Mechanical Engineering Objective - Book - PDF

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Mechanical Engineering Objective
Book
Mechanical engineering is the discipline that applies the principles of
engineering, physics and materials science for the design, analysis,
manufacturing and maintenance of mechanical systems. It is the branch of
engineering that involves the design, production and operation of
machinery and tools.
This is a complete Book for Mechanical Engineering Objective Studies.
This book covers the Entire Mechanical Engineering syllabus, Concept top
to Bottom Objective Questions with Answers. Helpful for interviews and
various Competitive Exams like GATE/IES/PSUs and all Mechanical
Engineering MCQ based exams.
This book covers:
More than 8000 Objective Questions with Answers.

Multiple Test Series of all Subjects with Answers
Mechanical Engineering Objective Quiz Questions with
Answers.
By
Pranab Debnath
www.objectivebooks.com
Contents:
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1. Strength of Materials:
2. Engineering Thermodynamics:
3. Machine Design:
4. Internal Combustion (I.C) Engine
5. Automobile Engineering:
6. Engineering Mechanics:
7. Engineering Materials:
8. Fluid Mechanics:
9. Hydraulics & Fluid Machineries:
10. Heat & Mass Transfer:
11. Theory of Machines:
12. Engineering Drawing:
13. Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning:
14. Power Plant Engineering:
15. Manufacturing & Production Engineering:
16. Compressors, Gas Turbines & Jet Engines:
17. Industrial Engineering & Production Management:
18. Steam Boilers, Engines, Nozzles & Turbines:
19. Workshop Technology:
20. Mechanical Engineering Quiz Series
Strength of Materials:
(www.objectivebooks.com)
01. A cube subjected to three mutually perpendicular stress of equal

intensity p expenses a volumetric strain
(A) 3p/E × (2/m - 1)
(B) 3p/E × (2 - m)
(C) 3p/E × (1 - 2/m)
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(D) E/3p × (2/m - 1)
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Stress p in x-direction causes tensile strain p/E in x-
direction, while the ‘p’ in ‘y’ and ‘z’ direction causes compressive strains
µ(p/E) in x-direction.
Therefore, ex = p/E - µ(p/E) - µ(p/E) = p/E × (1- 2µ)
So, ey =p/E × (1- 2µ), ez = p/E × (1- 2µ)
Therefore, Volumetric Strain, ev = ex + ey + ez = 3p/E × (1 - 2µ) = 3p/E ×
(1 - 2/m)
02. The strain energy stored in a solid circular shaft subjected to shear
stress (τ), is:
(Where G = Modulus of rigidity for the shaft material)
(A) τ²/ 2G × Volume of shaft
(B) τ/ 2G × Volume of shaft
(C) τ²/ 4G × Volume of shaft
(D) τ/ 4G × Volume of shaft
Answer: Option A
03. The strain energy stored in a solid circular shaft in torsion,
subjected to shear stress (τ), is:
(Where, G = Modulus of rigidity for the shaft material)
(A) τ²/ 2G × Volume of shaft
(B) τ/ 2G × Volume of shaft
(C) τ²/ 4G × Volume of shaft
(D) τ/ 4G × Volume of shaft
Answer: Option C
04. The stress induced in a body, when suddenly loaded, is ________
the stress induced when the same load is applied gradually.
(A) Equal to
(B) One-half
(C) Twice
(D) Four times
Answer: Option C
05. A material obeys hook’s law up to
(A) Plastic limit
(B) Elastic limit
(C) Yield point
(D) Limit of proportionality
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Answer: Option B
06. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane
and another tensile stress of 600 MPa on a plane at right angles to the
former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa on the same
planes. The maximum normal stress will be
(A) 400 MPa
(B) 500 MPa
(C) 900 MPa
(D) 1400 MPa
Answer: Option D
Solution:-
tan2θ = 2q/ (p x - p y) = (2 × 400)/ (1200 – 600) = 1.33
Therefore, 2θ = tan⁻¹ 1.33 = 53.06°
Therefore, pn = 1200 + 600)/ 2 + (1200 – 600)/ 2 × cos 53.06 + 400 sin
530.6
= 900 + 180.294 + 319.70
=1400 MPa.
Note:-
Normal stress component, (pn ) on a plane:- pn = (p x + p y)/2 + (p x - p y)/2
× cos2θ + q sin2θ
Tangential Stress component, (pt) on a plane: - pt = (p x - p y)/2 × sin2θ – q
cos2θ
Inclination θ between p x and p y is tan 2θ = 2q / (p x - p y)
07. The torque transmitted by a hollow shaft of outer diameter (d₁)

and inner diameter (d2) is (where τ = Maximum allowable shear
stress)
(A) π/4 × τ × (d14 - d24)/d1
(B) π/16 × τ × (d14 - d24)/d1
(C) π/32 × τ × (d14 - d24)/d1
(D) π/64 × τ × (d14 - d24)/d1
Answer: Option B
08. If Th is the torque resisting capacity of a hollow shaft and Ts is that
of a solid shaft, of the same material, length and weight. Then,
(A) Th > Ts
(B) Th < Ts
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(C) Th = Ts
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
09. If Kh is the torque resisting capacity of a hollow shaft and Ks is that
of a solid shaft, of the same material, length and weight. Then,
(A) Kh > Ks
(B) Kh < Ks
(C) Kh = Ks
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
10. After reaching the yielding stage while testing a mild steel
specimen, strain
(A) Becomes constant
(B) Starts decreasing
(C) Increases without any increase in load
(D) None of the above
Answer: Option C
11. Principal planes are planes having
(A) Maximum shear stress
(B) No shear stress
(C) Minimum shear stress
Answer: Option B
(Principal planes are the plane where shear stress do not exist, i.e. shear
stress is zero)
12. If the slenderness ratio for a column is 100, then it is said to be a
_________ column.
(A) Long
(B) Medium
(C) Short
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
13. The torque transmitted by a solid shaft of diameter (D) is (where τ
= Maximum allowable shear stress)
(A) π /4 × τ × D³
(B) π /16 × τ × D³
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(C) π /32 × τ × D³
(D) π /64 × τ × D³
Answer: Option B
14. Young’s modulus of a wire is defined as the stress which will
increase the length of wire compared to its original length by
(A) Half
(B) Same amount
(C) Double
(D) One-fourth
Answer: Option B
15. True stress strain-curve for materials is plotted between
(A) Load/original cross-sectional area and change in length/original
length
(B) Load/ instantaneous cross-sectional area and loge (original area/
instantaneous area)
(C) Load/ instantaneous cross-sectional area and change in length/
original length
(D) Load/ instantaneous area and instantaneous area/original area
Answer: Option B
16. A hollow shaft of same cross-section area as compared to a solid
shaft transmit
(A) Same torque
(B) Less torque
(C) More torque
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: Option C
17. A steel bar of 5 mm is heated from 25°C to 45°C and it is free to
expand. The bar will induce
(A) No stress
(B) Shear stress
(C) Tensile stress
(D) Compressive stress
Answer: Option A
18. Two shafts 'A' and 'B' transmit the same power. The speed of shaft
'A' is 250 r.p.m. and that of shaft 'B' is 300 r.p.m.
(A) The shaft 'B' has the greater diameter
(B) The shaft 'A' has the greater diameter
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(C) Both are of same diameter
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
19. The intensity of stress which causes unit strain is called
(A) Unit mass
(B) Modulus of rigidity
(C) Bulk modulus
(D) Modulus of Elasticity
Answer: Option D
20. A thick cylindrical shell having ro and ri as outer and inner radii,
is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The maximum tangential
stress at the inner surface of the shell is
(A) (ro² - ri²)/ 2p ri²
(B) 2p ri²/ (ro² - ri²)
(C) p (ro² + ri²)/ (ro² - ri²)
(D) p (ro² - ri²)/ (ro² + ri²)
Answer: Option C
21. A vertical column has two moments of inertia (i.e. Ixx and Iyy ). The
column will tend to buckle in the direction of the
(A) Axis of load
(B) Perpendicular to the axis of load
(C) Maximum moment of inertia
(D) Minimum moment of inertia
Answer: Option D
22. Strain energy is the
(A) Energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits
(B) Energy stored in a body when strained up to the breaking of a
specimen
(C) Maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body
(D) Proof resilience per unit volume of a material
Answer: Option A
23. The neutral axis of the cross-section a beam is that axis at which
the bending stress is
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
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(D) Infinity
Answer: Option A
24. A composite bar made up of steel and copper bars of equal lengths
are heated through 100°C. The stresses developed shall be
(A) Tensile in both the material
(B) Tensile in steel and compressive in copper
(C) Compressive in steel and tensile in copper
(D) Compressive in both the materials
Answer: Option D
25. Euler's formula holds good only for
(A) Short columns
(B) Long columns
(C) Both short and long columns
(D) Weak columns
Answer: Option B
26. The bending moment at a point on a beam is the algebraic
________ of all the moments on either side of the point.
(A) Sum
(B) Difference
(C) Multiplication
Answer: Option A
27. The maximum diameter of the hole that can be punched from a
plate of maximum shear stress 1/4th of its maximum crushing stress of
punch, is equal to (where t = Thickness of the plate)
(A) t
(B) 2t
(C) 4t
(D) 8t
Answer: Option C
28. Within elastic limit, stress is
(A) Inversely proportional to strain
(B) Directly proportional to strain
(C) Square root of strain
(D) Equal to strain
Answer: Option B
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29. Two closely coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' are equal in all
respects but the number of turns of spring 'A' is half that of spring 'B'
The ratio of deflections in spring 'A' to spring 'B' is
(A) 1/8
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/2
(D) 2
Answer: Option C
30. The deformation per unit length is called
(A) Tensile stress
(B) Compressive stress
(C) Shear stress
(D) Strain
Answer: Option D
31. The shape of cantilever for uniformly distributed load will be
(A) Straight line
(B) Parabolic
(C) Elliptical
(D) Cubic
Answer: Option B
32. The energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limit is
known as
(A) Resilience
(B) Proof resilience
(C) Strain energy
(D) Impact energy
Answer: Option C
33. The point of contra flexure is a point where
(A) Shear force changes sign
(B) Shear force is maximum
(C) Bending moment changes sign
(D) Bending moment is maximum
Answer: Option C
34. The maximum stress produced in a bar of tapering section is at
(A) Smaller end
(B) Larger end
(C) Middle
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(D) Anywhere
Answer: Option A
35. For a simply supported beam of length ‘l’, when a concentrated
load W is applied in the centre of the beam, the maximum deflection is
(A) 5WL³/ 384EI
(B) WL³/384EI
(C) WL³/ 348EI
(D) WL³/ 48EI
Answer: Option D
36. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel compared to ultimate
compressive stress is
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: Option B
37. Modular ratio of two materials is the ratio of
(A) Strains
(B) Stress and strain
(C) Shear stress and shear strain
(D) Moduli and elasticity
Answer: Option D
38. In compression test, the fracture in cast iron specimen would occur
along
(A) The axis of load
(B) An oblique plane
(C) At right angles to the axis of specimen
(D) Would not occur
Answer: Option B
39. A coil is cut into two halves, the stiffness of cut coil will be
(A) Double
(B) Half
(C) Same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
40. The bending stress in a beam is _________ section modulus.
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(A) Inversely proportional to two times
(B) Directly proportional to
(C) Inversely proportional to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
41. When shear force at a point is zero, then bending moment is
_________ at that point.
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) Infinity
Answer: Option C
42. Elasticity of Mild Steel specimen is defined by
(A) Hooke’s law
(B) Yield point
(C) Plastic flow
(D) Proof stress
Answer: Option C
43. When a bar is cooled to - 5°C, it will develop
(A) No stress
(B) Shear stress
(C) Tensile stress
Answer: Option C
44. If the radius of wire stretched by a load is doubled, then its
Young’s modulus will be
(A) Doubled
(B) Halved
(C) Becomes four times
Answer: Option D
45. In order to know whether a column is long or short, we must know
its
(A) Ultimate shear stress of the column
(B) Factor of safety
(C) Torque resisting capacity
(D) Slenderness ratio
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Answer: Option D
46. A masonry dam may fail due to
(A) Tension in the masonry of the dam and its base
(B) Overturning of the dam
(C) Crushing of masonry at the base of the dam
(D) Any one of the above
Answer: Option D
47. Impact strength of a material is an index of its
(A) Toughness
(B) Tensile strength
(C) Capability of being cold worked
(D) Hardness
Answer: Option A
48. In order to prevent crushing of masonry at the base of the dam,
the maximum stress should be __________ the permissible stress of
the soil.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
49. Volumetric strain for a rectangular specimen of length ‘l’, breadth
‘b’ and thickness ‘t’ subjected to a pull of ‘P’ is given by
(A) e (1 - 2m)
(B) e (1 - 2/m)
(C) e (m - 2)
(D) e (2/m - 1)
Answer: Option B
50. When a body is subjected to two equal and opposite pushes, as a
result of which the body tends to reduce its length, then
(A) The stress and strain induced is compressive
(B) The stress and strain induced is tensile
(C) Both A and B is correct
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
51. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (D) and thickness (t) is
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subjected to an internal pressure (p). The ratio of longitudinal strain
to volumetric strain is
(A) (m - 1)/ (2m - 1)
(B) (2m - 1)/ (m - 1)
(C) (m - 2)/ (3m - 4)
(D) (m - 2)/ (5m - 4)
Answer: Option D
52. Modulus of rigidity is defined as the ratio of
(A) Longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain
(B) Volumetric stress to volumetric strain
(C) Lateral stress to Lateral strain
(D) Shear stress to shear strain
Answer: Option D
53. In the torsion equation T/J = τ/r = Gθ/ L, the term J/R is called
(A) Shear modulus
(B) Section modulus
(C) Polar modulus
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
54. Strain re-setters are used to
(A) Measure shear strain
(B) Measure linear strain
(C) Measure volumetric strain
(D) Relieve strain
Answer: Option B
55. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum
compressive stress is developed on the
(A) Top layer
(B) Bottom layer
(C) Neutral axis
(D) Every cross-section
Answer: Option B
56. In a uniform bar, supported at one end in position, the maximum
stress under self weight of bar shall occur at the
(A) Middle of bar
(B) Supported end
(C) Bottom end
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
57. When both ends of a column are fixed, the effective length is
(A) Its own length
(B) Twice its length
(C) Half its length
(D) 1/√2 × its length
Answer: Option C
58. A composite shaft consisting of two stepped portions having spring
constants K₁ and K₂ is held between two rigid supports at the ends. Its
equivalent spring constant is
(A) K₁ K₂
(B) (K₁ + K₂)/ 2
(C) (K₁ + K₂)/ K₁ K₂
(D) K₁ K₂/ (K₁ + K₂)
Answer: Option A
59. Slenderness of a column is zero when
(A) Ends are firmly fixed
(B) Column is supported on all sides throughout the length
(C) Length is equal to radius of gyration
(D) Length is twice the radius of gyration
Answer: Option D
60. Resilience is the
(A) Energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits
(B) Energy stored in a body when strained up to the breaking of the
specimen maximum strain
(C) Energy which can be stored in a body
Answer: Option D
61. A shaft revolving at ω rad/s transmits torque (T) in Nm. The
power developed is
(A) T.ω watts
(B) 2π. T.ω watts
(C) 2π. T.ω/75 watts
(D) 2π. T.ω/4500 watts
Answer: Option A
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62. The buckling load for a given material depends on
(A) Slenderness ratio and area of cross-section
(B) Poisson's ratio and modulus of elasticity
(C) Slenderness ratio and modulus of elasticity
(D) Slenderness ratio, area of cross-section and modulus of elasticity
Answer: Option D
63. When a beam is subjected to a bending moment, the strain in a
layer is __________ the distance from the neutral axis.
(A) Equal to
(D) Independent of
Answer: Option B
64. In the tensile test, the phenomenon of slow extension of the
material, i. e. stress increasing with the time at a constant load is
called
(A) Creeping
(B) Yielding
(C) Breaking
(D) Plasticity
Answer: Option A
65. The given figure shows the Mohr's circle of stress for two unequal
and like principal stresses (σx and σy) acting at a body across two
mutually perpendicular planes. The normal stress on an oblique
section making an angle θ with the minor principle plane is given by
(A) OC
(B) OP
(C) OQ
(D) PQ
Answer: Option C
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66. A double strap butt joint with equal straps is
(A) Always in single shear
(B) Always in double shear
(C) Either in single shear or double shear
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
67. The stress induced in a body due to suddenly applied load
compared to when it is applied gradually is
(A) Same
(B) Half
(C) Two times
(D) Four times
Answer: Option C
68. The rivets are used for __________ fastenings.
(A) Permanent
(B) Temporary
(C) Semi-permanent
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
69. When two plates are butt together and riveted with cover plates
with two rows of rivets, the joint is known as
(A) Lap joint
(B) Butt joint
(C) Single riveted single cover butt joint
(D) Double riveted double cover butt joint
Answer: Option D
70. A bar of copper and steel form a composite system, which is heated
to a temperature of 40°C. The stress induced in the copper bar will be
(A) Tensile
(B) Compressive
(C) Shear
(D) Zero
Answer: Option B
71. A boiler shell 200 cm diameter and plate thickness 1.5 cm is
subjected to internal pressure of 1.5 MN/m, and then the hoop stress
will be
(A) 30 MN/m²
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(B) 50 MN/m²
(C) 100 MN/m²
(D) 200 MN/m²
Answer: Option C
72. When a thin cylindrical shell is subjected to an internal pressure,
the volumetric strain is (where ε₁ = Hoop strain, and ε₂ = Longitudinal
strain)
(A) 2ε₁ - ε₂
(B) 2ε₁ + ε₂
(C) 2ε₂ - ε₁
(D) 2ε₂ + ε₁
Answer: Option B
73. Shear stress induced in a shaft subjected to tension will be
(A) Maximum at periphery and zero at center
(B) Maximum at center
(C) Uniform throughout
Answer: Option D
74. The relation between equivalent length (L) and actual length (l) of
a column for both ends fixed is
(A) L = l/2
(B) L = l/√2
(C) L = l
(D) L = 2l
Answer: Option A
75. Strain is defined as the ratio of
(A) Change in volume to original volume
(B) Change in length to original length
(C) Change in cross-sectional area to original cross-sectional area
Answer: Option D
76. When a closely-coiled helical spring of mean diameter (D) is
subjected to an axial load (W), the deflection of the spring (δ) is given
by (where d = Diameter of spring wire, n = No. of turns of the spring,
and C = Modulus of rigidity for the spring material)
(A) WD3n/Cd⁴
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(B) 2WD3n/Cd⁴
(C) 4WD3n/Cd⁴
(D) 8WD3n/Cd⁴
Answer: Option D
77. Percentage reduction of area in performing tensile test on cast iron
may be of the order of
(A) 50 %
(B) 25 %
(C) 0 %
(D) 15 %
Answer: Option C
78. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σx) in one plane
accompanied by a simple shear stress (τxy), the maximum normal
stress i
(A) (σx/2) + (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)
(B) (σx/2) - (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)
(C) (σx/2) + (1/2) × √(σx² - 4 τ²xy)
(D) (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)
Answer: Option A
79. For the beam shown in the below figure, the shear force diagram
between A and B is
(A) A horizontal line

(B) A vertical line
(C) An inclined line
(D) A parabolic curve
Answer: Option D
80. The materials which exhibit the same elastic properties in all
directions are called
(A) Homogeneous
(B) Inelastic
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(C) Isotropic
(D) Isentropic
Answer: Option C
81. Modulus of rigidity may be defined as the ratio of
(A) Linear stress to lateral strain
(B) Lateral strain to linear strain
(C) Linear stress to linear strain
Answer: Option D
82. The ratio of lateral strain to the linear strain within elastic limit is
known as
(A) Young's modulus
(B) Bulk modulus
(C) Modulus of rigidity
(D) Poisson's ratio
Answer: Option D
83. Shear modulus is the ratio of
(A) Linear stress to linear strain
(B) Linear stress to lateral strain
(C) Volumetric strain to linear strain
Answer: Option D
84. In the below figure, the plastic range occurs
(A) Before point A

(B) Beyond point A
(C) Between points A and D
(D) Between points D and E
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Answer: Option B
85. The ratio of elongation in a prismatic bar due to its own weight
(W) as compared to another similar bar carrying an additional weight
(W) will be
(A) 1 : 2
(B) 1 : 3
(C) 1 : 4
(D) 1 : 2.5
Answer: Option B
86. The weakest section of a diamond riveting is the section which
passes through
(A) The first row
(B) The second row
(C) The central row
(D) One rivet hole of the end row
Answer: Option D
87. The shear force diagram for a simply supported beam carrying a
uniformly distributed load of w per unit length, consists of
(A) One right angled triangle
(B) Two right angled triangles
(C) One equilateral triangle
(D) Two equilateral triangles
Answer: Option B
88. Hooke's law holds good up to
(A) Yield point
(B) Limit of proportionality
(C) Breaking point
(D) Elastic limit
Answer: Option B
89. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) The stress is the pressure per unit area
(B) The strain is expressed in mm
(C) Hook's law holds good upto the breaking point
(D) Stress is directly proportional to strain within elastic limit
Answer: Option D
90. The property of a material which allows it to be drawn into a
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smaller section is called
(A) Plasticity
(B) Ductility
(C) Elasticity
(D) Malleability
Answer: Option B
91. The percentage reduction in area of a cast iron specimen during
tensile test would be of the order of
(A) More than 50 %
(B) 25-50 %
(C) 10-25 %
(D) Negligible
Answer: Option D
92. The deformation of a bar under its own weight is _________ the
deformation, if the same body is subjected to a direct load equal to
weight of the body.
(A) Equal to
(B) Half
(C) Double
(D) Quadruple
Answer: Option B
93. The ratio of maximum shear stress developed in a rectangular
beam and a circular beam of the same cross-sectional area is
(A) 2/3
(B) 3/4
(C) 1
(D) 9/8
Answer: Option D
94. Formula based on IS codes is based on
(A) Straight line formula
(B) Euler’s formula
(C) Rankine’s formula
(D) Secant formula
Answer: Option D
95. Resilience of a material is considered when it is subjected to
(A) Frequent heat treatment
(B) Fatigue
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(C) Creep
(D) Shock loading
Answer: Option D
96. The buckling load for a given column depends upon
(A) Area of cross-section of the column
(B) Length and least radius of gyration of the column
(C) Modulus of elasticity for the material of the column
(D) All of the above
Answer: Option D
97. The shear force at the centre of a simply supported beam with a
gradually varying load from zero at both ends to w per metre at the
centre, is
(A) Zero
(B) wl/4
(C) wl/2
(D) wl²/2
Answer: Option A
98. A riveted joint in which the number otrivets decrease from
innermost to outer most rows is called
(A) Chain riveted joint
(B) Diamond riveted joint
(C) Crisscross riveted joint
(D) Zigzag riveted joint
Answer: Option B
99. The neutral axis of a transverse section of a beam passes through
the centre of gravity of the section and is
(A) In the vertical plane
(B) In the horizontal plane
(C) In the same plane in which the beam bends
(D) At right angle to the plane in which the beam bends
Answer: Option D
100. The torsional rigidity of a shaft is expressed by the
(A) Maximum torque it can transmit
(B) Number of cycles it undergoes before failure
(C) Elastic limit up to which it resists torsion, shear and bending
stresses
(D) Torque required to produce a twist of one radian per unit length
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of shaft
Answer: Option D
101. The limit of eccentricity for no tensile conditions for a column of
circular section of diameter (D) is
(A) d/4
(B) d/8
(C) d/12
(D) d/16
Answer: Option B
102. The property of a material by virtue of which a body returns to
its original, shape after removal of the load is called
(A) Plasticity
(B) Elasticity
(C) Ductility
(D) Malleability
Answer: Option B
103. The state of stress at a point in a loaded member is shown in the
below figure. The magnitude of maximum shear stress is
(A) 10 MPa
(B) 30 MPa
(C) 50 MPa
(D) 100 MPa
Answer: Option C
104. For a beam, as shown in the below figure, the deflection at C is
(where E = Young's modulus for the beam material, and I = Moment
of inertia of the beam section.
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(A) Wl3/48 EI
(B) Wa²b²/3EIl
(C) [Wa/(a√3) x EIl] x (l² - a²)3/2
(D) 5Wl3/384 EI
Answer: Option B
105. A concentrated load is one which
(A) Acts at a point on a beam
(B) Spreads non-uniformly over the whole length of a beam
(C) Spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam
(D) Varies uniformly over the whole length of a beam
Answer: Option A
106. The stress necessary to initiate yielding is
(A) Considerably greater than that necessary to continue it
(B) Considerably lesser than that necessary to continue it
(C) Greater than that necessary to stop it
(D) Lesser than that necessary to stop it
Answer: Option A
107. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load for a
column of length (l) with one end fixed and the other end free is
__________ the crippling load for a similar column hinged at both the
ends.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
108. When it is indicated that a member is elastic, it means that when
force is applied, it will
(A) Not deform
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(B) Be safest
(C) Stretch
(D) Not stretch
Answer: Option C
109. For a beam, as shown in the below figure, when the load W is
applied in the centre of the beam, the maximum deflection is
(A) Wl3 / 48EI

(B) 5Wl3 / 384EI
(C) Wl3 / 392EI
(D) Wl3 / 384EI
Answer: Option A
110. The relation between Young's modulus (E), shear modulus (C)
and bulk modulus (K) is given by
(A) E = 3K.C/(3K + C)
(B) E = 6K.C/(3K + C)
(C) E = 9K.C/(3K + C)
(D) E = 12K.C/(3K + C)
Answer: Option C
111. The distance between the centres of the rivets in adjacent rows of
zigzag riveted joint is known as
(A) Pitch
(B) Back pitch
(C) Diagonal pitch
(D) Diametric pitch
Answer: Option C
112. In the below figure, the stress corresponding to point ‘D’ is
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(A) Yield point stress
(B) Breaking stress
(C) Ultimate stress
(D) Elastic limit
Answer: Option C
113. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress of 300 MPa in one
plane accompanied by a simple shear stress of 200 MPa. The
maximum shear stress will be
(A) -100 MPa
(B) 250 MPa
(C) 300 MPa
(D) 400 MPa
Answer: Option B
114. A cylindrical section having no joint is known as
(A) Joint less section
(B) Homogeneous section
(C) Perfect section
(D) Seamless section
Answer: Option D
115. A beam which is fixed at one end and free at the other is called
(A) Simply supported beam
(B) Fixed beam
(C) Overhanging beam
(D) Cantilever beam
Answer: Option D
116. A closely-coiled helical spring is cut into two halves. The stiffness
of the resulting spring will be
(A) Same
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(B) Double
(C) Half
(D) One-fourth
Answer: Option B
117. The value of Poisson's ratio for steel is between
(A) 0.01 to 0.1
(B) 0.23 to 0.27
(C) 0.25 to 0.33
(D) 0.4 to 0.6
Answer: Option C
118. The columns whose slenderness ratio is less than 80, are known as
(A) Short columns
(B) Long columns
(C) Weak columns
(D) Medium columns
Answer: Option A
119. The stress developed in a material at breaking point in extension
is called
(A) Breaking stress
(B) Fracture stress
(C) Yield point stress
(D) Ultimate tensile stress
Answer: Option A
120. For riveting, the size of hole drilled in plates is __________ shank
diameter of rivet.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
121. Proof resilience per material is known as
(A) Resilience
(C) Modulus of resilience
(D) Toughness
Answer: Option C
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122. The capacity of a strained body for doing work on the removal of
the straining force, is called
(A) Strain energy
(B) Resilience
(C) Proof resilience
(D) Impact energy
Answer: Option B
123. In a tensile test on mild steel specimen, the breaking stress as
compared to ultimate tensile stress is
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
(D) More/less depending on composition
Answer: Option B
124. In a tensile test, near the elastic limit zone, the
(A) Tensile strain increases more quickly
(B) Tensile strain decreases more quickly
(C) Tensile strain increases in proportion to the stress
(D) Tensile strain decreases in proportion to the stress
Answer: Option A
125. A column of length (l) with both ends fixed may be considered as
equivalent to a column of length __________ with both ends hinged.
(A) l/8
(B) l/4
(C) l/2
(D) l
Answer: Option C
126. If the depth is kept constant for a beam of uniform strength, then
its width will vary in proportional to
(A) Bending moment (i.e. M)
(B) Bending moment² (i.e. M²)
(C) Bending moment³ (i.e. M³)
(D) Bending moment⁴ (i.e. M⁴)
Answer: Option A
127. The pull required to crush the rivet per pitch length is
(A) p.t.σt
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(B) d.t.σc
(C) π/4 × d² × σt
(D) π/4 × d² × σc
Answer: Option B
128. The total strain energy stored in a body is termed a
(A) Resilience
(C) Modulus of resilience
(D) Toughness
Answer: Option A
129. The extension of a circular bar tapering uniformly from diameter
d₁ at one end to diameter d₂ at the other end and subjected to an axial
pull of ‘P’ is given by
(A) δl = 4PE/ πl²
(B) δl = 4πld²/PE
(C) δl = 4Pl/πEd₁d₂
(D) δl = 4PlE/ πd₁d₂
Answer: Option C
130. The maximum bending moment for the beam shown in the below
figure, is
(A) wl²/3√3
(B) wl²/6√3
(C) wl²/9√3
(D) wl²/12√3
Answer: Option C
131. Efficiency of a riveted joint is the ratio of its strength (max. load
it can resist without failure) to the strength of the un-punched plate in
(A) Tension
(B) Compression
(C) Bearing
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Answer: Option A
132. The pull required to tear off the plate per pitch length is (where p
= Pitch of rivets, t = Thickness of plates, and σt, τ and σc = Permissible
tensile, shearing and crushing stresses respectively)
(A) (p - 2d) t × σc
(B) (p - d) t × τ
(C) (p - d) t × σt
(D) (2p - d) t × σt
Answer: Option C
133. In a belt drive, the pulley diameter is doubled, the belt tension
and pulley width remaining same. The changes required in key will be
(A) Increase key length
(B) Increase key depth
(C) Increase key width
(D) Double all the dimensions
Answer: Option C
134. The bending moment of a cantilever beam of length ‘l’ and
carrying a uniformly distributed load of ‘w’ per unit length is
__________ at the fixed end.
(A) wl/4
(B) wl/2
(C) wl
(D) wl²/2
Answer: Option D
135. In the below figure, curve D represents_________.
(A) Mild steel

(B) Cast iron
(C) Concrete
(D) Bone of these
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Answer: Option A
136. Young's modulus is defined as the ratio of
(A) Volumetric stress and volumetric strain
(B) Lateral stress and lateral strain
(C) Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
Answer: Option C
137. The layer at the centre of gravity of the beam as shown in the
below figure, will be
(A) In tension
(B) In compression
(C) Neither in tension nor in compression
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
138. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σx) in one
plane accompanied by a simple shear stress (τxy), the minimum
normal stress is
(A) (σx/2) + (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)
(B) (σx/2) - (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)
(C) (σx/2) + (1/2) × √(σx² - 4 τ²xy)
(D) (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)
Answer: Option B
139. Tensile strength of a material is obtained by dividing the
maximum load during the test by the
(A) Area at the time of fracture
(B) Original cross-sectional area
(C) Average of (A) and (B)
(D) Minimum area after fracture
Answer: Option B
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140. The section modulus of a circular section about an axis through
its C.G., is
(A) πd²/4
(B) πd²/16
(C) πd3/16
(D) πd3/32
Answer: Option D
141. If a part is constrained to move and heated, it will develop
(A) Principal stress
(B) Tensile stress
(C) Compressive stress
(D) Shear stress
Answer: Option C
142. The moment of resistance of a balanced reinforced concrete beam
is based on the stresses in
(A) Steel only
(B) Concrete only
(C) Steel and concrete both
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
143. The property of a material by virtue of which it can be beaten or
rolled into plates is called
(A) Malleability
(B) Ductility
(C) Plasticity
(D) Elasticity
Answer: Option A
144. In case of an under-reinforced beam, the depth of actual neutral
axis is __________ that of the critical neutral axis.
(A) Same as
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
145. The energy absorbed in a body, when it is strained within the
elastic limits, is known as
(A) Strain energy
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(B) Resilience
(D) Modulus of resilience
Answer: Option A
146. A simply supported beam with a gradually varying load from
zero at ‘B’ and ‘w’ per unit length at ‘A’ is shown in the below figure.
The shear force at ‘B’ is equal to
(A) wl/6
(B) wl/3
(C) wl
(D) 2wl/3
Answer: Option A
147. A fletched beam is used to
(A) Change the shape of the beam
(B) Effect the saving in material
(C) Equalise the strength in tension and compression
(D) Increase the cross-section of the beam
Answer: Option C
148. Percentage reduction in area performing tensile test on cast iron
may be of the order of
(A) 50 %
(B) 25 %
(C) 20 %
(D) 30 %
Answer: Option C
149. A beam is loaded as cantilever. If the load at the end is increased,
the failure will occur
(A) In the middle
(B) At the tip below the load
(C) At the support
(D) Anywhere
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Answer: Option D
150. The assumption made in Euler's column theory is that
(A) The failure of column occurs due to buckling alone
(B) The length of column is very large as compared to its cross-
sectional dimensions
(C) The column material obeys Hooke's law
Answer: Option D
151. If the rivets in adjacent rows are staggered and the outermost
row has only one rivets, the arrangement of the rivets is called
(A) Chain riveting
(B) Zigzag riveting
(C) Diamond riveting
(D) Crisscross riveting
Answer: Option C
152. The point of contraflexure is a point where
(A) Shear force changes sign
(B) Bending moment changes sign
(C) Shear force is maximum
(D) Bending moment is maximum
Answer: Option B
153. The value of shear stress which is induced in the shaft due to the
applied couple varies
(A) From maximum at the centre to zero at the circumference
(B) From zero at the centre to maximum at the circumference
(C) From maximum at the centre to minimum at the circumference
(D) From minimum at the centre to maximum at the circumference
Answer: Option B
154. The extremeties of any diameter on Mohr's circle represent
(A) Principal stresses
(B) Normal stresses on planes at 45°
(C) Shear stresses on planes at 45°
(D) Normal and shear stresses on a plane
Answer: Option B
155. The materials having same elastic properties in all directions are
called
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(A) Ideal materials
(B) Uniform materials
(C) Isotropic materials
(D) Piratical materials
Answer: Option C
156. The ratio of the largest load in a test to the original cross-
sectional area of the test piece is called
(A) Elastic limit
(B) Yield stress
(C) Ultimate stress
(D) Breaking stress
Answer: Option C
157. A column is said to be a short column, when
(A) Its length is very small
(B) Its cross-sectional area is small
(C) The ratio of its length to the least radius of gyration is less than 80
(D) The ratio of its length to the least radius of gyration is more than
80
Answer: Option C
158. The total elongation produced in a bar of uniform section
hanging vertically downwards due to its own weight is equal to that
produced by a weight
(A) Of same magnitude as that of bar and applied at the lower end
(B) Half the weight of bar applied at lower end
(C) Half of the square of weight of bar applied at lower end
(D) One fourth of weight of bar applied at lower end
Answer: Option B
159. The lower layer of the beam as shown in the below figure, will be
(A) In tension
(B) In compression
(C) Neither in tension nor in compression
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
160. The tensile strength of the welded joint for double fillet is (where
s = Leg or size of the weld, l = Length of weld, and σt = Allowable
tensile stress for weld metal)
(A) 0.5 s.l.σt
(B) s.l.σt
(C) √2 s.l.σt
(D) 2.s.l.σt
Answer: Option C
161. If a material expands freely due to heating it will develop
(A) Thermal stresses
(B) Tensile stress
(C) Bending
(D) No stress
Answer: Option D
162. When a body is subjected to biaxial stress i.e. direct stresses (σx)
and (σy) in two mutually perpendicular planes accompanied by a
simple shear stress (τxy), then maximum normal stress is
(A) (σx + σy)/2 + (1/2) × √[(σx - σy)² + 4 τ²xy]
(B) (σx + σy)/2 - (1/2) × √[(σx - σy)² + 4 τ²xy]
(C) (σx - σy)/2 + (1/2) × √[(σx + σy)² + 4 τ²xy]
(D) (σx - σy)/2 - (1/2) × √[(σx + σy)² + 4 τ²xy]
Answer: Option A
163. The stress at which extension of the material takes place more
quickly as compared to the increase in load is called
(A) Elastic point of the material
(B) Plastic point of the material
(C) Breaking point of the material
(D) Yielding point of the material
Answer: Option D
164. A cantilever beam is one which is
(A) Fixed at both ends
(B) Fixed at one end and free at the other end
(C) Supported at its ends
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(D) Supported on more than two supports
Answer: Option B
165. In a prismatic member made of two materials so joined that they
deform equally under axial stress, the unit stresses in two materials
are
(A) Equal
(B) Proportional to their respective moduli of elasticity
(C) Inversely proportional to their moduli of elasticity
(D) Average of the sum of moduli of elasticity
Answer: Option B
166. A circular shaft fixed at, A has diameter D for half of its length
and diameter D/2 over the other half, as shown in the below figure. If
the rotation of B relative to A is 0.1 radian, the rotation of C relative to
B will be
(A) 0.4 radian

(B) 0.8 radian
(C) 1.6 radian
(D) 3.2 radian
Answer: Option C
167. The shear force diagram of a cantilever beam of length ‘l’ and
carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit length will be
(A) A right angled triangle
(B) An isosceles triangle
(C) An equilateral triangle
(D) A rectangle
Answer: Option A
168. The safe twisting moment for a compound shaft is equal to the
(A) Maximum calculated value
(B) Minimum calculated value
(C) Mean value
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(D) Extreme value
Answer: Option B
169. When a bar is subjected to a change of temperature and its
deformation is prevented, the stress induced in the bar is
(A) Tensile stress
(C) Shear stress
(D) Thermal stress
Answer: Option D
170. A thin mild steel wire is loaded by adding loads in equal
increments till it breaks. The extensions noted with increasing loads
will behave as under
(A) Uniform throughout
(B) Increase uniformly
(C) First increase and then decrease
(D) Increase uniformly first and then increase rapidly
Answer: Option D
171. Which of the following is a proper sequence?
(A) Proportional limit, elastic limit, yielding, failure
(B) Elastic limit, proportional limit, yielding, failure
(C) Yielding, proportional limit, elastic limit, failure
Answer: Option A
172. Which is the false statement about true stress strain method?
(A) It does not exist
(B) It is more sensitive to changes in both metallurgical and
mechanical conditions
(C) It gives a more accurate picture of the ductility
(D) It can be correlated with stress strain values in other tests like
torsion, impact, combined stress tests etc.
Answer: Option A
173. The bending equation is
(A) M/I = σ/y = E/R
(B) T/J = τ/R = Cθ/l
(C) M/R = T/J = Cθ/l
(D) T/l= τ/J = R/Cθ
Answer: Option A
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174. For which material the Poisson's ratio is more than unity
(A) Steel
(B) Copper
(C) Aluminium
Answer: Option D
175. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σ) in one
plane, then maximum normal stress occurs at a section inclined at
__________ to the normal of the section.
(A) 0°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 90°
Answer: Option A
176. Flow stress corresponds to
(A) Fluids in motion
(B) Breaking point
(C) Plastic deformation of solids
(D) Rupture stress
Answer: Option C
177. The thickness of a thin cylindrical shell with hemispherical ends
is __________ that of spherical ends.
(A) Equal to
(B) More than
(C) Less than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
178. A riveted joint in which every rivet of a row is opposite to other
rivet of the outer row, is known as
(A) Chain riveted joint
(B) Diamond riveted joint
(C) Crisscross riveted joint
(D) Zigzag riveted joint
Answer: Option A
179. The maximum tangential stress in a thick cylindrical shell is
always _________ the internal pressure acting on the shell.
(A) Equal to
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(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
180. If percentage reduction in area of a certain specimen made of
material 'A' under tensile test is 60% and the percentage reduction in
area of a specimen with same dimensions made of material 'B' is 40%,
then
(A) The material A is more ductile than material B
(B) The material B is more ductile than material A
(C) The ductility of material A and B is equal
(D) The material A is brittle and material B is ductile
Answer: Option A
181. Which of the following materials is most elastic?
(A) Rubber
(B) Plastic
(C) Brass
(D) Steel
Answer: Option D
182. Strain is equal to (where l = Original length, and δl = Change in
length)
(A) l/δl
(B) δl/l
(C) l.δl
(D) l + δl
Answer: Option B
183. The ratio of direct stress to volumetric strain in case of a body
subjected to three mutually perpendicular stresses of equal intensity,
is equal to
(A) Young's modulus
(B) Bulk modulus
(C) Modulus of rigidity
(D) Modulus of elasticity
Answer: Option B
184. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(A) The deformation of the bar per unit length in the direction of the
force is called linear strain.
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(B) The Poisson's ratio is the ratio of lateral strain to the linear strain.
(C) The ratio of change in volume to the original volume is called
volumetric strain.
(D) The bulk modulus is the ratio of linear stress to the linear strain.
Answer: Option D
185. Diamond riveted joint can be adopted in the case of following
type of joint
(A) Butt joint
(B) Lap joint
(C) Double riveted lap joints
(D) All types of joints
Answer: Option A
186. The unit of Young's modulus is
(A) mm/mm
(B) kg/cm
(C) Kg
(D) kg/cm²
Answer: Option D
simple shear stress (τxy), then minimum normal stress is
(A) (σx + σy)/2 + (1/2) × √[(σx - σy)² + 4 τ²xy]
(B) (σx + σy)/2 - (1/2) × √[(σx - σy)² + 4 τ²xy]
(C) (σx - σy)/2 + (1/2) × √[(σx + σy)² + 4 τ²xy]
(D) (σx - σy)/2 - (1/2) × √[(σx + σy)² + 4 τ²xy]
Answer: Option B
188. When a body is subjected to three mutually perpendicular
stresses, of equal intensity, the ratio of direct stress to the
corresponding volumetric strain is known as
(A) Young's modulus
(C) Bulk modulus
(D) Poisson's ratio
Answer: Option C
189. The value of modulus of elasticity for mild steel is of the order of
(A) 2.1 × 10⁵ kg/cm²
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(B) 2.1 × 10⁶ kg/cm²
(C) 2.1 × 10⁷ kg/cm²
(D) 0.1 × 10⁶ kg/cm²
Answer: Option B
190. A pressure vessel is said to be a thick shell, when
(A) It is made of thick sheets
(B) The internal pressure is very high
(C) The ratio of wall thickness of the vessel to its diameter is less than
1/10.
(D) The ratio of wall thickness of the vessel to its diameter is greater
than 1/10.
Answer: Option D
191. The strain energy stored in a body due to suddenly applied load
compared to when it is applied gradually is
(A) Same
(B) Twice
(C) Four times
(D) Eight times
Answer: Option C
192. The deformation of a bar under its own weight compared to the
deformation of same body subjected to a direct load equal to weight of
the body is
(A) Same
(B) Double
(C) Half
(D) Four times
Answer: Option C
193. A continuous beam is one which is
(A) Fixed at both ends
(B) Fixed at one end and free at the other end
(C) Supported on more than two supports
(D) Extending beyond the supports
Answer: Option C
194. The radius of the Mohr’s circle in the given figure is equal to
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(A) Sum of two principal stresses
(B) Difference of two principal stresses
(C) Half the sum of two principal stresses
(D) Half the difference of two principal stresses
Answer: Option D
195. The maximum shear stress, in the given figure, is equal to
__________ of the Mohr's circle.
(A) Radius
(B) Diameter
(C) Circumference
(D) Area
Answer: Option A
196. A key is subjected to side pressure as well at shearing forces.
These pressures are called
(A) Bearing stresses
(B) Fatigue stresses
(C) Crushing stresses
(D) Resultant stresses
Answer: Option A
197. When a closely-coiled helical spring of mean diameter (D) is
subjected to an axial load (W), the stiffness of the spring is given by
(A) Cd⁴/D3n
(B) Cd⁴/2D3n
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(C) Cd⁴/4D3n
(D) Cd⁴/8D3n
Answer: Option D
198. During a tensile test on a specimen of 1 cm cross-section,
maximum load observed was 8 tonnes and area of cross-section at
neck was 0.5 cm². Ultimate tensile strength of specimen is
(A) 4 tonnes/ cm²
(B) 8 tonnes/ cm²
(C) 16 tonnes/ cm²
(D) 22 tonnes/ cm²
Answer: Option B
199. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σx) in one
plane accompanied by a simple shear stress (τxy), the maximum shear
stress is
(A) (σx/2) + (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)
(B) (σx/2) - (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)
(C) (σx/2) + (1/2) × √(σx² - 4 τ²xy)
(D) (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)
Answer: Option D
200. The change in the unit volume of a material under tension with
increase in its Poisson's ratio will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain same
(D) Increase initially and then decrease
Answer: Option B
201. A material capable of absorbing large amount of energy before
fracture is known as
(A) Ductility
(B) Toughness
(C) Resilience
(D) Shock proof
Answer: Option B
202. The shear force at the ends of a simply supported beam carrying
a uniformly distributed load of w per unit length is
(A) Zero at its both ends
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(B) wl at one end and -wl at the other end
(C) wl/2 at one end and -wl/ 2 at the other end
(D) wl²/2 at one end and -wl²/ 2 at the other end
Answer: Option C
203. Deformation per unit length in the direction of force is known as
(A) Strain
(B) Lateral strain
(C) Linear strain
(D) Linear stress
Answer: Option C
(A) The energy stored in a body, when strained within elastic limit is
known as strain energy.
(B) The maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body is
termed as proof resilience.
(C) The proof resilience per unit volume of a material is known as
modulus of resilience.
Answer: Option D
205. Rupture stress is
(A) Breaking stress
(B) Maximum load/original cross-sectional area
(C) Load at breaking point/Area
(D) Load at breaking point/neck area
Answer: Option D
206. When two shafts of same length, one of which is hollow, transmit
equal torques and have equal maximum stress, then they should have
equal
(A) Polar moment of inertia
(B) Polar modulus
(C) Diameter
(D) Angle of twist
Answer: Option B
207. Two closely-coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' of the same
material, same number of turns and made from same wire are
subjected to an axial load W. The mean diameter of spring 'A' is
double the mean diameter of spring 'B'. The ratio of deflections in
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spring 'B' to spring 'A' will be
(A) 1/8
(B) 1/4
(C) 2
(D) 4
Answer: Option A
208. A beam of uniform strength may be obtained by
(A) Keeping the width uniform and varying the depth
(B) Keeping the depth uniform and varying the width
(C) Varying the width and depth both
Answer: Option D
209. Which of the following has no unit?
(A) Kinematic viscosity
(B) Surface tension
(C) Bulk modulus
(D) Strain
Answer: Option D
210. The deformation of the bar per unit length in the direction of the
force is known as
(A) Linear strain
(B) Lateral strain
(C) Volumetric strain
(D) Shear strain
Answer: Option A
211. The maximum strain energy that can be stored in a body is
known as
(A) Impact energy
(B) Resilience
Answer: Option C
212. Longitudinal stress in a thin cylinder is
(A) Equal to the hoop stress
(B) Twice the hoop stress
(C) Half of the hoop stress
(D) One fourth of hoop stress
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Answer: Option C
213. The force acting along the circumference will cause stress in the
walls in a direction normal to the longitudinal axis of cylinder; This
stress is called
(A) Longitudinal stress
(B) Hoop stress
(C) Yield stress
(D) Ultimate stress
Answer: Option B
214. The section modulus of a rectangular section about an axis
through its C.G., is
(A) b/2
(B) d/2
(C) bd²/2
(D) bd²/6
Answer: Option D
215. The change in length due to a tensile or compressive force acting
on a body is given by (where P = Tensile or compressive force acting
on the body, l = Original length of the body, A = Cross-sectional area
of the body, and E = Young's modulus for the material of the body)
(A) PlA/E
(B) Pl/AE
(C) E/PlA
(D) AE/Pl
Answer: Option B
216. In riveted boiler joints, all stresses, shearing, bearing and tensile
are based on the
(A) Size of rivet
(B) Size of the drilled or reamed hole
(C) Average of size of rivet and hole
(D) Smaller of the two
Answer: Option B
217. In calculating the strength of a riveted joint in tearing, shearing
and crushing, the
(A) Actual diameter of rivet is used
(B) Actual diameter of hole drilled for rivet is used
(C) Mean diameter of hole drilled and rivet is used
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(D) Smaller of the rivet diameter and hole diameter is used
Answer: Option B
218. It equal and opposite forces applied to a body tend to elongate it,
the stress so produced is called
(A) Internal resistance
(B) Tensile stress
(C) Transverse stress
Answer: Option B
219. The hoop stress in a riveted cylindrical shell of diameter (D),
thickness (t) and subjected to an internal pressure (p) is (where η =
Efficiency of the riveted joint)
(A) pd/η × t
(B) pd/η × 2t
(C) pd/η × 4t
(D) pd/η × 8t
Answer: Option B
220. A non yielding support implies that the
(A) Support is frictionless
(B) Support can take any amount of reaction
(C) Support holds member firmly
(D) Slope of the beam at the support is zero
Answer: Option D
221. Which of the following is the correct torsion equation?
(A) M/I = σ/y = E/R
(B) T/J = τ/R = Cθ/l
(C) M/R = T/J = Cθ/l
(D) T/l= τ/J = R/Cθ
Answer: Option B
222. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to in tension
is nearly
(A) Same
(B) Half
(C) One third
(D) Two third
Answer: Option B
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mutually perpendicular planes. The resultant stress is given by
(A) OC
(B) OP
(C) OQ
(D) PQ
Answer: Option B
224. A beam supported on more than two supports is called
(B) Fixed beam
(D) Continuous beam
Answer: Option D
225. Rivets are made of following type of material
(A) Tough
(B) Hard
(C) Resilient
(D) Ductile
Answer: Option D
226. In the below figure, __________ represents glass.
(A) Curve A
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(B) Curve B
(C) Curve C
(D) Curve D
Answer: Option C
227. Hook's law holds good up to
(A) Yield point
(B) Elastic limit
(C) Plastic limit
(D) Breaking point
Answer: Option B
228. Poisson's ratio is defined as the ratio of
(A) Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
(B) Longitudinal stress and lateral stress
(C) Lateral stress and longitudinal stress
(D) Lateral stress and lateral strain
Answer: Option C
229. A thin spherical shell of diameter (D) and thickness (t) is
subjected to an internal pressure (p). The stress in the shell material is
(A) pd/t
(B) pd/2t
(C) pd/4t
(D) pd/8t
Answer: Option C
230. The rectangular beam 'A' has length l, width b and depth d.
Another beam 'B' has the same length and width but depth is double
that of 'A'. The elastic strength of beam B will be __________ as
compared to beam A.
(A) Same
(B) Double
(C) Four times
(D) Six times
Answer: Option C
231. The value of Poisson's ratio for cast iron is
(A) 0.1 to 0.2
(B) 0.23 to 0.27
(C) 0.25 to 0.33
(D) 0.4 to 0.6
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Answer: Option B
232. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load of a
column is given by p = π²EI/Cl². In the Euler's formula, the value of C
for a column with one end fixed and the other end free, is
(A) ½
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
Answer: Option D
233. The elasticity of various materials is controlled by its
(A) Ultimate tensile stress
(B) Proof stress
(C) Stress at yield point
(D) Stress at elastic limit
Answer: Option D
234. The maximum shear stress in a thin cylindrical shell subjected to
internal pressure p is
(A) pd/t
(B) pd/2t
(C) pd/4t
(D) pd/8t
Answer: Option D
235. A simply supported beam of length ‘l’ carries a point load ‘W’ at
a point C as shown in the below figure. The maximum deflection lies at
(A) Point A
(B) Point B
(C) Point C
(D) Between points B and C
Answer: Option D
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236. The shear force diagram for a cantilever beam of length l and
carrying a gradually varying load from zero at free end and w per unit
length at the fixed end is a
(A) Horizontal straight line
(B) Vertical straight line
(C) Inclined line
(D) Parabolic curve
Answer: Option D
237. When a beam is subjected to bending moment, the stress at any
point is __________ the distance of the point from the neutral axis.
(A) Equal to
(D) Independent of
Answer: Option B
238. A fixed beam is one which is fixed at _________.
(A) One of its ends
(B) Both of its ends
(C) The middle
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
239. In a tensile test, when the material is stressed beyond elastic limit,
the tensile strain __________ as compared to the stress.
(A) Decreases slowly
(B) Increases slowly
(C) Decreases more quickly
(D) Increases more quickly
Answer: Option D
240. If the modulus of elasticity for a given material is twice its
modulus of rigidity, then bulk modulus is equal to
(A) 2C
(B) 3C
(C) 2C/3
(D) 3C/2
Answer: Option C
241. When a load on the free end of a cantilever beam is increased,
failure will occur
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(A) At the free end
(B) At the fixed end
(C) In the middle of the beam
(D) At a distance 2l/3 from free end
Answer: Option B
242. The rectangular beam 'A ' has length l, width b and depth d.
Another beam 'B' has the same width and depth but length is double
that of 'A'. The elastic strength of beam 'B' will be __________ as
compared to beam A.
(A) Same
(B) One-half
(C) One-fourth
(D) One-eighth
Answer: Option B
243. A column with maximum equivalent length has
(A) Both ends hinged
(B) Both ends fixed
(C) One end fixed and the other end hinged
(D) One end fixed and the other end free
Answer: Option D
244. In leaf springs, the maximum bending stress developed in the
plates is (where W = Load acting on the spring, l = Span of the spring,
n = Number of plates, b = Width of plates, and t = Thickness of plates)
(A) Wl/nbt²
(B) 3Wl/2nbt²
(C) 2Wl/nbt²
(D) 3Wl/nbt²
Answer: Option B
245. The extension of a circular bar tapering uniformly from diameter
d₁ at one end to diameter d₂ at the other end, and subjected to an axial
pull of P is _________ the extension of a circular bar of diameter d₁ d₂
subjected to the same load P.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
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246. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p),
the radial stress across the thickness of the cylinder is
(A) Maximum at the outer surface and minimum at the inner surface
(B) Maximum at the inner surface and minimum at the outer surface
(C) Maximum at the outer surface and zero at the inner surface
(D) Maximum at the inner surface arid zero at the outer surface
Answer: Option D
247. The ratio of change in volume to the original volume is called
(A) Linear strain
(B) Lateral strain
(D) Poisson's ratio
Answer: Option C
248. The polar moment of inertia of a solid circular shaft of diameter
(D) is
(A) πD³/16
(B) πD³/32
(C) πD⁴/32
(D) πD⁴/64
Answer: Option C
(A) In the theory of simple bending, the assumption is that the plane
sections before bending remains plane after bending.
(B) In a beam subjected to bending moment, the strain is directly
proportional to the distance from the neutral axis.
(C) At the neutral axis of a beam, the bending stress is maximum.
(D) The bending stress in a beam is inversely proportional to the
section modulus.
Answer: Option C
250. In Mohr's circle, the centre of circle from Y-axis is taken as
(A) (σx - σy)/2
(B) (σx + σy)/2
(C) [(σx - σy)/2] + τ
(D) [(σx + σy)/2] + τ
Answer: Option B
251. Shear strength of the welded joint for double parallel fillet is
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(where τ = Allowable shear stress for weld metal)
(A) 0.5 s.l.τ
(B) s.l.τ
(C) √2 s.l.τ
(D) 2.s.l.τ
Answer: Option C
252. When a shaft, is subjected to torsion, the shear stress induced in
the shaft varies from
(A) Minimum at the centre to maximum at the circumference
(B) Maximum at the centre to minimum at the circumference
(C) Zero at the centre to maximum at the circumference
(D) Maximum at the centre to zero at the circumference
Answer: Option C
253. The strain energy stored in a body, when the load is gradually
applied, is (where σ = Stress in the material of the body, V = Volume
of the body, and E = Modulus of elasticity of the material)
(A) σE/V
(B) σV/E
(C) σ²E/2V
(D) σ²V/2E
Answer: Option D
254. At the neutral axis of a beam, the shear stress is
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) Infinity
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Answer: Option C
255. In a stress-strain diagram for mild steel, as shown in the below
figure, the point ‘A’ represents
(A) Elastic limit

(B) Upper yield point
(C) Lower yield point
(D) Breaking point
Answer: Option A
256. When a body is subjected to two equal and opposite forces, acting
tangentially across the resisting section, as a result of which the body
tends to shear off across the section, the stress and strain induced is
(A) Tensile stress, tensile strain
(B) Compressive stress, compressive strain
(C) Shear stress, tensile strain
(D) Shear stress, shear strain
Answer: Option D
mutually perpendicular planes. The tangential stress is given by
(A) OC
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(B) OP
(C) OQ
(D) PQ
Answer: Option D
258. The strain energy stored in a hollow circular shaft of outer
diameter (D) and inner diameter (d) subjected to shear stress is
(A) (τ²/2C) (D² - d²/D) × Volume of shaft
(B) (τ²/2C) (D² + d²/D) × Volume of shaft
(C) (τ²/4C) (D² - d²/D) × Volume of shaft
(D) (τ²/4C) (D² + d²/D) × Volume of shaft
Answer: Option D
259. The centre to centre distance, between two consecutive rivets in a
row, is called
(A) Margin
(B) Pitch
(C) Back pitch
(D) Diagonal pitch
Answer: Option B
260. Two shafts 'A' and 'B' are made of same material. The shaft 'A' is
of diameter D and shaft 'B' is of diameter D/2. The strength of shaft
'B' is __________ as that of shaft 'A'
(A) One-eighth
(B) One-fourth
(C) One-half
(D) Four times
Answer: Option A
261. According to Unwin's formula, the relation between diameter of
rivet hole (D) and thickness of plate (t) is given by (where d and t are
in mm)
(A) d = t
(B) d = 1.6 t
(C) d = 2t
(D) d = 6t
Answer: Option D
262. A tensile test is performed on a round bar. After fracture, it has
been found that the diameter remains approximately same at fracture.
The material under test was
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(A) Mild steel
(B) Cast iron
(C) Glass
(D) Copper
Answer: Option B
263. A rectangular beam of length l supported at its two ends carries a
central point load W. The maximum deflection occurs
(A) At the ends
(B) At l/3 from both ends
(C) At the centre
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
264. The ratio of the lateral strain to the linear strain is called
(A) Modulus of elasticity
(C) Bulk modulus
(D) Poisson's ratio
Answer: Option D
265. The shear force of a cantilever beam of length l carrying a
uniformly distributed load of w per unit length is __________ at the
free end.
(A) Zero
(B) wl/4
(C) wl/2
(D) wl
Answer: Option A
266. In a simple bending of beams, the stress in the beam varies
(A) Linearly
(B) Parabolically
(C) Hyperbolically
(D) Elliptically
Answer: Option A
267. The shear force at a point on a beam is the algebraic __________
of all the forces on either side of the point.
(A) Sum
(B) Difference
(C) Multiplication
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(D) Division
Answer: Option A
268. When a cantilever beam is loaded at its free end, the maximum
compressive stress shall develop at
(A) Bottom fibre
(B) Top fibre
(C) Neutral axis
(D) Centre of gravity
Answer: Option A
269. The total strain energy stored in a body is termed as
(A) Resilience
(C) Impact energy
Answer: Option A
simple shear stress (τxy), then maximum shear stress is
(A) (1/2) × √[(σx - σy)² + 4 τ²xy]
(B) (1/2) × √[(σx + σy)² + 4 τ²xy]
(C) √[(σx - σy)² + τ²xy]
(D) √[(σx + σy)² + τ²xy]
Answer: Option A
column length (l) hinged at both ends, is
(A) π²EI/l²
(B) π²EI/4l²
(C) 4π²EI/l²
(D) 2π²EI/l²
Answer: Option A
272. Young's modulus may be defined as the ratio of
(A) Linear stress to lateral strain
(B) Lateral strain to linear strain
(C) Linear stress to linear strain
Answer: Option C
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273. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (D), length (l) and thickness (t)
is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The ratio of longitudinal strain
to hoop strain is
(A) (m - 2)/(2m - 1)
(B) (2m - 1)/(m - 2)
(C) (m - 2)/(2m + 1)
(D) (2m + 1)/(m - 2)
Answer: Option A
274. The maximum bending moment for the beam shown in the below
figure, lies at a distance of ________ from the end ‘B’.
(A) l/2
(B) l/3
(C) l/√2
(D) l/√3
Answer: Option D
275. Two closely-coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' are equal in all
respects but the number of turns of spring 'A' is double that of spring
'B'. The stiffness of spring 'A' will be __________ that of spring 'B'.
(A) One-sixteenth
(B) One-eighth
(C) One-fourth
(D) One-half
Answer: Option D
276. The bending moment on a section is maximum where shear force
is
(A) Minimum
(B) Maximum
(C) Changing sign
(D) Zero
Answer: Option C
277. The stress developed in the material without any permanent set is
called
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(A) Elastic limit
(B) Yield stress
(C) Ultimate stress
(D) Breaking stress
Answer: Option A
278. Two closely coiled helical springs 'A' and 'B' are equal in all
respects but the diameter of wire of spring 'A' is double that of spring
'B' The stiffness of spring 'B' will be __________ that of spring 'A'
(A) One-sixteenth
(B) One-eighth
(C) One-fourth
(D) One-half
Answer: Option A
279. In a riveted joint, when the number of rivets decreases from the
inner most row to outer most row, the joint is said to be
(A) Chain riveted
(B) Zig-zag riveted
(C) Diamond riveted
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
280. The polar modulus for a hollow shaft of outer diameter (D) and
inner diameter (d) is
(A) (π/4) × (D² - d²)/D
(B) (π/16) × (D3 - d3)/D
(C) (π/16) × (D⁴ - d⁴)/D
(D) (π/32) × (D⁴ - d⁴)/D
Answer: Option C
281. A leaf spring is supported at the
(A) Ends and loaded at the centre
(B) Centre and loaded at the ends
(C) Ends and loaded anywhere
(D) Centre and loaded anywhere
Answer: Option B
282. The assumption made in the theory of the reinforced cement
concrete beam is that
(A) All the tensile stresses are taken up by the steel reinforcement
only
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(B) There is a sufficient bond between steel and concrete
(C) The steel and concrete are stressed within its elastic limit
Answer: Option D
283. The ultimate tensile stress for mild steel is __________ the
ultimate compressive stress.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
284. The neutral axis of the cross-section of a beam is that axis at
which the bending stress is
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) Infinity
Answer: Option A
285. When a thin cylindrical shell is subjected to an internal pressure,
there will be
(A) A decrease in diameter and length of the shell
(B) An increase in diameter and decrease in length of the shell
(C) A decrease in diameter and increase in length of the shell
(D) An increase in diameter and length of the shell
Answer: Option D
286. When the shear force diagram is a parabolic curve between two
points, it indicates that there is a
(A) Point load at the two points
(B) No loading between the two points
(C) Uniformly distributed load between the two points
(D) Uniformly varying load between the two points
Answer: Option D
287. In order to avoid sliding of masonry dam, the force of friction
between the dam and soil should be at least __________ the total water
pressure per metre length.
(A) Equal to
(B) 1.5 times
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(C) Double
(D) 2.5 times
Answer: Option B
288. The design of thin cylindrical shells is based on
(A) Hoop stress
(B) Longitudinal stress
(C) Arithmetic mean of the hoop and the longitudinal stress
(D) Geometric mean of the hoop and longitudinal stress
Answer: Option A
planes. The minimum normal stress will be
(A) 400 MPa
(B) 500 MPa
(C) 900 MPa
(D) 1400 MPa
Answer: Option A
290. In the below figure, the point C represents
(A) Elastic limit
(B) Upper yield point
(C) Lower yield point
(D) Breaking point
Answer: Option C
291. If the section modulus of a beam is increased, the bending stress
in the beam will
(A) Not change
(B) Increase
(C) Decrease
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
292. In the below figure, the point E represents.
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(A) The maximum stress
(B) The minimum stress
(C) No stress
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
293. The maximum deflection of a cantilever beam of length ‘l’ with a
point load ‘W’ at the free end is
(A) Wl3/3EI
(B) Wl3/8EI
(C) Wl3/16EI
(D) Wl3/48EI
Answer: Option A
294. The strength of a riveted joint is equal to the
(A) Pull required to tear off the plate per pitch length (Pt)
(B) Pull required to shear off the rivet per pitch length (Ps)
(C) Pull required to crush the rivet per pitch length (Pc)
(D) Minimum value of Pt, Ps or Pc
Answer: Option D
295. The torsional rigidity of a shaft is given by
(A) T/J
(B) T/θ
(C) T/r
(D) T/G
Answer: Option B
296. A localised compressive stress at the area of contact between two
members is known as
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(A) Tensile stress
(B) Bending stress
(C) Crushing stress
(D) Shear stress
Answer: Option C
297. The product of Young's modulus (E) and moment of inertia (I) is
known as
(A) Modulus of rigidity
(B) Bulk modulus
(C) Flexural rigidity
(D) Torsional rigidity
Answer: Option C
298. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σ) in one plane. The
shear stress is maximum at a section inclined at __________ to the
normal of the section.
(A) 45° and 90°
(B) 45° and 135°
(C) 60° and 150°
(D) 30° and 135°
Answer: Option B
299. Two solid shafts 'A' and 'B' are made of the same material. The
shaft 'A' is of 50 mm diameter and shaft 'B' is of 100 mm diameter.
The strength of shaft 'B' is _________ as that of shaft ‘A’.
(A) One-half
(B) Double
(C) Four times
(D) Eight times
Answer: Option D
300. For a given stress, the ratio of moment of resistance of a beam of
square cross-section when placed with its two sides horizontal to the
moment of resistance with its diagonal horizontal, is
(A) 1/2
(B) 1
(C) 1/√2
(D) √2
Answer: Option D
301. The ductility of the material __________ with the decrease in
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percentage elongation of a specimen under tensile test.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
302. The length of a conical bar is ‘l’, diameter of base is ‘d’ and
weight per unit volume is ‘w’. It is fixes at its upper end and hanging
freely. The elongation of the bar under the action of its own weight
will be
(A) wl²/2E
(B) wl²/4E
(C) wl²/6E
(D) wl²/8E
Answer: Option C
303. The ratio of linear stress to the linear strain is called
(A) Modulus of rigidity
(B) Modulus of elasticity
(C) Bulk modulus
(D) Poisson's ratio
Answer: Option B
304. For no tension condition in the base of a short column of circular
section, the line of action of the load should be within a circle of
diameter equal to __________ of the main circle.
(A) One-half
(B) One-third
(C) One-fourth
(D) One-eighth
Answer: Option C
305. The shear modulus of most materials with respect to the modulus
of elasticity is
(A) Equal to half
(B) Less than half
(C) More than half
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
306. Whenever a material is loaded within elastic limit, stress is
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__________ strain.
(A) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
307. In the below figure, Hook's law holds good, for the portion
from_________.
(A) O to A
(B) B to D
(C) D to E
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
308. The point of contraflexure occurs in
(A) Cantilever beams
(B) Simply supported beams
(C) Overhanging beams
(D) Fixed beams
Answer: Option C
309. The bending moment of a cantilever beam of length l and
carrying a gradually varying load from zero at free end and w per unit
length at the fixed end is ________ at the fixed end.
(A) wl/2
(B) wl
(C) wl²/2
(D) wl²/6
Answer: Option D
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310. The maximum deflection of a cantilever beam of length ‘l’ with a
uniformly distributed load of ‘w’ per unit length is (where W = wl)
(A) Wl³/3EI
(B) Wl³/8EI
(C) Wl³/16EI
(D) Wl³/48EI
Answer: Option B
311. When a bar of length ‘l’, width ‘b’ and thickness ‘t’ is subjected
to a pull of ‘P’, its
(A) Length, width and thickness increases
(B) Length, width and thickness decreases
(C) Length increases, width and thickness decreases
(D) Length decreases, width and thickness increases
Answer: Option C
312. A beam of T-section is subjected to a shear force of ‘F’. The
maximum shear force will occur at the
(A) Top of the section
(B) Bottom of the section
(C) Neutral axis of the section
(D) Junction of web and flange
Answer: Option C
313. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam of length ‘l’ carrying a
central point load ‘W’ is
(A) wl³/48 EI
(B) wl³/96 EI
(C) wl³/192 EI
(D) wl³/384 EI
Answer: Option C
314. The torque transmitted by a hollow shaft of outer diameter (D)
and inner diameter (d) is
(A) (π/4) × τ [(D² - d²)/d]
(B) (π/16) × τ [(D³ - d³)/d]
(C) (π/16) × τ [(D⁴ - d⁴)/d]
(D) (π/32) × τ [(D⁴ - d⁴)/d]
Answer: Option C
315. At the neutral axis of a beam
(A) The layers are subjected to maximum bending stress
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(B) The layers are subjected to minimum bending stress
(C) The layers are subjected to compression
(D) The layers do not undergo any strain
Answer: Option D
the tangential stress across the thickness of a cylinder is
(C) Maximum at the outer surface and zero at the inner surface
(D) Maximum at the inner surface and zero at the outer surface
Answer: Option B
317. When a bar of length ‘l’, width ‘b’ and thickness ‘t’ is subjected
to a push of ‘P’, its
(A) Length, width and thickness increases
(B) Length, width and thickness decreases
(C) Length increases, width and thickness decreases
(D) Length decreases, width and thickness increases
Answer: Option D
318. In a simple bending theory, one of the assumptions is that the
plane sections before bending remain plane after bending. This
assumption means that
(A) Stress is uniform throughout the beam
(B) Strain is uniform throughout the beam
(C) Stress is proportional to the distance from the neutral axis
(D) Strain is proportional to the distance from the neutral axis
Answer: Option D
319. For a beam, as shown in the below figure, the maximum
deflection lies at
(A) l/3 from B
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(B) l/3 from A
(C) √(l² - a²/3) from B
(D) √(l² - b²/3) from A
Answer: Option C
320. In the above question, the ratio of stiffness of spring 'B' to spring
'A' will be
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer: Option D
plane, then normal stress on an oblique section of the body inclined at
an angle θ to the normal of the section is
(A) σ cosθ
(B) σ cos²θ
(C) σ sinθ
(D) σ sin²θ
Answer: Option B
322. The longitudinal stress in a riveted cylindrical shell of diameter
(D), thickness (t) and subjected to an internal pressure (p) is
(A) pd/(η × t)
(B) pd/(η × 2t)
(C) pd/(η × 4t)
(D) pd/(η × 8t)
Answer: Option C
323. Lame's theory is associated with
(A) Thin cylindrical shells
(B) Thick cylindrical shells
(C) Direct and bending stresses
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
324. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load of a
column is given by p = π² EI/Cl² In this equation, the value of C for a
column with both ends hinged, is
(A) ¼
(B) ½
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(C) 1
(D) 2
Answer: Option C
325. A riveted joint may fail by
(A) Tearing of the plate at an edge
(B) Tearing of the plate across a row of rivets
(C) Shearing of rivets
(D) Any one of these
Answer: Option D
326. The tensile strength of ductile materials is __________ its
compressive strength.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
327. The strain energy stored in a body due to shear stress, is (where τ
= Shear stress, C = Shear modulus, and V = Volume of the body)
(A) (τ/2C) × V
(B) 2C/ τV
(C) (τ²/2C) × V
(D) 2C/ τ²V
Answer: Option C
328. The object of caulking in a riveted joint is to make the joint
(A) Free from corrosion
(B) Stronger in tension
(C) Free from stresses
(D) Leak proof
Answer: Option D
329. The maximum shear stress is __________ the algebraic difference
of maximum and minimum normal stresses.
(A) Equal to
(B) One-fourth
(C) One-half
(D) Twice
Answer: Option C
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330. The Poisson's ratio for steel varies from
(A) 0.23 to 0.27
(B) 0.27 to 0.30
(C) 0.31 to 0.34
(D) 0.32 to 0.42
Answer: Option B
331. The shear force of a cantilever beam of length l and carrying a
gradually varying load from zero at the free end and w per unit length
at the fixed end is _________ at the fixed end.
(A) Zero
(B) wl/4
(C) wl/2
(D) wl
Answer: Option C
332. The modulus of elasticity for mild steel is approximately equal to
(A) 10 kN/mm²
(B) 80 kN/mm²
(C) 100 kN/mm²
(D) 210 kN/mm²
Answer: Option D
333. Two shafts 'A' and 'B' have the same material. The shaft 'A' is
solid of diameter 100 mm. The shaft 'B' is hollow with outer diameter
100 mm and inner diameter 50 mm. The torque transmitted by shaft
'B' is __________ as that of shaft 'A'.
(A) 1/6
(B) 1/8
(C) 1/4
(D) 15/16
Answer: Option D
334. For a 25 mm hole drilled in plates, the diameter of rivet shank
should be
(A) 23 mm
(B) 24.5 mm
(C) 25 mm
(D) 26 mm
Answer: Option A
335. The elongation of a conical bar under its own weight is
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__________ that of prismatic bar of the same length.
(A) Equal to
(B) Half
(C) One-third
(D) Two-third
Answer: Option C
336. A bolt is made to pass through a tube and both of them are tightly
fitted with the help of washers and nuts. If the nut is tightened, then
(A) Bolt and tube are under tension
(B) Bolt and tube are under compression
(C) Bolt is under compression and tube is under tension
(D) Bolt is under tension and tube is under compression
Answer: Option D
337. The direct stress induced in a long column is __________ as
compared to bending stress.
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) Negligible
Answer: Option D
338. A steel bar 2 m long, 20 mm wide and 10 mm thick is subjected to
a pull of 2 kN. If the same bar is subjected to a push of 2 kN, the
Poisson’s ratio of the bar in tension will be __________ the Poisson's
ratio for the bar in compression.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
339. Mohr's circle is used to determine the stresses on an oblique
section of a body subjected to
(A) Direct tensile stress in one plane accompanied by a shear stress
(B) Direct tensile stress in two mutually perpendicular directions
(C) Direct tensile stress in two mutually perpendicular directions
accompanied by a simple shear stress
Answer: Option D
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340. The assumption, generally, made in the theory of simple bending
is that
(A) The beam material is perfectly homogenous and isotropic
(B) The beam material is stressed within its elastic limit
(C) The plane sections before bending remain plane after bending
Answer: Option D
341. When a body is subjected to two equal and opposite pulls, as a
result of which the body tends to extend its length, the stress and
strain induced is
(A) Compressive stress, tensile strain
(B) Tensile stress, compressive strain
(C) Tensile stress, tensile strain
(D) Compressive stress, compressive strain
Answer: Option C
342. The thermal stress in a bar is __________ proportional to the
change in temperature.
(A) Directly
(B) Indirectly
(C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
minimum normal stress will be
(A) -100 MPa
(B) 250 MPa
(C) 300 MPa
(D) 400 MPa
Answer: Option A
344. For the beam shown in the below figure, the shear force at A is
equal to
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(A) wl/6
(B) wl/3
(C) wl
(D) 2wl/3
Answer: Option B
345. The maximum shear stress developed in a beam of circular
section is __________ the average shear stress.
(A) Equal to
(B) 4/3 times
(C) 1.5 times
(D) Twice
Answer: Option B
346. The bending moment of a cantilever beam of length l and
carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit length is
__________ at the free end.
(A) Zero
(B) wl/4
(C) wl/2
(D) wl
Answer: Option A
347. For a shaft, the shear stress at a point is __________ the distance
from the axis of the shaft.
(A) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
348. The bending moment diagram for a simply supported beam
carrying a uniformly distributed load of ‘w’ per unit length, will be
(A) A horizontal line
(B) A vertical line
(C) An inclined line
(D) A parabolic curve
Answer: Option D
349. When one plate overlaps the other and the two plates are riveted
together with two rows of rivets, the joint is known as
(A) Single riveted lap joint
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(B) Double riveted lap joint
(C) Double riveted single cover butt joint
(D) Double riveted double cover butt joint
Answer: Option B
plane, the maximum shear stress is __________ the maximum normal
stress.
(A) Equal to
(B) One-half
(C) Two-third
(D) Twice
Answer: Option B
351. The ductility of a material __________ with the increase in
percentage reduction in area of a specimen under tensile test.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
352. Rivets are generally specified by
(A) Thickness of plates to be joined
(B) Overall length
(C) Shank diameter
(D) Diameter of head
Answer: Option C
353. The simply supported beam 'A' of length ‘l’ carries a central
point load ‘W’. Another beam 'B' is loaded with a uniformly
distributed load such that the total load on the beam is ‘W’. The ratio
of maximum deflections between beams ‘A’ and ‘B’ is
(A) 5/8
(B) 8/5
(C) 5/4
(D) 4/5
Answer: Option B
354. The rectangular beam 'A' has length ‘l’, width ‘b’ and depth ‘d’.
Another beam 'B' has the same length and depth but width is double
that of 'A'. The elastic strength of beam 'B' will be _________ as
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compared to beam ‘A’.
(A) Same
(B) Double
(C) Four times
(D) Six times
Answer: Option B
355. The bending moment in the centre of a simply supported beam
carrying a uniformly distributed load of w per unit length is
(A) Zero
(B) wl²/2
(C) wl²/4
(D) wl²/8
Answer: Option D
356. The polar modulus for a solid shaft of diameter (D) is
(A) πD²/4
(B) πD³/16
(C) πD³/32
(D) πD⁴/64
Answer: Option B
357. The slenderness ratio is the ratio of
(A) Area of column to least radius of gyration
(B) Length of column to least radius of gyration
(C) Least radius of gyration to area of column
(D) Least radius of gyration to length of column
Answer: Option B
358. A simply supported beam 'A' of length ‘l’, breadth ‘b’ and depth
‘d’ carries a central load ‘W’. Another beam 'B' of the same
dimensions carries a central load equal to 2W. The deflection of beam
'B' will be __________ as that of beam 'A'.
(A) One-fourth
(B) One-half
(C) Double
(D) Four times
Answer: Option C
359. When a bar of length ‘l’ and diameter ‘d’ is rigidly fixed at the
upper end and hanging freely, then the total elongation produced in
the bar due to its own weight is (where w = Weight per unit volume of
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the bar)
(A) wl/2E
(B) wl²/2E
(C) wl³/2E
(D) wl⁴/2E
Answer: Option B
360. In a riveted joint, when the rivets in the various rows are opposite
to each other, the joint is said to be
(A) Chain riveted
(B) Zig-zag riveted
(C) Diamond riveted
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
361. When a rectangular bar of length l, breadth b and thickness t is
subjected to an axial pull of P, then linear strain (ε) is given by (where
E = Modulus of elasticity)
(A) ε = P/b.t.E
(B) ε = b.t.E/P
(C) ε = b.t/P.E
(D) ε = P.E/b.t
Answer: Option A
(A) The size of hole drilled in riveting plates is less than the actual
size of rivet.
(B) The centre to centre distance between two consecutive rivets in a
row is called margin.
(C) Rivets are generally specified by its shank diameter.
(D) Tearing of plates can be avoided by taking the pitch of rivets
equal to 1.5 times the diameter of rivet hole.
Answer: Option C
363. A beam of triangular section is placed with its base horizontal.
The maximum shear stress occurs at
(A) Apex of the triangle
(B) Mid of the height
(C) Centre of gravity of the triangle
(D) Base of the triangle
Answer: Option B
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364. The Young's modulus of a material is 125 GPa and Poisson’s
ratio is 0.25. The modulus of rigidity of me material is
(A) 30 GPa
(B) 50 GPa
(C) 80 GPa
(D) 100 GPa
Answer: Option B
365. In the above question, the normal stress on an oblique section will
be maximum, when ‘θ’ is equal to
(A) 0°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 90°
Answer: Option A
366. In a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed
load w per unit length, the point of contraflexure
(A) Lies in the centre of the beam
(B) Lies at the ends of the beam
(C) Depends upon the length of beam
(D) Does not exist
Answer: Option D
367. In case of eccentrically loaded struts __________ is preferred.
(A) Solid section
(B) Hollow section
(C) Composite section
(D) Reinforced section
Answer: Option C
368. In a thin cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure p, the
ratio of longitudinal stress to the hoop stress is
(A) 1/2
(B) 3/4
(C) 1
(D) 1.5
Answer: Option A
369. The unit of modulus of elasticity is same as those of
(A) Stress, strain and pressure
(B) Stress, force and modulus of rigidity
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(C) Strain, force and pressure
(D) Stress, pressure and modulus of rigidity
Answer: Option D
370. The stress at which the extension of the material takes place more
quickly as compared to the increase in load, is called
(A) Elastic limit
(B) Yield point
(C) Ultimate point
(D) Breaking point
Answer: Option B
371. Two bars of different materials and same size are subjected to the
same tensile force. If the bars have unit elongation in the ratio of 2:5,
then the ratio of modulus of elasticity of the two materials will be
(A) 2 : 5
(B) 5 : 2
(C) 4 : 3
(D) 3 : 4
Answer: Option B
the maximum radial stress at the inner surface of the shell is
(A) Zero
(B) p (tensile)
(C) -p (compressive)
(D) 2p (tensile)
Answer: Option C
373. When a body is subjected to direct tensile stresses (σx and σy) in
two mutually perpendicular directions, accompanied by a simple
shear stress τxy, then in Mohr's circle method, the circle radius is
taken as
(A) [(σx - σy)/2] + τ
(B) [(σx + σy)/2] + τ
(C) (1/2) × √[(σx - σy)² + 4τ²xy]
(D) (1/2) × √[(σx + σy)² + 4τ²xy]
Answer: Option C
374. A section of beam is said to be in pure bending, if it is subjected to
(A) Constant bending moment and constant shear force
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(B) Constant shear force and zero bending moment
(C) Constant bending moment and zero shear force
Answer: Option C
375. Modular ratio of the two materials is the ratio of
(A) Linear stress to linear strain
(B) Shear stress to shear strain
(C) Their modulus of elasticities
(D) Their modulus of rigidities
Answer: Option C
376. The relation between modulus of elasticity (E) and modulus of
rigidity (C) is given by
(A) C = m.E/2 (m + 1)
(B) C = 2(m + 1)/m.E
(C) C = 2m.E/(m + 1)
(D) C = (m + 1)/2m.E
Answer: Option A
377. The Rankine's constant for a mild steel column with both ends
hinged is
(A) 1/750
(B) 1/1600
(C) 1/7500
(D) 1/9000
Answer: Option C
378. In a watch, the spring is used to store strain energy. This energy
is released
(A) To stop the watch
(B) To run the watch
(C) To change the time
(D) All of these
Answer: Option B
379. When a column is subjected to an eccentric load, the stress
induced in the column will be
(A) Direct stress only
(B) Bending stress only
(C) Shear stress only
(D) Direct and bending stress both
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Answer: Option D
380. Two shafts 'A' and 'B' are made of same material. The shaft 'A' is
solid and has diameter D. The shaft 'B' is hollow with outer diameter
D and inner diameter D/2. The strength of hollow shaft in torsion is
_________ as that of solid shaft.
(A) 1/16
(B) 1/8
(C) 1/4
(D) 15/16
Answer: Option D
381. A thick cylindrical shell having r₀ and ri as outer and inner radii,
is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The maximum tangential
stress at the inner surface of the shell is
(A) [p (r₀² + ri²)] / (r₀² - ri²)
(B) [p (r₀² - ri²)] / (r₀² + ri²)
(C) 2pri²/ (r₀² - ri²)
(D) (r₀² - ri²) / 2pri²
Answer: Option A
382. A beam of uniform strength has
(A) Same cross-section throughout the beam
(B) Same bending stress at every section
(C) Same bending moment at every section
(D) Same shear stress at every section
Answer: Option B
383. When a circular bar tapering uniformly from diameter d₁, at one
end to diameter d₂ at the other end, is subjected to an increase in
temperature (t), then the thermal stress induced is (where α =
Coefficient of linear expansion, and E = Modulus of elasticity for the
bar material)
(A) α.t.E.d₁/d₂
(B) α.t.d₁/E.d₂
(C) α.t.d₂/d₁.E
(D) d₁.t/ α.E.d₂
Answer: Option A
384. A shaft of diameter (D) is subjected to a twisting moment (T) and
a bending moment (M). If the maximum bending stress is equal to
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maximum shear stress developed, then ‘M’ is equal to
(A) T/2
(B) T
(C) 2T
(D) 4T
Answer: Option A
385. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam of length ‘l’ carrying a
total load ‘W’ uniformly distributed over the whole length is
(A) Wl3/48 EI
(B) Wl3/96 EI
(C) Wl3/192 EI
(D) Wl3/384 EI
Answer: Option D
386. Factor of safety is defined as the ratio of
(A) Ultimate stress to working stress
(B) Working stress to ultimate stress
(C) Breaking stress to ultimate stress
(D) Ultimate stress to breaking stress
Answer: Option A
387. A pressure vessel is said to be a thin shell when the ratio of wall
thickness of the vessel to its diameter is __________ 1/10.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
388. The unit of stress in S.I. units is
(A) N/mm²
(B) kN/mm²
(C) N/m²
Answer: Option D
389. A rod is enclosed centrally in a tube and the assembly is tightened
by rigid washers. If the assembly is subjected to a compressive load,
then
(A) Rod is under compression
(B) Tube is under compression
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(C) Both rod and tube are under compression
(D) Tube is under tension and rod is under compression
Answer: Option C
390. The load required to produce a unit deflection in a spring is
called
(A) Flexural rigidity
(B) Torsional rigidity
(C) Spring stiffness
(D) Young's modulus
Answer: Option C
391. The bending moment at a section tends to bend or deflect the
beam and the internal stresses resist its bending. The resistance
offered by the internal stresses, to the bending, is called
(A) Compressive stress
(B) Shear stress
(C) Bending stress
(D) Elastic modulus
Answer: Option C
392. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (D), length (l) and thickness (t)
is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The hoop stress in the shell is
(A) pd/t
(B) pd/2t
(C) pd/4t
(D) pd/6t
Answer: Option B
393. Fatigue test is carried out for
(A) Stresses varying between two limits of equal value, but of
opposite sign
(B) Stresses varying between two limits of unequal value, but of
opposite sign
(C) Stresses varying between two limits of unequal value but of same
sign
Answer: Option D
394. The neutral axis of a beam is subjected to __________ stress.
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum tensile
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(C) Minimum tensile
(D) Maximum compressive
Answer: Option A
395. Two beams, one of circular cross-section and the other of square
cross-section, have equal areas of cross-sections. When these beams
are subjected to bending,
(A) Both beams are equally economical
(B) Square beam is more economical
(C) Circular beam is more economical
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
396. A body is subjected to two normal stresses 20 kN/m² (tensile) and
10 kN/m² (compressive) acting perpendicular to each other. The
maximum shear stress is
(A) 5 kN/m²
(B) 10 kN/m²
(C) 15 kN/m²
(D) 20 kN/m²
Answer: Option C
397. The thermal or temperature stress is a function of
(A) Increase in temperature
(B) Modulus of elasticity
(C) Coefficient of linear expansion
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
398. For long columns, the value of buckling load is __________
crushing load.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
plane, then tangential or shear stress on an oblique section of the body
inclined at an angle ‘θ’ to the normal of the section is
(A) σ sin 2θ
(B) σ cos 2θ
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(C) σ/2 sin 2θ
(D) σ/2 cos 2θ
Answer: Option C
400. Whenever some external system of forces acts on a body, it
undergoes some deformation. As the body undergoes some
deformation, it sets up some resistance to the deformation. This
resistance per unit area to deformation, is called
(A) Strain
(B) Stress
(C) Pressure
Answer: Option B
column of length (l) with one end fixed and the other end hinged, is
(A) π²EI/l²
(B) π²EI/4l²
(C) 2π²EI/l²
(D) 4π²EI/l²
Answer: Option C
402. When there is a sudden increase or decrease in shear force
diagram between any two points, it indicates that there is a
(A) Point load at the two points
(B) No loading between the two points
(C) Uniformly distributed load between the two points
(D) Uniformly varying load between the two points
Answer: Option A
column of length (l) fixed at both ends is __________ the crippling
load for a similar column hinged at both ends.
(A) Equal to
(B) Two times
(C) Four times
(D) Eight times
Answer: Option C
404. A load which is spread over a beam in such a manner that it
varies uniformly over the whole length of abeam is called uniformly
________ load.
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(A) Distributed
(B) Varying
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
(A) A continuous beam has only two supports at the ends.
(B) A uniformly distributed load spreads uniformly over the whole
length of a beam.
(C) The bending moment is maximum where shear force is
maximum.
(D) The maximum bending moment of a simply supported beam of
length l with a central point load W is Wl/8.
Answer: Option B
406. The shear force in the centre of a simply supported beam
carrying a uniformly distributed load of ‘w’ per unit length, is
(A) Zero
(B) wl²/2
(C) wl²/4
(D) wl²/8
Answer: Option A
407. Every direct stress is always accompanied by a strain in its own
direction and an opposite kind of strain in every direction, at right
angles to it. Such a strain is known as
(A) Linear strain
(B) Lateral strain
(D) Shear strain
Answer: Option B
408. A beam extending beyond the supports is called
(B) Fixed beam
(D) Cantilever beam
Answer: Option C
409. The shear force and bending moment are zero at the free end of a
cantilever beam, if it carries a
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(A) Point load at the free end
(B) Point load at the middle of its length
(C) Uniformly distributed load over the whole length
Answer: Option C
410. Compression members always tend to buckle in the direction of
the
(A) Axis of load
(B) Perpendicular to the axis of load
(C) Minimum cross section
(D) Least radius of gyration
Answer: Option D
411. In order to avoid tearing off the plate at an edge, the distance
from the centre of the rivet hole to the nearest edge of the plate (i.e.
margin) should be (where d = Diameter of rivet hole in mm)
(A) d
(B) 1.5 d
(C) 2 d
(D) 2.5 d
Answer: Option B
412. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (D) length (l) and thickness (t)
is subjected to an internal pressure (p). The longitudinal stress in the
shell is
(A) pd/t
(B) pd/2t
(C) pd/4t
(D) pd/6t
Answer: Option C
413. The maximum shear stress developed in a beam of rectangular
section is __________ the average shear stress.
(A) Equal to
(B) 4/3 times
(C) 1.5 times
(D) Twice
Answer: Option C
414. The distance between the centre of a rivet hole to the nearest edge
of plate, is called
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(A) Margin
(B) Pitch
(C) Back pitch
(D) Diagonal pitch
Answer: Option A
415. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum
tensile stress is developed on the
(A) Top layer
(B) Bottom layer
(C) Neutral axis
(D) Every cross-section
Answer: Option A
416. The strain energy stored in a body, when suddenly loaded, is
__________ the strain energy stored when same load is applied
gradually.
(A) Equal to
(B) One-half
(C) Twice
(D) Four times
Answer: Option D
417. The load at which the column just buckles, is known as
(A) Buckling load
(B) Critical load
(C) Crippling load
Answer: Option D
418. The steel bars in a reinforced cement concrete beam are
embedded __________ of the beam.
(A) In the centre
(B) Near the bottom
(C) Near the top
(D) At any position
Answer: Option B
419. A reinforced cement concrete beam is considered to be made of
(A) Homogeneous material
(B) Heterogeneous material
(C) Composite material
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(D) Isotropic material
Answer: Option B
420. Principle plane is a plane on which the shear stress is
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
421. The polar moment of inertia of a hollow shaft of outer diameter
(D) and inner diameter (d) is
(A) π/16 (D³ - d³)
(B) π/16 (D⁴ - d⁴)
(C) π/32 (D⁴ - d⁴)
(D) π/64 (D⁴ - d⁴)
Answer: Option C
422. The springs in brakes and clutches are used to
(A) To apply forces
(B) To measure forces
(C) To store strain energy
(D) To absorb shocks
Answer: Option A
423. A beam encastered at both the ends is called
(B) Fixed beam
(C) Cantilever beam
(D) Continuous beam
Answer: Option B
424. A spring used to absorb shocks and vibrations is
(A) Conical spring
(B) Torsion spring
(C) Leaf spring
(D) Disc spring
Answer: Option C
425. The bending moment at the free end of a cantilever beam is
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
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(C) Maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
426. The hoop stress in a thin cylindrical shell is
(C) Radial stress
(D) Circumferential tensile stress
Answer: Option D
427. In a stress-strain diagram as shown in the below figure, the curve
‘A’ represents
(A) Mild steel
(B) Soft brass
(C) Low carbon steel
(D) Cold rolled steel
Answer: Option B
428. The ratio of bulk modulus to Young's modulus for a Poisson's
ratio of 0.25 will be
(A) 1/3
(B) 2/3
(C) 1
(D) 3/2
Answer: Option B
429. The ratio of shear modulus to the modulus of elasticity for a
Poisson's ratio of 0.4 will be
(A) 5/7
(B) 7/5
(C) 5/14
(D) 14/5
Answer: Option C
430. A column of length (l) with both ends fixed may be considered as
equivalent to a column of length __________ with one end fixed and
the other end free.
(A) l/8
(B) l/4
(C) l/2
(D) l
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Answer: Option B
431. The pull required to shear off a rivet, in double shear, per pitch
length is
(A) π/4 × d² × σt
(B) π/4 × d² × τ
(C) π/2 × d² × σt
(D) π/2 × d² × τ
Answer: Option D
432. The bending stress in abeam is __________ bending moment.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) Directly proportional to
Answer: Option D
433. When a change in length takes place, the strain is known as
(A) Linear strain
(B) Lateral strain
(D) Shear strain
Answer: Option A
434. The volumetric strain is the ratio of the
(A) Original thickness to the change in thickness
(B) Change in thickness to the original thickness
(C) Original volume to the change in volume
(D) Change in volume to the original volume
Answer: Option D
435. A welded joint as compared to a riveted joint has __________
strength.
(A) Same
(B) Less
(C) More
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
436. In a beam subjected to pure bending, the intensity of stress in any
fibre is _________ the distance of the fibre from the neutral axis.
(A) Equal to
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(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) Directly proportional to
Answer: Option D
437. The relation between Young's modulus (E) and bulk modulus (K)
is given by
(A) k = (3m - 2)/m.E
(B) k = m.E/(3m - 2)
(C) k = 3(m - 2)/m.E
(D) k = m.E/3(m - 2)
Answer: Option D
438. The shear force of a cantilever beam of length l carrying a
uniformly distributed load of w per unit length is __________ at the
fixed end.
(A) Zero
(B) wl/4
(C) wl/2
(D) wl
Answer: Option D
439. The strength of the shaft is judged by the____________.
(A) Torque transmitted by the shaft
(B) Length of the shaft
(C) Dia. of the shaft
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
440. A simply supported beam 'A' of length l, breadth b, and depth d
carries a central point load W. Another beam 'B' has the same length
and depth but its breadth is doubled. The deflection of beam 'B' will
be __________ as compared to beam 'A'.
(A) One-fourth
(B) One-half
(C) Double
(D) Four times
Answer: Option B
441. The shear stress at the centre of a circular shaft under torsion is
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
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(C) Maximum
(D) Infinity
Answer: Option A
442. The maximum deflection of a fixed beam carrying a central point
load lies at
(A) Fixed ends
(B) Centre of beam
(C) l/3 from fixed ends
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
443. In a simple bending theory, one of the assumptions is that the
material of the beam is isotropic. This assumption means that the
(A) Normal stress remains constant in all directions
(B) Normal stress varies linearly in the material
(C) Elastic constants are same in all the directions
(D) Elastic constants varies linearly in the material
Answer: Option C
maximum normal stress will be
(A) -100 MPa
(B) 250 MPa
(C) 300 MPa
(D) 400 MPa
Answer: Option D
445. When a closely-coiled helical spring is subjected to an axial load,
it is said to be under
(A) Bending
(B) Shear
(C) Torsion
(D) Crushing
Answer: Option C
446. In a beam where shear force changes sign, the bending moment
will be
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
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(D) Infinity
Answer: Option C
447. The strength of the un-riveted or solid plate per pitch length is
(A) d.t.σc
(B) p.t.σt
(C) (p - d) t.σt
(D) π/2 × d² × τ
Answer: Option B
448. The tensile test is carried on __________ materials.
(A) Ductile
(B) Brittle
(C) Malleable
(D) Plastic
Answer: Option A
449. The bending moment diagram for a simply supported beam
loaded in its centre is
(A) A right angled triangle
(B) An isosceles triangle
(C) An equilateral triangle
(D) A rectangle
Answer: Option B
450. A bar of length ‘L’ metres extends by ‘l’ mm under a tensile force
of ‘P’. The strain produced in the bar is
(A) l/L
(B) 0.1 l/L
(C) 0.01 l/L
(D) 0.001 l/L
Answer: Option D
451. A closely coiled helical spring is of mean diameter (D) and spring
wire diameter (d). The spring index is the ratio of
(A) 1/d
(B) 1/D
(C) D/d
(D) d/D
Answer: Option C
452. The compression test is carried on __________ materials.
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(A) Ductile
(B) Brittle
(C) Malleable
(D) Plastic
Answer: Option B
453. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 50%, then ratio of
rivet hole diameter to the pitch of rivets is
(A) 0.20
(B) 0.30
(C) 0.50
(D) 0.60
Answer: Option C
454. The breaking stress is __________ the ultimate stress.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
455. The section modulus (Z) of a beam is given by
(A) I/y
(B) I.y
(C) y/I
(D) M/I
Answer: Option A
456. The Rankine's formula holds good for
(A) Short columns
(B) Long columns
(C) Both short and long columns
(D) Weak columns
Answer: Option C
457. When two main plates are kept in alignment butting each other
and riveted with cover plate on both sides of the main plates with two
rows of rivets in each main plate, the joint is known as ________
double cover butt joint.
(A) Single riveted
(B) Double riveted
(C) Multi riveted
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
458. When a shaft is subjected to a twisting moment, every cross-
section of the shaft will be under
(A) Tensile stress
(C) Shear stress
(D) Bending stress
Answer: Option C
459. The maximum bending moment of a simply supported beam of
span ‘l’ and carrying a point load ‘W’ at the centre of beam, is
(A) Wl/4
(B) Wl/2
(C) Wl
(D) Wl²/4
Answer: Option A
460. A tensile test is performed on a mild steel round bar. Its diameter
after fracture will
(A) Remain same
(B) Increase
(C) Decrease
(D) Depend upon rate of loading
Answer: Option C
461. Transverse fillet welds are designed for
(A) Tensile strength
(B) Compressive strength
(C) Shear strength
(D) Bending strength
Answer: Option A
462. The product of the tangential force acting on the shaft and its
distance from the axis of the shaft (i.e. radius of shaft) is known as
(A) Bending moment
(B) Twisting moment
(C) Torsional rigidity
(D) Flexural rigidity
Answer: Option B
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463. The unit of strain is
(A) N-mm
(B) N/mm
(C) mm
(D) No unit
Answer: Option D
464. In spring balances, the spring is used
(A) To apply forces
(C) To absorb shocks
(D) To store strain energy
Answer: Option B
planes. The maximum shear stress will be
(A) 400 MPa
(B) 500 MPa
(C) 900 MPa
(D) 1400 MPa
Answer: Option B
466. A lap joint is always in __________ shear.
(A) Single
(B) Double
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
467. The compressive strength of brittle materials is __________ its
tensile strength.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
468. A column that fails due to direct stress, is called
(A) Short column
(B) Long column
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(C) Weak column
(D) Medium column
Answer: Option A
Strength of Materials: Test 01

01. Two shafts 'A' and 'B' transmit the same power. The speed of shaft
'A' is 250 r.p.m. and that of shaft 'B' is 300 r.p.m. The shaft 'B' has the
greater diameter.
(A) True
(B) False
02. The limit of eccentricity is based upon no tension condition.
(A) True
(B) False
03. The shear force of a simply supported beam carrying a central
point load changes sign at its midpoint.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
04. The maximum shear stress of a beam of triangular section occurs
above the neutral axis.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
05. The rivets are made from ductile material.
(A) Yes
(B) No
06. The efficiency of a riveted joint is the ratio of the strength of the
joint to the strength of the solid plate.
(A) True
(B) False
07. Modulus of resilience is the proof resilience per unit volume of a
material.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
08. If the modulus of elasticity of a material is twice its modulus of
rigidity, then the
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Poisson's ratio of the material is equal to zero.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
09. A pressure vessel is said to be a thin shell when it is made of thin
sheets.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
10. The bending moment diagram for a cantilever beam of length ‘l’
and carrying a gradually varying load from zero at the free end and w
per unit length at the fixed end is a parabolic curve.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
11. The bending moment at the centre of a simply supported beam
with a gradually varying load from zero at both ends to w per metre at
the centre is wl/4.
(A) Yes
(B) No
12. In a thick cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure (p), the
tangential stress is always a tensile stress where as the radial stress is a
compressive stress
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
13. The maximum bending moment of a cantilever beam of length ‘l’
and carrying a uniformly distributed load of ‘w’ per unit length lies at
the middle of its length.
(A) True
(B) False
14. If the magnitude of direct stress and bending stress is equal, then
there will be zero stress at one of the extreme ends of a column.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
15. The neutral axis of the symmetrical beam does not pass through
the centriod of the beam.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
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16. A uniformly distributed load may be assumed to behave like a
point load at the centre of gravity of the load for all sorts of
calculations.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
17. The maximum shear stress in a thin spherical shell subjected to an
internal pressure (p) is zero.
(A) Yes
(B) No
18. The equivalent length, of a given column with given end
conditions, is the length of an equivalent column of the same material
and cross-section with hinged ends, and having the value of crippling
load equal to that of the given column.
(A) True
(B) False
19. The value of equivalent length is taken to be half of the actual
length of a column with one end fixed and the other end free.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
20. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load of a column
is given by p = π² EI/Cl². In the Euler's formula, the value of C for a
column with both ends fixed is 4.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
Answers: Strength of Materials Test 01

01. Answer: B 02. Answer: A 03. Answer: A 04. Answer: A
05. Answer: A 06. Answer: A 07. Answer: A 08. Answer: A
09. Answer: B 10. Answer: A 11. Answer: B 12. Answer: A
17. Answer: A 18. Answer: A 19. Answer: B 20. Answer: B

01. A simply supported beam of length l is loaded with a uniformly
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distributed load of w per unit length. The maximum deflection is and
lies at the centre of the beam.
(A) True
(B) False
02. A simply supported beam is one which is supported on more than
two supports.
(A) True
(B) False
03. If the diameter of pressure vessel is 15 times the wall thickness, the
vessel is said to be a thick shell.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
04. The perpendicular distance between the centre lines of the
successive rows, is called pitch.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
05. If there is a fall in the temperature of a composite body, then a
member having greater coefficient of linear expansion will be
subjected to compressive stress.
(A) True
(B) False
06. The direct stress, across a principal plane, is known as principal
stress.
(A) Yes
(B) No
07. In a beam of uniform strength, the bending stress developed is
constant and is equal to the allowable stress at every section of the
beam.
(A) True
(B) False
08. The critical neutral axis of a reinforced cement concrete beam is
based on the principle that the neutral axis is situated at the centre of
gravity of a given section.
(A) True
(B) False
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09. A thick pressure vessel is always used for the generation of steam,
as it can withstand high pressures.
(A) True
(B) False
10. A simply supported beam 'A' of length l, breadth b and depth d
carries a central point load W. Another bream 'B' has the same length
and breadth but its depth is doubled. The deflection of beam 'B' will
be double as compared to beam 'A'.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
11. The actual neutral axis of a reinforced cement concrete beam is
based on the principle that the moment of areas of compression and
tension zones at the neutral axis are equal.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
12. Poisson's ratio is the ratio of linear stein to the volumetric strain.
(A) True
(B) False
13. The maximum bending moment for a simply supported beam with
a gradually varying load from zero at both ends and w per metre at
the centre, lies at the centre of a beam.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
14. In a riveted joint, when the rivets in the adjacent rows are
staggered in such a way that every rivet is in the middle of the two
rivets of the opposite row, the joint is said to be diamond riveted.
(A) Yes
(B) No
15. In a cantilever beam of length l subjected to a uniformly
distributed load of w per unit length, the maximum deflection lies at
the fixed end.
(A) Yes
(B) No
16. When there is no increase or decrease in shear force between two
points, it indicates that there is no change in the bending moment
between these points.
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(A) True
(B) False
17. In order to know whether a column is long or short, we must know
its slenderness ratio.
(A) True
(B) False
18. A beam supported at its both ends is not a simply supported beam.
(A) True
(B) False
19. When the shear force diagram between any two points is an
inclined straight line, it indicates that there is a uniformly varying
load between the two points.
(A) Yes
(B) No
20. For the two shafts connected in parallel and subjected to twisting
moment, the angle of twist of each shaft will be same.
(A) Yes
(B) No

01. Answer: A 02. Answer: B 03. Answer: A 04. Answer: B
09. Answer: B 10. Answer: B 11. Answer: A 12. Answer: B
13. Answer: A 14. Answer: B 15. Answer: B 16. Answer: A
17. Answer: A 18. Answer: B 19. Answer: A 20. Answer: A

01. For biaxial stress, the planes of maximum shear are at right angles
to each other and are inclined at 45° to the principal planes.
(A) True
(B) False
02. The shear force at a certain point on a beam changes sign from +ve
value to ve value or vice versa. The bending moment at that point will
be zero.
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(A) True
(B) False
03. A shear stress across a plane, is always accompanied by a
balancing shear stress across the plane and normal to it.
(A) True
(B) False
04. The torsional rigidity of a shaft is expressed by the torque required
to produce a twist of one radian per unit length of a shaft.
(A) True
(B) False
05. The maximum bending moment of a simply supported beam with
central point load lies at the point of loading.
(A) True
(B) False
06. The values of equivalent length (L) and actual length (l) of a
column for both ends hinged is the same.
(A) Yes
(B) No
07. The stiffness of a closely-coiled helical spring is __________
proportional to number of turns.
(A) Directly
(B) Inversely
08. According to Euler's column theory, the crippling load of a column
is given by p = π² EI/Cl². In the Euler's formula, the value of C for a
column with one end fixed and the other end hinged, is 1/2.
(A) True
(B) False
09. When a rectangular beam is loaded longitudinally, the shear force
develops on the top layer.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
10. A load which acts at a point on a beam is not called uniformly
distributed load.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
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11. On one side of a neutral axis of a beam, there is a tensile stress and
on the other side of the beam there is a compressive stress.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
12. The thermal stress __________ upon the cross-sectional area of the
bar.
(A) Depends
(B) Does not depend
13. The total strain energy stored in a body is called proof resilience.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
14. A spring, when loaded, is permanently distorted and recover its
original shape when the load is removed.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
15. In case of an over-reinforced beam, the depth of actual neutral axis
is the same as that of the critical neutral axis.
(A) True
(B) False
16. The maximum shear stress is equal to the radius of Mohr's circle.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
17. The bending moment at the ends of a simply supported beam will
be zero.
(A) Yes
(B) No
18. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σ), the
maximum normal stress is equal to the direct tensile stress.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
19. When a material is loaded within elastic limit, the material will
regain its shape and size when the load is removed.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
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20. The distance between the centres of rivets in adjacent rows of
zigzag riveted joint, is called back pitch.
(A) True
(B) False
05. Answer: A 06. Answer: A 07. Answer: B 08. Answer: A
09. Answer: B 10. Answer: A 11. Answer: A 12. Answer: B
17. Answer: A 18. Answer: A 19. Answer: A 20. Answer: B
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Engineering Thermodynamics:
01. When a gas is heated, change takes place in

(A) Temperature
(B) Pressure
(C) Volume
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
02. One molecule of oxygen consists of ________ atoms of oxygen.
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 16
Answer: Option A
03. Which of the following variables controls the physical properties of
a perfect gas?
(A) Pressure
(B) Temperature
(C) Volume
Answer: Option D
04. The distillation carried out in such a way that the liquid with the
lowest boiling point is first evaporated and recondensed, then the
liquid with the next higher boiling point is then evaporated and
recondensed, and so on until all the available liquid fuels are
separately recovered in the sequence of their boiling points. Such a
process is called
(A) Cracking
(B) Fractional distillation
(C) Full distillation
(D) Carbonisation
Answer: Option B
05. Work done in a free expansion process is
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum
(C) Minimum
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(D) Positive
Answer: Option A
06. Which of the following laws is applicable for the behaviour of a
perfect gas?
(A) Boyle's law
(B) Charles’ law
(C) Gay Lussac’s law
Answer: Option D
07. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is
(A) Centigrade
(B) Celsius
(C) Fahrenheit
(D) Kelvin
Answer: Option D
08. A cycle consisting of _________ and two isothermal processes is
known as Stirling cycle.
(A) Two isentropic
(B) One constant pressure, one constant volume
(C) Two constant volumes
(D) Two constant pressures
Answer: Option C
09. A tri-atomic molecule consists of __________ atoms.
(A) Three
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Four
Answer: Option A
10. The unit of mass in S.I. units is
(A) Kilogram
(B) Gram
(C) Tonne
(D) Quintal
Answer: Option A
11. The unit of time in S.I. units is
(A) Second
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(B) Minute
(C) Hour
(D) Day
Answer: Option A
12. The unit of length in S.I. units is
(A) Meter
(B) Centimetre
(C) Kilometre
(D) Millimetre
Answer: Option A
13. Mond gas is obtained by
(A) Partial combustion of coal, coke, anthracite coal or charcoal in a
mixed air steam blast
(B) Carbonisation of bituminous coal
(C) Passing steam over incandescent coke
(D) Passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about
650°C
Answer: Option D
14. The main cause for the irreversibility is
(A) Unrestricted expansion
(B) Mechanical and fluid friction
(C) Heat transfer with a finite temperature difference
Answer: Option D
15. The unit of energy in S.I. units is
(A) watt
(B) Joule
(C) joule/s
(D) joule/m
Answer: Option B
16. According to Dalton's law, the total pressure of the mixture of
gases is equal to
(A) Greater of the partial pressures of all
(B) Average of the partial pressures of all
(C) Sum of the partial pressures of all
(D) Sum of the partial pressures of all divided by average molecular
weight
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Answer: Option C
17. Which of the following can be regarded as gas so that gas laws
could be applicable, within the commonly encountered temperature
limits?
(A) O₂, N₂, steam, CO₂
(B) O₂, N₂, water vapour
(C) SO₂, NH₃, CO₂, moisture
(D) O₂, N₂, H₂, air
Answer: Option D
18. The measurement of a thermodynamic property known as
temperature is based on
(A) First law of thermodynamics
(B) Second law of thermodynamics
(C) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
19. For a perfect gas, according to Boyle’s law (where P = Absolute
pressure, V = Volume and T = Absolute temperature)
(A) V/T = constant, if p is kept constant
(B) P v = constant, if T is kept constant
(C) T/P = constant, if v is kept constant
(D) P/T = constant, if v is kept constant
Answer: Option B
20. The gas turbine cycle with regenerator improves
(A) Work ratio
(B) Thermal efficiency
(C) Avoid pollution
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
21. The compression ratio is the ratio of
(A) Total volume to swept volume
(B) Swept volume to clearance volume
(C) Swept volume to total volume
(D) Total volume to clearance volume
Answer: Option D
22. The unit of pressure in S.I. units is
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(A) kg/cm²
(B) mm of water column
(C) Pascal
(D) Dyne per square cm
Answer: Option C
23. A closed system is one in which
(A) Mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy
may do so
(B) Mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(C) Neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(D) Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
Answer: Option A
24. Temperature of a gas is produced due to
(A) Its heating value
(B) Kinetic energy of molecules
(C) Repulsion of molecules
(D) Surface tension of molecules
Answer: Option B
25. According to kinetic theory of gases, the absolute zero temperature
is attained when
(A) Volume of the gas is zero
(B) Pressure of the gas is zero
(C) Kinetic energy of the molecules is zero
(D) Specific heat of gas is zero
Answer: Option C
26. Those substances which have so far not been resolved by any
means into other substances of simpler form are called
(A) Atoms
(B) Compounds
(C) Elements
(D) Molecules
Answer: Option C
27. Coke is produced
(A) When coal is strongly heated continuously for 42 to 48 hours in
the absence of air in a closed vessel
(B) From the finely ground coal by moulding under pressure with or
without a binding material
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(C) When coal is first dried and then crushed to a fine powder by
pulverising machine
(D) By heating wood with a limited supply of air to a temperature not
less than 280°C
Answer: Option A
28. The hard coke is obtained when carbonisation of coal is carried
out at
(A) 500° to 700°C
(B) 700° to 900°C
(C) 300° to 500°C
(D) 900° to 1100°C
Answer: Option D
29. Which of the following is an intensive property of a
thermodynamic system?
(A) Mass
(B) Temperature
(C) Energy
(D) Volume
Answer: Option B
30. Otto cycle is also known as
(A) Constant pressure cycle
(B) Constant volume cycle
(C) Constant temperature cycle
(D) Constant temperature and pressure cycle
Answer: Option B
31. Superheated vapour behaves
(A) Exactly as gas
(B) As steam
(C) As ordinary vapour
(D) Approximately as a gas
Answer: Option D
32. Absolute zero pressure will occur
(A) At sea level
(B) When molecular momentum of the system becomes zero
(C) Under vacuum conditions
(D) At a temperature of 273°K
Answer: Option B
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33. No liquid can exist as liquid at
(A) 273°K
(B) Vacuum
(C) Zero pressure
(D) Centre of earth
Answer: Option C
34. The unit of power in S.I. units is
(A) Newton
(B) Pascal
(C) Erg
(D) Watt
Answer: Option D
35. The condition of perfect vacuum, i.e., absolute zero pressure can
be attained at
(A) A temperature of 273.16°C
(B) A temperature of 0°C
(C) A temperature of 273 °K
(D) A negative pressure and 0°C temperature
Answer: Option A
36. The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon
(A) Temperature limits
(B) Volume compression ratio
(C) Cut-off ratio and compression ratio
(D) Pressure ratio
Answer: Option A
37. The natural solid fuel is
(A) Wood
(B) Coke
(C) Pulverised coal
(D) Anthracite coal
Answer: Option A
38. Intensive property of a system is one whose value
(A) Depends on the mass of the system, like volume
(B) Does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature,
pressure, etc.
(C) Is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
(D) Is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
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Answer: Option B
39. Specific heat of air at constant pressure is equal to
(A) 0.17
(B) 0.21
(C) 0.24
(D) 1.0
Answer: Option C
40. Characteristic gas constant of a gas is equal to
(A) Cp /Cv
(B) Cv /Cp
(C) Cp - Cv
(D) Cp + Cv
Answer: Option C
41. The volumetric or molar specific heat at constant pressure is the
product of
(A) Molecular mass of the gas and the specific heat at constant
volume
(B) Atomic mass of the gas and the gas constant
(C) Molecular mass of the gas and the gas constant
Answer: Option D
42. The heat and mechanical energies are mutually convertible. This
statement was established by
(A) Boyle
(B) Charles
(C) Joule
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
43. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to
(A) 0.17
(B) 0.24
(C) 0.1
(D) 1.41
Answer: Option D
44. Boyle's law i.e. pV = constant is applicable to gases under
(A) All ranges of pressures
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(B) Only small range of pressures
(C) High range of pressures
(D) Steady change of pressures
Answer: Option B
45. The condition for the reversibility of a cycle is
(A) The pressure and temperature of the working substance must not
differ, appreciably, from those of the surroundings at any stage in the
process
(B) All the processes, taking place in the cycle of operation, must be
extremely slow
(C) The working parts of the engine must be friction free
Answer: Option D
46. The specific heat of water is
(A) 2.512
(B) 1.817
(C) 4.187
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
47. According to which law, all perfect gases change in volume by
1/273th of their original volume at 0°C for every 1°C change in
temperature when pressure remains constant
(A) Joule's law
(B) Boyle's law
(C) Gay Lussac’s law
(D) Charles' law
Answer: Option D
48. Gases have
(A) Only one value of specific heat
(B) Two values of specific heat
(C) No value of specific heat
(D) Under some conditions one value and sometimes two values of
specific heat
Answer: Option B
49. According to Avogadro's Hypothesis
(A) The molecular weights of all the perfect gases occupy the same
volume under same conditions of pressure and temperature
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(B) The sum of partial pressure of mixture of two gases is sum of the
two
(C) Product of the gas constant and the molecular weight of an ideal
gas is constant
(D) Gases have two values of specific heat
Answer: Option A
50. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are
(A) Quasi-static cycles
(B) Reversible cycles
(C) Semi-reversible cycles
(D) Irreversible cycles
Answer: Option B
51. Reheating in a gas turbine
(A) Increases the compressor work
(B) Increases the turbine work
(C) Increases the thermal efficiency
(D) Decreases the thermal efficiency
Answer: Option C
52. Extensive property of a system is one whose value
(A) Depends on the mass of the system like volume
(B) Does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature,
pressure, etc.
(C) Is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
(D) Is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
Answer: Option A
53. Work done in a free expansion process is
(A) +ve
(B) -ve
(C) Zero
(D) Maximum
Answer: Option C
54. The statement that molecular weights of all gases occupy the same
volume is known as
(A) Avogadro's hypothesis
(B) Dalton's law
(C) Gas law
(D) Law of thermodynamics
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Answer: Option A
55. To convert volumetric analysis to gravimetric analysis, the relative
volume of each constituent of the flue gases is
(A) Divided by its molecular weight
(B) Multiplied by its molecular weight
(C) Multiplied by its density
(D) Multiplied by its specific weight
Answer: Option B
56. If a gas is heated against a pressure, keeping the volume constant,
then work done will be equal to
(A) +ve
(B) -ve
(C) Zero
(D) Anywhere between zero and infinity
Answer: Option C
57. Which is the incorrect statement about Carnot cycle?
(A) All the heat engines are based on Carnot cycle.
(B) It is used as the alternate standard of comparison of all heat
engines.
(C) It provides concept of maximising work output between the two
temperature limits.
Answer: Option A
58. The fuel mostly used in steam boilers is
(A) Brown coal
(B) Peat
(C) Coking bituminous coal
(D) Non-coking bituminous coal
Answer: Option D
59. An isolated system is one in which
may do so
(B) Neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(C) Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(D) Mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
Answer: Option B
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60. Properties of substances like pressure, temperature and density, in
thermodynamic coordinates are
(A) Path functions
(B) Point functions
(C) Cyclic functions
(D) Real functions
Answer: Option B
61. Which of the following is the property of a system?
(A) Pressure and temperature
(B) Volume and density
(C) Enthalpy and entropy
Answer: Option D
62. On weight basis, air contains following parts of oxygen
(A) 21
(B) 23
(C) 25
(D) 73
Answer: Option B
63. Which of the following is not the intensive property?
(A) Pressure
(B) Temperature
(C) Density
(D) Heat
Answer: Option D
64. Which of the following items is not a path function?
(A) Heat
(B) Work
(C) Kinetic energy
(D) Thermal conductivity
Answer: Option D
65. Work done in an adiabatic process between a given pair of end
states depends on
(A) The end states only
(B) Particular adiabatic process
(C) The value of index ‘n’
(D) The value of heat transferred
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Answer: Option A
66. Heat and work are
(A) Point functions
(B) System properties
(C) Path functions
(D) Intensive properties
Answer: Option C
67. Which of the following parameters is constant for a mole for most
of the gases at a given temperature and pressure
(A) Enthalpy
(B) Volume
(C) Mass
(D) Entropy
Answer: Option B
68. According to Kelvin-Planck’s statement of second law of
thermodynamics,
(A) It is possible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process,
whose sole purpose is to convert heat energy into work
(B) It is impossible to construct a device which operates in a cyclic
process and produces no effect other than the transfer of heat from a cold
body to a hot body
(C) It is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic
process, whose sole purpose is to convert heat energy into work
Answer: Option C
69. According to Avogadro’s law
(A) The product of the gas constant and the molecular mass of an
ideal gas is constant
(B) The sum of partial pressure of the mixture of two gases is sum of
the two
(C) Equal volumes of all gases, at the same temperature and pressure,
contain equal number of molecules
Answer: Option C
70. The value of n = 1 in the polytropic process indicates it to be
(A) Reversible process
(B) Isothermal process
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(C) Adiabatic process
(D) Irreversible process
Answer: Option B
71. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel?
(A) Gasoline
(B) Kerosene
(C) Fuel oil
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
72. A process, in which the temperature of the working substance
remains constant during its expansion or compression, is called
(A) Adiabatic process
(B) Isothermal process
(C) Hyperbolic process
(D) Polytropic process
Answer: Option B
73. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure till its volume
is double. The final temperature is
(A) 54°C
(B) 327°C
(C) 108°C
(D) 654°C
Answer: Option B
74. If value of n is infinitely large in a polytropic process pVn = C, then
the process is known as constant
(A) Volume
(B) Pressure
(C) Temperature
(D) Enthalpy
Answer: Option A
75. The total energy of a molecule is shared equally by the various
degrees of freedom possessed by it. This law is known as
(A) Law of equipartition of energy
(B) Law of degradation of energy
(C) Law of conservation of energy
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
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76. In an isothermal process, the internal energy of gas molecules
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain constant
(D) May increase/decrease depending on the properties of gas
Answer: Option C
77. When cut-off ratio is ________; the efficiency of Diesel cycle
approaches to Otto cycle efficiency
(A) 1/4
(B) 0
(C) 1/5
(D) 2
Answer: Option B
78. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(A) Deals with conversion of mass and energy
(B) Deals with reversibility and irreversibility of process
(C) States that if two systems are both in equilibrium with a third
system, they are in thermal equilibrium with each other
(D) Deals with heat engines
Answer: Option C
79. If a certain amount of dry ice is mixed with same amount of water
at 80°C, the final temperature of mixture will be
(A) 80°C
(B) 0°C
(C) 40°C
(D) 20°C
Answer: Option B
80. The basis for measuring thermodynamic property of temperature
is given by
(A) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(B) First law of thermodynamics
(C) Second law of thermodynamics
(D) Third law of thermodynamics
Answer: Option A
81. An open cycle gas turbine works on
(A) Otto cycle
(B) Carnot cycle
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(C) Joule's cycle
(D) Stirling cycle
Answer: Option C
82. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(A) Anthracite coal
(B) Bituminous coal
(C) Peat
(D) Lignite
Answer: Option A
83. One watt is equal to
(A) 1 Nm/s
(B) 1 N/m
(C) 1 Nm/hr
(D) 1 kNm/hr
Answer: Option A
84. Work done is zero for the following process
(A) Constant volume
(B) Free expansion
(C) Throttling
Answer: Option D
85. For which of the following substances, the gas laws can be used
with minimum error
(A) Dry steam
(B) Wet steam
(C) Saturated steam
(D) Superheated steam
Answer: Option D
86. In a no flow reversible process for which p = (3V + 15) × 105 N/m²,
V changes from 1 m3 to 2 m3. The work done will be about
(A) 100 × 10⁵ joules
(B) 1 × 10⁵ joules
(C) 10 × 10⁵ joules
(D) 10 × 10⁵ kilo joules
Answer: Option C
87. An isothermal process is governed by
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(A) Gay-Lussac law
(B) Charles' law
(C) Boyle's law
(D) Avogadro's law
Answer: Option C
88. One kg of carbon requires 4/3 kg of oxygen and produces
________ kg of carbon monoxide gas.
(A) 8/3
(B) 7/3
(C) 11/7
(D) 11/3
Answer: Option B
89. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas
characteristic constant for all the gases in M.K.S. unit is
(A) 29.27 kgfm/mol °K
(B) 8314 kgfm/mol °K
(C) 848 kgfm/mol °K
(D) 427 kgfm/mol °K
Answer: Option C
90. On volume basis, air contains following parts of oxygen
(A) 21
(B) 23
(C) 25
(D) 77
Answer: Option A
91. In a free expansion process
(A) Work done is zero
(B) Heat transfer is zero
(C) Both (A) and (B) above
(D) Work done is zero but heat increases
Answer: Option C
92. If a gas vapour is allowed to expand through a very minute
aperture, then such a process is known as
(A) Free expansion
(B) Hyperbolic expansion
(C) Adiabatic expansion
(D) Throttling
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Answer: Option D
93. The specific heat of air increases with increase in
(A) Temperature
(B) Pressure
(C) Both pressure and temperature
(D) Variation of its constituents
Answer: Option A
94. The behaviour of a perfect gas, undergoing any change in the
variables which control physical properties, is governed by
(A) Boyle's law
(B) Gay-Lussac law
(C) Charles' law
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
95. A series of operations, which takes place in a certain order and
restore the initial conditions at the end, is known as
(A) Irreversible cycle
(B) Thermodynamic cycle
(C) Reversible cycle
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
96. If a fluid expands suddenly into vacuum through an orifice of large
dimension, then such a process is called
(A) Free expansion
(B) Hyperbolic expansion
(C) Adiabatic expansion
(D) Parabolic expansion
Answer: Option A
97. Which of the following processes are thermodynamically
reversible?
(A) Throttling
(B) Free expansion
(C) Constant volume and constant pressure
(D) Isothermal and adiabatic
Answer: Option D
98. Which of the following processes is irreversible process?
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(A) Isothermal
(B) Adiabatic
(C) Throttling
Answer: Option C
99. In order that a cycle be reversible, following must be satisfied
(A) Free expansion or friction resisted expansion/compression
process should not be encountered
(B) When heat is being absorbed, temperature of hot source and
working substance should be same
(C) When beat is being rejected, temperature of cold source and
working substance should be same
Answer: Option D
100. For a thermodynamic process to be reversible, the temperature
difference between hot body and working substance should be
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) Infinity
Answer: Option A
101. Carbonisation of coal consists of
(A) Drying and crushing the coal to a fine powder
(B) Moulding the finely ground coal under pressure with or without a
binding material
(C) Heating the wood with a limited supply of air to temperature not
less than 280°C
Answer: Option D
102. Which of the following gas is mostly used in town for street and
domestic lighting and heating?
(A) Mond gas
(B) Coal gas
(C) Producer gas
(D) Coke oven gas
Answer: Option B
103. Minimum work in compressor is possible when the value of
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adiabatic index ‘n’ is equal to
(A) 0.75
(B) 1
(C) 1.27
(D) 1.35
Answer: Option B
104. Molecular volume of any perfect gas at 600 × 103 N/m² and 27°C
will be
(A) 4.17 m3/kg mol
(B) 400 m3/kg mol
(C) 0.15 m3/kg mol
(D) 41.7 m3/kg mol
Answer: Option A
105. A gas is compressed in a cylinder by a movable piston to a volume
one half its original volume. During the process 300 kJ heat left the
gas and internal energy remained same. The work done on gas in Nm
will be
(A) 300 Nm
(B) 300,000 Nm
(C) 30 Nm
(D) 3000 Nm
Answer: Option B
106. Isochoric process is one in which
(A) Free expansion takes place
(B) Very little mechanical work is done by the system
(C) No mechanical work is done by the system
(D) All parameters remain constant
Answer: Option C
107. According to first law of thermodynamics
(A) Work done by a system is equal to heat transferred by the system
(B) Total internal energy of a system during a process remains
constant
(C) Internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remain
constant
(D) Total energy of a system remains constant
Answer: Option D
108. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency of dual combustion
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cycle is
(A) Greater than Diesel cycle and less than Otto cycle
(B) Greater than Diesel cycle
(C) Less than Diesel cycle
(D) Less than Diesel cycle and greater than Otto cycle
Answer: Option A
109. When two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body,
they are also in thermal equilibrium with each other. This statement is
called
(D) Kelvin Planck's law
Answer: Option A
110. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be
converted from one form to other is inferred from
(A) Zeroth low of thermodynamic
(C) Second law to thermodynamics
(D) Basic law of thermodynamics
Answer: Option B
111. First law of thermodynamics furnishes the relationship between
(A) Heat and work
(B) Heat, work and properties of the system
(C) Various properties of the system
(D) Various thermodynamic processes
Answer: Option B
112. Change in enthalpy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred
if the reversible process takes place at constant
(A) Pressure
(B) Temperature
(C) Volume
(D) Internal energy
Answer: Option A
113. The specific heat at constant volume is
(A) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass
of gas through one degree, at constant volume
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(B) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass
of gas through one degree, at constant pressure
(C) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of
water through one degree
Answer: Option A
114. In an irreversible process, there is a
(A) No loss of heat
(B) Loss of heat
(C) Gain of heat
(D) No gain of heat
Answer: Option B
115. In an isothermal process, the internal energy
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain constant
(D) First increases and then decreases
Answer: Option C
116. Change in internal energy in a closed system is equal to heat
transferred if the reversible process takes place at constant
(A) Pressure
(B) Temperature
(C) Volume
(D) Internal energy
Answer: Option C
117. According to first law of thermodynamics
(A) Mass and energy are mutually convertible
(B) Carnot engine is most efficient
(C) Heat and work are mutually convertible
(D) Mass and light are mutually convertible
Answer: Option C
118. Total heat of a substance is also known as
(A) Internal energy
(B) Entropy
(C) Thermal capacity
(D) Enthalpy
Answer: Option D
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119. First law of thermodynamics
(A) Enables to determine change in internal energy of the system
(B) Does not enable to determine change in entropy
(C) Provides relationship between heat, work and internal energy
Answer: Option D
120. Addition of heat at constant pressure to a gas results in
(A) Raising its temperature
(B) Raising its pressure
(C) Raising its volume
(D) Raising its temperature and doing external work
Answer: Option D
121. Carnot cycle efficiency is maximum when
(A) Initial temperature is 0°K
(B) Final temperature is 0°K
(C) Difference between initial and final temperature is 0°K
(D) Final temperature is 0°C
Answer: Option B
122. If heat be exchanged in a reversible manner, which of the
following property of the working substance will change accordingly
(A) Temperature
(B) Enthalpy
(C) Internal energy
(D) Entropy
Answer: Option D
123. The area under the temperature-entropy curve (T – s curve) of
any thermodynamic process represents
(A) Heat absorbed
(B) Heat rejected
(C) Either heat absorbed or heat rejected
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
124. One kg of carbon produces ________ kg of carbon dioxide.
(A) 3/7
(B) 11/7
(C) 11/3
(D) 4/11
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Answer: Option C
125. If a system after undergoing a series of processes, returns to the
initial state then
(A) Process is thermodynamically in equilibrium
(B) Process is executed in closed system cycle
(C) Its entropy will change due to irreversibility
(D) Sum of heat and work transfer will be zero
Answer: Option D
126. An actual engine is to be designed having same efficiency as the
Carnot cycle. Such a proposition is
(A) Feasible
(B) Impossible
(C) Possible
(D) Possible, but with lot of sophistications
Answer: Option D
127. A manufacturer claims to have a heat engine capable of
developing 20 h.p. by receiving heat input of 400 kcal/mt and working
between the temperature limits of 227° C and 27° C. His claim is
(A) Theoretically possible
(B) Not possible
(C) May be possible with lot of sophistications
(D) Cost will be very high
Answer: Option B
128. Which of the following is the correct statement of the second law
of thermodynamics?
(A) There is a definite amount of mechanical energy, which can be
obtained from a given quantity of heat energy
(B) It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower
temperature to a higher temperature, without the aid of an external source
(C) It is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic
Answer: Option D
129. A mixture of gas expands from 0.03 m3 to 0.06 m3 at a constant
pressure of 1 MPa and absorbs 84 kJ of heat during the process. The
change in internal energy of the mixture is
(A) 30 kJ
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(B) 84 kJ
(C) 54 kJ
(D) 114 kJ
Answer: Option C
130. In a Carnot cycle, heat is transferred at
(A) Constant pressure
(B) Constant volume
(C) Constant temperature
(D) Constant enthalpy
Answer: Option C
131. A diathermic wall is one which
(A) Prevents thermal interaction
(B) Permits thermal interaction
(C) Encourages thermal interaction
(D) Discourages thermal interaction
Answer: Option B
132. An adiabatic wall is one which
(A) Prevents thermal interaction
(B) Permits thermal interaction
(C) Encourages thermal interaction
(D) Discourages thermal interaction
Answer: Option A
133. Producer gas is obtained by
(A) Carbonisation of bituminous coal
(B) Partial combustion of coal, coke, anthracite coal or charcoal in a
650°C
Answer: Option B
134. The efficiency of Diesel cycle depends upon
(A) Pressure ratio
(B) Cut-off ratio and compression ratio
(C) Temperature limits
(D) Compression ratio
Answer: Option B
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135. The door of a running refrigerator inside a room was left open.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The room will be cooled to the temperature inside the
refrigerator
(B) The room will be cooled very slightly
(C) The room will be gradually warmed up
(D) The temperature of the air in room will remain unaffected
Answer: Option C
136. The gas constant (R) is equal to the __________ of two specific
heats.
(A) Product
(B) Sum
(C) Difference
(D) Ratio
Answer: Option C
137. A sudden fall in the barometer reading is a sign of approaching
(A) Fine weather
(B) Rains
(C) Storm
(D) Cold wave
Answer: Option C
138. The unit of universal gas constant is
(A) watts/°K
(B) dynes/°C
(C) erg/°K
Answer: Option C
139. Calorie is a measure of
(A) Specific heat
(B) Quantity of heat
(C) Thermal capacity
(D) Entropy
Answer: Option B
140. 1 kgf/cm² is equal to
(A) 760 mm Hg
(B) Zero mm Hg
(C) 735.6 mm Hg
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(D) 1 mm Hg
Answer: Option C
141. In an isothermal process
(A) There is no change in enthalpy
(B) There is no change in internal energy
(C) There is no change in temperature
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
142. Kelvin-Planck’s law deals with
(A) Conservation of work
(B) Conservation of heat
(C) Conversion of work into heat
(D) Conversion of heat into work
Answer: Option D
143. Barometric pressure is equal to
(A) 760 mm Hg
(B) Zero mm Hg
(C) 735.6 mm Hg
(D) 1 mm Hg
Answer: Option A
144. Otto cycle efficiency is higher than Diesel cycle efficiency for the
same compression ratio and heat input because in Otto cycle
(A) Heat rejection is lower
(B) Expansion and compression are isentropic
(C) Combustion is at constant volume
(D) Maximum temperature is higher
Answer: Option A
145. The value of gas constant (R) in S. I. units is
(A) 0.287 J/kgK
(B) 2.87 J/kgK
(C) 28.7 J/kgK
(D) 287 J/kgK
Answer: Option D
146. One barometric pressure or 1 atmospheric pressure is equal to
(A) 1 kgf/cm²
(B) 1.033 kgf/cm²
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(C) 0 kgf/cm²
(D) 1.0197 kgf/cm²
Answer: Option B
147. The first law of thermodynamics is the law of
(A) Conservation of mass
(B) Conservation of energy
(C) Conservation of momentum
(D) Conservation of heat
Answer: Option B
148. A perpetual motion machine is
(A) A thermodynamic machine
(B) A non-thermodynamic machine
(C) A hypothetical machine
(D) A hypothetical machine whose operation would violate the laws
of thermodynamics
Answer: Option D
149. Kelvin Planck's law deals with
(A) Conservation of heat
(B) Conservation of work
(C) Conversion of heat into work
(D) Conversion of work into heat
Answer: Option C
150. The pressure exerted by an ideal gas is ________ of the kinetic
energy of all the molecules contained in a unit volume of gas.
(A) One-third
(B) Three-forth
(C) One-half
(D) Two-third
Answer: Option D
151. According to Gay Lussac’s law for a perfect gas, the absolute
pressure of given mass varies directly as
(A) Temperature
(B) Absolute temperature, if volume is kept constant
(C) Volume, if temperature is kept constant
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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152. An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at very high pressure
occupies
(A) More volume
(B) Less volume
(C) Same volume
(D) Unpredictable behaviour
Answer: Option A
153. In open cycle gas turbine plants
(A) Direct combustion systems is used
(B) A condenser is used
(C) The indirect heat exchanger and cooler is avoided
Answer: Option D
154. One Joule (J) is equal to
(A) 1 kN-m
(B) 1 N-m
(C) 10 kN-m/s
(D) 10 N-m/s
Answer: Option B
155. General gas equation is
(A) PV = nRT
(B) PV = mRT
(C) PV = C
(D) PV = KiRT
Answer: Option B
156. Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the collisions between the
molecules are
(A) Perfectly elastic
(B) Perfectly inelastic
(C) Partly elastic
(D) Partly inelastic
Answer: Option A
157. The pressure of a gas in terms of its mean kinetic energy per unit
volume E is equal to
(A) E/3
(B) E/2
(C) 3E/4
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(D) 2E/3
Answer: Option D
158. Kinetic energy of the molecules in terms of absolute temperature
(T) is proportional to
(A) T
(B) J
(C) J²
(D) Vr
Answer: Option A
159. The efficiency of Joule cycle is
(A) Less than Carnot cycle
(B) Equal to Carnot cycle
(C) Greater than Carnot cycle
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
160. The state of a substance whose evaporation from its liquid state is
complete, is known as
(A) Perfect gas
(B) Vapour
(C) Steam
(D) Air
Answer: Option A
161. Which law states that the internal energy of a gas is a function of
temperature?
(A) Charles' law
(B) Joule's law
(C) Boyle's law
(D) There is no such law
Answer: Option B
162. The same volume of all gases would represent their
(A) Densities
(B) Specific weights
(C) Molecular weights
(D) Gas characteristic constants
Answer: Option C
163. Which law states that the specific heat of a gas remains constant
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at all temperatures and pressures?
(A) Charles' Law
(B) Joule's Law
(C) Regnault's Law
(D) Boyle's Law
Answer: Option C
164. An open system is one in which
may do so
(B) Neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(C) Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(D) Mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
Answer: Option C
165. The hyperbolic process is governed by
(A) Avogadro's law
(B) Boyle's law
(C) Charles' law
(D) Gay-Lussac law
Answer: Option B
166. Which of the following quantities is not the property of the
system?
(A) Pressure
(B) Temperature
(C) Specific volume
(D) Heat
Answer: Option D
167. The sum of internal energy (U) and the product of pressure and
volume (p.v) is known as
(A) Work done
(B) Entropy
(C) Power
(D) Enthalpy
Answer: Option D
168. Which of the following gas has a minimum molecular mass?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Methane
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(D) Oxygen
Answer: Option B
169. According to Avogadro's law, for a given pressure and
temperature, each molecule of a gas
(A) Occupies same volume
(B) Occupies volume proportional to its specific weight
(C) Occupies volume inversely proportional to its molecular weight
(D) Occupies volume inversely proportional to its specific weight
Answer: Option A
170. Mixture of ice and water form a
(A) Closed system
(B) Open system
(C) Isolated system
(D) Heterogeneous system
Answer: Option D
171. The entropy of water at 0°C is assumed to be
(A) 0
(B) -1
(C) 1
(D) 2
Answer: Option A
172. The index of compression ‘n’ tends to reach ratio of specific heats
‘y’ when
(A) Flow is uniform and steady
(B) Process is isentropic
(C) Process is isothermal
(D) Process is isentropic and specific heat does not change with
temperature
Answer: Option D
173. Change in enthalpy of a system is the heat supplied at
(A) Constant pressure
(B) Constant temperature
(C) Constant volume
(D) Constant entropy
Answer: Option A
174. The term N.T.P. stands for
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(A) Nominal temperature and pressure
(B) Natural temperature and pressure
(C) Normal temperature and pressure
(D) Normal thermodynamic practice
Answer: Option C
175. A heat exchange process in which the product of pressure and
volume remains constant is known as
(A) Heat exchange process
(B) Throttling process
(C) Isentropic process
(D) Hyperbolic process
Answer: Option D
176. Universal gas constant is defined as equal to product of the
molecular weight of the gas and
(A) Specific heat at constant pressure
(B) Specific heat at constant volume
(C) Ratio of two specific heats
(D) Gas constant
Answer: Option D
177. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume
and two isentropic processes is known as
(A) Otto cycle
(B) Stirling cycle
(C) Carnot cycle
(D) Diesel cycle
Answer: Option D
178. During which of the following process does heat rejection takes
place in Carnot cycle?
(A) Isothermal expansion
(B) Isentropic expansion
(C) Isothermal compression
(D) Isentropic compression
Answer: Option C
179. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas
characteristic constant for all the gases in S.I. units is
(A) 29.27 J/kmol °K
(B) 83.14 J/kmol °K
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(C) 848 J/kmol °K
(D) 735 J/kmol °K
Answer: Option B
180. For which of the following substances, the internal energy and
enthalpy are the functions of temperature only
(A) Any gas
(B) Saturated steam
(C) Water
(D) Perfect gas
Answer: Option D
181. The more effective way of increasing efficiency of Carnot engine
is to
(A) Increase higher temperature
(B) Decrease higher temperature
(C) Increase lower temperature
(D) Decrease lower temperature
Answer: Option D
182. Which of the following has the minimum atomic mass?
(A) Sulphur
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) Carbon
Answer: Option D
183. The processes occuring in open system which permit the transfer
of mass to and from the system, are known as
(A) Flow processes
(B) Non-flow processes
(C) Adiabatic processes
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
184. Entropy change depends on
(A) Heat transfer
(B) Mass transfer
(C) Change of temperature
(D) Thermodynamic state
Answer: Option A
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185. For reversible adiabatic process, change in entropy is
(A) Maximum
(B) Minimum
(C) Zero
(D) Negative
Answer: Option C
186. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for
(A) Reversible engine
(B) Irreversible engine
(C) Petrol engine
(D) Diesel engine
Answer: Option A
187. The efficiency of Diesel cycle increases with
(A) Increase in cut-off
(B) Constant cut-off
(C) Decrease in cut-off
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
188. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit
mass of gas through one degree at constant volume, is called
(A) Kilo Joule
(B) Specific heat at constant volume
(C) Specific heat at constant pressure
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
189. Measurement of temperature is based on
(A) Thermodynamic properties
(B) Zeroth law of thermodynamics
(C) First law of thermodynamics
(D) Second law of thermodynamics
Answer: Option B
190. Carnot cycle efficiency depends upon
(A) Properties of the medium/substance used
(B) Condition of engine
(C) Working condition
(D) Temperature range of operation
Answer: Option D
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191. Compressed air coming out from a punctured football
(A) Becomes hotter
(B) Becomes cooler
(C) Remains at the same temperature
(D) May become hotter or cooler depending upon the humidity of the
surrounding air
Answer: Option B
192. Water contained in a beaker can be made to boil by passing
steam through it
(A) At atmospheric pressure
(B) At a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure
(C) Any pressure
(D) Not possible
Answer: Option B
193. During throttling process
(A) Heat exchange does not take place
(B) No work is done by expanding steam
(C) There is no change of internal energy of steam
Answer: Option D
194. The energy of molecular motion appears as
(A) Heat
(B) Potential energy
(C) Surface tension
(D) Friction
Answer: Option A
195. The compression ratio for Diesel engines is
(A) 15 to 20
(B) 5 to 8
(C) 3 to 6
(D) 20 to 30
Answer: Option A
196. The efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency
when
(A) Cut-off is decreased
(B) Cut-off is constant
(C) Cut-off is increased
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(D) Cut-off is zero
Answer: Option B
197. According to Clausius’ statement of second law of
thermodynamics
(A) Heat can't be transferred from low temperature source to high
temperature source
(B) Heat can be transferred for low temperature to high temperature
source by using refrigeration cycle
(C) Heat can be transferred from low temperature to high
temperature source if COP of process is more than unity
(D) Heat can't be transferred from low temperature to high
temperature source without the aid of external energy
Answer: Option D
198. Thermal power plant works on
(A) Carnot cycle
(B) Joule cycle
(C) Rankine cycle
(D) Otto cycle
Answer: Option C
199. The atomic mass of oxygen is
(A) 14
(B) 16
(C) 18
(D) 121
Answer: Option B
200. An adiabatic process is one in which
(A) The temperature of the gas changes
(B) No heat enters or leaves the gas
(C) The change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical work
done
Answer: Option D
201. Which of the following is an irreversible cycle?
(A) Carnot
(B) Stirling
(C) Ericsson
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Answer: Option D
202. Otto cycle consists of following four processes
(A) Two isothermals and two isentropic
(B) Two isentropic and two constant volumes
(C) Two isentropic, one constant volume and one constant pressure
(D) Two isentropic and two constant pressures
Answer: Option B
203. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on
(A) Working substance
(B) Design of engine
(C) Size of engine
(D) Temperatures of source and sink
Answer: Option D
204. For same compression ratio and for same heat added
(A) Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
(B) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
(C) Efficiency depends on other factors
(D) Both Otto and Diesel cycles are equally efficient
Answer: Option A
205. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(A) The liquid fuels have higher calorific value than solid fuels
(B) The solid fuels have higher calorific value than liquid fuels
(C) A good fuel should have low ignition point
(D) The liquid fuels consist of hydrocarbons
Answer: Option B
206. The compression ratio for petrol engines is
(A) 3 to 6
(B) 5 to 8
(C) 10 to 20
(D) 15 to 30
Answer: Option B
207. The efficiency of Carnot cycle is maximum for
(A) Gas engine
(B) Petrol engine
(C) Steam engine
(D) Reversible engine
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Answer: Option D
208. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the unit
mass of gas through one degree at constant volume, is called
(A) Specific heat at constant volume
(B) Specific heat at constant pressure
(C) Kilo Joule
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
209. Diesel cycle consists of following four processes
(A) Two isothermal and two isentropic
Answer: Option C
210. If both Stirling and Carnot cycles operate within the same
temperature limits, then efficiency of Stirling cycle as compared to
Carnot cycle
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Equal
(D) Depends on other factors
Answer: Option C
(A) Reversible cycles
(B) Irreversible cycles
(D) Adiabatic irreversible cycles
Answer: Option A
212. A cycle consisting of two adiabatic and two constant pressure
processes is known as
(A) Otto cycle
(B) Ericsson cycle
(C) Joule cycle
(D) Stirling cycle
Answer: Option C
213. Reversed joule cycle is called
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(A) Carnot cycle
(B) Rankine cycle
(C) Brayton cycle
(D) Bell Coleman cycle
Answer: Option C
214. One kg of carbon monoxide requires _______kg of oxygen to
produce 11/7 kg of carbon dioxide gas.
(A) 11/7
(B) 9/7
(C) 4/7
Answer: Option C
215. The absolute zero temperature is taken as
(A) 237°C
(B) -273°C
(C) -237°C
(D) 273°C
Answer: Option B
216. Brayton cycle consists' of following four processes
(A) Two isothermals and two isentropic
Answer: Option D
217. Which of the following cycles is not a reversible cycle?
(A) Carnot
(B) Ericsson
(C) Stirling
Answer: Option D
218. The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and
rejected at constant pressure is known as
(A) Dual combustion cycle
(B) Diesel cycle
(C) Atkinson cycle
(D) Rankine cycle
Answer: Option C
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219. The efficiency of Diesel cycle with decrease in cut-off
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) First increases and then decreases
(D) First decreases and then increases
Answer: Option A
220. Which of the following cycles has maximum efficiency?
(A) Rankine
(B) Stirling
(C) Carnot
(D) Brayton
Answer: Option C
221. Which of the following is correct?
(A) Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure
(B) Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
(C) Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure - Atmospheric pressure
(D) Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure + Gauge pressure
Answer: Option B
222. The efficiency and work ratio of a simple gas turbine cycle are
(A) Very low
(B) Low
(C) High
(D) Very high
Answer: Option A
223. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle without regeneration, with
increase in pressure ratio will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain unchanged
(D) Increase/decrease depending on application
Answer: Option A
224. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle with regeneration, with
increase in pressure ratio will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(D) Increase/decrease depending on application
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Answer: Option B
225. The following cycle is used for air craft refrigeration
(A) Brayton cycle
(B) Joule cycle
(C) Carnot cycle
(D) Reversed Brayton cycle
Answer: Option D
226. A cycle consisting of __________ and two isothermal processes is
known as Stirling cycle.
(A) Two constant pressure
(B) Two constant volume
(C) Two isentropic
(D) One constant pressure, one constant volume
Answer: Option B
227. The condition for the reversibility of a cycle is
(A) The pressure and temperature of the working substance must not
differ, appreciably, from those of the surroundings at any stage in the
process
(B) All the processes, taking place in the cycle of operation, must be
extremely slow
(C) The working parts of the engine must be friction free
Answer: Option D
228. The change of entropy, when heat is absorbed by the gas, is
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Positive or negative
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
229. The throttling process is __________ process.
(A) Reversible
(B) Irreversible
(C) Reversible or irreversible
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
230. The isothermal and adiabatic processes are regarded as
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(A) Reversible process
(B) Irreversible process
(C) Reversible or irreversible process
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
231. For the constant pressure and heat input, the air standard
efficiency of gas power cycle is in the order
(A) Dual cycle, Diesel cycle, Otto cycle
(B) Otto cycle, Diesel cycle, Dual cycle
(C) Dual cycle, Otto cycle, Diesel cycle
(D) Diesel cycle, Otto cycle, Dual cycle
Answer: Option A
232. The general gas equation is (where p = Pressure, v = Volume, m =
mass, T = Absolute temperature, and R = Gas constant)
(A) pv = mRT
(B) pv = RTm
(C) pvm = C
(D) pv = (RT)m
Answer: Option A
233. For the same maximum pressure and temperature,
(A) Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
(B) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
(C) Dual cycle is more efficient than Otto and Diesel cycles
(D) Dual cycle is less efficient than Otto and Diesel cycles
Answer: Option B
234. Charles' law states that all perfect gases change in volume by
__________ of its original volume at 0°C for every 1°C change in
temperature, when pressure remains constant.
(A) 1/27th
(B) 1/93th
(C) 1/173th
(D) 1/273th
Answer: Option D
235. A mixture of gas expands from 0.03 m3 to 0.06 m3 at a constant
pressure of 1 MPa and absorbs 84 kJ of heat during the process. The
change in internal energy of the mixture is
(A) 30 kJ
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(B) 54 kJ
(C) 84 kJ
(D) 114 kJ
Answer: Option B
236. The total energy of a molecule is shared equally by the various
degrees of freedom possessed by it. This law is known as
(A) Law of equipartition of energy
(B) Law of conservation of energy
(C) Law of degradation of energy
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
237. An isothermal process is governed by
(A) Boyle's law
(B) Charles' law
(C) Gay-Lussac law
(D) Avogadro's law
Answer: Option A
238. A cycle consisting of one constant pressure, one constant volume
and two isentropic processes is known as
(A) Carnot cycle
(B) Stirling cycle
(C) Otto cycle
(D) Diesel cycle
Answer: Option D
(A) The liquid fuels consist of hydrocarbons.
(B) The liquid fuels have higher calorific value than solid fuels.
(C) The solid fuels have higher calorific value than liquid fuels.
(D) A good fuel should have low ignition point.
Answer: Option C
240. The efficiency of Joule cycle is
(A) Greater than Carnot cycle
(B) Less than Carnot cycle
(C) Equal to Carnot cycle
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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241. Otto cycle is also known as
(A) Constant pressure cycle
(B) Constant volume cycle
(C) Constant temperature cycle
(D) Constant temperature and pressure cycle
Answer: Option B
242. The heat and mechanical energies are mutually convertible. This
statement was established by
(A) Boyle
(B) Charles
(C) Joule
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
243. The heat and work are mutually convertible. This statement is
called __________ law of thermodynamics.
(A) Zeroth
(B) First
(C) Second
(D) Third
Answer: Option B
244. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of
water through one Kelvin is called
(A) Specific heat at constant volume
(B) Specific heat at constant pressure
(C) kilo-Joule
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
245. A path 1-2-3 is given. A system absorbs 100 kJ as heat and does
60 kJ of work while along the path 1-4-3, it does 20 kJ of work. The
heat absorbed during the cycle 1-4-3 is
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(A) -140 kJ
(B) -80 kJ
(C) -40 kJ
(D) +60 kJ
Answer: Option D
246. The fuel mostly used in blast furnace for extracting pig iron from
iron ores is
(A) Hard coke
(B) Soft coke
(C) Pulverised coal
(D) Bituminous coal
Answer: Option A
247. Carnot cycle consists of
(A) Two constant volume and two isentropic processes
(B) Two isothermal and two isentropic processes
(C) Two constant pressure and two isentropic processes
(D) One constant volume, one constant pressure and two isentropic
processes
Answer: Option B
248. Workdone during adiabatic expansion is given by (where p1 v1, T1
= Pressure, volume and temperature for the initial condition of gas, p2,
v2, T2 = Corresponding values for the final condition of gas, R = Gas
constant, and γ = Ratio of specific heats)
(A) (p1 v1 - p2 v2)/(γ - 1)
(B) [m R (T1 - T2)] /(γ - 1)
(C) [m R T1/(γ - 1)][1 - (p2 v2 /p1 v1)]
(D) All of these
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Answer: Option D
249. In a free expansion process,
(A) W1 - 2 = 0
(B) Q1 - 2 = 0
(C) dU = 0
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
250. When the gas is heated at constant volume, the heat supplied
(A) Increases the internal energy of the gas and increases the
temperature of the gas
(B) Does some external work during expansion
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
251. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for
(A) Petrol engine
(B) Diesel engine
(C) Reversible engine
(D) Irreversible engine
Answer: Option C
252. The heat supplied to the gas at constant volume is (where m =
Mass of gas, cv = Specific heat at constant volume, cp = Specific heat at
constant pressure, T2 - T1 = Rise in temperature, and R = Gas
constant)
(A) mR (T2 - T1)
(B) mcv (T2 - T1)
(C) mcp (T2 - T1)
(D) mcp (T2 + T1)
Answer: Option B
253. The processes occuring in open system which permit the transfer
of mass to and from the system, are known as
(A) Flow processes
(B) Non-flow processes
(C) Adiabatic processes
(D) None of these
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Answer: Option A
(A) Reversible cycles
(B) Irreversible cycles
(D) Quasi-static cycles
Answer: Option A
255. In an isothermal process,
(A) There is no change in temperature
(B) There is no change in enthalpy
(C) There is no change in internal energy
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
256. When the expansion or compression takes place according to the
law pvn = C, the process is known as
(A) Isothermal process
(B) Adiabatic process
Answer: Option D
257. The general law of expansion or compression is pvn = C, The
process is said to be hyperbolic, if n is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) γ
(D) ∝
Answer: Option B
258. One kilowatt is equal to
(A) 1 N-m/s
(B) 100 N-m
(C) 1000 N-m/s
(D) 1 × 106 N-m/s
Answer: Option C
259. The __________ states that change of internal energy of a perfect
gas is directly proportional to the change of temperature.
(A) Boyle's law
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(B) Charle's law
(C) Gay-Lussac law
(D) Joule's law
Answer: Option D
260. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of
__________ water through one degree is called kilojoules.
(A) 1 g
(B) 10 g
(C) 100 g
(D) 1000 g
Answer: Option D
261. The work ratio of a gas turbine plant is given by
(A) (Net work output)/(Workdone by the turbine)
(B) (Net work output)/(Heat supplied)
(C) (Actual temperature drop)/(Isentropic temperature drop)
(D) (Isentropic increase in temperature)/(Actual increase in
temperature)
Answer: Option A
262. The variables which control the physical properties of a perfect
gas are
(A) Pressure exerted by the gas
(B) Volume occupied by the gas
(C) Temperature of the gas
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
263. An open system is one in which
(A) Heat and work crosses the boundary of the system, but the mass
of the working substance does not crosses the boundary of the system
(B) Mass of the working substance crosses the boundary of the
system but the heat and work does not crosses the boundary of the system
(C) Both the heat and work as well as mass of the working substance
crosses the boundary of the system
(D) Neither the heat and work nor the mass of the working substance
crosses the boundary of the system
Answer: Option C
(A) The increase in entropy is obtained from a given quantity of heat
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at a low temperature.
(B) The change in entropy may be regarded as a measure of the rate
of the availability or unavailability of heat for transformation into work.
(C) The entropy represents the maximum amount of work obtainable
per degree drop in temperature.
Answer: Option D
265. The calorific value of gaseous fuel is expressed in
(A) kJ
(B) kJ/kg
(C) kJ/m2
(D) kJ/m3
Answer: Option D
266. Which of the following is the correct statement of the second law
of thermodynamics?
(A) It is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic
process, whose sole purpose is to convert heat energy into work.
temperature to a higher temperature, without the aid of an external source.
(C) There is a definite amount of mechanical energy, which can be
obtained from a given quantity of heat energy.
Answer: Option D
267. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure (cp) and specific
heat at constant volume (cv) is
(A) Equal to one
(B) Less than one
(C) Greater than one
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
268. The expansion ratio (r) is the ratio of (where v1 = Volume at the
beginning of expansion, and v2 = Volume at the end of expansion)
(A) v1/v2
(B) v2/v1
(C) (v1 + v2)/v1
(D) (v1 + v2)/v2
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Answer: Option B
269. Coke is produced
(A) When coal is first dried and then crushed to a fine powder by
pulverising machine
(B) From the finely ground coal by moulding under pressure with or
without a binding material
(C) When coal is strongly heated continuously for 42 to 48 hours in
the absence of air in a closed vessel
(D) By heating wood with a limited supply of air to a temperature not
less than 280°C
Answer: Option C
270. The hard coke is obtained when carbonisation of coal is carried
out at
(A) 300° to 500°C
(B) 500° to 700°C
(C) 700° to 900°C
(D) 900° to 1100°C
Answer: Option D
271. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed, but it can be
transformed from one form to another. This statement is known as
(D) Kinetic theory of gases
Answer: Option B
272. When the gas is heated at constant pressure, the heat supplied
(A) Increases the internal energy of the gas
(B) Increases the temperature of the gas
(C) Does some external work during expansion
(D) Both (B) and (C)
Answer: Option D
273. When a gas is heated at constant volume
(A) Its temperature will increase
(B) Its pressure will increase
(C) Both temperature and pressure will increase
(D) Neither temperature nor pressure will increase
Answer: Option C
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274. Which of the following is the correct statement?
(A) For a given compression ratio, both Otto and Diesel cycles have
the same efficiency.
(B) For a given compression ratio, Otto cycle is more efficient than
Diesel cycle.
(C) For a given compression ratio, Diesel cycle is more efficient than
Otto cycle.
(D) The efficiency of Otto or Diesel cycle has nothing to do with
compression ratio.
Answer: Option B
275. One kg of hydrogen requires 8 kg of oxygen and produces
(A) 1 kg of water
(B) 7 kg of water
(C) 8 kg of water
(D) 9 kg of water
Answer: Option D
276. Which of the following statement is correct according to Clausis
statement of second law of thermodynamics?
(A) It is possible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature
to a body at a higher temperature.
temperature to a body at a higher temperature, without the aid of an
external source.
(C) It is possible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature
to a body at a higher temperature by using refrigeration cycle.
Answer: Option B
277. One molecule of oxygen is __________ times heavier than the
hydrogen atom.
(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 16
(D) 32
Answer: Option D
278. The absolute zero temperature is taken as
(A) -273°C
(B) 73°C
(C) 237°C
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(D) -237°C
Answer: Option A
279. The efficiency and work ratio of a simple gas turbine cycle are
(A) Low
(B) Very low
(C) High
(D) Very high
Answer: Option B
280. The specific heat of water is
(A) 1.817
(B) 2512
(C) 4.187
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
281. The specific heat at constant volume is
(A) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass
of gas through one degree, at constant pressure
(B) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass
of gas through one degree, at constant volume
(C) The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of
water through one degree
Answer: Option B
282. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency of dual combustion
cycle is
(A) Greater than Diesel cycle and less than Otto cycle
(B) Less than Diesel cycle and greater than Otto cycle
(C) Greater than Diesel cycle
(D) Less than Diesel cycle
Answer: Option A
283. The main cause for the irreversibility is
(A) Mechanical and fluid friction
(B) Unrestricted expansion
(C) Heat transfer with a finite temperature difference
Answer: Option D
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284. The mass of flue gas per kg of fuel is the ratio of the
(A) Mass of oxygen in 1 kg of flue gas to the mass of oxygen in 1 kg
of fuel
(B) Mass of oxygen in 1 kg of fuel to the mass of oxygen in 1 kg of
flue gas
(C) Mass of carbon in 1 kg of flue gas to the mass of carbon in 1 kg
of fuel
(D) Mass of carbon in 1 kg of fuel to the mass of carbon in 1 kg of
flue gas
Answer: Option C
285. The heating of a gas at constant pressure is governed by
(A) Boyle's law
(B) Charles' law
(C) Gay-Lussac law
(D) Avogadro's law
Answer: Option B
286. In a reversible adiabatic process, the ratio of T1/T2 is equal to
(A) (p2/p1)γ - 1/ γ
(B) (p1/p2)γ - 1/ γ
(C) (v2/v1)γ - 1/ γ
(D) (v1/v2)γ - 1/ γ
Answer: Option B
287. First law of thermodynamics deals with
(A) Conservation of heat
(B) Conservation of momentum
(C) Conservation of mass
(D) Conservation of energy
Answer: Option D
288. The value of cp/cv for air is
(A) 1
(B) 1.4
(C) 1.45
(D) 2.3
Answer: Option B
289. The fuel mostly used in cement industry and in metallurgical
processes is
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(A) Wood charcoal
(B) Bituminous coke
(C) Pulverised coal
(D) Coke
Answer: Option C
290. The absolute zero pressure can be attained at a temperature of
(A) 0°C
(B) 273°C
(C) 273 K
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
291. Which of the following is a reversible non-flow process?
(A) Isochoric process
(B) Isobaric process
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
292. Which of the following is the correct statement?
(A) All the reversible engines have the same efficiency.
(B) All the reversible and irreversible engines have the same
efficiency.
(C) Irreversible engines have maximum efficiency.
(D) All engines are designed as reversible in order to obtain
maximum efficiency.
Answer: Option C
293. In S. I. units, the value of the universal gas constant is
(A) 8.314 J/kg mole-K
(B) 83.14 J/kgmole-K
(C) 831.4 J/kgmole-K
(D) 8314 J/kgmole-K
Answer: Option D
294. When gas is heated at constant pressure, the heat supplied is
utilised in
(A) Increasing the internal energy of gas
(B) Doing some external work
(C) Increasing the internal energy of gas and also for doing some
external work
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Answer: Option C
295. Kerosene is distilled at
(A) 65° to 220°C
(B) 220° to 345°C
(C) 345° to 470°C
(D) 470° to 550°C
Answer: Option B
296. In open cycle gas turbine plants
(A) The indirect heat exchanger and cooler is avoided
(B) Direct combustion system is used
(C) A condenser is used
Answer: Option D
297. The volumetric or molar specific heat at constant pressure is the
product of
(A) Molecular mass of the gas and the specific heat at constant
volume
(C) Molecular mass of the gas and the gas constant
Answer: Option D
298. The measurement of a thermodynamic property known as
temperature is based on
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
299. Which is the incorrect statement about Carnot cycle?
(A) It is used as the alternate standard of comparison of all heat
engines.
(B) All the heat engines are based on Carnot cycle.
(C) It provides concept of maximising work output between the two
temperature limits.
Answer: Option B
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300. According to Avogadro's law
(A) The product of the gas constant and the molecular mass of an
ideal gas is constant
(B) The sum of partial pressure of the mixture of two gases is sum of
the two
(C) Equal volumes of all gases, at the same temperature and pressure,
contain equal number of molecules
Answer: Option C
301. The efficiency of Stirling cycle is __________ Carnot cycle.
(A) Greater than
(B) Less than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
302. The entropy of water at 0°C is assumed to be
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) -1
(D) 10
Answer: Option B
303. Producer gas is obtained by
650°C
Answer: Option A
304. For the same compression ratio, the efficiency of Diesel cycle is
__________ Otto cycle.
(A) Greater than
(B) Less than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
305. The efficiency of the Carnot cycle may be increased by
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(A) Increasing the highest temperature
(B) Decreasing the highest temperature
(C) Increasing the lowest temperature
(D) Keeping the lowest temperature constant
Answer: Option A
306. The atomic mass of nitrogen is __________ oxygen.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
307. A definite area or a space where some thermodynamic process
takes place is known as
(A) Thermodynamic system
(B) Thermodynamic cycle
(C) Thermodynamic process
(D) Thermodynamic law
Answer: Option A
308. The absolute zero pressure will be
(A) When molecular momentum of the system becomes zero
(B) At sea level
(C) At the temperature of - 273 K
(D) At the centre of the earth
Answer: Option A
309. The work ratio of simple gas turbine cycle depends upon
(A) Maximum cycle temperature
(B) Minimum cycle temperature
(C) Pressure ratio
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
310. In closed cycle gas turbine, the air is compressed
(A) Isothermally
(B) Isentropically
(C) Polytropically
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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311. The thermal efficiency of an ideal gas turbine plant is given by
(where r = Pressure ratio)
(A) rγ - 1
(B) 1 - rγ - 1
(C) 1 - (1/r) γ/γ - 1
(D) 1 - (1/r) γ - 1/ γ
Answer: Option D
312. A process of heating crude oil to a high temperature under a very
high pressure to increase the yield of lighter distillates, is known as
(A) Cracking
(B) Carbonisation
(C) Fractional distillation
(D) Full distillation
Answer: Option A
313. One kg of carbon monoxide requires 4/7 kg of oxygen and
produces
(A) 11/3 kg of carbon dioxide gas
(B) 7/3 kg of carbon monoxide gas
(C) 11/7 kg of carbon dioxide gas
(D) 8/3 kg of carbon monoxide gas
Answer: Option C
314. Petrol is distilled at
(A) 65° to 220°C
(B) 220° to 345°C
(C) 345° to 470°C
(D) 470° to 550°C
Answer: Option A
315. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle is given by (where r =
Compression ratio, and γ = Ratio of specific heats)
(A) 1 - rγ - 1
(B) 1 + rγ - 1
(C) 1 - (1/ rγ - 1)
(D) 1 + (1/ rγ - 1)
Answer: Option C
316. Mond gas is obtained by
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650°C
Answer: Option D
317. Which of the following gas has a minimum molecular mass?
(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Methane
Answer: Option C
318. The efficiency of Diesel cycle increases with
(A) Decrease in cut-off
(B) Increase in cut-off
(C) Constant cut-off
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
319. An adiabatic process is one in which
(A) No heat enters or leaves the gas
(B) The temperature of the gas changes
(C) The change in internal energy is equal to the mechanical
workdone
Answer: Option D
320. The distillation carried out in such a way that the liquid with the
lowest boiling point is first evaporated and recondensed, then the
liquid with the next higher boiling point is then evaporated and
recondensed, and so on until all the available liquid fuels are
separately recovered in the sequence of their boiling points. Such a
process is called
(A) Cracking
(B) Carbonisation
(C) Fractional distillation
(D) Full distillation
Answer: Option C
321. A process, in which the temperature of the working substance
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remains constant during its expansion or compression, is called
(B) Hyperbolic process
Answer: Option A
322. When two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body,
they are also in thermal equilibrium with each other. This statement is
called
(D) Kelvin Planck's law
Answer: Option A
323. Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
(A) Peat
(B) Lignite
(C) Bituminous coal
(D) Anthracite coal
Answer: Option D
324. Stirling cycle consists of
(B) Two constant volume and two isothermal processes
(C) Two constant pressure and two isothermal processes
(D) One constant volume, one constant pressure and two isentropic
processes
Answer: Option B
325. Reversed Joule cycle is known as
(A) Carnot cycle
(B) Bell-Coleman cycle
(C) Rankine cycle
(D) Stirling cycle
Answer: Option B
(A) The heat and work are boundary phenomena
(B) The heat and work represent the energy crossing the boundary of
the system
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(C) The heat and work are path functions
Answer: Option D
327. The oxygen atom is ________ times heavier than the hydrogen
atom.
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 16
(D) 32
Answer: Option C
328. The heat flows from a cold body to a hot body with the aid of an
external source. This statement is given by
(A) Kelvin
(B) Joule
(C) Clausis
(D) Gay-Lussac
Answer: Option C
329. The smallest quantity of a substance, which can exist by itself in a
chemically recognizable form is known as
(A) Element
(B) Compound
(C) Atom
(D) Molecule
Answer: Option D
330. The behaviour of super-heated vapour is similar to that of
(A) Perfect gas
(B) Air
(C) Steam
(D) Ordinary gas
Answer: Option A
331. Relation between cp and cv is given by (where cp = Specific heat
at constant pressure, cv = Specific heat at constant volume, γ = cp/cv,
known as adiabatic index, and R = Gas constant)
(A) cv/ cp =R
(B) cp - cv = R
(C) cv = R/ γ-1
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Answer: Option D
332. A cycle consisting of two constant pressure and two isentropic
processes is known as
(A) Carnot cycle
(B) Stirling cycle
(C) Otto cycle
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
333. The atomic mass of sulphur is
(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 16
(D) 32
Answer: Option D
334. The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon
(B) Pressure ratio
(C) Volume compression ratio
(D) Cut-off ratio and compression ratio
Answer: Option A
335. Otto cycle efficiency is higher than Diesel cycle efficiency for the
same compression ratio and heat input because in Otto cycle
(A) Combustion is at constant volume
(B) Expansion and compression are isentropic
(C) Maximum temperature is higher
(D) Heat rejection is lower
Answer: Option D
336. The value of 1 mm of Hg is equal to
(A) 1.333 N/m2
(B) 13.33 N/m2
(C) 133.3 N/m2
(D) 1333 N/m2
Answer: Option C
337. Carbonisation of coal consists of
(A) Drying and crushing the coal to a fine powder
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(B) Moulding the finely ground coal under pressure with or without a
binding material
(C) Heating the wood with a limited supply of air to temperature not
less than 280°C
Answer: Option D
338. The area under the temperature-entropy curve (T - s curve) of
any thermodynamic process represents
(A) Heat absorbed
(B) Heat rejected
(C) Either (A) or (B)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
339. One Joule (J) is equal to
(A) 1 N-m
(B) 1 kN-m
(C) 10 N-m/s
(D) 10 kN-m/s
Answer: Option A
340. According to First law of thermodynamics,
(A) Total internal energy of a system during a process remains
constant
(B) Total energy of a system remains constant
(C) Workdone by a system is equal to the heat transferred by the
system
(D) Internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remain
constant
Answer: Option B
341. When wood is heated with a limited supply of air to a
temperature not less than 280°C, the resulting fuel is
(A) Coke
(B) Wood charcoal
(C) Bituminous coal
(D) Briquetted coal
Answer: Option B
342. The heat energy stored in the gas and used for raising the
temperature of the gas is known as
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(A) External energy
(B) Internal energy
(C) Kinetic energy
(D) Molecular energy
Answer: Option B
(A) The closed cycle gas turbine plants are external combustion
plants.
(B) In the closed cycle gas turbine, the pressure range depends upon
the atmospheric pressure.
(C) The advantage of efficient internal combustion is eliminated as
the closed cycle has an external surface.
(D) In open cycle gas turbine, atmosphere acts as a sink and no
coolant is required.
Answer: Option B
344. The temperature at which the volume of a gas becomes zero is
called
(A) Absolute scale of temperature
(B) Absolute zero temperature
(C) Absolute temperature
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
345. One kg of ethylene (C2H4) requires 2 kg of oxygen and produces
22/7 kg of carbon dioxide and __________ kg of water or steam.
(A) 9/7
(B) 11/7
(C) 7/4
(D) 1/4
Answer: Option A
346. According to Regnault's law, the specific heat at constant
pressure (cp) and specific heat at constant volume (cv) _________ with
the change in pressure and temperature of the gas.
(A) Change
(B) Do not change
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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347. Which of the following is correct?
(A) Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
(B) Gauge pressure = Absolute pressure + Atmospheric pressure
(C) Atmospheric pressure = Absolute pressure + Gauge pressure
(D) Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure - Atmospheric pressure
Answer: Option A
348. The general gas energy equation is (where Q1 - 2 = Heat supplied,
dU = Change in internal energy, and W1 - 2 = Work done in heat units)
(A) Q1 - 2 = dU + W1 - 2
(B) Q1 - 2 = dU - W1 - 2
(C) Q1 - 2 = dU/W1 - 2
(D) Q1 - 2 = dU × W1 - 2
Answer: Option A
349. The natural solid fuel is
(A) Wood
(B) Coke
(C) Anthracite coal
(D) Pulverised coal
Answer: Option A
350. In an ideal gas turbine plant, it is assumed that the compression
and expansion processes are
(A) Isothermal
(B) Isentropic
(C) Polytropic
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
351. The natural petroleum may be separated into
(A) Petrol
(B) Kerosene
(C) Fuel oil
(D) Lubricating oil
Answer: Option D
352. According to Kelvin-Planck's statement of second law of
thermodynamics,
(A) It is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic
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(B) It is possible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process,
whose sole purpose is to convert heat energy into work
(C) It is impossible to construct a device which operates in a cyclic
process and produces no effect other than the transfer of heat from a cold
body to a hot body
Answer: Option A
353. The pressure exerted by an ideal gas is ________ of the kinetic
energy of all the molecules contained in a unit volume of gas.
(A) One-half
(B) One-third
(C) Two-third
(D) Three-fourth
Answer: Option C
354. When a gas is heated, change takes place in
(A) Pressure
(B) Volume
(C) Temperature
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
355. The property of a working substance which increases or
decreases as the heat is supplied or removed in a reversible manner, is
known as
(A) Enthalpy
(B) Internal energy
(C) Entropy
(D) External energy
Answer: Option C
356. The fuel mostly used in steam boilers is
(A) Brown coal
(B) Peat
Answer: Option D
357. The heat absorbed or rejected by the working substance is given
by (where ds = Increase or decrease of entropy, T = Absolute
temperature, and dQ = Heat absorbed or rejected)
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(A) δQ = T.ds
(B) δQ = T/ds
(C) dQ = ds/T
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
358. The gas constant (R) is equal to the
(A) Sum of two specific heats
(B) Difference of two specific heats
(C) Product of two specific heats
(D) Ratio of two specific heats
Answer: Option B
359. A process, in which the gas is heated or expanded in such a way
that the product of its pressure and volume remains constant, is called
Answer: Option B
360. The efficiency of the dual combustion cycle for the same
compression ratio is __________ Diesel cycle.
(A) Greater than
(B) Less than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
361. Those substances which have so far not been resolved by any
means into other substances of simpler form are called
(A) Elements
(B) Compounds
(C) Atoms
(D) Molecules
Answer: Option A
362. The most probable velocity of the gas molecules is given by
(A) √(KT/m)
(B) √(2KT/m)
(C) √(3KT/m)
(D) √(5KT/m)
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Answer: Option B
363. The sum of internal energy (U) and the product of pressure and
volume (p.v) is known as
(A) Workdone
(B) Entropy
(C) Enthalpy
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
364. The state of a substance whose evaporation from its liquid state is
complete, is known as
(A) Vapour
(B) Perfect gas
(C) Air
(D) Steam
Answer: Option B
365. The root mean square velocity of the gas molecules is given by
(where k = Boltzmann's constant, T = Absolute temperature, and m =
Mass of one molecule of a gas)
(A) √(KT/m)
(B) √(2KT/m)
(C) √(3KT/m)
(D) √(5KT/m)
Answer: Option C
366. When a perfect gas is expanded through an aperture of minute
dimensions, the process is known as
(C) Free expansion process
(D) Throttling process
Answer: Option D
367. A process, in which the working substance neither receives nor
gives out heat to its surroundings during its expansion or compression,
is called
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Answer: Option C
368. The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure (cp) and specific
heat at constant volume (cv) is always __________ one.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
369. Select the correct statement as per Charles' law
(A) p.v = constant, if T is kept constant
(B) v/T = constant, if p is kept constant
(C) p/T = constant, if v is kept constant
(D) T/p = constant, if v is kept constant
Answer: Option B
370. A close cycle gas turbine gives __________ efficiency as compared
to an open cycle gas turbine.
(A) Same
(B) Lower
(C) Higher
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
371. According to Avogadro's law, the density of any two gases is
__________ their molecular masses, if the gases are at the same
temperature and pressure.
(A) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
372. During which of the following process does heat rejection takes
place in Carnot cycle?
(A) Isothermal expansion
(B) Isentropic expansion
(C) Isothermal compression
(D) Isentropic compression
Answer: Option C
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373. A tri-atomic molecule consists of __________ atoms.
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer: Option C
374. Which of the following has the minimum atomic mass?
(A) Oxygen
(B) Sulphur
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Carbon
Answer: Option D
375. The mass of carbon per kg of flue gas is given by
(A) (11/3) CO2 + (3/7) CO
(B) (3/7) CO2 + (11/3) CO
(C) (7/3) CO2 + (3/11) CO
(D) (3/11) CO2 + (7/3) CO
Answer: Option A
376. When a system changes its state from one equilibrium state to
another equilibrium state, then the path of successive states through
which the system has passed, is known as
(A) Thermodynamic law
(B) Thermodynamic process
(C) Thermodynamic cycle
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
377. When the gas is cooled at constant pressure,
(A) Its temperature increases but volume decreases
(B) Its volume increases but temperature decreases
(C) Both temperature and volume increases
(D) Both temperature and volume decreases
Answer: Option D
378. Otto cycle consists of
(B) Two constant pressure and two isentropic processes
(C) Two constant volume and two isothermal processes
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(D) One constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic
processes
Answer: Option A
379. The efficiency of a gas turbine is given by
(A) (Net work output)/(Workdone by the turbine)
(B) (Net work output)/(Heat supplied)
(C) (Actual temperature drop)/(Isentropic temperature drop)
(D) (Isentropic increase in temperature)/(Actual increase in
temperature)
Answer: Option B
380. An open cycle gas turbine works on
(A) Carnot cycle
(B) Otto cycle
(C) Joule's cycle
(D) Stirling cycle
Answer: Option C
381. If the value of n = 0 in the equation pvn = C, then the process is
called
(A) Constant volume process
(C) Constant pressure process
(D) Isothermal process
Answer: Option C
382. The efficiency of Ericsson cycle is __________ Carnot cycle.
(A) Greater than
(B) Less than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
383. The mass of excess air supplied is equal to
(A) (23/100) × Mass of excess carbon
(B) (23/100) × Mass of excess oxygen
(C) (100/23) × Mass of excess carbon
(D) (100/23) × Mass of excess oxygen
Answer: Option D
384. The universal gas constant (or molar constant) of a gas is the
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product of
(A) Molecular mass of the gas and the gas constant
(C) Molecular mass of the gas and the specific heat at constant
pressure
(D) Molecular mass of the gas and the specific heat at constant
volume
Answer: Option A
385. The molecular mass expressed in gram (i.e. 1 g - mole) of all
gases, at N. T. P., occupies a volume of
(A) 0.224 litres
(B) 2.24 litres
(C) 22.4 litres
(D) 224 litres
Answer: Option C
386. The standard value of atmospheric pressure taken at sea level is
(A) 1.013 bar
(B) 760 mm of Hg
(C) 1013 × 102 N/m2
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
387. The process is adiabatic, if the value of n in the equation pvn = C,
is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) γ
(D) ∝
Answer: Option C
388. The polytropic index (n) is given by
(A) log (p1p2)/log (v1v2)
(B) log (p2/ p1)/log (v1/ v2)
(C) log (v1/ v2)/ log (p1/p2)
(D) log [(p1v1)/(p2v2)]
Answer: Option B
389. Which of the following gas is mostly used in town for street and
domestic lighting and heating?
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(A) Producer gas
(B) Coal gas
(C) Mond gas
(D) Coke oven gas
Answer: Option B
390. In an irreversible process, there is a
(A) Loss of heat
(B) No loss of heat
(C) Gain of heat
(D) No gain of heat
Answer: Option A
391. The general law for the expansion or compression of gases, is
(A) pv = C
(B) pv = m R T
(C) pvn = C
(D) pvγ = C
Answer: Option C
392. The principal constituents of a fuel are
(A) Carbon and hydrogen
(B) Oxygen and hydrogen
(C) Sulphur and oxygen
(D) Sulphur and hydrogen
Answer: Option A
393. The reading of the pressure gauge fitted on a vessel is 25 bar. The
atmospheric pressure is 1.03 bar and the value of 'g' is 9.81 m/s2. The
absolute pressure in the vessel is
(A) 23.97 bar
(B) 25 bar
(C) 26.03 bar
(D) 34.81 bar
Answer: Option C
394. High air-fuel ratio in gas turbines
(A) Increases power output
(B) Improves thermal efficiency
(C) Reduces exhaust temperature
(D) Do not damage turbine blades
Answer: Option C
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395. The ratio of root mean square velocity to average velocity of gas
molecules at a particular temperature is
(A) 0.086
(B) 1.086
(C) 1.086
(D) 4.086
Answer: Option B
396. One molecule of oxygen consists of __________ atoms of oxygen.
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 16
Answer: Option A
397. A series of operations, which takes place in a certain order and
restore the initial conditions at the end, is known as
(A) Reversible cycle
(B) Irreversible cycle
(C) Thermodynamic cycle
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
398. The compression ratio for petrol engines is
(A) 3 to 6
(B) 5 to 8
(C) 15 to 20
(D) 20 to 30
Answer: Option B
399. The hyperbolic process is governed by
(A) Boyle's law
(B) Charles' law
(C) Gay-Lussac law
(D) Avogadro's law
Answer: Option A
400. According to kinetic theory of gases, the velocity of molecules
__________ with the increase in temperature.
(A) Remains constant
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
401. The ultimate analysis of coal consists of the determination of the
percentage of
(A) Carbon
(B) Hydrogen and nitrogen
(C) Sulphur and ash
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
402. The heating of gas at constant volume is governed by
(A) Boyle's law
(B) Charles' law
(C) Gay-Lussac law
(D) Avogadro's law
Answer: Option C
403. In a steady flow process, the ratio of
(A) Heat transfer is constant
(B) Work transfer is constant
(C) Mass flow at inlet and outlet is same
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
404. The entropy may be expressed as a function of
(A) Pressure and temperature
(B) Temperature and volume
(C) Heat and work
(D) All of these
Answer: Option A
405. The gas constant (R) is equal to the __________ of two specific
heats.
(A) Sum
(B) Difference
(C) Product
(D) Ratio
Answer: Option B
406. Workdone in a free expansion process is
(A) Zero
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(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) Positive
Answer: Option A
407. Kelvin-Planck's law deals with
(A) Conservation of work
(B) Conservation of heat
(C) Conversion of heat into work
(D) Conversion of work into heat
Answer: Option C
408. Second law of thermodynamics defines
(A) Heat
(B) Work
(C) Internal energy
(D) Entropy
Answer: Option D
409. Which of the following gas has the highest calorific value?
(A) Coal gas
(B) Producer gas
(C) Mond gas
(D) Blast furnace gas
Answer: Option A
410. One reversible heat engine operates between 1600 K and T2 K and
another reversible heat engine operates between T2 K and 400 K. If
both the engines have the same heat input and output, then
temperature T2 is equal to
(A) 800 K
(B) 1000 K
(C) 1200 K
(D) 1400 K
Answer: Option A
411. According to Kelvin-Planck's statement, a perpetual motion of
the __________ is impossible.
(A) First kind
(B) Second kind
(C) Third kind
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
412. The value of one bar (in S. I. units) is equal to
(A) 1 × 102 N/m2
(B) 1 × 103 N/m2
(C) 1 × 104 N/m2
(D) 1 × 105 N/m2
Answer: Option D
413. The value of gas constant (R) in S. I. units is
(A) 0.287 J/kgK
(B) 2.87 J/kgK
(C) 28.7 J/kgK
(D) 287 J/kgK
Answer: Option D
414. The compression ratio for Diesel engines is
(A) 3 to 6
(B) 5 to 8
(C) 15 to 20
(D) 20 to 30
Answer: Option C
415. The ratio of molar specific heats for mono-atomic gas is
(A) 1
(B) 1.4
(C) 1.67
(D) 1.87
Answer: Option C
416. Steam coal is a
(A) Pulverised coal
(B) Brown coal
Answer: Option D
417. When a gas is heated at constant pressure
(A) Its temperature will increase
(B) Its volume will increase
(C) Both temperature and volume will increase
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(D) Neither temperature not volume will increase
Answer: Option C
418. Diesel cycle consists of __________ processes.
(A) Two constant volume and two isentropic
(B) Two constant pressure and two isentropic
(C) Two constant volume and two isothermal
(D) One constant pressure, one constant volume and two isentropic
Answer: Option D
419. Select the wrong statement
(A) A Joule cycle consists of two constant volume and two isentropic
processes.
(B) An Otto cycle consists of two constant volume and two
isentropic processes.
(C) An Ericsson cycle consists of two constant pressure and two
isothermal processes.
Answer: Option A
420. The compression ratio is the ratio of
(A) Swept volume to total volume
(B) Total volume to swept volume
(C) Swept volume to clearance volume
(D) Total volume to clearance volume
Answer: Option D
421. One kg of carbon requires 4/3 kg of oxygen and produces
__________ kg of carbon monoxide gas.
(A) 8/3
(B) 11/3
(C) 11/7
(D) 7/3
Answer: Option D
422. The efficiency of Diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency
when
(A) Cut-off is increased
(B) Cut-off is decreased
(C) Cut-off is zero
(D) Cut-off is constant
Answer: Option C
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423. The behaviour of a perfect gas, undergoing any change in the
variables which control physical properties, is governed by
(A) Boyle's law
(B) Charles' law
(C) Gay-Lussac law
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
424. The __________ is obtained when carbonisation of coal is carried
out at 500° to 700° C.
(A) Soft coal
(B) Hard coal
(C) Pulverised coal
(D) Bituminous coal
Answer: Option A
425. A molecule consisting of one atom is known as
(A) Mono-atomic
(B) Di-atomic
(C) Tri-atomic
(D) Poly-atomic
Answer: Option A
426. The unit of energy is S. I. units is
(A) Joule (J)
(B) Joule metre (Jm)
(C) Watt (W)
(D) Joule/metre (J/m)
Answer: Option A
427. The amount of heat generated per kg of fuel is known as
(A) Calorific value
(B) Heat energy
(C) Lower calorific value
(D) Higher calorific value
Answer: Option A
428. The entropy __________ in an irreversible cyclic process.
(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) None of these
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Answer: Option C
429. For a perfect gas, according to Boyle's law (where p = Absolute
pressure, v = Volume, and T = Absolute temperature)
(A) p v = constant, if T is kept constant
(B) v/T = constant, if p is kept constant
(C) p/T = constant, if v is kept constant
(D) T/p = constant, if v is kept constant
Answer: Option A
430. Which of the following is the extensive property of a
(A) Pressure
(B) Volume
(C) Temperature
(D) Density
Answer: Option B
431. The increase in entropy of a system represents
(A) Increase in availability of energy
(B) Increase in temperature
(C) Decrease in pressure
(D) Degradation of energy
Answer: Option D
432. A cycle consisting of two isothermal and two isentropic processes,
is known as
(A) Carnot cycle
(B) Stirling cycle
(C) Ericsson cycle
(D) Joule cycle
Answer: Option A
433. When coal is strongly heated continuously for 42 to 48 hours in
the absence of air in a closed vessel, the process is known as
__________ of fuel.
(A) Atomisation
(B) Carbonisation
(C) Combustion
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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434. Which of the following is an intensive property of a
(A) Volume
(B) Temperature
(C) Mass
(D) Energy
Answer: Option B
435. In an extensive property of a thermodynamic system
(A) Extensive heat is transferred
(B) Extensive work is done
(C) Extensive energy is utilised
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
436. All perfect gases change in volume by 1/273th of its original
volume at 0°C for every 1°C change in temperature, when the
pressure remains constant. This statement is called
(A) Boyle's law
(B) Charles' law
(C) Gay-Lussac law
(D) Joule's law
Answer: Option B
437. When cut-off ratio is __________ the efficiency of Diesel cycle
approaches to Otto cycle efficiency.
(A) Zero
(B) 1/5
(C) 4/5
(D) 1
Answer: Option A
438. The atomic mass of oxygen is
(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 16
(D) 32
Answer: Option C
439. The gas turbine cycle with regenerator improves
(A) Thermal efficiency
(B) Work ratio
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(C) Avoids pollution
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
440. Which of the following process can be made reversible with the
help of a regenerator?
(A) Constant pressure process
(B) Constant volume process
(C) Constant pvn process
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
441. One kg of carbon produces __________ kg of carbon dioxide.
(A) 3/7
(B) 7/3
(C) 11/3
(D) 3/11
Answer: Option C
442. The kinetic energy per kg molecule of any gas at absolute
temperature T is equal to (where Ru = Universal gas constant)
(A) Ru × T
(B) 1.5 Ru × T
(C) 2 Ru × T
(D) 3 Ru × T
Answer: Option B
443. If in the equation pvn = C, the value of n = ∝, then the process is
called
(C) Constant pressure process
(D) Isothermal process
Answer: Option A
444. The value of specific heat at constant pressure (cp) is __________
that of at constant volume (cv).
(A) Less than
(B) Equal to
(C) More than
(D) None of these
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Answer: Option C
445. One kg of carbon monoxide requires __________ kg of oxygen to
produce 11/7 kg of carbon dioxide gas.
(A) 4/7
(B) 11/4
(C) 9/7
(D) All of these
Answer: Option A
446. The efficiency of Diesel cycle depends upon
(B) Pressure ratio
(C) Compression ratio
(D) Cut-off ratio and compression ratio
Answer: Option D
447. The efficiency of the Carnot cycle is (where T1 and T2 = Highest
and lowest temperature during the cycle)
(A) (T1/T2) - 1
(B) 1 - (T1/T2)
(C) 1 - (T2/T1)
(D) 1 + (T2/T1)
Answer: Option C
448. The gas in cooling chamber of a closed cycle gas turbine is cooled
at
(A) Constant volume
(C) Constant pressure
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
449. When coal is first dried and then crushed to a fine powder by
pulverising machine, the resulting fuel is called
(A) Wood charcoal
(B) Bituminous coal
(C) Briquetted coal
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
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450. The thermodynamic difference between a Rankine cycle working
with saturated steam and the Carnot cycle is that
(A) Carnot cycle can't work with saturated steam
(B) Heat is supplied to water at temperature below the maximum
temperature of the cycle
(C) A Rankine cycle receives heat at two places
(D) Rankine cycle is hypothetical
Answer: Option B
Thermodynamics: Test 01
01. The conditions of temperature and pressure at 0°C (273 K) and
760 mm of Hg pressure are termed as __________ temperature and
pressure.
(A) Normal
(B) Standard
02. One kg of carbon requires 8/3 kg of oxygen for its complete
combustion and produces 11/3 kg of carbon dioxide gas.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
03. When the finely ground coal is moulded under pressure with or
without a binding material, the resulting fuel is called briquetted coal.
(A) Yes
(B) No
04. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of unit mass
of a gas through one degree at constant pressure is called specific heat
at constant pressure.
(A) True
(B) False
05. The state of a substance, whose evaporation from its liquid state is
partial, is known as steam.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
06. Equal volumes of all gases, at the same temperature and pressure,
contain equal number of molecules. This statement is called
Avogadro's law.
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(A) True
(B) False
07. A machine which violates the first law of thermodynamics is
known as perpetual motion machine of the second kind.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
08. If in the equation pvn = C, the value of n = 1, then the process is
called isothermal process.
(A) True
(B) False
09. A cycle consisting of two constant pressure and two isothermal
processes is known as Ericsson cycle.
(A) True
(B) False
10. The amount of heat given out by the complete combustion of 1 kg
of fuel is known as calorific value of solid or liquid fuel.
(A) True
(B) False
11. One m3 of methane (CH4) requires 2m3 of oxygen and produces
1m3 of carbon dioxide and 2m3 of water or steam.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
12. To ensure complete and rapid combustion of a fuel, some quantity
of air, in excess of the theoretical or minimum air is supplied.
(A) Yes
(B) No
13. The molecular mass of a substance is the number of times a
molecule of that substance is heavier than the hydrogen atom.
(A) True
(B) False
14. The lower calorific value of fuel may be obtained by adding the
heat of steam formed during combustion to the higher calorific value.
(A) Yes
(B) No
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15. It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower
temperature to a body at a higher temperature, without the aid of an
external source.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
16. One kg of sulphur requires 1 kg of oxygen for complete
combustion and produces 2 kg of sulphur dioxide.
(A) True
(B) False
17. The numerical value of the thermal capacity and the water
equivalent of the substance are the same.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
18. The efficiency of a dual combustion cycle __________ upon cut-off
ratio.
(A) Depends
(B) Does not depend
19. The change of entropy, when heat is removed from the gas, is
positive.
(A) Yes
(B) No
20. Coal gas consists mainly of hydrogen, carbon monoxide and
various hydrocarbons.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
Answers: Thermodynamics Test 01

