should lift he load in a smooth continuous
movement without stopping. False
 Never allow a load to be lifted over other people. True
 You should only lift people in a properly certified personnel basket. True
Who should keep records of lifting equipment?
 The chief officer

 The safety officer
 A responsible crew member
 The bosun
 Drag the correct word from the list to complete the sentences about the
crane and equipment operator.
The operator should check safety devices fitted to lifting Appliances before work starts and
at regular intervals thereafter to ensure that they are working properly. The Controls of
lifting appliances should be permanently and legibly marked with their Function and their
operating directions shown by Arrows or other simple means.
What is the recommended minimum number of people to be involved in a lift?

 Two People
 Three people
 Four people
 Five people
How often should a lifting appliance or item of loose lifting gear be inspected?
 Every year
 Every two years
 Every three years
 Every five years
All Lifting equipment should be maintained
 When it needs attention.

 When it is broken
 Once year
 O the manufacturers recommendations.
Which of these statements is correct?
 SWL must never be exceeded on any piece of lifting equipment

 It is OK as long as you do no exceed the SWL by more than 10%
 It is OK as long as you do not exceed the SWL by more than 20%
 SWL can be exceeded if the person in charge of the lift gives you the
authority to do so.
Which of these is usually he best of method for the signaller to communicate to

other crew members involved in the lifting operation?
 Flags
 Walkie-talkie
 Hand Signals
 A clear voice
Each piece of equipment for lifting must have a certificate. How long should that
certificate be for?
 One year
 Two years
 Three years
 Five years
Who should be in charge of a lifting operation?
 The captain
 Crane operator
 Appointed signaller
 Designated team leader
Are these statements about lifting True or False?
1) When lifting a load, SWL is not affected by angle at which slings are used.
FALSE
2) When carrying out risk assessment for lifting a load, you should check
maintenance records TRUE
3) Everyone involved in a lift should be wearing gloves. TRUE
4) The first action before carrying out a lift is to check weather and sea
conditions. FALSE
Where should lifting appliances and associated equipment be stored?
 Near the place last used

 In a dedicated central location
 Each piece near the place it is likely to be most used
 It does not matter as long as it is properly logged
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about typical causes
of lifting accidents.
There might be poor Communication between key Personnel. Someone might have
Disabled and end stopper, or a level switch, perhaps, or another safety Device on the
lifting equipment. Or maybe someone has not checked that the Load Does not exceed
the SWL of the gear.
What does SWL stand for?

 Short working life
 Safe working load
 Soft working load
 Sequential weight lift
How does the FAL Convention define a stowaway?
1) Anyone who is on board without the permission of the Master or owner, but
has not paid for their passage.
2) anyone who hides on board without the permission of the master or owner,
and who is still on board after the ship has left port
3) Anyone who is on board after the ship has left port, but does not have the
correct documents, such as a passport, visa, or health certificates.
4) Anyone who hides on board without the permission of the master or owner,
and intends to remain on board after the ship has left port.
Who has overall responsibility for preventing stoways getting on board when a ship
in port?
 The harbor authorities

 The agent
 The ships master and crew
 The owners
When is the best time to begin to prevent stowaways getting on board?
 Before the ship arrives at a high-risk port.

 While the ship is in a high-risk port
 Just before the ship sails from a high-risk port.
 Before the ship arrives at a low-risk port
If stowaways are found on board while the ship is in port, who should the maser
inform?
 The company security officer (CSO)

 The ships agent
 The P&I club representative
 The flag state
 All the above
If stowaways are found while the ship is still in port, what is the Masters best course
of action?
 Sail on schedule, even if the stowaways are still on board
 Refuse to sail until the port authorities take the stowaways off.
 Consult with the company security officer and the ships owners or managers
 Negotiate with the stowaways to persuade them to leave
From whom should you seek information about stowaway risk at a particular port?
 The P&I club

 The local agent
 Your CSO
 The port authority
 All the above
If stowaways are found on board after the ship has left port, who should the master
inform first?
 All the above

 The company’s agent at the last port of call
 The company security officer
 The P&I club
 Just before the boat reaches the water

SOLAS specifies that it must be possible to evacuate a ship within:
 30 minutes.
How many people are normally needed to right a 25 person liferaft?
 1
Your casualty has an arterial bleed at the wrist. The first aid treatment is to:
 Press directly on the wound.

breathing?
 10 seconds.
When a casualty has a fractured base of skull they may have:

 Blood stained fluid leaking from the ears or nose.
 Pale skin, noisy breathing and fast pulse.

A casualty has swallowed cleaning fluid. You should:
 Give them sips of water to drink.

Which of the symptoms listed could indicate a spinal injury?
 Any of the above.

with your mouse.
Oily rags are dangerous if left lying about.

Safety helmets should be worm in the engine room when there is a risk of
head injury.
Spilled oil should always be cleared up immediately.
Good engine room housekeeping is essential as a precaution against fire in
the engine room.
If provided, the lifting handles should be used when a floor plate is removed.
The decision and the suitability of any person to undertake electric arc welding
should be taken by:
 The senior officer in charge.
SAFETY SIGNS: Match the symbol against the meaning.
Prohibition – Do not…
Warning – Danger.
Mandatory - Must do…
Emergency escape, First aid and safe Condition - The safe way…
Fire equipment – location or use of fire equipment.
Are the statements about preparing for Hot Work on pipe work and valves True or
False?
Pipelines and valves, which are involved in Hot Work, should be detached
from the system. TRUE.
Any pipelines and valves not involved in the Hot Work can be ignored.
FALSE.
Heating coils should be opened, flushed, and inerted prior to Hot Work.
TRUE.
The item to be worked on should be cleaned and gas freed to “safe Hot Work
standards”. TRUE.
You have to arrange for Hot Work to be undertaken in an enclosed space. Complete
the following sentences.
The enclosed space must be thoroughly ventilated to ensure that the oxygen
level reads 21% by volume.
Before entry, the enclosed space must always be tested to ensure there are
no flammable gases present above 1% LFL.
While the Hot Work is in progress ventilation must continue.
Areas adjacent to the enclosed space must be made gas free to Hot Work
standards or kept inerted or filled with water.
All interconnecting pipes to other compartments should be flushed through
with water, drained, vented and insolated from the compartment where Hot
Work is to be carried out or inerted if this is not possible.
Are the statements about fire alarm/fire detection systems during Hot Work True or
False?
These systems should be shut down before any welding begins. TRUE
When systems are disabled, other crew members must be informed. TRUE
Alarms should not be shut down. After all, what are they for? FALSE
 2:30
 A shocked causality who is thirsty may be given a drink of water F
 It is ok to just do chest compressions during resuscitation rather than compressions

and ventilations T
 non-stick and sealed with top edge open
 non stick and sealed with bottom edge open
 dressing pad secured on all sides
 dressing pad secured with bottom edge open

Are the following statements true or false?
1) Chemicals should always be handled with the utmost care true
2) Manufacturers advice on the correct use of chemicals should always be

followed true
3) Domestic chemical cleaning agents are harmless false
4) Chemicals should not be mixed unless it is know that dangerous chemical

reactions will not be caused true
Which of those listed is not one of the general safety management objectives of the
ism code?
 To specific who is competent to undertake hazardous procedures.

Are the statements about the functions of fire watch true or false?
1) They must attend throughout the work with adequate portable fire fighting equipment
true
2) They must keep an eye on any personnel who may enter the area carrying flammable
material true
3) They should wait for ten minutes after the hot work is completed so that any
smouldering can be detected and dealt with immediately false
Special safety precautions are required when carrying out welding or cutting. Match
the opening phrases with an appropriate ending to define some of these safety
measures
1) When changing electrodes the electrode holder must be isolated from the supply
2) When gas welding the operator must ensure that back-pressure valves operate
correctly
3) When arc welding the operator must ensure no water can reach the area of work
4) When arc welding operation should always insulate themselves from the work and
ground by using dry insulation
5) Ideally gas bottles should be kept isolated on the weather deck with hoses laid to the
work
Area.
Prior to donning the BA the first breath mechanism should be:
 closed
What is the minimum percentage full that BA set should be used?
 80%
Are the statements about emergency procedures true or false?
1) The emergency control centre should be set up as far from the emergency situation as
possible false
2) Communications form the BA set wearer to the control centre should be made in
English only false
3) Communications from the BA set wearer to the control centre should be spoken as
quickly as possible to conserve air false
Which of the factors listed is not likely to affect the amount of the time an individual
can work with
 time of day
of BA sets
Each time breathing apparatus has been used it must be cleaned the facemask
disinfected. A visual check should discovery any damage that may be occurred. In such
cases, this must be reported to an officer and the BA set taken out of service. Otherwise,
clean the set with innate soap and use a disinfectant on the facemask
When positioning the rescue boat for recovery of a casualty to a helicopter, the FRB
will be requested by the helicopter pilot to keep underway with the wind
approximately:

Draw the words from the list to complete the sentences about drills and training
exercises
A drill is a recognised procedure carried out within a realistic time frame, with safety being
the priority. A training exercise is a recognised procedure carried out for training, which
can be stopped to explain detail. Safety is the priority.
SOLAS requires that the lifeboat and the launching arrangements should be
chequed:
 Weekly
Lifejackets should be:
 Put on over the immersion suit

Which of the instructions about putting your immersion suit in its bag is not
correct?
 Fold the arms on to the chest

Accidents can result from improperly reset on/offload release mechanism. Which of
the actions listed to avoid this happening does not belong on the list?
 Make yourself fully aware of the point coating required and grease all
moving parts.
What is the first action in launching a davit-launched liferaft?
 Remove the ship’s side rails.
As evacuees enter the liferaft, the supervising crew members sitting at the entrance
should?
 Direct one evacuee to the left and one to the right, and so on.
Once the inflation of the davit- launched liferaft is complete, what should the
 To pull the liferaft in tight so that it can be made fast, ready for boarding
 When the master of their deputy gives the order.

Arterial blood is?
 Bright red and spurting
A casualty is placed in the recovery position:
 To maintain the airway

The severity of a burn is assessed by:
 Its depth and its area.

The casualty´s palm is considered to be:
 1% of the total body Surface area.

 True
A sprain is an injury to:
 Ligament
When a casualty has a dislocated shoulder you must:
 Tie the arm to the side of body.

Which of the injuries listed is best treated using an elevation sling?
 Dislocated elbow
of their chest?
 Sitting up and leaning towards the left.

 Noisy breathing with strong and slow pulse.

A casualty has a chemical splash in the eye. You should:
 Wash the eye out with the casualty lying down.

A casualty has a Wood splinter in their eye. How long do you take to wash it out?
 At least 15 minutes
A casualty has an abdominal wound and bowel can be seen in the wound. What
action would you take?
 Place a damp dressing lightly over the wound.

If a casualty has been trapped by crushing of their leg the rescuer should:
 Not release them if trapped for longer than 15 minutes.
What is the process called that can allow one wrong assumption to be made which
leads onto another until a particular view is created?
 Error chain
What is the main aim when tackling a container fire?
 To cool it dawn and keep it cool

The hazards presented by flammable gases are the same as those of vapour given off- by
low fire
A leaking gas will either disperse-upwards or depending on its vapour duality
A leaking gas may find a remote source of ignition and amy- a flame back to the source of
the leak
What type of extinguisher is most suitable for dealing with fires involving
 Water extinguisher
Regular fire drills must be held. They must be taken seriously and must include everyone
on board- true
Some drills should cover training in the use and maintenance of equipment-true
When holding drills take the opportunity to test communication-true
After each drill, hold a review with everyone to discuss how successful it was and how it
could be improved-true
If the fire is the engine room the second engineer will automatically take over because
intimate knowledge of the location is essential- true
On ships with only one emergency party, the chief officer will usually take charge-true
The members of the emergency parties must be frequently exchanged to ensure that all
crew members become familiar with all fire fighting duties on board ship- false
Fire prevention and maintenance of fire fighting equipment are the following
statements true or false
Always repair and replace leaking gaskets promptly-true
Check the operation of vent closures and fire doors regulary-true
It is hazardous to hold realistic fire drills in the engine room and such drills should not be
attempted-false
Machinery spaces contain all the elements needed to start a fire and sustain it. What
are these elements?
 Heat, air and fuel

What is the danger associated with thick smoke?
 It is easy to lose your bearings and move closer to danger rather than away
from it
Machinery space fires typically fall into one of five categories. Which category does
not belong in the list given below?
 Propeller shaft bearing overheating

Hoisting should be stopped
 Once the lifeboat has cleaned the water

It is statement about re-setting true or false
Any resistance felt during re-setting always be questioned and the reason established
once- true
Are these statements about re-locking the hooks true or false?
The safety pin should only be inserted when the helmsmans release handle has dropped
dawn into is stopped locked position-true
Whatever the system on your boat, the bow and Stern man should inspect and pull on the
hooks to check that they are securely locked and that the cams are correctly positioned
before reporting that the hooks are re-locked-true
What is the most important thing to know about your davit system?
 The safe recovery load permitted

Are these statements about the checks and preparations to be carried out before a
drill true or false?
The safety pins should be removed from the operating unit-false
The hooks should be fully locked behind their cam arrangements-true

You should ensure that the drain plug is screwed down-true
A fully enclosed lifeboat´s descent can be stopped at any time by:
 releasing the tension on the brake control cable
What is a SART?
 A survival craft radar transponder
What is the purpose of the hydrostatic interlock in the keel?
 It prevents release of the hooks until such time that the keel of the boat is
underwater
What are the gripes?
 They secure the lifeboats to the davits when stowed
 10 minutes and released slowly
A burn should be cooled for a minimum of:
 20 minutes
A casualty is found collapsed in an enclosed space. What should the rescuer do

first?
 Raise the alarm
Cold burns to the hands may be warmed up by being rubbed.
 False
A shocked casualty who is thirty may be given a drink of water
 False
A complicated fracture is one where there is:
 Damage to underlying tissue
In a concussed casualty you will find:
 Both of the pupil react to light

An amputated finger is to be preserved in ice. Before placing it in ice you should:
 Wrap the finger in plastic and the padding.
 Positioned sitting up and supported
If someone is suffering from hypoglycaemia, then their:
 Blood sugar is too low
A casualty with heat stroke is:
 Red with a strong pulse
When alone in the engine room you must follow:
 The notification procedures.
What must be done when machinery is not to be used?
 In all cases, warming notices must be posted at or near the controls
Is true or false to state the following?
1) Remove rings and jewerly so that they don’t become caught in moving
machinery TRUE
2) Spontaneous combustion is unlikely to occur in engine room spaces
FALSE
3) Use your ear defenders to protect your ears against noise TRUE
Who is responsible for your personal safety in the engine room?
 I am responsible for my own safety(others may also rely on you)
Why is it important to read the labels on chemical containers carefully before

opening them?
 To find out about any hazards from the contents
Normally, welding should only be undertaken when;
 A fire watch is standing by.
with you mouse.
Damaged or worn tools should not be used
The proper tool of the right size should be used
When not in use, tools should be stowed away
To avoid injury a tool in use should be directed away from the body
The use of gloves. Match each types of glove with the uses suggested.
Rubber, synthetic or PVC gloves best for handling acids, alkalis, solvents.
Leather gloves best for handling Sharp objects.
Heat resistant gloves best for handling hot objects.
To enter the water safely:
 Get as close as possible to the water then step off or use a rope or ladder
 You should use reference points True

 Try to remain calm True
 Keep in physical contact with a fellow team member True
 Communicate your position clearly to the Control Centre True
 Adjust the demand valve

 Open the bypass valve
 Close the bypass valve
Are the statements about emergency procedures True or False?
 The Emergency Control Centre should be set as far from the emergency
situation as possible. FALSE
 Communications from the BA set wearer to the Control Centre should be
made in English only. FALSE
 Communications from the BA set wearer to the Control Centre should be
spoken as quickly as possible to conserve air. FALSE
Who should check the torches and communications prior to entry?
 The officer in charge

 The BA wearer
 The Master
of BA sets.
Each time breathing apparatus has been used it must be cleaned the facemask
disinfected. A visual check should discover any damage that may have occurred. In such
cases, this must be reported to an officer and the BA set taken out of service. Otherwise,
clean the set with lanolin soap and use a disinfectant on the facemask.
Which strap should be adjusted first after donning a facemask?
 Side straps
 Rear straps
 Centre strap.
Prior to donning the BA, the first breath mechanism should be:
 Closed.
 Open
Is the following statement about working with MEWPs True or False?
 All work with MEWPs must be covered by Permit to Work.

TRUE
What type of tyre is best for use on MEWPs?
 It does not matter what type

 Pneumatic
 Foam filled
 Radial
After you have rescued a person who has fainted while in a harness, what should
you do with them?
 Lay them on their front

 Raise their knees into a sitting position
 Strap them on to a stretcher
 Lay them on their back
If the tilt sensor alarm sounds while you are working, you should:
 Lower the basket as soon as possible and move the MEWP to a more even
position.
 Speed up the job so that you finish it quickly.
 Contact the manufacturer.
 Deactivate the alarm.
 A boom type MEWP should be driven at height. FALSE

Is the following statement about operating MEWPs True or False?
 When getting out of the MEWP for any reason, you should take the key with
you. FALSE
How can you control the risk of accidents involving other people or vehicles in the
work area?
 The operator should wear high visibility clothing.

 Under no circumstances should you work from a MEWP in an area where
there are other people or vehicles.
 Outriggers should be used.
 The area should be cordoned off.
Is the following statement about safety procedures when working with MEWPs True
or False?
 When going down a ramp, you should travel in reverse. TRUE

 After use, the MEWP’s battery should be drained.

FALSE
Is the following statement about MEWPs True or False?
 MEWPs may be used for maintenance on overhead wires.

TRUE
In case of power failure, how should you lower the platform?
 By using the auxiliary power

 By moving another MEWP as close as possible and reaching over from it
 By moving a forklift truck as close as possible and reaching over from it
 By operating the manual lowering lever at the base
 If a person is crushed against an obstruction at height, the ground rescue

person should move the basket clear of the obstruction by first using the
auxiliary power. TRUE
 It is not advisable to operate a MEWP in high winds. TRUE

 You should assess the risks in travelling to and from the work area by
walking the route. TRUE
 A forklift truck is a good alternative for raising people up to do work at height

it no MEWP is available. FALSE
What type of MEWP is NOT advised for use on uneven ground?
 Scissor lift
 Vertical personnel lift
 Cherry picker
 Any type will be fine if used with outriggers
Which of the impurities listed may prevent the OWS or the OCM from working
properly?
 All the above

Why are heating coil used in the bilge holding tank and the separator?

on
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the paragraph on separation
Discharge of oil from the top of the separator and water from the bottom
is controlled by solenoids- capacitance probes. The oil is pumped to a
waste oil tank while the water which still contains more than 15 ppm of
oil, is drawn into a coalescer
How dos the oil content monitors work?
An infra-red lights is passed through the liquid onto a doctor
 True There should be no blank lines in the record book

 False Bunker transfers do not need to be included in the ORB

 True The tank description must match those used in the IOPP from A
Is the following statement about the completion of the ORB true or False
 False Mistakes should be erased or blanked out with Tipex
 True During any discharge of oily water overboard the ships speed must be
noted and recorded
 True When sludge or other oily residues are discharged ashore, a receipt
must be obtained

Drag the correct words from the list to complete the paragraph on separator
operation.
Discharge of ___oil___ from the ____top___ of the separator and ___water_____ from the
___bottom_____ is controlled by solenoids-capacitance probes. The oil is pumped to a
__waste oil_____ tank, while the water, which still contains more than 15 ppm of oil, is
drawn into a __coalescer_______.
Which of the impurities listed may prevent the OWS or the OCM from working
properly?
 all the above

If the following statements about oily water separation True or False.
The ship position at the beginning and end of a separation must be entered in the oil
record book.
 True
If the following statement about the operation of the OWS and OCM True or False?
If the separator develops a fault while in operation, it should be turned off immediately.
 True
If the following statement about oily water separation True or False.
Cleaners that contain embitters must be avoided.
 True
Is this statement about security procedures True or False?
When assessing the risk for transiting a pirate zone, you need to analyse the background
factors that could shape the situation including visibility, sea state and traffic patterns.
 True
When armed guards have been engaged, who has the over-riding authority on
board?
 The Master.
What is the IRTC?
 A corridor in the Gulf of Aden with strategically positioned naval and military
support.
When engaging in evasive manoeuvres, the aim is to:
 Keep the skiff in the aft positive pressure zone.

The exercise shown in the video is based on the ship:
 running aground
Drag the cored words from the list to complete the sentences about bunkering
procedures.
 The transfer must start at a low flow rate.

 Transfer rates will need to be carefully monitored.
 A vigilant deck watch is essential, including a regular check on the mooring
arrangements.
 Pipe work and air vents must be continually checked for oil leaks.
 Before disconnection all hoses must be drained.
Drag the correct words from the list to identify some of the key aspects of preparing
for bunkering.
 The hoses must be checked to confirm they are in good condition.

 All scuppers must be plugged.
 The piping system must be correctly lined up.
Are the statements listed true or false?
1. In real grounding, the master would instruct the engine room to stop the
engine. True
2. Depending of the circumstances, in genuine emergency, oil could get in
through seawaters intakes. True
3. Notification of the coastal state is mandatory under MARPOL if there is an
actual or probable discharge of oil. True
4. Notification of the coastal state is mandatory under MARPOL if there is
actual or probable discharge oil. False
Above what size are ships, other than oil tankers, required to have a SOPPEP?
 400 GT
Who should be responsible for dealing with the press and media?
 A responsible individual in the shore office.

Drag the correct words from the list to complete the check procedures required
 Check that the COE system has been insolated.

 Check that the risers above the cargo pumps have drained of oil.
 Check that the valves into the tanks have been opened.
 Check that the sea valve remains closed until the pump is started.
Are the statements listed true or false?
 Most marine oil spills result from oil tankers getting into difficulties. False
 The majority of spills are less than seven tones. True
 The quantities involved in bunkering operations are relatively small a so no
What is often the first sign of hydrogen sulphide (H2S) being present in a space?
 The smell of lemons.

 The smell of petrol.
 The smell of rotten eggs.
 The smell of burning.
What enclosed space hazard is caused by the rusting of metal?
 Toxic gas poisoning

 Anemia.
 Eye irritation.
 Asphyxiation.
Is the following statement about enclosed spaces True or False?

 Enclosed spaces are enclosed on all sides. False
Is the following statement about enclosed spaces True or False?
 The only task that required enclosed space entry are cleaning and
maintenance. False
What will happen if you stay in an atmosphere containing less than 6% oxygen for 4
minutes or more?
 Death.
 Muscle weakness.
 Eye disturbance.
 Nausea and vomiting.
 Because it will cause nausea.

 Because you will die from lack of oxygen.
 Because there is an explosion hazard.
 Because it will irritate your eyes.
Is the following statement about enclosed space True or False?
 All enclosed space must have clearly visible signs, indicated that they
should not be entered without the proper preparation and procedures. True
Is the following statement about enclosed space True or False?

 If you need to rescue someone from an enclosed space which has an
atmosphere that has been identified as dangerous, you must first put on a
BA (breathing apparatus) set. True
Galleys and pantries present particular fire risks. Care should be taken in particular:
 When using steel utensils.

 Whilst boiling large quantities of food.
 Prior to the serving of meals.
 To avoid overheating or spilling fat or oil.
 The statement is not correct – fire is unlikely to break out in the galley.
Are the following statements True or False?
 The health of people on board depend on the galley staff doing their job
properly. True
 Because you carry out a task every day, there is no risk of injury of the
galley. False
 Temperature control is important in the preparation of microwave packs.
True.
 You may leave the galley when food is cooking for a prolonged period of
time. False.
Complete the following sentences:
 Indiscriminate use of water in hosing down and washing equipment in the

galley can be very dangerous particularly around electric installations.
 Dry cloths or pot holders and oven gloves should always be used to handle
hot pans and dishes.
 No one should be directly in front of an oven when the door is opened.
 Catering staff should not attempt to repair electric or oil fired ranges or
microwaves ovens.
 Ranges guard rails should always be used in rough weather.
What precautions, if any, should be taken when water is used to hose down and
wash the galley?
 No precautions are necessary. Large amounts of water will help in achieving
thorough cleaning and insect/pest control.
 Indiscriminate use of water in the galley is dangerous. Power to electrical
 As long as one wears appropriate protective clothing, the practice of hosing
down with large amounts of water is correct procedure.
 The water should be cold and mixed with disinfectant so that germs will be
killed.
with your mouse.
 Use protective clothing to protect yourself again cuts, abrasions, heat and
chemicals.
 Clear up spills to avoid slips and falls.
 Remove sources of potential fire danger by good housekeeping.
 Wear your hard hat to avoid injury from knocks or falling objects.
with your mouse.
 The atmosphere is an enclosed space may lack oxygen or contain toxic

gases.
 Whenever someone enters an enclosed space there should be a back up
team standing by.
 The permit to work, or entry permit, must be authorised by an appropriate
officer.
 Before any enclosed space entry is attempted the atmosphere must be
checked.
The statements about personal protective equipment True or False.
 Use your ear defenders to protect your ears against noise. True
 Masks should be used whenever you work near dusty cargoes. True
 While working on deck no special footwear is required. False
Who is responsible for your personal safety on board?
 I am responsible for my own safety. (Others may also rely on you.)

 The master is solely responsible for the safety of persons on board.
 The ship’s safety officer is solely responsible for my safety on board.
 The superintendent is responsible for my safety.
Are the statements about possible hazards on bulk carriers True or False?
 Opening access hatches could result in the release of flammable vapours.

True
 Any work with a naked flame or with welding equipment requires the issuing
of a permit to work. True
 Opening and closing the hatch covers is not likely to create any hazards.
False
Gas leaks should be investigated by:
 The designated team.

 Authorised crew members wearing appropriate PPE.
 The safety officer.
 The master.
If you work alone, you should:
 Let someone know where you are going.

 Have a permit.
 Ask permission from your manager.
 Get on with it. It is not necessary to inform your crew members of your every
movement.
Are the statements about safety procedures True or False?
 Everyone should know the location of hazardous cargo and procedures for
dealing with it. True
 You should never smoke in cargo spaces under any circumstances. True
 When handling refrigerants such as CFCs, you should follow the safety
regulations. True
Are the statements about safety procedures True or False?
 You should consult the IMDG code for recommended procedures about
hazardous cargo. True
 Before connecting a temperature controller container to power, you should
always ensure that the power switch is on. False
 You should treat all cargo spills hazardous until you know otherwise. True
If you must be on deck in heavy weather, you should
 Wear a safety line.

 Wear protective goggles.
 Make sure someone is with you.
 Inform your supervising officer.
When checking the tops of containers for loose items, you should:
1) Get the driver to carry out the check

2) Climb up and have a look yourself
3) Give a stevedore a leg-up so that he can remove any loose item
4) Use a portable ladder and someone to hold it
Are the statements about access to the ship true or false?
1) There is a constant risk of being struck by containers being handled

either on board ship or on the dockside. (TRUE)
2) On the dockside you can use any route to your ship. (FALSE)
3) Only the cargo handlers are responsible for keeping access routes clear
of obstructions. (FALSE)
It is best to work:
1) In teams of 4.
2) On your own.
3) In Paris.
4) It does not matter how many people you work whit, as long as all are
properly trained.
If there is a container fire whit hazardous cargo, it should be dealt with by:
1) All available means and following the advice given in the IMDG code.
2) Crew members using a fire blanket.
3) Crew members using a fire extinguisher.
4) Crew members using the nearest available water supply.
Is this statement about fire prevention true or false?
1) Under certain conditions static electricity can cause sparks. (TRUE)
Is this statement about working practices true or false?
1) Only intrinsically safe equipment should be used on deck and in tanks.

(TRUE)
How long can you survive in a toxic hydrocarbon atmosphere?
1) An hour
2) 30 minutes
3) 2-3 minute
4) A few seconds
1) You should be careful when handling metal tool is because they can
generate a spark when dropped. (TRUE)
If you can smell a cargo vapour, it means that:
1) This is a normal situation on a tanker.

2) It is localized and not a problem.
3) You should carry out your work more quickly.
4) Something is wrong.
If you are carrying a cargo you are not familiar with, for your own safety you should:
1) Consult the cargo data sheets.

2) Consult your senior officer.
3) Leave the cargo well alone.
4) Look at the ship’s manual.
1) It is not your job to prevent visitors smoking in unauthorised places.

(FALSE)
If you wish to smoke, you should do so:
1) Only on the cargo deck.

2) Only in your cabin.
3) Only in the designated areas.
4) Only in the designated areas and in the open air.
When entering an unoccupied confined space, your permit to work or entry permit must be
authorised by:
1) Yourself.
2) The Master and the officer in charge
3) Nobody. You do not need one.
4) Any member of the engine room personnel.
What is the time limit for hot work?
1) Only in the designated areas and in the open air

2) 1 hour
3) 2 hours
4) The time specified in the permit to work.
Is this statement about working practices True or False?
1) Visitors to the ship can use their mobile phones in all areas away from the
cargo manifold. (FALSE)
Your main defence against injury is:
1) Your PPE.
2) Lifesaving appliances on board.
3) Keeping to company procedures.
4) Being very careful.
Is this statement about fire prevention True or False?

1) Apart from by the manifold during cargo transfer, the deck will be a vapour
free area. (FALSE)
How should visitors to the ship be processed?
1) According to procedures laid down in the ship’s manual

2) According to company procedures
3) According to ISPS procedures
4) According to ISM code procedures
If petroleum cargo gets on your skin, you should:
1) Wash it off immediately.

2) Find the first aid kid.
3) Report it to senior officer.
4) Ignore it- petroleum is harmless.
Are these statements about Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) True of false?
1) PPE is your first line of defence. (FALSE)

2) Most chemical suits protect against the vast majority of all the chemical
risks. (TRUE)
Are these statements about the pre-arrival meeting True or False?
1) The cargo emergency stopping arrangements should form part of the plan.
(TRUE)
2) The exact schedule for the transfer of toxic cargoes will be announced.
(FALSE)
Are these statements about chemical hazards True or False?
1) Caustic soda is a corrosive chemical and can burn human tissue.

(TRUE)
2) All toxic chemical circulate throughout the body and end up in the liver.
(FALSE)
3) If you breathe carbon dioxide in an enclosed space, you will rapidly become
unconscious. (TRUE)
4) Certain flammable cargoes may emit flammable gases when they come into
contact with water. (TRUE)
Is the statement about chemical tanker operations True or False?
1) While topping and completing cargo operations, the officer of the watch
should monitor activity on deck via radio. (FALSE)
Static accumulators are:
1) Cargoes that can become electrostatically charged.

2) Cargoes that must not be moved more than absolutely necessary.
3) Devices that monitor static electricity.
4) Devices that enable static charges to be built up.
If you are asked to perform a task which you feel is dangerous, what should?
1) Delegate it to a more experienced fellow crew member.

2) Trust the person who told you to perform the task and go ahead whit it.
3) Argue assertively with the person who told you to do it.
4) Consult your safety officer or other senior officer.
1) Nitrogen is lighter than air and so may remain in the top or tank even when
readings elsewhere in the tank show a good oxygen level. (FALSE)
1) Mechanical ventilation of the space and regular monitoring of oxygen and

gas levels must continue while personnel are inside an enclosed space.
(TRUE)
1) Most deaths from fire are caused by asphyxiation and not from direct
contact whit flames. (TRUE)
Who is responsible for closing the ventilation and re-circulation the accommodation
air whenever any toxic cargo is transferred?
 The engineers
 The safety officer
 The officer of the watch
 All crew members
The most important task of the person supervising the entry is to ensure that:
 A fully equipped back-up team is ready to provide assistance if required.

 The person entering has a first passed a drug and alcohol test.
 The person entering has had sufficient rest.
 The weather conditions are suitable for the task in hand.
Is the following statement True or False?
 You may have to guard against accidental flooding. (TRUE)

 Gases used for cargo fumigation do not normally pose a hazard. (FALSE)
When an enclosed space entry is proposed, what is the most important
consideration?
 That the master should be informed.

 That the company head office is consulted before a decision is taken.
 That a competent person must consider all the facts and decide how safe
the space is.
 That the back-up team has been well trained.
 Inside enclosed spaces you may well encounter physical dangers such as
damaged ladders etc. (TRUE)
 If breathing apparatus is being used then the wearer will have 10 minutes to
leave the space after the low level alarm has sounded. (FALSE)
When preparing to use breathing apparatus, which of the actions listed in NOT a
requirement.
 The face mask seal must be checked and adjusted to ensure it is airtight.
 It must be checked for high and low pressure
 The audible low pressure alarm should be checked
 The total length of any air hose should not exceed 36 meters.
 Once the space has been ventilated and declared safe, ventilation can be
switched off. (FALSE)
Before entering an enclosed space, the portable gas detector being used to check
the atmosphere gives an unstable reading. What should you do?
 Assume the reading is good enough and proceed whit the entry.
 Put the instrument back in the store and try again with another detector.
 Replace the sensor, re-calibrate the instrument, and take the readings again
In an emergency, you can enter an enclosed space as long as the oxygen level is:
 15%
 19%
 21%
 24%
 You can normally smell toxic gases before they become dangerous.
(FALSE)
 Once the atmosphere has been tested and found to be safe, no further
testing will be needed. (FALSE)
Which of the spaces listed does NOT require an enclosed space entry permit?
 Chain lockers
 Cofferdams
 The gallery cold store
 Ballast tanks
 Ruting steelwork can remove oxygen from the atmosphere. ( TRUE)

Is this statement about the use of ear protection True or False?
 In spaces where sound levels have been measured as> 85 db (A), wearing
hearing protectors is recommended but not mandatory. (FALSE)
Is this statement about noise and hearings loss True or False?
 Hearing loss makes it difficult to hear vowels. (FALSE)

Long term exposure to loud noise can cause permanent damage to:
 The ear drum

 The ossicles
 The auditory nerve
 The cochlea.
What sound frequency is most affected by dangerous noise exposure?
 20 Hz
 4000 Hz
 14000 Hz
 20000 Hz
What can be done to cure noise induced hearing loss?
 Surgery
 Medication
 Nothing
 Exercises
Seafarers wearing hearing protectors should not be exposed to sound levels of

more than:
 80 db(A)
 90 db (A)
 100 db (A)
 120 db (A)
Is this statement about noise and hearing loss True or False?
 High levels of noise are only an issue in the engine room. (FALSE)
How many times can you wear foam ear plugs before disposing of them?
 Once
 Twice
 For a week
 There is no restriction
Is this statement about noise and vibration True or False?
 You will not be able to wear ear defenders at the same time as your hard
hat, so you should seek an alternative form of hearing protection.
(FALSE)
Is this statement about noise and hearing loss True or False?
 A risk assessment for noise should determine the daily or weekly personal
noise exposure for workers at risk. (TRUE)
 Ear plug should be inserted as far into the ear canal as they will go without
causing discomfort. (TRUE)
 Protectors should reduce the noise level at the ear to below 70 db.
(FALSE)
Within a 24 hours period, what is the maximum time you should spend in a space
requiring the use of hearing protectors?
 2 hours
 4 hours
 8 hours
 12 hours
What is the maximum time a seafarer should stay in space with a sound level that is
>115 db(A)?
 10 Minutes
 30 minutes
 1 hour
 4 hours
What is the best way to protect against vibration from hand held tools?
 Sit down when doing the work

 Hold the tool firmly
 Use protective gloves
 Apply good technique and limit the duration
What is mean by db(A)?
 The abbreviation for the noise risk in risk assessment.

