NLE NP1 Questions

NURSING PRACTICE I
FOUNDATION OF PROFESSIONAL NURSING PRACTICE
1. While caring for an 8-year-old child with a broken wrist, the nurse notices red, raised
streaks on the child’s back. The child’s father enters the room and the child becomes
quiet and distant, leaning away from the father as he approaches. What is the best
nursing action?
a. Chart the child was probably beaten by the father
b. Notify the supervisor to report possible child abuse
c. Disregard suspicions and care for the immediate needs of the child
d. No action is required; there is no actual proof of abuse to the child
Answer: B
Rationale: Any suspected child abuse should be reported to the appropriate agencies.
Source: Illustrated Study Guide for the NCLEX-RN Exam by JoAnn Zerweck, 6 th
edition, page 615
2. A nurse manager has been notified to obtain a bed for a client. Of the following
clients, which one would the nurse anticipate being able to discharge?
a. A client who had myocardial infarction 2 days ago. His vital signs are: BP 150/94
mmHg, pulse 84 beats/min and irregular, respiration 28 breaths/min, minimal chest pain
b. A client who underwent an abdominal aneurysm resection 3 days ago. His vital signs
are BP 130/88 mmHg, pulse 88 beats/min, respiration 22 breaths/min, and oral
temperature 101º F. He is beginning oral intake without problems
c. A client who has a subdural hematoma. He is lethargic; pulse is 60 beats/min,
respiration is 28 breaths/min, temperature is 99º F
d. A client who had abdominal surgery for a bowel obstruction 4 days ago. He has
bowel sounds, is taking fluids orally, has an abdominal Penrose drain, and is continuing
to experience abdominal pain.
Answer: D
Rationale: D represents the most stable client that could be discharged. Clients in A
and C are showing signs of being unstable with their diagnosis. The client in B is stable,
but because of the extensiveness of his surgery and because he had surgery only 3
days ago, he is a less likely candidate to move than the client in option D.
edition, page 615
3. Delegation is the process of transferring work to subordinates. A nurse-manager can

appropriately
delegate which task?
a. Scheduling staff assignments for the next month
b. Terminating a nursing assistant for insubordination
c. Deciding on salary increases for licensed practical nurses after they complete
orientation
d. Telling a staff nurse to initiate disciplinary action aginst one of her peers
Answer: A
Rationale: Scheduling may be safely and appropriately delegated. Termination,
disciplinary action, and salary increases shouldn’t be delegated to staff, which doesn’t
have the power and the authority to take such actions
Source: NCLEX-RN Questions and Answers made Incredibly Easy, 2 nd edition, 2003,
page 780
4. The nurse is planning assignments. Which task can be safely delegated to a nursing
assistant?
a. Obtain a stool specimen from a client with diarrhea
b. Assist client with a new colostomy in practicing his first colostomy irrigation
c. Evaluate the voiding pattern for a client who had a urinary retention catheter
removed
d. Obtain a dietary history from a client with peptic ulcer disease.
Answer: A
Rationale: The assignment in A has the most specific guidelines for performance. The
other procedures require assessment and judgment and should not be assigned to a
nursing assistant.
edition, page 614
5. A staff nurse on a busy pediatric unit is an excellent role model for her colleagues.
She encourages
them to participate in the unit’s decision-making process and helps them improve
their clinical skills.
This nurse is functioning effectively in which role?
a. Manager b. Autocrat c. Leader d. Authority
Answer: C
Rationale: A leader doesn’t have formal power and authority but influences the success
of a unit by being an excellent role model and by guiding, encouraging, and facilitating
professional growth and development.
page 778
6. A nurse-manager on an oncology unit has been informed that she must determine
which nursing
care delivery system is the best for efficient client care, client satisfaction, and cost
reduction.
Knowing that 2 or 3 registered nurses, 4 licensed practical nurses, and 5 nursing
assistants are
generally on duty on each shift and that the clients can be grouped fairly easily by
geographic
location and client care needs, the nurse-manager and her staff appropriately decide
to implement
which nursing care delivery system?
a. Functional nursing c. Team Nursing
b. Case management d. Primary Nursing
Answer: C
Rationale: Team nursing is efficient and cost less to implement than primary or case
management systems. Because the staff members know each other well, they can
function effectively as a team. Although functional nursing is the most cost effective,
care is commonly fragmented and client satisfaction decreased. Case management and
primary nursing require more registered nurses than are available.
Source: NCLEX-RN Questions and Answers made Incredibly Easy, 2nd edition, 2003,
page 779
7. The charge nurse is planning assignments for the nursing staff. One of the staff
nurses is pregnant.
Which client would not be appropriate to assign to this nurse?
a. Child with brain tumor being treated with radiation
b. Infant with respiratory syncytial virus receiving ribavirin
c. Toddler who is HIV+ and has an opportunistic respiratory tract infection
d. Child with leukemia who is receiving Oncovin (Vincristine) and Zyloprim (allopurinol)
Answer: B
Rationale: Involves contact with a medication that is teratogenic and is classified as
Pregnancy Risk category X. The other clients do not pose a risk to the pregnant nurse.
edition, page 615
8. A nurse-manager appropriately behaves as an autocrat in which situation?