Thermodynamics: Test 02
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01. The property of the system, whose value for the entire system is
equal to the sum of their values for the individual parts of the system,
is called extensive property.
(A) Yes
(B) No
02. A process, in which the gas is heated or expanded in such a way
that product of its pressure and volume remains constant, is called
isothermal process.
(A) Yes
(B) No
03. A perpetual motion machine of the first kind is __________
according to first law of thermodynamics.
(A) Possible
(B) Impossible
04. Wood charcoal is produced by heating the wood at 100°C.
(A) Yes
(B) No
05. The amount of heat obtained by the complete combustion of 1 kg
of a fuel when the products of its combustion are cooled down to the
temperature of supplied air is called __________ calorific value of
fuel.
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
06. When a fluid is allowed to expand suddenly into a vacuum
chamber through an orifice of large dimensions, the process is known
as free expansion process.
(A) True
(B) False
07. Water gas is obtained by passing air and a large amount of steam
over waste coal at about 650°C.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
08. The dual combustion cycle consists of one constant pressure, two
constant volume and two isentropic processes.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
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09. The free expansion process is a constant enthalpy process.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
10. The blast furnace gas is a by-product in the production of pig iron
in the blast furnace.
(A) Yes
(B) No
11. If the carbon content in the bituminous coal is 78 to 81%, it is said
to be coking bituminous coal.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
12. The bomb calorimeter is used for finding the __________ calorific
value of solid and liquid fuels.
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
13. The atomic mass of an element is the number of times the atom of
that element is heavier than the hydrogen atom.
(A) True
(B) False
14. The area under the temperature-entropy curve (i. e. T - s curve) of
any thermodynamic process represents the workdone during the
process.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
15. As per Charles' law, the volume of a given mass of a perfect gas
varies __________ as its absolute temperature, when the absolute
pressure remains constant.
(A) Directly
(B) Indirectly
16. Boyle's law states that change of internal energy of a perfect gas is
directly proportional to the change of temperature.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
17. The efficiency of Otto cycle depends upon the specific heats of the
working substance.
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(A) Yes
(B) No
18. It is __________ to construct an engine working on a cyclic
process, whose sole purpose is to convert heat energy into work.
(A) Possible
(B) Impossible
19. Briquetted coal is produced from the finely ground coal by
moulding under pressure with or without a binding material.
(A) True
(B) False
20. The absolute pressure of a given mass of a perfect gas varies
inversely as its volume, when the temperature remains constant. This
statement is known as Boyle's law.
(A) Yes
(B) No
Answers: Thermodynamics Test 02
01. Answer: A 02. Answer: B 03. Answer: B 04. Answer: B
17. Answer: B 18. Answer: B 19. Answer: A 20. Answer: A
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Machine Design:
01. The ratio of belt tensions (p1/p2) considering centrifugal force in
flat belt is given by
(A) (P1 - mv²)/ (P2 - mv²) = eᶠα
(B) P1 / P2 = eᶠα
(C) P1 / P2 = e–ᶠα
(D) (P1 - mv²)/ (P2 - mv²) = e–ᶠα
Where m = mass of belt per metre (kg/m)
v = belt velocity (m/s)
f = coefficient of friction
a = angle of wrap (radians)
Answer: Option A
02. The ultimate strength of steel in tension in comparison to shear is
in the ratio of
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 3 : 2
(D) 2 : 3
Answer: Option C
03. In radial cams, the follower moves
(A) In a direction parallel to the cam axis
(B) In a direction perpendicular to the cam axis
(C) In any direction irrespective of cam axis
(D) Along the cam axis
Answer: Option B
04. The permissible stress for carbon steel under static loading is
generally taken as
(A) 2000-3000 kg/m²
(B) 3000-4000 kg/cm²
(C) 4000-4500 kg/cm²
(D) 7500-10,000 kg/cm²
Answer: Option C
05. The property of a material which enables it to resist fracture due
to high impact loads is known as
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(A) Elasticity
(B) Endurance
(C) Strength
(D) Toughness
Answer: Option D
06. In replacing the V-belts, a complete set of new belts is used instead
of replacing a single damaged belt because
(A) Belts are available in sets
(B) Only one belt cannot be fitted with other used belts
(C) The new belt will carry more than its share and result in short life
(D) New and old belts will cause vibrations
Answer: Option C
07. A hot short metal is
(A) Brittle when cold
(B) Brittle when hot
(C) Brittle under all conditions
(D) Ductile at high temperature
Answer: Option B
08. In case of pressure vessels having closed ends, the fluid pressure
induces
(B) Shear stress
(C) Circumferential stress
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
09. Guest's theory of failure is applicable for following type of
materials
(A) Brittle
(B) Ductile
(C) Elastic
(D) Plastic
Answer: Option B
10. A V-belt designated as B 4430 LP has
(A) 4430 mm as diameter of small pulley
(B) 4430 mm as nominal pitch length
(C) 4430 mm as diameter of large pulley
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(D) 4430 mm as centre distance between pulleys
Answer: Option B
11. Rankine's theory of failure is applicable for following type of
materials
(A) Brittle
(B) Ductile
(C) Elastic
(D) Plastic
Answer: Option A
12. Screws used for power transmission should have
(A) Very fine threads
(B) High efficiency
(C) Low efficiency
(D) Strong teeth
Answer: Option B
13. The value of stress concentration factor depends upon
(A) Material and geometry of the part
(B) Geometry of the part
(C) Material of the part
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
14. Tensile strength of a mild steel specimen can be roughly predicted
from following hardness test
(A) Brinell
(B) Rockwell
(C) Vickers
Answer: Option A
15. Resilience of a material is important, when it is subjected to
(A) Combined loading
(B) Fatigue
(C) Thermal stresses
(D) Shock loading
Answer: Option D
16. The sleeve or muff coupling is designed as a
(A) Dun cylinder
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(B) Hollow shaft
(C) Solid shaft
(D) Thick cylinder
Answer: Option B
17. In a flange coupling, the flanges are coupled together by means of
(A) Bolts and nuts
(B) Studs
(C) Headless taper bolts
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
18. If a load ‘W’ is applied instantaneously on a bar; Then the stress
induced in bar will
(A) Be independent of ratio of mass of load W to mass of bar (y)
(B) Increase with increase in y
(C) Decrease with decrease in y
(D) Depend on other considerations
Answer: Option A
19. According to Indian standard specifications, 100 H6/g5 means that
the
(A) Basic size is 100 mm
(B) Actual size is 100 mm
(C) Difference between the actual size and basic size is 100 mm
Answer: Option A
20. The power transmitted by the belt drive can be increased by
(A) Increasing the initial tension in the belt
(B) Dressing the belt to increase the coefficient of friction
(C) Increasing wrap angle by using idler pulley
(D) All of the above methods
Answer: Option D
21. Surface endurance limit of gear material is dependent upon its
(A) Elastic strength
(B) Yield strength
(C) Brinell hardness number
(D) Toughness
Answer: Option C
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22. When bevel gears connect two shafts whose axes intersect at an
angle greater than a right angle and one of the bevel gears has a pitch
angle of 90°, then they are known as
(A) Crown bevel gears
(B) Angular bevel gears
(C) Mitre gears
(D) Internal bevel gears
Answer: Option A
23. Brittle coating technique is used for
(A) Determining brittleness
(B) Protecting metal against corrosion
(C) Protecting metal against wear and tear
(D) Experimental stress analysis
Answer: Option D
24. Stress concentration is caused due to
(A) Variation in properties of material from point to point in a
member
(B) Pitting at points or areas at which loads on a member are applied
(C) Abrupt change of section
Answer: Option D
25. The endurance limit of a material with finished surface in
comparison to rough surface is
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
(D) More or less depending on quantum of load
Answer: Option A
26. When screw threads are to be used in a situation where power is
being transmitted in one direction only, then the screw threads
suitable for this will be
(A) Knuckle threads
(B) Square threads
(C) Acme threads
(D) Buttress threads
Answer: Option D
27. Slenderness ratio is the ratio of
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(A) Effective length of column to least radius of gyration of the
column
(B) Width of column to depth of column
(C) Maximum size of column to minimum size of column
(D) Effective length of column to width of column
Answer: Option A
28. Plastic flow in ductile materials
(A) Increases the seriousness of static loading stress concentration
(B) Lessens the seriousness of static loading stress concentration
(C) Has no effect on it
(D) Depends on other considerations
Answer: Option B
29. The size of a gear is usually specified by
(A) Pressure angle
(B) Pitch circle diameter
(C) Circular pitch
(D) Diametral pitch
Answer: Option B
30. When the speed of belt increases,
(A) The coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley decreases
(B) The coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley increases
(C) The power transmitted will decrease
(D) The power transmitted will increase
Answer: Option C
31. The load cup of a screw jack is made separate from the head of the
spindle to
(A) Prevent the rotation of load being lifted
(B) Enhance the load carrying capacity of the jack
(C) Reduce the effort needed for lifting the working load
(D) Reduce the value of frictional torque
Answer: Option A
32. The centrifugal tension in belts
(A) Decreases the power transmitted
(B) Increases the power transmitted
(C) Increase the wrap angle
(D) Increases the belt tension without increasing power transmission
Answer: Option D
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33. Stress concentration in cyclic loading is more serious in
(A) Ductile materials
(B) Brittle materials
(C) Equally serious in both cases
Answer: Option A
34. Endurance limit or fatigue limit is the maximum stress that a
member can withstand for an infinite number of load applications
without failure when subjected to
(A) Dynamic loading
(B) Static loading
(C) Combined static and dynamic loading
(D) Completely reversed loading
Answer: Option D
35. An Involute pinion and gear are in mesh. If both have the same
size of addendum, then there will be interference between the
(A) Tip of the pinion and flank of gear
(B) Tip of the gear and flank of pinion
(C) Flanks of both gear and pinion
(D) Tip of both gear and pinion
Answer: Option B
36. Pick up wrong statement. Fatigue strength can be increased by
(A) Cold working
(B) Shot peening
(C) Grinding and lapping surface
(D) Hot working
Answer: Option D
37. Which of the following is not correct procedure to increase the
fatigue limit?
(A) Cold working
(B) Shot peening
(C) Surface decarburisation
(D) Under stressing
Answer: Option C
38. Which of the following screw thread is used for power
transmission in one direction only?
(A) Square threads
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(B) Multiple threads
(C) Acme threads
(D) Buttress threads
Answer: Option D
39. Coaxing is the procedure of increasing
(A) Metal strength by cycling
(B) Metal hardness by surface treatment
(C) Metal resistance to corrosion by coating
(D) Fatigue limit by overstressing the metal by successively
increasing loadings
Answer: Option D
40. Which of the following statement is correct for gears?
(A) The pitch circle diameter is equal to the product of module and
number of teeth
(B) The addendum is less than dedendum
(C) The pitch circle is always greater than the base circle
Answer: Option D
41. The belt slip occurs due to
(A) Heavy load
(B) Loose belt
(C) Driving pulley too small
Answer: Option D
42. Which is correct statement? Stress concentration in static loading
is
(A) Very serious in brittle materials and less serious in ductile
materials
(B) Very serious in ductile materials and less serious in brittle
materials
(C) Equally serious in both types of materials
(D) Seriousness would depend on other factors
Answer: Option A
43. The cracks in helical springs used in railway carriages usually
start on the inner side of the coil because of the fact that
(A) It is subjected to a higher cyclic loading than the outer side
(B) It is subjected to a higher stress than the outer side
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(C) It is more stretched than the outer side during the manufacturing
process
(D) It has a lower curvature than the outer side
Answer: Option A
44. The notch angle of the Izod impact test specimen is
(A) 10°
(B) 20°
(C) 30°
(D) 45°
Answer: Option D
45. In Vickers hardness testing, the pyramid indentor apex is
(A) 40°
(B) 122°
(C) 136°
(D) 152°
Answer: Option C
46. The toughness of a material _________ when it is heated
(A) Does not change
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of the Above
Answer: Option C
47. The number of slots in a 25 mm castle nut is
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 2
Answer: Option A
48. When bevel gears connect two shafts whose axes intersect at an
angle greater than a right angle and one of the bevel gears has a pitch
angle of 90°, then they are known as
(A) Angular bevel gears
(B) Mitre gears
(C) Internal bevel gears
(D) Crown bevel gears
Answer: Option D
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49. The rolling contact bearings are known as
(A) Thick lubricated bearings
(B) Plastic bearings
(C) Antifriction bearings
(D) Thin lubricated bearings
Answer: Option C
50. Cold working
(A) Increases the fatigue strength
(B) Decreases the fatigue strength
(C) Has no influence on fatigue strength
(D) Alone has no influence on fatigue strength
Answer: Option A
51. Yield point in fatigue loading as compared to static loading is
(A) Same
(B) Higher
(C) Lower
Answer: Option C
52. The arms of the pulleys for flat belt drive have
(A) Elliptical cross-section
(B) Major axis in plane of rotation
(C) Major axis twice the minor axis
(D) All the three characteristics
Answer: Option D
53. Residual stress in materials
(A) Acts when external load is applied
(B) Becomes zero when external load is removed
(C) Is independent of external loads
(D) Is always harmful
Answer: Option C
54. In a marine flange coupling, the thickness of flange is taken as
(A) d/2
(B) d/3
(C) 3d/4
(D) d/4
Answer: Option B
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55. The building up of worn and undersized parts, subjected to
repeated loads by electroplating is
(A) Best method
(B) Extremely hazardous
(C) Has no effect as regards fatigue strength
(D) Cheapest method
Answer: Option A
56. In nitrated parts, the origins of the fatigue cracks will occur at
(A) Surface
(B) Just below the surface
(C) Within the core
Answer: Option D
57. The objective of idler pulley in belt drive is to
(A) Decrease the tendency of belt to slip
(B) Increase the power transmission capacity
(C) Increase the wrap angle and belt tension
(D) All the above objectives
Answer: Option D
58. The constant factor in case of R10 series of preferred numbers is
(A) 1.06
(B) 1.12
(C) 1.26
(D) 1.58
Answer: Option C
59. Which one of the following is a positive drive?
(A) V-belt drive
(B) Rope drive
(C) Crossed flat belt drive
(D) Chain drive
Answer: Option D
60. Which process will increase the fatigue duration of parts?
(A) Finishing and polishing
(B) Shotpeening
(C) De-carburisation
(D) Electroplating
Answer: Option B
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61. In most machine members, the damping capacity of the material
should be
(A) Low
(B) Zero
(C) High
(D) Could be anything
Answer: Option C
62. For unequal width of butt straps, the thicknesses of butt straps are
(A) 0.75 t for narrow strap on the inside and 0.625 t for wide strap on
the outside
(B) 0.75 t for wide strap on the inside and 0.625 t for narrow strap on
the outside
(C) 0.75 t for both the straps on the inside and outside
(D) 0.625 t for both the straps on the inside and outside
Answer: Option B
63. The ratio of endurance limit in shear to the endurance limit in
flexure is
(A) 0.33
(B) 0.4
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.55
Answer: Option D
64. The backlash for spur gears depends upon
(A) Module
(B) Tooth profile
(C) Both module and pitch line velocity
(D) Pitch line velocity
Answer: Option C
65. A transmission shaft includes
(A) Over head shaft
(B) Counter shaft
(C) Line shaft
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
66. The groove angle of pulleys for V-belt is
(A) 340 to 360
(B) 420 to 450
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(C) More than 400
(D) 300 to 320
Answer: Option A
67. In unilateral system of tolerance, the tolerance is allowed on
(A) Both sides of the actual size
(B) One side of the actual size
(C) One side of the nominal size
(D) Both sides of the nominal size
Answer: Option C
68. In order to avoid tearing of the plate at an edge, the distance from
the centre line of the rivet hole to the nearest edge of the plate should
be equal to (where d = Diameter of rivet hole)
(A) d
(B) 1.5 d
(C) 2.5 d
(D) 2 d
Answer: Option B
69. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to ultimate
strength in tension is
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/4
(D) 2/3
Answer: Option D
70. The endurance limit in shear of carbon steel can be obtained by
multiplying the endurance limit in flexure by a factor of
(A) 0.45
(B) 0.55
(C) 0.65
(D) 0.75
Answer: Option D
71. A locking device in which the bottom cylindrical portion is
recessed to receive the tip of the locking set screw, is called
(A) Ring nut
(B) Castle nut
(C) Sawn nut
(D) Jam nut
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Answer: Option A
72. A taper key which fits half in the key way of the hub and half in
the key way of shaft, is known as
(B) Mitre gears
(C) Crown Bevel gears
(D) Internal bevel gears
Answer: Option B
73. At low temperatures (say 75°C) the notched bar impact value of
steel
(A) Increases markedly
(B) Decreases markedly
(C) Remain same
(D) Depends on heat treatment carried out
Answer: Option B
74. The taper on cotter varies from
(A) 1 in 24 to 1 in 20
(B) 1 in 15 to 1 in 10
(C) 1 in 32 to 1 in 24
(D) 1 in 48 to 1 in 24
Answer: Option D
75. A bolt
(A) Has a head on one end and a nut fitted to the other
(B) Has head at one end and other end fits into a tapped hole in the
other part to be joined
(C) Has both the ends threaded
(D) Is provided with pointed threads
Answer: Option A
76. If P1 and P2 are the tight and slack side tensions in the belt, then
the initial tension Pi (according to Barth) will be equal to
(A) [(√P1 + √P2)/2]²
(B) P1 + P2
(C) ⅟2 × (P1 + P2)
(D) [⅟2 × (P1 + P2)] + Pc
Where Pc is centrifugal tension
Answer: Option A
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77. A stud
(D) Has pointed threads
Answer: Option C
78. Shear stress theory is applicable for
(C) Elastic materials
Answer: Option A
79. When the shaft rotates in anticlockwise direction at slow speed in a
bearing, it will
(A) Have contact at the bottom most of the bearing
(B) Move towards right of the bearing making no metal to metal
contact
(C) Move towards right of the bearing making the metal to metal
contact
(D) Move towards left of the bearing making metal to metal contact
Answer: Option D
80. A tap bolt
(D) Has pointed threads
Answer: Option B
81. For applications involving high stresses in one direction only the
following type of thread would be best suited
(A) ISO metric thread
(B) Acme thread
(C) Square thread
(D) Buttress thread
Answer: Option D
82. In a horizontal flat belt drive, it is customary to use
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(A) Bottom side of belt as slack side
(B) Top side of belt as slack side
(C) Idler pulley
Answer: Option B
83. The included angle in unified of American National threads is
(A) 60°
(B) 55°
(C) 47°
(D) 29°
Answer: Option A
84. For a shaft diameter of 200 mm, the number of bolts in a marine
flange coupling should be
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 10
Answer: Option A
85. The function of a washer is to
(A) Provide cushioning effect
(B) Provide bearing area
(C) Absorb shocks and vibrations
(D) Provide smooth surface in place of rough surface
Answer: Option B
86. Cap screws are
(A) Similar to small size tap bolts except that a greater variety of
shapes of heads are available
(B) Slotted for a screw driver and generally used with a nut
(C) Used to prevent relative motion between parts
(D) Provided with detachable caps
Answer: Option A
87. If P1 and P2 are the tight and slack side tensions in the belt, then
the initial tension Pi (neglecting centrifugal tension) will be equal to
(A) P1 - P2
(B) P1 + P2
(C) ⅟2 × (P1 + P2)
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(D) [⅟2 × (P1 + P2)] + Pc
Where Pc is centrifugal tension
Answer: Option C
88. An alien bolt is
(A) Self locking bolt
(B) Same as stud
(C) Provided with hexagonal depression in head
(D) Used in high speed components
Answer: Option C
89. The deflection of a cantilever beam under load W is 8. If its width
is halved, then the deflection under load ‘W’ will be
(A) 2/8
(B) 8/2
(C) 4/8
(D) 8/4
Answer: Option C
90. Ball bearing type screws are found in following application
(A) Screw jack
(B) Aeroplane engines
(C) Crane
(D) Steering mechanism
Answer: Option D
91. Machine screws are
(C) Used to prevent relative motion between two parts
(D) Similar to stud
Answer: Option B
92. A machine part subjected to __________ is called a strut.
(A) An axial compressive force
(B) A tangential force
(C) An axial tensile force
Answer: Option A
93. Rivets are generally specified by
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(A) Thickness of plates to be riveted
(B) Length of rivet
(C) Diameter of head
(D) Nominal diameter
Answer: Option D
94. The edges of a boiler plate are bevelled to an angle of
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 80°
Answer: Option D
95. The stress induced in the belt is,
(A) Tensile stress
(C) Direct shear stress
(D) Torsional shear stress
Answer: Option A
96. Which of the following is a permanent fastening?
(A) Bolts
(B) Keys
(C) Cotters
(D) Rivets
Answer: Option D
97. In order to avoid tearing of the plate at edge, the distance from the
center line of the rivet hole to the nearest edge of the plate in terms of
dia. of rivet d should be equal to
(A) d
(B) 1.25 d
(C) 1.5 d
(D) 1.75 d
Answer: Option C
98. The dedendum circle diameter is equal to (where φ = Pressure
angle)
(A) Pitch circle diameter × cosφ
(B) Addendum circle diameter × cosφ
(C) Clearance circle diameter × cosφ
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(D) Pitch circle diameter × sinφ
Answer: Option A
99. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 75%, then the ratio of
diameter of rivet to the pitch is equal to
(A) 0.2
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.50
(D) 0.6
Answer: Option B
100. Transverse fillet welded joints are designed for
(B) Compressive strength
(C) Shear strength
(D) Bending strength
Answer: Option A
101. A sliding bearing which can support steady loads without any
relative motion between the journal and the bearing, is called
(A) Hydrostatic lubricated bearing
(B) Hydrodynamic lubricated bearing
(C) Boundary lubricated bearing
(D) Zero film bearing
Answer: Option A
102. Jam nut is a locking device in which
(A) One smaller nut is tightened over main nut and main nut
tightened against smaller one by loosening, creating friction jamming
(B) A slot is cut partly in middle of nut and then slot reduced by
tightening a screw
(C) A hard fibre or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes
threaded as the nut is screwed on the bolt causing a tight grip
(D) Through slots are made at top and a cotter pin is passed through
these and a hole in the bolt, and cotter spitted and bent in reverse direction
at other end
Answer: Option A
103. When the belt is transmitting maximum power, the belt speed
should be
(A) √(Pmax / 2m)
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(B) √(Pmax / 3m)
(C) √(Pmax / m)
(D) √(3m /Pmax)
Where m = mass of belt per metre (kg/m)
Pmax = maximum permissible tension in belt (N)
Answer: Option B
104. The pitch of threads on a Jock nut in comparison to pitch of nut
is
(A) Same
(B) Coarser
(C) Finer
(D) Very fine
Answer: Option A
105. Buttress threads are usually found on
(A) Screw cutting lathes
(B) Feed mechanisms
(C) Spindles of bench vices
(D) Railway carriage couplings
Answer: Option D
106. A tapered key which fits in a key-way in the hub and is flat on the
shaft, is known as
(A) Woodruff key
(B) Feather key
(C) Flat saddle key
(D) Gib head key
Answer: Option C
107. Fibrous fracture occurs in
(A) Ductile material
(B) Brittle material
(C) Elastic material
(D) Hard material
Answer: Option A
108. When the belt is transmitting maximum power,
(A) The tension in tight side is twice the centrifugal tension
(B) The tension in slack side is equal to the centrifugal tension
(C) The tension in tight side is thrice the centrifugal tension
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Answer: Option A
109. Turn buckle has
(A) Right hand threads on bout ends
(B) Left hand threads on both ends
(C) Left hand threads on one end and right hand threads on other end
(D) No threads
Answer: Option C
110. Eye bolts are used for
(A) Foundation purposes
(B) Absorbing shock and vibrations
(C) Transmission of power
(D) Lifting and transportation of machines and cubicles
Answer: Option D
111. The contact ratio is the ratio of
(A) Length of arc of recess to the circular pitch
(B) Length of path of contact to the circular pitch
(C) Length of arc of contact to the circular pitch
(D) Length of arc of approach to the circular pitch
Answer: Option C
112. Elastic nut is a locking device in which
(A) One small nut is tightened over main nut and main nut tightened
against smaller one by loosening, creating friction jamming
tightening a screw
(C) Hard fibre or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes
threaded as the nut is stewed on the bolt causing a tight grip
these and a hole in the bolt, and cotter pin splitted and bent in reverse
direction at other end
Answer: Option C
113. If d is the normal diameter of a bolt in mm, then the initial
tension in kg in a bolt used for making a fluid tight joint as for steam
engine cover joint is calculated by the relation
(A) 124 d
(B) 138 d
(C) 151 d
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(D) 168 d
Answer: Option D
(A) The stress concentration in static loading is more serious in
ductile materials and less serious in brittle materials
(B) The stress concentration in static loading is more serious in
brittle materials and less serious in ductile materials
(C) The toughness of a material increases when it is heated
(D) The shear stress in a beam varies from zero at the neutral surface
and maximum at the outer fibres
Answer: Option B
115. If threads on a bolt are left hand, threads on nut will be
(A) Right hand with same pitch
(B) Left hand with same pitch
(C) Could be left or right hand
(D) Right hand with fine pitch
Answer: Option B
116. Taper usually provided on cotter is
(A) 1 in 5
(B) 1 in 10
(C) 1 in 24
(D) 1 in 40
Answer: Option C
117. The condition for maximum power transmission is that the
maximum tension in the flat belt should be equal to
(A) 3 Pc
(B) Pc
(C) Pc/3
(D) 2 Pc
Where, Pc = tension in belt due to centrifugal force
Answer: Option A
118. Applications in which stresses are encountered in one direction
only uses following type of threads
(A) Metric
(B) Buttress
(C) Acme
(D) Square
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Answer: Option B
119. The draw of cotter need not exceed
(A) 3 mm
(B) 5 mm
(C) 10 mm
(D) 20 mm
Answer: Option A
120. A bench vice has following type of threads
(A) Metric
(B) Square
(C) Buttress
(D) Acme
Answer: Option D
121. The function of cutting oil when threading a pipe is to
(A) Provide cooling action
(B) Lubricate the dies
(C) Help removes chips
Answer: Option D
(A) The V-belt may be operated in either direction with tight side of
the belt at the top or bottom
(B) The V-belt drive is used with large centre distance
(C) The power transmitted by V-belts is less than flat belts for the
same coefficient of friction, arc of contact and allowable tension in the
belts
(D) The ratio of driving tensions in V-belt drive is more than flat belt
drives
Answer: Option B
123. Tapered roller bearings can take
(A) Axial load only
(B) Both radial and axial loads and the ratio of these being greater
than unity
(C) Radial load only
(D) Both radial and axial loads and the ratio of these being less than
unity
Answer: Option B
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124. Silver based solder is used for
(A) Flaring
(B) Brazing
(C) Soft soldering
(D) Fusion welding
Answer: Option B
125. For tight leakage joints, following type of thread is best suited
(A) Metric
(B) Buttress
(C) Square
(D) NPT (national pipe threads)
Answer: Option D
126. In a hydrodynamic lubricated bearing
(A) There is a thick film of lubricant between the journal and the
bearing
(B) There is a thin film of lubricant between the journal and the
bearing
(C) The lubricant is forced between the journal and the bearing, by
external pressure
(D) There is no lubricant between the journal and the bearing
Answer: Option A
127. The power transmitted by belt drive depends upon
(A) Belt velocity
(B) Initial belt tension
(C) Arc of contact
Answer: Option D
128. In order to permit the thermal expansion/contraction of tubing, it
should be
(A) Crimped
(B) Honed
(C) Flared
(D) Bent
Answer: Option D
129. A tube has the following advantage over pipe
(A) Lighter and easier to handle
(B) Greater shock absorption
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(C) Smoother inside walls
Answer: Option D
130. The strap end of a connecting rod of steam engine is joined by
(A) Gib of cotter joint
(B) Sleeve and cotter joint
(C) Spigot socket cotter joint
(D) Knuckle joint
Answer: Option A
131. When a bolt is subjected to shock loading, the resilience of the
bolt should be considered in order to prevent breakage at the
(A) Thread
(B) Middle
(C) Shank
(D) Head
Answer: Option A
132. The application of third type levers is found in
(A) A pair of tongs
(B) Hand wheel of a punching press
(C) Lever of a loaded safety valve
(D) Handle of a hand pump
Answer: Option A
133. A backing ring is used inside the pipe joint when making a
(A) Butt weld
(B) Fillet weld
(C) Sleeve weld
(D) Socket weld
Answer: Option A
134. The suitable material for belt in agricultural machinery is
(A) Leather
(B) Rubber
(C) Cotton duck
(D) Balata gum
Answer: Option B
135. The shear plane in case of bolts should
(A) Be across threaded portion of shank
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(B) Be parallel to axis of bolt
(C) Be normal to threaded portion of shank
(D) Never be across the threaded portion
Answer: Option D
136. The edges of the plates for cylindrical vessels are usually bevelled
to an angle of 80° for
(A) Reducing stress concentration
(B) Ease of manufacture
(C) Safety
(D) Fullering and caulking
Answer: Option D
137. The piston rod of a steam engine is usually connected to the cross-
head by means of
(A) Bolted joint
(B) Knuckle joint
(C) Cotter joint
(D) Universal joint
Answer: Option C
138. The ratio of endurance limit in shear to the endurance limit in
flexure is
(A) 0.70
(B) 0.25
(C) 0.40
(D) 0.55
Answer: Option D
139. Which of the following pipe joints would be suitable for pipes
carrying steam?
(A) Flanged
(B) Threaded
(C) Bell and spigot
(D) Expansion
Answer: Option D
140. When the belt speed increases
(A) Power transmitted increases
(B) Power transmitted decreases
(C) Power transmitted increases to a maximum value and then
decreases
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(D) Power transmitted remains the same
Answer: Option C
141. Spring index is
(A) Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
(B) Load required to produce unit deflection
(C) Its capability of storing energy
(D) Indication of quality of spring
Answer: Option A
142. If a bearing is designated by the number 305, it means that the
bearing is of
(A) Medium series whose bore is 5 mm
(B) Medium series whose bore is 25 mm
(C) Light series whose bore is 25 mm
(D) Light series whose bore is 5 mm
Answer: Option B
143. The shearing stresses in the inner face as compared to outer face
of the wire in a heavy close coiled spring is
(A) Larger
(B) Smaller
(C) Equal
(D) Larger/smaller depending on diameter of spring coil
Answer: Option A
144. The metal suitable for bearings subjected to heavy loads is
(A) White metal
(B) Silicon bronze
(C) Monel metal
(D) Phosphor bronze
Answer: Option A
145. Form coefficient of spring is
(D) Concerned with strength of wire of spring
Answer: Option C
146. Spring stiffness is
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(D) Its ability to absorb shocks
Answer: Option B
147. The creep in the belt is due to
(A) Effect of temperature on belt
(B) Material of belt
(C) Unequal extensions in the belt due to tight and slack side tensions
(D) Stresses beyond elastic limit of belt material
Answer: Option C
148. When two springs are in series (having stiffness K), the equivalent
stiffness will be
(A) K
(B) K/2
(C) 2K
(D) K/4
Answer: Option B
149. When a close coiled helical spring is compressed, its wire is
subjected to
(A) Tension
(B) Shear
(C) Compression
Answer: Option A
150. A bolt of uniform strength can be developed by
(A) Keeping the core diameter of threads equal to the diameter of
unthreaded portion of the bolt
(B) Keeping the core diameter smaller than the diameter of the
unthreaded portion
(C) Keeping the nominal diameter of threads equal to the diameter of
unthreaded portion of the bolt
Answer: Option A
151. When the bearing is subjected to large fluctuations of load and
heavy impacts, the bearing characteristic number should be
_________ the bearing modulus.
(A) 10 times
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(B) 5 times
(C) 15 times
(D) 20 times
Answer: Option C
152. Which is positive drive?
(A) Flat belt drive
(B) V-belt drive
(C) Crossed belt drive
(D) Timing belt
Answer: Option D
153. If two springs are in parallel then their overall stiffness will be
(A) Half
(B) Same
(C) Double
Answer: Option C
154. In hydrodynamic bearings
(A) The oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the
journal
(B) The oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
(C) Do not require external supply of lubricant
(D) Grease is used for lubrication
Answer: Option A
155. A sliding bearing which operates without any lubricant present, is
called
(A) Zero film bearing
(B) Boundary lubricated bearing
(C) Hydrodynamic lubricated bearing
(D) Hydrostatic lubricated bearing
Answer: Option A
156. The bearings of heavy series have capacity ________ over the
medium series.
(A) 20 to 30%
(B) 10 to 20%
(C) 30 to 40%
(D) 40 to 50%
Answer: Option A
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157. Antifriction bearings are
(A) Sleeve bearings
(B) Hydrodynamic bearings
(C) Thin lubricated bearings
Answer: Option D
158. If p = bearing pressure on projected bearing area, z = absolute
viscosity of lubricant, and N = speed of journal, then the bearing
characteristic number is given by
(A) ZN/p
(B) p/ZN
(C) Z/pN
(D) N/Zp
Answer: Option A
159. Euler’s formula for a mild steel column is not valid if the
slenderness ratio is
(A) 90
(B) 60
(C) 120
(D) 100
Answer: Option B
160. A screw is said to be over hauling screw, if its efficiency is
(A) More than 50 %
(B) Less than 50 %
(C) Equal to 50 %
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
161. The usual clearance provided in hydrodynamic bearing per mm
of diameter of shaft is
(A) 0.01 micron
(B) 0.1 micron
(C) 1 micron
(D) 10 microns
Answer: Option C
162. In hydrostatic bearings
(A) The Oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the
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(D) Grease is used for lubrication
Answer: Option B
163. For hardening alloy steels and high speed steels, they are heated
to
(A) 1100 to 1300°C
(B) 1300 to 1500°C
(C) 500 to 600°C
(D) 700 to 900°C
Answer: Option A
164. Oil in journal bearing should be applied at the point where load is
(A) Nil or lightest
(B) Maximum
(C) Average
Answer: Option A
165. The rated life of a bearing varies
(A) Directly as load
(B) Inversely as square of load
(C) Inversely as cube of load
(D) Inversely as fourth power of load
Answer: Option C
166. The rolling contact bearings as compared to sliding contact
bearings have
(A) Low starting and low running friction except at very high speeds
(B) Accuracy of shaft alignment
(C) Small overall dimensions
Answer: Option D
167. Three different weights fall from a certain height under vacuum.
They will take
(A) Same time to reach earth
(B) Times proportional to weight to reach earth
(C) Times inversely proportional to weight to reach earth
Answer: Option A
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168. The pipe joint mostly used for pipes carrying water at low
pressures is
(A) Socket joint
(B) Nipple joint
(C) Union joint
(D) Spigot and socket joint
Answer: Option A
169. In cross or regular lay ropes
(A) Direction of twist of wires in strands is opposite to the direction
of twist of strands
(B) Direction of twist of wires and strands are same
(C) Wires in two adjacent strands are twisted in opposite direction
(D) Wires are not twisted
Answer: Option A
170. A universal coupling is used to connect two shafts
(A) Which are not in exact alignment
(B) Which are perfectly aligned
(C) Whose axes intersect at a small angle
(D) Have lateral misalignment
Answer: Option C
171. In standard taper roller bearings, the angle of taper of outer
raceway is
(A) 5°
(B) 8°
(C) 15°
(D) 25°
Answer: Option D
172. In composite or reverse laid ropes
(A) Direction of twist of wires in strands is opposite to the direction
of twist of strands
(B) Direction of twist of wires and strands are same
(C) Wires in two adjacent strands are twisted in opposite direction
(D) Wires are not twisted
Answer: Option C
173. Whether any core is required in wire ropes
(A) Yes
(B) No
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(C) Sometimes
(D) Rarely
Answer: Option A
174. The lower deviation is the algebraic difference between the
(A) Actual size and the corresponding basic size
(B) Maximum limit and the basic size
(C) Minimum limit and the basic size
Answer: Option C
175. If shearing stress in nut is half the tensile stress in a bolt, then nut
length should be equal to
(A) Diameter of bolt
(B) 0.75 × diameter of bolt
(C) 1.25 × diameter of bolt
(D) 1.5 × diameter of bolt
Answer: Option A
176. Basic shaft is one
(A) Whose upper deviation is zero
(B) Whose lower deviation is zero
(C) Whose lower as well as upper deviations are zero
(D) Does not exist
Answer: Option A
177. The maximum normal stress theory is used for
(A) Plastic materials
(C) Non-ferrous materials
(D) Ductile materials
Answer: Option B
178. The rivet head used for boiler plate riveting is usually
(A) Pan Head
(B) Snap head
(C) Counter sunk head
(D) Conical head
Answer: Option B
179. Basic hole is one
(A) Whose upper deviation is zero
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(B) Whose lower deviation is zero
(C) Whose lower as well as upper deviations are zero
(D) Does not exist
Answer: Option B
180. I.S. specifies following total number of grades of tolerances
(A) 18
(B) 16
(C) 20
(D) 22
Answer: Option A
181. In the case of an elastic bar fixed at upper end and loaded by a
falling weight at lower end, the shock load produced can be decreased
by
(A) Decreasing the cross-section area of bar
(B) Increasing the cross-section area of bar
(C) Remain unaffected with cross-section area
(D) Would depend upon other factors
Answer: Option A
182. The number of slots in a 25 mm castle nut is
(A) 8
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 6
Answer: Option D
183. Which of the following material has the maximum ductility?
(A) Copper
(B) Mild steel
(C) Aluminium
(D) Zinc
Answer: Option B
184. The included angle for the British Association thread is
(A) 29°
(B) 55°
(C) 47.3°
(D) 60°
Answer: Option B
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185. An open belt drive is used when
(A) Shafts are arranged at right angles and rotate in one definite
direction
(B) Shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the opposite directions
(C) Shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the same directions
(D) Driven shaft is to be started or stopped whenever desired without
interfering with the driving shaft
Answer: Option C
186. Screws used for power transmission should have
(A) Low efficiency
(B) High efficiency
(C) Very fine threads
(D) Strong teeth
Answer: Option B
187. The maximum stress due to stress concentration in a bar having
circular transverse hole, as compared to its static stress without hole
will be
(A) Same in both cases
(B) 2 times more
(C) 3 times more
(D) 4 times more
Answer: Option C
188. The fatigue life of a part can be improved by
(A) Electroplating
(B) Polishing
(C) Coating
(D) Shot peening
Answer: Option D
189. Stress concentration in static loading is more serious in
(C) Equally serious in both cases
Answer: Option B
190. The application of third type levers is found in

(A) Handle of a hand pump
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(B) Hand wheel of a punching press
(C) Lever of a loaded safety valve
(D) A pair of tongs
Answer: Option D
191. In case of V-belt drive
(A) The belt should touch the bottom of groove in the pulley
(B) The belt should not touch the bottom of groove in the pulley
(C) The belt should not touch the sides of groove in the pulley
Answer: Option B
192. Which is correct statement? Stress concentration in cyclic loading
is
(A) Very serious in brittle materials and less serious in ductile
materials
(B) Very serious in ductile materials and less serious in brittle
materials
(C) Equally serious in both types of materials
(D) Seriousness would depend on other factors
Answer: Option C
193. According to I.B.R., when the thickness of boiler shell (t) is
greater than 8 mm, then the diameter of rivet hole (d) is obtained by
(A) Equating tearing resistance of the plate to the shearing resistance
of the rivets
(B) Equating tearing resistance of the plate to the crushing resistance
of the rivets
(C) Equating shearing resistance to the crushing resistance of the
rivets
Answer: Option B
194. In testing a material for endurance strength, it is subjected to
(A) Static load
(B) Dynamic load
(C) Impact load
(D) Completely reversed load
Answer: Option D
195. If a material fails below its yield point, failure would be due to
(A) Straining
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(B) Fatigue
(C) Creep
(D) Sudden loading
Answer: Option B
196. In leaf springs, the longest leaf is known as
(A) Master leaf
(B) Lower leaf
(C) Upper leaf
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
197. For same pulley diameters, center distance, belt speed and belt
and pulley materials,
(A) Open belt drive transmits more power than crossed belt drive
(B) Crossed belt drive transmits more power than open belt drive
(C) Open and crossed belt drives transmit same power
(D) Power transmission does not depend upon open and crossed
types of constructions
Answer: Option B
198. Which is correct statement?
(A) A member made of steel will generally be more rigid than a
member of equal load carrying ability made of cast iron
(B) A member made of cast iron will generally be more rigid than a
member of equal load carrying ability made of steel
(C) Both will be equally rigid
(D) Which one is rigid will depend on several other factors
Answer: Option B
199. When two helical springs of equal lengths are arranged to form a
cluster spring, then
(A) Shear stress in each spring will be equal
(B) Load taken by each spring will be half the total load
(C) Only ‘A’ is correct
(D) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ is correct
Answer: Option D
200. Resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by
(A) Young's modulus
(B) Coefficient of elasticity
(C) Elastic limit
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(D) Endurance limit
Answer: Option D
201. The crest diameter of a screw thread is same as
(A) Major diameter
(B) Minor diameter
(C) Pitch diameter
(D) Core diameter
Answer: Option A
members is known as
(A) Bending stress
(B) Shear stress
(C) Tensile stress
(D) Bearing stress
Answer: Option D
203. The objective of ‘crowning’ of the flat pulleys of belt drive is to
(A) Prevent the belt from running off the pulley
(B) Increase the power transmission capacity
(C) Increase the belt velocity
(D) Prevent the belt joint from damaging the belt surface
Answer: Option A
204. Maximum principal stress theory is applicable for
Answer: Option B
205. The following type of nut is used with alien bolt
(A) Hexagonal nut
(B) Slotted nut
(C) Castle nut
Answer: Option D
206. The standard length of the shaft is
(A) 6 m
(B) 5 m
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(C) 7 m
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
207. Set screws are
(C) Used to prevent relative motion between parts
(D) Similar to stud
Answer: Option C
208. A self locking screw has
(A) Fine threads
(B) Course threads
(C) Coefficient of friction is greater than tangent of load angle
(D) Hole for inserting split pin
Answer: Option C
209. The included angle between the sides of V-belt is
(A) 40°
(B) 45°
(C) 38°
(D) 60°
Answer: Option A
210. The designation M 33 × 2 of a bolt means
(A) Metric threads of 33 numbers in 2 cm
(B) Metric threads with cross-section of 33 mm
(C) Metric threads of 33 mm outside diameter and 2 mm pitch
(D) Bolt of 33 mm nominal diameter having 2 threads per cm
Answer: Option C
211. In order to obtain bolt of uniform strength
(A) Increase shank diameter
(B) Increase its length
(C) Drill an axial hole through head up to threaded portion so that
shank area is equal to root area of thread
(D) Tighten die bolt properly
Answer: Option C
212. The wire ropes make contact at
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(A) Bottom of groove of the pulley
(B) Sides and bottom of groove of the pulley
(C) Anywhere in the groove of the pulley
(D) Sides of groove of the pulley
Answer: Option A
213. A key capable of tilting in a recess milled out in a shaft is known
as
(A) Woodruff key
(B) Feather key
(C) Flat saddle key
(D) Hollow saddle key
Answer: Option A
214. A key made from a cylindrical disc having segmental cross-
section, is known as
(A) Woodruff key
(B) Feather key
(C) Flat saddle key
(D) Gib head key
Answer: Option A
215. The flank of the tooth is the
(A) Surface of the top of the tooth
(B) Surface of the tooth above the pitch surface
(C) Width of the tooth measured along the pitch circle
(D) Surface of the tooth below the pitch surface
Answer: Option D
216. The difference between the tooth space and the tooth thickness as
measured on the pitch circle, is called
(A) Working depth
(B) Clearance
(C) Backlash
(D) Face width
Answer: Option C
217. The valve rod in a steam engine is connected to an eccentric rod
by
(A) Cotter joint
(B) Bolted joint
(C) Knuckle joint
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(D) Universal coupling
Answer: Option C
218. Split nut is a locking device in which
tightening screw
these and a hole in the bolt, and cotter pin splitted and bent in reverse
direction at the other end
Answer: Option B
219. Fabric belts are used in industrial applications because
(A) They are cheap
(B) They can work at high temperature
(C) They are unaffected by moisture and humidity
Answer: Option A
220. Taper on the cotter and slot is provided
(A) On both the sides
(B) On one side only
(C) On none of the sides
(D) May be provided anywhere
Answer: Option B
221. Castle nut is a locking device in which
(B) A slot is cut partly is middle of nut and then slot reduced by
tightening a screw
these and a hole in the bolt, and cotter pin spitted and bent in reverse
direction at other end
Answer: Option D
222. The suitable material for belt used in flour mill is
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(A) Leather
(B) Rubber
(C) Canvas or cotton duck
(D) Balata gum
Answer: Option C
223. When a nut is tightened by placing a washer below it, the bolt will
be subjected to following type of loads
(A) Compression
(B) Tension
(C) Shear
(D) Combined loads
Answer: Option B
224. Gear box is used
(A) To produce torque
(B) For speed reduction
(C) To obtain variable speeds
(D) To increase efficiency of system
Answer: Option C
225. In order to remove internal stresses produced by hardening the
steel, the process usually adopted is
(A) Tempering
(B) Normalising
(C) Annealing
(D) Spheroidising
Answer: Option A
226. If a spring is cut down into two springs, the stiffness of cut
springs will be
(A) Half
(B) Same
(C) Double
Answer: Option C
227. When carbon in the cast iron is principally in the form of
graphite, the cast iron will be of
(A) Brown colour
(B) Yellow colour
(C) White colour
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(D) Grey colour
Answer: Option D
228. Belt slip may occur due to
(A) Heavy load
(B) Loose belt
(C) Driving pulley too small
Answer: Option D
229. The coefficient of friction in belt drive depends upon
(A) Material of belt
(B) Material of pulley
(C) Materials of belt and pulley
(D) Belt velocity
Answer: Option C
230. Aircraft body is usually fabricated by
(A) Welding
(B) Pre-casting
(C) Riveting
(D) Casting
Answer: Option C
231. The resistance to fatigue of a material is measured by
(A) Elastic limit
(B) Ultimate tensile strength
(C) Young's modulus
(D) Endurance limit
Answer: Option D
232. In oilness bearings
(A) The oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the
journal
(D) Grease required to be applied after some intervals
Answer: Option C
233. Stress concentration is caused due to
(A) Variations in load acting on a member
(B) Variations in properties of materials in a member
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(C) Abrupt change of cross-section
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
234. In second type of levers,
(A) Load is in between the fulcrum and effort
(B) Effort is in between the fulcrum and load
(C) Fulcrum is in between the load and effort
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
235. In V-belt drive, belt touches
(A) At bottom
(B) At sides only
(C) Both at bottom and sides
(D) Could touch anywhere
Answer: Option B
236. The radial distance of a tooth from the pitch circle to the top of
the tooth is called
(A) Addendum
(B) Dedendum
(C) Clearance
(D) Working depth
Answer: Option A
237. For standard coarse threads of nut, the threads will be as strong
in failure by shear as the bolt in tension, if the height of nut (h) is
approximately
(A) 0.4 times
(B) 0.6 times
(C) 0.7 times
(D) 0.8 times
Answer: Option A
238. In a gear, having Involute teeth, the normal to the Involute is a
tangent to the
(A) Base circle
(B) Pitch circle
(C) Addendum circle
(D) Dedendum circle
Answer: Option A
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239. Allen bolts are
(A) Self locking bolts
(B) Designed for shock load
(C) Used in aircraft application
(D) Provided with hexagonal depression in head
Answer: Option D
240. The resultant axial load on a bolt depends on
(A) Initial tension
(B) External load applied
(C) Relative elastic yielding (springness) of the bolt and the
connected member
Answer: Option D
241. The ratio of driving tensions for flat belts, neglecting centrifugal
tension, is (where T₁, and T₂ = Tensions on the tight and slack sides of
belt respectively, μ = Coefficient of friction, between the belt and
pulley, and θ = Angle of contact)
(A) T₁/T₂ = μθ
(B) log (T₁/T₂) = μθ
(C) T₁/T₂ =eμθ
(D) T₁/T₂ = log μθ
Answer: Option C
242. If the centre distance of the mating gears having involute teeth is
increased, then the pressure angle
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains unchanged
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
243. An open coiled helical compression spring 'A' of mean diameter
50 mm is subjected to an axial load W. Another spring 'B' of mean
diameter 25 mm is similar to spring 'A' in all respects. The deflection
of spring 'B' will be __________ as compared to spring 'A'.
(A) One-eighth
(B) One-fourth
(C) One-half
(D) Double
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Answer: Option A
244. According to Indian standard specifications, a grey cast iron
designated by 'FG 200' means that the
(A) Carbon content is 2%
(B) Maximum compressive strength is 200 N/mm²
(C) Minimum tensile strength is 200 N/mm²
(D) Maximum shear strength is 200 N/mm²
Answer: Option C
245. A bolt is designed on the basis of __________ with a large factor
of safety.
(A) Direct tensile stress
(B) Direct compressive stress
(C) Direct bending stress
(D) Direct shear stress
Answer: Option A
246. While designing a screw in a screw jack against buckling failure,
the end conditions for the screw are taken as
(A) Both the ends fixed
(B) Both the ends hinged
Answer: Option D
247. In a butt welded joint, the size of weld is __________ the throat of
weld.
(A) 0.5 times
(B) Equal to
(C) 2 times
(D) Double
Answer: Option B
248. According to I.B.R., when the thickness of the boiler shell (t) is
less than 8 mm, then the diameter of the rivet hole (d) is obtained by
(A) Equating tearing resistance of the plate to the shearing resistance
of the rivets
(B) Equating tearing resistance of the plate to the crushing resistance
of the rivets
(C) Equating shearing resistance to the crushing resistance of the
rivets
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Answer: Option C
249. A feather key is generally
(A) Loose in shaft and tight in hub
(B) Tight in shaft and loose in hub
(C) Tight in both shaft and hub
(D) Loose in both shaft and hub
Answer: Option B
250. The process which improves the machinability of steels, but
lowers the hardness and tensile strength is
(A) Normalising
(B) Full annealing
(C) Process annealing
(D) Spheroidising
Answer: Option D
251. The acme threads are usually found on
(A) Spindles of bench vices
(B) Railway carriage couplings
(C) Feed mechanism of machine tools
(D) Screw cutting lathes
Answer: Option D
252. A double fillet welded joint with parallel fillet weld of length ‘l’
and leg ‘s’ is subjected to a tensile force ‘P’. Assuming uniform stress
distribution, the shear stress in the weld is given by
(A) √2P/s.l
(B) P/2.s.l
(C) P/√2.s.l
(D) 2P/s.l
Answer: Option C
253. The included angle for the V-belt is usually
(A) 10°-20°
(B) 30°-40°
(C) 40°-60°
(D) 60°-80°
Answer: Option B
254. The width of the pulley should be __________ width of the belt.
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(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
255. A key way lowers
(A) The strength of the shaft
(B) The rigidity of the shaft
(C) Both the strength and rigidity of the shaft
(D) The ductility of the shaft
Answer: Option C
256. The form factor of a helical gear __________ with the increase in
the helix angle.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains constant
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
257. For a bevel gear having the pitch angle θ, the ratio of formative
number of teeth (TE) to actual number of teeth (T) is
(A) 1/sinθ
(B) 1/cosθ
(C) 1/tanθ
(D) sinθ cosθ
Answer: Option B
258. Which of the following has threads at both ends?
(A) Bolt
(B) Tap bolt
(C) Stud
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
259. The connecting rod bolts are tightened up so that tightening
stress
(A) Is just sufficient to hold parts together
(B) Approaches yield point
(C) Is 50% of yield point
(D) Is about yield point divided by safety factor
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Answer: Option B
260. The circumferential and longitudinal strains in a cylindrical
boiler under internal steam pressure are εc and εl respectively. The
change in volume of the boiler cylinder per unit volume will be
(A) εc + 2εl
(B) 2εc + εl
(C) εc + εl²
(D) εc² + εl
Answer: Option B
261. The material used for brake lining should have __________
coefficient of friction.
(A) Low
(B) High
(C) Moderate
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
262. 18/8 steel contains
(A) 18% nickel and 8% chromium
(B) 18% chromium and 8% nickel
(C) 18% nickel and 8% vanadium
(D) 18% vanadium and 8% nickel
Answer: Option B
263. Which of the following spring is used in mechanical wrist watch?
(A) Helical compression spring
(B) Spiral spring
(C) Torsion spring
(D) Belleville spring
Answer: Option C
264. The effective stress in wire ropes during normal working is equal
to the stress due to
(A) Axial load plus stress due to bending
(B) Acceleration/retardation of masses plus stress due to bending
(C) Axial load plus stress due to acceleration/retardation
(D) Bending plus stress due to acceleration/retardation
Answer: Option A
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265. In levers, leverage is the ratio of
(A) Load lifted to the effort applied
(B) Mechanical advantage to the velocity ratio
(C) Load arm to the effort arm
(D) Effort arm to the load arm
Answer: Option D
266. A special case of ductility which permits materials to be rolled or
hammered into thin sheets, is called
(A) Plasticity
(B) Elasticity
(C) Ductility
(D) Malleability
Answer: Option D
267. Wahl's stress factor __________ very rapidly as the spring index
decreases.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
268. When an open coiled helical compression spring is subjected to an
axial compressive load, the maximum shear stress induced in the wire
is (where D = Mean diameter of the spring coil, d = Diameter of the
spring wire, K = Wahl's stress factor, and W = Axial compressive load
on the spring)
(A) (WD/ πd3) × K
(B) (2WD/ πd3) × K
(C) (4WD/ πd3) × K
(D) (8WD/ πd3) × K
Answer: Option D
269. The face of the tooth is the
(A) Surface of the top of the tooth
(B) Surface of the tooth above the pitch surface
(C) Surface of the tooth below the pitch surface
(D) Width of the tooth measured along the pitch circle
Answer: Option B
270. In a marine flange coupling, the pitch circle diameter of bolts is
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taken as
(A) 1.2 d
(B) 1.6 d
(C) 2d
(D) 2.5 d
Answer: Option B
271. The helix angle for double helical gears may be made up to
(A) 45°
(B) 60°
(C) 75°
(D) 90°
Answer: Option A
272. The bending moment M and a torque T is applied on a solid
circular shaft. If the maximum bending stress equals to maximum
shear stress developed, then M is equal to
(A) T/2
(B) T
(C) 2T
(D) 4T
Answer: Option A
273. The distribution of the forces along the length of key fitted in a
shaft
(A) Varies linearly
(B) Is uniform throughout
(C) Varies exponentially, being more near the torque-input end
(D) Varies exponentially, being less near the torque-input end
Answer: Option C
274. According to Indian standard specifications, 100 H6/g5 means
that
(A) Tolerance grade for the hole is 6 and for the shaft is 5
(B) Tolerance grade for the shaft is 6 and for the hole is 5
(C) Tolerance grade for the shaft is 4 to 8 and for the hole is 3 to 7
(D) Tolerance grade for the hole is 4 to 8 and for the shaft is 3 to 7
Answer: Option A
275. In designing a flange coupling, the pitch circle diameter of bolts is
taken as (where d = Diameter of the shaft)
(A) 2d
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(B) 3d
(C) 4d
(D) 5d
Answer: Option B
276. A column of length l is fixed at both ends. The equivalent length
of the column is
(A) l/2
(B) l/√2
(C) l
(D) 2 l
Answer: Option A
277. The notch sensitivity q is expressed in terms of fatigue stress
concentration factor Kf and theoretical stress concentration factor Kt
as
(A) (Kf + 1)/ (Kt + 1)
(B) (Kf - 1)/ (Kt - 1)
(C) (Kt + 1)/ (Kf + 1)
(D) (Kt - 1)/ (Kf - 1)
Answer: Option B
278. If the centre distance of the mating gears having involute teeth is
varied within limits, the velocity ratio.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
279. A type of brake commonly used in motor cars is a
(A) Shoe brake
(B) Band and block brake
(C) Band brake
(D) Internal expanding brake
Answer: Option D
280. Which of the following property is essential for spring materials?
(A) Stiffness
(B) Ductility
(C) Resilience
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(D) Plasticity
Answer: Option C
281. The objective of caulking in a riveted joint is to make the joint
(C) Free from stress
(D) Leak-proof
Answer: Option D
282. The bending stress in a curved beam is
(A) Zero at the centroidal axis
(B) Zero at the point other than centroidal axis
(C) Maximum at the neutral axis
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
283. Rankine Gordon formula for buckling is valid for
(A) Long column
(B) Short column
(C) Short and long column
(D) Very long column
Answer: Option C
284. In the levers of third type, the mechanical advantage is
__________ one.
(A) Less than
(B) Equal to
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
285. The maximum efficiency of a square threaded screw is
(A) (1 - sinφ)/ (1 + sinφ)
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(B) (1 + sinφ)/ (1 - sinφ)
(C) (1 - sinφ)/ (1 + cosφ)
(D) (1 + cosφ)/ (1 - sinφ)
Answer: Option A
286. A compound cylinder with inner radius 50 mm and outer radius
70 mm is made by shrinking one cylinder on to the other cylinder, the
junction radius is 60 mm and the junction pressure is 1.1 N/mm². The
maximum hoop stress developed in the inner cylinder is
(A) 3.6 N/mm² compression
(B) 3.6 N/mm² tension
(C) 7.2 N/mm² compression
(D) 7.2 N/mm² tension
Answer: Option C
287. When the screw in a mechanical screw jack rotates, the load kept
on the top of it moves
(A) Axially upwards
(B) Axially downwards
(C) Axially upwards or downwards
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
288. A bolt of M 24 × 2 means that
(A) The pitch of the thread is 24 mm and depth is 2 mm
(B) Cross-sectional area of the threads is 24 mm²
(C) The nominal diameter of bolt is 24 mm and pitch is 2 mm
(D) The effective diameter of bolt is 24 mm and there are 2 threads
per cm
Answer: Option C
289. Oldham coupling is used to connect two shafts
(A) Which are perfectly aligned
(B) Which are not in exact alignment
(C) Which have lateral misalignment
(D) Whose axes intersect at a small angle
Answer: Option C
290. The size of a cam depends upon
(A) Base circle
(B) Pitch circle
(C) Prime circle
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(D) Pitch curve
Answer: Option A
291. According to I.B.R., the factor of safety of riveted joint should not
be less than
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option D
292. When a material is subjected to fatigue loading, the ratio of the
endurance limit to the ultimate tensile strength is
(A) 0.20
(B) 0.35
(C) 0.50
(D) 0.65
Answer: Option C
293. A hollow saddle key is
(A) A taper key which fits half in the key way of hub and half in the
key way of shaft
(B) A taper key which fits in a key way of the hub and is flat on the
shaft
(C) A taper key which fits in a key way of the hub and the bottom of
the key is shaped to fit the curved surface of the shaft
(D) Provided in pairs at right angles and each key is to withstand
torsion in one direction only
Answer: Option C
294. A tapered key which fits in a key way in the hub and the bottom
of which is shaped to fit the curved surface of the shaft, is known as,
(A) Hollow saddle key
(B) Hollow key
(C) Soft key
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
295. When the length of the journal is equal to the diameter of the
journal, then the bearing is said to be a
(A) Short bearing
(B) Long bearing
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(C) Medium bearing
(D) Square bearing
Answer: Option D
296. In order to determine the stresses in a thin cylinder due to an
internal pressure, it is assumed that
(A) The effect of curvature of the cylinder wall is neglected
(B) The tensile stresses are uniformly distributed over the section of
the walls
(C) The effect of the restraining action of the heads at the end of the
pressure vessel is neglected
Answer: Option D
297. Two closely coiled helical springs with stiffness k₁ and k₂
respectively are connected in series. The stiffness of an equivalent
spring is given by
(A) (k₁ k₂)/ (k₁ + k₂)
(B) (k₁ - k₂)/ (k₁ + k₂)
(C) (k₁ + k₂)/ (k₁ k₂)
(D) (k₁ - k₂)/ (k₁ k₂)
Answer: Option A
298. The cross-section of the arm of a bell crank lever is
(A) Rectangular
(B) Elliptical
(C) I-section
Answer: Option D
299. Two shafts A and B under pure torsion are of identical length and
identical weight and are made of the same material. The shaft A is
solid and the shaft B is hollow. We can say that
(A) Shaft B is better than shaft A
(B) Shaft A is better than shaft B
(C) Both the shafts are equally good
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
300. The connecting rod bolts are tightened up with initial tension
greater than the external load so that
(A) Joint may not open up
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(B) Bolts are weakest elements
(C) The resultant load on the bolt would not be affected by the
external cyclic load
(D) Bolts will not loosen during service
Answer: Option C
301. When spring index increases, the value of Wahl's stress factor
(A) Increases linearly
(B) Decreases linearly
(C) Remains same
(D) Increases exponentially
Answer: Option D
302. In worm gears, the pressure angle is ________ the angle between
two inclined faces in axial plane.
(A) Half
(B) Twice
(C) Thrice
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
303. A steel containing __________ 0.8% carbon is known as hypo-
eutectoid steel.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
304. The material commonly used for crane hooks is
(A) Cast iron
(B) Wrought iron
(C) Mild steel
(D) Aluminium
Answer: Option B
305. A leaf spring in automobiles is used
(A) To apply forces
(C) To absorb shocks
(D) To store strain energy
Answer: Option C
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306. The velocity factor for very accurately cut and ground metallic
gears operating at velocities upto __________ are equal to 6/(6 + v).
(A) 10 m/s
(B) 12.5 m/s
(C) 15 m/s
(D) 20 m/s
Answer: Option D
307. When a circular beam of diameter d is subjected to a shear force
F, the maximum shear stress induced will be
(A) 4F/ πd²
(B) 6F/ πd²
(C) 8F/ πd²
(D) 16F/ 3πd²
Answer: Option D
308. According to Indian standards, total numbers of fundamental
deviations are
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
Answer: Option D
309. The most important dimension in the design of a nut is
(A) Pitch diameter
(B) Inside diameter
(C) Outside diameter
(D) Height
Answer: Option D
axial compressive load, the stress induced in the wire is
(A) Tensile stress
(C) Shear stress
(D) Bending stress
Answer: Option C
311. If T₁ and T₂ are the tensions on the tight and slack sides of the belt
respectively, and Tc is the centrifugal tension, then initial tension in
the belt is equal to
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(A) T₁ - T₂ + Tc
(B) T₁ + T₂ + Tc
(C) (T₁ - T₂ + Tc)/2
(D) (T₁ + T₂ + Tc)/2
Answer: Option D
312. The relation between the pitch of the chain (p) and pitch circle
diameter of the sprocket (D) is given by (where T = Number of teeth
on the sprocket)
(A) p = D sin (90°/T)
(B) p = D sin (120°/T)
(C) p = D sin (180°/T)
(D) p = D sin (360°/T)
Answer: Option C
313. Cast iron pipes are mainly used
(A) For conveying steam
(B) In water and sewage systems
(C) In pressure lubrication systems on prime movers
Answer: Option B
314. The modulus of elasticity for mild steel is approximately equal to
(A) 80 kN/mm²
(B) 100 kN/mm²
(C) 110 kN/mm²
(D) 210 kN/mm²
Answer: Option D
315. If an application calls for stresses on screw threads in one
direction only, then the following type of thread would be best suited
(A) Square
(B) Acme
(C) Buttress
(D) BSW
Answer: Option C
316. The stress in the threaded part of the bolt will be __________ as
compared to the shank.
(A) Same
(B) Higher
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(C) Lower
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
317. In designing a connecting rod, it is considered like __________ for
buckling about Y-axis.
(B) Both ends fixed
Answer: Option B
318. For a square key made of mild steel, the shear and crushing
strength are related as
(A) Shear strength is equal to crushing strength
(B) Shear strength is greater than crushing strength
(C) Shear strength is less than crushing strength
Answer: Option A
319. In thrust bearings, the load acts
(A) Along the axis of rotation
(B) Parallel to the axis of rotation
(C) Perpendicular to the axis of rotation
(D) In any direction
Answer: Option A
320. When compared to the rod of the same diameter and material, a
wire rope
(A) Is less flexible
(B) Has a much smaller load carrying capacity
(C) Does not provide much warning before failure
(D) Provides much greater time for remedial action before failure
Answer: Option B
321. In the assembly of pulley, key and shaft
(A) Pulley is made the weakest
(B) Key is made the weakest
(C) Key is made the strongest
(D) All the three are designed for equal strength
Answer: Option B
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322. Lewis form factor for 14½° composite and full depth involute
system is (where T = Number of teeth)
(A) 0.124 - (0.684/T)
(B) 0.154 - (0.912/T)
(C) 0.175 - (0.841/T)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
(A) The distance from a point on one thread to the corresponding
point on the next thread is called pitch
(B) The distance which a screw thread advances axially in one
rotation of the nut is called lead
(C) In single start threads, lead is equal to pitch
Answer: Option D
324. The design of shafts made of brittle materials is based on
(A) Guest's theory
(B) Rankine's theory
(C) St Venant's theory
(D) Von Mises theory
Answer: Option B
325. When a beam of rectangular cross-section of width b and depth d,
is subjected to a shear force F, the maximum shear stress induced will
be
(A) F/bh
(B) 3F/2bh
(C) 2F/bh
(D) 4F/bh
Answer: Option B
326. The endurance or fatigue limit is defined as the maximum value
of the stress which a polished standard specimen can withstand
without failure, for infinite number of cycles, when subjected to
(A) Static load
(B) Dynamic load
(C) Static as well as dynamic load
(D) Completely reversed load
Answer: Option D
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327. Two shafts will have equal strength, if
(A) Diameter of both the shafts is same
(B) Angle of twist of both the shafts is same
(C) Material of both the shafts is same
(D) Twisting moment of both the shafts is same
Answer: Option D
328. The pitch diameter is the __________ diameter of an external or
internal screw thread.
(A) Effective
(B) Smallest
(C) Largest
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
329. The efficiency of a square threaded screw is maximum if the helix
angle is equal to
(Where φ = Angle of friction)
(A) 90° - φ
(B) 45° - φ
(C) 45° - φ/2
(D) 45° + φ/2
Answer: Option C
330. According to maximum shear stress theory, the maximum shear
stress in the shaft is
(A) (1/2) × √(σ² + 4τ²)
(B) √(σ² + 4τ²)
(C) (1/2) × [σ + √(σ² + 4τ²)]
(D) σ + √(σ² + 4τ²)
Answer: Option A
331. When two nonintersecting and non-coplanar shafts are connected
by gears, the arrangement is known as
(A) Spur gearing
(B) Helical gearing
(C) Bevel gearing
(D) Spiral gearing
Answer: Option D
332. The ratio of driving tensions in V-belt drives is __________ flat
belt drives.
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(A) Equal to
(B) sinα times more than
(C) sinα times less than
(D) cosecα times more than
Answer: Option D
333. The temperature required for full annealing in hypereutectoid
steel is
(A) 50°C above upper critical temperature
(B) 50°C below upper critical temperature
(C) 50°C above lower critical temperature
(D) 50°C below lower critical temperature
Answer: Option A
334. A screw is said to be over hauling screw, if the
(A) Friction angle is less than helix angle
(B) Friction angle is more than helix angle
(C) Friction angle is equal to helix angle
(D) Efficiency of screw is 100%
Answer: Option A
335. In case of thick cylinders, the tangential stress across the
thickness of cylinder is
(C) Maximum at the inner surface and zero at the outer surface
(D) Maximum at the outer surface and zero at the inner surface
Answer: Option B
336. In a partial journal bearing, the angle of contact of the bearing
with the journal is
(A) 120°
(B) 180°
(C) 270°
(D) 360°
Answer: Option A
337. In a band and block brake, the ratio of tensions on the tight and
slack sides of band is given by (where μ = Coefficient of friction
between the blocks and the drum, θ = Semi-angle of each block
subtending at the centre of drum, and n = Number of blocks)
(A) T₁/T₂ = μθ × n
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(B) T₁/T₂ = (μθ)n
(C) T₁/T₂ = [(1 - μ tanθ)/ (1 + μ tanθ)]n
(D) T₁/T₂ = [(1 + μ tanθ)/ (1 - μ tanθ)]n
Answer: Option D
338. In a flat belt drive, if the slip between the driver and belt is 1 %,
between the belt and follower is 3% and driver and follower pulley
diameters are equal, then velocity ratio of the drive will be
(A) 0.96
(B) 0.97
(C) 0.98
(D) 0.99
Answer: Option A
339. The allowable static stress for steel gears is approximately
__________ of the ultimate tensile stress.
(A) One-fourth
(B) One-third
(C) One-half
(D) Double
Answer: Option B
340. Rankine's theory is used for
(A) Brittle materials
(B) Ductile materials
(D) Plastic materials
Answer: Option A
341. Wire ropes as compared to cotton ropes
(A) Are lighter in weight
(B) Offer silent operation
(C) Can withstand shock loads
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
342. A connecting rod subjected to an axial load may buckle with
(A) X-axis as neutral axis
(B) Y-axis as neutral axis
(C) X-axis or Y-axis as neutral axis
(D) Z-axis
Answer: Option C
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343. Two shafts A and B are made of the same material. The diameter
of shaft A is twice as that of shaft B. The power transmitted by the
shaft A will be __________ of shaft B.
(A) Twice
(B) Four times
(C) Eight times
(D) Sixteen times
Answer: Option C
344. The material commonly used for machine tool bodies is
(A) Mild steel
(B) Aluminium
(C) Brass
(D) Cast iron
Answer: Option D
345. For longitudinal joint in boilers, the type of joint used is
(A) Butt joint with single cover plate
(B) Butt joint with double cover plate
(C) Lap joint with one ring overlapping the other
Answer: Option B
346. In helical gears, the distance between similar faces of adjacent
teeth along a helix on the pitch cylinders normal to the teeth, is called
(A) Normal pitch
(B) Axial pitch
(C) Diametral pitch
(D) Module
Answer: Option A
347. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion which will mesh
with any gear without interference for 20° full depth involute teeth
will be
(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 18
(D) 24
Answer: Option C
348. In a multiple V-belt drive, when a single belt is damaged, it is
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preferable to change the complete set in order to
(A) Reduce vibration
(B) Reduce slip
(C) Ensure uniform loading
(D) Ensure proper alignment
Answer: Option C
349. According to Rankine's theory, the failure occurs at a point in a
member
(A) When the maximum shear stress in a biaxial stress system
reaches the shear stress at elastic limit in a simple tension test
(B) When the maximum principal stress in a biaxial stress system
reaches the elastic limit of the material in a simple tension test
(C) When the strain energy per unit volume in a biaxial stress system
reaches the strain energy at the elastic limit per unit volume as determined
from a simple tension test
(D) When the maximum principal strain in a biaxial stress system
reaches the strain at the elastic limit as determined from a simple tension
test
Answer: Option B
350. Which one of the following loading is considered for the design of
axles?
(A) Bending moment only
(B) Twisting moment only
(C) Combined bending moment and twisting moments
(D) Combined action of bending moment, twisting moment and axial
thrust
Answer: Option A
351. Lewis equation in gears is used to find the
(A) Tensile stress in bending
(B) Shear stress
(C) Compressive stress in bending
(D) Fatigue stress
Answer: Option C
352. A metal pipe of 1 m diameter contains a fluid having a pressure
of 1 N/mm². If the permissible tensile stress in the metal is 20 N/mm²,
then the thickness of the metal required for making the pipe will be
(A) 5 mm
(B) 10 mm
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(C) 15 mm
(D) 25 mm
Answer: Option D
353. The elasticity is the property of a material which enables it to
(A) Regains its original shape after deformation when the external
forces are removed
(B) Draw into wires by the application of a tensile force
(C) Resists fracture due to high impact loads
(D) Retain deformation produced under load permanently
Answer: Option A
354. A locking device extensively used in marine type connecting rod
ends is a
(A) Jam nut
(B) Castle nut
(C) Sawn nut
(D) Ring nut
Answer: Option D
355. For a shaft diameter of 100 mm, the number of bolts in a flange
coupling should be
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10
Answer: Option A
356. When the connected members are very yielding (soft gasket) as
compared to the bolt, then the resultant load on the bolt will be equal
to the
(A) Initial tension
(C) Sum of the initial tension and external load applied
(D) Initial tension or external load, whichever is greater
Answer: Option C
357. The shock absorbing capacity of a bolt can be increased by
(A) Tightening it properly
(B) Increasing shank diameter
(C) Grinding the shank
(D) Making shank diameter equal to core diameter of thread.
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Answer: Option D
358. According to Unwin's formula, the relation between the diameter
of rivet hole (d) and the thickness of plate (t) is given by (where d and t
are in mm)
(A) d = t
(B) d = 1.6 t
(C) d = 2t
(D) d = 6t
Answer: Option D
359. When two non-parallel or intersecting but coplanar shafts are
connected by gears, the arrangement is known as,
(A) Bevel gearing
(B) Helical gearing
(C) Worm gearing
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
(A) The pitch of rivets is obtained by equating the tearing resistance
of the plate to the shearing resistance of the rivets
(B) The pitch of rivets should not be less than 2d, where d is the
diameter of rivet hole
(C) The maximum value of the pitch of rivets for a longitudinal joint
of a boiler, as per I.B.R., is given by Pmax = C.t + 41.28 mm
(D) According to I.B.R., the thickness of butt strap shall not be less
than 5 mm
Answer: Option D
361. The process extensively used for making bolts and nuts is
(A) Hot piercing
(B) Extrusion
(C) Cold peening
(D) Cold heading
Answer: Option D
axial load (W), the compression produced in the spring will be (where
n = No. of active turns of the spring, and G = Modulus of rigidity for
the spring material)
(A) 2WD3n/Gd⁴
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(B) 4WD3n/Gd⁴
(C) 8WD3n/Gd⁴
(D) 16WD3n/Gd⁴
Answer: Option C
363. In a steam engine, the piston rod is usually connected to the
crosshead by means of a
(A) Knuckle joint
(B) Cotter joint
(C) Oldham coupling
(D) Universal joint
Answer: Option B
364. When a closely coiled helical spring is subjected to a couple about
its axis, the stress induced in the wire material of the spring is
(A) Bending stress only
(B) A combination of torsional shear stress and bending
(C) Direct shear stress only
(D) A combination of bending stress and direct shear stress
Answer: Option A
365. In a belt drive, if the pulley diameter is doubled keeping the
tension and belt width constant, then it will be necessary to
(A) Increase the key length
(B) Increase the key depth
(C) Increase the key width
(D) Decrease the key length
Answer: Option A
366. In an oil lubricated journal bearing, the coefficient of friction
between the journal and the bearing
(A) Remains constant at all speeds
(B) Is minimum at zero speed and increases monotonically with
increase in speed
(C) Is maximum at zero speed and decreases monotonically with
increase in speed
(D) Becomes minimum at an optimum speed and then increases with
further increase in speed
Answer: Option D
367. The largest diameter of an external or internal screw thread is
known as
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(A) Minor diameter
(B) Major diameter
(C) Pitch diameter
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
368. For high speed engines, the cam follower should move with
(A) Uniform velocity
(B) Simple harmonic motion
(C) Uniform acceleration and retardation
(D) Cycloidal motion
Answer: Option D
369. The taper on a rectangular sunk key is
(A) 1 in 16
(B) 1 in 32
(C) 1 in 48
(D) 1 in 100
Answer: Option D
370. In designing thick cylinders, the equation used is
(A) Lame's equation
(B) Birnie's equation
(C) Clavarinos' equation
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
371. A double strap butt joint (with equal straps) is
(A) Always in single shear
(B) Always in double shear
(C) Either in single shear or double shear
Answer: Option B
372. The ratio of pitch circle diameter in millimetres to the number of
teeth, is called
(A) Circular pitch
(B) Diametral pitch
(C) Module
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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373. A sliding bearing in which although lubricant is present, the
working surfaces __________ contact each other at least part of the
time, is called boundary lubricated bearing.
(A) Partially
(B) Fully
(C) Either ‘A’ or ‘B’
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
374. In radial bearings, the load acts __________ to the axis of
rotation.
(A) Parallel
(B) Perpendicular
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
375. The shear stress at a point in a shaft subjected to a torque is
(A) Directly proportional to the polar moment of inertia and to the
distance of the point from the axis
(B) Directly proportional to the applied torque and inversely
proportional to the polar moment of inertia
(C) Directly proportional to the applied torque and the polar moment
of inertia
(D) Inversely proportional to the applied torque and the polar
moment of inertia
Answer: Option B
376. The dedendum is the radial distance from the
(A) Pitch circle to the top of a tooth
(B) Pitch circle to the bottom of a tooth
(C) Top of a tooth to the bottom of a tooth
(D) Addendum circle to the clearance circle
Answer: Option B
377. According to Indian standards, the diameter of rivet hole is made
larger than the basic size of rivet by
(A) 0.5 mm upto rivet diameter of 24 mm
(B) 1 mm for rivet diameter from 27 mm to 36 mm
(C) 2 mm for rivet diameter from 39 mm to 48 mm
Answer: Option C
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378. The helix angle for single helical gears ranges from
(A) 10° to 15°
(B) 15° to 20°
(C) 20° to 35°
(D) 35° to 50°
Answer: Option C
379. The centre distance between two meshing involute gears is equal
to
(A) (Sum of base circle radii)/cosφ
(B) (Difference of base circle radii)/cosφ
(C) (Sum of pitch circle radii)/cosφ
(D) (Difference of pitch circle radii)/cosφ
Answer: Option A
380. In block brakes, the ratio of shoe width to wheel diameter is
taken between
(A) 0.1 and 0.25
(B) 0.25 and 0.50
(C) 0.50 and 0.75
(D) 0.75 and 1
Answer: Option B
381. Auto frettage is the method of
(A) Joining thick cylinders
(B) Calculating stresses in thick cylinders
(C) Pre-stressing thick cylinders
(D) Increasing the life of thick cylinders
Answer: Option C
382. A fast and loose pulley drive is used when
(A) Shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the opposite directions
(B) Shafts are arranged parallel and rotate in the same directions
(C) Shafts are arranged at right angles and rotate in one definite
direction
(D) Driven shaft is to be started or stopped whenever desired without
interfering with the driving shaft
Answer: Option D
383. The stretching in a belt can be controlled by __________ the
stress in the belt.
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(A) Reducing
(B) Increasing
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
384. The property of a material which enables it to be drawn into
wires with the application of a tensile force, is called
(A) Plasticity
(B) Elasticity
(C) Ductility
(D) Malleability
Answer: Option C
385. The cold working of metals is carried out __________ the
recrystallisation temperature.
(A) Above
(B) Below
(C) At
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
386. The expansion joint is mostly used for pipes which carry steam at
__________ pressures.
(A) Low
(B) High
(C) Medium
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
387. Crushing resistance required to crush the rivet per pitch length is
(A) p.d.σc
(B) p.t.σc
(C) n.d.t.σc
(D) (p - d) t.σc
Answer: Option C
388. The strength of a riveted joint is equal to
(A) Tearing strength of plate (Pt)
(B) Shearing strength of rivet (Ps)
(C) Crushing strength of rivet (Pc)
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(D) Least value of Pt Ps and Pc
Answer: Option D
389. The material generally used for aircraft components is
(A) Mild steel
(B) High speed steel
(C) Stainless steel
(D) Aluminium
Answer: Option D
390. In the calculation of induced shear stress in helical springs, the
Wahl's stress factor is used to take care of
(A) Combined effect of transverse shear stress and bending stress in
the wire
(B) Combined effect of bending stress and curvature of the wire
(C) Combined effect of transverse shear stress and curvature of wire
(D) Combined effect of torsional shear stress and transverse shear
stress in the wire
Answer: Option B
391. During hot working of metals,
(A) Porosity of the metal is largely eliminated
(B) Grain structure of the metal is refined
(C) Mechanical properties are improved due of refinement of grains
Answer: Option D
392. The static tooth load should be __________ the dynamic load.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
393. For circumferential joint in boilers, the type of joint used is
(A) Butt joint with single cover plate
(B) Butt joint with double cover plate
(C) Lap joint with one ring overlapping the other
Answer: Option C
394. The efficiency of a riveted joint is equal to
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(A) Pt /P
(B) Ps /P
(C) Pc /P
(D) Least of Pt, Ps and Pc/P
Answer: Option D
395. If a shaft made from ductile material is subjected to combined
bending and twisting moment, calculations based on which one of the
following failure theories will give the most conservative value?
(A) Maximum principal stress theory
(B) Maximum shear stress theory
(C) Maximum strain energy theory
(D) Maximum distortion energy theory
Answer: Option A
396. An elastic bar is fixed at the upper end and loaded at the lower
end by a falling weight. The shock load produced can be reduced by
(A) Increasing the length of bar
(B) Decreasing the cross-sectional area of the bar
(C) Decreasing the modulus of elasticity of the bar
Answer: Option D
members is known as
(A) Tensile stress
(B) Bending stress
(C) Bearing stress
(D) Shear stress
Answer: Option C
398. According to I.B.R., shearing resistance required to shear off the
rivet per pitch length (in double shear) is (where n = Number of rivets
per pitch length)
(A) (π/4) d² × τ × n
(B) 1.875 × (π/4) d² × τ × n
(C) 2 × (π/4) d² × τ × n
(D) 3 × (π/4) d² × τ × n
Answer: Option B
399. A shaft is subjected to a maximum bending stress of 80 N/mm²
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and maximum shearing stress equal to 30 N/mm² at a particular
section. If the yield point in tension of the material is 280 N/mm² and
the maximum shear stress theory of failure is used, then the factor of
safety obtained will be
(A) 2.5
(B) 2.8
(C) 3.0
(D) 3.5
Answer: Option B
400. The initial tension (in newtons) in a bolt used for making a fluid
tight joint like steam engine cover joints, is calculated by the relation
(where d = Nominal diameter of bolt in mm)
(A) 1420 d
(B) 1680 d
(C) 2080 d
(D) 2840 d
Answer: Option D
401. A connecting rod should be
(A) Strong in buckling about X-axis
(B) Strong in buckling about Y-axis
(C) Equally strong in buckling about X-axis and Y-axis
Answer: Option C
402. Two shafts of the same length and material are joined in series. If
the ratio of their diameters is 2, then the ratio of their angles of twist
will be
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 16
Answer: Option D
403. A steel containing 0.8% carbon is known as
(A) Eutectoid steel
(B) Hypereutectoid steel
(C) Hypo-eutectoid steel
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
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404. Creep in belt is due to
(A) Material of the belt
(B) Material of the pulley
(C) Uneven extensions and contractions due to varying tension
Answer: Option C
405. Stress concentration factor is defined as the ratio of
(A) Maximum stress to the endurance limit
(B) Nominal stress to the endurance limit
(C) Maximum stress to the nominal stress
(D) Nominal stress to the maximum stress
Answer: Option C
406. Deep groove ball bearings are used for
(A) Heavy thrust load only
(B) Small angular displacement of shafts
(C) Radial load at high speed
(D) Combined thrust and radial loads at high speed
Answer: Option D
407. Which of the following screw thread is adopted for power
transmission in either direction?
(A) Acme threads
(B) Square threads
(C) Buttress threads
(D) Multiple threads
Answer: Option B
408. The contact ratio for gears is
(A) Zero
(B) Less than one
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
409. The gears are termed as medium velocity gears, if their
peripheral velocity is
(A) 1-3 m/s
(B) 3-15 m/s
(C) 15-30 m/s
(D) 30-50 m/s
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Answer: Option B
410. The design calculations for members subject to fluctuating loads
with the same factor of safety, yield the most conservative estimates
when using
(A) Gerber relation
(B) Soderberg relation
(C) Goodman relation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
411. In a multiple V-belt drive, if one of the belts break, then
(A) Only the broken belt is replaced
(B) The entire set of belts is replaced
(C) The broken belt and the belt on either side of it, is replaced
(D) The broken belt need not to be replaced
Answer: Option B
412. A steel containing upto 0.15% carbon is known as
(A) Mild steel
(B) Dead mild steel
(C) Medium carbon steel
(D) High carbon steel
Answer: Option B
413. When a helical compression spring is cut into halves, the stiffness
of the resulting spring will be
(A) Same
(B) Double
(C) One-half
(D) One-fourth
Answer: Option B
414. A coupling used to connect two perfectly aligned shafts, is
(A) Muff coupling
(B) Compression coupling
(C) Flange coupling
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
415. Soderberg relation is based on __________ of the material
whereas all other failure relation for dynamic loading are based on
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ultimate strength of the material.
(A) Elastic strength
(B) Yield strength
(C) Shear strength
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
416. A connecting rod is designed as a
(A) Long column
(B) Short column
(C) Strut
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
417. When bevel gears having equal teeth and equal pitch angles
connect two shafts whose axes intersect at right angle, then they are
known as
(B) Crown bevel gears
(C) Internal bevel gears
(D) Mitre gears
Answer: Option D
418. When the connected members are very yielding (soft gasket) as
compared to the bolt, then the resultant load on the bolt will be equal
to the
(A) Initial tension
Answer: Option C
419. The property of a bearing material which has the ability to
accomodate shaft deflections and bearing inaccuracies by plastic
deformation without excessive wear and heating, is known as
(A) Bondability
(B) Embeddability
(C) Comformability
(D) Fatigue strength
Answer: Option C
420. The shock resistance of steel is increased by adding
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(A) Nickel
(B) Chromium
(C) Nickel and chromium
(D) Cobalt and molybdenum
Answer: Option C
421. In cylindrical cams, the follower moves
(A) In a direction perpendicular to the cam axis
(B) In a direction parallel to the cam axis
(C) In any direction irrespective of cam axis
Answer: Option B
422. For general industrial machinery, the ratio of the length of
journal to its diameter is taken as
(A) 0.5 to 1
(B) 1 to 2
(C) 3 to 5
(D) 5 to 10
Answer: Option B
423. In order to ensure self locking in a screw jack, it is essential that
helix angle is __________ friction angle.
(A) Larger than
(B) Smaller than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
424. Which of the following key is preferred for the condition when a
large amount of impact type torque is to be transmitted in both
direction of rotation?
(A) Woodruff key
(B) Feather key
(C) Gib-head key
(D) Tangent key
Answer: Option D
425. The washer is generally specified by its
(A) Outer diameter
(B) Hole diameter
(C) Thickness
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(D) Mean diameter
Answer: Option B
426. According to I.B.R., the distance between the rows of rivets, for
equal number of rivets in more than one row for lap joint or butt joint
(chain riveting) shall not be less than
(A) d
(B) 1.5 d
(C) 2d
(D) 2.5 d
Answer: Option C
427. The product of the diametral pitch and circular pitch is equal to
(A) 1
(B) 1/π
(C) π
(D) π × number of teeth
Answer: Option C
428. In order to have a connecting rod equally strong in buckling
about X-axis and Y-axis, the moment of inertia about X-axis should be
__________ the moment of inertia about Y-axis.
(A) Equal to
(B) Twice
(C) Three times
(D) Four times
Answer: Option D
429. In a boundary lubricated bearing, there is a __________ of
lubricant between the journal and the bearing.
(A) Thick film
(B) Thin film
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
430. Tearing resistance required to tear off the plate per pitch length
is (where p = Pitch of rivets, d = Dia. of rivet hole, and σt = Permissible
tensile stress for plate material)
(A) p.d.σt
(B) p.t.σt
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(C) (p - d) σt
(D) (p - d) t.σt
Answer: Option D
431. According to Indian standards, total numbers of tolerance grades
are
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 20
Answer: Option C
432. The ball bearings are, usually, made from
(A) Low carbon steel
(B) High carbon steel
(D) High speed steel
Answer: Option C
433. A plate with an elliptical hole in the centre, with semi-major
axis (A) perpendicular to the direction of loading and semi-minor
axis (b) along the direction of loading, is subjected to a pull P. The
maximum stress induced at the edge of the hole is equal to (where σ =
Stress for a plate with no hole i.e. nominal stress)
(A) σ [1 + (b/2a)]
(B) σ [1 + (2a/b)]
(C) σ [1 + (b/3a)]
(D) σ [1 + (3a/b)]
Answer: Option B
434. In helical gears, the right hand helixes on one gear will mesh
__________ helixes on the other gear.
(A) Right hand
(B) Left hand
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
(A) A parallel sunk key is a taperless key
(B) A parallel sunk key may be rectangular or square in cross-section
(C) A flat saddle key is a taper key which fits in a key way of the hub
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and is flat on the shaft
Answer: Option D
436. The ratio of the ultimate stress to the design stress is known as
(A) Elastic limit
(B) Strain
(C) Factor of safety
(D) Bulk modulus
Answer: Option C
437. A shaft is subjected to fluctuating loads for which the normal
torque (T) and bending moment (M) are 1000 N-m and 500 N-m
respectively. If the combined shock and fatigue factor for bending is
1.5 and combined shock and fatigue factor for torsion is 2, then the
equivalent twisting moment for the shaft is
(A) 2000 N-m
(B) 2050 N-m
(C) 2100 N-m
(D) 2136 N-m
Answer: Option D
438. Which of the following formula is used in designing a connecting
rod?
(A) Euler's formula
(B) Rankine's formula
(C) Johnson's straight line formula
(D) Johnson's parabolic formula
Answer: Option B
439. In the levers of first type, the mechanical advantage is
__________ one.
(A) Less than
(B) Equal to
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
440. The plasticity is the property of a material which enables it to
(A) Regain its original shape after deformation when the external
forces are removed
(B) Draw into wires by the application of a tensile force
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(C) Resist fracture due to high impact loads
(D) Retain deformation produced under load permanently
Answer: Option D
441. In a journal bearing, the load on the bearing is __________ to the
axis of the journal.
(A) Parallel
(B) Perpendicular
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
442. Which of the following cotter joint will be used to connect strap
end of a connecting rod?
(A) Spigot and socket cotter joint
(B) Sleeve and cotter joint
(C) Gib and cotter joint
Answer: Option C
443. The fatigue stress concentration factor is defined as
(A) The ratio of endurance limit with stress concentration to the
endurance limit without stress concentration
(B) The ratio of endurance limit without stress concentration to the
endurance limit with stress concentration
(C) The product of the endurance limits with and without stress
concentration
Answer: Option B
444. A flange coupling is used to connect two shafts
(A) Which are perfectly aligned
(B) Which are not in exact alignment
(C) Have lateral misalignment
(D) Whose axes intersect at a small angle
Answer: Option A
445. In a full journal bearing, the angle of contact of the bearing with
the journal is
(A) 120°
(B) 180°
(C) 270°
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(D) 360°
Answer: Option D
446. The coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley depends
upon the
(A) Material of belt and pulley
(B) Slip of belt
(C) Speed of belt
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
447. The steel pulleys are __________ in weight than cast iron pulleys
of the same capacity.
(A) Heavier
(B) Lighter
(C) Moderate
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
448. The centre to centre distance between two consecutive rivets in a
row, is called
(A) Margin
(B) Pitch
(C) Back pitch
(D) Diagonal pitch
Answer: Option B
449. If the size of a standard specimen for a fatigue testing machine is
increased, the endurance limit for the material will
(A) Have same value as that of standard specimen
(B) Increase
(C) Decrease
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
450. A crankshaft is a __________ shaft.
(A) Transmission
(B) Machine
(C) Machine frame
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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451. In designing a sleeve coupling, length of the sleeve is taken as
(where d = Diameter of the shaft)
(A) d + 17 mm
(B) 2d + 13 mm
(C) 2d + 20 mm
(D) 3.5d
Answer: Option D
452. The maximum shear stress theory is used for
(C) Plastic materials
(D) Nonferrous materials
Answer: Option B
453. A circular shaft can transmit a torque of 5 kN-m. If the torque is
reduced to 4 kN-m, then the maximum value of bending moment that
can be applied to the shaft is
(A) 1 kN-m
(B) 2 kN-m
(C) 3 kN-m
(D) 4 kN-m
Answer: Option C
454. In worm, gears, pitch lead angle is
(A) Half the angle between two inclined faces in axial plane
(B) The angle between the tangent to the pitch helix and the plane of
rotation
(C) The angle between the tangent to the pitch helix and an element
of the cylinder
Answer: Option B
455. In designing a connecting rod, it is considered like __________ for
buckling about X-axis.
(B) Both ends fixed
Answer: Option A
456. Two rigid plates are clamped by means of bolt and nut with an
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initial force F. After tightening, a separating force P (P < F) is applied
to the lower plate, which in turn acts on the nut. The tension in the
both after this is
(A) F + P
(B) F P
(C) P
(D) F
Answer: Option A
457. The spring mostly used in gramophones is
(A) Helical spring
(B) Conical spring
(C) Flat spiral spring
(D) Volute spring
Answer: Option C
458. The maximum bending stress in a curved beam having
symmetrical section always occur at the
(A) Centroidal axis
(B) Neutral axis
(C) Inside fibre
(D) Outside fibre
Answer: Option C
459. In a flange coupling, the bolts are subjected to
(A) Tensile stress
(C) Shear stress
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
460. The ratio of circumferential stress to longitudinal stress in a thin
cylinder subjected to an internal pressure is
(A) ½
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
Answer: Option C
461. For a shoe brake, the equivalent coefficient of friction is equal to
(where μ = Actual coefficient of friction, and θ = Semi-block angle)
(A) 2μ sinθ/(θ + sinθ)
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(B) μ sinθ/(2θ + sin 2θ)
(C) 4μ sinθ/(θ + sinθ)
(D) 4μ sinθ/(2θ + sin 2θ)
Answer: Option D
462. When a hole of diameter ‘d’ is punched in a metal of thickness 't',
then the force required to punch a hole is equal to (where τu =
Ultimate shear strength of the material of the plate)
(A) d.t.τu
(B) πd.t.τu
(C) π/4 × d².τu
(D) π/4 × d² × t.τu
Answer: Option B
463. In static loading, stress concentration is more serious in
(C) Brittle as well as ductile materials
(D) Elastic materials
Answer: Option A
464. Which of the following statement is correct, for two shafts
connected in parallel?
(A) Torque in each shaft is the same
(B) Shear stress in each shaft is the same
(C) Angle of twist of each shaft is the same
(D) Torsional stiffness of each shaft is the same
Answer: Option C
465. According to I.B.R., the efficiency of a double riveted butt joint
with double cover straps of equal width should be
(A) 45 to 60 %
(B) 63 to 70 %
(C) 70 to 83 %
(D) 80 to 90 %
Answer: Option C
466. The velocity of sliding ________ the distance of the point of
contact from the pitch point.
(A) Is directly proportional to
(B) Is inversely proportional to
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(C) Is equal to cos φ multiplied by
(D) Does not depend upon
Answer: Option A
467. Idler pulley is used for
(A) Increasing velocity ratio
(B) For applying tension
(C) Changing the direction of motion of belt
(D) All of these
Answer: Option B
468. The period during which the cam follower remains at rest, when
cam moves, is known as
(A) Constant period
(B) Fixed period
(C) Dwell period
(D) Idle period
Answer: Option C
469. According to I.B.R., the efficiency of a triple riveted butt joint
with double straps of unequal width (5 rivets per pitch length) should
be
(A) 45 to 60 %
(B) 63 to 70 %
(C) 70 to 83 %
(D) 80 to 90 %
Answer: Option D
470. Crowning on pulley helps
(A) In decreasing the slip of the belt
(B) In increasing the slip of the belt
(C) To keep the belt in centre on a pulley while it is in motion
(D) To increase pulley life
Answer: Option C
471. Which of the following coupling is used to connect two shafts
which have both lateral and angular misalignment?
(A) Bushed pin type coupling
(B) Universal coupling
(C) Oldham coupling
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
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472. An imaginary circle which by pure rolling action gives the same
motion as the actual gear, is called
(A) Addendum circle
(B) Dedendum circle
(C) Pitch circle
(D) Clearance circle
Answer: Option C
473. Which of the following statement is wrong for a connecting rod?
(A) The connecting rod will be equally strong in buckling about X-
axis and Y-axis, if Ixx = 4 Iyy
(B) If Ixx > 4 Iyy, the buckling will occur about Y-axis
(C) If Ixx < 4 Iyy, the buckling will occur about X-axis
(D) The most suitable section for the connecting rod is T-section
Answer: Option D
474. Which of the following statement is correct regarding power
screws?
(A) The efficiency of a self locking screw can not be more than 50%
(B) The efficiency of Acme (trapezoidal) thread is less than that of a
square thread
(C) If the friction angle is less than the helix angle of the screw, then
the efficiency will be more than 50%
(D) (A) and (B) Only
Answer: Option D
(A) A key is used as a temporary fastening
(B) A key is subjected to tensile stresses
(C) A key is always inserted parallel to the axis of the shaft
(D) A key prevents relative motion between the shaft and boss of the
pulley
Answer: Option B
476. A spring is used to
(A) Measure forces
(B) Apply forces
(C) Store energy
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
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477. The stiffness of a closely coiled helical spring subjected to an axial
load W is equal to (where G = Modulus of rigidity, and n = Number of
active coils)
(A) Gd⁴/ 8D3n
(B) Gd3/ 8D3n
(C) Gd⁴/ 4D3n
(D) Gd⁴/ 8D²n
Answer: Option A
478. Two helical springs of the same material and of equal circular
cross-section, length and number of turns, but having radii 80 mm
and 40 mm, kept concentrically (smaller radius spring within the
larger radius spring), are compressed between two parallel planes
with a load W. The inner spring will carry a load equal to
(A) W/2
(B) 2W/3
(C) W/9
(D) 8W/9
Answer: Option B
479. When the fulcrum is in between the load and effort, the lever is
said to be of
(A) First type
(B) Second type
(C) Third type
Answer: Option A
480. A column is known as a long column if the slenderness ratio is
(A) 40
(B) 50
(C) 70
(D) 100
Answer: Option D
481. In worm gears, the angle between the tangent to the pitch helix
and an element of the cylinder, is known as
(A) Helix angle
(B) Pressure angle
(C) Pitch lead angle
(D) None of these
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Answer: Option A
482. The yield point in static loading is __________ as compared to
fatigue loading.
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
(C) Same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
483. The resilience of a bolt may be increased by
(A) Increasing its shank diameter
(B) Increasing its length
(C) Decreasing its shank diameter
(D) Decreasing its length
Answer: Option B
484. The velocity factor for ordinary cut gears operating at velocities
upto 12.5 m/s is equal to
(A) 0.75/ (0.75 + √v)
(B) 3/ (3 + v)
(C) 4.5/ (4.5 + v)
(D) 6/ (6 + v)
Answer: Option B
485. The bearings of medium series have capacity __________ over the
light series.
(A) 10 to 20 %
(B) 20 to 30 %
(C) 30 to 40 %
(D) 40 to 50 %
Answer: Option C
486. The square threads are usually found on
(A) Spindles of bench vices
(B) Railway carriage couplings
(C) Feed mechanism of machine tools
(D) Screw cutting lathes
Answer: Option C
487. Multiple threads are used to secure
(A) Low efficiency
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(B) High efficiency
(C) High load lifting capacity
(D) High mechanical advantage
Answer: Option B
(A) The cold rolled shafting is stronger than hot rolled shafting
(B) The hot rolled shafting is stronger than cold rolled shafting
(C) The cold rolled and hot rolled shaftings are equally strong
(D) The shafts are not made by rolling process
Answer: Option A
489. The speed of the sprocket reduces as the chain pitch __________
for a given number of teeth.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
490. The permissible stress in the fillet weld is 100 N/mm². The fillet
weld has equal leg lengths of 15 mm each. The allowable shearing load
on the weldment per cm length of the weld is
(A) 7.5 kN
(B) 10.6 kN
(C) 15 kN
(D) 22.5 kN
Answer: Option B
491. The smallest diameter of an external or internal screw thread is
known as
(A) Minor diameter
(B) Major diameter
(C) Pitch diameter
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
492. The shock absorbing capacity of a bolt may be increased by
(A) Increasing its shank diameter
(B) Decreasing its shank diameter
(C) Tightening the bolt properly
(D) Making the shank diameter equal to core diameter of thread
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Answer: Option B
493. The piston pin bearings in heavy duty diesel engines are
(A) Needle roller bearings
(B) Tapered roller bearings
(C) Spherical roller bearings
(D) Cylindrical roller bearings
Answer: Option A
494. The tension on the slack side of the belt is __________ the tension
on the tight side of the belt.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
495. In skew bevel gearing, the axes of shafts are
(A) Intersecting and the teeth are curved
(B) Non-intersecting and nonparallel and the teeth are curved
(C) Non-intersecting and non-parallel and the teeth are straight
Answer: Option C
496. The ball bearings are provided with a cage
(A) To reduce friction
(B) To facilitate slipping of balls
(C) To prevent the lubricant from flowing out
(D) To maintain the balls at a fixed distance apart
Answer: Option D
497. A single strap butt joint is always in __________ shear.
(A) Single
(B) Double
(C) Triple share
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
498. The cam follower extensively used in aircraft engines is
(A) Knife edge follower
(B) Flat faced follower
(C) Spherical faced follower
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(D) Roller follower
Answer: Option D
499. The shear stress in a beam varies from zero at the outer fibres to
a maximum at the________.
(A) Neutral surface
(B) Upper surface
(C) Lower surface
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
500. In helical gears, the distance parallel to the axis, between similar
faces of adjacent teeth, is called
(A) Normal pitch
(B) Axial pitch
(C) Diametral pitch
(D) Module
Answer: Option B
501. The velocity factor for precision metallic gears cut with high
accuracy and operating at velocities upto 20 m/s is equal to
(A) 0.75/ (0.75 + √v)
(B) 3/ (3 + v)
(C) 4.5/ (4.5 + v)
(D) 6/ (6 + v)
Answer: Option A
502. In case of pressure vessels having open ends, the fluid pressure
induces
(B) Circumferential stress
(C) Shear stress
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
503. When the bolt is very yielding as compared to the connected
members, then the resultant load on the bolt will be equal to the
(A) Initial tension
Answer: Option D
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504. The value of Lewis form factor used in design of gears is
(A) Dependent on number of teeth of a gear
(B) Dependent on system of teeth
(C) Independent of size of teeth
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
505. Factor of safety for fatigue loading is the ratio of
(A) Elastic limit to the working stress
(B) Elastic limit to the yield point
(C) Endurance limit to the working stress
(D) Young's modulus to the ultimate tensile strength
Answer: Option C
506. If T is the actual number of teeth on a helical gear and φ is the
helix angle for the teeth, then formative number of teeth is written as
(A) T sec3φ
(B) T sec²φ
(C) T/sec3φ
(D) T cosecφ
Answer: Option A
507. The stress which vary from a minimum value to a maximum
value of the same nature (i.e. tensile or compressive) is called
(A) Repeated stress
(B) Yield stress
(C) Fluctuating stress
(D) Alternating stress
Answer: Option C
508. A screw is said to be a self locking screw, if its efficiency is
(A) Less than 50 %
(B) More than 50 %
(C) Equal to 50 %
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
509. In designing a key, it is assumed that the distribution of forces
along the length of key
(A) Varies linearly
(B) Is uniform throughout
(C) Varies exponentially, being more at the torque-input end
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(D) Varies exponentially, being less at the torque-input end
Answer: Option B
510. The design of the pressure vessel is based on
(B) Hoop stress
(C) Longitudinal and hoop stress
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
511. A chain drive transmits __________ power as compared to belt
drive.
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
512. A triple riveted butt joint with double straps of unequal width is
to be designed for a boiler shell. The pitch of the rivets in the outer
row is double the pitch in the inner row and zigzag riveting is
proposed. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) There are four rivets per pitch length, all in double shear
(B) There are four rivets per pitch length, out of which two are in
single shear and two are in double shear
(C) There are five rivets per pitch length, all in double shear
(D) There are five rivets per pitch length, out of which four are in
double shear and one is in single shear
Answer: Option D
513. For maximum power, the velocity of the belt will be
(A) √(T/m)
(B) √(T/2m)
(C) √(T/3m)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
514. The expression 0.175 - 0.841/T is the Lewis form factor for
(A) 14½° composite and full depth involute system
(B) 20° full depth involute system
(C) 20° stub system
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Answer: Option C
515. The design of pin of a rocker arm of an I.C. engine is based on
(A) Bearing failure
(B) Shearing failure
(C) Bending failure
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
516. According to Indian standards, a bolt thread of 6 mm size of
coarse pitch and with allowance on the threads and normal tolerance
grade is designated as
(A) M6
(B) M8
(C) M6 - 8d
(D) M8 - 6d
Answer: Option C
517. A thin spherical shell of internal diameter d is subjected to an
internal pressure p. If V is the storage capacity of shell, then its
diameter will be
(A) (6V/ π)1/2
(B) (6V/ π)1/3
(C) (6V/ π)2
(D) (6V/ π)3
Answer: Option B
518. In a transverse fillet welded joint, the size of weld is __________
the throat of weld.
(A) 0.5 times
(B) Equal to
(C) 2 times
(D) Double
Answer: Option C
519. The draw of cotter should not be more than
(A) 3 mm
(B) 6 mm
(C) 8 mm
(D) 12 mm
Answer: Option A
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520. The temperature at which the new grains are formed in the metal
is known as
(A) Lower critical temperature
(B) Upper critical temperature
(C) Recrystallisation temperature
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
521. The taper on key is given on
(A) Bottom side only
(B) Top side only
(C) On both sides
(D) Any side
Answer: Option B
522. When a belt drive is transmitting maximum power,
(A) Effective tension is equal to centrifugal tension
(B) Effective tension is half of centrifugal tension
(C) Driving tension on slack side is equal to centrifugal tension
(D) Driving tension on tight side is twice the centrifugal tension
Answer: Option D
523. The angle of twist of shaft is
(A) Directly proportional to (shaft diameter)²
(B) Inversely proportional to (shaft diameter)²
(C) Directly proportional to (shaft diameter)⁴
(D) Inversely proportional to (shaft diameter)⁴
Answer: Option D
524. A spring of stiffness 1000 N/m is stretched initially by 100 mm
from the undeformed position. The work required to stretch it by
another 100 mm is
(A) 5 N-m
(B) 7 N-m
(C) 10 N-m
(D) 15 N-m
Answer: Option D
525. The resultant axial load on a bolt depends upon
(A) External load applied
(B) Initial tension due to tightening of the bolt
(C) Relative elastic yielding of the bolt and the connected members
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Answer: Option D
Machine Design: Test 01

01. When a load W is suddenly applied to a bar of weight W₁, the stress
induced in the bar will increase with the increase in weight W₁
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
02. Screws jacks have multiple threads.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
03. According to law of gearing, the common normal at the point of
contact between a pair of teeth must always pass through the pitch
point.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
04. The major diameter of a screw thread is also known as core or
root diameter.
(A) Yes
(B) No
05. The radial stress across the thickness of a thick cylinder is
maximum at the inner surface and zero at the outer surface.
(A) True
(B) False
06. The diameter of washer is generally taken bigger than the nut size.
(A) True
(B) False
07. Oldham coupling is used to transmit power between two parallel
shafts which are slightly offset.
(A) True
(B) False
08. In a bolt, the plane of shear should be across the threaded portion
of the shank.
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(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
09. The load placed at the top of the screw in a mechanical screw jack
is prevented from rotation by providing a swivelling mechanism.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
10. Two concentric helical springs used to provide greater spring force
are wound is opposite direction.
(A) True
(B) False
11. A quarter turn belt drive is used when the shafts are arranged at
right angles and rotate in one definite direction.
(A) Yes
(B) No
12. When the frictional force helps to apply the brake, then the brake
is said to be self-energizing brake.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
13. The ratio of number of teeth to the pitch circle diameter in
millimetres is called circular pitch.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
14. The springs mostly used in machinery have spring index less than
3.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
15. A plate with a circular hole in the centre is subjected to a pull of P.
The maximum stress induced at the edge of the hole is three times of
the nominal stress.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
16. When percentage of carbon in steel is increased, the ductility of
steel decreases.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
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17. In a belt drive, the velocity ratio is the inverse ratio of the
diameters of driving and driven pulleys.
(A) True
(B) False
18. When the top of a tooth undercuts the root on the mating gear, it is
known as interference.
(A) Yes
(B) No
19. The buttress threads have low frictional resistance characteristic
of the square threads and have the same strength of V-threads.
(A) Yes
(B) No
20. A bushed pin flexible coupling is used to connect two shafts whose
axes intersect at a small angle.
(A) Yes
(B) No
Answers: Machine Design Test 01

01. A connecting rod is four times strong in buckling about Y-axis
than about X-axis.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
02. In a crossed belt drive, the shafts are arranged parallel and rotate
in the same directions.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
03. The square threads are not as strong as V-threads but they offer
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less frictional resistance to motion than Whitworth threads.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
04. In order to obtain the bolts of uniform strength, an axial hole is
drilled through the head as far as the threaded portion such that the
area of shank becomes equal to the root area of the thread.
(A) True
(B) False
05. When the lubricant is forced between the journal and the bearing
by external pressure, the bearing is called hydrostatic lubricated
bearing.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
06. The spindles of bench vices are usually provided with knuckle
threads.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
07. The algebraic difference between the actual size and the
corresponding basic size is called actual deviation.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
08. A material is stressed within elastic limit and its linear strain is
double as compared to lateral strain. The ratio of its Bulk modulus to
Young's modulus will be equal to one.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
09. The interference may only be avoided if the addendum circles of
the two mating gears cut the common tangent to the base circles
between the points of tangency.
(A) True
(B) False
10. The Lewis equation for gear tooth with involute profile predicts
the static load capacity of cantilever beam of uniform strength.
(A) True
(B) False
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11. A turn buckle is used to connect two round rods subjected to
tensile loading and requiring subsequent adjustment for tightening or
loosening.
(A) Yes
(B) No
12. The effect of key ways on a shaft is to reduce its load carrying
capacity and to increase its torsional rigidity.
(A) True
(B) False
13. In a V-belt drive, the belt makes contact at the bottom of the
groove of the pulley.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
14. A connecting rod subjected to an axial load may buckle in the
plane perpendicular to the plane of motion of the connecting rod.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
15. According to Guest's theory, the failure occurs at a point in a
member when the maximum shear stress in a biaxial stress system
reaches the shear stress at elastic limit in simple tension test.
(A) True
(B) False
16. A sliding bearing in which the working surfaces are completely
separated from each other by lubricant is called zero film bearing.
(A) True
(B) False
17. When two parallel and coplanar shafts are connected by gears
having teeth parallel to the axis of the shaft, the arrangement is known
as spiral gearing.
(A) Yes
(B) No
18. A flange coupling is a type of rigid coupling.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
19. In a sawn nut, a slot is cut about half way through the nut and a
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small screw is tightened between the nut and the bolt in order to
produce more friction.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
20. When the effort is in between the fulcrum and load, the lever is
said to be of third type.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect


01. When a cylinder is subjected to a very high internal fluid pressure,
the thin cylinder should be used.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
02. A lap joint is always in single shear.
(A) Yes
(B) No
03. The taper on cotter and slot is made on both the sides.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
04. A feather key transmits a turning moment and permits axial
movement also.
(A) True
(B) False
05. The average shear stress in the hollow shaft is smaller than the
average shear stress in the solid shaft.
(A) True
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(B) False
06. A key is normally made from a cold rolled mild steel bar
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
07. An universal coupling is a type of __________ coupling.
(A) Rigid
(B) Flexible
08. The V-belt is used to transmit great amount of power and when
the two pulleys are very near to each other.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
09. The bolts of smaller diameter than M16 are not permitted in
making fluid tight joints.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
10. The fatigue limit of a material is greatly decreased by poor surface
conditions.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
11. The pressure angle of a cam is the angle between the direction of
the follower motion and a normal to the pitch curve.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
12. A connecting rod subjected to an axial load may buckle in the
plane of motion of the connecting rod.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
13. A parallel sunk key, made of steel, is equally strong in shearing
and crushing.
(A) Yes
(B) No
14. If the helix angle of a helical gear is increased, the load carrying
capacity of the tooth increases.
(A) Correct
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(B) Incorrect
15. The property of a material which enables it to resist fracture due
to high impact loads, is called toughness.
(A) True
(B) False
16. The pressure angle for involute gears depends upon the size of
teeth.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
17. The parallel fillet welded joints are designed for compressive
strength.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
18. Lewis form factor for the 20° full depth involute system is equal to
0.154 - 0.841/T.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
19. When carbon in the cast iron is in the form of cementite, the cast
iron will be of white colour.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
20. In a nut and bolt, the diameter at which the ridges on the bolt are
in complete touch with the ridges of the corresponding nut, is called
pitch diameter.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect

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Internal Combustion (I.C) Engine
01. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine the inlet
valve
(A) Opens at 20° before top dead center and closes at 35° after the
bottom dead center
(B) Opens at top dead center and closes at bottom dead center
(C) Opens at 10° after top dead center and closes 20° before the
bottom dead center
(D) May open or close anywhere
Answer: Option A
02. The operation of forcing additional air under pressure into the
engine cylinder is known as
(A) Supercharging
(B) Carburetion
(C) Turbulence
(D) Delay period
Answer: Option A
03. Compression ratio of I.C. Engines is
(A) The ratio of volumes of air in cylinder before compression stroke
and after compression stroke
(B) Volume displaced by piston per stroke and clearance volume in
cylinder
(C) Ratio of pressure after compression and before compression
(D) Swept volume/cylinder volume
Answer: Option A
04. The air standard efficiency of an I.C. engine is given by (where r =
Compression ratio, and γ = Ratio of specific heats)
(A) 1 - rγ - 1
(B) 1 + rγ - 1
(C) 1 - (1/rγ - 1)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
05. Pick up the wrong statement about supercharging
(A) Supercharging reduces knocking in diesel engines
(B) There can be limited supercharging in petrol engines because of
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detonation
(C) Supercharging at high altitudes is essential
(D) Supercharging results in fuel economy
Answer: Option D
06. The theoretically correct air fuel ratio for petrol engine is of the
order of
(A) 6 : 1
(B) 9 : 1
(C) 12 : 1
(D) 15 : 1
Answer: Option D
07. Number of working strokes per min. for a four stroke cycle engine
are _________ the speed of the engine in r.p.m.
(A) Equal to
(B) One-half
(C) Twice
(D) Four-times
Answer: Option B
08. In an internal combustion engine, the process of removing the
burnt gases from the combustion chamber of the engine cylinder is
known as
(A) Scavenging
(B) Detonation
(C) Supercharging
(D) Polymerisation
Answer: Option A
09. In the opposed piston diesel engine, the combustion chamber is
located
(A) Above the piston
(B) Below the piston
(C) Between the pistons
(D) There is no such criterion
Answer: Option C
10. The ignition of the charge by some hot surface within the engine
before the passage of spark is called
(A) Pre-ignition
(B) Detonation
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(C) Ignition delay
(D) Auto-ignition
Answer: Option A
11. In a typical medium speed, 4-stroke cycle diesel engine
(A) Fuel injection starts at 10° before to dead center and ends at 20°
after tor dead center
(B) Fuel injection starts at top dead center and ends at 20° after top
dead center
(C) Fuel injection starts at just before top dead center and ends just
after top dead center
(D) May start and end anywhere
Answer: Option A
12. Which one of the following engines will have heavier flywheel than
the remaining ones?
(A) 30 kW four-stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m.
(B) 30 kW two-stroke petrol engine running at 1500 r.p.m.
(C) 30 kW two-stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m.
(D) 30 kW four-stroke diesel engine running at 750 r.p.m.
Answer: Option A
13. Which of the following is the lightest and most volatile liquid fuel?
(A) Diesel
(B) Kerosene
(C) Fuel oil
(D) Gasoline
Answer: Option D
14. The working pressure and temperature inside the cylinder of an
internal combustion engine is _________ as compared to a steam
engine.
(A) Low
(B) Very low
(C) High
(D) Very high
Answer: Option D
15. The rating of a diesel engine, with increase in air inlet
temperature, will
(A) Increase linearly
(B) Decrease linearly
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(C) Increase parabolically
(D) Decrease parabolically
Answer: Option B
16. If the temperature of intake air in internal combustion engine
increases, then its efficiency will
(A) Remain same
(B) Decrease
(C) Increase
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
17. The operation of forcing additional air under pressure in the
engine cylinder is known as
(A) Scavenging
(B) Turbulence
(C) Supercharging
(D) Pre-ignition
Answer: Option C
18. The ignition quality of petrol is expressed by
(A) Cetane number
(B) Octane number
(C) Calorific value
(D) All of these
Answer: Option B
19. The mean effective pressure obtained from engine indicator
indicates the
(A) Maximum pressure developed
(B) Minimum pressure
(C) Instantaneous pressure at any instant
(D) Average pressure
Answer: Option D
20. The probability of knocking in diesel engines is increased by
(A) High self ignition temperature
(B) Low volatility
(C) Higher viscosity
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
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21. Pour point of fuel oil is the
(A) Minimum temperature to which oil is heated in order to give off
inflammable vapours in sufficient quantity to ignite momentarily when
brought in contact with a flame
(B) Temperature at which it solidifies or congeals
(C) It catches fire without external aid
(D) Indicated by 90% distillation temperature i.e., when 90% of
sample oil has distilled off
Answer: Option B
22. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the compression
(A) Starts at 40° after bottom dead centre and ends at 30° before top
dead centre
(B) Starts at 40° before bottom dead centre and ends at 30° after
bottom dead centre
(C) Starts at bottom dead centre and ends at top dead centre
Answer: Option A
23. The maximum temperature in the I.C. engine cylinder is of the
order of
(A) 500-1000°C
(B) 1000-1500°C
(C) 1500-2000°C
(D) 2000-2500°C
Answer: Option D
24. In compression ignition engines, swirl denotes a
(A) Haphazard motion of the gases in the chamber
(B) Rotary motion of the gases in the chamber
(C) Radial motion of the gases in the chamber
Answer: Option B
25. Supercharging is the process of
(A) Supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater
than the density of the surrounding atmosphere
(B) Providing forced cooling air
(C) Injecting excess fuel for raising more loads
(D) Supplying compressed air to remove combustion products fully
Answer: Option A
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26. The knocking in spark ignition engines can be reduced by
(A) Retarding the spark
(B) Increasing the engine speed
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
27. An engine indicator is used to determine the following
(A) Speed
(B) Temperature
(C) Volume of cylinder
(D) m.e.p. and I.H.P.
Answer: Option D
28. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the exhaust valve
(A) Opens at 30° before bottom dead centre and closes at 10° after
top dead centre
(B) Opens at 30° after bottom dead centre and closes at 10° before
top dead centre
(C) Opens at bottom dead centre and closes at top dead centre
(D) May open and close anywhere
Answer: Option A
29. The pressure at the end of compression in the case of diesel engine
is of the order of
(A) 6 kg/cm
(B) 12 kg/cm
(C) 20 kg/cm
(D) 35 kg/cm
Answer: Option D
30. The fuels in order of decreasing knock tendency for spark ignition
engines are
(A) Paraffin, aromatic, napthene
(B) Paraffin, napthene, aromatic
(C) Napthene, aromatics, paraffin
(D) Napthene, paraffin, aromatic
Answer: Option B
31. Crankcase explosion in I.C. engines usually occurs as
(A) First a mild explosion followed by a bi explosion
(B) First a big explosion followed by a mil explosion
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(C) Both mild and big explosions occurs simultaneously
(D) Never occurs
Answer: Option A
32. The air requirement of a petrol engine during starting compared
to theoretical air required for complete combustion is
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
(D) May be more or less depending on engine capacity
Answer: Option B
33. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the compression
(A) Starts at 40° after bottom dead centre and ends at 10° before top
dead centre
(B) Starts at 40° before top dead centre and ends at 40° after top dead
centre
(C) Starts at top dead centre and ends at 40° before bottom dead
centre
Answer: Option A
34. It the temperature of intake air in IC engines is lowered, then its
efficiency will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain same
(D) Increase up to certain limit and then decrease
Answer: Option A
35. The loud pulsating noise heard within the cylinder of an internal
combustion engine is known as
(A) Detonation
(B) Turbulence
(C) Pre-ignition
(D) Supercharging
Answer: Option A
36. Which of the following medium is compressed in a Diesel engine
cylinder?
(A) Air alone
(B) Air and fuel
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(C) Air and lub oil
(D) Fuel alone
Answer: Option A
37. Detonation is harmful due to
(A) Increase in the rate of heat transfer, there is a reduction in the
power output and efficiency of the engine
(B) Excessive turbulence which removes most of the insulating gas
boundary layer from the cylinder walls
(C) High intensity of knock causes crankshaft vibration and the
engine runs rough
Answer: Option D
38. A stoichiometric air-fuel ratio is
(A) Chemically correct mixture
(B) Lean mixture
(C) Rich mixture for idling
(D) Rich mixture for over loads
Answer: Option A
39. The firing order in an I.C. engine depends upon
(A) Arrangement of the cylinders
(B) Design of crankshaft
(C) Number of cylinders
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
40. Pick up the false statement
(A) Thermal efficiency of diesel engine is about 34%
(B) Theoretically correct mixture of air and petrol is approximately
15:1
(C) High speed compression engines operate on dual combustion
cycle
(D) S.I. engines are quality governed engines
Answer: Option D
41. The maximum propulsive efficiency of a turbojet engine is at a
speed of
(A) 1000 km/h
(B) 2000 km/h
(C) 2400 km/h
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(D) 3000 km/h
Answer: Option C
42. The ratio of indicated thermal efficiency to the corresponding air
standard cycle efficiency is called
(A) Net efficiency
(B) Efficiency ratio
(C) Relative efficiency
(D) Overall efficiency
Answer: Option C
43. The inlet valve of a four stroke cycle internal combustion engine
remains open for
(A) 130°
(B) 180°
(C) 230°
(D) 270°
Answer: Option C
44. The minimum cranking speed in case of petrol engine is about
(A) Half the operating speed
(B) One fourth of operating speed
(C) 250 - 300 rpm
(D) 60 - 80 rpm
Answer: Option D
45. Number of working strokes per min. for a two stroke cycle engine
is _________ the speed of the engine in r.p.m.
(A) Equal to
(B) One-half
(C) Twice
(D) Four-times
Answer: Option A
46. Flash point of fuel oil is
(C) Temperature at which it catches fire without external aid
(D) Indicated by 90% distillation temperature, i.e. when 90% of
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Answer: Option A
47. In petrol engines, advancing of the spark timing will _________ the
knocking tendency.
(A) Not effect
(B) Decrease
(C) Increase
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
48. In a naturally aspirated diesel engine, the air is supplied by
(A) A supercharger
(B) A centrifugal blower
(C) A vacuum chamber
(D) An injection tube
Answer: Option C
49. A supercharged engine as compared to an ordinary engine
(A) Requires smaller foundation
(B) Is lighter
(C) Consumes less lubricating oil
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
50. Which of the following is not an intern’s combustion engine?
(A) 2-stroke petrol engine
(B) 4-stroke petrol engine
(C) Diesel engine
(D) Steam turbine
Answer: Option D
51. The spark ignition engines are governed by
(A) Hit and miss governing
(B) Qualitative governing
(C) Quantitative governing
(D) Combination of (B) and (C)
Answer: Option C
52. Diesel engine can work on very lean air fuel ratio of the order of
30: 1. A petrol engine can also work on such a lean ratio provided
(A) It is properly designed
(B) Best quality fuel is used
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(C) Cannot work as it is impossible
(D) Flywheel size is proper
Answer: Option C
53. The object of providing masked inlet valve in the air passage of
compression ignition engines is to
(A) Enhance flow rate
(B) Control air flow
(C) Induce primary swirl
(D) Induce secondary turbulence
Answer: Option C
54. In the crankcase method of scavenging, the air pressure is
produced by
(A) Supercharger
(B) Centrifugal pump
(C) Natural aspirator
(D) Movement of engine piston
Answer: Option D
55. The brake power (B.P.) of the engine is given by (where W = Brake
load or dead load in newtons, l = Length of arm in metres, N = Speed
of engine in r.p.m., S = Spring balance reading in newtons, D = Dia. of
brake drum in metres, and d = Dia. of rope in metres)
(A) B.P = (Wl × 2πN)/60 watts
(B) B.P = [(W - S) πDN]/60 watts
(C) B.P = [(W - S) π (D + d) N]/60 watts
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
56. The temperature of interior surface of cylinder wall in normal
operation is not allowed to exceed
(A) 80°C
(B) 120°C
(C) 180°C
(D) 240°C
Answer: Option C
57. Thermal efficiency of a two stroke cycle engine is ________ a four
stroke cycle engine.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
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(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
58. Scavenging is usually done to increase
(A) Thermal efficiency
(B) Speed
(C) Power output
(D) Fuel consumption
Answer: Option C
59. If V₁ is the jet velocity and V₀ is the vehicle velocity, then the
propulsive efficiency of a rocket is given by
(A) [2(V₀/V₁)]/ [1 + (V₀/V₁)²]
(B) (V₀/V₁)/ [1 + (V₀/V₁)²]
(C) V₀/(V₀ + V₁)
(D) V₁/(V₀ + V₁)
Answer: Option A
60. The pressure and temperature at the end of compression stroke in
a petrol engine are of the order of
(A) 4-6 kg/cm² and 200-250°C
(B) 6-12 kg/cm² and 250-350°C
(C) 12-20 kg/cm² and 350-450°C
(D) 20-30 kg/cm² and 450-500°C
Answer: Option B
61. The compression ignition engines are governed by
(A) Hit and miss governing
(D) Combination of (B) and (C)
Answer: Option B
62. The reason for supercharging in any engine is to
(A) Increase efficiency
(B) Increase power
(C) Reduce weight and bulk for a given output
(D) Effect fuel economy
Answer: Option C
63. Stoichiometric ratio is
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(A) Chemically correct air-fuel ratio by weight
(B) Chemically correct air-fuel ratio by volume
(C) Actual air-fuel ratio for maximum efficiency
Answer: Option B
64. Volatility of diesel fuel oil is
(C) It catches fire without external aid
(D) Indicated by 90% distillation temperature, i.e., when 90% of
Answer: Option D
65. The purpose of testing an internal combustion engine is
(A) To determine the information, which cannot be obtained by
calculations
(B) To conform the data used in design, the validity of which may be
doubtful
(C) To satisfy the customer regarding the performance of the engine
Answer: Option D
66. The process of breaking up or a liquid into fine droplets by
spraying is called
(A) Vaporisation
(B) Carburetion
(C) Ionisation
(D) Atomisation
Answer: Option D
67. The ratio of the volume of charge admitted at N.T.P. to the swept
volume of the piston is called
(A) Mechanical efficiency
(B) Overall efficiency
(C) Volumetric efficiency
(D) Relative efficiency
Answer: Option C
68. The air standard efficiency of an Otto cycle compared to diesel
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cycle for the given compression ratio is
(A) Same
(B) Less
(C) More
(D) More or less depending on power rating
Answer: Option C
69. In order to prevent knocking in spark ignition engines, the charge
away from the spark plug should have
(A) Low density
(B) Low temperature
(C) Long ignition delay
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
70. The actual volume of fresh charge admitted in 4-stroke petrol
engine is
(A) Equal to stroke volume
(B) Equal to stroke volume and clearance volume
(C) Less than stroke volume
(D) More than stroke volume
Answer: Option C
71. The power actually developed by the engine cylinder of an I.C.
engine is known as
(A) Theoretical power
(B) Actual power
(C) Indicated power
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
72. In loop scavenging, the top of the piston is
(A) Flat
(B) Contoured
(C) Slanted
(D) Depressed
Answer: Option B
73. The correct sequence of the decreasing order of brake thermal
efficiency of the three given basic types of engines is
(A) Four stroke C.I. engine, four stroke S.I. engine, two stroke S.I.
engine
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(B) Four stroke S.I. engine, four stroke C.I. engine, two stroke S.I.
engine
(C) Four stroke C.I. engine, two stroke S.I. engine, four stroke S.I.
engine
(D) Two stroke S.I. engine, four stroke S.I. engine, four stroke C.I.
engine
Answer: Option A
74. If the compression ratio of an engine working on Otto cycle is
increased from 5 to 7, the percentage increase in efficiency will be
(A) 2 %
(B) 4 %
(C) 8 %
(D) 14 %
Answer: Option D
75. The knocking tendency in compression ignition engines for a given
fuel will be
(A) Enhanced by decreasing compression ratio
(B) Enhanced by increasing compression ratio
(C) Dependent on other factors
Answer: Option A
76. When crude oil is heated, then which of the following hydrocarbon
is given off first?
(A) Kerosene
(B) Gasoline
(C) Paraffin
(D) Natural gas
Answer: Option D
77. Supercharging is the process of supplying the intake air to the
engine cylinder at a density _________ the density of the surrounding
atmosphere.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
78. Polymerisation is a chemical process in which molecules of a
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compound become
(A) Larger
(B) Slowed down
(C) Smaller
(D) Liquid
Answer: Option A
79. In a petrol engine, the fuel supplied to the engine cylinder is mixed
with required quantity of air and the mixture is ignited with a
(A) Fuel pump
(B) Fuel injector
(C) Spark plug
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
80. For maximum power generation, the air fuel ratio for a petrol
engine for vehicles, is of the order of
(A) 9 : 1
(B) 12 : 1
(C) 15 : 1
(D) 18 : 1
Answer: Option B
81. The ratio of the indicated thermal efficiency to the air standard
efficiency is known as
(D) Relative efficiency
Answer: Option D
82. The knock in diesel engine occurs due to
(A) Instantaneous and rapid burning of the first part of the charge
(B) Instantaneous auto ignition of last part of charge
(C) Delayed burning of the first part of the charge
(D) Reduction of delay period
Answer: Option A
83. Which of the following statement is correct regarding petrol
engines?
(A) A fine fuel spray mixed with air is ignited by the heat of
compression which is at a high pressure
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(B) The fuel supplied to the engine cylinder is mixed with necessary
amount of air and the mixture in ignited with the help of a spark plug
(C) The fuel is first evaporated after passing through a carburettor
and is mixed with air before ignition
Answer: Option B
84. If one cylinder of a diesel engine receives more fuel than the
others, then for that cylinder the
(A) Exhaust will be smoky
(B) Piston rings would stick into piston grooves
(C) Engine starts overheating
(D) Scavenging occurs
Answer: Option D
85. Pre-ignition is caused by the spontaneous combustion of the
mixture before the end of the compression stroke, and is due to
(A) Cylinder walls being too hot
(B) Overheated spark plug points
(C) Red hot carbon deposits on cylinder walls
Answer: Option D
86. Scavenging air in diesel engine means
(A) Air used for combustion sent under pressure
(B) Forced air for cooling cylinder
(C) Burnt air containing products of combustion
(D) Air used for forcing burnt gases out of engine's cylinder during
the exhaust period
Answer: Option D
87. The reference fuels for knock rating of spark ignition engines
would include
(A) Iso-octane and alpha-methyl naphthalene
(B) Normal octane and aniline
(C) Isooctane and normal hexane
(D) Normal heptane and isooctane
Answer: Option D
88. The working cycle in case of four stroke engine is completed in
following number of revolutions of crankshaft
(A) 1/2
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(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
Answer: Option C
89. The brake power of a diesel engine, keeping other parameters
constant, can be increased by
(A) Decreasing the density of intake air
(B) Increasing the temperature of intake air
(C) Increasing the pressure of intake air
(D) Decreasing the pressure of intake air
Answer: Option C
90. Engine pistons are usually made of aluminium alloy because it
(A) Is lighter
(B) Wear is less
(C) Absorbs shocks
(D) Is stronger
Answer: Option A
91. Which of the following fuel detonates readily?
(A) Benzene
(B) Iso-octane
(C) Normal heptane
(D) Alcohol
Answer: Option C
92. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engines
(A) Exhaust valve opens at 35° before bottom dead centre and closes
at 20° after top dead centre
(B) Exhaust valve opens at bottom dead centre and closes at top dead
centre
(C) Exhaust valve opens just after bottom dead centre and closes just
before top dead centre
Answer: Option A
93. During idling, a petrol engine requires _________ mixture.
(A) Lean
(B) Rich
(C) Chemically correct
(D) None of these
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Answer: Option B
94. The air-fuel ratio in petrol engines is controlled by
(A) Controlling valve opening/closing
(B) Governing
(C) Injection
(D) Carburetion
Answer: Option D
95. The function of a distributor in a coil ignition system of I.C.
engines is
(A) To distribute spark
(B) To distribute power
(C) To distribute current
(D) To time the spark
Answer: Option D
96. The specific fuel consumption per BH hour for a petrol engine is
approximately
(A) 0.15 kg
(B) 0.2 kg
(C) 0.25 kg
(D) 0.3 kg
Answer: Option C
97. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the expansion
(A) Starts at top dead centre and ends at bottom dead centre
(B) Starts at 30° before top dead centre and ends at 50° before
bottom dead centre
(C) Starts at 30° after top dead centre and ends at 50° after bottom
dead centre
Answer: Option B
98. Which of the following is false statement?
Excess quantities of sulphur in diesel fuel are Objectionable because it
may cause the following
(A) Piston ring and cylinder wear
(B) Formation of hard coating on piston skirts
(C) Oil sludge in the engine crank case
(D) Detonation
Answer: Option D
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99. As compared to air standard cycle, in actual working, the effect of
variation in specific heats is to
(A) Increase maximum pressure and maximum temperature
(B) Reduce maximum pressure and maximum temperature
(C) Increase maximum pressure and decrease maximum temperature
(D) Decrease maximum pressure and increase maximum temperature
Answer: Option B
100. Fuel consumption of diesel engines is not guaranteed at one
quarter load because at such low loads
(A) The friction is high
(B) The friction is unpredictable
(C) The small difference in cooling water temperature or in internal
friction has a disproportionate effect
(D) The engine is rarely operated
Answer: Option C
101. By higher octane number of spark ignition fuel, it is meant that
the fuel has
(A) Higher heating value
(B) Higher flash point
(C) Lower volatility
(D) Longer ignition delay
Answer: Option D
102. In diesel engine the diesel fuel injected into cylinder would burn
instantly at about compressed air temperature of
(A) 250°C
(B) 500°C
(C) 1000°C
(D) 2000°C
Answer: Option C
103. A gas engine has a swept volume of 300 cm3 and clearance
volume of 25 cm3. Its volumetric efficiency is 0.88 and mechanical
efficiency is 0.90. The volume of the mixture taken in per stroke is
(A) 248 cm3
(B) 252 cm3
(C) 264 cm3
(D) 286 cm3
Answer: Option C
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104. In a typical medium speed 4-stroke cycle diesel engine
(A) Compression starts at 35° after bottom dead center and ends at
top dead center
(B) Compression starts at bottom dead center and ends at top dead
center
(C) Compression starts at 10° before bottom dead center and, ends
just before top dead center
May start and end anywhere
(D) Answer: Option A
105. In a petrol engine, the mixture has the lowest pressure at the
(A) Beginning of suction stroke
(B) End of suction stroke
(C) End of compression stroke
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
106. The specific fuel consumption per BHP hour for diesel engine is
approximately
(A) 0.15 kg
(B) 0.2 kg
(C) 0.25 kg
(D) 0.3 kg
Answer: Option B
(A) Compression ratio for petrol engines varies from 6 to 10
(B) Higher compression ratio in diesel engines results in higher
pressures
(C) Petrol engines work on Otto cycle
Answer: Option D
108. All heat engines utilize
(A) Low heat value of oil
(B) High heat value of oil
(C) Net calorific value of oil
(D) Calorific value of fuel
Answer: Option A
(A) A four stroke cycle engine develops twice the power as that of a
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two stroke cycle engine
(B) For the same power developed, a four stroke cycle engine is
lighter, less bulky and occupies less floor area
(C) The petrol engines are costly than diesel engines
Answer: Option D
110. Does the supply of scavenging air at a density greater than that of
atmosphere mean engine is supercharged?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) To some extent
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: Option B
111. Which one of the following event would reduce volumetric
efficiency of a vertical compression ignition engine?
(A) Inlet valve closing after bottom dead centre
(B) Inlet valve closing before bottom dead centre
(C) Inlet valve opening before top dead centre
(D) Exhaust valve closing after top dead centre
Answer: Option B
112. In a diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by
(A) Spark
(B) Injected fuel
(C) Heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for
combustion
(D) Ignition
Answer: Option C
113. Which of the following does not relate to a spark ignition engine?
(A) Ignition coil
(B) Spark plug
(C) Carburettor
(D) Fuel injector
Answer: Option D
114. Compression loss in I.C engines occurs due to
(A) Leaking piston rings
(B) Use of thick head gasket
(C) Clogged air inlet slots
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Answer: Option D
115. Iso-octane (C₈H₁₈) has octane number of
(A) 0
(B) 50
(C) 100
(D) 120
Answer: Option C
116. As a result of detonation in an I.C. engine, following parameter
attains very high value
(A) Peak pressure
(B) Rate of rise of pressure
(C) Rate of rise of temperature
(D) Peak temperature
Answer: Option B
117. A two stroke cycle engine gives ________ the number of power
strokes as compared to the four stroke cycle engine, at the same
engine speed.
(A) Half
(B) Same
(C) Double
(D) Four times
Answer: Option C
118. The accumulation of carbon in a cylinder results in increase of
(A) Clearance volume
(B) Volumetric efficiency
(C) Ignition time
(D) Effective compression ratio
Answer: Option D
119. In a four stroke cycle engine, the sequence of operations is
(A) Suction, compression, expansion and exhaust
(B) Suction, expansion, compression and exhaust
(C) Expansion, compression, suction and exhaust
(D) Compression, expansion, suction and exhaust
Answer: Option A
120. Gaseous fuel guarantees are based on
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(A) Calorific value of oil
(B) Low heat value of oil
(C) High heat value of oil
(D) Mean heat value of oil
Answer: Option B
121. The ratio of the work obtained at the crankshaft in a given time
to the energy supplied during the same time is called
(C) Indicated thermal efficiency
(D) Volumetric efficiency
Answer: Option B
122. The size of inlet valve of an engine in comparison to exhaust valve
is
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
(D) More/less depending on capacity of engine
Answer: Option B
123. The volumetric efficiency of a well designed engine may be
(A) 30 to 40 %
(B) 40 to 60 %
(C) 60 to 70 %
(D) 75 to 90 %
Answer: Option D
124. A 5 BHP engine running at full load would consume diesel of the
order of
(A) 0.3 kg/hr
(B) 1 kg/hr
(C) 3 kg/hr
(D) 5 kg/hr
Answer: Option B
125. A petrol engine, during suction stroke draws
(A) Air only
(B) Petrol only
(C) A mixture of petrol and air
(D) None of these
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Answer: Option C
126. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) All the irreversible engines have same efficiency
(B) All the reversible engines have same efficiency
(C) Both Rankine and Carnot cycles have same efficiency between
same temperature limits
(D) All reversible engines working between same temperature limits
have same efficiency
Answer: Option D
127. The fuel valve in a four stroke cycle diesel engine
(A) Opens at 15° after top dead centre and closes at 20° before
bottom dead centre
(B) Opens at 15° before top dead centre and closes at 20° after top
dead centre
(C) Opens at top dead centre and closes at bottom dead centre
Answer: Option B
128. For the same power developed in I.C. engines, the cheaper system
is
(A) Naturally aspirated
(B) Supercharged
(C) Centrifugal pump
(D) Turbo charger
Answer: Option B
129. The thermal efficiency of petrol and gas engines is about
(A) 15 %
(B) 30 %
(C) 50 %
(D) 70 %
Answer: Option B
130. Which is more viscous lube oil?
(A) SEA 30
(B) SAE 50
(C) SAE 70
(D) SAE 80
Answer: Option D
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131. In petrol engine, using a fixed octane rating fuel and fixed
compression ratio, supercharging will _________ the knocking
tendency.
(A) Not effected
(B) Decrease
(C) Increase
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
132. Fuel oil consumption guarantees for I .C. engine are usually
based on
(A) Low heat value of oil
(B) High heat value of oil
(C) Net calorific value of oil
(D) Calorific value of fuel
Answer: Option B
133. The compensating jet in a carburettor supplies almost constant
amount of petrol at all speeds because the
(A) Jet area is automatically varied depending on the suction
(B) The flow from the main jet is diverted to the compensating jet
with increase in speed
(C) The diameter of the jet is constant and the discharge coefficient is
invariant
(D) Flow is produced due to the static head in the float chamber
Answer: Option D
134. The magneto in an automobile is basically
(A) Transformer
(B) D.C. generator
(C) Capacitor
(D) Magnetic circuit
Answer: Option B
135. In order to eliminate knocking in compression ignition engines,
there should be
(A) Short delay period
(B) Late auto-ignition
(C) Low compression ratio
(D) High self ignition temperature of fuel
Answer: Option A
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136. Air fuel ratio at which a petrol engine cannot work is
(A) 8 : 1
(B) 10 : 1
(C) 15 : 1
(D) 20 : 1 and less
Answer: Option D
137. A fuel of an octane number rating of 75 matches in knocking
intensity as a mixture of
(A) 75% iso-octane and 25% normal heptane
(B) 75% normal heptane and 25% iso-octane
(C) 75% petrol and 25% diesel
(D) 75% diesel and 25% petrol
Answer: Option A
138. An hmh flame speed is obtained in diesel engine when air fuel
ratio is
(A) Uniform throughout the mixture
(B) Chemically correct mixture
(C) About 35% of rich mixture
(D) About 10% of rich mixture
Answer: Option D
139. A supercharged engine as compared to an ordinary engine
(A) Is lighter
(B) Requires smaller foundations
(C) Consumes less lubricating oil
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
140. The inlet value of a four stroke cycle I.C engine remains open for
nearly
(A) 180°
(B) 125°
(C) 235°
(D) 200°
Answer: Option C
141. The basic requirement of a good combustion chamber is
(A) Minimum turbulence
(B) Low compression ratio
(C) High thermal efficiency and power output
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(D) Low volumetric efficiency
Answer: Option C
142. The cam shaft of a four stroke I.C. engine running at 1500 rpm
will run at
(A) 1500 rpm
(B) 750 rpm
(C) 3000 rpm
(D) Any value independent of engine speed
Answer: Option B
143. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the inlet valve
(A) Opens at top dead centre and closes at bottom dead centre
(B) Opens at 20° before top dead centre and closes at 40° after
bottom dead centre
(C) Opens at 20° after top dead centre and closes at 20° before
bottom dead centre
(D) May open or close anywhere
Answer: Option B
144. Which of the following is false statement? Some of the methods
used to reduce diesel smoke are as follows
(A) Using additives in the fuel
(B) Increasing the compression ratio
(C) Adherence to proper fuel specification
(D) Avoidance of overloading
Answer: Option B
145. The frictional power (F.P.) is given by
(A) F.P. = B.P. - I.P.
(B) F.P. = I.P. - B.P.
(C) F.P. = B.P./I.P.
(D) F.P. = I.P./B.P.
Answer: Option B
146. The following volume of air is required for consuming 1 litre of
fuel by a four stroke engine
(A) 1 m3
(B) 5 m3
(C) 56 m3
(D) 910 m3
Answer: Option D
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147. The delay period in compression ignition engines depends upon
(A) Temperature and pressure in the cylinder at the time of injection
(B) Nature of the fuel mixture strength
(C) Relative velocity between the fuel injection and air turbulence
pressure of residual gases
Answer: Option D
148. A diesel engine has
(A) 1 valve
(B) 2 valves
(C) 3 valves
(D) 4 valves
Answer: Option C
149. The mechanical efficiency (ηm) of the engine is given by
(A) ηm = B.P/I.P
(B) ηm = I.P/B.P
(C) ηm = (B.P × I.P)/100
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
150. The output of a diesel engine can be increased without increasing
the engine revolution or size in following way
(A) Feeding more fuel
(B) Heating incoming air
(C) Scavenging
(D) Supercharging
Answer: Option D
151. The reflectivity depends upon
(A) Geometry of the reflector
(B) Energy of neutrons
(C) Properties of the reflector
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
152. The fuel air ratio in a petrol engine fitted with suction
carburettor, operating with dirty air filter as compared to clean filter
will be
(A) Higher
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(B) Lower
(C) Remain unaffected
Answer: Option A
153. The sensing element in the control system of nuclear reactors
measures the _________ of the neutron flux in the reactor.
(A) Temperature
(B) Volume
(C) Density
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
154. Pick up the wrong statement
(A) 2-stroke engine can run in any direction
(B) In 4-stroke engine, a power stroke is obtained in 4-strokes
(C) Thermal efficiency of 4-stroke engine is more due to positive
scavenging
(D) Petrol engines occupy more space than diesel engines for same
power output
Answer: Option D
155. If V₁ is the jet velocity and V₀ is the vehicle velocity, then
propulsive efficiency of a turbojet engine is
(A) V₁/(V₀ + V₁)
(B) V₀/(V₀ + V₁)
(C) 2V₀/(V₀ + V₁)
(D) 2V₁/(V₀ + V₁)
Answer: Option C
156. In a cycle, the spark lasts roughly for
(A) 1 sec
(B) 0.1 sec
(C) 0.01 sec
(D) 0.001 sec
Answer: Option D
157. Which of the following does not relate to a compression ignition
engine?
(A) Fuel pump
(B) Fuel injector
(C) Governor
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(D) Carburettor
Answer: Option D
158. Air fuel ratio for idling speed of a petrol engine is approximately
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 5 : 1
(C) 10 : 1
(D) 15 : 1
Answer: Option C
159. The advancing of spark timing in spark ignition engines will
_________ knocking tendency.
(A) Increase
(B) Reduce
(C) Not effect
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
160. The fuel in diesel engine is normally injected at pressure of
(A) 5-10 kg/cm²
(B) 20-25 kg/cm²
(C) 60-80 kg/cm²
(D) 90-130 kg/cm²
Answer: Option D
161. A mixture containing 65% of iso-octane and 35% of normal
heptane will have
(A) Cetane number 65
(B) Octane number 65
(C) Cetane number 35
(D) Octane number 35
Answer: Option B
162. The thermal efficiency of a diesel cycle having fixed compression
ratio, with increase in cut-off ratio will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Be independent
(D) May increase or decrease depending on other factors
Answer: Option B
163. Theoretically, a four stroke cycle engine should develop
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_________ power as that of a two stroke cycle engine.
(A) Half
(B) Same
(C) Double
(D) Four times
Answer: Option A
164. The calorific value of gaseous fuels is expressed in terms of
(A) kcal
(B) kcal/kg
(C) kcal/m²
(D) kcal/m3
Answer: Option D
165. The pressure at the end of compression, in diesel engines, is
approximately
(A) 10 bar
(B) 20 bar
(C) 25 bar
(D) 35 bar
Answer: Option D
166. A 75 cc engine has following parameter as 75 cc
(A) Fuel tank capacity
(B) Lube oil capacity
(C) Swept volume
(D) Cylinder volume
Answer: Option C
167. The combustion in compression ignition engines is
(A) Homogeneous
(B) Heterogeneous
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
168. Supercharging is essential in
(A) Diesel engines
(B) Gas turbines
(C) Petrol engines
(D) Aircraft engines
Answer: Option D
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169. Which of the following fuel has little tendency towards
detonation?
(A) Benzene
(B) Iso-octane
(C) Normal heptane
(D) Alcohol
Answer: Option B
170. Most high speed compression engines operate on
(A) Diesel cycle
(B) Otto cycle
(C) Dual combustion cycle
(D) Special type of air cycle
Answer: Option C
171. The higher combustion chamber wall temperature in
compression ignition engines will _________ knocking tendency.
(A) Increase
(B) Reduce
(C) Not effect
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
172. If the intake air temperature of I.C. engine increases, its
efficiency will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
173. Solid fuel fabricated into various small shapes, which are
assembled to form fuel elements, is in the form of
(A) Plates
(B) Pallets
(C) Pins
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
174. A heat engine utilises the
(A) Calorific value of oil
(B) Low heat value of
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(C) High heat value of oil
(D) Mean heat value of oil
Answer: Option C
175. Diesel as compared to petrol is
(A) Highly ignitable
(B) More difficult to ignite
(C) Less difficult to ignite
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
176. The specific fuel consumption of a petrol engine compared to
diesel engine of same H.P. is
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) Less or more depending on operating conditions
Answer: Option B
177. The increase of efficiency of a compression ignition engine, as the
load decreases, is due to
(A) Higher maximum temperature
(D) Hit and miss governing
Answer: Option B
178. For the same compression ratio
(A) Otto cycle is more efficient than the Diesel
(B) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto
(C) Both Otto and Diesel cycles are, equally efficient
(D) Compression ratio has nothing to do with efficiency
Answer: Option A
179. The self ignition temperature of petrol is ________ as compared
to diesel oil.
(A) Same
(B) Lower
(C) Higher
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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180. In diesel engine, the compression ratio in comparison to
expansion ratio is
(A) Same
(B) Less
(C) More
(D) Variable
Answer: Option C
181. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the pressure inside the engine
cylinder during the suction stroke is __________ the atmospheric
pressure.
(A) Equal to
(B) Below
(C) Above
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
182. Diesel fuel, compared to petrol is
(A) Less difficult to ignite
(B) Just about the same difficult to ignite
(C) More difficult to ignite
(D) Highly ignitable
Answer: Option C
183. In a petrol engine, if diesel is used, then the engine will
(A) Not run
(B) Run more efficiently
(C) Run at high speed
(D) Explode
Answer: Option A
184. Installation of supercharger on a four cycle diesel engine can
result in the following percentage increase in power
(A) Up to 35%
(B) Up to 50%
(C) Up to 75%
(D) Up to 100%
Answer: Option D
185. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines on weak mixtures is
(A) Unaffected
(B) Lower
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(C) Higher
(D) Dependent on other factors
Answer: Option C
186. Combustion in compression ignition engines is
(A) Homogeneous
(B) Heterogeneous
(D) Laminar
Answer: Option B
187. The colour of exhaust from diesel engine is generally
(A) White
(B) Bluish
(C) Black
(D) Violet
Answer: Option C
188. A diesel engine as compared to petrol engine (both running and
rated load) is
(A) More efficient
(B) Less efficient
(C) Equally efficient
(D) Other factors will decide it
Answer: Option A
189. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the charge is ignited at
(A) 30° before top dead centre
(B) 30° after top dead centre
(C) 30° before bottom dead centre
(D) 30° after bottom dead centre
Answer: Option A
190. In case of gas turbines, the gaseous fuel consumption guarantees
are based on
(A) High heat value
(B) Low heat value
(C) Net calorific value
(D) Calorific value
Answer: Option B
191. The knocking tendency in spark ignition engines may be
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decreased by
(A) Controlling the air-fuel mixture
(B) Controlling the ignition timing
(C) Controlling the exhaust temperature
(D) Reducing the compression ratio
Answer: Option D
192. The term scavenging is generally associated with
(A) 2-stroke cycle engines
(B) 4-stroke cycle engines
(C) Aeroplane engines
(D) High efficiency engines
Answer: Option D
193. Which of the following statement is correct regarding normal
cetane?
(A) It is a standard fuel used for knock rating of diesel engines
(B) Its chemical name is normal hexadecane
(C) It has long carbon chain structure
Answer: Option D
194. Most high speed compression engines operate on
(A) Otto cycle
(B) Diesel cycle
(C) Dual cycle
(D) Carnot cycle
Answer: Option C
195. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the inlet valve
(A) Opens at 20° before top dead centre and closes at 40° after
bottom dead centre
(B) Opens at 20° after top dead centre and closes at 20° before
bottom dead centre
(C) Opens at top dead centre and closes at bottom dead centre
Answer: Option A
196. The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine is controlled by
(A) Fuel pump
(B) Governor
(C) Injector
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(D) Carburettor
Answer: Option D
(A) In compression ignition engines, detonation occurs near the
beginning of combustion.
(B) Since the fuel, in compression ignition engines, is injected at the
end of compression stroke, therefore, there will be no pre-ignition.
(C) To eliminate knock in compression ignition engines, we want to
achieve auto-ignition not early and desire a long delay period.
(D) In compression ignition engines, because of heterogeneous
mixture, the rate of pressure rise is comparatively lower.
Answer: Option C
198. In a four stroke cycle, the minimum temperature inside the
engine cylinder occurs at the
(A) Beginning of suction stroke
(B) End of suction stroke
(C) Beginning of exhaust stroke
(D) End of exhaust stroke
Answer: Option A
199. The exhaust valve in a four stroke cycle petrol engine
(A) Opens at 50° before bottom dead centre and closes at 15° after
top dead centre
(B) Opens at bottom dead centre and closes at top dead centre
(C) Opens at 50° after bottom dead centre and closes at 15° before
top dead centre
Answer: Option A
200. The expansion of fuel in a four stroke cycle diesel engine
(A) Starts at 15° before top dead centre and ends at 30° after top dead
centre
(B) Starts at top dead centre and ends at 30° after top dead centre
(C) Starts at 15° after top dead centre and ends at 30° before bottom
dead centre
Answer: Option C
201. In a diesel engine, the duration between the time of injection and
ignition, is known as
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(A) Pre-ignition period
(B) Delay period
(C) Period of ignition
(D) Burning period
Answer: Option B
202. The effective inhibitor of pre-ignition is
(A) Alcohol
(B) Water
(C) Lead
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
203. A diesel engine has
(A) One valve
(B) Two valves
(C) Three valves
(D) Four valves
Answer: Option C
204. The pressure inside the cylinder is _________ the atmospheric
pressure during the exhaust stroke.
(A) Equal to
(B) Below
(C) Above
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
205. A carburettor is used to supply
(A) Petrol, air and lubricating oil
(B) Air and diesel
(C) Petrol and lubricating oil
(D) Petrol and air
Answer: Option D
206. Morse test can be conducted for
(A) Petrol engines
(B) Diesel engines
(C) Multi cylinder engines
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
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207. High speed compression engines operate on
(A) Otto cycle
(B) Diesel cycle
(C) Dual combustion cycle
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
208. The theoretically correct mixture of air and petrol is
(A) 10 : 1
(B) 15 : 1
(C) 20 : 1
(D) 25 : 1
Answer: Option B
209. A diesel engine has compression ratio from
(A) 6 to 10
(B) 10 to 15
(C) 15 to 25
(D) 25 to 40
Answer: Option C
210. In order to mix air and petrol in the required proportion and to
supply it to the engine during suction stroke, then _________ is
employed.
(A) Fuel pump
(B) Injector
(C) Carburettor
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
211. The ratio of the brake power to the indicated power is called
Answer: Option A
212. The cetane (C₁₆H₃₄) which is a straight chain paraffin, is assigned
a cetane number of
(A) 0
(B) 50
(C) 100
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(D) 120
Answer: Option C
213. The thermodynamic cycle on which the petrol engine works, is
(A) Otto cycle
(B) Joule cycle
(C) Rankine cycle
(D) Stirling cycle
Answer: Option A
214. The correct mixture strength (by weight) for petrol is about
(A) 14.6 : 1
(B) 18.5 : 1
(C) 20.4 : 1
(D) 22.6 : 1
Answer: Option A
215. The scavenging efficiency of a four stroke cycle diesel engine is
(A) Below 50%
(B) Between 50 and 85%
(C) Between 85 and 95%
(D) Between 95 and 100%
Answer: Option D
216. If the speed of the engine is increased, the indicated power will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
217. The specific fuel consumption per B.P. hour for a petrol engine is
about
(A) 0.2 kg
(B) 0.25 kg
(C) 0.3 kg
(D) 0.35 kg
Answer: Option B
218. The injector nozzle of a compression ignition engine is required to
inject fuel at a sufficiently high pressure in order to
(A) Inject fuel in a chamber of high pressure at the end of
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compression stroke
(B) Inject fuel at a high velocity to facilitate atomisation
(C) Ensure that penetration is not high
Answer: Option D
219. A fuel of cetane number 40 has the same ignition quality as a
mixture of
(A) 40% cetane and 60% alpha methyl naphthalene
(B) 40% alpha methyl naphthalene and 60% cetane
(C) 40% petrol and 60% diesel
(D) 40% diesel and 60% petrol
Answer: Option A
220. The two reference fuels used for cetane rating are
(A) Cetane and iso-octane
(B) Cetane and alpha-methyl naphthalene
(C) Cetane and normal heptane
(D) Cetane and tetra ethyl lead
Answer: Option B
221. In petrol engines, the delay period is of the order of
(A) 0.001 second
(B) 0.002 second
(C) 0.003 second
(D) 0.004 second
Answer: Option B
222. A diesel engine is _________ as compared to petrol engine, both
running at rated load.
(A) Equally efficient
(B) Less efficient
(C) More efficient
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
223. The pressure at the end of compression, in petrol engines, is
approximately
(A) 10 bar
(B) 20 bar
(C) 25 bar
(D) 35 bar
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Answer: Option A
224. The turbine of the turboprop engine is __________ that of the
turbojet engine.
(A) Same as
(B) Smaller than
(C) Bigger than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
225. A higher compression ratio causes
(A) Pre-ignition
(B) Increase in detonation
(C) Acceleration in the rate of combustion
Answer: Option D
226. A spark plug gap is kept from
(A) 0.3 to 0.7 mm
(B) 0.2 to 0.8 mm
(C) 0.4 to 0.9 mm
(D) 0.6 to 1.0 mm
Answer: Option A
227. The air standard efficiency of an I.C. engine depends on
(A) Fuel used
(B) Speed of engine
(C) Compression ratio
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
228. Alpha-methyl-naphthalene (C₁₁ H₁₀) has a cetane number of
(A) 0
(B) 50
(C) 100
(D) 120
Answer: Option A
229. The increase in intake temperature of internal combustion
engines will _________ efficiency.
(A) Have no effect on
(B) Increase
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(C) Decrease
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
230. The thermal efficiency of a petrol engine is _________ as
compared to diesel engine.
(A) Same
(B) Less
(C) More
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
231. The thermal efficiency of diesel engines is about
(A) 15 %
(B) 30 %
(C) 50 %
(D) 70 %
Answer: Option D
232. The ignition quality of diesel oil is expressed by
(A) Cetane number
(B) Octane number
(C) Calorific value
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
233. If petrol is used in a diesel engine, then
(A) Low power will be produced
(B) Efficiency will be low
(C) Higher knocking will occur
(D) Black smoke will be produced
Answer: Option C
234. In a coil ignition system of petrol engines, a condenser is
connected across the contact breaker in order to
(A) Prevent sparking across the gap between the points
(B) Cause more rapid break of the primary current, giving a higher
voltage in the secondary circuit
Answer: Option C
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235. The _________ engines can work on very lean mixture of fuel.
(A) Spark ignition
(B) Compression ignition
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
236. A diesel engine, during suction stroke, draws
(A) Air only
(B) Diesel only
(C) A mixture of diesel and air
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
237. Antiknock for compression ignition engines is
(A) Napthene
(B) Tetra ethyl lead
(C) Amyl nitrate
(D) Hexadecane
Answer: Option C
238. The method of determination of indicated power of a multi
cylinder spark ignition engine is by the use of
(A) Morse test
(B) Prony brake test
(C) Motoring test
(D) Heat balance test
Answer: Option A
239. The cetane number of diesel oil, generally available, is
(A) 20 to 25
(B) 25 to 30
(C) 30 to 40
(D) 40 to 55
Answer: Option D
240. A petrol engine has compression ratio from
(A) 6 to 10
(B) 10 to 15
(C) 15 to 25
(D) 25 to 40
Answer: Option A
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241. The brake power is the power available
(A) In the engine cylinder
(B) At the crank shaft
(C) At the crank pin
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
242. The normal heptane (C₇H₁₆) is given a rating of ________ octane
number.
(A) 0
(B) 50
(C) 100
(D) 120
Answer: Option A
243. The knocking in diesel engines may be prevented by
(A) Reducing the delay period
(B) Raising the compression ratio
(C) Increasing the inlet pressure of air
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
244. The air-fuel ratio of the petrol engine is controlled by
(A) Carburettor
(B) Injector
(C) Governor
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
245. If the compression ratio in I.C. engine increases, then its thermal
efficiency will
(A) Decrease
(B) Increase
(C) Remain same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
246. The thermal efficiency of a standard Otto cycle for a compression
ratio of 5.5 will be
(A) 25 %
(B) 50 %
(C) 70 %
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(D) 100 %
Answer: Option B
247. The octane number of petrol, generally available, is
(A) 20 to 40
(B) 40 to 60
(C) 60 to 80
(D) 80 to 100
Answer: Option D
248. The object of supercharging the engine is
(A) To reduce mass of the engine per brake power
(B) To reduce space occupied by the engine
(C) To increase the power output of an engine when greater power is
required
Answer: Option D
249. The increase of cooling water temperature in petrol engine will
__________ the knocking tendency.
(A) Not effect
(B) Decrease
(C) Increase
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
250. The specific fuel consumption per B.P. hour for a diesel engine is
about
(A) 0.2 kg
(B) 0.25 kg
(C) 0.3 kg
(D) 0.35 kg
Answer: Option A
251. The injection pressure in a diesel engine is about
(A) 10 bar
(B) 100 bar
(C) 150 bar
(D) 500 bar
Answer: Option B
252. Morse test is used to determine the I.P. of a
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(A) Single cylinder petrol engine
(B) Four stroke engine
(C) Single cylinder diesel engine
(D) Multi cylinder engine
Answer: Option D
253. The voltage required to produce a spark across the gap, between
the sparking points is
(A) 2000 to 4000 volts
(B) 4000 to 6000 volts
(C) 6000 to 10,000 volts
(D) 10,000 to 12,000 volts
Answer: Option C
I.C Engine Test:

01. In qualitative governing, the quantity of fuel is varied to suit the
load on the engine and the total charge of air is altered.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
02. The relative efficiency of an I.C. engine is the ratio of the indicated
thermal efficiency to the air standard efficiency.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
03. In hit and miss governing, the fuel supply is cut-off completely
during one or more number of cycles.
(A) Yes
(B) No
04. Lubrication in I.C. engines dissipates the heat generated from the
moving parts due to friction.
(A) True
(B) False
05. For the same maximum pressure and heat input, the exhaust
temperature of petrol engine is _________ than that of diesel engine.
(A) Less
(B) More
06. The petrol engines are also known as _________ engines.
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(A) Compression ignition
(B) Spark ignition
07. In a petrol engine, the charge is ignited with the help of a spark
plug.
(A) Yes
(B) No
08. A two stroke cycle engine occupies larger floor area than a four
stroke cycle engine.
(A) Yes
(B) No
09. The indicated mean effective pressure of an engine is obtained
from the indicator diagram drawn with the help of an engine
indicator.
(A) True
(B) False
10. The reflectivity of a reflector is defined as the fraction of neutrons
entering the reflector which are returned to the core.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
11. The mean effective pressure of a diesel engine having fixed
compression ratio will __________ if cut off ratio decreases.
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
12. The sparking in a petrol engine increases pressure and
temperature of the products of combustion, but the volume remains
constant.
(A) Yes
(B) No
13. In a two stroke engine, the working cycle is completed in two
revolutions of the crankshaft.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
14. The indicated power for multi-cylinder engine will be same as that
of a single cylinder engine.
(A) True
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(B) False
15. The engines in which the combustion of fuel takes place inside the
engine cylinder are called internal combustion engines.
(A) True
(B) False
16. A fuel will detonate less if it has higher self ignition temperature.
(A) True
(B) False
17. The injection of fuel by external source is not required in case of
engines working on Otto cycle.
(A) Yes
(B) No
18. The running cost of a petrol engine is _________ than that of a
diesel engine.
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
19. A reactor capable of converting a fertile material into fissile
isotopes is called regenerative reactor.
(A) Yes
(B) No
20. The size of a reactor at which the chain reaction can be initiated
(i.e. when system becomes critical) with just enough fissionable
material (called critical mass of fuel) is known as critical size of
reactor.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
Answers: I.C Engine Test