 A-weighted decibels, adjusted to frequencies heard by the human ear.
 The measurement of sound frequency
 The comfort rating of hearing protectors
If you should have to wear a hearing aid, what job could you be employed to do on
board ship?
 Gangway watch
 Engineer
 Catering
 Deck crew
Is this statement about noise and vibration True or False?
 Hearing loss, tinnitus, HAVS and whole body vibration are all preventable.
(TRUE)
What is the best way to protect against whole body vibration?
 Stand with one limb on contact with the source of vibration

 Limit the amount of time in the area
 Wear safety shoes with foam insoles
 Keep your eyes on the horizon
What is the maximum acceptable noise level limit for cabins in ships of >10 000GT,
required under the IMO code on Noise Levels on Board Ships?
 55db(A)
 65db(A)
 75db(A)
 85db(A)
In this statement about noise and vibration True or False?
 Fingers going white is a symptom of HAVS. (TRUE)

What dangerous gas may be present during bunkering?
 Hydrogen sulphide.
 Carbon monoxide.
 Ammonia.
 Methane.
What is the MARPOL Annex Vl maximum Sulphur content limit for all marine fuel
oils used within a SECA?
• 0.5% m/m
• 1.5% m/m
• 2.5% m/m
• 4.5% m/m
What is the MARPOL Annex Vl maximum Sulphur content limit for all marine fuel
oils used outside a SECA?
• 3% m/m
• 1.5% m/m
• 4.5% m/m
• 5% m/m
How often should oxygen cylinders be checked?
• Every month.
• Every three months.
• Every six months.
• Every year.
How often should the batteries be changed on battery-powered items of rescue

equipment?
• Every month.
• Every three months.
• Every six months.
• Every year.
Are the statements about rescue operations True or False?
• Every year, many people die on board ship as a result of trying to rescue a
fellow crew member without assessing the situation properly first. True
• If a casualty shows no signs of circulation, then external chest compression
should be started. True
• In a rescue attempt from a confined space, the well-being of the casualty
should come first. False
How can feelings of claustrophobia be reduced?
• Rub your eyes hard with your hands.

• Have a cigarette.
• Urinate.
• Close your eyes and take deep, slow breaths.
If there are several injured people in a hold, who should you treat first after having
sent for help?
• Anyone bleeding a lot.

• Whoever is in most pain.
• Anyone unconscious.
• The nearest person.
Which of the items listed are likely to be a hazard in a confined space?
• Flammables fumes.
• Extreme temperatures.
• Slippery surfaces.
• All the above.
A casualty in a smoke-filled room may suffer brain damage if they lack air for more
than:
• 4 minutes.
• 8 minutes.
• 10 minutes.
• 15 minutes.
Are the statements about rescue activities True or False?
• An EEBD can be used when you need to enter a tank for a short period.
False
• Walkie-talkie radios may not work deep below decks. True
• Always alert others people to the emergency before trying to help the
casualty. True
What is considered to be a confined space.
 any compartment the hatch is smaller than 0.5m. (18 inches)

 any compartment where you can touch a bulkhead or partition with your
arms outstretched
 any space where there is poor natural ventilation
 any compartment where you cannot stand up straight
Which of these is it good practice to wear whenever you go into a tank.
 a TLD badge
 A lifting harness
 An identity disk
 A lifejacket
If an unconscious casualty is still in danger from hazard, what should you do?
 give him first aid and then move him

 wait for help to arrive
 move him to safety immediately
 try to revive him mouth to mouth resuscitation
What is a Neil Robertson
 A type of breathing apparatus

 a portable winch
 a type of stretcher
 a special type of bandage for deep wounds
What is the best way to lift an injured person out of a hold.
 strapped to a stretcher
 strapped to a piece of board
 roped up
 in a fireman’s lift
If there is a medical problem on board that no one is sure how to treat, what should
be done.
 check medical guide and make a guess what the best treatment is
 keep the person warm and make for the nearest port
 radio for medical advice immediately
What is the first thing you should do if you see someone lying unconscious at the
bottom of a tank.
 go down and check whether they are alive or dead

 shout down to them and try to rouse them
 go and get help
 tie a rope to a stanchion or handrail and throw it down to them
If a casualty has cold skin, feels like being sick, is breathing fast and says he is
thirsty, what are these symptoms of:
 Shock
 claustrophobia
 cramp
 smoke inhalation
Which of these spaces listed is not an enclosed space
 ballast tank
 cargo holds
 fuel tank
 pump room
 paint locker
 bridge
What is generally considered to be safe air.

 Air containing 5.5% oxygen.
When you are discussing risk assessment and setting priorities, you need to use
appropriate questions to help identify the hazards your company may face. Which
of the questions below would NOT be appropiarte?
a) What do I particularly worry about as a manager or director?

b) Are there situations which I feel the need to manage myself because of
fears that something might go wrong?
c) Are there activities which seem to créate an above average number of
problems, accidents, incidents and so on?
d) How should I distribute the class survey schedule to the fleet?
Are these statements about different risks and risk assessment True or False?
a) A collition involving a high speed ferry could have very serious

consequences. True
b) The fact that it may become more difficult to find well qualified officers in the
future should not really affect our business. False
c) Risks depend on circumstances so risk assessment must always be a
dynamic process. True
d) Effective risk assessment can improve financial perfomance. True
The importance of risk assessment needs to be made clear by:
a) The ship’s safety officers.

b) The Company safety officer.
c) The senior management.
In most cases implementing the options for managing risk will:
a) Cost little or nothing.

b) Require considerable investment.
In the video, what was stated as the cause of the explosión that affected the
challenger launch?
a) Failure of the task-interactive computer system (TIS).

b) Poor NASA documentation procedures.
c) Failure of one of the primary booster o-rings.
d) Lack of training of the NASA engineers.
Detailed oil discharge procedures in the ship’s manual are a good example of:
a) Engineered safety.
b) Procedural safety.
c) Human factor safety.
d) Inherent safety.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the RISK MATRIX
Systematic risk assessment involves six steps. Place these in the correct ascending
order by dragging the relavant steps into the boxes,starting with the first step.
Identify all hazards.
Assess risk.
Explore control options.
Weigh up costs and benefits.
Select and implement.
Monitor and re-assess

When you are discussing risk assessment and setting priorities, you need to use
appropiate questions to help identify the hazards on your ship. Which of the
questions below would NOT be appropiate?
a) What do we particularly worry about on this ship?

b) Are there situations which we feel need additional supervisión because of
fears that something might go wrong?
c) Are there activities which seem to créate an above average number of
problems, accidents, incidents and so on?
d) How should we prepare the gangway safety net?
Who should be concerned about risk assessment?
a) The master.
b) The safety officer.
c) Everyone on board needs to be involved and to “own” the process.
d) The heads of department working together.
The final step we define in the risk assessment process is to monitor and re-assess
– to examine how the decisions work out in practice. Drag the correct words from
the list to complete the sentences about this process.
a) Look for problems. What seemed like a good idea may not work out well in
practice.
b) Avoid blaming people if they are not implementing your solutions properly.
Instead find out why.
c) Check that the solution still works.
Which of these beliefs about a no-blame reporting system are justified?
a) A no-blame system means that workers tend to get careles.

b) A no-blame system encourages everyone to make sure that all incidents
and near misses are reported.
c) A blame culture is better as it forces everyone to take responsability and
obtain better risk management.
d) The no-blame system helps to ensure safe running of equipment.
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the principles
of risk assessment.
a) It is systematic. There is a step by step technique.

b) It is about prevention rather than cure.
c) It encourages awareness of hazards and the risks they pose.
d) We can’t predict and manage every risk we face, selection of the appropiate
ones is the trick.
Implementing risk control options requires you to persuade other people to accept
them. Place the five actions needed in the correct order by dragging the relevant
actions into the boxes.
Explain what you want to happen.
Explain why.
Ask for reactions.
Check understanding.
Provide an incentive.
The statements about differents risk and risks assessment True or False?
a) A winch brake failure during the lowering of a lifeboat could have very
serious consequences. True
b) The fact that a ship is equipped with a left handed propeller is not likely to
increase the likelihood of problems arising while entering port. False
c) Risks depend on circumstances so risk assessment must always be a
dynamic process. True
d) Effective risk essessment can give better control over budgets. True
What is the meaning of the word “hazard”?

• The sequence of events leading to a hazardous situation or accident.
• The consequence of an accident.
• The means of controlling risk.
• A potential to threaten human life, health, property or the environment.
Which answer best describes the main purpose of risk assessment?

• To identify, assess and manage risks so as to reduce the chances of an
incident
• To provide crucial feedback as to equipment reliability.
• To identify errors of management.
• To identify sub standard components of deck and engine room machinery
The video shows an example of a ship passing through the Straits of
Messina . Which of the possible options for managing the risk was regarded
as unacceptable?
• Doubling the watch
• Putting the engine room on standby
• Checking the navigational equipment
• Taking the long route to port
A Permit to Work system is a good example of:

• Engineered safety
• Procedural safety
• Human factor safety
• Inherent safety
Which of those listed is NOT one of the four different types of safety to be
remembered when considering how to manage risk?
• Inherent
• Engineered
• Enhanced
• Procedural
Which of the activities listed would NOT require the issuing of a Permit to
Work?
• Hot work
• Entering a cargo tank
• Working aloft
• Collecting food from the cold store
Nitrogen is one of the greatest hazards of enclosed spaces because:

• It has no smell
• It gives no warning symptoms to an affected person.
• A person can lose consciousness very quickly, sometimes in less than 20
seconds.
• Of all of the above
What is the definition given for the word “risk”?

• It describes what would happen incase of the sudden operational failure of a
vital place of equipment on board ship
• It is a combination of two factors - the likelihood of something happening
and the consequences if it does.
• An unintended event involving death or injury, and/or damage to the ship,
other property, or the environment.
• The outcome of an accident.
When entering cargo tanks or other enclosed spaces, what is the required
oxygen content for safe entry?
• 21%
• 19%
• 24%
• 18%
Are the statements about implementing a Permit to Work True or False?

• Only the work specified on the permit should be undertaken. True
• On some jobs it will be difficult to assess how long they need so the Permit
should not specify a time limit. False
• If someone else takes over the job specified in the Permit, the Permit should
be reissued in their name. True
• If unforeseen extra work is required during the work covered by the Permit,
this work can be done as long as an officer is informed afterwards. False
In the first Case Study, what was the specific aromatic hydrocarbon
identified as being hazardous in extremely low concentrations?
• Naphtha
• Methane
• Benzene
• Kerosene
Which of the statements does NOT belong in the list? A Permit to Work
should state:
• The qualifications of the crewmember(s) to do the work.
• The precise location and details of the work to be done.
• The measures undertaken to make the job safe.
• The nature and results of any preliminary test.
Which of those listed is NOT one of the six basic principles of risk control?
• Substitution
• Safe working procedures
• Training, instruction and supervision
• Obtaining permission from Head Office
Which of those listed is NOT one of the general safety management

objectives of the ISM Code?
• To provide for safe practices in ship operation and a safe working
environment.
• To specify who is competent to undertake hazardous procedures
• To establish safeguards against all identified risks.
• To continuously improve the safety management skills of personnel ashore
and aboard
If you see or suspect an injury to someone in an enclosed space, what

should you do first?
• Enter the space to assess the situation more fully
• Raise the alarm
• Increase the ventilation
• Check the instructions on the Permit to Work
Which of the actions listed is not normally defined as Hot Work on board
ship?
• Riveting
• Welding
• Electrical work in cargo spaces
• Grinding
• Bunkering
Match the opening phrases with an appropriate ending to complete the

sentences about preparing for Hot Work.
• A key precaution when any Hot Work is done is the presence of the Fire
Watch.
• In some ports and repair yards, hot work can only be authorized after
consultation with a marine Chemist.
• The Master should appoint one person to be responsible for supervising the
work.
• Before embarking on hot work a thorough risk assessment should be
undertaken.
• If possible, hot work should be substituted by Cold Work.
Which of the following agencies outside the vessel must be consulted before
Hot Work is authorized?
• The Managers, Operators or Charterers
• The Flag State Authority
• The Classification Society
• The International Maritime Organization
Which of the statements about the timing of Hot Work, is not correct?
• Hot Work must not take place during fueling or bunkering operations.
• Hot Work should not begin unless it can be completed within that shift.
• Hot Work must not take place during cargo or ballast movements.
• Hot Work must not take place during tank cleaning.
Which of the statements does not belong in the list? A Hot Work Permit
should set out:
• The time and date of its validity
• The precise location of the work
• The qualifications of the crewmember(s) to do the work
• The precise description of the work (including equipment and materials)
• The preparation work to be undertaken before the job can commence.
Are the statements about preparing for Hot Work on the open deck True or
False?
• Cargo and slop tanks within a radius of at least 30 meters around the
working area must be cleaned and inerted. True
• Adjacent ballast tanks and compartments must be inserted os gas free.
True
• Adjacent ballast tanks and compartments must be emptied and
ventilated. False
When preparing for Hot Work on the open deck any hydrocarbon vapor
content must be reduced to less than:
• 2% by volume
• 4% by volume
• 1% by volume
• 8% by volume
Are the statements about preparing for Hot Work on pipe work and valves
True or False?
• Pipelines and valves which are involved in Hot Work should be detached
from the system. True
• Any pipelines and valves not involved in the Hot Work can be ignored. False
• Heating coils should be opened, flushed and inerted prior to Hot Work. True
• The item to be worked on should be cleaned and gas freed to “safe Hot
Work standard. True
For emergency preparedness under international safety management (ISM)

Code the Company should provide for measures ensuring that the
company`s organization can respond at any time to_____ , accidents and
emergency situation involving the ship.
 Risk
 Hazards
 Harms
 Dangers
The sea anchor permanently attached to davit launched liferaft shall be

arranged for manual deployment only.
 TRUE
 FALSE
Every lifebuoy shall have a mass of not less than 2.5 kgs.
 TRUE
 FALSE
The painter of a life raft shall not be less than 20 meters
 True
 False
Every life boat shall consist of food rations totaling_____ for each person the lifeboat is
permitted to accommodate.
 1,000 kJ
 10,000 kJ
 100,000kJ
 100 kJ
The painter of a life raft shall not be less than _____
 10 meters
 15 meters
 20 meters
 5 meters
Tons as in GRT is derived from:
 Weight
 Number
 Volume
 None of them
Life rafts shall be marked in block capitals of the Roman alphabet with
 No markings
 Safety of life at Sea (SOLAS) A pack
 Safety of life at Sea (SOLAS) B pack
 Safety of life at Sea (SOLAS) Approved
A poison can enter the body
 though the mouth

 Through the lungs
 by injecting into the skin
 all of them
In compound fractures the overlying skin__
Is broken
Not broken
Sometimes broken
None of them
The drills of the crew shall take place within___ of the ship leaving a port if more than ___ of the
crew have not participated in fire drill son board that particular ship in the previous month
48 hrs/50%
36hrs/35%
25hrs/25%
13hrs/12%
In the event of food poisoning the line of treatment for the casualty is___
To given general treatment for poisoning
To give them plenty of liquids
if in port, take them to the hospital
All of them
What is a permit to work?

Work orders from the senior officers
A complete check on preparedness prior to start of work
The recommendations of the ship´s safety committee
A notification that you are qualified to carry out the work
When the enclosed space rescue party hear the alarm, what should they do?
Enter the space immediately
Muster for a briefing
Put on their EEBDs
Bring BA sets to the entrance
When should you use a compressed air breathing line?

On normal entry into an enclosed space
For doublé ottoms at a range of more than 10 metres
In the Access to the space is too restricted to enter with self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)
Compressed air breathing lines should never be used
What blood alcohol level is permisible under U.S. legislation before it is defined as intoxication?
0.01%
0.07%
0.04%
0.1%
On a gas tanker, a tank of more than 20 m3 requirs a mínimum of____
1 release valve
2 release valve
3 release valve
none of them
When should the atmosphere of an enclosed space be tested?

Before ventilation
Before and during entry
Every hour
Whenever someone feels dizzy
What piece of equipment is the fall arrest unit designed to be used with?
The lifeline
The compressed air breathing line
The working harness
The rescue harness
The rescue party should wear emergency escape breathing devices (EEDB) rather than self-
contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) when entering an enclosed space to bring out a casualty
TRUE
FALSE
Before going on a watch at night, how long is it recommended that the watchkeeper spends in a
brightly lit área?
At least 30 min
at least 15 – 20 minutes
Which authority issues a safe manning certificate?

IMO
Flag state administration
Classification society
ILO
Medical lockers are arranged as per

International maritime organisation (IMO)
ILO
WHO
All of them
An EEBD can be used for:
Firefighting
Escaping a hazardous atmosphere
Rescuing a casualty from a tank
Entering oxygen deficient tanks
Deficient oxygen content inside a confined space can be detected with

A combustible gas indicator
An oxygen meter
Litmus paper
A hydrometer
In an enclosed space, any methane present will

Stay in the middle of the space
Rise to the top of the space
Sink to the bottom of the space
Diffuse evenly throughout the space
It is not necessary to test the breathing apparatus (BA) set before you put it on, as it will already
have been thoroughly tested
TRUE
FALSE
In cardiopulmonary resuscitation (C.P.R.) the casualty is placed in the___

Recovery position
Relaxing position
Rolling position
All them
Which organisation approves RSO´s (Recognised security organisations)?

IMO
Flag state military
International chamber of shipping
If, in the event of poisoning, the casualty vomits, then a simple of the vomit should be___
Discarted
Preserved and sent to the hospital for analysis
Does not make any difference
All of them
The maintenance, testing and inspection plan shall include___
Fire mains, fire pumps and hydrants, fixed fire extinguishing systems and portable fire
extinguishers.
Fire detection and alarm systems, ventilation system and dampers, fire-fighters outfits, EEBD and
the sprinkler system.
Emergency shutdown and fuel supply, fire doors and general emergency alarm systems
All of them
When considering burns, what percentage of the body´s Surface área is comprised by one entire
leg?
9%
18%
36%
None of them
Adjacent ballast tanks and compartments must be emptied and ventilated prior to any hot work
commencing.
TRUE
FALSE
What are non-flexible Steel wire ropes used for?

Winch runners
Crane hoist wires
Stays and shrouds
Lifeboat falls
Before going on a watch at night, how long is it recommended that the watchkeeper spends in a
brightly lit área?
At least 30 minutes
At least 15-20 minutes
Which authority issues a safe manning certificate?

IMO
ILO
The red zone is the time when we feel most alert

TRUE
FALSE
Medical lockers are arranged as per___
International maritime organisation
ILO
WHO
All of them
Work orders from the senior officers
A complete check on preparedness prior to start of work
The recommendations of the ship´s safety committee
A notification that you are qualified to carry out the work
Muster for a briefing
Put on their EEBDs
How frequently must a safety officer carry out health and safety inspctions?
monthly
annualy
every 6 months
every 3 months
Under STCW regulations, what must each new crew member do before commencing assigned
duties?
Road all posted notices/regulations carefully
Be familiar with safety procedures
locate his working área and working clothes
report to the master for signing on the ship´s articles
It is the responsibility of the ship security officer to carry out a ship security assessment
TRUE
FALSE
In the event of food poisoning the line of treatment for the casualty is
To give them general treatment for poisoning
to give them plenty of liquids
If in port, take them to the hospital
All of them
A csaualty has a chemical splash in the eye. You should
immerse ther head in a basing of warm water
sit them down aqnd open the eye to note any damage
wash the eye out with the casualty lying down
place a pad over the eye
A casualty has a Wood splinter in their eye. Howlong do you take to wash it out?
at least 5 minutes
at least 10 minutes
at least 15 minutes
at least 20 minutes
Security level 3 means the level

For which mínimum appropriate protective security measures shall be maintained at all times
for which appropriate aditional protective security measures shall be maintained for a period of
time as a result of heightened risk of a security incident.
For which further specific protective security measures shall be maintained for a period of time
when a security incident is problable or imminent although it may not be possible to identify the
specific target.
All of them
Tetanus can be prevented by

An injection of tetanus toxoid
An injection of toxoid T.B.
Tablet tetanus
All of them
Exclusive rescue boats shall be launched ___ with their assigned crew aboard and manoeuvred in
the water
Every 3 months
Every month
Every 2 months
Every 4 months
Each abandon ship drill shall include

Demostrate the donning of life jacket
Examining the condition of the life jacket
At least one crew member floating in the water wearing a life jacket
Checking that the jackets are correctly donned
What do you do if someone refuses to give you their ID?
Report it to your supervisor ( or SSO)
Report it to the pólice
Report it to the port master
tell them to go away
Which autority issues the ISM document of compliance?

The flag state authority
The P& I club
IMO
Whose responsability is it to ensure that seafarers are property rested?

The master
The seafarer they are relieving
The seafarers line manager
The seafarer
Even low level of stress will always reduce your performance?

TRUE
FALSE
2:30
2:15
30:2
15:2
Cosmopolitan crew management should consider

Group-recognition
Whole-person
Social-rank
Political-insensitivity
What is the main aim of the permit to work?

To review the operation after it has been completed
To make sure that the regulations are being complied with
To ensure that all the elements of the action plan are in place
To assess the risks
For which the mínimum appropriate protective security measures shall be maintained at all times
For which appropriate additional protective security measures shall be maintained for a period of
time as a result of heightened risk of a
For which further specific protective security measures shall be maintained for a period of time
when a security incident is problable or imminent although it may not be possible to identify the
specific target.
All of them
Which deckhands are not permitted to work aloft?

All ordinary seamen
Cadets or apprentices
Those under 18 years who have less than 1 year experience
All the other options
What should you do when you hear the ship´s emergency signal?
Put on warm clothes and your lifejacket
Ignore the signal unless you have been told there will be a drill
telephone the bridge for advice
Report to your muster station
The damage control plan indicates the location of

Machinery in engine room
Navigational equipment
All man entry doors as fitted in a ship
Lifeboat
If a casualty has been trapped by crushing of their leg rescuer shuld:

not release them if trapped for longer than 10 minutes
not release them if trapped for longer than 15 minutes
only release them after 15 minutes
only release them after 10 minutes
How is an enclosed space tested to check it is safe to enter?

By standing and smelling the atmosphere
By using an oxygen analyzer and an explosimeter
by a litmus test
by checking that the inert gas has less than 4% oxygen content
How should you find out what the enclosed space entry risks are from the residues left in a tank?
By consulting the material safety data sheet (MSDS)
by taking a simple
By contacting the shipper
By asking the safety officer
During drills to practice rescues from enclosed spaces, where should the control point be set up?
within the space, as close as possible to the exit
As close as possible to the entrance of the space
As close as possible to the safety equipment room
On the lower deck
The respiratory system consist of

The wind-pipe, lung and trachea
The brain and spinal cord
The kidneys and ureters
All of them
During the stage of apathy in the case of Hypothermia, the

Heart rate decreases
Respiratory rate decreases
Both of A & B
None of them
I heat exhaustion muscular cramps occur because of

Salt deficiency
Sugar deficiency
Water deficiency
None of them
In secondary shock, if the casualty is feeling cold, give them

Alcohol to drink
Cold drinks
A warm tea of coffee
All of them
On board training and drills for emergency preparedness for fire shall be conducted and
periodically evaluated to
To ensure that crew are familiar with fire pumps , fire lines and hydrants
To ensure that crew are familiar with scape routes
To ensure competency in fire fighting skills
To prevent occurence of fire
Only the work specified on the permit should be undertaken
TRUE
FALSE
The primary function of the cleats is to pull the hatch covers down for a tighter seal
TRUE
FALSE

The periodic table
convention
Issue
Expiry
Critical pressure
Critical point
Infinity
TRUE
FALSE
Not less than 10mm
Not more than 10mm
Not less than 8mm
Not more than 8mm
unpacked and donned
TRUE
FALSE
1.0 litres
1.5 litres
2.0 litres
2.5 litres
TRUE
FALSE

None of them
TRUE
FALSE
Sprinkler system
Smoke detector

Once a month
Once every 3 months
When in drydock
What is the SOLAS convention?

TRUE
FALSE
form a ship?
A highline
A lifting stretcher
A basket

drifting apart
services:


600°C
700°C
750°C
800°C
TRUE
FALSE
The cargo tanks
The slop tanks
All of them
conatiners
TRUE
FALSE
wáter
Not less tan 100 mm

Not less tan 110 mm
Not less tan 120 mm
Not less tan 90 mm
TRUE
FALSE
Only one knife
Two knives
Three knives


requirements

Heat
Temperature
Pressure
Volume
90
110
75
85
Minimum
Maximum
Average
Practically

Agent
be safely performed
PARTE C
1.- THE JACK KNIFE IN THE LIFEBOAT MUST NOT BE KEPT ATTACHED TO THE BOAT WITH A
LANYARD.
 TRUE
 FALSE
2.- THE POCKETS SHALL HAVE AN AGGREGATE CAPACITY OF AT LEAST______ FOR LIFERAFTS UP
TO 10 PERSONS.
 10 LITRES
 100 LITRES
 220 LITRES
 50 LITRES
3.- WITH FUEL AND OXYGEN PRESENT, WHAT IS THE THIRD SIDE OF THE FIRE TRIANGLE MOST
COMMONLY CAUSING A FIRE?
 GAS
 VAPOUR
 COMBUSTIBLE MATERIAL
 HEAT
4.- EVERY ENCLOSED LIFEBOAT SHALL BE CAPABLE OF SUPPORTING THE ENTIRE MASS OF THE
LIFEBOAT INCLUDING EQUIPMENT, MACHINERY AND A FULL COMPLEMENT OF PERSONS WHEN
THE LIFEBOAT IS IN THE CAPSIZE POSITION WITH THE HATCHES CLOSED AND WITH OUT
SIGNIFICANT LEAKAGE.
 TRUE
 FALSE
5- A LIFEJACKET SHALL HAVE BUOYANCY WHICH IS NOT REDUCED BY __________% AFTER 24

HOURS SUBMERSION IN FRESH WATER .
 MORE THAN 5
 LESS THAT 5
 MORE THAN 10
 LESS THAN 10
6.-THE FLOATING LIFERAFT SHALL BE CAPABLE OF WITH STANDING REPEATED JUMPS ON TO IT

FROM A HEIGHT OF AT LEAST_________ ABOVE IS FLOO, BOTH WITH AND WITHOUT THE
CANOPY ERECTED.
 4.5 METERS
 5.5 FEET
 5.5 METERS
 4.5 FEET
7.- A LIFE RAFT FOR USE WITH AN APPROVED LAUNCHING APPLIANCE SHALL WHEN THE
LIFERAFT IS LOADED WITH ITS FULL COMPLEMENT OF PERSONS AND EQUIPMENT BE CAPABLE
OF WITH STANDING A DROP INTO THE WATER FROM A HEIGHT OF ________ WITHOUT
DAMAGE THAT WILL AFFECT IT.
 NO MORE THAN 3 FEET

 NO LESS THAN 3 FEET
 NO MORE THAN 3 METERS
 NO LESS THAT 3 METERS
8.- THE BOUYANT RESCUE QUOIT IN A LIFERAFT SHOULD BE ATTACHED TO__________ OF

BOUYANT LINE.
 NOT MORE THAN 30 METERS

 NOT THAN 50 METERS
9.- WHO MUST BE INFORMED BEFORE GOING OUT OF THE ACCOMMODATION DURING ROUGH
WEATHER AT SEA.
 THE MASTER
 THE CHIEF OFFICER
 THE CHIEF ENGINER
 THE BRIDGE WATCH KEEPING
10.- THE CANOPY OF A LIFERAFT SHALL HAVE SUFFICIENT HEADROOM FOR SITTING OCCUPANTS
UNDER ALL PARTS OF THE CANOPY.
 TRUE
 FALSE
11.- IDENTIFY THE IMO SYMBOL.
DECK ISOLATING VALVES
FIRE LINE DRAIN VALVES
WATER SPRAY SYSTEM VALVES
FIRE LINE DISTRIBUTION BOX

12.- A CLASS B FIRE IS MOST LIKELY TO OCCUR IN_________.
 A PASSENGER CABIN
 A BATTERY ROOM
 A RADIO ROOM
 ENGINE ROOM VILGES
13.- THIS (IMO) SYMBOL REPRESENT 50 LITRES WATER EXTINGUISHER.
 TRUE
 FALSE
 MAIN VERTICAL ZONE

 FIRE LINE VERTICAL
 FIRE RETARDANT MATERIAL INSERTED
 FIRE DOOR
 SPACE OR GROUP OF SPACES PROTECTED BY FIRE EXTINGUISHING SYSTEM POWER

 SPRINKLER SYSTEM
 SPACE PROTECTED BY SPRINKLER SYSTEM
 SPACE OF GROUP OF SPACES PROTECTED BY FIRE EXTINGUISHING SYSTEM WATER
ES P Y BLANCA
16.- ALL SHIPS SHALL CARRY AT LEAST ___________ EMERGENCY SCAPE BREATHING DEVICES
WITHIN ACCOMMODATION SPACES.
 5
 4
 3
 2
17.- IN ORDER TO PREVENT THE PROBABILITY OF IGNITION OF COMBUSTIBLE MATERIALS AND

FLAMMABLE LIQUIDS AND GASES ON BOARD THE SHIP THE FUNCTIONAL REQUIREMENT SHALL
BE__________.
 TO CONTROL LEAKS OF FLAMMABLE LIQUIDS AND TO LIMIT THE ACCUMULATION OF

FLAMABLE VAPOURS
 RESTRICTION ON THE IGNITABILITY OF COMBUSTIBLE MATERIALS AND RESTRICTION OF
IGNITION SOURCES
 SEPARATION OF IGNITION
 ALL OF THEM
18.- A BUILT UP OF HIDROGEN DUE TO POOR VENTILATION CAN BE CAUSE IN THE

____________.
 PAINT LOCKER
 ENGINE ROOM
 RADIO ROOM
 BATERY ROOM
19.- JET DRIVE RESCUE BOATS TEND TO BE MORE MANOEUVRABLE
 TRUE
 FALSE
20.- IF THE RESCUE BOAT CAPSIZES, THE LARGEST AIR POCKET IS LIKELY TO BE FOUND NEAR THE:
 STERN
 BOW
 CENTRE
 NONE OF THE ABOVE
21.- WHEN LAUCHING A RESCUE BOAT, WHAT SHOULD THE SHIP SPEED BE?

22.- WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM SPEED AT WHICH YOU WOULD ATTEMPT TO LAUNCH A RESCUE
BOAT FROM YOUR VESSEL?
 2 KNOTS
 3 KNOTS
 VESSEL MUST BE STOPPED
 5 KNOTS
23.- HOW SHOULD CHECK THE CREW´S PERSONAL PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT BEFORE LAUNCHING
THE RESCUE BOAT?
 THE COXSWAIN
 THE OFFICER DIRECTING THE LAUNCH OPERATION
 THE MASTER
 THE FORWARD CREW MEMBER
24.- WHEN THE RESCUE BOAT REACHES THE WATER THE PAINTER SHOULD BE RELEASED BEFORE
THE FALL WIRE.
 TRUE
 FALSE
25.-LAUNCH AND RECOVERY OPERATION OF RESCUE BOATS POSE FEW HAZARDS IF THE CREW
ARE WHEN TRAINED.
 TRUE
 FALSE
26.- WHEREABOUT IN THE RESCUE BOAT SHOULD CREW MEMBERS POSITION THEMSELVES
WHILE IT IS BEING LOWERED?
 THE CENTRE
 THE SEAWARD SIDE
 THE INBOARD SIDE
 ALL AFT
27.- RESCUE BOATS SHALL BE STOWED.

