AIRCRAFT LANDING GEAR SYSTEMS – TEST SET “B”

1. On a fixed landing gear installation, streamlined fairing is fitted to the landing gear
wheel to:-

A) reduce parasite drag

B) reduce induce drag
C) reduce interference drag

2. Aircraft with a tricycle landing gear arrangement will have its Centre of Gravity
located:-

A) aft of main landing gears

B) fwd of main landing gears
C) in line with fuselage centre line

3. In a large aircraft, multiple wheels or bogie type landing gears are used to:-

A) absorb greater landing shock

B) allow smaller turning radius on ground
C) spread the aircraft weight over a large area

4. One of the advantage of a tricycle landing gear installation is:-

A) permits better visibility for the pilot during landing and takeoff
B) permits the used of a shorter runway path
C) lightweight and ease of maintenance

5. Regardless of its condition, what is the recommended replacement interval of

rubber cord shock absorber?:-

A) 10 years
B) 7 years
C) 5 years

6. In a typical oleo pneumatic shock strut, wheel axles are mounted to the:-

A) centering cam of the shock strut

B) inner cylinder of the shock strut
C) outer cylinder of the shock strut

7. In an oleo pneumatic shock absorber, the purpose of a metering pin is to:-

A) control the rate of fluid flow from the lower chamber to the upper
chamber
B) prevent strut from bottoming in the event of oil leaks
C) dampen the shock during taxiing

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8. What is the most probable cause if the oleo pneumatic strut oil level is extremely
low?:-

A) Strut becomes too stiff results in a decreased ability to absorb energy

B) May cause the strut to rupture on hard landings
C) Strut may bottom up with metal-to-metal contact during normal
landings

9. In an oleo pneumatic shock absorber, the taxiing shock is cushioned by:-

A) hydraulic fluid
B) air or nitrogen
C) both hydraulic fluid and nitrogen

10. What is the first action to be taken prior to servicing the shock strut with oil?:-

A) Release air pressure from strut chamber first by depressing the valve
core
B) Drain all residue oil in the strut chamber first prior to releasing air
C) Either releasing air or draining oil from the strut makes no difference

11. On a small aircraft equipped with castoring nose wheel, steering is generally
accomplished by:-

A) steering wheel
B) differential braking
C) rudder pedal

12. The purpose of landing gear selector lever safety interlock is to:-

A) provide a substitute if there is no provision for ground lock

B) prevent inadvertent gear down selection during cruise
C) prevent gear lever from being selected to gear up position

13. In the event of main system failure, all retractable landing gear must have a back
up system for:-

A) lowering the landing gear

B) retracting the landing gear
C) retracting and extending the landing gear

14. If the main wheels try to move closer together in forward direction, they are termed
as:-
A) toed-out
B) toed-in
C) toed-centred

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15. On fixed spring steel landing gear, the toe in and toe out may be adjusted by
using:-

A) tapered shims between the torque links

B) washers between the torque links
C) tapered shim between landing gear leg and wheel axle

16. What is the main advantage of having a forward retraction landing gear?:-

A) Less hydraulic pressure is required during retraction cycle

B) Back-up pressure system is not required during emergency extension
C) Airflow will assist in emergency extension of the landing gear

17. Landing gear down and locked is indicated by:-

A) green light
B) red light
C) no light

18. What is the advantage of having wheel constructed in two pieces (divided or split
type wheel)?:-

A) Greater resistance to tyre wear

B) Ease of mounting the tyre
C) Ability to with stand greater static load

19. Steel keyways on the inboard wheel half are fitted to:-

A) turn brake rotor disc

B) hold stationary brake disc
C) turn brake stator disc

20. During a routine inspection, one of the fusible plug were found deformed, what are
your necessary corrective action?:-

A) As long as the fusible plug is not melted, it is considered serviceable

B) Replace the defective plug only
C) Replace all fusible plugs on that wheel

21. The recommended Non-Destructive Test on wheel tie bolt is:-

A) Dye penetrant inspection

B) Magnetic particle inspection
C) Eddy current inspection

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22. What is the recommended action to be taken prior to removing a main wheel
equipped with a multiple-disc brake?:-

A) Disconnect brake hydraulic line

B) Ensure park brake is in OFF position
C) Set park brake to ON position

23. Dry operation of the aircraft wheel bearing is indicated by:-

A) discolouration of roller surface

B) rusting on the roller surface
C) slight chipping on the roller surface

24. Small dips or indentation on bearing outer race or cup is termed as:-

A) water stain
B) brinelling
C) spalling

25. The rotating discs of multi-disc brake unit is segmented to:-

A) prevent rapid wear of friction pads

B) reduce weight and reduce friction area
C) provide rapid cooling and expansion thus improved braking