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Automobile Engineering:
01. The painting of automobiles is done to
(A) Prevent rust from growing on the body
(B) Improve its external appearance
(C) Retain the characteristics of steel for long
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
02. The calorific value of petrol is about
(A) 36.5-38.5 MJ/kg
(B) 39.4-42.5 MJ/kg
(C) 42.7-43.5 MJ/kg
(D) 45.5-47 MJ/kg
Answer: Option C
03. The coefficient of friction for the clutch facing is approximately
(A) 0.1
(B) 0.4
(C) 0.8
(D) 1.2
Answer: Option B
04. The air resistance to a car at 20 kmph is R. The air resistance at 40
kmph will be
(A) R
(B) 2 R
(C) 4R
(D) 4 R²
Answer: Option C
05. The stroke of an engine is the
(A) Volume of the cylinder
(B) Length of the connecting rod
(C) Internal diameter of the cylinder
(D) Distance between T.D.C. and B.D.C.
Answer: Option D
06. The braking control type traction control system (TCS) generally
operates in the speed range of
(A) Less than 20 kmph
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(B) Less than 40 kmph
(C) Less than 60 kmph
(D) More than 60 kmph
Answer: Option B
07. The function of a first compression ring (top ring) is that it
(A) Increases the combustion temperature
(B) Creates swirl
(C) Maintains a seal and prevents the fuel leakage
(D) Maintains a seal and prevents escape of burned gases and loss of
pressure in the combustion chamber
Answer: Option D
08. The component that connects the steering rack to the knuckles is
(A) Tie rod
(B) Sector gear
(C) Pivot
(D) Spline
Answer: Option A
09. The cetane number of a Diesel fuel is a measure of
(A) Volatility
(B) Viscosity
(C) Ignition quality
(D) Delay period
Answer: Option D
10. In petrol engines, during suction stroke, ________ is drawn in the
cylinder
(A) Air and fuel
(B) Only fuel
(C) Only air
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
11. The main feature of Macpherson strut suspension is that
(A) The vertical size of the suspension can be made more compact
(B) Non vertical external forces are supported by the suspension arms
(C) The unsprung mass in lighter
(D) The assembly is slightly more complicated in design
Answer: Option B
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12. The capacity of a battery is usually expressed in terms of
(A) Volts
(B) Amperes
(C) Weight
(D) Ampere hours
Answer: Option D
13. The most commonly used power plant in automobiles is
(A) Gas turbine
(B) I.C. engine
(C) Battery
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
14. In a square type engine
(A) Geometrical shape is square
(B) Diameter and length of piston are same
(C) Two cylinders are placed horizontal and two vertical
(D) Stroke length and cylinder bore are same
Answer: Option D
15. The path taken by intake air is
(A) Carburettor (or throttle body) air cleaner intake manifold intake
ports cylinders
(B) Air cleaner carburettor (or throttle body) intake ports intake
manifold cylinders
(C) Air cleaner intake manifold carburettor (or throttle body) intake
ports cylinders
(D) Air cleaner carburettor (or throttle body) intake manifold intake
ports cylinders
Answer: Option D
16. The brake warning light warns the driver of
(A) Water in the master cylinder
(B) Air in the hydraulic system
(C) Failure of the primary or secondary circuit of hydraulic system
(D) Power brake failure
Answer: Option C
17. The connecting rods are generally made of ________ shaped cross-
section.
(A) I
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(B) C
(C) L
(D) H
Answer: Option A
18. It is necessary to maintain the valve clearances as they
(A) Reduce the resistance to sliding that occurs between the cam and
the tappet
(B) Allow for lengthening of the valves owing to the heat of
combustion
(C) Increase the speed at which the valves move up and down
(D) Make the crankshaft turn smoothly
Answer: Option B
19. The characteristic that is enhanced by the honing of cylinder
sleeves inner surface is
(A) Cooling efficiency
(B) Resistance to wear
(C) Lubrication performance
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
20. If the air-fuel mixture ignites before the spark takes place at spark
plug, the condition is called
(A) Detonation
(B) Ignition
(C) Pre-ignition
(D) Rumble
Answer: Option C
21. The instrument used to check specific gravity of acid in a battery is
(A) Hydrometer
(B) Hygrometer
(C) Anemometer
(D) Multimeter
Answer: Option A
22. The crankshaft of a typical inline four cylinder engine has
________ balance weights.
(A) 12
(B) 4
(C) 16
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(D) 8
Answer: Option D
23. The condition that results in large quantities of HC emission is
(A) High temperature combustion
(B) Incomplete combustion
(C) Low temperature combustion
(D) High atmospheric temperature combustion
Answer: Option B
24. The engine oil viscosity is defined by _________ ratings.
(A) Automatic transmission fluid (ATF)
(B) Society of automotive engineers (SAE)
(C) Gross vehicle weight (GVW)
(D) American petroleum institute (API)
Answer: Option B
25. The negative plates of a lead acid battery has
(A) Lead peroxide (PbO₂)
(B) Spongy lead (Pb)
(C) Lead sulphate (PbSO₄)
(D) Sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄)
Answer: Option B
26. The driveshafts are connected to the differential and wheel hubs
through universal joints because the universal joints
(A) Absorb the vibrations transferred from the surface of the road
(B) Compensate for variations in the relative positions of the
differential and the wheels which result from bumpy road surfaces or other
similar driving conditions.
(C) Absorb any difference in speed between the left and right wheels
when the vehicle is turning
Answer: Option B
27. The octane rating of petrol commercially available is
(A) 85-95
(B) 95-100
(C) 100-110
(D) 110-125
Answer: Option A
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28. The vehicle ride will be comfortable if
(A) Unsprung mass is kept minimum
(B) Sprang mass is kept minimum
(C) Vehicle mass is kept minimum
(D) All of these
Answer: Option A
29. The auto ignition in a spark ignition engine means
(A) Automatic ignition of the charge at the end of compression
(B) Ignition induced by the passage of a spark
(C) Ignition of the charge before the passage of flame front
(D) Ignition induced to supplement the process of normal combustion
Answer: Option C
30. When the brake pedal free play is less than the specified value,
then the
(A) Brake drags
(B) Brake fades
(C) Vapour locking occurs in the brake lines
(D) Antilock braking system malfunctions
Answer: Option A
31. The acid used in automobile battery is
(A) Hydrochloric acid
(B) Hydrofluoric acid
(C) Nitric acid
(D) Sulphuric acid
Answer: Option D
32. Highest useful compression ratio (HUCR) is the highest
compression ratio at which the
(A) Engine can run
(B) Engine gives maximum output
(C) Engine is most efficient
(D) Fuel can be used in a test engine without knocking
Answer: Option D
33. A petrol engine of a car develops 125 Nm torque at 2700 r.p.m.
The car is driven in second gear having gear ratio of 1.75. The final
drive ratio is 4.11. If the overall transmission efficiency is 90%, then
the torque available at the driving wheels is
(A) 8.091 Nm
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(B) 80.91 Nm
(C) 809.1 Nm
(D) 8091 Nm
Answer: Option C
34. The air gap between the central electrode and ground (or side)
electrode of a spark plug is around
(A) 0.2 mm
(B) 0.5 mm
(C) 1 mm
(D) 1.5 mm
Answer: Option C
35. A four cylinder engine has a capacity of 2.4 litres. The swept
volume of one cylinder is
(A) 400 cm³
(B) 600 cm³
(C) 1200 cm³
(D) 2400 cm³
Answer: Option B
36. The positive plates of a lead acid battery has
Answer: Option A
37. In comparison with a radial tyre, one advantage of a bias ply tyre
is
(A) Longer life
(B) Lower rolling resistance
(C) Smoother ride at low speeds
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
38. The main merit of a multi cylinder type cylinder sleeve is
(A) Smaller engine dimensions
(B) Better cooling efficiency
(C) High rigidity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
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39. Thinner is added to the paint in order to
(A) Make pigments and resin mix easily
(B) Make paint film hard
(C) Optimise its viscosity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
40. When the battery is half (50%) charged, the specific gravity of acid
in a battery is usually
(A) 0.74
(B) 1.00
(C) 1.12
(D) 1.19
Answer: Option D
41. The diagram which shows the correct crank positions
corresponding to the opening and closing of the valves, is known as
(A) Indicator diagram
(B) Axial force diagram
(C) Valve timing diagram
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
42. The tilting of the front wheels away from the vertical, when viewed
from the front of the car, is called
(A) Camber
(B) Caster
(C) Toe in
(D) Toe out
Answer: Option A
43. The ball joints are used on the tie rod ends, because they
(A) Reduce the amount of noise generated
(B) Reduce the amount of sliding resistance
(C) Can deal with movement of the suspension both vertically and in
other directions
(D) Improve the force transmission speed
Answer: Option C
44. In a petrol engine, the high voltage for spark plug is in the order of
(A) 1000 volts
(B) 2000 volts
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(C) 11 kilovolts
(D) 22 kilovolts
Answer: Option D
45. For the same maximum pressure and temperature
(A) Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
(B) Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
(C) Both Otto cycle and Diesel cycle are equally efficient
Answer: Option A
46. The petrol engines are also known as
(A) Spark ignition (S.I.) engines
(B) Compression ignition (C.I.) engines
(C) Steam engines
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
47. The difference between DOT 3 and DOT 4 brake fluids is
(A) DOT 4 fluids have a higher boiling point than DOT 3 fluid
(B) DOT 4 fluids have a lower boiling point than DOT 3 fluid
(C) DOT 3 and DOT 4 fluids have the same boiling point, but DOT 4
fluid has a longer service life
(D) DOT 4 fluid is more resistant to freezing than DOT 3 fluid
Answer: Option A
48. The problems caused by the wheel imbalance are
(A) Hard steering and hard ride
(B) Poor acceleration and hard steering
(C) Steering wheel vibrations and uneven tyre wear
(D) Poor acceleration and reduced fuel efficiency
Answer: Option C
49. The formula for Isooctane is
(A) C8H18
(B) C7H17
(C) C6H18
(D) C7H18
Answer: Option A
50. The torque converter uses ________ to transfer torque.
(A) Air
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(B) Automatic transmission fluid (ATF)
(C) Gears
(D) Steel belt
Answer: Option B
51. The composition of the electrolyte in a fully charged battery is that
(A) The electrolyte is pure distilled water
(B) The electrolyte is pure sulphuric acid
(C) The electrolyte is a mixture of 64% distilled water and 36%
sulphuric acid by weight
(D) The electrolyte is a mixture of 90% distilled water and 10%
sulphuric acid by weight
Answer: Option C
52. The petrol engine works on
(A) Otto cycle
(B) Carnot cycle
(C) Diesel cycle
(D) Rankine cycle
Answer: Option A
53. The maximum torque multiplication ratio in a torque converter is
about
(A) 2.5
(B) 10
(C) 25
(D) 40
Answer: Option A
54. The cetane rating of Diesel fuel is in the order of
(A) 25
(B) 45
(C) 70
(D) 90
Answer: Option B
55. A traction control system (TCS) in automobiles controls the
(A) Vibrations on the steering wheel
(B) Engine power during acceleration
(C) Torque that is transmitted by the tyres to the road surface
(D) Stopping distance in case of emergency
Answer: Option C
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56. The compression ratio of a petrol engine is nearly
(A) 4 : 1
(B) 8 : 1
(C) 15 : 1
(D) 20 : 1
Answer: Option B
57. The starter motor is driven by
(A) Chain drive
(B) Gear drive
(C) Flat belt drive
(D) V-belt drive
Answer: Option B
58. In radial tyres
(A) One ply layer runs diagonally one way and another layer runs
diagonally the other way
(B) All plies run parallel to one another and vertical to tyre bead
(C) Inner tubes are always used
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
59. The rigid suspension is beneficial when
(A) It is desired to reduce the unsprung mass
(B) It is desired to have more flexibility in design
(C) It is desired to improve tyre to ground contact characteristics
(D) Large changes in load make it necessary to have a large
suspension stroke
Answer: Option D
60. The component in the radiator of an automobile that increases the
boiling point of water is
(A) Drain plug
(B) Water jacket
(C) Vacuum valve
(D) Pressure cap
Answer: Option D
61. An engine has a clearance volume of 100 cm³ and a swept volume
of 800 cm³. The compression ratio is
(A) 7 : 1
(B) 8 : 1
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(C) 9 : 1
(D) 10 : 1
Answer: Option C
62. If the engine coolant leaks into the engine oil, then engine oil
(A) Appears milky
(B) Become foamy
(C) Turns black
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
63. A clutch is usually designed to transmit maximum torque which is
(A) Equal to the maximum engine torque
(B) 80 % of the maximum engine torque
(C) 150 % of the maximum engine torque
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
64. In a four stroke engine for each crankshaft revolution, the
camshaft revolves
(A) One half turn
(B) One turn
(C) Two turns
(D) Four turns
Answer: Option A
65. The component of the oil filter that prevents the passage of metal
particles and sludge is
(A) Element
(B) Relief valve
(C) Check valve
(D) Case
Answer: Option A
66. The torque available at the contact between driving wheels and
road is known as
(A) Brake effort
(B) Tractive effort
(C) Clutch effort
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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67. During braking, the brake shoe is moved outward to force the
lining against the
(A) Wheel piston or cylinder
(B) Anchor pin
(C) Brake drum
(D) Wheel rim or axle
Answer: Option C
68. The main function of an exhaust muffler is the
(A) Optimisation of exhaust efficiency
(B) Reduction of exhaust noise
(C) Reduction of nitrogen oxide in the exhaust gases
(D) Reduction of the exhaust gas volume
Answer: Option B
69. The basic purpose of tyres is to
(A) Grip the road and provide good traction
(B) Substitute for springs
(C) Act as brake
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
70. In Diesel engines, during suction stroke, ________ is drawn in the
cylinder.
(A) Air and fuel
(B) Only fuel
(C) Only air
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
71. In automobiles G.V.W. refers to
(A) Gross vehicle width
(B) Gross vehicle weight
(C) Gross vehicle wheel base
(D) Gross vehicle wheel track
Answer: Option B
72. The clutch is located between the transmission and the
(A) Engine
(B) Rear axle
(C) Propeller shaft
(D) Differential
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Answer: Option A
73. In a ventilated disc brake
(A) A duct directs air towards the caliper for cooling while the vehicle
is moving
(B) Caliper is covered with cooling fins
(C) Disc contains many small holes for optimum cooling performance
(D) Disc contains radial vanes between its rubbing surfaces for
optimum cooling performance
Answer: Option D
74. The size of engine cylinder is referred in terms of its
(A) Diameter and bore
(B) Displacement and efficiency
(C) Bore and stroke
(D) Bore and length
Answer: Option C
75. The engine oil level should be checked
(A) Immediately after the ignition switch is turned off
(B) While the engine is running
(C) A few minutes after the ignition switch is turned off
(D) While the engine is running at high idle speed
Answer: Option C
76. In Diesel engines, the duration between the time of injection and
the time of ignition is called
(A) Spill cut-off
(B) Delay period
(C) Injection period
(D) Ignition period
Answer: Option B
77. In bias ply tyres
(A) All plies run parallel to one another
(B) Belts of steel mesh are used in the tyres
(C) One ply layer runs diagonally one way and another layer runs
diagonally the other way
Answer: Option C
78. The aluminium alloy is used in cylinder blocks because
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(A) It is lighter and has good heat dissipation characteristics
(B) Material cost is low
(C) It does not require any cylinder liners
(D) The piston is also made of aluminium alloy
Answer: Option A
79. The main function of the tread pattern on tyre is that
(A) The tread grooves pass air between the tyre and road surface,
thereby preventing tyre from overheating
(B) The crests between the tread grooves absorb road noise
(C) In wet conditions, the tread grooves expel water that is drawn
between the tyre and road surface
(D) The tread pattern protects the tyre's inner carcass from small
stones and pieces of glass
Answer: Option C
80. The most commonly used supplementary restraint system (SRS)
component is
(A) Seat belt
(B) Brake
(C) Airbag
(D) Steering
Answer: Option C
81. The major purpose of an electronically controlled automatic
transmission is that this type of transmission
(A) Eliminates gear clutches
(B) Eliminates the gear shaft lever
(C) Reduces the number of automatic transmission components
(D) Reduces shift shock and achieves more efficient transmission of
engine torque
Answer: Option D
82. The antiknock property of compression ignition engine fuel can be
improved by adding
(A) Tetraethyl lead
(B) Trimethyl pentane
(C) Amyl nitrate
(D) Hexadecane
Answer: Option C
83. A worm gear is used as the pinion for the rack and pinion type of
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steering gearbox, because it
(A) Improves steering comfort when steering wheel is turned to effect
small changes in the direction of forward motion
(B) Allows the steering wheel to be turned by a greater amount when
steering
(C) Makes the steering more responsive
(D) Reduces the amount of kickback for large steering angles
Answer: Option A
84. If the spark plug deposit indicates black coating of soot, it indicates
that the engine has been generally operating on
(A) Too lean mixture
(B) Stoichiometric mixture
(C) Most economical mixture
(D) Too rich mixture
Answer: Option D
85. The crescent shaped cavity on the piston head top surface is called
as
(A) Piston oil hole
(B) Snap ring
(C) Valve recess
(D) Valve clearance
Answer: Option C
86. The characteristic that is enhanced by the use of cylinder sleeves is
(A) Cooling efficiency
(B) Resistance to wear
(C) Lubrication performance
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
87. The connecting rod connects the piston and the
(A) Cylinder head
(B) Cylinder block
(C) Camshaft
(D) Crankshaft
Answer: Option D
88. The three basic cylinder arrangements for automotive engines are
(A) Flat, radial, and V
(B) In a row, in line, and opposed
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(C) In line, V, and opposed
(D) V, double row, and opposed
Answer: Option C
89. The main function of the brake fluid is
(A) Lubrication
(B) Power transmission
(C) Cooling
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
90. Which part of the automobile tyre is subjected to greatest flexing
action?
(A) Bead
(B) Side wall
(C) Shoulder
(D) Tread
Answer: Option B
91. The compression ratio for Diesel engines usually lies in the range
of
(A) 6-10
(B) 10-1
(C) 15-25
(D) 25-40
Answer: Option C
92. The piston compression rings are made of
(A) Cast iron
(B) Steel
(C) Aluminium
(D) Bronze
Answer: Option A
93. In a forced feed lubrication system, the device used to guard
against excessive oil pressure, is known as
(A) Release chamber
(B) Balancer
(C) Relief valve
(D) Stop valve
Answer: Option C
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94. The aspect ratio (expressed in percentage) of the tyre is defined as
the ratio of
(A) Section width to section height
(B) Section height to section width
(C) Wheel diameter to section height
(D) Wheel diameter to section width
Answer: Option B
95. The discharged lead acid battery has on its plates
Answer: Option C
96. In order to implement gear changes in the gear unit of an
automatic transmission, a ________ is used.
(A) Synchronizer
(B) Planetary gear
(C) Magnetic clutch
(D) Hydraulic multi plate clutch
Answer: Option D
97. The purpose of turning radius gauges is to measure the
(A) Contact areas of the tyres
(B) Free plays of the steering wheel
(C) Turning radius of the left and right wheels
(D) Difference in the toe angles of the left and right wheels
Answer: Option C
98. The natural gas is compressed in a CNG cylinder at a pressure of
(A) 200 bar
(B) 220 bar
(C) 250 bar
(D) 300 bar
Answer: Option A
99. The valve overlap in four stroke petrol engines is approximately
(A) 30°
(B) 60°
(C) 90°
(D) 120°
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Answer: Option A
100. Which of the following indicates multigrade oil?
(A) SAE 30
(B) API SF
(C) SAE 20 W50
(D) API 50
Answer: Option C
101. The compression ratio in petrol engine is kept less than in Diesel
engine because
(A) It makes petrol engines lighter
(B) Higher or equivalent compression ratio in petrol engines is not
possible due to pre-ignition
(C) Less compression ratio gives better performance
(D) It is just customary to have less compression ratio in petrol engines
Answer: Option B
102. The main task of a battery in automobiles is to
(A) Supply electricity to the alternator
(B) Act as a reservoir or stabilizer of electricity
(C) Supply electricity to the vehicle's electrical system at all times
while the engine is running
(D) Supply a large amount of power to turn the starter motor when the
engine is being started
Answer: Option D
103. The service brakes employed in cars are generally operated
(A) Mechanically
(B) Hydraulically
(C) Pneumatically
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
104. The boiling point of Diesel fuel is in the range of
(A) 70°C to 100°C
(B) 100°C to 120°C
(C) 120°C to 180°C
(D) 180°C to 360 °C
Answer: Option D
105. The frequency of flashing of light per minute in a direction (side
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turn) indicator is about
(A) 9
(B) 90
(C) 900
(D) 9000
Answer: Option B
106. The ignition coil is used to
(A) Step up current
(B) Step down current
(C) Step up voltage
(D) Step down voltage
Answer: Option C
107. The process of removing the burnt gases from the engine cylinder
by the fresh charge coming into the engine cylinder from the
crankcase, is known as
(A) Cleaning
(B) Priming
(C) Scavenging
(D) Detonation
Answer: Option C
108. The self ignition temperature of Diesel as compared to petrol is
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
(C) Same
(D) Depends on fuel quality
Answer: Option B
109. With the increase of battery temperature, the specific gravity of
electrolyte
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains the same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
110. The process of supplying the intake air to the engine cylinder at a
pressure greater than the pressure of the surrounding atmosphere is
known as
(A) Supercharging
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(B) Auto ignition
(C) Scavenging
(D) Detonation
Answer: Option A
111. In aluminium cylinder blocks, the cylinder liners are made of
(A) Aluminium
(B) Ceramic
(C) Brass
(D) Cast iron
Answer: Option D
112. The purpose of a balancer shaft is to
(A) Balance the timing in the movement of the two groups of pistons
(B) Increase inertia force of the rotating crankshaft
(C) Reduce vibrations caused by the crankshaft rotation
(D) Adjusts the timing of the intake and exhaust valve openings
Answer: Option C
113. Free pedal play in car clutches is about
(A) 15 mm
(B) 25 mm
(C) 40mm
(D) 60 mm
Answer: Option B
114. The caster is called positive when the top of the king pin is
inclined to the
(A) Rear of the vehicle
(B) Front of the vehicle
(C) Left of the vehicle
(D) Right of the vehicle
Answer: Option A
115. In Spark Ignition Engine
(A) Only air is introduced into the cylinder
(B) The mixture of air and fuel is introduced into the cylinder from
carburettor
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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116. The caster is called positive when the top of the king pin is
inclined to the
(A) Rear of the vehicle
(B) Front of the vehicle
(C) Left of the vehicle
(D) Right of the vehicle
Answer: Option A
117. The main purpose of an engine's air cleaner is that it
(A) Controls the engine's air intake volume
(B) Reduces the engine's air intake noise
(C) Prevents rain water from entering the engine
(D) Prevents dust and other foreign matter from entering the engine
Answer: Option D
118. The device for smoothening out the power impulses from the
engine is called
(A) Clutch
(B) Differential
(C) Flywheel
(D) Torque converter
Answer: Option C
119. The main function of a master cylinder is to
(A) Adjust the extent of brake pedal free play
(B) Boost the force applied to brake pedal
(C) Convert brake pedal force into hydraulic pressure
(D) Ensure that all the wheel brakes are supplied with the same
amount of fluid pressure
Answer: Option C
120. The exhaust gas from petrol engine contains
(A) Petrol vapours
(B) Water vapours
(C) Carbon monoxide
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
121. The firing order for an opposed four cylinder l.C. engine is
(A) 1-2-3-4
(B) 1-3-4-2
(C) 1-4-3-2
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(D) 1-3-2-4
Answer: Option C
122. The function of positive crankcase ventilation (PCV) system is
that it
(A) Mixes fuel with air
(B) Promotes combustion by creating a swirling movement in the air-
fuel mixture
(C) Returns blow by gases from the crankcase to the intake system
(D) Feeds blow by gases to the exhaust manifold
Answer: Option C
123. The two kinds of piston rings are
(A) Compression and oil control rings
(B) Compression and sliding seal rings
(C) Oil scrapper and oil control rings
(D) Pressure and sealing rings
Answer: Option A
124. The sequence in which the force is transmitted through a brake
system when the brake pedal is depressed is
(A) Brake pedal, master cylinder, brake lines, vacuum servo
mechanism, brake pads
(B) Brake pedal, vacuum servo mechanism, master cylinder, brake
lines, brake pads
(C) Brake pedal, master cylinder, vacuum servo mechanism, brake
lines, brake pads
(D) Brake pedal, brake lines, vacuum servo mechanism, master
cylinder, brake pads
Answer: Option B
125. The basic purpose of a four wheel drive (4WD) system is that it
(A) Delivers improved cornering on dry road surfaces
(B) Eliminates the need of snow tyres, tyre chains, etc.
(C) Ensures effective transmission of engine torque to all four wheels,
even on slippery road surfaces
(D) Ensures that effective braking can be performed, even on slippery
surfaces
Answer: Option C
126. The heat transfer from coolant to air in the radiator of an
automobile engine takes place by
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(A) Radiation only
(B) Convention only
(C) Convection and radiation
(D) Conduction, convection and radiation
Answer: Option C
127. The purpose of a thermostat in an engine cooling system is to
(A) Prevent the coolant from boiling
(B) Allow the engine to warm up quickly
(C) Indicate the coolant temperature
(D) Pressurise the system to raise the boiling point
Answer: Option B
128. The basic characteristics of a brake fluid is
(A) A high boiling point
(B) Low viscosity
(C) Compatibility with rubber and metal parts
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
129. The gradient resistance to a vehicle having a mass of 980 kg
moving on an incline of 10° is
(A) 1.6694 N
(B) 16.694 N
(C) 166.94 N
(D) 1669.4 N
Answer: Option D
130. The reconditioning process used to give cylinder bore surfaces a
crosshatch pattern, is known as
(A) Honing
(B) Porous plating
(C) Boring
(D) Shot peening
Answer: Option A
131. The function of a radiator fan in the cooling system is that
(A) It blows air through the radiator when necessary
(B) It is turned by wind force as the vehicle moves forward, and its
rotation drives the water pump
(C) It cools the engine by blowing air onto the cylinder block
(D) It draws heat out of the engine compartment
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Answer: Option A
132. Instead of valves, the ports are used in case of
(A) Four stroke I.C. engines
(B) Two stroke I.C. engines
(C) V6 engines
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
133. The starting system includes
(A) A battery, a starter, and an ignition switch
(B) A battery, a distributor, and an ignition switch
(C) A battery, a starter, and a distributor
(D) A distributor, a starter, and an ignition switch
Answer: Option A
134. The purpose of adding pigment to the paint is that it
(A) Optimises the viscosity of paint
(B) Makes paint film hard
(C) Gives colour and filling up effect to the paint
Answer: Option C
135. A laminated glass upon cracking
(A) Bursts into sharp edged fragments
(B) Bursts into granular pieces
(C) Sandwiched layer traps the fragments
(D) Breaks into the form of crystals
Answer: Option C
136. Caster is a
(A) Forward tilt of the kingpin
(B) Backward tilt of the kingpin
(C) Either 'A' or 'B'
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
137. A front stabilizer bar is used to
(A) Increase vehicle load carrying capacity
(B) Provide a softer ride
(C) Control suspension movement and body roll
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Answer: Option C
138. The timing belt is attached to the camshaft pulley and
(A) Timing belt drive pulley
(B) Distributor
(C) Radiator fan pulley
(D) Alternator pulley
Answer: Option A
139. A battery can be charged by
(A) Adding distilled water
(B) Adding sulphuric acid
(C) Applying voltage in the reverse direction to that of charging
(D) Applying a voltage in the same direction to that of charging
Answer: Option C
140. When the front wheels of a vehicle are locked during braking,
then
(A) Stopping distance becomes extremely long
(B) Front tyres skid across the road surface, and the vehicle spins
around
(C) Rear tyres skid across the road surface, and the vehicle spins
around
(D) Driver loses control over the steering, and the vehicle continues
moving in its current direction
Answer: Option D
141. The order in which effort applied to the steering wheel is
transferred to the front wheel is
(A) Steering wheel, steering gearbox, steering shaft, tie rod, steering
knuckle, front wheels
(B) Steering wheel, steering shaft, steering gearbox, tie rod, steering
(C) Steering wheel, steering shaft, steering gearbox, steering knuckle,
tie rod, front wheels
(D) Steering wheel, tie rod, steering gearbox, steering shaft, steering
Answer: Option B
142. The best fuels for compression ignition engines are
(A) Straight chain paraffin
(B) Aromatics
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(C) Branched chain paraffin
(D) Naphthalene
Answer: Option D
143. An oil filter bypass valve opens when the
(A) Engine is cold
(B) Engine overheats
(C) Oil filter becomes clogged
(D) Engine runs at high speed
Answer: Option C
144. Damper is also known as
(A) Shock absorber
(B) Torsion bar
(C) Spring
(D) Radius rod
Answer: Option A
145. The main characteristics of a maintenance free (MF) battery is
that
(A) A maintenance free battery requires little maintenance during
normal use and it is sufficient to add water instead of an electrolyte
containing sulphuric acid
(B) A maintenance free battery has a relatively short shelf life when
compared with standard batteries
(C) Since it is sealed, the water in maintenance free battery is not lost
through evaporation thus accordingly it is not necessary to top up the cells
with water
(D) Recharging of a maintenance free battery is neither required nor
possible
Answer: Option C
146. The most accurate ignition system of a spark ignition engine is
(A) Magneto system
(B) Battery system
(C) Electronic control unit system
(D) Magneto and electronic system
Answer: Option C
147. The main function of a resonator is that it
(A) Regulates the intake air flow rate
(B) Reduces the intake air noise
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(C) Enhances intake efficiency
(D) Regulates the intake air temperature
Answer: Option B
148. The fuel pump of a programmed fuel injection (PFI) system
operate for two seconds when the ignition is turned to the start
position to
(A) Enable the pump's fault diagnosis function to operate
(B) Warm up and lubricate the pump
(C) Supplies a large amount of fuel and thereby creates a choke effect
(D) Pressurise the fuel system before the engine is started
Answer: Option D
149. In which of the following conditions, the idle CO percentage
should be measured with the vehicle?
(A) Headlights and other electrical devices are switched off
(B) Headlights and other electrical devices are switched on
(C) Headlights and other lights are switched off
(D) Headlights are switched on
Answer: Option A
150. The mechanical efficiency (ηm) of an I.C. engine is equal to
(where I.P. = Indicated power, B.P. = Brake power and F.P. =
Frictional power)
(A) I.P/B.P.
(B) B.P/I.P.
(C) B.P/F.P.
(D) F.P/B.P.
Answer: Option B
151. The combustion process in a Diesel engine is a
(B) Constant pressure process
(C) Constant temperature process
(D) Adiabatic process
Answer: Option B
152. The damper fluid leakage typically occur from
(A) Upper damper mounting
(B) Bottom of damper
(C) Clearance between inner and outer tubes of damper
(D) Coil spring mounting
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Answer: Option C
153. The tyre rotation is generally done at
(A) 1000 km
(B) 4000 km
(C) 6000 km
(D) 10000 km
Answer: Option D
154. The function of a proportioning control valve (PCV) in a brake
system is to
(A) Ensure that equal pressure is supplied to the front and rear brakes
throughout every braking operation
(B) Reduce the brake fluid pressure when the brakes approach their
lockup point
(C) Cause less brake fluid pressure to act on the front brakes than on
the rear brakes when the fluid pressure exceeds a predetermined level
(D) Cause less brake fluid pressure to act on the rear brakes than on
the front brakes when the fluid pressure exceeds a predetermined level.
Answer: Option D
155. An underinflated tyre will wear the tread most
(A) Near the centre
(B) Near the edges
(C) In the lateral direction
(D) In the cross direction
Answer: Option B
156. The purpose of a cylinder head gasket is to
(A) Prevent the combustion gases from leaking from the joint between
the cylinder block and the cylinder head
(B) Prevent engine oil from going into combustion chamber
(C) Removes impurities from cylinder head lubricating oil
Answer: Option A
157. During suction stroke, the inside pressure of cylinder is
(A) More than the atmospheric pressure
(B) Less than the atmospheric pressure
(C) Equal to the atmospheric pressure
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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158. The function of an oil control orifice is that it
(A) Returns cylinder head lubricating oil to the oil pan at high speed
(B) Turns oil into fine mist for spray lubrication
(C) Regulates the pressure of engine oil supplied by the oil pump for
the lubrication of cylinder head mechanism and other purposes
(D) Removes impurities from cylinder head lubricating oil
Answer: Option C
159. Which of the following parameter can be adjusted by modifying
the tie rod attachment length?
(A) Camber
(B) Caster
(C) Toe
(D) Steering gear ratio
Answer: Option C
160. The lubrication oil flow in an engine is in the order as
(A) Oil strainer, oil pump, relief valve, oil filter, cylinder block,
cylinder head and oil pan
(B) Oil pump, oil strainer, relief valve, oil filter, cylinder block,
(C) Oil strainer, oil filter, relief valve, oil pump, cylinder block,
(D) Oil strainer, oil pump, relief valve, oil filter, cylinder head,
cylinder block and oil pan
Answer: Option A
161. A three way catalytic converter
(A) Re-circulates exhaust gases
(B) Burns fuel vapour gases
(C) Reduces N₂, H₂O, and CO₂ emission levels
(D) Removes CO, HC, and NO₂ from the exhaust gasses passing
through it
Answer: Option D
162. The fuel pump in the programmed fuel injection (PFI) system is
located
(A) Between the fuel filler pipe and fuel tank
(B) In the fuel tank
(C) On the distributor mounting in the engine compartment
(D) On the engine compartment bulkhead
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Answer: Option B
163. The basic purpose of tyre rotation on automobiles is to
(A) Avoid ply separation
(B) Equalize wear
(C) Get better ride
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
164. Which of the following is not an automobile?
(A) Motor cycle
(B) Passenger car
(C) Aeroplane
(D) Truck
Answer: Option C
165. The ignition in a spark ignition engine takes place when the
piston is
(A) Exactly at the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke
(B) Approaching the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke
(C) Leaving the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke
(D) Approaching the T.D.C position on its exhaust stroke
Answer: Option B
166. The materials used for cylinder block are
(A) Cast iron and steel
(B) Cast iron and aluminium alloy
(C) Steel and aluminium alloy
(D) Brass and steel
Answer: Option B
167. The included angle is the sum of the
(A) Camber and castor
(B) Castor and S.A.I.
(C) Camber and S.A.I.
(D) Camber and toe in
Answer: Option C
168. Vulcanizing means
(A) Heating rubber under pressure
(B) Spraying with special paint
(C) Melting rubber while stirring it
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
169. The material generally used for cylinder sleeves is
(A) Aluminium
(B) Ceramic
(C) Cast iron
(D) Fibre reinforced plastic
Answer: Option C
170. When turning a corner
(A) The front wheels are toeing out
(B) The front wheels are turning on different angles
(C) The inside front wheels has a greater angle than the outside wheel
Answer: Option D
171. The rolling resistance is because of the friction between the
(A) Wheel rim and tyre
(B) Tyre and the road surface
(C) Wheel rim and road surface
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
172. When a gear box has four forward speeds and one reverse speed,
it is said to be a
(A) 3-speed gear box
(B) 4-speed gear box
(C) 5-speed gear box
(D) 6-speed gear box
Answer: Option B
173. The basic purpose of providing caster angle on wheels is to
(A) Prevent uneven tyre wear
(B) Maintain directional control
(C) Bring the road contact of the tyre under the point of load
(D) Compensate for wear in the steering linkage
Answer: Option B
174. When the piston is at T.D.C, the volume above the piston in the
combustion chamber is the
(A) Clearance volume
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(B) Cylinder volume
(C) Exhaust volume
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
175. In a hydraulic power steering system, the power steering pump is
driven by a
(A) Belt driven by camshaft
(B) Chain driven by crankshaft
(C) Belt driven by driveshaft
(D) Belt driven by crankshaft
Answer: Option D
176. The correct way to rectify an imbalanced wheel is to
(A) Adjust the tyre pressure
(B) Rotate the tyres
(C) Adjust the damper spring tension
(D) Attach appropriate weights to the wheel at appropriate positions
Answer: Option D
177. The fuel that detonates easily, is
(A) N-heptane
(B) Iso-octane
(C) Benzene
(D) Alcohol
Answer: Option A
178. The Diesel engine works on
(A) Otto cycle
(B) Carnot cycle
(C) Diesel cycle
(D) Rankine cycle
Answer: Option C
179. The parking brake generally acts on
(A) Front wheels
(B) Rear wheels
(C) Front and rear wheels
(D) Propeller shaft
Answer: Option B
180. The forced fed lubrication system means that the oil is delivered
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to the engine by
(A) Gravity
(B) The pressure created by the oil pump
(C) Splashing action of the crankshaft
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
181. The commonly used antifreeze solution in automobiles is
(A) Carbon disulphide
(B) Ethylene glycol
(C) Ammonium chloride
(D) Freon-12
Answer: Option B
182. The indicated power of a four stroke engine (in watts) is equal to
(where P = Mean effective pressure in N/m², L = Length of stroke in
metres, A = Cross-sectional area of the piston in m², and N = Speed of
the engine in revolutions per second (r.p.s)
(A) P.L.A.N/2
(B) P.L.A.N
(C) 2 × P.L.A.N
(D) P.L.A.N/4
Answer: Option A
183. Engine misfiring is likely to result from
(A) Spark plug gap too small
(B) Spark plug gap too wide
(C) Vapours lock in the fuel only
(D) Incorrect fuel air mixture
Answer: Option B
184. If the valve clearances are excessively large, the problem that can
arise is
(A) Overheating of the engine
(B) Incomplete valve closure
(C) Fouling of spark plug by gasoline
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
185. The power source for a brake booster is
(A) Exhaust manifold pressure
(B) Electricity
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(C) The pressure difference between the atmospheric pressure and the
vacuum pressure in the intake manifold
(D) Hydraulic pump
Answer: Option C
186. The Diesel engines are also known as
(A) Spark ignition (S.I.) engines
(B) Compression ignition (C.I.) engines
(C) Steam engines
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
187. The specific gravity of acid in a fully charged battery is generally
(A) 1.00
(B) 1.28
(C) 1.82
(D) 2.81
Answer: Option B
188. The gear shift lever requires two separate motions to shift gears,
and the first movement
(A) Moves the synchronizer
(B) Selects the synchronizer
(C) Meshes the gears
(D) Operates the clutch
Answer: Option B
189. Two speed reverse gear arrangements is generally provided in
case of
(A) Passenger cars
(B) Matadors
(C) Tractors
(D) Trucks
Answer: Option C
190. Which of the following bulb in a car will have the least wattage?
(A) Head light bulb
(B) Stop light bulb
(C) Parking light bulb
(D) Ignition warning bulb
Answer: Option D
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191. Wheel base of a vehicle is the
(A) Distance between the centres of the front and rear wheels
(B) Distance between the centres of the front tyres
(C) Distance between the centres of the rear tyres
(D) Extreme length of the vehicle
Answer: Option A
192. Which of the following oil is more viscous?
(A) SAE 30
(B) SAE 40
(C) SAE 70
(D) SAE 80
Answer: Option D
193. A heat treated glass generally used in automobiles bursts into
________ upon cracking,
(A) Sharp edged fragments
(B) Small particles
(C) Large particles
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
194. The negative terminal post on the top of a battery is
(A) Smaller than the positive terminal post
(B) Larger than the positive terminal post
(C) Of the same size as the positive terminal post
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
195. The effect of having excess camber is
(A) Excessive steering alignment torque
(B) Hard steering
(C) Too much traction
(D) Uneven tyre wear
Answer: Option D
196. The main function of intake manifold is that it
(A) Promotes the mixture of air and fuel
(B) Reduces intake noise
(C) Cools the intake air to a suitable temperature
(D) Distributes intake air equally to the cylinders
Answer: Option D
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197. If a tyre is designated as 175/65 R-14 82-S, then the aspect ratio
for the tyre is
(A) 175
(B) 65
(C) 14
(D) 82
Answer: Option B
198. The function of an alternator in an automobile is to
(A) Supply electric power
(B) Converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
(C) Continually recharges the battery
(D) Partly converts engine power into electric power
Answer: Option C
199. The valve tappet clearance is measured by
(A) Screw pitch gauge
(B) Engineering scale
(C) Feeler gauge
(D) Vernier caliper
Answer: Option C
200. The specific gravity of petrol is about
(A) 0.75
(B) 0.85
(C) 0.95
(D) 1.25
Answer: Option A
201. The octane number of compressed natural gas (CNG) is
(A) 90
(B) 100
(C) 110
(D) 120
Answer: Option D
202. Incorrect steering axis inclination (S.A.I.) causes
(A) Tendency to assume toe-out orientation
(B) Generation of a braking effect at tight corners
(C) Poor recovery of the steering wheel after making a turn
(D) The vehicle to pull to the side of lesser inclination
Answer: Option C
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203. Which of the following symptom is caused as a result of brake
disc run out?
(A) Ineffectiveness of the brakes
(B) Judder during braking
(C) Localized wearing of the brake pads
(D) Rapid wearing of the brake pads
Answer: Option B
204. Which one of the following statement correctly describes the
construction of a bevel gear type differential?
(A) The drive shafts are splined to the differential carrier.
(B) The left side gear and the differential carrier rotate in constant
unison.
(C) The differential carrier houses differential pinion gears and side
gears; each pinion gear meshes with a different side gear.
(D) The differential carrier houses differential pinion gears and side
gears
Answer: Option D
205. The information provided by the oxygen (O₂) sensor to the
feedback control system is about the
(A) Air-fuel ratio
(B) Air temperature
(C) Air flow speed
(D) Exhaust gas volume
Answer: Option A
206. The function of a governor in automobiles is to
(A) Limit the power
(B) Limit the vehicle speed
(C) Maintain constant engine speed
(D) Maximise the fuel economy
Answer: Option B
207. The firing order for an inline four cylinder I.C. engine is
(A) 1-2-3-4
(B) 1-3-4-2
(C) 1-2-4-3
(D) 1-3-2-4
Answer: Option B
208. The minimum parking brake force is generally ________ of gross
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vehicle mass (GVM).
(A) 5 %
(B) 10 %
(C) 15 %
(D) 20 %
Answer: Option D
209. Bead wires are made of
(A) Steel
(B) Copper
(C) Zinc
(D) Aluminium
Answer: Option A
210. The advantage of the fuel injection system over the carburettor
system is
(A) Improved fuel efficiency
(B) Improved emission
(C) Improved power output
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
211. Cushioning springs in clutch plate reduces
(A) Vehicle speed
(B) Torsional vibrations
(C) Jerky starts
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
212. The specific gravity of Diesel is about
(A) 0.65
(B) 0.75
(C) 0.85
(D) 0.95
Answer: Option C
213. The ease with which petrol vaporizes is called its
(A) Oxidation
(B) Octane number
(C) Volatility
(D) Cetane number
Answer: Option C
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214. Tachometer in a vehicle measures
(A) Speed
(B) Distance
(C) Engine r.p.m.
(D) Fuel consumption
Answer: Option C
215. The connecting rod lower end is connected to the relevant
________ of crankshaft.
(A) Big end
(B) Crank arm
(C) Journal
(D) Small end
Answer: Option C
216. The brake pedal during ABS operation
(A) Is pushed upward forcefully
(B) Pedal stroke becomes longer
(C) Transmits slight kickback to the driver's foot
Answer: Option C
217. Odometer is an instrument used for measurement of
(A) Power
(B) Fuel consumption
(C) Engine r.p.m.
(D) Distance
Answer: Option D
218. The function of a second ring is that it is a
(A) Back up compression ring which will work in place of the top ring
when it is broken
(B) Compression ring and aids the top ring in sealing and cooling
(C) Back up oil control ring which will work in place of the bottom
ring when it is broken
(D) Cushion ring which prevents piston slap and knock
Answer: Option B
219. The advantage of having a tandem master cylinder arrangement
in automobiles is that it
(A) Enhances safety by serving two independent lines in a divided line
brake circuit
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(B) Enhances safety by activating the brakes using vacuum pressure in
the event of brake fluid loss
(C) Supplies equal fluid pressure to each line of a divided line brake
circuit, thereby preventing the brakes from dragging on one side
(D) Boosts the brake fluid pressure to reduce the force required to
depress the brake pedal
Answer: Option A
220. The two rows of cylinders in a 'V' type engine are generally
arranged at
(A) 45°
(B) 60°
(C) 90°
(D) 130°
Answer: Option B
221. The basic part of the engine, to which the other engine parts are
attached or assembled is the
(A) Cylinder head
(B) Crankshaft
(C) Cylinder block
(D) Oil pan
Answer: Option C
222. The function of a connecting rod is
(A) To turn the flywheel
(B) To drive the drive plate
(C) To drive the fuel pump
(D) To transmit motion of the piston to the crankshaft
Answer: Option D
223. The seat belt tensioners are built in the
(A) Front seats
(B) Shoulder anchors
(C) Seat belt retractors
(D) Seat belt buckles
Answer: Option C
224. When indicated power (I.P.) and frictional power (F.P.) are
known, we can calculate
(A) Brake power
(B) Compression ratio
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(C) Specific air consumption
(D) Mean effective pressure
Answer: Option A
225. The number of exhaust manifolds in a V6 engine is
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Four
(D) Eight
Answer: Option B
226. The temperature indicating instrument in vehicles indicates the
temperature of
(A) Engine piston
(B) Engine cylinder
(C) Lubricating oil
(D) Jacket cooling water
Answer: Option D
227. Two general types of tyres are
(A) Tube type and tubeless
(B) Solid and tubeless
(C) Air and pneumatic
(D) Split rim and drop centre
Answer: Option A
228. How many cells are used in a 12 volt car battery?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer: Option C
229. The motion of the cam is transferred to the valves through
(A) Pistons
(B) Rocker arms
(C) Camshaft pulley
(D) Valve stems
Answer: Option B
230. The power actually developed inside the engine cylinder is called
as
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(A) Indicated power
(B) Brake power
(C) Frictional power
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
231. If the air-fuel mixture in a spark ignition engine is too rich, then
air-fuel ratio is about
(A) 17 : 1
(B) 15 : 1
(C) 13 : 1
(D) 10 : 1
Answer: Option D
232. Petrol that detonates easily is called
(A) High octane petrol
(B) Low octane petrol
(C) Unleaded petrol
(D) Blended fuel
Answer: Option B
233. The advantage of a tubeless tyre over tube type tyre is
(A) Slow air leakage
(B) Better fuel efficiency
(C) Less chances of running flat
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
234. In a single dry plate clutch, torsional vibrations are absorbed by
(A) Coil springs known as torsional springs
(B) Cushion springs
(C) Central hub
(D) Clutch pedal
Answer: Option A
235. The battery is an electrochemical device, which means battery
(A) Makes chemicals by mechanical means
(B) Uses chemical action to provide electricity
(C) Has curved plates instead of flat plates
(D) Does not use an electrolyte
Answer: Option B
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236. An overinflated tyre will wear the tread most near the
(A) Edges
(B) Corners
(C) Centre
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
237. The calorific value of Diesel is about
(A) 36.5 MJ/kg
(B) 38.5 MJ/kg
(C) 42.5 MJ/kg
(D) 45.5 MJ/kg
Answer: Option C
238. The function of oil control rings is that it
(A) Lubricates the cylinder wall by releasing oil from its hole
(B) Keeps the cylinder wall lubricated by holding oil in its channel
(C) Prevents engine oil from going into the combustion chamber and
returns excess lubricating oil off the cylinder wall through the return holes
in the piston to the oil pan
(D) Maintains a seal and prevents escape of burned gases and oil
leakage
Answer: Option C
239. Two advantages of using helical gears rather than spur gears in a
transmission system are
(A) Strength and cost
(B) Strength and less end thrust
(C) Noise level and strength
(D) Noise level and economy
Answer: Option C
240. The correct flow of power through the drive train is
(A) Engine drive shafts, clutch, main shaft, counter shaft, final driven
gear, wheels
(B) Engine clutch, main shaft, counter shaft, final driven gear, drive
shafts, wheels
(C) Engine clutch, counter shaft, main shaft, final driven gear, drive
shafts, wheels
(D) Engine main shaft, counter shaft, clutch, final driven gear, drive
shafts, wheels
Answer: Option B
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241. An imbalance wheel during vehicle operation
(A) Makes large noise when its heavy point hits the road surface
(B) Deflects in the vehicle's longitudinal direction
(C) Bounces vertically or deflects from side to side (as seen from front
or rear)
(D) Creates a standing wave
Answer: Option C
242. The temperature at which tyre inflation pressure should be
checked is
(A) 20°C
(B) 25°C
(C) 35°C
(D) Ambient temperature
Answer: Option D
243. The parking brakes employed in vehicles are operated
(A) Mechanically
(B) Hydraulically
(C) Pneumatically
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
244. In vehicles with tilt steering, the steering column is pivoted in
(A) Upper bracket
(B) Lower bracket
(C) Tilt bracket
(D) Steering yoke joint
Answer: Option B
245. One effect of detonation is
(A) Delay in ignition
(B) Loss of power
(C) Overheating of engine
(D) Overcooling of engine
Answer: Option B
246. In case of a Diesel car, the pressure at the end of compression is
of the order of
(A) 15 bar
(B) 25 bar
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(C) 35 bar
(D) 45 bar
Answer: Option D
247. The effect of vapour locking on the brake performance is that the
(A) Brakes function more effectively
(B) Brakes fail completely
(C) Brake operation is delayed after depression of the brake pedal
(D) Vapour locking has no effect on brake performance
Answer: Option B
248. The connecting rod is attached to the piston by the
(A) Cap bolt
(B) Piston pin
(C) Cap roller bearing
(D) Rod cap
Answer: Option B
249. Clutch facings are usually attached to the plate by
(A) Steel rivets
(B) Brass rivets
(C) Aluminium screws
(D) Steel screws
Answer: Option B
250. In a Diesel engine, the function of a fuel injector is to
(A) Mix the fuel and air
(B) Ignite the air-fuel mixture
(C) Provide flame front for ignition
(D) Spray atomized fuel in the cylinder
Answer: Option D
251. In a four speed four stroke Diesel engine, the intake valve
(A) Opens at T.D.C. and closes at B.D.C.
(B) Opens at 20° before T.D.C. and closes at 35° after B.D.C.
(C) Opens at 10° after T.D.C. and closes at 20° before B.D.C.
Answer: Option B
252. When the top of the wheel is tilted outward, then it is called
(A) Positive camber
(B) Negative camber
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(C) Positive caster
(D) Negative caster
Answer: Option A
253. The purpose of transmission in an automobile is
(A) To vary the speed of automobile
(B) To vary the torque at the wheels
(C) To vary the power of automobile
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
254. A basic difference between the spark ignition engine and the
Diesel engine is that the
(A) Diesel engine compresses air alone instead of an air-fuel mixture
(B) Air temperature ignites the fuel in the Diesel engine
(C) Fuel is sprayed into the combustion chamber in the Diesel engine
as the piston nears T.D.C. on the compression stroke
Answer: Option D
255. The cam shaft in an engine is always mounted
(A) Parallel to the crankshaft
(B) Perpendicular to the crankshaft
(C) Inclined to the crankshaft
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
256. The lower cylindrical portion of the piston which improves piston
cooling performance is called
(A) Piston crown
(B) Connecting rod
(C) Piston pin boss
(D) Piston skirt
Answer: Option D
257. The most effective method of controlling S.I. engine exhaust
emission is by
(A) Recirculating exhaust
(B) Using catalytic converter
(C) Using some additives in the fuel
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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258. If clearance volume of I.C. engines is increased, the compression
ratio will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain constant
(D) Be doubled
Answer: Option B
259. The basic function of the suspension is to
(A) Absorbs vibration and impact forces from the road surface
(B) Ensure that the steering wheel can deliver a suitable amount of
steering force
(C) Ensure that wheel alignment is not disturbed during driving
(D) Automatically correct the effects of over steering
Answer: Option A
260. Damper in an automobile is used to
(A) Absorb the energy
(B) Dissipate the energy
(C) Release the energy
(D) Increase the energy
Answer: Option B
261. The engine oil is stored in __________ when the engine is not
running.
(A) Oil pan
(B) Cylinder head
(C) Oil pump
(D) Separate oil tank
Answer: Option A
262. The condition that results in large quantities of CO emission is
(A) Insufficient air during combustion
(B) Insufficient fuel during combustion
(C) Low temperature combustion
(D) High temperature combustion
Answer: Option A
263. The sequence order of events in a four stroke engine is
(A) Suction exhaust power compression
(B) Suction power compression exhaust
(C) Suction compression power exhaust
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(D) Exhaust compression power suction
Answer: Option C
264. Which of the following is not a part of the chassis?
(A) Wheels
(B) Front axle
(C) Steering system
(D) Seats
Answer: Option D
265. The camshaft of a four stroke Diesel engine running at 1000 rpm
will run at
(A) 500 rpm
(B) 1000 rpm
(C) 2000 rpm
(D) 4000 rpm
Answer: Option A
266. What type of bearing is used for main bearings and connecting
rod bearings?
(A) Ball bearings
(B) Plain bearings
(C) Needle roller bearing
(D) Taper roller bearing
Answer: Option B
267. Valve overlap is the number of degrees of camshaft rotation
during which
(A) Both valves are closed
(B) Both valves are open
(C) Both 'A' and 'B'
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
268. The component that is responsible for converting the rotation of
the steering wheel into lateral motion is the
(A) Steering wheel
(B) Steering shaft
(C) Steering gearbox
(D) Tie rod
Answer: Option C
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269. The crankcase dilution means
(A) Dilution of fuel in the crankcase
(B) Dilution of oil by water in the crankcase
(C) Dilution of lubrication oil by fuel in the crankcase
(D) Dilution of mixture passing through crankcase in two stroke
engines
Answer: Option C
270. The main cause for the change in engine oil viscosity is
(A) Humidity
(B) Temperature
(C) Vibration
(D) Contamination
Answer: Option B
271. The rating of C.I. engine fuel (Diesel) is given by
(A) Octane number
(B) Performance number
(C) Cetane number
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
272. The operation of removing trapped air from the hydraulic
braking system is known as
(A) Trapping
(B) Tapping
(C) Bleeding
(D) Cleaning
Answer: Option C
273. In a four wheel drive (4WD), the numbers of gear boxes are
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option B
274. In an engine, the temperature of the piston will be more at the
(A) Crown of the piston
(B) Skirt of the piston
(C) Piston walls
(D) Piston rings
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Answer: Option A
275. The oil pump is driven by the
(A) Camshaft
(B) Alternator shaft
(C) Crankshaft via drive belt
(D) Crankshaft directly
Answer: Option D
276. The condition that causes vapour locking in a brake system is
(A) Overheating of the fluid due to frequent brake application
(B) Overcooling of the brakes during high speed driving
(C) Keeping the vehicle without use for an extended period
(D) An excessively high engine speed on a downhill road
Answer: Option A
277. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the
construction of a planetary gear type differential?
(A) The six planetary pinions rotate in constant mesh with the internal
gears.
(B) One drive shaft is splined to the central gear and the other to the
planetary gear.
(C) Each planetary pinion gear meshes with both the central gear and
the internal gear.
(D) The internal gear is fixed to the planetary gear.
Answer: Option B
278. A maintenance free battery
(A) Has lead-antimony plate grid
(B) Has lead-calcium plate grid
(C) Does not contain acid
(D) Does not contain water
Answer: Option B
279. The function of antilock brake system (ABS) is that is
(A) Reduces the stopping distance
(B) Minimises the brake fade
(C) Maintains directional control during braking by preventing the
wheels from locking
(D) Prevents nose dives during braking and thereby postpones locking
of the wheels
Answer: Option C
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280. In a Diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by
(A) An electric spark
(B) The heat of compression
(C) The hot exhaust
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
281. In a four cylinder inline engine, the number of firing strokes in
one revolution of the crank is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option B
282. The coefficient of rolling resistance for a truck weighing 63,500 N
is 0.018. The rolling resistance to the truck is
(A) 1.143 N
(B) 11.43 N
(C) 114.3 N
(D) 1143 N
Answer: Option D
283. The Diesel engines as compared to petrol engines require
(A) Bigger flywheel
(B) Smaller flywheel
(C) Same size of flywheel
(D) No flywheel
Answer: Option A
Automobile Engineering Test:

01. The cetane number of a Diesel fuel is a measure of
(A) Ignition quality
(B) Delay period
02. The differential ensures that each wheel is driven at a speed which
corresponds to the distance it must travel around a corner, and it
consequently prevents against excessive tyre wear.
(A) Agree
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(B) Disagree
03. Tachometer in a vehicle measures
(A) Speed
(B) Engine r.p.m.
04. The smooth shift mechanism of an automatic transmission reduces
the degree of shock at shifting of gears.
(A) Yes
(B) No
05. If the air-fuel mixture ignites before the spark takes place at spark
plug, the condition is called
(A) Detonation
(B) Pre-ignition
06. The crankshaft of a typical inline four cylinder engine has
________ balance weights.
(A) 4
(B) 8
07. The camshaft is driven by the crankshaft via the timing belt.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
08. Odometer is an instrument used for measurement of
(A) Engine r.p.m.
(B) Distance
09. The main merit of a multi cylinder type cylinder sleeve is
(A) Smaller engine dimensions
(B) Better cooling efficiency
10. The number of exhaust manifolds in a V-6 engine is
(A) One
(B) Two
11. The component of the oil filter that prevents the passage of metal
particles and sludge is
(A) Element
(B) Check valve
12. The engine torque increases with the increase in engine speed up to
a certain point after which it starts to fall down.
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(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
13. In Diesel engines, during suction stroke, ________ is drawn in the
cylinder.
(A) Only fuel
(B) Only air
14. The clutch is located between the transmission and the
(A) Engine
(B) Rear axle
15. The most commonly used supplementary restraint system (SRS)
component is
(A) Seat belt
(B) Airbag
16. The crescent shaped cavity on the piston head top surface is called
as
(A) Valve recess
(B) Valve clearance
17. When the engine speed increases, the ignition timing must be
advanced.
(A) Yes
(B) No
18. The connecting rod connects the piston and the
(A) Camshaft
(B) Crankshaft
19. In vehicles with tilt steering, the steering column is pivoted in
(A) Upper bracket
(B) Lower bracket
20. The PCV valve incorporates a spring loaded plunger and opens in
proportion to the level of vacuum pressure in the intake manifold.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
Answers: Automobile Engineering Test

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Engineering Mechanics:
01. A body of mass ‘m’ moving with a constant velocity ‘v’ strikes
another body of same mass moving with same velocity but in opposite
direction. The common velocity of both the bodies after collision is
(A) v
(B) 2v
(C) 4v
(D) 8v
Answer: Option B
02. The bellow figure shows the three coplanar forces P, Q and R
acting at a point O. If these forces are in equilibrium, then
(A) P/sin β = Q/sin α = R/sin ɣ

(B) P/sin α = Q/sin β = R/sin ɣ
(C) P/sin ɣ = Q/sin α = R/sin β
(D) P/sin α = Q/sin ɣ = R/sin β
Answer: Option B
03. The centre of percussion of the homogeneous rod of length ‘L’
suspended at the top will be
(A) L/2
(B) L/3
(C) 3L/4
(D) 2L/3
Answer: Option D
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04. The angle of inclination of the plane at which the body begins to
move down the plane, is called
(A) Angle of friction
(B) Angle of repose
(C) Angle of projection
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
05. Pick up wrong statement about friction force for dry surfaces.
Friction force is
(A) Proportional to normal load between the surfaces
(B) Dependent on the materials of contact surface
(C) Proportional to velocity of sliding
(D) Independent of the area of contact surfaces
Answer: Option C
06. The term 'Centroid' is
(A) The same as centre of gravity
(B) The point of suspension
(C) The point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to
cause a body to rotate about a certain axis
Answer: Option A
07. The C.G. of a plane lamina will not be at its geometrical centre in
the case of a
(A) Right angled triangle
(B) Equilateral triangle
(C) Square
(D) Circle
Answer: Option A
08. If the masses of both the bodies, as shown in the below figure, are
reduced to 50 percent, then tension in the string will be
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(A) Same
(B) Half
(C) Double
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
09. The moment of inertia of a thin rod of mass ‘m’ and length ‘l’,
about an axis through its centre of gravity and perpendicular to its
length is
(A) ml2/4
(B) ml2/ 6
(C) ml2/8
(D) ml2/12
Answer: Option D
10. Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on body lie in
(A) One point
(B) One plane
(C) Different planes
(D) Perpendicular planes
Answer: Option B
11. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 2 m. If there is no loss of
velocity after rebounding, the ball will rise to a height of
(A) 1 m
(B) 2 m
(C) 3 m
(D) 4 m
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Answer: Option B
12. A weight of 1000 N can be lifted by an effort of 80 N. If the velocity
ratio is 20, the machine is
(A) Reversible
(B) Non-reversible
(C) Ideal
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
13. Centre of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis at the height
(A) One fourth of the total height above base
(B) One third of the total height above base
(C) One-half of the total height above base
(D) Three eighth of the total height above the base
Answer: Option A
14. The periodic time (T) is given by (where, ω = Angular velocity of
particle in rad/s.)
(A) ω/2π
(B) 2π/ω
(C) 2π × ω
(D) π/ω
Answer: Option B
15. The resultant of two forces P and Q (such that P > Q) acting along
the same straight line, but in opposite direction, is given by
(A) P + Q
(B) P - Q
(C) P / Q
(D) Q / P
Answer: Option B
16. When two elastic bodies collide with each other,
(A) The two bodies will momentarily come to rest after collision
(B) The two bodies tend to compress and deform at the surface of
contact
(C) The two bodies begin to regain their original shape
Answer: Option D
17. The coefficient of friction depends upon
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(A) Nature of surfaces
(B) Area of contact
(C) Shape of the surfaces
Answer: Option A
18. The angular velocity (in rad/s) of a body rotating at N revolutions
per minute is
(A) πN/60
(B) πN/180
(C) 2πN/60
(D) 2πN/180
Answer: Option C
19. A block of mass m1, placed on an inclined smooth plane is
connected by a light string passing over a smooth pulley to mass m2,
which moves vertically downwards as shown in the below figure. The
tension in the string is
(A) m1/m2
(B) m1. g. sin α
(C) m1.m2/m1 + m2
(D) m1. m2.g (1 + sin α)/(m1 + m2)
Answer: Option D
20. In determining stresses in frames by methods of sections, the
frame is divided into two parts by an imaginary section drawn in such
a way as not to cut more than
(A) Two members with unknown forces of the frame
(B) Three members with unknown forces of the frame
(C) Four members with unknown forces of the frame
(D) Three members with known forces of the frame
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Answer: Option B
21. A machine having an efficiency greater than 50%, is known as
(A) Reversible machine
(B) Non-reversible machine
(C) Neither reversible nor non-reversible machine
(D) Ideal machine
Answer: Option A
22. The algebraic sum of moments of the forces forming couple about
any point in their plane is
(A) Equal to the moment of the couple
(B) Constant
(C) Both of above are correct
(D) Both of above are wrong
Answer: Option A
23. In the lever of third order, load ‘W’, effort ‘P’ and fulcrum ‘F’ are
oriented as follows
(A) W between P and F
(B) F between W and P
(C) P between W and F
(D) W, P and F all on one side
Answer: Option A
(A) The algebraic sum of the forces, constituting the couple is zero
(B) The algebraic sum of the forces, constituting the couple, about any
point is the same
(C) A couple cannot be balanced by a single force but can be balanced
only by a couple of opposite sense
Answer: Option D
25. A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not
be in equilibrium, if
(A) The floor is smooth, the wall is rough
(B) The floor is rough, the wall is smooth
(C) The floor and wall both are smooth surfaces
(D) The floor and wall both are rough surfaces
Answer: Option C
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26. The skidding away of the vehicle on a level circular path can be
avoided if the force of friction between the wheels and the ground is
__________ the centrifugal force.
(A) Less than
(B) Greater than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
27. Coulomb friction is the friction between
(A) Bodies having relative motion
(B) Two dry surfaces
(C) Two lubricated surfaces
(D) Solids and liquids
Answer: Option A
28. The time of flight (t) of a projectile on an upward inclined plane is
(where u = Velocity of projection, α = Angle of projection, and β =
Inclination of the plane with the horizontal.)
(A) t = g cos β/2u sin (α - β)
(B) t = 2u sin (α - β)/g cos β
(C) t = g cos β/2u sin (α + β)
(D) t = 2u sin (α + β)/g cos β
Answer: Option B
29. Which of the following is the example of lever of first order?
(A) Arm of man
(B) Pair of scissors
(C) Pair of clinical tongs
Answer: Option D
30. The units of moment of inertia of an area are
(A) kg-m²
(B) m⁴
(C) kg/m²
(D) m³
Answer: Option B
31. The Cartesian equation of trajectory is (where u = Velocity of
projection, α = Angle of projection, and x, y = Co-ordinates of any
point on the trajectory after t seconds.)
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(A) y = (gx²/2u² cos²α) + x. tanα
(B) y = (gx²/2u² cos²α) - x. tanα
(C) y = x. tanα - (gx²/2u² cos²α)
(D) y = x. tanα + (gx²/2u² cos²α)
Answer: Option C
32. Three forces acting on a rigid body are represented in magnitude,
direction and line of action by the three sides of a triangle taken in
order. The forces are equivalent to a couple whose moment is equal to
(A) Area of the triangle
(B) Twice the area of the triangle
(C) Half the area of the triangle
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
33. The slope on the road surface generally provided on the curves is
known as
(B) Angle of repose
(C) Angle of banking
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
34. A force acting on a body may
(A) Change its motion
(B) Balance the other forces acting on it
(C) Retard its motion
Answer: Option D
35. The centre of gravity of an isosceles triangle with base (p) and sides
(q) from its base is
(A) [√(4p² - q²)]/6
(B) (4p² - q²)/6
(C) (p² - q²)/4
(D) (p² + q²)/4
Answer: Option A
36. On a ladder resting on smooth ground and leaning against vertical
wall, the force of friction will be
(A) Towards the wall at its upper end
(B) Away from the wall at its upper end
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(C) Upwards at its upper end
(D) Downwards at its upper end
Answer: Option C
37. The velocity of a body on reaching the ground from a height h, is
(A) 2.√(gh)
(B) √(gh)
(C) √(2gh)
(D) 2g.√h
Answer: Option C
38. A framed structure, as shown in the below figure, is a
(A) Perfect frame

(B) Deficient frame
(C) Redundant frame
Answer: Option A
39. Lami's theorem states that
(A) Three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium
(B) Three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle,
each side being proportional to force
(C) If three forces acting upon a particle are represented in magnitude
and direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in
equilibrium
(D) If three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is
proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two
Answer: Option D
40. The ratio of static friction to dynamic friction is always
(A) Equal to one
(B) Less than one
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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41. Which is the correct statement about law of polygon of forces?
(A) If any number of forces acting at a point can be represented by the
sides of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
(B) If any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in
direction and magnitude by the sides of a polygon, then the forces are in
equilibrium
(C) If a polygon representing forces acting at a point is closed then
forces are in equilibrium
(D) If any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in
direction and magnitude by the sides of a polygon taken in order, then the
forces are in equilibrium
Answer: Option D
42. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and height (h)
about an axis through its base, is
(A) bh3/4
(B) bh3/8
(C) bh3/12
(D) bh3/36
Answer: Option C
43. Coefficient of friction is the
(A) Angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal
reaction and the limiting friction
(B) Ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
(C) The friction force acting when the body is just about to move
(D) The friction force acting when the body is in motion
Answer: Option B
44. The forces, which meet at one point and their lines of action also lie
on the same plane, are known as
(A) Coplanar concurrent forces
(B) Coplanar non-concurrent forces
(C) Non-coplanar concurrent forces
(D) Non-coplanar non-concurrent forces
Answer: Option A
45. A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm in 6 sec. The
number of revolutions made is nearly equal to
(A) 25
(B) 50
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(C) 100
(D) 250
Answer: Option B
46. A ladder is resting on a smooth ground and leaning against a
rough vertical wall. The force of friction will act
(A) Towards the wall at its upper end
(B) Away from the wall at its upper end
(C) Downward at its upper end
(D) Upward at its upper end
Answer: Option D
47. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
(A) The C.G. of a circle is at its centre
(B) The C.G. of a triangle is at the intersection of its medians
(C) The C.G. of a rectangle is at the intersection of its diagonals
(D) The C.G. of a semicircle is at a distance of r/2 from the centre
Answer: Option D
48. The range of projectile (R) on an upward inclined plane is
(A) g. cos² β/2u². sin (α + β). cos α
(B) 2u². sin (α + β). cos α/g. cos² β
(C) g. cos² β/2u². sin (α - β). cos α
(D) 2u². sin (α - β). cos α/g. cos² β
Answer: Option D
49. If three forces acting in one plane upon a rigid body, keep it in
equilibrium, then they must either
(A) Meet in a point
(B) Be all parallel
(C) At least two of them must meet
(D) All the above are correct
Answer: Option D
50. In order to double the period of simple pendulum, the length of the
string should be
(A) Halved
(B) Doubled
(C) Quadrupled
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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51. The angle which an inclined plane makes with the horizontal when
a body placed on it is about to move down is known as angle of
(A) Friction
(B) Limiting friction
(C) Repose
(D) Kinematic friction
Answer: Option C
52. The energy possessed by a body, for doing work by virtue of its
position, is called
(A) Potential energy
(B) Kinetic energy
(C) Electrical energy
(D) Chemical energy
Answer: Option A
53. The centre of gravity of a uniform lamina lies at
(A) The centre of heavy portion
(B) The bottom surface
(C) The midpoint of its axis
Answer: Option C
54. The three forces of 100 N, 200 N and 300 N have their lines of
action parallel to each other but act in the opposite directions. These
forces are known as
(C) Like parallel forces
(D) Unlike parallel forces
Answer: Option D
55. Angle of friction is the
(A) Angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal
reaction and the limiting friction
(C) The ratio of minimum friction force to the friction force acting
when the body is just about to move
(D) The ratio of minimum friction force to friction force acting when
the body is in motion
Answer: Option A
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56. Moment of inertia of a hollow circular section, as shown in the
below figure about an axis perpendicular to the section, is __________
than that about X-X axis.
(A) Two times

(B) Same
(C) Half
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
57. The frequency of oscillation of a compound pendulum is (where kG
= Radius of gyration about the centroidal axis, and h = Distance
between the point of suspension and C.G. of the body.)
(A) 2π. √(gh/kG² + h²)
(B) 2π. √(kG² + h²/gh)
(C) 1/2π. √(gh/kG² + h²)
(D) 1/2π. √(kG² + h²/gh)
Answer: Option C
58. The necessary condition for forces to be in equilibrium is that
these should be
(A) Coplanar
(B) Meet at one point
(D) All be equal
Answer: Option C
59. Two forces are acting at an angle of 120°. The bigger force is 40 N
and the resultant is perpendicular to the smaller one. The smaller
force is
(A) 20 N
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(B) 40 N
(C) 120 N
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
60. In actual machines
(A) Mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio
(B) Mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio
(C) Mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
(D) Mechanical advantage is unity
Answer: Option C
61. The centre of gravity of a right circular solid cone is at a distance
of __________ from its base, measured along the vertical axis. (where
h = Height of a right circular solid cone.)
(A) h/2
(B) h/3
(C) h/4
(D) h/6
Answer: Option C
62. A particle inside a hollow sphere of radius r, having coefficient of
friction µ can rest up to height of
(A) r/2
(B) r/A
(C) r/3
(D) 0.134 r
Answer: Option D
(A) A force acting in the opposite direction to the motion of the body
is called force of friction
(B) The ratio of the limiting friction to the normal reaction is called
coefficient of friction
(C) A machine whose efficiency is 100% is known as an ideal machine
(D) The velocity ratio of a machine is the ratio of load lifted to the
effort applied
Answer: Option D
64. A sample of metal weighs 219 gms in air, 180 gms in water, 120
gms in an unknown fluid. Then which is correct statement about
density of metal
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(A) Density of metal can't be determined
(B) Metal is twice as dense as water
(C) Metal will float in water
(D) Metal is twice as dense as unknown fluid
Answer: Option A
65. The centre of percussion is below the centre of gravity of the body
and is at a distance equal to
(A) h/kG
(B) h2/kG
(C) kG2/h
(D) h × kG
Answer: Option C
66. A cable with a uniformly distributed load per horizontal meter run
will take the following shape
(A) Straight line
(B) Parabola
(C) Hyperbola
(D) Elliptical
Answer: Option B
67. When a body falls freely under gravitational force, it possesses
__________ weight.
(A) No
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
68. A body moves, from rest with a constant acceleration of 5 m per
sec. The distance covered in 5 sec is most nearly
(A) 38 m
(B) 62.5 m
(C) 96 m
(D) 124 m
Answer: Option B
69. When the lift is moving upwards with some acceleration, the
pressure exerted by a man is __________ to its acceleration.
(A) Directly proportional
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(B) Inversely proportional
(C) Cube root
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
70. Limiting force of friction is the
(A) Tangent of angle between normal reaction and the resultant of
normal reaction and limiting friction
Answer: Option C
71. A spherical body is symmetrical about its perpendicular axis.
According to Routh's rule, the moment of inertia of a body about an
axis passing through its centre of gravity is (where, M = Mass of the
body, and S = Sum of the squares of the two semi-axes.)
(A) MS/3
(B) MS/4
(C) MS/5
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
72. The resultant of the following three couples 20 kg force, 0.5 m arm,
+ve sense 30 kg force, 1 m arm, -ve sense 40 kg force, 0.25 m arm, +ve
sense having arm of 0.5 m will be
(A) 20 kg, -ve sense
(B) 20 kg, + ve sense
(C) 10 kg, + ve sense
(D) 10 kg, -ve sense
Answer: Option A
73. In a framed structure, as shown in the below figure, the force in
the member BC is
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(A) W/√3 (compression)
(B) W/√3 (tension)
(C) 2W/√3 (compression)
(D) 2W/√3 (tension)
Answer: Option D
74. For any system of coplanar forces, the condition of equilibrium is
that the
(A) Algebraic sum of the horizontal components of all the forces
should be zero
(B) Algebraic sum of the vertical components of all the forces should
be zero
(C) Algebraic sum of moments of all the forces about any point should
be zero
Answer: Option D
75. D' Alembert's principle is used for
(A) Reducing the problem of kinetics to equivalent statics problem
(B) Determining stresses in the truss
(C) Stability of floating bodies
(D) Designing safe structures
Answer: Option A
76. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are hung from the ends of a rope,
passing over a frictionless pulley as shown in the figure below. The
acceleration of the string will be
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(A) g (m1 - m2)/(m1 + m2)
(B) 2g (m1 - m2)/(m1 + m2)
(C) g (m1 + m2)/(m1 - m2)
(D) 2g (m1 + m2)/(m1 - m2)
Answer: Option A
77. The velocity ratio of a differential wheel and axle with D as the
diameter of effort wheel and d1 and d2 as the diameters of larger and
smaller axles respectively, is
(A) D/(d₁ + d₂)
(B) D/(d₁ - d₂)
(C) 2D/(d₁ + d₂)
(D) 2D/(d₁ - d₂)
Answer: Option D
78. Which of the following is not the unit of power?
(A) kW (kilowatt)
(B) hp (horse power)
(C) kcal/sec
(D) kcal/kg sec
Answer: Option D
79. Non-coplanar non-concurrent forces are those forces which
(A) Meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie on the same
plane
(B) Do not meet at one point and their lines of action do not lie on the
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same plane
(C) Do not meet at one point but their lines of action lie on the same
plane
Answer: Option B
80. The unit of force in S.I. units is
(A) kilogram
(B) Newton
(C) Watt
(D) Dyne
Answer: Option B
81. A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium, if
(A) All the forces are equally inclined
(B) Sum of all the forces is zero
(C) Sum of resolved parts in the vertical direction is zero (i.e. ∑V = 0)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
82. The weight of a body is due to
(A) Gravitational pull exerted by the earth
(B) Forces experienced by body in atmosphere
(C) Force of attraction experienced by particles
(D) Gravitational force of attraction towards the centre of the earth
Answer: Option D
83. The efficiency of a lifting machine is the ratio of
(A) Output to the input
(B) Work done by the machine to the work done on the machine
(C) Mechanical advantage to the velocity ratio
Answer: Option D
84. According to principle of moments
(A) If a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then their
algebraic sum is zero
(B) If a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then the algebraic
sum of their moments about any point in their plane is zero
(C) The algebraic sum of the moments of any two forces about any
point is equal to moment of the resultant about the same point
(D) Positive and negative couples can be balanced
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Answer: Option B
85. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and height (h)
about an axis passing through its vertex and parallel to the base, is
__________ than that passing through its C.G. and parallel to the
base.
(A) Nine times
(B) Six times
(C) Four times
(D) Two times
Answer: Option A
86. A trolley wire weighs 1.2 kg per meter length. The ends of the wire
are attached to two poles 20 meters apart. If the horizontal tension is
1500 kg find the dip in the middle of the span
(A) 2.5 cm
(B) 3.0 cm
(C) 4.0 cm
(D) 5.0 cm
Answer: Option C
87. The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of forces in a
given direction is equal to the resolved part of their resultant in the
same direction. This is known as
(A) Principle of independence of forces
(B) Principle of resolution of forces
(C) Principle of transmissibility of forces
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
88. A particle moves along a straight line such that distance (x)
traversed in t seconds is given by x = t² (t - 4), the acceleration of the
particle will be given by the equation
(A) 6t² - 8t
(B) 3t² + 2t
(C) 6f - 8
(D) 6f - 4
Answer: Option C
89. The minimum force required to slide a body of weight W on a
rough horizontal plane is
(A) W sinθ
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(B) W cosθ
(C) W tanθ
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
90. The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body
just begins to slide over another surface is called
(A) Limiting friction
(B) Sliding friction
(C) Rolling friction
(D) Kinematic friction
Answer: Option A
91. The motion of a particle round a fixed axis is
(A) Translatory
(B) Rotary
(C) Circular
(D) Translatory as well as rotary
Answer: Option C
92. The C.G. of a right circular solid cone of height h lies at the
following distance from the base
(A) h/2
(B) J/3
(C) h/6
(D) h/4
Answer: Option D
(A) The kinetic energy of a body during impact remains constant.
(B) The kinetic energy of a body before impact is equal to the kinetic
energy of a body after impact.
(C) The kinetic energy of a body before impact is less than the kinetic
energy of a body after impact.
(D) The kinetic energy of a body before impact is more than the
kinetic energy of a body after impact.
Answer: Option D
94. A pair of smith's tongs is an example of the lever of
(A) Zeroth order
(B) First order
(C) Second order
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(D) Third order
Answer: Option C
95. Moment of inertia of a circular section about its diameter (d) is
(A) πd3/16
(B) πd3/32
(C) πd4/32
(D) πd4/64
Answer: Option D
96. The forces, which meet at one point, but their lines of action do not
lie in a plane, are called
(A) Coplanar non-concurrent forces
(B) Non-coplanar concurrent forces
(C) Non-coplanar non-concurrent forces
(D) Intersecting forces
Answer: Option B
97. The resultant of two forces P and Q acting at an angle θ is
(A) √(P² + Q² + 2PQ sinθ)
(B) √(P² + Q² + 2PQ cosθ)
(C) √(P² + Q² - 2PQ cosθ)
(D) √(P² + Q² - 2PQ tanθ)
Answer: Option B
98. Center of percussion is
(A) The point of C.G.
(B) The point of metacenter
(C) The point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to
cause a body to rotate about a certain axis
(D) Point of suspension
Answer: Option C
99. The static friction
(A) Bears a constant ratio to the normal reaction between the two
surfaces
(B) Is independent of the area of contact, between the two surfaces
(C) Always acts in a direction, opposite to that in which the body tends
to move
Answer: Option D
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100. Least force required to draw a body up the inclined plane is W
sin (plane inclination + friction angle) applied in the direction
(A) Along the plane
(B) Horizontally
(C) Vertically
(D) At an angle equal to the angle of friction to the inclined plane
Answer: Option D
101. The law of motion involved in the recoil of gun is
(A) Newton's first law of motion
(B) Newton's second law of motion
(C) Newton's third law of motion
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
102. A circular hole of 50 mm diameter is cut out from a circular disc
of 100 mm diameter as shown in the below figure. The centre of
gravity of the section will lie
(A) In the shaded area

(B) In the hole
(C) At ‘O’
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
103. A semicircular disc rests on a horizontal surface with its top flat
surface horizontal and circular portion touching down. The coefficient
of friction between semi circular disc and horizontal surface is µ. This
disc is to be pulled by a horizontal force applied at one edge and it
always remains horizontal. When the disc is about to start moving, its
top horizontal force will
(A) Remain horizontal
(B) Slant up towards direction of pull
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(C) Slant down towards direction of pull
Answer: Option C
(A) The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic
motion is the time taken by a particle for one complete oscillation.
(B) The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic
motion is directly proportional to its angular velocity.
(C) The velocity of the particle moving with simple harmonic motion
is zero at the mean position.
(D) The acceleration of the particle moving with simple harmonic
motion is maximum at the mean position.
Answer: Option A
105. In ideal machines
(A) Mechanical advantage is greater than velocity ratio
(B) Mechanical advantage is equal to velocity ratio
(C) Mechanical advantage is less than velocity ratio
(D) Mechanical advantage is unity
Answer: Option B
106. The forces, whose lines of action are parallel to each other and act
in the same directions, are known as
(C) Like parallel forces
(D) Unlike parallel forces
Answer: Option C
107. Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting in opposite
direction
(A) Balance each other
(B) Constitute a moment
(C) Constitute a couple
(D) Constitute a moment of couple
Answer: Option C
108. If the body falls freely under gravity, then the gravitational
acceleration is taken as
(A) +8.9 m/s2
(B) -8.9 m/s2
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(C) +9.8 m/s2
(D) -9.8 m/s2
Answer: Option C
109. The centre of gravity of a triangle lies at the point of
(A) Concurrence of the medians
(B) Intersection of its altitudes
(C) Intersection of bisector of angles
(D) Intersection of diagonals
Answer: Option A
110. One joule means that
(A) Work is done by a force of 1 N when it displaces a body through 1
m
(B) Work is done by a force of 1 kg when it displaces a body through 1
m
(C) Work is done by a force of 1 dyne when it displaces a body
through 1 cm
(D) Work is done by a force of 1 g when it displaces a body through 1
cm
Answer: Option A
111. On the ladder resting on the ground and leaning against a smooth
vertical wall, the force of friction will be
(A) Downwards at its upper end
(B) Upwards at its upper end
(C) Perpendicular to the wall at its upper end
(D) Zero at its upper end
Answer: Option D
112. Which of the following are vector quantities?
(A) Angular displacement
(B) Angular velocity
(C) Angular acceleration
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
113. Which of the following is the locus of a point that moves in such a
manner that its distance from a fixed point is equal to its distance
from a fixed line multiplied by a constant greater than one
(A) Ellipse
(B) Hyperbola
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(C) Parabola
(D) Circle
Answer: Option B
114. In a framed structure, as shown in the below figure, the forces in
the members AB and BC are respectively
(A) √3. W (tensile) and 2W (compressive)

(B) 2W (tensile) and √3. W (compressive)
(C) 2√3. W (tensile) and 2√3. W (compressive)
Answer: Option A
115. When a body of mass ‘m’ attains a velocity ‘v’ from rest in time ‘t’,
then the kinetic energy of translation is
(A) mv2
(B) mgv2
(C) 0.5 mv2
(D) 0.5 mgv2
Answer: Option C
116. The M.I. of hollow circular section about a central axis
perpendicular to section as compared to its M.I. about horizontal axis
is
(A) Same
(B) Double
(C) Half
(D) Four times
Answer: Option B
117. The maximum efficiency of a lifting machine is
(A) 1/m
(B) V.R./m
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(C) m/V.R.
(D) 1/(m × V.R.)
Answer: Option D
118. When trying to turn a key into a lock, following is applied
(A) Coplanar force
(B) Non-coplanar forces
(C) Moment
(D) Couple
Answer: Option D
119. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of base (b) and height
(h) about an axis passing through its C.G. and parallel to the base, is
(A) bh3/4
(B) bh3/8
(C) bh3/12
(D) bh3/36
Answer: Option D
120. If a number of forces act simultaneously on a particle, it is
possible
(A) Not a replace them by a single force
(B) To replace them by a single force
(C) To replace them by a single force through C.G.
(D) To replace them by a couple
Answer: Option B
121. If two bodies having masses m1 and m2 (m1>m2) have equal
kinetic energies, the momentum of body having mass m1 is _________
the momentum of body having mass m2.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
122. Two coplanar couples having equal and opposite moments
(B) Produce a couple and an unbalanced force
(C) Are equivalent
(D) Cannot balance each other
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Answer: Option D
123. Non-coplanar concurrent forces are those forces which
plane
same plane
(C) Meet at one point and their lines of action also lie on the same
plane
(D) Do not meet at one point, but their lines of action lie on the same
plane
Answer: Option A
124. The centre of gravity of a trapezium with parallel sides ‘a’ and ‘b’
lies at a distance of ‘y’ from the base ‘b’, as shown in the below figure.
The value of ‘y’ is
(A) h [(2a + b)/(a + b)]

(B) (h/2) [(2a + b)/(a + b)]
(C) (h/3) [(2a + b)/(a + b)]
(D) (h/3) [(a + b)/(2a + b)]
Answer: Option C
125. In the equation of virtual work, following force is neglected
(A) Reaction of any smooth surface with which the body is in contact
(B) Reaction of a rough surface of a body which rolls on it without
slipping
(C) Reaction at a point or an axis, fixed in space, around which a body
is constrained to turn
Answer: Option D
126. The velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is
__________ at the mean position.
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(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
127. If rain is falling in the opposite direction of the movement of a
pedestrian, he has to hold his umbrella
(A) More inclined when moving
(B) Less inclined when moving
(C) More inclined when standing
(D) Less inclined when standing
Answer: Option D
128. The linear velocity of a body rotating at ω rad/s along a circular
path of radius r is given by
(A) ω/r
(B) ω.r
(C) ω2/r
(D) ω2.r
Answer: Option B
129. The C.G. of a solid hemisphere lies on the central radius 3r
(A) At distance — from the plane base 3r
(B) At distance — from the plane base 3r
(C) At distance — from the plane base 3r
(D) At distance — from the plane base
Answer: Option D
130. The velocity ratio of a simple wheel and axle with ‘D’ and ‘d’ as
the diameters of effort wheel and load axle, is
(A) D + d
(B) D - d
(C) D × d
(D) D / d
Answer: Option D
131. According to law of triangle of forces
(A) Three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium
(B) Three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle,
each side being proportional to force
(C) If three forces acting upon a particle are represented in magnitude
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and direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in
equilibrium
(D) If three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is
proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two
Answer: Option C
132. The loss of kinetic energy during inelastic impact, is given by
(where m1 = Mass of the first body, m2 = Mass of the second body, and
u1 and u2 = Velocities of the first and second bodies respectively.)
(A) [m₁ m₂/2(m₁ + m₂)] (u₁ - u₂)²
(B) [2(m₁ + m₂)/m₁ m₂] (u₁ - u₂)²
(C) [m₁ m₂/2(m₁ + m₂)] (u₁² - u₂²)
(D) [2(m₁ + m₂)/m₁ m₂] (u₁² - u₂²)
Answer: Option A
133. If a suspended body is struck at the centre of percussion, then the
pressure on die axis passing through the point of suspension will be
(A) Maximum
(B) Minimum
(C) Zero
(D) Infinity
Answer: Option C
134. A couple produces
(A) Translatory motion
(B) Rotational motion
(C) Combined translatory and rotational motion
Answer: Option B
135. The resolved part of the resultant of two forces inclined at an
angle θ in a given direction is equal to
(A) The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given
direction
(B) The sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
(C) The difference of the forces multiplied by the cosine of θ
(D) The sum of the forces multiplied by the sine of θ
Answer: Option A
136. The force, by which the body is attracted, towards the centre of
the earth, is called
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(A) Impulsive force
(B) Mass
(C) Weight
(D) Momentum
Answer: Option C
137. The equivalent length of a simple pendulum which gives the same
frequency as compound pendulum is
(A) h/(kG² + h²)
(B) (kG² + h²)/h
(C) h²/(kG² + h²)
(D) (kG² + h²)/h²
Answer: Option B
138. Moment of inertia of a rectangular section having width (b) and
depth (d) about an axis passing through its C.G. and parallel to the
width (b), is
(A) db³/12
(B) bd³/12
(C) db³/36
(D) bd³/36
Answer: Option B
139. The length of a second's pendulum is
(A) 94.9 cm
(B) 99.4 cm
(C) 100 cm
(D) 101 cm
Answer: Option B
140. The angle between two forces when the resultant is maximum and
minimum respectively are:
(A) 0° and 180°
(B) 180° and 0°
(C) 90° and 180°
(D) 90° and 0°
Answer: Option A
141. The velocity ratio of a first system of pulleys with 4 pulleys is
(A) 4
(B) 8
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(C) 16
(D) 20
Answer: Option C
142. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?
(A) Force
(B) Speed
(C) Velocity
(D) Acceleration
Answer: Option B
143. The unit of angular velocity is
(A) m/min
(B) rad/s
(C) Revolutions/min
Answer: Option D
144. The force required to move the body up the plane will be
minimum if it makes an angle with the inclined plane __________ the
angle of friction.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
145. When a person, on a bicycle, drives round a curve, he has to lean
__________ to maintain equilibrium.
(A) Inward
(B) Outward
(C) Towards front
(D) Towards back
Answer: Option A
146. The force induced in the string BC due to the load W as shown in
the below figure is
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(A) W sinθ
(B) W cosθ
(C) W tanθ
(D) W cotθ
Answer: Option D
147. The centre of gravity of a semi-circle lies at a distance of
__________ from its base measured along the vertical radius.
(A) 3r/ 8
(B) 4r/ 3π
(C) 8r/3
(D) 3r/4π
Answer: Option B
148. The rate of doing work is known as
(A) Potential energy
(B) Kinetic energy
(C) Power
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
149. The impact between two lead spheres is approximately equal to
an __________ impact.
(A) Elastic
(B) Inelastic
(C) Solid
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
150. The unit of angular acceleration is
(A) N-m
(B) m/s
(C) m/s2
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(D) rad/s2
Answer: Option D
151. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) The tangent of the angle of friction is equal to coefficient of
friction
(B) The angle of repose is equal to angle of friction
(C) The tangent of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient of friction
(D) The sine of the angle of repose is equal to coefficient to friction
Answer: Option D
152. Coplanar concurrent forces are those forces which
plane
same plane
(C) Meet at one point and their lines of action also lie on the same
plane
(D) Do not meet at one point, but their lines of action lie on the same
plane
Answer: Option C
153. If ‘P’ is the force acting on the body, ‘m’ is the mass of the body
and ‘a’ is the acceleration of the body, then according to Newton's
second law of motion,
(A) P + m.a = 0
(B) P - m.a = 0
(C) P × m.a = 0
(D) P/m.a = 0
Answer: Option B
154. If three forces acting in different planes can be represented by a
triangle, these will be in
(A) Non-equilibrium
(B) Partial equilibrium
(C) Full equilibrium
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: Option A
155. The horizontal range of a projectile (R) is given by
(A) R = u² cos2α/g
(B) R = u² sin2α/g
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(C) R = u² cosα/g
(D) R = u² sinα/g
Answer: Option B
156. A block of mass 20 kg lying on a rough horizontal plane is
connected by a light string passing over a smooth pulley to another
mass 5 kg, which can move freely in the Vertical direction, as shown in
the below figure. The tension in the string will __________ with the
increase in coefficient of friction.
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Not be effected
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
157. Coplanar non-concurrent forces are those forces which
__________ at one point, but their lines of action lie on the same plane.
(A) Meet
(B) Do not meet
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
158. Which of the following do not have identical dimensions?
(A) Momentum and impulse
(B) Torque and energy
(C) Torque and work
(D) Moment of a force and angular momentum.
Answer: Option D
159. In order to determine the effects of a force, acting on a body, we
must know
(A) Magnitude of the force
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(B) Line of action of the force
(C) Nature of the force i.e. whether the force is push or pull
Answer: Option D
160. A framed structure is perfect, if the number of members are
__________ (2j - 3), where j is the number of joints.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
161. The ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction is known as
(A) Coefficient of friction
(B) Angle of friction
(C) Angle of repose
(D) Sliding friction
Answer: Option A
162. The bodies which rebound after impact are called
(A) Inelastic bodies
(B) Elastic bodies
(C) Neither elastic nor inelastic bodies
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
163. The velocity of a particle (v) moving with simple harmonic
motion, at any instant is given by (where r = Amplitude of motion, and
y = Displacement of the particle from mean position.)
(A) ω.√(y² - r²)
(B) ω.√(r² - y²)
(C) ω².√(y² - r²)
(D) ω².√(r² - y²)
Answer: Option B
164. If n = number of members and y = number of joints, then for a
perfect frame, n = ?
(A) 1/2
(B) 2/3
(C) 3/2
(D) 2/4
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Answer: Option B
165. A framed structure is imperfect, if the numbers of members are
__________ (2j - 3).
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) Either (B) or (C)
Answer: Option D
166. The time of flight (t) of a projectile on a horizontal plane is given
by
(A) t = 2u. sinα/g
(B) t = 2u. cosα/g
(C) t = 2u. tanα/g
(D) t = 2u/g.sinα
Answer: Option A
167. Which of the following is not the unit of distance?
(A) Angstrom
(B) Light year
(C) Micron
(D) Milestone
Answer: Option D
168. Two like parallel forces are acting at a distance of 24 mm apart
and their resultant is 20 N. It the line of action of the resultant is 6 mm
from any given force, the two forces are
(A) 15 N and 5 N
(B) 20 N and 5 N
(C) 15 N and 15 N
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
169. Which of the following are vector quantities?
(A) Linear displacement
(B) Linear velocity
(C) Linear acceleration
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
170. Varingon's theorem of moments states that if a number of
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coplanar forces acting on a particle are in equilibrium, then
(A) Their algebraic sum is zero
(B) Their lines of action are at equal distances
(C) The algebraic sum of their moments about any point in their plane
is zero
(D) The algebraic sum of their moments about any point is equal to the
moment of their resultant force about the same point.
Answer: Option D
171. The possible loading in various members of framed structures are
(A) Compression or tension
(B) Buckling or shear
(C) Shear or tension
Answer: Option A
172. The acceleration of a particle moving with simple harmonic
motion is __________ at the mean position.
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
173. Efficiency of a screw jack is given by (where α = Helix angle, and
φ = Angle of friction.)
(A) tan(α + φ)/tanα
(B) tanα/tan (α + φ)
(C) tan(α - φ)/tanα
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
174. The force induced in the string AB due to the load W, as shown in
the below figure is
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(A) W sinθ
(B) W cosθ
(C) W secθ
(D) W cosecθ
Answer: Option D
175. The unit of work or energy in S.I. units is
(A) Newton
(B) Pascal
(C) Watt
(D) Joule
Answer: Option D
176. The velocity ratio for the first system of pulleys is (where n is the
number of pulleys.)
(A) n
(B) n²
(C) 2n
(D) 2n - 1
Answer: Option C
177. If a number of coplanar forces acting at a point be in equilibrium,
the sum of clockwise moments must be __________ the sum of
anticlockwise moments, about any point.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
178. Centre of gravity of a thin hollow cone lies on the axis at a height
of
(A) One-fourth of the total height above base
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(B) One-third of the total height above base
(C) One-half of the total height above base
(D) Three-eighth of the total height above the base
Answer: Option B
179. Which of the following statement is correct in connection with
projectiles?
(A) A path, traced by a projectile in the space, is known as trajectory.
(B) The velocity, with which a projectile is projected, is known as the
velocity of projection.
(C) The angle, with the horizontal, at which a projectile is projected, is
known as angle of projection.
Answer: Option D
180. A pendulum which executes one beat per second is known as
(A) Simple pendulum
(B) Compound pendulum
(C) Torsional pendulum
(D) Second's pendulum
Answer: Option D
181. A single force and a couple acting in the same plane upon a rigid
body
(B) Cannot balance each other
(C) Produce moment of a couple
(D) Are equivalent
Answer: Option B
182. The forces which meet at one point, but their lines of action
__________ on the same plane, are Known as non-coplanar
concurrent forces.
(A) Lie
(B) Do not lie
(C) Either A or B
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
183. During elastic impact, the relative velocity of the two bodies after
impact is __________ the relative velocity of the two bodies before
impact.
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(A) Equal to
(B) Equal and opposite to
(C) Less than
(D) Greater than
Answer: Option B
184. A force is completely defined when we specify
(A) Magnitude
(B) Direction
(C) Point of application
Answer: Option D
185. The rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the
impressed force, and takes place in the same direction in which the
force acts. This statement is known as
(C) Newton's third law of motion
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
186. The maximum efficiency of a screw jack is
(A) (1 - sinφ)/(1 + sinφ)
(B) (1 + sinφ)/(1 - sinφ)
(C) (1 - tanφ)/(1 + tanφ)
(D) (1 + tanφ)/(1 - tanφ)
Answer: Option A
187. The centre of percussion of a solid cylinder of radius ‘r’ resting
on a horizontal plane will be
(A) r/2
(B) 2r/3
(C) r/A
(D) 3r/2
Answer: Option D
188. The velocity ratio of a differential pulley block with D and d as
the diameters of larger and smaller pulley, is
(A) D/(D - d)
(B) D/(D + d)
(C) 2D/(D - d)
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(D) 2D/(D + d)
Answer: Option C
189. In a screw jack, the effort required to lower the load is
__________ the effort required to raise the same load.
(A) Less than
(B) Equal to
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
190. Tangent of angle of friction is equal to
(A) Kinetic friction
(B) Limiting friction
(C) Angle of repose
(D) Coefficient of friction
Answer: Option D
191. For a self locking machine, the efficiency must be
(A) Equal to 50 %
(B) Less than 50 %
(C) Greater than 50 %
(D) 100 %
Answer: Option B
192. If the number of pulleys in a system is equal to its velocity ratio,
then it is a __________ system of pulleys
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
193. Effect of a force on a body depends upon
(A) Magnitude
(B) Direction
(C) Position or line of action
Answer: Option D
194. The ideal angle of banking provided on the curves on roads
depends upon
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(A) Weight of the vehicle
(B) (Velocity)2 of the vehicle
(C) Nature of the road surface
(D) Coefficient of friction between the road and vehicle contact point
Answer: Option B
195. Two blocks ‘A’ and ‘B’ of masses 150 kg and 50 kg respectively
are connected by means of a string as shown in the below figure. The
tension in all the three strings __________ be same.
(A) Will
(B) Will not
(C) Either A or B
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
196. The bellow figure shows the two equal forces at right angles
acting at a point. The value of force ‘R’ acting along their bisector and
in opposite direction is
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(A) P/2
(B) 2P
(C) √2 × P
(D) P/√2
Answer: Option C
197. A lead ball with a certain velocity is made to strike a wall, it falls
down, but rubber ball of same mass and with same velocity strikes the
same wall, it rebounds. Select the correct reason from the following:
(A) Both the balls undergo an equal change in momentum
(B) The change in momentum suffered by rubber ball is more than the
lead ball
(C) The change in momentum suffered by rubber ball is less than the
lead ball
Answer: Option B
198. In order to completely specify angular displacement by a vector,
it must fix
(A) Direction of the axis of rotation
(B) Magnitude of angular displacement
(C) Sense of angular displacement
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
199. The moment of inertia of a rectangular section 3 cm wide and 4
cm deep about X-X axis is
(A) 9 cm4
(B) 12 cm4
(C) 16 cm4
(D) 20 cm4
Answer: Option C
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200. A framed structure is perfect if it contains members equal to
(A) 2n³
(B) 2n
(C) n²
(D) 3n²
Where n = number of joints in a frame
Answer: Option A
201. The motion of a wheel of a car is
(A) Purely translation
(B) Purely rotational
(C) Combined translation and rotational
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
202. A smooth cylinder lying on its convex surface remains in
__________ equilibrium.
(A) Stable
(B) Unstable
(C) Neutral
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
203. The velocity ratio in case of an inclined plane inclined at angle θ
to the horizontal and weight being pulled up the inclined plane by
vertical effort is
(A) sinθ
(B) cosθ
(C) tanθ
(D) cosecθ
Answer: Option A
204. Forces are called concurrent when their lines of action meet in
(A) One point
(B) Two points
(C) Plane
(D) Perpendicular planes
Answer: Option A
205. The range of a projectile is maximum, when the angle of
projection is
(A) 30°
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(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
Answer: Option B
206. When a rigid body is suspended vertically, and it oscillates with a
small amplitude under the action of the force of gravity, the body is
known as
(A) Simple pendulum
Answer: Option B
207. The potential energy of a vertically raised body is __________ the
kinetic energy of a vertically falling body.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
motion, at any instant is given by
(A) ω.y
(B) ω2.y
(C) ω2/y
(D) ω3.y
Answer: Option B
209. The units of moment of inertia of mass are
(A) kg-m²
(B) m²/kg.
(C) kg/m²
(D) kg/m
Answer: Option A
210. The linear acceleration (a) of a body rotating along a circular
path of radius (r) with an angular acceleration of α rad/s2, is
(A) a = α/ r
(B) a = α.r
(C) a = r / α
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
211. Whenever a force acts on a body and the body undergoes a
displacement, then
(A) Work is said to be done
(B) Power is being transmitted
(C) Body has kinetic energy of translation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
212. Which of the following is not the unit of energy?
(A) kg m
(B) kcal
(C) Watt
(D) Watt hours
Answer: Option C
213. The range of projectile will be maximum for a given velocity of
projectile, when the angle of projection (α) is
(A) β/2
(B) 30° + β/2
(C) 45° + β/2
(D) 60° + β/2
Answer: Option C
214. The power developed by a body acted upon by a torque T Newton
metre (N - m) and revolving at ω radian/s is given by
(A) T.ω (in watts)
(B) T.ω/60 (in watts)
(C) T.ω/75 (in kilowatts)
(D) T.ω/4500 (in kilowatts)
Answer: Option A
215. According to Lami’s theorem
(A) The three forces must be equal
(B) The three forces must be at 120° to each other
(C) The three forces must be in equilibrium
(D) If the three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, then each
force is proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two
Answer: Option D
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216. Which of the following is not the unit of work, energy and heat?
(A) kcal
(B) kg-m
(C) kW-hr
(D) h.p
Answer: Option D
217. If the masses of both the bodies, as shown in the below figure, are
doubled, then the acceleration in the string will be
(A) Same
(B) Half
(C) Double
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
218. If a body is acted upon by a number of coplanar non-concurrent
forces, it may
(A) Rotate about itself without moving
(B) Move in any one direction rotating about itself
(C) Be completely at rest
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
219. The moment of inertia of a square of side (a) about an axis
through its centre of gravity is
(A) a4/4
(B) a4/8
(C) a4/12
(D) a4/36
Answer: Option C
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220. A projectile is fired at an angle θ to the vertical. Its horizontal
range will be maximum when θ is
(A) 0°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 60°
Answer: Option C
221. The time of flight of a projectile on downward inclined plane
depends upon
(A) Angle of projection
(B) Angle of inclination of the plane
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
222. Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?
(A) Mass
(B) Volume
(C) Density
(D) Acceleration
Answer: Option D
223. When the spring of a watch is wound, it will possess
(A) Strain energy
(B) Kinetic energy
(C) Heat energy
(D) Electrical energy
Answer: Option A
224. The overturning of a vehicle on a level circular path can be
avoided if the velocity of vehicle is __________ √(gra/h)
(A) Less than
(B) Greater than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
225. According to the law of moments, if a number of coplanar forces
acting on a particle are in equilibrium, then
(A) Their algebraic sum is zero
(B) Their lines of action are at equal distances
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(C) The algebraic sum of their moments about any point in their plane
is zero
(D) The algebraic sum of their moments about any point is equal to the
moment of their resultant force about the same point.
Answer: Option C
226. The velocity ratio for the third system of pulleys is
(A) n
(B) n²
(C) 2n
(D) 2n - 1
Answer: Option D
227. Dynamic friction as compared to static friction is
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) May be less of more depending on nature of surfaces and velocity
Answer: Option C
228. Mass moment of inertia of a thin rod about its one end is
__________ the mass moment of inertia of the same rod about its mid-
point
(A) Same as
(B) Twice
(C) Thrice
(D) Four times
Answer: Option D
229. In the shown figure, if the angle of inclination of the plane is
increased, then acceleration of the system will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
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(C) Remain the same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
230. An ideal machine is one whose efficiency is
(A) Between 60 and 70 %
(B) Between 70 and 80 %
(C) Between 80 and 90 %
(D) 100 %
Answer: Option D
231. If a number of forces are acting at a point, their resultant is given
by
(A) (∑V)2 + (∑H)2
(B) √[(∑V)2 + (∑H)2]
(C) (∑V)2 +(∑H)2 +2(∑V)(∑H)
(D) √[(∑V)2 +(∑H)2 +2(∑V)(∑H)]
Answer: Option B
232. The force applied on a body of mass 100 kg to produce an
acceleration of 5 m/s2, is
(A) 20 N
(B) 100 N
(C) 500 N
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
233. Which of the following is not the unit of pressure?
(A) kg/cm
(B) Bar
(C) Atmosphere
(D) Newton
Answer: Option D
234. The maximum frictional force, which comes into play, when a
body just begins to slide over the surface of the other body, is known
as
(A) Static friction
(B) Dynamic friction
(C) Limiting friction
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Answer: Option C
235. The principle of transmissibility of forces states that, when a
force acts upon a body, its effect is
(A) Same at every point on its line of action
(B) Different at different points on its line of action
(C) Minimum, if it acts at the centre of gravity of the body
(D) Maximum, if it acts at the centre of gravity of the body
Answer: Option C
236. In a screw jack, the effort required to lift the load is given by
(where W = Load lifted, α = Helix angle, and φ = Angle of friction.)
(A) P = W tan (α - φ)
(B) P = W tan (α + φ)
(C) P = W tan (φ - α)
(D) P = W cos (α + φ)
Answer: Option B
237. The moment of inertia of a thin disc of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘r’,
about an axis through its centre of gravity and perpendicular to the
plane of the disc is
(A) mr2/2
(B) mr2/4
(C) mr2/6
(D) mr2/8
Answer: Option A
238. If a rigid body is in equilibrium under the action of three forces,
then
(A) These forces are equal
(B) The lines of action of these forces meet in a point
(C) The lines of action of these forces are parallel
(D) Both (B) and (C) above
Answer: Option D
239. The matter contained in a body, is called
(A) Impulsive force
(B) Mass
(C) Weight
(D) Momentum
Answer: Option B
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240. Moment of inertia is the
(A) Second moment of force
(B) Second moment of area
(C) Second moment of mass
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
241. Joule is the unit of
(A) Force
(B) Work
(C) Power
(D) Velocity
Answer: Option B
242. The coefficient of friction depends on
(A) Area of contact
(B) Shape of surfaces
(C) Strength of surfaces
(D) Nature of surface
Answer: Option D
243. The velocity ratio of a single purchase crab winch can be
increased by
(A) Increasing the length of the handle
(B) Increasing the radius of the load drum
(C) Increasing the number of teeth of the pinion
Answer: Option A
244. In a framed structure, as shown in the below figure, the force in
the member AB is __________ the force in member AC.
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(A) Half
(B) Equal to
(C) Double
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
245. Two balls of equal mass and of perfectly elastic material are lying
on the floor. One of the balls with velocity ‘v’ is made to strike the
second ball. Both the balls after impact will move with a velocity
(A) v
(B) v/2
(C) v/4
(D) v/8
Answer: Option B
246. Moment of inertia of a circular section about an axis
perpendicular to the section is
(A) πd3/16
(B) πd3/32
(C) πd4/32
(D) πd4/64
Answer: Option C
247. A redundant frame is also called __________ frame.
(A) Perfect
(B) Imperfect
(C) Deficient
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
248. Tension in the cable supporting a lift is more when the lift is
moving __________ with an acceleration.
(A) Upwards
(B) Downwards
(C) Horizontal
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
249. The unit of work in S.I. units is
(A) Newton
(B) erg
(C) kg-m
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(D) joule
Answer: Option D
250. If the gravitational acceleration at any place is doubled, then the
weight of a body will be
(A) g/2
(B) g
(C) √2.g
(D) 2g
Answer: Option D
251. The moment of inertia of a sphere of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘r’,
about an axis tangential to it, is
(A) 2mr2/3
(B) 2mr2/5
(C) 7mr2/3
(D) 7mr2/5
Answer: Option D
252. The centre of gravity of a quadrant of a circle lies along its
central radius (r) at a distance of
(A) 0.5r
(B) 0.6 r
(C) 0.7 r
(D) 0.8 r
Answer: Option B
253. The unit of moment of inertia of an area is
(A) kg-m2
(B) kg-m-s2
(C) kg/m2
(D) m4
Answer: Option D
254. When a body of mass moment of inertia ‘I’ (about a given axis) is
rotated about that axis with an angular velocity to, then the kinetic
energy of rotation is
(A) Iω
(B) Iω2
(C) 0.5 Iω
(D) 0.5 Iω2
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Answer: Option D
255. In a single threaded worm and worm wheel, the number of teeth
on the worm is 50. The diameter of the effort wheel is 100 mm and
that of load drum is 50 mm. The velocity ratio is
(A) 50
(B) 100
(C) 200
(D) 400
Answer: Option B
256. One joule is equal to
(A) 0.1 N-m
(B) 1 N-m
(C) 10 N-m
(D) 100 N-m
Answer: Option B
257. A differential pulley block has larger and smaller diameters of
100 mm and 80 mm respectively. Its velocity ratio is
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 20
(D) 40
Answer: Option B
258. A body will begin to move down an inclined plane if the angle of
inclination of the plane is _________ the angle of friction.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
259. The friction experienced by a body, when in motion, is known as
(A) Rolling friction
(D) Static friction
Answer: Option B
260. Mass moment of inertia of a uniform thin rod of mass M and
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length (l) about its mid-point and perpendicular to its length is
(A) (2/3) Ml2
(B) (1/3) Ml2
(C) (3/4) Ml2
(D) (1/12) Ml2
Answer: Option D
261. If a given force (or a given system of forces) acting on a body
__________ the position of the body, but keeps it in equilibrium, then
its effect is to produce internal stress in the body.
(A) Change
(B) Does not change
(C) Changes periodically
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
262. One end of a helical spring is fixed while the other end carries the
load W which moves with simple harmonic motion. The frequency of
motion is given by (where δ = Deflection of the spring.)
(A) 2π. √(g/δ)
(B) 1/2π. √(g/δ)
(C) 2π. √(δ/g)
(D) 1/2π. √(δ/g)
Answer: Option B
263. If tension in the cable supporting a lift moving downwards is half
the tension when it is moving upwards, the acceleration of the lift is
(A) g/2
(B) g/3
(C) g/4
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
264. The friction experienced by a body, when at rest, is known as
(A) Static friction
Answer: Option A
265. The unit of force in S.I. system of units is
(A) Dyne
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(B) Kilogram
(C) Newton
(D) Watt
Answer: Option C
266. One kg force is equal to
(A) 7.8 N
(B) 8.9 N
(C) 9.8 N
(D) 12 N
Answer: Option C
267. The resultant of the two forces ‘P’ and ‘Q’ is ‘R’. If ‘Q’ is
doubled, the new resultant is perpendicular to ‘P’. Then
(A) P = Q
(B) Q = R
(C) Q = 2R
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
268. The amplitude is always __________ radius of the circle.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
269. The process of finding out the resultant force is called __________
of forces.
(A) Composition
(B) Resolution
(C) Decomposition
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
270. The moment of the force ‘P’ about ‘O’ as shown in the below
figure is
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(A) P × OA
(B) P × OB
(C) P × OC
(D) P × AC
Answer: Option C
271. Which of the following is an equation of linear motion? (where, u
and v = Initial and final velocity of the body, a = Acceleration of the
body, and s = Displacement of the body in time t seconds.)
(A) v = u + a.t
(B) s = u.t + ½ a.t2
(C) v2 = u2 + 2a.s
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
272. Moment of inertia of a hollow circular section, as shown in the
below figure about X-axis, is
(A) π/16 (D² - d²)

(B) π/16 (D³ - d³)
(C) π/32 (D⁴ - d⁴)
(D) π/64 (D⁴ - d⁴)
Answer: Option D
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273. The forces which do not meet at one point and their lines of
action do not lie on the same plane are known as
(C) Non-coplanar concurrent forces
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
274. Concurrent forces are those forces whose lines of action
(A) Lie on the same line
(B) Meet at one point
(C) Meet on the same plane
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
275. The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder of mass m, radius r and
length l about the longitudinal axis or polar axis is
(A) mr2/2
(B) mr2/4
(C) mr2/6
(D) mr2/8
Answer: Option A
276. According to parallel axis theorem, the moment of inertia of a
section about an axis parallel to the axis through centre of gravity (i.e.
IP) is given by(where, A = Area of the section, IG = Moment of inertia
of the section about an axis passing through its C.G., and h = Distance
between C.G. and the parallel axis.)
(A) IP = IG + Ah2
(B) IP = IG - Ah2
(C) IP = IG / Ah2
(D) IP = Ah2 / IG
Answer: Option A
277. The law of the machine is (where P = Effort applied to lift the
load, m = A constant which is equal to the slope of the line, W = Load
lifted, and C = Another constant which represents the machine
friction.)
(A) P = mW - C
(B) P = m/W + C
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(C) P = mW + C
(D) P = C - mW
Answer: Option C
278. The wheels of a moving car possess
(A) Potential energy only
(B) Kinetic energy of translation only
(C) Kinetic energy of rotation only
(D) Kinetic energy of translation and rotation both
Answer: Option D
279. The resultant of two equal forces ‘P’ making an angle ‘θ’, is given
by
(A) 2P sinθ/2
(B) 2P cosθ/2
(C) 2P tanθ/2
(D) 2P cotθ/2
Answer: Option B
280. The coefficient of restitution for inelastic bodies is
(A) Zero
(B) One
(C) Between zero and one
(D) More than one
Answer: Option A
281. If a number of forces are acting at a point, their resultant will be
inclined at an angle θ with the horizontal, such that
(A) tanθ = ΣH/ΣV
(B) tanθ = ΣV/ΣH
(C) tanθ = ΣV × ΣH
(D) tanθ = √(ΣV + ΣH)
Answer: Option B
282. The periodic time of a particle with simple harmonic motion is
__________ proportional to the angular velocity.
(A) Directly
(B) Inversely
(C) Square root
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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283. The efficiency of a screw jack is maximum, when (where α =
Helix angle, and φ = Angle of friction.)
(A) α = 45° + φ/2
(B) α = 45° - φ/2
(C) α = 90° + φ
(D) α = 90° - φ
Answer: Option B
284. The total motion possessed by a body, is called
(A) Impulsive force
(B) Mass
(C) Weight
(D) Momentum
Answer: Option D
285. A screw jack used for lifting the loads is
(A) A reversible machine
(B) A non-reversible machine
(C) An ideal machine
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
286. If u1 and u2 are the velocities of two moving bodies in the same
direction before impact and v1 and v2 are their velocities after impact,
then coefficient of restitution is given by
(A) (v1 - v2)/(u1 - u2)
(B) (v₂ - v₁)/(u1 - u2)
(C) (u1 - u2)/(v1 - v2)
(D) (u₂ + u₁)/(v₂ + v₁)
Answer: Option B
287. Work done is said to be zero, when
(A) Some force acts on a body, but displacement is zero
(B) No force acts on a body but some displacement takes place
Answer: Option C
288. The range of projectile on a downward inclined plane is ________
the range on upward inclined plane for the same velocity of projection
and angle of projection.
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(A) Less than
(B) More than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of These
Answer: Option B
289. The point, through which the whole weight of the body acts,
irrespective of its position, is known as
(A) Moment of inertia
(B) Centre of gravity
(C) Centre of percussion
(D) Centre of mass
Answer: Option B
290. The total energy possessed by a system of moving bodies
(A) Is constant at every instant
(B) Varies from point to point
(C) Is maximum in the start and minimum at the end
(D) Is minimum in the start and maximum at the end
Answer: Option A
291. The acceleration of a body sliding down an inclined surface is
(A) g sinθ
(B) g cosθ
(C) g tanθ
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
292. A force while acting on a body may
(A) Change its motion
(B) Balance the forces, already acting on it
(C) Give rise to the internal stresses in it
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
293. A machine having an efficiency less than 50%, is known as
(A) Reversible machine
(B) Non-reversible machine
(C) Neither reversible nor non-reversible machine
(D) Ideal machine
Answer: Option B
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294. Static friction is always __________ dynamic friction.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
295. In the shown figure, the tension (T) in the string will be
(A) m₁. m₂. g/(m₁ + m₂)

(B) 2m₁. m₂. g/(m₁ + m₂)
(C) (m₁ + m₂)/ m₁. m₂. g
(D) (m₁ + m₂)/2m₁. m₂. g
Answer: Option B
296. A body of weight W is required to move up on rough inclined
plane whose angle of inclination with the horizontal is α. The effort
applied parallel to the plane is given by (where μ = tanφ = Coefficient
of friction between the plane and the body.)
(A) P = W tanα
(B) P = W tan (α + φ)
(C) P = W (sinα + μcosα)
(D) P = W (cosα + μsinα)
Answer: Option C
297. A smooth cylinder lying on a __________ is in neutral
equilibrium.
(A) Curved surface
(B) Convex surface
(C) Horizontal surface
(D) None of these
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Answer: Option C
298. The unit of energy in S.I. units is
(A) Dyne
(B) Watt
(C) kg-m
(D) Joule
Answer: Option D
299. A ladder is resting on a rough ground and leaning against a
smooth vertical wall. The force of friction will act
(A) Downward at its upper end
(B) Upward at its upper end
(C) Zero at its upper end
(D) Perpendicular to the wall at its upper end
Answer: Option C
300. The periodic time of one oscillation for a simple pendulum is
(where l = Length of the pendulum.)
(A) (1/2π). √(l/g)
(B) (1/2π). √(g/l)
(C) 2π. √(l/g)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
301. The total momentum of a system of masses (i. e. moving bodies) in
any one direction remains constant, unless acted upon by an external
force in that direction. This statement is called
(C) Principle of conservation of energy
(D) Principle of conservation of momentum
Answer: Option D
302. The moment of inertia of a thin spherical shell of mass m and
radius r, about its diameter is
(A) mr2/3
(B) 2mr2/3
(C) 2mr2/5
(D) 3mr2/5
Answer: Option B
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303. The moment of inertia of a solid cone of mass ‘m’ and base radius
‘r’ about its vertical axis is
(A) 3mr2/5
(B) 3mr2/10
(C) 2mr2/5
(D) 4mr2/5
Answer: Option B
304. If the resultant of two equal forces has the same magnitude as
either of the forces, then the angle between the two forces is
(A) 30°
(B) 60°
(C) 90°
(D) 120°
Answer: Option D
305. In actual machines, mechanical advantage is __________ velocity
ratio.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
306. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘r’
is
(A) 2mr2/3
(B) 2mr2/5
(C) mr2
(D) mr2/2
Answer: Option B
307. Moment of inertia of a rectangular section having width (b) and
depth (d) about an axis passing through its C.G. and parallel to the
depth (d), is
(A) db3/12
(B) bd³/12
(C) db³/36
(D) bd³/36
Answer: Option A
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308. The unit of power in S.I. units is
(A) Horsepower
(B) Joule
(C) Watt
(D) kg-m
Answer: Option C
309. The maximum height of a projectile on a horizontal plane, is
(A) u² sin²α/2g
(B) u² cos²α/2g
(C) u² sin²α/g
(D) u² cos²α/g
Answer: Option A
310. One watt is equal to
(A) 0.1 joule/s
(B) 1 joule/s
(C) 10 joules/s
(D) 100 joules/s
Answer: Option B
311. The moment of inertia of a square of side a about its diagonal is
(A) a2/8
(B) a3/12
(C) a4/12
(D) a4/16
Answer: Option C
312. The maximum acceleration of a particle moving with simple
harmonic motion is
(A) ω
(B) ωr
(C) ω2r
(D) ω/r
Answer: Option C
313. The rate of change of displacement of a body is called
(A) Velocity
(B) Acceleration
(C) Momentum
(D) None of these
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Answer: Option A
314. The maximum mechanical advantage of a lifting machine is
(A) 1 + m
(B) 1 - m
(C) 1 / m
(D) m
Answer: Option C
315. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
(A) Energy
(B) Mass
(C) Momentum
(D) Angle
Answer: Option C
316. Moment of inertia of a hollow rectangular section as shown in the
below figure about X-X axis, is
(A) (BD³/12) - (bd³/12)

(B) (DB³/12) - (db³/12)
(C) (BD³/36) - (bd³/36)
(D) (DB³/36) - (db³/36)
Answer: Option A
317. The maximum velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic
motion is
(A) ω
(B) ωr
(C) ω2r
(D) ω/r
Answer: Option B
318. The product of either force of couple with the arm of the couple is
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called
(A) Resultant couple
(B) Moment of the forces
(C) Resulting couple
(D) Moment of the couple
Answer: Option D
319. The moment of a force
(A) Is the turning effect produced by a force, on the body, on which it
acts
(B) Is equal to the product of force acting on the body and the
perpendicular distance of a point and the line of action of the force
(C) Is equal to twice the area of the triangle, whose base is the line
representing the force and whose vertex is the point, about which the
moment is taken
Answer: Option D
320. A heavy string attached at two ends at same horizontal level and
when central dip is very small approaches the following curve
(A) Circular arc
(B) Parabola
(C) Hyperbola
(D) Elliptical
Answer: Option B
321. The centre of gravity a T-section 100 mm × 150 mm × 50 mm
from its bottom is
(A) 50 mm
(B) 75 mm
(C) 87.5 mm
(D) 125 mm
Answer: Option C
322. Kinetic friction is the
(A) Tangent of angle between normal reaction and the resultant of
normal reaction and the limiting friction
Answer: Option D
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323. According to Newton's first law of motion,
(A) Everybody continues in its state of rest or of uniform motion, in a
straight line, unless it is acted upon by some external force
(B) The rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the
impressed force, and takes place in the same direction, in which the force
acts
(C) To every action, there is always an equal and opposite reaction
Answer: Option A
324. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
(A) Weight
(B) Velocity
(C) Acceleration
(D) Force
Answer: Option A
325. The mechanical advantage of a lifting machine is the ratio of
(A) Distance moved by effort to the distance moved by load
(B) Load lifted to the effort applied
(C) Output to the input
Answer: Option B
326. From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle whose
diameter is a radius of the plate. Find the e.g. of the remainder from
the centre of circular plate
(A) 0.5 cm
(B) 1.0 cm
(C) 1.5 cm
(D) 2.5 cm
Answer: Option A
327. In ideal machines, mechanical advantage is __________ velocity
ratio.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
328. Frictional force encountered after commencement of motion is
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called
(A) Limiting friction
(B) Kinematic friction
(C) Frictional resistance
(D) Dynamic friction
Answer: Option D
Engineering Mechanics: Test 01

01. A machine which is not capable of doing any work in the reversed
direction, after the effort is removed, is called a reversible machine.
(A) True
(B) False
02. In a wormed geared pulley block, if the number of teeth on the
worm wheel is doubled, then its velocity ratio is also doubled.
(A) True
(B) False
03. The polygon law of forces states that if a number of forces, acting
simultaneously on a particle, be represented in magnitude and
direction by the sides a polygon taken in order, then their resultant is
represented in magnitude and direction by the closing side of the
polygon, taken in opposite direction.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
04. A Newton is defined as the force while acting upon a mass of one
kg, produces an acceleration of 1 m/s2 in the direction of which it acts.
(A) Yes
(B) No
05. According to principle of conservation of energy, the total
momentum of a system of masses in any direction remains constant
unless acted upon by an external force in that direction.
(A) True
(B) False
06. The triangle law of forces states that if two forces acting
simultaneously on a particle, be represented in magnitude and
direction by the two sides of a triangle taken in order, then their
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resultant may be represented in magnitude and direction by the third
side of a triangle, taken in opposite order.
(A) True
(B) False
07. The centre of gravity of a right angled triangle lies at its
geometrical centre.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
08. If three forces acting at a point be represented in magnitude and
direction by the three sides of a triangle, taken in order, the forces
shall be in equilibrium.
(A) True
(B) False
09. A science teacher claimed that Newton's third law of motion is
involved while studying the motion of rockets. His statement is
(A) Not justified
(B) Justified
10. A lifting machine lifts a load of 1000N through a distance of 0.2 m
by means of an effort of 200N through a distance of 1m. This machine
is an ideal one.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
11. All the steel trusses of the bridges have one of their end roller
supported, and other end hinged. The main advantage of such a
support is that the truss remains stable.
(A) True
(B) False
12. The forces, which do not meet at one point, but their lines of action
lie on the same plane, are known as coplanar non-concurrent forces.
(A) Disagree
(B) Agree
13. The angle of inclination with the vertical is __________ if the
cyclist is running at a faster speed than that when he is running at a
slower speed.
(A) More
(B) Less
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14. If two blocks of equal mass are attached to the two ends of a light
string and one of the blocks is placed over a smooth horizontal plane
while the other is hung freely after passing over a smooth pulley, then
the two blocks will have some motion.
(A) Disagree
(B) Agree
15. The distance, between the point of projection and the point where
the projectile strikes the ground, is known as range.
(A) Incorrect
(B) Correct
16. The term 'force' may be defined as an agent which produces or
tends to produce, destroys or tends to destroy motion.
(A) Disagree
(B) Agree
17. If three forces acting at a point are represented in magnitude and
direction by the three sides of a triangle, taken in order, then the
forces are in equilibrium.
(A) Yes
(B) No
18. If three coplanar forces acting on a point are in equilibrium, then
each force is proportional to the sine, of the angle between the other
two.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
19. In collision of elastic bodies, the coefficient of restitution is the
ratio of the relative velocity after impact to the relative velocity before
impact.
(A) True
(B) False
20. When a particle moves along a circular path with uniform velocity,
there will be no tangential acceleration.
(A) Incorrect
(B) Correct
Answers: Engineering Mechanics Test 01

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Engineering Mechanics: Test 02

01. Two equal and opposite parallel forces whose lines of action are
different, can be replaced by a single force parallel to the given forces.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
02. The maximum displacement of a body, from its mean position is
called amplitude.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
motion is proportional to the displacement of the particle from the
mean position.
(A) True
(B) False
04. The force which acts along the radius of a circle and directed away
from the centre of the circle is called centrifugal force.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
05. If the resultant of a number of forces acting on a body is zero, then
the body will not be in equilibrium.
(A) Yes
(B) No
06. The angle of the inclined plane at which a body just begins to slide
down the plane, is called helix angle.
(A) True
(B) False
07. The loss of kinetic energy due to direct impact of two bodies
__________ upon the value of coefficient of restitution.
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(A) Depends
(B) Does not depend
08. The time taken by a particle for one complete oscillation is known
as periodic time.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
09. A machine which is capable of doing work in the reversed
direction, after the effort is removed, is called a non-reversible
machine.
(A) Yes
(B) No
10. When a particle moves along a circular path, its acceleration has
two components, one is normal component and the other is tangential
component of acceleration.
(A) True
(B) False
11. When a particle moves along a straight path, there will be
centripetal acceleration as well as tangential acceleration.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
12. The centre of oscillation and centre of suspension for a compound
pendulum are interchangeable.
(A) True
(B) False
13. The terms 'leverage' and 'mechanical advantage' of a compound
lever have got the same meaning.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
14. A lift moves downwards with an acceleration of 9.8 m/s2. The
pressure exerted by a man on the floor of the lift is zero.
(A) True
(B) False
15. The force which acts along the radius of a circle and directed
towards the centre of the circle is known as centripetal force.
(A) True
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(B) False
16. If a number of forces acting at a point be represented in magnitude
and direction by the three sides of a triangle, taken in order, then the
forces are not in equilibrium.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
17. Coefficient of friction is the ratio of the limiting friction to the
normal reaction between the two bodies.
(A) Yes
(B) No
18. The total time taken by a projectile to reach maximum height and
to return back to the ground, is known as time of flight.
(A) Yes
(B) No
19. The angle of inclination of a vehicle when moving along a circular
path ________ upon its mass.
(A) Depends
(B) Does not depend
20. A resultant force is a single force which produces the same effect
as produced by all the given forces acting on a body.
(A) True
(B) False
Answers: Engineering Mechanics Test 02

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Engineering Materials:
01. Which one of the following metals would work-harden more
quickly than the others?
(A) Copper
(B) Brass
(C) Lead
(D) Silver
Answer: Option B
02. Iron-carbon alloys containing carbon ________ 4.3% are known as
hypereutectic cast irons.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
03. Bell metal contains
(A) 70% copper and 30% zinc
(B) 90% copper and 10% ti
(C) 85 - 92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel
(D) 70 - 75% copper and rest tin
Answer: Option D
04. The temperature required for full annealing in hypereutectoid
steel is
(A) 30°C to 50°C above upper critical temperature
(B) 30°C to 50°C below upper critical temperature
(C) 30°C to 50°C above lower critical temperature
(D) 30°C to 50°C below lower critical temperature
Answer: Option C
05. The composition of silver solder is
(A) Silver, copper, zinc
(B) Silver, tin, nickel
(C) Silver, lead, zinc
(D) Silver, copper, aluminium
Answer: Option A
06. When a steel containing ________ 0.8% carbon is cooled slowly
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below the lower critical point, it consists of ferrite and pearlite.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
07. Pipes for bicycle frames are made of
(A) Cold rolled steel
(B) Hot rolled steel
(C) Forged steel
(D) Cast steel
Answer: Option A
08. The charge of the blast furnace consists of
(A) Calcined ore (8 parts), coke (4 parts) and limestone (1 part)
(B) Calcined ore (4 parts), coke (1 part) and limestone (8 parts)
(C) Calcined ore (1 part), coke (8 parts) and limestone (4 parts)
(D) Calcined ore, coke and limestone all in equal parts
Answer: Option A
09. The following element can't impart high strength at elevated
temperature
(A) Manganese
(B) Magnesium
(C) Nickel
(D) Silicon
Answer: Option B
10. The percentage carbon content in wrought iron is about
(A) 0.02
(B) 0.1
(C) 02
(D) 0.4
Answer: Option A
11. Heavy duty leaf and coil springs contain carbon of the following
order
(A) 0.2 %
(B) 0.5 %
(C) 0.8 %
(D) 1.0 %
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Answer: Option D
12. The silicon steel is widely used for
(A) Connecting rods
(B) Cutting tools
(C) Generators and transformers in the form of laminated cores
(D) Motor car crankshafts
Answer: Option C
13. Blast furnace produces following by reduction of iron ore
(A) Cast iron
(B) Pig iron
(C) Wrought iron
(D) Malleable iron
Answer: Option B
14. For a steel containing 0.8% carbon
(A) There is no critical point
(B) There is only one critical point
(C) There are two critical points
(D) There can be any number of critical points
Answer: Option B
15. Nickel in steel
(A) Improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness
(B) Refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation,
improves corrosion and heat resistant properties
(C) Improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability
(D) Gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anticorrosion
properties
Answer: Option D
16. Which of the following impurity in cast iron makes it hard and
brittle?
(A) Silicon
(B) Sulphur
(C) Manganese
(D) Phosphorus
Answer: Option B
17. Tensile strength of steel can be safely increased by
(A) Adding carbon up to 2.8%
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(B) Adding carbon up to 6.3%
(C) Adding carbon up to 0.83%
(D) Adding small quantities of copper
Answer: Option C
18. Which of the following metal is used for nuclear energy?
(A) Uranium
(B) Thorium
(C) Niobium
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
19. Cemented carbide tools are not found to be suitable for cutting
(A) Brass
(B) Cast iron
(C) Aluminium
(D) Steel
Answer: Option D
20. Y-alloy contains
(A) 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 0.4 to 0.7% magnesium, 0.4 to 0.7%
manganese and rest aluminium
(B) 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 1.2 to 1.7% manganese, 1.8 to 2.3% nickel,
0.6% each of silicon, magnesium and iron, and rest aluminium
(C) 4 to 4.5% magnesium, 3 to 4% copper and rest aluminium
(D) 5 to 6% tin, 2 to 3% copper and rest aluminium
Answer: Option B
21. Amorphous material is one
(A) In which atoms align themselves in a geometric pattern upon
solidification
(B) In which there is no definite atomic structure and atoms exist in a
random pattern just as in a liquid
(C) Which is not attacked by phosphorous
(D) Which emits fumes on melting
Answer: Option B
22. According to Indian standard specifications, SG 400/15 means
(A) Spheroidal graphite cast iron with B.H.N. 400 and minimum
tensile strength 15 MPa
(B) Spheroidal graphite cast iron with minimum tensile strength 400
MPa and 15 percent elongation
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(C) Spheroidal graphite cast iron with minimum compressive strength
400 MPa and 15 percent reduction in area
Answer: Option B
23. Brass (alloy of copper and zinc) is an example of
(A) Substitutional solid solution
(B) Interstitial solid solution
(C) Intermetallic compounds
Answer: Option A
24. In process annealing, the hypo eutectoid steel is
(A) Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature
and then cooled in still air
(B) Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature
and then cooled suddenly in a suitable cooling medium
(C) Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature
and then cooled slowly in the furnace
(D) Heated below or closes to the lower critical temperature and then
cooled slowly
Answer: Option D
(A) Aluminium in steel results in excessive grain growth
(B) Manganese in steel induces hardness
(C) Nickel and chromium in steel helps in raising the elastic limit and
improve the resilience and ductility
(D) Tungsten in steels improves magnetic properties and hardenability
Answer: Option A
26. Coarse grained steel
(A) Is less tough and has a greater tendency to distort during heat
treatment
(B) Is more ductile and has a less tendency to distort during heat
treatment
(C) Is less tough and has a less tendency to distort during heat
treatment
(D) Is more ductile and has a greater tendency to distort during heat
treatment
Answer: Option A
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27. Pick up the wrong statement Nickel and chromium in steel help in
(A) Providing corrosion resistance
(B) Improving machining properties
(C) Providing high strength at elevated temperatures
(D) Raising the elastic limit
Answer: Option B
28. Normalising of steel is done to
(A) Refine the grain structure
(B) Remove strains caused by cold working
(C) Remove dislocations caused in the internal structure due to hot
working
Answer: Option D
29. Steel contains
(A) 80% or more iron
(B) 50% or more iron
(C) Alloying elements like chromium, tungsten nickel and copper
(D) Elements like phosphorus, sulphur and silicon in varying
quantities
Answer: Option B
30. Which of the following has a fine gold colour and is used for
imitation jewellery?
(A) Silicon bronze
(B) Aluminium bronze
(C) Gun metal
(D) Babbitt metal
Answer: Option B
31. Elinvar, an alloy used in precision instruments, hair springs for
watches, etc. contains the following element as principal alloying
element
(A) Iron
(B) Copper
(C) Aluminium
(D) Nickel
Answer: Option D
(A) Steel with 0.8% carbon is wholly pearlite
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(B) The amount of cementite increases with the increase in percentage
of carbon in iron
(C) A mechanical mixture of 87% cementite and 13% ferrite is called
pearlite
(D) The cementite is identified as round particles in the structure
Answer: Option C
33. Which of the following has highest specific strength of all
structural materials?
(A) Magnesium alloys
(B) Titanium alloys
(C) Chromium alloys
(D) Magnetic steel alloys
Answer: Option B
34. In a hardening process, the hypo-eutectoid steel is
(A) Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature
and then cooled in still air
(B) Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature
and then cooled suddenly in a suitable cooling medium
(C) Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature
and then cooled slowly in the furnace
(D) Heated below or closes to the lower critical temperature and then
cooled slowly
Answer: Option B
35. The correct composition of Babbitt metal is
(A) 87.75% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 0.25% Bi
(B) 90% Sn, 2% Cu, 4% Sb, 2% Bi, 2% Mg
(C) 87% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 1% Al
(D) 82% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 3% Al, 3% Mg
Answer: Option A
36. When steel containing less than 0.8% carbon is cooled slowly from
temperatures above or within the critical range, it consists of
(A) Mainly ferrite
(B) Mainly pearlite
(C) Ferrite and pearlite
(D) Pearlite and cementite
Answer: Option C
37. Dow metal contains
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(A) 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe
(B) 92.5% aluminium and, 4% copper, 2% nickel and 1.5% Mg
(C) 90% aluminium and 90% copper
(D) 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper
Answer: Option D
38. Body centered cubic space lattice is found in
(A) Zinc, magnesium, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and bismuth
(B) Gamma iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and nickel
(C) Alpha iron, tungsten, chromium and molybdenum
Answer: Option C
39. Which of the following alloys does not have copper as one of the
constituents?
(A) Delta metal
(B) Monel metal
(C) Constantan
(D) Nichrome
Answer: Option D
40. In spheroidising process, the steel is
(A) Heated below the lower critical temperature and then cooled
slowly
(B) Heated up to the lower critical temperature and then cooled in still
air
(C) Heated slightly above the lower critical temperature and then
cooled slowly to a temperature of 600°C
Answer: Option C
41. Which of the following alloys does not contain tin?
(A) White metal
(B) Solder admiralty
(C) Fusible metal
(D) Phosphor bronze
Answer: Option A
42. The bond formed by transferring electrons from one atom to
another is called
(A) Ionic bond
(B) Covalent bond
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(C) Metallic bond
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
43. Addition of manganese to aluminium results in
(A) Improvement of casting characteristics
(B) Improvement of corrosion resistance
(C) One of the best known age and precipitation hardening systems
(D) Improving machinability
Answer: Option B
44. When medium carbon steel is heated to coarsening temperature
(A) There is no change in grain size
(B) The average grain size is a minimum
(C) The grain size increases very rapidly
(D) The grain size first increases and then decreases very rapidly
Answer: Option C
45. Admiralty gun metal contains
(A) 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper
(B) 88% copper, 10% tin and rest zinc
(C) Alloy of tin, lead and cadmium
(D) Iron scrap and zinc
Answer: Option B
46. The alloy, mainly used for corrosion resistance in stainless steels is
(A) Silicon
(B) Manganese
(C) Carbon
(D) Chromium
Answer: Option D
47. The correct sequence for descending order of machinability is
(A) Grey cast iron, low carbon steel, wrought iron
(B) Low carbon steel, grey cast iron, wrought iron
(C) Wrought iron, low carbon steel, grey cast iron
(D) Wrought iron, grey cast iron, low carbon steel
Answer: Option A
48. Duralumin contains
(A) 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 0.4 to 0.7% magnesium, 0.4 to 0.7%
manganese and rest aluminium
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(B) 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 1.2 to 1.7% manganese, 1.8 to 2.3% nickel,
0.6% each of silicon, magnesium and iron, and rest aluminium
(C) 4 to 4.5% magnesium, 3 to 4% copper and rest aluminium
(D) 5 to 6% tin, 2 to 3% copper and rest aluminium
Answer: Option A
49. Admiralty brass used for steam condenser tubes contains copper
and zinc in the following ratio
(A) 50 : 50
(B) 30 : 70
(C) 70 : 30
(D) 40 : 60
Answer: Option B
50. A steel containing 16 to 18% chromium and about 0.12% carbon is
called
(A) Ferritic stainless steel
(B) Austenitic stainless steel
(C) Martenistic stainless steel
(D) Nickel steel
Answer: Option A
51. Ductile cast iron
(A) Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in Free State and is obtained by the
slow cooling of molten cast iron
(B) Is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling
rapidly. It is almost unmachinable
(C) Is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough and easily
machined metal
(D) Is produced by small additions of magnesium (or creium) in the
ladle. Graphite is in nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed
throughout the material
Answer: Option D
52. Which of the following iron exist between 910°C and 1403°C?
(A) α-iron
(B) β-iron
(C) γ-iron
(D) δ-iron
Answer: Option C
53. Malleable cast iron
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(C) Is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough, and easily
machined metal
(D) Is produced by small additions of magnesium (or cerium) in the
ladle. Graphite is in the nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed
Answer: Option C
54. The presence of hydrogen in steel causes
(A) Reduced neutron absorption cross-section
(B) Improved Weldability
(C) Embrittlement
(D) Corrosion resistance
Answer: Option C
55. Which is the false statement about wrought iron? It has
(A) High resistance to rusting and corrosion
(B) High ductility
(C) Ability of hold protective coating
(D) Uniform strength in all directions
Answer: Option D
56. Which of the following is added in low carbon steels to prevent
them from becoming porous?
(A) Sulphur
(B) Phosphorus
(C) Manganese
(D) Silicon
Answer: Option D
57. Which of the following element results in presence of free graphite
in C.I.?
(A) Carbon
(B) Sulphur
(C) Silicon
(D) Manganese
Answer: Option C
58. Free cutting steels
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(A) Contain carbon in free from
(B) Require minimum cutting force
(C) Is used where rapid machining is the prime requirement
(D) Can be cut freely
Answer: Option C
59. Grey cast iron
(B) Is also known as chilled cast iron is obtained by cooling rapidly. It
is almost unmachinable
(C) Is produced by annealing process. I is soft, tough and easily
machined metal
(D) Is produced by small additions o magnesium (or cerium) in the
ladle Graphite is in nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed
Answer: Option A
60. The aluminium alloy, mainly used, for anodized utensil
manufacture, is
(A) Duralumin
(B) Y-alloy
(C) Magnalium
(D) Hindalium
Answer: Option D
61. White cast iron
(C) Is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough and easily
machined metal
(D) Is produced by small additions of magnesium (or creium) in the
ladle. Graphite is in nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed
Answer: Option B
62. The compressive strength of cast iron is ________ that of its tensile
strength.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
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(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
63. Monel metal contains
(B) 88% copper and 10% tin and rest zinc
(D) Malleable iron and zinc
Answer: Option A
64. In the lower part of the blast furnace (zone of fusion), the
temperature is
(A) 400° to 700°C
(B) 800°C to 1000°C
(C) 1200°C to 1300°C
(D) 1500°C to 1700°C
Answer: Option C
65. The temperature at which ferromagnetic alpha iron transforms to
paramagnetic alpha iron is
(A) 770°C
(B) 910°C
(C) 1050°C
(D) Below recrystallisation temperature
Answer: Option A
66. The ratio of the volume occupied by the atoms to the total volume
of the unit cell is called
(A) Coordination number
(B) Atomic packing factor
(C) Space lattice
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
67. Which is false statement about annealing? Annealing is done to
(A) Relieve stresses
(B) Harden steel slightly
(C) Improve machining characteristic
(D) Soften material
Answer: Option B
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68. When low carbon steel is heated up to upper critical temperature
Answer: Option B
69. Dislocations in materials refer to the following type of defect
(A) Point defect
(B) Line defect
(C) Plane defect
(D) Volumetric defect
Answer: Option B
70. Pearlite consists of
(A) 13% carbon and 87% ferrite
(B) 13% cementite and 87% ferrite
(C) 13% ferrite and 87% cementite
(D) 6.67% carbon and 93.33% iron
Answer: Option B
71. Sulphur in steel
(A) Acts as deoxidiser
(B) Reduces the grain size
(C) Decreases tensile strength and hardness
(D) Lowers the toughness and transverse ductility
Answer: Option D
72. The toughness of a material __________ when it is heated.
(A) Remain same
(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
73. Structural steel contains following principal alloying elements
(A) Nickel, chromium and manganese
(B) Tungsten, molybdenum and phosphorous
(C) Lead, tin, aluminium
(D) Zinc, sulphur, and chromium
Answer: Option A
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74. In basic Bessemer process, the furnace is lined with
(A) Silica bricks
(B) A mixture of tar and burnt dolomite bricks
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
75. Aluminium bronze contains
(B) 92.5% aluminium, 4% copper, 2% nickel, and 1.5% Mg
Answer: Option C
76. The material in which the atoms are arranged chaotically, is called
(A) Amorphous material
(B) Mesomorphous material
(C) Crystalline material
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
77. The percentage of carbon in pig iron varies from
(A) 0.1 to 1.2%
(B) 1.5 to 2.5%
(C) 2.5 to 4%
(D) 4 to 4.5%
Answer: Option D
78. Crystal structure of a material is, generally, examined by
(A) Naked eye
(B) Optical microscope
(C) Metallurgical microscope
(D) X-ray techniques
Answer: Option D
79. A reversible change in the atomic structure of steel with
corresponding change in the properties is known as
(A) Molecular change
(B) Physical change
(C) Allotropic change
(D) Solidus change
Answer: Option C
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80. Eutectoid steel consists of
(A) Wholly pearlite
(B) Wholly austenite
(C) Pearlite and ferrite
(D) Pearlite and cementite
Answer: Option A
81. Ductility of a material can be defined as
(A) Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression
(B) Ability to recover its original form
(C) Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension
Answer: Option C
82. Which of the following property is desirable in parts subjected to
shock and impact loads?
(A) Strength
(B) Stiffness
(C) Brittleness
(D) Toughness
Answer: Option D
83. In compression, a prism of brittle material will break
(A) By forming a bulge
(B) By shearing along oblique plane
(C) In direction perpendicular to application of load
(D) By crushing into thousands of pieces
Answer: Option B
84. The main alloying elements high speed steel in order of increasing
proportion are
(A) Vanadium, chromium, tungsten
(B) Tungsten, titanium, vanadium
(C) Chromium, titanium, vanadium
(D) Tungsten, chromium, titanium
Answer: Option A
85. Corundum contains more than 95%
(A) Steel
(B) Al2O3
(C) SiO2
(D) MgO
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Answer: Option B
86. The aluminium alloy made by melting aluminium with 2 to 10%
magnesium and 1.75% copper is called
(A) Duralumin
(B) Y-alloy
(C) Magnalium
(D) Hindalium
Answer: Option C
87. Brass contains
(B) 90% copper and 10% tin
Answer: Option A
88. There are fourteen atoms in a unit cell of
(A) Body centred cubic space lattice
(B) Face centred cubic space lattice
(C) Close packed hexagonal space lattice
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
89. A specimen of aluminium metal when observed under microscope
shows
(A) B.C.C. crystalline structure
(B) F.C.C. crystal structure
(C) H.C.P. structure
(D) A complex cubic structure
Answer: Option B
90. The defect which takes place due to imperfect packing of atoms
during crystallisation is known as
(A) Line defect
(B) Surface defect
(C) Point defect
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
91. Large forgings, crank shafts, axles normally contain carbon up to
(A) 0.05 to 0.20 %
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(B) 0.20 to 0.45 %
(C) 0.45 to 0.55 %
(D) 0.55 to 1.0 %
Answer: Option C
92. Which of the following statement is incorrect about duralumin?
(A) It is prone to age hardening
(B) It can be forged
(C) It has good machining properties
(D) It is lighter than pure aluminium
Answer: Option D
93. The hardness of steel primarily depends on
(A) Percentage of carbon
(B) Percentage of alloying elements
(C) Heat treatment employed
(D) Shape of carbides and their distribution in iron
Answer: Option D
94. Gamma-iron occurs between the temperature ranges of
(A) 400°C to 600°C
(B) 600°C to 900°C
(C) 900°C to 1400°C
(D) 1400°C to 1530°C
Answer: Option C
95. Alnico, an alloy used extensively for permanent magnets contains
iron, nickel, aluminium and cobalt in the following ratio
(A) 50 : 20 : 20 : 10
(B) 40 : 30 : 20 : 10
(C) 50 : 20 : 10 : 20
(D) 30 : 20 : 30 : 20
Answer: Option A
96. According to Indian standard specifications, plain carbon steel
designated by 40 C8 means that the carbon content is
(A) 0.04 %
(B) 0.35 to 0.45 %
(C) 0.4 to 0.6 %
(D) 0.6 to 0.8 %
Answer: Option B
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97. If a refractory contains high content of silicon, it means refractory
is
(A) Acidic
(B) Basic
(C) Neutral
(D) Brittle
Answer: Option C
98. Cementite consist of
(A) 13% carbon and 87% ferrite
(B) 13% cementite and 87% ferrite
(C) 13% ferrite and 87% cementite
(D) 6.67% carbon and 93.33% iron
Answer: Option D
99. The usual composition of a soldering alloy is
(A) Tin, lead and small percentage of antimony
(B) Tin and lead
(C) Tin, lead and silver
(D) Tin and copper
Answer: Option A
100. The property of a material which enables it to retain the
deformation permanently, is called
(A) Brittleness
(B) Ductility
(C) Malleability
(D) Plasticity
Answer: Option D
101. The tensile strength of wrought iron is maximum
(A) Along the lines of slag distribution
(B) Perpendicular to lines of slag distribution
(C) Uniform in all directions
Answer: Option A
102. The metal suitable for bearings subjected to heavy loads, is
(A) Silicon bronze
(B) White metal
(C) Monel metal
(D) Phosphor bronze
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Answer: Option B
103. Which of the following elements does not impart hardness to
steel?
(A) Copper
(B) Chromium
(C) Nickel
(D) Silicon
Answer: Option A
104. In low carbon steels, presence of small quantities of sulphur
improves
(A) Weldability
(B) Formability
(C) Machinability
(D) Hardenability
Answer: Option C
105. Cobalt in steel
improve corrosion and heat resistant proper ties
(C) Improves cutting ability and reduce hardenability
(D) Gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anti corrosion
property
Answer: Option C
106. Which of the following metal shrinks most from molten state to
solid state?
(A) Cast iron
(B) Cast steel
(C) Brass
(D) Admiralty metal
Answer: Option D
107. Tungsten in steel
properties
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Answer: Option B
108. The ability of a material to resist fracture due to high impact
loads, is called
(A) Strength
(B) Stiffness
(C) Toughness
(D) Brittleness
Answer: Option C
109. Which is false statement about normalizing? Normalizing is done
to
(A) Refine grain structure
(B) Reduce segregation in casting
(C) Improve mechanical properties
(D) Induce stresses
Answer: Option D
110. Hematite iron ore contains iron about
(A) 30 %
(B) 45 %
(C) 55 %
(D) 70 %
Answer: Option D
111. The surface hardness of the following order is achieved by
nitriding operation
(A) 600 VPN
(B) 1500 VPN
(C) 1000 to 1100 VPN
(D) 250 VPN
Answer: Option C
112. The unit cells
(A) Contain the smallest number of atoms which when taken together
have all the properties of the crystals of the particular metal
(B) Have the same orientation and their similar faces are parallel
(C) May be defined as the smallest parallelepiped which could be
transposed in three coordinate directions to build up the space lattice
Answer: Option D
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113. Which of the following represents the allotropic forms of iron?
(A) Alpha iron, beta iron and gamma iron
(B) Alpha iron and beta iron
(C) Body centred cubic iron and face centred cubic iron
(D) Alpha iron, gamma from and delta iron
Answer: Option D
114. Which of the following property is desirable for materials used in
tools and machines?
(A) Elasticity
(B) Plasticity
(C) Ductility
(D) Malleability
Answer: Option A
115. Points of arrest for iron correspond to
(A) Stages at which allotropic forms change
(B) Stages at which further heating does not increase temperature for
some time
(C) Stages at which properties do not change with increase in
temperature
(D) There is nothing like points of arrest
Answer: Option A
116. The portion of the blast furnace below its widest cross-section is
called
(A) Hearth
(B) Stack
(C) Bosh
(D) Throat
Answer: Option C
117. Taps dies and drills contain carbon
(A) Below 0.5 %
(B) Below 1 %
(C) Above 1 %
(D) Above 2.2 %
Answer: Option C
118. The coke in the charge of blast furnace
(A) Controls the grade of pig iron
(B) Acts as an iron bearing mineral
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(C) Supplies heat to reduce ore and melt the iron
(D) Forms a slag by combining with impurities
Answer: Option C
119. The percentage of carbon in grey iron castings usually varies
between
(A) 0.5 to 1 %
(B) 1.2 %
(C) 2.5 to 4.5 %
(D) 5 to 7 %
Answer: Option C
120. The machinability of steel is improved by adding
(A) Nickel
(B) Chromium
(D) Sulphur, lead and phosphorus
Answer: Option D
121. The ultimate tensile strength and yield strength of most of the
metals, when temperature falls from 0 to 100°C will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain same
(D) First increase and then decrease
Answer: Option A
122. Macrostructure of a material is, generally, examined by
(A) Naked eye
(B) Optical microscope
(C) Metallurgical microscope
(D) X-ray techniques
Answer: Option A
123. Which of the following pipes is least corrosion resistant?
(A) Brass
(B) Mild steel
(C) Cast iron
(D) Wrought iron
Answer: Option D
124. Wrought iron
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(A) Is a ductile material
(B) Can be easily forged or welded
(C) Cannot stand sudden and excessive shocks
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
125. The metallic structure of mild steel is
(A) Body centred cubic
(B) Face centred cubic
(C) Hexagonal close packed
(D) Cubic structure
Answer: Option A
126. The material in which the atoms are arranged regularly in some
directions but not in others, is called
(A) Amorphous material
(B) Mesomorphous material
(C) Crystalline material
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
127. Vanadium in high speed steels
(A) Promotes decarburisation
(B) Provides high hot hardness
(C) Forms very hard carbides and thus increases wear resistance
(D) Promotes retention of austenite
Answer: Option C
128. Which of the following material has nearly zero coefficient of
expansion?
(A) Stainless steel
(C) Invar
(D) Heat resisting steel
Answer: Option C
129. Nodular iron has
(A) High machinability
(B) Low melting point
(C) High tensile strength
Answer: Option D
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130. The addition of which of the following improves machining of
copper?
(A) Sulphur
(B) Vanadium
(C) Tin
(D) Zinc
Answer: Option A
131. Pig iron is the name given to
(A) Raw material for blast furnace
(B) Product of blast furnace made by reduction of iron ore
(C) Iron containing huge quantities of carbon
(D) Iron in molten form in the ladles
Answer: Option B
132. Which of the following when used in ordinary low carbon steels,
makes the metal ductile and of good bending qualities?
(A) Sulphur
(B) Phosphorus
(C) Manganese
(D) Silicon
Answer: Option C
133. In which of the following cases, consideration of creep is
important
(A) Flywheel of steam engine
(B) Cast iron pipes
(C) Cycle chains
(D) Gas turbine blades
Answer: Option D
(A) The product produced by blast-furnace is called cast iron
(B) The pig iron is the name given to the product produced by cupola
(C) The cast iron has high tensile strength
(D) The chilled cast iron has no graphite
Answer: Option D
135. Muntz metal contains copper and zinc in the ratio of
(A) 50 : 50
(B) 40 : 60
(C) 60 : 40
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(D) 20 : 80
Answer: Option C
136. 1841 high speed steel contains
(A) Vanadium 4%, chromium 18% and tungsten 1%
(B) Vanadium 1%, chromium 4% and tungsten 18%
(C) Vanadium 18%, chromium 1% and tungsten 4%
Answer: Option B
137. Age-hardening is related with
(A) Stainless steel
(B) Gun metal
(C) German silver
(D) Duralumin
Answer: Option D
138. Which of the following statement is true about brittle fracture?
(A) High temperature and low strain rates favour brittle fracture
(B) Many metals with hexagonal close packed (H.C.P) crystal
structure commonly show brittle fracture
(C) Brittle fracture is always preceded by noise
(D) Cup and cone formation is characteristic for brittle materials
Answer: Option B
139. Recrystallisation temperature can be lowered by
(A) Purification of metal
(B) Grain refinement
(C) Working at lower temperature
Answer: Option D
140. The ability of a material to absorb energy in the plastic range is
called
(A) Resilience
(B) Creep
(C) Fatigue strength
(D) Toughness
Answer: Option A
141. Maximum percentage of carbon in austenite is
(A) 0.025 %
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(B) 0.26 %
(C) 0.8 %
(D) 1.7 %
Answer: Option D
142. In low carbon steels, ________ raises the yield point and improves
the resistance to atmospheric corrosion.
(A) Sulphur
(B) Phosphorus
(C) Manganese
(D) Silicon
Answer: Option B
143. Super conduction by metals is observed in the temperature range
of
(A) Below 10°K
(B) Above 100°K
(C) Around 0°C
(D) Around 100°C
Answer: Option A
144. Connecting rod is, usually, made from
(D) High speed steel
Answer: Option C
145. Ferromagnetic alpha iron exists in temperature range of
(A) Below 723°C
(B) 770 to 910°C
(C) 910 to 1440°C
(D) 1400 to 1539°C
Answer: Option A
146. Which of the following impurity in cast iron promotes graphite
nodule formation and increases the fluidity of the molten metal?
(A) Silicon
(B) Sulphur
(C) Manganese
(D) Phosphorus
Answer: Option A
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147. For the allotropic forms of iron, the points of arrest are
(A) The points where no further change occurs
(B) Constant for all metals
(C) The points where there is no further flow of metal
(D) The points of discontinuity
Answer: Option D
148. Inconel contains
(A) 65% nickel, 15% chromium and 20% iron
(B) 68% nickel, 29% copper and 3% other constituents
(C) 80% nickel and 20% chromium
(D) 80% nickel, 14% chromium and 6% iron
Answer: Option D
149. A reversible change in the atomic structure of the steel with a
corresponding change in the properties is known as
(A) Allotropic change
(B) Recrystallisation
(C) Heat treatment
(D) Precipitation
Answer: Option A
150. A material is said to be allotropic, if it has
(A) Fixed structure at all temperatures
(B) Atoms distributed in random pattern
(C) Different crystal structures at different temperatures
Answer: Option C
151. An important property of high silicon (12-18%) cast iron is the
high
(A) Hardness
(B) Brittleness
(C) Plasticity
(D) Ductility
Answer: Option A
152. Dye penetrant method is generally used to locate
(A) Core defects
(B) Surface defects
(C) Superficial defects
(D) Temporary defects
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Answer: Option B
153. Constantan an alloy used in thermocouples is an alloy of
(A) Copper and tin
(B) Copper and zinc
(C) Copper and iron
(D) Copper and nickel
Answer: Option D
154. Delta-iron occurs between the temperature ranges of
(A) 400°C to 600°C
(B) 600°C to 900°C
(C) 900°C to 1400°C
(D) 1400°C to 1530°C
Answer: Option D
155. White cast iron contains carbon in the form of
(A) Free carbon
(B) Graphite
(C) Cementite
(D) White carbon
Answer: Option C
156. The heat treatment process used for softening hardened steel is
(A) Carburising
(B) Normalising
(C) Annealing
(D) Tempering
Answer: Option D
157. Stress relaxation is the phenomenon
(A) In which parts are not loaded
(B) In which stress remains constant on increasing load
(C) In which deformation tends to loosen the joint and produces a
stress reduced
(D) Stress reduces on increasing load
Answer: Option C
158. Babbitt metal is a
(A) Lead base alloy
(B) Copper base alloy
(C) Tin base alloy
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(D) Cadmium base alloy
Answer: Option C
159. Hardness of lower bainite (tempered martensite) is about
(A) RC 65
(B) RC 48
(C) RC 57
(D) RC 80
Answer: Option C
160. Silicon when added to copper improves
(A) Machinability
(B) Hardness
(C) Hardness and strength
(D) Strength and ductility
Answer: Option C
161. A material is known as allotropic or polymorphic if it
(A) Has a fixed structure under all conditions
(B) Exists in several crystal forms at different temperatures
(C) Responds to heat treatment
(D) Has its atoms distributed in a random pattern
Answer: Option B
162. The brown smoke during the operation of a Bessemer converter
indicates that the
(A) Air is burning out silicon and manganese
(B) Silicon and manganese has burnt and carbon has started oxidising
(C) The converter must be titled to remove the contents of the
converter
(D) The brown smoke does not occur during the operation of a
Bessemer converter
Answer: Option A
163. The percentage of carbon in low carbon steel is
(A) 0.05 %
(B) 0.15 %
(C) 0.3 %
(D) 0.5 %
Answer: Option B
164. A small percentage of boron is added to steel in order to
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(A) Increase hardenability
(B) Reduce machinability
(C) Increase wear resistance
(D) Increase endurance strength
Answer: Option A
165. Neutral solution is one which has pH value
(A) Greater than 7
(B) Less than 7
(C) Equal to 7
(D) pH value has nothing to do with neutral solution
Answer: Option C
166. The coordination number of a face centred cubic space lattice is
(A) Six
(B) Twelve
(C) Eighteen
(D) Twenty
Answer: Option B
167. Lead is poured into the joint between two pipes. These pipes may
be made of
(A) Cast iron
(B) Vitrified clay
(C) Asbestos cement
(D) Concrete
Answer: Option A
168. Brass is an alloy of
(A) Copper and zinc
(B) Copper and tin
(C) Copper, tin and zinc
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
169. Malleability of a material can be defined as
(A) Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression
(B) Ability to recover its original form
(C) Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension
Answer: Option A
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170. Tin base white metals are used where the bearings are subjected
to
(A) Large surface wear
(B) Elevated temperatures
(C) Light load and pressure
(D) High pressure and load
Answer: Option A
171. Which of the following is not the correct method of increasing
fatigue limit?
(A) Shot peening
(B) Nitriding of surface
(C) Cold working
(D) Surface decarburisation
Answer: Option D
172. In full annealing, the hypo eutectoid steel is heated from 30°C to
50°C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled
(A) In still air
(B) Slowly in the furnace
(C) Suddenly in a suitable cooling medium
Answer: Option B
173. Materials after cold working are subjected to following process to
relieve stresses
(A) Hot working
(B) Tempering
(C) Normalising
(D) Annealing
Answer: Option D
174. Iron-carbon alloys containing 1.7 to 4.3% carbon are known as
(A) Eutectic cast irons
(B) Hypoeutectic cast irons
(C) Hypereutectic cast irons
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
175. Which is false statement about case hardening? Case hardening is
done by
(A) Electroplating
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(B) Cyaniding
(C) Induction hardening
(D) Nitriding
Answer: Option A
176. White cast iron has
(A) Carbon in the form of carbide
(B) Low tensile strength
(C) High compressive strength
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
177. Following elements have face-centred cubic structure
(A) Gamma iron (910° to 1400°C), Cu, Ag, Au, Al, Ni, Pb, Pt
(B) Mg, Zn, Ti, Zr, Br, Cd
(C) A iron (below 910°C and between 1400 to 1539°C), W
Answer: Option A
178. When low carbon steel is heated up to lower critical temperature
Answer: Option A
179. The molecules in a solid move
(A) In a random manner
(B) In a haphazard way
(C) In circular motion
(D) Back and forth like tiny pendulums
Answer: Option D
180. Balls for ball bearings are made of
(A) Cast iron
(B) Mild steel
(C) Stainless steel
(D) Carbonchrome steel
Answer: Option D
181. Which of the following display properties similar to that of steel?
(A) Blackheart cast iron
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(B) White-heart cast iron
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
182. Which is false statement about properties of aluminium?
(A) Modulus of elasticity is fairly low
(B) Wear resistance is very good
(C) Fatigue strength is not high
(D) Creep strength limits its use to fairly low temperatures
Answer: Option B
183. The steel widely used for motor car crankshafts is
(A) Nickel steel
(B) Chrome steel
(C) Nickel-chrome steel
(D) Silicon steel
Answer: Option B
184. Foundry crucible is made of
(A) Mild steel
(B) German silver
(C) Lead
(D) Graphite
Answer: Option D
185. The stiffness is the ability of a material to resist
(A) Deformation under stress
(B) Fracture due to high impact loads
(C) Externally applied forces with breakdown or yielding
Answer: Option A
186. The ability of a material to resist softening at high temperature is
known as
(A) Creep
(B) Hot tempering
(C) Hot hardness
(D) Fatigue
Answer: Option C
187. The type of space lattice found in alpha-iron is
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(A) Face centred cubic space lattice
(B) Body centred cubic space lattice
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
188. Mild steel belongs to the following category
(B) Medium carbon steel
(C) High carbon steel
(D) Alloy steel
Answer: Option A
189. Closed packed hexagonal space lattice is found in
(A) Zinc, magnesium, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and bismuth
(B) Gamma-iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and nickel
(C) Alpha-iron, tungsten, chromium and molybdenum
Answer: Option A
190. The ultimate tensile strength of low carbon steel by working at a
high strain rate will
(A) Decrease
(B) Increase
(C) Remain constant
(D) First increase and then decrease
Answer: Option B
191. When elements like nickel, chromium, copper and molybdenum
are added to the molten cast iron, it produces
(A) White cast iron
(B) Nodular cast iron
(C) Malleable cast iron
(D) Alloy cast iron
Answer: Option D
192. Slow plastic deformation of metals under a constant stress is
known as
(A) Creep
(B) Fatigue
(C) Endurance
(D) Plastic deformation
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Answer: Option A
193. The elastic stress strain behaviour of rubber is
(A) Linear
(B) Nonlinear
(C) Plastic
(D) No fixed relationship
Answer: Option B
194. Isotropic materials are those which have the same
(A) Elastic properties in all directions
(B) Stresses induced in all directions
(C) Thermal properties in all directions
(D) Electric and magnetic properties in all directions
Answer: Option A
195. Which of the following metal is used in making electrical
resistance wire for electric furnaces and heating elements?
(A) Babbitt metal
(B) Monel metal
(C) Nichrome
(D) Phosphor bronze
Answer: Option C
196. Recrystallisation temperature is one
(A) At which crystals first start forming from molten metal when it is
cooled
(B) At which new spherical crystals first begin to form from the old
deformed one when a strained metal is heated
(C) At which change of allotropic form takes place
(D) At which crystals grow bigger in size
Answer: Option B
197. The charge is fed into the blast furnace through the
(A) Stack
(B) Throat
(C) Bosh
(D) Tyres
Answer: Option B
198. Delta iron occurs at temperature of
(A) Room temperature
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(B) Above melting point
(C) Between 1400°C and 1539°C
(D) Between 910°C and 1400°C
Answer: Option C
199. The property of a material essential for spring materials is
(A) Stiffness
(B) Ductility
(C) Resilience
(D) Plasticity
Answer: Option C
200. Which of the following constituents of steels is softest and least
strong?
(A) Austenite
(B) Pearlite
(C) Ferrite
(D) Cementite
Answer: Option C
201. Which of the following is an amorphous material?
(A) Mica
(B) Silver
(C) Lead
(D) Glass
Answer: Option D
202. The following types of materials are usually the most ductile
(A) Face centred cubic lattice
(B) Body centred cubic lattice
(C) Hexagonal close packed lattice
Answer: Option A
203. Chromium when added to steel __________ the tensile strength.
(A) Does not effect
(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
204. Pure iron is the structure of
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(A) Ferrite
(B) Pearlite
(C) Austenite
(D) Ferrite and cementite
Answer: Option A
205. The lower critical temperature
(A) Decreases as the carbon content in steel increases
(B) Increases as the carbon content in steel increases
(C) Is same for all steels
(D) Depends upon the rate of heating
Answer: Option C
206. Gamma iron exits at following temperature
(A) Room temperature
(B) Near melting point
(C) Between 1400°C and 1539°C
(D) Between 910°C and 1400°C
Answer: Option D
207. In induction hardening ________ is high.
(A) Current
(B) Voltage
(C) Frequency
(D) Temperature
Answer: Option C
208. Paramagnetic alpha iron changes to gamma iron at
(A) 770°C
(B) 910°C
(C) 1440°C
(D) 1539°C
Answer: Option B
209. Which of the following statements are true for annealing of
steels?
(A) Steels are heated to 500 to 700°C
(B) Cooling is done slowly and steadily
(C) Internal stresses are relieved
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
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210. The crystal structure of gamma iron is
(A) Body centered cubic
(B) Face centred cubic
(D) Cubic structure
Answer: Option B
211. Induction hardening is basically a
(A) Carburising process
(B) Surface hardening process
(C) Core hardening process
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
212. The crystal of alpha iron is
(A) Body centered cubic
(B) Face centered cubic
(D) Cubic structure
Answer: Option A
213. Malleable cast iron is produced
(A) By adding magnesium to molten cast iron
(B) By quick cooling of molten cast iron
(C) From white cast iron by annealing process
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
214. The unique property of cast iron is its high
(A) Malleability
(B) Ductility
(C) Surface finish
(D) Damping characteristics
Answer: Option D
215. Steel containing ferrite and pearlite is
(A) Hard
(B) Soft
(C) Tough
(D) Hard and tough
Answer: Option B
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216. Cast iron is characterised by minimum of following percentage of
carbon
(A) 0.2 %
(B) 0.8 %
(C) 1.3 %
(D) 2 %
Answer: Option D
217. Grey cast iron has
(A) Carbon in the form of free graphite
(B) High tensile strength
(C) Low compressive strength
(D) All of these
Answer: Option A
218. In grey cast iron, carbon is present in the form of
(A) Cementite
(B) Free carbon
(C) Flakes
(D) Spheroids
Answer: Option C
219. In nodular iron, graphite is in the form of
(A) Cementite
(B) Free carbon
(C) Flakes
(D) Spheroids
Answer: Option D
220. In high speed steels, manganese is used to tougher the metal and
to increase its
(A) Yield point
(B) Critical temperature
(C) Melting point
(D) Hardness
Answer: Option B
121. In malleable iron, carbon is present in the form of
(A) Cementite
(B) Free carbon
(C) Flakes
(D) Nodular aggregates of graphite
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Answer: Option D
222. The purpose of heat treatment is to
(A) Relieve the stresses set up in the material after hot or cold working
(B) Modify the structure of the material
(C) Change grain size
Answer: Option D
123. Wrought iron is
(A) Hard
(B) High in strength
(C) Highly resistant to corrosion
(D) Heat treated to change its properties
Answer: Option C
224. When the steel is normalised, its
(A) Yield point increases
(B) Ductility decreases
(C) Ultimate tensile strength increases
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
225. Sulphur in pig iron tends to make it
(A) Hard
(B) Soft
(C) Ductile
(D) Tough
Answer: Option A
226. Pick up wrong statement about wrought iron
(A) It contains carbon of the order of 0 to 0.25%
(B) It melts at 1535°C
(C) It is very soft and ductile
(D) It is made by adding suitable percentage of carbon to molten iron
and subjecting the product to repeated hammering and rolling.
Answer: Option D
227. Combined carbon in iron makes the metal
(A) Soft and gives coarse grained crystalline structure
(B) Soft and gives a fine grained crystalline structure
(C) Hard and gives a coarse grained crystalline structure
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(D) Hard and gives a fine grained crystalline structure
Answer: Option D
228. Iron is
(A) Paramagnetic
(B) Ferromagnetic
(C) Ferroelectric
(D) Dielectric
Answer: Option B
229. Manganese is added in low carbon steel to
(A) Make the steel tougher and harder
(B) Raise the yield point
(C) Make the steel ductile and of good bending qualities
Answer: Option C
230. Chilled cast iron has
(A) No graphite
(B) A very high percentage of graphite
(C) A low percentage of graphite
(D) Graphite as its basic constituent of composition
Answer: Option A
231. The metal suitable for bearings subjected to light loads, is
(A) Silicon bronze
(B) White metal
(C) Monel metal
(D) Phosphor bronze
Answer: Option D
232. Cast iron has
(A) High tensile strength
(B) Its elastic limit close to the ultimate breaking strength
(C) High ductility
Answer: Option B
233. Nodular cast iron is produced by adding ________ to the molten
cast iron.
(A) Nickel
(B) Chromium
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(C) Copper
(D) Magnesium
Answer: Option D
234. In mottled cast iron, carbon is available in
(A) Free form
(B) Combined form
(C) Nodular form
(D) Partly in free and partly in combined state
Answer: Option D
235. An important property of malleable cast iron in comparison to
grey cast iron is the high
(A) Compressive strength
(B) Ductility
(C) Carbon content
(D) Hardness
Answer: Option B
236. Monel metal is an alloy of
(A) Nickel and copper
(B) Nickel and chromium
(C) Nickel, Chromium and iron
(D) Copper and chromium
Answer: Option A
237. Carbon steel is
(A) Made by adding carbon in steel
(B) Refined from cast iron
(C) An alloy of iron and carbon with varying quantities of phosphorus
and sulphur
(D) Extensively used for making cutting tools
Answer: Option C
238. Annealing of white cast iron results in production of
(A) Malleable iron
(B) Nodular iron
(C) Spheroidal iron
(D) Grey iron
Answer: Option A
239. The alloying element which can replace tungsten in high speed
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steels is
(A) Nickel
(B) Vanadium
(C) Cobalt
(D) Molybdenum
Answer: Option D
240. 'Killed steels' are those steels
(A) Which are destroyed by burning
(B) Which after their destruction are recycled to produce fresh steel
(C) Which are deoxidised in the ladle with silicon and aluminium
(D) In which carbon is completely burnt
Answer: Option C
241. Hardness of steel depends on
(A) Amount of carbon it contains
(B) The shape and distribution of the carbides in iron
(C) Method of fabrication
(D) Contents of alloying elements
Answer: Option B
242. Free carbon in iron makes the metal
(A) Soft and gives a coarse grained crystalline structure
(B) Soft and gives a fine grained crystalline structure
(C) Hard and gives a coarse grained crystalline structure
(D) Hard and gives a fine grained crystalline structure
Answer: Option A
243. Maximum percentage of carbon in ferrite is
(A) 0.025 %
(B) 0.06 %
(C) 0.1 %
(D) 0.25 %
Answer: Option A
244. Tungsten when added to steel ________ the critical temperature.
(A) Does not effect
(B) Lowers
(C) Raises
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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245. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by addition of
(A) Chromium and nickel
(B) Sulphur, phosphorus, lead
(C) Vanadium, aluminium
(D) Tungsten, molybdenum, vanadium, chromium
Answer: Option A
246. The material widely used for making pendulums of clocks is
(A) Stainless steel
(C) Heat resisting steel
(D) Nickel steel
Answer: Option D
247. The most effective inhibitor of grain growth, when added in small
quantities is
(A) Carbon
(B) Vanadium
(C) Manganese
(D) Cobalt
Answer: Option B
248. The property of a material due to which it breaks with little
permanent distortion, is called
(A) Brittleness
(B) Ductility
(C) Malleability
(D) Plasticity
Answer: Option A
249. Depth of hardness of steel is increased by addition of
(A) Nickel
(B) Chromium
(C) Tungsten
(D) Vanadium
Answer: Option B
250. When filing or machining cast iron makes our hands black, then
it shows that ________ is present in cast iron.
(A) Cementite
(B) Free graphite
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
251. Railway rails are normally made of
(A) Mild steel
(B) Alloy steel
(C) High carbon
(D) Tungsten steel
Answer: Option C
252. The carbon in the pig iron varies from
(A) 0.1 to 0.5 %
(B) 0.5 to 1 %
(C) 1 to 5 %
(D) 5 to 10 %
Answer: Option C
253. Machining properties of steel are improved by adding
(A) Sulphur, lead, phosphorous
(B) Silicon, aluminium, titanium
(C) Vanadium, aluminium
(D) Chromium, nickel
Answer: Option A
254. The hardness of steel depends upon the
(A) Amount of cementite it contains
(B) Amount of carbon it contains
(C) Contents of alloying elements
(D) Method of manufacture of steel
Answer: Option A
255. Eutectoid steel contains following percentage of carbon
(A) 0.02 %
(B) 0.3 %
(C) 0.63 %
(D) 0.8 %
Answer: Option D
256. The electric process of steel making is especially adapted to
(A) Alloy and carbon tool steel
(B) Magnet steel
(C) High speed tool steel
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(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
257. The basic constituents of Hastelloy are
(A) Aluminium, copper etc.
(B) Nickel, molybdenum etc.
(C) Nickel, Copper, etc.
Answer: Option B
258. German silver contains
(A) 1% silver
(B) 2% silver
(C) 5% silver
(D) No silver
Answer: Option D
259. Basic constituents of Monel metal are
(A) Nickel, copper
(B) Nickel, molybdenum
(C) Zinc, tin, lead
(D) Nickel, lead and tin
Answer: Option A
260. An alloy of copper, tin and zinc is known as
(A) Brass
(B) Bronze
(C) Gun metal
(D) Muntz metal
Answer: Option C
261. German silver is an alloy of
(A) Silver and some impurities
(B) Refined silver
(C) Nickel, Copper and zinc
(D) Nickel and copper
Answer: Option C
262. Quenching is not necessary when hardening is done by
(A) Case hardening
(B) Flame hardening
(C) Nitriding
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Answer: Option C
263. Surveying tapes are made of a material having low coefficient of
expansion and enough strength. The alloy used is
(A) Silver metal
(B) Duralumin
(C) Hastelloy
(D) Invar
Answer: Option D
264. The alloying element which increases residual magnetism and
coercive magnetic force in steel for magnets is
(A) Chromium
(B) Nickel
(C) Vanadium
(D) Cobalt
Answer: Option D
265. A cold chisel is made of
(A) Mild steel
(B) Cast iron
(C) HSS
(D) High carbon
Answer: Option D
266. Blast furnace is used to produce
(A) Pig iron
(B) Cast iron
(C) Wrought iron
(D) Steel
Answer: Option A
267. An engineer's hammer is made of
(A) Cast iron
(B) Forged steel
(C) Mild steel
Answer: Option D
268. The blade of a power saw is made of
(A) Boron steel
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(C) Stainless steel
(D) Malleable cast iron
Answer: Option B
269. Inconel is an alloy of
(A) Nickel, chromium and iron
(B) Nickel, copper
(C) Nickel, Chromium
(D) Nickel, zinc
Answer: Option A
270. The strength is the ability of a material to resist
(A) Deformation under stress
(B) Externally applied forces with breakdown or yielding
(C) Fracture due to high impact loads
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
271. By severely deforming a metal in a particular direction it
becomes
(A) Ductile
(B) Malleable
(C) Homogeneous
(D) Anisotropic
Answer: Option D
272. Solder is an alloy consisting of
(A) Tin, antimony, copper
(B) Tin and copper
(C) Tin and lead
(D) Lead and zinc
Answer: Option B
273. Iron ore is, usually, found in the form of
(A) Oxides
(B) Carbonates
(C) Sulphides
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
274. Cyaniding is the process of
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(A) Dipping steel in cyanide bath
(B) Reacting steel surface with cyanide salts
(C) Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment of steel to increase
its surface hardness
(D) Obtaining cyanide salts
Answer: Option C
275. Shock resistance of steel is increased by adding
(A) Nickel
(B) Chromium
(D) Sulphur, lead and phosphorus
Answer: Option C
276. Induction hardening is the process of
(A) Hardening surface of work-piece to obtain hard and wear resistant
surface
(B) Heating and cooling rapidly
(C) Increasing hardness throughout
(D) Inducing hardness by continuous process
Answer: Option A
277. The loss of strength in compression with simultaneous gain in
strength in tension due to overloading is known as
(A) Hysteresis
(B) Creep
(C) Visco elasticity
(D) Boeschinger effect
Answer: Option D
278. Process of Austempering results in
(A) Formation of bainite structure
(B) Carburised structure
(C) Martenistic structure
(D) Lamellar layers of carbide distributed throughout the structure
Answer: Option A
279. Hardness of martensite is about
(A) RC 65
(B) RC 48
(C) RC 57
(D) RC 80
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Answer: Option A
280. Ball bearings are, usually, made from
(D) Chrome steel
Answer: Option D
281. Weld decay is the phenomenon found with
(A) Cast iron
(B) Mild steel
(C) Nonferrous materials
(D) Stainless steel
Answer: Option D
282. Hardness of upper bainite (acicular structure) is about
(A) RC 65
(B) RC 48
(C) RC 57
(D) RC 80
Answer: Option B
283. Carbon in iron is an example of
(A) Substitutional solution
(C) Intermetallic compounds
Answer: Option B
284. Argentite is the principal ore or raw material for
(A) Aluminium
(B) Tin
(C) Zinc
(D) Silver
Answer: Option D
285. Nimonic contains __________ percentage of nickel as that of
Inconel.
(A) Same
(B) Less
(C) More
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
286. An example of amorphous material is
(A) Zinc
(B) Lead
(C) Silver
(D) Glass
Answer: Option D
287. Which is false statement about tempering? Tempering is done to
(A) Improve machinability
(B) Improve ductility
(C) Improve toughness
(D) Release stresses
Answer: Option A
288. Which of the following is the binding material in cemented
carbides?
(A) Cobalt
(B) Nickel
(C) Vanadium
(D) Iron
Answer: Option A
289. Shock resisting steels should have
(A) Low wear resistance
(B) Low hardness
(C) Low tensile strength
(D) Toughness
Answer: Option D
290. Chromium in steel
properties
Answer: Option A
291. Manganese in steel increases its
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(B) Hardness
(C) Ductility
(D) Fluidity
Answer: Option A
292. Tungsten in high speed steel provides
(A) Hot hardness
(B) Toughness
(C) Wear resistance
(D) Sharp cutting edge
Answer: Option A
293. Sulphur in cast iron
(A) Makes the iron soft and easily machinable
(B) Increases hardness and brittleness
(C) Make the iron white and hard
(D) Aids fusibility and fluidity
Answer: Option B
294. Connecting rod is usually made of
(A) Aluminium
(B) Low carbon steel
Answer: Option C
295. The hardness is the property of a material due to which it
(A) Can be drawn into wires
(B) Breaks with little permanent distortion
(C) Can cut another metal
(D) Can be rolled or hammered into thin sheets
Answer: Option C
296. High carbon steel carries carbon percentage
(A) 0.1 to 0.3 %
(B) 0.3 to 0.6 %
(C) 0.6 to 0.8 %
(D) 0.8 to 1.5 %
Answer: Option D
297. The hardness of steel increases if it contains
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(A) Austenite
(B) Martensite
(C) Pearlite
(D) Cementite
Answer: Option B
298. The presence of sulphur in pig iron makes
(A) It easily machinable
(B) It brittle
(C) It hard
(D) The casting unsound
Answer: Option D
299. Melting point of iron is
(A) 1539°C
(B) 1601°C
(C) 1489°C
(D) 1712°C
Answer: Option A
300. Compressive strength of grey cast iron in tonnes/cm is of the
order of
(A) 35
(B) 57
(C) 710
(D) 1015
Answer: Option B
301. Cupola produces following material
(A) Cast iron
(B) Pig iron
(C) Wrought iron
(D) Malleable iron
Answer: Option A
302. Beryllium bronze has
(A) High yield point
(B) High fatigue limit
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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303. The machinability of steel is increased by
(A) Silicon and sulphur
(B) Phosphorous, lead and sulphur
(C) Sulphur, graphite and aluminium
(D) Phosphorous and aluminium
Answer: Option B
304. Cold rolled steel sheets contain carbon of the following order
(A) 0.1 %
(B) 0.2 %
(C) 0.4 %
(D) 0.6 %
Answer: Option A
305. Drop forging dies contain carbon of the order of
(A) 0.1 to 0.2 %
(B) 0.25 to 0.5 %
(C) 0.6 to 0.7 %
(D) 0.7 to 0.9 %
Answer: Option C
306. The alloying element which reduces the formation of iron
sulphide in steel is
(A) Chromium
(B) Nickel
(C) Vanadium
(D) Manganese
Answer: Option D
307. Preheating is essential in welding
(A) Cast iron
(C) All nonferrous materials
Answer: Option A
308. Steel made from phosphate iron is
(A) Brittle
(B) Hard
(C) Ductile
(D) Tough
Answer: Option A
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309. The crystal structure of brass is
(A) F.C.C.
(B) B.C.C.
(C) H.C.P.
(D) Orthorhombic crystalline structure
Answer: Option A
310. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding
(A) Chromium and nickel
(B) Nickel and molybdenum
(C) Aluminium and zinc
(D) Tungsten and sulphur
Answer: Option A
311. Which of the following is used for bearing liner?
(A) Gun metal
(B) Bronze
(C) Bell metal
(D) Babbitt metal
Answer: Option D
312. Aluminium bronze contains aluminium and copper in the ratio of
(A) 50 : 50
(B) 40 : 60
(C) 60 : 40
(D) 10 : 90
Answer: Option D
313. Bronze contains
Answer: Option B
314. Gun metal contains
Answer: Option C
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315. Perminvar alloy having constant permeability is an alloy of
(A) Nickel, copper and iron
(B) Nickel, copper and zinc
(C) Copper, nickel and antimony
(D) Iron, zinc and bismuth
Answer: Option A
316. The alloy used for making electrical resistances and heating
elements is
(A) Nichrome
(B) Invar
(C) Magnin
(D) Elinvar
Answer: Option A
317. Permalloy is a
(A) Kind of stainless steel
(B) None ferrous alloy
(C) Polymer
(D) Nickel and iron alloy having high permeability
Answer: Option D
318. Phosphor bronze contains
(A) 0.5% of phosphorous
(B) 1% phosphorous
(C) 2.5% phosphorous
Answer: Option D
319. Free cutting steels
(A) Are used where ease in machining is the criterion
(B) Contain carbon in free form
(C) Require least cutting force
(D) Do not exist
Answer: Option A
320. Delta metal is an alloy of
(A) Copper, zinc and iron
(B) Iron, nickel and copper
(C) Iron, lead and tin
(D) Iron, aluminium and magnesium
Answer: Option A
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321. Addition of copper to aluminium results in
Answer: Option C
322. Addition of lead and bismuth to aluminium results in
Answer: Option D
323. Cast iron is a
(A) Ductile material
(B) Malleable material
(C) Brittle material
(D) Tough material
Answer: Option C
324. Addition of silicon to aluminium results in
Answer: Option A
325. White metal contains
(B) 88% copper and 10% tin and rest zinc
(D) Silver and chromium
Answer: Option C
326. German silver contains
(A) 1% silver
(B) 2.5% silver
(C) 5% silver
(D) 10% silver
Answer: Option C
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327. Smelting is the process of
(A) Removing the impurities like clay, sand etc. from the iron ore by
washing with water
(B) Expelling moisture, carbon dioxide, sulphur and arsenic from the
iron ore by heating in shallow kilns
(C) Reducing the ore with carbon in the presence of a flux
Answer: Option C
328. Babbitt metal is a
(A) Lead base alloy
(B) Tin base alloy
(C) Copper base alloy
(D) Both (A) and (C) above
Answer: Option D
329. Duralumin contains
(B) 92.5% aluminium, 40% copper, 2% nickel, and 1.5% Mg
Answer: Option A
330. Which of the following material has maximum ductility?
(A) Mild steel
(B) Copper
(C) Nickel
(D) Aluminium
Answer: Option A
331. Acidic solution is one which has pH value
(A) Greater than 7
(B) Less than 7
(C) Equal to 7
(D) pH value has nothing to do with neutral solution
Answer: Option B
332. Basic solution is one which has pH value
(A) Greater than 7
(B) Equal to 7
(C) Less than 7
(D) pH value has nothing to do with basic solution
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Answer: Option A
333. Pearlite is a combination of
(A) Ferrite and cementite
(B) Cementite and gamma iron
(C) Ferrite and austenite
(D) Ferrite and iron graphite
Answer: Option A
334. Austenite is a combination of
(A) Ferrite and cementite
(B) Cementite and gamma iron
(C) Ferrite and austenite
(D) Ferrite and iron graphite
Answer: Option B
335. Specify the sequence correctly
(A) Grain growth, recrystallisation, stress relief
(B) Stress relief, grain growth, recrystallisation
(C) Stress relief, recrystallisation, grain growth
(D) Grain growth, stress relief, recrystallisation
Answer: Option C
336. The transistor is made of
(A) Silver
(B) Gold
(C) Copper
(D) Germanium
Answer: Option D
337. Thermoplastic materials are those materials which
(A) Are formed into shape under heat and pressure and results in a
permanently hard product
(B) Do not become hard with the application of heat and pressure and
no chemical change occurs
(C) Are flexible and can withstand considerable wear under suitable
conditions
(D) Are used as a friction lining for clutches and brakes
Answer: Option B
338. The percentage of carbon in cast iron varies from
(A) 0.1 to 0.5
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(B) 0.5 to 1
(C) 1 to 1.7
(D) 1.7 to 4.5
Answer: Option D
339. The hardness and tensile strength in austenitic stainless steel can
be increased by
(A) Hardening and cold working
(B) Normalising
(C) Martempering
(D) Full annealing
Answer: Option A
340. An alloy steel which is work hardenable and which is used to
make the blades of bulldozers, bucket wheel excavators and other
earth moving equipment contain iron, carbon and
(A) Chromium
(B) Silicon
(C) Manganese
(D) Magnesium
Answer: Option C
341. Beryllium bronze contains
(A) 60% copper and 40% beryllium
(B) 80% copper and 20% beryllium
(C) 97.75% copper and 2.25% beryllium
(D) 99% copper and 1% beryllium
Answer: Option C
342. Cast iron is manufactured in
(A) Blast furnace
(B) Cupola
(C) Open hearth furnace
(D) Bessemer converter
Answer: Option B
343. The lower critical point for all steels is
(A) 600°C
(B) 700°C
(C) 723°C
(D) 913°C
Answer: Option C
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344. The hardness of steel increases if it contains
(A) Pearlite
(B) Ferrite
(C) Cementite
(D) Martensite
Answer: Option C
345. The cupola is used to manufacture
(A) Pig iron
(B) Cast iron
(C) Wrought iron
(D) Steel
Answer: Option B
346. The type of space lattice found in gamma-iron is
(A) Face centered cubic space lattice
(B) Body centered cubic space lattice
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
347. Cartridge brass can be
(A) Cold rolled into sheets
(B) Drawn into wires
(C) Formed into tube
Answer: Option D
348. Which of the following steel making process is being adopted at
Rourkela (in India) Steel Plant?
(A) Bessemer process
(B) Open hearth process
(C) Electric process
(D) LD process
Answer: Option D
349. Bronze is an alloy of
(A) Copper and zinc
(B) Copper and tin
(C) Copper, tin and zinc
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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350. Steel with ________ carbon is known as hypo-eutectoid steel.
(A) 0.8 %
(B) Below 0.8 %
(C) Above 0.8 %
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
351. Age hardening is related to
(A) Duralumin
(B) Brass
(C) Copper
(D) Silver
Answer: Option A
352. The maximum internal diameter of a blast furnace is about
(A) 3 m
(B) 6 m
(C) 9 m
(D) 12 m
Answer: Option C
353. The machinability of aluminium increases when __________ is
added to aluminium.
(A) Copper
(B) Magnesium
(C) Silicon
(D) Lead and bismuth
Answer: Option D
354. Eutectoid reaction occurs at
(A) 600°C
(B) 723°C
(C) 1147°C
(D) 1493°C
Answer: Option B
355. Nickel when added to copper improves
(A) Machinability
(B) Hardness
(C) Hardness and strength
(D) Strength and ductility
Answer: Option B
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Engineering Materials Test:
01. In normalising process, the hypereutectoid steel is heated from 30°
C to 50° C above the upper critical temperature and then cooled in
still air.
(A) True
(B) False
02. An eutectoid steel consists of
(A) Wholly pearlite
(B) Wholly austenite
03. Cast iron is used in those parts which are subjected to shocks.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
04. The upper critical point varies according to the carbon content in
steel.
(A) True
(B) False
05. The acidic Bessemer process is suitable for producing steel from
pig iron containing large quantities of phosphorus.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
06. Phosphorus is added in low carbon steels to raise its yield point.
(A) True
(B) False
07. Pearlite is a combination of 87% ferrite and 13% cementite.
(A) Yes
(B) No
08. The aluminium alloy, mainly used, for anodized utensil
manufacture, is
(A) Duralumin
(B) Hindalium
09. The alloy, mainly used for corrosion resistance in stainless steels is
(A) Silicon
(B) Chromium
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10. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased by adding nickel and
chromium.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
11. An aluminium alloy with 11% silicon is used for making engine
pistons by die casting technique.
(A) Yes
(B) No
12. The toughness of a material __________ when it is heated.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
13. Grey cast iron is ________ than white cast iron.
(A) Softer
(B) Harder
14. The stiffness is the ability of a material to resist deformation under
stress.
(A) True
(B) False
15. In a unit cell of close packed hexagonal space lattice, there are
twenty four atoms.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
16. The steel scrap added in the charge of cupola controls the grade of
cast iron produced.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
17. Iron-carbon alloys containing carbon ________ 4.3% are known as
hypereutectic cast irons.
(A) Less than
(B) More than
18. Brass (alloy of copper and zinc) is an example of
(A) Substitutional solid solution
19. The compressive strength of cast iron is ________ that of its tensile
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strength.
(A) Less than
(B) More than
20. Dislocations in materials refer to the following type of defect
(A) Point defect
(B) Line defect
Answers: Engineering Materials Test