 IN A STATE OF CONTINUOUS READINESS FOR LAUNCHING IN NOT MORE THAN 10 MIN.
28.- WHICH PIECE OF SIGNALLING EQUIPMENT WILL HELP HELICOPTER PILOTS JUDGE THE
SURFACE WIND SPEED AND DIRECTION?
 SMOKE FLOAT
 HELIOGRAPH
 PARACHUTE FLARE
 HAND FLARE
29.- NO LIFEJACKETS SHOULD EVER BE WORN INSIDE THE BOAT
 TRUE
 FALSE
30.- THE SHELTERS ON PARTIALLY ENCLOSED LIFEBOATS ARE CREATED BY.
 RIGID COVERS
 FOLDING CANOPIES
 A COMBINATION OF RIGID COVERS AND FOLDING CANOPIES
 A FIBREGLASS SHELL THAT IS OPERATED ELECTRONICALLY AND CAN COVER UP 80% OF
THE BOAT.
31.-WHAT IS THE PART OF THE LIFEBOAT INDICATED BY THE ARROWS?
 THE FALL
 THE GRIPE
 THE ON-LOAD RELEASE
 THE BOWSING IN TACKLE
32.- FOR PROTECTION OF ACCOMMODATION, SERVICE SPACES AND CONTROL STATIONS ON

TANKERS, ONLY METHOD______ SHALL BE USED.
 IC
 II C
 III C
 NONE OF THE OPTIONS
33.- UPON HEARING THE FIRE ALARM, YOU MUST:
 START THE CO2 RELEASE SYSTEM

 EVACUATE THE ENGINE ROOM INMEDIATELY
 START THE FIRE PUMP
 INFORM THE BRIDGE
34.- ALL ITEMS OF LIFEBOAT EQUIPMENT, SHALL BE
 SECURED WITHIN THE LIFEBOAT BY LASHINGS

 STORED IN LOCKERS OR COMPARTMENTS
 STORED IN BRACKETS OR SIMILAR MOUNTINGS ---
 ALL OF THEM
35.- SHIP SECURITY ALARM CAN BE DISCLOSED TO.
 PORT STATE INSPECTORS

 VETTING INSPECTORS
 SHIPS AGENTS
 NONE OF THE ABOVE------
36.- THE BASIC REQUIREMENT FOR THE INERT GAS SYSTEM SHAL BE_______
 PURGING AND INERTING

 A GAS FREEING EMPTY TANK
 TO MAINTAIN THE ATMOSPHERE IN CARGO TANKS WITH THE REQUIRED MINIMUM
OXYGEN CONTROL
 ALL OF THEM-----
37.- STEAM AS A FIRE EXTINGUISHING MEDIA IN GENERAL SHALL NOT BE PERMITTED BY THE
ADMINISTRATION.
 TRUE ------
 FALSE
38.- WHICH THROW OVERBOARD LIFERAFTS HAVE HYDROSTATIC RELEASE?
 ALL LIFERAFTS EXCEPT THE ONES STORED FORWARD

 THE ONES STORED INSIDE THE ACCOMMODATION
 ALL THROW OVERBOARD LIFERAFTS HAVE HYDROSTATIC RELEASE
 NO THROW OVERBOARD LIFERAFTS HAVE HYDROSTATIC RELEASE.
39.- WHEN THE BOAT IS AT A SAFE DISTANCE FROM THE SHIP, THE PAINTER SHOULD BE
RELEASED.
 TRUE
 FALSE
40.- AT WHAT POINT DURING THE LAUNCH PROCEDURE ARE THE DOORS AND HATCHES
SECURED ON A FULLY ENCLOSED LIFEBOAT?
 ONCE THE BOTTOM PLUGS HAVE BEEN SET

 ONCE THE PAINTER HAS BEEN PASSED OUT OF THE FORWARD HATCH AND SECURED
 ONCE EVERYONE IS INSIDE
 ONCE THE ENGINE HAS BEEN STARTED
41.- SINCE 1st JULY 2006, IT HAS BEEN MANDATORY FOR CARGO SHIPS AND BULK CARRIERS
TRADING OUTSIDE 20°NORTH OR 20° SOUTH TO PROVIDE IMMERSION SUITS FOR ALL PERSONS
ON BOARD.
 TRUE
 FALSE
Whose responsibility is it to ensure that seafarers are properly rested?
---The Master
The seafarer they are relieving
The seafarers line manager
The seafarer
What is the legal requirement for minimum rest hours in any 24 hour period?
--6
10
12
Under the hours of work regulations what is the minimum requirement for rest over a 7 day
period?
56 hours
--42 hours
77 hours
84 hours
When a casualty has a dislocated shoulder you must:
Attempt to get the arm back in position.
Bend the arm and place it in an elevation sling.
Bend the arm and place it in a low sling.
---Tie the arm to the side of body.
In a Ro-Ro ship, the Damage Control Plan indicates the ___.
Position of fire hydrants
--Location of the remote control of the bow door
Location of cars on deck

Position of the cooking galley
The preferred method of ventilating the enclosed space before entry is natural ventilation.
--FALSE
Prior to enclosed space entry, what is the purpose of the Toolbox Talk (TBT)?
To issue a Permit to Work
---To discuss exactly how the operation will be carried out
To make sure that the regulations are being complied with
To review the operation after it has been completed
To test for leaks on a Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) assembly, turn off the air supply
and continue breathing until the gauge reads zero and the face mask collapses on your face
TRUE
FALSE
The chief components of blood are ___.
Red blood corpuscle
white blood corpuscle
Plasma
---All of them
In the event of fire, the smoke which occurs ___.
Is heavier than air
Is the same as the air
----Is lighter than air
All of them
A "Security level" is the qualification of the degree of ___ that a security incident will be
attempted or will occur.
Threat
Probability
----Risk
Vulnerabilities
The complication of wounds is ___.
Fever
Cold
--Infection
All of them
Muster lists and emergency instructions shall be exhibited in conspicuous places throughout the
ship and shall be located in the ___.
Engine room
Cargo pump room
Engine control room
---Ship's gangway
Work orders from the senior officers.
---A complete check on preparedness prior to start of work.
The recommendations of the ship's safety committee.
A notification that you are qualified to carry out the work.
Why are wire ropes treated with lubricant?
To prevent excessive stretching
---To lubricate the internal wires, so maintaining service life and flexibility
To prevent corrosion on the outside of the wire

To make the wire stretch more
One of the functional requirements of the Safety Management System (SMS) of a company
consists of
compliance with the port state control requirement
Compliance with the requirements of U.S. Coast Guard and European Union requirements
--A safety and environment protection policy
The Maximum acceptable noise level in an office is ___.
100 dB
--30 dB
70 dB
None of them
The company should establish procedures to ensure that the ships are maintained in conformity
with the provisions of ___.
--Classification society rules
Practices as developed by the company over the years
Relevant rules and regulations
Every lifeboat shall consist of _ hand flares?
---6
12
The device which shall be fitted to every lifeboat to secure a painter near its bow ____.
Shall be such that the lifeboat does not exhibit unsafe or unstable characteristics
---Shall be such that the lifeboat does not exhibit unsafe or unstable characteristics when being
towed by the ship making headway at speeds of up to 5 knots in calm water
Both A & B
Neither A or B
The lamp fitted inside of the lifeboat shall provide illumination ____.
----.For at least 12 hours
Liferafts shall be provided with ___.
--One pair of scissors
No scissors
Two pairs of scissors
Neither A,B or C
Ships carrying dangerous goods shall be provided with __ of fire hoses and nozzles, in addition to
those required as per rules.
One set
Two sets
---Three sets
Four sets
Openings which may admit air to, or enable extinguishing media to escape from a protected space
shall be capable of being closed from outside the protected space where there is ___.
---A fixed gas fire extinguishing system
A fixed high expansion foam fire extinguishing system
A fixed pressure water spraying and water-mist fire extinguishing system
All of the above
Machinery spaces of category A containing oil fired boilers or oil fuel units shall be provided with
___.
A fixed gas fire extinguishing system
---A fixed high expansion foam fire extinguishing system
A fixed pressure water spraying and water-mist fire extinguishing system
Any of A, B & C
Arrangements for gas measurement in Double full spaces and double bottom spaces in tankers
shall be provided.
--TRUE
What must evacuees do just before boarding an inflatable liferaft?
Call the bridge and ask permission to board.
Have a meal to sustain them during difficult conditions onboard the raft.
---Make sure that the raft is inflated.
Remove their footwear.
Which of those listed is not a duty for crew members, as specified on the muster list?
Equipping the survival craft
Launching the survival craft
---Using the communication equipment
Sounding the general emergency alarm signal

The priority after launching the liferaft is to get clear of the ship using any means possible.
---TRUE
Which of these items of clothing would be best at preventing loss of body heat?
---Thick woollen socks.
Short pants.
A vest.
A woollen hat.
here are four main dangers faced by evacuees in a survival craft. Which item does not belong in
this list?
Drowning
Cold exposure
Lack of water
---Inability to sleep
Which piece of equipment communicates with nearby vessels’ radar?
Search And Rescue Transponder (SART)
--Radar reflector
GMDSS
Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB)
The ‘Red Zone’ is the time when we feel most alert.
TRUE
Three or more cups of tea or coffee a day will help you achieve optimum levels of performance.
FALSE
Taking vigorous exercise shortly before going to bed will help you get a good night’s sleep.
FALSE
When a casualty has a fractured base of skull they may have:
Blood stained fluid leaking from the ears only.
Blood stained fluid leaking from the nose only.
---Blood stained fluid leaking from the ears or nose.
Blood stained fluid leaking from the mouth only.
A shocked casualty who is thirsty may be given a drink of water.
FALSE
If there is no unusual smell in a space, this means that there is no gas.
FALSE
After testing the atmosphere of a cargo hold, what must a responsible officer decide?
If some of the cargo has been stolen.
If the cargo has been damaged.
If the cargo has been tainted.
---If the cargo space is safe to enter.
The basic concept of Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) is that:
It has an airline that connects to a unit outside the space.
Air from the atmosphere is filtered through the facemask.
Oxygen is stored in a cylinder harnessed to your back.
-----Air is compressed and stored in a cylinder harnessed to your back.

Statistically in which of these areas is piracy not a threat?
Indonesia
Red Sea
Malacca Straits
---Columbia
How do you minimise the possibility of sailing with stowaways?
Tally all personnel on and off the vessel
Carry out a systematic search prior to sailing
--Only Allow authorised personnel onboard
Restrict access to the vessel accommodation
10 minutes and released quickly.
15 minutes and released quickly.
Upon hearing the emergency alarm signal, you must ___.
Throw lifebuoy overboard
---Assemble at your muster station
Stop engines
All of them
Which of the spaces listed is NOT an ‘enclosed space’?
Ballast tank
--Bridge
Fuel tank
Paint locker
Before entering a cargo space after a long ocean passage, what must you ensure?
---That the hatch is fully opened, the hold well ventilated and the atmosphere tested.
That all lashings are removed.
That derricks or cranes are rigged.
That you are carrying spare electric lamps.
---Muster for a briefing
Put on their EEBDs
Nose-Bleeds can occur in the event of ___.
A fracture of the skull
Very high blood pressure
A blow to the nose
--All of them
A common bacteria in cases of food poisoning is ___.
Salmonella
Staphylococci
--Either of the two
None of them
Who is in charge of security onboard ship?

---Ship Security Officer (SSO)
Designation Person Ashore (DPA)
Company Security Officer (CSO)
Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO)
A new crew member taking a lot of photographs of the ship is NOT a cause for suspicion.
FALSE
Blood group A+ve can donate blood to ___.
B+ve
O+ve
---AB+ve
None of them
If someone else takes over the job specified in the Permit, the Permit should be reissued in their
name.
TRUE
Which of these is a natural fibre suitable for making ropes?
Steel
Nylon
Polypropylene
---Sisal
How do you minimise the possibility of sailing with stowaways?
Tally all personnel on and off the vessel
---Carry out a systematic search prior to sailing
Only Allow authorised personnel onboard

Restrict access to the vessel accommodation
The first effect of primary hypothermia is ___.
A stage of excitement
A stage of depression
The casualty alternates between excitement and depression
All of them
An individual with Rh factor is ___.
Rh+ ve
Rh-ve
Rh x
--None of them
To reduce swelling in frostbite the affected limb should be ___.
Elevated
--Lowered
Kept in the normal position
None of them
A fracture is a break in the ___.
Skin
--Bone
Muscle
None of them
A fire watch must be in place throughout the period of hot work.
TRUE
Which of the following would not introduce gas into a gas free cargo tank?
(1) When a valve is opened.
(2) When sludge is disturbed.
(3) When a cargo pump is opened up.
---(4) When the tank lid is opened.
Which of these is an adequate means of access to cargo holds?

(1) A mechanical hoist.
(2) A long aluminium ladder.
(3) A rope ladder.
---(4) A permanent fitted ladder.
Which of these is an advantage of derricks over cranes?

(1) The driver can slew the load from side to side.
(2) The driver can raise and lower the jib as required.
(3) Cargo can be positioned where it is wanted.
---(4) There are less working parts so simpler to maintain.
What part of the ship is shown by letter B?

(1) The cargo hold riser.
(2) The hatch cover.
(3) The storm protector.
---(4) The hatch coaming.
Part B is a turnbuckle for adjusting the length of the chain. Why would the
chain need to be adjusted?
(1) The chain needs to be adjusted depending on the speed the hatch
cover will open.
(2) The chain needs to be adjusted to different lengths for opening and
closing.
(3) The chain needs to be changed depending on the trim of the ship.
---(4) The chain must be the same length on each side of the cover so that
the cover will run straight on its track.
Which of the following blocks is not used for cargo work?
(1) Head block.
(2) Heel block.
(3) Topping lift block and purchase block.
--(4) Fall block.
When using a union purchase, where do you secure the preventer guys?
(1) From the head of the derrick to either side of the hatch coaming.
(2) From the head of the derrick to the ship's port side.
(3) From the head of the derrick to the ship's starboard side.
--(4) From the head of the derrick to the side away from the load.
What can happen when there is a wind blowing during cargo operations on
a tanker?
(1) The wind can carry vapours and deposit gases around the
superstructure.
(2) Gases may enter the accommodation including the galley.
(3) Gases may enter machinery spaces.
--(4) All of the other options
On a McGregor hatch, if the chains on either side are of uneven length,

which one of the following could occur?
(1) Failure of the eccentric wheels to operate.
(2) A loss of watertight integrity of the hatch.
(3) A failure of the hatch to open fully.
--(4) Uneven closing of the hatch and possible jamming.
After testing the atmosphere of a cargo hold, what must a responsible

officer decide?
(1) If some of the cargo has been stolen.
(2) If the cargo has been damaged.
(3) If the cargo has been tainted.
--(4) If the cargo space is safe to enter.
Which of these rigging methods is capable of lifting the heaviest load
without exceeding the SWL of the derrick or its associated gear?
(1) Union purchase.
(2) Yo-Yo gear.
--(3) Doubling gear.
(4) Yo-Yo gear working with doubling gear.
Which of the following should be marked on all heavy lifting gear?

(1) Breaking Load.
(2) Light Working Load.
--(3) Safe Working Load.
(4) Maximum Lifting Height.
When working in a cargo hold during cargo operations, what must you
ensure?
(1) That you assist the stevedores as much as possible.
(2) That you stand in the centre of the hold to direct the hatchman/crane
driver.
---(3) That you keep under the coamings as much as possible.
(4) That any radio equipment (like a walkie talkie) is switched off.
When preparing a cargo hold to receive general cargo, what must you
ensure?
(1) That tar paper is laid across the tank top.
(2) That matting is laid across the hold.
---(3) That dunnage is laid across the tank top.
(4) That the tank top is well painted.
What is a "union purchase"?

(1) When using two derricks rigged over each side with runners attached
over the centre of the hold.
(2) When using a fixed derrick and a swinging derrick with runners
attached together.
--(3) When using two derricks, rigged one over the side and one over the
cargo hold.
(4) When using both derricks rigged together and combined to lift heavy
loads.
On what type of ships are you likely to find vertical lift steel pontoon type
hatch covers?
(1) Reefer ships.
(2) Tankers.
---(3) Container ships.
(4) Older general cargo ships.
How would you send a cluster light down into a cargo hold?
(1) By the electric cable.
(2) Carry it down over your shoulder.
--(3) Lower it on a line.
(4) Drop it down to an assistant.
How should gas bottles be stored?

(1) Under the forecastle.
(2) In a refrigerated room.
--(3) In two separate rooms outside the engine room space.
(4) In the engine room workshop close to welding equipment.
Which of the following does NOT contribute to the watertight integrity of the
hatch?
(1) The compressible jointing strips.
--(2) The eccentric rollers.
(3) The locking cleats.
(4) The cross wedges
What important information is stamped on all cargo blocks?

(1) The ship's name and official number.
--(2) The S.W.L.
(3) The manufacturer's name and date of manufacture.
(4) The maintenance order number.
The watertight integrity of a hatch should be tested with a frequency of ....
(1) 6 months.
--(2) 12 months.
(3) 24 months.
(4) 60 months.
On what type of ships are insulated tweendeck covers used?

(1) Bulk carriers.
--(2) Reefer ships.
(3) Cargo liners.
(4) Car carriers.
Cargo winches need which of the following that are NOT fitted to mooring
winches?
(1) A slipping clutch.
--(2) A fail-safe brake.
(3) Two different speeds.
(4) A reverse gear.
When working in a lower hold with the hatch closed, what must you
ensure?
---(1) That there are plenty of portable or cluster lights.
(2) That everyone has a strong flashlight.
(3) That there is a single cluster light.
(4) That there is a portable fan for ventilation.
On a McGregor steel pull type hatch cover what is the bull wire used for?
---(1) It is the pulling wire.
(2) It is the check wire.
(3) It is a preventer wire.
(4) It is a safety wire.
If a cargo space has been closed for a long time, what might be a major
concern?
---(1) The space may be deficient in oxygen.
(2) Some of the cargo may be damaged.
(3) Some of the cargo may have been stolen.
(4) Water from ballast tanks might have leaked into the hold.
Before starting bunkering operations, which one of the following

precautions would you say is the most important?
--(1) Plug the scuppers.
(2) Place smoking and naked light restrictions and notices.
(3) Exhibit International Code B flag and red light.
(4) Check over-side for pollution.
Table "A" of tabular freeboard is applicable to _____.
An oil tanker
A chemical tanker
A gas carrier
All of them
Type C independent tanks are used for _______.
Semi-pressurised gas carriers
Fully-pressurised gas carriers
Ambient temperature gas carriers
Both A & B
The life raft must be provide with thermal protective aids for _____ of the number of persons the
life raft is permitted to accommodate.
50%
100%
10%
5%
The light on top of the life raft canopy shall be manually controlled.
TRUE
FALSE
The canopy of the life raft shall be provided with at least one viewing port.
TRUE
FALSE
The device which shall be fitted to every lifeboat to secure a painter near its bow __________.
Shall be such that the lifeboat does not exhibit unsafe or unstable characteristics
Shall be such that the lifeboat does not exhibit unsafe or unstable characteristics when being
towed by the ship making headway at speeds of up to 5 knots in calm water
Both A & B
Neither A or B
The life raft shall be marked with the __________.
Makers name or trade mark
Serial number
Name and place of servicing station where it was last serviced
All of them
Fuel oil, lubricating oil & other flammable oils shall not be carried in the _____.
After peak tank
Double bottom tank
Settling tank
Fore peak tank

What is the best strategy for fighting a fire in a general cargo hold?
Have water hoses ready for immediate use and open the hatch to determine the seat of the fire.
Open the small personnel entry hatch & get the Breathing Apparatus team in ASAP to determine
the seat of the fire. Based on BA Team findings, act!
Open the small personnel entry hatch, and by applying water hoses flood the hold until at least
two feet of water covers the double-bottom tank tops.
Keep hatches battened down and control the fire with smothering gas until the nearest port is
reached. Boundary cool and monitor temperatures.
Portable soda-acid type fire extinguishers are best suited for fires involving _____.
Solid materials like wood, papers etc.
Electrical cables & equipments
Metallic solids
Flammable liquids
Why is it advisable to board a liferaft without getting wet if possible?
Getting wet will increase the loss of body heat.
You might drink sea water which will make you more thirsty.
You could be attacked by sharks whilst in the water.
Getting wet will increase the body's insulation against cold.
The anti exposure suit shall be constructed with water proof materials such that it has a lateral
field of vision of _______.
At least 120 degrees
More than 180 degrees
At least 180 degrees
More than 120 degrees

This International Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol represents release gripes.
TRUE
FALSE
The life raft must be provided with anti sea sickness medicine sufficient for __________.
At least 24 hours
At least 48 hours
An adult lifejacket shall have sufficient buoyancy and stability in calm fresh water to lift the mouth
of an exhausted or unconscious person _____________ clear of the water.
Not less than 100 mm
Not less than 90 mm
Every enclosed lifeboat shall have _______.
A highly visible colour on the exterior and interior
A highly visible colour in the interior and a colour on the exterior which does not cause discomfort
to the occupants
A colour on the exterior and interior which does not cause discomfort to the occupants
A highly visible colour on the exterior and a colour that does not cause discomfort to the
occupants in the interior
The part labelled as '7' shown in the illustration is _______.
An operating knob
A housing for the knob
A safety guard
None of them
When a fixed high-expansion foam fire extinguishing system is used in a cargo pump room on a
tanker, the foam concentrate supply shall be suitable for extinguishing fires involving the cargo
carried.
TRUE
FALSE
In addition to being fitted with a portable tank containing at least 20 litres of foam, a portable
foam applicator shall have one spare tank.
TRUE
FALSE
Paints, oils and cleaning fluids can be stored in the _____.
Accommodation
Paint locker
Engine room
Galley
What is the Abandon Ship signal?
Seven or more blasts followed by one long blast on the ship's whistle or siren.
The continuous ringing of bells or klaxons throughout the ship.
A command given by the Safety Officer on board
Since 1st July 2006, it has been mandatory for cargo ships and bulk carriers trading outside
20°North or 20°South to provide immersion suits for all persons on board.
TRUE
FALSE
What is the first action when boarding a throw overboard liferaft?
Use the painter to secure the liferaft alongside.
Rig the ship’s boarding ladders.
Check the liferaft for leaks and damage.
Prepare the davit.
In general terms, what would you consider to be your best lifeboat?
The rescue boat
The ship itself
Annual verification of the Document of Compliance should be _______.
Within one month before or after the anniversary date
Within two months before or after the anniversary date
Within three months before or after the anniversary date
Within four months before or after anniversary date
The thermal protective aid shall function properly throughout an air temperature range of
__________.
-30 C to +20 C......
-30 C to +30 C
-20 C to +20 C
-20 C to +30 C
The number of persons it is permitted to accommodate shall be marked on the life raft
__________.
Over each entrance
Over the entrance opposite to the painter
On the top of the life raft
None of them
The minimum number of thermal protective aids that must be provided in a life raft is ____.
Identify the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol:
Portable extinguisher water 50 litres
Water extinguisher in position 50 Litres on deck
50 no's water extinguishers
The discharge velocity of the vapour mixture from the vent outlets of cargo tanks in a tanker
permitting high velocity discharge during loading and ballasting shall not less than ____.
30m/s
20m/s
10m/s
40m/s
dentify the International Maritime Organisation (IMO) symbol:

Non return valve
Remote control for fuel oil valves
Hydrant
Fire line relief valve
You should keep your hard hat on inside the boat.
TRUE
FALSE
After launch of a freefall lifeboat, everyone should remain strapped in their seat.
TRUE
FALSE
Swim on your front.
Swim on your back, using slow, rhythmic strokes.
Never attempt to swim in an immersion suit.
Always swim with another crew member.
Which of the pieces of equipment listed will you not need to take with you when you board the
lifeboat?
Pyrotechnics
An Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB)
Food and water
A waterproof handheld radio

In an emergency situation you may consider to jump overboard and swim towards a launched
lifeboat. Is it that…
You should quickly jump into the sea to be picked up.
A group of persons should jump together and then assist each other once in the water.
Only seafarers trained in survival techniques should jump into the water.
As a general rule, you should not jump into the sea.

An EBBD can be used for:
Escaping a hazardous atmosphere
Medical lockers are arranged as per_____:
All of them: IMO, ILO, WHO
The international Ship and Port Facility Security Code (ISPS) was adopted on 12th Dec 2002, by
resolution 2 of the conference of the contracting government to the international convention
for the safety of life at sea.
Consistent training is essential for the effective protection of the ship: True
What does SSO stands for?
Ship Security Officer
The conference of the contracting governments to the international convention for the safety of life at
sea (SOLAS) 74 held on 12th Dec 2002 created altogether 13 Resolutions.
A poison can enter to the body ____:
All of them: Through the mouth, through the lungs, by injection into the skin.
How many degrees of burn are there:
3 degrees
Every lifeboat shall consist of food rations totaling ___ for each person the lifeboat is permitted to
accommodate.
10,000 kJ
The stability of the life raft when in an inverted position shall be such that it can be righted in a seaway
by one person
True
The painter of a life raft shall not be less than 20 meters.
False (10 meters)
David launched life raft should be capable of being boarded by its full complement of persons.
In not more than 3 minutes
The hydrostatic release unit shall have marked on it whether it is suitable for liferafts with a capacity
of more than 25 persons.
FALSE (NO ESTOY SEGURO)
Every enclosed lifeboat shall have _____:
A highly visible color on the exterior and a color that does not cause discomfort to the occupants in the
interior.
The painter of a life raft shall not be less than:
10 meters
The sea anchor permanently attached to davit launched life rafts shall be arranged for manual
deployment only.
False (automatically deployment)
Every lifebuoy shall have a mass of not less than 2.5 kg.
True
In cargo ships of 1000 gross tonnage and upwards, at least __ independently driven fire pumps shall be
provided.
Two
The part labelled as ‘10’ shown in the illustration is a ___:
No se ve la ilustracion
Which of these extinguishing mediums act by smothering?
All of them: Steam, Foam, Dry Chemical Powder
The part labelled as ‘5’ shown in the MSA explosimeter in the picture is _____:
A non-return valve (CREO)
If the sounding pipes of fuel tanks in machinery space terminate in the same space, they shall be
provided with:
A self closing & locking device with a small diameter self closing control cock.
This international maritime organization IMO Symbol represents “Battery room”
False (Represents ‘Emergency source of electrical power [battery]’)
When using a life-line, the signal: 2 tugs by the attendant means:
I’m picking up slack in the line CREO

This international maritime organization IMO Symbol represents “Emergency source of electrical
power (generator)”
True
This international maritime organization IMO Symbol represents “Remote control for fire pump
valve(s)”
True
This international maritime organization IMO Symbol represents “Monitor for foam”
No estoy Seguro que tenga que ver que este diferente la escritura
EXAMEN KINO
What is the legal requirement for minimum rest hours in any 24 hour period?
10 hour
What percentage of your body heat can be lost through your head and neck in cold weather?
0.4
Taking vigorous exercise shortly before going to bed will help you get a good night’s sleep.
false
The prime objective of management is to develop…
All above
A burn should be cooled for a minimum of…
20 min
What percentage of the air we breathe is actually oxygen?
0.21
How should you take an inspection lamp into an enclosed space?
Attach it to a lanyard.
What should the content of the air cylinder be, for operational use of the Self-Contained Breathing
Apparatus (SCBA)?
80%
Hydrochloric acid is found in…
Stomach
A.B.C. represents:
Airway, Breathing and Circulation
On a ship engaged on a voyage where passengers are scheduled to be on board for more than 24
musters of the passengers shall take place within 24 after their embarkation
24h/24h
The maximum age for donating blood is
60
In hypothermia after the stage of excitement, if the body temperature continues to fall the next stage
is:
All of them
A fire watch must be in place throughout the permit of hot work.
True
What is the biggest cause of high waves forming?
Wind
EXAMEN CASILLAS
Which of the conditions listed may be symptoms of fatigue?
All the above
The occasional use of stimulants when you’re feeling tired doesn’t really do any harm
False
If multiple damages occur to a ship, which damage control will be undertaken first?
Power
A toolbox Talk must be recorded in writing?
True
A crewman reports feeling dizzy after time when working in a paint locker. The correct action is first
to..
Test the compartment atmosphere
Which of the following is a constraint affecting management?

COMPANY POLICY
If you have to enter a space that does not have a breathable atmosphere, you will always need
breathing apparatus
TRUE
It is important that gangway personnel are not distracted and allow unauthorised persons to get on
board:
True
Ship to ship activity means:
Any activity not related to a port facility that involves the transfer of goods or persons from one ship to
another
The minimum age for donating blood should be
None of them (16)
In asphyxia, the pulse is fast
Due to a lack of oxygen to the body
How can an ultra-violet lamp help in spotting forgeries
It shows changes in handwriting
Which of the actions listed is NOT normally defined as Hot Work on board ship?
Grinding
How often should syntetic lines be end-for-ended in normal service?

At least every 4-6 months
EXAMEN GRINGO
Taking vigorous exercise shortly before going to bed will help you get a good nights sleep
False
To aid rapid development of alertness requires a light level in the region of:
1000 lumens
Who issues the ISM document of compliance?

When a casualty has a dislocated shoulder you must?
Tie the arm to the side of body
It is OK to just do chest compressions during resuscitation rather than compressions and ventilations
False
Because you will die from lack of oxygen
Before entering a cargo space after a long ocean passage, what must you ensure?
That the hatch is fully opened and well ventilated.
What is typical air consumption per minute for a person wearing SCBA in an emergency situation,
doing heavy work?
50-60 litres
The conference of the contracting governments to the SOLAS 74 held on 12th December 2002 adopted
a totally new regulation X 2 – 2 namely the
Ship security alert system
Each fire drill shall include
Reporting to stations and preparing for the duties described in the muster list I.E. the manning of fire
parties
The release of Liquified Gas can result in
All of them
What exactly is a search intended to do?
Clear people or stores before boarding or loading
On board training and drills for emergency preparedness for fire shall be conducted and periodically
evaluated to
Indentify areas where there may be a need of improvement
Which of the statements about the timing of Hot Work , is not correct?
Hot work should not begin unless it can be completed within that shift
What does the helm order ease the wheel mean?
Turn the wheel towards amidships and stop when 5 degrees is indicated.
EXAMEN TOSTADO
Who chairs a safety committee?
The master
How is a safety officer appointed?
He is appointed by the company
Who issues the ISM document of compliance?
A damage control plan is required for which type of ship?
All of them
The following is a factor affecting the human elements:
All of them
Prior to enclosed spaces entry, what is the purpose of the Toolbox Talk?
To discuss exactly how the operation will be carried out
What percentage of air is made up by oxygen?
0.21
To test leaks on a SCBA assembly, turn off the air supply and continue breathing until the cauge reads
zero and the face mask collapses on your face.
False
The human heart has
4 chambers
A DoS is agreement reached between with which it interfaces, specifying security measures each will
implement
Both A or B
With second degree burns the skin
There is a blister
Greenstick fractures occur in
Small children
Each abandon ship drill shall include
Reporting to stations and preparing for the duties described in the muster list
The fire watch must monitor all personnel who may enter the area carrying flammable material
True
What knot is used to secure a boatswains chain to a gantline?
Double sheet bend`

EXAMEN GRINGO 2DA VEZ
What blood alcohol level is permissible under U.S. legislation before it is defined as intoxication?
0.04%
All new personnel joining a vessel must undergo a safety induction by a responsible officer.
True
Which colour is generally used on labels and elsewhere to suggest safe conditions?
Green
Meetings should be conducted
All of them
Upon hearing the emergency alarm signal, you must
Assemble at your muster station
A toolbox talk must be recorded in writing.
True
How should you find out what the enclosed space entry risks are from the residues left in a tank?
By consulting the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) *
Basic rescue equipment for an enclosed space may comprise of:
All the above
The person responsible for Ship security assessment is the:
Company Security Officer (CSO) *
The muster list shall specify which officers are assigned to ensure that______ are maintained in good
condition and are ready for immediate use.
Live saving and fire appliances
At security level 3 all cargo operations must stop
True
Greenstick fractures occur in_____
Small children
For which appropriate additional protective security measures shall be maintained for a period of time as
a result of heightened risk of a security incident.
When preparing for Hot Work on the open deck any hydrocarbon vapour content mmust be reduced
to less than:
1% by volume.
What are the cardinal points of a compass?
North, South, East and West
EXAMEN DOS KINO