26. The clamping force is applied to the rotors and stators of hydraulic operated
multiple discs brake by the movement of the:-

A) piston and torque plate against thrust plate

B) torque plate and the thrust plate
C) piston and thrust plate against torque plate

27. In multi disk brake, the plate that is keyed to the torque tube is called:-

A) rotating disc
B) stationary disk
C) floating disk

28. In a single disk brake, a device used to maintain a constant clearance between the
lining and the disc when the brake is released is:-

A) automatic adjuster
B) return spring
C) spring retainer

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29. In a single disk brake without automatic adjustment, the lining wear is determined
by measuring the distance between the disc and:-

A) brake housing with the brake released

B) lining with the brake applied
C) brake housing with the brake applied

30. One of the advantage of a carbon multiple disc brake is:-

A) strength does not decrease at elevated temperatures

B) less expensive compared to conventional steel brake
C) less maintenance cost

31. A weak return spring in the wheel brake assembly would probably cause:-
A) brake warping
B) brake dragging
C) brake fading
*

32. What is the function of spool spring in the power brake control valve?:-

A) Increases the pressure exerted on the spool

B) Aids pilot in applying the brake
C) Provides artificial feel to the pilot

33. In an anti-skid system, a device that sends an output voltage directly proportional
to wheel rotation is called:-

A) wheel speed sensor

B) anti-skid control unit
C) anti-skid control valve

34. In an anti-skid system, a device used to conserve main hydraulic system pressure
by limiting the flow of fluid to the brakes after initial brake application is:-

A) pressure maintaining valve

B) modulator
C) pressure reducing valve

35. Excessive wear on tyre shoulder area is an indication of:-

A) tyre operated with inadequate inflation pressure

B) tyre operated with excessive inflation pressure
C) excessive brake usage

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36. When tubed tyre fitted to an aircraft has been moved beyond its maximum creep
mark, it must be:-

A) deflated, reversed backwards in line with the creep mark

B) deflated and moved forwards in line with the creep mark
C) deflated, removed and inspected for damage before re-use

37. Remedy for a deform flat tyre which has developed in a nylon casing tyre due to too
long standing in one position is by:-

A) jacking up, deflating the wheel and re-inflating to correct pressure

B) towing the aircraft for short distance
C) inflating to normal pressure plus 25% and then reducing pressure to normal

38. The two methods used to bleed the brake system are:-

A) Gravity and Pressure

B) Gravity and Suction
C) Suction and Pressure

39. What is the significance of red spot or triangle on the sidewall of the aircraft tyre? :-

A) Heavy spot of tyre

B) Light spot of tyre
C) Location of awl vent marks

40. A contributory cause of tyre creep could be:-

A) over inflation
B) worn tread pattern
C) under inflation

41. The most recommended method of tire storage is:-

A) stored vertically on racks whenever possible

B) stored in horizontally stack for large diameter tire
C) you may stored in any position depends on storage space

42. Tyre marking on the sidewall designated as 10.00 – 18 indicates:-

A) 10 inches outside diameter with 18 inches bead diameter

B) 18 inches outside diameter with 10 inches section width
C) 10 inches section width with 18 inches bead diameter

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43. What would you quote when placing an order for a replacement tyre?:-

A) Part number
B) Serial number
C) Tire size

44. Ribbed tyre without marker tie bars is considered worn to limit when:-

A) the tread is worn to the depth of the pattern

B) center of the crown shows sign of having been contact with the ground
C) worn to within 2mm of the wear indicator grooves

45. Hydraulic pressure for operation of nose wheel steering is derived from:-

A) nose landing gear return line

B) nose landing gear down line
C) nose landing gear up line

46. In independent master brake cylinder, the fluid from the wheel unit is vented to the
atmosphere through the:-

A) filler plug
B) piston
C) compensator port

47. Power brake on large aircraft is operated by the pressure from the:-

A) main hydraulic system

B) brake master cylinder
C) boosted brake master cylinder

48. To ensure safety and inadvertent operation of emergency pneumatic brake control
valve, the operating handle is normally:-

A) wire locked with stainless steel wire

B) wire locked with copper wire
C) not locked for easy operation

49. In power brake system, a device used to reduce system pressure and increase
volume of hydraulic fluid is:-

A) De-booster
B) Pressure reducer
C) Pressure regulator

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50. When performing inspection on dual mounted tire, the difference in air pressure
between, whether main or nose:-
A) Should not be more than 20%
B) Should not be more than 10%
C) Should not be less than 10%

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