17. Answer: B 18. Answer: A 19. Answer: B 20. Answer: B
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Fluid Mechanics:
01. When a body is placed over a liquid, it will sink down if

(A) Gravitational force is equal to the up-thrust of the liquid
(B) Gravitational force is less than the up-thrust of the liquid
(C) Gravitational force is more than the up-thrust of the liquid
Answer: Option C
02. The property by virtue of which a liquid opposes relative motion
between its different layers is called
(A) Surface tension
(B) Coefficient of viscosity
(C) Viscosity
(D) Osmosis
Answer: Option C
03. A weir is said to be narrow-crested weir, if the width of the crest of
the weir is __________ half the height of water above the weir crest.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
04. Euler's dimensionless number relates the following
(A) Inertial force and gravity
(B) Viscous force and inertial force
(C) Viscous force and buoyancy force
(D) Pressure force and inertial force
Answer: Option D
05. When a body floating in a liquid, is displaced slightly, it oscillates
about
(A) C.G. of body
(B) Center of pressure
(C) Center of buoyancy
(D) Metacentre
Answer: Option D
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06. The pressure of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion of
a Venturimeter
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) Depends upon mass of liquid
Answer: Option C
07. When the Mach number is between __________ the flow is called
super-sonic flow.
(A) 1 and 2.5
(B) 2.5 and 4
(C) 4 and 6
(D) 1 and 6
Answer: Option D
08. In an immersed body, centre of pressure is
(A) At the centre of gravity
(B) Above the centre of gravity
(C) Below be centre of gravity
(D) Could be above or below e.g. depending on density of body and
liquid
Answer: Option C
09. A vertically immersed surface is shown in the below figure. The
distance of its centre of pressure from the water surface is
(A) (bd²/12) + x̅
(B) (d²/12 x̅) + x̅
(C) b²/12 + x̅
(D) d²/12 + x̅
Answer: Option B
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10. The torque required to overcome viscous resistance of a collar
bearing is (where R1 andR2 = External and internal radius of collar)
(A) (μπ²N/60t) × (R₁ - R₂)
(B) (μπ²N/60t) × (R₁² - R₂²)
(C) (μπ²N/60t) × (R₁³ - R₂³)
(D) (μπ²N/60t) × (R₁⁴ - R₂⁴)
Answer: Option D
11. Steady flow occurs when
(A) The direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are
identical
(B) The velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same
at successive periods of time
(C) The magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from
point to point in the fluid
(D) The fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the
streamline patterns are identical in each plane
Answer: Option B
12. A flow is called super-sonic if the
(A) Velocity of flow is very high
(B) Discharge is difficult to measure
(C) Mach number is between 1 and 6
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
13. In a forced vortex, the velocity of flow everywhere within the fluid
is
(A) Maximum
(B) Minimum
(C) Zero
(D) Nonzero finite
Answer: Option D
14. The depth of centre of pressure (h) for a vertically immersed
surface from the liquid surface is given by (where IG = Moment of
inertia of the immersed surface about horizontal axis through its
centre of gravity, A = Area of immersed surface, and x = Depth of
centre of gravity of the immersed surface from the liquid surface)
(A) (IG/Ax̅) - x̅
(B) (IG/x̅) - Ax̅
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(C) (Ax̅/IG) + x̅
(D) (IG/Ax̅) + x̅
Answer: Option D
15. Mach number is significant in
(A) Supersonics, as with projectiles and jet propulsion
(B) Full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft
wings, nozzles etc.
(C) Simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of
discontinuity, gravity force, and wave making effects, as with ship's hulls
Answer: Option A
16. A fluid which obeys the Newton's law of viscosity is termed as
(A) Real fluid
(B) Ideal fluid
(C) Newtonian fluid
(D) Non-Newtonian fluid
Answer: Option C
17. In order that flow takes place between two points in a pipeline, the
differential pressure between these points must be more than
(A) Frictional force
(B) Viscosity
(C) Surface friction
Answer: Option D
18. The error in discharge (dQ/Q) to the error in measurement of head
(dH/H) over a triangular notch is given by
(A) dQ/Q = 3/2 × (dH/H)
(B) dQ/Q = 2 × (dH/H)
(C) dQ/Q = 5/2 × (dH/H)
(D) dQ/Q = 3 × (dH/H)
Answer: Option C
19. For similarity, in addition to models being geometrically similar to
prototype, the following in both cases should also be equal
(A) Ratio of inertial force to force due to viscosity
(B) Ratio of inertial force to force due to gravitation
(C) Ratio of inertial force to force due to surface tension
(D) All the four ratios of inertial force to force due to viscosity,
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gravitation, surface tension, and elasticity
Answer: Option D
20. The value of coefficient of velocity for a sharp edged orifice
__________ with the head of water.
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Remain same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
21. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion
between fluid and glass, then the free level of fluid in a dipped glass
tube will be
(A) Higher than the surface of liquid
(B) The same as the surface of liquid
(C) Lower than the surface of liquid
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: Option C
22. The ratio of the inertia force to the __________ is called Euler's
number.
(A) Pressure force
(B) Elastic force
(C) Surface tension force
(D) Viscous force
Answer: Option A
23. A one dimensional flow is one which
(A) Is uniform flow
(B) Is steady uniform flow
(C) Takes place in straight lines
(D) Involves zero transverse component of flow
Answer: Option D
24. According to Manning's formula, the discharge through an open
channel is (where M = Manning's constant)
(A) A × M × m1/2 × i2/3
(B) A × M × m2/3 × i1/2
(C) A1/2 × M2/3 × m × i
(D) A2/3 × M1/3 × m × i
Answer: Option B
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25. Dimensions of surface tension are
(A) ML°T⁻²
(B) ML°T
(C) ML r²
(D) ML²T²
Answer: Option A
26. An opening in the side of a tank or vessel such that the liquid
surface with the tank is below the top edge of the opening, is called
(A) Weir
(B) Notch
(C) Orifice
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
27. The property of fluid by virtue of which it offers resistance to
shear is called
(A) Surface tension
(B) Adhesion
(C) Cohesion
(D) Viscosity
Answer: Option D
28. Coefficient of velocity is defined as the ratio of
(A) Actual velocity of jet at vena contracta to the theoretical velocity
(B) Area of jet at vena contracta to the area of orifice
(C) Actual discharge through an orifice to the theoretical discharge
Answer: Option A
29. A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m3 at 50
kg/cm² and a volume of 0.039 m3 at 150 kg/cm². The bulk modulus of
elasticity of liquid is
(A) 400 kg/cm²
(B) 4000 kg/cm²
(C) 40 × 10⁵ kg/cm²
(D) 40 × 10⁶ kg/cm²
Answer: Option B
30. The mass of 2.5 m3 of a certain liquid is 2 tonnes. Its mass density
is
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(A) 200 kg/m3
(B) 400 kg/m3
(C) 600 kg/m3
(D) 800 kg/m3
Answer: Option D
31. A fluid in equilibrium can't sustain
(A) Tensile stress
(C) Shear stress
(D) Bending stress
Answer: Option C
32. When a plate is immersed in a liquid parallel to the flow, it will be
subjected to a pressure __________ that if the same plate is immersed
perpendicular to the flow.
(A) Less than
(B) More than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
33. An object having 10 kg mass weighs 9.81 kg on a spring balance.
The value of 'g' at this place is
(A) 10 m/sec²
(B) 9.81 m/sec²
(C) 9.75 m/sec²
(D) 9 m/sec
Answer: Option A
34. A flow is called hyper-sonic, if the Mach number is
(A) Less than unity
(B) Unity
(C) Between 1 and 6
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
35. Liquids
(A) Cannot be compressed
(B) Occupy definite volume
(C) Are not affected by change in pressure and temperature
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Answer: Option D
36. When a cylindrical vessel containing liquid is resolved, the surface
of the liquid takes the shape of
(A) A triangle
(B) A paraboloid
(C) An ellipse
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
37. Fluid is a substance that
(A) Cannot be subjected to shear forces
(B) Always expands until it fills any container
(C) Has the same shear stress at a point regardless of its motion
(D) Cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force
Answer: Option D
38. The force exerted by a moving fluid on an immersed body is
directly proportional to the rate of change of momentum due to the
presence of the body. This statement is called
(A) Newton's law of motion
(B) Newton's law of cooling
(C) Newton's law of viscosity
(D) Newton's law of resistance
Answer: Option D
39. The property of a fluid which enables it to resist tensile stress is
known as
(A) Compressibility
(B) Surface tension
(C) Cohesion
(D) Adhesion
Answer: Option C
40. The loss of pressure head in case of laminar flow is proportional to
(A) Velocity
(B) (Velocity)2
(C) (Velocity)3
(D) (Velocity)4
Answer: Option A
41. The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature compared
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to that of water is
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
(D) More or less depending on size of glass tube
Answer: Option A
42. An air vessel is provided at the summit in a siphon to
(A) Avoid interruption in the flow
(B) Increase discharge
(C) Increase velocity
(D) Maintain pressure difference
Answer: Option A
43. The unit of viscosity is
(A) Metres² per sec
(B) kg-sec/metre
(C) Newton-sec per metre²
(D) Newton-sec per meter
Answer: Option B
44. Select the correct statement
(A) Weber's number is the ratio of inertia force to elastic force.
(B) Weber's number is the ratio of gravity force to surface tension
force.
(C) Weber's number is the ratio of viscous force to pressure force.
(D) Weber's number is the ratio of inertia force to surface tension
force.
Answer: Option D
45. Choose the wrong statement. Alcohol is used in manometer,
because
(A) Its vapour pressure is low
(B) It provides suitable meniscus for the inclined tube
(C) Its density is less
(D) It provides longer length for a given pressure difference
Answer: Option A
46. When a tank containing liquid moves with an acceleration in the
horizontal direction, then the free surface of the liquid
(A) Remains horizontal
(B) Becomes curved
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(C) Falls on the front end
(D) Falls on the back end
Answer: Option C
47. A pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal to
(A) 25 kN/ m²
(B) 245 kN/ m²
(C) 2500 kN/m²
(D) 2.5 kN/ m²
Answer: Option B
48. The hammer blow in pipes occurs when
(A) There is excessive leakage in the pipe
(B) The pipe bursts under high pressure of fluid
(C) The flow of fluid through the pipe is suddenly brought to rest by
closing of the valve
(D) The flow of fluid through the pipe is gradually brought to rest by
closing of the valve
Answer: Option C
49. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is
called
(A) Up-thrust
(B) Buoyancy
(C) Center of pressure
Answer: Option B
50. When the water level on the downstream side of a weir is above the
top surface of a weir, the weir is known as
(A) Narrow-crested weir
(B) Broad-crested weir
(C) Ogee weir
(D) Submerged weir
Answer: Option D
51. If the surface of liquid is convex, men
(A) Cohesion pressure is negligible
(B) Cohesion pressure is decreased
(C) Cohesion pressure is increased
(D) There is no cohesion pressure
Answer: Option C
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52. The increase in pressure at the outer edge of a drum of radius (r)
completely filled up with liquid of density (ρ) and rotating at (ω) rad/s
is
(A) ρ ω2 r2
(B) 2ρ ω2 r2
(C) ρ ω2 r2/2
(D) ρ ω2 r2/4
Answer: Option C
53. The atmospheric pressure with rise in altitude decreases
(A) Linearly
(B) First slowly and then steeply
(C) First steeply and then gradually
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: Option B
54. The torque required to overcome viscous resistance of a footstep
bearing is (where μ = Viscosity of the oil, N = Speed of the shaft, R =
Radius of the shaft, and t = Thickness of the oil film)
(A) μπ²NR/60t
(B) μπ²NR²/60t
(C) μπ²NR³/60t
(D) μπ²NR⁴/60t
Answer: Option D
55. Dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with rise in temperature
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: Option A
56. According to Bernoulli's equation
(A) Z + p/w + v²/2g = constant
(B) Z + p/w - v²/2g = constant
(C) Z - p/w + v²/2g = constant
(D) Z - p/w - v²/2g = constant
Answer: Option A
57. Center of buoyancy is the
(A) Centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
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(B) Center of pressure of displaced volume
(C) Does not exist
Answer: Option A
58. The loss of head due to viscosity for laminar flow in pipes is
(where d = Diameter of pipe, l = Length of pipe, v = Velocity of the
liquid in the pipe, μ = Viscosity of the liquid, and w = Specific weight
of the flowing liquid)
(A) 4μvl/wd²
(B) 8μvl/wd²
(C) 16μvl/wd²
(D) 32μvl/wd²
Answer: Option D
59. For a body floating in a liquid the normal pressure exerted by the
liquid acts at
(A) Bottom surface of the body
(B) C.G. of the body
(C) Metacentre
(D) All points on the surface of the body
Answer: Option D
60. Newton's law of viscosity is a relationship between
(A) Pressure, velocity and temperature
(B) Shear stress and rate of shear strain
(C) Shear stress and velocity
(D) Rate of shear strain and temperature
Answer: Option B
61. Differential manometer is used to measure
(A) Pressure in pipes, channels etc.
(B) Atmospheric pressure
(C) Very low pressure
(D) Difference of pressure between two points
Answer: Option D
62. When a body is immersed wholly or partially in a liquid, it is lifted
up by a force equal to the weight of liquid displaced by the body. This
statement is called
(A) Pascal's law
(B) Archimedes’s principle
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(C) Principle of floatation
(D) Bernoulli's theorem
Answer: Option B
63. Non uniform flow occurs when
identical
(C) Velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the
fluid flow.
Answer: Option C
64. When a tube of smaller diameter is dipped in water, the water
rises in the tube with an upward __________ surface.
(A) Concave
(B) Convex
(C) Plane
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
65. A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific
gravity 13.6. What fraction of its volume is under mercury?
(A) 0.5
(B) 0.4
(C) 0.515
(D) 0.5
Answer: Option C
66. A flow through an expanding tube at constant rate is called
(A) Steady uniform flow
(B) Steady non-uniform flow
(C) Unsteady uniform flow
(D) Unsteady non-uniform flow
Answer: Option B
67. Reynolds number is significant in
(A) Supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
wings, nozzles etc.
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discontinuity, gravity forces, and wave making effect, as with ship's hulls
Answer: Option B
68. The loss of head due to friction in a pipe of uniform diameter in
which a viscous flow is taking place, is (where RN = Reynold number)
(A) 1/RN
(B) 4/RN
(C) 16/RN
(D) 64/RN
Answer: Option C
69. Practical fluids
(A) Are viscous
(B) Possess surface tension
(C) Are compressible
(D) Possess all the above properties
Answer: Option D
70. A compound pipe of diameter d1, d2 and d3 having
lengths l1, l2 and l3 is to be replaced by an equivalent pipe of uniform
diameter d and of the same length (l) as that of the compound pipe.
The size of the equivalent pipe is given by
(A) l/d² = (l₁/d₁²) + (l₂/d₂²) + (l₃/d₃²)
(B) l/d³ = (l₁/d₁³) + (l₂/d₂³) + (l₃/d₃³)
(C) l/d⁴ = (l₁/d₁⁴) + (l₂/d₂⁴) + (l₃/d₃⁴)
(D) l/d⁵ = (l₁/d₁⁵) + (l₂/d₂⁵) + (l₃/d₃⁵)
Answer: Option D
71. The tendency of a liquid surface to contract is due to the following
property
(A) Cohesion
(B) Adhesion
(C) Viscosity
(D) Surface tension
Answer: Option D
72. The Newton's law of resistance is based on the assumption that the
(A) Planes of the body are completely smooth
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(B) Space around the body is completely filled with the fluid
(C) Fluid particles do not exert any influence on one another
Answer: Option D
73. For manometer, a better liquid combination is one having
(A) Higher surface tension
(B) Lower surface tension
(C) Surface tension is no criterion
(D) High density and viscosity
Answer: Option A
74. The flow in a pipe is neither laminar nor turbulent when Reynold
number is
(A) Less than 2000
(B) Between 2000 and 2800
(C) More than 2800
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
75. The point in the immersed body through which the resultant
pressure of the liquid may be taken to act is known as
(A) Meta center
(D) Center of gravity
Answer: Option B
76. Stoke is the unit of
(A) Kinematic viscosity in C. G. S. units
(B) Kinematic viscosity in M. K. S. units
(C) Dynamic viscosity in M. K. S. units
(D) Dynamic viscosity in S. I. units
Answer: Option A
77. The vapour pressure over the concave surface is
(A) Less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(B) Equal to the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(C) Greater than the vapour pressure over the plane surface
(D) Zero
Answer: Option A
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78. The velocity at which the flow changes from laminar flow to
turbulent flow is called
(A) Critical velocity
(B) Velocity of approach
(C) Sub-sonic velocity
(D) Super-sonic velocity
Answer: Option A
79. Mercury is often used in barometer because
(A) It is the best liquid
(B) The height of barometer will be less
(C) Its vapour pressure is so low that it may be neglected
Answer: Option D
80. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid,
on one of its sides. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) The pressure on the wall at the liquid level is minimum
(B) The pressure on the bottom of the wall is maximum
(C) The pressure on the wall at the liquid level is zero, and on the
bottom of the wall is maximum
(D) The pressure on the bottom of the wall is zer
Answer: Option C
81. Center of pressure compared to e.g. is
(A) Above it
(B) Below it
(C) At same point
(D) Above or below depending on area of body
Answer: Option B
82. The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an
immersed body is called
(A) Centre of gravity
(B) Centre of pressure
(C) Metacentre
(D) Centre of buoyancy
Answer: Option D
83. A tank of uniform cross-sectional area (A) containing liquid upto
height (H1) has an orifice of cross-sectional area (a) at its bottom. The
time required to bring the liquid level from H1 to H2 will be
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(A) 2A × √H₁/Cd × a × √(2g)
(B) 2A × √H₂/Cd × a × √(2g)
(C) 2A × (√H₁ - √H₂)/Cd × a × √(2g)
(D) 2A × (√H3/2 - √H3/2)/Cd × a × √(2g)
Answer: Option C
84. Gradually varied flow is
(A) Steady uniform
(B) Non-steady non-uniform
(C) Non-steady uniform
(D) Steady non-uniform
Answer: Option D
85. The viscosity of water at 20°C is
(A) One stoke
(B) One centistoke
(C) One poise
(D) One centipoise
Answer: Option D
86. The velocity of jet of water travelling out of opening in a tank filled
with water is proportional to
(A) Head of water (h)
(B) h²
(C) V/T
(D) h/2
Answer: Option C
87. According to Darcy's formula, the loss of head due to friction in
the pipe is (where f = Darcy's coefficient, l = Length of pipe, v =
Velocity of liquid in pipe, and d = Diameter of pipe)
(A) flv²/2gd
(B) flv²/gd
(C) 3flv²/2gd
(D) 4flv²/2gd
Answer: Option D
88. According to Bernoulli's equation for steady ideal fluid flow
(A) Principle of conservation of mass holds
(B) Velocity and pressure are inversely proportional
(C) Total energy is constant throughout
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(D) The energy is constant along a streamline but may vary across
streamlines
Answer: Option D
89. The discharge through a convergent mouthpiece is __________ the
discharge through an internal mouthpiece of the same diameter and
head of water.
(A) Equal to
(B) One-half
(C) Three fourth
(D) Double
Answer: Option D
90. Bernoulli equation deals with the law of conservation of
(A) Mass
(B) Momentum
(C) Energy
(D) Work
Answer: Option C
91. The depth of centre of pressure of an immersed surface, inclined at
an angle θ with the liquid surface lies at a distance equal to
__________ the centre of gravity.
(A) IG sin²θ/Ax̅ bellow
(B) IG sin²θ/Ax̅ above
(C) IG sinθ/Ax̅ bellow
(D) IG sinθ/Ax̅ above
Answer: Option A
92. Principle of similitude forms the basis of
(A) Comparing two identical equipments
(B) Designing models so that the result can be converted to prototypes
(C) Comparing similarity between design and actual equipment
(D) Hydraulic designs
Answer: Option B
93. The rise of liquid along the walls of a revolving cylinder about the
initial level is __________ the depression of the liquid at the axis of
rotation.
(A) Same as
(B) Less than
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(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
94. Hot wire anemometer is used to measure
(A) Pressure in gases
(B) Liquid discharge
(C) Pressure in liquids
(D) Gas velocities
Answer: Option D
95. Venturimeter is used to
(A) Measure the velocity of a flowing liquid
(B) Measure the pressure of a flowing liquid
(C) Measure the discharge of liquid flowing in a pipe
(D) Measure the pressure difference of liquid flowing between two
points in a pipe line
Answer: Option C
96. The two important forces for a floating body are
(A) Buoyancy, gravity
(B) Buoyancy, pressure
(C) Buoyancy, inertial
(D) Inertial, gravity
Answer: Option A
97. The kinematic viscosity of an oil (in stokes) whose specific gravity
is 0.95 and viscosity 0.011 poise, is
(A) 0.0116 stoke
(B) 0.116 stoke
(C) 0.0611 stoke
(D) 0.611 stoke
Answer: Option A
98. According to the principle of buoyancy a body totally or partially
immersed in a fluid will be lifted up by a force equal to
(A) The weight of the body
(B) More than the weight of the body
(C) Less than the weight of the body
(D) Weight of the fluid displaced by the body
Answer: Option D
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99. The pressure measured with the help of a pressure gauge is called
(A) Atmospheric pressure
(B) Gauge pressure
(C) Absolute pressure
(D) Mean pressure
Answer: Option B
100. The total pressure force on a plane area is equal to the area
multiplied by the intensity of pressure at the Centroid, if
(A) The area is horizontal
(B) The area is vertical
(C) The area is inclined
Answer: Option D
101. The power absorbed (in watts) in overcoming the viscous
resistance of a footstep bearing is
(A) μ π³ N² R² /1800 t
(B) μ π³ N² R⁴ /1800 t
(C) μ π³ N² R² /3600 t
(D) μ π³ N² R⁴ /3600 t
Answer: Option B
102. In order to increase sensitivity of U-tube manometer, one leg is
usually inclined by angle θ. Sensitivity of inclined tube to sensitivity of
U-tube is equal to
(A) Sinθ
(B) 1/Sinθ
(C) Cosθ
(D) 1/Cosθ
Answer: Option B
103. The most economical section of a rectangular channel is one
which has hydraulic mean depth or hydraulic radius equal to
(A) Half the depth
(B) Half the breadth
(C) Twice the depth
(D) Twice the breadth
Answer: Option A
104. Capillary action is due to the
(A) Surface tension
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(B) Cohesion of the liquid
(C) Adhesion of the liquid molecules and the molecules on the surface
of a solid
Answer: Option D
105. The intensity of pressure on an immersed surface __________
with the increase in depth.
(A) Does not change
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
106. Free surface of a liquid behaves like a sheet and tends to contract
to smallest possible area due to the
(A) Force of adhesion
(B) Force of cohesion
(C) Force of friction
(D) Force of diffusion
Answer: Option B
(A) In a compressible flow, the volume of the flowing liquid changes
during the flow
(B) A flow, in which the volume of the flowing liquid does not change,
is called incompressible flow
(C) When the particles rotate about their own axes while flowing, the
flow is said to be rotational flow
Answer: Option D
108. A bucket of water is hanging from a spring balance. An iron piece
is suspended into water without touching sides of bucket from another
support. The spring balance reading will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain same
(D) Increase/decrease depending on depth of immersion
Answer: Option C
109. A flow through a long pipe at constant rate is called
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Answer: Option A
110. Choose the wrong statement
(A) Viscosity of a fluid is that property which determines the amount
of its resistance to a shearing force
(B) Viscosity is due primarily to interaction between fluid molecules
(C) Viscosity of liquids decreases with increase in temperature
(D) Viscosity of liquids is appreciably affected by change in pressure
Answer: Option D
111. The unit of dynamic viscosity in S.I. units is
(A) N-m/s2
(B) N-s/m2
(C) Poise
(D) Stoke
Answer: Option B
112. A perfect gas
(A) Has constant viscosity
(B) Has zero viscosity
(C) Is in compressible
Answer: Option D
113. In a free nappe,
(A) The pressure below the nappe is atmospheric
(B) The pressure below the nappe is negative
(C) The pressure above the nappe is atmospheric
(D) The pressure above the nappe is negative
Answer: Option A
114. In a static fluid
(A) Resistance to shear stress is small
(B) Fluid pressure is zero
(C) Linear deformation is small
(D) Only normal stresses can exist
Answer: Option D
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115. One litre of water occupies a volume of
(A) 100 cm3
(B) 250 cm3
(C) 500 cm3
(D) 1000 cm3
Answer: Option A
116. A balloon lifting in air follows the following principle
(A) Law of gravitation
(B) Archimedes principle
(C) Principle of buoyancy
Answer: Option D
117. The maximum discharge over a broad crested weir is
(A) 0.384 Cd × L × H1/2
(B) 0.384 Cd × L × H3/2
(C) 1.71 Cd × L × H1/2
(D) 1.71 Cd × L × H3/2
Answer: Option D
118. The ratio of absolute viscosity to mass density is known as
(A) Specific viscosity
(B) Viscosity index
(C) Kinematic viscosity
(D) Coefficient of viscosity
Answer: Option C
119. Reynold's number is the ratio of inertia force to
(A) Pressure force
(B) Elastic force
(C) Gravity force
(D) Viscous force
Answer: Option D
120. Metacentric height is given as the distance between
(A) The center of gravity of the body and the metacentre
(B) The center of gravity of the body and the center of buoyancy
(C) The center of gravity of the body and the center of pressure
(D) Center of buoyancy and metacentre
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Answer: Option A
121. In a footstep bearing, if the speed of the shaft is doubled, then the
torque required to overcome the viscous resistance will be
(A) Double
(B) Four times
(C) Eight times
(D) Sixteen times
Answer: Option A
122. The continuity equation is connected with
(A) Open channel/pipe flow
(B) Compressibility of fluids
(C) Conservation of mass
(D) Steady/unsteady flow
Answer: Option C
123. The most economical section of a trapezoidal channel is one
which has hydraulic mean depth equal to
(A) 1/2 × depth
(B) 1/2 × breadth
(C) 1/2 × sloping side
(D) 1/4 × (depth + breadth)
Answer: Option A
124. The speed of sound in a ideal gas varies directly as it’s
(A) Absolute temperature
(B) Temperature
(C) Density
Answer: Option A
125. The absolute pressure is equal to
(A) Gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
(B) Gauge pressure - atmospheric pressure
(C) Atmospheric pressure - gauge pressure
(D) Gauge pressure - vacuum pressure
Answer: Option A
126. Unit of surface tension is
(A) Energy/unit area
(B) Velocity/unit area
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(C) Both of the above
(D) It has no units
Answer: Option A
127. A Piezometer tube is used only for measuring
(A) Low pressure
(B) High pressure
(C) Moderate pressure
(D) Vacuum pressure
Answer: Option C
128. The capillary rise at 20°C in a clean glass tube of 1 mm bore
containing water is approximately
(A) 5 mm
(B) 10 mm
(C) 20 mm
(D) 30 mm
Answer: Option D
129. The Cipoletti weir is a __________ weir.
(A) Rectangular
(B) Triangular
(C) Trapezoidal
(D) Circular
Answer: Option C
130. Pressure of the order of 10" torr can be measured by
(A) Bourdon tube
(B) Pirani Gauge
(C) Micro-manometer
(D) Lonisation gauge
Answer: Option D
131. The volume of a fluid __________ as the pressure increases.
(A) Remains same
(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
132. Buoyant force is
(A) The resultant force acting on a floating body
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(B) The resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
(C) Equal to the volume of liquid displaced
(D) The force necessary to maintain equilibrium of a submerged body
Answer: Option B
133. A flow through a long pipe at decreasing rate is called
__________ uniform flow.
(A) Steady
(B) Unsteady
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
(A) The center of buoyancy is located at the center of gravity of the
displaced liquid
(B) For stability of a submerged body, the center of gravity of body
must lie directly below the center of buoyancy
(C) If C.G. and center of buoyancy coincide, the submerged body must
lie at neutral equilibrium for all positions
(D) All floating bodies are stable
Answer: Option D
135. The intensity of pressure at any point, in a liquid, is __________
to the depth of liquid from the surface.
(A) Equal
(B) Directly proportional
(C) Inversely proportional
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
136. True one-dimensional flow occurs when
identical
Answer: Option A
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137. The discharge in an open channel corresponding to critical depth
is
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
138. A piece of wood having weight 5 kg floats in water with 60% of its
volume under the liquid. The specific gravity of wood is
(A) 0.83
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.4
(D) 0.3
Answer: Option B
139. A pitot tube is used to measure the
(A) Velocity of flow at the required point in a pipe
(B) Pressure difference between two points in a pipe
(C) Total pressure of liquid flowing in a pipe
(D) Discharge through a pipe
Answer: Option A
140. The total energy of each particle at various places in the case of
perfect incompressible fluid flowing in continuous stream
(A) Keeps on increasing
(B) Keeps on decreasing
(C) Remain constant
(D) May increase/decrease
Answer: Option C
141. The critical depth meter is used to measure
(A) Velocity of flow in an open channel
(B) Depth of flow in an open channel
(C) Hydraulic jump
(D) Depth of channel
Answer: Option C
142. Two pipe systems can be said to be equivalent, when the following
quantities are same
(A) Friction loss and flow
(B) Length and diameter
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(C) Flow and length
(D) Friction factor and diameter
Answer: Option A
143. In a footstep bearing, if the radius of the shaft is doubled, then
the torque required to overcome the viscous resistance will be
(A) Double
(B) Four times
(C) Eight times
(D) Sixteen times
Answer: Option D
144. Surface tension has the units of
(A) Newton-sec/m
(B) Newton-m/sec
(C) Newton/m
(D) Newton
Answer: Option C
145. The value of bulk modulus of a fluid is required to determine
(A) Reynold's number
(B) Froude's number
(C) Mach number
(D) Euler's number
Answer: Option C
146. Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance to change of
(A) Pressure
(B) Flow
(C) Shape
(D) Volume
Answer: Option C
147. The pressure less than atmospheric pressure is known as
(A) Suction pressure
(B) Vacuum pressure
(C) Negative gauge pressure
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
148. The normal stress in a fluid will be constant in all directions at a
point only if
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(A) It is incompressible
(B) It has uniform viscosity
(C) It has zero viscosity
(D) It is at rest
Answer: Option D
149. The power transmitted through a pipe is (where w = Specific
weight in N/m3, and Q = Discharge in m3/s)
(A) w × Q × H
(B) w × Q × hf
(C) w × Q (H - hf)
(D) w × Q (H + hf)
Answer: Option C
150. If ‘w’ is the specific weight of liquid and ‘k’ the depth of any point
from the surface, then pressure intensity at that point will be
(A) h
(B) wh
(C) w/h
(D) h/w
Answer: Option B
151. A compound pipe is required to be replaced by a new pipe. The
two pipes are said to be equivalent, if
(A) Length of both the pipes is same
(B) Diameter of both the pipes is same
(C) Loss of head and discharge of both the pipes is same
(D) Loss of head and velocity of flow in both the pipes is same
Answer: Option C
152. The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an
immersed body is called
(A) Metacentre
(D) Center of gravity
Answer: Option C
153. A flow is called sub-sonic, if the Mach number is
(A) Less than unity
(B) Unity
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(C) Between 1 and 6
(D) More than 6
Answer: Option A
154. Barometer is used to measure
Answer: Option B
155. The hydraulic gradient line lies over the centre line of the pipe by
an amount equal to the
(A) Pressure head
(B) Velocity head
(C) Pressure head + velocity head
(D) Pressure head - velocity head
Answer: Option A
156. The center of pressure of a surface subjected to fluid pressure is
the point
(A) On the surface at which resultant pressure acts
(B) On the surface at which gravitational force acts
(C) At which all hydraulic forces meet
(D) Similar to metacentre
Answer: Option A
157. The variation in the volume of a liquid with the variation of
pressure is called its
(A) Surface tension
(B) Compressibility
(C) Capillarity
(D) Viscosity
Answer: Option B
158. A model of torpedo is tested in a towing tank at a velocity of 25
m/sec. The prototype is expected to attain a velocity of 5 m/sec. What
model scale has been used?
(A) 1 : 5
(B) 1 : 2.5
(C) 1 : 25
(D) 1 : √5
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Answer: Option A
159. The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature is
__________ that of water.
(A) Same as
(B) Lower than
(C) Higher than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
160. Flow of water in a pipe about 3 metres in diameter can be
measured by
(A) Orifice plate
(B) Venturimeter
(C) Rotameter
(D) Pitot tube
Answer: Option D
161. According to Francis formula, the discharge over a rectangular
weir is (where n = Number of end contractions)
(A) (2/3) × Cd (L - nH) × √(2gh)
(B) (2/3) × Cd (L - 0.1nH) × √(2g) × H3/2
(C) (2/3) × Cd (L - nH) × √(2g) × H²
(D) (2/3) × Cd (L - nH) × √(2g) × H5/2
Answer: Option B
162. The equation of continuity holds good when the flow
(A) Is steady
(B) Is one dimensional
(C) Velocity is uniform at all the cross sections
Answer: Option D
163. A thick liquid like syrup has a __________ viscosity than a light
liquid like water.
(A) Lesser
(B) Greater
(C) Same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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164. Cavitation will begin when
(A) The pressure at any location reaches an absolute pressure equal to
the saturated vapour pressure of the liquid
(B) Pressure becomes more than critical pressure
(C) Flow is increased
(D) Pressure is increased
Answer: Option A
165. When a liquid is flowing through a pipe, the velocity of the liquid
is
(A) Maximum at the centre and minimum near the walls
(B) Minimum at the centre and maximum near the walls
(C) Zero at the centre and maximum near the walls
(D) Maximum at the centre and zero near the walls
Answer: Option A
166. Metacentric height is the distance between the metacentre and
(A) Water surface
(C) Center of gravity
(D) Center of buoyancy
Answer: Option C
167. The velocity through a channel of circular section will be
maximum when the depth of water is __________ the diameter of the
circular channel.
(A) 0.34 times
(B) 0.67 times
(C) 0.81 times
(D) 0.95 times
Answer: Option C
168. Resultant pressure of the liquid in the case of an immersed body
acts through
(B) Centre of pressure
(C) Metacentre
(D) Centre of buoyancy
Answer: Option B
169. A fluid is said to be ideal, if it is
(A) Incompressible
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(B) Viscous and incompressible
(C) Inviscous and compressible
(D) Inviscous and incompressible
Answer: Option D
170. In a depressed nappe
(A) The pressure below the nappe is atmospheric
(B) The pressure below the nappe is negative
(C) The pressure above the nappe is atmospheric
(D) The pressure above the nappe is negative
Answer: Option B
171. The value of the coefficient of compressibility for water at
ordinary pressure and temperature in kg/cm is equal to
(A) 2100
(B) 2700
(C) 10,000
(D) 21,000
Answer: Option D
172. In one dimensional flow, the flow
(A) Is steady and uniform
(B) Takes place in straight line
(C) Takes place in curve
(D) Takes place in one direction
Answer: Option B
173. To avoid vaporisation in the pipe line, the pipe line over the ridge
is laid such that it is not more than
(A) 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
(B) 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
(C) 10.0 m above the hydraulic gradient
(D) 5.0 above the hydraulic gradient
Answer: Option B
174. The loss of head at exit of a pipe is (where v = Velocity of liquid in
the pipe)
(A) v²/2g
(B) 0.5v²/2g
(C) 0.375v²/2g
(D) 0.75v²/2g
Answer: Option A
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175. Metacentre is the point of intersection of
(A) Vertical upward force through e.g. of body and center line of body
(B) Buoyant force and the center line of body
(C) Midpoint between e.g. and center of buoyancy
Answer: Option B
176. The imaginary line drawn in the fluid in such a way that the
tangent to any point gives the direction of motion at that point, is
known as
(A) Path line
(B) Stream line
(C) Steak line
(D) Potential line
Answer: Option B
177. An open vessel of water is accelerated up an inclined plane. The
free water surface will
(A) Be horizontal
(B) Make an angle in direction of inclination of inclined plane
(C) Make an angle in opposite direction to inclination of inclined plane
(D) Any one of above is possible
Answer: Option C
178. The discharge over a rectangular notch is
(A) Inversely proportional to H3/2
(B) Directly proportional to H3/2
(C) Inversely proportional to H5/2
(D) Directly proportional to H5/2
Answer: Option B
179. The flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path and
their paths do not cross each other is called
(A) One dimensional flow
(B) Streamline flow
(C) Steady flow
(D) Turbulent flow
Answer: Option B
180. The magnitude of water hammer depends upon the
(A) Elastic properties of the pipe material
(B) Elastic properties of the liquid flowing through the pipe
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(C) Speed at which the valve is closed
Answer: Option D
181. The fluid forces considered in the Navier Stokes equation are
(A) Gravity, pressure and viscous
(B) Gravity, pressure and turbulent
(C) Pressure, viscous and turbulent
(D) Gravity, viscous and turbulent
Answer: Option A
182. When the Venturimeter is inclined, then for a given flow it will
show __________ reading.
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
183. Cavitation is caused by
(A) High velocity
(B) High pressure
(C) Weak material
(D) Low pressure
Answer: Option D
on one of its sides. The total pressure on the wall acts at a distance
__________ from the liquid surface.
(A) H/3
(B) H/2
(C) 2H/3
(D) 3H/4
Answer: Option C
185. An ideal flow of any fluid must fulfil the following
(A) Newton's law of motion
(B) Newton's law of viscosity
(C) Pascal' law
(D) Continuity equation
Answer: Option D
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186. The flow in a pipe or channel is said to be uniform when
(A) The liquid particles at all sections have the same velocities
(B) The liquid particles at different sections have different velocities
(C) The quantity of liquid flowing per second is constant
(D) Each liquid particle has a definite path
Answer: Option A
187. Surface tension
(A) Acts in the plane of the interface normal to any line in the surface
(B) Is also known as capillarity
(C) Is a function of the curvature of the interface
(D) Decreases with fall in temperature
Answer: Option A
188. Select the wrong statement
(A) An equivalent pipe is treated as an ordinary pipe for all
calculations
(B) The length of an equivalent pipe is equal to that of a compound
pipe
(C) The discharge through an equivalent pipe is equal to that of a
compound pipe
(D) The diameter of an equivalent pipe is equal to that of a compound
pipe
Answer: Option D
189. Alcohol is used in manometers because
(A) It has low vapour pressure
(B) It is clearly visible
(C) It has low surface tension
(D) It can provide longer column due to low density
Answer: Option D
190. The discharge through a wholly drowned orifice is given by
(where H1 = Height of water (on the upstream side) above the top of
the orifice, H2 = Height of water (on the downstream side) above the
bottom of the orifice, and H = Difference between two water levels on
either side of the orifice)
(A) Q = Cd × bH₁ × √(2gh)
(B) Q = Cd × bH2 × √(2gh)
(C) Q = Cd × b (H2 - H1) × √(2gh)
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(D) Q = Cd × bH × √(2gh)
Answer: Option C
191. If no resistance is encountered by displacement, such a substance
is known as
(A) Fluid
(B) Water
(C) Gas
(D) Ideal fluid
Answer: Option D
192. The kinematic viscosity is the
(A) Ratio of absolute viscosity to the density of the liquid
(B) Ratio of density of the liquid to the absolute viscosity
(C) Product of absolute viscosity and density of the liquid
(D) Product of absolute viscosity and mass of the liquid
Answer: Option A
193. Choose the correct relationship
(A) Specific gravity = gravity × density
(B) Dynamic viscosity = kinematic viscosity × density
(C) Gravity = specific gravity × density
(D) Kinematic viscosity = dynamic viscosity × density
Answer: Option B
194. The viscosity of water is __________ than that of mercury.
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
(C) Same as
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
195. Surface energy per unit area of a surface is numerically equal to
(B) Surface tension
(C) Force of adhesion
(D) Force of cohesion
Answer: Option B
196. The specific weight of sea water is __________ that of pure water.
(A) Same as
(B) Less than
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(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
197. Which of the following instruments is used to measure flow on the
application of Bernoulli's theorem?
(A) Venturimeter
(B) Orifice plate
(C) Nozzle
Answer: Option D
198. When a cylindrical vessel of radius (r) containing liquid is
revolved about its vertical axis ω rad/s, then depth of parabola which
the liquid assumes is
(A) ω.r/2g
(B) ω².r²/2g
(C) ω.r/4g
(D) ω².r²/4g
Answer: Option B
199. The depth of the centre of pressure on a vertical rectangular gate
8 m wide and 6 m high, when the water surface coincides with the top
of the gate, is
(A) 2.4 m
(B) 3.0 m
(C) 4.0 m
(D) 5.0 m
Answer: Option B
200. An internal mouthpiece is said to be running free if the length of
the mouthpiece is __________ the diameter of the orifice.
(A) Less than twice
(B) More than twice
(C) Less than three times
(D) More than three times
Answer: Option C
201. An ideal flow of any fluid must satisfy
(A) Pascal law
(B) Newton's law of viscosity
(C) Boundary layer theory
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(D) Continuity equation
Answer: Option D
202. The height of a water column equivalent to a pressure of 0.15
MPa is
(A) 15.3 m
(B) 25.3 m
(C) 35.3 m
(D) 45.3 m
Answer: Option A
203. The region between the separation streamline and the boundary
surface of the solid body is known as
(A) Wake
(B) Drag
(C) Lift
(D) Boundary layer
Answer: Option A
204. The total pressure on the top of a closed cylindrical vessel of
radius (r) completely filled up with liquid of specific weight (w) and
rotating at (ω) rad/s about its vertical axis, is
(A) π w ω² r²/4g
(B) π w ω² r³/4g
(C) π w ω² r⁴/4g
(D) π w ω² r²/2g
Answer: Option C
205. Froude number is significant in
(A) Supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
wings, nozzles etc.
discontinuity, gravity forces, and wave making effect as with ship's hulls
Answer: Option C
206. The ratio of specific weight of a liquid to the specific weight of
pure water at a standard temperature is called
(A) Density of liquid
(B) Specific gravity of liquid
(C) Compressibility of liquid
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(D) Surface tension of liquid
Answer: Option B
207. A hydraulic press has a ram of 15 cm diameter and plunger of 1.5
cm. It is required to lift a weight of 1 tonne. The force required on
plunger is equal to
(A) 10 kg
(B) 100 kg
(C) 1000 kg
(D) 1 kg
Answer: Option A
208. The total head of a liquid particle in motion is equal to
(A) Pressure head + kinetic head + potential head
(B) Pressure head - (kinetic head + potential head)
(C) Potential head - (pressure head + kinetic head)
(D) Kinetic head - (pressure head + potential head)
Answer: Option A
209. The bulk modulus of elasticity with increase in pressure
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain constant
(D) Increases first up to certain limit and then decreases
Answer: Option A
210. The diameter of the nozzle (d) for maximum transmission of
power is given by (where D = Diameter of pipe, f = Darcy’s coefficient
of friction for pipe, and l = Length of pipe)
(A) d = (D⁵/8fl)1/2
(B) d = (D⁵/8fl)1/3
(C) d = (D⁵/8fl)1/4
(D) d = (D⁵/8fl)1/5
Answer: Option C
211. Free surface of a liquid tends to contract to the smallest possible
area due to force of
(A) Surface tension
(B) Viscosity
(C) Friction
(D) Cohesion
Answer: Option A
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212. The Metacentric heights of two floating bodies A and B are 1 m
and 1.5 m respectively. Select the correct statement.
(A) The bodies A and B have equal stability
(B) The body A is more stable than body B
(C) The body B is more stable than body A
(D) The bodies A and B are unstable
Answer: Option C
213. The rise or depression of liquid in a tube due to surface tension
will increase in size of tube will
(A) Increase
(B) Remain unaffected
(C) May increase or decrease depending on the characteristics of liquid
(D) Decrease
Answer: Option D
214. A body floats in stable equilibrium
(A) When its meatcentric height is zero
(B) When the metacentre is above C.G.
(C) When its e.g. is below its center of buoyancy
(D) Metacentre has nothing to do with position of e.g. for determining
stability
Answer: Option B
215. The total pressure on a horizontally immersed surface is
(where w = Specific weight of the liquid, A = Area of the immersed
surface, and x = Depth of the centre of gravity of the immersed
surface from the liquid surface)
(A) wA
(B) wx
(C) wAx
(D) wA/x
Answer: Option C
216. The discharge of a depressed nappe is 6 to 7 percent __________
that of a free nappe.
(A) Less than
(B) More than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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217. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the Centroid
of the
(A) Submerged body
(B) Volume of the floating body
(C) Volume of the fluid vertically above the body
(D) Displaced volume of the fluid
Answer: Option D
218. The intensity of pressure at any point, in a liquid, is
(A) Directly proportional to the area of the vessel containing liquid
(B) Directly proportional to the depth of liquid from the surface
(C) Directly proportional to the length of the vessel containing liquid
(D) Inversely proportional to the depth of liquid from the surface
Answer: Option B
219. During the opening of a valve in a pipe line, the flow is
(A) Steady
(B) Unsteady
(C) Uniform
(D) Laminar
Answer: Option B
220. A manometer is used to measure
(B) Pressure in pipes and channels
(C) Pressure in Venturimeter
(D) Difference of pressures between two points in a pipe
Answer: Option B
221. For hypersonic flow, the Mach number is
(A) Unity
(B) Greater than unity
(C) Greater than 2
(D) Greater than 4
Answer: Option D
222. The theoretical velocity of jet at vena contracta is (where H =
Head of water at vena contracta)
(A) 2gH
(B) H × √(2g)
(C) 2g × √H
(D) √(2gh)
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Answer: Option D
223. For pipes, laminar flow occurs when Reynolds number is
(A) Less than 2000
(C) More than 4000
(D) Less than 4000
Answer: Option A
224. When the flow in an open channel is gradually varied, the flow is
said to be
Answer: Option B
225. Property of a fluid by which molecules of different kinds of fluids
are attracted to each other is called
(A) Adhesion
(B) Cohesion
(C) Viscosity
(D) Compressibility
Answer: Option A
226. In an internal mouthpiece, if the jet after contraction does not
touch the sides of the mouthpiece, then the mouthpiece is said to be
(A) Running full
(B) Running free
(C) Partially running full
(D) Partially running free
Answer: Option B
227. The units of kinematic viscosity are
(B) kg sec/metre
(C) Newton-sec per metre
(D) Newton-sec per metre
Answer: Option A
228. The length of a liquid stream while flowing over a weir
__________ at the ends of the sill.
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(A) Expands
(B) Does not change
(C) Contracts
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
229. Newton's law of viscosity is a relationship between
(A) Shear stress and the rate of angular distortion
(B) Shear stress and viscosity
(C) Shear stress, velocity and viscosity
(D) Pressure, velocity and viscosity
Answer: Option A
230. The total energy line lies over the hydraulic gradient line by an
amount equal to the
(A) Pressure head
(B) Velocity head
Answer: Option B
(A) The horizontal component of the hydrostatic force on any surface
is equal to the normal force on the vertical projection of the surface
(B) The horizontal component acts through the center of pressure for
the vertical projection
(C) The vertical component of the hydrostatic force on any surface is
equal to the weight of the volume of the liquid above the area
(D) The vertical component passes through the center of pressure of
the volume
Answer: Option D
232. In open channels, the specific energy is the
(A) Total energy per unit discharge
(B) Total energy measured with respect to the datum passing through
the bottom of the channel
(C) Total energy measured above the horizontal datum
(D) Kinetic energy plotted above the free surface of water
Answer: Option B
233. For a floating body to be in stable equilibrium, its metacentre
should be
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(A) Below the center of gravity
(B) Below the center of buoyancy
(C) Above the center of buoyancy
(D) Above the center of gravity
Answer: Option D
234. A water tank contains 1.3 m deep water. The pressure exerted by
the water per metre length of the tank is
(A) 2.89 kN
(B) 8.29 kN
(C) 9.28 kN
(D) 28.9 kN
Answer: Option B
235. Total pressure on a lmxlm gate immersed vertically at a depth of
2 m below the free water surface will be
(A) 1000 kg
(B) 4000 kg
(C) 2000 kg
(D) 8000 kg
Answer: Option A
236. If a body floating in a liquid occupies a new position and remains
at rest in this new position, when given a small angular displacement,
the body is said to be in __________ equilibrium.
(A) Neutral
(B) Stable
(C) Unstable
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
237. A streamline is defined as the line
(A) Parallel to central axis flow
(B) Parallel to outer surface of pipe
(C) Of equal velocity in a flow
(D) Along which the pressure drop is uniform
Answer: Option C
238. The flow in a pipe or channel is said to be non-uniform when
(A) The liquid particles at all sections have the same velocities
(B) The liquid particles at different sections have different velocities
(C) The quantity of liquid flowing per second is constant
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(D) Each liquid particle has a definite path
Answer: Option B
239. Hydrometer is used to determine
(A) Specific gravity of liquids
(B) Specific gravity of solids
(C) Specific gravity of gases
(D) Relative humidity
Answer: Option A
240. The dynamic viscosity of the liquid __________ with rise in
temperature.
(A) Remain unaffected
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
241. For pipes, turbulent flow occurs when Reynolds number is
(A) Less than 2000
(C) More than 4000
(D) Less than 4000
Answer: Option C
242. The velocity of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion of
a Venturimeter
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) Depends upon mass of liquid
Answer: Option C
243. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is
known as
(A) Volumetric strain
(B) Volumetric index
(C) Compressibility
(D) Adhesion
Answer: Option C
244. If the depth of water in an open channel is less than the critical
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depth, the flow is called
(A) Critical flow
(B) Turbulent flow
(C) Tranquil flow
(D) Torrential flow
Answer: Option D
(A) Fluids are capable of flowing
(B) Fluids conform to the shape of the containing vessels
(C) When in equilibrium, fluids cannot sustain tangential forces
(D) When in equilibrium, fluids can sustain shear forces
Answer: Option D
246. An orifice is said to be large, if
(A) The size of orifice is large
(B) The velocity of flow is large
(C) The available head of liquid is more than 5 times the height of
orifice
(D) The available head of liquid is less than 5 times the height of
orifice
Answer: Option D
247. A piece of metal of specific gravity 13.6 is placed in mercury of
specific gravity 13.6, what fraction of it volume is under mercury?
(A) The metal piece will simply float over the mercury
(B) The metal piece will be immersed in mercury by half
(C) Whole of the metal piece will be immersed with its top surface just
at mercury level
(D) Metal piece will sink to the bottom
Answer: Option C
248. The centre of pressure acts __________ the centre of gravity of
immersed surface.
(A) At
(B) Above
(C) Below
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
249. Dynamic viscosity of most of the liquids with rise in temperature
(A) Increases
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(B) Decreases
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: Option B
250. The discharge over a right angled notch is (where H = Height of
liquid above the apex of notch)
(A) (8/15) Cd. 2g. H
(B) (8/15) Cd. 2g. H3/2
(C) (8/15) Cd. 2g. H²
(D) (8/15) Cd. 2g. H5/2
Answer: Option D
251. A square surface 3 m × 3 m lies in a vertical line in water pipe its
upper edge at water surface. The hydrostatic force on square surface
is
(A) 9,000 kg
(B) 13,500 kg
(C) 18,000 kg
(D) 27,000 kg
Answer: Option B
252. The discharge through a siphon spillway is
(A) Cd × a × √(2gH)
(B) Cd × a × √(2g) × H3/2
(C) Cd × a × √(2g) × H2
(D) Cd × a × √(2g) × H5/2
Answer: Option A
253. Select the correct statement
(A) Local atmospheric pressure depends upon elevation of locality
only
(B) Standard atmospheric pressure is the mean local atmospheric
pressure a* sea level
(C) Local atmospheric pressure is always below standard atmospheric
pressure
(D) A barometer reads the difference between local and standard
atmospheric pressure
Answer: Option B
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254. The shear stress-strain graph for a Newtonian fluid is a
(A) Straight line
(B) Parabolic curve
(C) Hyperbolic curve
(D) Elliptical
Answer: Option A
255. The flow in which the particles of a fluid attain such velocities
that varies from point to point in magnitude and direction as well as
from instant to instant, is known as
(B) Uniform flow
(C) Steady flow
(D) Turbulent flow
Answer: Option D
256. For a perfect incompressible liquid, flowing in a continuous
stream, the total energy of a particle remains the same, while the
particle moves from one point to another. This statement is called
(A) Continuity equation
(B) Bernoulli's equation
(C) Pascal's law
(D) Archimedes’s principle
Answer: Option B
257. Uniform flow occurs when
identical
streamline patterns are identical in each pleasure
Answer: Option C
258. The critical depth for a channel is given by (where q = Unit
discharge (discharge per unit width) through the channel)
(A) (q/g)1/2
(B) (q²/g)1/3
(C) (q³/g)1/4
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(D) (q⁴/g)1/5
Answer: Option B
259. At the center line of a pipe flowing under pressure where the
velocity gradient is zero, the shear stress will be
(A) Minimum
(B) Maximum
(C) Zero
(D) Could be any value
Answer: Option D
260. The discharge through a channel of trapezoidal section is
maximum when
(A) Width of channel at the top is equal to twice the width at the
bottom
(B) Depth of channel is equal to the width at the bottom
(C) The sloping side is equal to half the width at the top
(D) The sloping side is equal to the width at the bottom
Answer: Option C
261. Piezometer is used to measure
(A) Pressure in pipe, channels etc.
(C) Very low pressures
Answer: Option C
262. The point at which the resultant pressure on an immersed surface
acts, is known as
(B) Centre of depth
(C) Centre of pressure
(D) Centre of immersed surface
Answer: Option C
(A) Any weight, floating or immersed in a liquid, is acted upon by a
buoyant force
(B) Buoyant force is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced
(C) The point through which buoyant force acts, is called the center of
buoyancy
(D) Center of buoyancy is located above the center of gravity of the
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displaced liquid
Answer: Option D
264. The centre of pressure for a vertically immersed surface lies at a
distance equal to __________ the centre of gravity.
(A) IG / Ax̅ bellow
(B) IG / Ax̅ above
(C) Ax̅ / IG bellow
(D) Ax̅ / IG above
Answer: Option A
265. The pressure in the air space above an oil (sp. gr. 0.8) surface in a
tank is 0.1 kg/cm". The pressure at 2.5 m below the oil surface will be
(A) 2 metres of water column
(B) 3 metres of water column
(C) 3.5 metres of water column
(D) 4 m of water column
Answer: Option B
266. The total pressure on the top of a closed cylindrical vessel
completely filled up with a liquid is
(A) Directly proportional to (radius)2
(B) Inversely proportional to (radius)2
(C) Directly proportional to (radius)4
(D) Inversely proportional to (radius)4
Answer: Option C
267. The flow which neglects changes in a transverse direction is
known as
(B) Uniform flow
(C) Steady flow
(D) Turbulent flow
Answer: Option A
268. Normal depth in open channel flow is the depth of flow
corresponding to
(A) Steady flow
(B) Unsteady flow
(C) Laminar flow
(D) Uniform flow
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Answer: Option D
269. A moving fluid mass may be brought to a static equilibrium
position, by applying an imaginary inertia force of the same
magnitude as that of the accelerating force but in the opposite
direction. This statement is called
(A) Pascal's law
(B) Archimedes’s principle
(C) D-Alembert's principle
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
270. The mass per unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature
and pressure is called
(A) Specific weight
(B) Mass density
(C) Specific gravity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
271. A large Reynold number is indication of
(A) Smooth and streamline flow
(B) Laminar flow
(C) Steady flow
(D) Highly turbulent flow
Answer: Option D
(A) A flow whose streamline is represented by a curve is called two
dimensional flow.
(B) The total energy of a liquid particle is the sum of potential energy,
kinetic energy and pressure energy.
(C) The length of divergent portion in a Venturimeter is equal to the
convergent portion.
(D) A pitot tube is used to measure the velocity of flow at the required
point in a pipe.
Answer: Option C
273. Density of water is maximum at
(A) 0° C
(B) 0° K
(C) 4° C
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(D) 100° C
Answer: Option C
274. A weir is said to be broad crested weir, if the width of the crest of
the weir is ________ half the height of water above the weir crest.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
275. The bulk modulus of elasticity
(A) Has the dimensions of 1/pressure
(B) Increases with pressure
(C) Is large when fluid is more compressible
(D) Is independent of pressure and viscosity
Answer: Option B
276. A tank of uniform cross-sectional area (A) containing liquid upto
height (H1) has an orifice of cross-sectional area (a) at its bottom. The
time required to empty the tank completely will be
(A) (2A√H₁)/(Cd × a√2g)
(B) (2AH₁)/(Cd × a√2g)
(C) (2AH₁3/2)/(Cd × a√2g)
(D) (2AH₁²)/(Cd × a√2g)
Answer: Option A
277. Kinematic viscosity is equal to
(A) Dynamic viscosity/density
(B) Dynamic viscosity × density
(C) Density/dynamic viscosity
(D) 1/dynamic viscosity × density
Answer: Option A
278. The atmospheric pressure at sea level is
(A) 103 kN/m2
(B) 10.3 m of water
(C) 760 mm of mercury
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
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279. The conditions for the stable equilibrium of a floating body are
(A) The metacentre should lie above the center of gravity
(B) The center of buoyancy and the center of gravity must lie on the
same vertical line
(C) A righting couple should be formed
Answer: Option D
280. A glass tube of smaller diameter is used while performing an
experiment for the capillary rise of water because
(A) It is easier to see through the glass tube
(B) Glass tube is cheaper than a metallic tube
(C) It is not possible to conduct this experiment with any other tube
Answer: Option A
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281. To avoid an interruption in the flow of a siphon, an air vessel is
provided
(A) At the inlet
(B) At the outlet
(C) At the summit
(D) At any point between inlet and outlet
Answer: Option C
282. When the coefficient of discharge (Cd) is 0.623, then the general
equation for discharge over a rectangular weir is
(A) 1.84 (L - 0.1nH)H3/2
(B) 1.84 (L - nH)H2
(C) 1.84 (L - 0.1nH)H5/2
(D) 1.84 (L - nH)H3
Answer: Option A
283. In an isothermal atmosphere, the pressure
(A) Decreases linearly with elevation
(B) Remain constant
(C) Varies in the same way as the density
(D) Increases exponentially with elevation
Answer: Option C
284. The pressure of a liquid measured with the help of a Piezometer
tube is
(A) Vacuum pressure
(B) Gauge pressure
(D) Atmospheric pressure
Answer: Option B
285. If the atmospheric pressure on the surface of an oil tank (sp. gr.
0.8) is 0.2 kg/cm", the pressure at a depth of 50 m below the oil surface
will be
(A) 2 meters of water column
(B) 3 meters of water column
(C) 5 meters of water column
(D) 6 meters of water Column
Answer: Option D
286. The pressure intensity in kN/m2 (or kPa) at any point in a liquid
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is (where w = Specific weight of liquid, and h = Depth of liquid from
the surface)
(A) w
(B) wh
(C) w/h
(D) h/w
Answer: Option B
287. The resultant upward pressure of a fluid on a floating body is
equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the body. This definition
is according to
(A) Buoyancy
(B) Equilibrium of a floating body
(C) Archimedes' principle
(D) Bernoulli's theorem
Answer: Option C
288. The liquid used in manometers should have
(A) Low density
(B) High density
(C) Low surface tension
(D) High surface tension
Answer: Option D
289. Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring
speed of an aeroplane?
(A) Venturimeter
(B) Orifice plate
(C) Pitot tube
(D) Rotameter
Answer: Option C
290. A jet of water discharging from a 40 mm diameter orifice has a
diameter of 32 mm at its vena contracta. The coefficient of contraction
is
(A) 0.46
(B) 0.64
(C) 0.78
(D) 0.87
Answer: Option B
291. Buoyant force is
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(A) Resultant force acting on a floating body
(B) Equal to the volume of liquid displaced
(C) Force necessary to keep a body in equilibrium
(D) The resultant force on a body due to the fluid surrounding it
Answer: Option D
292. In case of flow through parallel pipes,
(A) The head loss for all the pipes is same
(B) The total discharge is equal to the sum of discharges in the various
pipes
(C) The total head loss is the sum of head losses in the various pipes
(D) Both (A) and (B)
Answer: Option D
293. Rotameter is a device used to measure
(A) Absolute pressure
(B) Velocity of fluid
(C) Flow
(D) Rotation
Answer: Option C
294. In a broad-crested weir, the discharge is maximum if the head of
water on the downstream side of weir is __________ the head of water
on the upstream side of weir.
(A) Equal to
(B) One-third
(C) Two-third
(D) Three-fourth
Answer: Option C
295. When a body, floating in a liquid, is given a small angular
displacement, it starts oscillating about a point known as
(A) Centre of pressure
(B) Centre of gravity
(C) Centre of buoyancy
(D) Metacentre
Answer: Option D
296. A nozzle is generally made of
(A) Cylindrical shape
(B) Convergent shape
(C) Divergent shape
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(D) Convergent-divergent shape
Answer: Option B
297. Pitot tube is used for measurement of
(A) Pressure
(B) Flow
(C) Velocity
(D) Discharge
Answer: Option C
298. Coefficient of discharge Cd is equal to (where Cc = Coefficient of
contraction, Cv = Coefficient of velocity, and Cr = Coefficient of
resistance)
(A) Cc × Cv
(B) Cc × Cr
(C) Cv × Cr
(D) Cc/Cr
Answer: Option A
299. The value of mass density in kg-sec-V-m⁴ for water at 0°C is
(A) 1
(B) 1000
(C) 100
(D) 101.9
Answer: Option D
300. The shear stress between the two liquid layers is __________
proportional to the distance between two layers.
(A) Directly
(B) Inversely
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
301. Viscosity of water in comparison to mercury is
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
(C) Same
(D) Higher/lower depending on temperature
Answer: Option A
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302. The power transmitted through the pipe is maximum when the
head lost due to friction is equal to
(A) One-fourth of the total supply head
(B) One-third of the total supply head
(C) One-half of the total supply head
(D) Two-third of the total supply head
Answer: Option B
303. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of
(A) Adhesion
(B) Cohesion
(C) Surface tension
(D) Viscosity
Answer: Option C
304. A hemispherical tank of radius (R) has an orifice of cross-
sectional area (a) at its bottom and is full of liquid. The time required
to empty the tank completely is
(A) 14π R1/2/15Cd × a √(2g)
(B) 14π R3/2/15Cd × a √(2g)
(C) 14π R5/2/15Cd × a √(2g)
(D) 14π R7/2/15Cd × a √(2g)
Answer: Option C
305. The difference of pressure between the inside and outside of a
liquid drop is
(A) p = T × r
(B) p = T/r
(C) p = T/2r
(D) p = 2T/r
Answer: Option D
306. A venturi-flume is used to measure
(A) Pressure of liquid
(B) Discharge of liquid
(C) Pressure difference between two points in a channel
(D) Pressure difference between two points in a pipe
Answer: Option B
307. Working principle of dead weight pressure gauge tester is based
on
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(A) Pascal's law
(B) Dalton's law of partial pressure
(C) Newton's law of viscosity
(D) Avogadro's hypothesis
Answer: Option A
308. The meatcentric height of a ship is 0.6 m and the radius of
gyration is 4 m. The time of rolling of a ship is
(A) 4.1 s
(B) 5.2 s
(C) 10.4 s
(D) 14.1 s
Answer: Option C
309. The discharge through a channel of rectangular section will be
maximum, if
(A) Its depth is twice the breadth
(B) Its breadth is twice the depth
(C) Its depth is thrice the breadth
(D) Its breadth is thrice the depth
Answer: Option B
310. The discharge through a channel of circular section will be
maximum when the depth of water is __________ the diameter of the
circular channel.
(A) 0.34 times
(B) 0.67 times
(C) 0.81 times
(D) 0.95 times
Answer: Option D
311. Uniform flow occurs when
(A) The flow is steady
(B) The flow is streamline
(C) Size and shape of the cross section in a particular length remain
constant
(D) Size and cross section change uniformly along length
Answer: Option C
312. Bulk modulus of a fluid is the ratio of
(A) Shear stress to shear strain
(B) Increase in volume to the viscosity of fluid
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(C) Increase in pressure to the volumetric strain
(D) Critical velocity to the viscosity of fluid
Answer: Option C
313. The pressure in Pascal’s at a depth of 1 m below the free surface
of a body of water will be equal to
(A) 1 Pa
(B) 91 Pa
(C) 981 Pa
(D) 9810 Pa
Answer: Option D
314. An average value of coefficient of velocity is
(A) 0.62
(B) 0.76
(C) 0.84
(D) 0.97
Answer: Option D
315. A liquid would wet the solid, if adhesion forces as compared to
cohesion forces are
(A) Less
(B) More
(C) Equal
(D) Less at low temperature and more at high temperature
Answer: Option B
316. When a cylindrical vessel containing liquid is revolved about its
vertical axis at a constant angular velocity, the pressure
(A) Varies as the square of the radial distance
(B) Increases linearly as its radial distance
(C) Increases as the square of the radial distance
(D) Decreases as the square of the radial distance
Answer: Option A
317. Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is
called
(A) Adhesion
(B) Cohesion
(C) Viscosity
(D) Compressibility
Answer: Option B
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318. According to Bazin's formula, the discharge over a rectangular
weir is mL2g x H3/2where m is equal to
(A) 0.405 + (0.003/H)
(B) 0.003 + (0.405/H)
(C) 0.405 + (H/0.003)
(D) 0.003 + (H/0.405)
Answer: Option A
319. Which of the following is the unit of kinematic viscosity?
(A) Pascal
(B) Poise
(C) Stoke
(D) Faraday
Answer: Option C
320. The length AB of a pipe ABC in which the liquid is flowing has
diameter (d1) and is suddenly contracted to diameter (d2) at B which is
constant for the length BC. The loss of head due to sudden
contraction, assuming coefficient of contraction as 0.62, is
(A) v₁²/2g
(B) v₂²/2g
(C) 0.5 v₁²/2g
(D) 0.375 v₂²/2g
Answer: Option D
321. Operation of McLeod gauge used for low pressure measurement
is based on the principle of
(A) Gas law
(B) Boyle's law
(C) Charles law
(D) Pascal's law
Answer: Option B
322. Reynold's number is the ratio of the inertia force to the
(A) Surface tension force
(B) Viscous force
(C) Gravity force
(D) Elastic force
Answer: Option B
323. A piece weighing 3 kg in air was found to weigh 2.5 kg when
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submerged in water. Its specific gravity is
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 6
Answer: Option D
324. A differential manometer is used to measure
(B) Pressure in pipes and channels
(C) Pressure in Venturimeter
(D) Difference of pressures between two points in a pipe
Answer: Option D
325. In a lock-gate, the reaction between two gates is (where P =
Resultant pressure on the lock gate, and α = Inclination of the gate
with the normal to the side of the lock)
(A) p/sinα
(B) 2p/sinα
(C) p/2sinα
(D) 2p/sin (α/2)
Answer: Option C
326. In a venturi-flume, the flow takes place at
(B) Gauge pressure
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
327. The normal stress is same in all directions at a point in a fluid
(A) Only when the fluid is frictionless
(B) Only when the fluid is incompressible and has zero viscosity
(C) When there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent
layer
(D) Irrespective of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent
layer
Answer: Option C
328. The highest efficiency is obtained with a channel of __________
section.
(A) Circular
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(B) Square
(C) Rectangular
(D) Trapezoidal
Answer: Option D
on one of its sides. The total pressure on the wall per unit length is
(where w = Specific weight of liquid, and H = Height of liquid)
(A) wH
(B) wH/2
(C) wH2/2
(D) wH2/3
Answer: Option C
330. Which of the following manometer has highest sensitivity?
(A) U-tube with water
(B) Inclined U-tube
(C) U-tube with mercury
(D) Micro-manometer with water
Answer: Option D
331. The velocity corresponding to Reynold number of 2800, is called
(A) Sub-sonic velocity
(B) Super-sonic velocity
(C) Lower critical velocity
(D) Higher critical velocity
Answer: Option D
332. For a floating body to be in equilibrium
(A) Meta centre should be above e.g.
(B) Centre of buoyancy and e.g. must lie on same vertical plane
(C) A righting couple should be formed
Answer: Option D
333. When an internal mouthpiece is running free, the discharge
through the mouthpiece is:
(where a = Area of mouthpiece, and H = Height of liquid above the
mouthpiece)
(A) 0.5 a. √2gH
(B) 0.707 a. √2gH
(C) 0.855 a. √2gH
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(D) a. √2gH
Answer: Option A
334. A uniform body 3 m long, 2 m wide and 1 m deep floats in water.
If the depth of immersion is 0.6 m, then the weight of the body is
(A) 3.53 kN
(B) 33.3 kN
(C) 35.3 kN
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
335. The force per unit length is the unit of
(A) Surface tension
(B) Compressibility
(C) Capillarity
(D) Viscosity
Answer: Option A
336. When the Mach number is more than 6, the flow is called
(A) Sub-sonic flow
(B) Sonic flow
(C) Super-sonic flow
(D) Hyper-sonic flow
Answer: Option D
337. The upper surface of a weir over which water flows is known is
(A) Crest
(B) Nappy
(C) Sill
(D) Weir top
Answer: Option C
338. One cubic metre of water weighs
(A) 100 litres
(B) 250 litres
(C) 500 litres
(D) 1000 litres
Answer: Option D
339. Kinematic viscosity is dependent upon
(A) Pressure
(B) Distance
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(C) Density
(D) Flow
Answer: Option C
340. The discharge through a large rectangular orifice is given by
(where H1 = Height of the liquid above the top of the orifice, H2 =
Height of the liquid above the bottom of the orifice, b = Breadth of the
orifice, and Cd = Coefficient of discharge)
(A) Q = (2/3) Cd × b × √(2g) × (H2 - H1)
(B) Q = (2/3) Cd × b × √(2g) × (H21/2 - H11/2)
(C) Q = (2/3) Cd × b × √(2g) × (H23/2 - H13/2)
(D) Q = (2/3) Cd × b × √(2g) × (H22 - H12)
Answer: Option C
341. An error of 1% in measuring head over the apex of the notch (H)
will produce an error of _________ in discharge over a triangular
notch.
(A) 1 %
(B) 1.5 %
(C) 2 %
(D) 2.5 %
Answer: Option D
342. The Euler's equation for the motion of liquids is based upon the
assumption that
(A) The fluid is non - viscous, homogeneous and incompressible
(B) The velocity of flow is uniform over the section
(C) The flow is continuous, steady and along the stream line
Answer: Option D
343. The ratio of the inertia force to the viscous force is called
(B) Froude's number
(C) Weber's number
(D) Euler's number
Answer: Option A
344. The total energy of a liquid particle in motion is equal to
(A) Pressure energy + kinetic energy + potential energy
(B) Pressure energy - (kinetic energy + potential energy)
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(C) Potential energy - (pressure energy + kinetic energy
(D) Kinetic energy - (pressure energy + potential energy)
Answer: Option A
345. Which of the following instrument can be used for measuring
speed of a submarine moving in deep sea?
(A) Venturimeter
(B) Orifice plate
(C) Hot wire anemometer
(D) Pitot tube
Answer: Option D
346. The force present in a moving liquid is
(A) Inertia force
(B) Viscous force
(C) Gravity force
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
347. A ship whose hull length is 100 m is to travel at 10 m/sec. For
dynamic similarity, at what velocity should a 1:25 model be towed
through water?
(A) 10 m/sec
(B) 25 m/sec
(C) 2 m/sec
(D) 50 m/sec
Answer: Option C
348. The pressure of liquid at throat in a Venturimeter is __________
than that at inlet.
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
(C) Same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
349. The flow in which the velocity vector is identical in magnitude
and direction at every point, for any given instant, is known as
(B) Uniform flow
(C) Steady flow
(D) Turbulent flow
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Answer: Option B
350. The coefficient of discharge for an external mouthpiece depends
upon
(A) Velocity of liquid
(B) Pressure of liquid
(C) Area of mouthpiece
(D) Length of mouthpiece
Answer: Option D
351. The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m3

(A) At normal pressure of 760 mm
(B) At 4°C temperature
(C) At mean sea level
(D) All the above
Answer: Option D
352. If the depth of water in an open channel is greater than the
critical depth, the flow is called
(A) Critical flow
(B) Turbulent flow
(C) Tranquil flow
(D) Torrential flow
Answer: Option C
353. When a cylindrical vessel, containing some liquid, is rotated
about its vertical axis, the liquid surface is depressed down at the axis
of its rotation and rises up near the walls of the vessel on all sides. This
type of flow is known as
(A) Steady flow
(B) Turbulent flow
(C) Vortex flow
(D) Uniform flow
Answer: Option C
354. The body will sink down if the force of buoyancy is __________
the weight of the liquid displaced.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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355. The total pressure on the surface of a vertical sluice gate 2 m x 1
m with its top 2 m surface being 0.5 m below the water level will be
(A) 500 kg
(B) 1000 kg
(C) 1500 kg
(D) 2000 kg
Answer: Option D
356. The velocity at which the laminar flow stops, is known as
(A) Velocity of approach
(B) Lower critical velocity
(C) Higher critical velocity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
357. The line of action of the buoyant force acts through the
(A) Centroid of the volume of fluid vertically above the body
(B) Centre of the volume of floating body
(C) Center of gravity of any submerged body
(D) Centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
Answer: Option D
358. The buoyancy depends upon the
(A) Weight of the liquid displaced
(B) Pressure with which the liquid is displaced
(C) Viscosity of the liquid
(D) Compressibility of the liquid
Answer: Option A
359. A glass tube of small diameter (d) is dipped in fluid. The height of
rise or fall in the tube given by (where w = Specific weight of liquid, α
= Angle of contact of the liquid surface, and σ = Surface tension)
(A) 4wd/σ cosα
(B) σ cosα/4wd
(C) 4σ cosα/wd
(D) wd/4σ cosα
Answer: Option C
360. Two dimensional flows occurs when
identical
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Answer: Option D
361. Whenever a plate is held immersed at some angle with the
direction of flow of the liquid, it is subjected to some pressure. The
component of this pressure, in the direction of flow of the liquid, is
known as
(A) Lift
(B) Drag
(C) Stagnation pressure
(D) Bulk modulus
Answer: Option B
362. Which of the following is dimensionless?
(A) Specific weight
(B) Specific volume
(C) Specific speed
(D) Specific gravity
Answer: Option D
363. Coefficient of resistance is the ratio of
(A) Actual velocity of jet at vena-contracta to the theoretical velocity
(B) Area of jet at vena-contracta to the area of orifice
(C) Loss of head in the orifice to the head of water available at the exit
of the orifice
(D) Actual discharge through an orifice to the theoretical discharge
Answer: Option C
364. Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to property of liquid
known as
(A) Adhesion
(B) Cohesion
(C) Surface tension
(D) Viscosity
Answer: Option C
365. A flow in which __________ force is dominating over the viscosity
is called turbulent flow.
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(A) Elastic
(B) Surface tension
(C) Viscous
(D) Inertia
Answer: Option D
366. Specific weight of sea water is more that of pure water because it
contains
(A) Dissolved air
(B) Dissolved salt
(C) Suspended matter
Answer: Option D
367. In an internal mouthpiece, the absolute pressure head at vena
contracta is __________ the atmospheric pressure head by an amount
equal to height of the liquid above the vena contracta.
(A) Less than
(B) More than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
368. An odd shaped body weighing 7.5 kg and occupying 0.01 m3
volume will be completely submerged in a fluid having specific gravity
of
(A) 1
(B) 1.2
(C) 0.8
(D) 0.75
Answer: Option D
369. The factional resistance of a pipe varies approximately with
__________ of the liquid.
(A) Pressure
(B) Velocity
(C) Square of velocity
(D) Cube of velocity
Answer: Option C
370. For measuring flow by a Venturimeter, if should be installed in
(A) Vertical line
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(B) Horizontal line
(C) Inclined line with flow downward
(D) In any direction and in any location
Answer: Option D
371. The ratio of the inertia force to the elastic force is called
(B) Froude's number
(C) Weber's number
(D) Mach number
Answer: Option D
372. All the terms of energy in Bernoulli's equation have dimension of
(A) Energy
(B) Work
(C) Mass
(D) Length
Answer: Option D
373. The pressure at a point 4 m below the free surface of water is
(A) 19.24 kPa
(B) 29.24 kPa
(C) 39.24 kPa
(D) 49.24 kPa
Answer: Option C
374. Specific weight of water in S.I. units is equal to
(A) 1000 N/m3
(B) 10000 N/m3
(C) 9.81 × 103 N/m3
(D) 9.81 × 10⁶ N/m3
Answer: Option C
375. The length AB of a pipe ABC in which the liquid is flowing has
diameter (d1) and is suddenly enlarged to diameter (d2) at B which is
constant for the length BC. The loss of head due to sudden
enlargement is
(A) (v₁ - v₂)²/g
(B) (v₁² - v₂²)/g
(C) (v₁ - v₂)²/2g
(D) (v₁² - v₂²)/2g
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Answer: Option C
376. In an external mouthpiece, the absolute pressure head at vena
contracta is __________ the atmospheric pressure head by an amount
equal to 0.89 times the height of the liquid, above the vena contracta.
(A) Less than
(B) More than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
377. Poise is the unit of
(A) Surface tension
(B) Capillarity
(C) Viscosity
(D) Shear stress in fluids
Answer: Option C
378. Viscous force is the __________ of shear stress due to viscosity
and cross-section area of flow.
(A) Sum
(B) Different
(C) Product
(D) Ratio
Answer: Option C
379. The siphon will work satisfactorily, if the minimum pressure in
the pipe is __________ vapour pressure of liquid.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
380. The tangential velocity of the water element having a free vortex
is
(A) Directly proportional to its distance from the centre
(B) Inversely proportional to its distance from the centre
(C) Directly proportional to its (distance)2 from the centre
(D) Inversely proportional to its (distance)2 from the centre
Answer: Option B
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381. The horizontal component of buoyant force is
(A) Negligible
(B) Same as buoyant force
(C) Zero
Answer: Option C
382. A flow in which the quantity of liquid flowing per second is
constant, is called __________ flow.
(A) Steady
(B) Streamline
(C) Turbulent
(D) Unsteady
Answer: Option A
383. The divergent portion of a Venturimeter is made longer than
convergent portion in order to
(A) Avoid the tendency of breaking away the stream of liquid
(B) To minimise frictional losses
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
384. According to Chezy's formula, the discharge through an open
channel is (where A = Area of flow, C = Chezy's constant, m =
Hydraulic mean depth, and i = Uniform slope in bed)
(A) A × √(m × i)
(B) C × √(m × i)
(C) AC × √(m × i)
(D) mi × √(A × C)
Answer: Option C
385. In a free vortex motion, the radial component of velocity
everywhere is
(A) Maximum
(B) Minimum
(C) Zero
(D) Nonzero and finite
Answer: Option C
386. Coefficient of contraction is the ratio of
(A) Actual velocity of jet at vena contracta to the theoretical velocity
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(B) Loss of head in the orifice to the head of water available at the exit
of the orifice
(C) Loss of head in the orifice to the head of water available at the exit
of the orifice
(D) Area of jet at vena-contracta to the area of orifice
Answer: Option D
387. The Bernoulli's equation is based on the assumption that
(A) There is no loss of energy of the liquid flowing
(B) The velocity of flow is uniform across any cross-section of the
pipe
(C) No force except gravity acts on the fluid
Answer: Option D
388. The flow in a pipe is turbulent when Reynold number is
(A) Less than 2000
(C) More than 2800
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
389. When the flow parameters at any given instant remain same at
every point, then flow is said to be
(A) Quasi-static
(B) Steady state
(C) Laminar
(D) Uniform
Answer: Option D
390. The total pressure on an immersed surface inclined at an angle θ
with the liquid surface is
(A) wA
(B) wx
(C) wAx
(D) wAx/sinθ
Answer: Option C
391. Rain drops are spherical because of
(A) Viscosity
(B) Air resistance
(C) Surface tension forces
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Answer: Option C
392. The discharge over the trapezoidal notch is equal to the discharge
over the rectangular notch __________ the discharge over the
triangular notch.
(A) Plus
(B) Minus
(C) Divide
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
393. Ratio of inertia force to surface Jension is known as
(A) Mach number
(B) Froude number
(C) Reynolds’s number
(D) Weber's number
Answer: Option D
394. The sheet of water flowing over a notch or a weir is known as
(A) Sill or crest
(B) Nappe or vein
(C) Orifice
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
395. A structure used to dam up a stream or river over which the
water flows is called
(A) Orifice
(B) Notch
(C) Weir
(D) Dam
Answer: Option C
396. A body floating in a liquid is said to be in neutral equilibrium, if
its metacentre
(A) Coincides with its centre of gravity
(B) Lies above its centre of gravity
(C) Lies below its centre of gravity
(D) Lies between the centre of buoyancy and centre of gravity
Answer: Option A
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397. General energy equation holds for
(A) Steady flow
(B) Turbulent flow
(C) Laminar flow
(D) Non-uniform flow
Answer: Option D
398. The buoyancy depends on
(A) Mass of liquid displaced
(B) Viscosity of the liquid
(C) Pressure of the liquid displaced
(D) Depth of immersion
Answer: Option A
399. The centre of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced is
called
(A) Centre of pressure
(B) Centre of buoyancy
(C) Metacentre
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
400. The Reynold's number of a ship is __________ to its velocity and
length.
(C) Square root of velocity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
401. With an increase in size of tube, the rise or depression of liquid in
the tube due to surface tension will
(A) Decrease
(B) Increase
(D) Depend upon the characteristics of liquid
Answer: Option A
402. Gauge pressure at a point is equal to the absolute pressure
__________ the atmospheric pressure.
(A) Plus
(B) Minus
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(C) Divide
(D) Multiply
Answer: Option B
403. The dynamic viscosity of gases __________ with rise in
temperature.
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
404. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body
due to its tendency to uplift the submerged body is called
(A) Up-thrust
(B) Reaction
(C) Buoyancy
(D) Metacentre
Answer: Option C
405. The purpose of a surge tank is
(A) To control the pressure variations due to rapid changes in the pipe
line flow
(B) To eliminate water hammer possibilities
(C) To regulate flow of water to turbines by providing necessary
retarding head of water
Answer: Option D
406. Flow occurring in a pipeline when a valve is being opened is
(A) Steady
(B) Unsteady
(C) Laminar
(D) Vortex
Answer: Option B
407. The water pressure per metre length on a vertical masonry wall
of dam is (where w = Specific weight of the liquid, and H = Height of
the liquid)
(A) wH/2
(B) wH
(C) wH2/2
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(D) wH2/4
Answer: Option C
408. Euler's equation in the differential form for the motion of liquids
is given by
(A) dp/ρ + g.dz + v.dv = 0
(B) dp/ρ - g.dz + v.dv = 0
(C) ρ.dp + g.dz + v.dv = 0
(D) ρ.dp - g.dz + v.dv = 0
Answer: Option A
409. An open tank containing liquid is made to move from rest with a
uniform acceleration. The angle 0 which the free surface of liquid
makes with the horizontal is such that (where a = Horizontal
acceleration of the tank, and g = Acceleration due to gravity)
(A) tanθ = a/g
(B) tanθ = 2 a/g
(C) tanθ = a/2g
(D) tanθ = a2/2g
Answer: Option A
410. The discharge through a small rectangular orifice is given by
(where Cd = Coefficient of discharge for the orifice, a = Cross-sectional
area of the orifice, h = Height of the liquid above the centre of the
orifice)
(A) Q = Cd × a × 2gh
(B) Q = (2/3). Cd × a × h
(C) Q = (Cd × a)/√(2gh)
(D) Q = (3Cd × a)/√(2h)
Answer: Option A
411. When a body is placed over a liquid, it will float if
(A) Gravitational force is equal to the up-thrust of the liquid
(B) Gravitational force is less than the up-thrust of the liquid
(C) Gravitational force is more than the up-thrust of the liquid
Answer: Option B
412. A point, in a compressible flow where the velocity of fluid is zero,
is called
(A) Critical point
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(B) Vena contracta
(C) Stagnation point
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
413. For very great pressures, viscosity of moss gases and liquids
(A) Remain same
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) Shows erratic behaviour
Answer: Option D
414. A weir, generally, used as a spillway of a dam is
(A) Narrow crested weir
(B) Broad crested weir
(C) Ogee weir
(D) Submerged weir
Answer: Option C
415. The angle of contact in case of a liquid depends upon
(A) The nature of the liquid and the solid
(B) The material which exists above the free surface of the liquid
(C) Both of die above
Answer: Option C
416. A flow in which each liquid particle has a definite path, and the
paths of individual particles do not cross each other, is called
(A) Steady flow
(B) Uniform flow
(C) Streamline flow
(D) Turbulent flow
Answer: Option C
417. The stability of a dam is checked for
(A) Tension at the base
(B) Overturning of the wall or dam
(C) Sliding of the wall or dam
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
418. Water is __________ liquid.
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(A) A compressible
(B) An incompressible
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
419. The unit of kinematic viscosity in S. I. units is
(A) N-m/s
(B) N-s/m2
(C) m2/s
(D) N-m
Answer: Option C
420. Bernoulli's equation is applied to
(A) Venturimeter
(B) Orifice meter
(C) Pitot tube
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
421. Manometer is used to measure
Answer: Option A
422. The flow in which conditions do not change with time at any
point, is known as
(B) Uniform flow
(C) Steady flow
(D) Turbulent flow
Answer: Option C
423. A nozzle placed at the end of a water pipe line discharges water at
a
(A) Low pressure
(B) High pressure
(C) Low velocity
(D) High velocity
Answer: Option D
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424. The pressure of fluid due to hammer blow is
(A) Directly proportional to density of fluid
(B) Inversely proportional to density of fluid
(C) Directly proportional to (density)1/2 of fluid
(D) Inversely proportional to (density)1/2 of fluid
Answer: Option C
425. In order to measure the flow with a Venturimeter, it is installed
in
(A) Horizontal line
(B) Inclined line with flow upwards
(C) Inclined line with flow downwards
(D) Any direction and in any location
Answer: Option D
426. If mercury in a barometer is replaced by water, the height of 3.75
cm of mercury will be following cm of water
(A) 51 cm
(B) 50 cm
(C) 52 cm
(D) 52.2 cm
Answer: Option A
427. According to equation of continuity,
(A) w1a1 = w2a2
(B) w1v1 = w2v2
(C) a1v1 = a2v2
(D) a1/v1 = a2/v2
Answer: Option C
428. The discharge over a rectangular weir, considering the velocity of
approach, is (whereH1 = H + Ha = Total height of water above the
weir, H = Height of water over the crest of the weir, and Ha = Height
of water due to velocity of approach)
(A) (2/3) Cd × L.√2g [H1 - Ha]
(B) (2/3) Cd × L. √2g [H13/2 - Ha3/2]
(C) (2/3) Cd × L.√2g [H12 - Ha2]
(D) (2/3) Cd × L. √2g [H15/2 - Ha5/2]
Answer: Option B
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429. The Francis formula for the discharge over Cipoletti weir is
(A) 1.84 LH1/2
(B) 1.84 LH
(C) 1.84 LH3/2
(D) 1.84 LH5/2
Answer: Option C
430. One poise is equal to
(A) 0.1 N-s/m2
(B) 1 N-s/m2
(C) 10 N-s/m2
(D) 100 N-s/m2
Answer: Option A
431. When a vertical wall is subjected to pressures due to liquid on
both sides, the resultant pressure is the __________ of the two
pressures.
(A) Sum
(B) Difference
(C) Arithmetic mean
(D) Geometric mean
Answer: Option B
432. The mercury does not wet the glass. This is due to the property of
the liquid known as
(A) Cohesion
(B) Adhesion
(C) Viscosity
(D) Surface tension
Answer: Option D
433. A channel is said to be of most economical cross-section, if
(A) It gives maximum discharge for a given cross-sectional area and
bed slope
(B) It has minimum wetted perimeter
(C) It involves lesser excavation for the designed amount of discharge
Answer: Option D
434. The maximum efficiency of transmission through a pipe is
(A) 50 %
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(B) 56.7 %
(C) 66.67 %
(D) 76.66 %
Answer: Option C
435. Ratio of inertia force to elastic force is known as
(A) Mach number
(B) Froude number
(C) Reynolds number
(D) Weber's number
Answer: Option A
436. The discharge through an external mouthpiece is given by
(where a = Cross-sectional area of the mouthpiece, and H = Height of
liquid above the mouthpiece)
(A) 0.855 a.√(2gH)
(B) 1.855 aH.√(2g)
(C) 1.585 a.√(2gH)
(D) 5.85 aH.√(2g)
Answer: Option A
437. If 850 kg liquid occupies volume of one cubic meter, men 0.85
represents its
(A) Specific weight
(B) Specific mass
(D) Specific density
Answer: Option C
438. The discharge over a rectangular notch is (where b = Width of
notch, and H = Height of liquid, above the sill of the notch)
(A) (2/3) Cd × b × √(2gH)
(B) (2/3) Cd × b × √(2g) × H
(C) (2/3) Cd × b × √(2g) × H3/2
(D) (2/3) Cd × b × √(2g) × H2
Answer: Option C
439. A metal with specific gravity of ‘a’ floating in a fluid of same
specific gravity ‘a’ will
(A) Sink to bottom
(B) Float over fluid
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(C) Partly immersed
(D) Be fully immersed with top surface at fluid surface
Answer: Option D
440. In a short cylindrical external mouthpiece, the vena contracta
occurs at a distance __________ the diameter of the orifice from the
outlet of orifice.
(A) Equal to
(B) One-fourth
(C) One-third
(D) One-half
Answer: Option B
441. A submerged body is said to be in a stable equilibrium, if its
centre of gravity __________ the centre of buoyancy.
(A) Coincides with
(B) Lies below
(C) Lies above
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
442. The power transmitted through the nozzle is maximum when the
head lost due to friction in the pipe is __________ of the total supply
head.
(A) One-half
(B) One-third
(C) Two-third
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
443. In the case of steady flow of a fluid, the acceleration of any fluid
particle is
(A) Constant
(B) Variable
(C) Zero
(D) Zero under limiting conditions
Answer: Option C
444. The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in all the
directions when the fluid is
(A) Moving
(B) Viscous
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(C) Viscous and static
(D) Viscous and moving
Answer: Option D
445. The pressure of air __________ with the increase of height from
the surface of the earth.
(A) Does not change
(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
446. Froude's number is the ratio of inertia force to
(A) Pressure force
(B) Elastic force
(C) Gravity force
(D) Surface tension force
Answer: Option C
447. The pressure measured with the help of a Piezometer tube is in
(A) N/mm2
(B) N/m2
(C) Head of liquid
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
448. The total energy line lies over the centre line of the pipe by an
amount equal to
(A) Pressure head
(B) Velocity head
Answer: Option C
449. Water is a __________ fluid.
(A) Real
(B) Ideal
(C) Newtonian
(D) Non-Newtonian
Answer: Option C
450. The resultant of all normal pressures acts
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(A) At C.G. of body
(B) At center of pressure
(C) Vertically upwards
(D) At metacentre
Answer: Option C
451. According to Newton's law of viscosity, the shear stress on a layer
of a fluid is __________ to the rate of shear strain.
(A) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
452. A vessel of 4 m3 contains oil which weighs 30 kN. The specific

weight of the oil is
(A) 4.5 kN/m3
(B) 6 kN/m3
(C) 7.5 kN/m3
(D) 10 kN/m3
Answer: Option C
453. The loss of head at entrance in a pipe is (where v = Velocity of
liquid in the pipe)
(A) v²/2g
(B) 0.5v²/2g
(C) 0.375v²/2g
(D) 0.75v²/2g
Answer: Option B
454. The increase of temperature results in
(A) Increase in viscosity of gas
(B) Increase in viscosity of liquid
(C) Decrease in viscosity of gas
(D) Decrease in viscosity of liquid
Answer: Option D
455. Which of the following is an example of laminar flow?
(A) Underground flow
(B) Flow past tiny bodies
(C) Flow of oil in measuring instruments
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(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
456. Re-entrant or Borda's mouthpiece is an __________ mouthpiece.
(A) Internal
(B) External
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
457. The product of mass and acceleration of flowing liquid is called
(A) Inertia force
(B) Viscous force
(C) Gravity force
(D) Pressure force
Answer: Option A
458. The top of the weir over which the water flows is known as
(A) Sill or crest
(B) Nappe or vein
(C) Orifice
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
459. The meatcentric height is the distance between the
(A) Centre of gravity of the floating body and the centre of buoyancy
(B) Centre of gravity of the floating body and the metacentre
(C) Metacentre and centre of buoyancy
(D) Original centre of buoyancy and new centre of buoyancy
Answer: Option B
460. The time oscillation of a floating body with increase in
meatcentric height will be
(A) Same
(B) Higher
(C) Lower
(D) Lower/higher depending on weight of body
Answer: Option C
461. The property of a liquid which offers resistance to the movement
of one layer of liquid over another adjacent layer of liquid, is called
(A) Surface tension
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(B) Compressibility
(C) Capillarity
(D) Viscosity
Answer: Option D
462. An internal mouthpiece is said to be running __________ if the
length of the mouthpiece is more than three times the diameter of the
orifice.
(A) Free
(B) Partially
(C) Full
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
463. A manometer is used to measure
(A) Low pressure
(B) Moderate pressure
(C) High pressure
Answer: Option C
464. Which of the following meters is not associated with viscosity?
(A) Red wood
(B) Say bolt
(C) Engler
(D) Orsat
Answer: Option D
465. The specific weight of water in S.I. units is taken as
(A) 9.81 kN/m3
(B) 9.81 × 103 N/m3
(C) 9.81 × 10-6 N/mm3
Answer: Option D
466. The celerity (velocity) of a pressure wave in a fluid is given by
(where K = Bulk modulus, and ρ = Density of the fluid)
(A) K.ρ
(B) K/ρ
(C) ρ/K
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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467. A fluid having no viscosity is known as
(A) Real fluid
(B) Ideal fluid
(C) Newtonian fluid
Answer: Option B
468. In order to avoid tendency of separation at throat in a
Venturimeter, the ratio of the diameter at throat to the diameter of
pipe should be
(A) 1/16 to 1/8
(B) 1/8 to 1/4
(C) 1/4 to 1/3
(D) 1/3 to 1/2
Answer: Option D
469. Liquids transmit pressure equally in all the directions. This is
according to
(A) Boyle's law
(B) Archimedes principle
(C) Pascal's law
(D) Newton's formula
Answer: Option C
470. The discharge over a triangular notch is
(A) Inversely proportional to H3/2
(B) Directly proportional to H3/2
(C) Inversely proportional to H5/2
(D) Directly proportional to H5/2
Answer: Option D
471. A flow whose streamline is represented by a straight line, is called
__________ dimensional flow.
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer: Option A
472. The body will float if the force of buoyancy is __________ the
weight of the liquid displaced.
(A) Equal to
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(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
473. The velocity corresponding to Reynold number of 2000 is called
(A) Sub-sonic velocity
(B) Super-sonic velocity
(C) Lower critical velocity
(D) Higher critical velocity
Answer: Option C
474. A structure, whose width is __________ the width of the channel,
is called a flumed structure.
(A) Less than
(B) More than
(C) Equal
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
475. The force of buoyancy is always __________ the weight of the
liquid displaced by the body.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
476. The density of water is 1000 kg/m3 at
(A) 0° C
(B) 0° K
(C) 4° C
(D) 20° C
Answer: Option C
477. Bulk modulus of a fluid __________ as the pressure increases.
(A) Remain same
(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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478. The coefficient of viscosity may be determined by
(A) Capillary tube method
(B) Orifice type viscometer
(C) Rotating cylinder method
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
479. Center of pressure on an inclined plane is
(A) At the Centroid
(B) Above the Centroid
(C) Below the Centroid
(D) At metacentre
Answer: Option C
480. When the Mach number is less than unity, the flow is called
(A) Sub-sonic flow
(B) Sonic flow
(C) Super-sonic flow
(D) Hyper-sonic flow
Answer: Option A
481. When the pressure intensity at a point is more than the local
atmospheric pressure, then the difference of these two pressures is
called
(A) Gauge pressure
(B) Absolute pressure
(C) Positive gauge pressure
(D) Vacuum pressure
Answer: Option C
482. If the coefficient of discharge is 0.6, then the discharge over a
right angled notch is
(A) 0.417 H5/2
(B) 1.417 H5/2
(C) 4.171 H5/2
(D) 7.141 H5/2
Answer: Option B
483. The most efficient section of a channel is
(A) Triangular
(B) Rectangular
(C) Square
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(D) Trapezoidal
Answer: Option D
484. A pipe of length more than double the diameter of orifice fitted
externally or internally to the orifice is called a
(A) Notch
(B) Weir
(C) Mouthpiece
(D) Nozzle
Answer: Option C
485. An open tank containing liquid is moving with an acceleration on
an inclined plane. The inclination of the free surface of the liquid will
be __________ to the acceleration of the tank.
(A) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
486. The coefficient of discharge for an external mouthpiece is
(A) 0.375
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.707
(D) 0.855
Answer: Option D
487. The process of diffusion of one liquid into the other through a
semi permeable membrane is called
(A) Viscosity
(B) Osmosis
(C) Surface tension
(D) Cohesion
Answer: Option B
488. One stoke is equal to
(A) 10-2 m2/s
(B) 10-3 m2/s
(C) 10-4 m2/s
(D) 10-6 m2/s
Answer: Option C
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489. Falling drops of water become spheres due to the property of
(A) Surface tension of water
(B) Compressibility of water
(C) Capillarity of water
(D) Viscosity of water
Answer: Option A
490. The specific gravity of an oil whose specific weight is 7.85 kN/m3,
is
(A) 0.8
(B) 1
(C) 1.2
(D) 1.6
Answer: Option A
491. The length of the divergent cone in a Venturimeter is __________
that of the convergent cone.
(A) Equal to
(B) Double
(C) Three to four times
(D) Five to six times
Answer: Option C
492. If a body floating in a liquid returns back to its original position,
when given a small angular displacement, the body is said to be in
(A) Neutral equilibrium
(B) Stable equilibrium
(C) Unstable equilibrium
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
493. The stress-strain relation of the Newtonian fluid is
(A) Linear
(B) Parabolic
(C) Hyperbolic
(D) Inverse type
Answer: Option A
494. The viscosity of a liquid __________ its rate of flow through a
hole in a vessel.
(A) Effects
(B) Does not effect
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(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
495. The coefficient of discharge in case of internal mouthpiece is
__________ that of external mouthpiece.
(A) Less than
(B) More than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
496. The unit of surface tension is
(A) N/m
(B) N/m2
(C) N/m3
(D) N-m
Answer: Option A
497. The units of dynamic or absolute viscosity are
(B) kg sec/meter
(C) Newton-sec per meter
(D) Newton-sec² per meter
Answer: Option C
498. A notch is used to measure __________ of liquids.
(A) Pressure
(B) Discharge
(C) Velocity
(D) Volume
Answer: Option B
499. Euler's number is the ratio of __________ force to pressure force.
(A) Inertia
(B) Gravity
(C) Viscous
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
500. A flow in which the volume of a fluid and its density does not
change during the flow is called _________ flow.
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(A) Incompressible
(B) Compressible
(C) Viscous
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
501. The weight per unit volume of a liquid at a standard temperature
and pressure is called
(A) Specific weight
(B) Mass density
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
502. The efficiency of power transmission through pipe is (where H =
Total supply head, and hf = Head lost due to friction in the pipe)
(A) (H - hf )/H
(B) H/(H - hf )
(C) (H + hf )/H
(D) H/(H + hf )
Answer: Option A
503. The error in discharge (dQ/Q) to the error in measurement of
head (dH/H) over a rectangular notch is given by
(A) dQ/Q = (1/2) × (dH/H)
(B) dQ/Q = (3/4) × (dH/H)
(C) dQ/Q = (dH/H)
(D) dQ/Q = (3/2) × (dH/H)
Answer: Option D
504. The flow of water through the hole in the bottom of a wash basin
is an example of
(A) Steady flow
(B) Uniform flow
(C) Free vortex
(D) Forced vortex
Answer: Option C
505. A flow in which the viscosity of fluid is dominating over the
inertia force is called
(A) Steady flow
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(B) Unsteady flow
(C) Laminar flow
(D) Turbulent flow
Answer: Option C
506. The hydraulic mean depth or the hydraulic radius is the ratio of
(A) Area of flow and wetted perimeter
(B) Wetted perimeter and diameter of pipe
(C) Velocity of flow and area of flow
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
507. A flow whose streamline is represented by a curve, is called
(A) One-dimensional flow
(B) Two-dimensional flow
(C) Three-dimensional flow
(D) Four-dimensional flow
Answer: Option B
508. The value of coefficient of discharge is __________ the value of
coefficient of velocity.
(A) Less than
(B) Same as
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
509. The hydraulic mean depth for a circular pipe of diameter (d) is
(A) d/6
(B) d/4
(C) d/2
(D) d
Answer: Option B
510. A fluid whose viscosity does not change with the rate of
deformation or shear strain is known as
(A) Real fluid
(B) Ideal fluid
(C) Newtonian fluid
Answer: Option C
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511. Barometer is used to measure
(A) Velocity of liquid
(C) Pressure in pipes and channels
(D) Difference of pressure between two points in a pipe
Answer: Option B
512. An error of 1% in measuring head over the crest of the notch (H)
will produce an error of __________ in discharge over a triangular
notch,
(A) 1 %
(B) 1.5 %
(C) 2 %
(D) 2.5 %
Answer: Option D
513. The coefficient of venturi-flume, generally, lies between
(A) 0.3 to 0.45
(B) 0.50 to 0.75
(C) 0.75 to 0.95
(D) 0.95 to 1.0
Answer: Option D
514. A flow in which the quantity of liquid flowing per second is not
constant, is called
(A) Streamline flow
(B) Turbulent flow
(C) Steady flow
(D) Unsteady flow
Answer: Option D
515. The specific gravity of water is taken as
(A) 0.001
(B) 0.01
(C) 0.1
(D) 1
Answer: Option D
Fluid Mechanics: Test 01

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01. When the pressure intensity at a point is less than the local
atmospheric pressure, then the difference of these two pressures is
called vacuum pressure.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
02. The ratio of the inertia force to the gravity force is called Froude
number.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
03. If a pitot tube is placed with its nose upstream, downstream or
sideways, the reading will be the same in every case.
(A) True
(B) False
04. A body floating in a liquid is said to be in a stable equilibrium, if
its metacentre coincides with its centre of gravity.
(A) True
(B) False
05. The flow in a pipe is laminar, when Reynold number is less than
2000.
(A) True
(B) False
06. According to Pascal's law, the intensity of pressure at any point in
a fluid at rest is the same in all directions.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
07. The line of action of the force of buoyancy acts through the centre
of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced.
(A) True
(B) False
08. The vacuum pressure can be measured with the help of a
Piezometer tube.
(A) True
(B) False
09. According to Bazin, the coefficient of discharge varies with the
height of water over the sill of a weir.
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(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
10. If the value of coefficient of discharge increases, the discharge
through the orifice decreases.
(A) True
(B) False
11. The D-Alembert's principle is used for changing the dynamic
equilibrium of a fluid mass, into a static equilibrium.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
12. The flow at critical depth in an open channel is called torrential
flow.
(A) Yes
(B) No
13. In a sharp-crested weir, the thickness of the weir is kept less than
half of the height of water above the crest of the weir.
(A) True
(B) False
14. The velocity of liquid flowing through an orifice varies with the
available head of the liquid.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
15. When an internal mouthpiece is running full, the discharge
through the mouthpiece is twice the discharge when it is running free.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
16. Surface tension force is the product of surface tension per unit
length and cross-sectional area of flow.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
17. When a body is placed over a liquid, it is subjected to gravitational
force and upthrust of the liquid.
(A) True
(B) False
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18. The property of a liquid which enables it to resist tensile stress is
called its surface tension.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
19. In the manufacturing of lead shots, the property of surface tension
is utilised.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
20. The coefficient of discharge is the ratio of theoretical discharge to
the actual discharge through an orifice.
(A) True
(B) False
Answers: Fluid Mechanics Test 01

Fluid Mechanics: Test 02

01. Whenever a plate is held immersed at some angle with the
direction of flow of the liquid, it is subjected to some pressure. The
component of this pressure, at right angles to the direction of flow of
the liquid is known as lift.
(A) True
(B) False
02. A flow in which each liquid particle does not have a definite path
and the paths of individual particles also cross each other is called
turbulent flow.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
03. If an incompressible liquid is continuously flowing through a pipe,
the quantity of liquid passing per second is different at different
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sections.
(A) True
(B) False
04. The total pressure on the bottom of a closed cylindrical vessel
completely filled up with a liquid is the sum of the total centrifugal
pressure and the weight of the liquid in the vessel.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
05. In an internal mouthpiece, if the jet after contraction expands and
fills up the whole mouthpiece, then the mouthpiece is said to be
running free.
(A) True
(B) False
06. A body floating in a liquid is said to be not in equilibrium if its
metacentre lies below its centre of gravity.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
07. A closed tank is completely filled with an oil. If it is made to move
with a horizontal acceleration, then the pressure at the back end will
be more than that at the front end.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
08. The difference between the notch and weir is that the notch is of
bigger size and the weir is of a smaller size.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
09. The rise, in water level, which occurs during the transformation of
the unstable shooting flow to the stable streaming flow is called
hydraulic jump.
(A) Yes
(B) No
10. In an external or internal mouthpiece, the absolute pressure head
at vena contracta is zero when atmospheric pressure head is 10.3 m of
water.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
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11. If a body floating in a liquid does not return back to its original
position and heels farther "away when given a small angular
displacement, the body is said to be in neutral equilibrium.
(A) Yes
(B) No
12. The tendency of a liquid to uplift a submerged body, because of the
upward thrust of the liquid, is known as buoyancy.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
13. The centre of buoyancy is the centre of area of the immersed body.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
14. When the pipes are in series, the total head loss is equal to the sum
of the head loss in each pipe
(A) Yes
(B) No
15. The hydraulic gradient line may be above or below the centre line
of the pipe.
(A) True
(B) False
16. When a tube of smaller diameter is dipped in water, the water
rises in the tube due to viscosity of water.
(A) True
(B) False
17. In a Venturimeter, the velocity of liquid at throat is __________
than at inlet.
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
18. A flow through an expanding tube at increasing rate is called
unsteady non-uniform flow.
(A) Yes
(B) No
19. The water hammer in pipes occurs due to sudden change in the
velocity of flowing liquid
(A) Agree
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(B) Disagree
20. The hydraulic gradient line is always parallel to the centre line of
the pipe.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect

Fluid Mechanics: Test03

01. In a convergent mouthpiece, the absolute pressure head at vena
contracta is the same as that of the atmosphere.
(A) True
(B) False
02. The separation of flow occurs when the hydrodynamic boundary
layer thickness is reduced to zero.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
03. A fluid whose viscosity changes with the rate of deformation or
shear strain is known as Non-Newtonian fluid.
(A) True
(B) False
04. All the gases are considered to have compressible flow and all the
liquids are considered to have incompressible flow.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
05. When the end contractions of the weir are suppressed, then
number of end contractions (n) are taken as zero.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
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06. The formula for discharge over a sharp-crested weir and Ogee
weir is same as that of a rectangular weir.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
07. The ratio of the inertia force to the surface tension force is called
Weber's number.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
08. The ratio of velocity of fluid in an undisturbed stream to the
velocity of sound wave is known as Mach number.
(A) Yes
(B) No
09. The loss of head due to an obstruction in a pipe is twice the loss of
head at its entrance.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
10. The specific gravity has no units.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
11. The velocity at which the turbulent flow starts is known as higher
critical velocity.
(A) Yes
(B) No
12. Kinematic viscosity is the product of dynamic viscosity and the
density of the liquid.
(A) Yes
(B) No
13. A venturi flume is a flumed structure constructed across a channel
by restricting its width.
(A) True
(B) False
14. A siphon is used to connect two reservoirs at different levels
intervened by a high ridge.
(A) True
(B) False
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15. The depth of water in a channel corresponding to the minimum
specific energy is known as critical depth.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
16. The shear stress-strain graph for a Non-Newtonian fluid is a curve.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
17. The specific weight of compressible fluids does not remain
constant.
(A) True
(B) False
18. The reciprocal of Euler's number is called Newton number.
(A) Yes
(B) No
19. The density of a liquid in kg/m3 is numerically equal to its specific
gravity.
(A) True
(B) False
20. The velocity of flow is same at all points in the cross-section of a
channel.
(A) True
(B) False

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Hydraulics & Fluid Machineries:
01. Low specific speed of a pump implies it is
(A) Centrifugal pump
(B) Mixed flow pump
(C) Axial flow pump
Answer: Option A
02. Head developed by a centrifugal pump is
(A) Proportional to diameter of impeller
(B) Proportional to speed of impeller
(C) Proportional to diameter and speed of impeller
Answer: Option C
03. In centrifugal pumps, maximum efficiency is obtained when the
blades are
(A) Straight
(B) Bent forward
(C) Bent backward
(D) Radial
Answer: Option C
04. A double overhung Pelton wheel has
(A) Two jets
(B) Two runners
(C) Four jets
(D) Four runners
Answer: Option B
05. Medium specific speed of a pump implies it is
(B) Mixed flow pump
(C) Axial flow pump
Answer: Option B
06. If the ratios of all the corresponding linear dimensions are equal,
then the model and the prototype are said to have
(A) Geometric similarity
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(B) Kinematic similarity
(C) Dynamic similarity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
07. The optimum value of vane exit angle for a centrifugal pump
impeller is
(A) 10-15°
(B) 20-25°
(C) 30-40°
(D) 50-60°
Answer: Option B
08. Which of the following pump is suitable for small discharge and
high heads?
(B) Axial flow pump
(C) Mixed flow pump
(D) Reciprocating pump
Answer: Option D
09. For small discharge at high pressure, following pump is preferred
(A) Centrifugal
(B) Axial flow
(C) Mixed flow
(D) Reciprocating
Answer: Option D
10. A hydraulic press is a device used
(A) To store pressure energy which may be supplied to a machine later
on
(B) To increase the intensity of pressure of water by means of energy
available from a large quantity of water at a low pressure
(C) To lift larger load by the application of a comparatively much
smaller force
Answer: Option C
11. Low specific speed of turbine implies it is
(A) Propeller turbine
(B) Francis turbine
(C) Impulse turbine
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Answer: Option C
12. The function of guide vanes in a reaction turbine is to
(A) Allow the water to enter the runner without shock
(B) Allow the water to flow over them, without forming eddies
(C) Allow the required quantity of water to enter the turbine
Answer: Option D
13. Hydraulic accumulator is used for
(A) Accumulating oil
(B) Supplying large quantities of oil for very short duration
(C) Generally high pressures to operate hydraulic machines
(D) Supplying energy when main supply fails
Answer: Option D
14. The jet ratio is defined as the ratio of the
(A) Diameter of jet to the diameter of Pelton wheel
(B) Velocity of jet to the velocity of Pelton wheel
(C) Diameter of Pelton wheel to the diameter of jet
(D) Velocity of Pelton wheel to the velocity of jet
Answer: Option C
15. Maximum impulse will be developed in hydraulic ram when
(A) Waste valve closes suddenly
(B) Supply pipe is long
(C) Supply pipe is short
(D) Ram chamber is large
Answer: Option A
16. In a single casing, multistage pump running at constant speed, the
capacity rating is to be slightly lowered. It can be done by
(A) Designing new impeller
(B) Trimming the impeller size to the required size by machining
(C) Not possible
(D) Some other alterations in the impeller
Answer: Option B
17. Which of the following pump is successfully used for lifting water
to the turbines?
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(B) Reciprocating pump
(C) Jet pump
(D) Air lift pump
Answer: Option C
18. If a pump is handling water and is discharging a certain flow Q at
a constant total dynamic head requiring a definite B.H.P., the same
pump when handling a liquid of specific gravity 0.75 and viscosity
nearly same as of water, the horse power required will be
(A) Same
(B) 0.75 B.H.P.
(C) B.H.P./0.75
(D) 1.5 B.H.P.
Answer: Option B
19. A jet of water is striking at the centre of a curved vane moving
with a uniform velocity in the direction of jet. For the maximum
efficiency, the vane velocity is ________ of the jet velocity
(A) One-half
(B) One-third
(C) Two-third
(D) Three-fourth
Answer: Option B
20. In a centrifugal pump, the liquid enters the pump
(A) At the top
(B) At the bottom
(C) At the canter
(D) From sides
Answer: Option C
21. Kinematic similarity is said to exist between the model and the
prototype, if both of them
(A) Have identical velocities
(B) Are equal in size and shape
(C) Are identical in shape, but differ only in size
(D) Have identical forces
Answer: Option A
22. For very high discharge at low pressure such as for flood control
and irrigation applications, following type of pump is preferred
(A) Centrifugal
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(B) Axial flow
(C) Reciprocating
(D) Mixed flow
Answer: Option B
23. The flow ratio of Francis turbine is defined as the ratio of the
(A) Velocity of flow at inlet to the theoretical jet velocity
(B) Theoretical velocity of jet to the velocity of flow at inlet
(C) Velocity of runner at inlet to the velocity of flow at inlet
Answer: Option A
24. The maximum number of jets generally employed in impulse
turbine without jet interference is
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 12
Answer: Option B
25. The specific speed (Ns) of a centrifugal pump is given by
(A) (N√Q)/H2/3
(B) (N√Q)/H3/4
(C) (N√Q)/H
(D) (N√Q)/H5/4
Answer: Option B
26. Medium specific speed of turbine implies it is
(B) Francis turbine
(C) Impulse turbine
Answer: Option B
27. A turbine is required to develop 1500 kW at 300 r.p.m. under a
head of 150 m. Which of the following turbine should be used?
(A) Pelton wheel with one nozzle
(B) Pelton wheel with two or more nozzles
(C) Kaplan turbine
(D) Francis turbine
Answer: Option A
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28. Puck up the wrong statement about centrifugal pump
(A) Discharge a diameter
(B) Head a speed²
(C) Head a diameter
(D) Power a speed⁴
Answer: Option A
29. The flow ratio in case of Francis turbine varies from
(A) 0.15 to 0.3
(B) 0.4 to 0.5
(C) 0.6 to 0.9
(D) 1 to 1.5
Answer: Option A
30. In reaction turbine, draft tube is used
(A) To transport water downstream without eddies
(B) To convert the kinetic energy to flow energy by a gradual
expansion of the flow cross-section
(C) For safety of turbine
(D) To increase flow rate
Answer: Option B
31. Specific speed for reaction turbines ranges from
(A) 0 to 4.5
(B) 10 to 100
(C) 80 to 200
(D) 250 to 300
Answer: Option B
32. The efficiency of jet propulsion for a ship with inlet orifices at
right angles to the direction of motion of ship is given by
(A) [2(Vr - v) v]/ Vr²
(B) 2(Vr + v) v]/ Vr²
(C) [(Vr - v) v]/ Vr
(D) [(Vr + v) v]/ Vr
Answer: Option A
33. Air vessels in reciprocating pump are used to
(A) Smoothen flow
(B) Reduce acceleration to minimum
(C) Increase pump efficiency
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(D) Save pump from cavitations
Answer: Option B
34. For 450 m head of water, _________ shall be used.
(A) Pelton wheel
(B) Kaplan turbine
(C) Francis turbine
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
35. According to fan laws, for fans having constant wheel diameter,
the air or gas capacity varies
(A) Directly as fan speed
(B) Square of fan speed
(C) Cube of fan speed
(D) Square root of fan speed
Answer: Option A
36. The speed ratio in case of Francis turbine varies from
(A) 0.15 to 0.3
(B) 0.4 to 0.5
(C) 0.6 to 0.9
(D) 1 to 1.5
Answer: Option C
37. The specific speed of turbine is defined as the speed of a unit
(A) Of such a size that it delivers unit discharge at unit head
(B) Of such a size that it delivers unit discharge at unit power
(C) Of such a size that it requires unit power per unit head
(D) Of such a size that it produces unit horse power with unit head
Answer: Option D
38. The undershot water wheels are those in which
(A) The wheel runs entirely by the weight of water
(B) The wheel runs entirely by the impulse of water
(C) The wheel runs partly by the weight of water and partly by the
impulse of water
Answer: Option B
39. Guide angle as per the aerofoil theory of Kaplan turbine blade
design is defined as the angle between
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(A) Lift and resultant force
(B) Drag and resultant force
(C) Lift and tangential force
(D) Lift and drag
Answer: Option A
40. In an outward flow reaction turbine
(A) The water flows parallel to the axis of the wheel
(B) The water enters at the centre of the wheel and then flows towards
the outer periphery of the wheel
(C) The water enters the wheel at the outer periphery and then flows
towards the centre of the wheel
(D) The flow of water is partly radial and partly axial
Answer: Option B
41. Impulse turbine is generally fitted
(A) At the level of tail race
(B) Little above the tail race
(C) Slightly below the tail race
(D) About 2.5 m above the tail race to avoid cavitations.
Answer: Option B
42. The gross or total head of the turbine is the ________ of the water
levels at the head race and tail race.
(A) Sum
(B) Difference
(C) Product
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
43. In axial flow fans and turbines, fluid enters and leaves as follows
(A) Radially, axially
(B) Axially, radially
(C) Axially, axially
(D) Radially, radially
Answer: Option C
(A) In an impulse turbine, the water impinges on the buckets with
pressure energy.
(B) In a reaction turbine, the water glides over the moving vanes with
kinetic energy.
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(C) In an impulse turbine, the pressure of the flowing water remains
unchanged and is equal to atmospheric pressure.
(D) In a reaction turbine, the pressure of the flowing water increases
after gliding over the vanes.
Answer: Option C
45. According to fan laws, for fans having constant wheel diameter,
the pressure varies
Answer: Option B
46. Saving of work done and power by fitting an air vessel to double
acting reciprocating pump is of the order of
(A) 39.2 %
(B) 49.2 %
(C) 68.8 %
(D) 84.8 %
Answer: Option A
47. If the net positive suction head (NPSH) requirement for the pump
is not satisfied, then
(A) No flow will take place
(B) Cavitation will be formed
(C) Efficiency will be low
(D) Excessive power will be consumed
Answer: Option B
48. According to fan laws, at constant pressure, the speed capacity and
power vary
(A) Directly as the air or gas density
(B) Inversely as square root of density
(C) Inversely as density
(D) As square of density
Answer: Option B
49. Which of the following turbine is preferred for a specific speed of
60 to 300 r.p.m.?
(A) Pelton wheel
(B) Francis turbine
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(C) Kaplan turbine
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
50. The angle of taper on draft tube is
(A) Greater than 15°
(B) Greater than 8°
(C) Greater than 5°
(D) Less than 8°
Answer: Option D
51. The width of the bucket for a Pelton wheel is generally ________
the diameter of jet.
(A) Double
(B) Three times
(C) Four times
(D) Five times
Answer: Option D
52. Which place in hydraulic turbine is most susceptible for
cavitations?
(A) Inlet of draft rube
(B) Blade inlet
(C) Guide blade
(D) Penstock
Answer: Option A
53. Discharge of a centrifugal pump is (where N = Speed of the pump
impeller)
(A) Directly proportional to N
(B) Inversely proportional to N
(C) Directly proportional to N²
(D) Inversely proportional to N²
Answer: Option A
54. The discharge through a reaction turbine with increase in unit
speed
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
Answer: Option B
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55. The power produced by the reaction turbine is ________ to the
head of water.
(C) 4th power
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
56. The maximum number of jets, generally, employed in an impulse
turbine without jet interference are
(A) Two
(B) Four
(C) Six
(D) Eight
Answer: Option C
57. Pressure intensifier increases the pressure in proportion to
(A) Ratio of diameters
(B) Square of ratio of diameters
(C) Inverse ratio of diameters
(D) Square of inverse ratio of diameters
Answer: Option B
58. The specific speed from 160 to 500 r.p.m. of a centrifugal pump
indicates that the pump is
(A) Slow speed with radial flow at outlet
(B) Medium speed with radial flow at outlet
(C) High speed with radial flow at outlet
(D) High speed with axial flow at outlet
Answer: Option D
59. For centrifugal pump impeller, the maximum value of the vane
exit angle is
(A) 10° to 15°
(B) 15° to 20°
(C) 20° to 25°
(D) 25° to 30°
Answer: Option C
60. A hydraulic accumulator normally consists of
(A) Two cylinders, two rams and a storage device
(B) A cylinder and a ram
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(C) Two coaxial rams and two cylinders
(D) A cylinder, a piston, storage tank and control valve
Answer: Option B
61. Saving of work done and power by fitting an air vessel to single
acting reciprocating pump is of the order of
(A) 39.2 %
(B) 49.2 %
(C) 68.8 %
(D) 84.8 %
Answer: Option D
62. Overall efficiency of a centrifugal pump is the ratio of
(A) Energy available at the impeller to the energy supplied to the
pump by the prime mover
(B) Actual workdone by the pump to the energy supplied to the pump
by the prime mover
(C) Energy supplied to the pump to the energy available at the impeller
(D) Manometric head to the energy supplied by the impeller per kN of
water
Answer: Option B
63. Which of the following pump is generally used to pump highly
viscous fluid?
(C) Air lift pump
(D) Screw pump
Answer: Option D
64. High specific speed of turbine implies it is
(B) Francis turbine
(C) Impulse turbine
Answer: Option A
65. In a reciprocating pump, air vessels are used to
(A) Smoothen the flow
(B) Reduce suction head
(C) Increase delivery head
(D) Reduce acceleration head
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Answer: Option D
66. The specific speed of a turbine is given by the equation
(A) N√P / H3/2
(B) N√P / H²
(C) N√P / H5/4
(D) N√P / H3
Answer: Option C
67. In order to avoid cavitation in centrifugal pumps
(A) The suction pressure should be high
(B) The delivery pressure should be high
(C) The suction pressure should be low
(D) The delivery pressure should be low
Answer: Option A
68. The speed of an imaginary turbine, identical with the given
turbine, which will develop a unit power under a unit head, is known
as
(A) Normal speed
(B) Unit speed
(C) Specific speed
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
69. Francis turbine is best suited for
(A) Medium head application from 24 to 180 m
(B) Low head installation up to 30 m
(C) High head installation above 180 m
(D) All types of heads
Answer: Option A
70. Power required (in watts) to drive a centrifugal pump is (where
Hm = Manometric head in metres, w = Specific weight in N/m3, Q =
Discharge of the pump in m3/s, and ηo = Overall efficiency of the
pump)
(A) (w Hm) / (Q × ηo)
(B) (w Hm Q) / ηo
(C) (w Q) / (Hm × ηo)
(D) (w Q ηo) / Hm
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Answer: Option B
71. By fitting an air vessel to the reciprocating pump, there is always a
saving of work done and subsequently saving of power. The saving in
case of a double acting reciprocating pump is
(A) 39.2 %
(B) 48.8 %
(C) 84.8 %
(D) 88.4 %
Answer: Option A
72. Any change in load is adjusted by adjusting following parameter
on turbine
(A) Net head
(B) Absolute velocity
(C) Blade velocity
(D) Flow
Answer: Option D
73. The maximum hydraulic efficiency of an impulse turbine is (where
φ = Angle of blade tip at outlet)
(A) (1 + cos φ)/2
(B) (1 - cos φ)/2
(C) (1 + sin φ)/2
(D) (1 - sin φ)/2
Answer: Option A
74. The hydraulic efficiency of an impulse turbine is maximum when
velocity of wheel is _______ of the jet velocity,
(A) One-fourth
(B) One-half
(C) Three-fourth
(D) Double
Answer: Option B
75. A hydraulic intensifier normally consists of
(A) Two cylinders, two rams and a storage device
(B) A cylinder and a ram
(C) Two coaxial rams and two cylinders
(D) A cylinder, a piston, storage tank and control valve
Answer: Option C
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76. The centrifugal pump preferred for a specific speed between 80 to
160 r.p.m. is
(A) Slow speed with radial flow at outlet
(B) Medium speed with radial flow at outlet
(C) High speed with radial flow at outlet
(D) High speed with mixed flow at outlet
Answer: Option D
77. Reaction turbines are used for
(A) Low head
(B) High head
(C) High head and low discharge
(D) Low head and high discharge
Answer: Option D
78. Which of the following hydraulic unit is used for transmitting
increased or decreased torque to the driven shaft?
(A) Hydraulic ram
(B) Hydraulic intensifier
(C) Hydraulic torque converter
(D) Hydraulic accumulator
Answer: Option C
79. A centrifugal pump will start delivering liquid only when the
pressure rise in the impeller is equal to the
(A) Kinetic head
(B) Velocity head
(C) Manometric head
(D) Static head
Answer: Option C
80. If a pump is handling water and is discharging a certain flow Q at
a constant total dynamic head requiring a definite B.H.P., the same
pump when handling a liquid of specific gravity 0.75 and viscosity
nearly same as of water would discharge
(A) Same quantity of liquid
(B) 0.75 Q
(C) Q/0.75
(D) 1.5 Q
Answer: Option A
81. The overall efficiency of a reaction turbine is the ratio of
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(A) Power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by
the turbine
(B) Actual work available at the turbine to the energy imparted to the
wheel
(C) Workdone on the wheel to the energy (or head of water) actually
supplied to the turbine
Answer: Option A
82. The force exerted by a jet of water (in a direction normal to flow)
impinging on a fixed plate inclined at an angle θ with the jet is
(A) waV/2g × sinθ
(B) waV/g × sinθ
(C) waV²/2g × sin2θ
(D) waV²/g × sinθ
Answer: Option C
83. Casting of a centrifugal pump is designed so as to minimize
(A) Friction loss
(B) Cavitations
(C) Static head
(D) Loss of kinetic energy
Answer: Option D
84. A hydraulic ram is a device used to
(A) Store the energy of water
(B) Increase the pressure of water
(C) To lift water from deep wells
(D) To lift small quantity of water to a greater height when a large
quantity of water is available at a smaller height
Answer: Option D
85. According to fan laws, at constant speed and capacity, the pressure
and power vary
Answer: Option A
86. The ratio of quantity of liquid discharged per second from the
pump to the quantity of liquid passing per second through the
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impeller is known as
(A) Manometric efficiency
(B) Mechanical efficiency
(C) Overall efficiency
Answer: Option D
87. Discharge (Q) of a centrifugal pump is given by (where D =
Diameter of impeller at inlet, b = Width of impeller at inlet, and Vf =
Velocity of flow at inlet)
(A) Q = π.D.Vf
(B) Q = π.b.Vf
(C) Q = π.D.bf.V
(D) Q = D.b.Vf
Answer: Option C
88. Multistage centrifugal pumps are used to obtain
(A) High discharge
(B) High head
(C) Pumping of viscous fluids
(D) High head and high discharge
Answer: Option B
89. Which of the following turbine is preferred for 0 to 25 m head of
water?
(A) Pelton wheel
(B) Kaplan turbine
(C) Francis turbine
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
90. Dynamic similarity is said to exist between the model and the
Answer: Option D
91. Which of the following pump is preferred for flood control and
irrigation applications?
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(B) Axial flow pump
(C) Mixed flow pump
Answer: Option B
92. Multistage centrifugal pumps are used to
(A) Give high discharge
(B) Produce high heads
(C) Pump viscous fluids
(D) All of these
Answer: Option B
93. Reciprocating pumps are no more to be seen in industrial
applications (in comparison to centrifugal pumps) because of
(A) High initial and maintenance cost
(B) Lower discharge
(C) Lower speed of operation
(D) Necessity of air vessel
Answer: Option A
94. The efficiency of a Pelton wheel working under constant head
________ with the increase in power.
(A) Remain same
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
95. The discharge through a reaction turbine ________ with the
increase in unit speed.
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Remain same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
96. Axial flow pump is started with its delivery valve
(A) Kept fully closed
(B) Kept fully open
(C) Irrespective of any position
(D) Kept 50% open
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Answer: Option B
97. A Pelton wheel working under a constant head and discharge, has
maximum efficiency when the speed ratio is
(A) 0.26
(B) 0.36
(C) 0.46
(D) 0.56
Answer: Option C
98. The specific speed of a hydraulic turbine depends upon
(A) Speed and power developed
(B) Discharge and power developed
(C) Speed and head of water
(D) Speed, power developed and head of water
Answer: Option D
99. Head developed by a centrifugal pump depends on
(A) Impeller diameter
(B) Speed
(C) Fluid density
(D) Both (A) and (B) above
Answer: Option D
100. If the ratio's of the corresponding forces acting at corresponding
points are equal, then the model and the prototype are said to have.
(A) Geometric similarity
(B) Kinematic similarity
(C) Dynamic similarity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
101. A Pelton wheel develops 1750 kW under a head of 100 metres
while running at 200 r.p.m. and discharging 2500 litres of water per
second. The unit speed of the wheel is
(A) 10 r.p.m.
(B) 20 r.p.m.
(C) 40 r.p.m.
(D) 80 r.p.m.
Answer: Option B
102. Centrifugal pump is started with its delivery valve
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(A) Kept fully closed
(B) Kept fully open
(C) Irrespective of any position
(D) Kept 50% open
Answer: Option A
103. The cavitation in reaction turbines is avoided, to a great extent by
(A) Installing the turbine below the tail race level
(B) Using stainless steel runner of the turbine
(C) Providing highly polished blades to the runner
Answer: Option D
104. In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of water leaving the
impeller, is
(A) Rectilinear flow
(B) Radial flow
(C) Free vortex motion
(D) Forced vortex
Answer: Option C
105. A hydraulic accumulator is a device used to store ________
energy which may be supplied to a machine later on.
(A) Strain
(B) Pressure
(C) Kinetic
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
106. Which of the following statement is correct as regard to water
wheels?
(A) They have slow speeds
(B) They are suitable even for low water heads
(C) They give constant efficiency, even if the discharge is not constant
Answer: Option D
107. The unit power developed by a turbine is (where P = Power
developed by the turbine under a head of water (H).
(A) P/ √H
(B) P/ H
(C) P/ H3/2
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(D) P/ H²
Answer: Option C
108. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is
(A) Full load speed
(B) The speed at which turbine runner will be damaged
(C) The speed if the turbine runner is allowed to revolve freely without
load and with the wicket gates wide open
(D) The speed corresponding to maximum overload permissible
Answer: Option C
109. Which type of the pump is different from others in the same
group?
(A) Screw pump
(B) Gear pump
(C) Cam and piston pump
(D) Plunger pump
Answer: Option D
110. The specific speed of a centrifugal pump, delivering 750 litres of
water per second against a head of 15 metres at 725 r.p.m., is
(A) 24.8 r.p.m.
(B) 48.2 r.p.m
(C) 82.4 r.p.m.
(D) 248 r.p.m
Answer: Option C
111. When a piping system is made up primarily of vertical lift and
very little pipe friction, the pump characteristics should be
(A) Horizontal
(B) Nearly horizontal
(C) Steep
(D) First rise and then fall
Answer: Option C
112. In an inward flow reaction turbine
(A) The water flows parallel to the axis of the wheel
(B) The water enters at the centre of the wheel and then flows towards
the outer periphery of the wheel
(C) The water enters the wheel at the outer periphery and then flows
towards the centre of the wheel
(D) The flow of water is partly radial and partly axial
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Answer: Option C
113. In impulse Turbine, energy available at the inlet is in the form of
(A) Potential Energy
(B) Strain Energy
(C) Kinetic energy
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
second. The unit discharge of wheel is
(A) 0.25 m3/s
(B) 0.5 m3/s
(C) 1.5 m3/s
(D) 2.5 m3/s
Answer: Option A
115. Power required to drive a centrifugal pump is directly
proportional to ________ of its impeller.
(A) Diameter
(B) Square of diameter
(C) Cube of diameter
(D) Fourth power of diameter
Answer: Option D
(A) The reaction turbines are used for low head and high discharge.
(B) The angle of taper on draft tube is less than 8°.
(C) An impulse turbine is generally fitted slightly above the tail race.
(D) A Francis turbine is an impulse turbine.
Answer: Option D
117. Discharge of a centrifugal pump is
(A) Directly proportional to diameter of its impeller
(B) Inversely proportional to diameter of its impeller
(C) Directly proportional to (diameter)² of its impeller
(D) Inversely proportional to (diameter)² of its impeller
Answer: Option D
118. The speed of a turbine runner is
(A) Directly proportional to H1/2
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(B) Inversely proportional to H1/2
(C) Directly proportional to H3/2
(D) Inversely proportional to H3/2
Answer: Option A
119. In a reaction turbine, the draft tube is used
(A) To run the turbine full
(B) To prevent air to enter the turbine
(C) To increase the head of water by an amount equal to the height of
the runner outlet above the tail race
(D) To transport water to downstream
Answer: Option C
120. Slip of a reciprocating pump is defined as the
(A) Ratio of actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
(B) Sum of actual discharge and the theoretical discharge
(C) Difference of theoretical discharge and the actual discharge
(D) Product of theoretical discharge and the actual discharge
Answer: Option C
121. In a Kaplan turbine runner, the numbers of blades are generally
between
(A) 2 to 4
(B) 4 to 8
(C) 8 to 16
(D) 16 to 24
Answer: Option B
122. The depth of the bucket for a Pelton wheel is generally ________
the diameter of jet.
(A) Equal to
(B) 1.2 times
(C) 1.8 times
(D) Double
Answer: Option B
123. An impulse turbine is used for
(A) Low head of water
(B) High head of water
(C) Medium head of water
(D) High discharge
Answer: Option B
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124. If V1 and V2 are the velocities of water at inlet and outlet of the
draft tube respectively, then the efficiency of a draft tube is
(A) (V1 - V2) / V1
(B) (V1² - V2²) / V1²
(C) V1 / (V1 - V2)
(D) V1² / (V1² - V2²)
Answer: Option B
125. A Pelton wheel is
(A) Tangential flow impulse turbine
(B) Inward flow impulse turbine
(C) Outward flow impulse turbine
(D) Inward flow reaction turbine
Answer: Option A
126. Delivery head of a centrifugal pump is
(A) Directly proportional to N
(B) Inversely proportional to N
(C) Directly proportional to N²
(D) Inversely proportional to N²
Answer: Option C
127. Theoretical power required (in watts) to drive a reciprocating
pump is (where w = Specific weight of liquid to be pumped in N/m3, Q
= Discharge of the pump in m3/s, Hs = Suction head in metres, and Hd
= Delivery head in metres)
(A) wQHs
(B) wQHd
(C) wQ(Hs - Hd)
(D) wQ(Hs + Hd)
Answer: Option D
128. Slip of a reciprocating pump is negative, when
(A) Suction pipe is short and pump is running at low speeds
(B) Delivery pipe is long and pump is running at high speeds
(C) Suction pipe is short and delivery pipe is long and the pump is
running at low speeds
(D) Suction pipe is long and delivery pipe is short and the pump is
running at high speeds
Answer: Option D
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129. The Fourneyron turbine is _________ reaction turbine.
(A) An axial flow
(B) An inward flow
(C) An outward flow
(D) A mixed flow
Answer: Option C
130. Braking jet in an impulse turbine is used
(A) To break the jet of water
(B) To bring the runner to rest in a short time
(C) To change the direction of runner
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
to the boilers?
(C) Jet pump
(D) Airlift pump
Answer: Option C
132. The Thomson's turbine is __________ reaction turbine.
(A) An axial flow
(B) An inward flow
(C) An outward flow
(D) A mixed flow
Answer: Option B
133. The static head of a centrifugal pump is equal to the ________ of
suction head and delivery head.
(A) Product
(B) Difference
(C) Sum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
134. The hydraulic efficiency of an impulse turbine is the
(A) Ratio of the actual power produced by the turbine to the energy
actually supplied by the turbine
(B) Ratio of the actual work available at the turbine to the energy
imparted to the wheel
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(C) Ratio of the work done on the wheel to the energy of the jet
Answer: Option C
135. The water in a jet propelled boat is drawn through the openings
facing the direction of motion of the boat. The efficiency of propulsion
is given by
(A) 2V/(vr - v)
(B) 2V/(vr + v)
(C) V/(vr - v)
(D) V/(vr + v)
Answer: Option B
136. The unit speed of the turbine runner is
(A) N/√H
(B) N/H
(C) N/H3/2
(D) N/H²
Answer: Option A
137. Motion of a liquid in a volute casing of a centrifugal pump is an
example of
(A) Rotational flow
(B) Radial
(C) Forced spiral vortex flow
(D) Spiral vortex flow
Answer: Option D
138. The runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is the speed
(A) At full load
(B) At which there will be no damage to the runner
(C) Corresponding to maximum overload permissible
(D) At which the turbine will run freely without load
Answer: Option D
139. High specific speed of a pump implies it is
(B) Mixed flow pump
(C) Axial flow pump
Answer: Option C
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140. The type of centrifugal pump preferred for a specific speed of 20
r.p.m. is
(A) Slow speed pump with radial flow at outlet
(B) Medium speed pump with radial flow at outlet
(C) High speed pump with radial flow at outlet
(D) High speed pump with axial flow at outlet
Answer: Option A
141. Mechanical efficiency of a centrifugal pump is the ratio of
(A) Energy available at the impeller to the energy supplied to the
pump by the prime mover
(B) Actual workdone by the pump to the energy supplied to the pump
by the prime mover
(C) Energy supplied to the pump to the energy available at the impeller
(D) Manometric head to the energy supplied by the impeller per kN of
water
Answer: Option A
142. The flow rate in gear pump
(A) Increases with increase in pressure
(B) Decreases with increase in pressure
(C) More or less remains constant with increase in pressure
(D) Unpredictable
Answer: Option C
143. The specific speed of a turbine is the speed of an imaginary
turbine, identical with the given turbine, which
(A) Delivers unit discharge under unit head
(B) Delivers unit discharge under unit speed
(C) Develops unit power under unit head
(D) Develops unit power under unit speed
Answer: Option C
144. Francis, Kaplan and propeller turbines fall under the category of
(A) Impulse turbines
(B) Reaction turbines
(C) Axial flow turbines
(D) Mixed flow turbines
Answer: Option B
145. Which of the following is not a reaction turbine?
(A) Fourneyron turbine
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(B) Journal turbine
(C) Thomson's turbine
(D) Pelton wheel
Answer: Option D
146. A turbine develops 10000 kW under a head of 25 metres at 135
r.p.m. Its specific speed is
(A) 175.4 r.p.m.
(B) 215.5 r.p.m.
(C) 241.5 r.p.m.
(D) 275.4 r.p.m
Answer: Option C
147. According to fan laws, for the fans having constant wheel
diameters, the power demand varies
Answer: Option C
(A) The centrifugal pump is suitable for large discharge and smaller
heads.
(B) The centrifugal pump requires less floor area and simple
foundation as compared to reciprocating pump.
(C) The efficiency of centrifugal pump is less as compared to
reciprocating pump.
Answer: Option D
149. According to fan laws, at constant weight of air or gas, the speed,
capacity and pressure vary
Answer: Option C
150. In a centrifugal pump, the regulating valve is provided on the
(A) Casing
(B) Delivery pipe
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(C) Suction pipe
(D) Impeller
Answer: Option B
151. The discharge of a double acting reciprocating pump is (where L
= Length of stroke, A = Cross-sectional area of piston, and N = Speed
of crank in r.p.m.)
(A) L.A.N
(B) 2 L.A.N
(C) (L.A.N)/60
(D) (2 L.A.N)/60
Answer: Option D
152. The maximum efficiency of jet propulsion of a ship with inlet
orifices at right angles to the direction of motion of ship, is
(A) 40 %
(B) 50 %
(C) 60 %
(D) 80 %
Answer: Option B
153. A turbine pump is basically a centrifugal pump equipped
additionally with
(A) Adjustable blades
(B) Backward curved blades
(C) Vaned diffusion casing
(D) Inlet guide blades
Answer: Option C
154. The impeller of a centrifugal pump may have
(A) Volute casing
(B) Volute casing with guide blades
(C) Vortex casing
Answer: Option D
155. The working of which of the following hydraulic units is based on
Pascal's law?
(A) Air lift pump
(B) Jet pump
(C) Hydraulic coupling
(D) Hydraulic press
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Answer: Option D
156. By fitting an air vessel to the reciprocating pump, there is always
a saving of work done and subsequently saving of power. This saving
in case of a single acting reciprocating pump is
(A) 39.2 %
(B) 48.8 %
(C) 84.8 %
(D) 88.4 %
Answer: Option C
157. The power developed by a turbine is (where H = Head of water
under which the turbine is working)
Answer: Option C
158. The force exerted (in Newton) by a jet of water impinging
normally on a fixed plate is (where w = Specific weight of water in
N/m3, a = Cross-sectional area of jet in m², and V = Velocity of jet in
m/s)
(A) waV / 2g
(B) waV / g
(C) waV² / 2g
(D) waV² / g
Answer: Option D
159. Indicator diagram of a reciprocating pump is a graph between
(A) Flow vs. swept volume
(B) Pressure in cylinder vs. swept volume
(C) Flow vs. speed
(D) Pressure vs. speed
Answer: Option B
160. The ratio of the normal force of jet of water on a plate inclined at
an angle of 30° as compared to that when the plate is normal to jet, is
(A) 1/√2
(B) 1/2
(C) 1
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(D) √2
Answer: Option B
161. A hydraulic coupling belongs to the category of
(A) Power absorbing machines
(B) Power developing machines
(C) Energy transfer machines
(D) Energy generating machines
Answer: Option C
162. One horsepower is equal to
(A) 102 watts
(B) 75 watts
(C) 550 watts
(D) 735 watts
Answer: Option D
163. The hydraulic efficiency of a reaction turbine, is the ratio of
(A) Power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied by
the turbine
(B) Actual work available at the turbine to energy imparted to the
wheel
(C) Workdone on the wheel to the energy (or head of water) actually
supplied to the turbine
Answer: Option C
164. A Francis turbine is used when the available head of water is
(A) 0 to 25 m
(B) 25 m to 250 m
(C) Above 250 m
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
165. For starting an axial flow pump, its delivery valve should be
(A) Closed
(B) Open
(C) Depends on starting condition and flow desired
(D) Could be either open or closed
Answer: Option B
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from deep wells?
(C) Jet pump
(D) Air lift pump
Answer: Option D
167. When a piping system is made up primarily of friction head and
very little of vertical lift, then pump characteristics should be
(A) Horizontal
(B) Nearly horizontal
(C) Steep
(D) First rise and then fall
Answer: Option B
168. The overall efficiency for a Pelton wheel lies between
(A) 0.50 to 0.65
(B) 0.65 to 0.75
(C) 0.75 to 0.85
(D) 0.85 to 0.90
Answer: Option D
169. The efficiency of a hydraulic press is given by (where W = Weight
lifted by ram, P = Force applied on plunger, A = Area of ram, and a =
Area of plunger)
(A) (W/p) × (A/a)
(B) (p/W) × (a/A)
(C) (W/p) × (a/A)
(D) (p/W) × (A/a)
Answer: Option C
170. In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of water leaving the
(A) Radial
(B) Axial
(C) Centrifugal
(D) Vortex
Answer: Option D
171. The unit discharge through the turbine is
(A) Q/√H
(B) Q/H
(C) Q/H3/2
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(D) Q/H²
Answer: Option A
172. If Hg is the gross or total head and hf is the head lost due to
friction, then net or effective head (H) is given by
(A) H = Hg/hf
(B) H = Hg × hf
(C) H = Hg + hf
(D) H = Hg - hf
Answer: Option D
173. Manometric head, in case of a centrifugal pump, is equal to
(A) Suction lift + Loss of head in suction pipe due to friction +
Delivery lift + Loss of head in delivery pipe due to friction + Velocity
head in the delivery pipe
(B) Workdone per kN of water Losses within the impeller
(C) Energy per kN at outlet of impeller Energy per kN at inlet of
impeller
Answer: Option D
174. In a Francis turbine runner, the numbers of blades are generally
between
(A) 2 to 4
(B) 4 to 8
(C) 8 to 16
(D) 16 to 24
Answer: Option D
175. The relation between hydraulic efficiency (ηh), mechanical
efficiency (ηm) and overall efficiency (ηo) is
(A) ηh = ηo × ηm
(B) ηm = ηm × ηh
(C) ηo = ηh × ηm
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
176. The ratio of actual work available at the turbine to the energy
imparted to the wheel is known as ________ efficiency.
(A) Hydraulic
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(B) Mechanical
(C) Overall
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
177. The force exerted by a jet of water impinging normally on a plate
which due to the impact of jet, moves in the direction of jet with a
velocity v is
(A) [wa (V - v)]/2g
(B) [wa (V - v)]/g
(C) [wa (V - v)²]/2g
(D) [wa (V - v²)]/g
Answer: Option D
178. The number of buckets on the periphery of a Pelton wheel is
given by
(A) (D/2d) + 5
(B) (D/2d) + 10
(C) (D/2d) + 15
(D) (D/2d) + 20
Answer: Option C
179. The cavitation in a hydraulic machine
(A) Causes noise and vibration of various parts
(B) Reduces the discharge of a turbine
(C) Causes sudden drop in power output and efficiency
Answer: Option D
180. Geometric similarity is said to exist between the model and the
(D) Have identical forces
Answer: Option C
181. Which of the following is not an impulse turbine?
(A) Girad turbine
(B) Turgo turbine
(C) Pelton wheel
(D) Kaplan turbine
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Answer: Option D
182. The cavitation in a hydraulic machine is mainly due to
(A) Low velocity
(B) High velocity
(C) Low pressure
(D) High pressure
Answer: Option C
183. The mechanical efficiency of an impulse turbine is
(A) Ratio of the actual power produced by the turbine to the energy
actually supplied by the turbine
(B) Ratio of the actual work available at the turbine to the energy
imparted to the wheel
(C) Ratio of the Work done on the wheel to the energy of the jet
Answer: Option B
184. The discharge through a turbine is
Answer: Option A
second. The unit power of the wheel is
(A) 0.25 kW
(B) 0.75 kW
(C) 1.75 kW
(D) 3.75 kW
Answer: Option C
186. A ship with jet propulsion draws water through inlet orifices at
right angles to the direction of its motion. The propelling force of the
jet is (where a = Area of the jet, Vr = Relative velocity of the jet and
ship = V + v, v = Velocity of the ship, and V = Velocity of the jet issuing
from the ship)
(A) waVr /g × (Vr + v)
(B) waVr /g × (Vr - v)
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(C) waVr /g × (Vr + v)²
(D) waVr /g × (Vr - v)²
Answer: Option B
Hydraulics & Fluid Machineries Test:

01. A jet of water enters and leaves a fixed curved vane tangentially.
The force of jet along perpendicular to the vane is zero.
(A) True
(B) False
02. The speed ratio of a Francis turbine is defined as the ratio of the
theoretical jet velocity to the peripheral speed at inlet.
(A) Yes
(B) No
03. A reciprocating pump is suitable for less discharge and higher
heads.
(A) True
(B) False
04. In a Francis turbine, the pressure at inlet is ________ that at
outlet.
(A) Less than
(B) More than
05. The overall efficiency of an impulse turbine is the ratio of the
actual power produced by the turbine to the energy actually supplied
by the turbine.
(A) Yes
(B) No
06. Delivery head of water of a centrifugal pump is inversely
proportional to diameter of its impeller.
(A) Yes
(B) No
07. A Kaplan turbine is an axial flow reaction turbine.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
08. The efficiency of jet propulsion for a ship with inlet orifices at
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right angles to the direction of motion of ship will be maximum when
the relative velocity of the jet and ship is equal to twice the velocity of
the ship.
(A) Yes
(B) No
09. In a mixed flow centrifugal pump, the flow through the impeller is
a combination of radial and axial flows.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
10. A Francis turbine is an outward flow reaction turbine.
(A) True
(B) False
11. Power required to drive a centrifugal pump is ________
proportional to N3.
(A) Directly
(B) Inversely
12. The efficiency of a reaction turbine for a given head _________
with the increase in speed.
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
13. In an impulse turbine, the pressure of water both at entering and
leaving the vanes, is atmospheric.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
14. Manometric head is the actual head of water against which a
centrifugal pump has to work.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
15. A reciprocating pump is also called a ________ displacement
pump.
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
16. A Kaplan turbine is preferred for a specific speed of 300 to 1000
r.p.m.
(A) Yes
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(B) No
17. In the casing of a centrifugal pump, the kinetic energy of the water
is converted into pressure energy before the water leaves the casing.
(A) True
(B) False
18. The head available at the inlet of the turbine is known as net or
effective head.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
19. The power of a centrifugal pump working under constant head
and discharge increases with the speed.
(A) True
(B) False
20. The air vessel, in a reciprocating pump, is a cast iron closed
chamber having an opening at its base.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
Answers: Hydraulics & Fluid Machineries Test

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Heat & Mass Transfer:
01. Unit of thermal conductivity in M.K.S. units is

(A) K cal/kg m² °C
(B) K cal m/hr m² °C
(C) K cal/hr m² °C
(D) K calm/hr °C
Answer: Option B
02. Thermal diffusivity is a
(A) Function of temperature
(B) Physical property of a substance
(C) Dimensionless parameter
(D) All of these
Answer: Option B
03. Unit of thermal conductivity in S.I. units is
(A) J/m² sec
(B) J/m °K sec
(C) W/m °K
(D) Option (B) and (C) above
Answer: Option D
(A) The heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place according to
convection.
(B) The amount of heat flow through a body is dependent upon the
material of the body.
(C) The thermal conductivity of solid metals increases with rise in
temperature
(D) Logarithmic mean temperature difference is not equal to the
arithmetic mean temperature difference.
Answer: Option C
05. Thermal conductivity of solid metals with rise in temperature
normally
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain constant
(D) May increase or decrease depending on temperature
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Answer: Option B
06. In free convection heat transfer transition from laminar to
turbulent flow is governed by the critical value of the
(B) Grashoff's number
(C) Reynold's number, Grashoff's number
(D) Prandtl number, Grashoff's number
Answer: Option D
07. Thermal conductivity of non-metallic amorphous solids with
decrease in temperature
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain constant
Answer: Option B
08. According to Dalton's law of partial pressures, (where pb =
Barometric pressure, pa = Partial pressure of dry air, and pv = Partial
pressure of water vapour)
(A) Pb = pa - pv
(B) Pb = pa + pv
(C) Pb = pa × pv
(D) Pb = pa/pv
Answer: Option B
09. Heat transfer takes place as per
(B) First law of thermodynamic
(C) Second law of the thermodynamics
(D) Kirchoff's law
Answer: Option C
10. The heat transfer by conduction through a thick sphere is given by
(A) Q = 2πkr1 r2 (T1 - T2)/ (r2 - r1)
(B) Q = 4πkr1 r2 (T1 - T2)/ (r2 - r1)
(C) Q = 6πkr1 r2 (T1 - T2)/ (r2 - r1)
(D) Q = 8πkr1 r2 (T1 - T2)/ (r2 - r1)
Answer: Option B
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11. When heat is transferred from one particle of hot body to another
by actual motion of the heated particles, it is referred to as heat
transfer by
(A) Conduction
(B) Convection
(C) Radiation
(D) Conduction and convection
Answer: Option A
12. Fourier's law of heat conduction is (where Q = Amount of heat
flow through the body in unit time, A = Surface area of heat flow,
taken at right angles to the direction of heat flow, dT = Temperature
difference on the two faces of the body, dx = Thickness of the body,
through which the heat flows, taken along the direction of heat flow,
and k = Thermal conductivity of the body)
(A) k. A. (dT/dx)
(B) k. A. (dx/dT)
(C) k. (dT/dx)
(D) k. (dx/dT)
Answer: Option A
13. When heat is transferred from hot body to cold body, in a straight
line, without affecting the intervening medium, it is referred as heat
transfer by
(A) Conduction
(B) Convection
(C) Radiation
Answer: Option C
14. Reynolds number (RN) is given by (where h = Film coefficient, l =
Linear dimension, V = Velocity of fluid, k = Thermal conductivity, t =
Temperature, ρ = Density of fluid, cp = Specific heat at constant
pressure, and μ = Coefficient of absolute viscosity)
(A) RN = hl/k
(B) RN = μ cp/k
(C) RN = ρ V l /μ
(D) RN = V²/t.cp
Answer: Option C
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15. Sensible heat is the heat required to
(A) Change vapour into liquid
(B) Change liquid into vapour
(C) Increase the temperature of a liquid of vapour
(D) Convert water into steam and superheat it
Answer: Option C
16. Heat transfer in liquid and gases takes place by
(A) Conduction
(B) Convection
(C) Radiation
Answer: Option B
17. The heat transfer takes place according to
(D) Kirchhoff's law
Answer: Option C
18. Which of the following is the case of heat transfer by radiation?
(A) Blast furnace
(B) Heating of building
(C) Cooling of parts in furnace
(D) Heat received by a person from fireplace
Answer: Option D
19. Thermal conductivity of water ________ with rise in temperature.
(A) Remain same
(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) May increase or decrease depending upon temperature
Answer: Option D
20. Heat is closely related with
(A) Liquids
(B) Energy
(C) Temperature
(D) Entropy
Answer: Option C
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21. The thickness of thermal and hydrodynamic boundary layer is
equal if Prandtl number is
(A) Equal to one
(B) Greater than one
(C) Less than one
(D) Equal to Nusselt number
Answer: Option A
22. Pick up the wrong case. Heat flowing from one side to other
depends directly on
(A) Face area
(B) Time
(C) Thickness
(D) Temperature difference
Answer: Option C
23. The critical radius is the insulation radius at which the resistance
to heat flow is
(A) Maximum
(B) Minimum
(C) Zero
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
24. Metals are good conductors of heat because
(A) Their atoms collide frequently
(B) Their atoms are relatively far apart
(C) They contain free electrons
(D) They have high density
Answer: Option A
25. The automobile radiator is a heat exchanger of
(A) Parallel flow type
(B) Counter flow type
(C) Cross flow type
(D) Regenerator type
Answer: Option C
26. Which of the following is a case of steady state heat transfer?
(A) I.C. engine
(B) Air preheaters
(C) Heating of building in winter
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Answer: Option D
27. Which of the following would lead to a reduction in thermal
resistance?
(A) In conduction, reduction in the thickness of the material and an
increase in thermal conductivity.
(B) In convection, stirring of the fluid and cleaning the heating surface.
(C) In radiation, increasing the temperature and reducing the
emissivity.
Answer: Option D
28. Total heat is the heat required to
(A) Change vapour into liquid
(B) Change liquid into vapour
(C) Increase the temperature of a liquid or vapour
(D) Convert water into steam and superheat it
Answer: Option D
29. The ratio of the thickness of thermal boundary layer to the
thickness of hydrodynamic boundary layer is equal to (Prandtl
number) n, where n is equal to
(A) -1/3
(B) -2/3
(C) 1
(D) -1
Answer: Option A
30. Cork is a good insulator because it has
(A) Free electrons
(B) Atoms colliding frequency
(C) Low density
(D) Porous body
Answer: Option D
31. Temperature of steam at around 540°C can be measured by
(A) Thermometer
(B) Thermistor
(C) Thermocouple
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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32. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is
(A) Directly proportional to the thermal conductivity
(B) Inversely proportional to density of substance
(C) Inversely proportional to specific heat
Answer: Option D
33. Thermal conductivity of air at room temperature in kcal/m hr °C
is of the order of
(A) 0.002
(B) 0.02
(C) 0.01
(D) 0.1
Answer: Option B
34. Fouling factor is used
(A) In heat exchanger design as a safety factor
(B) In case of Newtonian fluids
(C) When a liquid exchanges heat with a gas
Answer: Option A
35. The time constant of a thermocouple is
(A) The time taken to attain the final temperature to be measured
(B) The time taken to attain 50% of the value of initial temperature
difference
(C) The time taken to attain 63.2% of the value of initial temperature
difference
(D) Determined by the time taken to reach 100°C from 0°C
Answer: Option C
36. The natural convection air cooled condensers are used in
(A) Domestic refrigerators
(B) Water coolers
(C) Room air conditioners
(D) All of these
Answer: Option A
37. Thermal conductivity of air with rise in temperature
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain constant
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Answer: Option A
38. A heat exchanger with heat transfer surface area A and overall
heat transfer coefficient U handles two fluids of heat capacities Cmax
and Cmin. The number of transfer units (NTU) used in the analysis of
heat exchanger is specified as
(A) A.Cmin/U
(B) U/A.Cmin
(C) A.U.Cmin
(D) A.U/Cmin
Answer: Option D
39. Heat flows from one body to other when they have
(A) Different heat contents
(B) Different specific heat
(C) Different atomic structure
(D) Different temperatures
Answer: Option D
40. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is given by (where h = Thermal
diffusivity, ρ = Density of substance, S = Specific heat, and k =
Thermal conductivity)
(A) h = k/ ρS
(B) h = ρS/k
(C) h = S/ρk
(D) h = kρ/S
Answer: Option A
41. The concept of overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in heat
transfer problems of
(A) Conduction
(B) Convection
(C) Radiation
Answer: Option D
42. The use of heat exchangers is made in
(A) Radiators in automobile
(B) Condensers and boilers in steam plants
(C) Condensers and evaporators in refrigeration and air conditioning
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units
Answer: Option D
43. In heat transfer, conductance equals conductivity (kcal/hr/sq.m/
°C/cm) divided by
(A) Hr (time)
(B) Sq. m (area)
(C) °C (temperature)
(D) K.cal (heat)
Answer: Option D
44. In a heat exchanger with one fluid evaporating or condensing, the
surface area required is least in
(A) Parallel flow
(B) Counter flow
(C) Cross flow
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
45. The amount of heat flow through a body by conduction is
(A) Directly proportional to the surface area of the body
(B) Directly proportional to the temperature difference on the two
faces of the body
(C) Dependent upon the material of the body
Answer: Option D
46. Thermal conductivity of glass wool varies from sample to sample
because of variation in
(A) Composition
(B) Density
(C) Porosity
Answer: Option: D
47. According to Stefan Boltzmann law, the total radiation from a
black body per second per unit area is directly proportional to the
(B) Square of the absolute temperature
(C) Cube of the absolute temperature
(D) Fourth power of the absolute temperature
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Answer: Option D
48. Thermal conductivity of a material may be defined as the
(A) Quantity of heat flowing in one second through one cm cube of
material when opposite faces ^re maintained at a temperature difference of
1°C
(B) Quantity of heat flowing in one second through a slab of the
material of area one cm square, thickness 1 cm when its faces differ in
temperature by 1°C
(C) Heat conducted in unit time across unit area through unit thickness
when a temperature difference of unity is maintained between opposite
faces
Answer: Option: D
49. In case of liquids and gases, the heat transfer takes place according
to
(A) Conduction
(B) Convection
(C) Radiation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
50. Which of the following has maximum value of thermal
conductivity?
(A) Aluminium
(B) Steel
(C) Brass
(D) Copper
Answer: Option: A
51. The logarithmic mean temperature difference (tm) is given by
(where Δt1 and Δt2 are temperature differences between the hot and
cold fluids at entrance and exit)
(A) tm = (Δt1 - Δt2)/ loge (Δt1/Δt2)
(B) tm = loge (Δt1/Δt2)/ (Δt1 - Δt2)
(C) tm = tm = (Δt1 - Δt2) loge (Δt1/Δt2)
(D) tm = loge (Δt1 - Δt2)/ Δt1/Δt2
Answer: Option A
52. Moisture would find its way into insulation by vapour pressure
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unless it is prevented by
(A) High thickness of insulation
(B) High vapour pressure
(C) Less thermal conductivity insulator
(D) A vapour seal
Answer: Option: D
53. The radiation emitted by a black body is known as
(A) Black radiation
(B) Full radiation
(C) Total radiation
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
54. Heat is transferred by all three modes of transfer, viz. conduction,
convection and radiation in
(A) Electric heater
(B) Steam condenser
(C) Boiler
(D) Refrigerator condenser coils
Answer: Option: C
55. According to Newton's law of cooling, the heat transfer from a hot
body to a cold body is
(A) Directly proportional to the surface area
(B) Directly proportional to the difference of temperatures between the
two bodies
Answer: Option D
56. According to Prevost theory of heat exchange
(A) It is impossible to transfer heat from low temperature source to t
high temperature source
(B) Heat transfer by radiation requires no medium
(C) All bodies above absolute zero emit radiation
(D) Heat transfer in most of the cases takes place by combination of
conduction, convection and radiation
Answer: Option: C
57. Reynolds number is the ratio of
(A) Energy transferred by convection to that by conduction
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(B) Kinematic viscosity to thermal diffusivity
(C) Inertia force to viscous force
Answer: Option C
58. Heat transfer by radiation mainly depends upon
(A) Its temperature
(B) Nature of the body
(C) Kind and extent of its surface
Answer: Option: D
59. In counter current flow heat exchanger, the logarithmic
temperature difference between the fluids is ________ as compared to
parallel flow heat exchanger.
(A) Same
(B) Less
(C) Greater
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
60. Thermal diffusivity is
(A) A dimensionless parameter
(B) Function of temperature
(C) Used as mathematical model
(D) A physical property of the material
Answer: Option: D
61. In convection heat transfer from hot flue gases to water tube, even
though flow may be turbulent, a laminar flow region (boundary layer
of film) exists close to the tube. The heat transfer through this film
takes place by
(A) Convection
(B) Radiation
(C) Conduction
(D) Both convection and conduction
Answer: Option: C
62. The heat transfer by conduction through a thick cylinder (Q) is
given by (where T₁ = Higher temperature, T₂ = Lower temperature, r₁
= Inside radius, r₂ = Outside radius, l = Length of cylinder, and k =
Thermal conductivity)
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(A) Q = [2πlk (T₁ - T₂)]/2.3 log (r₂/r₁)
(B) Q = 2.3 log (r₂/r₁)/[2πlk (T₁ - T₂)]
(C) Q = [2π (T₁ - T₂)]/2.3 lk log (r₂/r₁)
(D) Q = = 2πlk/2.3 (T₁ - T₂) log (r₂/r₁)
Answer: Option A
63. Film coefficient is defined as Inside diameter of tube
(A) Equivalent thickness of film
(B) Thermal conductivity Equivalent thickness of film Specific heat ×
Viscosity
(C) Thermal conductivity Molecular diffusivity of momentum Thermal
diffusivity
(D) Film coefficient × Inside diameter Thermal conductivity
Answer: Option: B
64. The heat is transferred by conduction, convection and radiation in
(A) Melting of ice
(B) Boiler furnaces
(C) Condensation of steam in condenser
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
65. Heat conducted through per unit area and unit thick face per unit
time when temperature difference between opposite faces is unity, is
called
(A) Thermal resistance
(B) Thermal coefficient
(C) Temperature gradient
(D) Thermal conductivity
Answer: Option: D
66. The value of the wave length for maximum emissive power is given
by
(A) Kirchhoff's law
(B) Stefan's law
(C) Wine’s law
(D) Planck's law
Answer: Option C
67. The rate of energy emission from unit surface area through unit
solid angle, along a normal to the surface, is known as
(A) Emissivity
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(B) Transmissivity
(C) Reflectivity
(D) Intensity of radiation
Answer: Option: D
68. If the energy radiated per second per sq. cm. of the surface for
wave lengths lying between λ, and λ + dλ is represented by (eλ.dλ),
then eλ is called
(A) Absorptive power
(B) Emissive power
(C) Emissivity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
69. Emissivity of a white polished body in comparison to a black body
is
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
(C) Same
(D) Depends upon the shape of body
Answer: Option: B
70. When absorptivity (α) = 1, reflectivity (ρ) = 0 and transmissivity
(τ) = 0, then the body is said to be a
(A) Black body
(B) Grey body
(C) Opaque body
(D) White body
Answer: Option A
71. A grey body is one whose absorptivity
(A) Varies with temperature
(B) Varies with wavelength of the incident ray
(C) Is equal to its emissivity
(D) Does not vary with temperature and. wavelength of the incident
ray
Answer: Option: C
72. A composite slab has two layers of different materials with thermal
conductivities k₁ and k₂. If each layer has the same thickness, then the
equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab will be
(A) k₁ k₂
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(B) (k₁ + k₂)
(C) (k₁ + k₂)/ k₁ k₂
(D) 2 k₁ k₂/ (k₁ + k₂)
Answer: Option D
73. Two balls of same material and finish have their diameters in the
ratio of 2: 1 and both are heated to same temperature and allowed to
cool by radiation. Rate of cooling by big ball as compared to smaller
one will be in the ratio of
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 2
(D) 4 : 1
Answer: Option: C
74. The critical temperature is the temperature
(A) Below which a gas does not obey gas laws
(B) Above which a gas may explode
(C) Below which a gas is always liquefied
(D) Above which a gas will never liquefied
Answer: Option D
75. A non-dimensional number generally associated with natural
convection heat transfer is
(A) Grashoff number
(B) Nusselt number
(C) Weber number
(D) Prandtl number
Answer: Option: A
76. In counter flow heat exchangers
(A) Both the fluids at inlet (of heat exchanger where hot fluid enters)
are in their coldest state
(B) Both the fluids at inlet are in their hottest state
(C) Both the fluids at exit are in their hottest state
(D) One fluid is in hottest state and other in coldest state at inlet
Answer: Option: B
77. The ratio of surface convection resistance to the internal
conduction resistance is known as
(A) Grashoff number
(B) Biot number
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(C) Stanton number
(D) Prandtl number
Answer: Option B
78. A steam pipe is to be insulated by two insulating materials put over
each other. For best results
(A) Better insulation should be put over pipe and better one over it
(B) Inferior insulation should be put over pipe and better one over it
(C) Both may be put in any order
(D) Whether to put inferior OIL over pipe or the better one would
depend on steam temperature
Answer: Option: A
79. Kirchhoff's law states that
(A) The total radiation from a black body per second per unit area is
directly proportional to the fourth power of the absolute temperature
(B) The wave length corresponding to the maximum energy is
proportional to the absolute temperature
(C) The ratio of the emissive power and absorptive power of all bodies
is the same and is equal to the emissive power of a perfectly black body
Answer: Option C
80. Fourier's law of heat conduction is valid for
(A) One dimensional cases only
(B) Two dimensional cases only
(C) Three dimensional cases only
(D) Regular surfaces having non-uniform temperature gradients
Answer: Option: A
81. The critical thickness of insulation for a sphere is
(A) k/h₀
(B) 2k/h₀
(C) h₀/k
(D) h₀/2k
Answer: Option B
82. According of Kirchhoff's law
(A) Radiant heat is proportional to fourth power of absolute
temperature
(B) Emissive power depends on temperature
(C) Emissive power and absorptivity are constant for all bodies
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Ratio of emissive power to absorptive power for all bodies is same and is
equal to the emissive power of a perfectly black (D) body.
Answer: Option: D
83. Film coefficient is defined as the ratio of
(A) Thermal conductivity to the equivalent thickness of the film of
fluid
(B) Temperature drop through the films of fluids to the thickness of
film of fluids
(C) Thickness of film of fluid to the thermal conductivity
(D) Thickness of film of fluid to the temperature drop through the
films of fluids
Answer: Option A
84. All radiations in a black body are
(A) Reflected
(B) Refracted
(C) Transmitted
(D) Absorbed
Answer: Option: D
85. The process of heat transfer from one particle of the fluid to
another by the actual movement of the fluid particles caused by some
mechanical means, is known as
(A) Conduction
(B) Free convection
(C) Forced convection
(D) Radiation
Answer: Option C
86. According to Kirchoff's law, the ratio of emissive power to
absorptivity for all bodies is equal to the emissive power of a
(A) Grey body
(B) Brilliant white polished body
(C) Red hot body
(D) Black body
Answer: Option: D
87. When α is absorptivity, ρ is reflectivity and τ is transmissivity,
then for a diathermanous body,
(A) α = 1, ρ = 0 and τ = 0
(B) α = 0, ρ = 1 and τ = 0
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(C) α = 0, ρ = 0 and τ = 1
(D) α + ρ = 1 and τ = 0
Answer: Option D
88. The concept of overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in case of
heat transfer by
(A) Conduction
(B) Convection
(C) Radiation
Answer: Option: D
89. The ratio of the emissive power and absorptive power of all bodies
is the same and is equal to the emissive power of a perfectly black
body. This statement is known as
(A) Wien's law
(B) Stefan's law
(C) Kirchhoff's law
(D) Planck's law
Answer: Option C
90. The unit of overall coefficient of heat transfer is
(A) kcal/m²
(B) kcal/hr °C
(C) kcal/m² hr °C
(D) kcal/m hr °C
Answer: Option: C
91. The value of the wavelength for maximum emissive power is given
by
(A) Wien's law
(B) Planck's law
(C) Stefan's law
(D) Fourier's law
Answer: Option: A
92. The heat of sun reaches to us according to
(A) Conduction
(B) Convection
(C) Radiation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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93. Log mean temperature difference in case of counter flow
compared to parallel flow will be
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
Answer: Option: B
94. Sensible heat factor is given by (where S.H. = Sensible heat, and
L.H. = Latent heat)
(A) S.H/(S.H + L.H)
(B) (S.H + L.H) /S.H
(C) (L.H - S.H)/S.H
(D) S.H/(L.H - S.H)
Answer: Option A
95. The energy distribution of an ideal reflector at higher
temperatures is largely in the range of
(A) Shorter wavelength
(B) Longer wavelength
(C) Remain same at all wavelengths
(D) Wavelength has nothing to do with it
Answer: Option: A
96. The most commonly used method for the design of duct size is the
(A) Velocity reduction method
(B) Equal friction method
(C) Static regains method
(D) Dual or double method
Answer: Option C
97. Total emissivity of polished silver compared to black body is
(A) Same
(B) Higher
(C) More or less same
(D) Very much lower
Answer: Option: D
98. The rate of heat flow through a body is Q = [kA (T₁ - T₂)]/x. The
term x/kA is known as
(A) Thermal coefficient
(B) Thermal resistance
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(C) Thermal conductivity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
99. According to Stefan Boltzmann law, ideal radiators emit radiant
energy at a rate proportional to
(B) Square of temperature
(C) Fourth power of absolute temperature
(D) Fourth power of temperature
Answer: Option: C
100. The transfer of heat by molecular collision is known as
(A) Conduction
(B) Convection
(C) Radiation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
101. Which of the following property of air does not increase with rise
in temperature?
(A) Thermal conductivity
(B) Thermal diffusivity
(C) Density
(D) Dynamic viscosity
Answer: Option: C
102. The expression Q = ρ AT4 is called
(A) Fourier equation
(B) Stefan-Boltzmann equation
(C) Newton Reichmann equation
(D) Joseph-Stefan equation
Answer: Option B
103. The unit of Stefan Boltzmann constant is
(A) Watt/cm² °K
(B) Watt/cm4 °K
(C) Watt²/cm °K⁴
(D) Watt/cm² °K⁴
Answer: Option: D
104. The unit of Stefan-Boltzmann constant is
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(A) Watt/mK
(B) Watt/m²K²
(C) Watt/m²K4
(D) Watt/mK²
Answer: Option C
105. In free convection heat transfer, Nusselt number is function of
(A) Grashoff number and Reynold number
(B) Grashoff number and Prandtl number
(C) Prandtl number and Reynold number
(D) Grashoff number, Prandtl number and Reynold number
Answer: Option: B
106. The thermal diffusivities for solids are generally
(A) Less than those for gases
(B) Less than those for liquids
(C) More than those for liquids and gases
(D) More or less same as for liquids and gases
Answer: Option: C
107. Depending on the radiating properties, body will be transparent
when
(A) P = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(B) P=1, x = 0, and a = 0
(C) P = 0, T= 1, and a = 0
(D) X = 0, a + p = 1
Answer: Option: C
108. Thermal diffusivity of a substance is
(A) Directly proportional to thermal conductivity
(B) Inversely proportional to density of substance
(C) Inversely proportional to specific heat
Answer: Option: D
109. Wien’s law states that the wave length corresponding to ________
is proportional to the absolute temperature.
(A) Minimum energy
(B) Maximum energy
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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110. The ratio of the emissive power and absorptive power of all
bodies is the same and is equal to the emissive power of a perfectly
black body. This statement is known as
(A) Kirchoff’s law
(B) Stefan's law
(C) Wien' law
(D) Planck's law
Answer: Option: A
111. Radiation is the process of heat transfer in which heat flows from
a ________, in a straight line, without affecting the intervening
medium.
(A) Cold body to hot body
(B) Hot body to cold body
(C) Smaller body to larger body
(D) Larger body to smaller body
Answer: Option B
112. According to Stefan's law, the total radiation from a black body
per second per unit area is proportional to
(B) T²
(C) T⁵
(D) T
Answer: Option: D
113. The heat transfer from a hot body to a cold body is directly
proportional to the surface area and difference of temperatures
between the two bodies. This statement is called
(A) First law of thermodynamics
(B) Newton's law of cooling
(C) Newton's law of heating
(D) Stefan's law
Answer: Option B
114. According to Wien's law, the wavelength corresponding to
maximum energy is proportion to
(A) Absolute temperature (T)
(B) I²
(C) F
(D) T
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Answer: Option: A
115. The process of heat transfer from one particle of the body to
another by the actual motion of the heated particles, is called
(A) Conduction
(B) Convection
(C) Radiation
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
116. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be white when
(A) P = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(B) P=1, T = 0 and a = 0
(C) P = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
(D) X = 0, a + p = 1
Where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, x = transmissivity
Answer: Option: B
117. A steam pipe is to be lined with two layers of insulating materials
of different thermal conductivities. For the minimum heat transfer,
(A) The better insulation must be put inside
(B) The better insulation must be put outside
(C) One could place either insulation on either side
(D) One should take into account the steam temperature before
deciding as to which insulation is put where
Answer: Option A
118. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be black when
(A) P = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(B) P= 1, T = 0 and a = 0
(C) P = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
(D) X = 0, a + p = 0
Where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, X = transmissivity.
Answer: Option: A
119. The process of heat transfer from one particle of the fluid to
another by the actual movement of the fluid particles due to difference
of density caused by temperature of the particle is known as
(A) Conduction
(B) Free convection
(D) Radiation
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Answer: Option B
120. A grey body is one whose absorptivity
(A) Varies with temperature
(B) Varies with the wave length of incident ray
(C) Varies with both
(D) Does not vary with temperature and wave length of the incident
ray
Answer: Option: D
121. The total radiation from a black body per second per unit area is
________ fourth power of the absolute temperature. This statement is
known as Stefan Boltzmann law.
(A) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
122. The insulation ability of an insulator with the presence of
moisture would
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(D) May increase/decrease depending on temperature and thickness of
insulation
Answer: Option B
123. The amount of radiation mainly depends upon the
(A) Nature of the body
(B) Temperature of the body
(C) Type of surface of the body
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
124. When heat is transferred by molecular collision, it is referred to
as heat transfer by
(A) Conduction
(B) Convection
(C) Radiation
(D) Scattering
Answer: Option B
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125. The highest thermal diffusivity is of
(A) Iron
(B) Lead
(C) Concrete
(D) Wood
Answer: Option B
126. Conduction is a process of heat transfer
(A) From one particle of the body to another without the actual motion
of the particles
(B) From one particle of the body to another by the actual motion of
the heated particles
(C) From a hot body to a cold body, in a straight line, without affecting
the intervening medium
Answer: Option A
127. Thermal conductivity of water in general with rise in
temperature
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain constant
Answer: Option D
128. The emissivity for a black body is
(A) 0
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.75
(D) 1
Answer: Option D
129. Thermal conductivity of water at 20°C is of the order of
(A) 0.1
(B) 0.23
(C) 0.42
(D) 0.51
Answer: Option D
130. Free convection flow depends on
(A) Density
(B) Coefficient of viscosity
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(C) Gravitational force
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
(A) A grey body is one which absorbs all radiations incident on it.
(B) At thermal equilibrium, the emissivity and absorptivity are same.
(C) The energy absorbed by a body to the total energy falling on it, is
called emissivity.
(D) A perfect body is one which is black in colour.
Answer: Option B
132. Which of the following has least value of conductivity?
(A) Glass
(B) Water
(C) Plastic
(D) Air
Answer: Option D
133. Two long parallel surfaces each of emissivity 0.7 are maintained
at different temperatures and accordingly have radiation heat
exchange between them. It is desired to reduce 75% of the radiant
heat transfer by inserting thin parallel shields of emissivity 1 on both
sides. The number of shields should be
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer: Option C
134. Which of the following is expected to have highest thermal
conductivity?
(A) Steam
(B) Solid ice
(C) Melting ice
(D) Water
Answer: Option: B
135. The ratio of Nusselt number and the product of Reynold's
number and Prandtl number is equal to
(A) Stanton number
(B) Biot number
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(C) Peclet number
(D) Grashoff number
Answer: Option A
136. Upto the critical radius of insulation,
(A) Added insulation will increase heat loss
(B) Added insulation will decrease heat loss
(C) Convective heat loss will be less than conductive heat loss
(D) Heat flux will decrease
Answer: Option A
137. Unit of thermal diffusivity is
(A) m²/hr
(B) m²/hr °C
(C) kcal/m² hr
(D) kcal/m. hr °C
Answer: Option: A
138. The rate of energy transferred by convection to that by
conduction is called
(A) Stanton number
(B) Nusselt number
(C) Biot number
(D) Peclet number
Answer: Option B
139. Thermal conductivity of wood depends on
(A) Moisture
(B) Density
(C) Temperature
Answer: Option: D
140. A designer chooses the values of fluid flow rates and specific heats
in such a manner that the heat capacities of the two fluids are equal. A
hot fluid enters the counter flow heat exchanger at 100° C and leaves
at 60° C. A cold fluid enters the heat exchanger at 40° C. The mean
temperature difference between the two fluids is
(A) 20°C
(B) 40°C
(C) 60°C
(D) 66.7°C
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Answer: Option A
141. The unit of overall coefficient of heat transfer is
(A) W/m²K
(B) W/m²
(C) W/mK
(D) W/m
Answer: Option A
142. LMTD in case of counter flow heat exchanger as compared to
parallel flow heat exchanger is
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
(C) Same
(D) Depends on the area of heat exchanger
Answer: Option: A
143. The transfer of heat by molecular collision is smallest in
(A) Solids
(B) Liquids
(C) Gases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
144. In heat exchangers, degree of approach is defined as the
difference between temperatures of
(A) Cold water inlet and outlet
(B) Hot medium inlet and outlet
(C) Hot medium outlet and cold water inlet
(D) Hot medium outlet and cold water outlet
Answer: Option: D
145. In a shell and tube heat exchanger, baffles are provided on the
shell side to
(A) Improve heat transfer
(B) Provide support for tubes
(C) Prevent stagnation of shell side fluid
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
146. An ordinary passenger aircraft requires a cooling system of
capacity.
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(A) 2 TR
(B) 4 TR
(C) 8 TR
(D) 10 TR
Answer: Option C
147. Joule sec is the unit of
(A) Universal gas constant
(B) Kinematic viscosity
(C) Thermal conductivity
(D) Planck's constant
Answer: Option: D
148. Fourier's law of heat conduction gives the heat flow for
(A) Irregular surfaces
(B) Nonuniform temperature surfaces
(C) One dimensional cases only
(D) Two dimensional cases only
Answer: Option C
149. The value of Prandtl number for air is about
(A) 0.1
(B) 0.3
(C) 0.7
(D) 1.7
Answer: Option: C
150. The product of Reynolds number and Prandtl number is known
as
(A) Stanton number
(B) Biot number
(C) Peclet number
(D) Grashoff number
Answer: Option C
151. An electric cable of aluminium conductor (k = 240 W/mK) is to be
insulated with rubber (k = 0.15 W/mK). The cable is to be located in
air (h = 6 W/m²). The critical thickness of insulation will be
(A) 25 mm
(B) 40 mm
(C) 160 mm
(D) 800 mm
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Answer: Option A
152. Stefan Boltzmann law is applicable for heat transfer by
(A) Conduction
(B) Convection
(C) Radiation
(D) Conduction and radiation combined
Answer: Option: C
153. A cube at high temperature is immersed in a constant
temperature bath. It loses heat from its top, bottom and side surfaces
with heat transfer coefficients of h₁, h₂ and h₃ respectively. The
average heat transfer coefficient for the cube is
(A) h₁ + h₂ + h₃
(B) (h₁.h₂.h₃)1/3
(C) 1/h₁ + 1/h₂ + 1/h₃
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
154. The thermal diffusivities for gases are generally
(A) More than those for liquids
(B) Less than those for liquids
(C) More than those for solids
(D) Dependent on the viscosity
Answer: Option: A
155. The process of heat transfer from one particle of the body to
another is called conduction, when the particles of the body
(A) Move actually
(B) Do not move actually
(C) Affect the intervening medium
(D) Does not affect the intervening medium
Answer: Option B
156. The total emissivity power is .defined as the total amount of
radiation emitted by a black body per unit
(A) Temperature
(B) Thickness
(C) Area
(D) Time
Answer: Option: D
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157. The ratio of the energy absorbed by the body to total energy
falling on it is called
(A) Absorptive power
(B) Emissive power
(C) Absorptivity
(D) Emissivity
Answer: Option: A
158. 40% of incident radiant energy on the surface of a thermally
transparent body is reflected back. If the transmissivity of the body be
0.15, then the emissivity of surface is
(A) 0.45
(B) 0.55
(C) 0.40
(D) 0.75
Answer: Option: A
159. The amount of radiation mainly depends on
(A) Nature of body
(B) Temperature of body
(C) Type of surface of body
Answer: Option: D
160. Depending on the radiating properties, a body will be opaque
when
(A) P = 0, x = 0 and a = 1
(B) P=1, x = 0 and a = 0
(C) P = 0, x = 1 and a = 0
(D) X = 0, a + p = 1
Where a = absorptivity, p = reflectivity, X = transmissivity.
Answer: Option: D
161. The emissive power of a body depends upon its
(A) Temperature
(B) Wave length
(C) Physical nature
Answer: Option: D
162. Absorptivity of a body will be equal to its emissivity
(A) At all temperatures
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(B) At one particular temperature
(C) When system is under thermal equilibrium
(D) At critical temperature
Answer: Option: C
163. Two plates spaced 150 mm apart are maintained at 1000°C and
70°C. The heat transfer will take place mainly by
(A) Convection
(B) Radiation
(D) Free convection
Answer: Option: B
164. In regenerator type heat exchanger, heat transfer takes place by
(A) Direct mixing of hot and cold fluids
(B) A complete separation between hot and cold fluids
(C) Flow of hot and cold fluids alternately over a surface
(D) Generation of heat again and again
Answer: Option: C
165. A perfect black body is one which
(A) Is black in colour
(B) Reflects all heat
(C) Transmits all heat radiations
(D) Absorbs heat radiations of all wave lengths falling on it
Answer: Option: D
166. Planck's law holds good for
(A) Black bodies
(B) Polished bodies
(C) All coloured bodies
Answer: Option: A
167. If the temperature of a solid surface changes from 27°C to 627°C,
then its emissive power changes in the ratio of
(A) 6
(B) 9
(C) 27
(D) 81
Answer: Option: D
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Heat & Mass Transfer Test:
01. The process of heat transfer from a hot body to a cold body, in a
straight line, without affecting the intervening medium, is called
radiation.
(A) True
(B) False
02. The counter-current flow heat exchanger can transfer __________
heat than parallel flow heat exchanger.
(A) Less
(B) More
03. For a white body, absorptivity (α) = 0, reflectivity (ρ) = 1 and
transmissivity (τ) = 0.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
04. According to Stefan's law, the total radiation from a black body
per second per unit area is directly proportional to the fourth power
of the absolute temperature.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
05. According to Prevost's theory of exchanges, everybody irrespective
of its temperature continuously emit heat radiations to the
surrounding bodies and at the same time receives heat radiations from
the surrounding bodies.
(A) True
(B) False
06. The ratio of emissive power of a body to the emissive power of a
perfectly black body is called emissivity.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
07. The critical thickness of insulation is the ratio of thermal
conductivity of the insulating material (k) to the heat transfer
coefficient at the outer surface of the insulation (h₀).
(A) True
(B) False
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08. Emissivity of a body will be equal to its absorptivity at all
temperatures.
(A) Yes
(B) No
09. Prandtl number (PN) is given by PN = μ.Cp/k.
(A) Yes
(B) No
10. The space between the two walls of a thermos flask is evacuated
because vacuum is a ________ conductor of heat.
(A) Good
(B) Bad
11. The ratio of actual heat transfer to the maximum possible heat
transfer is known as heat exchanger effectiveness.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
12. A grey body is one whose absorptivity does not vary with
temperature and wave length of the incident ray.
(A) True
(B) False
13. The average value of thermal conductivity for water at 20° C
saturate is about 0.51
(A) True
(B) False
14. In a black body, all radiations are rejected.
(A) True
(B) False
15. A device used for transferring heat from one fluid to another is
called heat exchanger.
(A) True
(B) False
16. The temperature below which a gas is always liquefied is known as
critical temperature.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
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17. Logarithmic mean temperature difference is the same as the
arithmetic mean temperature difference.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
18. Planck's law holds good for all coloured bodies.
(A) True
(B) False
19. When there is an addition of water vapour to the air of enclosed
space, a gain in ________ is said to occur.
(A) Sensible heat
(B) Latent heat
20. The thermal diffusivity for solids is generally less than those for
liquids and gases.
(A) True
(B) False
Answers: Heat & Mass Transfer Test