TO AIR RAPID DEVELOPMENT OF ALERTNESS REQUIERES A LIGHT LEVEL IN THE REGION OF:
1000 lumens
Which authority issues a safe manning certificate
a flag administration
What is the legal requirement for minimum rest hours in any 24 hour period
10 hours
A casualty with a severe bleed at the right wrist is unconscious . what position would you
place them in ?
in the recovery position on the left side
A sprain is an injury to
ligament
Permits to work are normally valid for:
up to 4 hour
A toolbox talk must be recorded in writing
True
How is an additional air supply delivered to the wearer of a self- contained breathing
apparatus (scba)?
throught the bypass valve
An international ship security certificate shall be issued for a specific period, which shall not
exceed____ years
5 years
A casualty in secondary shock_____
none of them
The muster list shall show the duties assigned to different members of crew , one of them
is___
a set of special duties assigned in respect to the use of the fire fighting equipment
Which organization has issued guidelines on who should be responsible for resolving
stowaway cases
the international maritime organization
If the casualty stops breathing , give artificial respiration by
all of them
The fire watch must monitor all personnel who may enter the area carrying flammable
material
TRUE FALSE
Which of these preparations are made prior to encountering heavy weather
all of these
Arterial blood is :
a) Bright red and gushing

b) Bright red and spurting<<<<<
c) Dark red and gushing
d) Dark red and spurting
The life boat shall be market with _________.
a) The number of persons for which th life boat is approve

b) The name and port of registry fo the ship on each side
c) The number of the lifeboat and which ship it belongs to visible from above
d) All of them<<<<
Which of the symptoms listed could indicate a spinal injury?
a) Pain at the spine or elsewhere

b) Loss control of movement
c) Difficulty breathing
d) Any of the above<<<<
For protection of accommodation, service space and control stations on tankers, only method
______shall be used.
a) IC
b) II C
c) III C
d) None of the options
During the resuscitation, the rate of compression should be
a) 60 per minute
b) 80 per minute
c) 100 per minute<<<<<
d) 120 per minute
A simple fracture is one in which the bone is broken, but the overlying skin is _____
a) Is intact <<<<<<
b) Also broken
c) Sometimes broken
d) None of them
Cosmopolitan crew management should considerer________
a) Group- recognition
b) Whole – person
c) Social- rank
d) Political – insensitivity <<<<<
The severity of a burn is assessed by
a) Its depth and its cause

b) Its area and its cause
c) Its cause and is complexity
d) Its depth and its area<<<<<
The occasional use of stimulants when you’re feeling tired doesn’t really do any harm
a) True
b) False<<<<<
Which IMO convention is concerned with seafarer thaining?
a) SOLAS
b) MARPOL
c) STCW<<<<<<
d) UNCLOS
On a gas tanker, a tank of more than 20 m3 requires a minimum of ________
a) 1 release valve
b) 2 release valves<<<<<<
c) 3 release valves
d) None of them
During the stage of apathy in the case of Hypothermia, the _________
a) Heart rate decreases

b) Respiratory rate decreases
c) Both of A & B<<<<<
d) None of them
The capacity of each of the required fire pumps otherthan emergency fire pumps in a cargo ship
shall have a capacity not less than____ of the total required capacity divide by the minimum
number of required fire pumps
a) 50 %
b) 60 %
c) 70%
d) 80 %<<<<
_____ is a substance wich can cause poisoning
a) Rat poison
b) Liquid soap
c) Bleach
d) All of them<<<<<<
Metal fire can be extinguished by using______
a) Normal DCP type extinguishers<<<<<<

b) Sand
c) Water
d) Foam type extinguishers
In category A machinery spaces of a cargo ships, a fixed local application is in addition to the fixed
fire extinguishing system
a) True<<<<<<
b) False
Progressive flooding of the machinery space may be controlled by _______
a) Pumping ballast water

b) Dumping fuel oil
c) Pumping out the space using the highest capacity pump<<<<<
d) Evacuating the space
Each breathing apparatus on board requires only one spare bottle when
a) The vessel has a B/A compressor on board<<<<<<

b) The vessel is less than 2000 dwt
c) The are more than 3 B/As on board
d) All B/A bottles are same type
What speed is suggested as the minimum which would make it difficult for pirates on board a
vessel
a) 10 knots
b) 20 knots
c) 16 knots<<<<<
d) 22 knots
The divice which shall be fitted to every lifeboat to secure a painter near its bow _______
a) Shall be such the lifeboat does not exhibit unsafe or unstable characteristics
b) Shall be such that the lifeboat does not exhibit unsafe or unstable characteristics when
being towed by the ship making headway at speed of up 5 knots in calm water<<<<<<<
c) Both A & B
d) Neither A or B
Upon hearing the emergency alarm, you must _______
a) Report at the boat deck

b) Report to your station as per the muster list <<<<<<<
c) Report to the Emergency control station
d) Report to the Engine Room
Testosterone are ________
a) Male hormones<<<<<<<
b) Female hormones
c) Hermaphrodite hormones
d) All of them
Before you lift a load, what is the most important thing you should do ?
a) Take any of anu sharp edges or greasy surfaces which could cause yo to lose your grip
b) Put on safety shoes
c) Make sure you can manage it alone; if not , get help<<<<<
d) Put on a pair of gloves
The damage control plan deals with damage due to _________
a) Terrorist activity
b) Collision<<<<<<
c) Fire
d) All of them
An elderly person who has developed Hypothermia slowly should be re-warmed________
a) Quickly
b) Rapidly
c) Gradually <<<<<
d) none of them
Every lifeboat shall consist of ________
a) a none proof dipper and rustproof graduated drinking vessel

b) a rustproof dipper with lanyard and a rustproof graduated drinking vessel<<<<<
c) a dipper with lanyard and graduated drinking vessel with lanyard
d) a rust proof dipper with lanyard and rustproof graduated drinking vessel with layard
In a heat exhaustion muscular cramps occur because of _______
a) Salt deficient
b) Sugar deficient
c) Water deficient<<<<<<
d) None of them
Statically in which of these areas is piracy not a threat?
a) Indonesia
b) Red sea
c) Malacca Straits
d) Columbia<<<<<<<
If the casualty is bleeding, the method of elevation_______.
a) Helps to reduce bleeding <<<<<<

b) Does not help
c) Increases bleeding
d) None of them
a) Pale skin, normal breathing and fast pulse

b) Red skin, fast breathing and slow pulse
c) Normal skin, normal breathing and fast pulse
d) Pale skin, noisy breathing and fast pulse<<<<<
Flooding of the machinery space due to water entering from the duct keel may controlled by first
a) Pumping out the space using the highest capacity pump<<<<<<

b) Closing the WT bulkhead door
c) Informing the chief Engineer
d) Informing the master
Which of these is a condition met amongst other to maintain discipline?
a) Avoid arguments <<<<<

b) No discrimination
c) Disciplinary warmings
d) Emotional control
If a single person does C.P.R the ratio is _______
a) One : two
b) 02:15<<<<<<
c) 01:05
d) All of them
A port security plan (PFSP) a plan developed to ensure the application of measures designed to
protect _______
a) Port facility and ships <<<<<<

b) Persons, cargo , cargo transport write and ships stores with in the port facility from the
risk of security incident
c) Only A
d) Both A & B
The life raft shall _______
a) Be capable of being inflated by one person

b) Be inflated with non toxic gas
c) Maintain its from when fully loaded<<<<<
d) All of them
The thermal protective aid shall permit the wearer to remove it in the water in ________ if it
impairs their ability to swim
a) Not more than 4 minutes

b) Not more than 1 minute
c) Not more than 2 minutes<<<<
d) Not more than 5 minutes
Every lifeboat shall be provide with ______
a) A radar reflector
b) A survival craft radar transponder
c) A radar reflector unless a survival craft radar transponder is stowed in lifeboat<<<<<
d) Both A&B
The painter of a life raft shall not be less than 15 meters
a) True <<<<<<
b) False
A simple fracture is one in which the bone id broken, but the overlying skin is _______
a) Is intact<<<<<<
b) Al so broken
c) Sometimes broken
d) None of them
If a weak link is using in the float tree arrangement it shall ______.
a) Not be broken by the force required to pull the painter from the life raft container
b) It applicable be of sufficient strength to permit the inflation of the life raft
c) Break under a strain of 2.2+/- 0.4 kN
d) All of them<<<<<<<
To limit fire growth potential in every space of the ship the functional requirement that shall be
provided is ________
a) A means of control for air supply to the space

b) A means of control for flammable liquids in the space
c) The restriction of the use of combustible materials
d) All of them<<<<<
Good inter- personal relationships can be achieved through______
a) Ambience<<<<<
b) Disposition
c) Companionship
d) Persuasion
The atmospheric boiling point of propane (C3 H8) is:
 -40.3°C
 -41.3°C
 -42.3°C
 -43.3°C
To get absolute temperatures from Celsius to kelvin add:
 173
 290
 278
 273
What does DPA stand for?
 Designated person Ashore

 Dynamic position ashore
 Designated position Ashore
 None of them
In a single screw ship, the stern frame supports:
 Rudder stock
 Stern tube
 Propeller boss
 Bilge keel
Compared to the sheer forward, the sheer aft is:
 More
 Less
 The same
 Sometimes more, sometimes less
The outboard deck strake is known as the:
 Outer strake
 Side strake
 Deck stringer
 Gunwale strake
A non-destructive test of a welded joint may be carried out by ___________

• A tensile test
• A bend test
• A dye penetrant test
• A charpy V-notch test
Noise is ______
• Recorded according to sound pressure level
• Measured on a logarithmic scale of bel (b)
• Measured in decibel (db)
• All of them
You are on board a wood chip carrier which has completed a loaded passage
from Tasmania to Japan. An electrical officer has been instructed to go on
deck to assist with the opening of hatch covers in order to commence cargo
operations. What precautions specific to the operation are you going to
advise?
• Precautions against slippery decks
• To not enter the hold till the chief officer has checked the atmosphere in
there and approved in writing.
• That no more than five people should enter the hold at a time
• No precautions are necessary as the deck power is on they can do what
they want.
Objective evidence means quantitative or qualitative _______ pertaining to

safety or to the existence and implementation of a safety management
system element which is based on _______ and which can be verified
• Information / observation
• Records / measurement
• Statements of facts / test
• Information, records or statements of facts / observation, measurement or
testing
One of the objetives of the Safety Management System (SMS) of International

Safety Management (ISM) Code shall be to _______
• Ensure compliance with mandatory rules and regulations
• Ensure compliance with International Maritime Organization (IMO)
resolution A 787 (19) on port state control
• Ensure compliance of regulations of chapter (X of Safety of Life at Sea
(SOLAS) 74 and all 16 sections of ISM Code
• Maintain quality system as per objectives of ISO 9000 and 14000
The following are saturated hydro-carbons
• Methane and Ethane
• Methane and Propane
• Methane, Ethane , Propane and Butane
• Methane, Ethylene, Propylene, Butylene.
1. What does this sign mean?
release gripes
reléase falls
let go lifeboat
secure painter
2. Self contained breathing apparatus shall have compressed air in one or two bottles with at
least____ of free air and shall be capable of functioning for at least.
1000 litre/45min
1150 litre/35min
1200 litre/30min
1500 litre/1hour

Vetting inspectors
Ships Agents
None of the above
3. You have to abandon your vessel –how soon after abandonment will you issue wáter to
survivors?
immediately
After 6 hours
After 12 hours
After 24 hours
4. What is the purpose of the control position on an enclosed lifeboat?

It is for sending out distress messages giving the ships last known position
It facilitates entering the names of all persons on board. This is an essential record keeping
requirement.
Its a place reserved for injured persons
its the position from which the boat is steered and the safety systems are operated
5 The face seal of an immersion suit is extremely important beacause it helps to prevent heat loss
from the head.
TRUE
FALSE
6. Cold water shock lasts for around:

30 seconds
2 minutes
30 minutes
1 hour
7. In general terms, what would you consider to be your best lifeboat?
The rescue boat
The ship itself
8. A mixture of vapour and air containing vapour between lower flammable limit (LFL) and upper
flammable limit a____.
lean mixture
Rich mixture
Volatile mixture
Flammable mixture
9. Arrangements for gas measurement in doublé full spaces and doublé bottom spaces in tankers
shall be provided.
TRUE
FALSE
10. The part labelled as 14 shown in the MSA explosimeter in the picture is a_______.
Indicating lamp
Ballast lamp
Induction coil
None of them
11. Identify the international maritime organisation (IMO) symbol

portable extinguisher water 50 litres
water extinguisher in position 50 litres on deck
50 no´s water extinguisher
12. A dry chemical powder (DCP) fire extinguisher can be used to extinguish_____.
Class A & B fires
Class B & C fires
Class C & D fires
Class D fire
13. Identify the international maritime organisation (IMO) symbol:

Lubricating oil line
B class división
Compressed air line
Hydraulic oil line
Vetting inspectors
Ships agents
None of the above
15. The certificate of approval, endorsed by the administration for each lifeboat, must
contain____.
Information regarding the number of persons the lifeboat is approved to carry
Information regarding the administration which approved it and any operational restrictions.
The lifeboat model and serial number
All of them
16. An adult lifejacket shall allow the person wearing it to_____.

Swim a short distance
Board a survival craft
Both A & B
Neither A or B
17. Every lifebuoy shall be fitted with a grabline not less than___ times the outside diameter of the
body of the buoy in length
2
3
4
5
18. Radar transponders work on which frequency?

9 GHz
3 GHz
406 MHz
2182 KHz
19. The canopy of the life raft shall be provided with at least one viewing port
TRUE
FALSE
20. The buoyant smoke signal shall continue to emit smoke when submerged in water for a period
of____ seconds under 100 mm of water
15
10
5
20
unpacked and donned______.
With assitance within 2 minutes
22. The results of internal safety audit and review under ISM Code should be brought to the
attention of_____.
All personnel having responsibility of the ship
All the personnel having responsibility in the área involved
All the management personnel of the ship
All the management personnel responsible in the área involved
23. The protocol of 1988 on Harmonized System of Survey and Certification (HSSC) for Annex IV of
international Convention for the prevention of pollution from ships (MARPOL) 73/78 has not been
adopted till date
TRUE
FALSE
24. An indirect refrigeration cycle is a process

Where an external refrigeration plant is employed to condense the cargo vapour without it being
compressed.
Where boil off is compressed, condensed and returned to the tank in a single stage.
In which vapour boil off from cargo tank is condensed in a cargo condenser in which coolant is a
refrigerant gas such as R22.
Where boil off is compressed condensed and returned to the tank in two stages
25. Any increase in the sheer of a ship ____ the assigned freeboard from the tabular freeboard
Increases
Decreases
26. The immersion suit should be stored in a cool, dry place

TRUE
FALSE
27. Liqurfied natural gas (LNGs) can be carried in _______ ships.

fully-refrigerated
semi-pressurised
fully-pressurised
semi-refrigerated
28. simulated launching of a freefall lifeboat is:
a training exercise done using a computer simulation
performed in the same way as an actual launch would be carried out
an alternative to the 6 monthly launch required by IMO regulation
a paper exercise
29. the emission of flammable vapours in | system of the cargo tanks of tankers shall be such as to
minimise the possibillity of such vapours
bein admitted to enclosed spaces containing a source of ignition
collecting in the vicinity of deck machinery or equipment which may constitute an ignition hazard
neither A or B
both A & B
30. what do the letters E.P.I.R.B stand for?

enhanced plotted information radio broadcast
emergency position indicating Radio beacon
extremely powerfuul inmersed rescue boat
electronic precision iluminated radar buoy
31. what is the purpose of the canopy over the inflatable liferaft?
it is designed as a safety net to jump onto for rapid embarkation
the main purpose is to provide strength to the design of the raft
it is designed to give protection against exposure
it provides additional space for evacuees
32.how many people are normally needed to right a 25 person liferaft?

1
2
3
25 person liferaft are too heavy to right
33. After throwing a liferaft into the water, what should be done next?
jump into the water and swim to the container, then hold onto it.
throw a lifebuoy into the water as near to the liferaft as posible
climb down the embarkation ladder and board the liferaft
pull the painter all the way out and give it a tug to inflate the liferaft
34. If your lifeboat has an internal air supply, how long will the constant flow of air last?
A minimun of 2 minutes
35. what should be done before throwing the liferaft overboard, after securing the painter to a
strong point?
open the fiberglass case
inflate the liferaft
check that there is nothing in the sea below
untie the painter from the strong point
36. The international Maritime organisation (IMO) symbol represents ¨50 litres water
extinguisher¨
TRUE
FALSE

A CLASS HINGED FIRE DOOR WATER TIGHT
TRUE
FALSE
38. Identify the international Maritime organisation (IMO) symbol

B class hinged fire door
compressed air adaptor
compressed air main line with branch
main fire line to engine room with branch pipe
39. The part labelled as 11 shown in the illustration is a

drain pipe
dip tuve
strainer
all of them

Fixed fire extinguishing battery CO2
TRUE
FALSE
41. The cargo pump romos in tankers shall be provided with a fixed fire extinguishing system
suitable for machinery spaces of category A
TRUE
FALSE
42. Every lifeboat to be launched by a fall or falls, except a free fall lifeboat, shall be fitted with a
reléase mechanism and____.
the release control shall be clearly marked in a color that contrasts with its surroundings
the fixed structural connections of the release mechanism shall be designed with a safety factor of
6
both a & b
neither a or b

two daylight signalling mirrors with instructions on its use
one daylight signalling mirror
two daylight signalling mirrors
one daylight signalling mirror with instructions on its use
44. Davit launched life raft should be capable of being boarded by its full complement of persons
in not more than 3 minutes
TRUE
FALSE
45. An immersion suit shall permit the person wearing it to climb up and down a vertical ladder of
46. Every lifebuoy shall be constructed to withstand a drop into the water from the height at
which it is stowed above the waterline in the lightest seagoing condition or________ whichever is
the greater, without impairing either its operating.
20 metres
30 metres
20 feet
30 feet
47. the number of persons which a life raft be permitted to accommodate shall be equal to the
greatest whole number obtained by dividing by ____ of the volumen, measured in cubic meters, of
the main buoyancy tubes when inflated.
0.096
0.96
0.069
0.69
48. tabular freeboard in table A for a ship is

more than table B
same as table B
Less than table B
none of them
49. A list of noxious liquid substances (NLS) substances may be obtained from the
International bulk carrier (IBC) code
Bulk carrier (BC) code
international maritime dangerous goods code (IMDG) code
High speed craft (HSC) code
50. the functional requirements of safety management system (SMS) of a Company consists of
compliance with port state control requirements
procedures for reporting accidents and non-conformities with the provision of code
compliance with the U.S. coast guard and european unión requirements
compliance with ISO 9000 and 14000 requirements
51. The implementation of a convention by a member country of the international maritime
organisation (IMO) is done by
Ratification
Signature
Accession
The promulgation of local law
52. As persection 6 of the international safety management (ISM) code i.e. where the Company is
to provide adequate resources and personnel, one of the components for section 6 is
The appointment of a master, and a superintendent ashore and manning through an agent
To employ a qualified master
To employ a master who is qualified for command, conversant with the company´s safety
management system (ISM) given necessary support so that his duties can be safety performed.
To employ a master duty certified by the contracting government
53. The communication system provided onboard for use in an emergency may consist of
PA system
UHF/ VHF
All of them
54. why is it important to keep the bowsing lines within the raft?
So that they can be used to tie the rafts together when the raft is clear
so that they can be used to tie evacuees together if the liferaft should sink
so that the dave hook can be raised ready for the next launch
so that they will be prevented from snagging and tipping up raft while it is being lowered
55. the outer diameter of every lifebuoy should not be

more than 800mm
more than 400mm
less than 400mm
less than 800mm
56. Since 1st july 2006, it has been mandatory for cargo ships and bulk carriers trading outside 20°
north or 20° south provide immersion suits for all persons on board.
TRUE
FALSE
57. Control stations are those spaces in which

the main navigation or radio equipment is located
an emergency source of power is located or fire control equipment is located
any of the 4 systems mentioned is A & B
all of the 4 systems mentioned in A & B
58. lifeboat batteries shall be recharged

from the ship´s power supply
with a solar battery charger
both A & B
none of them
59. Immersion suits are provided with a rescue loop. What is this designed for?
it is intended for pulling the wearer alongside the rescue boat
it is designed for attaching to a helicopter´s rescue hook
it is used for keeping survivors together in the water and preventing them from drifting apart
it is only used for storage and keeps the suits ready for immediate use
60. the totally revised chapter II-2 of safety of life at sea (SOLAS) 74 is applicable in entirety for
ships constructed on or after 1 july, 2002
ships constructed on or after 1st july 2004
ships constructed on or after 1 juy 2006
none of the option
61 machinery spaces of category A containing oil fired boilers or oil fuel units shall be provided
with
a fixed gas fire extinguishing system
a fixed high expansión foam fire extinguishing system
a fixed pressure water spraying and water – mist fire extinguishing system
any of A, b & C
62. When the boat is at a safe distance from the ship, the painter should be released.
TRUE
FALSE
63. How should gas bottles be stored?

Under the forecastle
In a refrigerated room
In two separate romos outside the engine room space
in the engine room workshop close to welding equipment
64. The stability of the life raft when in an inverted position shall be such that it will upright
automatically
TRUE
FALSE
65. Procedures for port state control (PSC) are not required to be put into force separately for all
the chapters of safety of life at sea (SOLAS) 74, as chapter 1, general provisions, a new regulation
about PSC has been added
TRUE
FALSE
66. The lifeboat shall be marked with

The number of persons for which the lifeboat is approved
the name and port of registry of the ship on each side
the number of the lifeboat and which ship it belongs to visible from above
all of them
67. An oil tanker carrying noxious liquid substance (NLS) substances must have on board
carrying dangerous chemicals in bulk (IBC) code
IPPC for noxious liquid substance (NLS)
carrying liquefied gases in bulk (IGC) code
None of them
68. the sea anchor in a life raft must be deployed automatically on inflation
TRUE
FALSE
69. Fuel oil, lubricating oil & other flammable oils shall not be carried in the
After peak tank
Double bottom tank
Settling tank
Fore peak tank
70. In the case of lifeboat to be launched by falls, the boat hooks shall be kept free for fending-off
purposes.
TRUE
FALSE
80. The venting arrangements in each cargo tank of a tanker

Shall be independent
May be independent or combined with other cargo tanks
May be independent or combined and may be incorporated into the inert gas piping
Non of them
81. What are tricing pennants?
life-lines at the sides of lifeboats to help people who have fallen in the water to get back into the
lifeboat
mooring ropes to secure the lifeboat to the bollar don the main deck
An emergency three flag signal to indicate that the vessel is in distress
A device to bring the boa tinto the ship´s side after partial release from the davits
82. The international maritime organisation (IMO) symbol represents

SECURE HATCHES
TRUE
FALSE
83. the hand flare shall

be contained in a water resistant casing
have brief instructions or diagrams illustrating its use printed on its casing
have a selft contained means of ignition
all of them
84. Lifebuoy self activating smoke signals shall continue to emit smoke when fully submerged in
water for a period of at least
10 seconds
5 seconds
3 seconds
6 seconds
85. Ethylene carriers are normally

Fully pressurised vessels
Semi- pressurised vessels
Fully refrigerated vessels
Neither A, B or C
86. The lamp fitted on the outside of the lifeboat shall provide illumination
87. The life raft must be provided with anti sea sickness medicine sufficient for
at least 24 hours
at least 48 hours
88. A non-conformity is an observed___ where objetive evidence indicates the non-fulfilment of

specified requirements.
Fact
Condition
Situation
Procedure
89. The integral tanks of a gas carrier may be used for products provided the boiling point of the
cargo is not below
- 5°C
- 7°C
- 10°C
-15°C
90. MARVS is the ____ allowable relief valve setting of a cargo tank in a ship carrying liquefied
gases in bulk.
Minimun
maximun
average
practically
1. The safety of Life at Sea Convention was developed by the __________.
International maritime Organization (IMO)
2. SOLAS requires a lifesaving training manual be provided in each crew

cabinor in the ________?
recreation adn messrooms
3. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as

possible after entering a liferaft is to?
Prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting.
4. One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an
inflatable liferaft is to?
Take an anti-seasickness pill.
5. Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who have boarded a
liferaft in an emergency?
Take anti-seasickness pills, if available.
6. When collecting condensation for drinking water, ___________
a sponge used to mop up and store condensation must be kept salt free.
7. When using the rain water collection tubes on a liferaft, the first collection
should be _________
Poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy.
8. Which statement concerning the sources of drinking water is FALSE?
Fresh water may be obtained from fish.
9. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft. How much water per
day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours.
1 Pint
10. Once you have established the daily ration of drinking water in a survival
situation, how should you drink it?
One-third the daily ration three times daily.
11. Seawater may be used for drinking ________
Under no conditions
12. Seawater may be used for drinking ____________
Under no conditions
13. Seawater may be used for drinking ____________
under no conditions
14. Drinking saltwater will ________
dehydrate you
15. Drinking salt water will ____________
dehydrate you
16. Provided every effort is made to preserve body moisture content by avoiding
perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without water?
8-14 days
17. After abandoning a vessel, water that is consumed within the first 24 hours
will _________
pass through the body with little absorbed by the system.
18. In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to
personnel who are ___________
sick or injured
19. When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or
liferaft?
After 24 hours
20. If you have to jump in the wate when abandoning ship, your legs should be?
extended straight down and crossed at the ankles.
21. When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial height
without a life jacket, you should ________
Jump feet first, covering your nose and mouth with one hand and grasping
the opposing upper arm with the other.
22. When abandoning ship and jumping into the water from a substantial height,
you should ___________
Jump feet first, holding onto your lifejacket with one hand while covering
your nose and mouth with the other.
23. If you must jump from a MODU, your posture should include ____________
Holding down the life preserver against the chest with one arm crossing
the other, covering the mouth and nose wiht a hand, and feet together.
24. If you wear extra clothing when entering the water after abandoning ship it
will ______
preserve body heat
25. In evacuation from a MODU, an individual without the option of a survival

craft or liferaft should enter the water on the leeward side, exept when
_______
there is burning oil on the water
there is hydrogen sulfide present
there is a severe list to the windward side of the MODU.
26. If you must enter water on which there is an oil fire, you should _______
enter the water on the windwar side of the vessel
27. If you must swim through an oil fire, you should NOT _________
swim with the wind.

28. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning ship, they
should _______
form a small circular group to create a warmer pocket of water in the

center of the circle.
29. To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning ship, they
should _________
be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in

the water.
30. When a helicopter is lifting personnel from a survival craft, the other
individuals in the craft should _________
remain seated inside the craft to provide body weight for stability.
31. You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. you
should inflate your life jacket _______
after exiting clear of the helicopter.
32. A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a lifeboat. If the
person appears in danger of drowning, the lifeboat should make ________
the most direct approach
33. When a man who is conscious has fallen overboard is being picked up by a
lifeboat, the boat should approach with the wind _______
just off the bow and the victim to leeward.
34. You are approaching a disabled vessel in order to remove survivors from it. If
your vessel drifts faster than the disabled vessel, how should you make your
approach?
To windward of the disabled vessel
35. You are on a 165 foot (50.3) long vessel with a draft of 9 feet (2.7 meters)
and twin screws. Which statement about rescuing a survivor in the water with
ship pickup is TRUE?
A pickup off the weather bow gives maximum maneuverability with the
least possibility of injury to the man.
36. You are picking up an unconscious person that has fallen overboard in a fresh
breeze. For safety reasons a small craft should approach with the _______
victim to windward
37. You are trying to rescue survivors from a wrecked vessel on fire. You should
approach ________
to windward of the wrecked vessel.
38. When transferring survivors from a survival craft to a rescue vessel,

personnel on board the craft should _______
remain seated inside the survival craft and make the transfer on person at a
time
39. When transferring survivors from an enclosed lifeboat to a rescue vessel,

personnel on board the boat should _______
remain seated inside and make the transfer one person at a time
40. You are proceeding to a distress site and expect large numbers of people in
the water. Which statement is TRUE?
An inflatable liferaft secured alongside can be an effective boarding

station for transfer of survivors from the boats.
41. When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in
charge of the survival craft should ______
wait for calver weather before transferring personnel.
42. You are proceeding to a distress site. The survivors are in liferafts. What will
make your ship more visible to the survivors?
Turning on all availabe deck lights at night
43. You are proceeding to a distress site where the survivors are in liferafts.
Which action will assist in making your vessel more visible to the survivors?
Making smoke in daylight
44. On which type davit does the davit head stay at the same height?
Radial
45. Whcih type of davit is not considered to be a mechanical davit?
radial
46. A mechanical davit is designed to automatically ______
lift the boat off the inboard chocks
47. Your vessel is equipped with mechanical davits. When stowing the lifeboat
after a drill while underway, you should _____
ensure the falls are taut
48. While cranking out a quadrantal davit, slippage of the quadrant due to
excessive wear or failure of the teeth in the quadrant will cause the _______
davit arm to pivot on the traveling nut and the head to fall outboard
49. The boat is stowed on the davit rather than on a cradle with which type of
davit?
Crescent
50. What is required to launch a boat stowed in a crescent davit?
Crank the crescent out.
51. The pivot pin at the base of a sheath-screw boom davit must be ________
periodically removed for inspection and lubricated
52. The type of davit on which you mus turn a crank in order to swing the
lifeboat out over the ship's side is a _________
sheath-screw davit
53. Many sheath-screw davits have markings to indicate the maximum angle to
which they should be cranked out. If the angle is exceeded, the davit _______
screw may come out of the sheath

54. The lifeboats on your bessel are stowed on cradles on deck and are handled
by sheath-screw boom davits. Which of the following statments about
launching a boat is TRUE?
The outboard section of the cradle must be released.
55. Which davit type may be operated by one man?
Gravity
56. The most common type of davit found on merchant vessels today is the
_______
gravity
57. What could be a result of insufficient lubrication of lifeboat winches and

davits?
All of the above
o a) Moisture accumulation in winch motor damaging the electrical

wiring
o b) Freezing of gears n cold weather
o c) Corroding of sheaves on the davits so they will not rotate
o d)all of the above
58. The type davits shown are _________. See Diagram: D008SA
gravity davits
59. On open lifeboats, the purpose of the wire stretched between the davit heads
is to _________
support the manropes
60. Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat installations on Great Lakes

vessels?
All lifelines shall be able to reach the water at the vesses's lightest draft
with a 20 degree list
61. Which statement is TRUE concerning lifeboat gripes?
They may be adjusted by a turnbuckle

62. Frapping lines ______
reduce the swinging of the lifeboat at the embarkation level
63. Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to ______
reduce the swinging of the lifeboat as it is being lowered from the

embarkation level
64. Lines passed around the falls to hold the boat while passengers are boarding
are _________
frapping lines
65. What is TRUE concerning frapping lines?
They are used to steady a lifeboat when lowered
66. When launching a lifeboat, frapping lines should be rigged ________
a the emparkation deck
67. When lowering lifeboats in heavy seas, a good practice is to rig frapping lines
______
with a lead of about 45 degrees to the boat
68. As shown, a frapping line is indicated by number ______ See Diagram:

D016SA
69. The purpose of the tricing pendants is to ______
hold a lifeboat next to the embarkation deck while loading
70. What the the purpose of tricing pendants?
They hold the lifeboat alongside the embarkaion deck.
71. When lowering a boat with gravity davits, it will be pulled into the
embarkation deck by the ______
tricing pendants
72. In launching a lifeboat, when should the tricing pendants be released?
After all people have been embarked
73. The tricing pendants should be released _________
after loading the passengers
74. When launching a lifeboat, the tricing pennants should be released

_________
When launching a lifeboat, the tricing pennants should be released

________
75. What will be released by pulling on line number 5? See Diagram:D012SA
Tricing pendant
76. The mechanism that will be release the tricing pendant, as shown, is
__________. See Diagram: D012SA
The McCluney hook
77. After the boat is at the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up
the tracks and are stopped by the _______
limit switch
78. Limit switches are used on which davits?
Gravity davits
79. You will find a limit switch on a _______
gravity davit
80. Limit switches _______
cut off power to the winch when the lifboat nears the final stowed position
81. The limit switches on a MODUs survival-craft reaches the final stowage
position
stop the winch just before the craft reaches the final stowage position
82. What is the purpose of the limit switch on gravity davits?
To cut off the power when the davits are about 12 inches or more from the
track safty stops.
83. Limit switches on gravity davits shold be tested by _______
pushing the switch lever arm while the winch is running
84. The governor brake on a lifeboat winch shall be capable of countrolling the
speed of lowering a fully equipped lifeboat from a cargo ship at ______
Not more than 120 feet per minute
85. The maximum spped of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled
by the _________
govenor brake
86. When lifeboat winches with grooved drums are fitted on a vessel the lead
sheaves to the drums shall be located to provide fleet angles of not more than
______
8 degrees
87. Winch drums for lifeboat falls shall have a diameter at the base of the groove
equal to at least ________
16 times the diameter of the wire rope
88. In launching a covered lifeboat, what would safely lower the lifeboat from
inside the lifeboat cabin?
Winch remote control wire
89. What is the accepted standard for wire rope falls used in connection with the
lifeboat gear?
Six by nineteen regular-lay filler wire rope
90. The falls on gravity davits are ________
wire
91. Blocks and falls used as lifeboat gear must be designed with a minimum
safety factor of _____
6, based on the maximum working load
92. According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken at
30-month intervals?
End-for-ended
93. According to the SOLAS regulations, lifeboat falls must be renewed at

intervals of how many years?
94. According to the regulations for lifeboat falls, which action must be taken
with the falls no later than 5-year intervalas?
Renewed
95. Preventer bars are fitted on lifeboat releasing gear to prevent __________
accidental unhooking when the falls become slack
96. On a lifeboat equipped with Rottmer-type releasing gear, turning the releaing
lever releases ________
both falls at the same time even if the boat has not reached the water
97. To disengage a survivoal craft suspended from the cable above the water, you
must pull the safety pin and _______
pull the hook release handle and use the rachet bar
98. An "on-load" release system on a survival craft means the cable can be
released ______
at any time
99. The "off-load" release system on a survival craft is designed to be activated

_________
when there is no load on the cable

100. You operate the lever shown when the lifeboat is ________. See
Diagram: D012SA
waterborne
101. What size bilge pump is required for a lifeboat which has a capacity of
675 cubic feet?
102. In an open lifeboat, the lifeboat compass is usually _______
placed in a fixed bracket when being used
103. When using the lifeboat compass, you must be careful to ________
All of the above
o a) set it on the centerline of the boat.

o b) apply the correction for compass error
o c) keep metal objects away from it
o d) all of the above
104. Lifeboat hatchets should be ______
secured at each end of the boat whith a lanyard
105. A sweep oar is an oar that is?
Longer than the others used for steering
106. The length of the steering oar in a lifeboat is?
Longer than the rowing oars
107. The number of rowing oars that must be carried in a motor-propelled

open lifeboat on a cargo vessel is?
Specified by the manufacturer
108. The steering oar in a lifeboat is?
Longer than the others and should be lashed to the stern
109. The steering oar in a lifeboat is usually referred to as the?