a. Planning vacation time for staff
b. Directing staff activities if a client has a cardiac arrest
c. Evaluating a new medication administration process
d. Identifying the strengths and weaknesses of a client education video
Answer: B
Rationale: In a crisis situation, the nurse- manager should take command for the
benefit of the client. Planning vacation time and evaluating procedures and client
resources require staff input characteristic of a democratic or participative manager.
page 781
9. There are phases in the change process to be considered, the first one should be:
a. Refreezing b. Unfreezing c. Changing d. Resisting
Answer: B
Rationale: In the change process the first step is unfreezing followed by moving and
refreezing.
Source: Guide to Nursing Management and Leadership by Ann Tomey, 6 th edition,
2000, page 273
10. Form of communication that travels from staff and lower middle level management
personnel and
continues up the organizational hierarchy is:
a. Downward b. Upward c. Matrix d. Grapevine
Answer: B
Rationale: Upward communication emanates from subordinates and goes upward.
Source: Nursing Management towards Quality Care by Lydia Venzon, 2 nd edition, page
102
11. What is a key component in a quality assurance program?

a. Patient satisfaction questionnaire
b. Determination of criteria to meet standards
c. Case management for continuity of care
d. An acuity system for client classification
Answer: B
Rationale: In a quality assurance program, there must be standards from which to
measure progress. Criteria are established to obtain objective measurement.
edition, page 615
12. Which of the following tools can be most helpful in the evaluation of staff
performance?
a. Performance assessment c. Performance audit
b. Performance standard d. Performance appraisal
Answer: D
Rationale: Performance appraisal is a control process in which employee’s
performance is evaluated against standards. It is the most valuable tool in controlling
human resources and productivity.
Source: Nursing Management towards Quality Care by Lydia Venzon, 2 nd edition, page
128
13. A storm has prevented most of the staff members from getting to work on a busy
medical-surgical
unit. One registered nurse, 2 licensed practical nurses, and 3 nursing assistants
have been able to
work. The nurse-manager must decide which nursing care delivery system should
be
implemented for the best possible client care during this staffing crisis. The nurse-
manager directs
the staff to implement which delivery system?
a. Team nursing c. Functional nursing
b. Primary nursing d. Case management
Answer: C
Rationale: Functional nursing best uses the skills in a timely manner during this crisis.
This delivery system requires the least staff and delegates tasks to those who can best
perform them.
page 780
14. The nurse-manager of a 20-bed coronary care unit isn’t on duty when a staff nurse
makes a
serious medication error. The client, who received an overdose of medication, nearly
dies. Which
statement accurately reflects the accountability of the nurse-manager?
a. The nursing supervisor on duty will call the nurse-manager at home and apprise her
of the problem
b. Because the nurse-manager is off duty, she isn’t accountable for incidents that occur
in her absence. Therefore, the nurse manager won’t be notified
c. The nurse-manager will be informed of the incident when returning to work on
Monday because the nurse-manager was officially off duty when the incident took place
d. Although the nurse-manager is off duty, the nursing supervisor believes that the
manager has no responsibility for what happened during the manager’s absence
Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse-manager is accountable for what happens on the unit 24 hours
per day, 7 days per week. If a serious problem occurs, the nurse-manager should be
notified as soon as possible. The other choices don’t accurately reflect the
accountability of the nurse-manager’s position.
page 777