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Theory of Machines:
01. The motion between a pair which takes place in __________ is
known as incompletely constrained motion.
(A) One direction only
(B) Two directions only
(C) More than one direction
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
02. A torsional system with discs of moment of inertia I₁ and I₂ as
shown in the below figure, is gear driven such that the ratio of speed
of shaft B to shaft A is 'G'. Neglecting the inertia of gears, the
equivalent inertia of disc on shaft B at the speed of shaft A is equal to
(A) G.I₂
(B) G².I₂
(C) I₂/G
(D) I₂/G²
Answer: Option B
03. The frictional torque transmitted in a flat pivot bearing,
considering uniform pressure, is (where μ = Coefficient of friction, W
= Load over the bearing, and R = Radius of bearing surface)
(A) (1/2) μ W R
(B) (2/3) μ W R
(C) (3/4) μ W R
(D) μ W R
Answer: Option B
04. A typewriter mechanism has 7 numbers of binary joints, six links
and none of higher pairs. The mechanism is
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(A) Kinematically sound
(B) Not sound
(C) Soundness would depend upon which link is kept fixed
(D) Data is not sufficient to determine same
Answer: Option A
05. The magnitude of velocities of the points on a rigid link is
(A) Directly proportional to the distance from the points to the
instantaneous centre and is parallel to the line joining the point to the
instantaneous centre
(B) Directly proportional to the distance from the points to the
instantaneous centre and is perpendicular to the line joining the point to the
(C) Inversely proportional to the distance from the points to the
instantaneous centre and is parallel to the line joining the point to the
(D) Inversely proportional to the distance from the points to the
instantaneous centre and is perpendicular to the line joining the point to the
Answer: Option D
06. The maximum efficiency of spiral gears is (where θ = Shaft angle,
and φ = Friction angle)
(A) sin (θ + φ) + 1/ cos (θ - φ) + 1
(B) cos (θ - φ) + 1/ sin (θ + φ) + 1
(C) cos (θ + φ) + 1/ cos (θ - φ) + 1
(D) cos (θ - φ) + 1/ cos (θ + φ) + 1
Answer: Option C
07. If the opposite links of a four bar linkage are equal, the links will
always form a
(A) Triangle
(B) Rectangle
(C) Parallelogram
(D) Pentagon
Answer: Option C
08. The velocity of a flat-faced follower when it has contact with the
flank of a circular arc cam, is given by
(A) ωR cosθ
(B) ω(R - r₁) cosθ
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(C) ω(R - r₁) sinθ
(D) ωr₁ sinθ
Answer: Option C
09. Two systems shall be dynamically equivalent when
(A) The mass of two are same
(B) C.G. of two coincides
(C) M.I. of two about an axis through e.g. is equal
Answer: Option D
10. The motion of a shaft in a circular hole is an example of
(A) Completely constrained motion
(B) Incompletely constrained motion
(C) Successfully constrained motion
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
11. A rotary internal combustion engine has __________ cylinders.
(A) Four
(B) Five
(C) Six
(D) Seven
Answer: Option D
12. Cam size depends upon
(A) Base circle
(B) Pitch circle
(C) Prime circle
(D) Outer circle
Answer: Option A
13. A point B on a rigid link AB moves with respect to A with angular
velocity ω rad/s. The total acceleration of B with respect to A will be
equal to
(A) Vector sum of radial component and coriolis component
(B) Vector sum of tangential component and coriolis component
(C) Vector sum of radial component and tangential component
(D) Vector difference of radial component and tangential component
Answer: Option C
14. The equation of motion for a vibrating system with viscous
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damping is (d²x/dt²) + (c/m).(dx/dt) + (s/m).x = 0, if the roots of the
equation are __________ then the system will be under damped.
(A) Equal
(B) Real
(C) Complex conjugate
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
15. The purpose of a link is to
(A) Transmit motion
(B) Guide other links
(C) Act as a support
Answer: Option D
16. The primary unbalanced force due to inertia of reciprocating parts
in a reciprocating engine is given by (where m = Mass of reciprocating
parts, ω = Angular speed of crank, r = Radius of crank, θ = Angle of
inclination of crank with the line of stroke, and n = Ratio of the length
of connecting rod to radius of crank)
(A) m.ω².r sinθ
(B) m.ω².r cosθ
(C) m.ω².r (sin 2θ/n)
(D) m.ω².r (cos 2θ/n)
Answer: Option B
17. The steering of a ship means
(A) Movement of a complete ship up and down in vertical plane about
transverse axis
(B) Turning of a complete ship in a curve towards right or left, while it
moves forward
(C) Rolling of a complete ship sideways
Answer: Option B
18. The height of a Watt's governor is
(A) Directly proportional to speed
(B) Directly proportional to (speed)²
(C) Inversely proportional to speed
(D) Inversely proportional to (speed)²
Answer: Option D
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19. In a differential band brake as shown in the below figure, if the
length OB is greater than OA, then the force P at C should act in the
downward direction.
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Unpredictable
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
20. A slider crank chain consists of following numbers of turning and
sliding pairs
(A) 1, 3
(B) 2, 2
(C) 3, 1
(D) 4, 0
Answer: Option C
21. Kinematic pairs are those which have
(A) Point or line contact between the two elements when in motion
(B) Surface contact between the two elements when in motion
(C) Elements of pairs not held together mechanically
(D) Two elements that permit relative motion
Answer: Option D
22. The displacement of the reciprocating roller follower, when it has
contact with the straight flanks of the tangent cam, is given by (where
r₁ = Minimum radius of the cam, r₂ = Radius of the roller follower,
and θ = Angle turned by the cam from the beginning of the follower
displacement)
(A) (r₁ - r₂) (1 - cosθ)
(B) (r₁ + r₂) (1 + cosθ)
(C) (r₁ - r₂) [(1 - cosθ)/cos θ]
(D) (r₁ + r₂) [(1 - cosθ)/cos θ]
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Answer: Option D
23. Longitudinal vibrations are said to occur when the particles of a
body moves
(A) Perpendicular to its axis
(B) Parallel to its axis
(C) In a circle about its axis
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
24. When brakes are applied to all the four wheels of a moving car, the
distance travelled by the car before it is brought to rest, will be
(A) Maximum
(B) Minimum
(C) Zero
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
25. In a drag link quick return mechanism, the shortest link is always
fixed. The sum of the shortest and longest link is
(A) Equal to sum of other two
(B) Greater than sum of other two
(C) Less than sum of other two
(D) There is no such relationship
Answer: Option C
26. The frictional torque transmitted in a conical pivot bearing,
considering uniform wear, is
(A) (1/2) μ W R cosec α
(B) (2/3) μ W R cosec α
(C) (3/4) μ W R cosec α
(D) μ W R cosec α
Answer: Option A
27. In vibration isolation system, if ω/ωn > 1, then the phase difference
between the transmitted force and the disturbing force is
(A) 0°
(B) 90°
(C) 180°
(D) 270°
Answer: Option C
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28. The ratio of height of Porter governor (when length of arms and
links are equal) to the height of Watt's governor is (where m = Mass of
the ball, and M = Mass on the sleeve)
(A) m/(m + M)
(B) M/(m + M)
(C) (m + M)/m
(D) (m + M)/M
Answer: Option C
29. In a shaper mechanism, the Coriolis component of acceleration
will
(A) Not exist
(B) Exist
(C) Depend on position of crank
Answer: Option B
30. In a steam engine, one method of obtaining the earlier cut-off with
a simple slide valve is by increasing the angle of advance of the
eccentric while the throw of the eccentric, steam lap and exhaust lap
are kept constant. This method will
(A) Cause withdrawing or throttling of steam
(B) Reduce length of effective stroke of piston
(C) Reduce maximum opening of port to steam
(D) All of these
Answer: Option B
31. The frictional torque transmitted in a truncated conical pivot
bearing, considering uniform wear, is
(A) (1/2). μ W cosec α (r₁ + r₂)
(B) (2/3).μ W cosec α (r₁ + r₂)
(C) (1/2). μ W cosec α [(r₁³ - r₂³)/(r₁² - r₂²)]
(D) (2/3). μ W cosec α [(r₁³ - r₂³)/(r₁² - r₂²)]
Answer: Option A
32. The secondary unbalanced force is maximum when the angle of
inclination of the crank with the line of stroke is
(A) 0° and 90°
(B) 180° and 360°
(D) None of these
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Answer: Option C
33. Which of the following is false statement in respect of differences
between machine and structure?
(A) Machines transmit mechanical work, whereas structures transmit
forces
(B) In machines, relative motion exists between its members, whereas
same does not exist in case of structures
(C) Machines modify movement and work, whereas structures modify
forces
(D) Efficiency of machines as well as structures is below 100%
Answer: Option D
34. In Meyer's expansion valve, the expansion valve is driven by an
eccentric having an angle of advance from
(A) 50°-60°
(B) 60°-70°
(C) 70°-80°
(D) 80°-90°
Answer: Option D
35. When a body is subjected to transverse vibrations, the stress
induced in a body will be
(A) Shear stress
(B) Bending stress
(C) Tensile stress
Answer: Option B
36. The critical speed of a shaft with a disc supported in between is
equal to the natural frequency of the system in
(A) Transverse vibrations
(B) Torsional vibrations
(C) Longitudinal vibrations
(D) All of these
Answer: Option A
37. Klein's construction gives a graphic construction for
(A) Slider-crank mechanism
(B) Velocity polygon
(C) Acceleration polygon
(D) Four bar chain mechanism
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Answer: Option C
38. In the below figure, PC is the connecting rod and OC is the crank
making an angle θ with the line of stroke PO and rotates with uniform
angular velocity at ω rad/s. The Klien's acceleration diagram for
determining the acceleration of the piston P is shown by quadrilateral
CQNO, if N coincides with O, then
(A) Acceleration and velocity of the piston P is zero

(B) Acceleration and velocity of the piston P is maximum
(C) Acceleration of the piston P is zero and its velocity is maximum
(D) Acceleration of the piston P is maximum and its velocity is zero
Answer: Option C
39. The Scott-Russell mechanism consists of
(A) Sliding and turning pairs
(B) Sliding and rotary pairs
(C) Turning and rotary pairs
(D) Sliding pairs only
Answer: Option A
40. The displacement of the D-slide valve is __________ the steam lap
by a distance known as lead of the valve.
(A) Greater than
(B) Less than
(C) Equal to
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
41. In steady state forced vibrations, the amplitude of vibrations at
resonance is __________ damping coefficient.
(A) Equal to
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(D) Independent of
Answer: Option C
42. When there is a reduction in amplitude over every cycle of
vibration, then the body is said to have
(A) Free vibration
(B) Forced vibration
(C) Damped vibration
(D) Under damped vibration
Answer: Option C
(A) For constant velocity ratio transmission between two gears, the
common normal at the point of contact must always pass through a fixed
point on the line joining the centres of rotation of gears.
(B) For involute gears, the pressure angle changes with the change in
centre distance between gears.
(C) The epicyclic gear trains involve rotation of atleast one gear axis
about some other gear axis.
Answer: Option D
44. In multi V-belt transmission, if one of the belt is broken, we have
to change the
(A) Broken belt
(B) Broken belt and its adjacent belts
(C) All the belts
(D) There is no need of changing any one as remaining belts can take
care of transmission of load
Answer: Option C
45. The coriolis component of acceleration depends upon
(A) Velocity of slider
(B) Angular velocity of the link
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
46. Which of the following mechanism is an approximate straight line
motion mechanism?
(A) Watt's mechanism
(B) Grasshopper mechanism
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(C) Robert's mechanism
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
47. The size of cam depends upon
(A) Base circle
(B) Pitch circle
(C) Prime circle
(D) Pitch curve
Answer: Option A
48. If some links are connected such that motion between them can
take place in more than one direction, it is called
(A) Incompletely constrained motion
(B) Partially constrained motion
(C) Completely constrained motion
(D) Successfully constrained motion
Answer: Option A
49. The instantaneous centre of a rigid thin disc rolling on a plane
rigid surface is located at
(A) The centre of the disc
(B) The point of contact
(C) An infinite distance on the plane surface
(D) The point on the circumference situated vertically opposite to the
contact point
Answer: Option B
50. The tractive force in a locomotive with two cylinders is given by
(where c = Fraction of reciprocating parts per cylinder, m = Mass of
reciprocating parts, ω = Angular speed of crank, r = Radius of crank,
and θ = Angle of inclination of crank to the line of stroke)
(A) m.ω².r cosθ
(B) c.m.ω².r sinθ
(C) (1 - c).m.ω².r (cosθ - sinθ)
(D) m.ω².r (cosθ - sinθ)
Answer: Option C
51. The instantaneous centres which vary with the configuration of
mechanism are called
(A) Permanent instantaneous centres
(B) Fixed instantaneous centres
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(C) Neither fixed nor permanent instantaneous centres
Answer: Option C
52. The Klein's method of construction for reciprocating engine
mechanism
(A) Is based on acceleration diagram
(B) Is a simplified form of instantaneous center method
(C) Utilises a quadrilateral similar to the diagram of mechanism for
reciprocating engine
(D) Enables determination of Cariole’s component
Answer: Option C
53. The working depth of a gear is the radial distance from the
(A) Pitch circle to the bottom of a tooth
(B) Pitch circle to the top of a tooth
(C) Top of a tooth to the bottom of a tooth
(D) Addendum circle to the clearance circle
Answer: Option D
54. The unbalanced primary forces in a reciprocating engine are
(A) Balanced completely
(B) Balanced partially
(C) Balanced by secondary forces
(D) Not balanced
Answer: Option B
55. In vibration isolation system, if ω/ωn < 2, then for all values of
damping factor, the transmissibility will be (where ω = Angular speed
of the system, ωn = Natural frequency of vibration of the system)
(A) Less than unity
(B) Equal to unity
(C) Greater than unity
(D) Zero
Answer: Option C
56. Crowning on pulleys helps
(A) In increasing velocity ratio
(B) In decreasing the slip of the belt
(C) For automatic adjustment of belt position so that belt runs centrally
(D) Increase belt and pulley life
Answer: Option C
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57. The example of successfully constrained motion is a
(A) Motion of an I.C. engine valve
(B) Motion of the shaft between a footstep bearing
(C) Piston reciprocating inside an engine cylinder
Answer: Option D
58. The lower pairs are __________ pairs.
(A) Self-closed
(B) Force-closed
(C) Friction closed
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
59. In a Hartnell governor, the lift of the sleeve is given by (where r₁
and r₂ = Max. and min. radii of rotation, x = Length of ball arm of the
lever, and y = Length of sleeve arm of the lever)
(A) (r₁ + r₂) (y/x)
(B) (r₁ + r₂) (x/y)
(C) (r₁ - r₂) (y/x)
(D) (r₁ - r₂) (x/y)
Answer: Option C
60. For a twin cylinder V-engine, the crank positions for primary
reverse cranks and secondary direct cranks are shown in the below
figure. The engine is a
(A) 30° V-engine

(B) 60° V-engine
(C) 120° V-engine
(D) 150° V-engine
Answer: Option A
61. Lower pairs are those which have
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Answer: Option B
62. A system in dynamic balance implies that
(A) The system is critically damped
(B) There is no critical speed in the system
(C) The system is also statically balanced
(D) There will absolutely no wear of bearings
Answer: Option C
63. The coriolis component of acceleration leads the sliding velocity by
(A) 45°
(B) 90°
(C) 135°
(D) 180°
Answer: Option B
64. The power of a Porter governor is equal to
(A) [c²/(1 + 2c)] (m + M) g.h
(B) [2c²/(1 + 2c)] (m + M) g.h
(C) [3c²/(1 + 2c)] (m + M) g.h
(D) [4c²/(1 + 2c)] (m + M) g.h
Answer: Option D
65. In the two rotor system as shown in the below figure (I₁ < I₂), a
node of vibration is situated
(A) Between I₁, and I₂ but nearer I₁

(B) Between I₁, and I₂ but nearer to I₂
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(C) Exactly in the middle of the shaft
(D) Nearer to I₁ but outside
Answer: Option B
66. Whitworth quick return mechanism is obtained by inversion of
(A) Slider crank mechanism
(B) Kinematic chain
(C) Five link mechanism
(D) Roller cam mechanism
Answer: Option A
67. In a four-bar chain it is required to give an oscillatory motion to
the follower for a continuous rotation of the crank. For the lengths of
50 mm of crank and 70 mm of the follower, determine theoretical
maximum length of coupler. The minimum length of the coupler will
be
(A) 45 mm
(B) Slightly less than 45 mm
(C) Slightly more than 45 mm
(D) 95 mm
Answer: Option C
68. The Grubler's criterion for determining the degrees of freedom (n)
of a mechanism having plane motion is (where l = Number of links,
and j = Number of binary joints)
(A) n = (l -1) - j
(B) n = 2(l - 1) - 2j
(C) n = 3(l - 1) - 2j
(D) n = 4(l - 1) - 3j
Answer: Option C
69. For dynamic balancing of a shaft
(A) The net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to zero
(B) The net couple due to the dynamic forces acting on the shaft is
equal to zero
Answer: Option C
70. The periodic time of a compound pendulum is __________ when
the distance between the point of suspension and the centre of gravity
is equal to the radius of gyration of the body about its centre of
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gravity.
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
71. Which is the false statement about the properties of instantaneous
centre?
(A) At the instantaneous center of rotation, one rigid link rotates
instantaneously relative to another for the configuration of mechanism
considered
(B) The two rigid links have no linear velocities relative to each other
at the instantaneous centre
(C) The two rigid links which have no linear velocity relative to each
other at this center have the same linear velocity to the third rigid link
(D) The double centre can be denoted either by O2\ or O12, but proper
selection should be made
Answer: Option D
(A) The primary unbalanced force is less than the secondary
unbalanced force.
(B) The primary unbalanced force is maximum twice in one revolution
of the crank.
(C) The unbalanced force due to reciprocating masses varies in
magnitude and direction both.
(D) The magnitude of swaying couple in locomotives is inversely
proportional to the distance between the two cylinder centre lines
Answer: Option B
73. The distance by which the __________ of the D-slide valve overlaps
the steam port is called exhaust lap.
(A) Inner edge
(B) Outer edge
(C) Corners
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
74. In a Hartnell governor, the stiffness of the spring is given by
(where S1 and S2 = Spring forces exerted on the sleeve at max. and
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min. radii of rotation, and h = Compression of the spring)
(A) (S₁ + S₂)/h
(B) (S₁ - S₂)/h
(C) (S₁ + S₂)/2h
(D) (S₁ - S₂)/2h
Answer: Option B
75. The number of centers in a crank driven slider crank mechanism
is
(A) 0
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6
Answer: Option B
76. The ratio of maximum fluctuation of energy to the workdone per
cycle is called
(A) Fluctuation of energy
(B) Maximum fluctuation of energy
(C) Coefficient of fluctuation of energy
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
77. A rigid body, under the action of external forces, can be replaced
by two masses placed at a fixed distance apart. The two masses form
an equivalent dynamical system, if
(A) The sum of the two masses is equal to the total mass of body
(B) The centre of gravity of the two masses coincides with that of the
body
(C) The sum of mass moment of inertia of the masses about their
centre of gravity is equal to the mass moment of inertia of the body
Answer: Option D
78. The Whitworth quick return motion mechanism is formed in a
slider crank chain when the
(A) Coupler link is fixed
(B) Longest link is a fixed link
(C) Slider is a fixed link
(D) Smallest link is a fixed link
Answer: Option A
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79. Angle of ascent of cam is defined as the angle
(A) During which the follower returns to its initial position
(B) Of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower
(C) Through which the cam rotates during the period in which the
follower remains in highest position
(D) Moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till
it reaches its highest position
Answer: Option D
80. A completely constrained motion can be transmitted with.
(A) 1 link with pin joints
(B) 2 links with pin joints
(C) 3 links with pin joints
(D) 4 links with pin joints
Answer: Option D
81. When a body moves with simple harmonic motion, the product of
its periodic time and frequency is equal to
(A) Zero
(B) One
(C) π/2
(D) π
Answer: Option B
82. The centrifugal tension in belts
(A) Increases power transmitted
(B) Decreases power transmitted
(C) Have no effect on power transmitted
(D) Increases power transmitted upto a certain speed and then
decreases
Answer: Option C
83. In a spring controlled governor, when the controlling force
________ as the radius of rotation increases, it is said to be a stable
governor.
(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
84. The mechanism in which two are turning pairs and two are sliding
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pairs, is called a
(A) Double slider crank chain
(B) Elliptical trammel
(C) Scotch yoke mechanism
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
85. A rotor supported at ‘A’ and ‘B’ carries two masses as shown in
the below figure. The rotor is
(A) Dynamically balanced

(B) Statically balanced
(C) Statically and dynamically balanced
(D) Not balanced
Answer: Option C
86. The minimum periodic time of a compound pendulum is
(A) (1/2π). √(kG/g)
(B) (1/2π). √(2kG/g)
(C) 2π. √(kG/g)
(D) 2π. √(2kG/g)
Answer: Option D
87. Idler pulley is used
(A) For changing the direction of motion of the belt
(B) For applying tension
(C) For increasing velocity ratio
Answer: Option B
88. For simple harmonic motion of the of follower, a cosine curve
represents
(A) Displacement diagram
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(B) Velocity diagram
(C) Acceleration diagram
Answer: Option C
89. For the same lift and same angle of ascent, a smaller base circle
will give
(A) A small value of pressure angle
(B) A large value of pressure angle
(C) There is no such relation with pressure angle
(D) Something else
Answer: Option B
90. The acceleration of the particle moving with simple harmonic
motion is _________ at the mean position.
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
91. The two links OA and OB are connected by a pin joint at ‘O’. If the
link OA turns with angular velocity ω₁ rad/s in the clockwise direction
and the link OB turns with angular velocity ω₂ rad/s in the
anticlockwise direction, then the rubbing velocity at the pin joint ‘O’ is
(where r = Radius of the pin at ‘O’)
(A) ω₁.ω₂.r
(B) (ω₁ - ω₂) r
(C) (ω₁ + ω₂) r
(D) (ω₁ - ω₂) 2r
Answer: Option C
92. If the rotating mass of a rim type flywheel is distributed on
another rim type flywheel whose mean radius is half the mean radius
of the former, then energy stored in the latter at the same speed will
be
(A) Four times the first one
(B) Same as the first one
(C) One fourth of the first one
(D) One and a half times the first one
Answer: Option C
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93. ABCD is a four bar mechanism in which AB = 310 mm and CD =
450 mm. AB and CD are both perpendicular to the fixed link AD, as
shown in the below figure. If the velocity of B at this condition is v.
Then the velocity of C is
(A) v
(B) (2/3). v
(C) (3/2). v
(D) (9/4). v
Answer: Option C
94. A spring controlled governor is said to be unstable when the
controlling force
(A) Increases as the radius of rotation decreases
(B) Increases as the radius of rotation increases
(C) Decreases as the radius of rotation increases
(D) Remains constant for all radii of rotation
Answer: Option C
95. Which of the following governor is used to drive a gramophone?
(A) Watt governor
(B) Porter governor
(C) Pickering governor
(D) Hartnell governor
Answer: Option C
96. In higher pair, the relative motion is
(A) Purely turning
(B) Purely sliding
(C) Purely rotary
(D) Combination of sliding and turning
Answer: Option D
97. In automobiles the power is transmitted from gear box to
differential through
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(A) Bevel gear
(B) Universal joint
(C) Hooke's joint
(D) Knuckle joint
Answer: Option C
98. The equivalent length of a simple pendulum which gives the same
frequency as a compound pendulum is
(A) h/(kG² + h²)
(B) (kG² + h²)/h
(C) h²/(kG² + h²)
(D) (kG² + h²)/h²
Answer: Option B
99. A flywheel is fitted to the crankshaft of an engine having W as the
amount of indicated work per revolution and permissible limits of
coefficient of fluctuation of energy and speed as CE and CS
respectively. The kinetic energy of the flywheel is given by
(A) 2 W CE / CS
(B) W CE / 2CS
(C) W CE / CS
(D) W CS / 2CE
Answer: Option B
100. TJIE horse power transmitted by a belt is dependent upon
(A) Tension on tight side of belt
(B) Tension on slack side of belt
(C) Radius of pulley
Answer: Option D
101. Kinematic pairs are those which have
(A) Two elements held together mechanically
(B) Two elements having relative motion
(C) Two elements having Coriolis component
(D) Minimum of two instantaneous centres
Answer: Option B
102. The pressure angle of a cam depends upon
(A) Offset between centre lines of cam and follower
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(B) Lift of follower
(C) Angle of ascent
Answer: Option D
103. When two pulleys are connected by means of a cross belt drive,
then both the pulleys will rotate in __________ directions.
(A) Same
(B) Opposite
(C) Perpendicular
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
104. The swaying couple is maximum or minimum when the angle of
inclination of the crank to the line of stroke (θ) is equal to
(A) 90° and 180°
(B) 45° and 225°
(C) 180° and 270°
(D) 270° and 360°
Answer: Option B
105. Angle of action of cam is defined as the angle
(A) Of rotation of the cam for a definite displacement of the follower
(B) Through which the cam rotates during the period in which the
follower remains in the highest position
(C) Moved by the cam from the instant the follower begins to rise, till
(D) Moved by the cam from beginning of ascent to the termination of
descent
Answer: Option D
106. The velocity of piston in a reciprocating steam engine is given by
(where ω = Angular velocity of crank, r = Radius of crank pin circle, θ
= Angle turned by crank from inner dead centre, and n = Ratio of
length of connecting rod to the radius of crank)
(A) ωr [sin θ + (sin 2θ/n)]
(B) ωr [cos θ + (cos 2θ/n)]
(C) ω²r [sin θ + (sin 2θ/n)]
(D) ω²r [cos θ + (cos 2θ/n)]
Answer: Option A
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(A) A round bar in a round hole form a turning pair
(B) A square bar in a square hole form a sliding pair
(C) A vertical shaft in a foot step bearing forms a successful constraint
Answer: Option C
108. In a screw jack, the effort required to lift the load W is given by
(where α = Helix angle, and φ = Angle of friction)
(A) P = W tan(α - φ)
(B) P = W tan(α + φ)
(C) P = W tan(φ - α)
(D) P = W cos(α + φ)
Answer: Option B
109. When two links are connected by a pin joint, their instantaneous
centre lies
(A) On their point of contact
(B) At the centre of curvature
(C) At the centre of circle
(D) At the pin joint
Answer: Option D
110. A kinematic chain is known as a mechanism when
(A) None of the links is fixed
(B) One of the links is fixed
(C) Two of the links are fixed
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
111. A circular bar moving in a round hole is an example of
Answer: Option A
112. The number of links in pantograph mechanism is equal to
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: Option C
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113. A mechanism __________ for transmitting or transforming
motion.
(A) Can be used
(B) Cannot be used
(C) Unpredictable
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
114. Which of the following disciplines provides study of inertia forces
arising from the combined effect of the mass and the motion of the
parts?
(A) Theory of machines
(B) Applied mechanics
(C) Mechanisms
(D) Kinetics
Answer: Option D
115. Shaft revolving in a bearing is the following type of pair
(A) Lower pair
(B) Higher pair
(C) Spherical pair
(D) Cylindrical pair
Answer: Option A
116. In a differential band brake as shown in the below figure, the
drum rotates anticlockwise and the greater tension T₁ acts at A and
smaller tension T₂ at B. Length OA is greater than length OB. In order
to apply the brake, the force P at C should
(A) Be zero
(B) Act in upward direction
(C) Act in downward direction
Answer: Option C
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117. Throw of a cam is the maximum distance of the follower from
(A) Base circle
(B) Pitch circle
(C) Root circle
(D) Prime circle
Answer: Option A
118. The ratio of maximum fluctuation of speed to the mean speed is
called
(A) Fluctuation of speed
(B) Maximum fluctuation of speed
(C) Coefficient of fluctuation of speed
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
119. The sense of coriolis component 2 ωv is same as that of the
relative velocity vector ‘v’ rotated at
(A) 45° in the direction of rotation of the link containing the path
(B) 45° in the direction opposite to the rotation of the link containing
the path
(C) 90° in the direction of rotation of the link containing the path
(D) 180° in the direction opposite to the rotation of the link containing
the path
Answer: Option C
120. The coefficient of fluctuation of speed is __________ of maximum
fluctuation of speed and the mean speed.
(A) Sum
(B) Difference
(C) Product
(D) Ratio
Answer: Option D
121. In a rigid link OA, velocity of ‘A’ w.r.t. ‘O’ will be
(A) Parallel to OA
(B) Perpendicular to OA
(C) At 45° to OA
(D) Along AO
Answer: Option B
122. Cylindrical cams can be classified as
(A) Circular
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(B) Tangent
(C) Reciprocating
Answer: Option D
123. Rectangular bar in a rectangular hole is the following type of pair
(C) Incompletely constrained motion
(D) Freely constrained motion
Answer: Option A
(A) The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic
motion is the time taken by a particle for one complete oscillation.
(B) The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic
motion is directly proportional to its angular velocity.
(C) The velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is
zero at the mean position.
(D) The acceleration of the particle moving with simple harmonic
motion is maximum at the mean position.
Answer: Option A
125. In a vibrating system, if the actual damping coefficient is 40
N/m/s and critical damping coefficient is 420 N/m/s, then logarithmic
decrement is equal to
(A) 0.2
(B) 0.4
(C) 0.6
(D) 0.8
Answer: Option C
126. The balancing of a rigid rotor can be achieved by appropriately
placing balancing masses in
(A) A single plane
(B) Two planes
(C) Three planes
(D) Four planes
Answer: Option B
127. A combination of kinematic pairs, joined in such a way that the
relative motion between the links is completely constrained, is called a
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(A) Structure
(B) Mechanism
(C) Kinematic chain
(D) Inversion
Answer: Option C
128. V-belts are usually used for
(A) Long drives
(B) Short drives
(C) Long and short drives
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
129. When the load on the engine increases, it becomes necessary to
increase the supply of working fluid and when the load decreases, less
working fluid is required. The supply of the working fluid to the
engine is controlled by a
(A) D-slide valve
(B) Governor
(C) Meyer's expansion valve
(D) Flywheel
Answer: Option B
130. To obviate axial thrust, following gear drive is used
(A) Double helical gears having opposite teeth
(B) Double helical gears having identical teeth
(C) Single helical gear in which one of the teeth of helix angle a is
more
(D) Mutter gears
Answer: Option A
131. The direction of Coriolis component of acceleration is the
direction
(A) Of relative velocity vector for the two coincident points rotated by
90° in the direction of the angular velocity of the rotation of the link
(B) Along the centripetal acceleration
(C) Along tangential acceleration
(D) Along perpendicular to angular velocity
Answer: Option A
132. The maximum velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic
motion is
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(A) ω
(B) ωr
(C) ω²r
(D) ω/r
Answer: Option B
133. The Ackerman steering gear mechanism is preferred to the Davis
steering gear mechanism, because
(A) Whole of the mechanism in the Ackerman steering gear is on the
back of the front wheels
(B) The Ackerman steering gear consists of turning pairs
(C) The Ackerman steering gear is most economical
Answer: Option D
134. The advantage of the piston valve over the slide valve is that in
the former case
(A) Wear is less
(B) Power absorbed is less
(C) Both wear and power absorbed are low
(D) The pressure developed being high provides tight sealing
Answer: Option C
135. The Bifilar suspension method is used to determine
(A) Natural frequency of vibration
(B) Position of balancing weights
(C) Moment of inertia
(D) Centripetal acceleration
Answer: Option C
136. The cam follower generally used in aircraft engines is
(D) Roller follower
Answer: Option D
137. The lower pair is a
(A) Open pair
(B) Closed pair
(C) Sliding pair
(D) Point contact pair
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Answer: Option B
138. Which of the following is an inversion of a double slider crank
chain?
(A) Oldham's coupling
(B) Elliptical trammel
(C) Scotch yoke mechanism
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
139. The direction of linear velocity of any point on a link with respect
to another point on the same link is
(A) Parallel to the link joining the points
(B) Perpendicular to the link joining the points
(C) At 45° to the link joining the points
Answer: Option B
140. The example of higher pair is
(A) Belt, rope and chain drives
(B) Gears, cams
(C) Ball and roller bearings
Answer: Option D
141. The Hooke's joint consists of:
(A) Two forks
(B) One fork
(C) Three forks
(D) Four forks
Answer: Option A
142. For S.H.M. cam, the acceleration of the follower at the ends of the
stroke and aimed stroke respectively, is
(A) Maximum and zero
(B) Zero and maximum
(C) Minimum and maximum
(D) Zero and minimum
Answer: Option A
143. A disc is a spinning with an angular velocity ω rad/s about the
axis of spin. The couple applied to the disc causing precession will be
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(where I = Mass moment of inertia of the disc, and ωP = Angular
velocity of precession of the axis of spin)
(A) (1/2).Iω²
(B) Iω²
(C) (1/2). I ω ωP
(D) I ω ωP
Answer: Option D
144. A system of masses rotating in different parallel planes is in
dynamic balance if the
(A) Resultant force is equal to zero
(B) Resultant couple is equal to zero
(C) Resultant force and resultant couple are both equal to zero
(D) Resultant force is numerically equal to the resultant couple, but
neither of them need necessarily be zero
Answer: Option C
145. A machine mounted on a single coil spring has a period of free
vibration of tp . If the spring is cut into four equal parts and placed in
parallel and the machine is mounted on them, then the period of free
vibration of the new system will become
(A) tp /16
(B) tp /4
(C) 4 tp
(D) 16 tp
Answer: Option B
146. The critical speed of a shaft depends upon its
(A) Mass
(B) Stiffness
(C) Mass and stiffness
(D) Stiffness and eccentricity
Answer: Option C
147. The main disadvantage of the sliding pair is that it is
(A) Bulky
(B) Wears rapidly
(C) Difficult to manufacture
Answer: Option D
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CQNO, the acceleration of the piston is _________ when the crank OC
and connecting rod PC are at right angles to each other.
(A) Infinity
(B) Zero
(C) Any +ve value
(D) Any -ve value
Answer: Option B
149. Inertia force acts
(A) Perpendicular to the acceleration force
(B) Along the direction of acceleration force
(C) Opposite to the direction of acceleration force
Answer: Option C
150. A circle passing through the pitch point with its center at the
center of cam axis is known as
(A) Pitch circle
(B) Base circle
(C) Prime circle
(D) Outer circle
Answer: Option C
151. The frictional torque transmitted in a flat collar bearing,
considering uniform pressure, is (where r₁ and r₂ = External and
internal radii of collar respectively)
(A) (1/2). μ W (r₁ + r₂)
(B) (2/3). μ W (r₁ + r₂)
(C) (1/2). μ W [(r₁³ - r₂³)/(r₁² - r₂²)]
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(D) (2/3). μ W [(r₁³ - r₂³)/(r₁² - r₂²)]
Answer: Option D
152. In a flat collar pivot bearing, the moment due to friction is
proportional to
(A) (r₁² - r₂²)/(r₁ - r₂)
(B) (r₁² - r₂²)/(r₁ + r₂)
(C) (r₁³ - r₂³)/(r₁² - r₂²)
(D) (r₁³ - r₂³)/(r₁ - r₂)
Answer: Option C
153. The cam and follower is an example of
(A) Sliding pair
(B) Rolling pair
(C) Lower pair
(D) Higher pair
Answer: Option D
154. When a shaking force is transmitted through the springs,
damping becomes detrimental when the ratio of its frequency to the
natural frequency is greater than
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.5
(C) 1
(D) 2
Answer: Option D
155. Angle of dwell of cam is defined as the angle
(B) Of rotation of the cam for definite displacement of the follower
Answer: Option C
156. Rectilinear motion of piston is converted into rotary by
(A) Cross head
(B) Slider crank
(C) Connecting rod
(D) Gudgeon pin
Answer: Option B
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157. In an ideal machine, the output as compared to input is
(A) Less
(B) More
(C) Equal
(D) May be less or more depending on efficiency
Answer: Option C
158. In a mechanism, the fixed instantaneous centres are those centres
which
(A) Remain in the same place for all configurations of the mechanism
(B) Vary with the configuration of the mechanism
(C) Moves as the mechanism moves, but joints are of permanent
nature
Answer: Option A
159. At the nodal point in a shaft, the amplitude for torsional vibration
will be
(A) Minimum
(B) Maximum
(C) Zero
(D) Infinity
Answer: Option C
160. In a Hartnell governor, if a spring of greater stiffness is used,
then the governor will be
(A) Less sensitive
(B) More sensitive
(C) Unaffected of sensitivity
(D) Isochronous
Answer: Option A
161. The two elements of a pair are said to form a higher pair, when
they
(A) Have a surface contact when in motion
(B) Have a line or point contact when in motion
(C) Are kept in contact by the action of external forces, when in
motion
(D) Permit relative motion
Answer: Option B
162. Torsional vibrations are said to occur when the particles of a
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body moves
(A) Perpendicular to its axis
(B) Parallel to its axis
(C) In a circle about its axis
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
163. A point on a link connecting double slider crank chain traces a
(A) Ellipse
(B) Circle
(C) Parabola
(D) Hyperbola
Answer: Option A
164. In a mechanism, usually one link is fixed. If the fixed link is
changed in a kinematic chain, then relative motion of other links
(A) Will remain same
(B) Will change
(C) Could change or remain unaltered depending on which link is
fixed
(D) Will not occur
Answer: Option A
165. Two heavy rotating masses are connected by shafts of lengths l₁, l₂
and l₃ and the corresponding diameters are d₁, d₂ and d₃. This system
is reduced to a torsionally equivalent system having uniform diameter
d = d₁ of the shaft. The equivalent length of the shaft is
(A) (l₁ + l₂ + l₃)/3
(B) l = l₁ + l₂.(d₁/d₂)³ + l₂.(d₁/d₃)³
(C) l = l₁ + l₂.(d₁/d₂)⁴ + l₃.(d₁/d₃)⁴
(D) l₁ + l₂ + l₃
Answer: Option C
166. The axis of precession is __________ to the plane in which the
axis of spin is going to rotate.
(A) Parallel
(B) Perpendicular
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
167. The ratio of the maximum displacement of the forced vibration to
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the deflection due to the static force, is known as
(A) Damping factor
(B) Damping coefficient
(C) Logarithmic decrement
(D) Magnification factor
Answer: Option D
168. If the radius of gyration of a compound pendulum about an axis
through e.g. is more, then its frequency of oscillation will be
(A) Less
(B) More
(C) Same
(D) Data are insufficient to determine same
Answer: Option A
169. Klein's construction is useful to determine
(A) Velocity of various parts
(B) Acceleration of various parts
(C) Displacement of various parts
(D) Angular acceleration of various parts
Answer: Option B
CQNO. The acceleration of the piston P with respect to the crankpin C
is given by
(A) ω² × NO
(B) ω² × CO
(C) ω² × CN
(D) ω² × QN
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Answer: Option C
171. When the crank is at the inner dead centre, in a reciprocating
steam engine, then the acceleration of the piston will be
(A) ω²r. (n + 1)/n
(B) ω²r. (n - 1)/n
(C) ω²r. n/(n + 1)
(D) ω²r. n/(n - 1)
Answer: Option A
172. Under logarithmic decrement, the amplitude of successive
vibrations are
(A) Constant
(B) In arithmetic progression
(C) In geometric progression
(D) In logarithmic progression
Answer: Option C
173. A spring controlled governor is said to be stable if the controlling
force line when produced intersects the Y-axis
(A) At the origin
(B) Below the origin
(C) Above the origin
Answer: Option B
174. Which of the following disciplines provides study of relative
motion between the parts of a machine?
(C) Mechanisms
(D) Kinematics
Answer: Option D
175. Cross head and guides form a
(A) Lower pair
(B) Higher pair
(C) Turning pair
(D) Sliding pair
Answer: Option D
176. In a coupling rod of a locomotive, each of the four pairs is a
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________ pair.
(A) Sliding
(B) Turning
(C) Rolling
(D) Screw
Answer: Option B
177. The two links OA and OB are connected by a pin joint at O. If the
link OA turns with angular velocity ω₁ rad/s in the clockwise direction
and the link OB turns with angular velocity ω₂ rad/s in the clockwise
direction, then the rubbing velocity at the pin joint O is (where r =
Radius of the pin at O)
(A) ω₁.ω₂.r
(B) (ω₁ - ω₂)r
(C) (ω₁ + ω₂)r
(D) (ω₁ - ω₂)2r
Answer: Option B
178. The dynamic friction is the friction experienced by a body, when
the body
(A) Is in motion
(B) Is at rest
(C) Just begins to slide over the surface of the other body
Answer: Option A
179. The frictional torque transmitted in a flat pivot bearing with
assumption of uniform pressure is _________ as compared to uniform
wear.
(A) Less
(B) More
(C) Same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
180. A foot step bearing and rotor of a vertical turbine form examples
of
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Answer: Option B
181. The Ackermann steering mechanism is preferred to the Davis
type in automobiles because
(A) The former is mathematically accurate
(B) The former is having turning pair
(C) The former is most economical
(D) The former is most rigid
Answer: Option B
182. Higher pairs are those which have
Answer: Option A
183. The fundamental equation for correct steering is (where φ and α
= Angle through which the axis of the outer wheel and inner wheel
turns respectively, c = Distance between the pivots of the front axles,
and d = Wheel base)
(A) sinφ + sinα = b/c
(B) cosφ - sinα = c/b
(C) cotφ - cotα = c/b
(D) tanφ + cotα = b/c
Answer: Option C
184. When the nature of contact between the elements of a pair is such
that it can only slide relative to the other, the pair is known as a
(A) Screw pair
(B) Spherical pair
(C) Turning pair
(D) Sliding pair
Answer: Option D
185. In under damped vibrating system, if x₁ and x₂ are the successive
values of the amplitude on the same side of the mean position, then the
logarithmic decrement is equal to
(A) x₁/x₂
(B) log(x₁/x₂)
(C) loge(x₁/x₂)
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(D) log(x₁.x₂)
Answer: Option B
186. Which of the following mechanisms produces mathematically an
exact straight line motion?
(A) Grasshopper mechanism
(B) Watt mechanism
(C) Peaucellier's mechanism
(D) Tchebicheff mechanism
Answer: Option C
187. The velocity of any point in mechanism relative to any other point
on the mechanism on velocity polygon is represented by the line
(A) Joining the corresponding points
(B) Perpendicular to line as per (A)
(C) Not possible to determine with these data
(D) At 45° to line as per (A)
Answer: Option A
188. The velocity of the reciprocating roller follower when it has
contact with the straight flanks of the tangent cam, is given by (where
ω = Angular velocity of the cam shaft)
(A) ω (r₁ r₂) sinθ
(B) ω (r₁ + r₂) sinθ sec2θ
(C) ω (r₁ r₂) cosθ
(D) ω (r₁ + r₂) cosθ cosec2θ
Answer: Option B
189. For the brake to be self locking, the force P at C shown in the
below figure, should
(A) Be zero
(B) Act in upward direction
(C) Act in downward direction
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
190. A governor is said to be stable, if the
(A) Radius of rotation of balls increases as the equilibrium speed
decreases
(B) Radius of rotation of balls decreases as the equilibrium speed
decreases
(C) Radius of rotation of balls increases as the equilibrium speed
increases
(D) Radius of rotation of balls decreases as the equilibrium speed
increases
Answer: Option C
191. Which one of the following can completely balance several masses
revolving in different planes on a shaft?
(A) A single mass in different planes
(B) Two masses in any two planes
(C) A single mass in one of the planes of the revolving masses
(D) Two equal masses in any two planes
Answer: Option B
192. When one of the links of a kinematic chain is fixed, the chain is
known as a
(A) Structure
(B) Mechanism
(C) Inversion
(D) Machine
Answer: Option B
193. The frictional torque transmitted by a cone clutch is same as that
of
(A) Flat pivot bearing
(B) Flat collar bearing
(C) Conical pivot bearing
(D) Truncated conical pivot bearing
Answer: Option D
194. The sense of Coriolis component is such that it
(A) Leads the sliding velocity vector by 90°
(B) Lags the sliding velocity vector by 90°
(C) Is along the sliding velocity vector
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(D) Leads the sliding velocity vector by 180°
Answer: Option A
195. Which of the following disciplines provides study of the relative
motion between the parts of a machine and the forces acting on the
parts?
(C) Mechanisms
(D) Kinetics
Answer: Option A
196. A single degree of freedom system is given by, m × (d²x/dt²) + c ×
(dx/dt) + sx = F.cosω.t with usual notations. It represents
(A) Free vibration with damping
(B) Free vibration without damping
(C) Forced vibration with damping
(D) Forced vibration without damping
Answer: Option C
197. The factional torque for square thread at the mean radius r while
raising load W is given by
(A) T = W.r tan(φ - α)
(B) T = W.r tan(φ + α)
(C) T = W.r tanα
(D) T = W.r tanφ
Answer: Option B
198. In a band and block brake, the ratio of tensions on tight side and
slack side of the band is (where μ = Coefficient of friction between the
blocks and the drum, θ = Semi-angle of each block subtending at the
centre of drum, and n = Number of blocks)
(A) T₁/T₂ = μ. θ. n
(B) T₁/T₂ = [(1 - μ tanθ)/(1 + μ tanθ)]n
(C) T₁/T₂ = (μ θ)n
(D) T₁/T₂ = [(1 + μ tanθ)/(1 - μ tanθ)]n
Answer: Option D
199. An involute pinion and gear are in mesh. If both have the same
size of addendum, then there will be an interference between the
(A) Tip of the gear tooth and flank of pinion
(B) Tip of the pinion and flank of gear
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(C) Flanks of both gear and pinion
(D) Tip of both gear and pinion
Answer: Option A
200. A universal joint is an example of
(A) Higher pair
(B) Lower pair
(C) Rolling pair
(D) Sliding pair
Answer: Option B
201. Oldham's coupling is the
(A) Second inversion of double slider crank chain
(B) Third inversion of double slider crank chain
(C) Second inversion of single slider crank chain
(D) Third inversion of slider crank chain
Answer: Option B
202. Transmission of power from the engine to the rear axle of an
automobile is by means of
(A) Compound gears
(B) Worm and wheel method
(C) Hooke's joint
(D) Crown gear
Answer: Option C
203. Which of the following property of the instantaneous centre is
correct?
(A) A rigid link rotates instantaneously relative to another link at the
instantaneous centre for the configuration of the mechanism considered.
(B) The two rigid links have no linear velocity relative to each other at
the instantaneous centre.
(C) The velocity of the instantaneous centre relative to any third rigid
link is same whether the instantaneous centre is regarded as a point on the
first rigid link or on the second rigid link.
Answer: Option D
204. When the addenda on pinion and wheel is such that the path of
approach and path of recess are half of their maximum possible
values, then the length of the path of contact is given by (where r =
Pitch circle radius of pinion, R = Pitch circle radius of wheel, and φ =
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Pressure angle)
(A) [(r² + R²) cosφ]/2
(B) [(r² + R²) sinφ]/2
(C) [(r + R) cosφ]/2
(D) [(r + R) sinφ]/2
Answer: Option D
205. A rotor which is balanced statically but not dynamically is
supported on two bearings L apart and at high speed of the rotor,
reaction on the left bearing is R. The right side of the bearing is shifted
to a new position 2L apart from the left bearing. At the same rotor
speed, dynamic reaction on the left bearing in the new arrangement
will
(A) Remain same as before
(B) Become equal to 2R
(C) Become equal to R/2
(D) Become equal to R/4
Answer: Option A
206. To transmit power from one rotating shaft to another whose axes
are neither parallel nor intersecting, use?
(A) Spur gear
(B) Spiral gear
(C) Bevel gear
(D) Worm gear
Answer: Option D
207. Hart mechanism has
(A) Eight links
(B) Six links
(C) Four links
(D) Twelve links
Answer: Option B
208. The dedendum circle diameter is equal to (where, φ = Pressure
angle)
(A) Pitch circle dia. × cosφ
(B) Addendum circle dia. × cosφ
(C) Clearance circle dia. × cosφ
(D) Pitch circle dia. × sinφ
Answer: Option A
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motion, at any instant is given by
(A) ωx
(B) ω²x
(C) ω²/x
(D) ω³/x
Answer: Option B
damping is
(d²x/dt²) + (c/m). (dx/dt) + (s/m). x = 0
If the roots of this equation are real, then the system will be
(A) Over-damped
(B) Under damped
(C) Critically damped
(D) Without vibrations
Answer: Option A
211. The condition for correct steering of a Davis steering gear is
(where α = Angle of inclination of the links to the vertical)
(A) sinα = b/c
(B) cosα = c/b
(C) tanα = c/2b
(D) cotα = c/2b
Answer: Option C
212. One end of a helical spring is fixed while the other end carries the
load W which moves with simple harmonic motion. The frequency of
motion is given by (where δ = Deflection of the spring)
(A) 2π. √(g/δ)
(B) 1/2π. √(g/δ)
(C) 2π. √(δ/g)
(D) 1/2π. √(δ/g)
Answer: Option B
213. According to Kennedy's theorem, if three bodies have plane
motions, their instantaneous centers lie on
(A) A triangle
(B) A point
(C) Two lines
(D) A straight line
Answer: Option D
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214. Klein's construction can be used when
(A) Crank has a uniform angular velocity
(B) Crank has non-uniform velocity
(C) Crank has uniform angular acceleration
(D) Crank has uniform angular velocity and angular acceleration
Answer: Option A
215. The type of pair formed by two elements which are so connected
that one is constrained to turn or revolve about a fixed axis of another
element is known as
(A) Turning pair
(B) Rolling pair
(C) Sliding pair
(D) Spherical pair
Answer: Option A
216. The two elements of a pair are said to form a _________ when
they permit relative motion between them.
(A) Open pair
(B) Kinematic pair
(C) Sliding pair
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
217. When the axes of the first and last wheels are coaxial, then the
train is known as
(A) Simple train of wheels
(B) Compound train of wheels
(C) Reverted gear train
(D) Epicyclic gear train
Answer: Option C
218. A body in motion will be subjected to coriolis acceleration when
that body is
(A) In plane rotation with variable velocity
(B) In plane translation with variable velocity
(C) In plane motion which is a resultant of plane translation and
rotation
(D) Restrained to rotate while sliding over another body
Answer: Option D
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219. In involute gears, the pressure angle is
(A) Dependent on the size of teeth
(B) Dependent on the size of gears
(C) Always constant
(D) Always variable
Answer: Option C
220. In a reciprocating engine, usually __________ of the
reciprocating masses are balanced.
(A) One-half
(B) Two-third
(C) Three-fourth
(D) Whole
Answer: Option B
221. The included angle for the V-belt is usually
(A) 10° to 20°
(B) 20° to 30°
(C) 30° to 40°
(D) 60° to 80°
Answer: Option C
222. If there are L number of links in a mechanism, then number of
possible inversions is equal to
(A) L + 1
(B) L - 1
(C) L
(D) L + 2
Answer: Option C
223. Relationship between the number of links (L) and number of
pairs (P) is
(A) P = 2L - 4
(B) P = 2L + 4
(C) P = 2L + 2
(D) P = 2L - 2
Answer: Option C
224. Which of the following is an example of a higher pair?
(A) Toothed gearing
(B) Belt and rope drive
(C) Ball and roller bearing
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(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
225. When the pitching of a ship is upward, the effect of gyroscopic
couple acting on it will be
(A) To move the ship towards starboard
(B) To move the ship towards port side
(C) To raise the bow and lower the stern
(D) To raise the stern and lower the bow
Answer: Option A
226. The centre of gravity of a coupler link in a four bar mechanism
will experience
(A) No acceleration
(B) Only linear acceleration
(C) Only angular acceleration
(D) Both linear and angular acceleration
Answer: Option D
227. The moment on the pulley which produces rotation is called
(A) Inertia
(B) Momentum
(C) Moment of momentum
(D) Torque
Answer: Option D
228. An eccentric sheave pivoted at one point rotates and transmits
oscillatory motion to a link whose one end is pivoted and other end is
connected to it. This mechanism has
(A) 2 links
(B) 3 links
(C) 4 links
(D) 5 links
Answer: Option C
229. Tangential acceleration direction is
(A) Along the angular velocity
(B) Opposite to angular velocity
(C) May be any one of these
(D) Perpendicular to angular velocity
Answer: Option C
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230. If the pressure angle is __________, a reciprocating follower will
jam in its bearings.
(A) Small
(B) Too small
(C) Large
(D) Too large
Answer: Option D
231. Balancing of rotating and reciprocating parts of an engine is
necessary when it runs at
(A) Slow speed
(B) Moderate speed
(C) Highs peed
Answer: Option C
232. If the number of links in a mechanism is equal to l, then the
numbers of possible inversions are equal to
(A) l - 2
(B) l - 1
(C) l
(D) l + 1
Answer: Option C
233. The brake commonly used in railway trains is
(A) Shoe brake
(B) Band brake
(C) Band and block brake
(D) Internal expanding brake
Answer: Option A
234. The example of lower pair is
(A) Shaft revolving in a bearing
(B) Straight line motion mechanisms
(C) Automobile steering gear
Answer: Option D
235. Which of the following has sliding motion?
(A) Crank
(B) Connecting rod
(C) Crank pin
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(D) Crosshead
Answer: Option D
236. The component of the acceleration, perpendicular to the velocity
of the particle, at the given instant is called
(A) Radial component
(B) Tangential component
(C) Coriolis component
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
237. In a cone pulley, if the sum of radii of the pulleys on the driving
and driven shafts is
Constant, then
(A) Open belt drive is recommended
(B) Crossed belt drive is recommended
(C) Both open belt drive and crossed belt drive is recommended
(D) The drive is recommended depending upon the torque transmitted
Answer: Option B
238. A motor car moving at a certain speed takes a left turn in a
curved path. If the engine rotates in the same direction as that of
wheels, men due to centrifugal forc
(A) The reaction on me inner wheels increases and on the outer wheels
decreases
(B) The reaction on the outer wheels increases and on the inner wheels
decreases
(C) The reaction on the front wheels increases and on the rear wheels
decreases
(D) The reaction on the rear wheels increases and on the front wheels
decreases
Answer: Option B
239. The type of coupling used to join two shafts whose axes are
neither in same straight line nor parallel, but intersect is
(A) Flexible coupling
(B) Universal coupling
(C) Chain coupling
(D) Oldham's coupling
Answer: Option B
240. For fluctuating loads, well suited bearing is
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(A) Ball bearing
(B) Roller bearing
(C) Needle roller bearing
(D) Thrust bearing
Answer: Option C
241. Efficiency of a screw jack is given by
(A) tan (α + φ)/tanα
(B) tanα/tan (α +φ)
(C) tan (α - φ)/tanα
(D) tanα/tan (α - φ)
Answer: Option B
242. The natural frequency of free transverse vibrations due to a point
load acting over a simply supported shaft is equal to (where δ = Static
deflection of a simply supported shaft due to the point load)
(A) 0.4985/√δ
(B) 0.5615/√δ
(C) 0.571/√δ
(D) 0.6253/√δ
Answer: Option A
243. In order to double the period of a simple pendulum, the length of
the string should be
(A) Halved
(B) Doubled
(C) Quadrupled
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
244. In a kinematic chain, a quaternary joint is equivalent to
(A) One binary joint
(B) Two binary joints
(C) Three binary joints
(D) Four binary joints
Answer: Option C
245. The frequency of oscillation of a compound pendulum is
(A) 2π. √[gh/(kG² + h²)]
(B) 2π. √[(kG² + h²)/gh]
(C) (1/2π). √[gh/(kG² + h²)]
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(D) (1/2π). √[(kG² + h²)/gh]
Answer: Option C
246. A simple spring-mass vibrating system has a natural frequency of
fn. If the spring stiffness is halved and the mass is doubled, then the
natural frequency will become
(A) fn/2
(B) 2 fn
(C) 4 fn
(D) 8 fn
Answer: Option A
247. Open pairs are those which have
Answer: Option C
248. The frequency of oscillation at compared to earth will be
(A) 6 times more
(B) 6 times less
(C) 2.44 times more
(D) 2.44 times less
Answer: Option D
249. The Klein's method of construction for reciprocating engine
mechanism
(A) Is a simplified version of instantaneous centre method
(B) Utilises a quadrilateral similar to the diagram of mechanism for
(C) Enables determination of coriolis component
(D) Is based on the acceleration diagram
Answer: Option B
250. A slider moves at a velocity v on a link revolving at ω rad/s. The
coriolis component of acceleration is
(A) ωv
(B) 2ωv
(C) ω²v
(D) 2ωv²
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Answer: Option B
251. The secondary unbalanced force is __________ the primary
unbalanced force.
(A) One-half
(B) Two-third
(C) n times
(D) 1/n times
Answer: Option D
252. Cam angle is defined as the angle
(C) Through which, the cam rotates during the period in which the
Answer: Option B
253. Elements of pairs held together mechanically is known as
(A) Closed pair
(B) Open pair
(C) Mechanical pair
(D) Rolling pair
Answer: Option A
254. Creep in belt drive is due to
(A) Material of the pulley
(B) Material of the belt
(C) Larger size of the driver pulley
(D) Uneven extensions and contractions due to varying tension
Answer: Option D
255. For high speed engines, the cam follower should move with
Answer: Option D
256. The Coriolis component of acceleration acts
(A) Along the sliding surface
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(B) Perpendicular to the sliding surface
(C) At 45° to the sliding surface
(D) Parallel to the sliding surface
Answer: Option B
257. When a slider moves on a fixed link having curved surface, their
instantaneous centre lies
(A) On their point of contact
(B) At the centre of curvature
(C) At the centre of circle
(D) At the pin joint
Answer: Option B
258. A kinematic chain requires at least
(A) 2 links and 3 turning pairs
(B) 3 links and 4 turning pairs
(C) 4 links and 4 turning pairs
(D) 5 links and 4 turning pairs
Answer: Option C
259. The maximum value of the pressure angle in case of cam is kept
as
(A) 10°
(B) 14°
(C) 20°
(D) 30°
Answer: Option D
260. In a cam drive with uniform velocity follower, the sharp corners
of the displacement diagram are rounded off at the beginning and at
the end of each stroke. This is done
(A) Because of difficulty in manufacturing cam profile
(B) Because of loose contact of follower with cam surface
(C) In order to have acceleration in beginning and retardation at the
end of stroke within the finite limits
(D) Because the uniform velocity motion is a partial parabolic motion
Answer: Option C
261. In a disc clutch, if there are n₁ number of discs on the driving
shaft and n₂ number of discs on the driven shaft, then the number of
pairs of contact surfaces will be
(A) n₁ + n₂
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(B) n₁ + n₂ + 1
(C) n₁ + n₂ - 1
(D) n₁ + n₂ - 2
Answer: Option C
262. The unbalanced force due to reciprocating masses
(A) Varies in magnitude but constant in direction
(B) Varies in direction but constant in magnitude
(C) Varies in magnitude and direction both
(D) Constant in magnitude and direction both
Answer: Option A
263. The motion between a pair when limited to a definite direction,
irrespective of the direction of force applied, is known as
(B) Incompletely constrained motion
(C) Successfully constrained motion
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
264. The mechanism forms a structure, when the number of degrees of
freedom (n) is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) -1
Answer: Option A
265. Kinematic pairs are those which have two elements that
(A) Have line contact
(B) Have surface contact
(C) Permit relative motion
(D) Are held together
Answer: Option C
266. A cam mechanism imparts following motion
(A) Rotating
(B) Oscillating
(C) Reciprocating
Answer: Option D
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267. Coriolis component is encountered in
(A) Quick return mechanism of shaper
(B) Four bar chain mechanism
(C) Slider crank mechanism
Answer: Option A
268. Which of the following is a lower pair?
(A) Ball and socket i
(B) Piston and cylinder
(C) Cam and follower
Answer: Option D
269. Davis steering gear consists of
(A) Sliding pairs
(B) Turning pairs
(C) Rolling pairs
(D) Higher pairs
Answer: Option A
270. Two pulleys of radii r₁ and r₂ and at distance x apart are
connected by means of an open belt drive. The length of the belt is
(A) π (r₁ + r₂) + (r₁ + r₂)²/x + 2x
(B) π (r₁ + r₂) + (r₁ - r₂)²/x + 2x
(C) π (r₁ - r₂) + (r₁ - r₂)²/x + 2x
(D) π (r₁ - r₂) + (r₁ + r₂)²/x + 2x
Answer: Option B
271. A mechanism is an assemblage of
(A) Two links
(B) Three links
(C) Four or more than four links
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
272. The ratio of the driving tensions for V-belts is __________ times
that of flat belts.
(Where β = Semi-angle of the groove)
(A) sinβ
(B) cosβ
(C) cosecβ
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(D) secβ
Answer: Option C
273. A reed type tachometer use the principle of
(A) Longitudinal vibration
(B) Torsional vibration
(C) Transverse vibration
(D) Damped free vibration
Answer: Option C
274. A point B on a rigid link AB moves with respect to A with angular
velocity ω rad/s. The radial component of the acceleration of B with
respect to A, is (where vBA = Linear velocity of B with respect to A)
(A) vBA × AB
(B) vBA /AB
(C) v²BA
(D) v²BA /AB
Answer: Option D
275. The example of completely constrained motion is a
(A) Motion of a piston in the cylinder of a steam engine
(B) Motion of a square bar in a square hole
(C) Motion of a shaft with collars at each end in a circular hole
Answer: Option D
276. The locus of a point on a thread unwound from a cylinder will be
(A) A straight line
(B) A circle
(C) Involute
(D) Cycloidal
Answer: Option C
277. In its simplest form, a cam mechanism consists of following
number of links
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option C
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278. The number of links and instantaneous centers in a reciprocating
engine mechanism are
(A) 4, 4
(B) 4, 5
(C) 5, 4
(D) 4, 6
Answer: Option D
279. The coriolis component of acceleration is taken into account for
(A) Slider crank mechanism
(B) Four bar chain mechanism
(C) Quick return motion mechanism
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
280. Which of the following is a pendulum type governor?
(A) Watt governor
(B) Porter governor
(C) Hartnell governor
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
281. The frictional torque transmitted in a truncated conical pivot
bearing, considering uniform pressure, is
(A) (1/2). μ W cosecα (r₁ + r₂)
(B) (2/3). μ W cosecα (r₁ + r₂)
(C) (1/2). μ W cosecα [(r₁³ - r₂³)/(r₁² - r₂²)]
(D) (2/3). μ W cosecα [(r₁³ - r₂³)/(r₁² - r₂²)]
Answer: Option D
282. The effort of a Porter governor is equal to (where c = Percentage
increase in speed, m = Mass of ball, and M = Mass on the sleeve)
(A) c (m - M) g
(B) c (m + M) g
(C) c/(m + M) g
(D) c/(m - M) g
Answer: Option B
283. When a point moves along a straight line, its acceleration will
have
(A) Radial component only
(B) Tangential component only
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(C) Coriolis component only
(D) Radial and tangential components both
Answer: Option B
284. If two moving elements have surface contact in motion, such pair
is known as
(A) Sliding pair
(B) Rolling pair
(C) Surface pair
(D) Higher pair
Answer: Option D
285. If ‘D₁’ and ‘D₂’ be the diameters of driver and driven pulleys,
then belt speed is proportional to
(A) D₁/D₂
(B) D₂/D₁
(C) D₁.D₂
(D) D₁
Answer: Option D
286. In S.H.M., the velocity vector w.r.t. displacement vector
(A) Leads by 90°
(B) Lags by 90°
(C) Leads by 180°
(D) Are in phase
Answer: Option A
287. In a steam engine, the distance by which the outer edge of the D-
slide valve overlaps the steam port is called
(A) Lead
(B) Steam lap
(C) Exhaust lap
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
288. The natural frequency of free torsional vibrations of a shaft is
equal to (where q = Torsional stiffness of the shaft, and I = Mass
moment of inertia of the disc attached at the end of a shaft)
(A) 2π. √(q/I)
(B) 2π qI
(C) (1/2π). √(q/I)
(D) 1/2π
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Answer: Option C
289. A shaft has two heavy rotors mounted on it. The transverse
natural frequencies, considering each of the rotor separately, are 100
Hz and 200 Hz respectively. The lowest critical speed is
(A) 5,367 r.p.m.
(B) 6,000 r.p.m.
(C) 9,360 r.p.m.
(D) 12,000 r.p.m.
Answer: Option A
290. The angle of inclination of the plane, at which the body begins to
move down the plane is called
(B) Angle of repose
(C) Angle of projection
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
291. Angle of descent of cam is defined as the angle
Answer: Option A
292. The velocity of the rubbing surface __________ with the distance
from the axis of the bearing.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
293. A shaft carrying two rotors at its ends will have
(A) No node
(B) One node
(C) Two nodes
(D) Three nodes
Answer: Option B
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294. When the two elements of a pair have __________ when in
motion, it is said to a lower pair.
(A) Line or point contact
(B) Surface contact
(C) Body contact
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
295. The natural frequency of free transverse vibrations due to
uniformly distributed load acting over a simply supported shaft is
(where δS = Static deflection of simply supported shaft due to
uniformly distributed load)
(A) 0.4985/ √δS
(B) 0.5615/ √δS
(C) 0.571/ √δS
(D) 0.6253/ √δS
Answer: Option B
296. The load cup of a screw jack is made separate from the head of
the spindle to
(A) Enhance the load carrying capacity of the jack
(B) Reduce the effort needed for lifting the working load
(C) Reduce the value of frictional torque required to be countered for
lifting the load
(D) Prevent the rotation of load being lifted
Answer: Option D
297. Any point on a link connecting double slider crank chain will
trace a
(A) Straight line
(B) Circle
(C) Ellipse
(D) Parabola
Answer: Option C
298. In elliptical trammels
(A) All four pairs are turning
(B) Three pairs turning and one pair sliding
(C) Two pairs turning and two pairs sliding
(D) One pair turning and three pairs sliding
Answer: Option C
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299. A chain comprises of 5 links having 5 joints. Is it kinematic
chain?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) It is a marginal case
(D) Data are insufficient to determine it
Answer: Option B
300. In a circular arc cam with roller follower, the acceleration in any
position of the lift will depend only upon
(A) Total lift, total angle of lift, minimum radius of cam and cam
speed
(B) Radius of circular arc, cam speed, location of centre of circular arc
and roller diameter
(C) Mass of cam follower linkage, spring stiffness and cam speed
(D) Total lift, centre of gravity of the cam and cam speed
Answer: Option A
301. A shaft has an attached disc at the centre of its length. The disc
has its centre of gravity located at a distance of 2 mm from the axis of
the shaft. When the shaft is allowed to vibrate in its natural bow-
shaped mode, it has a frequency of vibration of 10 rad/s. When the
shaft is rotated at 300 r.p.m., it will whirl with a radius of
(A) 2 mm
(B) 2.22 mm
(C) 2.50 mm
(D) 3.0 mm
Answer: Option B
302. When the speed of the engine fluctuates continuously above and
below the mean speed, the governor is said to be
(A) Stable
(B) Unstable
(C) Isochronous
(D) Hunt
Answer: Option D
303. Klein's construction can be used to determine acceleration of
various parts when the crank is at
(A) Inner dead centre
(B) Outer dead centre
(C) Right angles to the link of the stroke
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Answer: Option D
304. Sense of tangential acceleration of a link
(A) Is same as that of velocity
(B) Is opposite to that of velocity
(C) Could be either same or opposite to velocity
(D) Is perpendicular to that of velocity
Answer: Option C
305. In a four-bar chain it is required to give an oscillatory motion to
the follower for a continuous rotation of the crank. For the lengths of
50 mm of crank and 70 mm of the follower, determine theoretical
maximum length of coupler. The distance between fixed pivots of
crank and followers is
(A) 95 mm
(B) Slightly less than 95 mm
(C) Slightly more than 95 mm
(D) 45 mm
Answer: Option B
306. In a Hartnell governor, the compression of the spring is
__________ the lift of the sleeve.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
307. The method of obtaining different mechanisms by fixing in turn
different links in a kinematic chain, is known as
(A) Structure
(B) Machine
(C) Inversion
(D) Compound mechanism
Answer: Option C
308. The coriolis component of acceleration exists whenever a point
moves along a path that has
(A) Linear displacement
(B) Rotational motion
(C) Gravitational acceleration
(D) Tangential acceleration
Answer: Option B
309. In a reciprocating steam engine, which of the following forms a
kinematic link?
(A) Cylinder and piston
(B) Piston rod and connecting rod
(C) Crankshaft and flywheel
(D) Flywheel and engine frame
Answer: Option C
310. Coriolis component acts
(A) Perpendicular to sliding surfaces
(B) Along sliding surfaces
(C) Somewhere in between above two
Answer: Option A
311. The example of spherical pair is
(A) Bolt and nut
(B) Lead screw of a lathe
(C) Ball and socket joint
(D) Ball bearing and roller bearing
Answer: Option C
312. The centre of percussion is below the centre of gravity of the body
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and is at a distance equal to
(A) h/kG
(B) h²/kG
(C) kG²/h
(D) h × kG
Answer: Option C
313. Maximum fluctuation of energy in a flywheel is equal to [where I
= Mass moment of inertia of the flywheel, E = Maximum fluctuation of
energy, CS = Coefficient of fluctuation of speed, and ω = Mean
angular speed = (ω₁ + ω₂)/2]
(A) I.ω.(ω₁ - ω₂)
(B) I.ω².CS
(C) 2.E.CS
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
314. The arrangement is called bevel gearing, when two __________
are connected by gears.
(A) Intersecting and coplanar shafts
(B) Nonintersecting and non-coplanar shafts
(C) Parallel and coplanar shafts
(D) Parallel and non-coplanar shafts
Answer: Option A
315. The stress induced in a body will be shear stress, when it is
subjected to
(A) Longitudinal vibrations
(B) Transverse vibrations
(C) Torsional vibrations
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
316. The critical speed of a shaft in revolution per second is
__________ as that of natural frequency of transverse vibration.
(A) Same
(B) Different
(C) Unpredictable
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
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317. Governor is used in automobile to
(A) Decrease the variation of speed
(B) Maximize the fuel economy
(C) Limit the vehicle speed
(D) Maintain constant engine speed
Answer: Option C
318. The following is the inversion of slider crank chain mechanism
(A) Whitworth quick return mechanism
(B) Hand pump
(C) Oscillating cylinder engine
Answer: Option D
319. The power from the engine to the rear axle of an automobile is
transmitted by means of
(A) Worm and worm wheel
(B) Spur gears
(C) Bevel gears
(D) Hooke's joint
Answer: Option D
320. In an open pair, the two elements of a pair
(A) Have a surface contact when in motion
(B) Have a line or point contact when in motion
(C) Are kept in contact by the action of external forces, when in
motion
(D) Are not held together mechanically
Answer: Option D
321. In a multiple V-belt drive, if one of the belts is broken, then we
should replace
(A) The broken belt only
(B) All the belts
(C) The broken belt and the belts on either side of it
Answer: Option B
322. Flexible coupling is used because
(A) It is easy to disassemble
(B) It is easy to engage and disengage
(C) It transmits shocks gradually
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(D) It prevents shock transmission and eliminates stress reversals
Answer: Option D
323. A cam with a roller follower would constitute following type of
pair
(A) Lower pair
(B) Higher pair
(C) Open pair
(D) Close pair
Answer: Option B
324. The rotor of a ship rotates in clockwise direction when viewed
from stern and the ship takes a left turn. The effect of gyroscopic
couple acting on it will be
(A) To raise the bow and stern
(B) To lower the bow and stern
(C) To raise the bow and lower the stern
(D) To raise the stern and lower the bow
Answer: Option C
325. When the crank is at the outer dead centre, in a reciprocating
steam engine, then the acceleration of the piston will be
(A) ω² r {(n + 1)/n}
(B) ω² r {(n - 1)/n}
(C) ω² r {n/(n + 1)}
(D) ω² r {n/(n - 1)}
Answer: Option B
326. The secondary unbalanced force due to inertia of reciprocating
parts in a reciprocating engine is given by (where m = Mass of
reciprocating parts, ω = Angular speed of crank, r = Radius of crank,
θ = Angle of inclination of crank with the line of stroke, and n = Ratio
of the length of connecting rod to radius of crank)
(A) m.ω².r sinθ
(B) m.ω².r cosθ
(C) m.ω².r (sin 2θ/n)
(D) m.ω².r (cos 2θ/n)
Answer: Option D
327. If ω/ωn is very low for a body vibrating under steady state
vibrations, the phase angle for all values of damping factors, will tend
to approach
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(A) 0°
(B) 90°
(C) 180°
(D) 360°
Answer: Option A
327. The Klein's diagram is useful to find
(A) Displacement of various parts
(B) Velocity of various parts
(C) Acceleration of various parts
(D) Angular acceleration of various parts
Answer: Option C
329. Angular acceleration of a link can be determined by dividing the
(A) Centripetal component of acceleration with length of link
(B) Tangential component of acceleration with length of link
(C) Resultant acceleration with length of link
Answer: Option B
330. Which of the following mechanism is obtained from lower pair?
(A) Gyroscope
(B) Pantograph
(C) Valve and valve gears
Answer: Option D
331. In a simple train of wheels, the velocity ratio __________ the
intermediate wheels.
(A) Depends upon
(B) Is independent of
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
332. There are six gears A, B, C, D, E and F in a compound train. The
numbers of teeth in the gears are 20, 60, 30, 80, 25 and 75 respectively.
The ratio of angular speeds of the driven (F) to the driver (A) of the
drive is
(A) 1/24
(B) 1/8
(C) 4/15
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(D) 12
Answer: Option A
333. In locomotives, the ratio of the connecting rod length to me crank
radius is kept very large in order to
(A) Minimise the effect of primary forces
(B) Minimise the effect of secondary forces
(C) Have perfect balancing
(D) To start the locomotive quickly
Answer: Option B
334. Power of a governor is the
(A) Mean force exerted at the sleeve for a given percentage change of
speed
(B) Workdone at the sleeve for maximum equilibrium speed
(C) Mean force exerted at the sleeve for maximum equilibrium speed
Answer: Option D
335. The C.G. of a link in any mechanism would experience
(A) No acceleration
(B) Linear acceleration
(C) Angular acceleration
(D) Both angular and linear accelerations
Answer: Option D
336. Instantaneous center of rotation of a link in a four bar
mechanism lies on
(A) Right side pivot of this link
(B) Left side pivot of this link
(C) A point obtained by intersection on extending adjoining links
(D) Can’t occur
Answer: Option C
337. In a simple harmonic motion, the velocity vector with respect to
displacement vector
(A) Is in phase
(B) Leads by 90°
(C) Leads by 180°
(D) Lags by 90°
Answer: Option D
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338. In order to give the primary balance of the reciprocating parts of
a multi-cylinder inline engines,
(A) The algebraic sum of the primary forces must be equal to zero
(B) The algebraic sum of the couples about any point in the plane of
the primary forces must be equal to zero
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
339. If ω/ωn is very high for a body vibrating under steady state
vibrations, the phase angle for all values of damping factors, will tend
to approach
(A) 0°
(B) 90°
(C) 180°
(D) 360°
Answer: Option C
340. The maximum frictional force, which comes into play, when a
body just begins to slide over the surface of the other body, is known
as
(A) Static friction
Answer: Option C
341. The component of the acceleration, parallel to the velocity of the
particle, at the given instant is called
(B) Tangential component
(C) Coriolis component
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
342. Frequency of vibrations is usually expressed in
(A) Number of cycles per hour
(B) Number of cycles per minute
(C) Number of cycles per second
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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343. The train value of a gear train is
(A) Equal to velocity ratio of a gear train
(B) Reciprocal of velocity ratio of a gear train
(C) Always greater than unity
(D) Always less than unity
Answer: Option B
344. When the primary direct crank of a reciprocating engine makes
an angle of θ with the line of stroke, then the secondary direct crank
will make an angle of _________ with the line of stroke.
(A) θ/2
(B) θ
(C) 2θ
(D) 4θ
Answer: Option C
345. The mechanism consisting of three turning pairs and one sliding
pair, is called a
(A) Single slider crank chain
(B) Whitworth quick return motion mechanism
(C) Crank and slotted lever quick return motion mechanism
Answer: Option D
346. The relation between the controlling force (Fc) and radius of
rotation (r) for a stable spring controlled governor is
(A) Fc = ar + b
(B) Fc = ar - b
(C) Fc = ar
(D) Fc = a/r + b
Answer: Option B
347. Pitch point on a cam is
(A) Any point on pitch curve
(B) The point on cam pitch curve having the maximum pressure angle
(C) Any point on pitch circle
(D) The point on cam pitch curve having the minimum pressure angle
Answer: Option B
348. The indicator using Watt mechanism is known as
(A) Thompson indicator
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(B) Richard indicator
(C) Simplex indicator
(D) Thomson indicator
Answer: Option B
349. When the radius of rotation of balls __________ as the
equilibrium speed increases, the governor is said to be unstable.
(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
350. If the controlling force line for a spring controlled governor when
produced intersects the Y-axis at the origin, then the governor is said
to be
(A) Stable
(B) Unstable
(C) Isochronous
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
351. When the relation between the controlling force (Fc) and radius
of rotation (r) for a spring controlled governor is Fc = ar + b, then the
governor will be
(A) Stable
(B) Unstable
(C) Isochronous
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
352. For an isochronous Hartnell governor (where r₁ and r₂ =
Maximum and minimum radius of rotation of balls respectively, S₁
and S₂ = Maximum and minimum force exerted on the sleeve
respectively, and M = Mass on the sleeve)
(A) (m.g + S₁)/(m.g + S₂) = r₁/r₂
(B) (m.g - S₁)/(m.g - S₂) = r₂/r₁
(C) S₁/S₂ = r₁/r₂
(D) S₂/S₁ = r₁/r₂
Answer: Option A
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353. The absolute acceleration of any point ‘P’ in a link about center
of rotation ‘O’ is
(A) Along PO
(B) Perpendicular to PO
(C) At 45° to PO
Answer: Option D
354. Pulley in a belt drive acts as
(A) Cylindrical pair
(B) Turning pair
(C) Rolling pair
(D) Sliding pair
Answer: Option C
355. The frictional torque transmitted by a disc or plate clutch is same
as that of
(A) Flat pivot bearing
(B) Flat collar bearing
(C) Conical pivot bearing
(D) Truncated conical pivot bearing
Answer: Option B
356. The relation l = (2/3).(j + 2) apply only to kinematic chains in
which lower pairs are used. This may be used to kinematic chains in
which higher pairs are used, but each higher pair may be taken as
equivalent to
(A) One lower pair and two additional links
(B) Two lower pairs and one additional link
(C) Two lower pairs and two additional links
Answer: Option B
357. When a mass of a critically damped single degree of freedom
system is deflected from its equilibrium position and released, then it
will
(A) Return to equilibrium position without oscillation
(B) Oscillate with increasing time period
(C) Oscillate with decreasing amplitude
(D) Oscillate with constant amplitude
Answer: Option B
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358. Bifilar suspension method is used to find the
(A) Angular acceleration of the body
(B) Moment of inertia of the body
(C) Periodic time of the body
(D) Frequency of vibration of the body
Answer: Option B
359. The engine of an aeroplane rotates in clockwise direction when
seen from the tail end and the aeroplane takes a turn to the left. The
effect of gyroscopic couple on the aeroplane will be
(A) To dip the nose and tail
(B) To raise the nose and tail
(C) To raise the nose and dip the tail
(D) To dip the nose and raise the tail
Answer: Option C
360. The centre distance between two meshing involute gears is equal
to
(A) Sum of base circle radii/cosφ
(B) Difference of base circle radii/ cosφ
(C) Sum of pitch circle radii/ cosφ
(D) Difference of pitch circle radii/ cosφ
Answer: Option A
361. The inversion of a mechanism is
(A) Changing of a higher pair to a lower pair
(B) Turning its upside down
(C) Obtained by fixing different links in a kinematic chain
(D) Obtained by reversing the input and output motion
Answer: Option C
362. The static balancing is satisfactory for low speed rotors but with
increasing speeds, dynamic balancing becomes necessary. This is
because, the
(A) Unbalanced couples are caused only at higher speeds
(B) Unbalanced forces are not dangerous at higher speeds
(C) Effects of unbalances are proportional to the square of the speed
(D) Effects of unbalances are directly proportional to the speed
Answer: Option C
363. In gramophones for adjusting the speed of the turntable, the
following type of governor is commonly employed
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(A) Hartung governor
(B) Wilson Hartnell governor
(C) Pickering governor
(D) Inertia governor
Answer: Option C
364. For a kinematic chain to be considered as mechanism
(A) Two links should be fixed
(B) One link should be fixed
(C) None of the links should be fixed
Answer: Option B
365. Which of the following would constitute a link?
(A) Piston, piston rod and cross head
(B) Piston and piston rod
(C) Piston rod and cross head
(D) Piston, crank pin and crank shaft
Answer: Option A
366. Which of the following is a spring controlled governor?
(A) Hartnell governor
(B) Hartung governor
(C) Wilson-Hartnell governor
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
367. The frictional torque transmitted in a flat collar bearing,
considering uniform wear, is (where r₁ and r₂ = External and internal
radii of collar respectively)
(A) (1/2) μ W (r₁ + r₂)
(B) (2/3) μ W (r₁ + r₂)
(C) (1/2) μ W [(r₁³ - r₂³)/(r₁² - r₂²)]
(D) (2/3) μ W [(r₁³ - r₂³)/(r₁² - r₂²)]
Answer: Option A
368. The velocity of sliding __________ the distance of the point of
contact from the pitch point.
(A) Is directly proportional to
(B) Is inversely proportional to
(C) Is equal to cos φ multiplied by
(D) Does not depend upon
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Answer: Option A
369. A spring controlled governor is said to be isochronous when the
controlling force
(A) Increases as the radius of rotation decreases
(B) Increases as the radius of rotation increases
(C) Decreases as the radius of rotation increases
(D) Remain constant for all radii of rotation
Answer: Option D
370. The factor which affects the critical speed of a shaft is
(A) Diameter of disc
(B) Span of shaft
(C) Eccentricity
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
371. When the sleeve of a Porter governor moves upwards, the
governor speed
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
Answer: Option A
372. It is required to connect two parallel shafts, the distance between
whose axes is small and variable. The shafts are coupled by
(A) Universal joint
(B) Knuckle joint
(C) Oldham's coupling
(D) Flexible coupling
Answer: Option C
373. In S.H.M., acceleration is proportional to
(A) Velocity
(B) Displacement
(C) Rate of change of velocity
Answer: Option B
374. The velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion, at
any instant is given by (where ω = Displacement of the particle from
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mean position)
(A) ω √(x² - r²)
(B) ω √(r² - x²)
(C) ω² √(x² - r²)
(D) ω² √(r² - x²)
Answer: Option B
375. The lead screw of a lathe with nut forms a
(A) Rolling pair
(B) Sliding pair
(C) Screw pair
(D) Turning pair
Answer: Option C
(A) The power absorbed in operating the piston valve is less than D-
slide valve
(B) The wear of the piston valve is less than the wear of the D-slide
valve
(C) The D-slide valve is also called outside admission valve.
Answer: Option D
377. The essential condition of placing the two masses, so that the
system becomes dynamically equivalent, is (where l₁ and l₂ =
Distance of two masses from the centre of gravity of the body, and kG
= Radius of gyration of the body)
(A) l₁ = kG
(B) l₂ = kG
(C) l₁l₂ = kG
(D) l₁l₂ = kG²
Answer: Option D
378. The tendency of a body to resist change from rest or motion is
known as
(A) Mass
(B) Friction
(C) Inertia
(D) Resisting force
Answer: Option C
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379. The example of rolling pair is
(A) Bolt and nut
(B) Lead screw of a lathe
(C) Ball and socket joint
(D) Ball bearing and roller bearing
Answer: Option D
380. For low and moderate speed engines, the cam follower should
move with
Answer: Option B
381. The driving and driven shafts connected by a Hooke's joint will
have equal speeds, if
(A) cosθ = sinα
(B) sinθ = ± tanα
(C) tanθ = ± cosα
(D) cotθ = cosα
Answer: Option C
382. In a locomotive, the resultant unbalanced force due to the two
cylinders along the line of stroke, is known as
(A) Tractive force
(B) Swaying couple
(C) Hammer blow
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
383. The power transmitted by a belt is maximum when the maximum
tension in the belt is _________ of centrifugal tension.
(A) One-third
(B) Two-third
(C) Double
(D) Three times
Answer: Option D
384. In order to give a complete secondary balance of a multi-cylinder
inline engine,
(A) The algebraic sum of the secondary forces must be equal to zero
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(B) The algebraic sum of the couples about any point in the plane of
the secondary forces must be equal to zero
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
385. A body will begin to move down an inclined plane, if the angle of
inclination of the plane is ________ the angle of friction.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
386. A shaft carrying three rotors will have
(A) No node
(B) One node
(C) Two nodes
(D) Three nodes
Answer: Option C
387. When a ship travels in a sea, which of the effect is more
dangerous
(A) Steering
(B) Pitching
(C) Rolling
Answer: Option B
388. Peaucellier’s mechanism has
(A) Eight links
(B) Six links
(C) Four links
(D) Twelve links
Answer: Option A
389. The magnitude of linear velocity of a point B on a link AB relative
to point A is
(Where ω = Angular velocity of the link AB)
(A) ω × AB
(B) ω × (AB)²
(C) ω² × AB
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(D) (ω × AB)²
Answer: Option A
390. The periodic time is given by (where ω = Angular velocity of the
particle in rad/s)
(A) ω/2π
(B) 2π/ω
(C) ω × 2π
(D) π/ω
Answer: Option B
391. In a reciprocating steam engine, when the crank has turned from
inner dead centre through an angle θ, the angular velocity of the
connecting rod is given by
(A) ω sinθ/(n² - sin²θ)1/2
(B) ω cosθ/(n² - cos²θ)1/2
(C) ω sinθ/(n² - cos²θ)1/2
(D) ω cosθ/(n² - sin²θ)1/2
Answer: Option D
392. The efficiency of a screw jack is maximum, when (where α =
Helix angle, and φ = Angle of friction)
(A) α = 45° + φ/2
(B) α = 45° - φ/2
(C) α = 90° + φ
(D) α = 90° - φ
Answer: Option B
393. When two pulleys of different diameters are connected by means
of an open belt, the angle of contact at the ________ pulley must be
taken into consideration.
(A) Smaller
(B) Larger
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
394. With single Hooke's joint it is possible to connect two shafts, the
axes of which have an angular misalignment up to
(A) 10°
(B) 20°
(C) 30°
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(D) 40°
Answer: Option D
395. The approximate straight line mechanism is a
(A) Four bar linkage
(B) 6 bar linkage
(C) 8 bar linkage
(D) 3 bar linkage
Answer: Option A
396. When a point at the end of a link moves with constant angular
velocity, its acceleration will have
(A) Radial component only
(B) Tangential component only
(C) Coriolis component only
(D) Radial and tangential components both
Answer: Option A
397. The minimum force required to slide a body of weight W on a
rough horizontal plane is
(A) W sinθ
(B) W cosθ
(C) W tanθ
(D) W cosecθ
Answer: Option A
398. The length of a simple pendulum which gives the same frequency
as the compound pendulum, is
(A) kG + l₁
(B) kG² + l₁
(C) (kG² + l₁²)/ l₁
(D) (kG + l₁²)/ l₁
Answer: Option C
399. The unbalanced force due to revolving masses
(A) Varies in magnitude but constant in direction
(B) Varies in direction but constant in magnitude
(C) Varies in magnitude and direction both
(D) Constant in magnitude and direction both
Answer: Option B
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400. The maximum fluctuation of energy is the
(A) Difference between the maximum and minimum energies
(B) Sum of the maximum and minimum energies
(C) Variations of energy above and below the mean resisting torque
line
(D) Ratio of the mean resisting torque to the workdone per cycle
Answer: Option A
401. An imaginary circle which by pure rolling action, gives the same
motion as the actual gear, is called
(A) Addendum circle
(B) Dedendum circle
(C) Pitch circle
(D) Clearance circle
Answer: Option C
402. Which of the following is an example of sliding pair?
(A) Piston and cylinder of a reciprocating steam engine
(B) Shaft with collars at both ends fitted into a circular hole
(C) Lead screw of a lathe with nut
(D) Ball and a socket joint
Answer: Option A
403. Pitch point of a cam is
(A) A point on the pitch curve having minimum pressure angle
(B) A point on the pitch curve having maximum pressure angle
(C) Any point on the pitch curve
(D) Any point on the pitch circle
Answer: Option B
404. The acceleration of a flat-faced follower when it has contact with
the flank of a circular arc cam, is given by
(A) ω² R cosθ
(B) ω² (R - r₁) cosθ
(C) ω² (R - r₁) sinθ
(D) ω² r₁ sinθ
Answer: Option B
405. Ackermann steering gear consists of
(A) Sliding pairs
(B) Turning pairs
(C) Rolling pairs
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(D) Higher pairs
Answer: Option B
406. When the belt is stationary, it is subjected to some tension known
as initial tension. The value of this tension is equal to the
(A) Tension in the tight side of the belt
(B) Tension in the slack side of the belt
(C) Sum of the tensions on the tight side and slack side of the belt
(D) Average tension of the tight side and slack side of the belt
Answer: Option D
407. Typewriter constitutes
(A) Machine
(B) Structure
(C) Mechanism
(D) Inversion
Answer: Option C
408. A mechanism consisting of four links is called a __________
mechanism.
(A) Simple
(B) Compound
(C) Binary
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
409. The Klein's diagram is used when
(A) Crank has uniform angular velocity
(B) Crank has nonuniform angular velocity
(C) Crank has uniform angular acceleration
(D) Crank has nonuniform angular acceleration
Answer: Option A
410. Which of the following statement is correct as regard to the
difference between a machine and a structure?
(A) The parts of a machine move relative to one another, whereas the
members of a structure do not move relative to one another
(B) The links of a machine may transmit both power and motion,
whereas the members of a structure transmit forces only
(C) A machine transforms the available energy into some useful work,
whereas in a structure no energy is transformed into useful work
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Answer: Option D
411. A pantograph is a mechanism with
(A) Lower pairs
(B) Higher pairs
(C) Rolling pairs
(D) Turning pairs
Answer: Option A
412. A rigid body possesses ________degrees of freedom
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Four
(D) Six
Answer: Option D
413. When the particles of a body moves perpendicular to its axis, then
the body is said to have
(A) Longitudinal vibration
(B) Transverse vibration
(C) Torsional vibration
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
414. Which type of gear train is used in clock mechanism to join hour
hand and minute hand?
(A) Simple gear train
(B) Compound gear train
Answer: Option D
415. The equation of motion for a single degree of freedom system
with viscous damping is
4(dx²/dt²) + 9(dx/dt) + 16x. The damping ratio of the system is
(A) 9/8
(B) 9/82
(C) 9/16
(D) 9/128
Answer: Option C
416. The flank of the tooth is the surface of the tooth __________ the
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pitch surface.
(A) Above
(B) Below
(C) At
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
that one element can turn about the other by screw threads, the pair is
known as a
(A) Screw pair
(B) Spherical pair
(C) Turning pair
(D) Sliding pair
Answer: Option A
418. The frequency of oscillation of a torsional pendulum is
(A) 2πk/r. √(g/l)
(B) r/2πk. √(l/g)
(C) 2πr/k. √(g/l)
(D) r/2πk. √(g/l)
Answer: Option D
419. The velocity of sliding of meshing gear teeth is
(Where ω₁ and ω₂ are angular velocities of meshing gears and ‘y’ is
distance between point of contact and the pitch point)
(A) (ω₁ + ω₂)y
(B) (ω₁/ω₂)y
(C) (ω₁ × ω₂)y
(D) (ω₁ + ω₂)/y
Answer: Option C
420. The pressure angle of a cam is the angle between the direction of
the follower motion and a normal to the
(A) Pitch circle
(B) Base circle
(C) Pitch curve
(D) Prime circle
Answer: Option C
421. Minimum number of teeth for involute rack and pinion
arrangement for pressure angle of 20° is
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(A) 18
(B) 20
(C) 30
(D) 34
Answer: Option A
422. For two governors A and B, the lift of sleeve of governor A is
more than that of governor B, for a given fractional change in speed.
It indicates that
(A) Governor ‘A’ is more sensitive than governor ‘B’
(B) Governor ‘B’ is more sensitive than governor ‘A’
(C) Both governors ‘A’ and ‘B’ are equally sensitive
Answer: Option A
423. Which of the following is a turning pair?
(A) Piston and cylinder of a reciprocating steam engine
(B) Shaft with collars at both ends fitted into a circular hole
(C) Lead screw of a lathe with nut
(D) Ball and a socket joint
Answer: Option B
424. When the pitching of a ship is __________ the effect of gyroscopic
couple acting on it will be to move the ship towards port side.
(A) Upward
(B) Downward
(C) Forward
(D) Backward
Answer: Option B
425. The face of the tooth is the
(A) Surface of the top of tooth
(B) Surface of tooth above the pitch surface
(C) Width of tooth below the pitch surface
(D) Width of tooth measured along the pitch circle
Answer: Option B
426. The contact ratio is given by
(A) (Length of the path of approach)/(Circular pitch)
(B) (Length of path of recess)/(Circular pitch)
(C) (Length of the arc of contact)/(Circular pitch)
(D) (Length of the arc of approach)/cosφ
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Answer: Option C
427. If ω/ωn = 2, where co is the frequency of excitation and ωn is the
natural frequency of vibrations, then the transmissibility of vibration
will the
(A) 0.5
(B) 1
(C) 1.5
(D) 2
Answer: Option B
428. Transmission angle is the angle between
(A) Input link and coupler
(B) Input link and fixed link
(C) Output link and coupler
(D) Output link and fixed link
Answer: Option C
429. Which of the following is an open pair?
(A) Ball and socket joint
(B) Journal bearing
(C) Lead screw and nut
(D) Cam and follower
Answer: Option A
430. The contact ratio is the ratio of
(A) Length of pair of contact to the circular pitch
(B) Length of arc of contact to the circular pitch
(C) Length of arc of approach to the circular pitch
(D) Length of arc of recess to the circular pitch
Answer: Option B
431. The velocity of the belt for maximum power is (where m = Mass
of the belt in kg per metre length)
(A) T/3
(B) (T.g)/3
(C) √(T/3m)
(D) √(3m/T)
Answer: Option C
432. The partial balancing of reciprocating parts in locomotives
produces
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(A) Hammer blow
(B) Swaying couple
(C) Variation in tractive force along the line of stroke
Answer: Option D
433. Length of arc of contact is given by
(A) Arc of approach - Arc of recess
(B) Arc of approach + Arc of recess
(C) Arc of approach / Arc of recess
(D) Arc of approach × Arc of recess
Answer: Option B
434. In a multiple V-belt drive, when a single belt is damaged, it is
preferable to change the complete set to
(A) Reduce vibration
(B) Reduce slip
(C) Ensure uniform loading
(D) Ensure proper alignment
Answer: Option C
435. The tractive force is maximum or minimum when the angle of
inclination of crank with the line of stroke (θ) is equal to
(A) 0° and 90°
(B) 90° and 180°
(C) 135° and 315°
(D) 270° and 360°
Answer: Option B
436. Critical damping is a function of
(A) Mass and stiffness
(B) Mass and damping coefficient
(C) Mass and natural frequency
(D) Damping coefficient and natural frequency
Answer: Option A
437. Whirling speed of the shaft is the speed at which
(A) Shaft tends to vibrate in longitudinal direction
(B) Torsional vibrations occur
(C) Shaft tends to vibrate vigorously in transverse direction
(D) Combination of transverse and longitudinal vibration occurs
Answer: Option C
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438. In a hydrodynamic journal bearing, there is
(A) A very thin film of lubricant between the journal and the bearing
such that there is contact between the journal and the bearing
(B) A thick film of lubricant between the journal and the bearing
(C) No lubricant between the journal and the bearing
(D) A forced lubricant between the journal and the bearing
Answer: Option B
439. Which of the following statement is correct for gears?
(A) The addendum is less than the dedendum
(B) The pitch circle diameter is the product of module and number of
teeth
(C) The contact ratio means the number of pairs of teeth in contact
Answer: Option D
440. The pitching of a ship produces forces on the bearings which act
__________ to the motion of the ship.
(A) Vertically and parallel
(B) Vertically and perpendicular
(C) Horizontally and parallel
(D) Horizontally and perpendicular
Answer: Option D
441. The periodic time of one oscillation for a simple pendulum is
(A) 2π. √(g/l)
(B) (1/2π). √(g/l)
(C) 2π. √(l/g)
(D) (1/2π). √(l/g)
Answer: Option C
442. The radial distance from the top of a tooth to the bottom of a
tooth in a meshing gear, is called
(A) Dedendum
(B) Addendum
(C) Clearance
(D) Working depth
Answer: Option C
443. The radial distance of a tooth from the pitch circle to the bottom
of the tooth is called
(A) Dedendum
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(B) Addendum
(C) Clearance
(D) Working depth
Answer: Option A
444. Which of the following is a higher pair?
(A) Belt and pulley
(B) Turning pair
(C) Screw pair
(D) Sliding pair
Answer: Option A
445. The frictional torque transmitted in a conical pivot bearing with
assumption of uniform pressure is __________ as compared to
uniform wear.
(A) Less
(B) More
(C) Same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
446. Two pulleys of radii r₁ and r₂ and at distance x apart are
connected by means of a cross belt drive. The length of the belt is
(A) π (r₁ + r₂) + [(r₁ + r₂)²/x] + 2x
(B) π (r₁ + r₂) + [(r₁ - r₂)²/x] + 2x
(C) π (r₁ - r₂) + [(r₁ - r₂)²/x] + 2x
(D) π (r₁ - r₂) + [(r₁ + r₂)²/x] + 2x
Answer: Option A
447. In a radial cam, the follower moves
(A) In a direction perpendicular to the cam axis
(B) In a direction parallel to the cam axis
(C) In any direction irrespective of the cam axis
Answer: Option A
448. In a steam engine, the earlier cut-off with a simple slide valve
may be obtained by increasing the steam lap and the angle of advance
of the eccentric but keeping constant the travel and lead of the valve,
this method will
(A) Cause withdrawing or throttling of steam
(B) Reduce length of effective stroke of piston
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(C) Reduce maximum opening of port to steam
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
449. A higher pair has__________.
(A) Point contact
(B) Surface contact
(C) No contact
Answer: Option A
450. What is the number of instantaneous centres for an eight link
mechanism?
(A) 15
(B) 28
(C) 30
(D) 8
Answer: Option B
451. Effort of a governor is the
(A) Mean force exerted at the sleeve for a given percentage change of
speed
(B) Workdone at the sleeve for maximum equilibrium speed
(C) Mean force exerted at the sleeve for maximum equilibrium speed
Answer: Option A
452. Which of the following statement is correct for involute gears?
(A) The interference is inherently absent.
(B) The variation in centre distance of shafts increases radial force.
(C) A convex flank is always in contact with concave flank.
(D) The pressure angle is constant throughout the teeth engagement.
Answer: Option D
453. The balancing weights are introduced in planes parallel to the
plane of rotation of the disturbing mass. To obtain complete dynamic
balance, the minimum number of balancing weights to be introduced
in different planes is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
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Answer: Option B
454. The gears are termed as medium velocity gears, if their
peripheral velocity is
(A) 1-3 m/s
(B) 3-15 m/s
(C) 15-30 m/s
(D) 30-50 m/s
Answer: Option B
455. The pair is known as a higher pair, when the relative motion
between the elements of a pair is
(A) Turning only
(B) Sliding only
(C) Rolling only
(D) Partly turning and partly sliding
Answer: Option D
456. If the damping factor for a vibrating system is unity, then the
system will be
(A) Over damped
(B) Under damped
(C) Critically damped
(D) Without vibrations
Answer: Option C
457. Which of the following is used to control the speed variations of
the engine caused by the fluctuations of the engine turning moment?
(A) D-slide valve
(B) Governor
(C) Flywheel
(D) Meyer's expansion valve
Answer: Option C
458. Which type of gearing is used in steering system of an
automobile?
(A) Rack and pinion
(B) Worm and wheel
(C) Spiral gears
Answer: Option A
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459. Which of the following is an inversion of a single slider crank
chain?
(A) Pendulum pump
(B) Oscillating cylinder engine
(C) Rotary internal combustion engine
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
460. Which of the following is an inversion of Single slider crank
chain?
(A) Beam engine
(B) Rotary engine
(C) Oldham’s coupling
(D) Elliptical trammel
Answer: Option B
461. The two parallel and coplanar shafts are connected by gears
having teeth parallel to the axis of the shaft. This arrangement is
known as
(A) Spur gearing
(B) Helical gearing
(C) Bevel gearing
(D) Spiral gearing
Answer: Option A
462. A point on a connecting link (excluding end points) of a double
slider crank mechanism traces a
(A) Straight line path
(B) Hyperbolic path
(C) Parabolic path
(D) Elliptical path
Answer: Option D
463. When a rigid body is suspended vertically and it oscillates with a
small amplitude under the action of the force of gravity, the body is
known as
(A) Simple pendulum
Answer: Option B
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assuming uniform wear, is
(Where μ = Coefficient of friction, W=Load over the bearing,
R=Radius of bearing)
(A) μwr
(B) ¾μWR
(C) (2/3) μWR
(D) ½μWR
Answer: Option D
465. In a ball bearing, ball and bearing forms a
(A) Turning pair
(B) Rolling pair
(C) Screw pair
(D) Spherical pair
Answer: Option B
466. In a four bar chain or quadric cycle chain
(A) Each of the four pairs is a turning pair
(B) One is a turning pair and three are sliding pairs
(C) Two are turning pairs and two are sliding pairs
(D) Three are turning pairs and one is a sliding pair
Answer: Option A
467. In full depth involute system, the smallest number of teeth in a
pinion which meshes with rack without interference is
(A) 12
(B) 16
(C) 25
(D) 32
Answer: Option D
468. According to Kennedy's theorem, if three bodies move relatively
to each other, their instantaneous centres will lie on a
(A) Straight line
(B) Parabolic curve
(C) Triangle
(D) Rectangle
Answer: Option A
469. Which gear is used for connecting two coplanar and intersecting
shafts?
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(A) Spur gear
(B) Helical gear
(C) Bevel gear
Answer: Option C
470. In a system subjected to damped forced vibrations, the ratio of
maximum displacement to the static deflection is known as
(A) Critical damping ratio
(B) Damping factor
(C) Logarithmic decrement
(D) Magnification factor
Answer: Option D
471. In a single slider crank chain
(A) Each of the four pairs is a turning pair
(B) One is a turning pair and three are sliding pairs
(C) Two are turning pairs and two are sliding pairs
(D) Three are turning pairs and one is a sliding pair
Answer: Option D
472. A fixed gear having 200 teeth is in mesh with another gear having
50 teeth. The two gears are connected by an arm. The number of turns
made by the smaller gear for one revolution of arm about the centre of
bigger gear is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Answer: Option C
473. The primary unbalanced force is maximum when the angle of
inclination of the crank with the line of stroke is
(A) 0° and 90°
(B) 0° and 180°
(C) 90° and 180°
(D) 180° and 360°
Answer: Option B
474. In order to balance the reciprocating masses,
(A) Primary forces and couples must be balanced
(B) Secondary forces and couples must be balanced
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
475. The primary unbalanced force is maximum _________ in one
revolution of the crank.
(A) Twice
(B) Four times
(C) Eight times
(D) Sixteen times
Answer: Option A
considering uniform wear, is (where μ = Coefficient of friction, W =
Load over the bearing, and R = Radius of bearing surface)
(A) (1/2) μ W R
(B) (2/3) μ W R
(C) (3/4) μ W R
(D) μ W R
Answer: Option A
477. The maximum fluctuation of speed is the
(A) Difference of minimum fluctuation of speed and the mean speed
(B) Difference of the maximum and minimum speeds
(C) Sum of maximum and minimum speeds
(D) Variations of speed above and below the mean resisting torque line
Answer: Option B
478. The relative velocity of B with respect to A in a rigid link AB is
(A) Parallel to AB
(B) Perpendicular to AB
(C) Along AB
(D) At 45° to AB
Answer: Option B
479. The Kutzbach criterion for determining the number of degrees of
freedom (n) is (where l = number of links, j = number of joints and h =
number of higher pairs)
(A) n = 3(l - 1) - 2j - h
(B) n = 2(l - 1) -2j - h
(C) n = 3(l - 1) - 3j - h
(D) n = 2(l - 1) - 3j - h
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Answer: Option A
480. The method of direct and reverse cranks is used in engines for
(A) The control of speed fluctuations
(B) Balancing of forces and couples
(C) Kinematic analysis
(D) Vibration analysis
Answer: Option B
481. In gears, interference takes place when
(A) The tip of a tooth of a mating gear digs into the portion between
base and root circles
(B) Gears do not move smoothly in the absence of lubrication
(C) Pitch of the gears is not same
(D) Gear teeth are undercut
Answer: Option A
482. In under damped vibrating system, the amplitude of vibration
(A) Decreases linearly with time
(B) Increases linearly with time
(C) Decreases exponentially with time
(D) Increases exponentially with time
Answer: Option C
483. A body is said to be under forced vibrations, when
(A) There is a reduction in amplitude after every cycle of vibration
(B) No external force acts on a body, after giving it an initial
displacement
(C) A body vibrates under the influence of external force
Answer: Option A
484. Creep in belt drive is due to
(A) Weak material of the belt
(B) Weak material of the pulley
(C) Uneven extensions and contractions of the belt when it passes from
tight side to slack side
(D) Expansion of the belt
Answer: Option C
485. Which of the following statements regarding laws governing the
friction between dry surfaces are correct?
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(A) The friction force is dependent on the materials of the contact
surfaces.
(B) The friction force is directly proportional to the normal force.
(C) The friction force is independent of me area of contact.
Answer: Option D
486. The product of the diametral pitch and circular pitch is equal to
(A) 1
(B) 1/π
(C) π
(D) 2 π
Answer: Option C
487. The partial balancing means
(A) Balancing partially revolving masses
(B) Balancing partially reciprocating masses
(C) Best balancing of engines
(D) All of these
Answer: Option B
488. In a four stroke I.C. engine, the turning moment during the
compression stroke is
(A) Positive throughout
(B) Negative throughout
(C) Positive during major portion of the stroke
(D) Negative during major portion of the stroke
Answer: Option B
489. The displacement of a flat faced follower when it has contact with
the flank of a circular arc cam, is given by (where R = Radius of
flank, r₁ = Minimum radius of the cam, and θ = Angle turned through
by the cam)
(A) R (1 - cosθ)
(B) (R - r₁) (1 - cosθ)
(C) R (1 - sinθ)
(D) (R - r₁) (1 - sinθ)
Answer: Option B
490. A pulley and belt in a belt drive form a
(A) Cylindrical pair
(B) Turning pair
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(C) Rolling pair
(D) Sliding pair
Answer: Option B
491. ________ is an inversion of Double slider crank chain.
(A) Coupling rod of a locomotive
(B) Scotch yoke mechanism
(C) Hand pump
(D) Reciprocating engine
Answer: Option B
492. The minimum number of teeth on the pinion which will mesh
with any gear without interference for 20° full depth involute teeth
will be
(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 18
(D) 24
Answer: Option C
493. The height of a Watt's governor (in metres) is equal to (where N =
Speed of the arm and ball about the spindle axis)
(A) 8.95/N²
(B) 89.5/N²
(C) 895/N²
(D) 8950/N²
Answer: Option C
494. A mass of 1 kg is attached to the end of a spring with a stiffness of
0.7 N/mm. The critical damping coefficient of this system is
(A) 1.4 N-s/m
(B) 18.52 N-s/m
(C) 52.92 N-s/m
(D) 529.2 N-s/m
Answer: Option C
495. In vibration isolation system, the transmissibility will be equal to
unity, for all values of damping factor, if ω/ωn is
(A) Equal to 1
(B) Equal to 2
(C) Less than 2
(D) Greater than 2
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Answer: Option B
496. When the body is suspended at the point of suspension, its
periodic time and frequency will be ________ as compared to the body
suspended at the point of percussion.
(A) Same
(B) Two times
(C) Four times
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
497. An exact straight line motion mechanism is a
(A) Scott-Russell's mechanism
(B) Hart's mechanism
(C) Peaucellier's mechanism
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
498. The equation of free vibrations of a system is (d²x/dt²) +36 π²x, its
natural frequency is
(A) 3 Hz
(B) 3π Hz
(C) 6 Hz
(D) 6π Hz
Answer: Option A
499. The cam follower generally used in automobile engines is
(D) Roller follower
Answer: Option C
500. Which gear train is used for higher velocity ratios in a small
space?
Answer: Option D
501. Hammer blow
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(A) Is the maximum horizontal unbalanced force caused by the mass
provided to balance the reciprocating masses.
(B) Is the maximum vertical unbalanced force caused by the mass
added to balance the reciprocating masses
(C) Varies as the square root of the speed
(D) Varies inversely with the square of the speed
Answer: Option B
502. Ball and a Socket forms a
(A) Turning pair
(B) Rolling pair
(C) Screw pair
(D) Spherical pair
Answer: Option D
503. The natural frequency of free longitudinal vibrations is equal to
(where m = Mass of the body, s = Stiffness of the body, and δ = Static
deflection of the body)
(A) 1/2π × √(s/m)
(B) 1/2π × √(g/δ)
(C) 0.4985/√δ
Answer: Option D
504. A Hartnell governor is a
(A) Dead weight governor
(B) Pendulum type governor
(C) Spring loaded governor
Answer: Option C
505. The D-slide valve is also known as
(A) Inside admission valve
(B) Outside admission valve
(C) Piston slide valve
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
506. With usual notations for different parameters involved, the
maximum fluctuations of energy for a flywheel is given by
(A) 2ECS
(B) EC S/2
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(C) 2ECS²
(D) 2E²CS
Answer: Option A
507. In Meyer's expansion valve, the main valve is driven by an
eccentric having an angle of advance from
(A) 10°-15°
(B) 15°-25°
(C) 25°-30°
(D) 30°-40°
Answer: Option C
(A) The difference between the maximum and minimum energies is
called maximum fluctuation of energy
(B) The coefficient of fluctuation of speed is the ratio of maximum
fluctuation of speed to the mean speed
(C) The variations of energy above and below the mean resisting
torque line is known as fluctuation of energy
Answer: Option D
509. A body of weight W is required to move up the rough inclined
plane whose angle of inclination with the horizontal is α. The effort
applied parallel to the plane is given by (where μ = tan φ = Coefficient
of friction between the plane and the body)
(A) P = W tan α
(B) P = W tan (α + φ)
(C) P = W (sin α + μ cos α)
(D) P = W (cos α + μ sin α)
Answer: Option C
510. Which of the following is an open pair?
(A) Journal bearing
(B) Ball and Socket joint
(C) Leave screw and nut
Answer: Option C
511. The type of gears used to connect two non parallel and non
intersecting shafts is
(A) Spur gear
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(B) Helical gear
(C) Bevel gear
(D) Spiral gear
Answer: Option D
512. In a screw jack, the effort required to lower the load W is given
by
(A) P = W tan(α - φ)
(B) P = W tan(α + φ)
(C) P = W tan(φ - α)
(D) P = W cos(α + φ)
Answer: Option C
513. A disturbing mass m₁ attached to the rotating shaft may be
balanced by a single mass m₂ attached in the same plane of rotation as
that of m₁, such that (where r₁ and r₂ are the radii of rotation of m₁ and
m₂ respectively)
(A) m₁r₂ = m₂r₁
(B) m₁r₁ = m₂r₂
(C) m₁m₂ = r₁r₂
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
514. A fixed gear having 200 teeth is in mesh with another gear having
50 teeth. The two gears are connected by an arm. The number of turns
made by the smaller gear for one revolution of arm about the centre of
bigger gear is
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 3
Answer: Option B
515. The secondary unbalanced force is maximum __________ in one
revolution of the crank.
(A) Two times
(B) Four times
(C) Eight times
(D) Sixteen times
Answer: Option B
516. The ratio of the number of teeth to the pitch circle diameter in
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millimetres, is called
(A) Circular pitch
(B) Diametral pitch
(C) Module
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
517. A Hartnell governor has its controlling force (Fc) given by Fc = ar
+ b, where r is the radius of rotation and a and b are constants. The
governor becomes isochronous when
(A) a is +ve and b = 0
(B) a = 0 and b is +ve
(C) a is +ve and b is -ve
(D) a is +ve and b is also +ve
Answer: Option A
518. Consider the following mechanisms:
1. Oscillating cylinder engine mechanism
2. Toggle mechanism
3. Radial cylinder engine mechanism
4. Quick return mechanism
Which of the above are inversions of slider crank mechanism?
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: Option D
519. A thin circular disc is rolling with a uniform linear speed, along a
straight path on a plane surface. Which of the following statement is
correct in this regard?
(A) All points of the disc have the same velocity
(B) The centre of the disc has zero acceleration
(C) The centre of the disc has centrifugal acceleration
(D) The point on the disc making contact with the plane surface has
zero acceleration
Answer: Option B
520. In railway axle boxes, the bearing used is
(A) Deep groove ball bearing
(B) Double row self aligning ball bearing
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(C) Double row spherical roller bearing
(D) Cylindrical roller bearing
Answer: Option C
521. The rotating shafts tend to vibrate violently at whirling speeds
because
(A) The system is unbalanced
(B) Bearing centre line coincides with the axis
(C) The shafts are rotating at very high speeds
(D) Resonance is caused due to the heavy mass of the rotor
Answer: Option D
522. Which of the following is a higher pair?
(A) Turning pair
(B) Screw pair
(C) Belt and pulley
Answer: Option C
523. The total number of instantaneous centres for a mechanism
consisting of n links are
(A) n/2
(B) n
(C) n - 1
(D) n(n - 1)/2
Answer: Option D
524. The danger of breakage and vibration is maximum
(A) Below the critical speed
(B) Near the critical speed
(C) Above the critical speed
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
525. Which one of the following is an exact straight line mechanism
using lower pairs?
(A) Watt’s mechanism
(B) Grasshopper mechanism
(C) Robert’s mechanism
(D) Peaucellier’s mechanism
Answer: Option D
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526. The maximum efficiency of a screw jack is
(A) (1 - sinφ)/(1 + sinφ)
(B) (1 + sinφ)/(1 - sinφ)
(C) (1 - tanφ)/(1 + tanφ)
(D) (1 + tanφ)/(1 - tanφ)
Answer: Option A
527. The velocity of a body moving with simple harmonic motion is
__________ at the mean position.
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
528. For an involute gear, the ratio of base circle radius and pitch
circle radius is equal to
(A) sinφ
(B) cosφ
(C) secφ
(D) cosecφ
Answer: Option B
529. Module of a gear is
(A) D/T
(B) T/D
(C) 2D/T
(D) 2T/D
Answer: Option A
530. A watt's governor can work satisfactorily at speeds from
(A) 60 to 80 r.p.m.
(B) 80 to 100 r.p.m.
(C) 100 to 200 r.p.m.
(D) 200 to 300 r.p.m.
Answer: Option A
531. A friction circle is a circle drawn when a journal rotates in a
bearing. Its radius depends upon the coefficient of friction and the
(A) Magnitude of the forces on journal
(B) Angular velocity of journal
(C) Clearance between journal and bearing
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(D) Radius of journal
Answer: Option D
532. Oldham’s coupling is an inversion of the kinematic chain used in
(A) Whitworth quick return mechanism
(B) Elliptical trammels
(C) Rotary engine
(D) Universal joint
Answer: Option B
533. The radius of a friction circle for a shaft rotating inside a bearing
is (where r = Radius of shaft, and tan φ = Coefficient of friction
between the shaft and bearing)
(A) r sinφ
(B) r cosφ
(C) r tanφ
(D) (r/2) cosφ
Answer: Option A
534. When the two elements of a pair have a surface contact when
relative motion takes place and the surface of one element slides over
the surface of the other, the pair formed is known as a
(A) Lower pair
(B) Higher pair
(C) Self-closed pair
(D) Force-closed pair
Answer: Option A
535. In which of the following type of gear train the first gear and the
last gear are co-axial.
Answer: Option C
536. The sensitiveness of the governor __________ as the speed range
decreases.
(A) Remains unaffected
(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) None of these
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Answer: Option C
537. In a locomotive, the maximum magnitude of the unbalanced force
along the perpendicular to the line of stroke, is known as
(A) Tractive force
(B) Swaying couple
(C) Hammer blow
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
538. Sensitiveness of the governor is defined as the ratio of the
(A) Mean speed to the maximum equilibrium speed
(B) Mean speed to the minimum equilibrium speed
(C) Difference of the maximum and minimum equilibrium speeds to
the mean speed
(D) Sum of the maximum and minimum equilibrium speeds to the
mean speed
Answer: Option C
539. To connect two parallel and coplanar shafts the following type of
gearing is used
(A) Spur gear
(B) Bevel gear
(C) Spiral gear
Answer: Option A
540. The acceleration of a particle at any instant has two components
i.e. radial component and tangential component. These two
components will be
(A) Parallel to each other
(B) Perpendicular to each other
(C) Inclined at 45°
(D) Opposite to each other
Answer: Option B
541. The transmissibility, for all values of damping factor, will be less
than unity, if ω/ωn is
(A) Equal to 1
(B) Less than 2
(C) Equal to 2
(D) Greater than 2
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Answer: Option D
542. In a pantograph, all the pairs are
(A) Turning pairs
(B) Sliding pairs
(C) Spherical pairs
(D) Self-closed pairs
Answer: Option A
543.The retardation of a flat faced follower when it has contact at the
apex of the nose of a circular arc cam, is given by (where OQ =
Distance between the centre of circular flank and centre of nose)
(A) ω² × OQ
(B) ω² × OQ sinθ
(C) ω² × OQ cosθ
(D) ω² × OQ tanθ
Answer: Option A
544. The acceleration of the reciprocating roller follower when it has
contact with the straight flanks of the tangent cam, is given by
(A) ω². (r₁ r₂). (1 - cos² θ)
(B) ω². (r₁ + r₂). (1 + cos² θ)
(C) ω². (r₁ + r₂). [(2 - cos² θ)/cos³ θ]
(D) ω². (r₁ - r₂). (1 - sin² θ)
Answer: Option C
545. In a steam engine, the link constitutes a
(A) Piston, piston rod and crosshead
(B) Connecting rod with big and small end brasses, caps and bolts
(C) Crank pin, crankshaft and flywheel
Answer: Option D
546. When the crank is at the inner dead centre, in a reciprocating
steam engine, then the velocity of the piston will be
(A) Minimum
(B) Zero
(C) Maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
547. The swaying couple is due to the
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(A) Primary unbalanced force
(B) Secondary unbalanced force
(C) Two cylinders of locomotive
(D) Partial balancing
Answer: Option A
548. The relation between number of links (l) and number of joints (j)
in a kinematic chain is
(A) l = (1/2).(j + 2)
(B) l = (2/3).(j + 2)
(C) l = (3/4).(j + 3)
(D) l = j + 4
Answer: Option B
549. The contact ratio for gears is
(A) Zero
(B) Less than one
(D) Infinity
Answer: Option C
550. The gear train usually employed in clocks is a
(B) Reverted gear train
(C) Sun and planet gear
(D) Differential gear
Answer: Option B
551. A Porter governor is a
(A) Pendulum type governor
(B) Dead weight governor
(C) Spring loaded governor
Answer: Option B
552. The frictional torque transmitted in a conical pivot bearing,
considering uniform pressure, is (where R = Radius of shaft, and α =
Semi-angle of the cone)
(A) (1/2) μ W R cosecα
(B) (2/3) μ W R cosecα
(C) (3/4) μ W R cosecα
(D) μ W R cosecα
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Answer: Option B
553. An automobile steering gear is an example of
(A) Sliding pair
(B) Rolling pair
(C) Lower pair
(D) Higher pair
Answer: Option C
554. When the elements of a pair are kept in contact by the action of
external forces, the pair is said to be a
(A) Lower pair
(B) Higher pair
(C) Self-closed pair
(D) Force-closed pair
Answer: Option D
555. The frequency of damped vibrations with viscous damping is
________ the frequency of undamped vibrations.
(A) More than
(B) Less than
(C) Same as
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
556. The size of a gear is usually specified by
(A) Pressure angle
(B) Circular pitch
(C) Diametral pitch
(D) Pitch circle diameter
Answer: Option D
557. The amplitude of vibration is always __________ the radius of the
circle.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
558. Scotch yoke mechanism is used to generate
(A) Sine functions
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(B) Square roots
(C) Logarithms
(D) Inversions
Answer: Option A
559. The static friction
(A) Bears a constant ratio to the normal reaction between the two
surfaces
(B) Is independent of the area of contact, between the two surfaces
(C) Always acts in a direction, opposite to that in which the body tends
to move
Answer: Option D
560. In order to facilitate starting of locomotive in any position, the
cranks of a locomotive with two cylinders, are placed at
(A) 45° to each other
(B) 90° to each other
(C) 120° to each other
(D) 180° to each other
Answer: Option B
561. In a gear having involute teeth, the normal to the involute is a
tangent to the
(A) Pitch circle
(B) Base circle
(C) Addendum circle
(D) Dedendum circle
Answer: Option B
562. The relation between number of pairs (p) forming a kinematic
chain and the number of links (l) is
(A) l = 2p - 2
(B) l = 2p - 3
(C) l = 2p - 4
(D) l = 2p - 5
Answer: Option C
563. In considering friction of a V-thread, the virtual coefficient of
friction (μ₁) is given by
(A) μ₁ = μ sinβ
(B) μ₁ = μ cosβ
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(C) μ₁ = μ/sinβ
(D) μ₁ = μ/cosβ
Answer: Option D
564. When the sleeve of a Porter governor moves downwards, the
governor speed
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
Answer: Option B
565. In a turning moment diagram, the variations of energy above and
below the mean resisting torque line is called
(A) Fluctuation of energy
(B) Maximum fluctuation of energy
(C) Coefficient of fluctuation of energy
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
566. The maximum or minimum value of the swaying couple is
(A) ± c.m.ω².r
(B) ± a (1 - c) m.ω².r
(C) ± (a/√2) (1 - c) m.ω².r
(D) ± 2a (1 - c) m.ω².r
Answer: Option C
567. A spring controlled governor is found unstable. It can be made
stable by
(A) Increasing the spring stiffness
(B) Decreasing the spring stiffness
(C) Increasing the ball mass
(D) Decreasing the ball mass
Answer: Option B
Theory of Machines: Test 01

01. When the connection between the two elements is such that only
required kind of relative motion occurs, it is known as self-closed pair.
(A) Right
(B) Wrong
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02. When the axes of the shafts, over which the gears are mounted,
move relative to a fixed axis, then the train is known as reverted gear
train.
(A) Right
(B) Wrong
03. A pair of friction discs is an example of rolling pair.
(A) True
(B) False
04. When a particle moves round the circumference of a circle of
radius r with ω rad/s, then its maximum acceleration is ω²r.
(A) Right
(B) Wrong
05. For static balancing of a shaft, the net dynamic force acting on the
shaft is equal to zero.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
06. A spring controlled governor is said to be unstable, if the relation
between the controlling force (Fc) and radius of rotation (r) is Fc = ar.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
that it can turn or revolve about a fixed axis, the pair is known as a
rolling pair.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
08. The natural frequency of free transverse vibrations of a shaft fixed
at both ends and carrying a uniformly distributed load is 0.571/δS ,
where δS is the static deflection of a shaft fixed at both ends and
carrying a uniformly distributed load.
(A) True
(B) False
09. The controlling force diagram for a spring controlled governor is a
curve passing through the origin.
(A) Yes
(B) No
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10. The engine of an aeroplane rotates in clockwise direction when
seen from the tail end and the aeroplane takes a turn to the right. The
effect of gyroscopic couple on the aeroplane will be to dip the nose and
raise the tail.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
11. In a multiple V-belt drive, all the belts should stretch at the same
rate.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
12. The effect of swaying couple in a locomotive is resisted by the side
pressure between the flanges of the tyres of the wheel and the inside of
the rails.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
13. The maximum gyroscopic couple acting on the ship tends to shear
the holding down bolts.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
14. In a steam engine, the distance by which the inner edge of the D-
slide valve overlaps the steam port is called lead.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
15. The inertia force is equal to the accelerating force in magnitude,
but opposite in direction.
(A) Right
(B) Wrong
16. A slider moving on a fixed link having constant radius of
curvature will have its instantaneous centre at the centre of the circle.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
17. The ball and socket joint is an example of screw pair.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
18. The interference may only be avoided if the addendum circles of
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the two mating gears cut the common tangent to the base circles
between the points of tangency.
(A) True
(B) False
damping is
(d²x/dt²) + (c/m)(dx/dt) +(s/m).x = 0, if the roots of the equation are
complex conjugate, then the system will be critically damped.
(A) Yes
(B) No
20. An over-damped system, when disturbed from the equilibrium
position, will not cross the equilibrium position.
(A) Right
(B) Wrong
Answers: Theory of Machines Test 01


01. In a steam engine, the earlier cut-off with a simple slide valve may
be obtained by increasing the angle of advance of the eccentric but
reducing the throw of the eccentric and keeping the steam lap and
exhaust lap constant. This method will cause withdrawing or
throttling of steam.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
02. When two nonintersecting and non-coplanar shafts are connected
by gears, the arrangement is known as helical gearing.
(A) Right
(B) Wrong
03. A body is said to vibrate with simple harmonic motion if its
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acceleration is proportional to the distance from the mean position.
(A) Yes
(B) No
04. According to law of gearing, the common normal at the point of
contact between a pair of teeth must always pass through the pitch
point.
(A) Yes
(B) No
05. A shaft of mass (mc) and stiffness (s) is fixed at one end and carries
a mass (m) at the other end. The natural frequency of its transverse
vibration is same as for longitudinal vibration.
(A) Yes
(B) No
06. When the connection between the elements forming a pair is such
that the constrained motion is not completed by itself, but by some
other means, the motion is said to be a completely constrained motion,
(A) Yes
(B) No
07. A governor is said to be isochronous when range of speed is zero
for all radii of rotation of the balls within the working range,
neglecting friction.
(A) Yes
(B) No
08. If the controlling force line for a spring controlled governor when
produced intersects the Y-axis above the origin, then the governor is
said to be unstable.
(A) Right
(B) Wrong
09. Whitworth quick return motion mechanism is an inversion of a
double slider crank chain.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
10. The virtual or equivalent eccentric for the Meyer's expansion valve
is defined as an eccentric having such a length and angle of advance
that will cause cut-off to take place at the same position, as is caused
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by the combined effect of main eccentric and expansion eccentric.
(A) Right
(B) Wrong
11. The tangential component of acceleration of the slider with respect
to the coincident point on the link is called coriolis component of
acceleration.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
12. The equivalent length of a simple pendulum depends upon the
distance between the point of suspension and the centre of gravity.
(A) True
(B) False
13. A flywheel is used to control the mean speed of an engine caused
by the variations in load.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
14. The instantaneous centres, which moves as the mechanism moves
but joints are of permanent nature, are called permanent
instantaneous centres.
(A) Yes
(B) No
15. The two links are said to have a pure rolling contact, when their
instantaneous centre _________ on their point of contact.
(A) Lies
(B) Does not lie
16. The rotor of a ship rotates in clockwise direction when viewed
from stern and the ship takes a right turn. The effect of gyroscopic
couple acting on it will be to raise the stern and lower the bow.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
17. The acceleration of the particle moving with simple harmonic
motion is inversely proportional to the displacement of the particle
from the mean position.
(A) Yes
(B) No
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18. The distance between the centre of suspension and centre of
percussion is equal to the equivalent length of a simple pendulum.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
19. In forced vibrations, the magnitude of damping force at resonance
is equal to the impressed force.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
20. In vibration isolation system, if ω/ωn > 2, then for all values of
damping factor, the transmissibility (i.e. the ratio of the force
transmitted to the force applied) will be less than unity.
(A) True
(B) False