Sweep oar
110. How should the lifeboat sea painter be rigged?
Secured to the inboard side of a forward thwart and led inboard of the falls
111. If a lifeboat is stowed 40 feet above the light water draft and 200 feet
from the bow, how long must the sea painter be?
80 feet
112. The minimum length of the painter for a lifeboat in ocean service is?
two times the distance from the boat deck to the light waterline or 50 feet
whichever is greater
113. The painter which is to be attached to the thwart of a lifeboat should?
Have a long eye splice at the end, and a hardwood toggle should be
attached to the thwart with a lanyard
114. The sea painter is secured in the lifeboat by?
A turn around a forward thwart with a toggle pin thru the eye
115. The sea painter of a lifeboat should be led
Forward and outside of all obstructions
116. The sea painter of a lifeboat should be secured?
To an inboard thwart in the forward one-third of the boat
117. This illustration shows the correct method of securing a? See Diagram:
D009SA
Sea Painter
118. A sea anchor is
A cone shaped bag used to slow down the wind drift effect
119. An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using

All of the above
o a) A boat bucket
o b) An air tank filled with water
o c) An oar and canvas weighted down
o d) All of the above
120. Due to the shape of the sea anchor, the best way to haul it back aboard
is by?
Its trip line
121. Spreading oil on the open sea has the effect of
Preventing the waves crest from breaking
122. The purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor is to?
Aid in its recovery
123. Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will?
Reduce your drift rate
124. When a sea anchor for a lifeb oat is properly rigged, it will?
Help to prevent broaching
125. When you stream a sea anchor, you should make sure that the holding
line is?
Long enough to cause the pull to be more horizontal than downward
126. You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and
unable to make way. To prevent broaching, you should?
Put out the sea anchor
127. Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can
reduce the possibility of capsizing by?
Rigging a sea anchor
128. When using a hand held smoke signal from a lifeboat, you should
activate the signal?
On the downwind side
129. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?
Hand held flares and orange smoke signals are required.
130. Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only?
Hand-held orange smoke distress flard
131. When should you use distress flares and rockets?
Only when ther is a chance of their being seen by rescue vessels
132. Which items of lifeboat equipment would be most suitable for night
signaling to a ship on the horizon?
A red parachute flare
133. How many liters of water per person must be carried in lifeboats on a
tankship sailing a coastwise route?
Three
134. On an oceangoing vessel, for each person a lifeboat (without desalting

kits) is certified to carry, the boat must be supplied with?
3 liters of water
135. The required amount of water for each person in a lifeboat on an

oceangoing vessel, on an international voyage, is?
3 liters
136. For each person it is certified to carry, a lifeboat on an oceangoing

passenger vessel must be provided with all of the following EXCEPT
1 life preserver
137. When the survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air they
are used for?
An air supply for personnel

138. What is NOT a function of the air supply of a covered lifeboat?
Pressurizes water spray system
139. When operating the air supply system in a covered lifeboat the
hatches, doors, and oar ports should be closed
140. With the air supply on, the air pressure in an enclosed lifeboat will be?
Greater than outside air pressure
141. The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled with
Compressed air
142. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats. Which

statment is TRUE when the boat is enveloped in flames?
An air tank will provide anbout ten minutes of air for the survivors and the
engine
143. Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?
They are more seaworthy and less likely to be swamped or broach to.
144. In order for the automatic lifeboat drain to operate properly?
The cage must be free of rubbish or the ball may not seat properly
145. Prior to lowering the lifeboat, the most important item to check is the?
Boat plug
146. Upon hearing the abandon ship signal, you put on your life jacket and
report to your station. After the cover is removed you board your open
lifeboat. The FIRST think to do is to?
Put the cap on the drain
147. Aluminum lifeboats are subject to damage by electrolytic corrosion

(the aluminum being eaten away). In working around boats of aluminum you
must be very careful...
Not to leave steel or iron tools lying in or near these boats
148. In order to prevent galvanic corrosion, an aluminum boat must be

insulated from the davits and gripes. Which of the following is acceptable as
an insulator?
Hard Rubber
149. The grab rail of a metal lifeboat is normally located?
Along the turn of the bilge
150. What is the purpose of limber holes?
To allow water in the bilge to get to the boat drain
151. The survival capsule is manufactured with fire retardant _______
Fiberglass
152. The bottom row of planting next to the keel of a lifeboat is known as
the _______
garboard strake
153. Most lifeboats are equipped with _____
Unbalanced rudders
154. Stretchers are fitted in lifeboats to provide a _______
Place for rowers to brace their feet
155. The purpose for the bag or box on top of some survival craft is to?
Right the craft in case of capsizing
156. A person referring to the stern sheets of a lifeboat is speaking of?
The aftermost seating
157. The purpose of a water spray system on a covered lifeboat is to?
Keep the lifeboat from reaching combustion

158. The sprinkler system of an enclosed lifeboat is used to?
cool the craft in a fire
159. With the sprinkler system and air system on and all hatches shut, the
survival craft will provide protection from a
fire and toxic environment
160. The purpose of air tanks in a lifeboat is to?
Keep the boat afloat if flooded
161. A fully loaded motor-propelled lifeboat must be capable of attaining a

speed of at least ________
6 knots in smooth water
162. Which statement is TRUE concerning a motor lifeboat?
It must be able to maintain a loaded speed of 6 knots.
163. The engine in a covered lifeboat is fueled with?
Diesel oil
164. The survival craft's engine is fueled with?
Diesel oil
165. A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for
a period of?
24 hours
166. At a speed of 6 knots the fuel aboard a survival craft should last?
24 hours
167. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to

operate continuously at 6 knots for how many hours?
24
168. The quantity of fuel required to be carrried in a motor lifeboat is
The quanity needed for 24 hours of continous operation
169. Before hydraulic starting of an engine on a covered lifeboat, what need

NOT be checked?
Cold-spark voltage reading test lamp
170. If the engine of a survival craft does not start, check to see?
That the fuel valve is open
171. The backup system on an electric start survival craft is a
Hand crank
172. Aboard a survival craft, ether can be used to?
Start an engine in cold weather
173. When inspecting a survival craft, you should check to make sure that
the?
Hydraulic pressure is within the specified range
174. As shown, number 1 operates the _________. See Diagram: D011SA
Fleming gear
175. As shown, number 1 operates the ________. See Diagram: D011SA
Fleming gear
176. In illustration D011SA, number 1 operates the ________. See

Diagram: D011SA
Fleming gear
177. The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be
Forwardmost on the port side
178. The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be found

on the port side
179. Your vessel has lifeboats on both sides. Lifeboat No. 2 is loceated?
forward of lifeboat No. 4 on the port side
180. Number 3 lifeboat would be
behind boat number 1 on the starboard side
181. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle boat on the
starboard side is designated as boat number
182. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The middle lifeboat on the
port side is designated as boat number
183. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the
starboard side is designated as boat number?
184. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The aftermost boat on the
port side is designated as boat number?
185. On offshore drilling units, all lifeboats are required to be marked with
the?
Number of persons allowed in the boat
186. On offshore drilling units, all lifeboats are required to be marked with
the
Name and port of the unit
187. Which data is NOT painted on the bow of a lifeboat?
Weight of the boat

188. The control lever for the mechanical disengaging apparatus in a
lifeboat shall
All of the above
o a) Be painted bright red

o b) Be secured to a permanent part of the lifeboat structure
o c) Have the area surrounding the lever painted white
189. The lifeboat releasing gear lever should be marked with the words....
"DANGER, LEVER DROPS BOAT"
190. In a painting a lifeboat following its overhaul, which parts must be

pained bright red?
The releasing gear lever
191. The tops of the thwarts, side benches, and the footings of a lifeboat are
painted which color?
International orange
192. What is the minimum number of deck officers, able seaman or

certificated persons required for a lifeboat on a vessel in ocean service?
Two
193. Which person may command a lifeboat in ocean service?
All of the above
o a) Licensed deck officer

o b) Able seaman
o c) Certificated person
194. The abandon ship signal is _________
More than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast of the ship's whistle and the same
signal on the general alarm bells.
195. The abandon ship signal on the ship's whistle is ....

More than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
196. The signal given to commence lowering the lifeboats is....
specified on the muster list (station bill)
197. When whistle signals are used for launching lifeboats, one short blast
means......
"lower all boats"
198. Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is .....
continous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at least
10 seconds
199. You hear general alarm and ship's whistle sound or over 10 seconds.
Traditionally, this is the signal for....
fire and emergency
200. While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle
and 3 short rings on the general alarm bells" is the signal for.....
dismissal from fire and emergency stations
201. A certificated lifeboatman assigned to command that lifeboat

should.....
have a list of the persons assigned to the lifeboat
202. Each crewmember has assigned firefighting station. This assignment is

shown on the.....
Muster list
203. Fire and abandon ship stations and duties may be found on the...
Muster list
204. It is the responsibility of the Master to ensure that......
temporary personnel and visitors are advised of emergency stations

205. Seeing that all hands are familiar with their duties, as specified in the
muster list, is the responsibility of the....
Master
206. Which information MUST be entered on the muster list?
Duties and station of each person during emergencies
207. Preparation of muster lists and signing of same is the responsibility of

the....
Master of the vessel
208. The muster list must be posted in conspicuous locations and signed by
the.....
Master
209. Where should muster list be posted?
All of the Above
o a) In crew's accommodation spaces

o b) On the navigating bridge
o c) In the engine room
210. The Muster LIst ("Station Bill") shows each person's lifeboat station,
duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and....
All emergency signals
211. All MODU personnel should be familiar with the survival crafts's.....
boarding and operating procedures
212. All personnel should be familiar with the lifeboats...
boarding and operating procedures
213. If passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out,
they should.....
take part
214. A new crewman reports on board. He must be trained in the use of the
ship's lifesaving appliances within what time period?
2 weeks
215. The Master of a small passenger vessel must conduct sufficient drills
and give sufficient instruction as necessary.....
To ensure that all crew members are familiar with their duties during
emergencies
216. On a survival craft VHF radio precautions shall be taken to prevent the
inadvertent selection of which channel.....
16
217. The national distress, safety, and calling frequency is channel.....
16
218. You are in a lifeboat broadcasting a distress message. What

information whould be essential to your rescuers?
You position by latitude and longitude
219. The required portable radio apparatus on an international voyage must

be stowed in...
the radio room, bridge, or protected location
220. The required portable radio shall be stored in the proper location and
be....
Readily accessible for transfer to a lifeboat
221. If there are no alternatives for escape, what is the maximum height that
the survival craft cold be dropped into the water....
10 ft.
222. When launching an open lifeboat by falls, the boathooks should be....
Used for fending off

223. A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position
provided that ll personnel....
are seated with seat belts on and doors shut
224. Most covered lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing if the....
passengers are strapped to their seats
225. If the survival craft is not loaded to full capacity, the personnel should
be.....
loaded equally on both sides with more aft
226. Who is responsible for lowering the survival craft?
Helmsman
227. In rough weather, when a ship is able to maneuver, it is best to launch

a lifeboat.....
on the lee side
228. If you must abandon a righ in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival

craft, when should you remove the safety pin and pull the hood release?
Immediately upon launching
229. During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the

survival craft should.....
Open the doors and prepare the craft for boarding
230. Which sequesnce is correct when launching a lifboat stowed in gravity

davits?
Release gripes, lift brake, release tricing pennants
231. Which item is of the most use in getting a lifeboat away from a
moving ship?
Boat hook
232. When hoisting a boat on gravity type davits using an electric motor
driven winch, the davits arms should be brought up....
until just before they make contact with the limit switch, and then hand
cranked to their final position
233. When operating gravity davits, the....
davits should always be hand cranked the last 12 inches into the final
stowed position
234. While retrieving the survival craft, the engine should be stopped.....
when the craft clears the water
235. What is the best procedure for picking up a lifeboat at sea while
utilizing the lifeboat's sea painter?
Place the lifeboat ahead and to leeward of your ship with the wind about
broad on the bow of your ship.
236. When picking up a lifeboat at sea with way on the ship, the sea painter
should be secured....
well forward in the lifeboat
237. When retrieving the survival craft, the helmsman should instruct the
crewman to.....
check that hooks are fully locked in place
238. When retrieving the survival craft, the winch operator should stop the
winch and check.....
that the cable has not jumped any groves on the drum
239. After being launched from MODUs, totally enclosed survival craft
which have been afloat over a long period require....
regular checks of bilge levels
240. Enclosed lifeboats which have been afloat over a long period of time
require....
regular checks of bilge levels
241. If water is rising in the bilge of a lifeboat, you should FIRST....
Check the bilge drain plug
242. What is one of the FIRST actions you should take after abandoning
and clearing away from a vessel?
Identify the person in charge
243. If help has not arived in 10-12 hours after you abandon a MODU in a
survival craft, you should.....
shut down the engine(s) and set the sea anchor
244. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after you abandon ship in a
lifeboat, you should....
shut down the engines and set the sea anchor
245. After you activate your emergency position indicating radio beacon,
you should....
leave it on continuously
246. When a boat turns broadside to heavy seas and winds, thus exposing
the boat to the danger of capsizing, the boat has....
broached
247. Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to....
capsize
248. Steering a survival craft broadside to the sea could cause it to....
capsize
249. If you must land on a beach with an oar-propelled lifeboat through a

heavy surf, the recommended method is to....
Keep the bow into the seas with the sea anchor out over the bow, and row
to meet the breaking waves
250. When a sea anchor is used in landing stern first in a heavy surf,
sternway is checked by...
slacking the tripping line and towing the sea anchor by the holding line
251. When landing a lifeboat through heavy surf with a strong current
running parallel to the beach (from right to left when facing from seaward)
the recommended procedure is to...
rig a drogue with tripping line over the bow, back ashore with drogue
tripped between breakers
252. A right-handed propeller will cause the survival craft to
walk the stern to port in reverse
253. When backing a motor propelled lifeboat (right-handed propeller) with

the rudder amidships, the stern will back....
to port
254. In heavy seas the helmsman should steer the motor lifeboat....
into the seas
255. In heavy seas the helmsman shold steer the survival craft....
into the seas
256. Knowing the compass heading that is 90 o to the side of a MODU will
enable the operator of a survival craft to initially steer....
away in fire and smoke
257. You have abandoned ship and find yourself aboard a lifeboat in a
heavy sea. Your boat is able to make way through the water. To prevent
broaching, you should....
head the boat into the swells to take them at a 30 to 40 degree angle on
either bow and run as slow as possible without losing steerage
258. What should be used to steer an open lifeboat if the rudder becomes
lost or damaged?
Steering oar
259. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should
remain in the immedate vicinity
260. When abandoning a MODU, after launching the survival craft you
should.....
stay in the immediate area
261. When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should
stay in the immediate are
262. You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What

information would be essential to your rescuers?
Your position by latitude and longitude
263. During the towing of a survival craft, a lookout should be on station

to....
release the towline n an emergency
264. You are heading into the sea during rough weather. Having too much
weight forward can cause your small boat to...
plunge into the wave
265. When in command of a lifeboat under oars, the command "Backwater"

means to...
row in astern motion
266. If the coxswain of your lifeboat gives the command "HOLD WATER"
you should....
dip the blade of your oar into the water vertically and hold it perpendicular
to the keel line
267. The boat command that means complete the stroke and level the oars
horizontally with the blades trimmed fore and aft is...
"Oars"
268. The command "Oars" means to...
complete the stroke and bring the oars horizontal, blades feathered
269. If the steersman of your lifeboat gives the command "way enough",
you should...
complete the stroke, raise your oar slightly, swing it forward, and place it
in the boat
270. As a vessel changes course to starboard, the compass card in a

magnetic compass
remains alighned with compass north

magnetic compass...
remains aligned with compass north

magnetic compass
remains alighned with compass north
273. Compass error is equal to the...
combined variation and deviation
274. The compass heading of a vessel differs from the true heading by...
compass error
275. The standard magnetic compass heading differs from the true heading
by...
compass error
276. The compass error of a magnetic compass that has no deviation is.....
equal to variation
277. To find a magnetic compass course from a true course you must
apply...
deviation and variation
278. To find a magnetic compass course from a true course you must
apply...
deviation and variation
279. If a magnetic compass is not affected by any magnetic field other than
the Earth's, which statement is TRUE?
compass error and variation are equal
280. The heading of a vessel is indicated by what part of the compass?
Lubber's line
281. The lubber's line of a magnetic compass...
indicates the vessel's heading
282. The lubber's line on a magnetic compass indicates....
the direction of the vessel's head
283. Compass deviation is caused by...
magnetism within the vessel
284. Deviation changes with a change in
heading
285. Deviation in a compass is caused by the
influence of the magnetic materials of the vessel
286. Deviation is caused by
magnetic influence inherent to that particular vessel.
287. Deviation is the angle between the

magnetic meridian and the axis of the compass card.
288. the compass deviation changes as the vessel changes ____
heading
289. The error in a magnetic compass caused by the vessel's magnetism is

called
deviation
290. the horizontal angle between the magnetic meridian and the morth-
south line of the magnetic compass is
deviation
291. Error may be introduced into a magnetic compass by
making a structural change to the vessel, a short circuit near the compass
and belt buckles (all of the above)
292. which would influence a magnetic compass?
electrical wiring, iron pipe, and radio (all of the above)
293. the MOST important feature of the material used for making the
binnacle of a standard magnetic compass is that it is
nonmagnetic
294. When a magnetic compass is not in use for a prolonged period of time
it should
be shielded from direct sunlight
295. If the compass heading and the magnetic heading are the same then
there is no deviation on that heading
296. If the magnetic heading is greater than the compass heading, the
deviation is
east
297. Magnetic heading differs from compass heading by
deviation
298. To find a magnetic course from a true course you must apply
variation
299. True heading differs from magnetic heading by
variation
300. Magnetic variation changes with a change in
the vessels position
301. The difference in degrees between true north and magnetic north is
called
variation
302. aThe magnetic compass error which changes with the geographical
location of your vessel is called
variation
303. Variation in a compass is caused by
magnetism from the earth's magnetic field
304. Variation is a compass error that you
cannot correct
305. Variation is not constant; it is different with every change in
geographical location
306. Variation is the angular measurement between
magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian
307. The compass rose on a nautical chart indicates both variation and
annual rate of variation change
308. You are in a lifeboat when you sight the stars shown. You will be
heading due north when you head for Polaris which is indicated by what
letter? See Diagram:
309. A magnetic compass card is marked in how many degrees
360
310. How may degrees are there on a compass card?
360
311. A vessel heading NNE is on a course of
022.5
312. a vessel heading NE is on a course of
045.0
313. A vessel heading ENE is on a course of
067.5
314. A vessel heading ESE is on a course of
112.5
315. A vessel heading SE is on a course of
135.0
316. A vessel heading SSE is on a course of
157.5
317. A vessel heading SSW is on a course of
202.5
318. A vessel heading SW is on a course of
225.0
319. A vessel heading WSW is on a course of
247.5
320. A vessel heading WNW is on a course of
292.5
321. A vessel heading NW is on a course of
315.0
322. A vessel heading NNW is on a course of
337.5
323. One point of a compass is equal to how many degrees
11.25
324. Eight points of a compass are equal to how many degrees?
90
325. How many points are there in a compass card?
32
326. If you have an inflateable liferaft container with steel bands around the
case, you should
leave the bands in place
327. A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft
must be submerged to a certain depth to release automatically
328. If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable liferaft is not

periodically serviced and becomes inoperative it will NOT
free the liferaft from a sinking vessel
329. On offshore drilling units, each inflatable liferaft that is not intended
for davit launching must be stowed so as to float free or be
equipped with a hydrostatic release
330. What is the purpose of the hydrostatic release on an inflatable liferaft?
to release the raft from the cradle automatically as the ship sinks
331. As a vessel sinks to a depth of 15 feet, the hydrostatic trip releases the
liferaft container from its cradle by
releasing the tie-down strap
332. Which number indicates the hydrostatic release? (see diagram

D015SA)
333. What prevents an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel
which sinks in water over 100 feet in depth?
the weak link in the painter line
334. A new liferaft has been installed on your vessel. The operating cord
should be
attached to the raft stowage cradle or to a secure object nearby with a weak
link
335. The knife on an inflatable liferaft will always be located
in a special pocket near the forward entrance
336. The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft also serves as a
painter
337. The painter of an inflatable liferaft should be
secured to a permanent object on deck

338. After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea anchor from a
liferaft to
stay in the general location
339. Using a sea anchor will
reduce youir drift rate
340. You need to pull the sea anchor back aboard your liferaft. What part of
the anchor do you pull on?
trip line
341. Signaling devices which are required on inflatable liferafts include
red flares
342. What is the maximum length of time that distress flares are approved
for?
3 and 1/2 years
343. Which distress singal is required for a liferaft in ocean service and
could be effectively used to attract the attention of aircraft at night?
red flares
344. Signaling devices required on inflatable liferafts include a(n)
orange smoke signal
345. A liferaft with a capacity of 8 people used in ocean service is required

by regulations to carry
12 Liters of fresh water
346. Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their
all of the above - shape, shallow draft, and large sail area
347. The canopy of an inflatable liferaft should
go into place as the raft is inflated

348. inflatable liferafts are provided with
a towing connection
349. the air spaces in the floor of an inflatable liferaft will provide
protection against
cold water temperatures
350. generally, what is used to inflate liferafts?
non-toxic gas
351. a life line must be connected to the liferaft
all of the above - at the bow, at the stern, in the middle
352. Inflatable liferafts are provided with a
all of teh above - knife, towing connection, lifeline
353. a feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people stationary in

rough weather is
lifelines on the inside of the raft
354. the inside light in an inflatable liferaft is turned on
automatically as the liferaft inflates
355. the lights on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable liferaft operate
automatically when the raft is inflated
356. all inflatable liferafts have
water stabilizing pockets
357. the water pockets located on the underside of inflatable liferafts
act as stabilizers by filling with sea water as soon as the raft is inflated and
upright
358. water pockets on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are for

stability
359. what is placed on the under side of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent
it from being skidded by the wind or overturned?
water pockets
360. hand holds or straps on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are

provided
to right the raft if it capsizes
361. the capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can be determined by
examining the plate on the outside of the raft container
362. inflatable liferafts on vessels on an international voyage must be able

to carry at least
6 persons
363. if your vessel is equipped with inflatable liferafts, how should they be
maintained?
have them sent ashore to an approved maintenance facility annually
364. Inflatable liferafts carried on passenger vessels must be annually
sent to a Coast Guard approved service facility
365. who should inspect and test an inflatable liferaft?
an approved service facility
366. On inflatable liferafts, the operating cord should be renewed by
an approved servicing facility
367. inflatable liferafts must be overhauled and inspected at a US Coast

Guard approved service facility every
12 months
368. inflatable liferafts shall be serviced at an approved servicing facility
every 12 months or not later than the next vessel inspection for certification.
However, the total elapsed time between servicing cannot exceed
17 months
369. on offshore drilling units, each inflatable liferaft must be serviced

every
12 months
370. your cargo vessel's Certification of Inspection expires 30 April 2002.

One of your inflatable liferafts was last serviced in January 2002. The raft
must be reinspected no later than
January, 2003
371. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable

liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release.
Which action should you take?
take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open
the container.
372. An inflatable liferaft is hand-launched by _______
throwing the entire container overboard
373. An inflatable liferaft can be launched by ___
throwing the entire container overboard and then pulling on the operating
cord to inflate the raft.
374. An inflatable liferaft should be manually released from its cradle by
pushing the button on the hydrostatic release
375. under normal conditions a liferaft is released from its cradle by
pushing the plunger on the center of the hydrostatic release
376. after you have thrown the liferaft and stowage container into the water,
you inflate the liferaft by
pulling on the painter line
377. the bosun has thrown the liferaft into the water before abandoning the
vessel. The operating cord
serves as a sea painter
378. to launch a liferaft by hand you should
throw the liferaft over the side and pull the operating cord
379. if an inflatable liferaft is to be released manually, where should the

operating cord be attached before throwing the raft overboard?
attach the cord to a fixed object on the ship.
380. the most important thing to remember when launching an inflatable

liferaft by hand is to
ensure that the operating cord is secured to the vessel
381. which operation should be done when launching an inflatable liferaft

by hand?
make sure the operating cord is secured to the vessel before throwing it
over the side
382. an inflatable liferaft is thrown into the water from a sinking vessel.
What occurs automatically after the painter trips the CO2 bottles to inflate the
raft?
the sea anchor deploys
383. An inflatable liferaft should be lifted back aboard the ship by using
the towing bridle
384. which statement is TRUE concerning an inflatable liferaft?
all of the above - the floor may be inflated for insulation from cold water,
crew members can jump into the raft without damaging it, the raft may be
boarded before it is fully inflated
385. after launching, an inflatable raft should be kept dry inside by

using the bailers and cellulose sponge
386. after abandoning ship which action should be taken IMMEDIATELY

upon entering a liferaft?
get clear of the ship
387. you board an inflatable liferaft that has been hand launched from a
sinking vessel. What should you do FIRST after everyone is onboard the
liferaft?
cut the painter
388. you have hand launched an inflatable liferaft. What should be one of
your FIRST actions after all persons have boarded the liferaft?
cut the sea painter and clear the vessel
389. your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its seach
anchor you should FIRST
boat the sea anchor
390. What should you do with your emergency position indicating radio
beacon if you are in a liferaft in a storm?
bring it inside the liferaft and leave it on.
391. You have abandoned ship in rough weather. After picking up other
survivors in your liferaft, what should you do next?
close up the enterances
392. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest
danger is
hypothermia caused by cold temperatures
393. while adrift in an inflatable liferaft in hot, tropical weather
deflating the floor panels may help to cool personnel
394. you have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedures should
be used during a prolonged period in a raft?
All of the above - wet clothes during the day to decrease perspiration, get
plenty of rest, keep the enterance curatains open
395. you have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just
inflated. You hear a continous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy
tube. What is the cause of this?
Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop
396. you have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is
completely inflated, you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve.
You should
not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time
397. immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted

aboard liferafts to look for
survivors in the water
398. what is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an

inflatable liferaft?
pick up other survivors
399. you have abandoned your vessel, you are in a liferaft and have cleared
away from your vessel. One of the first actions should be to
search for survivors
400. when personnel are lifted by a helicopter from an inflatable liferaft, the
personnel on the raft should
deflate the floor of the raft to reduce the danger of the raft overturning
401. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should
tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
402. If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out to sea,
it is important that the crew members should
remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the
vessels last known position
403. You have abandoned ship. There are several rafts in the water. One of
the FIRST things to do it
secure the rafts together to keep them from drifting apart
404. a liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water
should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the

righting straps, and leaning backward
405. If the liferaft capsizes, all personnel should leave the raft and
right the raft using the righting strap
406. you are in the process of righting an inflatable liferaft that has inflated
in an upside down position. Which statement is TRUE?
swim out from under the raft in a face up position to keep your life
preservers clear of the raft
407. in each inflatable liferaft, what equipment is provided to make quick,

emergency, temporary repairs to large holes in the raft?
several various-sized sealing clamps.
408. Puncture leaks in the lower tubes or bottom of an inflatable liferaft

should FIRST be stopped by using
sealing clamps
409. if you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is
drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter
410. you have abandoned ship and, after two days in a liferaft, you can see
an aircraft near the horizon apparently carrying out a search pattern. You
should
use visual distress signals in conjunction with the EPIRB
411. What is the primary advantage of a davit-launched liferaft in

comparison to an inflatable liferaft?
the davit-launch liferaft enables personnel to enter the raft without having
to enter the water
412. the davit launched liferaft can be boarded
at the deck
413. to assure safe boarding and launching of a davit-launched liferaft from

a MODU, preparation should include
removing any side protective rails and checking that the overside and
surface level are clear
414. the davit aboard a MODU is used to
lower the liferaft down with its full complement
415. to inflate a davit launched liferaft you
pull the inflation lanyard
416. if a davit launched liferaft aboard a MODU cannot be launched

because of damage to the davit, you should
roll the liferaft over the side
417. personnel boarding a davit launched liferaft from a MODU should be

checked to assure that they are not in possession of or wearing
sharp objects that may puncture or damage the liferaft
418. when a davit-launched raft is lowered from a MODU, upon becoming

waterborne, the raft is released by
the effects of buoyancy removing the weight of the raft from the hook
419. prior to boarding from a MODU, a davit-launched lferaft should be

well ventilated of excess
carbon dioxide gas
420. a rigid lifesaving device designed to support survivors in the water is a
life float
421. on a rigid liferaft (SOLAS B pack) which is equipped with all of the
required equipment you may NOT find a
fishing kit
422. the life jackets on all vessels shall be
readily available
423. which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers (type I personal

flotation devices)?
life preservers are designed to turn an unconscious persons face clear of

the water
424. which statement is TRUE concerning life jackets which are severely
damaged?
they should be replaced
425. Kapok life jackets should NOT be
all of the above - stowed near open flame or where smoking is permitted,
used as seats, pillows, or foot rests, left on open decks
426. which statment is TRUE concerning life preservers?
Kapok life preservers must have vinyl-covered pad inserts
427. each life jacket light that has a non-replaceable power source must be
replaced
on or before the expiration date of the power source
428. life preservers must be marked with the
vessel's name
429. with the exception of a Coast Guard approved commercial hybrid

Personal Flotation Device (PFD), which type of life preserver must be carried
for each person on board an uninspected passenger vessel?
Type I
430. Each buoyant work vest must be
US Coast Guard approved
431. Coast Guard approved buoyant work vests
should be used when carrying out duties near a weather decks edge.
432. when may a work vest be substituted for a required life preserver?
At no time
433. Which statement is TRUE concerning buoyant work vests aboard tank
vessels?
they must be used only under the supervision of a designated ship's officer
434. Which statement is TRUE concerning work vests on a small passenger

vessel?
they must be stowed separately from approved life jackets
435. how is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?
it is inflated by blowing through an inflation tube
436. the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit should be inflated
upon entry into the water
437. you are testing the external inflation bladder on an immersion suit and
find it has a very slow leak. Which action should be taken?
take it out of service and repair in accordance with the manufacturers

instructions
438. an immersion suit must be equipped with a(n)
whistle, light, and retroreflective material
439. which statment about immersion suits is TRUE?
immersion suits must have a PFD light attached to the front shoulder area
440. which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?
they provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a

life jacket
441. which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
prior to abandonment, the suit allows body movement such as walking,

climbing a ladder, and picking up small objects
442. what statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
no stowage container for immersion suits may be capable of being locked
443. which statement about immersion suits is TRUE?
the suit must, without assistance, turn an unconscious person's mouth clear
of the water within 5 seconds.
444. Ring life buoys used aboard a small passenger vessel on oceans or
coastwise routes are required to be what color?
orange
445. a vessel must have one approved ring life buoy on board if its length is
over how many feet?
26 feet
446. your passenger vessel is 130 feet (40 m) long and is alternatively
equipped for operating in river service. The number of ring life buoys
required for your vessel is
447. what is the minimum number of ring life buoys required on board a
275 foot cargo vessel engaged in coastwise trade, under the alternatives for
cargo vessels in a specified service?
448. how many ring life buoys should a 700 foot cargo cessel, not subject to
SOLAS, navigating the Great Lakes carry?
14
449. which vessel is NOT required to carry a rocket-type line throwing

appliance?
an ocean-going vessel of 140 GT
450. your 600 GT vessel must carry a line-throwing appliance if it is

certificated for
coastwise service
451. Line throwing appartus aboard ship must contain
four rockets, two of which shall be the buoyant type
452. your vessel is required to have an impulse-projected line throwing

appliance. The auxiliary line must
have a breaking strength of 9000 lbs
453. the breaking strength of the service lines of the rockets used with an
impulse-projected, rocket type line throwing appliance is
500 lbs
454. What is a FALSE statement concerning the line throwing appliance on

a vessel?
the auxiliary line must be of a light color
455. a drill must be conducted in the use of the line throwing appliance at
least once in every
3 months
456. All self-propelled vessels on an international voyage must be equipped

with how many Emergency Position Indicating Radiobeacons (EPIRB)?
one approved category 1 EPIRB
457. which type of EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?
Category 1
458. Which vessel greater than 100 GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB?
a non self-propelled vessel in tow
459. Category 1 EPIRBs transmit on frequencies that are monitored by
orbiting satellites in space
460. When will the float-free emergency position indicating radio beacon
be activated after abandoning ship?
immediately after floating free
461. The emergency position indicating radio beacon on a cargo vessel

must be stowed
so that it will float free if the vessel sinks
462. each EPIRB shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output
indicator every
month
463. the MAster shall insure that the Emergency Position Indicating Radio
beacon (EPIRB) is
tested monthly
464. by regulation, orange smoke distress signals will expire not more than
how many months from the date of manufacture?
42 months
465. how should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and
are adrift in a liferaft?
use them only when you are aware of a ship or plane in the area
466. when you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed
at greater than 60 degrees above the horizon
467. when using a hand held smoke signal aboard a survival craft, you
should activate the signal
on the downwind side of the craft
468. each lifeboat must be lowered and maneuvered in the water at least
once every
3 months
469. the Master of the cargo or tank vessel shall be responsible that each
lifeboat, except those free-fall launched, is lowered to the water with crew
and maneuvered at least once every
3 months
470. if the OCMI has NOT granted an extension, free-fall lifeboats must be
lowered into the water and launched with the assigned crew at least once
every
6 months
471. on off-shore drilling units, each EPIRB or SART must be tested once
every
month
472. all lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped,
cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at least once every
year
473. on offshore drilling units, the lifeboats' fuel tanks must be emptied and
the fuel changed at least once every
12 months
474. limit switches, winches, falls, etc.. must be thoroughly inspected at

least every
12 months
475. you must have sex with your wife
at least every day
476. you must woo her and give her romance at least every
time you get the chance - she is totally in love with you. :)
FIRE FIGHTING ON CONTAINER SHIPS
1. ARE THE STATEMENTS ABOUT DEALING WITH A CONTAINER FIRE TRUE OR FALSE
a. AFTER THE INCIDENT IS OVER, THE EMERGENCY SUITS AND EQUIPMENT MUST BE
CLEANED AND STORED SAFELY FOR FUTURE USE. TRUE
b. WATER ACCUMULATION FROM BOUNDARY COOLING WILL BE UNLIKELY TO CAUSE
PROBLEM. FALSE
2. THE EXTENT AND POSSIBLE SOURCE OF THE FIRE IS ASSESSED BY.

THE FIRST OFFICER
THE MASTER
THE SUPPORT TEAM
THE EMERGENCY TEAM
3. ARE THE STATEMENTS ABOUT DEALING WITH A CONTAINER FIRE TRUE OR FALSE.
A. THE CARGO INVOLVED OR STOWED IN THE VICINITY MUST BE IDENTIFIED AS QUICKLY
AS POSSIBLE. TRUE
B. BOUNDARY COOLING FROM ABOVE WILL BE REQUIRED. FALSE
C. THE AVAILABILITY OF A CHARGING COMPRESOR FOR BA CYLINDERS IS VITAL. TRUE
4. WHAT IS THE MAIN AIM WHEN TACKLING A CONTAINER FIRE

TO CUT A HOLE IN IT SO THAT WATER CAN BE SPRAYED INSIDE.
TO SEAL IT OFF
TO HAUL IT OVER THE SIDE
TO COOL IT DOWN AND KEEP IT COOL
5. BELOW DECK, A MAJOR FIRE SHOULD BE FOUGHT WITH

SMOTHERING GAS
CALCIUM HYPOCLORITIES
INJECTION OF CO2
WATER SPRAY
6. THE PROCEDURES FOR DEALING WITH CARGOES CLASSIFIED AS DANGEROUS GOODS CAN BE
FOUND IN
THE SHIP’S SOLAS TRAINING MANUAL
THE MFAG AND EMS SECTIONS OF THE IMDG CODE SUPPLEMENT
THE CARGO MANIFEST
THE MARPOL CONVENTION
7. IF FIRE IS FOUND IN A CONTAINER, ONE OF THE FIRST CONTROL MEASURE IS

TO SPEED UP SO THAT THE FLAMES AND SMOKE WILL BE DISPERSED MORE RAPIDLY
TO LAUNCH THE LIFEBOATS READY FOR ABANDONING THE SHIP
TO TURN THE SHIP SO THAT THE WIND WILL BLOW SMOKE AND FLAMES AWAY FROM THE
REST OF THE SHIP
TO CONTACT THE SHORE OFFICE FOR ADVICE
8. THE MAIN OBJECTIVE OF BOUNDARY COOLING IS TO

LIMIT THE SPREAD OF FIRE FROM CONTAINER TO CONTAINER
REDUCE THE AMOUNT OF SMOKE GENERATED
STOP THE CONTAINER EXPLODING
HELP THE FIRE FIGHTING TEAM TO STAY COOL
9. WHEN HEAD OFFICE BECOME INVOLVED THEY WILL SET UP A COMMUNICATIONS CENTRE
AND WILL INFORM
THE P&A CLUB
THE FREIGHT FORWARDERS
THE NEXT PORT AGENT
ALL OF THE ABOVE
MARINE RISK ASSESSMENT

10. IMPLEMENTING RISK CONTROL OPTIONS REQUIRES YOU TO PERSUADE OTHER PEOPLE TO
ACCEPT THEM. PLACE THE FIVE ACTIONS NEEDED IN THE CORRECT ORDER BY DRAGGING THE
RELEVANT ACTIONS INTO THE BOXES.
EXPLAIN WHAT YOU WANT TO HAPPEN
EXPLAIN WHY
ASK FOR REACTIONS
CHECK UNDERSTANDING
PROVIDE AN INCENTIVE
11. WHEN YOU ARE DISCUSSING RISK ASSESSMENT AND SETTING PRIORITIES, YOU NEED TO USE
APPROPRIATE QUESTIONS TO HELP IDENTIFY THE HAZARDS YOUR COMPANY MAY FACE.
WHICH OF THE QUESTIONS BELOW WOULD NOT BE APPROPRIATE
WHAT DO I PARTICULARLY WORRY ABOUT AS MANAGER OR DIRECTOR
ARE THERE SITUATIONS WHICH I FEEL THE NEED TO MANAGE MYSELF BECAUSE OF FEARS
THAT SOMETHING MIGHT GO WRONG
ARE THERE ACTIVITIES WHICH SEEM TO CREATE AN ABOVE AVERAGE NUMBER OF PROBLEMS,
ACCIDENTS, INCIDENTS AND SO ON.
HOW SHOULD I DISTRIBUTE THE CLASS SURVEY SCHEDULE TO THE FLEET
12. WHICH OF THOSE LISTED IS NOT ONE OF THE FOUR DIFFERENT TYPES OF SAFETY TO BE
REMEMBERED WHEN CONSIDERING HOW TO MANAGE RISK.
INHERENT
ENGINEERED
ENHANCED
PROCEDURAL
13. ARE THE STATEMENTS ABOUT DIFFERENT RISKS AND RISK ASSESSMENT TRUE OR FALSE
A COLLISION INVOLVING A HIGH SPEED FERRY COULD HAVE VERY SERIOUS CONSEQUENCES.
TRUE
THE FACT THAT IT MAY BECOME MORE DIFFICULT TO FIND WELL OFFICERS IN THE FUTURE
SHOULD NOT REALLY AFFECT OUR BUSSINESS. FALSE
RISK DEPEND ON CIRCUMSTANCES SO RISK ASSESSMENT MUST ALWAYS BE A DYNAMIC
PROCESS. TRUE
EFFECTIVE RISK ASSESSMENT CAN IMPROVE FINANCIAL PERFORMANCE. TRUE
14. WHAT IS THE DEFINITION GIVEN FOR THE WORD RISK

IT DESCRIBES WHAT WOULD HAPPEN IN CASE OF THE SUDDEN OPERATIONAL FAILURE OF A
VITAL PIECE OF EQUIPMENT ON BOARD SHIP.
IT IS A COMBINATION OF TWO FACTORS-THE PROBABILITY OF SOMETHING HAPPENING AND
THE CONSEQUENCES IF IT DOES.
AN UNINTENDED EVENT INVOLVING DEATH OR INJURY, AND/OR DAMAGE TO THE SHIP,
OTHER PROPERTY, OR THE ENVIRONMENT.
THE OUTCOME OF AN ACCIDENT.
15. IN MOST CASES IMPLEMENTING THE OPTIONS FOR MANAGING RISK WILL
COST LITTLE OR NOTHING
REQUIERE CONSIDERABLE INVESTMENT
16. WHAT IS THE MEANING OF THE WORD HAZARD

THE SEQUENCE OF EVENTS LEADING TO A HAZARDOUS SITUATION OR ACCIDENT
THE CONSEQUENCE OF AN ACCIDENT
THE MEANS OF CONTROLLING RISK
A POTENTIAL TO THREATEN HUMAN LIFE, HEALTH, PROPERTY OR THE ENVIRONMENT
17. WHICH OF THESE BELIEFS ABOUT A NO-BLAME REPORTING SYSTEM ARE JUSTIFIED
A NO BLAME SYSTEM MEANS THAT WORKERS TEND TO GET CARELESS
A NO-BLAME SYSTEM ENCOURAGES THE REPORTING OF ALL INCIDENTS AND NEAR MISSES
WITHOUT FEAR OF RECRIMINATION
A BLAME CULTURE IS BETTER AS IT FORCES EVERYONE TO TAKE RESPONSIBILITY AND OBTAIN
BETTER RISK MANAGEMENT.
THE NO-BLAME SYSTEM HELPS TO ENSURE SAFE RUNNING OF EQUIPMENT
18. DRAG THE CORRECT WORDS FROM THE LIST TO COMPLETE THE RISK MATRIX.
HIGH RISK
HIGH
MEDIUM
LOW RISK
LOW
SMALL MEDIUM LARGE
CONSEQUENCES
19. THE IMPORTANCE OF RISK ASSESSMENT NEEDS TO BE MADE CLEAR BY

THE SHIPS’ SAFETY OFFICERS
THE COMPANY SAFETY OFFICER
THE SENIOR MANAGEMENT
20. THE FINAL STEP WE DEFINE IN THE RISK ASSESSMENT PROCESS IS TO MONITOR AND RE-
ASSESS –TO EXAMINE HOW THE DECISIONS WORK OUT IN PRACTICE. DRAG THE CORRECT
WORDS FROM THE LIST TO COMPLETE THE SENTENCES ABOUT THIS PROCESS
LOOK FOR… PROBLEMS. WHAT SEEMED LIKE A GOOD IDEA MAY NOT WORK OUT WELL IN
PRACTICE.
AVOID… BLAMING PEOPLE IF THEY ARE NOT IMPLEMENTING YOUR SOLUTIONS PROPERLY.
INSTEAD FIND OUT WHY.
CHECK THAT THE… SOLUTION STILL WORKS
21. DRAG THE CORRECT WORDS FROM THE LIST TO COMPLETE THE SENTENCES ABOUT THE
PRINCIPLES OF RISK ASSESSMENT.
IT IS… SYSTEMATIC. THERE IS A STEP BY STEP TECHNIQUE.
IT IS ABOUT… PREVENTION RATHER THAN CURE.
IT ENCOURAGES… AWARENESS OF HAZARDS AND THE RISKS THEY POSE.
WE CAN’T PREDICT AND MANAGE EVERY RISK WE FACE,… SELECTION OF THE APPROPRIATE
ONES IS THE TRICK.
22. SYSTEMATIC RISK ASSESSMENT INVOLVES SIX STEPS. PLACE THESE IN THE CORRECT ORDER BY
DRAGGING THE RELEVANT STEPS INTO THE BOXES.
IDENTIFY ALL HAZARDS
ASSESS RISKS
EXPLORE CONTROL OPTIONS
WEIGH UP COSTS AND BENEFITS
SELECT AND IMPLEMENT
MONITOR AND RE-ASSESS
23. DETAILED OIL DISCHARGE PROCEDURES IN THE SHIP’S MANUAL ARE A GOOD EXAMPLE OF
ENGINEERED SAFETY
PROCEDURAL SAFETY
HUMAN FCTOR SAFETY
INHERENT SAFETY
24. WHICH ANSWER BEST DESCRIBES THE MAIN PURPOSE OF RISK ASSESSMENT
TO IDENTIFY, ASSESS AND MANAGE RISKS SO AS TO REDUCE THE CHANCES OF N INCIDENT.
TO PROVIDE CRUCIAL FEEDBACK AS TO EQUIPMENT RELIABILITY
TO IDENTIFY ERRORS OF MANAGEMENT
TO IDENTIFY SUB STANDARD COMPONENTS OF DECK AND ENGINE ROOM MACHINERY
PERMIT TO WORK
25. WHEN ENTERING CARGO TANKS OR OTHER ENCLOSED SPACES, WHAT IS THE REQUIRED
OXYGEN CONTENT FOR SAFE ENTRY
21 %
19%
24%
18%
26. NITROGEN IS ONE OF THE GREATEST HAZARDS OF ENCLOSED SPACES BECAUSE
IT HAS NO SMELL
IT GIVES NO WARNING SYMPTOMS TO AN AFFECTED PERSON
A PERSON CAN LOSE CONSCIOUSNESS VERY QUICKLY, SOMETIMES IN LESS THAN 20 SECONDS.
OF ALL OF THE ABOVE
27. IF YOU SEE OR SUSPECT AN INJURY TO SOMEONE IN AN ENCLOSED SPACE, WHAT SHOULD
YOU DO FIRST
ENTER THE SPACE TO ASSESS THE SITUATION MORE FULLY
RAISE THE ALARM
INCREASE THE VENTILATION
CHECK THE INSTRUCTIONS ON THE PERMIT TO WORK
28. ARE THE STATEMENTS ABOUT IMPLEMENTING A PERMIT TO WORK TRUE OR FALSE
ONLY TO WORK SPECIFIED ON THE PERMIT SHOULD BE UNDERTAKEN. TRUE
ON SOME JOBS IT WILL BE DIFFICULT TO ASSESS HOW LONG THEY NEED SO THE PERMIT
SHOULD NOT SPECIFY A TIME LIMIT. FALSE
IF SOMEONE ELSE TAKES OVER THE JOB SPECIFIED IN THE PERMIT, THE PERMIT SHOULD BE
REISSUED IN THEIR NAME. TRUE
IF UNFORESEEN EXTRA WORK IS REQUIRD DURING THE WORK COVERED BY THE PERMIT, THIS
WORK CAN BE DONE AS LONG AS AN OFFICER IS INFORMED AFTERWARDS. FALSE
29. IN THE FIRST CASE STUDY, WHAT WAS THE SPECIFIC AROMATIC HYDROCARBON IDENTIFIED S
BEING HZARDOUS IN EXTREMELY LOW CONCENTRATIONS
NAPHTA
METHANE
BENZENE
KEROSENE
30. WHICH OF THOSE LISTED IS NOT ONE OF THE SIX BASIC PRINCIPLES OF RISK CONTROL
SUBSTITUTION
SAFE WORKING PROCEDURES
TRAINING, INSTRUCTION AND SUPERVISION
OBTAINING PERMISSION FROM HEAD OFFICE
31. WHICH OF THE STATEMENTS DOES NOT BELONG IN THE LIST, A PERMIT TO WORK SHOULD
STATE.
THE QUALIFICATIONS OF THE CREWMEMBERS TO DO THE WORK
THE PRECISE LOCATION AND DETAILS OF THE WORK TO BE DONE
THE MEASURES UNDERTAKEN TO MAKE THE JOB SAFE
THE NATURE AND RESULTS OF ANY PRELIMINARY TESTS
32. WHAT IS THE DEFINITION GIVEN FOR THE WORD RISK.
IT DESCRIBES WHAT WOULD HAPPEN IN CASE OF THE SUDDEN OPERATIONAL FAILURE OF A
VITAL PIECE OF EQUIPMENT ON BOARD SHIP
IT IS A COMBINATION OF TWO FACTORS-THE LIKELIHOOD OF SOMETHING HAPPENING AND
THE CONSEQUENCES IF IT DOES
AN UNINTENDED EVENT INVOLVING DEATH OR INJURY, AND/OR DAMAGE TO THE SHIP,
OTHER PROPERTY, OR THE ENVIRONMENT
THE OUTCOME OF AN ACCIDENT
33. WHAT IS THE MEANING OF THE WORD HAZARD
THE SEQUENCE OF EVENTS LEADING TO A HAZARDOUS SITUATION OR ACCIDENT.
THE CONSEQUENCE OF AN ACCIDENT
THE MEANS OF CONTROLLING RISK
A POTENTIAL TO THREATEN HUMAN LIFE, HEALTH, PROPERTY OR THE ENVIRONMENT
34. WHICH OF THOSE LISTED IS NOT ONE OF THE GENERAL SAFETY MANAGEMENT OBJECTIVES OF
THE ISM CODE
TO PROVIDE FOR SAFE PRACTICES IN SHIP OPERATION AND A SAFE WORKING ENVIRONMENT
TO SPECIFY WHO IS COMPETENT TO UNDERTAKE HAZARDOUS PROCEDURES
TO ESTABLISH SFEGUARDS AGINST ALL IDENTIFIED RISKS
TO CONTINUOSLY IMPROVE THE SAFETY MANAGEMENT SKILLS OF PERSONNEL ASHORE AND
ABOARD
35. WHICH OF THE ACTIVITIES LISTED WOULD NOT REQUIRE THE ISSUING OF A PERMIT TO WORK.
HOT WORK
ENTERING A CARGO TANK
WORKING ALOFT
COLLECTING FOOD FROM THE COLD STORE
Fire fighting at sea part 1: fire prevention

1. Complete the following sentences about gaseous fuels
The hazards presented by flammable gases are the same as those of the vapour given off by low
flashpoint liquids.
A leaking gas will either disperse upwards or downwards depending on its vapour density.
A leaking gas may find a remote source of ignition and carry a flame back to the source of the leak.
Gas cylinders should be located outside the machinery space from where the gas will be piped.
A mishandle acetylene cylinder may feel hot to the touch; if so it could explode and should be
cooled with a fine spray and jettisoned.
2. Some useful terms…
Match the descriptions given on the left, with the appropriate definition given on the right.
The temperature at which a material produces enough flammable vapour for it to flash if exposed
to an ignition source. FLASHPOINT
The temperature at which a material will continue to burn when ignited. IGNITION TEMPERATURE
The temperature at which a material temperature will spontaneously combust. SELF-IGNITION

TEMPERATURE.
The temperature at which a material temperature undergoes a chemical change which results in
combustion. AUTO-IGNITION
3. What, if any, precautions need to be taken before welding in the vicinity of open, but empty,
hatches?
1) No special precaution are necessary when welding in the vicinity of empty hatches as long
as loading operations have not started.
2) Screens should be erected to prevent sparks dropping down hatches or ventilator.
Dunnage and other combustible materials should be moved to a safe distance.
3) Issue a “cold work” permit
4) Obtain permission from the harbor authorities and company head office.
4. Heat will always travel from hotter areas to cooler ones, no matter how small the temperature
difference may be. Please match each example of heat transfer with the appropriate
definition.
1) Direct heat transfer through a material CONDUCTION
2) Heated liquids or gases rise, carrying the heat from one area to another. CONVECTION
3) Heat energy transferred by radiating through a space, as in a cooking grill. RADIATION
5.- Many things can create the heat necessary to create a fire . of the examples given below, which
item does NOT belong?
1.-painted surfaces
2.-friction
3. - electrical energy
4. - chemical reactions
5. - compressed gases
6. - hot surfaces
6. - galleys, and pantries present particular fire risks. Complete the sentences
1) Remote cut-offs and stops should be conspicuously and known to galley staff
2) Burners or heating plates must be shut off when cooking is finished.
3) Extractors flues and ranges should always be kept clean
4) Means to smother fat or cooking oil fires, such as a fire blanket, should be readily available
7.-Why is the risk of a fire in the engine room potentially so great?
1) Because it is a hot place
2) Because fuel tanks are located in the engine room spaces
3) Because it contains air, fuel and heat
4) Because ventilators are constantly supplying fresh air
8.- Complete the followings sentences
1) Waste, rags, sawdust & other rubbish especially if contaminated with oil- generate
spontaneously which may be sufficient to ignite flammable mixtures
2) Oils soaked materials should not be stowed in close proxy, proximity to oil or paints, or on or
near to steam pipes.
3) Materials in ship´s including linen, blankets & similar absorbent materials are also liable to
ignite by spontaneous combustion if damp or contaminated by oil.
4) if oil has soaked into absorbent materials, they should be cleaned and dried, or destroyed
9. - spontaneous combustion may occur when:
1) A person smokes in bed and the lighted cigarette falls out of his/her hand as they fall asleep.
2) Sparks escaping from the funnel or other engine exhaust, set fire to materials left lying about on
deck.
3) Incorrect procedures are followed in the sequence of lighting a boiler.
4) Dirty waste, rags, sawdust and other rubbish, especially if contaminated by oil, are left lying
about.
10. – what is the basic principle of fire prevention?
1) Never to smoke in bed.
2) Remove one of the three components of the “fire triangle”
3) Keep all spaces well ventilated throughout the vessel.
4) To make an inspection of the vessel on completion of your period on duty.
11. - flammable substances may be considered to fall into the following 4 categories; solids (often
known as “carbonaceous”), liquids, gases and metals. Based on these, complete the sentences
below.
1) Carbonaceous substances, such as wood, paper, bedding & amp; packing cases are found in
many parts of the ship.
2) Flammable liquids include petroleum spirits, paint & amp; oils, paint thinner & amp; kerosene.
3) Liquids which give off flammable vapour include solids that melt to form a liquid such as fats
& waxes.
4) Metals such as magnesium & aluminum can easily be ignited & amp; will burn vigorously.
12. - is there a connection between “good housekeeping” and fire prevention on board ship?
1) No, the two are not related.
2) Yes, good housekeeping is an important element in the fire prevention check list on board ship.
3) No, it is not related to a potential het energy source.
4) Rubbish is not a problem as long as it is kept neatly together on board your ship in the MARPOL
containers provided.
13. - what are the three elements found in the “fire triangle”?
1) Fuel, water and flame.
2) Air, flame and heat.
3) Fuel, air and heat.
4) Fuel, air and flame.
14. - what is a “hot work” permit?
1) A permit allowing seafarers to work on deck under direct sunlight.
2) A permit allowing galley staff to start up the galley equipment.
3) A permit allowing engineers to fire up the main boiler.
4) A permit issued when laid down procedures controlling hot work are in place and obeyed.
BALLAST WATER MANAGEMENT
1. Are the statements about treatment methods true or false?

1) The use of clean, treated fresh water for ballast solves the potential problems with ballast
water. TRUE
2) The problems with mechanical treatment of ballast water are expense and maintenance of
the filters. TRUE
3) Heating the water or bombarding it with ultra-violet light or ultra-sound will kill everything
in the ballast water. FALSE
2. The IMO has adopted a set of guidelines for the management of ballast water. At present,
these are:
1) Mandatory.
2) Voluntary.
3. Which of the items listed is not included in the section of the IMO guidelines dealing witj ships’
operational procedures?
1) Precautionary practices, such as timely removal of ballast sediment.
2) Port state considerations
3) Training and education
4) Ballast water management options
4. Are the statements about ballast water exchange true or false?
1) Ballast water exchange at sea can have a serious effect on the ship’s structural integrity.
TRUE
2) Sequential exchange of ballast water at sea must be carried out by emptying pairs of tanks
at a time to maintain the ship’s trim and stability. TRUE
3) Correctly carried out, ballast water exchange at sea is a complete solution to the problem.
FALSE
4) The master decides precisely how exchange at sea should be carried out. FALSE
5. In order to replace approximately 95% of ballast water in a tank using the flow-through
method of exchange, the amount of water pumped through the tank must be:
1) 1.5 X the tank’s volume.
2) 2 x the tank’s volume.
6. Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about ballast water exchange.
Exchanging ballast water at sea can affect the trim and draft. The engine intakes may come
out of the water. It can set up stresses in the hull leading to structural failure and could cause
a loss stability. Even in calm weather, you must carry out this procedure with extreme caution.
7. Which of the actions listed does not form part of the duties of the designated ballast water
management officer?
1) Ensuring the exchange conforms to the plan.
2) Preparing the ballast water declaration form prior to entering port.
3) Maintaining the ballast water log.
4) Deciding whether sea conditions allow exchange to be undertaken safely.
8. Which of the factors listed is not relevant for port state authorities when implementing their
ballast water management programmes and assessing risks?
1) Highly disparate conditions between uptake and discharge ports.
2) Ballast water age.
3) The type of the vessel concerned.
4) Knowledge of the presence of target organisms.
9. Part four of the ballast water reporting form is a detailed history of the ballast water. Which of
the items of information listed would not be required?
1) The date
2) The types of organisms in the water
3) The port
4) The water temperature at the time of the uptake.
10. In the black sea, the comb jelly became a major contributor to the rapid decline in the catch of
which particular fish?
1) Salmon
2) Anchovy
3) Sturgeon
4) Sardine
11. What minimum distance does ‘far from shore’ mean for ships entering North American great
lakes ports or visiting ports further up the Hudson River than the George Washington Bridge?
1) 100 miles
2) 200 miles
3) 300 miles
4) 150 miles
12. The IMO guidelines state that every ship that carries ballast water must have a ballast water
management plan.
1) True
2) False
13. Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the possible
consequences of failing to comply with the regulations in force.
Failure to comply may lead to penalties and loss of revenue for the shipping company. The
vessel may be required to retain her ballast and load less cargo. The ship may not be allowed
to dock or may be forced to go out to sea and exchange her ballast water. There could be the
risk of a heavy fine or even imprisonment.
14. Are the statements about ballast water true or false?
1) Marine organisms carried in ballast water can damage the ship. FALSE
2) Many countries have already introduced quarantine requirements for ballast water
management. TRUE
3) Ballast water can carry disease from one part of the world to another. TRUE
4) Organism carried in ballast water which survive on discharge can multiply and cause
serious environmental problems. TRUE
15. The current, recommended method of ballast water managements is:
1) Isolation
2) Treatment
3) Exchange
16. The IMO guidelines contain a specimen format for a ballast water reporting form. Which of the
items of information listed does this form contain?
1) Vessel information
2) Voyage information
3) Ballast water management information (numbers of tanks discharged)
4) All the above
NAVIGATION IN ICE
1. Why should all tanks be no more than 90% full when travelling in ice zones?
1) To allow air to circulate.
2) To minimise the free surface effect.
3) Because if they are full and freeze solid, they could split.
2. Are the statements about travelling in iceberg zones true or false?
1) In poor conditions icebergs can be difficult to see, blending in with the grey sky and sea.
TRUE
2) Sea clutter may hide the radar reflections from an iceberg. TRUE
3) The sound of breakers where no land is expected might indicate the presence of a large
iceberg. TRUE
4) When you approach pack ice it is always easy to see. FALSE
3. The best speed to maintain while in ice depends on which two factors?
1) The vessel’s course and wind speed.
2) The vessel’s tonnage and the density of the ice.
3) The weather conditions and the vessel’s tonnage.
4. Roughly what proportion of an iceberg is usually below the surface?
1) ¼
2) 1/3
3) ½
4) 7/8
5. In calm conditions, at what sort of upper range is radar reliable for detecting large icebergs?
1) 5 to 8 miles
2) 8 to 12 miles
3) 12 to 15 miles
4) 15 to 10 miles
6. Drag the appropriate words from the list to complete the sentences about the responsibilities
of the chief engineer.
He needs to be aware of the dangers ice poses to the rudders.
He needs to make sure the internal water circulation is functioning.
He must ensure the engine has sufficient power to maintain manoeuvrability.
He should ensure that the fuel oil being used will not freeze or crystallise.
7. What is the usual southerly limit for icebergs in the northern hemisphere?
1) 35th parallel
2) 42nd parallel
3) 50th parallel
4) 62nd parallel
8. What is the typical size of icebergs in the artic?
1) About 45 m tall and 180 m long.
9. When ice is confirmed, various procedures need to be followed. Which of those listed is not
necessary?
1) The master must be informed and come to the bridge.
2) The master must report to the local authorities.
3) All crew must be woken and a muster taken.
4) The chief engineer must be informed that they are approaching ice.
10. When icebergs break up the remains, which may also be dangerous, are known as growlers
and:
1) Mush
2) Shuga ice
3) Bergy bits
4) Brash ice
11. When following an icebreaker through reasonably open ice, what is the ship´s speed likely to
be?
1) 4-5 knots
2) 5-6 knots
3) 6-7 knots
4) 8-10 knots
12. Are the statements abput working with icereakers true or false?
1) The master of the icebreaker should ask the ship how they would like to proceed. FALSE
2) All instructions from the icebreaker must be acknowledged and executed immediately.
TRUE
3) Icebreaker signals are shown in the international code of signals. TRUE
13. Drag the appropriate words from the list to complete the sentences about preparations for
entering an ice zone.
The master orders checks on the ship´s systems to make sure all are prepared for extreme
cols. These will include checking the searchlights, greasing and protecting anchor winches,
ensuring adequate protective clothing for the crew and monitoring the internal water supply.
Bridge windows will also require heating to prevent condensation freezing.
14. When estimating ice drift you must consider the presence of sea currents. Which of the
currents listed is not a recognised type of current in this context?
1) Permanent currents
2) Periodic currents
3) Seasonal currents
4) Temporary currents
15. Ships built to the specification for the ice class 1A should be able to cope with ice floes up to a
thickness of:
1) 0.5 metres
2) 0.6 metres
3) 0.8 metres
4) 1.0 metres
16. If collision with pack ice is unavoidable, how should the ship enter the ice?
1) At an angle of about 60°
2) As squarely as possible
3) With a glancing blow
4) At an angle of 45°
17. Which of the principles listed is not one of the three basic ship-handling rules when moving
through ice?
1) Keep moving
2) Work with the ice
3) Keep the vessel’s speed slow
4) Use the rudder frequently
18. Before entering an ice zone the master needs to brief his team. Which of the items listed
would not need to feature in the briefing?
1) Number of crew onboard
2) State of hull, machinery and equipment
3) Ice experience of the officers and crew
4) Area of operation and access to icebreakers
19. What is the name given to the small ice plates that first start to form on the surface of the sea
as the temperature drops?
1) Brash ice
2) Frazil ice
3) Grease ice
4) Bergy ice
Maritime pollution offences test
1. Which of the measures listed are being used in the fight against marine pollution?
1) Surprise inspections
2) Monitoring and tracking of suspect vessels
3) Extending investigations to an entire fleet
4) Encouraging ‘whistleblowers’ to inform in illegal acts
5) All of the above
2. If there is an accidental discharge while on the high seas, does it need to be logged?
1) Only if it is more than 100 litres.
2) Only if it is more than three times the prescribed ppm.
3) Only if it is within 200 miles of land.
4) Yes, all discharges must be logged.
3. Are the statements about enforcement of pollution regulations true or false?
1) Satellite surveillance is increasingly being used to spot pollution and identify the vessel
causing it. TRUE
2) Chemical fingerprinting techniques can identify the source of pollutants and link them to
specific vessels. TRUE
3) Accidental pollution caused by damage to the ship or its equipment does not exempt the
master from liability. FALSE
4) Port sate control authorities often carry out concentrated inspection campaigns targeting
compliance with anti-pollution regulations. TRUE
4. Under European pollution laws a seafarer can be found guilty of contributing to a pollution
incident through ínaction’. What does ‘inaction’ mean?
1) Forgetting to operate an anti-pollution system at the correct time.
2) Operating an anti-pollution system incorrectly.
3) Being aware of a pollution discharge but not knowing it was illegal.
4) Suspecting an offence but doing nothing about it.
5. If a vessel causes an illegal pollution discharge, who may now be held accountable for it?
1) The master
2) The crew member responsible for the action which caused the discharge
3) The ship owner
4) Everyone involved in operating the vessel.
6. If you are detained by the authorities because your vessel is accused of having caused a
pollution incident, how should you respond to their questioning?
1) Refuse to tell the investigators anything. Remain completely silent.
2) Refuse to answer any questions about the pollution incident until you have been advised
by either the master, the shipowner’s representative or their lawyers.
3) Cooperate fully and answer all questions truthfully.
4) Tell them you know nothing whatsoever about the incident, even if you do.
7. Which of the shipboard records listed are the authorities not likely to inspect if they board a
vessel suspected of causing pollution?
1) Tank sounding log.
2) Cargo manifest.
3) Garbage record book.
4) Oil record book.
8. What does Canada’s legal principle of ‘reverse onus’ mean in pollution cases?
1) An accused seafarer is innocent until convicted unanimously by a jury.
2) An accused seafarer is guilty until proven innocent.
3) An accused seafarer is held liable for the costs of cleaning up the pollution.
4) An accused seafarer is not responsible for pollution if he proves the owners knew the crew
were acting illegally.
9. What is the minimum period for which the details in a vessel´s oil record book should be kept?
1) Six months
2) One year
3) Two years
4) Three years
10. If you see or known of an unauthorised and illegal pollution discharge occurring from your
vessel at sea, what should you do?
1) Make sure the master is told about it.
2) Pretend you didn´t see it or known about it.
3) Make a note of when, where and how it occurred, and keep it to yourself.
4) Tell the person responsible to be more careful in future.
11. Under MARPOL regulations, what is the maximum oil concentration permitted in oily water
that is to be discharge?
1) 5 ppm
2) 15 ppm
3) 50 ppm
4) 100 ppm
12. What is the penalty for a pollution offence in European waters caused by serious negligence?
1) 1-2 year in prison
2) 2-5 years in prison
3) 5-10 years in prison
4) Maximum 15 years in prison
13. Under European pollution laws, a seafarer can be found guilty of contributing to a pollution
incident through ‘complicity´. What does ćomplicity´ mean?
1) Encouraging someone to commit an offence.
2) Working alongside someone committing an offence.
3) Suspecting an offence but doing nothing about it.
4) Failure to understand the proper procedures for operating an anti-pollution system.
14. What might investigating authorities think suspicious when examining the oil record book?
1) Entries made in pencil.
2) Irregular spaces between entries.
3) Pages torn out.
4) All the above.
15. Engineers believe that an oily water separator will become much more liable to failure after:
1) 5 years
2) 7 years
3) 10 years
4) 12 years
16. Why have so many states tightened up their maritime pollution laws?
1) Ship owners, operators and crews were unaware of the previous, existing laws.
2) Ship owners, operators and crews felt the existing laws did not cover modern vessels.
3) Too many ship owners, operators and crews were ignoring the previous, existing laws.
4) The EU felt that ship owners, operators and crews were confused by existing laws.
17. What might investigation authorities think suspicious when examining the oily water
separator?
1) The system being very clean and shiny.
2) Elbows in pipelines
3) Maintenance records which are very well kept and fully up to date.
4) Crewmembers who are very knowledgeable about how the system operates
PILOT ON BOARD
1. Is the following statement about good teamwork on the bridge true or false?
1) Members will offer each other assistance if they think it is needed. TRUE
2. Who can countermand a pilot’s orders?
1) The master
2) Any one of the bridge team
3) Nobody
4) The master and the chief engineer together.
3. From which side of a vessel do pilots normally prefer to board?
1) Port
2) Starboard
3) Lee
4) Windward
4. What is a VDR?
1) Video digital recorder
2) Voyage data recorder
3) Voyage damage record
4) Vector display radar
5. Which of these items does not usually feature in the master-pilot exchange?
1) The cargo manifest
2) The master’s berth-to-berth plan
3) The pilot’s pilotage plan
4) The pilot card
6. Which of the factors listed should be considered by the master and pilot in any risk
assessment of the pilotage?
1) The availability of tugs
2) The likely traffic conditions
3) The vessel’s manoeuvring characteristics
4) All the above
7. Groundings or collisions while a pilot is on the bridge are most likely to occur because:
1) The pilot made a wrong decision.
2) The bridge team acted without the knowledge or approval of the pilot.
3) Communications between the pilot and bridge team were poor.
4) The master was not been on the bridge at the time of the accident.
1) Members will ask questions when they don’t understand something. TRUE
9. Which of those listed is not a recognised type of pilot?

1) Reef passage pilot
2) Company choice pilot
3) Night passage pilot
4) Estuarial pilot
10. Who is in command of a vessel when under pilotage?
1) The pilot
2) The master
3) Both the pilot and master together
4) Whoever is senior officer on the bridge
11. For which of the items listed does it remain the master’s responsibility to give orders to the
crew while under pilotage?
1) The vessel’s course
2) The vessel’s speed
3) VHF contact with VTS
4) Mooring party arrangements for docking
12. Who specifies the standards required of local pilots?
1) The international maritime organization
2) Individual flag states
3) Local competent pilotage authorities
4) The international maritime pilots association
13. Which of the items of information listed would a pilot need to know before taking over
conduct of navigation?
1) The vessel’s last port of call
2) Its cargo
3) How long each member of the bridge team has been with the vessel
4) Any defects or problems with the vessel’s steering or propulsion systems.
14. Which of the items listed must be ready at the pilot’s embarkation point?
1) Lifeline and lifebuoy
2) Signal lamp
3) Protective overalls
4) Ship’s safety instructions
15. Who is in command of navigation when under pilotage?
1) Whoever is senior officer on the bridge
2) The master
3) Both the pilot and master together
4) The pilot
16. When should a master intervene during pilotage to take back conduct of navigation form the
pilot?
1) When the master believes an accident is imminent but can be avoided if he gives the
correct orders.
2) When the pilot does not accept the suggestions of the master
3) When the master believes the pilot’s actions will put the vessel behind schedule
4) When the master disagrees with the pilot’s explanation for what he is doing
17. What information should the pilot be given first when they reach the bridge?
1) The ship’s passage plan
2) The pilot card
3) The manoeuvring booklet
4) The ship’s position, heading and speed
18. Who should meet the pilot at the embarkation point?
1) The master
2) The officer of the watch
3) Any deck officer
4) A deckhand who speaks English
19. As well as his own language, which other basic languages or communication ability is a pilot
expected to have?
1) English and the IMO’s standard marine communication phrases
2) English, Spanish and the IMO’s standard marine communications phrases
3) English, Spanish, German and the IMO’s standard marine communications phrases
4) The IMO’s standard marine communications phrases
20. Who certificates and licenses a pilot?
1) The international maritime organization
2) Individual flag states
3) Local competent pilotage authorities
4) The international maritime pilots association
1) Members will never question the master’s orders. FALSE
22. What words from the master to the pilot formally mark the point when the vessel’s navigation
becomes the responsibility of the pilot?
1) The ship is yours, pilot
2) You have conduct of navigation, pilot
3) Over to you, pilot
4) Captain’s off the bridge
ENTRY INTO ENCLOSED SPACES- PART 1 AWARENESS
1. What enclosed space hazard causes the most deaths among seafarers?
1) Falls from height
2) Lack of oxygen
3) Toxic gases
4) Fire
2. Which of the spaces listed is not an ‘enclosed space’?
1) Ballast tank
2) Cargo holds
3) Fuel tank
4) Pump room
5) Paint locker
6) Bridge
3. What is generally considered to be ‘safe’ air?