01. When a mechanism is required to transmit power or to do some
particular type of work, then it becomes a machine.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
02. When two pulleys are connected by means of an open belt drive,
then both the pulleys will rotate is opposite directions.
(A) Right
(B) Wrong
03. In a simple train of wheels, if the number of intermediate wheels is
odd, the motion of the follower will be same as that of the driver.
(A) Yes
(B) No
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04. When a body is subjected to longitudinal vibrations, the stress
induced in a body will be tensile or compressive stress.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
05. The centre of suspension and centre of percussion are not
interchangeable.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
06. When the tip of a tooth undercuts the root on its mating gear, it is
known as interference.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
07. The pressure angle for involute gears depends upon the size of
teeth.
(A) Right
(B) Wrong
08. The addendum is the radial distance of tooth from the pitch circle
to the top of the tooth.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
09. The ratio of the pitch circle diameter in millimetres to the number
of teeth is called circular pitch.
(A) Yes
(B) No
10. The angle which the normal reaction makes with the resultant
reaction is called angle of friction.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
11. The rolling of a complete ship sideways is known as pitching of a
ship.
(A) True
(B) False
12. In order to have a good grip on the pulley, the V-belt should touch
the bottom of the groove in the pulley.
(A) True
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(B) False
13. The primary unbalanced force is more than the secondary
unbalanced force.
(A) True
(B) False
14. The angle of the inclined plane at which the body just begins to
slide down the plane, is called helix angle.
(A) Right
(B) Wrong
15. A chain consisting of four links and four joints is called a
kinematic chain.
(A) Yes
(B) No
16. In a force-closed pair, the two elements of a pair are not held
together mechanically.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
17. The ratio of the actual damping coefficient to the critical damping
coefficient is called damping factor.
(A) Yes
(B) No
18. Whitworth quick return motion mechanism consists of three
turning pairs and one sliding pair.
(A) Right
(B) Wrong
19. The coefficient of fluctuation of energy is the ratio of maximum
energy to the minimum energy.
(A) True
(B) False
20. The wear of bearing is proportional to velocity and pressure.
(A) Yes
(B) No
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Engineering Drawing:
01. A line drawn with a long section, short dash, and another long
section is a ________.
(A) Hidden feature
(B) Center of a circle
(C) Center axis of a hidden cylinder
(D) Center of a radius
Answer: Option C
02. This type of projection is when projectors are parallel to each
other, but is at an angle other than 90 degrees to the plane of
projection:
(A) Oblique projection
(B) Perpendicular projection
(C) Aesthetic projection
(D) Angular projection
Answer: Option A
03. Generally, the units used on an architectural drawing are set to
________.
(A) Architectural
(B) Engineering
(C) Metric
(D) Civil
Answer: Option A
04. Before starting an isometric drawing in Auto-CAD the drafter
needs to ________.
(A) Set the grid to isometric
(B) Set the current layer to Defpoints
(C) Turn Object Snap off
(D) Turn Ortho off
Answer: Option A
05. A cylinder can be created by drawing a rectangular shape then the
________ tool.
(A) Revolve
(B) Sweep
(C) Extrude
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Answer: Option A
06. The text height for room names should be set to ________for a
drawing that will be plotted to a scale of ¼" = 1'-0".
(A) 4"
(B) 5"
(C) 6"
(D) 8"
Answer: Option C
07. In order to convert fractional inches into decimal inches ________.
(A) Look on a metric conversion chart
(B) Divide the numerator (top number) by the denominator (bottom
number)
(C) Check the engineer's scale
Answer: Option B
08. When lettering a CAD drawing, for clarity you should limit the
number of fonts to:
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Any number
Answer: Option B
09. The Offset tool should only be used for placing ________ in an
isometric drawing.
(A) Circles
(B) Horizontal lines
(C) Vertical lines
Answer: Option C
10. The Conceptual Visual Style tool is located on the ________
toolbar.
(A) Visual Styles
(B) Modify
(C) 3-D Modeling
Answer: Option A
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11. The first step in creating a traditional technical drawing is to
________.
(A) Draw a series of guide lines
(B) Set up the meter line
(C) Align the paper so that it will be positioned square to the parallel
bar
(D) Sharpen the leads in the technical pens
Answer: Option C
12. To insure that everyone understands what the electrical symbols
represent it is customary to include a ________ on the electrical sheet.
(A) List
(B) Part number
(C) Electrical legend
(D) Electrical layer
Answer: Option C
13. The primary unit of measurement for engineering drawings and
design in the mechanical industries is the:
(A) Millimeter
(B) Centimeter
(C) Meter
(D) Kilometer
Answer: Option A
14. In order to create an isometric circle to represent a hole through
the top surface of a box, the drafter must insure that the correct iso-
plane has been selected by scrolling through the iso-planes using the
________ key.
(A) F1
(B) F3
(C) F5
(D) F8
Answer: Option C
15. The default position of the UCS icon is positioned at ________ on
the AutoCAD grid.
(A) 0, 0, 0
(B) 10, 10, 10
(C) 20, 20, 20
Answer: Option A
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16. Traditional drafters need to be able to create several different line
widths because ________.
(A) Different line widths convey different information
(B) The line width has to do with how dark it appear in the finished
drawing
(C) They seem to transmit better in a fax machine
(D) It makes no difference
Answer: Option A
17. Once the architect has finalized the house plans with the client any
changes to the design requested by the client will require a ________.
(A) Change order
(B) Modification slip
(C) Whole new set of drawings
Answer: Option A
18. There are two main types of projection:
(A) Parallel and Orthographic
(B) Station-point and Perspective
(C) Parallel and Convergent
(D) Perspective and Parallel
Answer: Option D
19. The bounding box method for setting up an isometric drawing
helps the drafter ________.
(A) Confine the isometric drawing to its maximum size
(B) Figure what lines are to be illustrated vertical and horizontal
(C) Position the isometric drawing in paper space
Answer: Option A
20. In order to create one solid model from two or more separate solid
shapes the drafter will need to position them and then ________.
(A) Use Union to join them
(B) Use the Join command
(C) Use the Add Parts tool
Answer: Option A
21. When creating an isometric drawing in Auto-CAD the drafter can
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utilize the Dynamic Input and Polar Coordinate system to place both
vertical and horizontal lines. A line created from one point 3 inches at
180 degrees would be a ________ line.
(A) Horizontal
(B) Vertical
(C) Inclined
Answer: Option B
22. This is a flat or rounded tab protruding from a surface, usually to
provide a method for attachment:
(A) Lug
(B) Boss
(C) Chamfer
(D) Spotface
Answer: Option A
23. Using the Relative Polar Coordinate System to add a 3 inch line
that is 45 degrees from the end point of the line created above the
drafter would ________.
(A) Type @3<45 and enter
(B) Type 3 back slash and enter
(C) Type 3 forward slash and enter
(D) Type 3 and try to use the Dynamic Input readout to find the end
point
Answer: Option A
24. In working drawings, these show all necessary information not
given directly on the drawing with its dimensions and notes:
(A) Document strips
(B) Portable documents
(C) Formatting forms
(D) Title and record strips
Answer: Option D
25. Once a drawing is determined to be complete, the title block is
used to document the change from:
(A) A draft to a finished drawing
(B) A finished to a working drawing
(C) An assembly to a finished drawing
(D) A working drawing to a draft
Answer: Option A
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26. A fillet is a rounded surface on the ________ corner of a part.
(A) Inside
(B) Outside
(C) Radial
(D) Isoplane
Answer: Option A
27. This is a conical-shaped recess around a hole, often used to receive
a tapered screw head:
(A) Boss
(B) Spotface
(C) Counterbore
(D) Countersink
Answer: Option D
28. In order to set drawing limits for a "C" size architectural drawing
the drafter should set the limits to ________.
(A) 0, 0 and 2, 9
(B) 0, 0 and 17, 11
(C) 0, 0 and 18, 24
(D) 0, 0 and 34, 24
Answer: Option C
29. The most common geometric form used in gears today is this:
(A) Involute profile
(B) Convolute profile
(C) Base circle
(D) Spur circle
Answer: Option A
30. Using this as a communication and design review tool can help
shorten the process and eliminate productivity barriers:
(A) Development plans
(B) Portable document files
(C) The Internet and e-mail
(D) Gantt charts
Answer: Option C
31. Auto-CAD refers to isometric ellipses as ________.
(A) Ellipses
(B) Iso-ellipses
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(C) Iso-circles
(D) Circles
Answer: Option C
32. Inserting blocks into a drawing file usually requires exacting
placement. The drafter should insure that ________ is turned on.
(A) O Snaps
(B) Ortho
(C) Grid
(D) Dynamic Input
Answer: Option A
33. When drawing a line using the relative coordinate system a line is
created from ________.
(A) 0, 0
(B) The ending point of the last line
(C) The beginning point of the last line
Answer: Option B
34. Spur gear design normally begins with selecting this:
(A) Rack size
(B) Tooth size
(C) Gear size
(D) Pitch diameter
Answer: Option D
35. Drawings created with commercial software are typically saved as:
(A) Rapid prototypes
(B) Electronic files
(C) Draft drawings
(D) Change orders
Answer: Option B
36. Oblique drawings are dimensioned in a similar fashion as these
types of drawings:
(A) Orthographic
(B) Isometric
(C) Angular
(D) Parallel
Answer: Option B
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37. Which of the following is one of the basic types of welded joints:
(A) T-joint
(B) Rear joint
(C) Angle joint
(D) Groove joint
Answer: Option A
38. The organized and orderly approach to solving problems is known
as the:
(A) Engineering process
(B) Design process
(C) Aesthetic process
(D) Functional process
Answer: Option B
39. This process recognizes the inherent interrelationships between
design and manufacturing:
(A) Design for manufacture
(B) Design for manufacture and assembly
(C) Design for concurrent engineering
(D) Design for assembly
Answer: Option B
40. How can the drafter prevent Auto-CAD from placing or stacking
another center mark on a circle when adding a diameter dimension to
it?
(A) Explode the dimension and then erase the center mark
(B) Use the Properties dialog box to turn off the center mark of the
dimension
(C) It can't be done
(D) Use the trim tool to take away the stacked center mark
Answer: Option B
41. Oblique sections are useful to show this:
(A) Foreshortened features
(B) Oblique lines
(C) Interior shapes
(D) Projected features
Answer: Option C
42. These weld symbols have no arrow-side or other-side significance:
(A) Projection or seam weld
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(B) Back or backing weld
(C) Surface or groove weld
(D) Flash and upset weld
Answer: Option D
43. This is a systematic approach that integrates the design and
manufacture of products with the goal of optimizing the process:
(A) Traditional engineering design
(B) The manufacturing process
(C) Concurrent design
(D) Design for recycling
Answer: Option C
44. Approximately this much of the cost of product development and
manufacture is determined at the design stage:
(A) 40-50 %
(B) 60-75 %
(C) 70-80 %
(D) 75-85 %
Answer: Option C
45. A circular arc is dimensioned in the view where you see its true
shape by giving the value for its:
(A) Diameter
(B) Arc length
(C) Radius
(D) Chord length
Answer: Option C
46. In a CAD system, you can draw an ellipse by specifying these:
(A) The bounding lines
(B) The midpoint and end points
(C) The center and major and minor axes
(D) The center and radius
Answer: Option C
47. A projection weld is a type of:
(A) Resistance weld
(B) Arc weld
(C) Gas weld
(D) Fillet weld
Answer: Option A
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48. Technical drawings typically serve one of three purposes:
(A) Visualization, Communication, or Documentation
(B) Visualization, Dimensioning, or Documentation
(C) Communication, Documentation, or Installation
(D) Documentation, Installation, or Engineering
Answer: Option A
49. This allows the designer to conceptualize objects more easily
without having to make costly illustrations, models, or prototypes:
(A) Computer-aided manufacturing
(B) Computer-aided design
(C) Computer-aided engineering
(D) Computer-aided prototyping
Answer: Option B
50. Baseline dimensions are referenced from a common geometric
feature known as a ________.
(A) Edge
(B) Corner
(C) Datum
(D) Point of reference
Answer: Option C
51. In oblique projection, important shapes should be in this position
relative to the viewing plane:
(A) Parallel
(B) Perpendicular
(C) Adjacent
(D) Rotated
Answer: Option A
52. Welding drawings are a special type of this kind of drawing:
(A) Symbol
(B) Perspective
(C) Assembly
(D) Isometric
Answer: Option C
53. EDM is the acronym for:
(A) Enterprise data management
(B) Engineering drawing management
(C) Enterprise drawing manipulation
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(D) Engineering data manipulation
Answer: Option A
54. Perspective drawings are classified according to their number of
these features:
(A) Station points
(B) Picture planes
(C) Vanishing points
(D) Ground lines
Answer: Option C
55. The maximum and minimum sizes of a feature are identified by a
________ tolerance.
(A) Limits
(B) GD&T
(C) Reference
(D) Allowance
Answer: Option A
56. These maps are used in planning installations of trees, shrubbery,
drives, and other garden features:
(A) Landscape maps
(B) Engineering maps
(C) Topographic maps
(D) Cadastral maps
Answer: Option A
57. This material is used in masonry construction, most commonly for
ornamental facing:
(A) Face brick
(B) Clay tile
(C) Natural stone
(D) Aggregate
Answer: Option C
58. The View toolbar will position the view of the 3-D solid toward the
________.
(A) Front
(B) Left side
(C) SE isometric
Answer: Option D
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59. Circular shapes appear in this fashion when viewed at an angle
other than 90 degrees:
(A) Circular
(B) Elliptical
(C) Lengthened
(D) Angular
Answer: Option B
60. These maps are used to plan construction projects that locate
construction features so they fit the topography of the area:
(A) Subdivision plats
(B) Landscape maps
(C) Structural topography maps
(D) Structure location plans
Answer: Option D
61. This is a common method for connecting steel members of
buildings and bridges:
(A) Assembly
(B) Fabricating
(C) Riveting
(D) Welding
Answer: Option D
62. The 3-D commands on the Modeling toolbar include ________.
(A) Box
(B) Sphere
(C) Extrude
Answer: Option D
63. This is the most common application for developments and
intersections:
(A) Sheet metal construction
(B) Piping
(C) Architecture
(D) Mechanical engineering
Answer: Option A
64. These are special installations of stone or concrete marking the
locations of points accurately determined by precise surveying:
(A) Topographic marks
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(B) Hatches
(C) Monuments
(D) Pillars
Answer: Option C
65. These plans, made by the steel fabricator, are assembly drawings
for the steel structure:
(A) Welding plans
(B) Assembly plans
(C) Construction plans
(D) Erection plans
Answer: Option D
66. The Press-Pull tool will ________ the face of a solid model in the
direction it faces.
(A) Taper
(B) Extrude
(C) Spiral
Answer: Option B
67. CAD programs which incorporate parametric modeling utilize a
system in which the dimensions control the ________.
(A) Size and shape of the model features
(B) Perspective of the model
(C) Shading used to render the model
Answer: Option A
68. This type of surface may be a plane, a single curved surface, or a
warped surface:
(A) Edge surface
(B) Ruled surface
(C) Auxiliary surface
(D) Developed surface
Answer: Option B
69. This type of drawing is created to calculate areas, locate property
lines, and locate building projects and facilities:
(A) Traverse
(B) Contour
(C) City map
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(D) Plat
Answer: Option D
70. This type of structural steel drawing shows all dimensions
necessary for fabrication:
(A) Shop drawings
(B) Design drawings
(C) Weldment drawings
(D) Application drawings
Answer: Option A
71. The MASSPROP shortcut will provide the following information.
(A) Mass
(B) Volume
(C) Bounding box
Answer: Option D
72. A secondary auxiliary view is a projection off of the ________.
(A) Front view
(B) Top view
(C) Primary auxiliary view
Answer: Option C
73. These are lines drawn on a map to locate, in the plan view, points
of equal ground elevation:
(A) Contours
(B) Elevations
(C) Profiles
(D) Hatches
Answer: Option A
74. The Free Orbit tool is found on the ________ toolbar.
(A) Rotate
(B) Move
(C) Modify
(D) 3-D Move
Answer: Option C
75. This is used in drawings to represent the edge of a solid object:
(A) Angle
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(B) Vertex
(C) Surface
(D) Line
Answer: Option D
76. In this type of concrete, the steel is pre-tensioned before the
superimposed load is applied:
(A) Aggregate
(B) Pre-stressed
(C) Reinforced
(D) Preloaded
Answer: Option B
77. A partial auxiliary view is used to show only the ________ in the
auxiliary view.
(A) Projected inclined plane
(B) The projected top view
(C) The projected side view
Answer: Option A
78. These are vertical distances above a common datum, reference
plane, or point:
(A) Plats
(B) Elevations
(C) Traverse
(D) Profiles
Answer: Option B
79. An oil refinery relies on which type of drafter to maintain and
update the technical piping drawings used for the construction and
maintenance of the facility.
(A) Architectural
(B) Civil
(C) Process piping
(D) Electrical
Answer: Option C
80. These are joined together in the field to build a structure:
(A) Riveted members
(B) Main members
(C) Steel fabrications
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(D) Assembled fabrications
Answer: Option B
81. This type of auxiliary view is projected onto a plane that is
perpendicular to one of the principal planes of projection:
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Revolved
(D) Successive
Answer: Option A
82. These are accurately drawn maps of cities and towns showing
property lines and other features that control property ownership:
(A) Monument maps
(B) Cadastral maps
(C) City maps
(D) Topographic maps
Answer: Option B
83. Students can complete an associate's degree in drafting which
normally takes about ________ years to complete.
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer: Option B
84. This type of weld is the most common in structural steel
fabrication:
(A) Fillet weld
(B) Beam weld
(C) Rivet weld
(D) Structural weld
Answer: Option A
85. In this type of view, the cutting plane line indicates both the
location of the cutting plane and the direction of sight:
(A) Removed section
(B) Revolved section
(C) Auxiliary section
(D) Partial section
Answer: Option C
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86. This type of solid has two bases that are parallel equal polygons:
(A) Pyramid
(B) Prism
(C) Cone
(D) Torus
Answer: Option B
87. Switches and relays should be shown in this position with no
operating force or applied energy:
(A) Normal
(B) Closed
(C) Offset
(D) Application
Answer: Option A
88. Architectural drafters generally prefer to use ________ drawings
to help illustrate 3-dimensional views of a structure.
(A) Isometric
(B) Perspective
(C) Orthographic
(D) Auxiliary
Answer: Option B
89. One way to evenly space dimensions on a drawing is to use the
________.
(A) Dimension Space tool
(B) Linear tool
(C) Continue tool
(D) Baseline tool
Answer: Option A
90. The offset distance for the width (front to back) distance of the
auxiliary view is the same distance of the ________ in the top view.
(A) Width
(B) Height
(C) Length
Answer: Option A
91. This type of solid is egg-shaped and can be created by revolving an
ellipse around one of its axes:
(A) Ellipsoid
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(B) Torus
(C) Cone
(D) Cylinder
Answer: Option A
92. This type of circuit is a semiconductor wafer or chip:
(A) Integrated circuit
(B) Transmission circuit
(C) Plotted circuit
(D) Conducted circuit
Answer: Option A
93. Isometric drawings are often used by ________ to help illustrate
complex designs.
(A) Mechanical engineers
(B) Piping drafters
(C) Aerospace engineers
Answer: Option D
94. In U.S. structural and architectural drafting, all dimensions of this
length are usually expressed in feet and inches:
(A) One inch or over
(B) One foot or over
(C) One yard or over
(D) One rod or over
Answer: Option B
95. The principle views associated with orthographic projection are
________.
(A) Front view
(B) Right side view
(C) Top view
Answer: Option D
96. This is formed where three or more surfaces intersect:
(A) Oblique
(B) Line
(C) Edge
(D) Vertex
Answer: Option D
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97. On typical electronic diagrams, these items need not be shown
unless they are needed for clarification:
(A) Transmission diagrams
(B) Operating relays
(C) Closed relays
(D) Terminal circles
Answer: Option D
98. A round is a rounded surface on the ________ corner of a part.
(A) Inside
(B) Outside
(C) Radial
(D) Isoplane
Answer: Option B
99. In this type of dimensioning, allowance must be made for bends:
(A) Angular
(B) Tolerance
(C) Datum
(D) Sheet metal
Answer: Option D
100. A drafter who develops technical drawings of a highway overpass
would most likely be a ________ drafter.
(A) Architectural
(B) Civil
(C) Mechanical
(D) Process piping
Answer: Option B
101. Three dimensional models are often used in the design process to
__________.
(A) Help the client understand the overall design concept
(B) Help the client select a color for their carpet
(C) Provide the client with a model which they can use to impress their
friends
(D) Determine the quantity of brick needed to build the house
Answer: Option A
102. Schematic and single-line diagrams should be arranged so that
signal or transmission path from input to output proceeds in this
fashion:
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(A) Right to left and top to bottom
(B) Right to left and bottom to top
(C) Left to right and top to bottom
(D) Left to right and bottom to top
Answer: Option C
103. Given a situation in which the drafter has crossed extension lines
in a drawing what can be done to clean up the point of crossing?
(A) Use the Modify tool to clean up the extension lines
(B) Use the Tolerance tool to clean up the extension lines
(C) Use the Break tool to clean up the extension lines
(D) Use the stretch tool to clean up the extension lines
Answer: Option A
104. These types of projectors converge at a vanishing point:
(A) Perspective
(B) Parallel
(C) Orthographic
(D) Oblique
Answer: Option A
105.These items typically are not used in new designs, but are still
common in high-power amplifiers:
(A) Amplifier tubes
(B) Electron tubes
(C) Signal relays
(D) Switches
Answer: Option B
106. The ________ tool on the Dimension tool bar will place several
dimensions at one time by using a selection box placed over several
part features.
(A) Linear
(B) Continue
(C) Baseline
(D) Quick Dimension
Answer: Option D
107. This line pattern is composed of three dashes, one long dash on
each end with a short dash in the middle:
(A) Object
(B) Hidden
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(C) Center
(D) Phantom
Answer: Option C
108. Referring to the fractional inches to decimal inches to millimetre
conversion chart on page 55 what is the equivalent mm measurement
of 3/16 inch.
(A) 1.906
(B) 4.7625
(C) 5.958
(D) 14.6844
Answer: Option B
109. When using the descriptive geometry method to create an
auxiliary view the drafter should __________.
(A) Rotate the snap grid to the same angle of the inclined plane
(B) Offset the right vertical line of the front view
(C) Rotate the top line of the front view 45 degrees
(D) Offset the top line of the front view 2 inches
Answer: Option A
110. This type of solid has a polygon for a base and triangular lateral
faces that intersect at a vertex:
(A) Pyramid
(B) Prism
(C) Cone
(D) Torus
Answer: Option A
111. This is a thin solid line directing attention to a note or dimension
and starting with an arrowhead or dot:
(A) Dimension line
(B) Extension line
(C) Leader
(D) Specification
Answer: Option C
112. Several of the tools used in traditional drafting include the
following:
(A) Parallel straight edge
(B) 45 degree triangle
(C) Circle template
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Answer: Option D
113. The top, front, and bottom views align in this manner:
(A) Horizontally
(B) Vertically
(C) According to the planar views
(D) Parallel to the frontal plane
Answer: Option B
114.The principle reason for using an auxiliary view is ________.
(A) To eliminate hidden lines
(B) To create a true projection plane from an inclined plane in one of
the primary views
(C) To show cylinders as ellipses
(D) To locate center marks
Answer: Option B
115. A ________ is the person responsible for verifying that the
drawings in a project set are free of mistakes.
(A) Client
(B) CAD trainee
(C) Receptionist
(D) Checker
Answer: Option D
116. The ________ dimension tool will place the length of an angled
line.
(A) Aligned
(B) Angle
(C) Linear
(D) Radial
Answer: Option A
117. Some traditional board drafters preferred the drafting machine
over the parallel straight edge because it could be used without the
need for________.
(A) Circle templates
(B) Triangles
(C) Technical pens
(D) Lettering guides
Answer: Option B
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118. This type of surface is tipped to all principal planes of projection
and does not appear true size in any standard view:
(A) Foreshortened
(B) Parallel
(C) Orthographic
(D) Oblique
Answer: Option D
119. A partial auxiliary view usually shows only features on the
________ of the inclined line and not any projection of other planes.
(A) Hidden lines
(B) Plane
(C) Center lines
Answer: Option B
120. An architect often relies on a ________ to complete the set of
technical drawings used in the design of an office building.
(A) Technical illustrator
(B) Artist
(C) Drafter
(D) Construction superintendent
Answer: Option C
121. The ________ tool on the Dimension tool bar places the length of
an arch on a drawing.
(A) Arc Radius
(B) Arc Length
(C) Radius
(D) Diameter
Answer: Option B
122. A half-moon protractor is divided into how many degrees?
(A) 360
(B) 180
(C) 270
(D) 310
Answer: Option B
123. If a plane is parallel to the plane of projection, it appears:
(A) True size
(B) As a line or edge
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(C) Foreshortened
(D) As an oblique surface
Answer: Option A
124. When adding dimensions to an auxiliary view it will be necessary
to use the ________ tool.
(A) Linear dimension
(B) Aligned dimension
(C) Baseline dimension
(D) Angle dimension
Answer: Option B
125. The daily workload of a ________ drafter would generally
include technical drawings of machine parts.
(A) Architectural
(B) Civil
(C) Electrical
(D) Mechanical
Answer: Option D
126. This is a line terminated by arrowheads, indicating the direction
and extent of a dimension:
(A) Dimension line
(B) Extension line
(C) Arrowhead line
(D) Centerline
Answer: Option A
127. A civil engineer working on a bridge design would probably rely
on his ________ scale for checking printed drawings.
(A) Engineer's
(B) Metric
(C) Architect's
Answer: Option A
128. This is the plane upon which the top view is projected:
(A) Horizontal
(B) Frontal
(C) Profile
(D) Base
Answer: Option A
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129.The lines used to create the auxiliary view should appear as
________ in the finished view.
(A) Object lines
(B) Construction lines
(C) Reference lines
(D) Construction lines
Answer: Option A
130. In oblique sketches, the most commonly used angles for receding
lines are:
(A) 15 or 30 degrees
(B) 25 or 30 degrees
(C) 30 or 45 degrees
(D) 45 or 60 degrees
Answer: Option C
131. This is the total amount that the feature on the actual part is
allowed to vary from what is specified by the dimension:
(A) Allowance
(B) Tolerance
(C) Specification
(D) Difference
Answer: Option B
132. An engineer's scale would be used to measure lines on a drawing
where the scale factor reads ________.
(A) 1/4" = 1'-0"
(B) 1/8" = 1'-0"
(C) 1" = 100'
(D) 3/4" = 1'-0"
Answer: Option C
133. An advantage of this type of view is that each view shows the
object all the way through as if it were transparent:
(A) Planar
(B) Horizontal
(C) Auxiliary
(D) Orthographic
Answer: Option D
134. This type of solid is formed by sweeping a shape along a linear
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path:
(A) Planar solid
(B) Revolved solid
(C) Warped solid
(D) Extruded solid
Answer: Option D
135. Some of the common terms used to describe technical drawing
include:
(A) Drafting
(B) Engineering Graphics
(C) Engineering Drawing
Answer: Option D
136. The condition of a part when it contains the least amount of
material is referred to as ________.
(A) Smallest
(B) LMC
(C) MMC
(D) Actual size
Answer: Option B
137. These units are based on inch-foot and yard measurements:
(A) International customary units
(B) U.S. metric units
(C) U.S. customary units
(D) ISO international units
Answer: Option C
138. In offset sections, offsets or bends in the cutting plane are all:
(A) 90 degrees
(B) 180 degrees
(C) Either 90 or 180 degrees
(D) 30, 60 or 90 degrees
Answer: Option A
139. In this type of auxiliary view, a break line is used to indicate the
imaginary break in the views:
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Revolved
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(D) Partial
Answer: Option D
140. When designing a home for a client, one of the most important
pre-design considerations that an architect needs to address is
________.
(A) How much money the client is willing to spend
(B) The site on which the house is to sit
(C) The nearest grocery store
(D) Whether or not there is a curb and gutter system
Answer: Option B
141. Placement of dimensions on a drawing is controlled by ________.
(A) ANSI
(B) The design engineer
(C) Corporate drafting standards
Answer: Option D
142. In the section view, the areas that would have been in actual
contact with the cutting plane are shown with:
(A) A cutting plane line
(B) Section lining
(C) Visible lines
(D) Lines and arrows
Answer: Option B
143. This is how axonometric, oblique, and perspective sketches show
objects:
(A) Orthographically
(B) Pictorially
(C) Obliquely
(D) Parallel
Answer: Option B
144. This is used to indicate that a surface is to be machined:
(A) Finish mark
(B) Machining mark
(C) Roughness indicator
(D) Coordinate mark
Answer: Option A
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145. A ________ section allows the drafter to create a Cutting Plane
line which is not in a straight line across the part.
(A) Offset
(B) Half
(C) Whole
(D) Broken out
Answer: Option A
146. This means that a feature of a finished product contains the
maximum amount of material permitted by the tolerance dimensions
for that feature:
(A) Maximum material condition
(B) Machined material condition
(C) Maximum machined indication
(D) Machine mark indication
Answer: Option A
147. Angles project true size only when the plane containing the angle
and plane of projection are this:
(A) Adjacent
(B) Aligned
(C) Perpendicular
(D) Parallel
Answer: Option D
148. A back or backing weld is a type of:
(A) Groove weld
(B) Resistance weld
(C) Arc and gas weld
(D) Upset weld
Answer: Option C
149. A typical set of mechanical working drawings includes ________.
(A) Exploded assembly
(B) Part details
(C) Parts list
Answer: Option D
150. This is the range of digital or hard copy documents that specify
the physical function requirements for a product:
(A) Product design
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(B) Product definition
(C) Drawing definition
(D) Engineering design
Answer: Option B
151. These are used to attach parts to a cylinder so they won't turn on
it:
(A) Lugs and bearings
(B) Key-seats and bearings
(C) Knurls and keys
(D) Keys and keyways/key-seats
Answer: Option D
152. This type of section is not in direct projection from the view
containing the cutting plane:
(A) Revolved section
(B) Removed section
(C) Broken-out section
(D) Full section
Answer: Option B
153.When lines intersect on a drawing at angles of this many degrees,
it is customary not to dimension the angle:
(A) 360
(B) 180
(C) 90
(D) 45
Answer: Option C
154. The edges of a cube in isometric projection make angles of this
many degrees with each other:
(A) 30
(B) 60
(C) 90
(D) 120
Answer: Option D
155. In order to create an accurate assembly drawing the drafter
should create the ________ drawings first.
(A) Detail
(B) Title block
(C) Parts list
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(D) Isometric
Answer: Option A
156. PDM is the acronym for:
(A) Project drawing management
(B) Product drawing manipulation
(C) Product data management
(D) Project data manipulation
Answer: Option C
157. This is an angled surface used on cylinders to make them easier to
handle:
(A) Fillet
(B) Taper
(C) Chamfer
(D) Lug
Answer: Option C
158. The ________ is a standard element of a section view in a
technical drawing.
(A) Cutting Plane line
(B) Section lines
(C) Material hatch pattern
Answer: Option D
159. This is the theoretically exact size from which limits of size are
determined:
(A) Actual Size
(B) Dimensioned size
(C) Production size
(D) Basic size
Answer: Option D
160. In this type of projection, each of the axes has different ratios of
foreshortening:
(A) Isometric
(B) Dimetric
(C) Trimetric
(D) Parallel
Answer: Option C
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161. The text used on a typical detail sheet should be ________.
(A) Placed horizontally
(B) In bold text
(C) In an architectural text style
Answer: Option A
162. This is a rounded exterior blend between surfaces:
(A) Fillet
(B) Round
(C) Taper
(D) Chamfer
Answer: Option B
163. These breaks are used to shorten the view of an object:
(A) Section breaks
(B) Aligned breaks
(C) Conventional breaks
(D) Full breaks
Answer: Option C
164. This practice considers an individual part's dimensions and
tolerances and that part's relation to its related parts:
(A) Applying allowances
(B) Geometric dimensioning and tolerancing
(C) Creating datum references
(D) Angular dimensioning tolerances
Answer: Option B
165. This type of axonometric drawing has equal foreshortening along
two axis directions and a different amount on the third axis:
(A) Dimetric
(B) Multiview
(C) Isometric
(D) Trimetric
Answer: Option A
166. In the mechanical design process the first step is to ________.
(A) Brainstorm solutions
(B) Prepare rough sketches
(C) Prepare a budget
(D) Identify the problem
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Answer: Option D
167. In architectural drawing ________ are often used to illustrate and
detail structural components.
(A) Foundation beam detail sections
(B) Wall sections
(C) Building sections
Answer: Option D
168. This is the term for the range of tightness or looseness resulting
from the allowances and tolerances in mating parts:
(A) Limits
(B) Fit
(C) Specifications
(D) Allowance
Answer: Option B
169. In isometric projection, all distances are approximately this
percentage of their true size:
(A) 120 percent
(B) 80 percent
(C) 50 percent
(D) 20 percent
Answer: Option B
170. It is customary for the first sheet of a working drawing set to
include ________.
(A) A parts list
(B) Exploded assembly
(C) Assembled assembly
Answer: Option D
171. The typical parts list should include the ________.
(A) Part number
(B) Manufacturing material
(C) Number of parts needed
Answer: Option D
172. Some of the standard Auto-CAD text styles used in architectural
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drawings includes ________.
(A) City Blueprint
(B) Country Blueprint
(C) Stylus BT
Answer: Option D
173. This is the smallest diameter of a screw thread:
(A) Internal thread diameter
(B) Minor diameter
(C) Major diameter
(D) External thread diameter
Answer: Option B
174. When creating a Cutting Plane line with Auto-CAD it is
customary to use a ________ to create the line.
(A) Center line
(B) Polyline
(C) Dashed line
(D) Hatch line
Answer: Option B
175. Acceptable parts must not extend beyond this:
(A) Boundary limits
(B) Hole limits
(C) Specification
(D) Tolerances
Answer: Option A
176. Lines of an isometric drawing that are not parallel to the
isometric axes are called this:
(A) Trimetric lines
(B) Non-isometric lines
(C) Multiview lines
(D) Dimetric lines
Answer: Option B
177. The second line of dimensions out from the plan generally
includes ________.
(A) Centers of doors and windows
(B) The distances between outside walls and interior walls
(C) The measurement from the outside of the brick to the inside of the
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exterior wall
(D) The measurement from one outside corner to the opposite outside
corner
Answer: Option B
178. Dimension text is generally placed above the ________ line.
(A) Dimension
(B) Extension
(C) Center
(D) Leader
Answer: Option A
179. The section view drawing in which one fourth of an object has
been marked for removal is known as a ________ section.
(A) Full
(B) Half
(C) Quarter
Answer: Option B
180. The thread note for a typical bolt will include the ________.
(A) Major diameter of the thread
(B) Material
(C) Center line
(D) Offset distance
Answer: Option A
181. The distance a screw thread advances axially in one turn is the:
(A) Lead
(B) Pitch
(C) Turn
(D) Crest
Answer: Option A
182. When only a small section of an interior area needs to be revealed
the drafter can use a ________ section.
(A) Half
(B) Quarter
(C) Full
(D) Broken out
Answer: Option D
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183. This is the measured size of a finished part:
(A) Actual size
(B) Dimensioned size
(C) Production size
(D) Basic size
Answer: Option A
184. If designs require changes, they should be documented with:
(A) Development plans
(B) Product proposals
(C) Document reviews
(D) Engineering change orders
Answer: Option D
185. To avoid having to dimension to a hidden feature the drafter can
utilize a ________ section.
(A) Whole
(B) Half
(C) Broken out
Answer: Option D
186. The title block used on working drawings should include the
__________.
(A) Sheet number
(B) Line type
(C) Layer set
Answer: Option A
187. The dimension text size is determined by what the architect
deems necessary in __________.
(A) Model space
(B) Paper space
(C) The Finished plot
(D) The PDF file
Answer: Option C
188. This is the bottom surface joining the sides of two adjacent
threads:
(A) Lead
(B) Pitch
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(C) Crest
(D) Root
Answer: Option D
189. By using a ________ section of a cylindrical mechanical part the
drafter should be able to show only one view of the part.
(A) Half
(B) Whole
(C) Revolved
(D) Broken out
Answer: Option C
190. In an exploded assembly drawing it is customary for the drafter
to use a ________ line to illustrate how parts fit together.
(A) Phantom
(B) Hidden
(C) Dashed
(D) Center
Answer: Option A
191. Architectural dimensioning is usually done in ________.
(A) Even numbers
(B) Feet and inches
(C) Feet only
(D) Inches only
Answer: Option B
192. The standard number of threads per inch for various diameters is
the:
(A) Series of thread
(B) Lead
(C) Major diameter
(D) Thread pitch
Answer: Option A
193. Dimensions are used on the elevation plan to describe ________.
(A) Finished floor elevations
(B) Roof overhangs
(C) Roof pitch angles
Answer: Option D
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194. Drafters should use a ________ in a section view of a mechanical
part that includes the cylindrical view of a threaded hole.
(A) Center line
(B) Hatch line
(C) Poly line
(D) Dimension line
Answer: Option A
195. One critical issue drafters need to pay close attention to is the
________.
(A) Size of the sheet
(B) Designer's intent
(C) Scale factor
Answer: Option B
196. The site plan illustrates ________.
(A) The floor plan
(B) Where the house sits on the property
(C) The roof plan
(D) Where the garage and driveway are located
Answer: Option B
197. When creating your own blocks it is important to avoid drawing
any portion of the block in the ________ layer.
(A) Zero
(B) Center line
(C) Hatch
(D) Hidden line
Answer: Option A
198. In this type of section, one quarter of the object is removed:
(A) Revolved section
(B) Removed section
(C) Quarter section
(D) Half section
Answer: Option D
199. When dimensioning architectural drawings architects will utilize
both ________ and ________ options.
(A) Baseline and continuous
(B) Baseline and linear
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(C) Quick dim and linear
(D) Linear and continuous
Answer: Option D
200. When using versions of Auto-CAD prior to Release 2006 it may
be necessary to ________ a block in order to edit it.
(A) Copy
(B) Explode
(C) Offset
Answer: Option B
201. The architectural drafter usually begins a set of working
drawings by creating the ________ plan first.
(A) Foundation
(B) Floor plan
(C) Elevations
(D) Building section
Answer: Option B
202. The UCS icon represents the intersection of the ________.
(A) X-axis
(B) Y-axis
(C) Z-axis
Answer: Option D
203. This type of section is limited by a break line:
(A) Removed section
(B) Revolved section
(C) Broken-out section
(D) Half section
Answer: Option C
204. Architectural dimensioning standards allow for the placement of
dimensions inside the floor plan. These inside dimensions locate
interior __________.
(A) Door openings and walls
(B) Centers of cabinets
(C) Windows
Answer: Option A
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205. This type of thread is a thread on the inside of a member:
(A) Basic thread
(B) External thread
(C) Internal thread
(D) Major diameter thread
Answer: Option C
206. The building construction industry relies on sets of ________
drawings to construct homes and commercial buildings.
(A) Mechanical
(B) Isometric
(C) Architectural working
Answer: Option C
207. Understanding the Cartesian coordinate system will help the
beginning drafter ________.
(A) Control the accuracy of the drawing
(B) Produce a visible grid system
(C) Select a different text style
(D) Choose various line types
Answer: Option A
208. When filling an area with a hatch pattern in Auto-CAD the
drafter needs to be able to ________.
(A) See the entire bounding area to hatch
(B) Set Ortho on
(C) Turn ISO grid off
(D) Set the layer to Defpoints
Answer: Option A
209. There should be a visible gap between the wall and the ________
line.
(A) Dimension
(B) Extension
(C) Center
(D) Leader
Answer: Option B
210. In an assembly section, these parts should have their section lines
left out or shown solid black:
(A) Bolts
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(B) All fasteners
(C) Thin parts
(D) Rivets
Answer: Option C
211. When setting up a mechanical drawing in Auto-CAD the drafter
should set the units to ________.
(A) Fractional
(B) Decimal
(C) Architectural
(D) Metric
Answer: Option B
212. Elevation drawings will include information about ________.
(A) Roof pitch
(B) Siding
(C) Window style
Answer: Option D
213. Objects that are symmetric can be shown effectively using this
type of section:
(A) Quarter section
(B) Half section
(C) Full section
(D) Symmetric section
Answer: Option B
214. The architectural and construction industries use the United
States National CAD standard (NCS) system on many ________
projects.
(A) Residential
(B) Commercial
(C) Aerospace
(D) Publicly funded
Answer: Option D
215. This type of rapid prototyping system uses a laser to fuse
powdered metals, plastics, or ceramics:
(A) Fused deposition modeling
(B) Stereo lithography apparatus
(C) Solid ground curing
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(D) Selective laser sintering
Answer: Option D
216. When dimensioning piping drawings, you give the lengths of all
runs of this type:
(A) Straight
(B) Angular
(C) Filleted
(D) Transverse
Answer: Option A
217. The foundation contractor will work with the following
architectural plans.
(A) Foundation
(B) Site plan
(C) Floor plan
Answer: Option D
218. When using the direct entry method to create a horizontal line
exactly three inches long the drafter should ________ first.
(A) Pull the line from away from the starting point very carefully
(B) Insure that Ortho is on
(C) Enter 3 for the length of the line
(D) Read the coordinate position on the Dynamic Readout
Answer: Option B
219. The Auto-CAD command used to combine two or more primitive
shapes into a single complex 3-dimensional model is ________.
(A) Add
(B) Union
(C) Attach
(D) Form
Answer: Option B
220. This allows the performance of structures to be analyzed and
tested efficiently, accurately, and quickly:
(A) Computer-aided manufacturing
(B) Computer-aided design
(C) Computer-aided engineering
(D) Computer-aided prototyping
Answer: Option C
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221. This type of drawing shows two lines representing the pipe
diameter:
(A) Single-line
(B) Double-line
(C) Standard piping
(D) Centerline piping
Answer: Option B
222. A full scale technical drawing will have a scale factor of ________.
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 1 : 2
(C) 2 : 1
(D) 1 : 4
Answer: Option A
223. These types of pipes are generally connected with bell and spigot
joints or flanged joints:
(A) Soil and waste
(B) Water and gas
(C) Water and steam
(D) Gas and soil
Answer: Option B
224. On a floor plan the dashed line that appears approximately 24"
outside the exterior wall represents the __________.
(A) Sidewalk
(B) Roof overhang
(C) Plumbing drain lines
Answer: Option B
225. A line with a tapering width can be easily created by using the
__________ tool.
(A) Circle
(B) Ellipse
(C) Line
(D) Polyline
Answer: Option D
226. Center lines are used to locate or represent the centers of
________.
(A) Arcs
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(B) Circles
(C) Hidden round features
Answer: Option D
227. This is a solid shape that fits inside the mold and forms a hole in a
cooled cast metal or molten plastic object:
(A) Core
(B) Cavity
(C) Prototype
(D) Hole mold
Answer: Option A
228. Architectural drawings used to construct a house are often
plotted with a scale of ¼" = 1'-0". What scale is this?
(A) Quarter
(B) Half
(C) Full
(D) Double
Answer: Option A
229. This should show what changes were made, when, and by whom:
(A) Portable document
(B) Record of revisions
(C) Title form
(D) Revision drawings
Answer: Option B
230. When positioning this feature of perspective projection, the
centerline of the cone of visual rays should be directed toward the
approximate center of the object:
(A) Station point
(B) Vanishing point
(C) Horizon
(D) Ground line
Answer: Option A
231. When the receding lines are true length, and the projectors are at
45 degrees to the plane of projection, the oblique drawing is called
this:
(A) Cabinet projection
(B) Cavalier projection
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(C) Axonometric projection
(D) Isometric projection
Answer: Option B
232. This is a curve showing the displacement of the follower as
ordinates on a base line that represents one revolution of the cam:
(A) Displacement diagram
(B) Follower
(C) Cam cycle
(D) Reciprocation chart
Answer: Option A
233. Geometric primitives include shapes such as ________.
(A) Boxes
(B) Cylinders
(C) Wedges
Answer: Option D
234. In these drawings it is necessary to show cut surfaces and
distinguish between adjacent parts:
(A) Auxiliary drawings
(B) Assembly sections
(C) 3D assemblies
(D) Parts lists
Answer: Option B
235. Two-point perspective is also known as:
(A) Two-view perspective
(B) Regular perspective
(C) Parallel perspective
(D) Angular perspective
Answer: Option D
236. In an oblique drawing, equally spaced partial circles may be used
to show this:
(A) Symbolic thread pitch
(B) Ellipses
(C) Cavalier drawings
(D) Projection points
Answer: Option A
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237. These gears transmit power between shafts whose axes intersect
at any angle:
(A) Worm gears
(B) Spur gears
(C) Bevel gears
(D) Racks
Answer: Option C
238. This is used in applications for nonferrous construction:
(A) Copper tubing
(B) Steel pipe
(C) PVC pipe
(D) Iron tubing
Answer: Option A
239. In some circumstances an entire drawing can be inserted into a
different drawing as a block. When this is used the base point will
default to ________.
(A) 0, 0
(B) 10, 10
(C) 20, 20
(D) 30, 30
Answer: Option A
240. The type of line that projects from an object for the express
purpose of locating a dimension is a ________ line.
(A) Visible
(B) Hidden
(C) Extension
(D) Dimension
Answer: Option C
241. An accurate record of changes made to release drawings is
tracked via this:
(A) A revision block
(B) The basic title form
(C) Working drawings
(D) Portable documents
Answer: Option A
242. In perspective drawings this is placed between the observer and
the object:
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(A) Vanishing point / horizon
(B) Station point
(C) Ground line
(D) Plane of projection / picture plane
Answer: Option D
243. Most architectural drawings produced for field use by building
contractors are printed on architectural "D" size paper which
measures ________.
(A) 24" × 36"
(B) 18" × 24"
(C) 11" × 17"
(D) 34" × 22"
Answer: Option A
244. Newer versions of Auto-CAD utilize the ________ to make block
library management very easy.
(A) File / find
(B) Design Center
(C) File / search
Answer: Option B
245. If a designer is developing a plan for a project in which the entire
part is made out of ¾" thick plywood and he only wants to use one
view, he should use the ________ view.
(A) Front
(B) Top
(C) Right
(D) Back
Answer: Option A
246. These drawings are given to contractors to perform work or
manufacture individual parts:
(A) Assembly details
(B) 3D drawings
(C) Working drawings
(D) Skeleton assemblies
Answer: Option C
247. This is the intersection of the ground plane with the picture
plane:
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(A) Vanishing point
(B) Ground line
(C) Station point
(D) Horizon
Answer: Option B
248. When creating a block the drafter needs to pay particular
attention to selecting a base point because it determines the ________.
(A) Scale
(B) Rotation angle
(C) Insertion point
(D) Color
Answer: Option C
249. An Auto-CAD term that refers to a pre-drawn object which is
stored in a drawing file and can be inserted into any other drawing file
as needed is a ________.
(A) Block
(B) Brick
(C) Balloon
Answer: Option A
250. In multi-view drawing it is common practice to include three
views, the front, the top and the right side. If no dimensions are
required on the right side view the drafter can ________.
(A) Leave the view as is
(B) Eliminate the view
(C) Use the left view instead
Answer: Option B
251. In this type of drawing, vertical pipes may be revolved into the
horizontal plane:
(A) Standard view
(B) Elevation view
(C) Transverse piping
(D) Developed piping
Answer: Option D
252. When the drafter types the word BLOCK or selects the Make
Block tool from the Draw tool bar the ________ will appear.
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(A) Grid
(B) Block Text Box
(C) Block Definition Dialog
Answer: Option C
253. Most architectural firms and mechanical design companies utilize
different categories of blocks. These sets of blocks are usually housed
in ________.
(A) Block vaults
(B) Block libraries
(C) Block books
(D) Block references
Answer: Option B
254. In developing a multi-view drawing, the drafter can use a
________ line to help locate the top and right side views.
(A) Object
(B) Hidden
(C) Dimension
(D) Miter
Answer: Option D
255. Some common blocks used by architectural drafters include
________.
(A) Door swings
(B) Ceiling fans
(C) Appliances
Answer: Option D
256. With some imagination, traditional drafters could actually
produce a true 3-dimensional drawing.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
257. The parallel straight edge can be used for aligning the paper as
well as drawing horizontal lines.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
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258. Both the drafting machine and the parallel straight edge were
used on specially designed tables to aid the drafter in producing
technical drawings.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
259. When using a technical pencil to create a drawing the drafter
would usually select a soft lead to create a very light line.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
260. A line to be drawn perpendicular to a horizontal line can only be
drawn with a 45 degree triangle.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
261. An architect's scale is divided into 10ths of an inch.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
262. A drafter can use the 45 degree triangle to draw a 30 degree line.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
263. Every drafter and engineer continues to utilize both the architect
and engineer's scales.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
264. Prior to the development of computer aided drafting, drafters
relied on drawing boards, paper, and pencils to create technical
drawings.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
265. A 15 degree line can be easily created by arranging both the 45
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degree and 30/60 degree triangles.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
266. In orthographic projection objects can be presented at true size
or scaled at a proportion of their true size.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
267. The same general concepts and drafting standards apply to CAD
as to drawings created by hand.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
268. The meaning of each line on a technical drawing is indicated by
its width and its particular line style.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
269. Orthographic projections are a type of parallel projection.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
270. Drawings that use U.S. customary units do not follow
ANSI/ASME standards.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
271. The main difference between a CAD drawing and a freehand
sketch is in the appearance of lines.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
272. With regard to lettering, the shapes of letters are not described as
part of drawing standards.
(A) True
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(B) False
Answer: Option B
273. Scale is stated as a ratio of the number of drawing units to the
number of actual units.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
274. Axonometric, oblique, and perspective sketches show objects
pictorially.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
275. Drawing units must be clearly stated on the drawing.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
276. Drawing scale refers only to the reduction of the size of a drawn
object relative to the real object.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
277. Orthographic projections have projectors that are parallel to the
plane of projection.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
278. Multiview projection shows one or more necessary views of an
object.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
279. Three systems are used to arrange orthographic views: first,
second and third angle projection.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
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280. Visible lines always take precedence over hidden lines or
centerlines.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
281. Any object can be viewed from six mutually perpendicular views.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
282. A total of three principal views are arranged in a standard way.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
283. Height is shown in the left-side, top, right-side, and bottom views.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
284. A plane surface always projects either on edge or as a surface in
any view.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
285. If an edge is perpendicular to a plane of projection, it appears as
a point.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
286. The depth dimensions in the top and side views do not necessarily
correspond.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
287. The profile plane is the plane upon which the side view is
projected.
(A) True
(B) False
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Answer: Option A
288. The rear, left-side, front, and right-side views align horizontally.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
289. Width is shown in the rear, top, front, and bottom views.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
290. If an angle is in an inclined plane, it may be projected either
larger or smaller than the true angle depending on its position.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
291. Usually screws, bolts, shafts, tubes, and other elongated parts are
drawn in a vertical position in the front view.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
292. A normal surface is perpendicular to a plane of projection.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
293. In orthographic views, dashed lines represent features that would
be hidden behind other surfaces.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
294. Drawings are two-dimensional representations of objects that
allow you to record sizes and shapes precisely.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
295. Any principal view shows three of the four principal dimensions.
(A) True
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(B) False
Answer: Option B
296. A plane surface that is parallel to a plane of projection appears
on edge as a straight line.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
297. First-angle projection is primarily used in Europe and Asia.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
298. Hidden lines are typically included in section views.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
299. The Cutting Plane line reveals the type of material that the object
is to be made from.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
300. Removed sections should be labelled and arranged in order from
right to left.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
301. When a cutting plane line would obscure important details, just
the ends of the line outside the view and the arrows can be shown.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
302. The cutting plane is shown in a view adjacent to the sectional
view.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
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303. The pattern used for hatching a section can be something other
than diagonal lines.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
304. In offset sections, the bends in the cutting plane are typically
shown in the sectional view.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
305. Omit hidden lines from both halves of a half section whenever
possible.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
306. The visible edges of the object behind the cutting plane are not
cross-hatched.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
307. Quarter sections expose the interior of one half of the object and
the exterior of the other half.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
308. The visible lines adjacent to a revolved section may be broken out
if desired.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
309. When a part is cut fully in half, the resulting view is called a half
section.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
310. The ANSI 131 hatch pattern is the AutoCAD default hatch
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pattern.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
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311. The section lines in all hatched areas for an object must be
parallel.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
312. One of the outcomes of using section views in a technical drawing
is the elimination of hidden lines.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
313. In AutoCAD the Hatch tool is used to designate what pattern is to
be used for a section view.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
314. The angle of revolution should always be less than 45 degrees for
an aligned section.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
315. In technical drawing a section view is often used to reveal some or
all of an object's internal features.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
316. Section views are only used for mechanical drawings.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
317. The Cutting Plane line should be displayed at the same line
weight as object lines.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
318. When a cutting plane coincides with a centerline, the cutting
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plane line takes precedence.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
319. If you set the ANSI 131 hatch pattern to an angle of 45 degrees
the lines will be placed vertically.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
320. Ribs, webs, gear teeth, and other similar features are typically not
hatched with section lining, even if the cutting plane slices them.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
321. Section views cannot replace the normal top, front, side, or other
standard orthographic views.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
322. A section-lined area is always completely bounded by a visible
outline.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
323. The preferred cutting plane line style is made up of equal dashes
ending in arrowheads.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
324. The arrow points on either end of a Cutting Plane line indicate
the direction of view.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
325. It is not acceptable to use the general-purpose symbol at different
angles for different parts.
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(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
326. If technical drawings are used to communicate size and shape
descriptions, it is not important to worry about either the weight of a
line or the type of line being used.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
327. The ASME Y14.2M line thickness standard for visible lines is
0.8mm thick.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
328. A projection plane is an imaginary 2 dimensional plane that
needs to be parallel to the surface of the object.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
329. A "D" size architectural sheet measures 24" × 36".
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
330. In a set of architectural drawings the views illustrating the front,
back, and side of a house are called elevations.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
331. A visible line represents the continuous edge of an object being
illustrated.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
332. A three dimensional object can be constructed with only the
height and width dimensions given.
(A) True
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(B) False
Answer: Option B
333. Short dashed lines can be used to illustrate a visible feature.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
334. Multi-view drawings are usually comprised of the projected views
which illustrate the height, width, and depth of an object.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
335. The projection of geometric information such as lines, points, and
planes is usually referred to as orthographic projection.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
336. The inch is the commonly used unit for most metric engineering
drawings.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
337. Most mechanical drawings will include tolerance information in
or near the drawing title block.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
338. When designing mechanical devices, the designer must consider
what the allowable variation in size between mating parts can be.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
339. Fillet radii can be given in a general note.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
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340. An external cylindrical shape is dimensioned where it appears
circular.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
341. Where the decimal-inch dimension is used, a zero is not used
before the decimal point of values less than 1.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
342. It is always acceptable to dimension to a hidden feature.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
343. When a finished part is measured, it may vary slightly from the
exact dimension specified.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
344. Tolerance issues are primarily a concern in manufacturing rather
than in the design and drafting process.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
345. Dimensions are given in the form of distances, angles, and notes
only when using metric units.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
346. The nominal size of a feature is the exact measurement of the
feature after the tolerance has been applied to it.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
347. Drawings are usually made to a scale, which is indicated in the
title block.
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(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
348. A set of two mutually perpendicular datum planes is required for
coordinate dimensioning.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
349. Although an engineer has placed dimensions in specific locations
the drafter has the freedom to arrange them as he deems necessary.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
350. Typically, all dimension values and notes are lettered horizontally
and should read from the bottom of the sheet.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
351. A heavy straight line should be drawn under all dimension values
that are to scale.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
352. By adding dimensions to a technical drawing the drafter is
providing information about the size and location of features of a part.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
353. An extension line is a thin, dark, solid line that extends from a
point on the drawing to which a dimension refers.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
354. It is permissible to letter a dimension value over any line on the
drawing.
(A) True
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(B) False
Answer: Option B
355. It is more difficult to manufacture a part designed using two
decimal places than the same part using four decimal places.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
356. In a group of parallel dimension lines, the dimension values
should be staggered.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
357. When extension lines or centerlines cross visible object lines, gaps
should not be left in the lines.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
358. The American Society of Mechanical Engineers provides a set of
common standards used by industry for placement of dimensions.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
359. Longer dimension lines are nearest the object outline.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
360. A metric dimension that is a whole number does not show a
decimal point or a zero.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
361. Dimension lines should not cross extension lines.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
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362. Avoid dimensioning to hidden lines.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
363. The drafter should always try to dimension to the profile view of
an object when possible.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
364. Defining the datum reference frame is necessary to apply GDT
principles.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
365. Specific tolerances are based on the part's function and fit.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
366. Nominal size is used for general identification and is usually
expressed in decimals.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
367. Unilateral tolerances have traditionally been given on angles.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
368. Geometric dimensioning and tolerancing can simplify the
inspection process.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
369. Geometric tolerances state the maximum allowable variations of
a form or its position from the perfect geometry implied in the
drawing.
(A) True
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(B) False
Answer: Option A
370. In reference to geometric tolerancing, the term "geometric"
refers to forms such as planes, cylinders, and squares.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
371. Implied 90 degree angles typically have different general
tolerances applied to them than other angles covered by a general
note.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
372. Datum surfaces and features are used as references to control
other features.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
373. Allowance is the maximum clearance or minimum interference
specified to achieve a fit between two mating parts.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
374. The ISO has its own system of preferred metric limits and fits.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
375. Increased precision makes parts less expensive to manufacture.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
376. Tolerance is the total amount a specific dimension is permitted to
vary.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
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377. Large batches of parts may use statistical methods to control
quality where a sample of parts is inspected.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
378. Tolerances of form and position are typically not used to control
straightness.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
379. Hidden lines are usually included on assembly drawings.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
380. In assembly drawings, views should show how the parts fit
together and suggest the function of the unit.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
381. The U.S. Patent Office has strict requirements for patent
drawings.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
382. Working drawings are not legal documents.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
383. Patent drawings must be mechanically correct and constitute
complete illustrations of every feature of the invention claimed.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
384. Assembly drawings are usually not dimensioned.
(A) True
(B) False
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Answer: Option A
385. When multiple detail drawings are shown on one sheet, it is not
always necessary to identify each part.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
386. In working drawings, showing two detailed parts per sheet is
typically preferred.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
387. In assembly sections, bolts, nuts, and keys are typically left un-
sectioned.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
388. Patent applications do not always include line drawings.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
389. In 3D assemblies, the last part added to the assembly becomes the
parent part.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
390. To simplify drawings, it is permissible to list rather than draw
standard parts.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
391. Detail drawings are also called piece part drawings.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
392. A skeleton assembly can be used to define locations of individual
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parts in an assembly.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
393. Working drawings are a set of assembly and detail drawings.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
394. Detail drawings contain all of the necessary information to
manufacture a part.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
395. With constraint based modeling software, assembly constraints
create relationships between modeled parts.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
396. Non-isometric lines are equally foreshortened.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
397. In isometric drawings, hidden lines are typically omitted.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
398. Isometric sectioning is typically not used when drawing open or
irregularly shaped objects.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
399. In isometric drawings, an angle may project to appear larger, but
never smaller than the true angle depending on its position.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
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400. If a circle lies in a plane that is not parallel to the plane of
projection, the circle projects as an ellipse.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
401. If a circle lies in a plane that is not parallel to the plane of
projection, it still projects as a circle.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
402. Dimetric drawings have different foreshortening along all three
axis directions.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
403. Isometric drawings, unlike isometric projections, are drawn using
the full length measurements of the actual drawing and lack
foreshortening.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
404. Parallel partial ellipses equally spaced at the symbolic thread
pitch can be used to represent screw threads.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
405. An isometric drawing is about 50% smaller than the isometric
projection.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
406. Isometric drawings have equal foreshortening along each of the
three axis directions.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
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407. Perspective drawings are classified according to their number of
ground lines.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
408. All parallel lines that are not parallel to the picture plane vanish
at a point.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
409. All lines in the picture plane are shown in their true lengths.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
410. Lines that are parallel to the picture plane remain parallel to one
another and do not converge to a vanishing point.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
411. Shading pictorial drawings may lead to confusion when
describing shapes of objects.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
412. Perspective drawings are the least time-consuming types of
pictorials to draw by hand.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
413. The horizon in the perspective view should be drawn at the same
level above the ground line as the height of the station point.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
414. Only vertical lines behind the picture plane are foreshortened.
(A) True
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(B) False
Answer: Option B
415. Parallel lines converge toward a single point on the horizon called
the vanishing point.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
416. Most CAD programs produce only wireframe, not solid
perspective representations.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
417. The vanishing point is the intersection of the ground plane with
the picture plane.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
418. Using CAD, you are typically able to select viewing distance, focal
point, z-axis convergence, and arc resolution scale for perspective
representations.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
419. The picture plane should never be placed behind the station
point.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
420. The position of the observer's eye is called the station point.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
421. The picture plane can be placed either behind the object or in
front of the object.
(A) True
(B) False
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Answer: Option A
422. One-point perspective is also known as angular perspective.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
423. On electronic diagrams, you should indicate grouped components
by using dashed lines to enclose them in a box.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
424. On electronic diagrams, it is typically not necessary to identify
each separately replaceable part.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
425. Symbols should conform to an internationally or nationally
approved standard.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
426. For clarity, draw sections of multi-element parts separately in a
schematic.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
427. CAD component layout programs allow you to create the best
possible parts placement.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
428. Connecting lines for conductors are typically drawn horizontally
or vertically to minimize bends and crossovers.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
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429. Terminals or leads are frequently identified by colors or symbols,
which should be indicated on the diagram.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
430. Interrupted paths are not an acceptable method of simplifying a
diagram.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
431. When arranging symbols, it is typically not necessary to leave
blank spaces adjacent to symbols to allow for reference designations
and notes.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
432. Printed circuit boards are widely used and replace hand-wiring
methods.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
433. A plat is a map of a small area that is plotted from a land survey.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
434. Hydrographic maps convey information concerning bodies of
water.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
435. Engineering maps are typically made for special projects as an
aid to locations and construction.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
436. Differential levelling is the process of using a level and a telescope
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to determine differences in elevation.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
437. A plat typically shows elevations.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
438. Commonly, elevations are referenced to mean sea level.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
439. Monuments marking surveying points are typically not intended
to be permanent.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
440. Hatches are short, parallel, or slightly divergent lines drawn in
the direction of a slope.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
441. A contour interval is the horizontal distance between horizontal
planes passing through successive contours.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
442. Before highway construction begins, it is usually necessary to
plan the horizontal and vertical location and alignments.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
443. An elevation drawing consists of a series of intersecting straight
lines of accurately measured lengths.
(A) True
(B) False
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Answer: Option B
444. Topography is the science or art of map making.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
445. Nautical maps and charts show prominent landmarks used for
air navigators.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
446. The bearing of a line is its angle from magnetic south.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
447. On a single contour line, all points have the same elevation.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
448. Welding is often used for large structures that are difficult or
impossible to fabricate entirely in a shop.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
449. Weldments are composed of a number of separate pieces fastened
together as a unit.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
450. A seam weld is a type of arc and gas weld.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
451. The symbol for the desired weld is attached to the reference line,
or shank, of the arrow.
(A) True
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(B) False
Answer: Option A
452. Groove weld size is usually specified on the welding symbol.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
453. In a welding drawing, joints are all shown as they would appear
before welding.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
454. A fillet weld is a type of resistance weld.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
455. The usual fillet weld has equal legs.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
456. In a welding symbol, the arrow points to the joint where the weld
is to be made.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
457. A groove weld is a type of arc and gas weld.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
458. Type of weld is typically not specified on the welding symbol.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
459. Welding is often more expensive when only one or a few identical
parts are required.
(A) True
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(B) False
Answer: Option B
460. A spot weld is a type of resistance weld.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
461. Welding templates can simplify drawing welding symbols by
hand.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
462. By using the F-5 key you can switch from ISO Right to ISO Top
to ISO Back.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
463. The AutoCAD Center Mark tool can be used in an isometric
drawing as you would use it in any conventional orthographic
drawing.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
464. In an isometric drawing all horizontal lines are drawn on a 60
degree angle away from a given point.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
465. When creating a circle on an isometric flat surface you need to
use the circle tool.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
466. The Offset command can be used on vertical lines but not on
horizontal lines.
(A) True
(B) False
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Answer: Option A
467. The primary difference between isometric drawings and
perspective drawings is that in an isometric drawing both vertical and
horizontal lines remain parallel while in a perspective
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
468. Most solid modelling CAD programs will produce pictorial
drawings of 3-dimensional objects using either the isometric,
perspective, or both views.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
569. The bounding box method for creating an isometric drawing
works well in both traditional board drawing and in AutoCAD.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
470. An isometric drawing is a type of technical drawing used to
illustrate a mechanical part in true 3-dimensional form.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
471. When using AutoCAD to create an isometric drawing it is best to
set the grid to ISO.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
472. A detail drawing of a part is intended to provide the necessary
information needed to fabricate that part.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
473. Mechanical designers can expect to make several revisions to a
design before it is finalized.
(A) True
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(B) False
Answer: Option A
474. Problem identification has to do with the final stages in the
mechanical design process.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
475. The mechanical engineering industry relies on complex
mechanical drawings that are often referred to as working drawings.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
476. Drafters are often expected to follow the drafting standards as set
in the ASME Y14.5M-1994 publication.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
477. Mechanical drafters can revise any drawing at any time without
tracking those changes.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
478. Drafters do not need to worry about the number of decimal
places used on dimensioning a technical drawing.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
479. An assembly drawing is intended to illustrate a single mechanical
part.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
480. Designers utilize several methods for solving mechanical design
problems including brainstorming ideas.
(A) True
(B) False
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Answer: Option A
481. BOM stands for Bill of Materials.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
482. To create a hole through a 3-dimensional box the drafter can
place a 3-dimensional cylinder into the box and subtract it.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
483. A useful method for using the grid is to set it to Display Grid
Beyond Limits.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
484. In 2-dimensional drafting we work on the X and Y axis. By
adding the Z axis drafters can develop 3-dimensional models.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
485. The extrude tool will extrude a 2-dimensional shape even if the
corners are not closed.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
486. The union command only works on 2-dimensional objects.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
487. Drafters using AutoCAD version 2007 and newer will want to use
the workspace called 3D Modeling to create 3D models.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
488. UCS stands for Universal CAD Standards.
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(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
489. The 3-dimensional rotate tool is located on the 3-D View tool bar.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
490. Complex 3-dimensional shapes can be made by combining
different 3-D shapes with the union tool.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
491. AutoCAD is typical of parametric modeling programs.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
492. Personal or cultural expression in design is often referred to as
functional design.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
493. Idea or concept sketches are usually not considered to be
technical drawings.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
494. Computation and design sketches may be considered to be
technical drawings.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
495. Traditionally, design and manufacturing activities have taken
place in sequential order.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
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496. Enhancing product development is considered aesthetic design.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
497. Technical drawings require use of standards to communicate
worldwide.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
498. Before other communication methods developed, people informed
themselves through visual means, including pictures.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
499. Life cycle design means that all aspects of a product are
considered simultaneously.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
500. Graphic representation has developed along two distinct lines,
engineering and technical.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
501. Traditional, sequential engineering design is a logical approach,
but in practice it can often be wasteful.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
502. Product design often involves preparing analytical and physical
models of the product.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
503. In the design process, it is generally never necessary to return to a
previous stage and repeat the process.
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(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
504. Drawings and specifications typically do not control details of
maintenance.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
505. Using drawings to represent the design of objects to be built or
constructed is a relatively new concept.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
506. The engineering design process can address society's needs.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
507. The procedure for designing products typically follows a process.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
508. Perspective pictorials approximate the view produced by the
human eye.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
509. It is much easier for a drafter to use a CAD system rather than
traditional board drawing because corrections are much easier to
make.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
510. Solids are bounded by the surfaces that contain them.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
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511. A point represents a location in space and has no width, height, or
depth.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
512. A designer is likely to brainstorm several ideas before deciding on
a final plan.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
513. Process piping drafters would likely produce drawings for a
water treatment plant.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
514. Points may be represented by simple dots.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
515. An architect does not need to know how many people are going to
live in a house before he begins his design.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
516. Frequently a single view supplemented by notes and dimensions
can describe a simple object.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
517. In cabinet oblique projection, receding lines are drawn at full
scale.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
518. As you sketch a solid object, you should maintain at least two
different viewpoints.
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(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
519. In a pictorial sketch you can see the width, height, and depth of
an object in a single view.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
520. The end of an edge is a vertex.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
521. All professional engineers are good CAD drafters.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
522. An electronics drafter is typically involved in the development of
wiring schematics for large commercial buildings.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
523. Leonardo da Vinci did not rely on technical drawings for his
many inventions.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
524. An angle is formed by two intersecting lines.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
525. In cavalier oblique projection, the depth is represented at half
scale.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
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Engineering Books
Books
526. If the faces of a solid are equal regular polygons, it is a regular
polyhedron.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
527. In oblique drawing, circles and angles perpendicular to the
projection plane are true size and shape.
(A) rue
(B) False
Answer: Option B
528. A polygon is a planar area that is enclosed by either angular or
curved lines.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
529. A sphere has a double-curved exterior that can be formed by
revolving a circle around one of its diameters.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
530. A freehand sketch should show attention to proportion, clarity,
and correct line widths.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
531. An edge is formed where two surfaces intersect.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
532. Sketches are usually made to a specific scale.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
533. The most important rule in freehand sketching is to keep the
sketch in proportion.
(A) True
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(B) False
Answer: Option A
534. The degree of precision of a given sketch depends on its use.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
535. A set of written specifications is often included in a set of
technical drawings.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
536. Drafters usually work alone in their cubical without any
interaction with other drafters, designers, architects, or engineers.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
537. Modern computer drafters must have a thorough understanding
of industrial drafting standards.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
538. If a plane intersects a contoured surface, no line is drawn to
represent the edge.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
539. Right-hand and left-hand parts are mirror images and are made
to be interchangeable.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
540. A keyway is a small groove cut around the diameter of a cylinder,
often where it changes diameter.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
Engineering
Engineering Books
Books
541. A plane surface cannot intersect or be tangent to a contoured
surface.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
542. Small curves called runouts are used to represent fillets that
connect with plane surfaces tangent to cylinders.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
543. A fillet is a rounded exterior blend between surfaces.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
544. Knurl is a pattern form on a surface to provide for better
gripping or more surface area for attachment.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
545. A counterbore is a cylindrical recess around a hole, usually to
receive a bolt head or nut.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
546. Simplified conventional representations that deviate from true
orthographic projection may be used to enhance economy and clarity
in a drawing.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
547. A lug is a flattened collar or rim around a cylindrical part to
allow for attachment.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
548. When a curved surface intersects a plane surface, an edge is
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formed.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
549. It is not always possible to show all of the drawing views in
alignment on a sheet.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
550. A boss is a short raised protrusion above the surface of a part.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
551. The Offset tool is useful in setting up an auxiliary view.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
552. Auxiliary views allow principal faces of features that are parallel
to the standard planes of projection to appear true shape and size.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
553. A ruled surface is one that may be generated by sweeping a
generatrix along a path.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
554. A secondary view is always perpendicular to one of the principal
views.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
555. Solids bounded by warped surfaces have no group name.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
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Engineering Books
Books
556. The American Society of Mechanical Engineers provides a set of
standards for using auxiliary views.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
557. From primary auxiliary views, a secondary auxiliary view can be
drawn.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
558. Another method used to setup an auxiliary view is to align the
UCS with the inclined plane.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
559. The center line of a hidden cylinder feature appearing in the
front view should line up with the center mark in the corresponding
circle which appears in the auxiliary view.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
560. A single-curved surface is a developable ruled surface that can be
unrolled to coincide with a cylinder.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
561. An auxiliary view is used on technical drawings to project
features on an inclined plane away from one of the primary views in
such a way that features such as holes appear correctly.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
562. An intersection drawing is a flat representation or pattern that,
when folded together, creates a 3D object.
(A) True
(B) False
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Answer: Option B
563. Measurements are always made at right angles to the reference
lines or parallel to the projection lines.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
564. If an auxiliary view is symmetrical, and to save space or time, a
half auxiliary view may be drawn.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
565. A double-curved surface is generated by a curved line and has
straight-line elements.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
566. The intersection of a plane and a circular cylinder is called a
conic section.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
567. Reference lines are always at right angles to the projection lines
between the views.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
568. A primary auxiliary view does not need to be parallel to the
associated inclined plane.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
569. A reference plane appears as a line in an adjacent view.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
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Books
570. A Secondary Auxiliary view is a projection from the first
auxiliary view.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
571. Auxiliary views of 3-dimensional parts can be easily created with
AutoCAD.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
572. Warped surfaces cannot be unrolled or unfolded to lie flat.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
573. Generally, hidden lines should be omitted in auxiliary views.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
574. Revolution is a method of determining the true length and true
size of inclined and oblique lines and planes.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
575. An auxiliary view is an orthographic view that is not a standard
projection.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
576. Any inclined surface can be shown in true shape when the
appropriate auxiliary view is used.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
577. In net-shape manufacturing, the part is made as close to the final
specifications as possible to cut down on the cost of finishing
operations.
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(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
578. Laminated object manufacturing produces solid parts from
sheets of material such as paper or vinyl.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
579. Fused deposition modeling systems use molten plastic deposited
in layers corresponding to cross sections on the part.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
580. Cost and availability of raw and processed materials and
manufactured components are major concerns in manufacturing.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
581. Nanotechnology and nanofabrication are terms used to describe
extremely large-scale operations.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
582. Computer-aided manufacturing typically involves all phases of
manufacturing.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
583. Direct shell production casting is used in directly creating molds
for metal casting.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
584. Solid ground curing systems are the most common rapid
prototyping systems.
(A) True
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(B) False
Answer: Option B
585. In the design process for a product, it is not necessary that the
designer know the functions and performance expected of that
product.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
586. Manufacturing generally does not add value.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
587. Recycling or proper disposal of a product has become
increasingly important to the design process.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
588. Tests of prototypes should simulate the conditions under which
the product is to be used.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
589. Using computer-aided engineering, designs can be optimized and
modified.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
590. Manufacturing involves making products from raw materials.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
591. Design for assembly is not an important part of manufacturing
because assembly operations contribute little to product cost.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
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592. Concurrent engineering involves all disciplines in the early design
stages.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
593. Selective laser sintering apparatus uses laser-hardened resins to
form models.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
594. Rapid prototyping costs about the same, but takes less time than
traditional prototyping.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
595. Topographic shell fabrication is typically used to mold rapid
prototypes of small-scale parts.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
596. Tolerances in an architectural drawing are just as close as
tolerances used in mechanical drawings.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
597. Drafters usually begin a set of dimensions from the inside edge of
an exterior wall.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
598. The total dimension of the front side should match the total
dimension of the back side.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
599. The text style used on an architectural drawing is determined by
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the drafter.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
600. The dimensioning standards used by a typical architectural firm
were probably developed by the architects, designers, and drafters in
the firm.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
601. Text and dimensions are aligned on the drawing so they can be
easily read from the bottom and right side of the sheet.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
602. Dimensioning to the edges of doors and windows is the preferred
method by most architectural drafters.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
603. Architectural dimensioning usually relies on tick marks or dots
rather than arrow points.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
604. Minor errors in dimensioning on an architectural drawing can
result in major construction problems on the job site.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
605. Architectural drafters are usually expected to place dimensions to
the CAD standards established by the firm.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
606. ANSI has established three classes of fit.
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(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
607. Keys can be used to prevent movement between shafts and
wheels.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
608. Doubled threads are composed of two or more ridges running
side by side.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
609. A screw thread is a ridge of uniform section in the form of a helix
on the external or internal surface of a cylinder.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
610. The major diameter is the largest diameter of a screw thread.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
611. Pitch is equal to 12 divided by the number of threads per inch.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
612. Springs may be classified as either helical springs or flat springs.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
613. Rivets are not considered permanent fasteners.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
614. A machine pin is a mechanical device designed to store energy
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when deflected and to return the equivalent amount of energy when
released.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
615. Tap drill depth does not include the cone point of the drill.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
616. Thread length, finish, and proportions are some of the standard
characteristics of bolts and nuts.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
617. A torsion spring is a type of helical spring.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
618. An internal thread is a thread on the outside of a member.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
619. The axis of a screw is the longitudinal centerline through the
screw.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
620. The root is the top surface joining the two sides of a thread.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
621. The form of a thread is the cross section of the thread cut by a
plane containing the axis.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
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622. Multiple threads are composed of one ridge, and the lead is equal
to the pitch.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
623. A Class 3 fit is exceptionally high quality and recommended only
when high cost of precision is warranted.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
624. To be useful, drawings must be stored electronically in a manner
that satisfies the requirements for a static snapshot of the design at the
time of release.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
625. PERT or Gantt charts are used specifically to track time
engineering change orders.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
626. Efficient document management is only a minor part of effective
concurrent engineering practices.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
627. It is a good idea to have a single directory in which all employees
store work.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
628. Because electronically stored files can easily be altered, they may
not be considered acceptable for documentation.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
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629. Design milestones and reviews help ensure that the design process
is timely.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
630. Legal standards for how long engineering drawings need to be
retained are standardized in the United States.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
631. It is important to establish a procedure and name files
systematically.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
632. Electronic files for the most part have replaced the use of
microfilm and microfiche.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
633. After a drawing has been released, an engineering change order
is used to document and approve drawing changes.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
634. Design databases can be used to streamline the design process.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
635. Quality standards in some industries allow for electronic
documents to serve as a permanent record if they are properly
controlled.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
636. Individual companies often have their own standards of data
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management.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
637. In oblique projections, the projectors are perpendicular to each
other but are not parallel to the plane of projection.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
638. Circles, circular arcs, and other curved surfaces may be drawn
using offset measurements.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
639. In general, all types of sections for isometric drawing may be
applied to oblique drawing.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
640. In an oblique drawing, when an angle is specified in degrees in a
receding plane, you should convert the angle into circular
measurements.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
641. In CAD, oblique drawings are difficult to create because you
cannot use snap increments or draw similarly to drawing on grid
paper.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
642. If a complicated pictorial is needed, it may be easier and more
accurate to create a 3D model than an oblique drawing.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
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643. If you are sketching an ellipse in an oblique drawing, you can
block in the enclosing rectangle and sketch the ellipse tangent to its
sides.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
644. In oblique projections, one of the object's principal faces is
parallel to the plane of projection.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
645. When the receding lines are drawn to half size, the drawing is
known as a cabinet projection.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
646. AutoCAD is often referred to as the international standard by
which all other CAD programs are measured.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
647. UCS stands for User Coordinate System.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
648. The two principle components of a CAD system are the computer
and the software used to create technical drawings.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
649. You cannot use the Offset Tool to enlarge the size of a circle.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
650. Blocks are not an important element of architectural drawings.
(A) True
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(B) False
Answer: Option B
651. The floor plan is a bird's eye view of the house.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
652. If the roof pitch for a house is identified as 5/12 the height of the
roof rises 2 ½" for every 14" of horizontal run.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
653. A set of working drawings used to build a house is considered a
legal document.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
654. Although the drafter creates the working drawings, the accuracy
of the set of drawings is most often the responsibility of the design
architect.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
655. Developing the foundation plan is probably the starting point for
creating a set of architectural plans.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option B
656. A typical set of architectural working drawings would probably
include floor plans, foundation plans, elevations, section details, and
roof framing plans.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
657. The symbols used on electrical plans represent the standard
equipment used in homes and commercial buildings.
(A) True
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(B) False
Answer: Option A
658. AutoCAD's Design Center is used to manage various block
libraries used in architectural drawings.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
659. Elevation views generally include the front, right side, back, and
left side views.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: Option A
Engineering Drawing: Test 01

01. Cams are used to produce regular repeating motions.
(A) True
(B) False
02. In working drawings for worm gears, gear teeth are omitted and
the gear blank is represented conventionally.
(A) True
(B) False
03. In working drawings with teeth cut to a standard shape, individual
teeth typically are not shown.
(A) True
(B) False
04. On detail drawings, the worm and gear are usually drawn in the
same detail drawing.
(A) True
(B) False
05. When laying out a gear, the number of spaces should be twice the
number of teeth.
(A) True
(B) False
06. Working drawings for bevel gears give both the dimensions of the
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gear blank and the data necessary for cutting the teeth.
(A) True
(B) False
07. A worm is a screw with a thread shaped like a rack tooth.
(A) True
(B) False
08. The motion of the follower as it rises or falls depends on the shape
of the curves in the displacement diagram.
(A) True
(B) False
09. Teeth are spaced by laying out equal angles.
(A) True
(B) False
10. When the follower movement is in a plane parallel to the cam
shaft, an irregular cam must be employed.
(A) True
(B) False
11. ANSI/AGMA publishes detailed standards for gear design and
drawings.
(A) True
(B) False
12. Proportions and shapes of gear teeth are not standardized.
(A) True
(B) False
13. Gears are used to transmit power and rotating or reciprocating
motion from one machine part to another.
(A) True
(B) False
14. Bevel gear teeth have the same involute shape as teeth on spur
gears but are tapered toward the cone apex.
(A) True
(B) False
15. Worm wheels are similar to helical gears cut to conform to the
shape of the worm.
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(A) True
(B) False
16. Many different types of wood are used as structural timber.
(A) True
(B) False
17. AISC recommends one standard connection for attaching beams.
(A) True
(B) False
18. Shop drawings consist of detail drawings of all parts of the entire
structure showing exactly how the parts are to be made.
(A) True
(B) False
19. Structural steel is available in two standard shapes.
(A) True
(B) False
20. Structural steel shop drawings are usually calculated to the nearest
½ inch.
(A) True
(B) False
Answers: Engineering Drawing Test 01


01. Piping may also be shown in orthographic projection.
(A) True
(B) False
02. PVC joints are made with flared joints or solder joints.
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(A) True
(B) False
03. Valves are used to stop or regulate the flow of fluids in a pipeline.
(A) True
(B) False
04. Brass and copper pipe should be joined with fittings of copper-
base alloy to avoid corrosion.
(A) True
(B) False
05. A wide variety of plastic pipe, both rigid and flexible, is used in
construction.
(A) True
(B) False
06. Plastic pipe is lightweight and corrosion proof, but typically is not
resistant to chemicals.
(A) True
(B) False
07. Single-line drawings show the centerline of the pipe.
(A) True
(B) False
08. Axonometric drawings are seldom used in piping drawings.
(A) True
(B) False
09. In a developed piping drawing, horizontal pipes may be revolved
into the vertical plane so the entire installation can be shown on one
plane.
(A) True
(B) False
10. Brass and copper pipe is used in plumbing for supply, soil, waste,
drain, and vent lines.
(A) True
(B) False
11. Joints between pipes, fittings, and valves may be screwed or
flanged but not welded or soldered.
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(A) True
(B) False
12. When dimensioning piping drawings, it is not necessary to indicate
the size of each pipe.
(A) True
(B) False
13. Copper tubing is not suitable for process work, for plumbing, or
heating systems.
(A) True
(B) False
14. Copper pipe is brittle, and settling can cause fracture unless the
joints are sufficiently flexible.
(A) True
(B) False
15. Due to wood loss in surfacing, the nominal size of structural timber
is larger than its dressed thickness.
(A) True
(B) False
16. Brick and tile are some of the less common forms of building
construction.
(A) True
(B) False
17. Symbols are seldom used to indicate requirements for finished
surfaces on wood.
(A) True
(B) False
18. Riveting is seldom used as a connection method in structural steel.
(A) True
(B) False
19. Most CAD programs have structural shapes symbol libraries
available.
(A) True
(B) False
20. A piece mark should be shown wherever a separately handled
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member appears on the drawings.
(A) True
(B) False


01. The drafter can either type the word block or select the Make
Block tool in the Draw tool bar to create a block.
(A) True
(B) False
02. When creating a block consideration should be given to the base
point because it directly relates to the insertion point.
(A) True
(B) False
03. When creating a block the drafter should carefully draw it in the 0
layer.
(A) True
(B) False
04. The Insert Block tool is inside the Modify tool set.
(A) True
(B) False
05. In AutoCAD a block is a symbol or object that can be inserted into
a drawing.
(A) True
(B) False
06. When inserting a block into a drawing the drafter can easily
change the scale to match a particular scale factor for the drawing.
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(A) True
(B) False
07. Blocks containing tags or labels of data are called Data Blocks.
(A) True
(B) False
08. AutoCAD will allow the drafter to insert an entire drawing as a
block.
(A) True
(B) False
09. A group of blocks stored in a drawing file is commonly referred to
as a block library.
(A) True
(B) False
10. Exploding a block will allow the drafter to edit a block.
(A) True
(B) False
11. Reinforced concrete has embedded steel reinforcing bars.
(A) True
(B) False
12. The surface of a wood product is finished by milling or planing.
(A) True
(B) False
13. Tolerance stacking has little effect on the fit of steel members.
(A) True
(B) False
14. Traditionally, brick and tile are built into masonry forms, and
units are placed one at a time in a soft mortar.
(A) True
(B) False
15. The version of AutoCAD being used can be checked by reading top
blue line or title bar located above the pull down menu bar.
(A) True
(B) False
16. When beginning a new drawing in AutoCAD the default start-up
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layer will be the Defpoints layer.
(A) True
(B) False
17. In order to create a straight line in the AutoCAD graphics window
the drafter is expected to pick a starting point and ending point.
(A) True
(B) False
18. One very important tool to learn is the undo tool. It is located on
the Standard Tool Bar
(A) True
(B) False
19. The line tool icon is located on the Modify Tool Bar.
(A) True
(B) False
20. It is very important to learn the relationship between line types,
colours and layers.
(A) True
(B) False

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Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning:
01. In a refrigeration cycle, the flow of refrigerant is controlled by

(A) Compressor
(B) Condenser
(C) Evaporator
(D) Expansion valve
Answer: Option D
02. The colour of the flame of halide torch, in case of leakage of Freon
refrigerant, will change to
(A) Bright green
(B) Yellow
(C) Red
(D) Orange
Answer: Option A
03. For air conditioning the operation theatre in a hospital, the
percentage of outside air in the air supplied is
(A) Zero
(B) 20
(C) 50
(D) 100
Answer: Option D
04. In vapour compression cycle using NH₃ as refrigerant, initial
charge is filled at
(A) Suction of compressor
(B) Delivery of compressor
(C) High pressure side close to receiver
(D) Low pressure side near receiver
Answer: Option C
05. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when it is not
affected by the moisture present in the air, is called
(A) Wet bulb temperature
(B) Dry bulb temperature
(C) Dew point temperature
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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06. Absorption system normally uses the following refrigerant
(A) Freon-11
(B) Freon-22
(C) CO2
(D) Ammonia
Answer: Option D
(A) In vapour absorption refrigerator, the compression of refrigerant is
avoided.
(B) Sub-cooling can be achieved by circulating more quantity of
cooling water through the condenser.
(C) In vapour compression refrigeration, the vapour is drawn in the
compressor cylinder during its suction stroke and is compressed
adiabatically during the compression stroke.
Answer: Option D
08. Allowable pressure on high pressure side or ammonia absorption
system is of the order of
(B) Slightly above atmospheric pressure
(C) 24 bars
(D) 56 bars
Answer: Option D
09. The C.O.P. of a Carnot refrigerator in winter will be _________ as
compared to C.O.P. in summer.
(A) Same
(B) Lower
(C) Higher
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
10. Chaperon equation is a relation between
(A) Temperature, pressure and enthalpy
(B) Specific volume and enthalpy
(C) Temperature and enthalpy
(D) Temperature, pressure, specific volume and enthalpy
Answer: Option D
11. During humidification process, __________ increases.
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(B) Relative humidity
(C) Dry bulb temperature
(D) Specific humidity
Answer: Option B
12. Where does the lowest temperature occur in a vapour compression
cycle?
(A) Condenser
(B) Evaporator
(C) Compressor
(D) Expansion valve
Answer: Option B
13. The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of
moist air to the mass of water vapour in the same volume of saturated
air at the same temperature and pressure, is called
(A) Humidity ratio
(C) Absolute humidity
(D) Degree of saturation
Answer: Option B
14. Under cooling in a refrigeration cycle
(A) Increases C.O.P
(B) Decreases C.O.P
(C) C.O.P remains unaltered
(D) Other factors decide C.O.P
Answer: Option A
15. In a domestic vapour compression refrigerator, the refrigerant
commonly used is
(A) CO₂
(B) Ammonia
(C) R-12
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
16. The COP of a vapour compression plant in comparison to vapour
absorption plant is
(A) More
(B) Less
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(C) Same
(D) More/less depending on size of plant
Answer: Option A
17. The fluids used in Electrolux refrigerator are
(A) Water and hydrogen
(B) Ammonia and hydrogen
(C) Ammonia, water and hydrogen
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
18. Domestic refrigerator working on vapour compression cycle uses
the following type of expansion device
(A) Electrically operated throttling valve
(B) Manually operated valve
(C) Thermostatic valve
(D) Capillary tube
Answer: Option D
19. The condition of refrigerant after passing through the expansion
or throttle valve, in a vapour compression system is
(A) High pressure saturated liquid
(B) Wet vapour
(C) Very wet vapour
(D) Dry vapour
Answer: Option C
20. An important characteristic of absorption system of refrigeration
is
(A) Noisy operation
(B) Quiet operation
(C) Cooling below 0°C
(D) Very little power consumption
Answer: Option B
21. The centrifugal compressors are generally used for refrigerants
that require
(A) Small displacements and low condensing pressures
(B) Large displacements and high condensing pressures
(C) Small displacements and high condensing pressures
(D) Large displacements and low condensing pressures
Answer: Option D
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22. Rick up the incorrect statement
(A) Lithium bromide used in vapour absorption cycle is non volatile
(B) Lithium bromide plant can't operate below 0°C
(C) A separator is used in lithium bromide plant to remove the
unwanted water vapour by condensing
(D) Concentration of solution coming out of lithium bromide generator
is more in comparison to that entering the generator
Answer: Option C
23. During dehumidification process, the relative humidity
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
24. The refrigerant widely used in domestic refrigerators is
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) R-12
Answer: Option D
25. The moisture in a refrigerant is removed by
(A) Evaporator
(B) Safety relief valve
(C) Dehumidifier
(D) Driers
Answer: Option D
26. During sensible cooling of air ________ decreases.
Answer: Option C
27. At lower temperatures and pressures, the latent heat of
vaporisation of a refrigerant
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Remain same
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Answer: Option B
28. The wet bulb depression is zero when relative humidity is
(A) Zero
(B) 0.5
(C) 0.75
(D) 1.0
Answer: Option D
29. The C.O.P of a refrigeration cycle with increase in evaporator
temperature, keeping condenser temperature constant, will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(D) May increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used
Answer: Option A
30. During humidification process, dry bulb temperature
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
31. The vapour pressure of refrigerant should be
(A) Lower than atmospheric pressure
(B) Higher than atmospheric pressure
(C) Equal to atmospheric pressure
Answer: Option B
(A) The performance of the vapour compression refrigerator varies
considerably with both vaporising and condensing temperatures.
(B) In vapour compression cycle, the useful part of the heat transfer is
at the condenser.
(C) In ammonia-hydrogen (Electrolux) refrigerator, no compressor,
pump or fan is required.
(D) The effect of under-cooling the liquid refrigerant is to decrease the
coefficient of performance.
Answer: Option D
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33. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant
before passing through the condenser is
(A) Saturated liquid
(B) Wet vapour
(C) Dry saturated vapour
(D) Superheated vapour
Answer: Option D
34. For proper refrigeration in a cabinet, if the temperature and
vapour pressure difference between cabinet and atmosphere is high,
then
(A) Bigger cabinet should be used
(B) Smaller cabinet should be used
(C) Perfectly tight vapour seal should be used
(D) Refrigerant with lower evaporation temperature should be used
Answer: Option C
35. During sensible heating of air _________ decreases.
Answer: Option B
36. One ton refrigeration corresponds to
(A) 50 kcal/ min
(B) 50 kcal/ hr
(C) 80 kcal/ min
(D) 80 kcal/ hr
Answer: Option A
37. The process, generally used in winter air-conditioning to warm
and humidity the air, is called
(A) Humidification
(B) Dehumidification
(C) Heating and humidification
(D) Cooling and dehumidification
Answer: Option C
38. The leaks in a refrigeration system using Freon are detected by
(A) Halide torch which on detection produces greenish flame lighting
(B) Sulphur sticks which on detection gives white smoke
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(C) Using reagents
(D) Smelling
Answer: Option A
39. The reduced ambient air cooling system has
(A) One cooling turbine and one heat exchanger
(B) One cooling turbine and two heat exchangers
(C) Two cooling turbines and one heat exchanger
(D) Two cooling turbines and two heat exchangers
Answer: Option C
40. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is
saturated liquid
(A) After passing through the condenser
(B) Before passing through the condenser
(C) After passing through the expansion throttle valve
(D) Before entering the expansion valve
Answer: Option A
41. Which of the following refrigerant has the maximum ozone
depletion potential in the stratosphere?
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) Fluorine
Answer: Option D
42. If the evaporator temperature of a plant is lowered, keeping the
condenser temperature constant, the h.p. of compressor required will
be
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) More/less depending on rating
Answer: Option B
43. Hydrogen is used in Electrolux refrigeration system so as to
_________ the rate of evaporation of the liquid ammonia passing
through the evaporator.
(A) Equalise
(B) Reduce
(C) Increase
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
44. Pick up the wrong statement. A refrigerant should have
(A) Tow specific heat of liquid
(B) High boiling point
(C) High latent heat of vaporisation
(D) Higher critical temperature
Answer: Option B
45. The pressure at the inlet of a refrigerant compressor is called
(B) Discharge pressure
(C) Critical pressure
(D) Back pressure
Answer: Option A
46. Condensing temperature in a refrigerator is the temperature
(A) Of cooling medium
(B) Of freezing zone
(C) Of evaporator
(D) At which refrigerant gas becomes liquid
Answer: Option D
47. In aircraft, air refrigeration Cycle is used because of
(A) Low weight per tonne of refrigeration
(B) High heat transfer rate
(C) Low temperature at high altitudes
(D) Higher coefficient of performance
Answer: Option A
48. Highest pressure encountered in a refrigeration system should be
(A) Critical pressure of refrigerant
(B) Much below critical pressure
(C) Much above critical pressure
(D) Near critical pressure
Answer: Option B
49. The refrigerant used for absorption refrigerators working on heat
from solar collectors is a mixture of water and
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Sulphur dioxide
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(C) Lithium bromide
(D) R-12
Answer: Option C
50. One ton of the refrigeration is
(A) The standard unit used in refrigeration problems
(B) The cooling effect produced by melting 1 ton of ice
(C) The refrigeration effect to freeze 1 ton of water at 0°C into ice at
0°C in 24 hours
(D) The refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice at NTP conditions
Answer: Option C
51. The dry bulb temperature during sensible heating of air
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
52. Vertical lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show constant
(A) Pressure lines
(B) Temperature lines
(C) Total heat lines
(D) Entropy lines
Answer: Option C
53. During heating and dehumidification process, dry bulb
temperature
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
54. The evolution of heat of solution takes place in ammonia
absorption plant when
(A) Ammonia vapour goes into solution
(B) Ammonia vapour is driven out of solution
(C) Lithium bromide mixes with ammonia
(D) Weak solution mixes with strong solution
Answer: Option A
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55. In a pressure enthalpy chart, the space to the left of the saturated
liquid line represents
(A) Wet vapour region
(B) Superheated vapour region
(C) Sub-cooled liquid region
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
56. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is high
pressure saturated liquid
(C) After passing through the expansion or throttle valve
Answer: Option D
57. In a bootstrap air evaporative cooling system, the evaporator is
provided
(A) Between the combustion chamber and the first heat exchanger
(B) Between the first heat exchanger and the secondary compressor
(C) Between the secondary compressor and the second heat exchanger
(D) Between the second heat exchanger and the cooling turbine
Answer: Option D
58. The COP of a domestic refrigerator
(A) Is less than 1
(B) Is more than 1
(C) Is equal to 1
(D) Depends upon the make
Answer: Option B
59. The air cooling system mostly used in transport type aircrafts is
(A) Simple air cooling system
(B) Simple evaporative air cooling system
(C) Bootstrap air cooling system
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
60. The higher temperature in vapour compression cycle occurs at
(A) Receiver
(B) Expansion valve
(C) Evaporator
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(D) Compressor discharge
Answer: Option D
61. Dry bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a
thermometer, when
(A) It is not affected by the moisture present in the air
(B) Its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air
(C) The moisture present in it begins to condense
Answer: Option A
62. In refrigerators, the temperature difference between the
evaporating refrigerant and the medium being cooled should be
(A) High, of the order of 25°
(B) As low as possible (3 to 11°C)
(C) Zero
(D) Any value
Answer: Option B
63. The evaporator changes the low pressure liquid refrigerant from
the expansion valve into
(A) High pressure liquid refrigerant
(B) Low pressure liquid and vapour refrigerant
(C) Low pressure vapour refrigerant
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
64. Choose the correct statement
(A) A refrigerant should have low latent heat
(B) If operating temperature of system is low, then refrigerant with
low boiling point should be used
(C) Pre-cooling and sub-cooling bf refrigerant are same
(D) Superheat and sensible heat of a refrigerant are same
Answer: Option B
65. Carbon dioxide is
(A) Colourless
(B) Odourless
(C) Non-flammable
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
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66. Reducing suction pressure in refrigeration cycle
(A) Lowers evaporation temperature
(B) Increases power required per ton of refrigeration
(C) Lowers compressor capacity because vapour is lighter
Answer: Option D
67. The coefficient of performance of a domestic refrigerator is
________ as compared to a domestic air-conditioner.
(A) Same
(B) Less
(C) More
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
68. If a gas is to be liquefied, its temperature must be
(A) Increased to a value above its critical temperature
(B) Reduced to a value below its critical temperature
(C) Equal to critical temperature
Answer: Option C
69. The capacity of a domestic refrigerator is in the range of
(A) 0.1 to 0.3 TR
(B) 1 to 3 TR
(C) 3 to 5 TR
(D) 5 to 7 TR
Answer: Option A
70. The lowest thermal diffusivity is of
(A) Iron
(B) Lead
(C) Aluminium
(D) Rubber
Answer: Option D
71. In a vapour compression cycle, the refrigerant immediately after
expansion valve is
(A) Liquid
(B) Sub-cooled liquid
(C) Saturated liquid
(D) Wet vapour
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Answer: Option D
72. Which of the following statement is correct for ammonia as a
refrigerant?
(A) It is toxic to mucous membranes.
(B) It requires large displacement per TR compared to fluoro carbons.
(C) It reacts with copper and its alloys.
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
73. Critical pressure of a liquid is the pressure
(A) Above which liquid will remain liquid
(B) Above which liquid becomes gas
(C) Above which liquid becomes vapour
(D) Above which liquid becomes solid
Answer: Option A
74. The optimum effective temperature for human comfort is
(A) Higher in winter than in summer
(B) Lower in winter than in summer
(C) Same in winter and summer
(D) Not dependent on season
Answer: Option B
75. Formation of frost on evaporator in refrigerator
(A) Results in loss of heat due to poor heat transfer
(B) Increases heat transfer rate
(C) Is immaterial
(D) Can be avoided by proper design
Answer: Option A
76. A one tonne refrigerating machine means that
(A) One tonne is the total mass of machine
(B) One tonne refrigerant is used
(C) One tonne of water can be converted into ice
(D) One tonne of ice when melts from and at 0° C in 24 hours, the
refrigeration effect is equivalent to 210 kJ/min
Answer: Option D
77. The suction pipe diameter of refrigerating unit compressor in
comparison to delivery side is
(A) Bigger
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(B) Smaller
(C) Equal
(D) Smaller/bigger depending on capacity
Answer: Option A
78. The coefficient of performance (C.O.P.) of a refrigerator working
as a heat pump is given by
(A) (C.O.P.)P = (C.O.P.)R + 2
(B) (C.O.P.)P = (C.O.P.)R + 1
(C) (C.O.P)P = (C.O.P)R - 1
(D) (C.O.P)P = (C.O.P)R
Answer: Option B
79. Presence of moisture in a refrigerant affects the working of
(A) Compressor
(B) Condenser
(C) Evaporator
(D) Expansion valve
Answer: Option D
80. During heating and humidification, the final relative humidity of
air
(A) Can be lower or higher than that of the entering air
(B) Is lower than that of the entering air
(C) Is higher than that of the entering air
Answer: Option A
81. Which of the following cycles uses air as the refrigerant?
(A) Ericson
(B) Stirling
(C) Carnot
(D) Bell Coleman
Answer: Option D
82. The curved lines on a psychrometric chart indicates
(A) Dry bulb temperature
(B) Wet bulb temperature
(D) Relative humidity
Answer: Option D
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83. On the pressure-enthalpy diagram, condensation and de-
superheating is represented by a horizontal line because the process
(A) Involves no change in volume
(B) Takes place at constant temperature
(C) Takes place at constant entropy
(D) Takes place at constant pressure
Answer: Option D
84. When the temperature of the surrounding is higher than the
temperature of the body, then the heat loss by convection from the
body to the surrounding will be
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Zero
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
85. The general rule for rating refrigeration systems (excepting for
CO₂ system) is to approximate following h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(A) 0.1 to 0.5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(B) 0.5 to 0.8 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(C) 1 to 2 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
(D) 2 to 5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
Answer: Option C
86. The atmospheric air at dry bulb temperature of 15°C enters a
heating coil maintained at 40°C. The air leaves the heating coil at
25°C. The bypass factor of the heating coil is
(A) 0.376
(B) 0.4
(C) 0.6
(D) 0.67
Answer: Option C
87. The change in evaporator temperature in a refrigeration cycle, as
compared to change in condenser temperature, influences the value of
C.O.P.
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Equally
(D) Unpredictable
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Answer: Option A
88. Most thermostatic expansion valves are set for a superheat of
(A) 5°C
(B) 10°C
(C) 15°C
(D) 20°C
Answer: Option A
89. In a refrigeration system, heat absorbed in comparison to heat
rejected is
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
(D) More for small capacity and less for high capacity
Answer: Option B
90. A thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system
(A) Ensures the evaporator completely filled with refrigerant of the
load
(B) Is suitable only for constant load systems
(C) Maintains different temperatures in evaporator in proportion to
load
Answer: Option A
91. Freon group of refrigerants are
(A) Inflammable
(B) Toxic
(C) Non-inflammable and toxic
(D) Nontoxic and non-inflammable
Answer: Option D
92. The boiling point of ammonia is
(A) -10.5°C
(B) -30°C
(C) -33.3°C
(D) -77.7°C
Answer: Option C
93. For obtaining high COP, the pressure range of compressor should
be
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(A) High
(B) Low
(C) Optimum
(D) Any value
Answer: Option B
94. A reversible engine has ideal thermal efficiency of 30%. When it is
used as a refrigerating machine with all other conditions unchanged,
the coefficient of performance will be
(A) 1.33
(B) 2.33
(C) 3.33
(D) 4.33
Answer: Option B
95. Cooling water is required for following equipment in ammonia
absorption plant
(A) Condenser
(B) Evaporator
(C) Absorber
(D) Condenser, absorber and separator (rectifier)
Answer: Option D
96. The freezing point of sulphur dioxide is
(A) -56.6°C
(B) -75.2°C
(C) -77.7°C
(D) -135.8°C
Answer: Option B
97. Mass flow ratio of NH₃ in comparison to Freon12 for same
refrigeration load and same temperature limits is of the order of
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 1 : 9
(C) 9 : 1
(D) 1 : 3
Answer: Option B
98. In a refrigeration system, the expansion device is connected
between the
(A) Compressor and condenser
(B) Condenser and receiver
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(C) Receiver and evaporator
(D) Evaporator and compressor
Answer: Option C
99. The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycle
(A) Rankine
(B) Carnot
(C) Reversed Rankine
(D) Reversed Carnot
Answer: Option D
100. In actual air-conditioning applications for R-12 and R-22, and
operating at a condenser temperature of 40° C and an evaporator
temperature of 5° C, the heat rejection factor is about
(A) 1
(B) 1.25
(C) 2.15
(D) 5.12
Answer: Option B
101. Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of
(A) 0.1 ton
(B) 5 tons
(C) 10 tons
(D) 40 tons
Answer: Option A
102. A human body feels comfortable when the heat produced by the
metabolism of human body is equal to the
(A) Heat dissipated to the surroundings
(B) Heat stored in the human body
(C) Sum of (A) and (B)
(D) Difference of (A) and (B)
Answer: Option C
103. The bank of tubes at the back of domestic refrigerator is
(A) Condenser tubes
(B) Evaporator tubes
(C) Refrigerant cooling tubes
(D) Capillary tubes
Answer: Option A
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104. In a lithium bromide absorption refrigeration system
(A) Lithium bromide is used as a refrigerant and water as an absorbent
(B) Water is used as a refrigerant and lithium bromide as an absorbent
(C) Ammonia is used as a refrigerant and lithium bromide as an
absorbent
Answer: Option B
105. The condition of refrigerant after passing through the condenser
in a vapour compression system is
(B) Wet vapour
Answer: Option A
106. The value of C.O.P in vapour compression cycle is usually
(A) Always less than unity
(B) Always more than unity
(C) Equal to unity
Answer: Option B
107. The C.O.P. of a refrigerator working on a reversed Carnot cycle
is (where T₁ = Lowest absolute temperature, and T₂ = Highest absolute
temperature)
(A) T₁ / (T₂ - T₁)
(B) (T₂ - T₁)/T₁
(C) (T₁ - T₂)/T₁
(D) T₂/ (T₂ - T₁)
Answer: Option A
108. Which of the following is not a desirable property of a
refrigerant?
(A) High risibility with oil
(B) Low boiling point
(C) Good electrical conductor
(D) Large latent heat
Answer: Option C
109. The refrigerant after condensation process is cooled below the
saturation temperature before throttling. Such a process is called
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(A) Sub-cooling or under-cooling
(B) Super-cooling
(C) Normal cooling
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
110. A certain refrigerating system has a normal operating suction
pressure of 10 kg/cm gauge and condensing pressure of about 67
kg/cm. The refrigerant used is
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Freon
(D) Brine
Answer: Option B
111. The capillary tube, as an expansion device, is used in
(B) Water coolers
(C) Room air conditioners
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
112. If a heat pump cycle operates between the condenser temperature
of +27°C and evaporator temperature of -23°C, then the Carnot COP
will be
(A) 0.2
(B) 1.2
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer: Option D
(A) The human body can lose heat even if its temperature is less than
the atmospheric temperature.
(B) The increase in air movement increases the evaporation from the
human body.
(C) The warm air increases the rate of radiation of heat from the
human body.
Answer: Option D
114. In a flooded evaporator refrigerator, an accumulator at suction of
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compressor is used to
(A) Collect liquid refrigerant and prevent it from going to compressor
(B) Detect liquid in vapour
(C) Superheat the vapour
(D) Collect vapours
Answer: Option A
115. The minimum temperature to which water can be cooled in a
cooling tower is
(A) Dew point temperature of air
(B) Wet bulb temperature of air
(C) Dry bulb temperature of air
(D) Ambient air temperature
Answer: Option B
116. Highest temperature encountered in refrigeration cycle should be
(A) Near critical temperature of refrigerant
(B) Above critical temperature
(C) At critical Temperature
(D) Much below critical temperature
Answer: Option D
117. The operating pressure for refrigerating units using R-12 as a
refrigerant is
(A) 2 bar
(B) 8 bar
(C) 15 bar
(D) 30 bar
Answer: Option B
118. The domestic refrigerator uses following type of compressor
(A) Centrifugal
(B) Axial
(C) Miniature sealed unit
(D) Piston type reciprocating
Answer: Option D
119. A bootstrap air cooling system has
(A) One heat exchanger
(B) Two heat exchangers
(C) Three heat exchangers
(D) Four heat exchangers
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Answer: Option B
120. Critical temperature is the temperature above which
(A) A gas will never liquefy
(B) A gas will immediately liquefy
(C) Water will evaporate
(D) Water will never evaporate
Answer: Option A
(A) The constant enthalpy lines are also constant wet bulb temperature
lines.
(B) The wet bulb and dry bulb temperature are equal at saturation
condition.
(C) The wet bulb temperature is a measure of enthalpy of moist air.
Answer: Option D
122. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is very
wet vapour
(D) Before entering the compressor
Answer: Option D
123. During cooling and dehumidification, dry bulb temperature
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
124. Ammonia absorption refrigeration cycle requires
(A) Very little work input
(B) Maximum work input
(C) Nearly same work input as for vapour compression cycle
(D) Zero work input
Answer: Option A
125. Which of the following refrigerant has the highest freezing point.
(A) Ammonia
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(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) R-12
Answer: Option B
126. A standard ice point temperature corresponds to the temperature
of
(A) Water at 0°C
(B) Ice at 4°C
(C) Solid and dry ice
(D) Mixture of ice and water under equilibrium conditions
Answer: Option D
127. The sub-cooling in a refrigeration cycle
(A) Does not alter C.O.P.
(B) Increases C.O.P.
(C) Decreases C.O.P.
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
128. The condensing pressure due to the presence of non-condensable
gases, as compared to that actually required for condensing
temperatures without non-condensable gases,
(A) Will be higher
(B) Will be lower
(C) Will remain unaffected
(D) May be higher or lower depending upon the nature of non-
condensable gases
Answer: Option A
129. The Freon group of refrigerants are
(A) Halocarbon refrigerants
(B) Zoetrope refrigerants
(C) Inorganic refrigerants
(D) Hydrocarbon refrigerants
Answer: Option A
130. For better C.O.P of refrigerator, the pressure range
corresponding to temperature in evaporator and condenser must be
(A) Small
(B) High
(C) Equal
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(D) Anything
Answer: Option A
131. In vapour compression refrigeration system, refrigerant occurs as
liquid between
(A) Condenser and expansion valve
(B) Compressor and evaporator
(C) Expansion valve and evaporator
(D) Compressor and condenser
Answer: Option C
132. The wet bulb depression indicates _________ humidity of the air.
(A) Absolute
(B) Relative
(C) Specific
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
133. The sensible heat factor during the heating and humidification
process is given by (where h₁ = Enthalpy of air entering the heating
coil, h₂ = Enthalpy of air leaving the heating coil, and hA = Enthalpy of
air at the end of humidification process)
(A) (hA - h2)/ (h1 - h2)
(B) (h2 - hA)/ (h1 - h2)
(C) (h1 - h2)/ (hA - h2)
(D) (hA - h1)/ (h2 - h1)
Answer: Option D
134. The lower horizontal line of the refrigeration cycle plotted on
pressure-enthalpy diagram represents
(A) Condensation of the refrigerant vapour
(B) Evaporation of the refrigerant liquid
(C) Compression of the refrigerant vapour
(D) Metering of the refrigerant liquid
Answer: Option B
135. The leakage in a refrigeration system using Freon is detected by
(A) Halide torch
(B) Sulphur sticks
(C) Soap and water
(D) All of these
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Answer: Option A
136. The conditioned air supplied to the room must have the capacity
to take up
(A) Room sensible heat load only
(B) Room latent heat load only
(C) Both room sensible heat and latent heat loads
Answer: Option C
137. Moisture in Freon refrigeration system causes
(A) Ineffective refrigeration
(B) High power consumption
(C) Freezing automatic regulating valve
(D) Corrosion of whole system
Answer: Option C
138. The boiling point of ________ is 10.5°C.
(A) Ammonia
(B) R-12
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) Carbon dioxide
Answer: Option C
139. The refrigeration effect in a dry evaporator compared to flooded
evaporator in a similar plant is
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) More or less depending on ambient conditions
Answer: Option C
140. The index which correlates the combined effects of air
temperature, relative humidity and air velocity on the human body, is
known as
(A) Mean radiant temperature
(B) Effective temperature
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
141. Which of the following refrigerants has lowest freezing point?
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(A) Freon-12
(B) NH3
(C) CO2
(D) Freon-22
Answer: Option D
142. The thermostatic expansion valve is used in __________ type of
evaporators.
(A) Flooded
(B) DX coil
(C) Dry
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
143. The boiling point of ammonia is
(A) 100°C
(B) 50°C
(C) 33.3°C
(D) 0°C
Answer: Option C
144. The specific humidity during heating and humidification process.
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
145. The relative coefficient of performance is
(A) Actual COP/theoretical COP
(B) Theoretical COP/actual COP
(C) Actual COP × theoretical COP
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
146. The wet bulb temperature at 100% relative humidity is ________
dew point temperature.
(A) Same as
(B) Lower than
(C) Higher than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
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147. Vapour compression refrigeration is somewhat like
(A) Carnot cycle
(B) Rankine’s cycle
(C) Reversed Carnot cycle
Answer: Option D
148. A heat pump working on a reversed Carnot cycle has a C.O.P. of
5. It works as a refrigerator taking 1 kW of work input. The
refrigerating effect will be
(A) 1 kW
(B) 2 kW
(C) 3 kW
(D) 4 kW
Answer: Option D
149. Aqua ammonia is used as refrigerant in the following type of
refrigeration system
(A) Compression
(B) Direct
(C) Indirect
(D) Absorption
Answer: Option D
150. Air conditioning means
(A) Cooling
(B) Heating
(C) Dehumidifying
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
151. The advantage of dry compression is that
(A) It permits higher speeds to be used
(B) It permits complete evaporation in the evaporator
(C) It results in high volumetric and mechanical efficiency
Answer: Option D
152. The specific humidity during dehumidification process
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
153. The C.O.P. of a refrigeration cycle with lowering of condenser
temperature, keeping the evaporator temperature constant, will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) May increase or decrease depending on the type of refrigerant used
(D) Remain unaffected
Answer: Option A
154. The alignment circle is marked on the psychrometric chart at
(A) 20°C DBT and 50% RH
(B) 26°C DBT and 50% RH
(C) 20°C DBT and 60% RH
(D) 26°C DBT and 60% RH
Answer: Option B
155. A refrigeration cycle operates between condenser temperature of
+ 27°C and evaporator temperature of -23°C. The Carnot coefficient
of performance of cycle will be
(A) 0.2
(B) 1.2
(C) 5
(D) 6
Answer: Option C
156. Relative humidity is given by (where pv = Partial pressure of
water vapour, pb = Barometric pressure, ps = Pressure of saturated
air, pd = Pressure at dry bulb temperature, pw = Saturation pressure
corresponding to wet bulb temperature, and μ = Degree of saturation)
(A) 0.622 Pv / (Pb - Pv)
(B) μ/[1 - (1 - μ) (Ps/Pb)]
(C) [Pv (Pb - Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb - Pv)]
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
157. In refrigerator, liquid receiver is required between condenser and
flow controlling device, if quantity of refrigerant for system is
(A) Less than 2 kg
(B) More than or equal to 3.65 kg
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(C) More than 10 kg
(D) There is no such consideration
Answer: Option B
158. During sensible cooling,
(A) Relative humidity remains constant
(B) Wet bulb temperature increases
(C) Specific humidity increases
(D) Partial pressure of vapour remains constant
Answer: Option D
(A) Temperature of medium being cooled must be below that of the
evaporator
(B) Refrigerant leaves the condenser as liquid
(C) All solar thermally operated absorption systems are capable only
of intermittent operation
(D) Frost on evaporator reduces heat transfer
Answer: Option A
160. The superheating in a refrigeration cycle
(A) Does not alter C.O.P.
(B) Increases C.O.P.
(C) Decreases C.O.P.
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
161. Refrigeration in aeroplanes usually employs the following
refrigerant
(A) CO2
(B) Freon-11
(C) Freon-22
(D) Air
Answer: Option D
162. The condition of refrigerant as it leaves the compressor in a
vapour compression system is
(B) Wet vapour
Answer: Option D
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163. The coefficient of performance is the ratio of the refrigerant
effect to the
(A) Heat of compression
(B) Work done by compressor
(C) Enthalpy increase in compressor
Answer: Option D
164. The bypass factor (B. P. F.) in case of sensible heating of air is
(Where td₁ = Dry bulb temperature of air entering the heating coil, td₂
= Dry bulb temperature of air leaving the heating coil, and td₃ = Dry
bulb temperature of heating coil)
(A) (td₂ - td₃)/(td₃ - td₁)
(B) (td₃ - td₂)/(td₃ - td₁)
(C) (td₃ - td₁)/(td₂ - td₃)
(D) (td₃ - td₁)/(td₃ - td₂)
Answer: Option B
165. Air refrigeration operates on
(A) Carnot cycle
(B) Reversed Carnot cycle
(C) Rankine’s cycle
(D) Brayton cycle
Answer: Option D
166. In order to cool and dehumidify a stream of moist air, it must be
passed over the coil at a temperature
(A) Which lies between the dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures of the
incoming stream
(B) Which lies between the wet bulb and dew point temperatures of
the incoming stream
(C) Which is lower than the dew point temperature of the incoming
stream
(D) Of adiabatic saturation of incoming stream
Answer: Option C
167. Superheating in a refrigeration cycle
(A) Increases C.O.P
(B) Decreases C.O.P
(C) C.O.P remains unaltered
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(D) Other factors decide C.O.P
Answer: Option B
168. The specific humidity during cooling and dehumidification
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
169. Chaperon equation is applicable for registration at
(A) Saturation point of vapour
(B) Saturation point of liquid
(C) Sublimation temperature
(D) Triple point
Answer: Option A
170. For ammonia refrigerating systems, the tubes of a shell and tube
condenser are made of
(A) Copper
(B) Aluminium
(C) Steel
(D) Brass
Answer: Option C
171. The refrigerant for a refrigerator should have
(A) High sensible heat
(B) High total heat
(C) High latent heat
(D) Low latent heat
Answer: Option C
172. The bypass factor for a cooling coil
(A) Increases with increase in velocity of air passing through it
(B) Decreases with increase in velocity of air passing through it
(C) Remains unchanged with increase in velocity of air passing
through it
(D) May increase or decrease with increase in velocity of air passing
through it depending upon the condition of air entering
Answer: Option A
173. Accumulators should have adequate volume to store refrigerant
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charge at least
(A) 10 %
(B) 25 %
(C) 50 %
(D) 75 %
Answer: Option C
174. The dry bulb temperature lines, on the psychrometric chart are
(A) Vertical and uniformly spaced
(B) Horizontal and uniformly spaced
(C) Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced
(D) Curved lines
Answer: Option A
175. In S.J. unit, one ton of refrigeration is equal to
(A) 210 kJ/ min
(B) 21 kJ/ min
(C) 420 kJ/ min
(D) 840 kJ/ min
Answer: Option A
176. The cooling system used for supersonic aircrafts and rockets is
(A) Simple air cooling system
(B) Bootstrap air cooling system
(C) Reduced ambient air cooling system
(D) Regenerative air cooling system
Answer: Option D
177. Short horizontal lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show
(A) Constant pressure lines
(B) Constant temperature lines
(C) Constant total heat lines
(D) Constant entropy lines
Answer: Option A
(A) The value of C.O.P. is always greater than one.
(B) In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant
before entering the compressor is dry saturated vapour.
(C) The space between the saturated liquid line and saturated vapour
line, in a pressure enthalpy chart, is wet vapour region.
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Answer: Option D
179. One ton of refrigeration is equal to the refrigeration effect
corresponding to melting of 1000 kg of ice
(A) In 1 hour
(B) In 1 minute
(C) In 24 hours
(D) In 12 hours
Answer: Option C
180. In a vapour absorption refrigeration system, the compressor of
the vapour compression system is replaced by
(A) Liquid pump
(B) Generator
(C) Absorber and generator
(D) Absorber, generator and liquid pump
Answer: Option D
181. Efficiency of a Carnot engine is given as 80%. If the cycle
direction be reversed, what will be the value of COP of reversed
Carnot Cycle?
(A) 1.25
(B) 0.8
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.25
Answer: Option D
182. The refrigerant supplied to a compressor must be
(A) Superheated vapour refrigerant
(B) Dry saturated liquid refrigerant
(C) A mixture of liquid and vapour refrigerant
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
183. One of the purposes of sub cooling the liquid refrigerant is to
(A) Reduce compressor overheating
(B) Reduce compressor discharge temperature
(C) Increase cooling effect
(D) Ensure that only liquid and not the vapour enters the expansion
(throttling) valve
Answer: Option D
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184. The ratio of heat extracted in the refrigerator to the work-done
on the refrigerant is called
(A) Coefficient of performance of refrigeration
(B) Coefficient of performance of heat pump
(C) Relative coefficient of performance
(D) Refrigerating efficiency
Answer: Option A
185. In vapour compression cycle the condition off refrigerant is dry
saturated vapour
(D) Before entering the compressor
Answer: Option D
186. In larger industrial and commercial reciprocating compression
systems, refrigerant widely used is
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) R-12
Answer: Option A
187. In vapour compression cycle the condition of refrigerant is
superheated vapour
Answer: Option B
188. In which of the following refrigeration system, waste heat can be
effectively used?
(A) Vapour compression cycle
(B) Vapour absorption cycle
(C) Air refrigeration cycle
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
189. Pick up the correct statement about giving up of heat from one
medium to other in ammonia absorption system
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(A) Strong solution to weak solution
(B) Weak solution to strong solution
(C) Strong solution to ammonia vapour
(D) Ammonia vapours to weak solution
Answer: Option B
190. The material of pipe lines for a system using Freon as a
refrigerant should be
(A) Brass
(B) Copper
(C) Steel
(D) Aluminium
Answer: Option B
191. Ammonia is
(A) Non-toxic
(B) Non-inflammable
(C) Toxic and non-inflammable
(D) Highly toxic and inflammable
Answer: Option D
192. The sensible heat factor during cooling and dehumidification
process is given by (where h₁ = Enthalpy of air entering the cooling
coil, h₂ = Enthalpy of air leaving the cooling coil, and hA = Enthalpy of
air at the end of dehumidification process)
(A) (hA - h2)/ (h1 - h2)
(B) (h2 - hA)/ (h1 - h2)
(C) (h1 - h2)/ (hA - h2)
(D) (hA - h1)/ (h2 - h1)
Answer: Option A
193. Most of the domestic refrigerators work on the following
refrigeration system
(A) Vapour compression
(B) Vapour absorption
(C) Carnot cycle
(D) Electrolux refrigerator
Answer: Option A
194. For unsaturated air, the dew point temperature is __________
wet bulb temperature.
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(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
195. Air refrigeration cycle is used in
(B) Commercial refrigerators
(C) Air conditioning
(D) Gas liquefaction
Answer: Option D
196. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when its bulb
is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air, is called
(B) Dry bulb temperature
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
197. The C.O.P. of an absorption type refrigerator is given by (where
T₁ = Temperature at which the working substance receives heat, T₂ =
Temperature of cooling water, and T₃ = Evaporator temperature)
(A) [T₁ (T₂ - T₃)] / [T₃ (T₁ - T₂)]
(B) [T₃ (T₁ - T₂)]/ [T₁ (T₂ - T₃)]
(C) [T₁ (T₁ - T₂)] / [T₃ (T₂ - T₃)]
(D) [T₃ (T₂ - T₃)] / [T₁ (T₁ - T₂)]
Answer: Option B
198. The humidity ratio or specific humidity is the mass of water
vapour present in
(A) 1 m3 of wet air
(B) 1 m3 of dry air
(C) 1 kg of wet air
(D) 1 kg of dry air
Answer: Option D
199. During adiabatic saturation process on unsaturated air
__________ remains constant.
(A) Relative humidity
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(B) Dew point temperature
(D) Wet bulb temperature
Answer: Option D
200. Degree of saturation or percentage humidity is
(A) The mass of water vapour present in 1 m³ of dry air
(B) The mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air
(C) The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry
air to the mass of water vapour in the same mass of dry air when it is
saturated at the same temperature and pressure.
(D) The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of
moist air to the mass of water vapour in the same volume of saturated air
at the same temperature and pressure
Answer: Option C
201. The reciprocating refrigerant compressors are very suitable for
(A) Small displacements and low condensing pressures
(B) Large displacements and high condensing pressures
(C) Small displacements and high condensing pressures
(D) Large displacements and low condensing pressures
Answer: Option C
202. The desirable property of a refrigerant is
(A) Low boiling point
(B) High critical temperature
(C) High latent heat of vaporisation
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
203. The humidification process, on the psychrometric chart is shown
by
(A) Horizontal line
(B) Vertical line
(C) Inclined line
(D) Curved line
Answer: Option B
204. The evaporator used in household refrigerators is
(A) Frosting evaporator
(B) Non-frosting evaporator
(C) Defrosting evaporator
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
205. In case of sensible heating of air, the coil efficiency is given by
(where B.P.F. = Bypass factor)
(A) B.P.F. - 1
(B) 1 - B. P.F.
(C) 1/ B.P.F.
(D) 1 + B.P.F.
Answer: Option B
206. In a refrigerating machine, heat rejected is _________ heat
absorbed.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
207. In aqua ammonia and Lithium bromide water absorption
refrigeration systems, the refrigerants are respectively
(A) Water and water
(B) Water and lithium bromide
(C) Ammonia and lithium bromide
(D) Ammonia and water
Answer: Option D
208. In air-conditioning of aeroplanes, using air as a refrigerant, the
cycle used is
(A) Reversed Carnot cycle
(B) Reversed Joule cycle
(C) Reversed Brayton cycle
(D) Reversed Otto cycle
Answer: Option C
209. The mass of water vapour present in __________ is called
absolute humidity.
(A) 1 m3 of water
(B) 1 m3 of dry air
(C) 1 kg of wet air
(D) 1 kg of dry air
Answer: Option B
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210. While designing the refrigeration system of an aircraft, the prime
consideration is that the
(A) System has high C.O.P.
(B) Power per TR is low
(C) Mass of refrigerant circulated in the system is low
(D) Mass of the refrigeration equipment is low
Answer: Option D
211. The formation of frost on cooling coils in a refrigerator
(A) Increases heat transfer
(B) Improves C.O.P. of the system
(C) Increases power consumption
(D) Reduces power consumption
Answer: Option C
212. The power per tonne of refrigeration is
(A) 3.5/C.O.P.
(B) C.O.P/3.5
(C) 3.5 × C.O.P.
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
213. The wet bulb temperature during sensible heating of air
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
214. The relative humidity is defined as
(A) The mass of water vapour present in 1 m3 of dry air
(B) The mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air
(C) The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry
saturated at the same temperature and pressure.
(D) The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of
moist air to the mass of water vapour in the same volume of saturated air
at the same temperature and pressure
Answer: Option D
215. As relative humidity decreases, the dew point temperature will be
________ wet bulb temperature.
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(A) Same as
(B) Lower than
(C) Higher than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
216. In a psychrometric process, the sensible heat added is 30 kJ/s and
the latent heat added is 20 kJ/s. The sensible heat factor for the
process will be
(A) 0.3
(B) 0.6
(C) 0.67
(D) 1.5
Answer: Option B
217. An Electrolux refrigerator is called a __________ absorption
system.
(A) Single fluid
(B) Two fluids
(C) Three fluids
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
218. It is desired to condition the outside air from 70% relative
humidity and 45° C dry bulb temperature to 50% relative humidity
and 25° C dry bulb temperature (room condition). The practical
arrangement will be
(A) Dehumidification
(B) Cooling and humidification
(C) Cooling and dehumidification
(D) Dehumidification and pure sensible cooling
Answer: Option C
219. The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb
temperature, is called
(A) Dry bulb depression
(B) Wet bulb depression
(C) Dew point depression
Answer: Option B
220. The coefficient of performance of Heat Pump is always
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__________ one.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
221. An evaporator is also known as
(A) Freezing coil
(B) Cooling coil
(C) Chilling coil
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
222. A refrigeration system
(A) Removes heat from a low temperature body and delivers it to a
high temperature body
(B) Removes heat from a high temperature body and delivers it to a
low temperature body
(C) Rejects energy to a low temperature body
Answer: Option A
223. Nusselt number (NN) is given by
(A) NN = hl/k
(B) NN = μ cp/k
(C) NN = ρ V l /μ
(D) NN = V²/t.cp
Answer: Option A
224. The temperature of ammonia after compression in a vapour
compression system is
(A) 20 to 50°C
(B) 50 to 70°C
(C) 70 to 110°C
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
225. A pressure gauge on the discharge side of a refrigerant
compressor reads too high. The reasons will be
(A) Lack of cooling water
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(B) Water temperature being high
(C) Dirty condenser surface
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
226. For evaporators and condensers, for the given conditions, the
logarithmic mean temperature difference (tm) for parallel flow is
________ that for counter flow.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
227. A vapour absorption refrigerator uses __________ as a
refrigerant.
(A) Water
(B) Ammonia
(C) Freon
(D) Aqua-ammonia
Answer: Option D
228. Bell Coleman cycle is a
(B) Reversed Otto cycle
(C) Reversed Joule cycle
(D) Reversed Rankine cycle
Answer: Option C
229. The coefficient of performance of Electrolux refrigerator is the
ratio of
(A) Heat supplied by the gas burner to the heat absorbed by the
evaporator
(B) Heat absorbed by the evaporator to the heat supplied by the gas
burner
(C) Heat supplied by the gas burner minus the heat absorbed by the
evaporator to the heat supplied by the gas burner
(D) Heat absorbed by the evaporator minus the heat supplied by the
gas burner to the heat absorbed by the evaporator
Answer: Option B
230. Which of the following refrigerant has the lowest freezing point?
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(A) R-11
(B) R-12
(C) R-22
(D) Ammonia
Answer: Option C
231. In Electrolux refrigerator
(A) Ammonia is absorbed in hydrogen
(B) Ammonia is absorbed in water
(C) Ammonia evaporates in hydrogen
(D) Hydrogen evaporates in ammonia
Answer: Option C
232. One tonne of refrigeration (1TR) means that the heat removing
capacity is
(A) 21 kJ/min
(B) 210 kJ/min
(C) 420 kJ/min
(D) 620 kJ/min
Answer: Option B
233. The superheated vapour region, in a pressure enthalpy chart, is
represented by the space
(A) To the left of saturated liquid line
(B) To the right of saturated liquid line
(C) Between the saturated liquid line and saturated vapour line
Answer: Option C
234. A good refrigerant should have
(A) High latent heat of vaporisation and low freezing point
(B) High operating pressures and low freezing point
(C) High specific volume and high latent heat of vaporisation
(D) Low C.O.P. and low freezing point
Answer: Option A
235. Air refrigeration cycle is used in
(A) Commercial refrigerators
(B) Domestic refrigerators
(C) Air-conditioning
(D) Gas liquefaction
Answer: Option D
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236. In a saturated air-water vapour mixture, the
(A) Dry bulb temperature is higher than wet bulb temperature
(B) Dew point temperature is lower than wet bulb temperature
(C) Dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperature are same
(D) Dry bulb temperature is higher than dew point temperature
Answer: Option C
237. The capillary tube is not used in large capacity refrigeration
systems because
(A) Cost is too high
(B) Capacity control is not possible
(C) It is made of copper
(D) Required pressure drop cannot be achieved
Answer: Option B
238. The thermostatic expansion valve operates on the changes in the
(A) Degree of superheat at exit from the evaporator
(B) Temperature of the evaporator
(C) Pressure in the evaporator
Answer: Option A
239. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant
before entering the expansion or throttle valve is
(A) High pressure saturated liquid
(B) Wet vapour
(C) Very wet vapour
(D) Dry vapour
Answer: Option A
240. The freezing point of R-12 is
(A) -86.6°C
(B) -95.2°C
(C) -107.7°C
(D) -135.8°C
Answer: Option D
241. The unit of thermal diffusivity is
(A) m/hK
(B) m/h
(C) m²/h
(D) m²/hK
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Answer: Option C
242. The comfort conditions in air conditioning are at (where DBT =
Dry bulb temperature, and RH = Relative humidity)
(A) 25°C DBT and 100% RH
(B) 20°C DBT and 80% RH
(C) 22°C DBT and 60% RH
(D) 25°C DBT and 40% RH
Answer: Option C
243. The pressure at the outlet of a refrigerant compressor is called
(B) Discharge pressure
(C) Critical pressure
(D) Back pressure
Answer: Option B
244. The bypass factor, in case of sensible cooling of air, is given by
(where td₁ = Dry bulb temperature of air entering the cooling coil, td₂
= Dry bulb temperature of air leaving the cooling coil, and td₃ = Dry
bulb temperature of the cooling coil)
(A) (td₁ -td₃)/( td₂ -td₃)
(B) (td₂ -td₃)/( td₁ -td₃)
(C) (td₃ -td₁)/( td₂ -td₃)
(D) (td₃ -td₂)/( td₁ -td₃)
Answer: Option B
245. The operating temperature of a cold storage is 2°C. The heat
leakage from the surrounding is 30 kW for the ambient temperature
of 40°C. The actual C.O.P. of refrigeration plant used is one fourth
that of ideal plant working between the same temperatures. The
power required to drive the plant is
(A) 1.86 kW
(B) 3.72 kW
(C) 7.44 kW
(D) 18.6 kW
Answer: Option D
246. In chemical dehumidification process,
(A) Dew point temperature decreases
(B) Wet bulb temperature decreases
(C) Dry bulb temperature increases
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(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
247. Environmental protection agencies advice against the use of
chlorofluorocarbon refrigerants since
(A) These react with water vapour and cause acid rain
(B) These react with plants and cause greenhouse effect
(C) These react with oxygen and cause its depletion
(D) These react with ozone layer
Answer: Option D
248. When the lower temperature of a refrigerating machine is fixed,
then the coefficient of performance can be improved by
(A) Operating the machine at higher speeds
(B) Operating the machine at lower speeds
(C) Raising the higher temperature
(D) Lowering the higher temperature
Answer: Option D
249. The bypass factor of a cooling coil decreases with
(A) Decrease in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
(B) Increase in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
(C) Increase in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows
(D) Decrease in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows
Answer: Option A
250. A mixture of dry air and water vapour, when the air has diffused
the maximum amount of water vapour into it, is called
(A) Dry air
(B) Moist air
(C) Saturated air
Answer: Option C
251. The total pressure exerted by the mixture of air and water
vapour is equal to the sum of pressures which each constituent would
exert, if it occupied the same space by itself. This statement is called
(A) Kinetic theory of gases
(B) Newton's law of gases
(C) Dalton's law of partial pressures
(D) Avogadro's hypothesis
Answer: Option C
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252. The relative humidity lines on a psychrometric chart are
(D) Curved lines
Answer: Option D
253. The C.O.P. of a heat pump working on a reversed Carnot cycle is
(A) T₁/(T₂ - T₁)
(B) (T₂ - T₁)/T₁
(C) (T₁ - T₂)/T₁
(D) T₂/(T₂ - T₁)
Answer: Option D
254. A vapour absorption refrigeration system
(A) Gives noisy operation
(B) Gives quiet operation
(C) Requires little power consumption
(D) Cools below 0°C
Answer: Option B
255. A refrigerating system operating on reversed Brayton
refrigeration cycle is used for maintaining 250 K. If the temperature
at the end of constant pressure cooling is 300K and rise in the
temperature of air in the refrigerator is 50 K, then the net work of
compression will be (assume air as working substance with Cp = 1
kJ/kg)
(A) 25 kJ/kg
(B) 50 kJ/kg
(C) 100 kJ/kg
(D) 125 kJ/kg
Answer: Option B
256. The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry
saturated at the same temperature and pressure, is called
(A) Humidity ratio
(C) Absolute humidity
Answer: Option D
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257. During dehumidification process, __________ remains constant.
Answer: Option C
258. Pressure of water vapour is given by
(A) 0.622 Pv/ (Pb - Pv)
(B) μ/[1 - (1 - μ) (Ps/Pb)]
(C) [Pv (Pb - Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb - Pv)]
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
259. R-12 is generally preferred over R-22 in deep freezers since
(A) It has low operating pressures
(B) It gives higher coefficient of performance
(C) It is miscible with oil over large range of temperatures
Answer: Option C
260. In a spray washing system, if the temperature of water is higher
than the dry bulb temperature of entering air, then the air is
(A) Heated and dehumidified
(B) Heated and humidified
(C) Cooled and humidified
(D) Cooled and dehumidified
Answer: Option B
261. A valve which maintains a constant degree of superheat at the
end of the evaporator coil, is called
(A) Automatic expansion valve
(B) High side float valve
(C) Thermostatic expansion valve
(D) Low side float valve
Answer: Option D
262. An infinite parallel planes with emissivities e₁ and e₂, the
interchange factor for radiation from surface 1 to surface 2 is given by
(A) (e₁ + e₂)/ e₁ + e₂ - e₁e₂
(B) 1/e₁ + 1/e₂
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(C) e₁ + e₂
(D) e₁e₂
Answer: Option A
263. The emissivity of a polished silver body is __________ as
compared to black body.
(A) Same
(B) Low
(C) Very low
(D) High
Answer: Option C
264. Air refrigerator works on
(B) Bell Coleman cycle
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
265. The relative coefficient of performance is equal to
(A) (Theoretical C.O.P.)/ (Actual C.O.P.)
(B) (Actual C.O.P.) /(Theoretical C.O.P.)
(C) (Actual C.O.P.) × (Theoretical C.O.P.)
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
266. In case of sensible cooling of air, the coil efficiency is given by
(A) B.P.F. - 1
(B) 1 - B.P.F.
(C) 1/ B.P.F.
(D) 1 + B.P.F.
Answer: Option B
267. For large tonnage (more than 200 TR) air-conditioning
applications, the compressor recommended is
(A) Reciprocating
(B) Rotating
(C) Centrifugal
(D) Screw
Answer: Option C
268. The wet bulb temperature during sensible cooling of air
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(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
269. A condenser of refrigeration system rejects heat at the rate of 120
kW, while its compressor consumes a power of 30 kW. The coefficient
of performance of the system will be
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/3
(C) 3
(D) 4
Answer: Option D
270. A refrigerant with the highest critical pressure is
(A) R-11
(B) R-12
(C) R-22
(D) Ammonia
Answer: Option D
271. In aqua ammonia absorption refrigeration system, incomplete
rectification leads to accumulation of water in
(A) Condenser
(B) Evaporator
(C) Absorber
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
272. Most air cooled condensers are designed to operate with a
temperature difference of
(A) 5°C
(B) 8°C
(C) 14°C
(D) 22°C
Answer: Option C
273. In a reversed Brayton cycle, the heat is absorbed by the air
during
(A) Isentropic compression process
(B) Constant pressure cooling process
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(C) Isentropic expansion process
(D) Constant pressure expansion process
Answer: Option D
274. Wet bulb temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a
thermometer, when
(A) It is not affected by the moisture present in the air
(B) Its bulb is surrounded by a wet cloth exposed to the air
(C) The moisture present in it begins to condense
Answer: Option B
275. The difference between dry bulb temperature and dew point
temperature, is called
(A) Dry bulb depression
(B) Wet bulb depression
(C) Dew point depression
Answer: Option C
276. In mechanical refrigeration system, the refrigerant has the
maximum temperature
(A) In evaporator
(B) Before expansion valve
(C) Between compressor and condenser
(D) Between condenser and evaporator
Answer: Option C
277. The central air conditioning system has ________ overall
efficiency as compared to individual systems.
(A) Same
(B) Lower
(C) Higher
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
278. Moisture should be removed from refrigerants to avoid
(A) Freezing at the expansion valve
(B) Restriction to refrigerant flow
(C) Corrosion of steel plates
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
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289. The specific humidity during humidification process
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
280. During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in
a
(A) Compressor
(B) Condenser
(C) Evaporator
(D) Expansion valve
Answer: Option B
281. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant is
dry saturated vapour
(A) Before entering the compressor
(B) After leaving the compressor
(C) Before entering the condenser
(D) After leaving the condenser
Answer: Option A
282. During sensible cooling of air, specific humidity
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
283. In a psychrometric chart, specific humidity (moisture content)
lines are
(D) Curved lines
Answer: Option B
284. The horizontal and non-uniformly spaced lines on a
psychrometric chart indicates
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Answer: Option C
285. In a vapour compression refrigeration system, a throttle valve is
used in place of an expander because
(A) It considerably reduces mass of the system
(B) It improves the C.O.P., as the condenser is small
(C) The positive work in isentropic expansion of liquid is very small
(D) It leads to significant cost reduction
Answer: Option C
286. Which of the following refrigerant is highly toxic and flammable?
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) R-12
Answer: Option A
287. The dehumidification process, on the psychrometric chart, is
shown by
(A) Horizontal line
(B) Vertical line
(C) Inclined line
(D) Curved line
Answer: Option B
288. The wet bulb temperature at 100% relative humidity is ________
dry bulb temperature.
(A) Same as
(B) Lower than
(C) Higher than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
289. The human body feels comfortable when the heat stored in the
body is
(A) Positive
(B) Negative
(C) Zero
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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290. The heat rejection factor (HRF) is given by
(A) 1 + C.O.P
(B) 1 - C.O.P.
(C) 1 + (1/C.O.P)
(D) 1 - (1/C.O.P)
Answer: Option C
291. In order to collect liquid refrigerant and to prevent it from going
to a ________, a device known as accumulator is used at the suction of
compressor.
(A) Compressor
(B) Condenser
(C) Expansion valve
(D) Evaporator
Answer: Option A
292. The vertical and uniformly spaced lines on a psychrometric chart
indicates
Answer: Option A
293. The undesirable property of a refrigerant is
(A) Non-toxic
(B) Non-flammable
(C) Non-explosive
(D) High boiling point
Answer: Option D
294. The process, generally used in summer air conditioning to cool
and dehumidify the air, is called
(A) Humidification
(B) Dehumidification
(C) Heating and humidification
(D) Cooling and dehumidification
Answer: Option D
295. The leakage in a refrigeration system using ammonia is detected
by
(A) Halide torch
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(B) Sulphur sticks
(C) Soap and water
(D) All of these
Answer: Option B
296. The lowest temperature during the cycle in a vapour compression
system occurs after
(A) Compression
(B) Expansion
(C) Condensation
(D) Evaporation
Answer: Option D
297. In a domestic refrigerator, a capillary tube controls the flow of
refrigerant from the
(A) Expansion valve to the evaporator
(B) Evaporator to the thermostat
(C) Condenser to the expansion valve
(D) Condenser to the evaporator
Answer: Option A
298. The refrigerant used in small tonnage commercial machines
(hermetically sealed units) is
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) R-12
Answer: Option C
299. When the air is passed through an insulated chamber having
sprays of water maintained at a temperature higher than the dew
point temperature of entering air but lower than its dry bulb
temperature, then the air is said to be
(A) Cooled and humidified
(B) Cooled and dehumidified
(C) Heated and humidified
(D) Heated and dehumidified
Answer: Option A
300. A refrigerant compressor is used to
(A) Raise the pressure of the refrigerant
(B) Raise the temperature of the refrigerant
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(C) Circulate the refrigerant through the refrigerating system
Answer: Option D
301. The process of under-cooling is generally brought about by
(A) Circulating more quantity of cooling water through the condenser
(B) Using water colder than the main circulating water
(C) Employing a heat exchanger
Answer: Option D
302. Oil separator in a refrigeration cycle is installed
(A) Before compressor
(B) Between compressor and condenser
(C) Between condenser and evaporator
(D) Between condenser and expansion valve
Answer: Option B
303. The thermostatic expansion valve is also called
(A) Constant pressure valve
(B) Constant temperature valve
(C) Constant superheat valve
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
304. A Bell Coleman refrigerator working on dense air system as
compared to open air system, for the same range of temperature,
results in ________ power per tonne of refrigeration.
(A) Same
(B) Lower
(C) Higher
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
305. Which of the following refrigerant has the lowest boiling point?
(A) Ammonia
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) R-12
Answer: Option B
306. The thermal diffusivity for gases is generally __________ those
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for liquids.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
307. The boiling point of carbon dioxide is
(A) -20.5°C
(B) -50°C
(C) -63.3°C
(D) -78.3°C
Answer: Option D
Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning: Test 01

01. The temperature rise, between the condenser outlet and expansion
valve in ammonia vapour compression system, should be as low as
possible.
(A) Yes
(B) No
02. During sub-cooling, sensible heat from a liquid refrigerant is
removed.
(A) Yes
(B) No
03. The expression [Pv (Pb - Pd)/ Pd (Pb - Pv)] is used for calculating
relative humidity.
(A) Yes
(B) No
04. The final relative humidity of the air during cooling and
dehumidification is generally __________ than that of entering air.
(A) Lower
(B) Higher
05. In a pressure enthalpy chart, the space between the saturated
liquid line and saturated vapour line represents sub-cooled liquid
region.
(A) True
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(B) False
06. R-11 has the highest critical point temperature.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
07. The mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air, is called
humidity ratio.
(A) True
(B) False
08. When the discharge pressure is too high in a refrigeration system,
high pressure control is installed to stop the compressor.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
09. In absorption vapour systems, the refrigerant widely used is R-12.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
10. A Bell Coleman refrigerator working on dense air system as
compared to open air system, for the same range of temperature,
results in higher coefficient of performance.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
11. Dew point temperature is the temperature of air recorded by a
thermometer, when the moisture present in it begins to condense.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
12. If the condenser temperature is kept constant, the coefficient of
performance of a refrigeration cycle increases with the increase in
evaporator temperature.
(A) Yes
(B) No
13. The relative humidity ________ as air gets drier.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
14. The coefficient of performance (C.O.P.) is the reciprocal of the
efficiency of a heat engine.
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(A) True
(B) False
15. The coefficient of performance of vapour compression
refrigeration system is quite ________ as compared to air
refrigeration system.
(A) Low
(B) High
16. During sensible cooling of air, the relative humidity increases.
(A) Yes
(B) No
17. The heating of air, without any change in its specific humidity, is
known as sensible heating.
(A) True
(B) False
18. The absolute humidity is the mass of water vapour present in 1 m3
of dry air.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
19. A condenser is used in the _________ pressure side of a
refrigerating system.
(A) Low
(B) High
20. R-12 has the ________ freezing point.
(A) Lowest
(B) Highest
Answers: Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning Test 01

Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning: Test 02

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01. The sensible heat gain is due to the __________ difference between
the fresh air and the air in space.
(A) Temperature
(B) Humidity
02. Dew point temperature corresponds to the saturation temperature
of vapour at its partial pressure.
(A) True
(B) False
03. If the evaporator temperature is kept constant, the coefficient of
performance of refrigeration cycle ________ with the increase in
condenser temperature.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
04. The refrigerant carbon dioxide is not widely used because of its
_________ power requirements per tonne of refrigeration and high
operating pressures.
(A) Low
(B) High
05. The inclined and non-uniformly spaced straight lines on a
psychrometric chart indicate wet bulb temperature.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
06. For a given dry bulb temperature, as the relative humidity
________ the wet bulb temperature will increase.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
07. In a psychrometric chart, dew point temperature lines are
horizontal and non-uniformly spaced.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
08. In a shell and coil condenser, water flows in the shell and the
refrigerant in the coil.
(A) True
(B) False
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09. The process of adding moisture to the air, without change in its
dry bulb temperature, is known as humidification.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
10. The wet bulb temperature lines, on the psychrometric chart, are
curved lines.
(A) True
(B) False
11. The highest temperature during the cycle in a vapour compression
system occurs after evaporation.
(A) True
(B) False
12. The cooling of air, without any change in its specific humidity, is
known as sensible cooling.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
13. The freezing point of carbon dioxide is equal to boiling point of R-
12.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
14. The sulphur sticks, in case of leakage of ammonia refrigerant,
gives white smoke.
(A) True
(B) False
15. The capacity of the cooling tower and spray ponds __________ as
the wet bulb temperature of air decreases.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
16. Dehydration is the process of removing water vapour from the
surrounding air.
(A) True
(B) False
17. During sensible heating of air, specific humidity remains constant.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
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18. The _________ point of ammonia is -77.7°C.
(A) Freezing
(B) Boiling
19. The expansion valve in a refrigerator controls the flow of
refrigerant.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
20. A simple air cooling system is good for ________ flight speeds.
(A) Low
(B) High
Answers: Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning Test 02

Power Plant Engineering:

01. Enriched uranium is required as a fuel in a nuclear reactor, if light

water is used as moderator and coolant, because light water has
(A) High neutron absorption cross-section
(B) Low moderating efficiency
(C) High neutron scatter cross-section
(D) Low neutron absorption cross-section
Answer: Option B
02. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparison to
conventional and nuclear consideration is
(A) Higher cost of nuclear fuel
(B) High initial cost
(C) High heat rejection in condenser
(D) Lower temperature and pressure conditions
Answer: Option D
03. The control rods in the control system of nuclear reactors are used
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to
(A) Absorb excess neutrons
(B) Control fuel consumption
(C) Control temperature
(D) All of these
Answer: Option A
04. Electron volt is the unit of
(A) Atomic power
(B) Energy
(C) Voltage
(D) Radio activity
Answer: Option B
05. A moderator, in nuclear power plants, is a medium introduced into
the fuel mass in order to
(A) Slow down the speed of fast moving neutrons
(B) Control the reaction
(C) Reduce the temperature
(D) Extracts heat from nuclear reaction
Answer: Option A
06. One gram of uranium will produce energy equivalent to
approximately
(A) 1 tonne of high grade coal
(B) 4.5 tonnes of high grade coal
(C) 10 tonnes of high grade coal
(D) 100 tonnes of high grade coal
Answer: Option B
07. Which of the following type of pump is used in liquid metal cooled
reactor for circulation of liquid metal
(A) Centrifugal
(B) Axial
(C) Reciprocation
(D) Electromagnetic
Answer: Option D
08. Where reactor operation is designed with fast neutrons such as in
reactors using highly enriched fuel, the moderator used is
(A) Heavy water
(B) Graphite
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(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) No moderator is needed
Answer: Option D
09. The nuclear energy is measured as
(A) MeV
(B) Curie
(C) Farads
(D) MW
Answer: Option A
10. Isotopes of same elements have
(A) Same atomic number and different masses
(B) Same chemical properties but different atomic numbers
(C) Different masses and different atomic numbers
(D) Different chemical properties and same atomic numbers
Answer: Option B
11. A boiling water reactor uses following as fuel
(A) Enriched uranium
(B) Plutonium
(C) Thorium
(D) U
Answer: Option A
12. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the features
of a Breeder reactor?
(A) It produces more fuel than it consumes.
(B) It requires highly enriched fuel.
(C) It requires liquid sodium metal as moderator.
Answer: Option D
13. In nuclear fission each neutron that causes fission releases
(A) No new neutron
(B) At least one new neutron
(C) One new neutron
(D) More than one new neutron
Answer: Option D
14. Artificial radioactive isotopes find application in
(A) Power generation
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(B) Nucleonic devices
(C) Nuclear fission
(D) Medical field
Answer: Option D
15. Each fission of U₂₃₅ produces on the average _________ fast
neutrons as a product of reaction.
(A) 2.46
(B) 24.6
(C) 246
(D) 2460
Answer: Option A
16. The process by which a heavy nucleus is spitted into two light
nuclei is known as
(A) Splitting
(B) Fission
(C) Fusion
(D) Disintegration
Answer: Option B
17. Which of the following is more appropriate for a moderator? One
which
(A) Does not absorb neutrons
(B) Absorbs neutrons
(C) Accelerates neutrons
(D) Eats up neutrons
Answer: Option A
18. A nuclear reactor is said to be critical when the neutron
population in the reactor core is
(A) Rapidly increasing leading to the point of explosion
(B) Decreasing from the specified value
(C) Reduced to zero
(D) Constant
Answer: Option D
19. The most commonly used moderator in nuclear plants is
(A) Heavy water
(B) Concrete and bricks
(C) Graphite and concrete
(D) Graphite
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Answer: Option D
20. Reactors for propulsion applications are designed for
(A) Any form of uranium
(B) Natural uranium
(C) Enriched uranium
(D) Plutonium
Answer: Option C
21. The following present serious difficulty in designing reactor shield
(A) Alpha particles
(B) Beta particles
(C) Thermal neutrons
(D) Fast neutrons and gamma rays
Answer: Option D
22. Ferrite material is
(A) The most fissionable material
(B) The basic fuel for nuclear paints
(C) Basic raw material for nuclear plants
(D) The material which absorbs neutrons and undergoes spontaneous
changes leading to the formation of fissionable material
Answer: Option D
23. Reflector in nuclear power plants _________ neutron leakage.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Have no effect on
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
24. Effective moderators are those materials which contain
(A) Light weight atoms
(B) Heavy weight atoms
(C) Critical atoms
(D) Zero weight atoms
Answer: Option A
25. The fuel needed, with reflector in nuclear power plant, in order to
generate sufficient neutrons to sustain a chain reaction, would be
(A) More
(B) Less
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(C) Same
(D) Zero
Answer: Option B
26. Nuclear reactors are used
(A) To produce heat for thermoelectric power
(B) To produce fissionable material
(C) To propel ships, submarines, aircrafts
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
27. The main interest of shielding in nuclear reactor is protection
against
(A) X-rays
(B) Infrared rays
(C) Neutrons and gamma rays
(D) Electrons
Answer: Option D
28. Breeder reactors employ liquid metal coolant because it
(A) Acts as good moderator
(B) Produces maximum steam
(C) Transfers heat from core at a fast rate
(D) Breeds neutrons
Answer: Option C
29. The coolant used in boiling water reactor is
(A) CO2
(B) Pressurised water
(C) Mixture of water and steam
(D) Liquid metal
Answer: Option C
30. A moderator
(A) Absorbs neutrons
(B) Does not absorb neutrons
(C) Accelerates neutrons
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
31. A nuclear fission is initiated when the critical energy as compared
to neutron binding energy of the atoms is
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(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
Answer: Option B
32. In a thermal power plant, coal from the coal handling plant is
moved to the boiler bunker through a
(A) Belt conveyor
(B) Bucket conveyor
(C) Fork lift truck
(D) Overhead crane
Answer: Option A
33. In the breeder reactors the generation of new fissionable atom is
(A) At the lower rate than the consumption
(B) At a higher rate than the consumption
(C) At an equal rate of the consumption
(D) Depends on other considerations
Answer: Option B
34. The most practical fuel for a thermonuclear reactor, both from
economical and nuclear consideration is
(A) Plutonium
(B) Uranium
(C) Deuterium
(D) Thorium
Answer: Option C
35. A power plant giving least running cost of production of electrical
power is
(A) Steam power plant
(B) Gas turbine power plant
(C) Hydro electric power plant
(D) Nuclear power plant
Answer: Option D
36. The breeding gain in case of thermal breeder reactor as compared
to fast breeder reactor is
(A) Same
(B) Lower
(C) Higher
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(D) Unity
Answer: Option B
37. The energy produced by a thermal reactor of same size as a
breeder reactor is
(A) Almost same
(B) Slightly more
(C) Slightly less
(D) Much less
Answer: Option D
38. Which of the following nuclear reactor does not need a heat
exchanger for generation of steam?
(A) Gas cooled
(B) Liquid metal cooled
(C) Pressurised water
(D) Boiling water
Answer: Option D
39. Reactors designed for propulsion applications are designed for
(A) Natural uranium
(B) Enriched uranium
(C) Pure uranium
(D) Any type of uranium
Answer: Option B
40. The primary fuel used in nuclear power plants is
(A) U₂₃₅
(B) U₂₃₈
(C) Pu₂₃₉
(D) Pu₂₃₃
Answer: Option A
41. In natural uranium, the constituents of three naturally occuring
isotopes are
(A) U₂₃₄ = 0.006%, U₂₃₅ = 0.712% and U₂₃₈ = 99.282%
(B) U₂₃₄ = 0.712%, U₂₃₅ = 0.006% and U₂₃₈ = 99.282%
(C) U₂₃₄ = 99.282%, U₂₃₅ = 0.006% and U₂₃₈ = 0.712%
(D) U₂₃₄ = 0.006%, U₂₃₅ = 99.282% and U₂₃₈ = 0.712%
Answer: Option A
42. The commonly used material for shielding is
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(A) Lead or concrete
(B) Lead and tin
(C) Graphite or cadmium
(D) Thick galvanised sheets
Answer: Option A
43. When a reactor becomes critical, then the production of neutrons
is
(A) Infinite
(B) Zero
(C) Exactly balanced by the loss of neutrons through leakage
(D) Initiated
Answer: Option C
44. A nuclear unit becoming critical means
(A) It is generating power to rated capacity
(B) It is capable of generating much more than rated capacity
(C) There is danger of nuclear spread
(D) Chain reaction that causes automatic splitting of the fuel nuclei has
been established
Answer: Option D
45. The predominant isotope of the naturally occuring element is
(A) U₂₃₅
(B) U₂₃₈
(C) Pu₂₃₃
(D) Pu₂₃₉
Answer: Option B
46. The function of control rods in nuclear plants is to
(A) Control temperature
(B) Control radioactive pollution
(C) Control absorption of neutron
(D) Control fuel consumption
Answer: Option C
47. Reflector in nuclear plants is used to
(A) Return the neutrons back into the core
(B) Shield the radioactivity completely
(C) Check pollution
(D) Conserve energy
Answer: Option A
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48. A fission chain reaction in uranium can be developed
(A) By increasing the contents of U₂₃₅
(B) By slowing down fast neutrons so that U₂₃₅ fission continues by
slow neutron
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
(A) In a heterogeneous or solid fuel reactor, the fuel is mixed in a
regular pattern within moderator.
(B) Slow or thermal neutrons have energy of the order or 0.025 eV
(C) Fast neutrons have energies above 1000 eV
(D) Fast reactor uses moderator
Answer: Option D
50. Moderator in nuclear plants is used to
(A) Reduce temperature
(B) Extract heat from nuclear reaction
(C) Control the reaction
(D) Cause collision with the fast moving neutrons to reduce their speed
Answer: Option D
51. U₂₃₃ is produced
(A) Artificially
(B) As basic raw material
(C) When thorium is irradiated by neutrons
(D) By fission of U₂₃₈
Answer: Option C
52. Solid fuel for nuclear reactions may be fabricated into various
small shapes such as
(A) Plates
(B) Pallets
(C) Pins
Answer: Option D
53. In fast breeder reactors
(A) Any type of moderator can be used
(B) Graphite is used as the moderator
(C) Heavy water is used as the moderator
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(D) Moderator is dispensed with.
Answer: Option D
54. Uranium has isotopes
(A) U₂₃₄
(B) U₂₃₅
(C) U₂₃₈
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
55. Each fission of U₂₃₅ produces following number of fast neutrons
per fission
(A) 1 neutron
(B) 3 neutrons
(C) 1, 2 neutrons
(D) 2 neutrons
Answer: Option D
56. Enriched uranium is one in which
(A) Percentage of U₂₃₅ has been artificially increased
(B) Percentage of U has been artificially increased
(C) Percentage of U₂₃₄ has been artificially increased
(D) Extra energy is pumped from outside
Answer: Option A
57. A fission chain reaction in uranium can be developed by
(A) Slowing down fast neutrons so that Uz fission continues by slow
motion neutrons
(B) Accelerating fast neutrons
(C) Absorbing all neutrons
(D) Using moderator
Answer: Option A
58. The energy released during the fission of one atom of Uranium 235
in million electron volts is about
(A) 100
(B) 200
(C) 300
(D) 400
Answer: Option B
59. Boiling water reactor employs
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(A) Boiler
(B) Direct cycle of coolant system
(C) Double circuit system of coolant cycle
(D) Multi passes system
Answer: Option B
60. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparison to a
conventional thermal power plant is
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) May be less or mote depending on size
Answer: Option C
61. The material most commonly used for shielding is
(A) Carbon
(B) Lead
(C) Concrete
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
62. Reactors for propulsion applications use
(A) Natural uranium
(B) Molten lead
(C) Any form of uranium
(D) Thorium
Answer: Option B
63. The presence of reflector in nuclear power plants results in
(A) Increased production of neutrons
(B) Complete absorption of neutrons
(C) Controlled production of neutrons
(D) Decreased leakage of neutrons
Answer: Option D
64. Gas cooled reactor uses following materials as moderator, and
coolant
(A) Graphite, CO2
(B) Graphite, air
(C) Heavy water, CO2
(D) Lead, H2
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Answer: Option A
65. A moderator generally used in nuclear power plants is
(A) Graphite
(B) Heavy water
(C) Concrete
(D) Graphite and concrete
Answer: Option D
66. Which of the following particles is the lightest?
(A) Nucleus
(B) Electron
(C) Proton
(D) Meson
Answer: Option B
67. The mass number of a substance represents the sum of total
number of
(A) Protons and neutrons in an atom
(B) Protons and electrons in an atom
(C) Neutrons and electrons in an atom
(D) Protons and neutrons in a nucleus
Answer: Option D
68. A moderator, apart from its high neutron slowing power, and low
non-productive neutron, should be
(A) Stable under nuclear radiation
(B) Corrosion resistant
(C) Good thermal conductor
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
69. A pressurised water reactor employs pressurises for the following
application
(A) To maintain constant pressure in primary circuit under varying
load
(B) To Supply high pressure steam
(C) To increase pressure of water in primary circuit
(D) To provide sub cooled water at high pressure
Answer: Option A
70. Pressurised water reactor is designed
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(A) For boiling pi water in the core
(B) To use liquid sodium metal as coolant
(C) To use intermediate coolant
(D) To prevent the water coolant from boiling in the core
Answer: Option D
71. Which of the following are ferrite materials?
(A) U₂₃₃ and Pu₂₃₉
(B) U
(C) U₂₃₈ and Pu₂₃₉
(D) U₂₃₈ and Th₂₃₉
Answer: Option B
72. The secondary fuel used in nuclear power plants is
(A) U₂₃₃ and Pu₂₃₉
(B) U₂₃₅ and Th₂₃₂
(C) U₂₃₅ and Pu₂₃₈
(D) U₂₃₃ and Pu₂₃₈
Answer: Option A
73. Atomic number of an element in the periodic table represents the
numbers of
(A) Protons in the nucleus
(B) Electrons in the nucleus
(C) Neutrons in the nucleus
(D) Electrons in the atom
Answer: Option A
74. Pick up the wrong statement fast breeder reactors
(A) Operate at extremely high power densities.
(B) Are liquid metal cooled
(C) Produce more fuel than they consume
(D) Use water as coolant
Answer: Option D
75. The nuclear radiators produced in a reactor which must be
shielded are
(A) Electrons
(B) α, β and γ rays
(C) Neutron and gamma rays
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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76. Breeder reactor has a conversion ratio of
(A) Unity
(B) More than unity
(C) Less than unity
(D) Zero
Answer: Option B
77. In triggering fission, the following types of neutrons are desirable
(A) Fast moving
(B) Slow moving
(C) Critical neutrons
(D) Neutrons at rest
Answer: Option B
78. Plutonium (Pu₂₃₉) is produced
(A) Artificially
(B) By fission of Th₂₃₂
(C) When U₂₃₈ is irradiated by neutrons
(D) As basic raw material
Answer: Option C
79. In order to have constant chain reaction to produce a constant rate
of heat output, the value of ratio of the number of neutrons in one
generation to the number of neutrons in the immediately preceding
generation must be
(A) Greater than 1.0
(B) Less than 1.0
(C) Equal to zero
(D) Equal to 1.0
Answer: Option D
80. A fast breeder reactor
(A) Uses graphite rods as moderator
(B) Has powerful moderator
(C) Has no moderator
(D) Uses ferrite material as moderator
Answer: Option C
81. The energy required to be applied to a radioactive nucleus for the
emission of a neutron is
(A) 1 MeV
(B) 2.4 MeV
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(C) 4.3 MeV
(D) 7.8 MeV
Answer: Option D
82. Which is not identical for an atom and an isotope?
(A) Mass number
(B) Atomic number
(C) Chemical properties
(D) Position in periodic table
Answer: Option A
83. Natural uranium is made up of
(A) 99.282% U₂₃₈, 0.712% U₂₃₅, 0.006% U₂₃₄
(B) 99.282% U₂₃₅, 0.712% U₂₃₈, 0.06%' U₂₃₄
(C) 99.282% U₂₃₄, 0.712% U₂₃₈, 0.006% U₂₃₅
(D) 99.282% U₂₃₅, 0.712% U₂₃₄, 0.006% U₂₃₈
Answer: Option A
84. In a fission process, maximum percentage of energy is released as
(A) Kinetic energy of neutrons
(B) Kinetic energy of fission products
(C) Instantaneous release of gamma rays
(D) Gradual radioactive decay of fission products
Answer: Option B
85. A fast breeder reactor uses
(A) 90% U₂₃₅
(B) U₂₃₈
(C) U₂₃₅
(D) Pu₂₃₉
Answer: Option A
86. Amongst the following, the fissionable materials are
(A) U₂₃₃ and Pu₂₂₉
(B) U₂₃₁ and Pu₂₃₃
(C) U₂₃₅ and Pu₂₃₅
(D) U₂₃₈ and Pu₂₃₉
Answer: Option A
87. The total energy released in fission of U is
(A) 5 MeV
(B) 10 MeV
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(C) 199 MeV
(D) 168 MeV
Answer: Option C
88. Fast breeder reactor uses
(A) Boiler
(B) Direct cycle of coolant system
(C) Double circuit system of coolant cycle
(D) Multi passes system
Answer: Option C
89. Which of the following is the heaviest?
(A) Neutron
(B) Proton
(C) Atom
(D) Electron
Answer: Option C
90. A nuclear fission produces energy of following order in MeV
(A) 20
(B) 200
(C) 2000
(D) 20,000
Answer: Option B
91. The fast breeder reactor uses the following moderator
(A) Demineralised water
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Heavy water
(D) No moderator is used
Answer: Option D
92. Boiling water reactor uses the following as moderator, coolant and
working fluid
(A) Ordinary fluid
(B) Heavy water
(C) Molten lead
(D) Hydrogen gas
Answer: Option A
93. Ideally the neutron flux in reactor should be
(A) Maximum in centre and zero at side
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(B) Maximum at side and zero in canter
(C) Uniform throughout
(D) Zero throughout
Answer: Option C
94. Enriched uranium may contain fissionable contents of the order of
(A) 1-99 %
(B) 1-25 %
(C) 1-50 %
(D) 1-75 %
Answer: Option A
95. U235 will undergo fission by
(A) High energy (fast) neutrons alone
(B) Low energy (slow) neutrons alone
(C) Either fast or slow neutrons
(D) Medium energy neutrons
Answer: Option C
96. U238 will undergo fission by
(A) High energy (fast) neutrons alone
(B) Low energy (slow) neutrons alone
(C) Either fast or slow neutrons
(D) Medium energy neutrons
Answer: Option A
97. A reactor capable of converting a ferrite material into fissile
isotopes is called
(A) Regenerative reactor
(B) Fast breeder reactor
(C) Breeder reactor
(D) Boiling water reactor
Answer: Option A
98. Hydrogen is preferred as better coolant in comparison to CO₂
because former
(A) Is lighter
(B) Is inert
(C) Has high specific heat
(D) Is a good conductor
Answer: Option C
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99. The risk of radioactive hazard is greatest in the turbine with
following reactor
(A) Pressurised water
(B) Boiling water
(C) Gas cooled
(D) Liquid metal cooled
Answer: Option B
100. Plutonium is produced
(A) As basic raw material
(B) By neutron irradiation of Uz
(C) By neutron irradiation of thorium
(D) Artificially
Answer: Option B
101. The unit of radioactivity is
(A) Electron volt
(B) Electron ampere
(C) Curie
(D) MV
Answer: Option C
102. U233 is produced
(A) As basic raw material
(B) By neutron irradiation of Uz
(C) By neutron irradiation of thorium
(D) Artificially
Answer: Option C
103. Plutonium (Pu239) is produced
(A) Artificially
(B) When U238 is irradiated by neutrons
(C) By fission of Th232
(D) As basic raw material
Answer: Option B
104. Which of the following is the primary fuel?
(A) U₂₃₃
(B) U
(C) U₂₃₈
(D) Pu
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Answer: Option B
105. Which of the following can be used as a coolant in nuclear plant?
(A) Light or heavy water
(B) Molten lead
(C) Carbon dioxide
(D) Freon
Answer: Option A
106. In triggering fission, which types of neutrons are more effective?
(A) Fast
(B) Slow
(C) In bulk
(D) Static
Answer: Option B
107. For economical operation of a nuclear plant
(A) Used fuel should be reprocessed
(B) Moderator should be used
(C) Coolant should be employed
(D) Control rods should be used
Answer: Option A
108. The size of the reactor is said to be critical when
(A) Chain reaction can be initiated
(B) It becomes uncontrollable
(C) It explodes
(D) It produces no power
Answer: Option A
109. Superheated steam is generated in following reactor
(A) Boiling water
(B) Gas cooled
(C) Pressurised water
Answer: Option B
110. In nuclear fission
(A) The original elements change into completely different elements
(B) The electrons of the element change
(C) The molecules rearrange themselves to form other molecules
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Answer: Option A
111. A fast breeder reactor uses following as fuel
(A) Enriched uranium
(B) Plutonium
(C) Thorium
(D) U₂₃₅
Answer: Option D
112. Half life of a radioactive isotope corresponds to the time required
for half of the following to decay
(A) Electrons
(B) Protons
(C) Neutrons
(D) Atom
Answer: Option D
113. In boiling water reactor, moderator is
(A) Coolant itself
(B) Ferrite rod
(C) Graphite rod
(D) Liquid sodium metal
Answer: Option A
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Manufacturing & Production Engineering:
01. If a gas metal arc process uses a low arc voltage and the arc is
continuously interrupted as the molten electrode metal fills up the arc
gap is known as
(A) ARC
(B) Short ARC
(C) ARC length
(D) ARC blow
Answer: Option B
Explanation: In short ARC, Gas metals are processes use a law are
voltage. The arc is continuously interrupted as the molten electrode metal
bridges the arc gap.
02. Which one among the following welding processes uses non-
consumable electrode?
(A) Gas metal arc welding
(B) Submerged arc welding
(C) Gas tungsten arc welding
(D) Flux coated arc welding
Answer: Option C
Explanation: GTAW is also called as Tungsten Inert Gas Welding (TIG).
The arc is maintained between the work piece and a tungsten electrode by
an inert gas. The electrode is non-consumable since its melting point is
about 3400⁰C.
03. What type of fusion welding process is used for welding sheet
metals of all engineering metals (except Cu, Ag) in automobile and air
craft industries, pipe and tubing production?
(A) Thermit welding
(B) Electroslag welding
(C) Resistance welding
(D) Submerged arc welding
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Resistance Welding is used for welding sheet metals of all
engineering metals (except Cu, Ag) in automobile and air craft industries,
pipe and tubing production. It’s a type of fusion welding process.
04. When two main plates are kept in alignment butting each other
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and riveted with cover plate on both sides of the main plates with two
rows of rivets in each main plate, the joint is known as _______ double
cover butt joint.
(A) Single riveted
(B) Double riveted
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
05. In a metal arc welding process, a gas metal arc welding with
magnetized flux is used and can be done in all the positions i.e. flat
position, vertical position or inclined position.
(A) Globular transfer
(B) Spray transfer
(C) GMAW practice
(D) Dip transfer
Answer: Option C
Explanation: GMAW practice is a gas metal arc welding with magnetized
flux and this type of welding can be done successfully on most of the
commercial metals, if proper welding wire and proper gases are chosen
and the proper settings are made. It can be done in all the positions i.e. flat
position, vertical position or inclined position.
06. In a particular type of welding, flux is prepared in the form of a
coarse powder and granulated flux is spread over the joint. What is
this type of welding process called?
(A) Electric arc welding
(C) MIG welding
(D) TIG welding
Answer: Option B
Explanation: In submerged type of arc welding, flux is prepared in the
form of coarse powder granulated flux is spread over the joint.
07. The common welding error that occurs due to shrinkage of weld
metal, faulty clamping of parts, faulty penetration or overheating at
joints is called?
(A) Distortion
(B) Warping
(C) Porous weld
(D) Poor fusion
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Answer: Option B
Explanation: Warping occurs due to shrinkage of weld metal, faulty
clamping of parts, faulty penetration or overheating at joint.
08. The object of caulking in a riveted joint is to make the joint
(C) Free from stresses
(D) Leak-proof
Answer: Option D
09. Calculate the weld per minute, work speed of circular electrode of
220 mm diameter for carrying out seam welding at 4 welds per cm on
1.6 mm thick mild steel tube. Welding cycle consists of 3 cycles ‘on’
and 2 cycles ‘off’ Power supply is at 50 Hz.
(A) 3000 welds / min, 75 mm / min
(B) 600 welds / min, 1500 mm / min
(C) 500 welds/ min, 1250 mm/min
(D) 22 welds / min, 55 mm / min
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Weld per min = (frequency × 60)/ (cycles for weld + interval cycles)
= (50 × 60)/ (3 + 2) = 600 welds/ min.
Work speed (mm / min) = (welds/ min) / weld required per mm
= 600 / (4/10) = 1500 mm/ min
10. What is the method of brazing used to join relatively small
assemblies made from materials that either do not oxidize at the
brazing temperature or can be protected from oxidation with a flux?
(A) Torch brazing
(B) Dip brazing
(C) Resistance brazing
(D) Furnace brazing
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Torch brazing is used to join relatively small assemblies
made from materials that either do not oxidize at the brazing temperature
or can be protected from oxidation with a flux.
Aluminium-Silicon alloys, silver base alloys and copper-zinc alloys are
used as the filler metals with proper flux. The self-fluxing copper
phosphorus alloys are also used.
11. Work speed of circular electrode of 220 mm diameter for carrying
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out seam welding at 4 welds per cm on 1.6 mm thick mild steel tube.
Welding cycle consists of 3 cycles ‘on’ and 2 cycles ‘off’ Power supply
is at 50 Hz. Calculate R.P.M. and energy requirement of the above
circular electrodes assuming effective resistance between electrodes as
100 ohm.
(A) 2.17 rpm, 600 joules
(B) 6.8 rpm, 6 joules
(C) 5.03 rpm, 600 joules
(D) 22 rpm, 600 joules
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Weld per min = (frequency × 60)/ (cycles for weld + interval cycles)
= (50 × 60)/ (3 + 2) = 600 welds/ min.
Work speed (mm / min) = (welds/ min) / weld required per mm
= 600 / (4/10) = 1500 mm/ min.
Therefore, RPM of electrode = work speed in mm per min/ π × electrode
diameter in mm
= 1500/ (3.14 × 220) = 2.17 rpm.
For 1.6 mm thick M.S. Plate, current requirement is around 10,000
amperes
Therefore, Energy required = I²RT = (10, 000²) × 100 × (3/ 50) = 600
Joules.
12. In DC arc welding, if leads are arranged in work as Negative pole
of the welding arc and electrode as Positive pole of the welding arc, the
arrangement is known as
(A) Fusion
(B) Reverse polarity
(C) Forward welding
(D) Direct polarity
Answer: Option B
13. What is the welding defect caused due to improper control and
poor removal of slog between passes called?
(A) Mismatch
(B) Under fill
(C) Crack
(D) Porosity
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Under fill is the welding defect caused due to improper
control and poor removal of slag between passes.
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14. The common welding error that occurs due to wrong speed, faulty
preparation, and high / low current, improper electrode size is called?
(A) Distortion
(B) Warping
(C) Porous weld
(D) Poor fusion
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Poor fusion could be due to wrong speed, faulty preparation,
and high / low current, improper electrode size.
15. What is the type of welding defect caused due to shrinkage during
solidification and by weld stresses called?
(A) Incomplete fusion
(B) Lamellar tearing
(C) Mismatch
(D) Shrinkage void
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Lamellar tearing is caused due to shrinkage during
solidification and by weld stresses.
16. In abrasive jet machining, as the distance between the nozzle tip
and the work surface increases, the material removal rate
(A) Increases continuously
(B) Decreases continuously
(C) Decreases, becomes stable and then increases.
(D) Increases, becomes stable and then decreases.
Answer: Option D
Explanation: The material removal rate is first increases because of area
of jet increase than becomes stable and then decreases due to decrease in
jet velocity.
17. Match the following metal forming processes with their associated
stresses in the work piece.
Metal forming process Types of stress
1. Coining P. Tensile
2. Wire Drawing Q. Shear
3. Blanking R. Tensile and compressive
4. Deep Drawing S. Compressive
(A) 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R

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(B) 1-S, 2-P, 3-R, 4-Q
(C) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-S, 4-R
(D) 1-P, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-S
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Metal forming Process Types of stress
1. Coining S. Compressive
2. Wire Drawing P. Tensile
3. Blanking Q. Shear
4. Deep Drawing R. Tensile and compressive
Hence, correct match list is, 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R
18. In an interchangeable assembly, shafts of size 25.000 -0.010⁺⁰∙⁰⁴⁰ mm

mate with holes of size
25.000 -0.020⁺⁰∙⁰³⁰, the maximum interference (in microns) in the
assembly is
(A) 40
(B) 30
(C) 20
(D) 10
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Maximum Interference = Maximum limit of shat
−Minimum limit of hole
= (25 + 0.040) − (25 + 0.020)
= 0.02mm = 20 microns
19. During normalizing process of steel, the specimen is heated
(A) Between the upper and lower critical temperature and cooled in
still air.
(B) Above the upper critical temperature and cooled in furnace.
(C) Above the upper critical temperature and cooled in still air.
(D) Between the upper and lower critical temperature and cooled in
furnace.
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Normalising involves prolonged heating just above the
critical temperature to produce globular form of carbine and then cooling
in air.
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20. A CNC vertical milling machine has to cut a straight slot of 10 mm
width and 2mm depth by a cutter of 10 mm diameter between points
(0,0) and (100,100) on the XY plane (dimensions in mm). The feed rate
used for milling is 50 mm/min, milling time for the slot (in seconds) is
(A) 120
(B) 170
(C) 180
(D) 240
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Given data, width (b) = 10 mm, depth = 2mm
Distance travelled for cut between points (0, 0) and (100,100)
By Pythagoras theorem
d = √(100²+ 100²) = 141.42mm
Feed rate f = 50 mm/min = 50/ 60 = 0.833 mm/ sec.
Time required to cut the distance (d)
t = d/f = 141.42/ 0.833 = 169.7 ≈ 170 sec.
21. A solid cylinder of diameter 100 mm and height 50 mm is forged
between two frictionless flat dies to a height of 25mm. The percentage
change in diameter is
(A) 0
(B) 2.07
(C) 20.7
(D) 41.4
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Since volume of cylinder remains same.
Therefore, Volume before forging = Volume after forging
πd₁²/ 4 = πd₂²/ 4
or, d₂ = 141.42
Percentage change in diameter = {(d₂ - d₁)/ d₁} × 100
= 41.42%
22. The maximum possible draft in cold rolling of sheet increases with
the
(A) Increase in coefficient of friction
(B) Decrease in coefficient of friction
(C) Decrease in roll radius
(D) Decrease in roll velocity
Answer: Option A
Explanation: The main objective in rolling is to decrease the thickness of
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the metal.
The relation for the rolling is given by, F = µPr
Where; F = tangential frictional force
µ = Coefficient of friction
Pr= Normal force between the roll and work piece
Now, from the increase in µ the draft in cold rolling of sheet increases.
23. The operation in which oil is permeated into the pores of a powder
metallurgy product is known as
(A) Mixing
(B) Sintering
(C) Impregnation
(D) Infiltration
Answer: Option C
Explanation: If the pores in a sintered compact are filled with oil, the
operation is called as impregnation. The lubricants are added to the porous
bearings, gears and pump rotors etc.
24. A hole is of dimension φ = 9 ₊0⁺⁰∙⁰¹⁵ mm. The corresponding shaft is
of dimension φ = 9 ₊0.001⁺⁰∙⁰¹⁰ mm. The resulting assembly has
(A) Loose running fit
(B) Close running fit
(C) Transition fit
(D) Interference fit
Answer: Option C
Explanation: In transition fit, the tolerance zones of holes and shaft
overlap.
Upper limit of hole = 9 + 0.015 = 9.015mm
Lower limit of hole = 9 + 0.000 = 9.000 mm
Upper limit of shaft = 9 + 0.010 = 9.010 mm
Lower limit of shaft = 9 + 0.001 = 9.001mm
Therefore, it is easily recognisable from the dimensions that it is a
transition fit.
25. The crystal structure of austenite is
(A) Body centred cubic
(B) Base centred cubic
(C) Hexagonal closed packed
(D) Body centred tetragonal
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Austenite is a solid solution of carbon in ɣ-iron. It has F.C.C
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structure. It has a solid solubility of up to 2% C at 1130⁰C.
26. The material property which depends only on the basic crystal
structure is
(A) Fatigue strength
(B) Work hardening
(C) Fracture strength
(D) Elastic constant
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Fracture strength is a material property which depends on
the basic crystal structure. Fracture strength depends on the strength of the
material.
27. A shaft has a dimension, φ9 +0.025⁺⁰∙⁰⁰⁹, the respective values of
fundamental deviation and tolerance are
(A) - 0.025, ±0.008
(B) - 0.025, 0.016
(C) - 0.009, ± 0.008
(D) - 0.009, 0.016
Answer: Option D
Explanation: We know that, shaft tolerance
= Upper limit of shaft − Lower limit of shaft
= (35 − 0.009) − (35 − 0.025) = 34.991 − 34.975 = 0.016
Fundamental deviation for basic shaft is lower deviation.
= − 0.009
28. In a CNC program block, N002 GO2 G91 X40 Z40......, GO2 and
G91 refer to
(A) Circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction and
incremental dimension
(B) Circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction and absolute
dimension
(C) Circular interpolation in clockwise direction and incremental
dimension
(D) Circular interpolation in clockwise direction and absolute
dimension
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
GO2 represent circular interpolation in clockwise direction.
G91 represent incremental dimension.
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29. Friction at the tool-chip interface can be reduced by
(A) Decreasing the rake angle
(B) Increasing the depth of cut
(C) Decreasing the cutting speed
(D) Increasing the cutting speed
Answer: Option D
Explanation: The cutting forces decrease with an increase in cutting
speed, but it is substantially smaller than the increase in speed. With the
increase in speed, friction decreases at the tool chip interface. The
thickness of chip reduces by increasing the speed.
30. The effective number of lattice points in the unit cell of simple
cubic, body centred cubic, and face centred cubic space lattices,
respectively, are
(A) 1, 2, 2
(B) 1, 2, 4
(C) 2, 3, 4
(D) 2, 4, 4
Answer: Option B
Explanation: The effective number of lattice points in the unit cell of
Simple cubic = (1/8) × 8 = 1
Body centred cubic = (1/8) × 8 +1 = 2
Face centred cubic = (1/8) × 8 + (1/2) × 6 = 4
31. Which type of motor is not used in axis or spindle drives of CNC
machine tools?
(A) Induction motor
(B) DC servo motor
(C) Stepper motor
(D) Linear servo motor
Answer: Option C
Explanation: A spindle motor is a small, high precision, high reliability
electric motor that is used to rotate the shaft or spindle used in machine
tools for performing a wide range of tasks like drilling, grinding, milling
etc. A stepper motor has not all these characteristic due to change of
direction of rotation with time interval.
32. The main purpose of spheroidising treatment is to improve
(A) Hardenability of low carbon steels
(B) Machinability of low carbon steels
(C) Hardenability of high carbon steels
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(D) Machinability of high carbon steels
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Spheroidising may be defined as any heat treatment process
that produces a rounded or globular form of carbide. High carbon steels
are spheroidized to improve machinability, especially in continuous
cutting operations.
33. NC contouring is an example of
(A) Continuous path positioning
(B) Point-to-point positioning
(C) Absolute positioning
(D) Incremental positioning
Answer: Option A
Explanation: NC contouring is a continuous path positioning system. Its
function is to synchronize the axes of motion to generate a predetermined
path, generally a line or a circular arc.
34. A ring gauge is used to measure
(A) Outside diameter but not roundness
(B) Roundness but not outside diameter
(C) Both outside diameter and roundness
(D) Only external threads
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Ring gauges are used for gauging the shaft and male
components i.e. measure the outside diameter. It does not able to measure
the roundness of the given shaft.
35. When the temperature of a solid metal increases,
(A) Strength of the metal decreases but ductility increases
(B) Both strength and ductility of the metal decreases
(C) Both strength and ductility of the metal increases
(D) Strength of the metal increases but ductility decreases
Answer: Option A
Explanation: When the temperature of a solid metal increases, its intra
molecular bonds are brake and strength of solid metal decreases. Due to
decrease its strength, the elongation of the metal increases, when we apply
the load i.e. ductility increases.
36. The strength of a brazed joint
(A) Decreases with increase in gap between the two joining surfaces
(B) Increases with increase in gap between the two joining surfaces
(C) Decreases up to certain gap between the two joining surfaces
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beyond which it increases
(D) Increases up to certain gap between the two joining surfaces
beyond which it decreases
Answer: Option D
Explanation: We know that, the strength of the brazed joint depends on
(a) joint design and (b) the adhesion at the interfaces between the work
piece and the filler metal. The strength of the brazed joint increases up to
certain gap between the two joining surfaces beyond which it decreases
37. In order to have interference fit, it is essential that the lower limit
of the shaft should be
(A) Greater than the upper limit of the hole
(B) Lesser than the upper limit of the hole
(C) Greater than the lower limit of the hole
(D) Lesser than the lower limit of the hole
Answer: Option A
Explanation: The interference is the amount by which the actual size of a
shaft is larger than the actual finished size of the mating hole in an
assembly. For interference fit, lower limit of shaft should be greater than
the upper limit of the hole
38. When 3-2-1 principle is used to support and locate a three
dimensional work-piece during machining, the number of degrees of
freedom that are restricted is
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 10
Answer: Option C
Explanation: According to 3-2-1 principle, only the minimum locating
points should be used to secure location of the work piece in any one
plane.
(A) The work piece is resting on three pins A, B, C which are inserted in
the base of fixed body. The work piece cannot rotate about the axis XX and
YY and also it cannot move downward. In this case, the five degrees of
freedom have been arrested.
(B) Two more pins D and E are inserted in the fixed body, in a plane
perpendicular to the plane containing, the pins A, B and C. Now the work
piece cannot rotate about the Z -axis and also it cannot move towards the
left. Hence the addition of pins D and E restrict three more degrees of
freedom.
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(C) Another pin F in the second vertical face of the fixed body, arrests
degree of freedom 9.
39. Which among the NC operations given below are continuous path
operations?
Arc Welding (AW), Drilling (D), Laser Cutting of Sheet Metal (LC),
Milling (M), Punching in Sheet Metal (P), Spot Welding (SW)
(A) AW, LC and M
(B) AW, D, LC and M
(C) D, LC, P and SW
(D) D, LC, and SW
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Arc welding, Laser cutting of sheet and milling operations
are the continuous path operations.
40. In an interchangeable assembly, shafts of size 25.000 -0.0100⁺⁰∙⁰⁴⁰
mm mate with holes of size 25.000 -0.010⁺⁰∙⁰²⁰ mm. The maximum
possible clearance in the assembly will be
(A) 10 microns
(B) 20 microns
(C) 30 microns
(D) 60 microns
Answer: Option C
Explanation: We know that maximum possible clearance occurs between
minimum shaft size and maximum hole size.
Maximum size of shaft = 25 + 0.040 = 25.040 mm
Minimum size of shaft = 25 − 0.100 = 24.99 mm
Maximum size of hole = 25 + 0.020 = 25.020 mm
Minimum size of hole = 25 − 0.000 = 25.00 mm
= 25.020 − 24.99 = 0.03mm = 30 microns
41. During the execution of a CNC part program block
NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 ; the type of tool motion will be
(A) Circular Interpolation − clockwise
(B) Circular Interpolation − counter clockwise
(C) Linear Interpolation
(D) Rapid feed
Answer: Option A
Solution: Given:-NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0
Here term X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 will produce circular motion because radius is
consider in this term and GO2 will produce clockwise motion of the tool.
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42. The mechanism of material removal in EDM process is
(A) Melting and Evaporation
(B) Melting and Corrosion
(C) Erosion and Cavitations
(D) Cavitations and Evaporation
Answer: Option A
Explanation: In EDM, the thermal energy is employed to melt and
vaporize tiny particles of work material by concentrating the heat energy
on a small area of the work-piece.
43. The percentage of carbon in gray cast iron is in the range of
(A) 0.25 to 0.75 percent
(B) 1.25 to 1.75 percent
(C) 3 to 4 percent
(D) 8 to 10 percent
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Gray cast iron is the most widely used of all cast irons. In
fact, it is common to speak of gray cast iron just as cast iron. It contains 3
to 4% C and 2.5 % Si.
44. Cold working of steel is defined as working
(A) At its recrystallisation temperature
(B) Above its recrystallisation temperature
(C) Below its recrystallisation temperature
(D) At two thirds of the melting temperature of the metal
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Cold forming or cold working can be defined as the plastic
deforming of metals and alloys under conditions of temperature and strain
rate. Theoretically, the working temperature for cold working is below the
recrystallisation temperature of the metal/alloy (which is about one-half
the absolute melting temperature).
45. Quality screw threads are produced by
(A) Thread milling
(B) Thread chasing
(C) Thread cutting with single point tool
(D) Thread casting
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Quality screw threads are produced by only thread casting.
Quality screw threads are made by die-casting and permanent mould
casting is very accurate and of high finish, if properly made.
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46. What is the type of welding defect is caused due to stresses on
heating and cooling called?
(A) Incomplete penetration
(B) Shrinkage void
(C) Slag Entrapment (Inclusions)
(D) Incomplete fusion
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Slag entrapment (inclusions) welding defect is caused due to
stresses on heating and cooling.
47. What is the type of welding defect caused due to poor deposition of
weld rod is called?
(A) Porosity
(B) Undercut
(C) Under fill
(D) Crack
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Porosity is a welding defect caused due to poor deposition
of weld rod.
48. What is the type of welding defect caused due to poor
manipulation of weld rod or a dirty joint called?
(A) Porosity
(B) Undercut
(C) Under fill
(D) Crack
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Under cut is a type of welding defect caused due to poor
manipulation of weld rod or a dirty joint.
49. What is the type of joining process called, where the parts to be
welded are kept in contact and rotated relative to each other and axial
pressure is applied when the desired temperature is obtained?
(A) Ultrasonic welding
(B) Forge welding
(C) Electron beam welding
(D) Friction welding
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Friction welding is a type of joining process where the parts
to be welded are kept in contact and rotated relative to each other and axial
pressure is applied when the desired temperature is obtained.
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50. If the flame of the welding torch is directed towards the progress
of welding, then what will you call the welding technique?
(A) Forehand welding
(B) Flux cored ARC welding
(C) Electro slag welding
(D) Pulsed spray welding
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Forehand welding is a welding technique in which the
welding torch is directed towards the progress of welding.
51. Which of the following is the correct data structure for solid
models?
(A) Solid part - faces - edges - vertices
(B) Solid part - edges - faces - vertices
(C) Vertices - edges - faces - solid parts
(D) Vertices - faces- edges - solid parts
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Correct data structure for solid models is given by,
Vertices - edges - faces - solid parts
52. For generating a Coon’s surface we require
(A) A set of grid points on the surface
(B) A set of grid control points
(C) Four bounding curves defining the surface
(D) Two bounding curves and a set of grid control points
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Coon’s surface is obtained by blending four boundary
curves. The main advantage of Coon’s surface is its ability to fit a smooth
surface through digitized points in space such as those used in reverse
engineering.
53. Internal gear cutting operation can be performed by
(A) Milling
(B) Shaping with rack cutter
(C) Shaping with pinion cutter
(D) Hobbing
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Internal gear cutting operation can be performed by shaping
with pinion cutter. In the case of ‘rotating pinion type cutter’, such an
indexing is not required, therefore, this type is more productive and so
common.
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54. If a particular Fe-C alloy contains less than 0.83% carbon, it is
called
(A) High speed steel
(B) Hypo eutectoid steel
(C) Hyper eutectoid steel
(D) Cast iron
Answer: Option B
Explanation: The carbon alloy having less than 2% carbon are called
“steels” and those containing over 2% carbon are called cast irons. Now,
steel may further be classified into two groups.
(i) Steels having less than 0.83% carbon are called “hypo-eutectoid steels”
(ii) Those having more than 0.83% carbon called “hyper-eutectoid steels”
55. In orthogonal turning of a low carbon steel bar of diameter 150
mm with uncoated carbide tool, the cutting velocity is 90 m/min. The
feed is 0.24 mm/rev and the depth of cut is 2mm. The chip thickness
obtained is 0.48 mm. If the orthogonal rake angle is zero and the
principle cutting edge angle is 90⁰, the shear angle in degree is
(A) 20.56
(B) 26.56
(C) 30.56
(D) 36.56
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Given: D = 150 mm, V = 90 m/min, f = 0.24 mm/rev.
d = 2mm, tc = 0.48 mm, α = 0, λ= 90⁰
Uncut chip thickness, t = f sin λ = 0.24 × sin90⁰ = 0.24 mm
Chip thickness ratio, r = t/tc = (0.24/ 0.48) = 1/2
From merchant’s theory,
Shear angle, tanΦ = rcos α /(1 - sin α) = 0.5cos0⁰/ (1 - 0.5sin0⁰) = 0.5
Φ = tan⁻¹ (0.5) = 26.56⁰
56. As tool and work are not in contact in EDM process
(A) No relative motion occurs between them
(B) No wear of tool occurs
(C) No power is consumed during metal cutting
(D) No force between tool and work occurs
Answer: Option D
Explanation: In EDM, the thermal energy is employed to melt and
vaporize tiny particles of work-material by concentrating the heat energy
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on a small area of the work-piece.
A powerful spark, such as at the terminals of an automobile battery, will
cause pitting or erosion of the metal at both anode & cathode. No force
occurs between tool & work.
57. Hardness of steel greatly improves with
(A) Annealing
(B) Cyaniding
(C) Normalizing
(D) Tempering
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Hardness is greatly depends on the carbon content present in
the steel. Cyaniding is case-hardening with powered potassium cyanide or
potassium Ferro cyanide mixed with potassium bi-chromate, substituted
for carbon. Cyaniding produces a thin but very hard case in a very short
time.
58. A lead-screw with half nuts in a lathe, free to rotate in both
directions has
(A) V-threads
(B) Whitworth threads
(C) Buttress threads
(D) Acme threads
Answer: Option D
Explanation: A lead-screw with half nuts in a lathe, free to rotate in both
directions had Acme threads. When it is used in conjunction with a split
nut, as on the lead screw of a lathe, the tapered sides of the threads
facilitate ready to engagement and disengagement of the halves of the nut
when required
59. Hot rolling of mild steel is carried out
(A) At recrystallization temperature
(B) Between 100⁰C to 150⁰C
(C) Between recrystallization temperature
(D) Above recrystallization temperature
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Hot rolling of metal means working of metals when heated
sufficiently (above the re-crystallizing temperature) to make them plastic
and easily worked.
60. Trepanning is performed for
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(A) Finishing a drilled hole
(B) Producing a large hole without drilling
(C) Truing a hole for alignment
(D) Enlarging a drilled hole
Answer: Option B
Explanation: In trepanning, the cutting tool produces a hole by removing
a disk-shaped piece (core), usually from flat plates. A hole is produced
without reducing all the material removed to chips, as is the case in
drilling. Such drills are used in deep-hole drilling machines for making
large hollow shafts, long machine tool spindles etc.
61. The hardness of a grinding wheel is determined by the
(A) Hardness of abrasive grains
(B) Ability of the bond to retain abrasives
(C) Hardness of the bond
(D) Ability of the grinding wheel to penetrate the work piece
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Because each abrasive grain usually removes only a very
small amount of material at a time, high rates of material removal can be
achieved only if a large number of these grains act together. This is done
by using bonded abrasives, typically in the form of a grinding wheel. The
abrasive grains are held together by a bonding material which acts as
supporting posts or brace between the grains and also increases the
hardness of the grinding wheel.
62. The cutting force in punching and blanking operations mainly
depends on
(A) The modulus of elasticity of metal
(B) The shear strength of metal
(C) The bulk modulus of metal
(D) The yield strength of metal
Answer: Option B
Explanation: The blanking force is given by the relation,
Fb = τ × d × t
Where, τ = shear strength of material.
63. In ECM, the material removal is due to
(A) Corrosion
(B) Erosion
(C) Fusion
(D) Ion displacement
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Answer: Option D
Explanation: In ECM, the principal of electrolysis is used to remove
metal from the work-piece. The material removal is due to ion
displacement. The principal of electrolysis is based on Faraday’s law of
electrolysis.
64. Allowance in limits and fits refers to
(A) Maximum clearance between shaft and hole
(B) Minimum clearance between shaft and hole
(C) Difference between maximum and minimum sizes of hole
(D) Difference between maximum and minimum sizes of shaft
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Allowance is an intentional difference between the
maximum material limits of mating parts. For shaft, the maximum material
limit will be its high limit and for hole, it will be its low limit. So,
allowance refers to maximum clearance between shaft and hole.
65. Green sand mould indicates that
(A) Polymeric mould has been cured
(B) Mould has been totally dried
(C) Mould is green in colour
(D) Mould contains moisture
Answer: Option D
Explanation: A green sand mould is composed of a mixture of sand (silica
sand, SiO₂), clay (which acts as binder) and water. The word green is
associated with the condition of wetness or freshness and because the
mould is left in the damp condition, hence the name “green sand mould”.
66. In a gating system, the ratio 1: 2: 4 represents
(A) Sprue base area: runner area: ingate area
(B) Pouring basin area: ingate area: runner area
(C) Sprue base area: ingate area: casting area
(D) Runner area: ingate area: casting area
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Gate Ratio is defined as the ratio of sprue base area,
followed by the total runner area and the total ingate area. The sprue base
area is taken is unity.
So, 1: 2: 4 = Sprue base area: Runner area: Total ingate area
67. Two streams of liquid metal which are not hot enough to fuse
properly result into a casting defect known as
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(A) Cold shut
(B) Swell
(C) Sand wash
(D) Scab
Answer: Option A
Explanation: Two streams of liquid metal which are not hot enough to
fuse properly result into a casting defect known as cold shut. This defect is
same as in sand mould casting. The reasons are:-
(i) Cooling of die or loss of plasticity of the metal
(ii) Shot speed less.
(iii) Air-vent or overflow is closed.
68. Which of the following engineering materials is the most suitable
candidate for hot chamber die casting?
(B) Titanium
(C) Copper
(D) Tin
Answer: Option D
Explanation: The hot chamber die casting process is used for low melting
temperature alloys.
Tin is a low melting temperature alloy.
69. Volume of a cube of side ‘l’ and volume of a sphere of radius ‘r’
are equal. Both the cube and the sphere are solid and of same
material. They are being cast. The ratio of the solidification time of the
cube to the same of the sphere is
(A) (4π/6)³ × (r/l)⁶
(B) (4π/6) × (r/l)²
(C) (4π/6)² × (r/l)³
(D) (4π/6)² × (r/l)⁴
Answer: Option D
Solution: According to Canine’s relation
Solidification time, (T) = q × (V/A)²
Where: V = Volume, A= Surface area, Q= Flow rate
q = constant of proportionality depends upon composition of cast
metal
Using the subscript ‘c’ for the cube and subscript‘s’ for the sphere.
Given: Vc = Vs So, T ∝ 1/A²
So, Tc/Ts = (As/Ac)² = (4πr²/6l²)² = (4π/6)² × (r/l)⁴
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70. An expendable pattern is used in
(A) Slush casting
(B) Squeeze casting
(C) Centrifugal casting
(D) Investment casting
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Investment casting uses an expandable pattern, which is
made of wax or of a plastic by moulding or rapid prototyping techniques.
This pattern is made by injecting molten wax or plastic into a metal die in
the shape of the pattern.
71. Match the items of List-I (Equipment) with the items of List-II
(Process) and select the correct answer using the given codes.
List-I (Equipment) List-II (Process)
P. Hot Chamber Machine 1. Cleaning
Q. Muller 2. Core making
R. Dielectric Baker 3. Die casting
S. Sand Blaster 4. Annealing
5. Sand mixing
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-5
(B) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-5
(C) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2
(D) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1
Answer: Option D
Explanation: The correct pairs are, P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-1
72. Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to
(A) Very high pouring temperature of the metal
(B) Insufficient fluidity of the molten metal
(C) Absorption of gases by the liquid metal
(D) Improper alignment of the mould flasks
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Two streams of liquid metal which are not hot enough to
fuse properly result into a casting defect, known as Misrun/cold shut. It
occurs due to insufficient fluidity of the molten metal.
73. Hardness of green sand mould increases with
(A) Increase in moisture content beyond 6 percent
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(B) Increase in permeability
(C) Decrease in permeability
(D) Increase in both moisture content and permeability
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Permeability or porosity of the moulding sand is the
measure of its ability to permit air to flow through it. So, hardness of green
sand mould increases by restricted the air permitted in the sand i.e.
decrease its permeability.
74. The primary purpose of a sprue in a casting mould is to
(A) Feed the casting at a rate consistent with the rate of solidification.
(B) Act as a reservoir for molten metal
(C) Feed molten metal from the pouring basin to the gate
(D) Help feed the casting until all solidification takes place
Answer: Option C
Explanation: From the pouring basin, the molten metal is transported
down into the mould cavity by means of the sprue or down-gate. It is a
vertical channel that connects the pouring basin with runners and gates.
75. Shrinkage allowance on pattern is provided to compensate for
shrinkage when
(A) The temperature of liquid metal drops from pouring to freezing
temperature
(B) The metal changes from liquid to solid state at freezing
temperature
(C) The temperature of solid phase drops from freezing to room
temperature
(D) The temperature of metal drops from pouring to room temperature
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Since metal shrinks on solidification and contracts further
on cooling to room temperature, linear dimensions of patterns are
increased in respect of those of the finished casting to be obtained. This is
called the “shrinkage allowance”.
So, the temperature of solid phase drops from freezing to room
temperature.
76. Which one of the following is a solid state joining process?
(A) Gas tungsten arc welding
(B) Resistance spot welding
(C) Friction welding
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Answer: Option C
Explanation: Friction welding is defined as “A solid state welding process
wherein coalescence is produced by heat obtained from mechanically
induced sliding motion between rubbing surfaces.
77. While current is shut down in the welding circuit, what kind of
voltage exists between the output terminals of the welding machine?
(A) GTAW
(B) Open air cut voltage
(C) Kerf
(D) Gouging
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Open air cut voltage is the voltage between the output
terminals of the welding machine when no current is flowing in the
welding circuit.
78. The capacity of a material to be welded under the imposed
fabrication conditions into a specific, suitably designed structure and
to perform satisfactorily in the intended service is known as?
(A) Weldment
(B) Weld tab
(C) Weldability
(D) Tack weld
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Weldability is the capacity of a material to be welded under
the imposed fabrication conditions into a specific, suitably designed
structure and to perform satisfactorily in the intended service.
79. In which type of welding a gas shield, a consumable electrode is
used and the welding can be done in all positions.
(A) ARC welding
(B) Submerged ARC welding
(C) TIG welding
(D) MIG welding
Answer: Option D
Explanation: In MIG welding, it’s a gas shield, a consumable electrode
and can be done in all positions.
80. In a metal arc welding process, metal transfer across the arc may
take place by a method of material transfer where the metal transfers
across the arc is in larger drops. This is at the rate of 100 drops / sec
or less, what is this known as
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(A) Globular transfer
(B) Spray transfer
(C) GMAW practice
(D) Dip transfer
Answer: Option D
Explanation: In Dip transfer method, the metal transfer across the arcs in
larger drops at the rate of 100 drops / sec or less. The drops are large
enough to short circuit the electrical flow across the arc. This process is
used for welding thin metal joints and for poor fit up joints. In this method,
the current values are much lower. Here special arc current power supplies
are needed to overcome the short circuit moment that occurs across the
arc.
81. What is the type of shielding gas for GTAW (Gas Tungsten Arc
Welding) used for carbon steels only called?
(A) Argon H₂
(B) Argon CO₂
(C) Argon Helium
(D) Helium
Answer: Option B
Explanation: Argon CO₂ is used for carbon steel only. Usually argon is
used as a shielding gas. Sometimes helium is used for welding thicker
sections since, light voltages are possible with this gas, and helium is of
course a costly gas.
82. A type of welding flows, which is the result of a perfect proportion
and mixture of acetylene and oxygen and is used for fusion welding of
steel and cast iron, is
(A) Carburizing flame
(B) Oxidizing flame
(C) Oxy-acetylene flame
(D) Neutral flame
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Neutral flame is the result of a perfect proportion and
mixture of acetylene and oxygen. It releases only heat and harmless gases.
Inner cone of a neutral flame is smooth and rounded. It is used for fusion
welding of steel and cast iron.
83. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 50%, then ratio of rivet
hole diameter to the pitch of rivets is
(A) 0.20
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(B) 0.30
(C) 0.50
(D) 0.60
Answer: Option C
84. What is the name of the device used in arc welding circuits for the
purpose of modifying the rate of current change when the weld road is
varied rapidly?
(A) Reactor
(B) Kerf
(C) Inductor
(D) Cone
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Inductor, a device used in arc welding circuits for the
purpose of modifying the rate of current change when the welding load is
varied rapidly.
85. Two 1 mm thick steel sheets are to be spot welded at a current of
5000 A. Assuming effective resistance to be 200 μm and current flow
time of 0.2 second, heat generated during the process will be
(A) 0.2 Joule
(B) 1 Joule
(C) 5 Joule
(D) 1000 Joule
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Given: I = 5000 A, R = 200 μΩ = 200 × 10⁻⁶ Ω, Δt = 0.2
second
Heat generated, Hg = I² (R Δt)
Hg = (5000)² × 200 × 10⁻⁶ × 0.2 = 1000 Joule
86. In up-cut milling the work piece is fed

(A) Against the rotating cutter
(B) At angle of 60° to the cutter
(C) In the direction of the cutter
(D) At the right angle to the cutter
Answer: Option A
87. Which of the following statement is correct regarding grinding of
high carbon steel?
(A) Grinding at high speed results in the reduction of chip thickness
and cutting forces per grit.
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(B) Aluminium oxide wheels are employed.
(C) The grinding wheel has to be of open structure.
Answer: Option D
88. In Oxyacetylene gas welding, temperature at the inner cone of the
flame is around
(A) 3500⁰C
(B) 3200⁰C
(C) 2900⁰C
(D) 2550⁰C
Answer: Option B
Explanation: In OAW, Acetylene (C₂H₂) produces higher temperature (in
the range of
3200° C) than other gases, (which produce a flame temperature in the
range of 2500° C) because it contains more available carbon and releases
heat when its components (C & H) dissociate to combine with O₂ and
burn.
89. Which of the following arc welding processes does not use consumable
electrodes?
(A) GMAW
(B) GTAW
(C) Submerged Arc Welding
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Explanation: GTAW is also called as Tungsten Inert Gas welding (TIG).
The electrode is non-consumable since its melting point is about 3400° C.
90. Two plates of the same metal having equal thickness are to be butt
welded with electric arc. When the plate thickness changes, welding is
achieved by
(A) Adjusting the current
(B) Adjusting the duration of current
(C) Changing the electrode size
(D) Changing the electrode coating
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Electric arc welding is a welding process wherein
coalescence is produced by heating with an arc, with or without the use of
filler metals. No filler metal is used in butt weld. So, when the plate
thickness changes, welding are achieved by changing the electrode size.
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91. A twist drill is a
(A) Side cutting tool
(B) Front cutting tool
(C) End cutting tool
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
92. A jig is defined as a device which
(A) Holds and locates a workpiece and guides and controls one or
more cutting tools
(B) Holds and locates a workpiece during an inspection or for a
manufacturing operation
(C) Is used to check the accuracy of workpiece
Answer: Option A
93. A drill bit of 20 mm diameter rotating at 500 r.p.m. with a feed
rate of 0.2 mm/revolution is used to drill a through hole in a mild steel
plate 20 mm thickness. The depth of cut in this drilling operation is
(A) 0.2 mm
(B) 10 mm
(C) 20 mm
(D) 100 mm
Answer: Option C
94. Chemical milling operation is performed
(A) On universal milling machine
(B) On plain milling machine
(C) In a tank containing an etching solution
Answer: Option C
95. For machining a mild steel workpiece using carbide tool, the
maximum material will be removed at a temperature of
(A) 50°C
(B) 100°C
(C) 175°C
(D) 275°C
Answer: Option B
96. Which of the following statement is wrong about ultrasonic
machining?
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(A) It is best suited for machining hard and brittle materials
(B) It cuts materials at very slow speeds
(C) It removes large amount of material
(D) It produces good surface finish
Answer: Option C
97. The ductile materials, during machining, produce
(A) Continuous chips
(B) Discontinuous chips
(C) Continuous chips with built up edge
(D) Either (A) or (C)
Answer: Option D
98. Which of the following parameters govern the value of shear angle
in continuous chip formation?
(A) True feed
(B) Chip thickness
(C) Rake angle of the cutting tool
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
99. The cutting speed for drilling __________ with high speed steel
drills is 24 to 45 m/min.
(A) Mild steel
(B) Copper
(C) Aluminium
(D) Brass
Answer: Option A
100. A right hand tool on a lathe cuts most efficiently when it travels
(A) From left to right end of the lathe bed
(B) From right to left end of the lathe bed
(C) With the help of a compound slide
(D) Across the bed
Answer: Option B
101. Cast iron during machining produces
(B) Discontinuous chips
(C) Continuous chips with built-up edge
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
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102. Dielectric is used in
(A) Electrochemical machining
(B) Ultrasonic machining
(C) Electro discharge machining
(D) Laser machining
Answer: Option C
103. In electro-discharge machining, dielectric is used to
(A) Help in the movement of the sparks
(B) Control the spark discharges
(C) Act as coolant
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
104. In an orthogonal cutting, the depth of cut is halved and the feed
rate is double. If the chip thickness ratio is unaffected with the
changed cutting conditions, the actual chip thickness will be
(A) Doubled
(B) Halved
(C) Quadrupled
(D) Unchanged
Answer: Option A
105. In metal machining, the zone where the heat is generated due to
friction between the moving chip and the tool face, is called
(A) Friction zone
(B) Work-tool contact zone
(C) Shear zone
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
106. The snag grinding is done
(A) To produce good surface finish and high degree of accuracy
(B) To remove considerable amount of metal without regard to
accuracy of the finished surface
(C) To grind exterior cylindrical surfaces
Answer: Option B
107. In ultrasonic machining, tool is made of
(A) Tungsten carbide
(B) Brass or copper
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(C) Diamond
(D) Stainless steel
Answer: Option B
108. Stellite preserves hardness upto a temperature of
(A) 350°C
(B) 500°C
(C) 900°C
(D) 1100°C
Answer: Option D
109. Low helix angle drills are preferred for drilling holes in
(A) Plastics
(B) Copper
(C) Cast steel
(D) Carbon steel
Answer: Option A
110. The angle between the shear plane and __________ is called shear
angle.
(A) Work surface
(B) Tool face
(C) Machine surface
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
111. In hot machining, the work is heated by
(A) Simple heating
(B) Flame heating
(C) Induction heating
Answer: Option D
112. While cutting helical gears on a non-differential gear hobber, the
feed change gear ratio is
(A) Independent of index change gear ratio
(B) Dependent on speed change gear ratio
(C) Interrelated to index change gear ratio
(D) Independent of speed and index change gear ratio
Answer: Option C
113. The rake angle required to machine brass by high speed steel tool
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is
(A) 0°
(B) 10°
(C) 20°
(D) 100°
Answer: Option A
114. For machining a mild steel workpiece by a high speed steel tool,
the average cutting speed is
(A) 5 m/min
(B) 10 m/min
(C) 15 m/min
(D) 30 m/min
Answer: Option D
115. The factor considered for evaluation of machinability is
(A) Cutting forces and power consumption
(B) Tool life
(C) Type of chips and shear angle
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
116. Lathe bed is made of
(A) Mild steel
(B) Alloy steel
(C) Pig iron
(D) Chilled cast iron
Answer: Option D
117. The drill spindles are provided with standard taper known as
(A) Morse taper
(B) Seller's taper
(C) Chapman taper
(D) Brown and Sharpe taper
Answer: Option A
118. The cutting force in up milling __________ per tooth movement
of the cutter.
(A) Is zero
(B) Is maximum
(C) Decreases from maximum to zero
(D) Increases from zero to maximum
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Answer: Option D
119. A left hand tool on a lathe cuts most efficiently when it travels
(A) From left to right end of the lathe bed
(B) From right to left end of the lathe bed
(C) With the help of a compound slide
(D) Across the bed
Answer: Option A
120. Side rake angle of a single point cutting tool is the angle
(A) By which the face of the tool is inclined towards back
(B) By which the face of the tool is inclined sideways
(C) Between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and
a plane at right angles to the centre line of the point of the tool
(D) Between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and
a line drawn from the point perpendicular to the base
Answer: Option B
121. Which of the following statement is correct for oblique cutting
system?
(A) The cutting edge is inclined at an angle less than 90° with the
normal to the velocity of the tool.
(B) Frequently, more than one cutting edges are in action.
(C) The chip flows on the tool face at an angle less than 90° with the
normal on the cutting edge.
Answer: Option D
122. Crack in grinding wheel is developed due to
(A) High temperature developed at the contact of the wheel face and
work
(B) Grinding hard work
(C) Low speed of wheel
(D) High speed of wheel
Answer: Option D
123. EDM machining is applied for
(A) Shaping carbide dies and punches having complicated profiles
(B) Making large number of small holes in sieves and fuel nozzles
(C) Embossing and engraving on harder materials
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
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124. In drilling operation, the metal is removed by
(A) Shearing
(B) Extrusion
(C) Shearing and extrusion
(D) Shearing and compression
Answer: Option C
125. In centreless grinders, the regulating wheel is inclined at
(A) 0° to 8°
(B) 9° to 15°
(C) 16° to 20°
(D) 21° to 25°
Answer: Option A
126. The process of improving the cutting action of the grinding wheel
is called
(A) Truing
(B) Dressing
(C) Facing
(D) Clearing
Answer: Option B
(A) The diamond is the hardest tool material and can run at cutting
speeds about 50 times that of high speed steel tool.
(B) The ceramic tools can be used at cutting speeds 40 times that of
high speed steel tools.
(C) The cemented carbide tools can be used at cutting speeds 10 times
that of high speed steel tools.
(D) The ceramic tools can withstand temperature upto 600°C only.
Answer: Option D
128. Which of the following parameters influence the axial feed rate in
centerless grinding?
(A) Regulating wheel diameter
(B) Speed of the regulating wheel
(C) Angle between the axes of grinding and regulating wheels
Answer: Option D
129. The type of tool used on milling machine and broaching machine
is
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(A) Single point cutting tool
(B) Two point cutting tool
(C) Three point cutting tool
(D) Multipoint cutting tool
Answer: Option D
130. The width of cutting edge of a parting off tool varies from
(A) 3 to 12 mm
(B) 5 to 20 mm
(C) 8 to 30 mm
(D) 15 to 40 mm
Answer: Option A
131. Which of the following statement is correct in regard to centreless
grinding?
(A) The workpiece is supported throughout its entire length as
grinding takes place.
(B) It is a continuous process and adopted for production work.
(C) It requires no holding device for the work.
Answer: Option D
132. In a shaper
(A) Tool is stationary and work reciprocates
(B) Work is stationary and tool reciprocates
(C) Tool moves over stationary work
(D) Tool moves over reciprocating work
Answer: Option B
133. Side relief angle of a single point tool is the angle
(A) By which the face of the tool is inclined towards back
(B) By which the face of the tool is inclined sideways
(C) Between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and
a plane at right angles to the centre line of the point of tool
(D) Between the surface of the flank immediately below the point and
a line drawn from the point perpendicular to the base
Answer: Option C
134. When the end of a tap is tapered for about three or four threads,
it is known as a
(A) Taper tap
(B) Bottoming tap
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(C) Second tap
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
135. When the cutting edge of the tool is dull, then during machining
(A) Continuous chips are formed
(B) Discontinuous chips are formed
(C) Continuous chips with built-up edge are formed
(D) No chips are formed
Answer: Option C
136. The factor responsible for the formation of discontinuous chips is
(A) Low cutting speed and large rake angle
(B) Low cutting speed and small rake angle
(C) High cutting speed and large rake angle
(D) High cutting speed and small rake angle
Answer: Option B
137. The hard grade grinding wheels are denoted by the letters
(A) A to H
(B) I to P
(C) Q to Z
(D) A to P
Answer: Option C
138. A fine grained grinding wheel is used to grind
(A) Hard and brittle materials
(B) Soft and ductile materials
(C) Hard and ductile materials
(D) Soft and brittle materials
Answer: Option A
139. Climb milling is chosen while machining because
(A) The chip thickness increase gradually
(B) It enables the cutter to dig in and start the cut
(C) The specific power consumption is reduced
(D) Better surface finish can be obtained
Answer: Option B
140. The tool life in case of a grinding wheel is the time
(A) Between two successive regrinds of the wheel
(B) Taken for the wheel to be balanced
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(C) Taken between two successive wheel dressings
(D) Taken for a wear of 1 mm on its diameter
Answer: Option C
141. In determining the various forces on the chip, Merchant assumed
that the
(A) Cutting edge of the tool is sharp and it does not make any flank
contact with the workpiece
(B) Only continuous chip without built-up-edge is produced
(C) Cutting velocity remains constant
Answer: Option D
142. In a single point tool, the angle between the surface of the flank
immediately below the point and a line drawn from the point
perpendicular to the base, is known as
(A) Side relief angle
(B) End relief angle
(C) Back rake angle
(D) Side rake angle
Answer: Option B
143. Crater wear occurs mainly on the
(A) Nose part, front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool
(B) Face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge
only
(C) Cutting edge only
(D) Front face only
Answer: Option B
144. A grinding wheel is said to be of _________ if it holds the abrasive
grains more securely.
(A) Soft grade
(B) Medium grade
(C) Hard grade
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
145. The grinding of long, slender shafts or bars is usually done by
(A) In-feed grinding
(B) Through feed grinding
(C) End-feed grinding
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Answer: Option B
146. Which of the following statement is correct about hot machining?
(A) It requires less power than machining metals at room temperature.
(B) The rate of tool wear is lower.
(C) It is used for machining high strength and high temperature
resistant materials.
Answer: Option D
147. A bottoming tap has
(A) Its end tapered for about three or four threads
(B) Its end tapered for about eight or ten threads
(C) Full threads for the whole of its length
Answer: Option C
148. The example of snag grinding is
(A) Trimming the surface left by sprues and risers on castings
(B) Grinding the parting line left on castings
(C) Removing flash on forgings
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
149. The saw milling is an operation of
(A) Producing grooves around the periphery of a cylindrical or conical
workpiece
(B) Producing narrow slots or grooves on a workpiece
(C) Reproduction of an outline of a template on a workpiece
(D) Machining several surfaces of a workpiece simultaneously
Answer: Option B
150. In ultrasonic machining, the metal is removed by
(A) Using abrasive slurry between the tool and work
(B) Direct contact of tool with the work
(C) Maintaining an electrolyte between the work and tool in a very
small gap between the two
(D) Erosion caused by rapidly recurring spark discharges between the
tool and work
Answer: Option A
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151. The rake angle of a single point cutting tool corresponds to
_________ of a twist drill.
(A) Lip clearance angle
(B) Helix angle
(C) Point angle
(D) Chisel edge angle
Answer: Option B
152. A better machinable metal is one which gives
(A) Lower chip-tool contact area and larger shear angle
(B) Higher chip-tool contact area and smaller shear angle
(C) Lower chip-tool contact area and smaller shear angle
(D) Higher chip-tool contact area and larger shear angle
Answer: Option A
153. The advantage of a broaching operation is that
(A) Rate of production is very high
(B) High accuracy and high class of surface finish is possible
(C) Roughing and finishing cuts are completed in one pass of the tool
Answer: Option D
154. Trepanning is an operation of
(A) Making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole
(B) Smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole
(C) Sizing and finishing a small diameter hole
(D) Producing a hole by removing metal along the circumference of a
hollow cutting tool
Answer: Option D
155. The silicon carbide abrasive is chiefly used for grinding
(A) Cemented carbide
(B) Ceramic
(C) Cast iron
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
156. The grinding operation is a
(A) Shaping operation
(B) Forming operation
(C) Surface finishing operation
(D) Dressing operation
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Answer: Option C
157. The lathe centres are provided with standard taper known as
(A) Morse taper
(B) Seller's taper
(C) Chapman taper
(D) Brown and Sharpe taper
Answer: Option A
158. Grinding wheels should be tested for balance
(A) Only at the time of manufacture
(B) Before starting the grinding operation
(C) At the end of grinding operation
(D) Occasionally
Answer: Option D
159. Which of the following process is used for preparing parts having
large curved surfaces and thin sections?
(A) Hot machining
(B) Ultrasonic machining
(C) ECM process
(D) Chemical milling
Answer: Option D
160. In machining metal, cutting force at the cutting edge is measured
by a
(A) Wattmeter
(B) Dynamometer
(C) Hydrometer
(D) Pyrometer
Answer: Option B
161. For turning internal tapers, the suitable method is
(A) By a form tool
(B) By setting over the tail stock
(C) By a taper turning attachment
(D) By swivelling the compound rest
Answer: Option C
162. The chuck preferred for quick setting and accurate centering of a
job is
(A) Four jaw independent chuck
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(B) Collect chuck
(C) Three jaw universal chuck
(D) Magnetic chuck
Answer: Option B
163. Which of the following operations can be performed with milling
cutters?
(A) Cutting key ways on shafts
(B) Cutting external screw threads
(C) Cutting teeth of spur gears
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
164. In plunge grinding
(A) The work is reciprocated as the wheel feeds to produce cylinders
longer than the width of wheel face
(B) The work rotates in a fixed position as the wheel feeds to produce
cylinders equal to or shorter than the width of wheel face
(C) The work is reciprocated as the wheel feeds to produce cylinders
shorter than the width of wheel face
(D) The work rotates in a fixed position as the wheel feeds to produce
cylinders longer than the width of wheel face
Answer: Option B
165. In grinding irregular, curved, tapered, convex and concave
surfaces, the grinder used is
(A) Cylindrical grinder
(B) Internal grinder
(C) Surface grinder
(D) Tool and cutter grinder
Answer: Option C
166. Flank wear occurs mainly on the
(A) Nose part, front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool
(B) Face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge
(C) Cutting edge only
(D) Front face only
Answer: Option A
167. The specific cutting energy used for establishing the
machinability of the metal depends upon its
(A) Coefficient of friction
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(B) Microstructure
(C) Work hardening characteristics
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
168. Glazing in grinding wheels __________ cutting capacity.
(A) Has no effect on
(B) Increase
(C) Decrease
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
169. The guideways are of
(A) Flat type
(B) V-type
(C) Dovetail type
Answer: Option D
170. Tool signature consists of __________ elements.
(A) Two
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Seven
Answer: Option D
171. In _________ operation, the chip thickness is minimum at the
beginning of the cut and it reaches to the maximum when the cut
terminates.
(A) Conventional milling
(B) Climb milling
(C) Face milling
(D) End milling
Answer: Option A
172. Ultrasonic machining is best suited for
(A) Tool steels
(B) Sintered carbides
(C) Glass
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
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173. Crater wear is mainly due to the phenomenon known as
(A) Adhesion of metals
(B) Oxidation of metals
(C) Diffusion of metals
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
174. The shear velocity is the velocity of
(A) Tool relative to the workpiece
(B) Chip relative to the tool
(C) Tool along the tool face
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
175. The lead screw of a lathe has _________ threads.
(A) Single start
(B) Double start
(C) Multi-start
Answer: Option A
176. The operation of producing grooves around the periphery of a
cylindrical or conical workpiece is called
(A) Profile milling
(B) Gang milling
(C) Saw milling
(D) Helical milling
Answer: Option D
177. The process of removing metal by a cutter which is rotated
against the direction of travel of workpiece, is called
(A) Up milling
(B) Down milling
(C) Face milling
(D) End milling
Answer: Option A
178. The angle between the lathe centres is
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
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Answer: Option C
179. In order to grind soft material
(A) Coarse grained grinding wheel is used
(B) Fine grained grinding wheel is used
(C) Medium grained grinding wheel is used
Answer: Option A
180. The cutting fluid mostly used for machining alloy steels is
(A) Water
(B) Soluble oil
(C) Dry
(D) Sulphurised mineral oil
Answer: Option D
181. The angle formed by the leading edge of the land with a plane
having the axis of the drill, is called
(A) Helix or rake angle
(B) Point angle
(C) Chisel edge angle
(D) Lip clearance angle
Answer: Option A
182. The broaching operation in which the work moves past the
stationary tool is called
(A) Pull broaching
(B) Push broaching
(C) Surface broaching
(D) Continuous broaching
Answer: Option D
183. In lapping operation, the amount of metal removed is
(A) 0.005 to 0.01 mm
(B) 0.01 to 0.1 mm
(C) 0.05 to 0.1 mm
(D) 0.5 to 1 mm
Answer: Option A
184. In the relation VTn = C, the value of n for ceramic tools is