1) Air containing 5.5% oxygen
4. What is often the first sign of hydrogen sulphide (H2S) being present in a space?
1) The smell of lemons
2) The smell of petrol
3) The smell of rotten eggs
4) The smell of burning
5. What enclosed space hazards is caused by the rusting of metal?
1) Toxic gas poisoning
2) Anaemia
3) Eye irritation
4) Asphyxiation
6. Is the following statement about enclosed spaces true or false?
1) Enclosed spaces are enclosed on all sides. FALSE
1) The only tasks that require enclosed space entry are cleaning and maintenance. FALSE
8. What will happen if you stay in an atmosphere containing less than 6% oxygen for 4 minutes
or more?
1) Death
2) Muscle weakness
3) Eye disturbance
4) Nausea and vomiting
9. Why is it prohibited to enter a space that has been inerted?
1) Because it will cause nausea
2) Because you will die from lack of oxygen
3) Because there is an explosion hazard
4) Because it will irritate your eyes
1) All enclosed spaces must have clearly visible signs, indicating that they should not be
entered without the proper preparation and procedures. TRUE
1) If you need to rescue someone from an enclosed space which has an atmosphere that has
been identified as dangerous, you must first put on a BA (breathing apparatus) set. TRUE
ENTRY INTO ENCLOSED SPACES- PART 2 PREPARATION AND PROCEDURES
1. What is the purpose of the enclosed space entry tagging system?

1) To indicate that it is in a safe condition
2) To train personnel in safe entry procedures
3) To warn that it is occupied
4) To indicate that it is in an unsafe condition
2. What is the first step in preparing for an enclosed space entry, once it has been established
that the work cannot be done without entering the space?
1) Issuing a permit to work
2) Holding a toolbox talk
3) Developing an action plan
4) Carrying out a risk assessment
3. What is the second step in preparing for an enclosed space entry?
1) Issuing a permit to work
2) Developing an action plan
3) Holding a toolbox talk
4) Assembling the equipment required for entry
4. How should you find out what the enclosed space entry risks are from the residues left in a
tank?
1) By consulting the material safety data sheet (MSDS)
2) By taking a sample
3) By contacting the shipper
4) By asking the safety officer
5. What is the purpose of the toolbox talk (TBT)?
1) To issue a permit to work
2) To discuss exactly how the operation will be carried out
3) To make sure that the regulations are being complied with
4) To review the operation after it has been completed
6. What is the main aim of the permit to work?
1) To review the operation after it has been completed
2) To make sure that the regulations are being complied with
3) To ensure that all the elements of the action plan are in place
4) To assess the risks
7. The action plan is:
1) An alternative to the permit to work
2) An alternative to the toolbox talk
3) An agreed method of working, based on the information from the risk assessment
4) An optional element of the ship’s safety management system
8. Permits to work are normally valid for:
1) Up to 1 hour
2) Up to 4 hour
3) Up to a week
4) They have no specified time limit
9. What happens to the permit to work once the work has been completed?
1) It is discarded
2) It is kept at the entrance to the enclosed space
3) It is reused
4) It is signed by the officer in charge and handed to the master for filing
10. Is the following statement about entry procedures true or false?
1) A toolbox talk must be recorded in writing FALSE
1) Anyone entering the space should have their names recorded not only when they go in,
but also when they come out. TRUE
1) When nitrogen is being produced on board or received from shore, warning signs should
be posted at the gangway and at other appropriate locations. TRUE
ENTRY INTO ENCLOSED SPACES- PART 3 EQUIPMENT
1. Which of the items of equipment listed is not normal PPE for working in an enclosed space?
1) Breathing apparatus
2) Hard hat with chin strap
3) Safety shoes
4) Gloves
2. Is the following statement about enclosed space entry true or false?
1) It is up to the head of department to decide whether or not you are fit to enter an
enclosed space. TRUE
3. Is the following statement about enclosed space entry true or false?
1) It is not necessary to monitor the atmosphere in the enclosed space during the operation
because it has already been tested beforehand. FALSE
4. How should the enclosed space atmosphere be tested for oxygen?
1) With SCBA
2) With an oxygen analyser or multi gas meter
3) With an explosimeter
4) By nose
5. How can spray painting affect the atmosphere in an enclosed space?
1) It can use up the oxygen
2) It can inert the atmosphere
3) It has no effect on the atmosphere
4) It can create explosive vapours
6. Where in an enclosed space should you test the atmosphere?
1) Top and middle
2) Middle and bottom
3) Top and bottom
4) Top, middle and bottom
7. How much air do EEBDs normally contain?
1) Enough for 10-15 minutes
4) Enough for up to 2 hours
8. How should you take an inspection lamp into an enclosed space?
1) Lower it down on a guideline
2) Attach it to your hard hat
3) Attach it to a lanyard
4) Attach it to your EEBD
9. What is the most effective back up means of communication, if VHF radio fails?
1) Mobile phone
2) Your voice
3) Whistle
4) A hard wire communication system
10. When should you use a compressed air breathing line?
1) On normal entry into an enclosed space
2) For double bottoms at a range of more than 10 metres
3) if the access to the space is too restricted to enter with SCBA
4) Compressed air breathing lines should never be used
11. How often should batteries in battery-powered rescue equipment be changed?
1) Every month
2) Every three months
3) Every six months
4) Every year
12. How often should the SCBA cylinders be checked?
1) Every month
2) Every three months
3) Every six months
4) Every year
13. In an enclosed space, any methane present will:
1) Stay in the middle of the space.

2) Rise to the top of the space.
3) Sink to the bottom of the space.
4) Diffuse evenly throughout the space.
14. How much time does an SCBA set generally give someone working in an enclosed space?
1) 10-15 minutes
2) 1 hour
3) 25-35 minutes
4) About 45 minutes
ENTRY INTO ENCLOSED SPACES- PART 4 ENCLOSED SPACE ENTRY
1. Is the following statement about enclosed space entry procedures True or False?
1) As part of the emergency procedures, two BA sets should be laid out on deck. TRUE
1) No more than one type of Permit to Work (the Enclosed Spaces Entry Permit) should be
issued for work in an enclosed space. FALSE
3. Is the following statement about enclosed space entry procedures true or false?
1) It is the responsibility of the team members in the space to monitor the atmosphere
constantly. TRUE
4. Whose responsibility is it to stay in visual and/or audio contact with the team in the space?
1) The master’s
2) The chief master’s
3) The standby person’s
4) The OOW’S
1) Testing must indicate an oxygen reading that is no lower than it is outside the space. TRUE
1) The preferred method of ventilating the enclosed space before entry is natural ventilation.
FALSE
7. Before a working party enters an enclosed space, where should the rescue equipment be kept
ready?
1) At the entrance
2) On the lower deck
3) In the safety equipment room
4) The working party should take it in with them
8. What should you do if the alarm goes off when you are in the space?
1) Test the atmosphere and get out if the reading indicates a dangerous atmosphere.
2) Radio the standby person and find out what the problem is.
3) Look for the nearest fire extinguisher.
4) Fit your EEBD and get out.
9. What happens to the Permit to Work after the job is completed?
1) It is signed by the relevant team member and filed.
2) It is discarded.
3) It is signed by the officer in charge and given to the Master for filing.
4) It is signed by the standby person.
10. What happens to the opening to the space, after everyone has come out, e.g. for a break, but
when the work is not yet completed?
1) It is covered and bolted down.
2) It is closed and fenced off.
3) It is left open but with a warning sign.
4) It is left open with a standby person to see that nobody goes in.
11. Is the following statement about enclosed space entry procedures true or false?
1) Emergency procedures do not form part of the action plan. FALSE
1) If any of the parameters of the risk assessment change while the workers are in the space,
they must stop what they are doing, and get out. TRUE
13. On the SPACE card, what does the letter A stand for?
1) Access
2) Accident
3) Awareness
4) Assess
14. Who is responsible for initiating and coordinating any emergency action required?
1) Assess
2) The 00W
3) The standby person
4) The chief Engineer
ENTRY INTO ENCLOSED SPACES- PART 5 EMERGENCY PROCEDURES AND RESCUE
1. What is the rescuer's first defence against injury and death in an enclosed space?
1) PPE
2) Wearing SCBA
3) Keeping to procedures
4) Communication
2. What is the first thing the standby person should do if they become aware of an emergency?
1) Go and get help
2) Prepare for entry
3) Sound the alarm
4) Notify the officer in charge, Chief Officer and/or Officer of the Watch
3. How long can an injured person be in a smoke or fume-filled space before there is a danger of
suffering brain damage through lack of oxygen?
1) Less than 4 minutes
4. What piece of equipment is the fall arrest unit designed to be used with?
1) The lifeline
2) The compressed air breathing line
3) The working harness
4) The rescue harness
5. Is the following statement about emergency procedures True or False?
1) The best type of stretcher for lifting an injured person out of an enclosed space is soft and
bendy. FALSE
1) The rescue party should wear EEBDs rather than SCBA when entering an enclosed space to
bring out a casualty. FALSE
1) You should never enter a smoke or fume-filled space without SCBA. TRUE
8. Why is it important for a casualty to wear a rescue harness when being hoisted out?
1) To keep them upright and minimise the possibility of choking.
2) To keep them horizontal and minimise bleeding.
3) To make it easier to carry out the rescue.
4) They should not wear a rescue harness: a working harness is safer.
9. When the rescue party hear the alarm, what should they do?
1) Enter the space immediately
2) Muster for a briefing
3) Put on their EEBDS
4) Bring BA sets to the entrance
10. What is the purpose of the BA control board?

1) To communicate with the people in the space.
2) To record the casualty's injuries.
3) To log the rescue team's names and operational times and to monitor air supply.
4) To strap the casualty on to and raise them out of the space.
11. If there are several casualties, who should you attend to first?
1) Anyone who is unconscious
2) Anyone who is bleeding
3) Anyone with a broken bone
4) Anyone who is convulsing
12. The main purpose of the review after the rescue is to:
1) Agree what should go in the report.
2) Identify any aspects of the operation that could be improved.
3) Form part of the paper trail
4) Act as a training exercise.
13. Basic rescue equipment may comprise:
1) Act as a training exercise,
2) A shackle.
3) Breathing apparatus.
4) a guideline,
5) All the above
14. The majority of enclosed space deaths are caused by:
1) Falls.
2) Explosions.
3) Attempts to rescue other people.
4) Drowning.
ENTRY INTO ENCLOSED SPACES- PART 6 CORRECT USE OF BREATHING APPARATUS
1. What is the typical air consumption per minute for a person wearing SCBA in an emergency
situation, doing heavy work?
1) 15-20 litres
2) 30-40 litres
3) 50-60 litres
4) 90-100 litres
2. The basic concept of SCBA is that:
1) It has an airline that connects to a unit outside the space.
2) Air from the atmosphere is filtered through the facemask.
3) Oxygen is stored in a cylinder harnessed to your back.
4) Air is compressed and stored in a cylinder harnessed to your back.
3. What do you need to check regularly to make sure you have enough air?
1) The cylinder
2) The facemask
3) The gauge and whistle assembly
4) The bypass valve
4. At what pressure should the warning whistle sound?

1) 30-40 bar
2) 50-60 bar
3) 65-75 bar
4) 75-85 bar
5. The red sector on the gauge indicates that you have:
1) 0-10 minutes of air.
4) a defective BA set
6. Is the following statement about the use of BA sets True or False?
1) If you have to enter a space that does not have a breathable atmosphere you will always
need breathing apparatus. TRUE
1) To test for leaks, go on breathing until the gauge reads zero and the face mask collapses
on your face. TRUE
8. Is the following statement about the use of BA sets true or false?
1) It is not necessary to test the BA set before you put it on, as it will already have been
thoroughly tested. FALSE
1) After use, the facemask should be decontaminated by immersing and cleaning with a soft
brush in cleaning/disinfectant fluid. TRUE
10. How is the BA set's extra air supply delivered to the wearer?
1) There is no extra air supply
2) Through the demand valve
3) Through the reducer
4) Through the bypass valve
11. When testing the set, what should be the maximum pressure drop in one minute?
1) It does not matter how much the pressure drops
2) 10 bar
3) 50 bar
4) 25 bar
12. What should the contents of the air cylinder be, for operational use of the BA set?
1) At least 80% full
13. During drills to practise rescues from enclosed spaces, where should the control point be set
up?
1) Within the space, as close as possible to the exit.
2) As close as possible to the entrance of the space.
3) As close as possible to the safety equipment room.
4) On the lower deck.
14. When putting on the face mask you should tighten the straps:
1) From the bottom upwards.
2) From the top downwards.
3) In any order that suits you.
When entering cargo tanks or other enclosed spaces, what is the required oxygen content for
safe entry?
21%
19%
24%
18%
Nitrogen is one of the greatest hazards of enclosed spaces because:
It has no smell
It gives no warning symptoms to an affected person
A person can lose consciousness very quickly, sometimes in less than 20 seconds
Of all of above
If you see or suspect an injury to someone in an enclosed space, what should you do first?
Enter the space to assess the situation more fully
Raise the alarm
Increase the ventilation
Check the instructions on the permit to work
Are the statements about implementing a permit work true or false?
Only the work specified on the permit should be undertaken True
On some jobs it will be difficult to assess how long they need so the permit should not
specify a time limit False
If someone else takes over the job specified in the permit, the permit should be reissued in
their name True
If unforeseen extra work is required during the work covered by the permit, this work can
be done as long as an officer is informed afterwards False
In the first case study, what was the specific aromatic hydrocarbon identified as being hazardous
in extremely low concentrations?
Naphtha
Methane
Benzene
Kerosene
Which of those listed is not one of the six basic principles of risk control?
Substitution
Safe working procedures
Training, instruction and supervision
Obtaining permission form head office
Which of the statements does not belong in the list? A permit to work should state:
The qualifications of the crewmember(s) to do the work
The precise location and details of the work to be done
The measures under taken to make the job safe

The nature and results of any preliminary test
What is the definition given for the world “risk”?
It describes what would happen i case of the sudden operational failure of a vital piece of
equipment on board ship
It is a combination of two factors-the likelihood of something happening and the

consequences if it does
An unintended event involving death of injury, and/or damage to the ship, other property,
or the environment
The outcome of an accident
What is mean of the word “hazard”?
The sequence of events leading to a hazardous situation or accident
The consequence of an accident
The means of controlling risk
A potential to threaten human life, health, property or the environment
What do the words “starvation,” “smothering” and “cooling” refer to in relation to fighting?
They are the words describing various fire detection systems
The means to remove one or more of the three elements of combustion
The conditions under which a fire may start
The names of fire fighting equipment
Ideally the adjustable jet/spray nozzle in a hose should be used as:
A jet
A spray of arc 30 degrees
What type of extinguisher is most suitable for dealing with fires involving carbonaceous
materials?
CO2 extinguisher
Dry powder extinguisher
Foam extinguisher
Water extinguisher
In the list of action below, which item does not belong?
Before using a fixed CO2 installation:
Sound the fire alarm
Evacuate the area
Take a roll call to make sure no-one is left there
Open all doors
Shut all vents and accesses
If a space is filling with smoke and fumes, any personnel not properly equipped with breathing
apparatus should...
Get out of space without delay; if necessary by crawling on hands and knees
Raise the alarm, look the nearest fire extinguisher, and take immediate fire fighting action
Search for others who may be in urgent need of assistance
Close all doors and portholes before making an escape from the area
In fire-fighting, what does the term “boundary starvation” refer to?
Closing door and hatches at the boundary of a fire
Cooling the area around a fire to sop it spreading
Removing the fuel from the boundary of a fire to stop it spreading further
Mustering fire fighters and materials in the area near the fire
Complete the following sentences about fire extinguisher

Water extinguishers are the most common. They work by cooling, reducing the
temperature of the burning substance to a point where it can no longer burn
When using a water extinguisher, spray water directly onto the fire and move the jet
about quickly to break up the water into droplets to get the best cooling effect.
In bulky fires such as cotton waste, break up and spread out the material to dissipate
heat and to make sure it is all wetted
Foam extinguishers work by smothering a fire, starving it of the air it needs
What are carbonaceous fuels?
All low-flash liquids are referred to as carbonaceous fuels
Hydrocarbon products carried on tankers which were derives from metamorphic rock
formations
Ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper, cloth: those materials which burn to
leave behind shouldering embers
Flammable gases under pressure in pipe; tanks or cylinders which can create a risk
explosion when temperature/pressure controls fail
Extinguisher summary. Match the types of extinguisher with the kinds of fires described below
Powder extinguisher can be used on all types of fire, but check the label of a particular
extinguisher as there are different kinds of powder extinguishers.
Use foam extinguishers on liquid fires
Use CO2 or dry powder extinguishers on fires involving electricity
Never use water extinguishers on liquids or electrical fires

If you see smoke coming from behind a closed door, what would be the first essential action on
your part?
Open the door and investigate to see if you can quickly put the fire out with the nearest
extinguisher before it gets out control. Them raise the alarm and report what you have achieved
You should raise the alarm, then wait the fire party arrives
Feel the heat of the door and handle, brace your shoulder and knee against the door
slightly, investigate and close quickly. Then raise the alarm and report clearly what the problem is
Activate the fixed Halon or fixed CO2 installation without delay
Complete the following sentences about fire fighting
Successful fire fighting means removing one or more of 3 elements (fuel, heat, air) as
quickly as possible. Effectively this puts out the fire
Most fires start as small ones
In accommodation areas, the most commonly available extinguishers are water

extinguishers
In all case, portable fire extinguishing equipment should be operated strictly in

accordance with the maker´s instruction displayed on the extinguisher body
Dry powder extinguishers suppress a fire by chemically interfering with the process of
combustion. Complete the following sentences;
A dry powder extinguisher acts as…
A flame inhibitor
A cooling agent
A smothering agent
A means of fuel starvation
Why should a CO2 extinguisher be used with caution in confined areas?
It will increase the oxygen present in the confined areas to dangerous level
It will not operate effectively in confined areas
It may explode when exposed to heat
It will displace the air and reduce the amount of oxygen available
What would you concern to be your most important reaction on discovering a fire?
Closing doors and windows to remove the air supply
Tackle the fire with the nearest fire extinguisher
Find the seat of the fire
Report it by raising the alarm
Which extinguisher methods are electrically conducting?
CO2
Dry powder
Water/foam
Fire blanket
Complete the following sentences on the dangers of fire extinguishers
Make sure nozzles are clear and discharge hoses in good condition
Always check extinguishers carefully for signs of corrosion
Many injuries have been caused by people unscrewing extinguisher heads under pressure
If you hear a high pressure “hiss”, stop unscrewing. Make sure the pressure relief holes
are clear
Complete the following sentences on the care of hoses
After use, a modern hose must be laid out and drained by walking along it, holding each
part at shoulder level as you walk along
Protect couplings from salt spray with light grease
After using a hose, clean off any contaminants with a mild detergent. Dip the couplings
and nozzles in fresh water before storing away
Hoses must be maintained and testes regularly, and records kept of these activities
The basic rules of fire fighting are common to all ships. They are contained in the letters making
up the word fire. From the options below with is the odd one out?
“F” stands for
“I” stands for
“R” stands for
“E” stands for
…report it
…extinguishing it if it is small enough for one portable extinguisher. If not “E” for escape
… isolate it
… find it
What are the language requirements of the ISM Code?
Knowledge of the English in a working with emphasis on maritime terms
Procedures written in a working language understood by the crew
Compulsory language lesson for all crewmembers
A language requirement for crew members is not mentioned in the ISM Code
Complete the statements describing common factors in a successful approach to ISM Code
implementation by placing the correct words from the boxes in the sentences:
Senior management within the company must full and enthusiastically support the code
Foster a proactive attitude, and get people thinking abort prevention
Shore personnel must be as involved as those on board ship.
The company must foster a no-blame culture
Non-conformities are treated as opportunities for improvement of the safety

management system
Don´t look at auditors with an “us and them” attitude, they are there to help you
improve the you did no answer any of the options on this part of the test
Are the following statements about non-conformities true or false?
Full reporting with following-up action reduces the number of incidents True
Non-conformity reporting creates troubles for the crew False
It encourages no-blame culture where appropriate correction or training in likely to

follow and identified error True
What is the minimum number of manuals required to complete a safety management system?
One safety management manual
None are required
As many volumes as needed to ensure that the requirements are met
One manual is required for each operational process
What is the meaning of the word “observation” as used in the ISM Code?
It is a formal report made by the safety officer during the monthly on board safety
meeting
It is the ship position lines as calculated by the navigator at noon
It is the master´s report to the designated person
It is a statement of fact made during a safety management audit and substantiated by

objective evidence
Complete the statement describing some of the points covered in the video by placing the
correct word form one of the boxed below in to the sentences:
The ISM Code as a key element in accident prevention
Common factors that can contribute to system not doing what was intended include
failure to get staff involved
It is important to foster a no-blame culture
Auditors can be helpful sources of information
The safety management system should be a dynamic system
An effective reporting system is one where reports are kept factual
What is the purpose of appointing a designed person(s)?
To provide a link between the highest level of management ashore and those on board
To write and maintain the safety management system

To establish the person responsible for any non-conformity with the safety management
system
To motivate the crew in the observation of the company´s polices
An interim safety management certificate (SMC) may be issued to new ships on delivery, and
when a company takes responsibility for the management of a ship which is new to the
company. For what period of time is such an intern safety management certificate (SMC) valid?
One year
Three months
Six months
One month
Are the following marine standards mandatory or voluntary?
ISM Code Mandatory
STCW 95 Mandatory
ISO 9000 Voluntary
ISO 14000 Voluntary
The Code requires that safeguard are established against all indentified risk. How would you go
about identifying the risk associated with the operation of your ship?
Carry out a form of risk assessment
Ask the safety officer for his/her views
Rely on instinct and past experience
Let the marine superintendent decide
The video states that the safety management system (SMS) needs to be a dynamic system. Why
is this true?
A dynamic system allows for adjustments and corrections when the ship´s operational
and/or crew needs and circumstances changes
In a dynamic system procedures remain fixed so that all concerned know what to expected
and what is required
A dynamic system encourages legislative changes

A dynamic system avoids the need for check lists and reports
Complete the “Functional requirements for a safety management system” bye placing the
correct words form the boxes in the sentences
Functional requirements for a safety management system (SMS) must include:
A safety and environmental protection policy
Instructions and procedures to ensure safe operation of ships and protection of the
environment in compliance with relevant international and flag state legislation
Defined levels of authority and lines of communication between, and amongst, shore
and shipboard personnel
Procedures for reporting accidents and non-conformities with provisions of the code
Procedures to prepare for and respond to emergency situations
Procedures for internal audits and management reviews
Complete the statement describing a major non-conformity by placing the correct words form
the boxed in the sentence:
A major non-conformity means an identifiable deviation which poses a serious threat to

the safety of personnel or the ship or a serious risk to the environment which requires immediate
corrective action and includes the lack of effective and systematic implementation of a
requirement of the ISM Code
Which one of the two statements given below is correct?
The ISM Code can only exist bye the interaction of other parts of legislation and
organisations
The ISM Code must be implemented independently of other legislative or company

requirements
The people interviewed in the video warned against some of the problems than can arise when
implementing the safety management system. Complete the statements describing what to
guard against, by placing the correct words form the boxes in the sentences
Lack of clear individual responsibility for implementation
Failure to involve staff
Lack of appropriate training for key people
Lack of commitment and/or direction

Introduction of too many manuals and excessive paper work
What would a typical safety management system consist of?
An extensive number of procedures manual explaining every detail of all work activities
onboard ship and in the office
Clear procedures to ensure safety and environmental protection is planned, organised,

executed and checked in accordance with legislative and company requirements
A safety procedures manual as required in the form of a SOLAS training manual
A combination of the OPA90, the SOPEP and other training manuals
What is “non-conformity”?
A “non-conformity” describes the safety management system
A “non-conformity” is a report criticising the excessive use of forms and paperwork
A “non-conformity” describes the non-fulfilment of charter party requirements
A “non-conformity” is an observed situation where objective evidence indicates the non-

fulfilment of a specified requirement
The following benefits of a safety management system (SMS) were claimed in the video. Are the
statements listed true or false?
ISM provides a framework by which your SMS can not only operate, but also evolve,
through input from everyone involved, including all members of a crew True
The SMS can easily be tailored to specific company and shipboard needs and practices
True
Inevitably the SMS will be a burden to a well-run ship False
The SMS will be no more complex or burdensome than you need it to be True
What procedures should be in place to deal with new personnel and personnel transferred to
new assignments related to safety and protection of the environment on board your ship?
They should have at least five years experience in the job before being assigned safety
related duties as defined in the STCW convention
Safety related and environmental protection related duties most only be given to qualified
watch keeping officers
They must be given proper familiarisation with their duties

They must be in possession of a valid first aid certificate
What is the advantage of fostering a “no-blame” culture?
It guarantees that the number of accidents will be reduced and in some cases eliminated
altogether
With a no-blame culture accidents and dangerous occurrences will be swept under the
carpet
A “no-blame” culture will encourage the reporting of non-conformities which can help
improve the safety management system
In a no-blame culture it is not necessary to report near misses
Are the statements about pilot ladders and pilot boarding True or False?
It is pilot's duty to board regardless even if he is not happy with boarding arrangements
False
Aluminium is likely to corrode less when in direct contact with mild False
Pilot ladders are made of light aluminium so that they can easily by crew members
False
Handhold stanchions should be attached to the bulwark at around what level?
10 cm above bulwark top.
100 cm above bulwark top.
10 cm below bulwark top.
In ships with a freeboard of more than 9 metres, the ladder should be lowered to:
5-7 metres above the water line
8-10 metres above the water line
the water line itself
Are the statements about gangways and accommodation ladders True or False?
Accommodation ladders are strong enough to withstand any number of people using at
once False
While in port, it is the port authority´s responsibility to ensure that gangways and
accommodation safely rigged False
Assessing the risks involved is essential, when any accommodation ladder, gangway or
pilot ladder is about to be operated True
Manufacturers' accommodation ladder equipment manuals are kept:
In the accommodation area.
In a box next to the equipment.
On the bridge/chief officer´s office
How often should accommodation ladder wires be renewed?
At least once every 4years
Not at all. They are durable and will last for the life of the ship
Spreaders should be not more than:
2 steps apart
4 steps apart
6 steps apart
8 steps apart
It is not necessary to inspect the underside of gangways or accommodation ladder ladders, as

they are protected from corrosion and wear and tear.
True
False
The clear step width between the side ropes should be at least:
40 cm wide
60 cm wide
80 cm wide
The pilot ladder should not be longer than:
9 metres
12 metres
15 metres
20 metres
The bottom platform of the accommodation ladder should be angled to:
10°
20°
Not angled at all-completely flat
55°
If it is not possible to repair or replace a defective part, what should you do?
Paint it red as a warning that it is unsafe.
Attach a notice stating that the device must not be used and the reason why
Verbally inform all relevant personnel that it is defective
Cruise liners board their passengers by port controlled gangways or ship gangways.
False
True
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about risk assessment.
The risk involved in operating and using an accommodation ladder, gangway or pilot ladder
must be assessed, to minimise the likelihood of accidents. Whether at sea or in port, it is good
seamanship to make sure that the correct procedures and safety measures have been applied.
Risk assessment is an ongoing requirement to ensure that correct procedures are established
and followed
What should the pilot ladder be illuminated by?
The ship's lights only.
A light attached to the ladder itself
A light positioned forward of the ladder
A light aft positioned aft of the ladder
Accommodation ladders should be inclined to an angle of not more than:

35°
55°
45°
65°
Hatch coaming brackets should be checked for:
Deformation
Wastage
Cracks
All the above
What water pressure should be used when hose testing?
1 bar
2-3 bar
5bar
Packing rubbers should be replaced:
If they have a permanent imprint.
Every 2 years
If there is a permanent imprint which the manufacture´s specified design limits
The use of flexible hoses as a substitute for an approved non-return drainage system:
Is good practice and is strongly recommended
May be accepted as a temporary solution only.
Is bad practice-they should never be used
Which of the methods listed would NOT appropriate for testing hatch covers?
Chalk test.
Air test.
X-Ray examination.
Light infiltration test

When opening or closing the hatch covers, which of the occurrences listed could signify a
problem to be investigated further?
Uneven Or unusual movement
Abnormal variation in speed
Unusual vibration
All the above
In order to remain water-tight, hatch covers must:
Not move at all when secured to the hatch coamings
Not move at all when the ship is flexing at sea
Move slightly when secured to the hatch coamings to allow for the ship flexing at sea
During a hose test, the first indication that hatch covers are water-tight is if water is seen:
Dripping from the drain valves
Leaking into the cargo hold.
Dripping into the cargo hold and from the drain valves simultaneusly
When checking the hatch covers while at sea you need to pay particular attention to the area
where the sea loads are greatest. This is:
The forward 25% of ship´s length
The area just forward of the superstructure
The forward 10% of the ship´s length
Are these statements about hatch covers True or False?
Bearing pads are intended to take the vertical load of the hatch cover True
The primary function of the cleats is to pull the hatch covers down for a tighter seal
False
Over-tightening the securing devices may permanently damage the rubber seals True
If wear of the steel-to-steel arrangements results in the rubber packings becoming

permanently deformed, the solution is to replace the rubbers False
In order to be efficient, the rubber packing needs to:

Be flexible and resilient
Be hard and resilient
show a deep permanent imprint
Which of these statements about cleats is NOT correct?
Cleats should allow panels to move to a limited extent
Cleats should be closed in a specific order
Cleats are to hold the panels in place when at sea
Cleats should be tightened very hard in order to prevent the panels flexing
To prove that due diligence has been excersed, which of the documents and records listed
should be available on board?
Manufacture´s manual for hatch covers
Records of inspections, maintenance and repair
Hatch cover test reports
All the above
Locators:
Are used to ensure steel-to-steel contact
Guide the panels into their correct Closing position
Should be flexible
The main advantages of ultrasonic testing are:
That it can be used whether the holds are full or empty
That it reduces risk of pollution.
That it can be operated in all weather conditions.
All of the above
The hydraulic oil in the hatch cover power unit should be:
Replaces automatically every 2 years
Be analysed regularly and replaced as necessary

Kept at 35°C
Minor damage to compression bars, such as small cuts and gouges:
are usually acceptable and should not affected the sea ability
should be added to the list of dry-dock repairs
Are unacceptable as compression bars must always be completely straight, level and
structurally sound
Are these statements about hatch cover operation True or False?
When opening and closing the hatches at least two crewmembers should be involved
True
You should never climb on the hatch covers while they are moving True
Once the hatch covers are fully open the securing device should be applied True
High expansion foam may sometimes be useful to help reduce the risk of leaks round
the hatch coaming False
The video states that a significant proportion of major bulk cargo claims are due to hatch cover
leakage. The figure given was approximately:
One quarter
One third
One half
Put the list of operations involved in Phase Two of raising an anchor into the correct order by
dragging the appropriate number into each box.
4 The rig mooring chain.
1 Both anchor chain and chaser wire must in co-ordination achieve the required lift
3 The Master positions the vessel as required
2 On the bridge, the vessel and rig exchange information, as they co-ordinate their moves
to tension the wires.
5 Meanwhile, the vessel keeps the chaser wire at the required tension and recovers This is
done by slowly moving towards the rig and at the same time winding in the work wire
Is the following statement about connecting a pre-laid anchor True or false?