(A) 0.1 to 0.2
(B) 0.20 to 0.25
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(C) 0.25 to 0.40
(D) 0.40 to 0.55
Answer: Option D
185. In American Standard Association (A S A) system, if the tool
nomenclature is 8-6-5-5-10-15-2 mm, then the side rake angle will be
(A) 5°
(B) 6°
(C) 8°
(D) 10°
Answer: Option B
186. In metal machining, the zone where the maximum heat is
generated due to the plastic deformation of metal, is called
(A) Friction zone
(B) Work-tool contact zone
(C) Shear zone
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
187. The cutting speed for drilling aluminium, brass and bronze with
carbon steel drills is _________ cutting speed for drilling mild steel
with high speed steel drills.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
188. The height of each tooth of a broach is
(A) Same throughout
(B) In progressively decreasing order
(C) In progressively increasing order
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
189. In machining metals, chips break due to __________ of work
material.
(A) Toughness
(B) Ductility
(C) Elasticity
(D) Work hardening
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Answer: Option D
190. Which of the following operations is carried out at a minimum
cutting velocity if the machines are equally rigid and the tool work
materials are the same?
(A) Turning
(B) Grinding
(C) Boring
(D) Milling
Answer: Option D
191. For fast removal of materials during grinding, a _________
grinding wheel is used.
(A) Course grained
(B) Fine grained
(C) Medium grained
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
192. Chip breakers are used to
(A) Increase tool life
(B) Remove chips from bed
(C) Break the chips into short segments
(D) To minimise heat generation
Answer: Option C
193. For turning small taper on long workpiece, the suitable method is
(A) By a form tool
(B) By setting over the tail stock
(C) By a taper turning attachment
(D) By swivelling the compound rest
Answer: Option B
194. The type of reamer used for reaming operation in a blind hole, is
(A) Straight fluted reamer
(B) Left hand spiral fluted reamer
(C) Right hand spiral fluted reamer
Answer: Option C
195. The method of grinding used to produce a straight or tapered
surface on a workpiece, is
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(A) Internal cylindrical grinding
(B) Form grinding
(C) External cylindrical grinding
(D) Surface grinding
Answer: Option C
196. The cutting speed is maximum while machining __________ with
a high speed steel tool.
(A) Cast iron
(B) Mild steel
(C) Brass
(D) Aluminium
Answer: Option D
197. In drilling brass, a drill with
(A) Zero helix angle is used
(B) Low helix angle is used
(C) High helix angle is used
(D) Any helix angle can be used
Answer: Option B
198. In order to obtain a surface finish in the range of 0.75 μm to 1.25
μm , the operation used is called.
(A) Grinding
(B) Lapping
(C) Honing
(D) Buffing
Answer: Option A
199. Negative rakes are used for
(A) Carbide tools
(B) Heavy loads
(C) Harder materials
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
200. The trade name of a nonferrous cast alloy composed of cobalt,
chromium and tungsten is called
(A) Ceramic
(B) Stellite
(C) Diamond
(D) Cemented carbide
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Answer: Option B
201. Which of the following statement is wrong as regard to down
milling?
(A) It can not be used on old machines due to backlash between the
feed screw of the table and the nut.
(B) The chips are disposed off easily and do not interfere with the
cutting.
(C) The surface milled appears to be slightly wavy.
(D) The coolant can be poured directly at the cutting zone where the
cutting force is maximum.
Answer: Option C
202. The tailstock set over required to turn a taper on the entire length
of a workpiece having diameters D and d is
(A) (D - d)/2L
(B) (D - d)/L
(C) (D - d)/2
(D) D - d
Answer: Option C
203. The abrasive slurry used in ultrasonic machining contains fine
particles of
(A) Aluminium oxide
(B) Boron carbide
(C) Silicon carbide
Answer: Option D
204. Which of the following statement is incorrect with reference of
lathe cutting tools?
(A) The flank of the tool is the surface or surfaces below and adjacent
to the cutting edges
(B) The nose is the corner, arc or chamfer joining the side cutting and
the end cutting edges
(C) The heel is that part of the tool which is shaped to produce the
cutting edges and face
(D) The base is that surface of the shank which bears against the
support and takes tangent pressure of the cut
Answer: Option C
205. The broaching operation in which either the work or the tool
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moves across the other, is known as
(A) Pull broaching
(B) Push broaching
(C) Surface broaching
(D) Continuous broaching
Answer: Option C
206. The negative rake is usually provided on
(A) High carbon steel tools
(B) High speed steel tools
(C) Cemented carbide tools
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
207. The cutting speed for drilling aluminium, brass and bronze with
high speed steel drills varies from
(A) 10 to 20 m/min
(B) 18 to 30 m/min
(C) 24 to 45 m/min
(D) 60 to 90 m/min
Answer: Option D
208. In drilling Bakelite and fibrous plastics, the point angle of a drill
is
(A) 90°
(B) 118°
(C) 135°
(D) 150°
Answer: Option A
209. The chamfering is an operation of
(A) Bevelling the extreme end of a workpiece
(B) Embossing a diamond shaped pattern on the surface of a
workpiece
(C) Reducing the diameter of a workpiece over a very narrow surface
(D) Enlarging the end of a hole cylindrically
Answer: Option A
210. The abrasive recommended for grinding materials of high tensile
strength is
(A) Silicon carbide
(B) Aluminium oxide
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(C) Sand stone
(D) Diamond
Answer: Option B
211. When the shear angle is large
(A) Path of shear is short and chip is thin
(B) Path of shear is large and chip is thick
(C) Path of shear is short and chip is thick
(D) Path of shear is large and chip is thin
Answer: Option A
212. Which of the following statement is correct as regard to up
milling?
(A) It cannot be used on old machines due to backlash between the
feed screw of the table and the nut.
(B) The chips are disposed off easily and do not interfere with the
cutting.
(C) The surface milled appears to be slightly wavy.
(D) The coolant can be poured directly at the cutting zone where the
cutting force is maximum.
Answer: Option C
213. The thrust force will increase with the increase in
(A) Side cutting edge angle
(B) Tool nose radius
(C) Rake angle
(D) End cutting edge angle
Answer: Option A
214. Buffing wheels are made of
(A) Softer metals
(B) Cotton fabric
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(C) Carbon
(D) Graphite
Answer: Option B
215. The enlarging of an existing circular hole with a rotating single
point tool is called
(A) Boring
(B) Drilling
(C) Reaming
(D) Internal turning
Answer: Option A
216. The type of tool used on lathe, shaper and planer is
(A) Single point cutting tool
(B) Two point cutting tool
(C) Three point cutting tool
(D) Multipoint cutting tool
Answer: Option A
217. The depth of cut in drilling is __________ the drill diameter.
(A) Equal to
(B) One-fourth
(C) One-half
(D) Double
Answer: Option C
218. Carbide tipped tools usually have
(A) Negative rake angle
(B) Positive rake angle
(C) Any rake angle
(D) No rake angle
Answer: Option A
219. The stroke of a shaping machine is 250 mm. It makes 30 double
strokes per minute. The overall average speed of operation is
(A) 3.75 m/min
(B) 5 m/min
(C) 7.5 m/min
(D) 15 m/min
Answer: Option C
220. In a planer
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(A) Tool is stationary and work reciprocates
(B) Work is stationary and tool reciprocates
(C) Tool moves over stationary work
(D) Tool moves over reciprocating work
Answer: Option A
221. The operation of machining several surfaces of a workpiece
simultaneously is called
(A) Profile milling
(B) Gang milling
(C) Saw milling
(D) Helical milling
Answer: Option B
222. In _________ operation, the cutting force is maximum when the
tooth begins its cut and reduces it to minimum when the tooth leaves
the work.
(A) Up milling
(B) Down milling
(C) Face milling
(D) End milling
Answer: Option B
223. The cutting speed for counter-boring should be _________ that of
drilling operation.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
224. In gear hobbing
(A) Only hob rotates
(B) Only gear blank rotates
(C) Both hob and gear blank rotates
(D) Neither hob nor gear blank rotates
Answer: Option C
225. The carbide tools operating at very low cutting speeds (below 30
m/min)
(A) Reduces tool life
(B) Increases tool life
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(C) Have no effect on tool life
(D) Spoils the work piece
Answer: Option A
226. The cutting fluid mostly used for machining steel is
(A) Water
(B) Soluble oil
(C) Dry
(D) Heavy oils
Answer: Option B
227. In a plain milling cutter, the chip space between the back of one
tooth and the face of the next tooth is called
(A) Face
(B) Fillet
(C) Gash
(D) Land
Answer: Option C
228. Gears can be best produced on mass production by
(A) Shaping
(B) Casting
(C) Forming
(D) Hobbing
Answer: Option D
229. In a single point turning operation with a cemented carbide and
steel combination having a Taylor exponent of 0.25, if the cutting
speed is halved, then tool life will become
(A) Half
(B) Two times
(C) Eight times
(D) Sixteen times
Answer: Option D
230. The material which on machining produces chips with built up
edge is
(A) Brittle material
(B) Tough material
(C) Hard material
(D) Ductile material
Answer: Option D
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231. The swing diameter over the bed is ________ the height of the
centre measured from the bed of the lathe.
(A) Equal to
(B) Twice
(C) Thrice
(D) One-half
Answer: Option B
232. Crater wear is predominant in
(A) Carbon tool steels
(B) Tungsten carbide tools
(C) High speed steel tools
(D) Ceramic tools
Answer: Option B
233. In order to prevent tool from rubbing the work _________ on
tools are provided.
(A) Rake angles
(B) Relief angles
(C) Face angles
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
234. In which of the following milling machine, the table can be tilted
in a vertical plane by providing a swivel arrangement at the knee?
(A) Universal milling machine
(B) Plain milling machine
(C) Universal milling machine
(D) Hand milling machine
Answer: Option C
235. A 15 mm drilling machine means that it can drill a hole
(A) Of maximum diameter 15 mm
(B) In 15 mm thick plates
(C) Having cross-sectional area of 15 mm²
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
236. The tool life is said to be over if
(A) Poor surface finish is obtained
(B) There is sudden increase in cutting forces and power consumption
(C) Overheating and fuming due to heat of friction starts
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Answer: Option D
237. A fixture is defined as a device which
(A) Holds and locates a workpiece and guides and controls one or
more cutting tools
(B) Holds and locates a workpiece during an inspection or for a
manufacturing operation
(C) Is used to check the accuracy of workpiece
Answer: Option B
238. High speed steel drills can be operated at about _________ the
speed of high carbon steel drills.
(A) One-half
(B) One-fourth
(C) Double
(D) Four times
Answer: Option C
239. Segmental chips are formed during machining
(A) Mild steel
(B) Cast iron
(C) High speed steel
Answer: Option B
240. In centre less grinders, the maximum angular adjustment of the
regulating wheel is
(A) 5°
(B) 10°
(C) 15°
(D) 20°
Answer: Option B
241. The structure of a grinding wheel depends upon
(A) Hardness of the material being ground
(B) Nature of the grinding operation
(C) Finish required
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
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242. A feed gear box for a screw cutting lathe is designed on the basis
of
(A) Geometric progression
(B) Arithmetic progression
(C) Harmonic progression
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
243. In a shaper, the metal is removed during
(A) Forward stroke
(B) Return stroke
(C) Both the forward and return strokes
(D) Neither the forward nor the return stroke
Answer: Option A
244. The tail stock set over method of taper turning is preferred for
(A) Internal tapers
(B) Small tapers
(C) Long slender tapers
(D) Steep tapers
Answer: Option C
245. Larger than 15° side cutting edge angle
(A) Increases tool life
(B) Decreases tool life
(C) Produces chipping and decreases tool life
(D) Results in excessive stress concentration and greater heat
generation
Answer: Option C
246. A dense structure of a grinding wheel is used for
(A) Hard materials
(C) Finishing cuts
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
247. In centreless grinding, work place centre will be
(A) Above the line joining the two wheel centres
(B) Below the line joining the two wheel centres
(C) On the line joining the two wheel centres
(D) At the intersection of the line joining the wheel centres with the
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work place plane
Answer: Option A
248. The hardness of a grinding wheel is specified by
(A) Brinell hardness number
(B) Rockwell hardness number
(C) Vickers pyramid number
(D) Letter of alphabet
Answer: Option D
249. The maximum production of small and slender parts is done by
(A) Watch maker's lathe
(B) Sliding head stock automatic lathe
(C) Multi-spindle automatic lathe
(D) Capstan lathe
Answer: Option C
250. The size of a shaper is given by
(A) Stroke length
(B) Motor power
(C) Mass of machine
(D) Rate size
Answer: Option A
251. An operation of embossing a diamond shaped pattern on the
surface of a workpiece, is known as
(A) Counter-boring
(B) Grooving
(C) Knurling
(D) Facing
Answer: Option C
252. If the cutting speed is increased, then the built-up-edge
(A) Becomes longer
(B) May or may not form
(C) Becomes smaller and finally does not form at all
(D) Has nothing to do with speed
Answer: Option C
253. The method of grinding used to produce internal cylindrical holes
and tapers, is
(A) Internal cylindrical grinding
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(B) Form grinding
(C) External cylindrical grinding
(D) Surface grinding
Answer: Option A
254. In machining metals, surface roughness is due to
(A) Feed marks or ridges left by the cutting tool
(B) Fragment of built-up edge on the machined surface
(C) Cutting tool vibrations
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
255. The usual value of the helix angle of a drill is
(A) 20°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 60°
Answer: Option B
256. Which of the following statement is correct for orthogonal cutting
system?
(A) The cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the direction of
tool travel.
(B) The cutting edge clears the width of the workpiece on either ends.
(C) The chip flows over the tool face and the direction of the chip flow
velocity is normal to the cutting edge.
Answer: Option D
257. Glazing in grinding wheels takes place when the
(A) Wheel is too hard or wheel revolves at a very high speed
(B) Wheel is too soft or wheel revolves at a very slow speed
(C) Wheel is too hard and wheel revolves at very slow speed
(D) Wheel is too soft and wheel revolves at a very high speed
Answer: Option A
258. In reaming process
(A) Metal removal rate is high
(B) High surface finish is obtained
(C) High form accuracy is obtained
(D) High dimensional accuracy is obtained
Answer: Option C
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259. The tool may fail due to
(A) Cracking at the cutting edge due to thermal stresses
(B) Chipping of the cutting edge
(C) Plastic deformation of the cutting edge
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
260. The cutting speed for drilling copper with high speed steel drills
varies from
(A) 10 to 20 m/min
(B) 18 to 30 m/min
(C) 24 to 45 m/min
(D) 60 to 90 m/min
Answer: Option B
261. A grinding wheel becomes glazed (i.e. cutting edge takes a
glasslike appearance) due to
(A) Wear of bond
(B) Breaking of abrasive grains
(C) Wear of abrasive grains
(D) Cracks on grinding wheel
Answer: Option C
262. If the helix angle of the drill is made _________ 30°, then the
torque required to drive the drill at a given feed will be more.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
263. In a plain milling cutter, the portion of the gash adjacent to the
cutting edge on which the chip impinges is called
(A) Face
(B) Fillet
(C) Land
(D) Lead
Answer: Option A
264. A drill considered as a cutting tool having zero rake, is known as
a
(A) Flat drill
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(B) Straight fluted drill
(C) Parallel shank twist drill
(D) Tapered shank twist drill
Answer: Option B
265. In oblique cutting of metals, the cutting edge of the tool is
(A) Perpendicular to the workpiece
(B) Perpendicular to the direction of tool travel
(C) Parallel to the direction of tool travel
(D) Inclined at an angle less than 90° to the direction of tool travel
Answer: Option D
266. Broaching is applied for machining
(A) Internal and external surfaces
(B) Round or irregular shaped holes
(C) External flat and contoured surfaces
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
267. The average cutting speed for turning brass with a high speed
steel tool is
(A) 15 to 19 m/min
(B) 25 to 31 m/min
(C) 60 to 90 m/min
(D) 90 to 120 m/min
Answer: Option C
268. The grooving is an operation of
workpiece
(D) Enlarging the end of a hole cylindrically
Answer: Option C
269. Gear finishing operation is called
(A) Shaping
(B) Milling
(C) Hobbing
(D) Burnishing
Answer: Option D
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270. When the shear angle is small
(A) Path of shear is short and chip is thin
(B) Path of shear is large and chip is thick
(C) Path of shear is short and chip is thick
(D) Path of shear is large and chip is thin
Answer: Option B
271. An important geometrical quantity in the cutting of metals which
can be used as a criterion for machinability of metals is
(A) Cutting speed
(B) Feed rate
(C) Shear angle
(D) Tool geometry
Answer: Option C
272. Internal gears can be made by
(A) Hobbing
(B) Shaping with pinion cutter
(C) Shaping with rack cutter
(D) Milling
Answer: Option B
273. In metal cutting operations, the shear angle is the angle made by
the shear plane with the
(A) Direction of the tool axis
(B) Direction of tool travel
(C) Perpendicular to the direction of the tool axis
(D) Central plane of the workpiece
Answer: Option B
274. The aluminium oxide abrasive is chiefly used for grinding
(B) Carbon steel
(C) Wrought iron
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
275. The floating position of the holding fixture in a rotary transfer
device is used to
(A) Improve the accuracy of location
(B) Reduce the tendency to over-index
(C) Improve upon the acceleration and deceleration characteristics
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(D) Reduce the cycle time
Answer: Option D
276. The chamfering is an essential operation after
(A) Knurling
(B) Rough turning
(C) Boring
(D) Thread cutting
Answer: Option D
277. A process of removing metal by pushing or pulling a cutting tool
is called
(A) Up milling
(B) Down milling
(C) Forming
(D) Broaching
Answer: Option D
278. In hot machining, tool is made of
(A) Tungsten carbide
(B) Brass or copper
(C) Diamond
(D) Stainless steel
Answer: Option A
279. The size of abrasive grain required in a grinding wheel depends
upon the
(A) Amount of material to be removed
(B) Hardness of material being ground
(C) Finish desired
(D) All of these
Answer: Option B
280. A __________ grinding wheel is used to grind soft materials.
(A) Course grained
(B) Medium grained
(C) Fine grained
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
281. Drilling is an example of
(A) Orthogonal cutting
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(B) Oblique cutting
(C) Simple cutting
(D) Uniform cutting
Answer: Option B
282. When the metal is removed by erosion caused by rapidly
recurring spark discharges between the tool and work, the process is
known as
(A) Electrochemical machining
(B) Electro-discharge machining
(C) Ultrasonic machining
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
283. With the same tool life, the maximum material per minute is
removed by
(A) Increasing the cutting speed
(B) Decreasing the cutting speed
(C) Increasing the depth of cut
(D) Increasing the feed rate
Answer: Option C
284. A set of eight form relieved milling cutters for each module is
provided to enable cutting of gears of different
(A) Materials
(B) Types of gears
(C) Number of teeth
(D) Width of gears
Answer: Option C
285. The ratio between two consecutive spindle speeds for a six-speed
drilling machine using drills of diameter 6.25 to 25 mm size and at a
cutting velocity of 18 m/min is
(A) 1.02
(B) 1.32
(C) 1.66
(D) 1.82
Answer: Option B
286. The abrasive recommended for grinding materials of low tensile
strength is
(A) Silicon carbide
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(B) Aluminium oxide
(C) Sand stone
(D) Diamond
Answer: Option A
287. Down milling is also called
(A) Conventional milling
(B) Climb milling
(C) End milling
(D) Face milling
Answer: Option B
288. The correct sequence of tool materials in increasing order of their
ability to retain their hot hardness is
(A) Carbide, ceramic, cermet, borazon
(B) Ceramic, carbide, borazon, cermet
(C) Cermet, carbide, ceramic, borazon
(D) Borazon, ceramic, carbide, cermet
Answer: Option C
289. The process of changing the shape of grinding wheel as it
becomes worn due to breaking away of the abrasive and bond, is
called
(A) Truing
(B) Dressing
(C) Facing
(D) Clearing
Answer: Option A
290. Gear burnishing is a process for
(A) Surface finishing
(B) Undercut gears
(C) Cycloidal gears
(D) Removing residual stresses from teeth roots
Answer: Option A
291. The factor responsible for the formation of continuous chips with
built up edge is
(A) Low cutting speed and large rake angle
(B) Low cutting speed and small rake angle
(C) High cutting speed and large rake angle
(D) High cutting speed and small rake angle
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Answer: Option B
292. Tool life is measured by the
(A) Number of pieces machined between tool sharpenings
(B) Time the tool is in contact with the job
(C) Volume of material removed between tool sharpenings
Answer: Option D
293. A diamond locating pin is used in jigs and fixtures because
(A) Diamond is very hard and wear resistant
(B) It occupies very little space
(C) It helps in assembly with tolerance on centre distance
(D) It has a long life
Answer: Option C
294. Surface grinding is done to produce
(A) Tapered surface
(B) Flat surface
(C) Internal cylindrical holes
(D) All of these
Answer: Option B
295. Relief angles on high speed steel tools usually vary from
(A) 0° to 3°
(B) 3° to 10°
(C) 10° to 20°
(D) 20° to 30°
Answer: Option D
296. The tool material, for faster machining, should have
(A) Wear resistance
(B) Red hardness
(C) Toughness
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
297. High speed steel cutting tools operate at cutting speeds _________
than carbon steel tools.
(A) 2 to 3 times lower
(B) 2 to 3 times higher
(C) 5 to 8 times higher
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(D) 8 to 20 times higher
Answer: Option B
298. In a plain milling machine, the table can be moved
(A) Longitudinally
(B) Crosswise
(C) Vertically
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
299. Crater wear leads to
(A) Increase in cutting temperature
(B) Weakening of tool
(C) Friction and cutting forces
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
300. In oblique cutting system, the maximum chip thickness
(A) Occurs at the middle
(B) May not occur at the middle
(C) Depends upon the material of the tool
(D) Depends upon the geometry of the tool
Answer: Option B
301. The rear teeth of a broach
(A) Perform burnishing operation
(B) Remove minimum metal
(C) Remove maximum metal
(D) Remove no metal
Answer: Option C
302. The soft grade grinding wheels are denoted by the letters
(A) A to H
(B) I to P
(C) Q to Z
(D) A to P
Answer: Option A
303. The actual feed in centerless grinders is given by (where d = Dia.
of regulating wheel, n = Revolutions per minute, and α = Angle of
inclination of wheel)
(A) πd
(B) πdn
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(C) πdn sinα
(D) πdn cosα
Answer: Option C
304. Small nose radius
(A) Increases tool life
(B) Decreases tool life
(C) Produces chipping and decreases tool life
(D) Results in excessive stress concentration and greater heat
generation
Answer: Option D
305. Which of the following statement is correct about EDM
machining?
(A) It can machine hardest materials.
(B) It produces high degree of surface finish.
(C) The tool and work are never in contact with each other.
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
306. A tool used to withdraw a drill from the sleeve is called
(A) Drill remover
(B) Drill puller
(C) Drift
(D) Drill drawer
Answer: Option C
307. A taper tap has
(A) Its end tapered for about three or four threads
(B) Its end tapered for about eight or ten threads
(C) Full threads for the whole of its length
Answer: Option B
308. The top and sides of the table of a shaper usually have
(A) L-type slots
(B) T-type slots
(C) I-type slots
Answer: Option B
309. The tap used to cut threads in a blind hole is
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(A) Taper tap
(B) Second tap
(C) Bottoming tap
Answer: Option C
310. The operation of smoothing and squaring the surface around a
hole is known as
(A) Counter-sinking
(B) Counter-boring
(C) Trepanning
(D) Spot facing
Answer: Option D
311. The increase in depth of cut and feed rate __________ surface
finish.
(A) Improves
(B) Deteriorates
(C) Does not effect
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
312. The lathe spindles at the nose end have
(A) Internal screw threads
(B) External screw threads
(C) No threads
(D) Tapered threads
Answer: Option B
313. A coarse grained grinding wheel is used to grind
(A) Hard and brittle materials
(B) Soft and ductile materials
(C) Hard and ductile materials
(D) Soft and brittle materials
Answer: Option B
314. The binding material used in cemented carbide tools is
(A) Tungsten
(B) Chromium
(C) Silicon
(D) Cobalt
Answer: Option D
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315. High speed steel tools retain their hardness upto a temperature of
(A) 250°C
(B) 350°C
(C) 500°C
(D) 900°C
Answer: Option D
316. An open structure of a grinding wheel is used for
(A) Soft materials
(B) Tough materials
(C) Ductile materials
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
317. A drill mainly used in drilling brass, copper or softer materials, is
(A) Flat drill
(B) Straight fluted drill
(C) Parallel shank twist drill
(D) Tapered shank twist drill
Answer: Option B
318. The process of removing metal by a cutter which is rotated in the
same direction of travel of workpiece, is called
(A) Up milling
(B) Down milling
(C) Face milling
(D) End milling
Answer: Option B
319. The operation of making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of
a hole is known as
(A) Counter-sinking
(B) Counter-boring
(C) Trepanning
(D) Spot facing
Answer: Option A
320. The cutting tool in a milling machine is mounted on
(A) Spindle
(B) Arbor
(C) Column
(D) Knee
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Answer: Option B
321. Gear lapping is an operation
(A) After heat treatment
(B) Prior to heat treatment
(C) For gear reconditioning
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
322. The different spindle speeds on a lathe form
(A) Arithmetical progression
(B) Geometrical progression
(C) Harmonical progression
Answer: Option B
323. The lathe spindles are usually made hollow and provided with
(A) Internal taper
(B) External taper
(C) Internal and external taper
(D) No taper
Answer: Option A
324. For softer materials, the point angle of the drill is kept
(A) Equal to 118°
(B) Less than 118°
(C) More than 118°
Answer: Option B
325. The method of centre less grinding used to produce taper is
(A) In-feed grinding
(B) Through feed grinding
(C) End feed grinding
Answer: Option C
326. The angle on which the strength of the tool depends is
(A) Rake angle
(B) Cutting angle
(C) Clearance angle
(D) Lip angle
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Answer: Option A
327. Thread grinding requires work speed from
(A) 1 to 3 m/min
(B) 5 to 10 m/min
(C) 10 to 14 m/min
(D) 14 to 20 m/min
Answer: Option A
328. The velocity of tool along the tool face is known as
(A) Shear velocity
(B) Chip velocity
(C) Cutting velocity
(D) Mean velocity
Answer: Option B
329. The surface finish is improved by the increase in
(A) Cutting speed
(B) Nose radius
(C) True rake angle
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
330. In down milling, the thickness of chip is
(A) Minimum at the beginning of the cut and maximum at the end of
the cut
(B) Maximum at the beginning of the cut and minimum at the end of
the cut
(C) Uniform throughout the cut
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
331. The chuck used for setting up of heavy and irregular shaped
work should be
(A) Four jaw independent chuck
(B) Three jaw universal chuck
(C) Magnetic chuck
(D) Drill chuck
Answer: Option A
332. Ceramic tools are fixed to tool body by
(A) Soldering
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(B) Brazing
(C) Welding
(D) Clamping
Answer: Option B
333. The helix angle of a drill is __________ for drilling brass.
(A) Equal to 30°
(B) Less than 30°
(C) More than 30°
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
334. The type of reamer used for reaming soft aluminium or copper, is
(A) Straight fluted reamer
(B) Left hand spiral fluted reamer
(C) Right hand spiral fluted reamer
Answer: Option B
335. In which of the following machine, the work remains stationary
and the tool is rotated?
(A) Vertical boring machine
(B) Horizontal boring machine
(C) Precision boring machine
(D) Jig boring machine
Answer: Option B
336. A mandrel is used to hold
(A) An eccentric work
(B) A heavy work
(C) A thin work
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
337. A single point tool has
(A) Rake angle
(B) Cutting angle
(C) Lip angle
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
338. When the tool moves parallel to the lathe axis, the movement is
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termed as
(A) Cross feed
(B) Angular feed
(C) Longitudinal feed
Answer: Option C
339. The grade of grinding wheel depends upon
(A) Hardness of the material being ground
(B) Speed of wheel and work
(C) Condition of grinding machine
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
340. In electro discharge machining, tool is made of
(A) Brass
(B) Copper
(C) Copper tungsten alloy
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
341. Tool life is generally better when
(A) Grain size of the metal is large
(B) Grain size of the metal is small
(C) Hard constituents are present in the microstructure of the tool
material
Answer: Option A
342. The cutting angle of a flat drill varies from
(A) 3° to 8°
(B) 20° to 30°
(C) 60° to 90°
(D) 90° to 120°
Answer: Option D
343. Discontinuous chips are formed during machining of
(A) Brittle metals
(B) Ductile metals
(C) Hard metals
(D) Soft metals
Answer: Option A
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344. As the cutting speed increases, the tool cutting forces
(A) Remain constant
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
Answer: Option C
345. Soft materials can not be economically ground due to
(A) High temperature involved
(B) Frequent wheel clogging
(C) Rapid wheel wear
(D) Low work piece stiffness
Answer: Option B
346. In which of the following machine, the work is usually rotated
while the drill is fed into work?
(A) Sensitive drilling machine
(B) Radial drilling machine
(C) Gang drilling machine
(D) Deep hole drilling machine
Answer: Option D
347. For harder alloy steel, the point angle of the drill is kept
(A) Equal to 118°
(B) Less than 118°
(C) More than 118°
Answer: Option C
348. The average cutting speed for turning mild steel with a high
speed steel tool is
(A) 15 to 19 m/min
(B) 25 to 31 m/min
(C) 60 to 90 m/min
(D) 90 to 120 m/min
Answer: Option B
349. The taper on the lathe spindle is
(A) 1 in 10
(B) 1 in 15
(C) 1 in 20
(D) 1 in 30
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Answer: Option C
350. In drilling softer materials, the cutting speed is _________ as
compared to harder materials.
(A) Same
(B) Low
(C) High
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
351. Internal or external threads of different pitches can be produced
by
(A) Pantograph milling machine
(B) Profiling machine
(C) Planetary milling machine
(D) Piano miller
Answer: Option C
352. Continuous chips with built up edge are formed during
machining of
(A) Brittle metals
(B) Ductile metals
(C) Hard metals
(D) Soft metals
Answer: Option B
353. The relief or clearance at the cutting edge of a flat drill varies
from
(A) 3° to 8°
(B) 20° to 30°
(C) 60° to 90°
(D) 90° to 120°
Answer: Option A
354. Lapping is an operation of
(A) Making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole
(B) Smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole
(C) Sizing and finishing a small diameter hole
(D) Producing a hole by removing metal along the circumference of a
hollow cutting tool
Answer: Option C
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355. The usual value of the point angle of a drill is
(A) 70°
(B) 100°
(C) 118°
(D) 130°
Answer: Option C
356. The lip clearance angle is the angle formed by the
(A) Leading edge of the land with a plane having the axis of the drill
(B) Flank and a plane at right angles to the drill axis
(C) Chisel edge and the lip as viewed from the end of a drill
Answer: Option B
357. The relation between tool life (T) and cutting speed (V) is VTn =
Constant. In this relation, the value of ‘n’ depends upon
(A) Work material
(B) Tool material
(C) Working conditions
(D) Type of chip produced
Answer: Option B
358. The grinding wheel speed (surface speed in m/min) usually varies
from
(A) 500 to 1000
(B) 1000 to 1500
(C) 1500 to 2000
(D) 2000 to 2500
Answer: Option C
359. In oblique cutting system, the cutting edge of the tool
(A) May clear the width of the workpiece
(B) May or may not clear the width of the workpiece
(C) May not clear the width of the workpiece
(D) Should always clear the width of the workpiece
Answer: Option C
360. The purpose of jigs and fixtures is to
(A) Increase machining accuracy
(B) Facilitate interchangeability
(C) Decrease expenditure on quality control
(D) All of these
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Answer: Option D
361. Flank wear depends upon the
(A) Hardness of the work and tool material at the operating
temperature
(B) Amount and distribution of hard constituents in the work material
(C) Degree of strain hardening in the chip
(D) All of these
Answer: Option B
362. The in-feed grinding is used to
(A) Produce tapers
(B) Grind shoulders and formed surfaces
(C) Grind long, slender shafts or bars
(D) All of these
Answer: Option B
363. In up milling, the thickness of chip is
(A) Minimum at the beginning of the cut and maximum at the end of
the cut
(B) Maximum at the beginning of the cut and minimum at the end of
the cut
(C) Uniform throughout the cut
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
364. A dynamometer is a device used for the measurement of
(A) Chip thickness ratio
(B) Forces during metal cutting
(C) Wear of the cutting tool
(D) Deflection of the cutting tool
Answer: Option B
365. The cutting speed is minimum while machining _________ with a
high speed steel tool.
(A) Cast iron
(B) Mild steel
(C) Brass
(D) Aluminium
Answer: Option A
366. The lip angle is the angle
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(A) Between the tool face and the ground end surface of flank
(B) Made by the face of the tool and the plane parallel to the base of
the cutting tool
(C) Between the face of the tool and a line tangent to the machined
surface at the cutting point
Answer: Option A
367. A grinding wheel is said to be of _________ if the abrasive grains
can be easily dislodged.
(A) Soft grade
(B) Medium grade
(C) Hard grade
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
368. The high cutting speed and large rake angle of the tool will result
in the formation of
(B) Discontinuous chip
(C) Continuous chips with built up edge
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
269. The facing is an operation of
workpiece
(D) Machining the ends of a workpiece to produce a flat surface square
with the axis
Answer: Option D
370. Fixtures are used
(A) For holding and guiding the tool in drilling, reaming or tapping
operations
(B) For holding the work in milling, grinding, planing or turning
operations
(C) To check the accuracy of workpiece
Answer: Option B
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371. In a shaper, the length of stroke is increased by
(A) Increasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin
(B) Decreasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin
(C) Increasing the length of the arm
(D) Decreasing the length of the slot in the slotted lever
Answer: Option A
372. The hole to be drilled for tapping is _________ the outside
diameter of the thread on the tap.
(A) Equal to
(B) Smaller than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
373. The obtuse angle, included between the chisel edge and the lip as
viewed from the end of a drill, is called
(A) Helix or rake angle
(B) Point angle
(C) Chisel edge angle
(D) Lip clearance angle
Answer: Option C
374. The lip angle of a single point tool is usually
(A) 20° to 40°
(B) 40° to 60°
(C) 60° to 80°
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
375. Ceramic cutting tools are
(A) Made by cold pressing of aluminium oxide powder
(B) Available in the form of tips
(C) Brittle and have low bending strength
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
376. The point angle of a drill, for drilling stainless steel, is
(A) 90°
(B) 118°
(C) 135°
(D) 150°
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Answer: Option C
377. In metal machining, the work-tool contact zone is a zone where
heat is generated due to
(A) Plastic deformation of metal
(B) Burnishing friction
(C) Friction between the moving chip and the tool face
Answer: Option B
378. Which of the following operation is first performed?
(A) Spot facing
(B) Boring
(C) Tapping
(D) Drilling
Answer: Option B
379. The parameter which completely defines the chip formation in a
metal cutting process is
(A) Shear angle
(B) Chip-tool contact length
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
380. The cutting speed of a drill depends upon the
(A) Material of drill
(B) Type of material to be drilled
(C) Quality of surface finish desired
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
381. The addition of lead, sulphur and phosphorus to low carbon
steels, help to
(A) Reduce built up edge
(B) Break up chips
(C) Improve machinability
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
382. In metal cutting, use of low feeds and high cutting speeds is
desired when the objective is
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(A) High metal removal rate
(B) Dry machining
(C) Use of soft cutting tool
(D) Surface finish
Answer: Option D
383. The work or surface speed for cylindrical grinding varies from
(A) 5 to 10 m/min
(B) 10 to 20 m/min
(C) 20 to 30 m/min
(D) 40 to 60 m/min
Answer: Option C
384. In order to achieve a specific surface finish in single point
turning, the most important factor to be controlled is
(A) Depth of cut
(B) Cutting speed
(C) Feed
(D) Tool rake angle
Answer: Option B
385. A lathe with four steps on the cone pulley and with back-gears
will have
(A) Four direct speeds
(B) Four indirect speeds
(C) Four direct and four indirect speeds
(D) Eight indirect speeds
Answer: Option C
386. The relation between the tool life (T) in minutes and cutting speed
(V) in m/min is (where n = An exponent, which depends upon the tool
and workpiece, and C = A constant)
(A) VnT = C
(B) VTn = C
(C) Vn/T = C
(D) V/Tn = C
Answer: Option B
387. The vector sum of cutting velocity and chip velocity is __________
shear velocity.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
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(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
388. In electrochemical machining, the gap between the tool and work
is kept as
(A) 0.1 mm
(B) 0.4 mm
(C) 0.35
(D) 0.75 mm
Answer: Option D
389. A broach has
(A) Roughing teeth
(B) Semi-finishing teeth
(C) Finishing teeth
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
390. The angle made by the face of the tool and the plane parallel to
the base of cutting tool is called
(A) Rake angle
(B) Cutting angle
(C) Clearance angle
(D) Lip angle
Answer: Option A
391. The tool made of cemented carbide wear out faster at
(A) Slow speeds
(B) Medium speeds
(C) Fast speeds
(D) Very fast speeds
Answer: Option A
392. It is desired to perform the operations like drilling, reaming,
counter-boring etc. on a work piece. Which of the following machine
will be used?
(A) Sensitive drilling machine
(B) Radial drilling machine
(C) Gang drilling machine
(D) Multiple spindle drilling machine
Answer: Option C
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393. It is required to cut screw threads of 2 mm pitch on a lathe. The
lead screw has a pitch of 6 mm. If the spindle speed is 60 r.p.m., then
the speed of lead screw will be
(A) 10 r.p.m.
(B) 20 r.p.m.
(C) 120 r.p.m.
(D) 180 r.p.m.
Answer: Option B
394. The correct sequence of the following parameters in order of
their maximum to minimum influence on tool life is
(A) Feed rate, depth of cut, cutting speed
(B) Depth of cut, cutting speed, feed rate
(C) Cutting speed, feed rate, depth of cut
(D) Feed rate, cutting speed, depth of cut
Answer: Option C
395. In a centre lathe, the cutting tool is fed in _________ with
reference to the lathe axis.
(A) Cross direction only
(B) Longitudinal direction only
(C) Both cross and longitudinal direction
(D) Any direction
Answer: Option C
396. Any number of equal divisions can be obtained on milling
machine by
(A) Direct indexing
(B) Simple indexing
(C) Compound indexing
(D) Differential indexing
Answer: Option B
397. A push broach as compared to pull broach
(A) Has less number of teeth
(B) Is short and stocky
(C) Removes less material for each pass of the tool
Answer: Option D
398. The tool life is affected by
(A) Depth of cut
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(B) Cutting speed
(C) Feed
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
399. Hard and tough materials like cast iron should be turned at
(A) Slow speed
(B) High speed
(C) Any speed
(D) Certain specific speed
Answer: Option A
400. The effect of setting a boring tool above centre height leads to
(A) Increase in the effective rake angle and a decrease in the effective
clearance angle
(B) Increase in both effective rake angle and effective clearance angle
(C) Decrease in the effective rake angle and an increase in the
effective clearance angle
(D) Decrease in both effective rake angle and effective clearance angle
Answer: Option A
401. The machining of titanium is difficult due to
(A) High thermal conductivity of titanium
(B) Chemical reaction between tool and work
(C) Low tool-chip contact area
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
402. If the diameter of the hole is subject to considerable variation,
then for locating in jigs and fixtures, the pressure type of locator used
is
(A) Conical locator
(B) Cylindrical locator
(C) Diamond pin locator
(D) Vee locator
Answer: Option A
403. The factor which affects the tool life is
(A) Tool geometry
(B) Cutting speed
(C) Feed rate
(D) All of these
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Answer: Option D
404. The size of a lathe is specified by the
(A) Length between centres
(B) Swing diameter over the bed
(C) Swing diameter over the carriage
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
405. For machining a cast iron workpiece by a high speed steel tool,
the average cutting speed is
(A) 10 m/min
(B) 15 m/min
(C) 22 m/min
(D) 30 m/min
Answer: Option C
406. In transverse grinding
(A) The work is reciprocated as the wheel feeds to produce cylinders
longer than the width of wheel face
(B) The work rotates in a fixed position as the wheel feeds to produce
cylinders equal to or shorter than the width of wheel face
(C) The work is reciprocated as the wheel feeds to produce cylinders
shorter than the width of wheel face
(D) The work rotates in a fixed position as the wheel feeds to produce
cylinders longer than the width of wheel face
Answer: Option A
(A) The larger side rake angle produces chipping.
(B) The smaller rake angle produces excessive wear and deformation
in tool.
(C) The side cutting edge angle (less than 15°) increases tool life.
(D) The increase in nose radius decreases tool life.
Answer: Option D
408. Glazing in grinding wheels can be decreased by
(A) Using a harder wheel or by increasing the wheel speed
(B) Using a softer wheel or by decreasing the wheel speed
(C) Using a harder wheel or by decreasing the wheel speed
(D) Using a softer wheel or by increasing the wheel speed
Answer: Option B
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409. A single point thread cutting tool should ideally hav
(A) Zero rake angle
(B) Positive rake angle
(C) Negative rake angle
(D) Point angle
Answer: Option A
410. In which of the following machine, the work rotates and the tool
is stationary?
(A) Vertical boring machine
(B) Horizontal boring machine
(C) Precision boring machine
(D) Jig boring machine
Answer: Option A
411. In drilling aluminium, a drill with
(A) Zero helix angle is used
(B) Low helix angle is used
(C) High helix angle is used
(D) Any helix angle can be used
Answer: Option C
412. Which of the following statement is correct about nose radius?
(A) It improves tool life
(B) It improves the surface finish
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
413. The main purpose of a boring operation, as compared to drilling,
is to
(A) Drill a hole
(B) Finish the drilled hole
(C) Correct the hole
(D) Enlarge the existing hole
Answer: Option D
414. Larger end cutting edge angle _________ tool life.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Does not effect
(D) None of these
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Answer: Option A
415. Cutting fluids are used to
(A) Cool the tool
(B) Improve surface finish
(C) Cool the workpiece
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
416. In a milling operation, two side milling cutters are mounted with
a desired distance between them so that both sides of a workpiece can
be milled simultaneously. This set up is called
(A) Gang milling
(B) Straddle milling
(C) String milling
(D) Side milling
Answer: Option B
417. The operation performed on a shaper is
(A) Machining horizontal surface
(B) Machining vertical surface
(C) Machining angular surface
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
418. A twist drill is specified by its
(A) Shank, material and diameter
(B) Shank, lip angle and size of flute
(C) Material, length of body and helix angle
Answer: Option A
419. In the relation VTn = C, the value of n for carbide tools is
(A) 0.1 to 0.2
(B) 0.20 to 0.25
(C) 0.25 to 0.40
(D) 0.40 to 0.55
Answer: Option B
420. Slow speed of the spindle is necessary in
(A) Thread cutting
(B) Turning a work of larger diameter
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(C) Turning a hard or tough material
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
421. The angle between the face and flank of the single point cutting
tool is known as
(A) Rake angle
(B) Clearance angle
(C) Lip angle
(D) Point angle
Answer: Option C
422. Tumbler gears in lathe are used to
(A) Reduce the spindle speed
(B) Cut gears
(C) Give desired direction of movement to the lathe carriage
(D) Drill a workpiece
Answer: Option C
423. In centreless grinding, the surface speed of regulating wheel is
(A) 5 to 15 m/min
(B) 15 to 60 m/min
(C) 60 to 90 m/min
(D) 90 to 120 m/min
Answer: Option B
424. Twist drills are made of
(B) Carbon steel
(C) Stainless steel
(D) Either (A) or (B)
Answer: Option D
525. Jigs are used
(A) For holding and guiding the tool in drilling, reaming or tapping
operations
(B) For holding the work in milling, grinding, planing or turning
operations
(C) To check the accuracy of workpiece
Answer: Option A
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426. Threading is an operation of
(A) Smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole
(B) Sizing and finishing a small diameter hole
(C) Producing a hole by removing metal along the circumference of a
hollow cutting tool
(D) Cutting helical grooves on the external cylindrical surface
Answer: Option D
Manufacturing &
Production Engineering: Test 01
01. The tail stock and the carriage of a lathe may be guided on same or
different guide-way.
(A) True
(B) False
02. The rate of removing metal is __________ by increasing the depth
of cut.
(A) Decreased
(B) Increased
03. The tool life is __________ cutting speed.
(A) Independent of
(B) Dependent upon
04. An open structure of a grinding wheel is denoted by the number 1
to 8.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
05. The form grinding is used to grind gear teeth, threads, splined
shafts and holes.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
06. Spot facing is an operation of smoothing and squaring the surface
around a hole.
(A) True
(B) False
07. Holes are machined by push broaches only for sizing.
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(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
08. In machining cast iron, no cutting fluid is required.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
09. If the grain size is __________ the tool life is better.
(A) Smaller
(B) Larger
10. Flank wear is due to the abrasive action of hard misconstituents
including debris from built up edge as the work material rubs the
work surface.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
11. The operation of reproduction of an outline of a template on a
workpiece is called face milling.
(A) Yes
(B) No
12. Jigs are heavier than fixtures in construction.
(A) Yes
(B) No
13. In electro-discharge machining, the tool is connected to cathode.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
14. Half nut is used to lock the lathe carriage to the lead screw for
thread cutting.
(A) True
(B) False
15. The tool life __________ as the cutting speed increases.
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
16. In the relation VTn = C, the value of n for high speed steel tools
varies from 0.25 to 0.40
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
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17. The angle between the face of the tool and a line tangent to the
machined surface at the cutting point is called cutting angle.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
18. In drilling mild steel and brass, the point angle of a drill is 118°.
(A) True
(B) False
19. The dressing and truing of grinding wheel are done with the same
tools but not for the same purpose.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
20. A numerical method of identification of tool is known as tool
signature.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
Answers: Manufacturing & Production Engineering Test 01
Manufacturing &
Production Engineering: Test 02
01. The part of the tool on which cutting edge is formed is called nose.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
02. If the shear angle is large and the chip-tool contact area is low,
then the tool life will be more.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
03. To grind brittle materials, a coarse grained grinding wheel is used.
(A) Agree
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(B) Disagree
04. The cutting force in down milling is maximum when the tooth
begins its cut and reduces to minimum when the tooth leaves the
work.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
05. An operation of enlarging the end of a hole cylindrically is known
as grooving.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
06. When the grinding wheel is marked by the letters from I to P, it
indicates that the grinding wheel is of hard grade.
(A) True
(B) False
07. In continuous chip cutting, the maximum heat __________ the
velocity of cutting.
(A) Depends upon
(B) Does not depend upon
08. In metal cutting operations, chips are formed due to plastic
deformation of the metal.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
09. The hole drilled for tapping should be smaller than the tap size by
twice the depth of thread.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
10. The lip clearance angle should decrease towards the centre of the
drill than at the circumference.
(A) Yes
(B) No
11. The cutting speed is zero at the periphery and it is maximum at the
centre of the drill.
(A) Yes
(B) No
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12. The plain milling machine is more rigid and heavier in
construction than a universal milling machine of the same size.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
13. The cutting speed of a drill varies from point to point on the
cutting edge of the drill.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
14. The continuous chips are in the form of long coils having the same
thickness throughout.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
15. Side rake angle on tools is provided to control chip flow.
(A) True
(B) False
16. Crater wear is usually found while machining brittle materials.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
17. The chisel edge angle of a drill is usually 120° to 135°.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
18. The helix angle of a drill is more than 30° for drilling aluminium.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
19. Gears can be cut on a shaper.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
20. A round nose tool has no back rake and side rake.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
Answers: Manufacturing & Production Engineering Test 02

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Compressors, Gas Turbines & Jet Engines:
01. If the flow of air through the compressor is perpendicular to its
axis, then it is a
(A) Reciprocating compressor
(B) Centrifugal compressor
(C) Axial flow compressor
(D) Turbo compressor
Answer: Option B
02. Gas turbines use following type of air compressor
(A) Centrifugal type
(B) Reciprocating type
(C) Lobe type
(D) Axial flow type
Answer: Option D
03. The gas in cooling chamber of a closed cycle gas turbine is cooled
at
(A) Constant volume
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
04. The maximum combustion pressure in gas turbine as compared to
I.C. engine is
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
Answer: Option B
05. In a closed cycle gas turbine, the air is compressed
(A) Isothermally
(B) Polytropically
(C) Isentropically
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
06. The closed cycle in gas turbines
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(A) Provides greater flexibility
(B) Provides lesser flexibility
(C) In never used
(D) Is used when gas is to be burnt
Answer: Option A
07. The overall thermal efficiency of an ideal gas turbine plant is
(where r = Pressure ratio)
(A) r ɣ-1
(B) 1 - r ɣ-1
(C) 1 - (1/r) ɣ-1/ɣ
(D) 1 - (1/r) ɣ/ɣ-1
Answer: Option C
08. Pick up the correct statement
(A) Large gas turbines use radial inflow turbines
(B) Gas turbines have their blades similar to steam turbine
(C) Gas turbine's blade will appear as impulse section at the hub and as
a reaction section at tip
(D) Gas turbines use both air and liquid cooling
Answer: Option C
09. The degree of reaction is usually kept ________ for all types of
axial flow compressors.
(A) 0.2
(B) 0.3
(C) 0.4
(D) 0.5
Answer: Option D
10. Ram compression in turbojet involves
(A) Reduction of speed of incoming air and conversion of part of it
into pressure energy
(B) Compression of inlet air
(C) Increasing speed of incoming air
(D) Lost work
Answer: Option A
11. A compressor mostly used for supercharging of I.C. engines is
(A) Radial flow compressor
(B) Axial flow compressor
(C) Roots blower
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(D) Reciprocating compressor
Answer: Option A
12. In jet engines, for the efficient production of large power, fuel is
burnt in an atmosphere of
(A) Vacuum
(B) Atmospheric air
(C) Compressed air
(D) Oxygen alone
Answer: Option C
13. The workdone on a compressor will be minimum if air is taken
from
(A) The atmosphere
(B) A source at 0°C
(C) A source of low temperature air
(D) A source of high temperature air
Answer: Option C
14. In the aircraft propellers
(A) The propulsive matter is caused to flow around the propelled body
(B) Propulsive matter is ejected from within the propelled body
(C) Its functioning does not depend on presence of air
Answer: Option D
15. In a jet propulsion unit, the products of combustion after passing
through the gas turbine are discharged into
(A) Atmosphere
(B) Vacuum
(C) Discharge nozzle
(D) Back to the compressor
Answer: Option C
16. To avoid moisture troubles, the branch connections from
compressed air lines should be taken from
(A) Top side of main
(B) Bottom side of main
(C) Left side of main
(D) Right side of main
Answer: Option A
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17. In an axial flow compressor, the ratio of pressure in the rotor
blades to the pressure rise in the compressor in one stage is known as
(A) Work factor
(B) Slip factor
(C) Degree of reaction
(D) Pressure coefficient
Answer: Option C
18. To avoid moisture troubles, the compressed air main line should
(A) Rise gradually towards the point of use
(B) Drop gradually towards the point of use
(C) Be laid vertically
(D) Be laid exactly horizontally
Answer: Option B
19. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor
(A) Increases with decrease in compression ratio
(B) Decreases with decrease in compression ratio
(C) Increases with increase in compression ratio
(D) Decreases with increase in compression ratio
Answer: Option D
20. The efficiency and work ratio of a gas turbine plant can be
increased by
(A) Adding heat exchanger
(B) Injecting water in/around combustion chamber
(C) Reheating the air after partial expansion in the turbine
Answer: Option D
21. The capacity of compressor will be highest when its intake
temperature is
(A) Lowest
(B) Highest
(C) Anything
(D) Atmospheric
Answer: Option D
22. The volume of air sucked by the compressor during its suction
stroke is called
(A) Free air delivery
(B) Compressor capacity
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(C) Swept volume
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
23. Which is false statement about multistage compression?
(A) Power consumption per unit of air delivered is low
(B) Volumetric efficiency is high
(C) It is best suited for compression ratios around 7:1
(D) The moisture in air is condensed in the intercooler
Answer: Option B
24. Standard air is the air at ________ and relative humidity of 36
percent.
(A) 0.1 bar and 20°C
(B) 1 bar and 20°C
(C) 0.1 bar and 40°C
(D) 1 bar and 40°C
Answer: Option B
25. Out of the following, from where you will prefer to take intake for
air compressor
(A) From an air conditioned room maintained at 20°C
(B) From outside atmosphere at 1°C
(C) From coal yard side
(D) From a side where cooling tower is located nearby
Answer: Option D
26. When air is to be compressed at a high pressure, then it is
advantageous to use
(A) Single stage compression
(B) Multistage compression without intercooling
(C) Multistage compression with intercooling
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
27. In multistage compressor, the isothermal compression is achieved
by
(A) Employing intercooler
(B) By constantly cooling the cylinder
(C) By running compressor at very slow speed
(D) By insulating the cylinder
Answer: Option C
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28. The compressor capacity is defined as the
(A) Actual volume of the air delivered by the compressor when
reduced to normal temperature and pressure conditions
(B) Volume of air delivered by the compressor
(C) Volume of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke
Answer: Option B
29. The area of actual indicator diagram on an air compressor as
compared to area of ideal indicator diagram is
(A) Less
(B) More
(C) Same
(D) More/less depending on compressor capacity
Answer: Option B
30. Reheating in a multistage expansion gas turbine __________
compressor work.
(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
31. Separators in compressor installations are located
(A) Before intercooler
(B) After intercooler
(C) After receiver
(D) Between after-cooler and air receiver
Answer: Option D
(A) Pulsejet requires no ambient air for propulsion
(B) Ramjet engine has no turbine
(C) Turbine drives compressor in a Turbojet
(D) Bypass turbojet engine increases the thrust without adversely
affecting, the propulsive efficiency and fuel economy
Answer: Option A
33. The overall isothermal efficiency of the compressor is defined as
the ratio of
(A) Work required to compress the air isothermally to the actual work
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required to compress the air for the same pressure ratio
(B) Isothermal power to the shaft power or B.P. of the motor or engine
required to drive the compressor
(C) Volume of free air delivery per stroke to the swept volume of the
piston
(D) Isentropic power to the power required to drive the compressor
Answer: Option B
34. Reciprocating air compressor is best suited for
(A) Large quantity of air at high pressure
(B) Small quantity of air at high pressure
(C) Small quantity of air at low pressure
(D) Large quantity of air at low pressure
Answer: Option A
35. In a double acting compressor, the air is compressed
(A) In one cylinder
(B) In two cylinders
(C) In a single cylinder on both sides of the piston
(D) In two cylinders on both sides of the piston
Answer: Option C
36. After-cooler is used to
(A) Cool the air
(B) Decrease the delivery temperature for ease in handling
(C) Cause moisture and oil vapour to drop out
(D) Reduce volume
Answer: Option C
(A) The reciprocating compressors are best suited for high pressure
and low volume capacity
(B) The effect of clearance volume on power consumption is
negligible for the same volume of discharge
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
38. Mining industry usually employs following motive power
(A) A.C. electric motor
(B) Compressed air
(C) Petrol engine
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(D) Diesel engine
Answer: Option B
39. The reason for volumetric efficiency of reciprocating compressor
being less than 100 percent is
(A) Pressure drop across the valves
(B) Superheating in compressor
(C) Clearance volume and leakages
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
40. In jet propulsion power unit, the inlet duct of diverging shape is
used in order to
(A) Collect more air
(B) Convert kinetic energy of air into pressure energy
(C) Provide robust structure
(D) Beautify the shape
Answer: Option B
41. Volumetric efficiency of a compressor without clearance volume
(A) Increases with increase in compression ratio
(B) Decreases with increase in compression ratio
(C) Is not dependent upon compression ratio
(D) May increase/decrease depending on compressor capacity
Answer: Option C
42. The mean effective pressure of the compressor is the
Answer: Option D
43. An ideal air compressor cycle without clearance on PV diagram
can be represented by following processes
(A) One adiabatic, two isobaric, and one constant volume
(B) Two adiabatic and two isobaric
(C) Two adiabatic, one isobaric and one constant volume
(D) One adiabatic, one isobaric and two constant volumes
Answer: Option A
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44. The thrust of a jet propulsion power unit can be increased by
(A) Injecting water into the compressor
(B) Burning fuel after gas turbine
(C) Injecting ammonia into the combustion chamber
Answer: Option D
45. Maximum work is done in compressing air when the compression
is
(A) Isothermal
(B) Adiabatic
(C) Polytropic
Answer: Option B
46. A rotary compressor is driven by an
(A) Electric motor
(B) Engine
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
47. Isothermal compression though most efficient, but is not
practicable because
(A) It requires very big cylinder
(B) It does not increase pressure much
(C) It is impossible in practice
(D) Compressor has to run at very slow speed to achieve it
Answer: Option D
48. Gas turbine as compared to steam turbine
(A) Requires less space for installation
(B) Has compressor and combustion chamber
(C) Has less efficiency
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
49. The following property is most important for material used for gas
turbine blade
(A) Toughness
(B) Fatigue
(C) Creep
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(D) Corrosion resistance
Answer: Option C
50. The ratio of work done per cycle to the swept volume in case of
compressor is called
(A) Compression index
(C) Compressor efficiency
Answer: Option D
51. Intercooling in gas turbines
(A) Decreases net output but increases thermal efficiency
(B) Increases net output but decreases thermal efficiency
(C) Decreases net output and thermal efficiency both
(D) Increases net output and thermal efficiency both
Answer: Option D
52. The efficiency of jet engine is
(A) Lower at low speed
(B) Higher at high altitudes
(C) Same at all altitudes
(D) Higher at high speed
Answer: Option B
53. Compression efficiency is compared against
(A) Ideal compression
(B) Adiabatic compression
(C) Isentropic compression
(D) Isothermal compression
Answer: Option D
54. High air-fuel ratio in gas turbines
(A) Increases power output
(B) Improves thermal efficiency
(C) Reduces exhaust temperature
(D) Do not damage turbine blades
Answer: Option C
55. An ideal air compressor cycle with clearance on PV diagram can
be represented by following processes
(A) One adiabatic, two isobaric, and one constant volume
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(B) Two adiabatic and two isobaric
(C) Two adiabatic, one isobaric and one constant volume
(D) One adiabatic, one isobaric and two constant volumes
Answer: Option B
56. If p₁ is the pressure of air entering the L.P, cylinder and p₃ is the
pressure of air leaving the H.P. cylinder, then the ratio of cylinder
diameters for a single acting, two stage reciprocating compressor with
complete intercooling is given by
(A) D₁/D₂ = (p₁ p₃)1/2
(B) D₁/D₂ = (p₁/p₃)1/4
(C) D₁/D₂ = (p₁ p₃)1/4
(D) D₁/D₂ = (p₃/p₁)1/4
Answer: Option D
57. In gas turbines, high thermal efficiency is obtained in
(A) Closed cycle
(B) Open cycle
(C) Both of the above
(D) Closed/open depending on other considerations
Answer: Option A
58. Ratio of indicated H.P. and brake H.P. is known as
(C) Isothermal efficiency
(D) Adiabatic efficiency
Answer: Option A
59. The ratio of the volume of free air delivery per stroke to the swept
volume of the piston, is known as
(A) Compressor efficiency
(D) Mechanical efficiency
Answer: Option B
60. Clearance volume in actual reciprocating compressors is essential
(A) To accommodate Valves in the cylinder head
(B) To provide cushioning effect
(C) To attain high volumetric efficiency
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(D) To provide cushioning effect and also to avoid mechanical bang of
piston with cylinder head
Answer: Option D
61. In a turbo jet engine, subsequent to heat addition to compressed
air, to get the power output, the working substance is expanded in
(A) Exit nozzle, which is a constant volume process
(B) Exit nozzle, which is essentially an isentropic process
(C) Turbine blades, which is a constant volume process
(D) Turbine blades, which is essentially an isentropic process
Answer: Option D
62. 1 m of air at atmospheric condition weighs approximately
(A) 0.5 kg
(B) 1.0 kg
(C) 1.3 kg
(D) 2.2 kg
Answer: Option C
63. The overall efficiency of the compressed air system is the
(A) Ratio of shaft output of the air motor to the shaft input to the
compressor
(B) Ratio of shaft input to the compressor to the shaft output of air
motor
(C) Product of shaft output of air motor and shaft input to the
compressor
Answer: Option A
64. Adiabatic compression is one in which
(A) Temperature during compression remains constant
(B) No heat leaves or enters the compressor cylinder during
compression
(C) Temperature rise follows a linear relationship
(D) Work done is maximum
Answer: Option B
65. A machine used to raise the pressure of air is called
(A) Gas turbine
(B) I.C engine
(C) Compressor
(D) Air motor
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Answer: Option C
66. The capacity of a compressor is 5 m /min refers to
(A) Standard air
(B) Free air
(C) Compressed air
(D) Compressed air at delivery pressure
Answer: Option B
67. The process, which causes the air to enter the impeller blades of a
centrifugal compressor at ________ velocity (without effecting the
mass of air to flow and velocity of flow) is known as prewhirl.
(A) Reduced
(B) Increased
(C) Zero
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
68. The overall isothermal efficiency of compressor is defined as the
ratio of
(A) Isothermal h.p. to the BHP of motor
(B) Isothermal h.p. to adiabatic h.p.
(C) Power to drive compressor to isothermal h.p.
(D) Work to compress air isothermally to work for actual compression
Answer: Option A
69. In a centrifugal compressor, the ratio of the ________ to the blade
velocity is called slip factor.
(A) Inlet whirl velocity
(B) Outlet whirl velocity
(C) Inlet velocity of flow
(D) Outlet velocity of flow
Answer: Option D
70. The most efficient method of compressing air is to compress it
(A) Isothermally
(B) Adiabatically
(C) Isentropically
(D) Isochronically
Answer: Option A
71. The performance of air compressor at high altitudes will be
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________ as compared to that at sea level.
(A) Same
(B) Lower
(C) Higher
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
72. The pressure and temperature conditions of air at the suction of
compressor are
(A) Atmospheric
(B) Slightly more than atmospheric
(C) Slightly less than atmospheric
(D) Pressure slightly less than atmospheric and temperature slightly
more than atmospheric
Answer: Option D
73. Which of the following statement is correct as regard to centrifugal
compressors?
(A) The flow of air is parallel to the axis of the compressor
(B) The static pressure of air in the impeller increases in order to
provide centripetal force on the air
(C) The impeller rotates at high speeds
(D) The maximum efficiency is higher than multistage axial flow
compressors
Answer: Option B
74. Isothermal compression efficiency can be attained by running the
compressor
(A) At very high speed
(B) At very slow speed
(C) At average speed
(D) At zero speed
Answer: Option B
75. Gas turbine as compared to internal combustion engine
(A) Can be driven at a very high speed
(B) Produces uniform torque
(C) Has more efficiency
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
76. The capacity of a compressor is expressed in
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(A) kg/m²
(B) kg/m³
(C) m³/min
(D) m³/kg
Answer: Option C
77. The work done per unit mass of air in compression will be least
when n is equal to
(A) 1
(B) 1.2
(C) 1.3
(D) 1.4
Answer: Option A
78. Cylinder clearance in a compressor should be
(A) As large as possible
(B) As small as possible
(C) About 50% of swept volume
(D) About 100% of swept volume
Answer: Option B
79. The ratio of workdone per cycle to the stroke volume of the
compressor is known as
(A) Compressor capacity
Answer: Option D
80. Ratio of compression is the ratio of
(A) Gauge discharge pressure to the gauge intake pressure
(B) Absolute discharge pressure to the absolute intake pressure
(C) Pressures at discharge and suction corresponding to same
temperature
(D) Stroke volume and clearance volume
Answer: Option B
81. The compressed air may be used
(A) In gas turbine plants
(B) For operating pneumatic drills
(C) In starting and supercharging of I.C. engines
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Answer: Option D
82. The net work input required for compressor with increase in
clearance volume
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains same
(D) Increases/decreases depending on compressor capacity
Answer: Option C
83. For minimum work required to compress and deliver a quantity of
air by multistage compression
(A) The compression ratio in each stage should be same
(B) The intercooling should be perfect
(C) The workdone in each stage should be same
Answer: Option D
84. Ratio of indicated h.p. to shaft h.p. in known as
(B) Isothermal efficiency
Answer: Option D
85. In a jet engine, the air-fuel ratio is
(A) 30 : 1
(B) 40 : 1
(C) 50 : 1
(D) 60 : 1
Answer: Option D
86. Volumetric efficiency is
(A) The ratio of stroke volume to clearance volume
(B) The ratio of the air actually delivered to the amount of piston
displacement
(C) Reciprocal of compression ratio
(D) Index of compressor performance
Answer: Option B
87. In axial flow compressor, exit flow angle deviation from the blade
angle is a function of
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(A) Blade camber
(B) Blade camber and incidence angle
(C) Spacechord ratio
(D) Blade camber and spacechord ratio
Answer: Option B
88. Volumetric efficiency of air compressors is of the order of
(A) 20 - 30 %
(B) 40 - 50 %
(C) 60 - 70 %
(D) 70 - 90 %
Answer: Option D
89. The velocity of air entering in a rocket is ________ as compared to
an aircraft.
(A) Zero
(B) Less
(C) More
(D) Same
Answer: Option A
90. Volumetric efficiency of a compressor with clearance volume
(A) Increases with increase in compression ratio
(B) Decreases with increase in compression ratio
(C) In not dependent upon compression ratio
(D) May increase/decrease depending on compressor capacity
Answer: Option B
91. Rotary compressor is best suited for
(A) Large quantity of air at high pressure
(B) Small quantity of air at high pressure
(C) Small quantity of air at low pressure
(D) Large quantity of air at low pressure
Answer: Option B
92. The intercooler pressure, for minimum work required, for a two
stage reciprocating air compressor, is given by (where p₁ = Intake
pressure of air, p₂ = Intercooler pressure, and p₃ = Delivery pressure
of air)
(A) p₂ = p₁ × p₃
(B) p₂ = p₁/p₃
(C) p₂ = p₁ × p₂
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(D) p₂ = p₃/p₁
Answer: Option C
93. The compressor efficiency is the
(A) Isothermal H.P/indicated H.R
(B) Isothermal H.P./shaft H.R
(C) Total output/air input
(D) Compression work/motor input
Answer: Option A
94. The ratio of the net work obtained from the gas turbine plant to
the turbine work is known as
(A) Compression ratio
(B) Work ratio
(C) Pressure ratio
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
95. The thrust on the rotor in a centrifugal compressor is produced by
(B) Axial component
(C) Tangential component
Answer: Option B
96. In a centrifugal compressor, the highest Mach number leading to
shock wave in the fluid flow occurs at
(A) Diffuser inlet radius
(B) Diffuser outlet radius
(C) Impeller inlet radius
(D) Impeller outlet radius
Answer: Option B
97. A compressor at high altitude will draw
(A) More power
(B) Less power
(C) Same power
(D) More/less power depending on other factors
Answer: Option B
98. In a single acting reciprocating air compressor, without clearance,
the compression of air may be
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(A) Isothermal
(B) Polytropic
(C) Isentropic
Answer: Option D
99. During peak load periods, the best method of controlling
compressors is
(A) Start-stop motor
(B) Constant speed unloader
(C) Relief valve
(D) Variable speed
Answer: Option B
100. The temperature of air at the beginning of the compression stroke
is ________ the atmospheric temperature.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
101. A centrifugal compressor works on the principle of
(A) Conversion of pressure energy into kinetic energy
(B) Conversion of kinetic energy into pressure energy
(C) Centripetal action
(D) Generating pressure directly
Answer: Option B
102. The air is delivered ________ in one revolution in case of a three
lobbed rotor.
(A) Two times
(B) Three times
(C) Four times
(D) Six times
Answer: Option D
103. In a compressor, free air delivered is the actual volume delivered
at the stated pressure reduced to
(A) N.T.P. conditions
(B) Intake temperature and pressure conditions
(C) 0°C and 1 kg/cm²
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(D) 20°C and 1 kg/cm²
Answer: Option B
104. The blades of gas turbine are made of
(A) High nickel alloy
(B) Stainless steel
(C) Carbon steel
(D) High alloy steel
Answer: Option A
105. The maximum delivery pressure in a rotary air compressor is
(A) 10 bar
(B) 20 bar
(C) 30 bar
(D) 50 bar
Answer: Option A
106. Rotary compressors are used for delivering
(A) Small quantities of air at high pressures
(B) Large quantities of air at high pressures
(C) Small quantities of air at low pressures
(D) Large quantities of air at low pressures
Answer: Option D
107. More than one stage will be preferred for reciprocating
compressor if the delivery pressure is more than
(A) 2 kg/cm²
(B) 6 kg/cm²
(C) 10 kg/cm²
(D) 14.7 kg/cm²
Answer: Option A
108. Only rocket engines can be propelled to space because
(A) They can generate very high thrust
(B) They have high propulsion efficiency
(C) These engines can work on several fuels
(D) They are not air breathing engines
Answer: Option D
109. The advantage of multistage compression over single stage
compression is
(A) Lower power consumption per unit of air delivered
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(B) Higher volumetric efficiency
(C) Decreased discharge temperature
Answer: Option D
110. Reheating in a gas turbine
(A) Increases the thermal efficiency
(B) Increases the compressor work
(C) Increases the turbine work
(D) Decreases the thermal efficiency
Answer: Option A
111. Pick up the wrong statement about advantages of multistage
compression
(A) Better lubrication is possible advantages of multistage
(B) More loss of air due to leakage past the cylinder
(C) Mechanical balance is better
(D) Air can be cooled perfectly in between
Answer: Option B
112. For perfect intercooling in a three stage compressor
(A) p₂/p₁ = p₃/p₂ = p₄/p₃
(B) p₃/p₁ = p₄/p₂
(C) p₁ p₂ = p₃ p₄
(D) p₁ p₃ = p₂ p₄
Answer: Option A
113. The ratio of outlet whirl velocity to blade velocity in case of
centrifugal compressor is called
(A) Slip factor
(B) Velocity factor
(C) Velocity coefficient
Answer: Option A
114. When the temperature of air leaving the intercooler, in a two
stage compression with intercooler, is ________ the original
atmospheric air temperature, then the intercooling is known as perfect
or complete intercooling.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
115. Losses in a centrifugal compressor are due to
(A) Inlet losses
(B) Impeller channel losses
(C) Diffuser losses
Answer: Option D
116. The axial flow compressor is preferred in aircraft gas turbines
because of
(A) Low frontal area
(B) Higher thrust
(C) High pressure rise
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
117. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor falls roughly as follows
for every 5°C increase in atmospheric temperature
(A) 0.1 %
(B) 0.5 %
(C) 1 %
(D) 5 %
Answer: Option C
118. If p₁, is the pressure of air entering the L.P. cylinder and p₂ is the
pressure of air leaving the L.P. cylinder (or intercooler pressure), then
the ratio of cylinder diameters for a single acting, two stage
reciprocating air compressor with complete intercooling is given by
(where D₁ = Dia. of L.P. cylinder, and D₂ = Dia. of H.P. cylinder)
(A) D₁/D₂ = p₁ p₂
(B) D₁/D₂ = p₁/p₂
(C) D₁/D₂ = p₂/p₁
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
119. The indicated work per unit mass of air delivered is
(A) Directly proportional to clearance volume
(B) Greatly affected by clearance volume
(C) Not affected by clearance volume
(D) Inversely proportional to clearance volume
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Answer: Option C
(A) The ratio of the discharge pressure to the inlet pressure of air is
called compressor efficiency
(B) The compression ratio for the compressor is always greater than
unity
(C) The compressor capacity is the ratio of workdone per cycle to the
stroke volume
(D) During isothermal compression of air, the workdone in a
compressor is maximum
Answer: Option B
121. In n₁ and n₂ are the indices of compression for the first and
second stage of compression, then the ratio of workdone on the first
and second stages (W₁/W₂) with perfect intercooling is given by
(A) W₁/W₂ = n₂(n₁ - 1)/n₁(n₂ - 1)
(B) W₁/W₂ = n₁(n₂ - 1)/n₂(n₁ - 1)
(C) W₁/W₂ = n₁/n₂
(D) W₁/W₂ = n₂/n₁
Answer: Option B
122. For supplying intermittent small quantity of air at high pressure,
following compressor is best suited
(A) Centrifugal
(B) Reciprocating
(C) Axial
(D) Screw
Answer: Option B
123. The absolute pressure of air at the outlet of a compressor is called
(A) Back pressure
(B) Critical pressure
(C) Discharge pressure
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
124. For minimum work in multistage compression, assuming same
index of compression in all stages
(A) Work done in first stage should be more
(B) Work done in subsequent stages should increase
(C) Work done in subsequent stages should decrease
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(D) Work done in all stages should be equal
Answer: Option D
125. The volume of air delivered in a medium capacity air compressor
per unit time is
(A) 0.1 to 1.2 m³/s
(B) 0.15 to 5 m³/s
(C) Above 5 m³/s
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
126. For a two stage compressor, if index of compression for higher
stage is greater than index of compression for lower stage, then the
optimum pressure as compared to ideal case will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(D) Other factors control it
Answer: Option A
127. Which one of the following is the effect of blade shape on
performance of a centrifugal compressor?
(A) Backward curved blades has poor efficiency
(B) Backward curved blades lead to stable performance
(C) Forward curved blades has higher efficiency
(D) Forward curved blades produce lower pressure ratio
Answer: Option D
128. Diffuser in a compressor is used to
(A) Increase velocity
(B) Make the flow streamline
(C) Convert pressure energy into kinetic energy
(D) Convert kinetic energy into pressure energy
Answer: Option D
129. A closed cycle gas turbine consists of a
(A) Compressor
(B) Heating chamber
(C) Cooling chamber
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
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130. The ratio of isentropic work to Euler’s work is known as
(B) Isentropic efficiency
(C) Euler's efficiency
(D) Pressure coefficient
Answer: Option D
131. The mass of gas turbine per kW developed is about ________ as
that of an I.C. engine.
(A) Same
(B) One-half
(C) One fourth
(D) One sixth
Answer: Option D
132. The thermodynamic efficiency of rotary compressor is based on
(A) Isothermal compression
(B) Adiabatic compression
(C) Isentropic compression
(D) Polytropic compression
Answer: Option B
133. The type of rotary compressor used in aeroplanes, is of
(B) Axial flow type
(C) Radial flow type
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
134. Phenomenon of choking in compressor means
(A) No flow of air
(B) Fixed mass flow rate regardless of pressure ratio
(C) Reducing mass flow rate with increase in pressure ratio
(D) Increased inclination of chord with air steam
Answer: Option B
135. The assumption made in two stage compression with intercooler
is that
(A) There is no pressure drop in the intercooler
(B) The compression in both the cylinders is polytropic
(C) The suction and delivery of air takes place at constant pressure
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Answer: Option D
136. With the decrease in compression ratio, the volumetric efficiency
(A) Does not change
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) First decrease and then increase
Answer: Option B
137. Pick up wrong statement. Surging phenomenon in centrifugal
compressor depends on
(A) Mass flow rate
(B) Pressure ratio
(C) Change in load
(D) Stagnation pressure at the outlet
Answer: Option D
138. In air compressors, free air delivery means the
Answer: Option A
139. The ratio of the increase in pressure in rotor blades to total
increase in pressure in the stage is called
(A) Pressure ratio
(B) Pressure coefficient
(C) Degree of reaction
(D) Slip factor
Answer: Option C
140. A turboprop is preferred to turbojet because
(A) It has high propulsive efficiency at high speeds
(B) It can fly at supersonic speeds
(C) It can fly at high elevations
(D) It has high power for take off
Answer: Option D
141. Axial flow compressor resembles
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(C) Turbine
(D) Sliding vane compressor
Answer: Option C
142. The efficiency of roots blower ________ with the increase in
pressure ratio.
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) Does not change
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
143. Axial flow compressor has the following advantage over
centrifugal compressor
(A) Larger air handling ability per unit frontal area
(B) Higher pressure ratio per stage
(C) Aerofoil blades are used
(D) Higher average velocities
Answer: Option A
144. The maximum temperature in a gas turbine is
(A) 200°C
(B) 500°C
(C) 700°C
(D) 1000°C
Answer: Option C
145. Actual compression curve is
(A) Same as isothermal
(B) Same as adiabatic
(C) Better than isothermal and adiabatic
(D) In between isothermal and adiabatic
Answer: Option D
146. In a centrifugal compressor, an increase in speed at a given
pressure ratio causes
(A) Increase in flow
(B) Decrease in flow
(C) Increase in efficiency
(D) Increase in flow and decrease in efficiency
Answer: Option D
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147. Atmospheric pressure is 1.03 kg/cm and vapour pressure is 0.03
kg/cm. The air pressure will be
(A) 1.03 kg/cm²
(B) 1.06 kg/cm²
(C) 1.00 kg/cm²
(D) 0.53 kg/cm²
Answer: Option C
148. For maximum work, the reheating should be done to an
intermediate pressure of
(Where p₁ = Maximum pressure, and p₂ = Minimum pressure)
(A) (p₁ - p₂)/2
(B) (p₁ + p₂)/2
(C) p₁/p₂
(D) p₁ p₂
Answer: Option D
149. The pressure ratio of an ideal vaned compressor with increase in
mass flow rate
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain constant
Answer: Option C
150. If the flow of air through the compressor is parallel to its axis,
then the compressor is
(A) Reciprocating compressor
(B) Centrifugal compressor
(C) Axial flow compressor
(D) Turbo compressor
Answer: Option C
151. A compressor at high altitudes will require ________ power.
(A) Same
(B) Less
(C) More
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
(A) Centrifugal compressors deliver practically constant pressure over
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a considerable range of capacities
(B) Axial flow compressors have a substantially constant delivery at
variable pressures
(C) Centrifugal compressors have a wider stable operating range than
axial flow compressors
(D) Axial flow compressors are bigger in diameter compared to
centrifugal type
Answer: Option D
153. The compression ratio for the compressor is always __________
unity.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
154. The work ratio of a gas turbine plant is defined as the ratio of
(A) Net work output and heat supplied
(B) Net work output and work done by turbine
(C) Actual heat drop and isentropic heat drop
(D) Net work output and isentropic heat drop
Answer: Option B
155. Euler's equation can be used for
(A) Radial flow compressors
(B) Axial flow compressors
(C) Pumps
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
156. Gas turbine works on
(A) Brayton or Atkinson cycle
(B) Carnot cycle
(C) Rankine cycle
(D) Erricson cycle
Answer: Option A
157. The ratio of the indicated power to the shaft power or brake
power of the motor or engine required to drive the compressor, is
called
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Answer: Option D
158. The work ratio of simple gas turbine cycle depends on
(A) Pressure ratio
(B) Maximum cycle temperature
(C) Minimum cycle temperature
Answer: Option D
159. The efficiency of a jet engine is higher at
(A) Low speeds
(B) High speeds
(C) Low altitudes
(D) High altitudes
Answer: Option D
160. The pressure ratio for an open cycle gas turbine compared to
closed cycle gas turbine of same h.p. is
(A) Low
(B) High
(C) Same
(D) Low/high depending on make and type
Answer: Option A
161. In a single acting reciprocating compressor, the suction,
compression and delivery of air takes place in ________ of the piston.
(A) One stroke
(B) Two strokes
(C) Three strokes
(D) Four strokes
Answer: Option B
162. Open cycle gas turbine works on
(A) Brayton or Atkinson cycle
(B) Rankine cycle
(C) Carnot cycle
(D) Erricson cycle
Answer: Option A
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(A) In a two stage reciprocating air compressor with complete
intercooling, maximum work is saved.
(B) The minimum work required for a two stage reciprocating air
compressor is double the work required for each stage.
(C) The ratio of the volume of free air delivery per stroke to the swept
volume of the piston is called volumetric efficiency.
Answer: Option D
164. The fuel consumption in gas turbines is accounted for by
(A) Lower heating value
(B) Higher heating value
(C) Heating value
(D) Higher calorific value
Answer: Option A
165. The degree of reaction in an axial flow compressor is defined as
the ratio of static enthalpy rise in the
(A) Rotor to static enthalpy rise in the stator
(B) Stator to static enthalpy rise in the rotor
(C) Rotor to static enthalpy rise in the stage
(D) Stator to static enthalpy rise in the stage
Answer: Option C
166. Which of the following statement is correct relating to rocket
engines?
(A) The combustion chamber in a rocket engine is directly analogous
to the reservoir of a supersonic wind tunnel
(B) The stagnation conditions exist at the combustion chamber
(C) The exit velocities of exhaust gases are much higher than those in
jet engine
Answer: Option D
167. The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to a diesel
plant is
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
Answer: Option C
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168. A large clearance volume in a reciprocating compressor results in
(A) Reduced volume flow rate
(B) Increased volume flow rate
(C) Lower suction pressure
(D) Lower delivery pressure
Answer: Option A
169. The air-fuel ratio in gas turbines is of the order of
(A) 7 : 1
(B) 15 : 1
(C) 30 : 1
(D) 50 : 1.
Answer: Option D
170. Inter-cooling in multistage compressors is done
(A) To cool the air during compression
(B) To cool the air at delivery
(C) To enable compression in two stages
(D) To minimise the work of compression
Answer: Option D
171. The pressure ratio in gas turbines is of the order of
(A) 2 : 1
(B) 4 :1
(C) 61 : 1
(D) 9 : 1
Answer: Option C
172. An aftercooler is used to
(A) Remove impurities from air
(B) Reduce volume of air
(C) Cause moisture and oil vapour to drop out
(D) Cool the air
Answer: Option C
173. The output of a gas turbine is 300 KW and its efficiency is 20
percent, the heat supplied is
(A) 6000 KW
(B) 15 KW
(C) 600 KW
(D) 150 KW
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Answer: Option B
174. When the outlet angle from the rotor of a centrifugal compressor
is more than 90°, then the blades are said to be
(A) Forward curved
(B) Backward curved
(C) Radial
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
175. The following is true for an open cycle gas turbine having exhaust
heat exchanger. Atmospheric air before entering the compressor is
(A) Heated
(B) Compressed air before entering the combustion chamber is heated
(C) Bled gas from turbine is heated and readmitted for complete
expansion
(D) Exhaust gases drive the compressor
Answer: Option B
176. Gas turbine blades are given a rake
(A) Equal to zero
(B) In the direction of motion of blades
(C) Opposite to the direction of motion of blades
(D) Depending on the velocity
Answer: Option B
177. The inlet pressure is always ________ the discharge pressure.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
178. Efficiency of gas turbine is increased by
(A) Reheating
(B) Inter cooling
(C) Adding a regenerator
Answer: Option C
179. Temperature of gases at end of compression as compared to
exhaust gases in a gas turbine is
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(A) Higher
(B) Lower
(C) Equal
(D) Can’t be compared
Answer: Option B
180. The volume of air delivered by the compressor is called
(A) Free air delivery
(B) Compressor capacity
(C) Swept volume
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
181. A jet engine has
(A) No propeller
(B) Propeller in front
(C) Propeller at back
(D) Propeller on the top
Answer: Option A
182. The material commonly used for air craft gas turbine is
(A) Stainless steel
(B) High alloy steel
(C) Duralumin
(D) Timken, Haste alloys
Answer: Option D
183. In open cycle turbojet engines used in military aircraft, reheating
the exhaust gas from the turbine by burning, more fuel is used to
increase the
(A) Thrust and range of aircraft
(B) Efficiency of the engine
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
184. It is not possible to use closed gas turbine cycle in aeronautical
engines because
(A) It is inefficient
(B) It is bulky
(C) It requires cooling water for its operation
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Answer: Option C
185. The combustion efficiency of a gas turbine using perfect
combustion chamber is of the order of
(A) 75 %
(B) 85 %
(C) 90 %
(D) 99 %
Answer: Option D
186. For an irreversible gas turbine cycle, the efficiency and work
ratio both depend on
(A) Pressure ratio alone
(B) Maximum cycle temperature alone
(C) Minimum cycle temperature alone
(D) Both pressure ratio and maximum cycle temperature
Answer: Option D
187. Separators are generally used in air compressor installations
(A) Before the intercooler
(B) After the intercooler
(C) Between the aftercooler and receiver
(D) Before first stage suction
Answer: Option C
188. Producer gas is produced by
(A) Carbonisation of coal
(B) Passing steam over incandescent coke
(C) Passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about
65°C
(D) Partial combustion of coal, coke, anthracite coal or charcoal in a
Answer: Option D
189. Water gas is produced by
(A) Carbonisation of coal
(B) Passing steam over incandescent coke
(C) Passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about
65°C
(D) Partial combustion of coal, eke, anthracite coal or charcoal in a
Answer: Option B
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190. In a single stage, single acting reciprocating air compressor
without clearance volume, the workdone is maximum during
(B) Isentropic compression
(C) Polytropic compression
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
191. Water is injected in gas turbine cycle to
(A) Control temperature
(B) Control output of turbine
(C) Control fire hazards
(D) Increase efficiency
Answer: Option B
192. A gas turbine used in air craft should have
(A) High h.p. and low weight
(B) Low weight and small frontal area
(C) Small frontal area and high h.p.
(D) High speed and high h.p
Answer: Option B
193. The volumetric efficiency for reciprocating air compressors is
about
(A) 10 to 40 %
(B) 40 to 60 %
(C) 60 to 70 %
(D) 70 to 90 %
Answer: Option D
194. In the axial flow gas turbine, the work ratio is the ratio of
(A) Compressor work and turbine work
(B) Output and input
(C) Actual total head temperature drop to the isentropic total head drop
from total head inlet to static head outlet
(D) Actual compressor work and theoretical compressor work
Answer: Option C
195. The degree of reaction of an axial flow turbine is the ratio of
isentropic temperature drop in a blade row to the
(A) Adiabatic temperature drop in the stage
(B) Total temperature drop
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(C) Total temperature drop in the stage
(D) Total adiabatic temperature drop
Answer: Option C
(A) Large gas turbines employ axial flow compressors
(B) Axial flow compressors are more stable than centrifugal type
compressors but not as efficient
(C) Axial flow compressors have high capacity and efficiency
(D) Axial flow compressors have instability region of operation
Answer: Option B
197. The power available for takeoff and climb in case of turbojet
engine as compared to reciprocating engine is
(A) Less
(B) More
(C) Same
(D) May be less or more depending on ambient conditions
Answer: Option A
198. A closed gas turbine in which fuel is burnt directly in the air is
not possible because of
(A) Paucity of O2
(B) Increasing gas temperature
(C) High specific volume
(D) High friction losses
Answer: Option A
199. Choose the correct statement
(A) Gas turbine requires lot of cooling water
(B) Gas turbine is capable of rapid start up and loading
(C) Gas turbines has flat efficiency at part loads
(D) Gas turbines have high standby losses and require lot of
maintenance
Answer: Option B
200. In the cross compounding of the gas turbine plant
(A) H.P. compressor is connected to H.P. turbine and L.P. compressor
to L.P. turbine
(B) H.P. compressor is connected to L.P. turbine and L.P. compressor
is connected to H.P. turbine
(C) Both the arrangements can be employed
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(D) All are connected in series
Answer: Option B
201. A jet engine works on the principle of conservation of
(A) Mass
(B) Energy
(C) Flow
(D) Linear momentum
Answer: Option D
202. Which of the following fuels can be used in turbojet engines?
(A) Liquid hydrogen
(B) High speed diesel oil
(C) Kerosene
(D) Methyl alcohol
Answer: Option C
203. Propulsive efficiency is defined as ratio of
(A) Thrust power and fuel energy
(B) Engine output and propulsive power
(C) Propulsive power and fuel input
(D) Thrust power and propulsive power
Answer: Option D
204. In jet engines, paraffin is usually used as the fuel because of its
(A) High calorific value
(B) Ease of atomisation
(C) Low freezing point
Answer: Option D
205. A rocket engine for the combustion of its fuel
(A) Carries its own oxygen
(B) Uses surrounding air
(C) Uses compressed atmospheric air
(D) Does not require oxygen
Answer: Option A
206. A rocket works with maximum overall efficiency when air craft
velocity is equal to the
(A) Jet velocity
(B) Twice the jet velocity
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(C) Half the jet velocity
(D) Average of the jet velocity
Answer: Option C
207. Propulsion efficiency of the following order is obtained in
practice
(A) 34 %
(B) 50 %
(C) 60 %
(D) 72 %
Answer: Option C
208. In jet engines the products of combustion after passing through
the gas turbine are discharged into
(A) Atmosphere
(B) Back to the compressor
(C) Discharge nozzle
(D) Vacuum
Answer: Option C
209. The air entry velocity m a rocket as compared to aircraft is
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) Zero
Answer: Option D
210. The weight per horse power ratio for gas in Turbine as compared
to I.C. engine and steam turbine is
(A) Same
(B) Higher
(C) Lower
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
211. The specific output per kg mass flow rate of a gas turbine (having
fixed efficiencies of compressor and turbine and fixed higher and
lower temperature) with increase in pressure ratio will
(A) Increase first at fast rate and then slow
(B) Increase first at slow rate and then fast
(C) Decrease continuously
(D) First increase, reach maximum and then decrease
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Answer: Option D
212. The working fluid in a turbine is
(A) In two phases
(B) In three phases
(C) In a single phase
(D) In the form of air and water mixture
Answer: Option C
213. Gas turbine cycle with regenerator
(A) Increases thermal efficiency
(B) Allows high compression ratio
(C) Decreases heat loss is exhaust
(D) Allows operation at very high altitudes
Answer: Option A
214. The compression ratio in a gas turbine is of the order of
(A) 3.5 : 1
(B) 5 : 1
(C) 8 : 1
(D) 12 : 1
Answer: Option C
215. Reheating in multistage expansion gas turbine results in
(A) High thermal efficiency
(B) Reduction in compressor work
(C) Decrease of heat loss in exhaust
(D) Maximum work output
Answer: Option D
216. The main purpose of reheating in gas turbine is to
(A) Increase temperature
(B) Reduce turbine size
(C) Increase power output
(D) Increase speed
Answer: Option C
217. Reheating in gas turbine results in
(A) Increase of work ratio
(B) Decrease of thermal efficiency
(C) Decrease of work ratio
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Answer: Option D
218. Work ratio of a gas turbine plant is ratio of
(A) Net work output and work done by turbine
(B) Net work output and heat supplied
(C) Work done by turbine and heat supplied
(D) Work done by turbine and net work output
Answer: Option A
219. Work ratio of a gas turbine may be improved by
(A) Decreasing the compression work
(B) Increasing the compression work
(C) Increasing the turbine work
Answer: Option D
220. Maximum temperature in a gas turbine is of the order of
(A) 700°C
(B) 2000°C
(C) 1500°C
(D) 1000°C
Answer: Option A
221. In air breathing jet engine, the jet is formed by expanding
(A) Highly heated atmospheric air
(B) Solids
(C) Liquid
(D) Plasma
Answer: Option A
122. Ramjet engine
(A) Is self operating at zero flight speed
(B) Is not self operating at zero flight speed
(C) Requires no air for its operation
(D) Produces a jet consisting of plasma
Answer: Option B
223. For speed above 3000 km/hour, it is more advantageous to use
(A) Turbojet engine
(B) Ramjet engine
(C) Propellers
(D) Rockets
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Answer: Option B
224. A simple turbojet engine is basically
(A) A propeller system
(B) Gas turbine engine equipped with a propulsive nozzle and diffuse
(C) Chemical rocket engine
(D) Ramjet engine
Answer: Option B
225. Which of the following plants is smallest and lightest for
generating a given amount of power?
(A) Gas turbine plant
(B) Petrol engine
(C) Diesel engine
(D) Solar plant
Answer: Option A
226. The compressor performance at higher altitude compared to sea
level will be
(A) Same
(B) Higher
(C) Lower
(D) Dependent on other factors
Answer: Option C
(A) Closed cycle gas turbine is an I.C engine
(B) Gas turbine uses same working fluid over and over again
(C) Ideal efficiency of closed cycle gas turbine plant is more than
Carnot cycle efficiency
(D) Thrust in turbojet is produced by nozzle exit gases.
Answer: Option D
228. The ratio of the discharge pressure to the inlet pressure of air is
called
(A) Compression ratio
(B) Expansion ratio
Answer: Option A
229. An air compressor may be controlled by
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(A) Throttle control
(B) Clearance control
(C) Blow off control
Answer: Option D
230. The minimum work required for a three stage reciprocating air
compressor is ________ the work required for each stage.
(A) Equal to
(B) Double
(C) Three times
(D) Six times
Answer: Option C
231. The air power of the compressor is also known as
(A) Indicated power
(B) Brake power
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
232. The compressor capacity with decrease in suction temperature
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(D) May increase or decrease depending on compressor capacity
Answer: Option A
233. The maximum propulsion efficiency of a turbojet is attained at
around following speed
(A) 550 km/hr
(B) 1050 km/hr
(C) 1700 km/hr
(D) 2400 km/hr
Answer: Option D
234. In a centrifugal compressor, the flow of air is ________ to the axis
of compressor.
(A) Parallel
(B) Perpendicular
(C) Inclined
(D) None of these
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Answer: Option B
235. Aeroplanes employ following type of compressor
(A) Radial flow
(B) Axial flow
(C) Centrifugal
Answer: Option B
236. In a reciprocating air compressor, the compression work per kg
of air
(A) Increases as clearance volume increases
(B) Decreases as clearance volume increases
(C) Is independent of clearance volume
(D) Increases as clearance volume decreases
Answer: Option C
237. The clearance volume of the air compressor is kept minimum
because
(A) It allows maximum compression to be achieved
(B) It greatly affects volumetric efficiency
(C) It results in minimum work
(D) It permits isothermal compression
Answer: Option B
238. Free air is the air at
(A) Atmospheric conditions at any specific location
(B) 20°C and 1 kg/cm² and relative humidity of 36%
(C) 0°C and standard atmospheric conditions
Answer: Option A
239. Standard air is the air at
(A) Atmospheric conditions at any specific location
(B) 20°C and 1 kg/cm² and relative humidity 36%
(C) 0°C and standard atmospheric conditions
Answer: Option B
240. In a single stage, single acting reciprocating air compressor,
without clearance, the workdone on the air during isentropic
compression is ________ the heat required to raise the temperature of
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air from T₁ to T₂ at a constant pressure.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
241. Isothermal compression efficiency, even when running at high
speed, can be approached by using
(A) Multistage compression
(B) Cold water spray
(D) Fully insulating the cylinder
Answer: Option C
242. In a four stage compressor, if the pressure at the first and third
stage is 1 bar and 16 bar, then the delivery pressure at the fourth stage
will be
(A) 1 bar
(B) 16 bar
(C) 64 bar
(D) 256 bar
Answer: Option C
243. Inter cooling in compressors
(A) Cools the delivered air
(B) Results in saving of power in compressing a given volume to given
pressure
(C) Is the standard practice for big compressors
(D) Enables compression in two stages
Answer: Option B
244. The stagnation pressure rise in a centrifugal compressor takes
place
(A) In the diffuser only
(B) In the impeller only
(C) In the diffuser and impeller
(D) In the inlet guide vanes only
Answer: Option C
245. What will be the volume of air at 327°C if its volume at 27°C is
1.5 m³/ mt?
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(A) 3 m³/ mt.
(B) 1.5 m³/ mt.
(C) 18 m³/ mt.
(D) 6 m³/ mt.
Answer: Option A
246. A 3 m³/min compressor means that it
(A) Compresses 3 m³/min of standard air
(B) Compresses 3 m³/ min of free air
(C) Delivers 3 m³/ min of compressed air
(D) Delivers 3 m³/ min of compressed air at delivery pressure
Answer: Option B
247. Euler's equation is applicable for
(A) Centrifugal compressor
(B) Axial compressor
(C) Pumps
Answer: Option D
248. In a high pressure compressor, the delivery pressure is
(A) 1 to 5 bar
(B) 5 to 8 bar
(C) 8 to 10 bar
(D) 10 to 15 bar
Answer: Option C
249. Which is false statement about air receivers?
(A) These are used to dampen pulsations
(B) These act as reservoir to take care of sudden demands
(C) These increase compressor efficiency
(D) These knock out some oil and moisture
Answer: Option C
250. A rocket engine uses ________ for the combustion of its fuel.
(A) Surrounding air
(B) Compressed atmospheric air
(C) Its own oxygen
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
251. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor falls roughly as follows
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for every 100 m increase in elevation
(A) 0.1 %
(B) 0.5 %
(C) 1.0 %
(D) 5 %
Answer: Option C
252. For a two stage reciprocating compressor, compression from p₁ to
p₃ is with perfect intercooling and no pressure losses. If compression in
both the cylinders follows the same polytropic process and the
atmospheric pressure is pa, then the intermediate pressure p₂ is given
by
(A) p₂ = (p₁ + p₃)/2
(B) p₂ = p₁. p₃
(C) P₂ = Pa × p₃/p₁
(D) p₂ = Pa p₃/p₁
Answer: Option B
253. For slow speed large capacity compressor, following type of valve
will be best suited
(A) Poppet valve
(B) Mechanical valve of the Corliss, sleeve, rotary or semi rotary type
(C) Disc or feather type
(D) Any of the above
Answer: Option C
254. The type of rotary compressor used in gas turbines, is of
(B) Axial flow type
(C) Radial flow type
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
255. During base load operation, the best method of controlling
compressor is
(A) Start-stop motor
(B) Constant speed unloader
(C) Relief valve
(D) Variable speed
Answer: Option A
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256. Which is false statement about advantages of multistage
compressor in comparison to single stage compressor?
(A) Less power requirement
(B) Better mechanical balance
(C) Less loss of air due to leakage past the cylinder
(D) Lower volumetric efficiency
Answer: Option D
257. In a jet propulsion
(A) The propulsive matter is ejected from within the propelled body
(B) The propulsive matter is caused to flow around the propelled body
(C) Its functioning does not depend upon presence of air
Answer: Option B
258. The ratio of isentropic work to Euler work is known as
(A) Pressure coefficient
(B) Work coefficient
(C) Polytropic reaction
(D) Slip factor
Answer: Option A
259. If the clearance ratio for a reciprocating air compressor is 'K',
then its volumetric efficiency is given by
(A) 1 - k + k (p₁/p₂)1/n
(B) 1 + k - k (p₂/p₁)1/n
(C) 1 - k + k (p₁/p₂) n- 1/n
(D) 1 + k - k (p₂/p₁) n-1/n
Answer: Option B
260. The criterion of the thermodynamic efficiency for rotary
compressor is
(A) Isentropic compression
(B) Isothermal compression
Answer: Option A
261. The maximum compression ratio in an actual single stage axial
flow compressor is of the order of
(A) 1 : 1.2
(B) 1 : 2
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(C) 1 : 5
(D) 1 : 10
Answer: Option A
262. Volumetric efficiency of a compressor decreases with ________ in
compression ratio.
(A) Decrease
(B) Increase
(C) Remain same
(D) Does not change
Answer: Option B
263. Maximum delivery pressure is a rotary air compressor is of the
order of
(A) 6 kg/cm²
(B) 10 kg/cm²
(C) 16 kg/cm²
(D) 25 kg/cm²
Answer: Option B
264. The efficiency of the vane blower is (where W₁ = Workdone due to
compression, and W₂ = Workdone due to back flow)
(A) W₁/(W₁ + W₂)
(B) W₂/(W₁ + W₂)
(C) (W₁ + W₂)/W₁
(D) (W₁ + W₂)/W₂
Answer: Option B
265. Surging is the phenomenon of
(A) Air stream blocking the passage
(B) Motion of air at sonic velocity
(C) Unsteady, periodic and reversed flow
(D) Air stream not able to follow the blade contour
Answer: Option C
266. Rotary compressors are suitable for
(A) Large discharge at high pressure
(B) Low discharge at high pressure
(C) Large discharge at low pressure
(D) Low discharge at low pressure
Answer: Option C
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267. For perfect intercooling in a two stage compressor
(A) p₂/p₁ = p₃/p₂
(B) p₁/p₃ = p₂/p₁
(C) p₁ = p3
(D) p₁ = p₂ p3
Answer: Option A
268. The volumetric efficiency of compressor with increase in
compression ratio will
(A) Increase
(B) Decrease
(C) Remain same
(D) May increase or decrease depending on clearance volume
Answer: Option B
269. The propulsive power of the rocket is (where v₁ = Jet velocity, and
v₂ = Aircraft velocity)
(A) (v₁² -v₂²)/2g
(B) (v₁ - v₂)²/2g
(C) (v₁² -v₂²)/g
(D) (v₁ - v₂)²/g
Answer: Option A
270. Stalling of blades in axial flow compressor is the phenomenon of
(A) Air stream blocking the passage
(B) Motion of air at sonic velocity
(C) Unsteady periodic and reversed flow
(D) Air stream not able to follow the blade contour
Answer: Option D
271. Gas turbines for power generation are normally used
(A) To supply base load requirements
(B) To supply peak load requirements
(C) To enable start thermal power plant
(D) In emergency
Answer: Option B
272. A closed cycle gas turbine works on
(A) Carnot cycle
(B) Rankine cycle
(C) Ericsson cycle
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(D) Joule cycle
Answer: Option D
273. Mechanical efficiency of gas turbines as compared to I.C engines
is
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
(C) Same
Answer: Option A
274. In a single stage, single acting reciprocating air compressor,
without clearance volume, the workdone is minimum during
(B) Isentropic compression
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
275. The ratio of specific weight/h.p. of gas turbine and I.C engines
may be typically of the order of
(A) 1 : 1
(B) 2 : 1
(C) 4 : 1
(D) 1 : 6
Answer: Option D
276. The ideal efficiency of simple gas turbine cycle depends on
(A) Pressure ratio
(B) Maximum cycle temperature
(C) Minimum cycle temperature
Answer: Option A
277. The thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine for a given turbine
inlet temperature with increase in pressure ratio
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) First increases and then decreases
Answer: Option A
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278. The pressure of air at the beginning of the compression stroke is
________ the atmospheric pressure.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
279. As the turbine inlet temperature increases, the thermal efficiency
of gas turbine for the optimum pressure ratio
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain same
Answer: Option A
280. There is a certain pressure ratio (optimum) for a gas turbine at
which its thermal efficiency is maximum. With increase in turbine
temperature, the value of pressure ratio for the peak efficiency would
(A) Remain same
(B) Decrease
(C) Increase
Answer: Option C
281. A closed cycle gas turbine gives ________ efficiency as compared
to an open cycle gas turbine.
(A) Same
(B) Lower
(C) Higher
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
(A) Gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio to economise on fuel
(B) Gas turbine uses high air-fuel ratio to reduce outgoing temperature
(C) Gas turbine uses low air-fuel ratio to develop the high thrust
required
Answer: Option B
283. If infinite number of heaters be used in a gas turbine, then
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expansion process in turbine approaches
(A) Isothermal
(B) Isentropic
(C) Adiabatic
(D) Isochoric
Answer: Option A
284. Inter-cooling in gas turbine results in
(A) Increase in net output but decrease in thermal efficiency
(B) Increase in thermal efficiency but decrease in net output
(C) Increase in both thermal efficiency and net output
(D) Decrease in both thermal efficiency and net output
Answer: Option A
285. If V, U and Vr represent the absolute velocity of fluid, velocity of
blade, and relative velocity of fluid, and suffix ‘I’ and ‘o’ stand for
entry and exit conditions, then in a rotary machine whose degree of
reaction is unity
(A) Vi = Vo
(B) Vt > Vo
(C) U < Vo
(D) V = Uo
Answer: Option A
286. Fighter bombers use following type of engine
(A) Turbojet
(B) Turbo-propeller
(C) Rocket
(D) Ramjet
Answer: Option A
287. The effective power of gas turbines is increased by adding the
following in compressor
(A) Ammonia and water vapour
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Hydrogen
Answer: Option A
288. High air-fuel ratio is used in gas turbines
(A) To increase the output
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(B) To increase the efficiency
(C) To save fuel
(D) To reduce the exit temperature
Answer: Option D
289. Air-fuel ratio in a jet engine will be of the order of
(A) 10 : 1
(B) 15 : 1
(C) 20 : 1
(D) 60 : 1
Answer: Option D
290. In which case the air-fuel ratio is likely to be maximum?
(A) Gas turbine
(B) 4-stroke petrol engine
(C) 4-stroke diesel engine
(D) Multi cylinder engine
Answer: Option A
291. In turbo fan engine, the jet velocity as compared to turbojet
engine is
(A) Less
(B) More
(C) Same
(D) May be less or more depending upon speed
Answer: Option A
292. Turbofan engine employs
(A) One air stream
(B) Two or more air streams
(C) No air stream
(D) Solid fuel firing
Answer: Option B
293. Pressure ratio in gas turbines is the ratio of
(A) Compressor pressure ratio
(B) Highest pressure to exhaust pressure
(C) Inlet pressure to exhaust pressure
(D) Pressures across the turbine
Answer: Option B
294. Pick up the false statement
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(A) Gas turbine is a self starting unit
(B) Gas turbine does not require huge quantity of water like steam
plant
(C) Exhaust losses in gas turbine are high due to large mass flow rate
(D) Overall efficiency of gas turbine plant is lower than that of a
Answer: Option A
295. The pressure and temperature conditions of air at the suction of
compressor are
(A) Atmospheric
(B) Slightly more than atmospheric
(C) Slightly less than atmospheric
(D) Pressure slightly less than atmospheric and temperature slightly
more than atmospheric
Answer: Option D
Compressors, Gas Turbines

&
Jet Engines Test
01. The maximum combustion pressure in gas turbine is ________ as
compared to I.C. engine.
(A) More
(B) Less
02. The increase in pressure in a roots blower is entirely due to back
flow of air.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
03. In a gas turbine, air is obtained from the atmosphere and
compressed in an air compressor.
(A) True
(B) False
04. A gas turbine used in aircraft should have low weight and small
frontal area.
(A) Correct
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(B) Incorrect
05. In reciprocating air compressors, isothermal efficiency is used for
all sorts of calculations.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
06. The operation of lifts, rams and pumps make use of compressed
air.
(A) Yes
(B) No
07. For minimum work in multistage compression, the workdone on
all stages should be equal.
(A) Yes
(B) No
08. Slip factor in a centrifugal compressor indicates the amount of air
leaked from the storage vessel.
(A) Yes
(B) No
09. The perfect intercooling, in multistage compression, means that
the temperature of air at inlet to subsequent stages is equal to the
initial temperature.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
10. The ratio of the isentropic work to the Euler's work is known as
pressure coefficient.
(A) Yes
(B) No
11. For a multistage compressor, the polytropic efficiency is constant
throughout for all the stages.
(A) True
(B) False
12. The ratio of the isothermal power to the shaft power or brake
power of the motor or engine required to drive the compressor is
called overall isothermal efficiency.
(A) True
(B) False
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13. The basic principle of the rocket propulsion is the same as that of
jet propulsion.
(A) Yes
(B) No
14. A simple turbojet engine is basically a gas turbine engine equipped
with a propulsive nozzle and diffuser.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
15. The volumetric efficiency of the compressor is defined as the ratio
of volume of free air delivery per stroke to the swept volume of the
piston.
(A) Yes
(B) No
16. A centrifugal compressor is an axial flow compressor.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
17. A compressor must be driven by some prime mover.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
18. In a compressed air system, the temperature of air discharged
from the air motor is ________ than the initial compressor intake
temperature.
(A) More
(B) Less
19. In axial flow compressors, the flow of air is parallel to the axis of
compressor.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
20. A receiver in compressor installations is used to damp pressure
waves in compressor discharge.
(A) Yes
(B) No
Answers: Compressors, Gas Turbines and Jet Engines Test

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Industrial Engineering & Production
Management:
01. PERT stands for
(A) Programme Estimation and Reporting Technique
(B) Process Estimation and Review Technique
(C) Programme Evaluation and Review Technique
(D) Planning Estimation and Resulting Technique
Answer: Option C
02. CPM is
(A) Synthesising in concepts
(B) Is built of activities oriented programmes
(C) Is used for repetitive works
Answer: Option D
03. Father of time study was
(A) F.W. Taylor
(B) H.L. Gantt
(C) F.B. Gilbert
(D) R.M. Barnes
Answer: Option A
04. Work study comprises following main techniques
(A) Method study and work measurement
(B) Method study and time study
(C) Time study and work measurement
(D) Method study and job evaluation
Answer: Option A
05. The performance of a specific task in CPM is known as
(A) Dummy
(B) Event
(C) Activity
(D) Contract
Answer: Option C
06. Product layout is best suited where
(A) One type of product is produced
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(B) Product is standardised
(C) Product is manufactured in large quantities
Answer: Option D
07. Positive slack on a PERT indicates that project is
(A) Ahead of schedule
(B) Beyond schedule
(C) As per schedule
(D) On critical path
Answer: Option A
(A) An activity consumes time and resources whereas an event does
not consume time or resources.
(B) The performance of a specific task is called an activity.
(C) An event is an instantaneous point in time at which an activity
begins or ends.
(D) The turning of a job on lathe is an event whereas job turned is an
activity.
Answer: Option D
09. P.M.T.S. (Predetermined Motion Time Systems) include
(A) M.T.M. (Method Time Measurement)
(B) W.F.S. (Work Factor Systems)
(C) B.M.T.S. (Basic Motion Time Study)
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
10. Travel charts provide
(A) An idea of the flow of materials at various stages
(B) A compact estimate of the handling which must be done between
various work sections
(C) The information for changes required in rearranging material
handling equipment
(D) An approximate estimate of the handling which must be done at a
particular station
Answer: Option B
11. Which of the following organisation is preferred in automobile
industry?
(A) Functional organisation
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(B) Line organisation
(C) Staff organisation
(D) Line and staff organisations
Answer: Option D
12. Tick the odd man out
(A) Taylor
(B) Drucker
(C) McGregor
(D) Galileo
Answer: Option D
13. A company spends considerable amount on publicity to promote
sales. This expenditure in break even chart is shown below the
(A) Fixed cost line
(B) Variable cost line
(C) Total cost line
(D) Sales revenue line
Answer: Option B
14. The mathematical technique for finding the best use of limited
resources in an optimum manner is known as
(A) Operation research
(B) Linear programming
(C) Network analysis
(D) Breakeven analysis
Answer: Option B
15. Product layout is used for
(A) Job production
(B) Batch production
(C) Mass production
Answer: Option C
16. CPM is the
(A) Time oriented technique
(B) Event oriented technique
(C) Activity oriented technique
(D) Target oriented technique
Answer: Option C
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17. PERT
(A) Provides an approach for keeping planning up-to-date
(B) Provides a way for management to require that planning be done
on a uniform and logical basis
(C) Permits management to foresee quickly the impact of variations
from the plan
Answer: Option D
18. The probability distribution of activity times in PERT follows
following distribution
(A) Normal
(B) Binomial
(C) Beta
(D) Exponential
Answer: Option C
19. Pick up the correct statement. Dummy activity on a PERT/CPM
chart means, it
(A) Consumes time, but no resources
(B) Consumes resources but no time
(C) Consumes neither time nor resources
(D) Is a dangling event
Answer: Option C
20. In the cost structure of a product, the selling price is determined
by the factors such as
(A) Sales turn over
(B) Lowest competitive price
(C) Various elements of the cost
Answer: Option D
21. Work study is concerned with
(A) Improving present method and finding standard time
(B) Motivation of workers
(C) Improving production capability
(D) Improving production planning and control
Answer: Option A
22. Which of the following are the guidelines for the construction of a
network diagram?
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(A) Each activity is represented by one and only one arrow in the
network
(B) Dangling must be avoided in a network diagram
(C) Dummy activity consumes no time or resource
Answer: Option D
23. ABC analysis deals with
(A) Analysis of process chart
(B) Flow of material
(C) Ordering schedule of job
(D) Controlling inventory costs money
Answer: Option D
24. Breakeven analysis is a
(A) Short term analysis
(B) Long term analysis
(C) Average of short and long term analysis
Answer: Option A
25. The appellate authority for an industrial dispute is
(A) Management
(B) Labour court
(C) High court/supreme court
(D) Board of directors
Answer: Option C
26. Which of the following layouts is suited to job production?
(A) Process layout
(B) Product layout
(C) Fixed position layout
(D) Plant layout
Answer: Option A
27. 'Value' for value engineering and analysis purposes is defined as
(A) Purchase value
(B) Saleable value
(C) Depreciated value
(D) Function/cost
Answer: Option D
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28. Replacement studies are made on the following basis:
(A) Annual cost method
(B) Rate of return method
(C) Total life average method
Answer: Option D
29. The product layout
(A) Lowers overall manufacturing time
(B) Requires less space for placing machines
(C) Utilises machine and labour better
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
30. The time of completing a project in network analysis is given by
following time of the critical activity meeting at the final triode
(A) Early finish
(B) Early start
(C) Late start
(D) Late finish
Answer: Option A
31. Critical path method
(A) Helps in ascertaining time schedules
(B) Makes better and detailed planning possible
(C) Provides a standard method for communicating project plans
schedules and to time and cost performance
Answer: Option D
32. Critical Path Net Work helps an engineer
(A) To concentrate his attention on critical activities
(B) To divert the resources from noncritical advanced activities to
critical activities
(C) To be cautious for avoiding any delay in the critical activities to
avoid delay of the whole project
Answer: Option D
33. Both Rowan plan and 50-50 Halsey plan will provide the same
earning when the actual time is _________ the standard time.
(A) One-fourth
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(B) One-half
(C) Equal to
(D) Twice
Answer: Option B
34. In breakeven analysis, total cost consists of
(A) Fixed cost
(B) Variable cost
(C) Fixed cost + variable cost
(D) Fixed cost + variable cost + overheads
Answer: Option C
35. Which one of the following techniques is used for determining
allowances in time study?
(A) Acceptance sampling
(B) Linear regression
(C) Performance rating
(D) Work sampling
Answer: Option D
36. Expediting function consists in keeping a watch on
(A) Operator's activity
(B) Flow of material and in case of trouble locate source of trouble
(C) Minimising the delays
(D) Making efficient despatching
Answer: Option B
37. The most popular type of organisation used for Civil Engineering
Constructions is
(A) Line organisation
(B) Line and staff organisation
(C) Functional organisation
(D) Effective organisation
Answer: Option A
38. Which one of the following chart gives simultaneously information
about the progress of work and machine loading?
(A) Process chart
(B) Machine load chart
(C) Man-machine chart
(D) Gantt chart
Answer: Option C
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39. Merit Rating is the method of determining worth of
(A) A job
(B) An individual employee
(C) A particular division in workshop
(D) Machine
Answer: Option B
40. Routing is essential in the following type of industry
(A) Assembly industry
(B) Process industry
(C) Job order industry
(D) Mass production industry
Answer: Option A
41. The time required to complete a task is established and a bonus is
paid to the worker for every hour he saves from the established time
required. This type of incentive plan is known as
(A) Rowan Plan
(B) Taylor Differential Piece rate system
(C) Halsey Premium plan
(D) Day work plan
Answer: Option C
42. Which of the following wage incentive plan guarantees minimum
wage to a worker and bonus is paid for the fixed percentage of time
saved?
(A) Halsey plan
(B) Gantt plan
(C) Rowan plan
(D) Emerson's efficiency plan
Answer: Option A
43. Bin card is used in
(A) Administrative wing
(B) Workshop
(C) Foundry shop
(D) Stores
Answer: Option D
44. The production scheduling is simpler and high volume of output
and high labour efficiency are achieved in the case of
(A) Product layout
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(B) Process layout
(D) A combination of line and process layout
Answer: Option A
45. The disadvantage of product layout is
(A) High initial investment for the specialized facilities
(B) Skilled labour to operate machines
(C) Production time is longer, requiring more goods in inventory
(D) High cost of inspection
Answer: Option A
46. If ‘F’ is the fixed cost, ‘V’ is the variable cost per unit (or total
variable costs) and ‘P’ is the selling price of each unit (or total sales
value), then breakeven point is equal to
(A) (F × V)/P
(B) (F × P)/V
(C) F/[1 + (V/P)]
(D) F/[1 - (V/P)]
Answer: Option D
47. The critical path of a network represents
(A) The minimum time required for completion of project
(B) The maximum time required for completion of project
(C) Maximum cost required for completion of project
(D) Minimum cost required for completion of project
Answer: Option A
48. The breakeven point represents
(A) The most economical level of operation of any industry
(B) The time when unit can run without i loss and profit
(C) Time when industry will undergo loss
(D) The time when company can make maximum profits
Answer: Option C
49. One of the basic essentials of an incentive plan is that
(A) A differential piece rate system should exist
(B) Minimum wages should be guaranteed
(C) Provide incentive to group efficiency performance
(D) All standards should be based on time studies
Answer: Option D
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50. Inventory control in production, planning and control aims at
(A) Achieving optimisation
(B) Ensuring against market fluctuations
(C) Acceptable customer service at low capital investment in inventory
(D) Discounts allowed in bulk purchase
Answer: Option C
51. The allowed time for a job equals standard time plus
(A) Policy allowance
(B) Interference allowance
(C) Process allowance
(D) Learning allowance
Answer: Option A
52. Value engineering aims at finding out the
(A) Depreciation value of a product
(B) Resale value of a product
(C) Major function of the item and accomplishing the same at least
cost without change in quality
(D) Breakeven point when machine requires change
Answer: Option C
53. A-B-C analysis
(A) Is a basic technique of materials management
(B) Is meant for relative inventory control
(C) Does not depend upon the unit cost of the item but on its annual
consumption
Answer: Option D
54. Break-even analysis can be used for
(A) Short run analysis
(B) Long run analysis
(C) Average of above two run analysis
Answer: Option A
55. A big advantage of PERT over Gantt charts is that in the former
case
(A) Activities and events are clearly shown
(B) Early start and late finish of an activity are clearly marked
(C) Activity times are clear
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(D) Interrelationship among activities is clearly shown.
Answer: Option D
56. In manufacturing management, the term 'Dispatching' is used to
describe
(A) Dispatch of sales order
(B) Dispatch of factory mail
(C) Dispatch of finished product of the user
(D) Dispatch of work orders through shop floor
Answer: Option D
57. PERT analysis is based on
(A) Optimistic time
(B) Pessimistic time
(C) Most likely time
Answer: Option D
58. Actual performance of a task is called
(A) An event
(B) An activity
(C) A duration
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
59. Break-even analysis shows profit when
(A) Sales revenue > total cost
(B) Sales revenue = total cost
(C) Sales revenue < total cost
(D) Variable cost < fixed cost
Answer: Option A
60. Gantt charts are used for
(A) Forecasting sales
(B) Production schedule
(C) Scheduling and routing
(D) Linear programming
Answer: Option B
61. Work sampling is applied for
(A) Estimation of the percentage utilisation of machine tools
(B) Estimating the percentage of the time consumed by various job
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activities
(C) Finding out time standards, specially where the job is not repetitive
and where time study by stop watch method is not possible
Answer: Option D
62. Basic tool in work study is
(A) Graph paper
(B) Process chart
(C) Planning chart
(D) Stop watch
Answer: Option D
63. The unit cost in case of batch production is ________ as compared
to jobbing production.
(A) Same
(B) Low
(C) High
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
64. For a product layout the material handling equipment must
(A) Have full flexibility
(B) Employ conveyor belts, trucks, tractors etc.
(C) Be a general purpose type
(D) Be designed as special purpose for a particular application
Answer: Option D
65. Which of the following is independent of sales forecast?
(A) Productivity
(B) Inventory control
(C) Production planning
(D) Production control
Answer: Option A
66. Which of the following layouts is suited for mass production?
(A) Process layout
(B) Product layout
(D) Plant layout
Answer: Option B
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67. Performance rating is equal to
(A) Observed performance + normal performance
(B) Observed performance - normal performance
(C) Observed performance × normal performance
Answer: Option D
68. PERT has following time estimate
(A) One time estimate
(B) Two time estimate
(C) Three time estimate
(D) Four time estimate
Answer: Option C
69. At the breakeven point,
(A) Total cost is more than the sales revenue
(B) Total cost is less than the sales revenue
(C) Total cost is equal to sales revenue
(D) Fixed cost is equal to variable cost
Answer: Option C
70. The simplex method is the basic method for
(A) Value analysis
(B) Operation research
(C) Linear programming
(D) Model analysis
Answer: Option C
71. The reasons which are basically responsible for the formation of a
queue should be that
(A) The average service rate Hess than the average arrival rate
(B) Output rate is linearly proportional to input
(C) Output rate is constant and the input varies in a random manner
Answer: Option D
72. The production cost per unit can be reduced by
(A) Producing more with increased inputs
(B) Producing more with the same inputs
(C) Eliminating idle time
(D) Minimising resource waste
Answer: Option B
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73. The artificial activity, which indicates that an activity following it
cannot be started unless, the preceding activity is complete, is known
as
(A) Event
(B) Free float
(C) Artificial
(D) Dummy
Answer: Option D
74. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. A critical ratio
scheduling
(A) Establishes the relative priorities among various activities on a
common basis
(B) Determines the status of each activity
(C) Adjusts automatically changes in activity progress
Answer: Option D
75. An event is indicated on the network by
(A) A straight line
(B) A number enclosed in a circle or a square
(C) A straight line with circles at the ends
(D) A dotted line
Answer: Option B
76. Standing orders which are statutory are applicable to
(A) All industries
(B) All process industries and thermal power plants
(C) Only major industries
(D) All industries employing more than 100 workers
Answer: Option D
77. For ship vessel industry the following layout is best suited
(A) Process layout
(B) Product layout
(D) Plant layout
Answer: Option C
78. For handling materials during manufacture of cement, a
_________ is widely used.
(A) Belt conveyor
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(B) Bucket conveyor
(C) Fork lift truck
(D) Overhead crane
Answer: Option B
79. Process layout is employed
(A) Where low volume of production is required
(B) Where similar jobs are manufactured on similar machines
(C) Where machines are arranged on functional basis
Answer: Option D
80. Which of the following incentive plans ensures a part of the swing
to the worker and rest to the employer?
(A) Emerson efficiency plan
(B) Taylor plan
(C) Halsey premium plan
(D) Gilbert plan
Answer: Option C
81. The basic difference between PERT and CPM is that
(A) PERT deals with events and CPM with activities
(B) Critical path is determined in PERT only
(C) Costs are considered on CPM only and not in PERT
(D) Guessed times are used in PERT and evaluated times in CPM
Answer: Option D
82. The type of organisation preferred for a steel industry, is
(B) Functional organisation
(C) Line and staff organisation
(D) Line, staff and functional organisation
Answer: Option D
83. In which of the following layouts, the lines need to the balanced
(A) Process layout
(B) Product layout
(D) Plant layout
Answer: Option B
84. The aim of value engineering is to
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(A) Find the depreciation value of a machine
(B) Determine the selling price of a product
(C) Minimise the cost without change in quality of the product
Answer: Option C
85. The salient feature of functional organisation is
(A) Strict adherence to specification
(B) Separation of planning and design part
(C) Each individual maintains functional efficiency
Answer: Option D
86. What does symbol 'O' imply in work study?
(A) Operation
(B) Inspection
(C) Transport
(D) Delay/temporary storage
Answer: Option A
87. Work study involves
(A) Only method study
(B) Only work measurement
(C) Method study and work measurement
(D) Only motion study
Answer: Option C
88. Micro motion study is
(A) Analysis of a man-work method by using a motion picture camera
with a timing device in the field of view
(B) Motion study observed on enhanced time intervals
(C) Motion study of a sequence of operations conducted systematically
(D) Study of man and machine conducted simultaneously
Answer: Option A
89. Military organisation is known as
Answer: Option A
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90. The wastage of material in the store is taken into account by the
following method in the evaluation of the material issued from the
store
(A) Inflated system
(B) Primary cost method
(C) Current value method
(D) Fixed price method
Answer: Option A
91. In a functional organisation
(A) Quality of work is better
(B) Wastage of material is minimum
(C) Specialised knowledge and guidance to individual worker is
provided
Answer: Option D
92. The amount deducted from the salary of workers towards
employee’s provident fund is
(A) Credited into reserves of company
(B) Deposited in nationalised bank
(C) Deposited in post office
(D) Deposited in the account of worker with Provident Fund
Commissioner
Answer: Option D
93. A dummy activity in a net work diagram
(A) Is represented by a dotted line
(B) Is an artificial activity
(C) Does not consume time or resources
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
94. In Lincoln plan (one type of group incentive plan), the amount of
the profit which an employee receives in addition to the guaranteed
basic pay/wages, is based on:
(A) A standard rating system
(B) A merit rating system
(C) A job evaluation system
(D) His individual performance
Answer: Option B
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95. PMTP (predetermined motion time systems) include
(A) MTM (method time measurement)
(B) WFS (work factor systems)
(C) BNTS (basic motion time study)
Answer: Option D
96. Routing assists engineers in deciding in advance
(A) The flow of material in the plant
(B) The methods of proper utilization of manpower
(C) The methods of proper utilization of machines
(D) The layout of factory facilities
Answer: Option C
97. For a small scale industry, the fixed cost per month is Rs. 5000.
The variable cost per product is Rs. 20 and sales price is Rs. 30 per
piece. The break even production per month will be
(A) 300
(B) 460
(C) 500
(D) 1000
Answer: Option C
98. Pick up the correct statement about relationship between various
floats
(A) Free float = total float
(B) Independent float = total float
(C) Independent float > free float
(D) Independent float < free float
Answer: Option D
99. An activity of the project is graphically represented by ________
on the network diagram.
(A) A circle
(B) A straight line
(C) An arrow
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
100. Breakeven analysis consists of
(A) Fixed cost
(B) Variable cost
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(C) Fixed and variable costs
(D) Operation costs
Answer: Option C
101. A-B-C analysis is used in
(A) CPM
(B) PERT
(C) Inventory control
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
102. Standard time is defined as
(A) Normal time + allowances
(B) Normal time + idle time + allowances
(C) Normal time + idle time
(D) Only normal time for an operation
Answer: Option A
103. The type of layout used for manufacturing steam turbines, is
(A) Product layout
(B) Process layout
Answer: Option C
104. Motion study involves analysis of
(A) Actions of operator
(B) Layout of work place
(C) Tooling and equipment
Answer: Option A
105. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan?
(A) Scanlon Plan
(B) Rowan Plan
(C) Taylor Differential Piece Rate System
(D) Halsey Premium Plan
Answer: Option A
106. The average time recorded by work study man for an operation is
called
(A) Standard time
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(B) Normal time
(C) Representative time
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
107. Which one of the following represents a group incentive plan?
(A) Halsey Premium Plan
(B) Lincoln Plan
(C) Rowan Plan
(D) Taylor Plan
Answer: Option B
108. Indirect expenses include
(A) Factory expenses
(B) Selling expenses
(C) Administrative expenses
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
109. Which of the following equations is not in conformity with
others?
(A) Organisation performance × motivation = profits
(B) Knowledge × skill = ability
(C) Ability × motivation = performance
(D) Attitude × situation = motivation
Answer: Option A
110. Time study is carried out to determine the time required to
complete job by
(A) A slow worker
(B) A fast worker
(C) An average worker
(D) An apprentice
Answer: Option C
111. Pick up the correct step used for scheduling a project by C.P.M.
(A) A project is divided into various activities
(B) Required time for each activity is established
(C) Sequence of various activities is made according to their
importance
Answer: Option D
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112. Linear programming can be applied successfully to
(A) Chemical industry
(B) Oil industry
(C) Banks
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
113. The technique for establishing and maintaining priorities among
the various jobs of any project is known as
(A) Event flow scheduling technique
(B) Critical ratio scheduling
(C) Slotting technique for scheduling
(D) Short interval scheduling
Answer: Option B
114. The value engineering technique in which experts of the same
rank assemble for product development is called
(A) Delphi
(B) Brain storming
(C) Morphological analysis
(D) Direct expert comparison
Answer: Option B
115. Activity slack or float of any event on a PERT/CPM chart is
represented by
(A) Latest start time of succeeding event earliest finish time of
preceding event activity time
(B) Latest start time of the event earliest start time of the event
(C) Latest finish time of event earliest finish time of the event
(D) Anyone of the above
Answer: Option D
116. In time study, the rating factor is applied to determine
(A) Standard time of a job
(B) Merit rating of the worker
(C) Fixation of incentive rate
(D) Normal time of a worker
Answer: Option C
117. Which of the following organisations is best suited for steel plants
(A) Functional organisation
(B) Line organisation
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(C) Staff organisation
(D) Line, staff and functional organisations
Answer: Option D
118. What does symbol 'D' imply in work study?
(A) Inspection
(B) Transport
(C) Delay/temporary storage
(D) Permanent storage
Answer: Option C
119. The grouping of activities into organisational units is called
(A) Corporate plans
(B) Higher level management
(C) Functional authority
(D) Departmentation
Answer: Option D
120. Pick up the incorrect statement about advantages of work
sampling
(A) Permits a fine breakdown of activities and delays
(B) Simultaneous study of many operators may be made by a single
observer
(C) Calculations are easier, method is economical and less time
consuming
(D) No time measuring devices are generally needed
Answer: Option A
121. In the Halsey system of wage incentive plan, a worker is
(A) Paid as per efficiency
(B) Ensured of minimum wages
(C) Not paid any bonus till his efficiency
(D) Never a loser
Answer: Option B
122. In order to avoid excessive multiplication of facilities, the layout
preferred is
(A) Product layout
(B) Process layout
(C) Group layout
(D) Static layout
Answer: Option B
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123. The time required to complete a job is established and a bonus is
paid to the worker based on the exact % of time saved. This type of
incentive plan is known as
(A) Dry work Plan
(B) Halsey Premium Plan
(C) Taylor Plan
(D) Rowan Plan
Answer: Option D
124. The purpose of micro-motion study is to
(A) Assist in finding out the most efficient way of doing work
(B) Train the individual operator regarding the motion economy
principles
(C) Help in collecting the motion time data for synthetic time
standards
Answer: Option D
125. Monte Carlo solutions in queuing theory are extremely useful in
queuing problems
(A) That can't be analysed mathematically
(B) Involving multistage queuing
(C) To verify mathematical results
Answer: Option A
126. For material transportation, conveyors are used when the
prevailing conditions include
(A) Loads are uniform
(B) Routes do not vary
(C) Materials move relatively continuously
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
127. The difference between the time available to do the job and the
time required to do the job, is known as
(A) Event
(B) Float
(C) Duration
(D) Constraint
Answer: Option B
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(A) When slack of an activity is zero, it falls only on critical path.
(B) CPM technique is useful to minimise the direct and indirect
expenses.
(C) Critical path of a net work represents the minimum time required
for completion of project.
Answer: Option D
129. The time which results in the least possible direct cost of an
activity is known as
(A) Normal time
(B) Slow time
(C) Crash time
(D) Standard time
Answer: Option B
130. Which of the following statement is correct about the network
diagram?
(A) The events are represented graphically by circles or nodes at the
beginning and the end of activity by arrows.
(B) The tail end of the arrow represents the start of an activity.
(C) The head of the arrow represents the end of an activity.
Answer: Option D
131. In PERT analysis, critical path is obtained by joining events
having
(A) +ve slack
(B) -ve slack
(C) Zero slack
(D) Dummy activities
Answer: Option C
132. According to Rowan plan of wage incentive system, bonus is paid
to a worker
(A) Whose output exceeds 67% efficiency
(B) On the percentage of time saved
(C) On the percentage of time worked
(D) On the percentage of standard time
Answer: Option C
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133. Templates are used for
(A) A planning layout
(B) Flow of material
(C) Advancing a programme in automatic machines
(D) Copying complicated profiles
Answer: Option A
134. Line organisation is suitable for
(A) Sugar industries
(B) Oil refining industries
(C) Spinning and weaving industries
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
135. What does symbol 'V' employ in work study
(A) Operation
(B) Inspection
(C) Delay/ temporary Storage
(D) Permanent storage
Answer: Option D
136. In process layout
(A) Handling and backtracking of materials is too much
(B) Production control is more difficult and costly
(C) Routing and scheduling is more difficult
Answer: Option D
137. Choose the wrong statement. Motion study is used for
(A) Improving a work method
(B) Improvising a work method
(C) Designing a work method
(D) Reducing inventory costs
Answer: Option D
138. Routing prescribes the
(A) Flow of material in the plant
(B) Proper utilization of man power
(C) Proper utilization of machines
(D) Inspection of final product
Answer: Option A
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139. The objective of time study is to determine the time required to
complete a job by
(A) Fast worker
(B) Average worker
(C) Slow worker
(D) New entrant
Answer: Option B
140. The main objective of work measurement is to
(A) Plan and schedule of production
(B) Formulate a proper incentive scheme
(C) Estimate the selling prices and delivery dates
Answer: Option D
141. Halsey plan of wage incentive
(A) Is not applied to all level of workers
(B) Is applied to all level of workers
(C) Does not guarantee minimum wage
(D) Is based upon efficiency of worker
Answer: Option B
142. The two bin system is concerned with
(A) Ordering procedure
(B) Forecasting sales
(C) Production planning
(D) Despatching and expediting
Answer: Option A
143. Pick up the correct statement from the following
(A) Programmer evaluation and review technique is event oriented
(B) Programmer evaluation and review technique is not event oriented
(C) Critical path method is event oriented
Answer: Option D
144. The main object of scientific layout is
(A) To produce better quality of product
(B) To utilise maximum floor area
(C) To minimise production delays
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
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(A) If the float is positive and the activity is delayed by a period equal
to its total float, the completion of project in no delayed
(B) If the float of an activity is negative, delay in its performance is
bound to delay the completion of project
(C) If the float of an activity is zero, the activity is critical and any
delay in its performance will delay the whole project
Answer: Option D
146. In a line organisation
(A) Responsibility of each individual is fixed
(B) Discipline is strong
(C) Quick decisions are taken
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
147. In a PERT chart
(A) All activities should be numbered
(B) Only important activities should be numbered
(C) Only critical activities are numbered
(D) Only selected activities are numbered
Answer: Option A
148. In break even analysis, total cost consists of
(A) Fixed cost + sales revenue
(B) Variable cost + sales revenue
(C) Fixed cost + variable cost
(D) Fixed cost + variable cost + profit
Answer: Option C
149. Micro-motion study is
(A) Enlarged view of motion study
(B) Analysis of one stage of motion study
(C) Minute and detailed motion study
(D) Subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis
Answer: Option D
150. Time study is carried out
(A) By finding all the significant informations regarding the job, work
place and machine tool etc.
(B) By breaking up each operation into small elements which are
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measurable with the help of the measuring device accurately
(C) By observing and recording the time taken by the operator for an
operation
Answer: Option D
151. Gantt chart provides information about the
(A) Material handling
(B) Proper utilisation of manpower
(C) Production schedule
(D) Efficient working of machine
Answer: Option C
152. CPM stands for
(A) Combined Process Method
(B) Critical Path Method
(C) Common Planning Method
(D) Critical Process Method
Answer: Option B
153. Gantt charts provide information about
(A) Breakeven point analysis
(B) Production schedule
(C) Material handling layout
(D) Determining selling price
Answer: Option B
154. Routing
(A) Prescribes the sequence of operations to be followed
(B) Determines the programme for the operations
(C) Is concerned with starting of processes
(D) Regulates the progress of job through various processes
Answer: Option A
155. Graphical method, simplex method, and transportation method
are concerned with
(A) Breakeven analysis
(B) Value analysis
(D) Queueing theory
Answer: Option C
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156. If (R) is the base rate guaranteed per hour, (S) is the standard
time for the job and (T) is the actual time, then according to Halsey
50-50 plan, wages for the job will be
(A) TR
(B) TR + [(S - T)/2] × R
(C) TR + (S - T) × R
(D) TR + [(S - T)/S] × R
Answer: Option B
157. PERT and CPM are
(A) Techniques to determine project status
(B) Decision making techniques
(C) Charts which increase aesthetic appearance of rooms
(D) Aids to the decision maker
Answer: Option D
158. The most suitable incentive plan for the maintenance section of
an industry will be
(A) Piece rate system
(B) Group incentive plan
(C) Profit sharing plans
(D) Simplification
Answer: Option B
159. The probability distribution of project completion in PERT
follows following distribution
(A) Normal
(B) Binomial
(C) Exponential
(D) Gaussian
Answer: Option D
160. PERT requires
(A) Single time estimate
(B) Double time estimate
(C) Triple time estimate
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
161. Breakeven point is the point where
(A) Fixed and variable cost lines intersect
(B) Fixed and total cost lines intersect
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(C) Variable and total cost lines intersect
(D) Sales revenue and total expensive lines intersect
Answer: Option D
162. Critical path on PERT/CPM chart is obtained by joining the
events having
(A) Maximum slack
(B) Minimum slack
(C) Average slack
(D) No slack
Answer: Option B
163. Micro-motion study involves following number of fundamental
hand motions
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 16
(D) 20
Answer: Option C
164. Frederick W. Taylor introduced a system of working known as
(D) Effective organisation
Answer: Option C
165. The employees provident fund act is applicable to
(A) All industries
(B) All industries other than small and medium industries
(C) Volunteers
(D) The industries notified by Government
Answer: Option D
166. If a worker gets a daily wage of Rs HA, then according to Rowan
plan, his maximum daily earnings can be
(A) 2 HA
(B) 1.33 HA
(C) 1.5 HA
(D) 1.15 HA
Answer: Option A
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167. Which of the following conditions are necessary for applying
linear programming?
(A) These must be a well defined objective function.
(B) The decision variables should be interrelated and nonnegative.
(C) The resources must be in limited supply.
Answer: Option D
168. In queuing theory, the nature of the waiting situation can be
studied and analysed mathematically if
(A) Complete details of items in, waiting line are known
(B) Arrival and waiting times are known and can be grouped to form a
waiting line model
(C) All variables and constants are known and form a linear equation
(D) The laws governing arrivals, service times, and the order in which
the arriving units are taken into source are known
Answer: Option D
169. According to Muther, the basic principle of best layout is
(A) Principle of overall integration
(B) Principle of flow
(C) Principle of flexibility
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
170. If E is the duration, ES and EF are die earliest start and finish
times, LS and LF are latest start and finish times, then the following
relation holds good
(A) EF = ES + D
(B) LS = LFD
(C) LF = LS + D
Answer: Option D
171. PERT/CPM, techniques can be used for following applications
(A) Once through project
(B) Maintenance jobs
(C) Research and development
Answer: Option D
172. A graphical device used to determine the breakeven point and
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profit potential under varying conditions of output and costs, is known
as
(A) Gantt chart
(B) Flow chart
(C) Breakeven chart
(D) PERT chart
Answer: Option C
173. Work study is mainly aimed at
(A) Determining the most efficient method of performing a job
(B) Establishing the minimum time of completion of a job
(C) Developing the standard method and standard time of a job
(D) Economising the motions involved on the part of the worker while
performing a job
Answer: Option A
174. Standard time as compared to normal time is
(A) Greater
(B) Smaller
(C) Equal
(D) There is no such correlation
Answer: Option A
175. Travel charts are used to
(A) Analyse material handling
(B) Determine inventory control difficulties
(C) Plan material handling procedure and routes
Answer: Option D
176. One time measurement unit (TMU) in method time measurement
system equals
(A) 0.0001 minute
(B) 0.0006 minute
(C) 0.006 minute
(D) 0.001 minute
Answer: Option B
177. Material handling in automobile industry is done by
(A) Overhead crane
(B) Trolley
(C) Belt conveyor
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Answer: Option A
(A) A-B-C analysis is based on Pareto's principle
(B) Simulation can be used for inventory control
(C) Economic order quantity formula ignores variations in demand
pattern
Answer: Option A
179. Product layout is employed for
(A) Batch production
(B) Continuous production
(C) Effective utilization of machine
Answer: Option B
180. The technique of value analysis can be applied to
(A) Complicated items only
(B) Simple items only
(C) Crash programmer items only
(D) Any item
Answer: Option D
181. F. W. Taylor introduced a system of organisation known as
Answer: Option B
182. String diagram is used when
(A) Team of workers is working at a place
(B) Material handling is to be done
(C) Idle time is to be reduced
Answer: Option A
183. Father of industrial engineering is
(A) Jack Gilbert
(B) Gantt
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(C) Taylor
(D) Newton
Answer: Option B
184. Break-even analysis consists of
(A) Fixed expenses
(B) Variable cost
(C) Sales revenue
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
185. In the Emerson efficiency plan, a worker receives only his daily
wage and no bonus is paid till his efficiency reaches
(A) 50 %
(B) 66.67 %
(C) 75 %
(D) 80 %
Answer: Option B
186. A feasible solution to the linear programming problem should
(A) Satisfy the problem constraints
(B) Optimise the objective function
(C) Satisfy the problem constraints and non-negativity restrictions
(D) Satisfy the non-negativity restrictions
Answer: Option C
187. In perpetual inventory control, the material is checked as it
reaches its
(A) Minimum value
(B) Maximum value
(C) Average value
(D) Middle value
Answer: Option A
188. The work study is done by means of
(A) Planning chart
(B) Process chart
(C) Stop watch
Answer: Option C
189. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following
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(A) An activity of the project is denoted by an arrow on the net work
(B) The tail of the arrow indicates the start of the activity
(C) The head of the arrow indicates the end of the activity
(D) The arrows are drawn (to scale from) left to right
Answer: Option D
190. O on a PERT/CPM chart represents
(A) An ordinary event
(B) A significant event representing some milestone
(C) An event to be transferred to other network chart
(D) Dangling event
Answer: Option A
191. Choose the wrong statement Time study is used to
(A) Determine overhead expenses
(B) Provide a basis for setting piece prices or incentive wages
(C) Determine standard costs
(D) Determine the capability of an operator to handle the number of
machines
Answer: Option A
192. The interchangeability can be achieved by
(A) Standardisation
(B) Better process planning
(C) Bonus plan
(D) Better product planning
Answer: Option A
193. In inventory control, the economic order quantity is the
(A) Optimum lot size
(B) Highest level of inventory
(C) Lot corresponding to breakeven point
(D) Capability of a plant to produce
Answer: Option A
194. Works cost implies
(A) Primary cost
(B) Factory cost
(C) Factory expenses
(D) Primary cost + factory expenses
Answer: Option D
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195. The chart which gives an estimate about the amount of materials
handling between various work stations is known as
(A) Flow chart
(B) Process chart
(C) Travel chart
(D) Operation chart
Answer: Option C
196. Process layout is employed for
(B) Continuous type of product
(C) Effective utilisation of machines
Answer: Option A
197. Under the Apprenticeship Act
(A) All industries have to necessarily train the apprentices
(B) Industries have to train apprentices according to their requirement
(C) All industries employing more than 100 workers have to recruit
apprentices
(D) Only industries employing more than 500 workers have to recruit
apprentices
Answer: Option D
198. Direct expenses include
(A) Factory expenses
(B) Selling expenses
(C) Administrative expenses
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
199. In the Halsey 50-50 plan, the following are rewarded more
(A) Past good workers
(B) Past poor workers
(C) Past average workers
Answer: Option B
200. In Emerson's efficiency plan of wage incentive system, bonus is
paid to a worker
(A) Whose output exceeds 67% efficiency
(B) On the percentage of time saved
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(C) On the percentage of time worked
(D) On the percentage of standard time
Answer: Option A
201. PERT is the
(A) Time oriented technique
(B) Event oriented technique
(C) Activity oriented technique
(D) Target oriented technique
Answer: Option B
202. In product layout
(A) Specialised and strict supervision is required
(B) Machines can not be used to their maximum capacity
(C) Manufacturing cost rises with a fall in the volume of production
Answer: Option D
203. Emergency rush order can be pushed more effectively in
(A) Job production
(B) Automatic production
(C) Continuous production
(D) Intermittent production
Answer: Option D
204. Earliest finish time can be regarded as
(A) Earliest start time + duration of activity
(B) Earliest start time duration of activity
(C) Latest finish time + duration of activity
(D) Latest finish time duration of activity
Answer: Option A
205. The assumption in PERT is
(A) A project will always be behind schedule, if left uncorrected
(B) Cost of project will always be more than the estimated cost, if no
timely corrections are taken
(C) A project can be subdivided into a set of predictable, independent
activities
(D) Activities are fixed and can't be changed
Answer: Option C
206. Which of the following wage incentive plan is applied to all
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workers?
(A) Halsey plan
(B) Gantt plan
(C) Emerson's efficiency plan
(D) Rowan plan
Answer: Option A
207. According to MAPI formula, the old machine should be replaced
by new one when
(CAM = Challenger's Adverse minimum DAM = Defender's
Adverse minimum)
(A) CAM < DAM
(B) CAM > DAM
(C) CAM = DAM
Answer: Option A
208. TMU in method time measurement stands for
(A) Time motion unit
(B) Time measurement unit
(C) Time movement unit
(D) Technique measurement unit
Answer: Option B
209. Gantt chart is used for
(A) Inventory control
(B) Material handling
(D) Machine repair schedules
Answer: Option C
210. The term 'value' in value engineering refers to
(A) Total cost of the product
(B) Selling price of the product
(C) Utility of the product
(D) Manufactured cost of the product
Answer: Option C
211. The linear programming techniques can be applied successfully
to industries like
(A) Iron and steel
(B) Food processing
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(C) Oil and chemical
Answer: Option D
212. A critical activity has
(A) Maximum slack
(B) Minimum slack
(C) Zero slack
(D) Average slack
Answer: Option C
213. A dummy activity
(A) Is artificially introduced
(B) Is represented by a dotted line
(C) Does not require any time
Answer: Option D
214. The important file in making a PERT is
(A) An event can't be accomplished until activities leading to it are
completed
(B) No activity from any event can be started from preceding event till
it is completed
(C) Length of arrow has nothing to do with time
Answer: Option D
215. When slack of an activity is positive
(A) It represents a situation where extra resources are available and the
completion of project is not delayed
(B) It represents that a programme falls behind schedule and additional
resources are required to complete the project in time
(C) The activity is critical and any delay in its performance will delay
the completion of whole project
Answer: Option D
216. Inventory management consists of
(A) Effective running of stores
(B) State of merchandise methods of storing and maintenance etc.
(C) Stock control system
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Answer: Option D
217. Dispatching
(C) Is concerned with the starting of processes
Answer: Option C
218. Work study is most useful
(A) Where production activities are involved
(B) In judging the rating of machines
(C) In improving industrial relations
(D) In judging the output of a man and improving it
Answer: Option A
219. The probabilistic time is given by (where to = Optimistic time, tp =
Pessimistic time, and tn = Most likely time)
(A) (to + tp + tn)/3
(B) (to + 2tp + tn)/4
(C) (to + 4tp + tn)/5
(D) (to + tp + 4tn)/6
Answer: Option D
220. The process layout is best suited where
(A) Specialisation exists
(B) Machines are arranged according to sequence of operation
(C) Few number of non-standardised units is to be produced
(D) Mass production is envisaged
Answer: Option C
221. In CPM, the cost slope is determined by
(A) Crash cost/Normal Cost
(B) (Crash Cost - Normal cost)/ (Normal time - Crash time)
(C) Normal Cost/Crash cost
(D) (Normal cost - Crash cost)/ (Normal time - Crash time)
Answer: Option B
222. Current assets include
(A) Manufacturing plant
(B) Manufacturing plant and equipment
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(C) Inventories
(D) Common stock held by the firm
Answer: Option A
223. The correct sequence of phases in value engineering is
(A) Creative phase, information phase, investigation phase, evaluation
phase
(B) Information phase, creative phase, investigation phase, evaluation
phase
(C) Investigation phase, information phase, creative phase, evaluation
phase
(D) Creative phase, investigation phase, evaluation phase, information
phase
Answer: Option A
224. String diagram is used
(A) For checking the relative values of various layouts
(B) When a group of workers are working at a place
(C) Where processes require the operator to be moved from one place
to another
Answer: Option D
225. Two alternatives can produce a product. First have a fixed cost of
Rs. 2000 and a variable cost of Rs. 20 per piece. The second method
has a fixed cost of Rs. 1500 and a variable cost of Rs. 30. The break
even quantity between the two alternatives is
(A) 25
(B) 50
(C) 75
(D) 100
Answer: Option B
226. Critical path moves along the activities having total float of
(A) Positive value
(B) Negative value
(C) Zero value
(D) Same value
Answer: Option C
227. Percent idle time for men or machines is found by
(A) Work sampling
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(B) Time study
(C) Method study
(D) Work study
Answer: Option A
228. Which of the following charts are used for plant layout design?
(A) Operation process chart
(B) Man machine chart
(C) Travel chart
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
229. In Halsey 50-50 plan, output standards are established
(A) By time study
(B) From previous production records
(C) From one's judgement
Answer: Option B
230. CPM requires
(A) Single time estimate
(B) Double time estimate
(C) Triple time estimate
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
231. M.T.M. is used to
(A) Improve existing methods
(B) Establish time standards
(C) Develop effective methods in advance of the beginning of
production
Answer: Option D
232. The determination of standard time in a complex job system is
best done through
(A) Stop watch time study
(B) Analysis of micro-motions
(C) Grouping timing technique
(D) Analysis of standard data system
Answer: Option D
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233. Job evaluation is the method of determining the
(A) Relative worth of jobs
(B) Skills required by a worker
(C) Contribution of a worker
(D) Contribution of a job
Answer: Option A
234. Production cost refers to prime cost plus
(A) Factory overheads
(B) Factory and administration overheads
(C) Factory, administration and sales overheads
(D) Factory, administration, sales overheads and profit
Answer: Option A
235. Acceptance sampling is widely used in
(B) Job production
(C) Mass production
Answer: Option C
236. If (R) is the base rate guaranteed per hour, (S) is the standard
time for the job and (T) is the actual time, then according to Rowan
plan, wages for the job will be
(A) TR
(B) TR + [(S - T)/2] × R
(C) TR + (S - T) × R
(D) TR + [(S - T)/S] × R
Answer: Option D
237. In ABC control policy, maximum attention is given to
(A) Those items which consume money
(B) Those items which are not readily available
(C) Those × items which are in more demand
(D) Those items which consume more money
Answer: Option D
238. Merit rating is the method of determining the
(A) Relative values of a job
(B) Workers performance on a job
(C) Worth of a machine
(D) Value of overall production
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Answer: Option B
239. The critical activity has
(A) Maximum float
(B) Minimum float
(C) Zero float
(D) Average float
Answer: Option C
240. The bonus increases in proportion to the increase in efficiency.
This statement applies to
(A) Halsey plan
(B) Gantt plan
(C) Emerson's efficiency plan
(D) Rowan plan
Answer: Option C
241. If A is the total items consumed per year, P is the procurement
cost per order, and C is the annual inventory carrying cost per item,
then the most economic ordering quantity is given by
(A) AP/C
(B) 2AP/C
(C) √(AP/C)
(D) (AP/C)2
Answer: Option C
242. Discrepancies of bar chart techniques are
(A) Consequential effects of lack in one activity on the finish date
(B) Free time available for an activity can't be predicted
(C) Effective monitoring/controlling can't be done
Answer: Option D
243. In jobbing production
(A) Highly skilled workers are needed
(B) Unit costs are high
(C) Operations are labour-intensive
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
244. Micro-motion study is
(A) Analysis of one stage of motion chart
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(B) Motion study, when seen on a time chart
(C) Subdivision of an operation into therbligs and their analysis
(D) Enlarged view of motion study
Answer: Option C
245. Fixed position layout is also known as
(A) Analytical layout
(B) Synthetic layout
(C) Static product layout
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
246. Job enrichment technique is applied to
(A) Reduce labour monotony
(B) Overcome boring and de-motivating work
(C) Make people happy
Answer: Option D
247. Standard time is equal to
(A) (Normal time) - (allowances)
(B) (Normal time) + (allowances)
(C) Representative time multiplied by rating factor
(D) Normal time taken by an operation
Answer: Option B
248. Scheduling gives information about
(A) When work should start and how much work should be completed
during a certain period
(B) When work should complete
(C) That how idle time can be minimized
(D) Proper utilisation of machines
Answer: Option A
249. Bar chart is suitable for
(A) Large project
(B) Major work
(C) Minor work
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
250. Material handling and plant location is analysed by
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(A) Gantt chart
(B) Bin chart
(C) Emerson chart
(D) Travel chart
Answer: Option D
251. Scheduling
(C) Is concerned with starting of processes
Answer: Option B
252. The process capability of a machine is defined as the capability of
the machine to
(A) Produces a definite volume of work per minute
(B) Perform definite number of operations
(C) Produce job at a definite spectrum of speed
(D) Holds a definite spectrum of tolerance and surface finish
Answer: Option A
253. Process layout is also known as
(A) Analytical-layout
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
254. A milestone chart
(A) Shows the inter dependences of various jobs
(B) Depicts the delay of jobs, if any
(C) Points outgoing ahead of schedule of jobs, if any
Answer: Option D
255. Pessimistic time is
(A) The maximum time which an activity might require
(B) The average time required for a job
(C) The most probable time considering all conditions
(D) The minimum time in which an activity can possibly be
accomplished
Answer: Option A
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256. The routing function in a production system design is concerned
with
(A) Manpower utilisation
(B) Quality assurance of the product
(C) Machine utilisation
(D) Optimising material flow through the plant
Answer: Option C
257. A systematic job improvement sequence will consist of
(A) Motion study
(B) Time study
(C) Job enrichment
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
258. The factors which are to be considered while developing a good
wage incentive plan will include
(A) Adequate incentive
(B) Ease of administration
(C) Guaranteed basic pay
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
259. The main disadvantage of line organisation is
(A) Top level executives have to do excessive work
(B) Structure is rigid
(C) Communication delays occur
Answer: Option D
260. Queuing theory is associated with
(A) Sales
(B) Inspection time
(C) Waiting time
(D) Production time
Answer: Option C
261. The essential condition for the decompression of an activity is
that
(A) The project time should change due to decompression
(B) After decompression the time of an activity invariably exceeds its
normal time
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(C) An activity could be decompressed to the maximum extent of its
normal time
Answer: Option C
262. The deductions for, employees provident fund start
(A) Immediately on joining the service
(B) After 60 days of joining the service
(C) After 100 days of joining the service
(D) After 240 days of joining the service
Answer: Option D
263. A device used for lifting or lowering objects suspended from a
hook at the end of retractable chains or cable is called
(A) Hoist
(B) Jib crane
(C) Portable elevator
(D) Chain conveyor
Answer: Option A
264. Work sampling observations are taken on the basis of
(A) Detailed calculations
(B) Convenience
(C) Table of random numbers
(D) Past experience
Answer: Option C
265. Dummy activities are used to
(A) Determine the critical path
(B) Determine the project completion time
(C) Maintain the required net work
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
266. The type of organisation preferred for an automobile industry, is
Answer: Option C
267. In the perpetual inventory control, the material is checked when
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it reaches its
(A) Minimum value
(B) Maximum value
(C) Average value
(D) Alarming value
Answer: Option A
268. Slack of various events on the critical path in PERT/CPM chart
(A) Increases continuously
(B) Decreases continuously
(C) Remain constant
(D) May increase or decrease depending on various factors
Answer: Option C
269. Valve analysis is particularly of interest when
(A) Jobbing work economics are involved
(B) Production is on large scale
(C) Only few components are involved
(D) Costly equipment is used
Answer: Option B
270. The time taken by a trained worker to perform an operation,
while working a steady pace, is known as
(A) Standard time
(B) Normal time
(C) Representative time
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
271. A CPM family includes
(A) CPA (Critical Path Analysis)
(B) CPP (Critical Path Plotted)
(C) CPS (Critical Path Scheduling)
Answer: Option D
272. A diagram showing the path followed by men and materials while
performing a task is known as
(A) String diagram
(B) Flow process chart
(C) Travel chart
(D) Flow diagram
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Answer: Option D
273. PERT is applied for
(A) Marketing programmes and advertising programmes
(B) Installation of machinery
(C) Research and development of products
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
274. Military type of organisation is known as
Answer: Option A
275. Statistical quality control techniques are based on the theory of
(A) Quality
(B) Statistics
(C) Probability
Answer: Option C
276. In micro-motion study, therblig is described by
(A) A symbol
(B) An event
(C) An activity
(D) Standard symbol and colour
Answer: Option D
277. A PERT network has three activities on critical path with mean
time 3, 8 and 6 and standard deviations 1, 2 and 2 respectively. The
probability that the project will be completed in 20 days is
(A) 0.50
(B) 0.66
(C) 0.84
(D) 0.95
Answer: Option C
278. Queueing theory deals with problems of
(A) Material handling
(B) Reducing the waiting time or idle time
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(C) Better utilization of man services
(D) Effective use of machines
Answer: Option B
279. The start or completion of task is called
(A) An event
(B) An activity
(C) A duration
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
280. Which of the following depreciation system ensures that the
interest be charged on the cost of machine asset every year on the
book value, but the rate of depreciation every year remains constant
(A) Sinking fund method
(B) Straight line method
(C) ABC charging method
(D) Annuity charging method
Answer: Option D
281. In fixed position layout
(A) Total production cost is less
(B) Material movement is less
(C) Capital investment is minimum
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
282. PERT is
(A) An analytic tool in concept
(B) Limit up of event oriented diagrams
(C) Used for research and development projects
Answer: Option D
283. In A-B-C analysis, which class of items are generally large in
number?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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284. In steel plant the most important system for materials handling is
(A) Conveyors
(B) Cranes and hoists
(C) Trucks
(D) Locos
Answer: Option D
285. In value engineering, important consideration is given to
(A) Customer satisfaction
(B) Function concept
(C) Profit maximisation
(D) Cost reduction
Answer: Option D
286. The standard time for a job is
(A) Total work content
(B) Base time + relaxation time
(C) Total work content + basic time
(D) Total work content + delay contingency allowance
Answer: Option D
287. Time study is used to
(A) Determine standard costs
(B) Determine the number of machines a person may run
(C) Provide a basis for setting piece price or incentive wages
Answer: Option D
288. CPM has following time estimate
(A) One time estimate
(B) Two time estimate
(C) Three time estimate
(D) Four time estimate
Answer: Option A
289. Simplex method is the method used for
(A) Value analysis
(B) Network analysis
(D) Queuing theory
Answer: Option C
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290. Time study is
(A) The appraisal, in terms of time, of the value of work involving
human effort
(B) Machine setting time
(C) Time taken by workers to do a job
(D) Method of fixing time for workers
Answer: Option A
291. Service time in queuing theory is usually assumed to follow
(A) Normal distribution
(B) Poisson’s distribution
(C) Erlang distribution
(D) Exponential law
Answer: Option D
292. Which of the following plans motivates supervisors by paying a
premium on time saved by workers?
(A) Halsey plan
(B) Rowan plan
(C) Haynes plan
(D) Emerson's plan
Answer: Option C
293. PERT analysis is based upon
(A) Optimistic time
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
294. If ‘TL’ is the largest allowable event occurrence time, total
activity slack (s) is equal to
(A) Latest start time earliest start time
(B) Latest finish time earliest finish time (EFT)
(C) TLEFT
Answer: Option D
295. Basic motion time study gives times for basic motions in ten
thousandths of
(A) Second
(B) Minute
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(C) Hour
(D) Day
Answer: Option B
296. Queueing theory is used for
(A) Inventory problems
(B) Traffic congestion studies
(C) Job-shop scheduling
Answer: Option D
297. Acceptance sampling is used in
(A) Job production
(B) Batch production
(C) Mass production
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
298. The most important objective behind plant layout is
(A) Overall simplification, safety of integration
(B) Economy in space
(C) Maximum travel time in plant
(D) To provide conveniently located shops
Answer: Option A
299. When slack of an activity is negative
(A) It represents a situation where extra resources are available and the
completion of project is not delayed
(B) It represents that a programme falls behind schedule and additional
resources are required to complete the project in time
(C) The activity is critical and any delay in its performance will delay
the completion of whole project
Answer: Option B
300. Bar charts are suitable for
(A) Minor works
(B) Major works
(C) Large projects
Answer: Option A
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301. The time by which the activity completion time can be delayed
without affecting the start of succeeding activities, is known as
(A) Duration
(B) Total float
(C) Free float
(D) Interfering float
Answer: Option C
302. Work study is done with the help of
(A) Process chart
(B) Material handling
(C) Stop watch
Answer: Option C
303. Which of the following are the principles of material handling?
(A) Keep all the handling to the minimum
(B) Select only efficient handling equipment
(C) Move the heaviest weight to the least distance
Answer: Option D
304. Slack represents the difference between the
(A) Latest allowable time and the normal expected time
(B) Latest allowable time and the earliest expected time
(C) Proposed allowable time and the earliest expected time
(D) Normal allowable time and the latest expected time
Answer: Option B
305. Product layout is also known as
(A) Analytical layout
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
306. A low unit cost can be obtained by following
(A) Product layout
(B) Functional layout
(C) Automatic material handling equipment
(D) Specialisation of operation
Answer: Option A
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307. The procedure of modifying work content to give more meaning
and enjoyment to the job by involving employees in planning,
organisation and control of their work, is termed as
(A) Job enlargement
(B) Job enrichment
(C) Job rotation
(D) Job evaluation
Answer: Option B
308. In order that linear programming techniques provide valid
results
(A) Relations between factors must be linear (positive)
(B) Relations between factors must be linear (negative)
(D) Only one factor should change at a time, others remaining constant
Answer: Option C
309. Abbreviated work factor data is applied for
(A) Material handling operation
(B) Maintenance operation
(C) Packing and shipping operation
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
310. An optimum project schedule implies
(A) Optimum utilization of men, machines and materials
(B) Lowest possible cost and shortest possible time for project
(C) Timely execution of project
(D) To produce best results under given constraints
Answer: Option B
311. Gantt chart gives information about
(A) Scheduling and routing
(B) Sales
(D) Machine utilisation
Answer: Option C
312. The main advantage of line organisation is its
(A) Effective command and control
(B) Defined responsibilities at all levels
(C) Rigid discipline in the organisation
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Answer: Option D
313. Which of the following type of layout is suitable for automobile
manufacturing concern?
(A) Product layout
(B) Process layout
(D) Combination layout
Answer: Option A
(A) Critical path method is an improvement upon bar chart method
(B) Critical path method provides a realistic approach to the daily
problems
(C) Critical path method avoids delays which are very common in bar
chart
Answer: Option D
315. The most important function of inventory control is
(A) Stock control system
(B) To run the stores effectively
(C) Technical responsibility for the state of materials
Answer: Option D
316. Which of the following is not wage incentive plan?
(A) Differential piece rate system
(B) Rowan plan
(C) Emerson plan
(D) Taylor plan
Answer: Option D
317. Probabilistic time for completion of any activity can be found out
from
(A) Optimistic time
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
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318. The first method invented for planning projects was
(A) Bar chart method
(B) Milestone chart
(C) Critical path method (CPM)
(D) Programme evaluation and review technique (PERT)
Answer: Option A
319. The factors to be considered for production scheduling are
(A) Component design
(B) Route sheet
(C) Time standards
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
Industrial Engineering & Production

Management Test:
01. An event is a function of two or more activities.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
02. The allowed time for a job equals standard time plus
(A) Interference allowance
(B) Policy allowance
03. Follow-up prescribes the sequence of operations to be followed.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
04. Micro-motion study involves following number of fundamental
hand motions
(A) 12
(B) 16
05. Break even analysis represents the relationship between cost and
volume.
(A) True
(B) False
06. Percent idle time for men or machines is found by
(A) Work study
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(B) Work sampling
07. Slack may be positive, zero or negative.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
08. In which of the following layouts, the lines need to the balanced
(A) Process layout
(B) Product layout
09. Generally PERT is preferred over CPM for the purpose of project
evaluation.
(A) Yes
(B) No
10. Basic motion time study gives times for basic motions in ten
thousandths of
(A) Second
(B) Minute
11. A low unit cost can be obtained by following
(A) Product layout
(B) Functional layout
12. Father of industrial engineering is
(A) Jack Gilbert
(B) Gantt
13. Acceptance sampling is widely used in
(B) Mass production
14. In the perpetual inventory control, the material is checked when it
reaches its
(A) Minimum value
(B) Maximum value
15. In the Halsey 50-50 plan, the following are rewarded more
(A) Past good workers
(B) Past poor workers
16. Queueing theory is associated with
(A) Waiting time
(B) Production time
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17. In perpetual inventory control, the material is checked as it
reaches its
(A) Minimum value
(B) Maximum value
18. Bar charts are suitable for
(A) Major works
(B) Minor works
19. The time of completing a project in network analysis is given by
following time of the critical activity meeting at the final triode
(A) Early finish
(B) Early start
20. The performance of a specific task in CPM is known as
(A) Event
(B) Activity
Answers: Industrial Engineering & Production Management Test
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Steam Boilers, Engines, Nozzles & Turbines:
01. Steam turbines are used for