The pre-laid anchor chain is grappled by the vessel and is connected to a surface buoy by
a wire True
Is the following statement about the special risk involves in separating chain lengths True or
false?
Taking a chain out of service and changing over to another which is a very hazardous
operation True
Which of the statements listed is not correct? The marine representative and the master of the
AHV should meet face to face because:
They need to establish the charter rate for the vessel
They need to discuss each detail of the job and be aware of any problems areas
They can establish a chain of communication between the Marine Rep, the Master and
other members of the team on board the AHV
They can identify additional equipment requirements before the vessel leaves port
They can notify last minute changes to everybody concerned
Is the following statement about anchor handling true or false?
Operations which involve moving heavy links and shackles should be performed slowly
True
Which of those listed is not a reason for bringing an anchor up on deck?
For modification to suit a different soil type
To take the strain off the work wire when running back to the ring
For replacement or inspection
For removing the piggyback anchor
Is the following statement about anchor handling true or false?
Wind force and strength of current represent a higher risk than rain and fog true
Is the following statement about connecting a pre-laid anchor true or false?
The vessel collects the anchor chain and the PCP from the ring True
The main task involved in raising the anchor is:
To position the chaser onto the anchor and release the anchor from the seabed
Connecting the chaser pennant to the work wire
Preparation and checking of engines, generator tow pins and jaws
Inspecting the anchor on the after deck
Is the following statement about safety during the operations involved in lifting an anchor on
deck true or false?
When the work wire is secured to the pendant the crew should make sure that they are
close by in a case of accident false
Put the list of operations involved in phase three of lifting the anchor on deck into the correct
order by dragging the appropiate letter into the box
4 the anchor is moved with the use of tugger winches
2 The anchor can be positioned for inspection or safe transportation
3 The anchor chain is disconnected for safe transportation
1 The tension in the wires can be reduced once the anchor is on deck
Put the list of operations involved in phase one of lifting the anchor on deck into the correct
order by dragging the appropriate letter into the box
2 The crew place the pendant in the hydraulic jaws
4 the crew withdraw to safe area, as there is a high risk of wires disconnecting or other
dangerous situations occurring during this manoeuvre
3 the work wire is secured to the pendant and is then ready for towing the chaser onto
the anchor
1 the crane lowers the pendant
When raisin an anchor in deep waters, which of the items listed is LEAST required?
Extension wires and chains, usually to about one and half times the depth of water
A three-way communication channel
All moves synchronised by each master and the Marine Rep
An echo sounder
Is the following statement about handling true or false?
Crew members should be in a “safe haven” when the work wire is under tension True
Which of the conditions listed enable preparations for anchor handling on the vessel to begin?
Daylight hours
Visibility greater than 1000 metres
An advance copy of the rig movement procedures has been received from the charterers
The drilling installation says then want to start
Is the following statement about safety during the operations involved in lifting an anchor on
deck true or false?
Handling tugger wires represents additional risk for crew members True
How high should the handrails on the after deck be?
Handrails are not required on the after deck
A minimum of 50 cm
A minimum of 75 cm
A minimum of 1 metre
Anchoring Safely Test
The U-turn method of anchoring makes use of the fact that the force required to move the ship in
a straight line is much greater than that needed to turn the vessel, by applying a force at right
angles to the stern. Roughly what is this factor?
1)15
2) 2
3) 25
4)3
Crew Resource Management - Engine Room Test
The potential for latent failures can be reduced by the proper application of workplace procedures
aimed at identifying risks and possible safety issues. Which of the activities listed is NOT relevant
in this context.
1) Risk assessment
2) Using 'Permit to Work' systems
3) Agreeing times of meal breaks
4) Preparing daily work plans
5) Toolbox talks
The Reference describes the process of learning from experience to avoid repeating mistakes.
Place the steps from the list in the correct order.
1 The experience itself
2 reflection
3 generalistion
4 planning
Are the statements about cork situations True or False?
1) You should follow the daily work plan regardless of the way the situation evolves.
2) Unwanted visitors or phone calls can distract you from the task in hand and start a chain of
events leading to an incident.
3) Contradictory readingsfrom instrumentation are quite common and are not a cause for
concern.
4) You should not ignore igutfeeling' about a situation even if you are not sure what may be
wrong.
5) Active failures are often due to a human error.
Good planning means thinking ahead. Everyone should have a clear picture of what is likely to
happen during the shift. Select the correct words from the list to complete the sentences.
There should be no surprises and no secrets! Effective engine room resource management
depends on sharing information .'What if questions are important so that there are alternative
scenarios in mind if circumstances or priorities change during the planned sequence of work.
Crew Resource Management - Engine Room Test Are the statements about good communication
in a team True or False?
1) You should not question the decisions of senior colleagues.
2) You should only provide information when it is asked for.
3) You should feel comfortable asking for help when you need it
4) You should ask questions if there is something you don't understand.
The Reference suggests there are three barriers which can often make developing an effective
engine room team harder. These are:
1) Age, rank and culture.
2) Age, rank and certification.
3) Culture, rank and certification.
4) Culture, certification and age.
To understand the potential for incidents on board you need to identify possible hazards and
targets. Which of the following are hazards and which are targets?
1) electricity hazard
2) caustic substances hazard

3) equipment target
4) other crew members target
5) noisy environments hazard
6) equipment manuals target
7) very hot surfaces hazard
Crew Resource Management - Engine Room
Test The 'traffic light approach is a system for dealing with material changes in circumstances. How
many changes are required for the light to change from green to amber?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
To manage the situation requires controls over the hazards and defences for the targets. When
the controls, or the defences, or both fail we have an event - the target is damaged or, in the case
of a near miss, threatened by the hazard.
Place the stages from the list in the correct order to show the build up that can lead to an event.
Latent failure —> Preconditions —> Active failure —> Failed defences/controls —> Event
Personal survival part 4 survival and rescue test
1) Once every hour immediately after launching.
2) When you have sighted the rescue services or other ships/aircraft.
3) Once every hour during the hours of darkness.
4) On request from the rescue services.
Shock is a state of collapse that may occur after any serious injury. How should victims be treated?
1) They should be kept cool, and if conscious placed in an upright position.
2) They should be kept warm, laid flat and, if conscious, given frequent sips of water except for
those with stomach injuries.
3) They should be given a small dose of medicinal brandy, then laid flat and given rest.
4) None; wait until rescue services arrive with specialist personnel trained to deal with such a
medical emergency.
What is the function of the inside watchman on board an inflated raft?
1) To prepare food and distribute the water.
2 )To stop people from smoking.
3) To cheer up the occupants.
4) To check on injured personnel and on the state of the survival craft.
When launching a rescue boat, what should the ship's speed be?
1) No more than 2 knots
What's the minimum number of crew required in the rescue boat?

1) 2 people
2) 3 people
3) 4 people
4) 5 people
What's the normal method of winching a single uninjured person into a helicopter from a ship?
1) A highline
2) A lifting stretcher
3) A basket
4) A rescue hook or strop
Personal Survival Part 4 - Survival and Rescue Test
If you have had to enter the water, what is the best course of action?
1) Move as much as possible to keep your circulation going.
2) Take off your boots or shoes.
3) Find an object to climb on to
4) Keep your front into the wind and waves.
Which piece of signalling equipment will help helicopter pilots judge the surface wind speed and
direction?
1) Smoke float
2) Heliograph
3) Parachute flare
4) Hand flare
Which piece of signalling equipment is used for long range signalling?
1) Heliograph
2) Smoke canister
3) Parachute flare
4) Hand flare
Personal Survival Part 4 - Survival and Rescue Test Which piece of equipment communicates with
nearby vessels' radar?
1) SART
2) Radar reflector
3) GMDSS
4) EPIRB
Personal Survival Part 4 - Survival and Rescue Test Which piece of equipment transmits a distress
signal with your vessel's unique serial number?
1) SART
2) Radar reflector
3) GMDSS
4) EPIRB
Look-out watches should be kept:
1) 24 hours a day.
2) during daylight hours.
3) at night
4) at the discretion of the person in charge
Personal Survival Part 4 - Survival and Rescue Test How much water should be given per day after
the first 24 hours?
1) No rations are required for the first 5 days.
2) 1 glass
3) 0.5 litres
4) 1.5 litres
Personal Survival Part 4 - Survival and Rescue Test How long can a well-nourished person normally
survive without water?
1) 24 hours
2) 3-4 days
3) 8-10 days
4) 1 month
Personal Survival Part 4 - Survival and Rescue Test What's the recommended way of cooling
yourself down in a hot climate when in a liferaft?
1) By taking regular dips in the sea
2) By using the battery-operated fan provided
3) By deflating the liferaft floor
4) By paddling the raft to create an air current

Personal Survival Part 4 -Survival and Rescue Test Is the statement about immersion suits True or
False?
1) Immersion suits should be put on and zipped up before entering an enclosed lifeboat.
FALSE
Personal Survival Part 4 - Survival and Rescue Test There are four main dangers faced by evacuees
in a survival craft. Which item does not belong in this list?
1) Drowning
2) Cold exposure
3) Lack of water
4) Lack of food
5) Inability to sleep
When should the PFD be worn?
1) When getting on to and off the launch
2) Throughout the operation from boarding the launch onwards
3) When you lease your seat on the launch to go to the personnel transfer area
4) A PFD is not necessary and could obstruct your passage up the ladder
Is the following statements about boarding procedures true or false?
1) It is important to keep your body as far away as possible from the ladder as you climb
FALSE
If the launch that has approached has not been in communication with the ship, nobody from it
should be allowed to board
TRUE
The master of the launch should make the final decision about which side of the ship would be
used for boarding
TRUE
When you reach the top of the ladder. how should you step across?
1)You should wait to be lifted on to the deck using the hoist.
2) You should step backwards on to the deck.
3) You should make sure you move both feet at once and then both hands.
4) You should step across moving one hand or foot at a time.
Which of the items of equipment listed is NOT needed on the launch?
I) EPIRB
2) SART
3) Fire extinguishers
4) Lifebuoys
5) Survival craft
6) Heliograph
7) Distress signalling flans
How many people are allowed on the pilot ladder at one time?
1) 1 launch deckhand. I passenger and 1 receiving ship's officer
2) I launch deckhand and 3 passengers
3) 2 passengers
4) 1 passenger
Boarding and Leaving a Vessel at Sea Test
What should be the angle of slope for the accommodation ladder?
1) Less or equal to 45 degrees
The accommodation ladder should lead forward
FALSE
Leaving a Vessel at Sea
Boarding and Leaving a Vessel at Sea Test
A combination arrangement Is:
1)a ladder which can be dismantled into several pans.
2) an accommodation ladder and fall arrestor.
3)a rope and platform fated with stanchions.
4) a pilot ladder and accommodation ladder
Sea Boarding and Leaving a Vessel at Sea Test
The launch must be manned by at least:
1) 1 Person.
2) 2 people
3) 3 people
4) 5 people
Offshore Anchor Handling Test
Is the following statement about connecting a pre-laid anchor True or False?
1) The submersible buoy is positioned near the sea bed.
TRUE
What form of communication is preferable between the launch and ship?
1)Hand signals
2) The spoken word
3) VHF radio
4) Flags
What should you do once you've been instructed to start boarding?
I ) Stand on the bottom of the ladder until the receiving officer instructs you to move.
2) Climb 5 steps to take you clear of the launch.
3) Climb 10 steps then look round to check with the dockhand that it's safe to proceed.
4) Climb without stopping until you get to the top.
What should the personnel transfer area on the launch be protected with?
1)Lifebuoys
2 lenders
3) Non-slip paint
4) Stanchions
Is the following statement about boarding procedures true or false?

As a passenger to be transfered to the ship, it is your duty to board regardless, even if you are not
happy boarding arrangements.
False
When leaving the ship and arriving at the bottom of the ladder, you should:
Turn around so that you’re facing the launch
Move below the level of the launch deck
Step directly on to the deck
Step first on to the railings and then the deck
Which of the protective items listed is not required when boarding a vessel?
Safety harness
Hard hat
PDF
Non-slip footwear with low heels
Why is climbing a ladder up a ship’s side more risky while the ship is underway than in port?
Because the launch and ship are both moving independently in the water
Because the same safety rules do not apply
Because the ladder is freely swiging around
Becuese of the lack of supervision
What boarding arrangement does the IMO consider safest for boarding personnel at sea on ships
with a freeboard of 9 metres and above?
The combination arrangement
The accommodation ladder

The transfer basket
The pilot ladder
What is the maximum climb up a ship’s side?
5 metres
9 metres
12 metres
18 metres
Is the following statement about bridge watchkeeping True or False?
True
As outgoing watchkeeper, what should you do if you think your relief is not fit for duty?
Call the master
Tell Them to take over while you go and find someone who is fit
Tell them to go and have a rest while you continue
Tell them to switch to autopilot until they are feeling better.
Which Colregs rule concerns the keeping of a proper look out?
Rule 8
Rule 5
Rule 6
Rule 7
What command is used to complete the formal handover?
It’s all your’s

I’m finished here
You’re in charge
You now have the watch
When dealing with the cultural differences as a Watchkeeping Officer, what quality is most helpful
in building good teamwork?
Inflexibility
Assertiveness
Sensitivity
Detachment
When preparing to go on duty as Watchkeeping Officer, there are a number of key task. What
does the reference suggest as the first?
Check the Standing Orders
Go around the bridge with the officers you are relieving
Examine the wheelhouse poster
Find out how to operate the engine when the ship is working UMS
Is the following statement about bridge watchkeeping True or False?
The formal handover should always be registered by the Voyage Data Recorder
True
If the situation has required the immediate presence of the master on the bridge what should you
do next as Watchkeeping Officer?
Remain on the bridge to support the Master
Leave the bridge

Immediately log the events thus far
Attempt to contact the other ship
What percentage of insured losses are said to be due to collision, grounding and contact damage a
result of a human error?
50%
60%
70%
80%
Whilist it is always good to get up on the bridge early when going on duty, when is it particularly
important?
At night
During bad weather conditions
When expecting a pilot
All of the above
Under what conditions can the stand-on ship take action to avoid collision in close quarter
situation?
If the give-way ship doest’t respond to VHS
If the give-way ship has slowed down
When it becomes apparent that the give way ship is not taking approprieate action
There are no conditions under which the stand-on ship can take action
Is following statement about bridge watchkeeping True or False?

Successful watchkeeping only requires the use of two independent electronic aids as a
countercheck without visual positioning .
False
(AIS) Automatic Identification Systems Test
If clicks are heard when using the primary VHF what might this indicate?
It is usual for this to occur and shows that the AIS is working properly
It highlights the possibility of a faulty AIS installation and should be investigated and
rectified
What is the MKD?
1) The unit which specifically houses the VHF transceivers and GPS receiver
2) The Master Key Decryption circuitry that deals with AIS passwords
3) The Minimum Kinetic Distance, which is the minimum distance that should separate the
AIS display unit from other equipment to avoid heat damage
4) The Minimum Keyboard and Display, which houses the AIS display and keyboard and
provides the minimum functionality as defined by IMO
Which of the messages listed would be a legitimate use of an AIS SRM?
1) “see you in Rotterdam”
2) “Sighted semi-submerged container 4 miles south of Berry Head”
3) “Hi have a nice day”
4) “Just look at that sunset”
What is the VHF communications element of AIS?
1) Two VHF transmitters, one VHF receiver, one DSC receiver
2) One VHF transmitter, two VHF receivers, one DSC receiver
3) One VHF transmitter, two VHF receivers, one DSC transmitter
4) One VHF transmitter, one VHF receiver, one DSC receiver
What category does navigation status, such as “at anchor”, come under?
1) Static data
2) Voyage related data
3) Dynamic data
4) Safety related messages
What is the best method for gaining situational awareness?
1) Looking “out of the window”
2) Using a radar
3) Using AIS data
4) Combining information from A, B and C
Which of the items listed is not included as AIS dynamic data?
1) Speed over ground
2) Position
3) UTC time
4) Rate of turn
When should AIS be switched off?
1) At night
2) In port
3) At anchor
4) At the master´s discretion
What does SRM stand for?
1) Safety related message
2) Safety request message
3) Security related message
4) None of these
What is the primary purpose of the AIS internal position fixing system?
1) To generate position.
2) To generate a location position if the ship is involved in an accident

3) To generate accurate time.
4) To generate accurate frequency
Drag the correct words from the list to complete the sentences about the use of symbols as
recommended in the interim guidelines.
A target is usually represented by a ___Once the target is selected it is enclosed in a ___
A target's heading is shown by a ___ If a target becomes dangerous the symbol turns ____
solid vector
square
blue
circle
retangular box
red
triangle
dashed
Which of these factors can affect a ship's moorings?
1)Wind
2) Currents
3) The ship´s draft
4) All of these
What is the force of a wind at 60 metres compared to the same wind at sea level?
1) Much the same
2) Less
3) Greater
4) Depends on wind direction
How many times greater is the force of a three-knot current on a vessel's hull compared to that
of a one knot current?
1) The same
2) Double
3) Three times greater
4) Nine times greater
In ports with a large tidal range, what precaution should be taken to ensure a vessel remains
safely moored?
1) Use automatic self-tensioning winches.
2) Use additional mooring lines forward and aft.
3) Use the largest steel wire ropes the vessel has available.
4) Check the tide tables and regularly inspect all mooring
You should avoid mixing lines made of different materials. True
What is a 6 x 36 mooring wire?
1) A rope constructed from six strands of an inner core made of one type of synthetic fibre
material, surrounded by 36 strands of a second layer of a different type of synthetic fibre material
2) A rope constructed from 36 strands of an inner core made of steel wire, surrounded by six
strands of a second layer of synthetic fibre material.
3) A rope constructed from 36 strands of an inner core made of steel wire, surrounded by six
strands of a second layer of synthetic fibre material
4) A line constructed from 36 strands of an inner core made of one type of synthetic fibre material,
surrounded by six
strands of a second layer made from a different of synthetic fibre material
What does MBL stand for?
1) Maximum Bollard Layers
2) Minimum Breaking Load
3) Maximum Breaking Load
4) Maximum Berth Length

How is the size of a wire rope measured?
1) By the circumference
2) By the diameter
3) By the number of strands
4) By the number of individual wires
When mooring lines change direction around rollers, fairleads or Panama leads, there can be a
further loss of effectiveness of up to:
1) 25%
2) 30%
3) 10%
4) 50%
Which of those listed is the strongest synthetic material commonly used in rope construction?
1) Polyamide
2) Polyamide
3) Polypropylene
4) HMPE
Which is the only one of these materials that floats?
1) Polyester
2) Polyamide
3) Polypropylene
4) Aramid
How much elasticity does a high modulus synthetic fibre rope typically have?
1) More than 20%
2) 1-2%
3) 4-5%
4) About 10%
Which lines may be deployed in a mooring arrangement to counteract any turning force on a
ship?
1) Spring lines
2) Head and breast lines
3) Head and stern lines
4) Breast lines
Currents with a small angle off the bow
1) can create a considerable transverse force.
2) can usually be ignored.
3) are not very commom
4) will usually be weak
What percentage of a rope's MBL should the primary brake on a mooring winch be set to?
1) 50%
2) 60%
3) 70%
4) 75%
Which end of the brake should a rope fitted to a winch drum always pull against?
1) The fixed or anchored end
2) The floating end
3) It doesn't matter
4) Only the centre
How many rope layers should there be on the tension drum of a split drum winch?
1) two
2) Three
3) One
4) Several
The first duty of a responsible officer in charge of mooring is to:
1) make sure there are enough crew members in the mooring party.
2) ensure the right ropes have been selected for the mooring configuration.
3) make sure the crew have been properly briefed
4) assess the risks involved in any given circumstances at the mooring station
Ideally, what is the breaking load a carpenter stopper should have when used on a wire rope?
1) At least half that of the rope
2) The same as the rope
3) Twice that of the rope
4) Three times that of the rope
Once the tug line is made fast, the ship's speed should be controlled:
1) by the tug Master.
2) by the ship´s Master
3) by the officer controlling the mooring party
4) in consultation with the Pilot and the tug Master.
When considering a general mooring pattern for a ship, how should breast lines be run?
1) As perpendicular to the ship´s centre line as far forward and aft as possible.
2) As perpendicular to the ship´s centre line and as close to midships as possible.
3) At as acute an angle as possible.
4) As close to the break of the forecastle as possible
How are winch pipelines best protected from damage by ice?
1) Apply grease to them
2) Drain all fluid out of them when not in use
3) Keep them covered up
4) Run a blowtorch along them every 6 hours

Synthetic fibre ropes have a lower frictional hold against the bitts How many turns on the
leading bitt are required before the figures of eight are formed?
1) 1
2) 4
3) 2
4) 3
What is the best way to prevent mooring lines from freezing solid in bad weather?
1) Keep them stored below deck until they are needed.
2) Keep them well greased up.
3) Clear the ice from them daily using blowtorches and wire brushes
4) Coat them with anti-freeze solution six hours before mooring operations begin
When tending lines alongside a berth, the most important general point to consider is to:
1) keep a note of any missing rat guards.
2) keep all lines correctly tensioned, avoid any slack lines.
3) make sure all lines are the same length.
4) ensure the officer of the watch is informed of anything unusual
What does MBM stand for?
1) Multiple Buoy Maintenance
2) Multiple Buoy Mooring
3) Minimum Berth Maintenance
4) Maximum Buoy Mooring
What does SPM stand for?
1) Safe Port Mooring
2) Ship Purpose Mooring
3) Single Purchase Mooring
4) Single Point Mooring

The effectiveness of the restraint provided by the mooring system may be reduced if:
1) the lines are too short.
2) the lines are too long.
3) the lines are at a very steep angle
4) any of the above applies
In relation to tugs, what does girting mean?
1) A vessel capsized by its towline
2) Making a formal complaint of bad seamanship
3) A tug being forced backwards by its tow
4) A towline parting
Who has the ultimate responsibility for giving orders regarding a towline attached to a ship?
1) The tug Master
2) The ship's Master
3) The Pilot
4) The vessel´s deck officer
What is the usual order of engaging mooring lines?
1) Spring lines first, then breast lines, then head lines and stern lines
2) Head and stern lines first, then spring lines, then breast lines
3) Spring lines first, then head and stern lines, then breast lines
4) Head line first, then breast lines and spring lines together then the stern line
5) As agreed between the Pilot and ship´s Master
When unmooring a ship, who decides in which order the lines are to be let go?
1) The officer in charge of the mooring party
2) The Harbourmaster
3) The person in charge of the linesmen ashore
4) The master in consultation with the Pilot

When considering a ship's mooring pattern, spring lines should be run:
1) as far apart as possible.
2) as close together as possible.
3) parallel to the ship's longitudinal centre line.
4) perpendicular to the ship's centre line
When considering a ship's mooring pattern, in general, lines in the same service should be:
1) the same size and material.
2) of mixed materials.
3) of mixed size and material.
4) of any size and material
What is the greatest risk when mooring?
1) Cold weather making operations difficult
2) A tug's lines breaking
3) A line parting due to overloading and snapping back
4) Shore fittings giving way
How are wires used in the construction of wire ropes treated to prevent corrosion?
1) Galvanised
2) Greased
3) Copper plated
4) Manganese-coated
What provides a clear indication that a wire rope is becoming worn?
1) Wire 'snags' appearing along its length
2) A singing noise when it is under strain
3) It becomes more pliant and easier to handle each time it is used
4) A reduction in diameter
What does a glazed surface on a synthetic rope indicate?

l) It has been treated with an anti-corrosion solution.
2) It is a high-modulus rope.
3) It has been subject to extreme heat and lost some of its strength.
4) It has been contaminated with oil and needs to be cleaned
The brushes on a DC electrical winch system should be inspected:
1) monthly.
2) after every mooring operation.
3) as specified in the company´s service manual
4) every six months
If a maintenance check shows signs that oil has penetrated the winch brake linings, they should
be:
1) replaced as soon as possible.
2) thoroughly cleaned with an effective solvent.
3) dried out by exposure to the air for 24 hours.
4) replaced at the time of the next annual survey
In particular, what do polyethylene ropes have to be checked for?
1) Extra stretching
2) Discolouring due to chemical sensitivity
3) Unpleasant smell indicating chemical attack
4) Heat damage due to their low melting point
Is the statennent about Aramid fibre ropes True or False?
1) Compared to other materials, Aramid fibre ropes have reduced resistance to ultra-violet light.
True
How much abrasion damage to a synthetic fibre rope would mean it must be discarded?
1) Any sign
2) 5%
3) 10%
4) 15%
Why are wire ropes treated with lubricant?
1) To prevent excessive stretching
2) To lubricate the internal wires, so maintaining service life and flexibility
3) To prevent corrosion on the outside of the wire
4) To make the wire stretch more
How often should synthetic lines be end-for-ended in normal service?
1) After every third mooring in which they have been used
2) Monthly
3) At least every 4-6 months
4) Annually
If the complete strand of a wire rope has broken, the rope should be:
1)
2)
3)
4)
When visually inspecting synthetic fibre ropes, an important factor to watch for is:
1) dirt on the ropes.
2) unusual colours in the rope fibres.
3) a change in the rope´s length
4) degradation of the rope surface due to prolonged exposure to sunlight

MEDICAL FIRST AID
1. a sprain is an injury to:

1) Ligament
2) Muscle
3) Tendon
4) Bone
1) attempt to get the arm back in position
2) bend the arm and place it in an elevation sling
3) bend the arm and place it in a low sling
4) tie the arm to the side of body
3. Which of the injuries listed is best treated using an elevation sling?
1) Fractured collarbone
2) Fractured upper arm
3) Dislocated elbow
4) Fractured lower arm
4. How would you position a conscious casualty with a sucking wound on the left side of their
chest?
1) Sitting up and leaning toward the right
2) In the recovery position lying on the right
3) Sitting up and leaning towards the left
4) In the recovery position lying on the left
5. When applying a dressing to a sucking chest wound it should be:
1) Nonstick and sealed with top edge open
2) Nonstick and sealed with bottom edge open
3) Dressing cad secured on all sides
4) Dressing pad secured with bottom edge
6. A casualty has fallen from a height and appears to be unconscious. What would you do first?
1) Check their breathing
2) Check their pulse
3) Place them in the recovery position
4) Leave them and phone for help
1) Blood stained fluid leaking from the ears only.
2) Blood stained fluid leaking from the nose only.
3) Blood stained fluid leaking from the ears or nose.
4) Blood stained fluid leaking from the mouth only.
1) A wound and bone is visible.
2) A wound and the bone is protruding.
3) Excessive bleeding from an open wound.
4) Damage to underlying tissue.
1) One pupil slower to react to light than the other.
2) One pupil larger than the other.
3) Neither of the pupils react to light.
4) Both of the pupils react to light
1) Shallow breathing with strong and slow pulse.
2) Shallow breathing with strong and fast pulse.
3) Noisy breathing with strong and slow pulse,
4) Noisy breathing with strong and fast pulse.
11. A casualty has a chemical splash in the eye. You should:
1) inmerse their head in a basin of warm water.
2) Sit them down and open the eye to note any damage.
3) wash the eye out with the casualty lying down,
4) Place a pad over the eye.
12. A casualty has a wood splinter in their eye. How long do you take to wash it out?
13. A casualty has an abdominal wound and bowel can be seen in the wound. What action would
you take?
1) Place a dry dressing pad firmly over the wound
2) Place a non stick dressing firmly over the wound
3) Place a damp dressing lightly over the wound
4) Place a damp dressing firmly over the wound
1) Not release them if trapped for longer than 10 minutes.
2) Not release them if trapped for longer than 15 minutes,
3) Only release them after 15 minutes
4) Only release them after
15. An amputated finger is to be preserved in ice. Before placing it in ice you should:
1) Wrap the finger in plastic and then padding.
2) Wash the finger and wrap it in plastic.
3) wrap the finger in padding,
4) Wrap the finger in padding and then plastic.
1) Laid down and have their legs elevated.
2) placed in the recovery position
3) sat on a chair.
4) Positioned sitting up and supported.
17. If someone is suffering from hypoglycaemia, the their:
a. Blood sugar is too low.
b. pulse rate is too slow.
c. Temperature is too
d. Blood pressure is too low.
18. A casualty having an asthma attack will have:
a. Pale skin, normal breathing and fast pulse.
b. Red skin, fast breathing and slow pulse.
c. Normal skin, normal breathing and fast pulse,
d. Pale skin, noisy breathing and fast pulse,
19. A casualty has swallowed cleaning fluid, You should:
a. Give them lots of water to drink
b. Not let them drink anything at all.
c. Give them salty water to drink
d. Give them sips of water in drink
a. Pain at the spine or elsewhere
b. Loss of control of movement
c. Difficulty breathing
d. Loss of bladder control
e. Any of the above
a. Pale, sweating with a fast pulse.
b. Red, sweating with a fast pulse.
c. Pale, with a slow pulse,
d. Red with a slow pulse.
a. Give them hot drinks.
b. Wrap them in blankets.
c. Put them in a warm bath.
d. get them to walk around,
a. Red and breathing slowly.
b. Pale and breathing fast.
c. Pale and breathing slowly.
d. Red and breathing fast.
a. Red with a strong pulse.
b. Red with a weak pulse.
c. pale with noisy breathing.
d. pale with shallow breathing
1. Which Legislation specifies all of the characteristics and competencies required by members of
craft crews?
1) ism code
2) solas
3) stcw
4) marpol
5) 2. For fast rescue boat (FRBs) as defined by SOLAS, which of the fallowing is a mandatory
requirement?
1) A Certificate of Proficiency for the coxswain
2) Navigation and radio aids including an EPIRB
3) A first aid outfit
5) Immersion suits to be worn by all crew members

6) All of the above
e. 3. Under SOLAS, a rescue boat launch is recommended every month and must be
practised at least every:
1) Voyage
2) 6 months
3) 3 months
4) 2 months
f. 4. Who should check the crew's personal protective equipment before launching the
recue boat?
1) The coxswain
2) The officer directing the launch operation
3) The Master
4) The forward crew member
g. 5. Whereabouts in the boat should crew members position themselves while it is
being lowered?
1) The centre
2) The seaward side
3) The inboard side
h. 6. Are these statements about lowering the rescue boat True or False?
1) During lowering the painter should be kept tight. TRUE
2) When the boat reaches the water the painter should be released before the fail wire.
FALSE
3) During lowering, the rescue boats engine should always be started just before the boat
enters the water. FALSE
4) Once the hook is released, it should be pulled up a ample of metres on the winch to keep it
clear of the crew TRUE
When approaching the casualty, the coxswain controls the boat
The forward crew member will lead the recovery of the casualty into de the boat.
The aft crew member will prepare the equipment needed to get the casualty into the boat.
Casualties should be laid down with their head to the stern.
If the casualty is unconscious, they should be recovered with their back to the sponson.
8. Are these statements about rescue boat operation True or False?
1) When picking up a casualty from the water the final approach should always be head to wind.
TRUE
2) When picking up a casualty from the water, they should be brought on board from the weather
side. TRUE
3) If it is necessary to cross the waves when running before the weather, increase power when
going up the wave and reduce it when going down the back. TRUE
4) Searches are best carried out by the rescue boat FALSE
10. When positioning the rescue boat for recovery of a casualty to a helicopter, the FRB will be
requested by the helicopter pilot to keep underway with the wind approximately:
11. If the rescue boat capsizes, the largest air pocket is likely to be found near the:
1) Stern.
2) Bow.
3) Centre.
4) None of the above.
12. The emergency device used by the coxswain to stop the engine if he is thrown overboard is
the:
1) Grab line
2) Painter
3) Kill cord
4) Fall wire
12. Select the correct words from the list to complete the statements about towing.
The rescue boat should be navigated across the bow of the casualty
On the rescue boat the towline should always be attached to a strongpoint at the stern
The towline is passed at the point of closest approach, which should be about one metre.
When towing a life raft, those inside the liferaft must spread out.
13. Are these statements about rescue boats True or False?
1) It is a requirement that the engines of standard rescue boats must restart once they have been
righted following a capsize. FALSE
2) Jet drive boats tend to be more manoeuvrable. TRUE
3) Jet drive boats tend to have more stability while stopped in the water. TRUE
4) Launch and recovery operations pose few hazards if the crew are well trained. FALSE
The Document of Compliance is issued to ___.
The ship
---The company
The owner
None of the A,B,& C
Charles Law for gas can be expressed in ___.
P1 V1 / T1 = P2 V2 / T2
P1 / T1 = P2 / T2
P1 V1 = P2 V2
---V1 / T1 = V2 / T2
The Protocol of 1998 on Harmonized System of Survey and Certification (HSSC) for Annex VI of
force ___.
22nd Nov, 2004
22nd Nov, 2005
---22nd Nov, 2006
Has not yet entered into forcé
If noise levels are above 110db ___.
They can cause permanent damage to hearing
Ear protecting muff/plugs should be used in those areas
---Both A & B
None of them
The luminous intensity of the light on top of the life raft canopy shall be _____in all directions of
the upper hemisphere.
Not less than 3.4 cd
---Not less than 4.3 cd
The communication system provided onboard for use in an emergency may consist of ___.
PA system
---UHF/ VHF
All of them
Davit launched life raft should be capable of being boarded by its full complement of persons ___.
In not less than 5 minutes
---In not less than 3 minutes
A thermal protective aid shall reduce ___.
--Both the convective & evaporative heat loss from the body
The convective heat loss from the body
The evaporative heat loss from the body
Neither A, B or C
If a weak link is used in the float free arrangement it shall ___.
Not be broken by the force required to pull the painter from the life raft container
If applicable be of sufficient strength to permit the inflation of the life raft
Break under a strain of 2.2 +/- 0.4 kN
--All of them
The life raft shall be marked with the ____.
Date of manufacture (month and year)
Name of approving authority
Number of persons it is permitted to accommodate
---All of them
Lifeboats intended for launching down the side of a ship shall have skates and fenders as
necessary to facilitate launching and prevent damage to the lifeboat.
TRUE
One of the drawbacks of using Foam as an extinguishing agent is that ___.
It releases toxic gasses
It needs only fresh water to form
---It conducts electricity
It vaporizes very quickly
Iron can burn in steam at temperatures beyond ___.
400 deg C
500 deg C
600 deg C
---700 deg C

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The membrane tank of gas carriers consist of a thin layer supported through

The type C independent of a gas carried ____

A) Does no require a secondary barrier.

Life rafts shall be provided whit a first aid outfit___

An immersion suit shall permit the person wearing it to ____

A) Climb up and dawn a vertical ladder at least 5m in length.

A) Retro reflective material.

Life rafts ____

The container of a life raft shall be marked with ___

When using a life-line, the signal: 3 tugs by the attendant means:

A) Are you alright?

The flammable range is ____

A fire fighters outfit should consist of ____

A) A set of personal equipment.

A) To preserve food and drinking water.

Simulated launching of a freefall lifeboat is:

A) Training exercise done using a computer simulation.

3. Ship security alarm can be disclosed to

4. What is the purpose of the control position on an enclosed lifeboat?

6. Cold water shock lasts for around:

11. Identify the international maritime organisation (IMO) symbol

13. Identify the international maritime organisation (IMO) symbol:

16. An adult lifejacket shall allow the person wearing it to_____.

18. Radar transponders work on which frequency?

24. An indirect refrigeration cycle is a process

26. The immersion suit should be stored in a cool, dry place

27. Liqurfied natural gas (LNGs) can be carried in _______ ships.

30. what do the letters E.P.I.R.B stand for?

emergency position indicating Radio beacon

extremely powerfuul inmersed rescue boat

electronic precision iluminated radar buoy

the main purpose is to provide strength to the design of the raft

it is designed to give protection against exposure

it provides additional space for evacuees

32.how many people are normally needed to right a 25 person liferaft?

throw a lifebuoy into the water as near to the liferaft as posible

climb down the embarkation ladder and board the liferaft

inflate the liferaft

check that there is nothing in the sea below

untie the painter from the strong point

37. The international Maritime organisation (IMO) symbol represents

38. Identify the international Maritime organisation (IMO) symbol

39. The part labelled as 11 shown in the illustration is a

40. The international Maritime organisation (IMO) symbol represents

43. The life raft must be provided with

48. tabular freeboard in table A for a ship is

55. the outer diameter of every lifebuoy should not be

57. Control stations are those spaces in which

58. lifeboat batteries shall be recharged

63. How should gas bottles be stored?

66. The lifeboat shall be marked with

80. The venting arrangements in each cargo tank of a tanker

82. The international maritime organisation (IMO) symbol represents

83. the hand flare shall

85. Ethylene carriers are normally

88. A non-conformity is an observed___ where objetive evidence indicates the non-fulfilment of

Consistent training is essential for effective protection of the ship.

A ship security level can be set by__________,

 The administration whose flag the ship is entitled to fly

A casualty in secondary shock should be made to

Corrosive poison causes

 Remove all covers and secure the plug

NOT LESS THAN 1 MILE