(A) Large marine propulsion
(B) Electric power generation
(C) Direct drive of fans, compressors, pumps
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
02. Locomotive boiler is of the following type
(A) Multi tubular
(B) Horizontal
(C) Internally fired
Answer: Option D
03. The maximum heat loss is a boiler occurs due to
(A) Moisture in fuel
(B) Dry flue gases
(C) Steam formation
(D) Unburnt carbon
Answer: Option B
04. A single stage impulse turbine with a diameter of 1.2 m runs at
3000 r.p.m. If the blade speed ratio is 0.42, then the inlet velocity of
steam will be
(A) 79 m/s
(B) 188 m/s
(C) 450 m/s
(D) 900 m/s
Answer: Option C
05. The actual vacuum in a condenser is equal to
(A) Barometric pressure + actual pressure
(B) Barometric pressure - actual pressure
(C) Gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
(D) Gauge pressure - atmospheric pressure
Answer: Option B
06. It is required to produce large amount of steam at low pressure.
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Which boiler should be used?
(A) Pulverised fuel fired boiler
(B) Cochran boiler
(C) Lancashire boiler
(D) Babcock and Wilcox boiler
Answer: Option C
07. Reheating of steam in a turbine
(A) Increases the workdone through the turbine
(B) Increases the efficiency of the turbine
(C) Reduces wear on the blades
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
08. The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat
liberated in the furnace, is known as
(A) Equivalent evaporation
(B) Factor of evaporation
(C) Boiler efficiency
(D) Power of a boiler
Answer: Option C
09. In designing air preheaters, the important design consideration is
that
(A) Approach temperature should be as low as possible
(B) Handling and maintenance should be easier
(C) Heat transfer area should be optimum
(D) Stack gases should not be cooled to the dew point
Answer: Option D
10. A steam nozzle converts
(A) Heat energy of steam into kinetic energy
(B) Kinetic energy into heat energy of steam
(C) Heat energy of steam into potential energy
(D) Potential energy into heat energy of steam
Answer: Option A
11. The number of water level indicators in a boiler are generally
_________ in number.
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
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(D) Four
Answer: Option B
12. The maximum discharge through a chimney occurs when the
height of chimney is
(A) Infinitely long
(B) Around 200 meters
(C) Equal to the height of the hot gas column producing draught
(D) Outside temperature is very low
Answer: Option C
13. The factor of evaporation for all boilers is always
(A) Equal to unity
(B) Less than unity
(C) Greater than unity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
14. Water and sediment in fuel oil can be removed by
(A) Heating the oil in the settling tanks
(B) Cooling the oil in the settling tanks
(C) Burning the oil
(D) Suspension
Answer: Option A
15. For a Parson's reaction turbine, if α₁ and α₂ are fixed blade angles
at inlet and exit respectively and β₁ and β₂ are the moving blade angles
at entrance and exit respectively, then
(A) α₁ = α₂ and β₁ = β₂
(B) α₁ = β₁ and α₂= β₂
(C) α₁ < β₁ and α₂ > β₂
(D) α₁ = β₂ and β₁ = α₂
Answer: Option B
16. In a reaction turbine when the degree of reaction is zero, then
there is
(A) No heat drop in moving blades
(B) No heat drop in fixed blades
(C) Maximum heat drop in moving blades
(D) Maximum heat drop in fixed blades
Answer: Option A
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17. A vessel into which the steam is exhausted and condensed after
doing work in an engine cylinder or turbine is known as
(A) Steam condenser
(B) Steam boiler
(C) Steam preheater
(D) Economiser
Answer: Option A
18. The capacity of induced draft fan compared to forced draft fan in
a boiler is
(A) Same
(B) More
(C) Less
(D) Less or more depending on size of boiler
Answer: Option B
19. The expansion of steam in a nozzle follows
(A) Carnot cycle
(B) Rankine cycle
(C) Joule cycle
(D) Stirling cycle
Answer: Option B
20. Which of the following compound steam engine requires a smaller
flywheel?
(A) Receiver type
(B) Tandem type
(C) Woolf type
(D) All of these
Answer: Option A
21. The feed check valve is used in order to
(A) Regulate flow of boiler water
(B) Check level of water in boiler drum
(C) Recirculate unwanted feed water
(D) Allow high pressure feed water to flow to drum and not allow
reverse flow to take place
Answer: Option D
22. The discharge of steam in a convergent-divergent nozzle
__________ after the throat (i.e. in the divergent portion of the nozzle)
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(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
23. An economiser _________ the steam raising capacity of a boiler.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Has no effect on
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
24. 1 kg.m is equal to
(A) 9.81 Joules
(B) 102 Joules
(C) 427 Joules
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
25. When the back pressure of a nozzle is below the designed value of
pressure at exit of nozzle, the nozzle is said to be
(A) Choked
(B) Under-damping
(C) Over-damping
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
26. The aim of a compound steam engine is
(A) To reduce the ratio of expansion in each cylinder
(B) To reduce the length of stroke
(C) To reduce the temperature range in each cylinder
Answer: Option D
27. At critical point, i.e. p = 225.65 kg/cm², the latent enthalpy of
vaporisation is
(A) Maximum
(B) Minimum
(C) Zero
(D) Depends on temperature also
Answer: Option C
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28. Parson's reaction turbine is a __________ reaction turbine.
(A) 40 percent
(B) 50 percent
(C) 60 percent
(D) 70 percent
Answer: Option B
29. A compound steam engine in which the high pressure and low
pressure cylinders have common piston rod, is called
(A) Receiver type compound engine
(B) Tandem type compound engine
(C) Woolf type compound engine
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
30. Lancashire boiler is a
(A) Stationary fire tube boiler
(B) Stationary water tube boiler
(C) Water tube boiler with natural/forced circulation
(D) Mobile fire tube boiler
Answer: Option A
31. In a reaction turbine, when steam flows through the fixed blades,
(A) Pressure increases while velocity decreases
(B) Pressure decreases while velocity increases
(C) Pressure and velocity both decreases
(D) Pressure and velocity both increases
Answer: Option B
32. The relative efficiency is defined as the
(A) Ratio of thermal efficiency to Rankine efficiency
(B) Ratio of brake power to the indicated power
(C) Ratio of heat equivalent to indicated power to the energy supplied
in steam
(D) Product of thermal efficiency and Rankine efficiency
Answer: Option A
33. Which of the following is a fire tube boiler?
(A) Locomotive boiler
(B) Babcock and Wilcox boiler
(C) Stirling boiler
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Answer: Option A
34. The purpose of governing in steam turbines is to
(A) Maintain the speed of the turbine
(B) Reduce the effective heat drop
(C) Reheat the steam and improve its quality
(D) Completely balance against end thrust
Answer: Option A
35. The performance of a boiler is measured by the
(A) Amount of water evaporated per hour
(B) Steam produced in kg/h
(C) Steam produced in kg/kg of fuel burnt
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
36. Which of the following boilers is best suited to meet fluctuating
demands?
(A) Babcock and Wilcox
(B) Locomotive
(C) Lancashire
(D) Cochran
Answer: Option B
37. The ratio of the workdone on the blades per kg of steam to the
total energy supplied per stage per kg of steam is called
(A) Blading efficiency
(B) Nozzle efficiency
(C) Stage efficiency
Answer: Option C
38. The artificial draught is produced by
(A) Steam jet
(B) Centrifugal fan
(C) Chimney
Answer: Option D
39. With increase in load, radiant superheater has
(A) Drooping characteristic
(B) Linear characteristic
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(C) Rising characteristic
(D) Flat characteristic
Answer: Option A
40. Primary air is the air used to
(A) Provide air around burners for obtaining optimum combustion
(B) Transport and dry the coal
(C) Convert CO (formed in lower zone of furnace) into CO₂ at higher
zone
(D) Air delivered by forced draft fan
Answer: Option B
41. In a 50% reaction turbine stage, tangential component of absolute
velocity at rotor inlet is 537 m/s and the blade velocity is 454 m/s. The
power output in kW of steam will be
(A) 260 kW
(B) 282 kW
(C) 296 kW
(D) 302 kW
Answer: Option B
42. Which of the following statement indicates the difference between
Cornish boiler and Lancashire boiler?
(A) Cornish boiler is a water tube boiler whereas Lancashire boiler is a
fire tube boiler
(B) Cornish boiler is a fire tube boiler whereas Lancashire boiler is a
water tube boiler
(C) Cornish boiler has one flue tube whereas Lancashire boiler has two
flue tubes
(D) Cornish boiler has two flue tubes whereas Lancashire boiler has
one flue tube
Answer: Option C
43. In an ideal impulse turbine, the
(A) Absolute velocity at the inlet of moving blade is equal to that at
the outlet
(B) Relative velocity at the inlet of the moving blade is equal to that at
the outlet
(C) Axial velocity at inlet is equal to that at the outlet
(D) Whirl velocity at inlet is equal to that at the outlet
Answer: Option B
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44. A throttle governed steam engine develops 15 kW with 280 kg per
hour of steam and 35 kW with 520 kg per hour of steam. The steam
consumption in kg per hour when developing 20 kW will be nearly
(A) 150 kg/h
(B) 210 kg/h
(C) 280 kg/h
(D) 340 kg/h
Answer: Option D
45. Gradually increasing temperature of flue gases at inlet to chimney
for given steam outputs is an indication of
(A) Higher effectiveness of boiler
(B) High calorific value coal being burnt
(C) Fouling of heat transfer surfaces
(D) Raising of steam temperature
Answer: Option C
46. The critical pressure ratio for initially superheated steam is
__________ as compared to initially dry saturated steam.
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
47. A condenser in a steam power plant
(A) Increases expansion ratio of steam
(B) Reduces back pressure of steam
(C) Reduces temperature of exhaust steam
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
48. An impulse turbine as compared to a reaction turbine, for a given
power has _________ row of blades.
(A) Equal
(B) Less
(C) More
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
49. For maximum discharge through a chimney, the condition is that
height of hot gas column producing the draught should be
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(A) One-half the height of chimney
(B) Equal to the height of chimney
(C) Two times the height of chimney
(D) Four times the height of chimney
Answer: Option B
50. The steam temperature with increase in load in case of a boiler
fitted with radiation superheater
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
Answer: Option B
51. The rate of discharge through the nozzle __________ when the exit
pressure is gradually reduced.
(A) Remains same
(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
52. The object of producing draught in a boiler is
(A) To provide an adequate supply of air for the fuel combustion
(B) To exhaust the gases of combustion from the combustion chamber
(C) To discharge the gases of combustion to the atmosphere through
the chimney
Answer: Option D
53. Feed water conditioning in thermal power plants in done to
(A) Reduce hardness and for removal of solids
(B) Increase efficiency of thermal power plant
(C) Increase heat transfer rate
(D) Increase steam parameters
Answer: Option A
54. A regenerative steam cycle renders
(A) Increased work output per unit mass of steam
(B) Decreased work output per unit mass of steam
(C) Increased thermal efficiency
(D) Decreased work output per unit mass of steam as well as increased
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thermal efficiency
Answer: Option D
55. The fire tubes in a Cochran boiler are
(A) Horizontal
(B) Vertical
(C) Inclined
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
56. For water, at pressures below atmospheric;
(A) Melting point rises slightly and boiling point drops markedly
(B) Melting point rises markedly and boiling point drops markedly
(C) Melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops markedly
(D) Melting point drops slightly and boiling point drops slightly
Answer: Option A
57. The action of steam in a steam turbine is
(A) Static
(B) Dynamic
(C) Static and dynamic
(D) Neither static nor dynamic
Answer: Option B
58. The efficiency of the plant __________ with the mechanical
draught.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
59. The latent heat of steam with increase of pressure
(A) Remain same
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) Behaves unpredictably
Answer: Option C
60. When the cross-section of a nozzle increases continuously from
entrance to exit, it is called a
(A) Divergent nozzle
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(B) Convergent nozzle
(C) Convergent-divergent nozzle
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
61. The equivalent evaporation is defined as
(A) The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat
liberated in the furnace
(B) The amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg per kg of
fuel burnt
(C) The amount of water evaporated from and at 100°C into dry and
saturated steam
(D) The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C
Answer: Option C
62. Steam engine operates on
(A) Carnot cycle
(B) Joule cycle
(C) Stirling cycle
(D) Brayton cycle
Answer: Option D
63. De-Laval turbines are mostly used
(A) Where low speeds are required
(B) For small power purposes and low speeds
(C) For large power purposes
(D) For small power purposes and high speeds
Answer: Option D
64. In a Tandem type compound engine, the high pressure and low
pressure cylinders
(A) Have common piston rod
(B) Are set at 90°
(C) Have separate piston rods
(D) Are set in V-arrangement
Answer: Option A
65. Pick up the correct statement as regards Cornish boiler and
Lancashire boiler
(A) Cornish is fire tube and Lancashire is water tube
(B) Cornish is water tube and Lancashire is fire tube
(C) Cornish has two fire tubes and Lancashire has one
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(D) Lancashire has two fire tubes and Cornish has one
Answer: Option D
66. Blading efficiency is also known as
(A) Stage efficiency
(B) Diagram efficiency
(C) Nozzle efficiency
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
67. In a single acting steam engine
(A) The steam is admitted on one side of the piston and one working
stroke is produced during each revolution of the crankshaft
(B) The steam is admitted, in turn, on both sides of the piston and one
working stroke is produced during each revolution of the crankshaft
(C) The steam is admitted on one side of the piston and two working
strokes are produced during each revolution of the crankshaft
(D) The steam is admitted, in turn, on both sides of the piston and two
working strokes are produced during each revolution of the crankshaft
Answer: Option A
68. Boiler H.P. is defined as the
(A) Steam evaporation rate per kg of fuel fired
(B) Work done in evaporating 1 kg of steam per hour from and at
100°C into dry saturated steam
(C) The evaporation of 15.65 kg of water per hour from and at 100°C
into dry saturated steam
(D) Work done by 1 kg of steam at saturation condition
Answer: Option C
69. Steam turbines may be classified according to
(A) Direction of steam flow
(B) Number of stages
(C) Mode of steam action
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
70. The fire tubes in a Locomotive boiler has _________ diameter.
(A) 4.75 mm
(B) 5.47 mm
(C) 7.45 mm
(D) 47.5 mm
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Answer: Option D
71. The safety valve at superheater as compared to drum safety valve
setting is set at
(A) Higher value
(B) Lower value
(C) Same value
(D) Any value
Answer: Option B
72. In a compound steam engine, the first stage of expansion is carried
out in a high pressure cylinder whereas the last expansion is
completed in low pressure cylinder. The diameter of high pressure
cylinder is _________ the low pressure cylinder.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
73. For combustion of a fuel, following is essential
(A) Correct fuel air ratio
(B) Proper ignition temperature
(C) O₂ to support combustion
(D) All the three above
Answer: Option D
74. In an impulse reaction turbine, the pressure drops gradually and
continuously over
(A) Fixed blades
(B) Moving blades
(C) Both fixed and moving blades
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
75. The efficiency of a boiler is defined as
(A) Ratio of heat actually used in producing steam to the heat liberated
in the furnace
(B) Ratio of the mass of steam produced to the mass of total water
supplied in a given time
(C) Ratio of the heat liberated in the furnace to the heat actually used
in producing steam
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Answer: Option A
76. The pressure compounded impulse turbine as compared to velocity
compounded turbine require __________ number of stages.
(A) Same
(B) Less
(C) More
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
77. The safety valve on boiler drum compared to safety valve on
superheater is set at
(A) Same value
(B) Higher value
(C) Lower value
(D) Lower/higher depending on steam flow
Answer: Option B
78. Degree of reaction is defined as the ratio of
(A) Heat drop in fixed blades to the heat drop in moving blades
(B) Heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in fixed blades
(C) Heat drop in moving blades to the heat drop in fixed blades plus
heat drop in moving blades
(D) Heat drop in fixed blades plus heat drop in moving blades to the
heat drop in moving blades
Answer: Option C
(A) A horizontal steam engine requires less floor area than a vertical
steam engine
(B) The steam pressure in the cylinder is not allowed to fall below the
atmospheric pressure
(C) The compound steam engines are generally non-condensing steam
engines
Answer: Option B
80. A nozzle is said to be a convergent nozzle
(A) When the cross-section of the nozzle increases continuously from
entrance to exit
(B) When the cross-section of the nozzle decreases continuously from
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entrance to exit
(C) When the cross-section of the nozzle first decreases from entrance
to throat and then increases from its throat to exit
Answer: Option B
(A) Locomotive boiler is a water tube boiler
(B) Water tube boilers are internally fired
(C) Lamont boiler is a low pressure water tube boiler
Answer: Option D
82. Film boiling occurs at
(A) Very low pressure
(B) Atmospheric pressures
(C) Medium pressures
(D) Very high pressures
Answer: Option D
83. The discharge is __________ at critical pressure.
(A) Zero
(B) Minimum
(C) Maximum
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
84. An air preheater is installed
(A) Before the economiser
(B) Before the superheater
(C) Between the economiser and chimney
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
85. Coke is produced by
(A) Pulverising coal in inert atmosphere
(B) Heating wood in a limited supply of air at temperatures below
300°C
(C) Strongly heating coal continuously for about 48 hours in the
absence of air in a closed vessel
(D) Enriching carbon in the coal
Answer: Option C
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86. The variation of steam pressure in the nozzle depends upon
(A) Velocity of steam
(B) Specific volume of steam
(C) Dryness fraction of steam
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
87. A safety valve mainly used with locomotive and marine boilers is
(A) Lever safety valve
(B) Dead weight safety valve
(C) High steam and low water safety valve
(D) Spring loaded safety valve
Answer: Option D
88. In a throttling process
(A) Steam temperature remains constant
(B) Steam pressure remains constant
(C) Steam enthalpy remains constant
(D) Steam entropy remains constant
Answer: Option C
89. De-Laval turbine is a
(A) Simple impulse turbine
(B) Simple reaction turbine
(C) Impulse-reaction turbine
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
90. When steam after doing work in the cylinder passes into a
condenser, the engine is said to be a
(A) Slow speed engine
(B) Vertical steam engine
(C) Condensing steam engine
(D) Non-condensing steam engine
Answer: Option C
91. Efficiency of Rankine cycle can be increased by
(A) Decreasing initial steam pressure and temperature
(B) Increasing exhaust pressure
(C) Decreasing exhausts pressure
(D) Increasing the expansion ratio
Answer: Option A
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92. In an impulse turbine
(A) The steam is expanded in nozzles only and there is a pressure drop
and heat drop
(B) The steam is expanded both in fixed and moving blades
continuously
(C) The steam is expanded in moving blades only
(D) The pressure and temperature of steam remains constant
Answer: Option A
93. For the same diameter and thickness of tube, a water tube boiler
has ________ heating surface as compared to fire tube boiler.
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Equal
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
94. Which of the following is a water tube boiler?
(B) Cochran boiler
(C) Cornish boiler
Answer: Option D
95. In a reaction turbine
(A) The steam is allowed to expand in the nozzle, where it gives a high
velocity before it enters the moving blades
(B) The expansion of steam takes place partly in the fixed blades and
partly in the moving blades
(C) The steam is expanded from a high pressure to a condenser
pressure in one or more nozzles
(D) The pressure and temperature of steam remains constant
Answer: Option B
96. The selection of type and size of a steam boiler depends upon
(A) The power required and working pressure
(B) The geographical position of the power house
(C) The fuel and water available
Answer: Option D
97. In natural circulation type boiler,
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(A) Heating takes place at bottom and the water supplied at bottom
gets converted into the mixture of steam bubbles and hot water which rise
to drum
(B) Water is supplied in drum and through down comers located in
atmospheric condition it passes to the water wall and rises to drum in the
form of mixture of water and steam
(C) Feed pump is employed to supplement natural circulation in water
wall type furnace
(D) Water is converted into steam in one. Pass without any
recirculation
Answer: Option A
98. The maximum efficiency of a De-Laval turbine is (where α =
Nozzle angle)
(A) sin²α
(B) cos²α
(C) tan²α
(D) cot²α
Answer: Option B
99. A _________ in a boiler is used to put off fire in the furnace of the
boiler when the level of water in the boiler falls to an unsafe limit.
(A) Blow off cock
(B) Fusible plug
(C) Stop valve
(D) Safety valve
Answer: Option B
100. The ratio of heat utilised to produce steam and the heat liberated
in furnace is known as
(A) Boiler effectiveness
(B) Boiler evaporative capacity
(C) Factor of evaporation
(D) Boiler efficiency
Answer: Option D
101. The blade friction in the impulse turbine reduces the velocity of
steam by __________ while it passes over the blades.
(A) 10 to 15 %
(B) 15 to 20 %
(C) 20 to 30 %
(D) 30 to 40 %
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Answer: Option A
102. For the same length of stroke and speed of crankshaft, the piston
speed for a double acting steam engine is _________ the piston speed
of single acting steam engine.
(A) Equal to
(B) Twice
(C) Three times
(D) Four times
Answer: Option B
103. The height of chimney in a power plant is governed by
(A) The draft to be created
(B) Limitation of construction facilities
(C) Control of pollution
(D) Quantity of flue gases to be handled
Answer: Option C
104. In impulse turbines, when friction is neglected, the relative
velocity of steam at outlet tip of the blade is __________ the relative
velocity of steam at inlet tip of the blade.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
105. The fittings mounted on the boiler for its proper and safe
functioning is a
(A) Water level indicator
(B) Pressure gauge
(C) Safety valve
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
106. Presence of moisture in fuel oil would
(A) Keep the burner tips cool
(B) Aid in proper combustion
(C) Because sputtering, possibly extinguishing flame
(D) Clean the nozzles
Answer: Option C
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107. In a steam condenser, the partial pressure of steam and air are
0.06 bar and 0.007 bar respectively. The condenser pressure is
(A) 0.007 bar
(B) 0.053 bar
(C) 0.06 bar
(D) 0.067 bar
Answer: Option D
108. Which is not correct statement about effect of sulphur in fuel?
(A) It has heating value
(B) It helps in electrostatic precipitation of ash in flue gases
(C) It leads to corrosion of air heaters, ducting, etc. if flue gas exit
temperature is low
(D) It erodes furnace walls
Answer: Option D
109. The isentropic enthalpy drop in moving blade is two-third of the
isentropic enthalpy drop in fixed blades of a turbine. The degree of
reaction will be
(A) 0.4
(B) 0.56
(C) 0.67
(D) 1.67
Answer: Option A
110. A turbine is said to have an axial discharge when the steam leaves
the blade tip at _________ to the direction of the blade motion.
(A) 60°
(B) 90°
(C) 180°
(D) 270°
Answer: Option B
111. The principal function of a stop valve is to
(A) Control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to
shut off the steam completely when required
(B) Empty the boiler when required and to discharge the mud, scale or
sediments which are accumulated at the bottom of the boiler
(C) Put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in
the boiler falls to an unsafe limit
(D) Increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its
pressure
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Answer: Option A
112. Fire tube boilers are limited to a maximum design working
pressure of
(A) 1 kg/cm
(B) 6 kg/cm
(C) 17 kg/cm²
(D) 100 kg/cm²
Answer: Option C
113. The critical pressure ratio (p₂/p₁) is given by
(A) (p₂/p₁) = [2/(n - 1)] n/(n + 1)
(B) (p₂/p₁) = [2/(n + 1)] n/(n-1)
(C) (p₂/p₁) = [(n - 1)/2] n + (1/n)
(D) (p₂/p₁) = [(n + 1)/2] n - (1/n)
Answer: Option B
114. Water tube boilers are
(A) Internally fired
(B) Externally fired
(C) Internally as well as externally fired
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
115. The bituminous coal is no caking if its carbon content is
(A) 78-81 %
(B) 81-85 %
(C) 85-90 %
(D) 90-95 %
Answer: Option A
116. The flow through a nozzle is regarded as
(A) Constant volume flow
(B) Constant pressure flow
(C) Isothermal flow
(D) Isentropic flow
Answer: Option D
117. A device used to increase the temperature of saturated steam
without raising its pressure, is called
(A) Blow off cock
(B) Fusible plug
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(C) Superheater
(D) Stop valve
Answer: Option C
118. Orsat meter is used for
(A) Gravimetric analysis of the flue gases
(B) Volumetric analysis of the flue gases
(C) Mass flow of the flue gases
(D) Measuring smoke density of flue gases
Answer: Option B
119. The Parsons' reaction turbine has
(A) Only moving blades
(B) Only fixed blades
(C) Identical fixed and moving blades
(D) Fixed and moving blades of different shape
Answer: Option C
120. A single acting steam engine produces ________ power than that
of double acting steam engine.
(A) Equal
(B) Half
(C) Double
(D) Four times
Answer: Option B
121. Which of the following substance will have same percentage in
both proximate and ultimate analysis?
(A) Ash
(B) Volatile matter
(C) Moisture
(D) Hydrogen
Answer: Option A
122. The steam enters the nozzle at a
(A) High pressure and a low velocity
(B) High pressure and a high velocity
(C) Low pressure and a low velocity
(D) Low pressure and a high velocity
Answer: Option A
123. By compounding the expansion of steam in two or more
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cylinders, the length of stroke
(A) Does not change
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
124. The diameters of fire tubes and superheater tubes in locomotive
boiler are
(A) 47.5 mm, 130 mm
(B) 32.5 mm, 180 mm
(C) 65.5 mm, 210 mm
(D) 24.5 mm, 65 mm
Answer: Option A
125. The effect of friction on the flow of steam through a nozzle is to
(A) Decrease the mass flow rate and to increase the wetness of steam
(B) Increase the mass flow rate and to increase the exit temperature
(C) Decrease the mass flow rate and to decrease the wetness of steam
(D) Increase the exit temperature without any effect on mass flow rate
Answer: Option C
126. Throttle governing of steam engines is a method of controlling the
engine output by varying
(A) Volume of intake steam
(B) Pressure of intake steam
(C) Temperature of intake steam
(D) All of these
Answer: Option B
127. With increase in load, convection superheater has
(A) Drooping characteristic
(B) Linear characteristic
(C) Rising characteristic
(D) Flat characteristic
Answer: Option C
128. In order to reduce the rotor speed of an impulse turbine, the
method employed is
(A) Velocity compounding
(B) Pressure compounding
(C) Pressure-velocity compounding
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(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
129. In case of condensing steam engines, the pressure of steam in the
cylinder during exhaust stroke is _________ the atmospheric pressure.
(A) Equal to
(B) Lower than
(C) Higher than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
130. Ultimate analysis of fuel is determination of percentage of
(A) Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, moisture
(B) Fixed carbon, ash, volatile matter, moisture
(C) Higher calorific value
(D) Lower calorific value
Answer: Option A
(A) The efficiency of steam turbines is greater than steam engines
(B) A flywheel is a must for steam turbine
(C) The turbine blades do not change the direction of steam issuing
from the nozzle
(D) The pressure of steam, in reaction turbines, is increased in fixed
blades as well as in moving blades
Answer: Option A
132. By compounding the expansion of steam in two or more
cylinders, the ratio of expansion
(A) Does not change
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
133. The proximate analysis of fuel lists
(A) Various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen etc, plus
ash as percents by volume
(B) Various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, etc, plus
ash as percents by weight
(C) Fuel constituents as percents by volume of moisture, volatile, fixed
carbon and ash
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(D) Fuel constituents as percents by weight of moisture, volatile, fixed
carbon and ash
Answer: Option D
134. A steam turbine, in which a part of the steam after partial
expansion, is used for process heating and the remaining steam is
further expanded for power generation, is known as
(A) Back pressure turbine
(B) Pass out turbine
(C) Low pressure turbine
(D) Impulse turbine
Answer: Option B
135. Willian's law states that the steam consumption per hour
provided with a throttled governor is proportional to (where I.P. =
Indicated power)
(A) 1/(I.P)
(B) 1/(I.P)²
(C) I.P.
(D) (I.P.)²
Answer: Option C
136. Which is not the correct statement about moisture in coal?
(A) Inherent moisture and surface moisture are different things
(B) In some coals moisture may be present up to 40%
(C) Some moisture in coal helps in better burning which is not possible
with completely dry coal
(D) It increases thermal efficiency
Answer: Option D
137. The friction present between the steam and the nozzle surfaces
reduces the heat drop by
(A) 10 to 15 %
(B) 15 to 25 %
(C) 25 to 40 %
(D) 40 to 60 %
Answer: Option A
138. The draught in locomotive boilers is produced by a
(A) Chimney
(B) Centrifugal fan
(C) Steam jet
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
139. Stoichiometric quantity of air is the
(A) Air present in atmosphere at NTP conditions
(B) Air required for complete combustion of fuel with no excess air
(C) Air required for optimum combustion so as to have reasonable
excess air
(D) Air required to convert CO into CO₂
Answer: Option B
140. The impulse reaction turbine has its driving force
(A) As an impulsive force
(B) As a reaction force
(C) Partly as an impulsive force and partly as a reaction force
Answer: Option C
141. The average operating pressure of Benson boiler is
(A) 100 bar
(B) 150 bar
(C) 200 bar
(D) 250 bar
Answer: Option D
142. Pick up the wrong statement about critical condition of steam
(A) Latent heat is zero
(B) Liquid directly becomes steam
(C) Specific volume of steam and liquid is same
(D) This is the maximum pressure limit
Answer: Option D
143. In reaction turbines, the axial thrust is due to
(A) Pressure drop across the rotor
(B) Change in axial velocity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
144. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed
in the chimney is called
(A) Induced steam jet draught
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(B) Chimney draught
(C) Forced steam jet draught
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
145. A packaged boiler is one in which various parts like firing
equipment, fans, feed pumps and automatic controls are
(A) Supplied by same manufacturer loose and assembled at site
(B) Supplied mounted on a single base
(C) Purchased from several parties and packed together at site
(D) Packaged boiler does not exist
Answer: Option B
146. The impulse turbine rotor efficiency will have a maximum value
of 0.5 cos 2α, where α is the nozzle exit flow angle, if the
(A) Blades are equiangular
(B) Blade velocity coefficient is unity
(C) Blades are equiangular and frictionless
(D) Blade solidity is 0.65
Answer: Option C
147. Lancashire boiler is used where working pressure and power
required are
(A) Low
(B) Moderate
(C) High
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
148. Fusible plug for boilers is made of fusible metal containing tin,
lead, and
(A) Bismuth
(B) Copper
(C) Aluminium
(D) Nickel
Answer: Option A
149. Which of the following statement is correct for steam turbines as
compared to reciprocating steam engines?
(A) A steam turbine develops higher speeds
(B) The efficiency of steam turbine is higher
(C) The steam consumption is less
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(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
150. Which of the following is not a boiler mounting?
(A) Blow off cock
(B) Feed check valve
(C) Economiser
(D) Fusible plug
Answer: Option C
151. In recuperative air preheaters, the heat is transferred
(A) From a metal wall from one medium to another
(B) From heating an intermediate material and then heating the air
from this material
(C) By direct mixing,
(D) Heat is transferred by bleeding some gases from furnace
Answer: Option A
152. The process of draining steam from the turbine, at certain points
during its expansion and using this steam for heating the feed water in
feed water heaters and then supplying it to the boiler is known as
(A) Regenerative heating
(B) Reheating of steam
(C) Bleeding
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
(A) The mechanical draught reduces the height of chimney.
(B) The natural draught reduces the fuel consumption.
(C) A balanced draught is a combination of induced and forced
draught.
Answer: Option B
154. Sulphur content of fuels is very important to the plant operators
because it
(A) Has high heating value
(B) Retards electric precipitation
(C) Promotes complete combustion
(D) Has highly corrosive effect
Answer: Option D
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155. Stage efficiency is also known as
(A) Diagram efficiency
(C) Gross efficiency
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
156. A device used to heat feed water by utilising the heat in me
exhaust flue gases before leaving through the chimney, is known as
(A) Economiser
(B) Fusible plug
(C) Superheater
(D) Stop valve
Answer: Option A
157. Which is not correct statement about the function of furnace?
(A) To provide proper conditions for continuous complete combustion
(B) Mix fuel with air and ignite
(C) Separate ash from coal
(D) Maintain heat supply to prepare and ignite the incoming fuel
Answer: Option C
158. In a nozzle, whole frictional loss is assumed to occur between
(A) Inlet and throat
(B) Inlet and outlet
(C) Throat and exit
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
159. The working pressure range for a LaMont boiler is
(A) 0.5 to 10 MN/m²
(B) 1 to 15 MN/m²
(C) 2.5 to 15 MN/m²
(D) 3.5 to 20 MN/m²
Answer: Option D
160. The basic job of feed water treatment in boilers is to overcome
the problem of
(A) Corrosion
(B) Scale
(C) Carryover
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Answer: Option D
161. In a De-Laval nozzle expanding superheated steam from 10 bar
to 0.1 bar, the pressure at the minimum cross-section (i. e. pressure at
throat, p₂) will be
(A) 3.3 bar
(B) 5.46 bar
(C) 8.2 bar
(D) 9.9 bar
Answer: Option B
162. In a glass tube type water indicator for a boiler, one end of the
tube is connected to water space and the other end is connected to
(A) Water space also
(B) Chimney
(C) Steam space
(D) Superheater
Answer: Option C
163. At very low temperature, the melting and boiling temperatures
become equal. This temperature is
(A) 373°K
(B) 273.16°K
(C) 303°K
(D) 0°K
Answer: Option B
164. The ratio of the useful heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is
called
(A) Condenser efficiency
(D) Vacuum efficiency
Answer: Option B
165. The fire tubes in a Scotch marine boiler are
(A) Horizontal
(B) Vertical
(C) Inclined
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
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166. On Millier chart, the constant pressure lines
(A) Diverge from left to right
(B) Diverge from right to left
(C) Are equally spaced throughout
(D) First rise up and then fall
Answer: Option A
167. The reheat factor depends upon
(A) Initial pressure and superheat
(B) Exit pressure
(C) Turbine stage efficiency
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
168. The state of vapour under saturation condition is described by
(A) Pressure alone
(B) Temperature alone
(C) Pressure and temperature
(D) Pressure and dryness fraction
Answer: Option D
169. In a boiler, feed water supplied per hour is 205 kg while coal fired
per hour is 23 kg. The net enthalpy rise per kg of water is 145 kJ. If
the calorific valve of the coal is 2050 kJ/kg, then the boiler efficiency
will be
(A) 56 %
(B) 63 %
(C) 74 %
(D) 78 %
Answer: Option B
170. The diagram efficiency is the ratio of
(A) Workdone on the blades to the energy supplied to the blades
(B) Workdone on the blades per kg of steam to the total energy
supplied per stage per kg of steam
(C) Energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam to the total energy
Answer: Option A
171. Locomotive boiler is a
(A) Single tube, horizontal, internally fired and stationary boiler
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(B) Single tube, vertical, externally fired and stationary boiler
(C) Multi-tubular, horizontal, internally fired and mobile boiler
(D) Multi-tubular, horizontal, externally fired and stationary boiler
Answer: Option C
172. 100% efficiency of a thermal cycle cannot be achieved because of
(A) Frictional losses
(B) It is not possible to achieve 0°K temperature
(C) Leakage
(D) Non availability of ideal substance
Answer: Option B
173. In a velocity compounded impulse turbine, when steam flows
through the second row of moving blades,
(A) Velocity increases
(B) Velocity decreases
(C) Velocity remains constant
(D) Pressure remains constant
Answer: Option B
174. Cut-off governing as compared to throttle governing is
(A) Less efficient and less economical
(B) Less efficient and more economical
(C) More efficient and less economical
(D) More efficient and more economical
Answer: Option D
175. Which of the following coals has the highest calorific value?
(A) Anthracite coal
(B) Bituminous coal
(C) Lignite
(D) Peat
Answer: Option A
176. In a Parson's turbine stage, blade velocity is 320 m/s at the mean
radius and rotor blade exit angle is 30°. For minimum kinetic energy
of the steam leaving the stage, the steam velocity at the exit of the
rotor will be
(A) 160/3 m/s
(B) 320/3 m/s
(C) 640/3 m/s
(D) 640 m/s
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Answer: Option C
177. The main object of a boiler trial is
(A) To determine the generating capacity of the boiler
(B) To determine the thermal efficiency of the boiler when working at
a definite pressure
(C) To prepare heat balance sheet for the boiler
Answer: Option D
178. Hard coke is used in
(A) Cement industry
(B) Thermal power plant
(C) Blast furnace
(D) Domestic use
Answer: Option C
179. The velocity of whirl at outlet for an axial discharge turbine is
(A) Minimum
(B) Maximum
(C) Zero
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
180. The ratio of the volume at cut-off to the swept volume is called
(A) Cut-off ratio
(B) Expansion ratio
(C) Clearance ratio
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
181. The effect of friction in the nozzle __________ dryness fraction of
steam.
(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
182. The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is
(A) Boiler efficiency, turbine efficiency, generator efficiency
(B) All the three above plus gas cycle efficiency
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(C) Carnot cycle efficiency
(D) Regenerative cycle efficiency
Answer: Option A
183. A compound steam engine in which piston rods of high pressure
and low pressure cylinders are attached to two different cranks set at
90° to each other, is called
Answer: Option A
184. In locomotives, the draught is produced by
(A) Chimney
(B) Induced draft fan
(C) Both combined (A) and (B)
(D) Steam jet draught
Answer: Option D
185. The efficiency of an impulse turbine is maximum when (where Vb
= Blade speed, V = Absolute velocity of steam entering the blade, and
α = Nozzle angle)
(A) Vb = 0.5 V cosα
(B) Vb = V cosα
(C) Vb = 0.5 V² cosα
(D) Vb = V² cosα
Answer: Option A
186. The draught (in mm of water), for maximum discharge of flue
gases through the chimney, is given by (where H = Height of the
chimney in metres, and T1 = Absolute temperature of air outside the
chimney in K)
(A) T1 /88.25H
(B) 88.25H/T1
(C) T1 /176.5H
(D) 176.5H/T1
Answer: Option D
187. The behaviour of coal in a furnace is determined by
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(A) The content of sulphur
(B) The content of ash and heating value
(C) The proximate analysis
(D) The exact analysis
Answer: Option C
188. The efficiency of a pressure-velocity compounded impulse turbine
is __________ as compared to pressure compounded impulse turbine.
(A) Same
(B) Less
(C) More
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
189. An economiser is generally placed between
(A) Last superheater or reheater and air preheater
(B) Induced draft fan and forced draft fan
(C) Air preheater and chimney
Answer: Option A
190. In order to obtain superheated steam, a superheater is added in
an existing boiler. As as result, furnace vacuum will
(B) Improve
(C) Worsen
(D) May improve/worsen depending on size
Answer: Option C
191. The maximum discharge of steam through a convergent-
divergent nozzle depends upon
(A) Area of nozzle at throat
(B) Initial pressure and volume of steam
(C) Final pressure of steam leaving the nozzle
Answer: Option D
192. In a boiler, the heat is lost
(A) To dry flue gases
(B) In moisture present in the fuel
(C) To steam formed by combustion of hydrogen per kg of fuel
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Answer: Option D
193. The critical pressure at which latent heat of vaporisation is zero is
(A) 225.65 kgf/ cm²
(B) 273 kgf/ cm²
(C) 100 kgf/ cm²
(D) 1 kgf/ cm²
Answer: Option A
194. The effect of bleeding is that
(A) It increases the thermodynamic efficiency of the turbine
(B) Boiler is supplied with hot water
(C) It decreases the power developed by the turbine
Answer: Option D
195. Which of the following statement is correct for a compound steam
engine?
(A) The cost of the engine, for the same power and economy, is more
than that of a simple steam engine.
(B) The forces in the working parts are increased as the forces are
distributed over more parts.
(C) The ratio of expansion is reduced, thus reducing the length of
stroke.
(D) The temperature range per cylinder is increased, with
corresponding increase in condensation.
Answer: Option C
196. One kg of steam sample contains 0.8 kg dry steam; Its dryness
fraction is
(A) 0.2
(B) 0.8
(C) 1.0
(D) 0.6
Answer: Option B
197. The velocity of steam leaving the nozzle (V) is given by (where K =
Nozzle coefficient or nozzle efficiency, and hd = Enthalpy or heat drop
during expansion of steam in a nozzle)
(A) V = 44.72 hd K
(B) V = 44.72 K hd
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(C) V = 44.72 K hd
(D) V = 44.72 K hd
Answer: Option C
198. The power of a boiler may be defined as
(A) The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat
liberated in the furnace
(B) The amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg per kg of
fuel burnt
(C) The amount of water evaporated from and at 100° C into dry and
saturated steam
(D) The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100°
C
Answer: Option B
199. Heating wet steam at constant temperature is heating it at
constant
(A) Volume
(B) Pressure
(C) Entropy
(D) Enthalpy
Answer: Option B
200. The supersaturated flow of steam through a nozzle as compared
to a stable flow, the available heat drop
(A) Remains the same
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) Is unpredictable
Answer: Option C
201. The velocity of flue gases (V) through the chimney under a static
draught of (H') metres is given by
(A) V = 2g H'
(B) V = 2g/H'
(C) V = H'/2g
(D) V = 2gH'
Answer: Option A
202. Efficiency of a thermal cycle increases by
(A) Regeneration
(B) Reheating of steam
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(D) Cooling of steam
Answer: Option C
203. Parson's turbine is a
(A) Simple impulse turbine
(B) Simple reaction turbine
(C) Impulse-reaction turbine
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
204. The diameter of a cylindrical shell of a Scotch marine boiler
varies from
(A) 1.5 to 2 m
(B) 2.5 to 3.5 m
(C) 3.5 to 4.5 m
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
205. The crown of the fire box is made hemispherical in order to
(A) Give maximum space
(B) Give maximum strength
(C) Withstand pressure inside boiler
(D) Resist intense heat in fire box
Answer: Option D
206. The velocity of steam at throat of the nozzle is __________ the
velocity of sound.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
207. The cylinder condensation or missing quantity may be reduced
by
(A) The efficient steam jacketing of the cylinder walls
(B) Superheating the steam supplied to the engine cylinder
(C) Keeping the expansion ratio small in each cylinder
Answer: Option D
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208. The Locomotive boiler has
(A) 137 fire tubes and 44 superheated tubes
(B) 147 fire tubes and 34 superheated tubes
(C) 157 fire tubes and 24 superheated tubes
(D) 167 fire tubes and 14 superheated tubes
Answer: Option C
209. Which of the following varieties of coals is mostly used in steam
boilers?
(A) Non-coking bituminous coal
(B) Brown coal
(C) Peat
Answer: Option D
210. The compounding of turbines is done in order to
(A) Reduce speed of rotor
(B) Improve efficiency
(C) Reduce exit losses
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
211. Which of the following is a fire tube boiler?
(A) Lancashire boiler
(C) Yarrow boiler
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
212. In forced recirculation type boiler,
to drum
wall type furnace
(D) Water is converted into steam in one pass without any
recirculation
Answer: Option C
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213. When the nozzle operates with the maximum mass flow, the
nozzle is said to be
(A) Choked
(B) Under-damping
(C) Over-damping
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
214. The average value of diagram factor lies between
(A) 0.2 to 0.5
(B) 0.5 to 0.65
(C) 0.65 to 0.9
(D) 0.8 to 1.2
Answer: Option C
215. A safety valve in a locomotive starts leaking. The leaking medium
will be
(A) Water
(B) Dry steam
(C) Wet steam
(D) Super heated steam
Answer: Option D
(A) The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat equal
to the velocity of sound.
(B) The flow in the convergent portion of the nozzle is subsonic.
(C) The flow in the divergent portion of the nozzle is supersonic.
(D) To increase the velocity of steam above sonic velocity
(supersonic) by expanding steam below the critical pressure, the divergent
portion for the nozzle is not necessary.
Answer: Option D
217. The ratio of the energy required to produce the artificial draught
(expressed in metres head or J/kg of flue gas) to the mechanical
equivalent of extra heat carried away per kg of flue gases due to
natural draught, is known as
(A) Efficiency of the boiler
(B) Efficiency of the chimney
(C) Efficiency of the fan
(D) Power of the boiler
Answer: Option B
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218. Which device is used in thermal power plants to reduce level of
pollution?
(A) Induced draft fan
(B) Smoke meter
(C) Chimney
(D) Precipitator
Answer: Option D
219. The expansion of steam, as it flows over the blades in reaction
turbine, represents
(B) Isentropic process
(C) Throttling process
(D) Free expansion process
Answer: Option B
220. Clearance ratio is the ratio of
(A) Clearance volume to the swept volume
(B) Clearance volume to the volume at cut-off
(C) Volume at cut-off to the swept volume
(D) Swept volume to the clearance volume
Answer: Option A
121. The ultimate analysis of fuel lists
(A) Various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen etc, plus
ash as percents by volume
(B) Various chemical constituents, carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, etc, plus
ash as percents by weight
(C) Fuel constituents as percents by volume of moisture, volatile, fixed
carbon and ash
(D) Fuel constituents as percents by weight of moisture, volatile, fixed
carbon and ash
Answer: Option B
(A) The expansion of steam in a nozzle follows Rankine cycle.
(B) The friction in the nozzle increases the dryness fraction of steam.
(C) The pressure of steam at throat is called critical pressure.
Answer: Option D
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223. The heat balance sheet for the boiler shows the
(A) Complete account of heat supplied by 1 kg of dry fuel and the heat
consumed
(B) Moisture present in the fuel
(C) Steam formed by combustion of hydrogen per kg of fuel
Answer: Option A
224. A supercritical boiler is one that operates above the pressure and
temperature of following values
(A) 100 kg/cm² and 540°C
(B) 1 kg/cm² and 100°C
(C) 218 kg/cm² abs and 373°C
(D) 218 kg/cm² abs and 540°C
Answer: Option C
225. Curtis turbine is a
(A) Simple reaction turbine
(B) Velocity compounded turbine
(C) Pressure compounded turbine
(D) Pressure-velocity compounded turbine
Answer: Option D
226. The air pressure at the fuel bed is reduced below that of
atmosphere by means of a fan placed at or near the bottom of the
chimney to produce a draught. Such a draught is called
(A) Natural draught
(B) Induced draught
(C) Forced draught
(D) Balanced draught
Answer: Option B
227. The dry saturated steam at very low pressure, (510 kg/cm²) when
throttled to atmosphere will become
(A) Wet
(B) Superheated
(C) Remain dry saturated
(D) Dry
Answer: Option B
228. The nozzle efficiency is the ratio of
(A) Workdone on the blades to the energy supplied to the blades
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(B) Workdone on the blades per kg of steam to the total energy
(C) Energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam to the total energy
Answer: Option C
229. All steam engines work on
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
230. The increase in pressure
(A) Lowers the boiling point of a liquid
(B) Raises the boiling point of a liquid
(C) Does not affects the boiling point of a liquid
(D) Reduces its volume
Answer: Option B
231. If the critical pressure ratio for steam is 0.546, then the steam is
initially
(A) Wet steam
(B) Dry saturated steam
(C) Superheated steam
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
232. The amount of water evaporated from feed water at _________
into dry and saturated steam at 100° C at normal atmospheric
pressure is called equivalent evaporation from and at 100° C.
(A) 0°C
(B) 40°C
(C) 60°C
(D) 100°C
Answer: Option D
233. The high pressure boiler is one, which produces steam at a
pressure more than
(B) 5 kg/cm²
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(C) 10 kg/cm²
(D) 7580 kg/cm²
Answer: Option D
234. The critical pressure ratio for gases is
(A) 0.528
(B) 0.546
(C) 0.577
(D) 0.582
Answer: Option A
235. Which of the following is correct? (Where pa = Actual mean
effective pressure, pm = Theoretical mean effective pressure, and K =
Diagram factor)
(A) pa = pm/K
(B) pa = pm × K
(C) pa = K/pm
(D) pa = pm + K
Answer: Option B
236. A stage, in reaction turbine, is represented by
(A) Number of casing
(B) Number of entries of steam
(C) Number of exits of steam
(D) Each row of blades
Answer: Option D
237. In a steam engine, superheated steam from the boiler is fed into
the steam chest at a pressure of
(A) 10 atmospheres
(B) 20 atmospheres
(C) 30 atmospheres
(D) 40 atmospheres
Answer: Option B
238. The diameter of tubes for natural circulation boiler as compared
to controlled circulation boilers is
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
(D) Could be more or less depending on other factors
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Answer: Option A
239. When the inlet pressure of steam is equal to the exit pressure,
then
(A) There is a pressure drop in the nozzle
(B) Fluid flows through the nozzle
(C) Pressure drops and fluid flows through the nozzle
(D) There is no pressure drop and fluid does not flow through the
nozzle
Answer: Option D
240. In water tube boilers
(A) Water passes through the tubes which are surrounded by flames
and hot gases
(B) The flames and hot gases pass through the tubes which are
surrounded by water
(C) Forced circulation takes place
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
241. The temperature of flue gases at air heater outlet should be
(A) 100°C
(B) Above dew point temperature of flue gases
(C) Below dew point temperature of flue gases
(D) Less than wet bulb temperature of flue gases
Answer: Option B
242. The critical pressure ratio for initially wet steam is
(A) 0.546
(B) 0.577
(C) 0.582
(D) 0.601
Answer: Option C
243. The function of a crosshead is to guide motion of the _________
and to prevent it from bending.
(A) Piston rod
(B) Connecting rod
(C) Eccentric rod
(D) Valve rod
Answer: Option A
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244. An economiser in a boiler
(A) Increases steam pressure
(B) Increases steam flow
(C) Decreases fuel consumption
(D) Decreases steam pressure
Answer: Option C
245. Multi-stage steam turbines are of the
(A) Velocity compounded type
(B) Reaction type
(C) Pressure compounded type
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
246. A double acting steam engine with a cylinder diameter of 190 mm
and a stroke of 300 mm has a cut-off of 0.35. The expansion ratio for
this engine is nearly
(A) 1.05
(B) 2.86
(C) 6.65
(D) 10.05
Answer: Option B
247. Which is not correct statement about pulverised fuel firing?
(A) High burning rate is possible
(B) Heat release can be easily controlled
(C) Fuel burns economically
(D) It is the best technique for burning high ash content fuel having
low fusion ash
Answer: Option D
248. The flow of steam is supersonic
(A) At the entrance to the nozzle
(B) At the throat of the nozzle
(C) In the convergent portion of the nozzle
(D) In the divergent portion of the nozzle
Answer: Option D
249. The diagram factor is the ratio of the
(A) Area of the actual indicator diagram to the area of theoretical
indicator diagram
(B) Actual workdone per stroke to the theoretical workdone per stroke
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(C) Actual mean effective pressure to the theoretical mean effective
pressure
Answer: Option D
250. Relative percentage of heat absorbed through the heat transfer of
(i) Furnace water wall
(ii) Boiler tank
(iii) Superheater
(iv) Economiser
(v) Air-heater of a typical boiler of 200 MW capacity would be of the
order of
(A) 48 : 20 : 15 : 7 : 10
(B) 10 : 7 : 15 : 20 : 48
(C) 20 : 48 : 7 : 15 : 10
(D) 7 : 15 : 20 : 10 : 48
Answer: Option A
251. The process of maintaining the speed of the turbine constant for
various load conditions, is known as
(A) Bleeding
(B) Reheating
(C) Governing
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
252. Expansion ratio is the ratio of
(A) Swept volume to the volume at cut-off
(B) Clearance volume to the swept volume
(D) Swept volume to the clearance volume
Answer: Option A
253. Superheating of steam is done at
(A) Constant volume
(D) Constant entropy
Answer: Option C
254. When the cross-section of a nozzle __________ continuously from
entrance to exit, it is called a convergent nozzle.
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(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remain same
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
255. In a receiver type compound engine, the high pressure and low
pressure cylinders
(B) Are set at 90°
(C) Have separate piston rods
Answer: Option C
256. Latent heat of dry steam at atmospheric pressure is equal to
(A) 539 kcal/ kg
(B) 539 BTU/ lb
(C) 427 kcal/ kg
(D) 100 kcal/ kg
Answer: Option A
257. The ratio of total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat
drop, is called
(A) Stage efficiency
(B) Internal efficiency
(C) Rankine efficiency
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
258. The pressure of feed water has to be raised before its entry into
the boiler. The pressure is raised by a device known as
(A) Feed pump
(B) Injector
(C) Feed check valve
(D) Pressure gauge
Answer: Option A
259. For burning 1 kg of carbon to CO as per chemically correct
combustion, amount of air required is
(A) 1 kg
(B) 4/3 kg
(C) 8/3 kg
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(D) 2 kg
Answer: Option B
260. A binary vapour plant consists of
(A) Steam turbine
(B) Steam condenser
(C) Mercury boiler
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
261. The draught may be produced by a
(A) Mechanical fan
(B) Chimney
(C) A steam jet
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
262. Which of the following is steam dial?
(A) Non-coking bituminous coal
(B) Brown coal
(C) Pulverised coal
(D) Coking bituminous coal
Answer: Option A
263. The maximum efficiency of a reaction turbine is
(A) 2 sin²α/(1 + sin²α)
(B) 2 cos²α/(1 + cos²α)
(C) (1 + sin²α)/2 sin²α
(D) (1 + cos²α)/2 cos²α
Answer: Option B
264. In order to compare the capacity of boilers, the feed water
temperature and working pressure are taken as
(A) 50°C and normal atmospheric pressure
(B) 50°C and 1.1 bar pressure
(C) 100°C and normal atmospheric pressure
(D) 100°C and 1.1 bar pressure
Answer: Option C
265. In accelerated circulation type boiler
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to drum
wall type furnace
recirculation
Answer: Option B
266. The pressure of steam __________ while flowing through a
nozzle.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
267. The indicated thermal efficiency is defined as the
(A) Ratio of thermal efficiency to the Rankine efficiency
(B) Ratio of brake power to the indicated power
(C) Ratio of heat equivalent to indicated power to the energy supplied
in steam
(D) Product of thermal efficiency and Rankine efficiency
Answer: Option C
268. The major axis of elliptical manholes on the shell should be
provided
(A) Longitudinally
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(B) Circumferentially
(C) On dished end
(D) Anywhere
Answer: Option B
269. In a reaction turbine, when steam flows through the moving
blades,
(A) Pressure increases while velocity decreases
(B) Pressure decreases while velocity increases
(C) Pressure and velocity both decreases
(D) Pressure and velocity both increases
Answer: Option C
270. The device attached to the steam chest for preventing explosions
due to excessive internal pressure of steam is called
(A) Safety valve
(B) Water level indicator
(C) Pressure gauge
(D) Fusible plug
Answer: Option A
271. The economiser is used in boilers to
(A) Increase thermal efficiency of boiler
(B) Economise on fuel
(C) Extract heat from the exhaust flue gases
(D) Increase flue gas temperature
Answer: Option A
272. The reheat factor is the ratio of the
(A) Cumulative heat drop to the isentropic heat drop
(B) Isentropic heat drop to the heat supplied
(C) Total useful heat drop to the total isentropic heat drop
Answer: Option A
(A) A fire tube boiler occupies less space than a water tube boiler, for
a given power.
(B) Steam at a high pressure and in large quantities can be produced
with a simple vertical boiler.
(C) A simple vertical boiler has one fire tube.
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Answer: Option C
274. The three "Ts" for good combustion are
(A) Temperature, time, and turbulence
(B) Total air, true fuel, and turbulence
(C) Thorough mixing, total air and temperature
(D) Total air, time, and temperature
Answer: Option A
275. The value of the reheat factor varies from
(A) 1.02 to 1.06
(B) 1.08 to 1.10
(C) 1.2 to 1.6
(D) 1.6 to 2
Answer: Option A
276. Cut-off governing of steam engines is a method of controlling the
engine output by varying
(A) Volume of intake steam
(B) Pressure of intake steam
(C) Temperature of intake steam
(D) All of these
Answer: Option A
277. The size of a boiler drum in pulverised fuel fired boiler, as its size
and capacity, (steam pressure and flow ratings) increase
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(D) Increases/decreases depending on steam temperature requirements
Answer: Option B
278. A nozzle is said to be a divergent nozzle
(A) When the cross-section of the nozzle increases continuously from
entrance to exit
(B) When the cross-section of the nozzle decreases continuously from
entrance to exit
(C) When the cross-section of the nozzle first decreases from entrance
to throat and then increases from its throat to exit
Answer: Option A
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279. The theoretical indicator diagram of a simple steam engine is
based upon the assumption that
(A) There is no pressure drop due to condensation
(B) Steam is admitted at boiler pressure and exhausted at condenser
pressure
(C) The expansion (or compression) of the steam is hyperbolic
Answer: Option D
280. If partial pressure of air and steam be ‘pa’ and ‘ps’ respectively in
a condenser, then according to Dalton's law, the pressure in condenser
is equal to
(A) ps - pa
(B) pa - ps
(C) pa + ps
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
281. In turbines, the fluid undergoes a continuous steady flow process
and the speed of flow is
(A) Low
(B) Very low
(C) High
(D) Very high
Answer: Option D
282. The high steam and low water safety valve is used to blow off
steam when the
(A) Steam pressure exceeds the working pressure
(B) Water level in the boiler becomes too low
Answer: Option C
283. On Mollier chart, free expansion, or throttling process from high
pressure to atmosphere is represented by
(C) Straight inclined line
(D) Curved line
Answer: Option A
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284. The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat
(A) Equal to the velocity of sound
(B) Less than the velocity of sound
(C) More than the velocity of sound
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
285. The high pressure and low pressure cylinders in a Woolf type
compound engine are regarded as having cranks
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
286. Mechanical equivalent of heat for 1 kcal or Joule's equivalent is
equal to
(A) 421 kg.m
(B) 421 kg.m
(C) 539 kg.m
(D) 102 kg.m
Answer: Option A
287. The effect of super-saturation is that the
(A) Mass of the steam discharged increases
(B) Entropy and specific volume of the steam increases
(C) Exit velocity of steam reduces
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
288. The diameter of superheated tubes in a locomotive boiler is
(A) 13 mm
(B) 31 mm
(C) 130 mm
(D) 230 mm
Answer: Option C
289. The change in internal energy in steam engines equals to
(A) Work done during the Rankine cycle
(B) Work done during compression
(C) Work done during adiabatic expansion
(D) Change in enthalpy
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Answer: Option A
290. The pressure velocity compounded impulse turbine allows a
bigger pressure drop and hence __________ numbers of stages are
required.
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Equal
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
291. In fire tube boilers
(A) Water passes through the tubes which are surrounded by flames
and hot gases
(B) The flames and hot gases pass through the tubes which are
surrounded by water
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
292. The shell diameter and length of locomotive boiler are
(A) 1.5 m, 4 m
(B) 1.5 m, 6 m
(C) 1 m, 4 m
(D) 2 m, 4 m
Answer: Option A
293. The ratio of the workdone on the blades to the energy supplied to
the blades, is called
(A) Blading efficiency
(C) Gross or stage efficiency
Answer: Option A
294. The numbers of fire tubes in a Cochran boiler are
(A) 75
(B) 115
(C) 165
(D) 225
Answer: Option C
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295. In forced circulation type boiler
to drum
wall type furnace
recirculation
Answer: Option D
296. The critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated steam is
(A) 0.546
(B) 0.577
(C) 0.582
(D) 0.601
Answer: Option B
297. In cross compounding, the cylinders are arranged
(A) Side by side and each cylinder has common piston, connecting rod
and crank
(B) Side by side and each cylinder has separate piston, connecting rod
and crank
(C) At 90° and each cylinder has common piston, connecting rod and
crank
(D) At 90° and each cylinder has separate piston, connecting rod and
crank
Answer: Option B
298. Vacuum for reciprocating steam engines compared to steam
turbines is
(A) More
(B) Equal
(C) Less
(D) Could be more or less depending on the size of plant
Answer: Option C
299. In a nozzle, the effect of super-saturation is to
(A) Decrease dryness fraction of steam
(B) Decrease specific volume of steam
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(C) Increase the entropy
(D) Increase the heat drop
Answer: Option C
300. The cylindrical shell of a Lancashire boiler has diameter from
(A) 1 to 2 m
(B) 1.25 to 2.25 m
(C) 1.5 to 2.5 m
(D) 1.75 to 2.75 m
Answer: Option D
301. Pour point of fuel oil is the
(A) Lowest temperature at which oil will flow under set condition
(B) Storage temperature
(C) Temperature at which fuel is pumped through burners
(D) Temperature at which oil is transported
Answer: Option A
302. The steam leaves the nozzle at a
(A) High pressure and a low velocity
(B) High pressure and a high velocity
(C) Low pressure and a low velocity
(D) Low pressure and a high velocity
Answer: Option D
303. A condenser where circulating water flows through tubes which
are surrounded by steam, in known as
(A) Surface condenser
(B) Jet condenser
(C) Barometric condenser
(D) Evaporative condenser
Answer: Option A
304. Maximum energy loss in a boiler occurs due to
(A) Unburnt carbon in ash
(B) Incomplete combustion
(C) Ash content
(D) Flue gases
Answer: Option D
305. The friction in the nozzle __________ exit velocity of steam.
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(B) Decreases
(C) Increases
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
306. The function of an eccentric rod is
(A) To provide reciprocating motion to the slide valve
(B) To convert reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion of
the crank
(C) To convert rotary motion of the crankshaft into to and fro motion
of the valve rod
(D) To provide simple harmonic motion to the D-slide valve
Answer: Option C
307. In water wall furnace, the heat is transferred to the water walls
by
(A) Convection
(B) Radiation
(C) Conduction
(D) Radiation and conduction
Answer: Option B
308. The efficiency of reaction turbine is maximum when (where α =
Angle made by the absolute velocity ‘V’ at inlet)
(A) Vb = 0.5 V cosα
(B) Vb = V cos α
(C) Vb = 0.5 V² cosα
(D) Vb = V² cosα
Answer: Option B
309. When the speed of the crankshaft is between 100 r.p.m. and 250
r.p.m., the engine said to be a
(A) Slow speed engine
(B) Medium speed steam engine
(C) High speed steam engine
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
310. The latent heat of steam at pressures greater than atmospheric in
comparison to latent heat at atmospheric pressure is
(A) Less
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(B) More
(C) Equal
(D) May be less or more depending on temperature
Answer: Option A
311. The efficiency of steam turbines may be improved by
(A) Reheating of steam
(B) Regenerative feed heating
(C) Binary vapour plant
Answer: Option D
312. In a uniflow engine
(A) Steam enters and exhausts through the same port
(B) Steam enters at one end and exhausts at the centre
(C) Steam enters at the centre and exhausts at the other end
Answer: Option B
313. In an experiment to determine dryness fraction of steam, the
mass of water separated was 1.2 kg in 15 mts. and the mass of steam
passed out in same time was 4.8 kg. Dryness fraction is
(A) 40 %
(B) 25 %
(C) 50 %
(D) 80 %
Answer: Option D
314. The critical pressure ratio is given by (where p₁ = Initial pressure
of steam, and p₂ = Pressure of steam at throat or critical pressure)
(A) p₁. p₂
(B) p₁/p₂
(C) p₂/p₁
(D) p₁ + p₂
Answer: Option C
315. Which of the following is a water tube boiler?
(C) Locomotive boiler
(D) Cochran boiler
Answer: Option B
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316. The diameter of Cornish boiler is of the order of
(A) 12 m
(B) 1.52.5 m
(C) 23 m
(D) 2.53.5 m
Answer: Option A
317. The stage efficiency (ηS) is given by (where ηB = Blading
efficiency, and ηN = Nozzle efficiency)
(A) ηS = ηB × ηN
(B) ηS = ηB / ηN
(C) ηS = ηN / ηB
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
318. The high pressure and low pressure cylinders in a Tandem type
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
319. The water tubes in a Babcock and Wilcox boiler are
(A) Horizontal
(B) Vertical
(C) Inclined
(D) Horizontal and inclined
Answer: Option C
320. In an impulse turbine, steam expands
(A) Wholly in blades
(B) Wholly in nozzle
(C) Partly in the nozzle and partly in blades
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
321. There is always some steam left in the clearance space from the
previous stroke. This steam left in the clearance space is called
(A) Wet steam
(B) Saturated steam
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(C) Superheated steam
(D) Cushion steam
Answer: Option D
322. In which of the following boilers, the draught in furnace is
increased by utilising exhaust steam from engine
(B) Locomotive boiler
(C) Babcock and Wilcox boiler
(D) Benson boiler
Answer: Option B
323. De-Laval turbine is a
(A) Single rotor impulse turbine
(B) Multi-rotor impulse turbine
(C) Impulse reaction turbine
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
324. An air preheater
(A) Increases evaporative capacity of the boiler
(B) Increases the efficiency of the boiler
(C) Enables low grade fuel to be burnt
Answer: Option D
325. O₂ content in atmospheric air on weight basis is
(A) 21 %
(B) 23 %
(C) 30 %
(D) 40 %
Answer: Option B
326. Rateau turbine is
(A) Simple reaction turbine
(B) Velocity compounded turbine
(C) Pressure compounded turbine
(D) Pressure-velocity compounded turbine
Answer: Option C
327. The function of a valve rod is
(A) To provide reciprocating motion to the slide valve
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(B) To convert reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion of
the crank
(C) To convert rotary motion of the crankshaft into to and fro motion
of the valve rod
(D) To provide simple harmonic motion to the D-slide valve
Answer: Option D
328. The condition of steam in boiler drum is always
(A) Dry
(B) Wet
(C) Saturated
(D) Supersaturated
Answer: Option B
329. The density of supersaturated steam is about __________ that of
the ordinary saturated vapour at the corresponding pressure.
(A) Same as
(B) 2 times
(C) 4 times
(D) 8 times
Answer: Option D
330. The missing quantity per stroke is equal to
(A) Cylinder feed indicated mass of steam
(B) Cylinder feed + indicated mass of steam
(C) Mass of cushion steam + indicated mass of steam
(D) Mass of cushion steam + cylinder feed
Answer: Option A
331. The saturation temperature of steam with increase in pressure
increases
(A) Linearly
(B) Rapidly first and then slowly
(C) Slowly first and then rapidly
(D) Inversely
Answer: Option B
332. Thermal equilibrium means that the flow of steam is
(A) Isothermal
(B) Isentropic
(C) Hyperbolic
(D) Polytropic
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Answer: Option B
333. Willian’s line follows the law (where b = A constant representing
the shape of the Willian’s line, a = Another constant i.e. no load
consumption per hour, I.P. = Indicated power, and m = Steam
consumption per hour)
(A) I.P. = a × m + b
(B) m = a + b × I.P.
(C) I.P. = b × m + a
(D) m = (b/I.P.) - a
Answer: Option B
334. Equivalent evaporation of water is the evaporation for a feed
water supply at 100°C
(A) And its corresponding conversion into dry saturated steam at
100°C and 1.033 kg/cm²
(B) And its corresponding conversion into dry steam at desired boiler
pressure
(C) Conversion into steam at atmospheric condition
(D) Conversion into steam at the same pressure at which feed water is
supplied
Answer: Option A
335. The difference of supersaturated temperature and saturation
temperature at that pressure is called
(A) Degree of super-saturation
(B) Degree of superheat
(C) Degree of under-cooling
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
336. The diameter of internal flue tubes of a Lancashire boiler is about
_________ that of its shell.
(A) One-fourth
(B) One-third
(C) Two-fifth
(D) One-half
Answer: Option C
337. The biggest size of thermal power unit operating in India is
(A) 30 MW
(B) 60 MW
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(C) 100 MW
(D) 500 MW
Answer: Option D
338. The ratio of the isentropic heat drop to the heat supplied, is called
(A) Reheat factor
(B) Stage efficiency
(C) Internal efficiency
(D) Rankine efficiency
Answer: Option D
339. The ratio of the actual vacuum to the ideal vacuum in a
condenser is called
(B) Vacuum efficiency
Answer: Option B
340. Pick up the wrong statement about water tube boiler in
comparison to fire tube boilers
(A) Former occupies less space for same power
(B) Rate of steam flow is more in former case
(C) Former is used for high installed capacity
(D) Chances of explosion are less in former case.
Answer: Option D
341. The turbine blades are
(A) Straight
(B) Circular
(C) Curved
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
342. The ratio of the temperature rise of cooling water to the vacuum
temperature minus inlet cooling water temperature is called
(B) Vacuum efficiency
Answer: Option A
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343. The heat loss in a boiler takes place in the form of
(A) Heat carried away by flue gases
(B) Heat carried away by ash
(C) Moisture present in fuel and steam formed by combustion of
hydrogen in fuel
Answer: Option D
344. Steam exhaust from high pressure turbine is reheated in
(A) Boiler drums
(B) Superheater tubes
(C) Economiser
(D) A separate coil located in convection path.
Answer: Option D
345. The value of diagram factor depends upon
(A) Initial conditions of steam
(B) Back pressure
(C) Initial pressure of steam
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
346. Green coal, in order to be burnt, must be
(A) Heated sufficiently
(B) Burnt in excess air
(C) Heated to its ignition point
(D) Burnt as powder
Answer: Option C
347. A safety valve usually employed with stationary boilers is
(A) Lever safety valve
(B) Dead weight safety valve
(C) High steam and low water safety valve
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
348. The relative heat absorption for successively added equal areas of
boiler convection heating surfaces
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
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Answer: Option B
349. The pressure of steam in the engine cylinder at the beginning of
the stroke is ________ the boiler pressure.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Higher than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
350. Adiabatic process is
(A) Essentially an isentropic process
(B) Non-heat transfer process
(C) Reversible process
(D) Constant temperature process
Answer: Option B
351. Lancashire boiler is
(A) Stationary fire tube boiler
(B) Internally fired boiler
(C) Horizontal boiler
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
352. Cochran boiler is a
(A) Horizontal fire tube boiler
(B) Horizontal water tube boiler
(C) Vertical water tube boiler
(D) Vertical fire tube boiler
Answer: Option D
353. Blow off cock in a boiler is used to
(A) Control the flow of steam from the boiler to the main pipe and to
shut off the steam completely when required
(B) Empty the boiler when required and to discharge the mud, scale or
sediments which are accumulated at the bottom of the boiler
(C) Put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the level of water in
the boiler falls to an unsafe limit
(D) Increase the temperature of saturated steam without raising its
pressure
Answer: Option B
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354. The diameter of internal flue tubes in a Lancashire boiler
compared to its shell is
(A) One-half
(B) One-third
(C) Two-fourth
(D) Two-fifth
Answer: Option D
355. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by convection
currents which are set up during the heating of water, then the boiler
is known as
(A) Internally fired boiler
(B) Externally fired boiler
(C) Natural circulation boiler
(D) Forced circulation boiler
Answer: Option C
356. Thermal efficiency of a thermal power plant is of the order of
(A) 15 %
(B) 20 %
(C) 30 %
(D) 45 %
Answer: Option C
357. The high steam and low water safety valve is not used in
(A) Cochran boiler
(B) Cornish boiler
(C) Lancashire boiler
(D) Locomotive boiler
Answer: Option D
358. Expanding steam to a very low pressure (high vacuum) in steam
engines is
(A) Desirable
(B) Economical
(C) Essential
(D) Uneconomical
Answer: Option D
359. The cylinder dimensions of a compound engine may be designed
on the basis of
(A) Equal power developed in each cylinder for uniform turning
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moment
(B) Equal initial piston loads on all pistons for obtaining same size of
piston rod, connecting rod etc. for all cylinders
(C) Equal temperature drop in each cylinder for economy of steam
Answer: Option D
360. One kilowatt-hour energy is equivalent to
(A) 1000 J
(B) 360 kJ
(C) 3600 kJ
(D) 3600 kW/sec
Answer: Option C
361. Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the fluctuating
demand of steam?
(B) Lancashire boiler
(C) Cornish boiler
Answer: Option A
362. In locomotive boiler, maximum steam pressure is limited to
(A) 1 kg/cm²
(B) 5 kg/cm²
(C) 10 kg/cm²
(D) 18 kg/cm²
Answer: Option D
363. The fire tubes in a Cochran boiler usually have _________
diameter.
(A) 6.25 mm
(B) 62.5 mm
(C) 72.5 mm
(D) 92.5 mm
Answer: Option B
364. Boiler stays are used to
(A) Prevent flat surfaces under pressure from tearing apart
(B) Take care of failure in shear
(C) Take care of failure in compression
(D) Provide support for boiler
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Answer: Option A
365. Which of the following is required for a steam condensing plant?
(A) Condenser
(B) Condensate pump
(C) Air extraction pump
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
366. Spontaneous combustion is a phenomenon in which
(A) All the fuel burns instantaneously producing high energy release
(B) Fuel burns with less air
(C) Coal bursts into flame without any external ignition source but by
itself due to gradual increase in temperature as a result of heat released by
combination of oxygen with coal
(D) Explosion in furnace
Answer: Option C
367. Fire tube boilers are limited to a maximum working pressure of
(A) 0.17 MN/m²
(B) 1.7 MN/m²
(C) 17 MN/m²
(D) 170 MN/m²
Answer: Option B
368. Tertiary air is the air used to
(C) Cool the scanners
(D) Convert CO (formed in lower zone of furnace) into CO₂ at higher
zone.
Answer: Option D
369. Desecration of feed water is carried out because it reduces
(A) Cavitation of boiler feed pumps
(B) Corrosion caused by oxygen
(C) Heat transfer coefficient
(D) pH value of water
Answer: Option B
370. The function of a safety valve is
(A) To blow off steam when the pressure of steam inside the boiler
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exceeds the working pressure
(B) To indicate the water level inside the boiler to an observer
(C) To measure pressure of steam inside the steam boiler
Answer: Option A
371. In a Woolf type compound engine, the high pressure and low
pressure cylinders
(B) Are set at 90°
(C) Have separate piston rod
Answer: Option C
372. Carbonisation of coal is the process of
(A) Pulverising coal in inert atmosphere
(B) Heating wood in a limited supply of air at temperatures below
300°C
(C) Strongly heating coal continuously for about 48 hours in the
absence of air in a closed vessel
(D) Binding the pulverised coal into briquettes
Answer: Option C
373. Cut-off ratio is the ratio of
(A) Swept volume to the volume at cut-off
(B) Volume at cut-off to the clearance volume
(D) Clearance volume to the volume at cut-off
Answer: Option C
374. The pressure at which latent heat of vaporisation of water is zero,
is
(A) Below atmospheric pressure
(B) 1 kg/cm²
(C) 100 kg/cm²
(D) 225.6 kg/cm²
Answer: Option D
375. A compound steam engine in which piston rods of high pressure
and low pressure cylinders ' are attached to two different cranks set at
180° to each other, is called
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Answer: Option C
376. Which of the following gases has the highest calorific value?
(A) Producer gas
(B) Coal gas
(C) Water gas
(D) Blast furnace gas
Answer: Option B
377. The maximum steam pressure in a Locomotive boiler is limited to
(A) 0.18 MN/m²
(B) 1.8 MN/m²
(C) 18 MN/m²
(D) 180 MN/m²
Answer: Option B
378. Fire tube boilers are those in which
(A) Flue gases pass through tubes and water around it
(B) Water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it
(D) Tubes are laid vertically
Answer: Option A
379. The ratio of heat equivalent to brake power to the energy
supplied in steam is known as
(D) Brake thermal efficiency
Answer: Option D
380. The difference between Cornish boiler and Lancashire boiler is
that
(A) Former is fire tube type and latter is water tube type boiler
(B) Former is water tube type and latter is fire tube type
(C) Former contains one fire tube and latter contains two fire tubes
(D) None/of the above
Answer: Option C
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381. The function of a piston in a steam engine is
(A) To guide motion of the piston rod and to prevent it from bending
(B) To transfer motion from the piston to the crosshead
(C) To convert heat energy of the steam into mechanical work id) to
exhaust steam from the cylinder at proper moment
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
382. The pressure of reheat steam after passing through reheater
compared to inlet condition is
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Equal
(D) May be more or less depending on capacity of reheater
Answer: Option B
383. Willian’s line for the steam engine is a straight line relationship
between the steam consumption per hour and
(A) Indicated power
(B) Brake power
(C) Efficiency
(D) Pressure of steam
Answer: Option A
384. Secondary air is the air used to
(C) Convert CO (formed in lower zone of furnace) into CO₂ at higher
zone
(D) Air delivered by induced draft fan
Answer: Option A
385. The function of a flywheel is
(A) To convert reciprocating motion of the piston into rotary motion
(B) To convert rotary motion of the crankshaft into to and fro motion
of the valve rod
(C) To prevent fluctuation of speed
(D) To keep the engine speed uniform at all load conditions
Answer: Option C
386. During storage, the heating value of coal
(A) Increases
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(B) Decreases
(C) Remain constant
(D) May increase or decrease depending upon the method of storage
Answer: Option B
387. A closed vessel made of steel and used for the generation of steam
is called a
(A) Steam boiler
(B) Steam turbine
(C) Steam condenser
(D) Steam injector
Answer: Option A
388. The shell of the Cochran boiler is made hemispherical
(A) To give maximum space and strength
(B) To withstand the pressure of steam inside the boiler
Answer: Option C
389. Sublimation region is the region where
(A) Solid and vapour phases are in equilibrium
(B) Solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium
(C) Liquid and vapour phases are in equilibrium
(D) Solid, liquid and vapour phases are in equilibrium
Answer: Option A
390. The ratio of brake power to the indicated power is known as
(D) Brake thermal efficiency
Answer: Option A
391. While steam expands in turbines, theoretically the entropy
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) Behaves unpredictably
Answer: Option A
392. A device used to put off fire in the furnace of the boiler when the
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level of water in the boiler falls to an unsafe limit, is called
(A) Blow off cock
(B) Stop valve
(C) Superheater
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
393. Water tube boilers are those in which
(A) Flue gases pass through tubes and water around it
(B) Water passes through the tubes and flue gases around it
(C) Work is done during adiabatic expansion
(D) Change in enthalpy
Answer: Option C
394. When the circulation of water, in a boiler, is by a centrifugal
pump, then the boiler is known as
(A) Internally fired boiler
(B) Externally fired boiler
(C) Natural circulation boiler
(D) Forced circulation boiler
Answer: Option D
395. Duplex feed pumps are used in small steam boilers. These operate
on the principle of
(B) Axial flow pump
(C) Gear pump
Answer: Option D
396. An economiser is installed in a boiler primarily to
(A) Superheat the steam
(B) Reduce fuel consumption
(C) Increase steam pressure
(D) All of these
Answer: Option B
397. Which type of boiler can meet rapid changes of load?
(A) Vertical fire tube type
(B) Horizontal fire tube type
(C) Horizontal water tube type
(D) Forced circulation type
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Answer: Option D
398. Besides mean effective pressure, the data required to determine
the indicated power of an engine include
(A) Piston diameter, length of stroke and calorific value of fuel
(B) Piston diameter, specific fuel consumption and Calorific value of
fuel
(C) Piston diameter, length of stroke and speed of rotation
(D) Specific fuel consumption, speed of rotation and torque
Answer: Option C
399. The basic purpose of drum in boiler is to
(A) Serve as storage of steam
(B) Serve as storage of feed water for water wall
(C) Remove salts from water
(D) Separate steam from water
Answer: Option D
400. The high pressure and low pressure cylinders in a receiver type
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
401. Steam in water tube boiler as compared to fire tube boiler
(A) Can be raised rapidly
(B) Is raised at slower rate
(C) Is raised at same rate
(D) Could be raised at fast/slow rate depending on design
Answer: Option A
402. When the speed of the engine is controlled by means of a valve in
a steam pipe, which regulates the pressure of steam entering the
engine, then the governing is known as
(A) Throttle governing
(B) Cut-off governing
(C) By-pass governing
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
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403. Proximate analysis of fuel is determination of percentage of
(A) Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, moisture
(B) Fixed carbon, ash, volatile matter, moisture
(C) Higher calorific value
(D) Lower calorific value
Answer: Option B
404. A valve installed between the boiler and the feed pump is
(A) Blow off cock
(B) Feed check valve
(C) Steam stop valve
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
405. Evaporative capacity of boiler is expressed as
(A) kg of steam produced
(B) Steam pressure produced
(C) kg of fuel fired
(D) kg of steam produced per kg of fuel fifed
Answer: Option D
406. A device in which some portion of waste heat of flue gases is
recovered to heat the air before it passes to the furnace for combustion
purpose, is known as
(A) Superheater
(B) Air-preheater
(C) Economiser
(D) Injector
Answer: Option B
407. The specific volume of steam with increase in pressure decreases
(A) Linearly
(B) Slowly first and then rapidly
(C) Rapidly first and then slowly
(D) Inversely
Answer: Option C
408. When the total heat of steam is h kJ/kg and the sensible heat of
feed water is hf1 kJ/kg, then the factor of evaporation is given by
(A) (h - hf1)/2257
(B) (h + hf1)/2257
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(C) (h × hf1)/2257
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
409. The evaporation of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at
100°C is called
(A) Evaporative capacity
(B) Factor of evaporation
(C) Equivalent evaporation
(D) One boiler h.p.
Answer: Option D
410. Which of the following are boiler accessories?
(A) Economiser
(B) Superheater
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
411. Lancashire boiler is of
(A) Stationary < fire tube type
(B) Horizontal type
(C) Natural circulation type
Answer: Option D
412. The actual power generated in the engine cylinder is called
(A) Indicated power
(B) Brake power
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
413. In regenerative air preheaters, the heat is transferred
(A) From a metal wall from one medium to another
(B) From heating an intermediate material and then heating the air
from this material
(C) By direct mixing
(D) Heat is transferred by bleeding some gas from furnace
Answer: Option B
414. In case of non-condensing steam engines, the pressure of steam in
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the cylinder during exhaust stroke is _________ the condenser
pressure.
(A) Equal to
(B) Lower than
(C) Higher than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
415. Alkaline pyrogallate is used in Orsat's apparatus for absorption
of
(A) CO₂
(B) CO
(C) O₂
(D) N₂
Answer: Option C
416. The draught produced by a steam jet issuing from a nozzle placed
in the ash-pit under the fire grate of the furnace is called
(A) Induced steam jet draught
(B) Chimney draught
(C) Forced steam jet draught
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
417. Equivalent evaporation is the amount of water evaporated in a
boiler from and at
(A) 0°C
(B) 100°C
(C) Saturation temperature at given pressure
(D) Room temperature
Answer: Option B
418. The diameter of Cornish boiler varies from
(A) 0.5 to 1 m
(B) 1 to 2 m
(C) 1.25 to 2.5 m
(D) 2 to 3 m
Answer: Option B
419. In a throttling process
(A) Heat transfer takes place
(B) Work is done by the expanding steam
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(C) Internal energy of steam changes
Answer: Option D
420. A device used in a boiler to control the flow of steam from the
boiler to the main pipe and to shut off the steam completely when
required, is known as
(A) Blow off cock
(B) Fusible plug
(C) Superheater
(D) Stop valve
Answer: Option D
421. The length of Cornish boiler is of the order of
(A) 24 m
(B) 35 m
(C) 57.5 m
(D) 79 m
Answer: Option C
422. The forced circulation of water does not take place in
(A) LaMont boiler
(B) Lancashire boiler
(C) Velox boiler
(D) Benson boiler
Answer: Option B
423. A fusible plug is fitted in small boilers in order to
(A) Avoid excessive build up of pressure
(B) Avoid explosion
(C) Extinguish fire if water level in the boiler falls below alarming
limit
(D) Control steam dome
Answer: Option C
(A) The factor of evaporation for all boilers is always greater than
unity.
(B) The amount of water evaporated in kg per kg of fuel burnt is called
equivalent evaporation from and at 100° C.
(C) The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat
liberated in the furnace is called boiler efficiency.
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Answer: Option D
425. Sulphur in coal results in
(A) Corroding air heaters
(B) Spontaneous combustion during coal storage
(C) Facilitating ash precipitation
Answer: Option D
426. Lancashire boiler has __________ internal flue tubes.
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer: Option B
427. For the same diameter and thickness of tube, a water tube boiler
compared to a fire tube boiler has
(A) More heating surface
(B) Less heating surface
(C) Equal heating surface
(D) Heating surface depends on other parameters
Answer: Option A
428. The amount of water evaporated in kg per kg of fuel burnt is
called
(A) Evaporative capacity of a boiler
(B) Equivalent evaporation from and at 100° C
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
429. Heating of dry steam above saturation temperature is known as
(A) Enthalpy
(B) Superheating
(C) Super saturation
(D) Latent heat
Answer: Option B
430. The function of a piston rod is
(A) To guide motion of the piston rod and to prevent it from bending
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(B) To transfer motion from the piston to the cross head
(C) To convert heat energy of the steam into mechanical work
(D) To exhaust steam from the cylinder at proper moment
Answer: Option B
431. At which pressure the properties of water and steam become
identical
(A) 0.1 kg/cm²
(B) 1 kg/cm²
(C) 100 kg/cm²
(D) 225.6 kg/cm²
Answer: Option D
432. The actual power supplied by the engine crankshaft is called
(A) Indicated power
(B) Brake power
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
433. The diameter of cylindrical shell of the Lancashire boiler is of the
order of
(A) 1 to 1.25m
(B) 1 to 1.75 m
(C) 2 to 4 m
(D) 1.75 to 2.75 m.
Answer: Option D
434. The length of Lancashire boiler varies from
(A) 5 to 6 m
(B) 6 to 7 m
(C) 7.25 to 9 m
(D) 9 to 10 m
Answer: Option C
435. The radius of a dished head is taken approximately as
(A) One fourth
(B) Half
(C) One
(D) Two
Answer: Option C
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436. Fire tube boilers are
(A) Internally fired
(B) Externally fired
(C) Internally as well as externally fired
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
437. Bomb calorimeter is used to determine
(A) Higher calorific value at constant volume
(B) Lower calorific value at constant volume
(C) Higher calorific value at constant pressure
(D) Lower calorific value at constant pressure
Answer: Option A
438. The clearance in the engine cylinder
(A) Increases the mean effective pressure
(B) Increases the workdone
(C) Decreases the efficiency of the engine
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
439. Over fire burning is the phenomenon of
(A) Supply of excess, air
(B) Supply of excess coal
(C) Burning CO and unburnts in upper zone of furnace by supplying
more air
(D) Fuel bed firing
Answer: Option C
440. The length of Cornish boiler varies from
(A) 2 to 4.5 m
(B) 3 to 5 m
(C) 5 to 7.5 m
(D) 7 to 9 m
Answer: Option C
441. Hard coke is produced by carburisation of coal at
(A) Atmospheric temperature
(B) 500-600°C
(C) 700-850°C
(D) 950-1100°C
Answer: Option D
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442. The water tubes in a simple vertical boiler are
(A) Horizontal
(B) Vertical
(C) Inclined
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
443. The dry saturated steam at very high pressure (150200 kg/cm²)
when throttled to atmosphere will become
(A) Wet
(B) Superheated
(C) Remain dry saturated
(D) Dry
Answer: Option A
(A) Lancashire boiler is a fire tube boiler.
(B) Fire tube boilers are internally fired.
(C) Babcock and Wilcox boiler is a water tube boiler.
Answer: Option D
445. The best suited coal for chain or travelling grate stoker boiler is
(A) Coking coal
(B) Non-coking or free burning coal
(C) Pulverised coal
(D) High sulphur coal
Answer: Option B
446. The mechanical draught _________ with the amount of smoke.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Does not effect
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
447. O₂ content in atmospheric air on volume basis is
(A) 21 %
(B) 23 %
(C) 30 %
(D) 40 %
Answer: Option A
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448. The natural draught is produced by
(A) Steam jet
(B) Centrifugal fan
(C) Chimney
Answer: Option C
449. Boiler parameters are expressed by
(A) Tonnes/hr. of steam
(B) Pressure of steam in kg/cm²
(C) Temperature of steam in °C
Answer: Option D
450. In forced circulation steam boilers, the force is applied
(A) To draw water
(B) To circulate water
(C) To drain off the water
(D) All of these
Answer: Option B
451. The coal requirement per kW hour generation in the thermal
power plant is of the order of
(A) 0.1 to 0.2 kg
(B) 0.2 to 0.4 kg
(C) 0.6 to 0.8 kg
(D) 1.0 to 1.5 kg
Answer: Option C
452. The diameter of flue tube in a Cornish boiler is _________ that of
the shell.
(A) One-fourth
(B) One-third
(C) Two-fifth
(D) Three-fifth
Answer: Option D
453. During polytropic process
(A) Heat transfer takes place across cylinder walls
(B) Work is done
(C) Steam may be wet, dry or superheated after expansion
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Answer: Option D
454. The ratio of the clearance volume to the swept volume is called
(A) Cut-off ratio
(B) Expansion ratio
(C) Clearance ratio
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
455. The fusible plug in small boilers is located
(A) In the drum
(B) In the fire tubes
(C) Above steam dome
(D) Over the combustion chamber
Answer: Option D
456. The rate of steam produced in Benson boiler is
(A) 100 tonnes/h
(B) 135 tonnes/h
(C) 175 tonnes/h
(D) 250 tonnes/h
Answer: Option B
457. Incomplete combustion can be best judged by
(A) Smoky chimney exit
(B) Excess air in flue gases
(C) Measuring carbon monoxide in flue gases
(D) Measuring temperature of flue gases at exit of furnace
Answer: Option C
458. Which of the following boiler works on a forced circulation of
water?
(A) Lamont boiler
(B) Benson boiler
(C) Loeffler boiler
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
459. Hygrometry deals with the
(A) Hygroscopic substances
(B) Water vapour in air
(C) Temperature of air
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(D) Pressure of air
Answer: Option B
460. The length of shell of a Locomotive boiler is
(A) 1 m
(B) 2 m
(C) 3 m
(D) 4 m
Answer: Option D
461. The number of drums in Benson steam generator is
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) One steam drum and one water drum
(D) No drum
Answer: Option D
462. The chimney draught varies with
(A) Climatic conditions
(B) Temperature of furnace gases
(C) Height of chimney
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
463. Pick up wrong statement about desired properties of a good fuel
(A) High calorific value
(B) Produce minimum smoke and gases
(C) Ease in storing
(D) High ignition point
Answer: Option D
464. Benson boiler requires
(A) No drum
(B) One drum
(C) Two drums
(D) Three drums
Answer: Option A
465. Natural water circulation, by convection in water tube boilers,
with increase in pressure of boiler
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
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Answer: Option B
466. The shell diameter of a Locomotive boiler is
(A) 1 m
(B) 1.5 m
(C) 2 m
(D) 2.5 m
Answer: Option B
467. The equivalent evaporation of a boiler is a measure to compare
(A) The given boiler with the model
(B) The two different boilers of the same make
(C) Two different makes of boilers operating under the same operating
conditions
(D) Any type of boilers operating under any conditions
Answer: Option D
468. Water at pressure of 4 kg/cm² and 160°C temperature when
exposed to atmosphere will
(A) Boil
(B) Flash i.e. get converted into steam
(C) Remain as it was
(D) Cool down
Answer: Option B
469. Locomotive type' boiler is
(A) Horizontal multi-tubular water tube boiler
(B) Water wall enclosed furnace type
(C) Vertical tubular fire tube type
(D) Horizontal multi-tubular fire tube type
Answer: Option D
470. The function of injector used in small steam plants is to
(A) Create vacuum in furnace
(B) Create vacuum at turbine exhaust
(C) Pump feed water
(D) Dose chemicals in feed water
Answer: Option C
471. The function of injector used in small capacity boilers is to
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(A) Create vacuum
(B) Inject chemical solution in feed pump
(C) Pump water, similar to boiler feed pump
(D) Add make up water in the system
Answer: Option C
472. Caking coals are those which
(A) Form lumps or masses of coke
(B) Burn freely
(C) Show little or no fusing action
(D) Burn completely
Answer: Option A
473. The balanced draft furnace is one using
(A) Induced draft fan and chimney
(B) Induced draft fan and forced draft fan
(C) Forced draft fan and chimney
Answer: Option B
474. Reheating of steam under ideal conditions takes place at constant
(A) Entropy
(B) Enthalpy
(C) Pressure
(D) Temperature
Answer: Option D
475. If a steam sample is nearly in dry condition, then its dryness
fraction can be most accurately determined by
(A) Throttling calorimeter
(B) Separating calorimeter
(C) Combined separating and throttling calorimeter
(D) Bucket calorimeter
Answer: Option A
476. The specific heat of superheated steam in kcal/kg is generally of
the order of
(A) 0.1
(B) 0.3
(C) 0.5
(D) 0.8
Answer: Option C
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477. On Mollier chart, flow through turbine is represented by
(C) Straight inclined line
(D) Curved line
Answer: Option B
478. A wet vapour can be completely specified by
(A) Pressure only
(B) Temperature only
(C) Dryness fraction only
(D) Pressure and dryness fraction
Answer: Option D
479. Water boils when its vapour pressure
(A) Equals that of the surroundings
(B) Equals 760 mm of mercury
(C) Equals to atmospheric pressure
(D) Equals the pressure of water in the container
Answer: Option A
480. An ideal regenerative cycle is
(A) Equal to Carnot cycle
(B) Less than Carnot cycle
(C) More than Carnot cycle
Answer: Option B
481. The diameter of fire tube of Cornish boiler compared to its shell
is
(A) One half
(B) One third
(C) One fourth
(D) One fifth
Answer: Option A
482. The number of flue tubes in Lancashire boiler is
(A) Zero
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Four
Answer: Option C
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483. The fire tubes in, a Coarran and Scottish marine boiler are
(A) Horizontal
(B) Vertical
(C) Inclined
(D) Both horizontal and vertical
Answer: Option A
484. A boiler in India should conform to safety regulations of
(A) DIN
(B) BS
(C) ASTM
(D) IBR
Answer: Option D
485. Thermal efficiency of well maintained boiler will be of the order
(A) 40 %
(B) 50 %
(C) 75 %
(D) 90 %
Answer: Option D
486. Size of boiler tubes is specified by
(A) Mean diameter and thickness
(B) Inside diameter and thickness
(C) Outside diameter and thickness
(D) Outside diameter and inside diameter
Answer: Option C
487. The diameter of fire tubes in Cochran boiler is of the order of
(A) 2 cm
(B) 6 cm
(C) 8 cm
(D) 12 cm
Answer: Option B
488. Gusset stays in a boiler are provided to
(A) Prevent the bulging of flat surfaces
(B) Avoid explosion in furnace
(C) Prevent leakage of hot flue gases
(D) Support furnace freely from top
Answer: Option A
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489. Pulverised fuel is used for
(A) Better burning
(B) More calorific value
(C) Less radiation loss
(D) Medium sized units
Answer: Option A
490. Calorific value of coal is of the order of
(A) 200-400 kcal/ kg
(B) 800-1200 kcal/ kg
(C) 2000-4000 kcal/ kg
(D) 5000-8000 kcal/ kg
Answer: Option C
Steam Boilers, Engines,

Nozzles & Turbines: Test 01
01. The water tube boilers produce steam at a ________ pressure than
that of fire tube boilers.
(A) Lower
(B) Higher
02. When the expansion of steam is carried out in a single cylinder and
then exhausted into the atmosphere or a condenser, the engine is said
to be a simple steam engine.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
03. The clearance in the engine cylinder has no effect on the steam
consumption.
(A) True
(B) False
04. In a Lamont boiler, there is a _________ circulation of water and
steam.
(A) Forced
(B) Natural
05. Locomotive boiler produces steam at a very high rate.
(A) Yes
(B) No
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06. The capacity and working pressure of a Cornish boiler is
_________ as compared to Lancashire boiler.
(A) Low
(B) High
07. The rate of flow of steam is _________ in case of fire tube boilers.
(A) Less
(B) More
08. In surface condensers, the condensate and the cooling water mixes
up.
(A) True
(B) False
09. Combustion of fuel takes place _________ the engine cylinder of a
steam engine.
(A) Outside
(B) Inside
10. Babcock and Wilcox boiler is a stationary type of water tube
boiler.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
11. A Cochran boiler is a horizontal multi-tubular boiler.
(A) Yes
(B) No
12. A condenser maintains a low pressure (below atmospheric) so as to
obtain the maximum possible energy from steam and thus to secure a
high efficiency.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
13. The amount of water evaporated from and at 100° C into dry and
saturated steam is called evaporative capacity of a boiler.
(A) Yes
(B) No
14. The difference between the atmospheric pressure and the absolute
pressure is known as vacuum in a condenser.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
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15. There is about 15 to 20% of coal saving when an economiser is
used in a boiler.
(A) True
(B) False
16. A water level indicator is a device to indicate the exact water level
in the boiler at any instant.
(A) True
(B) False
17. A receiver type compound engine requires a lighter flywheel.
(A) Yes
(B) No
18. A device used to empty the boiler whenever required and to
discharge the mud, scale or sediments which are accumulated at the
bottom of the boiler, is called blow off cock.
(A) Yes
(B) No
19. The crown of the fire box is made hemispherical in order to resist
intense heat in the fire box.
(A) True
(B) False
20. The ratio of heat actually used in producing the steam to the heat
liberated in the furnace is known as equivalent evaporation from and
at 100° C.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
Answers: Steam Boilers, Engines, Nozzles & Turbines Test 01


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01. In a double acting steam engine, the steam is admitted on one side
of the piston and two working strokes are produced during each
revolution of the crankshaft.
(A) Yes
(B) No
02. In a compound steam engine, the temperature range per cylinder
is reduced, with corresponding reduction in the condensation.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
03. The damper in a steam boiler is provided to control the draught
(i.e. rate of flow of air) and thus regulate the rate of generation of
steam.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
04. Water tube boilers produce steam at a _________ pressure than
that of fire tube boilers.
(A) Lower
(B) Higher
05. The missing quantity is mainly due to cylinder condensation and a
small amount of steam leakage past the valves and piston.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
06. The evaporative capacity of a boiler is defined as the evaporation
of 15.653 kg of water per hour from and at 100° C.
(A) Yes
(B) No
07. The function of a connecting rod is not to convert reciprocating
motion of the piston into rotary motion.
(A) True
(B) False
08. A single ended Scotch marine steam boiler may have one to four
furnaces which enter from front end of the boiler.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
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09. The function of a superheater is to heat the feed water by utilising
the heat in the exhaust flue gases before leaving through the chimney.
(A) Yes
(B) No
10. The effect of wire drawing is to decrease the area of indicator
diagram and thus work done by the engine is reduced.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
11. The amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg per kg
of fuel burnt is known as power of a boiler.
(A) True
(B) False
12. The function of a D-slide valve is to exhaust steam from the
cylinder at proper moment.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
13. In water tube boilers, the water passes through the tubes which are
surrounded by flames and hot gases.
(A) Yes
(B) No
14. The amount of water evaporated or steam produced in kg per kg
of fuel burnt is termed as evaporative capacity of a boiler.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
15. The governing of steam engines keeps the engine speed constant
according to the changing load conditions
(A) Yes
(B) No
16. Willian’s law holds good for throttle-governed engine, but not for
cut-off governed engine.
(A) True
(B) False
17. Benson boiler is a ________ water tube steam boiler using forced
circulation of water.
(A) Low pressure
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(B) High pressure
18. The draught is the __________ of pressures above and below the
fire grate.
(A) Sum
(B) Difference
19. A compound steam engine requires a heavier flywheel than simple
steam engines.
(A) True
(B) False
20. The function of an eccentric is to provide _________ motion to the
slide valve.
(A) Reciprocating
(B) Rotary

17. Answer: B 18. Answer: B 19. Answer: B 20. Answer: A

01. The pressure at which the steam leaves the nozzle is known as back
pressure.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
02. The turbine, in which the general direction of the steam flow is
parallel to the turbine axis, is called axial flow turbines.
(A) True
(B) False
03. The blade velocity coefficient is ratio of relative velocity of steam
at outlet tip of the blade to the relative velocity of steam at inlet tip of
the blade.
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(A) True
(B) False
04. The critical pressure ratio for initially dry saturated steam is more
as compared to initially wet steam.
(A) Yes
(B) No
05. In a De-Laval impulse turbine, the nozzle is kept very close to the
blades.
(A) Yes
(B) No
06. The ratio of the work delivered at the turbine shaft to the heat
supplied is called overall thermal efficiency of turbine.
(A) True
(B) False
07. The velocity of steam, in reaction turbines, is increased in the fixed
blades as well as in moving blades.
(A) True
(B) False
08. When the cross-section of a nozzle first increases from its entrance
to throat, and then decreases from its throat to exit, it is not a
convergent-divergent nozzle.
(A) Yes
(B) No
09. In a convergent divergent nozzle, the discharge depends upon the
initial conditions of steam and the area of nozzle at throat.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
10. The efficiency ratio is the ratio of total useful heat drop to the total
isentropic heat drop.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
11. In a single stage impulse turbine, the velocity of steam
approaching nozzles is negligible.
(A) True
(B) False
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12. The ratio of the cumulative heat drop to the isentropic heat drop is
called reheat factor.
(A) Yes
(B) No
13. The Rankine efficiency depends upon total useful heat drop and
total isentropic heat drop.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
14. The discharge through a nozzle is maximum for a certain value of
exit pressure.
This pressure is known as critical pressure.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
15. The pressure of steam, in reaction turbines, is reduced in the fixed
blades as well as in moving blades.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
16. The ratio of the energy supplied to the blades per kg of steam to
the total energy supplied per stage per kg of steam is called
mechanical efficiency.
(A) Yes
(B) No
17. In a nozzle, the effect of super-saturation is to increase the dryness
fraction of steam.
(A) Yes
(B) No
18. In pressure compounding of an impulse turbine, the total pressure
drop of the steam does not take place in the first nozzle ring, but is
divided equally among all the nozzle rings.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
19. During flow through a nozzle, no heat is supplied or rejected by
the steam.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
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20. In velocity compounding of an impulse turbine, the expansion of
steam takes place in a nozzle or a set of nozzles from the boiler
pressure to condenser pressure.
(A) True
(B) False

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Workshop Technology:
01. The welding set up is said to have straight polarity, when
(A) Work is connected to the positive terminal and the electrode holder
to the negative terminal
(B) Work is connected to the negative terminal and the electrode
holder to the positive terminal
(C) Work is connected to the positive terminal and the electrode holder
is earthed
(D) Work is connected to the negative terminal and the electrode
holder is earthed
Answer: Option A
02. In a bilateral system of tolerance, the tolerance is allowed on
(A) One side of the actual size
(B) One side of the nominal size
(C) Both sides of the actual size
Answer: Option D
03. A two high rolling mill consists of two rolls which rotate
(A) At the same speed and in the same direction
(B) At the same speed but in opposite direction
(C) At different speeds and in the same direction
(D) At different speeds and in the opposite direction
Answer: Option B
04. Sand wash is a casting defect which
(A) Results in a mismatching of the top and bottom parts of a casting
(B) Results in general enlargement of the casting
(C) Occurs near the ingates as rough lumps on the surface of a casting
(D) Occurs as sand patches on the upper surface of a casting
Answer: Option C
05. In a unilateral system of tolerance, the tolerance is allowed on
(A) One side of the actual size
(B) One side of the nominal size
(C) Both sides of the actual size
Answer: Option B
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06. Projection welding is a
(A) Continuous spot welding process
(B) Multi-spot welding process
(C) Arc welding process
(D) Process used for joining round bars
Answer: Option B
07. The cold working of metals is carried out
(A) At the recrystallisation temperature
(B) Below the recrystallisation temperature
(C) Above the recrystallisation temperature
(D) At any temperature
Answer: Option B
08. In a simple die
(A) Two or more operations are performed simultaneously at the
single stroke of the ram
(B) Two or more cutting operations are performed at one station of the
press in every stroke of the ram
(C) Both cutting and non-cutting operations are performed at one
station of the press in every stroke of the ram
Answer: Option D
09. To prevent the body of the blade from jamming in the saw cut, the
teeth of blade are
(A) Strengthened
(B) Sharpened
(C) Set
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
10. The operation of straightening a curved sheet metal, is known as
(A) Drawing
(B) Squeezing
(C) Coining
(D) Planishing
Answer: Option D
11. The flux commonly used in brazing is
(A) Zinc chloride
(B) Ammonium chloride
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(C) Rosin plus alcohol
(D) Borax
Answer: Option D
12. Scribing block is used to
(A) Hold the round bars during marking
(B) Check the trueness of flat surfaces
(C) Locate the centres of round bars
(D) Check the surface roughness
Answer: Option C
13. The algebraic difference between the maximum limit and the basic
size is called
(A) Actual deviation
(B) Upper deviation
(C) Lower deviation
(D) Fundamental deviation
Answer: Option B
14.Linde welding uses
(A) Neutral flame and rightward technique
(B) Oxidising flame and leftward technique
(C) Neutral flame and leftward technique
(D) Carburising flame and rightward technique
Answer: Option D
15. A hacksaw blade cuts on the
(A) Forward stroke
(B) Return stroke
(C) Both forward and return strokes
(D) Cutting depends upon the direction of force
Answer: Option A
16. The edge of a steel plate cut by oxygen cutting will get hardened
when the carbon content is
(A) Less than 0.1 percent
(B) Less than 0.3 percent
(C) More than 0.3 percent
(D) Anywhere between 0.1 to 1 percent
Answer: Option C
17. Shift is a casting defect which
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(A) Results in a mismatching of the top and bottom parts of a casting
(B) Results in general enlargement of a casting
(C) Occurs near the ingates as rough lumps on the surface of a casting
(D) Occurs as sand patches on the upper surface of a casting
Answer: Option A
18. When a hole or cavity to be cored is not in line with the parting
surface, then a ________ is used.
(A) Horizontal core
(B) Vertical core
(C) Drop core
(D) Balanced core
Answer: Option C
19. The adhesiveness is the property of sand due to which
(A) It evolves a great amount of steam and other gases
(B) The sand grains stick together
(C) It clings to the sides of a moulding box
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
20. In sheet metal work, he cutting force on the tool can be reduced by
(A) Grinding the cutting edges sharp
(B) Increasing the hardness of tool
(C) Providing shear on tool
(D) Increasing the hardness of die
Answer: Option A
(A) The mortise gauge has two scribing pins
(B) The gouges are chisels with a hollow shaped blade
(C) An auger is a planing tool
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
22. The mode of deformation of the metal during spinning is
(A) Bending
(B) Stretching
(C) Rolling and stretching
(D) Bending and stretching
Answer: Option D
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23. In forehand welding, the weld is made
(A) From left to right
(B) From right to left
(C) First from left to right and then from right to left
(D) Either from left to right or from right to left
Answer: Option B
24. The temperature at which the new grains are formed in the metal
is called
(A) Lower critical temperature
(B) Upper critical temperature
(C) Eutectic temperature
(D) Recrystallisation temperature
Answer: Option D
25. The surface to be left unmachined is marked on the pattern by
(A) Red colour
(B) Yellow colour
(C) Black colour
(D) Blue colour
Answer: Option C
26. A three high rolling mill consists of three rolls placed one above
the other. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) The upper and middle rolls rotate in the same direction whereas
the bottom roll rotates in opposite direction
(B) The upper and bottom rolls rotate in the same direction whereas
the middle roll rotates in opposite direction
(C) The bottom and middle roll rotate in the same direction
Answer: Option B
27. The metal extrusion process is generally used for producing
(A) Uniform solid sections
(B) Uniform hollow sections
(C) Uniform solid and hollow sections
(D) Varying solid and hollow sections
Answer: Option C
28. A jolt machine is used to
(A) Ram the sand harder at the pattern face with decreasing hardness
towards the back of the mould
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(B) Ram the sand harder at the back of the mould and softer on the
pattern face
(C) Produce uniform sand hardness throughout the mould
(D) Produce uniform packing of sand in the mould
Answer: Option A
29. In a ________, two or more operations are performed
simultaneously at the single stroke of the ram.
(A) Simple die
(B) Progressive die
(C) Combination die
(D) Compound die
Answer: Option B
30. The operation of bending a sheet of metal along a curved axis, is
known as
(A) Plunging
(B) Notching
(C) Slitting
(D) Forming
Answer: Option D
31. The property of sand due to which the sand grains stick together is
called
(A) Collapsibility
(B) Permeability
(C) Cohesiveness
(D) Adhesiveness
Answer: Option C
32. If an aluminium pattern made from a wooden master pattern is to
be used for grey iron castings, then the shrinkage allowance allowed
on the wooden pattern should be
(A) 10 mm/m
(B) 16 mm/m
(C) 20 mm/m
(D) 26 mm/m
Answer: Option D
(A) The angular clearance on dies varies from 0.5° to 1°
(B) In drawing operation, the metal flows due to plasticity
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(C) In press operation, the size of the pierced hole is independent of
the size of punch
Answer: Option D
34. The cross-section of a chisel is usually
(A) Rectangular
(B) Square
(C) Hexagonal
(D) Octagonal
Answer: Option D
35. In backhand welding, the angle between the welding rod and the
work is ________ as compared to forehand welding.
(A) Same
(B) Less
(C) More
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
36. A zinc diffusion process is called
(A) Galvanising
(B) Anodising
(C) Parkerising
(D) Sherardizing
Answer: Option D
37. The hot working of metals is carried out
(A) At the recrystallisation temperature
(B) Below the recrystallisation temperature
(C) Above the recrystallisation temperature
(D) At any temperature
Answer: Option C
38. In order to check the clearance between two mating surfaces, a
________ gauge should be used.
(A) Ring
(B) Plug
(C) Feeler
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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39. Seam welding is best adopted for metal thickness ranging from
(A) 0.025 to 3 mm
(B) 3 to 5 mm
(C) 5 to 8 mm
(D) 8 to 10 mm
Answer: Option A
40. In a cold chamber die casting machine
(A) Melting pot is separate from the machine
(B) Melting pot is an integral part of the machine
(C) Melting pot may have any location
(D) Low temperature and pressure is used
Answer: Option A
41. Cutting and forming operations can be performed in a single
operation in a
(A) Simple die
(B) Progressive die
(C) Compound die
(D) Combination die
Answer: Option D
42. The process of decreasing the cross-section of a bar and increasing
its length, is called
(A) Drawing down
(B) Upsetting
(C) Spinning
(D) Peening
Answer: Option A
43. When more volume of acetylene and less volume of oxygen is
supplied, then a ________ flame is obtained.
(A) Neutral
(B) Oxidising
(C) Carburising
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
44. Metal patterns are used for
(A) Small castings
(B) Large castings
(C) Complicated castings
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(D) Large scale production of castings
Answer: Option D
45. Structural sections such as rails, angles, I-beams are made by
(A) Hot rolling
(B) Hot drawing
(C) Hot piercing
(D) Hot extrusion
Answer: Option A
46. The teeth of hacksaw blade are bent
(A) Towards right
(B) Towards left
(C) Alternately towards right and left and every third or fourth left
straight
(D) May be bent in any direction
Answer: Option C
47. Loam sand is a mixture of
(A) 30% sand and 70% clay
(B) 50% sand and 50% clay
(C) 70% sand and 30% clay
(D) 90% sand and 10% clay
Answer: Option B
48. The advantage of Thermit welding is that
(A) All parts of the weld section are molten at the same time
(B) Weld cools almost uniformly
(C) Results in a minimum problem with internal residual stresses
Answer: Option D
49. Which one of the following material will require the largest size of
riser for the same size of casting?
(A) Aluminium
(B) Cast iron
(C) Steel
(D) Copper
Answer: Option C
50. The welding process used in joining mild steel shanks to high speed
drills, is
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(A) Spot welding
(B) Seam welding
(C) Flash butt welding
(D) Upset butt welding
Answer: Option C
51. When the molten metal is fed in the cavity of a metallic mould by
gravity, the method of casting is known as
(A) Die casting method
(B) Slush casting method
(C) Permanent mould casting method
(D) Centrifugal casting method
Answer: Option C
52. Lancing is the operation of
(A) Cutting a sheet of metal in a straight line along the length
(B) Removal of metal to the desired shape from the edge of a plate
(C) Cutting a sheet of metal through part of its length and then bending
the cut portion
(D) Bending a sheet of metal along a curved axis
Answer: Option C
53. The chisel used for cutting key ways is
(A) Flat chisel
(B) Cape chisel
(C) Round nose chisel
(D) Diamond pointed chisel
Answer: Option B
54. According to Indian standards, the total numbers of tolerance
grades are
(A) 8
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 20
Answer: Option C
55. The metal patterns as compared to wooden patterns require less
(A) Shrinkage allowance
(B) Machining allowance
(C) Draft allowance
(D) Distortion allowance
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Answer: Option C
56. In blanking operation, the clearance is provided on
(A) Punch
(B) Die
(C) Half on the punch and half on the die
(D) Either on punch or die depending upon designer's choice
Answer: Option A
57. For gas welding, the pressure desired at the welding torch for
oxygen is
(A) 7 to 103 kN/m²
(B) 70 to 280 kN/m²
(C) 280 to 560 kN/m²
(D) 560 to 840 kN/m²
Answer: Option B
58. For gas welding, the pressure desired at the welding torch for
acetylene is
(A) 7 to 103 kN/m²
(B) 70 to 280 kN/m²
(C) 280 to 560 kN/m²
(D) 560 to 840 kN/m²
Answer: Option A
59. In welding magnesium with TIG arc welding, direct current with
_________ is used.
(A) Straight polarity
(B) Reversed polarity
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
60. In welding copper alloys with TIG arc welding
(A) Direct current with straight polarity is used
(B) Direct current with reversed polarity is used
(C) Alternating current is used
Answer: Option A
61. The draft or taper allowance on casting is generally
(A) 1 to 2 mm/m
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(B) 2 to 5 mm/m
(C) 5 to 10 mm/m
(D) 10 to 15 mm/m
Answer: Option A
62. Thermit, used in Thermit welding, is a mixture of
(A) Charcoal and iron oxide
(B) Charcoal and aluminium
(C) Iron oxide and aluminium
(D) Charcoal, iron oxide and aluminium
Answer: Option C
63. The process of increasing the cross-section of a bar at the expense
of its length, is called
(A) Drawing down
(B) Upsetting
(C) Spinning
(D) Peening
Answer: Option B
64. For welding plates of thickness less than 5 mm, its edges
(A) Do not require bevelling
(B) Should be bevelled to a single-V or U-groove
(C) Should have a double-V or U-groove on one side
(D) Should have a double-V or U-groove on both sides
Answer: Option A
65. Which of the following welding process uses non-consumable
electrodes?
(A) TIG welding
(B) MIG welding
(C) Manual arc welding
Answer: Option A
66. The material which can be best cut with oxygen cutting process is
(A) Mild steel
(B) Brass
(C) Copper
(D) Aluminium
Answer: Option A
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67. Swab is used for
(A) Smoothing and cleaning out depressions in the mould
(B) Cleaning the moulding sand
(C) Moistening the sand around the edge before removing pattern
(D) Reinforcement of sand in the top part of the moulding box
Answer: Option C
68. For arc welding
(A) Alternating current with high frequency is used
(B) Alternating current with low frequency is used
(C) Direct current is used
Answer: Option C
69. A file removes the metal during
(A) Forward stroke
(B) Return stroke
(C) Both forward and return strokes
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
70. Riddle is used for
(A) Smoothing and cleaning out depressions in the mould
(B) Cleaning the moulding sand
(C) Moistening the sand around the edge before removing pattern
(D) Reinforcement of sand in the top part of moulding box
Answer: Option B
71. The purpose of a gate is to
(A) Delivers molten metal into the mould cavity
(B) Act as a reservoir for the molten metal
(C) Feed the molten metal to the casting in order to compensate for the
shrinkage
(D) Delivers molten metal from pouring basin to gate
Answer: Option A
72. The oxyacetylene gas used in gas welding produce a flame
temperature of
(A) 1800°C
(B) 2100°C
(C) 2400°C
(D) 3200°C
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Answer: Option D
73. In order to produce uniform packing of sand in the moulds, a
__________ is used.
(A) Sand slinger
(B) Squeezing machine
(C) Jolt machine
(D) Stripper plate machine
Answer: Option A
74. Carburising flame is used to weld
(A) Steel, cast iron, copper, aluminium etc
(B) Brass and bronze
(C) Hard surfacing materials such as stellite
(D) All of these
Answer: Option C
75. A basic shaft is one whose
(A) Lower deviation is zero
(B) Upper deviation is zero
(C) Lower and upper deviations are zero
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
76. In piercing operation, the clearance is provided on
(A) Punch
(B) Die
(C) Half on the punch and half on the die
(D) Either on punch or die depending upon designer's choice
Answer: Option B
77. The brass and bronze are welded by _________ flame.
(A) Neutral
(B) Oxidising
(C) Carburising
(D) All of these
Answer: Option B
78. The accuracy of micrometers, calipers, dial indicators can be
checked by a
(A) Feeler gauge
(B) Slip gauge
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(C) Ring gauge
(D) Plug gauge
Answer: Option B
79. For obtaining a cup of diameter 25 mm and height 15 mm by
drawing, the size of the round blank should be approximately
(A) 42 mm
(B) 44 mm
(C) 46 mm
(D) 48 mm
Answer: Option C
80. Most of the oxyacetylene welding is done with
(A) Neutral flame
(B) Oxidising flame
(C) Carburising flame
(D) All of these
Answer: Option A
81. The upsetting is a process of
(A) Increasing the cross-section of a bar
(B) Reducing the cross-section of a bar
(C) Joining the two surfaces of metal under pressure after heating
(D) Bending of a bar
Answer: Option A
82. Lap joints are employed on plates having thickness
(A) Less than 3 mm
(B) 5 to 10 mm
(C) 12.5 mm
(D) Above 25 mm
Answer: Option A
83. The difference between the upper limit and lower limit of a
dimension is called
(A) Nominal size
(B) Basic size
(C) Actual size
(D) Tolerance
Answer: Option D
84. When the dimension is expressed as, then the tolerance is
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(A) 0.035 mm
(B) 0.025 mm
(C) 0.01 mm
(D) 0.06 mm
Answer: Option D
85. When the file is moved to and fro over the work, it is known as
(A) Cross filing
(B) Draw filing
(C) Pull and push filing
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
86. The consumable electrode is used in
(A) Carbon arc welding
(C) TIG arc welding
(D) MIG arc welding
Answer: Option D
87. In forehand welding, the angle between the welding torch and the
work is ________ as compared to backhand welding.
(A) Same
(B) Less
(C) More
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
88. The binder commonly used in making oil sand, is
(A) Clay type binder
(B) Organic type binder
(C) Inorganic type binder
Answer: Option B
89. A mortise gauge is a
(A) Striking tool
(B) Planing tool
(C) Boring tool
(D) Marking tool
Answer: Option D
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90. Notching is the operation of
(A) Cutting a sheet of metal in a straight line along the length
(B) Removal of metal to the desired shape from the edge of a plate
(C) Cutting a sheet of metal through part of its length and then bending
the cut portion
(D) Bending a sheet of metal along a curved axis
Answer: Option B
91. When filing soft metals, the file teeth are clogged with minute
particles of metal. The file should be cleaned by
(A) Washing it with water
(B) Rubbing on wood
(C) Washing it with dilute acid
(D) Using file card
Answer: Option D
92. The process used to improve fatigue resistance of the metal by
setting up compressive stresses in its surface, is known as
(A) Hot piercing
(B) Extrusion
(C) Cold peening
(D) Cold heading
Answer: Option C
93. Thermit welding is often used in
(A) Replacing broken gear teeth
(B) Repairing broken shears
(C) Joining rails, truck frames and locomotive frames etc.
Answer: Option D
94. The electron beam welding can be carried out in
(A) Open air
(B) A shielded gas environment
(C) Vacuum
(D) A pressurised inert gas chamber
Answer: Option C
95. An oxidising process used for aluminium and magnesium articles
is called
(A) Galvanising
(B) Anodising
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(C) Parkerising
(D) Sherardizing
Answer: Option B
96. The algebraic difference between the minimum limit and the basic
size is called
(A) Actual deviation
(B) Upper deviation
(C) Lower deviation
(D) Fundamental deviation
Answer: Option C
97. Piercing is an operation of cutting
(A) A cylindrical hole in a sheet of metal by the punch and the die
(B) A hole (other than cylindrical) in a sheet of metal by the punch and
the die
(C) A flat sheet to the desired shape
(D) A number of holes evenly spaced in a regular pattern on a sheet of
metal
Answer: Option B
98. In ________ welding, the weld may be made either from left to
right or from right to left.
(A) Forehand
(B) Backhand
(C) Vertical
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
99. The temperature of oxy-hydrogen flame is _________ oxyacetylene
flame.
(A) Same as
(B) Less than
(C) More than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
100. A moving mandrel is used in
(A) Wire drawing
(B) Tube drawing
(C) Metal cutting
(D) Forging
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Answer: Option B
101. A rip saw
(A) Is a two man saw
(B) Is used for cutting along the grains of wood
(C) Has a narrow blade with two wooden handles
Answer: Option B
102. Which of the following methods can be used for manufacturing 2
metre long seamless metallic tubes?
(A) Drawing
(B) Extrusion
(C) Rolling
(D) Extrusion and rolling
Answer: Option D
103. The minimum size of a bloom is
(A) 5 cm × 5 cm
(B) 10 cm × 10 cm
(C) 15 cm × 15 cm
(D) 20 cm × 20 cm
Answer: Option C
104. Acetylene gas is stored in cylinders in
(A) Solid form
(B) Gaseous form
(C) Liquid form
Answer: Option C
105. In a four high rolling mill, the diameter of backing up rolls is
________ the diameter of working rolls.
(A) Equal to
(B) Smaller than
(C) Larger than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
106. The tolerance produced by shell moulding process of casting is
(A) +0.05 mm
(B) ±0.2 mm
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(C) +0.5 mm
(D) ±1 mm
Answer: Option B
107. The increase in hardness due to cold working, is called
(A) Age hardening
(B) Work hardening
(C) Induction hardening
(D) Flame hardening
Answer: Option B
108. Green sand is a mixture of
(A) 30% sand and 70% clay
(B) 50% sand and 50% clay
(C) 70% sand and 30% clay
(D) 90% sand and 10% clay
Answer: Option C
109. In forehand welding, the angle between the welding rod and the
work is kept as
(A) 30°-40°
(B) 40°-50°
(C) 50°-60°
(D) 60°-70°
Answer: Option A
110. The instrument which has all the features of try-square, bevel
protractor, rule and scriber, is
(A) Outside micrometer
(B) Inside micrometer
(C) Depth gauge micrometer
(D) Combination set
Answer: Option D
111. The width of slot cut by a hacksaw blade is _______ the width of
the blade.
(A) Equal to
(B) Less than
(C) Greater than
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
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112. The dowels are
(A) Wooden nails
(B) Box nails
(C) Wire nails
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
113. The cutting edge of a chisel should be
(A) Hardened
(B) Tempered
(C) Hardened and tempered
(D) Case hardened
Answer: Option C
114. In TIG arc welding, the welding zone is shielded by an
atmosphere of
(A) Helium gas
(B) Argon gas
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
115. In a _________, both cutting and non-cutting operations are
performed at one station of the press in every stroke of the ram.
(A) Simple die
(B) Progressive die
(C) Combination die
(D) Compound die
Answer: Option C
116. In permanent mould casting method
(A) Molten metal is poured in a metallic mould, retained in the mould
long enough for the outer skin to solidify and finally mould is turned over
to remove molten metal still in molten condition
(B) Molten metal is poured and allowed to solidify while the mould is
revolving
(C) Molten metal is forced into mould under high pressure
Answer: Option D
117. A hacksaw blade is specified by its
(A) Length
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(B) Material
(C) Width
(D) Number of teeth
Answer: Option A
118. Blanking and piercing operations can be performed
simultaneously in a
(A) Simple die
(B) Progressive die
(C) Compound die
(D) Combination die
Answer: Option C
119. The type of file used for a wood work is
(A) Single cut file
(B) Double cut file
(C) Rasp cut file
Answer: Option C
120. Spot welding is used for welding
(A) Lap joints in plates having 0.025 mm to 1.25 mm thickness
(B) Lap joints in plates having thickness above 3 mm
(C) Butt joints in plates having 0.025 mm to 1.25 mm thickness
(D) Butt joints in plates having thickness above 3 mm
Answer: Option A
121. For smoothing and cleaning out depressions in the mould, a
__________ is used.
(A) Slick
(B) Lifter
(C) Swab
(D) Gagger
Answer: Option B
122. In electric resistance welding, voltage required for heating is
(A) 1 to 5 volts
(B) 6 to 10 volts
(C) 11 to 20 volts
(D) 50 to 100 volts
Answer: Option B
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123. During cold working process
(A) Grain structure is distorted
(B) Strength and hardness of metal increases
(C) Close dimensional tolerance can be maintained
Answer: Option D
124. The acetylene cylinder is usually painted with
(A) Black colour
(B) White colour
(C) Maroon colour
(D) Yellow colour
Answer: Option C
125. Aluminium is the best material for making patterns because it is
(A) Light in weight
(B) Easy to work
(C) Corrosion resistant
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
126. The centrifugal casting method, is used for casting articles of
(A) Symmetrical shape about vertical axis
(B) Symmetrical shape about horizontal axis
(C) Irregular shape
(D) Nonferrous metal only
Answer: Option B
127. The metal is subjected to mechanical working for
(A) Refining grain size
(B) Reducing original block into desired shape
(C) Controlling the direction of flow lines
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
128. A diamond pointed chisel is used for cutting
(A) Flat surfaces
(B) Grooves
(C) Keyways
(D) V-shaped grooves
Answer: Option D
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129. The electrodes used in spot welding have a tip of
(A) Stainless steel
(B) Aluminium
(C) Copper
(D) Brass
Answer: Option C
130. The cold chisels are made by
(A) Drawing
(B) Rolling
(C) Piercing
(D) Forging
Answer: Option D
131. Which of the following welding method uses a pool of molten
metal?
(A) Carbon arc welding
(C) TIG arc welding
(D) MIG arc welding
Answer: Option B
132. The instrument used to measure external and internal diameter
of shafts, thickness of parts and depth of holes, is
(A) Outside micrometer
(B) Inside micrometer
(C) Depth gauge micrometer
(D) Vernier caliper
Answer: Option D
133. In average work, the tolerance produced by investment casting
method is
(A) ±0.05 mm
(B) +0.2 mm
(C) +05 mm
(D) +1 mm
Answer: Option A
134. A basic hole is one whose
(A) Lower deviation is zero
(B) Upper deviation is zero
(C) Lower and upper deviations are zero
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
135. Cores are used to
(A) Form internal cavities in the casting
(B) Improve mould surface
(C) Form a part of a green sand mould
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
136. The temperature produced by oxy-hydrogen flame is about
(A) 1800°C
(B) 2100°C
(C) 2400°C
(D) 3200°C
Answer: Option C
137. The shrinkage allowance for cast iron pattern is
(A) 10 mm/m
(B) 16 mm/m
(C) 20 mm/m
(D) 26 mm/m
Answer: Option A
138. During drawing operation, the states of stress in cup would
include
(A) Compressive stress in the flange
(B) Tensile stress in the wall
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
139. In order to get uniform thickness of the plate by rolling process,
one provides
(A) Camber on the rolls
(B) Offset on the rolls
(C) Hardening of the rolls
(D) Antifriction bearings
Answer: Option C
140. Cold working of metal increases
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(B) Yield strength
(C) Hardness
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
141. A casting defect which results in general enlargement of a casting
is known as
(A) Shift
(B) Sand wash
(C) Swell
(D) Scab
Answer: Option C
142. A casting defect which occurs near the ingates as rough lumps on
the surface of a casting is known as
(A) Shift
(B) Sand wash
(C) Swell
(D) Scab
Answer: Option B
143. During hot working of metals
(A) Porosity of the metal is largely eliminated
(B) Grain structure of the metal is refined
(C) Mechanical properties are improved due to refinement of grains
Answer: Option D
144. The operation of cutting a cylindrical hole in a sheet of metal by
the punch and die is called
(A) Shearing
(B) Piercing
(C) Punching
(D) Blanking
Answer: Option B
145. In arc welding, the electric arc is produced between the work and
the electrode by
(A) Voltage
(B) Flow of current
(C) Contact resistance
(D) All of these
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Answer: Option C
146. Thread rolling is restricted to
(A) Ferrous materials
(C) Hard materials
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
147. V-block is used to
(A) Check the trueness of flat surfaces
(B) Locate centres of round rods
(C) Check the surface roughness
(D) None of these
Answer: Option D
148. The property of sand due to which it evolves a great amount of
steam and other gases is called
(A) Collapsibility
(B) Permeability
(C) Cohesiveness
(D) Adhesiveness
Answer: Option B
149. In backhand welding, the angle between the welding torch and
the work is kept as
(A) 30°-40°
(B) 40°-50°
(C) 50°-60°
(D) 60°-70°
Answer: Option B
150. In submerged arc welding, an arc is produced between a
(A) Carbon electrode and the work
(B) Metal electrode and the work
(C) Bare metal electrode and the work
(D) Two tungsten electrodes and the work
Answer: Option C
151. For cutting brass, the hacksaw blade should have __________
teeth per 25 mm.
(A) 14
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(B) 24
(C) 32
(D) 40
Answer: Option A
152. A ring gauge is used to
(A) Check the diameter of shafts or studs
(B) Test the accuracy of holes
(C) Check the clearance between two mating surfaces
Answer: Option A
153. Rotary swaging
(A) Is extensively used for making bolts and rivets
(B) Is used for reducing the diameters of round bars and a tube by
rotating dies which open and close rapidly on the work
(C) Is used to improve fatigue resistance of the metal by setting up
compressive stresses in its surface
(D) Consists of pressing the metal inside a chamber to force it out by
high pressure through an orifice which is shaped to provide the desired
form of the finished part
Answer: Option B
154. The process extensively used for making bolts and nuts is
(A) Hot piercing
(B) Extrusion
(C) Cold peening
(D) Cold heading
Answer: Option D
155. In spot welding, the distance between the nearest edge of the plate
and centre of weld should be equal to
(A) d
(B) 1.5d
(C) 3d
(D) 6d
Answer: Option B
156. A file with 20 teeth in 25 mm is called
(A) Rough file
(B) Bastard file
(C) Second cut file
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(D) Smooth file
Answer: Option A
157. The oxygen cylinder is usually painted with
(A) Black colour
(B) White colour
(C) Maroon colour
(D) Yellow colour
Answer: Option A
158. A gimlet is a ________ tool.
(A) Boring
(B) Marking
(C) Cutting
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
159. In electric resistance welding, pressure applied varies from
(A) 1 to 5 MPa
(B) 5 to 10 MPa
(C) 10 to 25 MPa
(D) 25 to 55 MPa
Answer: Option D
160. A progressive limit gauge has
(A) 'Go' and 'Not go' member on the same side of the gauge
(B) Separate 'Go' and 'Not go' members
(C) 'Go' member at one end and 'Not go' member at the other end
Answer: Option A
161. The operation of cutting a sheet of metal in a straight line along
the length, is known as
(A) Plunging
(B) Notching
(C) Slitting
(D) Forming
Answer: Option C
162. Extrusion
(A) Is extensively used for making bolts and nuts
(B) Is used for reducing the diameter of round bars and tubes by
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rotating dies which open and close rapidly on the work
(C) Is used to improve fatigue resistance of the metal by setting up
compressive stresses in its surface
(D) Consists of pressing the metal inside a chamber to force it out by
high pressure through an orifice which is shaped to provide the desired
form of the finished part
Answer: Option D
163. The sand used for making cores is
(A) Green sand
(B) Dry sand
(C) Loam sand
(D) Oil sand
Answer: Option D
164. In order to ram the sand harder at the back of the mould and
softer on the pattern face, a ________ is used.
(A) Sand slinger
(B) Squeezing machine
(C) Jolt machine
(D) Stripper plate machine
Answer: Option B
(A) The hot chamber die casting machine is used for casting zinc, tin,
lead and other low melting alloys.
(B) The cold chamber die casting machine is used for casting
aluminium, magnesium, copper base alloys and other high melting alloys.
(C) The castings produced by centrifugal casting method have open
and coarse grained structure.
Answer: Option C
166. The diaphragm moulding machine is used to
(A) Ram the sand harder at the pattern face with decreasing hardness
towards the back of the mould
(B) Ram the sand harder at the back of the mould and softer on the
pattern face
(C) Produce uniform packing of sand in the mould
(D) Give uniform sand hardness throughout the mould
Answer: Option D
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167. The current in electric resistance welding can be regulated by
(A) Varying the input supply
(B) Changing the primary turns of the transformer
(C) Changing the secondary turns of the transformer
Answer: Option B
168. According to Indian standard specifications, 100 H6/g 5 means
that.
(A) Basic size is 100 mm
(B) Actual size is 100 mm
(C) Difference between the actual size and basic size is 100 mm
Answer: Option A
169. The operation of producing cup shaped parts from flat sheet
metal blanks by bending and plastic flow of metal, is known as
(A) Drawing
(B) Squeezing
(C) Coining
(D) Planishing
Answer: Option A
170. In a four high rolling mill, there are four rolls out of which
(A) One is working roll and three are backing up rolls
(B) Two are working rolls and two are backing up rolls
(C) Three are working rolls and one is backing up roll
(D) All of the four are working rolls
Answer: Option B
171. In a hot chamber die casting machine
(A) Ferrous alloys with low melting temperature are casted
(B) Ferrous alloys with high melting temperature are casted
(C) Nonferrous alloys with low melting temperature are casted
(D) Nonferrous alloys with high melting temperature are casted
Answer: Option C
172. A pattern maker's shrinkage rule considers
(A) All pattern allowances
(B) Only shrinkage allowance
(C) All materials to be cast
(D) All materials of the pattern
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Answer: Option B
173. Tandem drawing of wires and tubes is necessary because
(A) It is not possible to reduce at one stage
(B) Annealing is needed between stages
(C) Accuracy in dimensions is not possible otherwise
(D) Surface finish improves after every drawing stage
Answer: Option B
174. Seam welding is a
(A) Continuous spot welding process
(B) Multi-spot welding process
(C) Arc welding process
(D) Process used for joining round bars
Answer: Option A
175. The recrystallisation temperature of steel is
(A) 400°C
(B) 600°C
(C) 800°C
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
176. When a pattern is made in three parts, the top part, is known as a
(A) Drag
(B) Cheek
(C) Cope
(D) None of these
Answer: Option C
177. The temperature of the inner luminous cone of neutral flame is
about
(A) 1000°C
(B) 1250°C
(C) 2100°C
(D) 3200°C
Answer: Option D
178. The welding process used to join the ends of two pipes of uniform
cross-section, is
(A) Spot welding
(B) Seam welding
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(C) Projection welding
(D) Upset butt welding
Answer: Option D
179. The fullers are used
(A) For finishing flat surfaces
(B) For necking down a piece of work
(C) For punching a hole
(D) To finish the punched hole
Answer: Option B
180. In a compound die
(A) Only one operation is performed at each stroke of the ram
(B) Two or more operations are performed simultaneously at the single
stroke of the ram
(C) Two or more cutting operations are performed at one station of the
press in every stroke of the ram
(D) Both cutting and non-cutting operations are performed at one
station of the press in every stroke of the ram
Answer: Option C
181. In die casting, machining allowance is
(A) Small
(B) Large
(C) Very large
(D) Not provided
Answer: Option D
182. The maximum flame temperature occurs
(A) At the outer cone
(B) At the inner cone
(C) Between the outer and inner cone
(D) At the torch tip
Answer: Option B
183. Cast iron and steel pipes are produced by
(A) Slush casting
(B) Investment casting
(C) True centrifugal casting
(D) Die casting
Answer: Option C
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184. The casting method adopted for ornaments and toys of
nonferrous alloys, is
(A) Permanent mould casting
(B) Slush casting
(C) Die casting
(D) Centrifugal casting
Answer: Option B
185. The purpose of a riser is to
(A) Deliver molten metal into the mould cavity
(B) Act as a reservoir for the molten metal
(C) Feed the molten metal to the casting in order to compensate for the
shrinkage
(D) Deliver the molten metal from pouring basin to gate
Answer: Option C
186. When the dimension is expressed as 20 -0.025 ⁺⁰∙⁰³⁵, then the basic
size is
(A) 20 mm
(B) 20.035 mm
(C) 20.025 mm
(D) 19.975 mm
Answer: Option A
187. The directional solidification in casting can be improved by using
(A) Chills and chaplets
(B) Chills and padding
(C) Chaplets and padding
(D) Chills, chaplets and padding
Answer: Option B
188. The operation of cutting of a flat sheet to the desired shape is
called
(A) Shearing
(B) Piercing
(C) Punching
(D) Blanking
Answer: Option D
189. The cold chisels are made from
(A) Cast iron
(B) Mild steel
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(C) High speed steel
(D) Cast tool steel
Answer: Option D
190. In arc welding, the temperature of heat produced by the electric
arc is of the order of
(A) 3000°C to 4000°C
(B) 4000°C to 5000°C
(C) 5000°C to 6000°C
(D) 6000°C to 7000°C
Answer: Option D
191. In shielded arc welding
(A) Large electrode is used
(B) Welding rod coated with slag is used
(C) Welding rod coated with fluxing material is used
Answer: Option C
192. In sheet metal blanking, shear is provided on punches and dies so
that
(A) Press load is reduced
(B) Good cut edge is obtained
(C) Warping of sheet is minimised
(D) Cut blanks is straight
Answer: Option A
193. A taper provided on the pattern for its easy and clean withdrawal
from the mould is known as
(A) Machining allowance
(B) Draft allowance
(C) Shrinkage allowance
(D) Distortion allowance
Answer: Option B
194. A neutral flame is obtained by supplying
(A) Equal volumes of oxygen and acetylene
(B) More volume of oxygen and less volume of acetylene
(C) More volume of acetylene and less volume of oxygen
Answer: Option A
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195. Which of the following material can be used for making patterns?
(A) Aluminium
(B) Wax
(C) Lead
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
196. A sand employed on the faces of the pattern before moulding, is
called
(A) Green sand
(B) Dry sand
(C) Loam sand
(D) Parting sand
Answer: Option D
197. For welding plates of thickness more than 12.5 mm, its edges
(A) Do not require bevelling
(B) Should be bevelled to a single-V or U-groove
(C) Should have a double-V or U-groove on one side
(D) Should have a double-V or U-groove on both sides
Answer: Option D
198. The machining allowance provided on patterns depends upon
(A) Type of casting metal
(B) Size and shape of casting
(C) Method of casting used
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
199. The most preferred process for casting gas turbine blades is
(A) Die casting
(B) Shell moulding
(C) Investment moulding
(D) Sand casting
Answer: Option B
200. The parts of circular cross-section which are symmetrical about
the axis of rotation are made by
(A) Hot forging
(B) Hot spinning
(C) Hot extrusion
(D) Hot drawing
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Answer: Option B
201. When a pattern is made in three parts, the ________ is known as
a drag.
(A) Bottom part
(B) Middle part
(C) Top part
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
202. In a _________, the molten metal is poured and allowed to
solidify while the mould is revolving.
(A) Die casting method
(B) Slush casting method
(C) Permanent mould casting method
(D) Centrifugal casting method
Answer: Option D
203. In a gas welding of mild steel using an oxyacetylene flame, the
total amount of acetylene consumed is 10 litres. The oxygen
consumption from the cylinder is
(A) 5 litres
(B) 10 litres
(C) 15 litres
(D) 20 litres
Answer: Option B
204. The electrode tip diameter (d) in spot welding should be equal to
(where t = Thickness of plate to be welded)
(A) t
(B) 1.5 t
(C) 3 t
(D) 6 t
Answer: Option A
205. The surface to be machined is marked on the pattern by
(A) Red colour
(B) Yellow colour
(C) Black colour
(D) Blue colour
Answer: Option A
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206. In order to deliver molten metal from pouring basin to gate, a
________ is used.
(A) Riser
(B) Sprue
(C) Core
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
207. In a hot chamber die casting machine
(A) Melting pot is separate from the machine
(B) Melting pot is an integral part of the machine
(C) Melting pot may have any location
(D) High temperature and pressure is used
Answer: Option B
208. In a centrifugal casting method
(A) Core is made of sand
(B) Core is made of ferrous metal
(C) Core is made of nonferrous metal
(D) No core is used
Answer: Option D
209. The blank diameter used in thread rolling will be
(A) Equal to minor diameter of the thread
(B) Equal to pitch diameter of the thread
(C) A little larger than the minor diameter of the thread
(D) A little larger than the pitch diameter of the thread
Answer: Option C
210. A casting defect which occurs due to improper venting of sand is
known as
(A) Cold shuts
(B) Blow holes
(C) Shift
(D) Swell
Answer: Option B
211. The punch and die set up is ________ for punching and piercing
operation.
(A) Same
(B) Similar
(C) Different
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(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
212. Neutral flame is used to weld
(A) Steel
(B) Cast iron
(C) Copper
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
213. Galvanising is a
(A) Zinc diffusion process
(B) Process of coating zinc by hot dipping
(C) Process used for making thin phosphate coating on steel
Answer: Option B
214. During hot working of metals
(A) Poor surface finish is produced
(B) Scale is formed on the metal surface
(C) Close tolerances cannot be maintained
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
215. In spot welding, the spacing between two spot weld should not be
less than
(A) d
(B) 1.5 d
(C) 3 d
(D) 6 d
Answer: Option C
216. In order to cut mild steel, the cutting angle of chisel should be
(A) 30°
(B) 45°
(C) 50°
(D) 60°
Answer: Option D
217. In a cold chamber die casting machine, only nonferrous alloys
with _________ are casted.
(A) Low melting temperature
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(B) High melting temperature
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
Workshop Technology Test:

01. The low pressure acetylene is produced at the welding site by the
chemical reaction between water and calcium carbonate.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
02. The correct sequence for preparing a billet for extrusion process is
pickling, alkaline cleaning, phosphate coating and lubricating with
reactive soap.
(A) Yes
(B) No
03. In a cold chamber die casting machine, a measured quantity of
molten metal is brought in a ladle from the melting pot to a chamber
and forced into the closed die section by applying hydraulic pressure
upon the plunger.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
04. If neutral flame is used in oxyacetylene welding, both oxygen and
acetylene cylinders of the same capacity will be emptied at the same
time.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
05. The length of hacksaw blade is the distance between the outside
edges of the holes which fits over the pins.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
06. When two pieces of different metals are to be welded by projection
welding, then the projection should be made on the metal piece having
________ conductivity.
(A) Lower
(B) Higher
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07. Fin is a casting defect which is due to thin projections of metal not
intended as a part of casting.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
08. Shrinkage allowance is made by adding to external dimensions and
subtracting from internal dimensions.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
09. An oxidising flame is obtained when equal volumes of oxygen and
acetylene are supplied.
(A) True
(B) False
10. The operation of cutting a number of holes evenly spaced in a
regular pattern on a sheet of metal is called perforating.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
11. When two metal pieces of different thicknesses are to be welded by
projection welding, then the projections should be made on ________
metal piece.
(A) Thinner
(B) Thicker
12. A process used for making thin phosphate coating on steel is called
Parkerising.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
13. The welding set up is said to have reversed polarity when the work
is connected to the negative terminal and the electrode holder to the
positive terminal.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
14. A saw which cuts wood during the return stroke of the saw is
known as
(A) Push saw
Pull saw or draw saw
15. Scab is a casting defect which occurs as sand patches on the upper
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surface of a casting.
(A) True
(B) False
16. Forming is the operation of removing metal to the desired shape
from the edge of a plate.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
17. The vertical welding does not require plate edge preparation up to
16 mm thickness.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
18. In electric resistance welding, pressure is applied just after the
completion of current.
(A) True
(B) False
19. When the weld is made from left to right, it is known as backhand
welding.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
20. Metal patterns require ________ draft allowance than wooden
patterns.
(A) More
(B) Less
Answers: Workshop Technology Test

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Mechanical Engineering Quiz Series
Mechanical Engineering: Quiz 01

01. The ability of a material to undergo large permanent deformation
with the application of a tensile force is called ductility.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
02. The portion of a crankshaft which rests on cylinder block is called
main journal.
(A) Yes
(B) No
03. The rotary compressors are suitable for large discharge of air at
low pressure.
(A) True
(B) False
04. Ferrite and pearlite makes the steel soft and ductile.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
05. A baffle plate is fitted inside the oil pan to prevent the oil from
splashing when it is subjected to vibration and other movement during
vehicle operation.
(A) True
(B) False
06. An open cycle gas turbine works on the same cycle as that of a
closed cycle gas turbine.
(A) Yes
(B) No
07. The quenching of steel from the upper critical point results in a
fine grained structure.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
08. In a unit type body (frameless body) design, the sheet metal parts
are welded together, forming a frame work to which outer skin is
attached.
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(A) True
(B) False
09. The increase in pressure in a vane blower takes place first due to
compression and then due to back flow of air.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
10. The steel produced by Bessemer or open hearth process is
________ to that produced by LD process.
(A) Superior
(B) Inferior
11. In a spark plug, when the temperature of the central electrode
exceeds a certain temperature, any carbon that has adhered will be
burnt off, and the temperature at which this burning off carbon starts
is referred to as the self cleaning temperature.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
12. The total heat rejected in a reciprocating air compressor is equal
to the sum of the heat rejected during polytropic compression per kg
of air and heat rejected in the intercooler per kg of air.
(A) True
(B) False
13. The dyeing down of a white flame during the operation of a
Bessemer converter indicates that the air is burning out silicon and
manganese.
(A) Yes
(B) No
14. The flywheel and the pressure plate bind the clutch disc between
them so that the engine and the transmission can be engaged.
(A) Yes
(B) No
15. The clearance volume in the compressor is kept minimum because
it effects on volumetric efficiency.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
16. White cast iron has a high tensile strength and a low compressive
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strength.
(A) Yes
(B) No
17. Positive camber is used to compensate for wheels tilting inward
due to the weight of the vehicle.
(A) Yes
(B) No
18. The actual volume of air delivered by a compressor, when reduced
to the normal temperature and pressure conditions is called
compressor capacity.
(A) Yes
(B) No
19. The advantage of double wishbone suspension design is that a
large amount of freedom is available for setting geometry and precise
settings can be made for driving comfort and steerability
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
20. Workdone by a two-stage reciprocating air compressor per cycle is
equal to the workdone in L.P. cylinder and H.P. cylinder.
(A) True
(B) False
Answers: Mechanical Engineering Quiz 01


01. The engine's idling speed will increase by a slight degree
immediately after a cold engine has been started. It will drop as the
engine warms up and it will eventually reach the standard level.
(A) True
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(B) False
02. The speed of rotary air compressor is ________ as compared to
reciprocating air compressor.
(A) High
(B) Low
03. Aluminium has low density and addition of silicon improves its
fluidity and therefore, its castability.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
04. The operation of giving impressions of figures, letters or designs on
sheet metal parts, is known as embossing.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
05. The compression ratio in Diesel engines is less than the petrol
engine.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
06. The operation of the reciprocating air motor is similar to
reciprocating air compressor.
(A) True
(B) False
07. Cast iron is a ductile material.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
08. The oxidising flame is similar to neutral flame but the inner cone is
less luminous and shorter.
(A) Yes
(B) No
09. Toe-in ensures parallel rolling of the wheel thus stabilizing steering
in addition to preventing both sides slipping and excessive tyre wear.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
10. In a two stage reciprocating compressor with intercooler, the
amount of work saved with incomplete intercooling is ________ that in
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case of complete intercooling.
(A) Less than
(B) More than
11. The addition of copper to aluminium possesses maximum strength
after heat treatment and age-hardening
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
12. Cold working distorts grain structure and does not provide an
appreciable reduction in size.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
13. In comparison to frame type construction, the frameless structure
construction of automobiles is economical when produced in ________
numbers.
(A) Small
(B) Large
14. The free air delivery is the volume of air that can be delivered by a
compressor freely.
(A) True
(B) False
15. In iron, the presence of carbon in free form is called graphite.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
16. Hot piercing is extensively used for making bolts and nuts.
(A) Yes
(B) No
17. When the vehicle is at rest, the clutch is in engaged position.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
18. A regenerator in a gas turbine improves thermal efficiency.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
19. In a body centred cubic space lattice, there are nine atoms out of
which eight atoms are located at the corners of the cube and one atom
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at its centre.
(A) Yes
(B) No
20. A stripper plate machine is used to draw the pattern from the
mould.
(A) Yes
(B) No


01. If the level of tension in the belt is too high, it can result in a loss of
power or in bending of the rotating shaft or crankshaft.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
02. Intercooling in compressors results in saving of power in
compressing given volume of air to a given pressure.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
03. A steel with carbon above 0.8% is known as hypereutectoid steel.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
04. Defrosting of a refrigerator may be done by stopping the
compressor for a short period.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
05. The overshot water wheels are those in which the wheel runs
entirely by the ________ of water.
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(A) Weight
(B) Impulse
06. The diesel engines are also known as _________ engines.
(A) Compression ignition
(B) Spark ignition
07. Line organisation is suitable for a big organisation.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
08. Cemented carbide tool tips are produced by powder metallurgy.
(A) True
(B) False
09. A grate, in a boiler, is a place in the combustion chamber upon
which fuel (wood or coal) is burnt.
(A) True
(B) False
10. Hydrogen is the __________ substance.
(A) Lightest
(B) Heaviest
11. All the commercial liquid fuels are derived from natural
petroleum (or crude oil).
(A) True
(B) False
12. Surface plate is used to check the trueness of flat surfaces.
(A) True
(B) False
13. The heat transfer by conduction through a thick sphere is same as
through a thick cylinder.
(A) True
(B) False
14. The temperature of air recorded by a thermometer, when the
moisture present in it begins to condense, is called wet bulb
temperature.
(A) Yes
(B) No
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15. Ordinary water is sometimes used as moderator when enriched
uranium is used as a fuel in nuclear power plants.
(A) Yes
(B) No
16. The boiling point of R-12 is about -30°C.
(A) True
(B) False
17. The detonation is also called knocking or pinking.
(A) Yes
(B) No
18. A round nose tool may be fed either from left to right end or from
right to left end of the lathe bed.
(A) Yes
(B) No
19. A fine grained grinding wheel is used to grind hard materials.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
20. An axial compressor gives optimum performance at high speeds
and large volume flows.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree


01. Maximum work is saved in a two stage reciprocating air
compressor with incomplete intercooling.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
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02. The bloom is smaller than a billet.
(A) True
(B) False
03. In the first law of thermodynamics, the total energy of the system
remains constant.
(A) True
(B) False
04. Coal gas is obtained by mixing coal and gas at ambient conditions.
(A) Yes
(B) No
05. A steel containing 12 to 14% chromium and 0.12 to 0.35% carbon
is called martenistic stainless steel.
(A) True
(B) False
06. In a compressor, work is done on the piston during suction of air
and work is done by the piston during compression as well as delivery
of air.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
07. The function of a carburettor is to control the amount and ratio of
air-fuel mixture.
(A) True
(B) False
08. In big automobile repair shop, for elevating and moving the heavy
parts such as complete engine assembly, gear box etc., an overhead
crane and a fork lift truck is used.
(A) Yes
(B) No
09. In open combustion chamber in diesel engines, the shape and
layout of the piston crown, the inlet port and the valve produce the
turbulent effect of fuel mixture.
(A) True
(B) False
10. Representative time is the average of times recorded by work
study man for an operation.
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(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
11. Loeffler boiler is a water tube boiler using a forced circulation of
water.
(A) True
(B) False
12. The ratio of the heat equivalent to one kW hour to the heat in fuel
per B.P. hour is termed as brake thermal efficiency.
(A) Yes
(B) No
13. Lamont boiler is a high pressure water tube steam boiler working
on forced circulation.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
14. A water cooled condenser operates at a _________ condensing
temperature than an air-cooled condenser.
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
15. Work done by a turbine ________ upon the weight of water
flowing per second.
(A) Depends
(B) Does not depend
16. In a centrifugal casting method, the impurities are collected in the
centre of the casting.
(A) Yes
(B) No
17. The thermodynamic property of a system is said to be an intensive
property whose value for the entire system __________ the sum of
their value for the individual parts of the system.
(A) Is equal to
(B) Is not equal to
18. The relative humidity decreases as air gets wet.
(A) True
(B) False
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19. The absolute pressure of a given mass of a perfect gas varies
inversely as its volume, when the temperature remains constant. This
statement is known as Charles' law.
(A) Yes
(B) No
20. In a reciprocating pump, air vessels are fitted to the suction pipe
and delivery pipe close to the cylinder of the pump.
(A) True
(B) False


01. In mechanical refrigeration system, the refrigerant occurs as
liquid between condenser and expansion valve.
(A) True
(B) False
02. In a four stroke cycle petrol engine, the charge is compressed when
both the valves (i.e. inlet valve and exit valve) are closed,
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
03. PERT is an event oriented technique.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
04. The efficiency of a centrifugal pump will be maximum when the
blades are bent backward.
(A) Yes
(B) No
05. The water, alcohol and ammonia have same refrigerating effect at
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different altitudes.
(A) Yes
(B) No
06. In nuclear power plants, due to reflector, less fuel is needed to
generate sufficient neutrons to sustain a chain reaction.
(A) Yes
(B) No
07. According to Gay-Lussac law, the absolute pressure of a given
mass of a perfect gas varies _________ as its absolute temperature,
when the volume remains constant.
(A) Directly
(B) Indirectly
08. Light weight substances cannot be effective moderators.
(A) True
(B) False
09. The discharge of a centrifugal pump working under constant head
________ with the speed.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
10. The angle included between the two lips projected upon a plane
parallel to the drill axis and parallel to the two cutting lips, is called
helix angle.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
11. The velocity of tool relative to the workpiece is known as cutting
velocity.
(A) True
(B) False
12. In case of solids, the heat transfer takes place according to
radiation.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
13. In a centrifugal compressor, the air enters the impeller axially and
leaves the vane radially.
(A) Yes
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(B) No
14. A plug gauge is used to check the diameter of shafts and studs.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
15. When the gas is heated at constant volume, the heat supplied
increases the internal energy of the gas.
(A) True
(B) False
16. When the speed of the pump increases, its net positive suction head
(NPSH) requirement decreases.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
17. Sampling method of determining standard time is profitable for
long cycle operation.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
18. In oblique cutting system, the maximum chip thickness occurs at
the middle.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
19. The universal gas constant of a gas is the product of molecular
mass of the gas and the gas constant.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
20. In orthogonal cutting system, the maximum chip thickness occurs
at the middle.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect

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01. Incoloy, Hastelloy and Vitallium are __________ temperature
alloys.
(A) High
(B) Low
02. The material of pipe lines for a system using ammonia as a
refrigerant should be copper.
(A) Yes
(B) No
03. In gas turbines, the work input with intercooling is ________ the
work input with no intercooling.
(A) Less than
(B) More than
04. In a fuel injection system, the electronic control module (ECM)
calculates the optimum fuel injection volume for the engine condition
based on the data received from the sensors, and injects this volume of
fuel into the intake manifold at the optimum timing.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
05. In an impulse turbine, the jet of water impinges on the bucket with
a low velocity and after flowing over the vanes, leaves with a high
velocity.
(A) True
(B) False
06. In diesel engines, the fuel is injected in the form of very fine spray,
into the engine cylinder, which gets ignited due to high temperature of
the compressed air.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
07. The planning and scheduling of job order manufacturing differ
from planning and scheduling of mass production manufacturing.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
08. When the back gear is engaged in a back geared headstock, the
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spindle speed reduces considerably.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
09. The temperature of condensate is __________ on leaving the
condenser than that of circulating water at inlet.
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
10. In continuous chip cutting, the maximum heat is taken by the
cutting tool.
(A) Yes
(B) No
11. In inventory control, the economic ordering quantity is obtained
by the quantity whose procurement cost is equal to inventory carrying
cost.
(A) True
(B) False
12. The detonating tendency in petrol engines increases with increase
of compression ratio.
(A) True
(B) False
13. The capacity of a hydraulic accumulator is generally specified as
the maximum amount of energy stored.
(A) True
(B) False
14. The greater the pressure difference in throttling, the lesser is the
irreversibility.
(A) Yes
(B) No
15. The compressor capacity will be ________ if the temperature of
intake air is lowest.
(A) Lowest
(B) Highest
16. The wave length corresponding to the maximum energy is
inversely proportional to the absolute temperature. This statement is
called Planck's law.
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(A) Yes
(B) No
17. The iron ore in the charge of blast furnace acts as an iron bearing
mineral.
(A) True
(B) False
18. The breast water wheels are those in which the wheel runs partly
by the weight of water and partly by the impulse of water.
(A) True
(B) False
19. A draught produced by a chimney due to the difference of
densities between the hot gases inside the chimney and cold
atmospheric air outside it, is called natural draught.
(A) Yes
(B) No
20. A closed system is one in which heat and work crosses the
boundary of the system but the mass of the working substance does
not crosses the boundary of the system.
(A) Yes
(B) No

01. The kinetic energy of molecules of a gas becomes zero at absolute
zero temperature.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
02. In a die casting method, the molten metal is forced into mould
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under high pressure.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
03. According to Gay-Lussac law for a perfect gas, p/T = constant,
if v is kept constant.
(A) True
(B) False
04. The ferrous metals require more machining allowance than
nonferrous metals.
(A) True
(B) False
05. There is no change in internal energy in an isothermal process.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
06. An economiser is used to increase the temperature of saturated
steam without raising its pressure.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
07. In machining soft materials, a tool with negative relief angle is
used.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
08. Linear programming model can be applied to line balancing
problem and transportation problem.
(A) True
(B) False
09. The pre-ignition occurs before the spark is produced whereas
detonation develops after the introduction of spark.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
10. The principle of jet propulsion is used in driving the ships and
aeroplanes.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
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11. The condition of refrigerant after leaving the compressor and
before entering the condenser is superheated vapour.
(A) Yes
(B) No
12. In induction hardening, the depth of hardening is controlled by
controlling the voltage.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
13. Workdone by an air compressor ________ upon the way in which
the air is compressed.
(A) Depends
(B) Does not depend
14. The austenite is a solid solution of carbon or iron carbide in
gamma-iron.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
15. The heat transfer by radiation ________ a medium.
(A) Requires
(B) Does not require
16. In a reaction turbine, the pressure head of water, while flowing
over the vanes, is converted into kinetic head before leaving the wheel.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
17. A two stroke cycle engine gives _________ mechanical efficiency
than a four stroke cycle engine.
(A) Higher
(B) Lower
18. The product layout is more amenable to automation than process
layout.
(A) True
(B) False
19. In case of turning, as the machining proceeds, the spindle speed
must _________ with the decrease in diameter of work.
(A) Decrease
(B) Increase
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20. The function of a governor is to keep the engine speed uniform at
all load conditions.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect


1. Carbon tool steels have low heat and wear resistance.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
2. In a jet engine, the compression varies as the square of the speed.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
3. The seat belt will move out smoothly when pulled out slowly, but it
will lock when pulled quickly.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
4. The pressure ratio in a centrifugal compressor can be increased by
increasing the tip speed and lowering the inlet temperature.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
5. Hindalium is an alloy of aluminium and magnesium with a small
quantity of chromium.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
6. Thermal conductivity of air increases with rise in temperature.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
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7. A draft tube is used with impulse turbines.
(A) Yes
(B) No
8. The unit million electron volts (Mev) is commonly used to measure
the nuclear energy.
(A) True
(B) False
9. Monte Carlo solution in queuing theory is extremely useful in
queuing problems that cannot be analysed mathematically.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
10. Back rake angle of a single point tool is the angle by which the face
of the tool is inclined towards back.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
11. In a reciprocating steam engine, the heat energy in the steam is
converted into mechanical work by the to and fro motion of the piston.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
12. The heating and expanding of a gas is called thermodynamic
system.
(A) Yes
(B) No
13. In natural circulation steam boilers, the circulation of water is by
convection currents which are set up during the heating of water.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
14. Normal time is the ratio of representative time to the rating factor.
(A) True
(B) False
15. The knocking tendency in spark ignition engines can be decreased
by adding dopes like tetra ethyl lead and ethylene di-bromide.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
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16. A hydraulic intensifier is a device used to increase the intensity of
pressure of water by means of energy available from a large quantity
of water at a low pressure.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
17. At 100% relative humidity, wet bulb temperature, dry bulb
temperature, dew point temperature and saturation temperature are
equal.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
18. Spheroidal grey cast iron has graphite flakes.
(A) True
(B) False
19. Free air is the air at atmospheric conditions at any specific
location.
(A) True
(B) False
20. When cornering, the differential generates a difference in the
speed of the left and right wheels.
(A) True
(B) False


01. Ericsson cycle consists of two constant pressure and two
isothermal processes.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
02. When a pattern is made in three parts, the bottom part is known
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as a cope.
(A) True
(B) False
03. For maximum discharge through a chimney, the temperature of
flue gases inside the chimney should the slightly more than the
atmospheric temperature.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
04. The internal flue tubes of a Lancashire boiler are reduced in
diameter at the back to provide access to the lower part of the boiler.
(A) True
(B) False
05. In hot machining, solid carbide tools are preferred over high speed
steel tools.
(A) True
(B) False
06. A dummy activity becomes a critical activity when its earliest start
time (EST) is same as its latest finishing time (LFT).
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
07. Supercharging _________ the power developed by the engine.
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
08. In a mixed flow reaction turbine, the flow of water is partly radial
and partly axial.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
09. Sulphur dioxide is extremely toxic and non-flammable.
(A) True
(B) False
10. Martensite has needle like structure and is magnetic.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
11. In jet propulsion power unit, the inlet duct of diverging shape is
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used for converting kinetic energy of air into pressure energy.
(A) True
(B) False
12. The transfer of heat from one body to another takes place only
when there is a temperature difference between the bodies.
(A) Yes
(B) No
13. A Pelton wheel with one nozzle is preferred for a specific speed
between 35 to 60 r.p.m.
(A) True
(B) False
14. An atom bomb utilises uncontrolled nuclear fission.
(A) True
(B) False
15. In time study, normal time is more than the standard time.
(A) Yes
(B) No
16. A dense structure of a grinding wheel is denoted by the number 9
to 15 or higher.
(A) Yes
(B) No
17. The drawing down is a process of ________ the cross-section of a
bar.
(A) Increasing
(B) Reducing
18. The isothermal and isentropic processes are reversible non-flow
processes.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
19. In a fire tube boiler, the water is contained inside the tubes which
are surrounded by flames and hot gases from outside.
(A) True
(B) False
20. The compressor efficiency is defined as the ratio of volume of free
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air delivery per stroke to the swept volume of the piston.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect

01. The ratio of the _________ to the volume at cut-off is called
expansion ratio.
(A) Swept volume
(B) Clearance volume
02. Liquid fuels have lower efficiency than solid fuels.
(A) True
(B) False
03. The clearance, in a single stage, single acting reciprocating air
compressor does not affect the workdone on the air and the power
required for compressing the air.
(A) True
(B) False
04. The motion of the cam is transferred to the rocker arm, moving it
upwards and downwards. This rocker arm motion then forces the
valve downwards against the force in the valve spring so that the valve
can open.
(A) True
(B) False
05. The steel produced by cementation process is known as
__________ steel.
(A) Blister
(B) Crucible
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06. During gas charging in an ammonia vapour compression system,
the connection is made at the compressor outlet.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
07. If the Francis turbine is run below 50 percent head for a long
period, it will not only lose its efficiency but also the cavitation danger
will become more serious.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
08. The compression ratio in petrol engines is kept low as compared to
diesel engines because higher compression ratio in petrol engines
would lead to pre-ignition of fuel.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
09. When slack of an activity is zero, the activity is critical and any
delay in its performance will delay the completion of the whole
project.
(A) Yes
(B) No
10. The free expansion process is __________ non-flow process.
(A) Reversible
(B) Irreversible
11. In a universal milling machine, the table can be swivelled
horizontally and can be fed at an angle to the milling machine spindle.
(A) True
(B) False
12. PERT is a project planning and control technique.
(A) Yes
(B) No
13. In an isolated system, neither the heat and work nor the mass of
the working substance crosses the boundary of the system.
(A) True
(B) False
14. The two stroke cycle engines have lighter flywheel.
(A) Agree
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(B) Disagree
15. In a centrifugal pump, the water enters the impeller ________ and
leaves the vanes axially.
(A) Axially
(B) Radially
16. The process of removing moisture from the air, without change in
its dry bulb temperature, is called dehumidification.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
17. Duralumin has better strength than Y-alloy at high temperature.
(A) True
(B) False
18. Air motors work on the cycle which is the reverse of the
reciprocating air compressor cycle.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
19. The tool life, in case of continuous cutting, is much better than
intermittent cutting.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
20. A good steam boiler is one which produces maximum quantity of
steam with the given fuel
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree


01. A mechanism consisting of more than four links is called a
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compound mechanism.
(A) True
(B) False
02. A pressure vessel is said to be a thin shell, if the ratio of wall
thickness to its diameter is equal to 1/10.
(A) Yes
(B) No
03. The wave length of the radiation emitted depends only on the
temperature and is independent of the material of the body.
(A) True
(B) False
04. In an ordinary bolt, the effect of the impulsive loads applied axially
is concentrated on the cross-sectional area at the root of the threads.
(A) Yes
(B) No
05. The specific weight is also known as weight density.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
06. The centre of gravity of a triangle lies at a point where its medians
intersect each other.
(A) False
(B) True
07. The frictional torque transmitted in a multi collared shaft is same
as that of a single collared shaft.
(A) Right
(B) Wrong
08. The specific speed of a centrifugal pump may be defined as the
speed of an imaginary pump, identical with the given pump, which
will discharge one litre of water, while it is being raised through a
head of one metre.
(A) True
(B) False
09. When the Mach number is equal to unity, the flow is called sonic
flow.
(A) True
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(B) False
10. The cylinder of a gas engine is made _________ than that of the
petrol engine.
(A) Smaller
(B) Larger
11. The sliding pairs, turning pairs and screw pairs form lower pairs.
(A) True
(B) False
12. A long delay period in compression ignition engines gives a more
rapid rise in pressure which causes knocking.
(A) Yes
(B) No
13. In a leaf spring, the length of all the leaves are equal.
(A) True
(B) False
14. The coefficient of restitution for elastic bodies is one.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
15. A notch is, usually, made of a metallic plate.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
16. The swing diameter over carriage is always less than the swing
diameter over bed.
(A) Yes
(B) No
17. In a shaper mechanism, the Coriolis component of acceleration
does not exist.
(A) True
(B) False
18. The sensible heat during humidification process decreases.
(A) True
(B) False
19. Steam engines are called external combustion engines.
(A) Yes
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(B) No
20. Turbulent flow takes place at high velocities.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree


01. The proof resilience per unit volume of a material is known as
modulus of resilience.
(A) True
(B) False
02. When plates are fastened by a rivet, the holes in the plates should
be made by punching and reaming.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
03. In a Proell governor, the balls are attached to the extension of
lower links.
(A) True
(B) False
04. Locomotive boiler is a ________ boiler.
(A) Fire tube
(B) Water tube
05. Liquid fuels have higher calorific value than solid fuels.
(A) Yes
(B) No
06. A Porter governor can not be isochronous.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
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07. If the efficiency of a lifting machine is kept constant, its velocity
ratio is __________ proportional to its mechanical advantage.
(A) Inversely
(B) Directly
08. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the zero stress is
developed on the neutral axis.
(A) True
(B) False
09. A weir is usually made of masonry or concrete.
(A) Yes
(B) No
10. The module is the reciprocal of diametral pitch.
(A) True
(B) False
11. The change of entropy, when heat is removed from the gas, is
negative.
(A) Yes
(B) No
12. Conduction is the process of heat transfer from one particle of the
body to another by the actual motion of the heated particles.
(A) True
(B) False
13. A link or element need not to be a rigid body, but it must be a
resistant body.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
14. An ideal fluid is frictionless and incompressible.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
15. A pattern is used to make the mould cavity for pouring the molten
metal for casting.
(A) Yes
(B) No
16. The delay period in oil engines increases with increase in the speed
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of engine.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
17. Parallel fillet welds are designed for bending strength.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
18. The sensitiveness of a governor depends upon the lift of the sleeve.
(A) Right
(B) Wrong
19. The vacuum pressure is always the negative gauge pressure.
(A) Yes
(B) No
20. In petrol engines, using a fixed octane rating fuel, the increase in
compression ratio will not affect the knocking tendency.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree


01. The module in the reciprocal of diametral pitch.
(A) Yes
(B) No
02. The product of the diametral pitch and module is equal to one.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
03. A turbojet does not require a turbine to drive the compressor.
(A) True
(B) False
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04. A fixture does not guide the tool.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
05. Poise is the unit of viscosity in C.G.S. system of units.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
06. In watches, the spring is used to absorb shocks and vibrations.
(A) Yes
(B) No
07. A typewriter constitutes a machine.
(A) Yes
(B) No
08. The shafts of larger diameter are usually forged and turned to size
in a lathe.
(A) Yes
(B) No
09. In conventional milling, the cutting force tends to lift the work.
(A) True
(B) False
10. The factor of safety is always more than unity.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
11. A force acting in the opposite direction to the motion of the body is
called force of friction.
(A) Disagree
(B) Agree
12. A very sensitive governor will cause hunting.
(A) True
(B) False
13. The property of a liquid which controls its rate of flow is called
viscosity.
(A) True
(B) False
14. The malleable material should be plastic but is not essential to be
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so strong.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
15. The drier in a refrigeration system removes moisture in the
system.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
16. The proof resilience is the maximum strain energy which can be
stored in a body.
(A) Yes
(B) No
17. If a body is thrown upwards, then the gravitational acceleration is
taken as zero.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
18. A tangent key is provided in pairs at right angles and each key is to
withstand torsion in one direction only.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
19. The cut-off ratio is the reciprocal of expansion ratio.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
20. A manometer can be used to measure vacuum pressures.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree

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01. The mechanical draught produces more draught than natural
draught.
(A) True
(B) False
02. A sliding pair has a completely constrained motion.
(A) Yes
(B) No
03. The radial distance from the top of a tooth to the bottom of a tooth
is called clearance
(A) True
(B) False
04. The planes, which carry no shear stress, are known as principal
planes.
(A) True
(B) False
05. A file with 50-60 teeth in 25 mm is called bastard file.
(A) True
(B) False
06. The piston slide valve is an inside admission valve.
(A) Yes
(B) No
07. There is a loss of heat in an irreversible process.
(A) True
(B) False
08. The bell crank levers used in railway signalling arrangement are of
third type levers.
(A) True
(B) False
09. The volume per unit mass of a liquid is called specific volume.
(A) Yes
(B) No
10. D' Alembert's principle basically depends upon Newton's second
law of motion.
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(A) Incorrect
(B) Correct
11. Liquid fuels consist of hydrocarbons.
(A) True
(B) False
12. The minimum size of a billet is 10 cm × 10 cm.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
13. The hoop stress in a thick cylindrical shell is maximum at the inner
radius.
(A) True
(B) False
14. The set screws are used to prevent relative motion between the two
parts.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
15. Laminar flow __________ place at very low velocities.
(A) Takes
(B) Does not take
16. Due to slip of belt, the velocity ratio of the belt drive increases.
(A) Yes
(B) No
17. The heating of a gas at constant pressure is governed by Charles'
law.
(A) True
(B) False
18. The brake commonly used in motor cars is internal expanding
brake.
(A) True
(B) False
19. By decreasing the highest temperature in the Carnot cycle, its
efficiency is increased.
(A) True
(B) False
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20. The density of air is same at different heights.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect

01. A good fuel should have __________ ignition point.
(A) High
(B) Low
02. The working of metals above the recrystallisation temperature is
known as hot working.
(A) True
(B) False
03. The time taken by a particle for one complete oscillation is known
as periodic time.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
04. The springs in cars are used to store strain energy.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
05. The throttling process is an irreversible steady flow expansion
process.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
06. A low wet bulb temperature indicates very ________ humidity.
(A) Low
(B) High
07. The pressure at a stagnation point is always low.
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(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
08. The number of rivets in shear shall be equal to the number of
rivets in crushing.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
09. A force acting in the opposite direction to the motion of the body is
called force of friction.
(A) True
(B) False
10. The torch used for oxygen cutting is same as for oxyacetylene
welding.
(A) Yes
(B) No
11. In oblique cutting system, the tool may or may not generate a
surface parallel to the workface.
(A) Yes
(B) No
12. Circumferential joint in boilers is used to get the required length
of a boiler.
(A) True
(B) False
13. The viscosity of a liquid is due to cohesion of its particles.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
14. If a pendulum is taken 1 km below the earth surface in a mine, it
will __________ in time.
(A) Loose
(B) Gain
15. The unit of Young's modulus is same as that of stress.
(A) True
(B) False
16. In twist fluted drills, chips do not move out automatically.
(A) Correct
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(B) Incorrect
17. For the isochronous Porter governor, the controlling force curve is
a straight line passing through the origin.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
18. Materials which make good moderators do not make good
reflectors.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
19. A supercharger receives air from the atmosphere surrounding the
engine, compresses it to a higher pressure and then feeds it into the
inlet valve of the engine.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
20. The throw of the eccentric is equal to the valve travel.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect


01. In a flange coupling, the thickness of flanges is taken as one-half
the diameter of shaft.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
02. The brake power is always greater than indicated power.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
03. A flow is called sonic, if the Mach number is unity.
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(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
04. In a parallel flow heat exchanger, the rate of flow of heat and the
rate of decrease of temperature are maximum.
(A) Yes
(B) No
05. A steel containing more than 0.8% carbon is known as eutectoid
steel.
(A) Yes
(B) No
06. In a reaction turbine, the water enters the wheel under pressure
and flows over the vanes.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
07. The centrifugal tension on the belt has no effect on the power
transmitted.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
08. During suction stroke of a four stroke petrol engine, the inlet valve
opens and the charge is sucked into the cylinder as the piston moves
upwards from the bottom dead centre.
(A) True
(B) False
09. A shaft is a rotating machine element.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
10. In two dimensional flow, the flow does not take place in a curve.
(A) True
(B) False
11. Slick is used for repairing and finishing the mould.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
12. When a train is rounding a curve, the side thrust on the wheel
flanges is prevented by raising the outer edge of the rail.
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(A) No
(B) Yes
13. The keyways, grooves and slots cannot be cut on a shaper.
(A) True
(B) False
14. Scott Russell's mechanism is made up of sliding pair.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
15. A shaft is designed on the basis of rigidity and stiffness.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
16. Wet bulb temperature indicates the moisture content in air.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
17. A Tandem type compound engine requires a larger flywheel.
(A) True
(B) False
18. When no external force acts on a body, after giving it an initial
displacement, the body is said to have free vibrations.
(A) True
(B) False
19. In tungsten inert gas arc welding, a __________ electrode is used.
(A) Consumable
(B) Non-consumable
20. The minor diameter of a screw thread is also known as outside or
nominal diameter.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect

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01. Energy may be defined as the capacity of doing work.
(A) Incorrect
(B) Correct
02. The value of universal gas constant is same for all gases.
(A) Yes
(B) No
03. The coefficient of friction is the ratio of the limiting friction to the
normal reaction between the two bodies.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
04. The efficiency of Diesel cycle increases with increase in cut-off.
(A) Yes
(B) No
05. The motion of a D-slide valve in a steam engine is simple
harmonic.
(A) Yes
(B) No
06. An irregular body may have more than one centre of gravity.
(A) Yes
(B) No
07. The included angle for the acme thread is 29°.
(A) True
(B) False
08. Cutting fluid has no effect on the tool life.
(A) True
(B) False
09. At the node, the shaft remains unaffected by the vibration.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
10. In diesel engines, the ignition takes place due to the heat produced
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in the engine cylinder at the end of compression.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
11. Stefan-Boltzmann law is applicable for heat transfer by
convection.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
12. The product of the diametral pitch and module is equal to one.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
13. The ratio of driving tensions for rope drive is same as that of V-
belt drive.
(A) Yes
(B) No
14. The centre of gravity of a hemisphere lies at a distance of 3r / 8
from its base measured along the vertical radius.
(A) Incorrect
(B) Correct
15. The action of a centrifugal pump is that of a reversed reaction
turbine.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
16. If the sand is too fine, its permeability will be high.
(A) True
(B) False
17. The natural frequency of free transverse vibrations is same as that
of free longitudinal vibrations.
(A) Right
(B) Wrong
18. In an axial flow reaction turbine, the water flows _________ to the
axis of the wheel.
(A) Parallel
(B) Perpendicular
19. A shoe brake is commonly used in railway trains.
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(A) Yes
(B) No
20. Reflector in nuclear power plants is used to reflect neutrons back
into the active core.
(A) True
(B) False


01. The distance moved by the valve from one end to the other end is
called valve travel.
(A) True
(B) False
02. A diesel engine has inlet valve, fuel injection valve and exhaust
valve.
(A) Yes
(B) No
03. The radius of gyration is the distance where the whole mass (or
area) of a body is assumed to be concentrated.
(A) Incorrect
(B) Correct
04. The thickness of key is usually taken equal to one-sixth of diameter
of shaft.
(A) Yes
(B) No
05. Gagger is used for cleaning the moulding sand.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
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06. Power screws are used to convert rotary motion into translatory
motion.
(A) True
(B) False
07. A Watt's governor is a spring loaded governor.
(A) Yes
(B) No
08. As the cutting speed increases, tool life decreases.
(A) Yes
(B) No
09. A large electrode is used in unshielded arc welding.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
10. The unit of mass moment of inertia in S.I. units is kg-m2.
(A) True
(B) False
11. The plunge grinding requires very __________ speed.
(A) High
(B) Low
12. A pouring basin acts as a reservoir for the molten metal.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
13. Frequency of vibrations means the number of cycles per second.
(A) No
(B) Yes
14. Sulphur dioxide has the lowest boiling point.
(A) Yes
(B) No
15. In bending operation, the metal takes the shape of a punch.
(A) Yes
(B) No
16. The efficiency of a screw jack is dependent upon the load raised or
lowered.
(A) True
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(B) False
17. The entropy is a point function and thus it is a property of the
same.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
18. The kinetic energy of a body __________ upon its mass and
velocity.
(A) Does not depend
(B) Depends
19. The critical pressure gives the velocity of steam at the throat equal
to the velocity of sound.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
20. The workdone in a free expansion process is zero.
(A) True
(B) False


01. Newton's second law motion __________ a relation between force
and mass of a moving body.
(A) Does not give
(B) Gives
02. The specific volume of a system is an __________ property.
(A) Extensive
(B) Intensive
03. The primary unbalanced force of reciprocating masses is inversely
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proportional to the crank radius.
(A) Yes
(B) No
04. The unit of power in S. I. units is kilowatt.
(A) True
(B) False
05. Lancashire boiler is a stationary fire tube boiler.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
06. The negative acceleration is called retardation.
(A) False
(B) True
07. Up milling is also called conventional milling.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
08. A pair is said to be a kinematic pair, if the relative motion between
them is completely or successfully constrained.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
09. For maximum efficiency of an impulse turbine, the steam should
leave the blades at right angles to their motion.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
10. Two equal and opposite parallel forces whose lines of action are
different form a couple.
(A) Incorrect
(B) Correct
11. The slowing down of fast neutrons is desirable because slow
moving neutrons are more effective than fast neutrons in triggering
fission.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
12. A body is said to move or vibrate with simple harmonic motion if
its acceleration is directed towards the mean position.
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(A) False
(B) True
13. The elements are made up of minute and chemically invisible
particles as atoms.
(A) True
(B) False
14. Cornish boilers are multi-tubular boilers.
(A) True
(B) False
15. The pitching of a ship is assumed to take place with simple
harmonic motion.
(A) Yes
(B) No
16. Ceramic tools has greater tool life than carbide tools.
(A) True
(B) False
17. The velocity ratio for the second system of pulleys is n.
(A) False
(B) True
18. Coke oven gas is obtained by burning coke in an oven.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
19. Special reactors, called breeder reactors, supply a net gain of
fissionable material.
(A) True
(B) False
20. The potential energy stored by a spring in compression, is called
strain energy.
(A) No
(B) Yes

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01. Most of the engines, generally, do not require balancing of
secondary forces and couples.
(A) Right
(B) Wrong
02. Cemented carbide tools are generally poor in shear.
(A) Yes
(B) No
03. A closed cycle gas turbine works on Joule's cycle.
(A) True
(B) False
04. A single stage turbine is not used because it requires large
reduction gearing due to very high rotational speed.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
05. A non-reversible machine is also called a self-locking machine.
(A) Disagree
(B) Agree
06. In welding aluminium with TIG arc welding, alternating current is
used.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
07. The motion of the body from one extremity to the other is known
as a beat.
(A) Disagree
(B) Agree
08. A railway bridge is an example of a machine.
(A) True
(B) False
09. Mild steel during machining produces __________ chips.
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(A) Continuous
(B) Discontinuous
10. It is __________ to make an engine working on a Carnot cycle.
(A) Possible
(B) Impossible
11. The loss of kinetic energy during elastic impact is zero.
(A) Disagree
(B) Agree
12. In petrol engines, using a fixed octane rating fuel, the increase in
engine speed will decrease the knocking tendency.
(A) Yes
(B) No
13. The turbine blades do not change the direction of steam issuing
from the nozzle.
(A) True
(B) False
14. The uniform pressure theory gives a higher frictional torque than
the uniform wear theory.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
15. The centre of gravity of a rectangle lies at a point where its two
diagonals meet each other.
(A) Disagree
(B) Agree
16. The pressure of steam at throat of a steam nozzle is called critical
pressure.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
17. The in-feed grinding is similar to plunge grinding.
(A) Yes
(B) No
18. The amount, by which the outer edge of the rail is raised, is known
as super-elevation.
(A) Disagree
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(B) Agree
19. The two rolls in a two high rolling mills are of ________ size.
(A) Equal
(B) Different
20. A pendulum type governor is a Watt governor.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree


01. A nozzle is said to be a convergent-divergent nozzle, when the
cross-section of a nozzle first decreases from its entrance to throat and
then increases from its throat to exit.
(A) True
(B) False
02. The entropy of the universe is continually on the increase.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
03. The angle which the normal reaction makes with the resultant
reaction is called angle of friction.
(A) Disagree
(B) Agree
04. The spigot and socket joint is mostly used for pipes which are
buried in the earth.
(A) Agree
(B) Disagree
05. An ignition coil in the spark ignition engines supplies ________
voltage to the spark plug.
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(A) High
(B) Low
06. The moment of inertia of a square of side a about its base is a4/ 3.
(A) False
(B) True
07. Both the Ericsson and Joule's cycle have two constant pressure
processes.
(A) True
(B) False
08. The maximum displacement of a body, from its mean position is
called amplitude.
(A) True
(B) False
09. The ideal efficiency of simple gas turbine cycle depends upon
pressure ratio.
(A) Yes
(B) No
10. Vectors method for the resultant force is also called polygon law of
forces.
(A) Incorrect
(B) Correct
11. Cold working requires much higher pressure that hot working.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect
12. The stage efficiency is the ratio of energy supplied to the blades per
kg of steam to the total energy supplied per stage per kg of steam.
(A) True
(B) False
13. The path of the projectile is a parabola.
(A) True
(B) False
14. The friction experienced by a body, when at rest, is known as static
friction.
(A) Yes
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(B) No
15. Gas turbine cycle consists of
(A) 2 isentropic and 2 constant volumes
(B) 2 isentropic and 2 constant pressures
16. If percentage elongation of a certain specimen made of a material
'A' under tensile test is 30% and the percentage elongation of a
specimen with same dimensions made of another material 'B' is 40%,
then material 'B' is more ductile than material 'A'.
(A) Correct
(B) Incorrect

END
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9. Hydraulics & Fluid Machineries:

10. Heat & Mass Transfer:

11. Theory of Machines:

12. Engineering Drawing:

13. Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning:

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20. Mechanical Engineering Quiz Series

01. A cube subjected to three mutually perpendicular stress of equal

07. The torque transmitted by a hollow shaft of outer diameter (d₁)

(A) A horizontal line

(A) Before point A

(A) Wl3 / 48EI

(A) Mild steel

(A) 0.4 radian

(A) Elastic limit

(A) l/3 from B

Strength of Materials: Test 01

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Strength of Materials: Test 02

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Strength of Materials: Test 03

01. When a gas is heated, change takes place in

Answers: Thermodynamics Test 01

190. The application of third type levers is found in

Machine Design: Test 01

Machine Design: Test 02

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Machine Design: Test 03

Answers: Machine Design Test 03

I.C Engine Test:

Answers: I.C Engine Test

Automobile Engineering Test:

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(A) P/sin β = Q/sin α = R/sin ɣ

(A) Perfect frame

(A) Two times

(A) In the shaded area

(A) √3. W (tensile) and 2W (compressive)

(A) h [(2a + b)/(a + b)]

(A) π/16 (D² - d²)

(A) m₁. m₂. g/(m₁ + m₂)

(A) (BD³/12) - (bd³/12)

Engineering Mechanics: Test 01

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Engineering Mechanics: Test 02

Answers: Engineering Mechanics Test 02

Answers: Engineering Materials Test

01. When a body is placed over a liquid, it will sink down if

351. The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m3

452. A vessel of 4 m3 contains oil which weighs 30 kN. The specific

Fluid Mechanics: Test 01

Answers: Fluid Mechanics Test 01

Fluid Mechanics: Test 02

Answers: Fluid Mechanics Test 02

Fluid Mechanics: Test03