15. The selection of a nursing care delivery system is critical to the success of a nursing
area. Which
factor is essential in the evaluation of a nursing care delivery system?
a. Determining how planned absences, such as vacation time, will be scheduled so
that all staff are treated fairly
b. Identifying who will be responsible for making client care decisions
c. Deciding what type of dress code will be implemented
d. Identifying salary ranges for various types of staff
Answer: B
Rationale: Determining who has responsibility for making decision regarding client care
is an essential element of all client care delivery systems. Dress code, salary, and
scheduling planned staff absences are important to any organization but aren’t actually
determined by nursing care delivery system.
page 779
16. The nurse –manager in the office of a group of surgeons has received complaints
from discharged
clients about inadequate instructions for performing home care. Knowing the
importance of good,
timely client education, the nurse should take which steps?
a. Contact the nurses who work in the facility and tell them that client education should
be implemented as soon as the clients are admitted to either the hospital or the
outpatient surgical center
b. Review and revise the way client education is conducted in the surgeons’ office
c. Because no serious damage was done to any of the clients, the nurse-manager can
safely ignore their complaints
d. Work with the surgeons’ and nursing staff in the hospital and outpatient surgical
center to evaluate current client education practices and revise as needed
Answer: D
Rationale: Client education is the responsibility of all nurses providing care to the client,
and the nurse must work together to establish the best methods. The most appropriate
response is to contact the nurse manager, not the nursing staff, at the facility. Evaluating
client education in one setting only doesn’t consider the entire process and the staff
providing it. No complaint should be ignored; patient education is an important nursing
responsibility.
page 780
17. When the team approach is utilized in a management situation the subordinates
should be aware
that they should receive order from only one person. This principle is:
a. Unity of command c. Centralization
b. Chain of command d. Channel of communication
Answer: A
Rationale: Unity of command is represented by the vertical solid line between positions
on an organizational chart. It indicates one person has one boss
Source: Guide to Nursing Management and Leadership by Ann Tomey, 6 th edition,
2000, page 236
18. Which of the following would the nurse identify as an indication that the client
understands the
informed consent document?
a. The client states that the physician has explained the procedure to him
b. The nurse finds the informed consent form already signed
c. The client can give return verbal explanation of the informed consent document
d. The client states that his wife read it and said it was okay
Answer: C
Rationale: The client needs top show an understanding of the informed consent
document by giving an explanation in his own words
edition, page 615
19. The nurse enters data on a chart and discovers she has written on the wrong chart.
How is this
error best corrected?
a. White out the wrong information and write over it
b. Recopy the page with error so chart will be neat
c. Draw a straight line through the error, initial and date
d. Obliterate the error so it will not be confusing
Answer: C
Rationale: Errors in charting should never be obliterated, recopied, or covered with
correction fluid. When the erroneous information is not legible, it raises questions as to
what the person was trying to cover up.
Source: Illustrated Study Guide for the NCLEX-RN by JoAnn Zerwekh, 6 th edition,
2006,page 615
20. Performance improvement is an important component of continuous quality

improvement. Which
action should an effective nurse- manager take when conducting performance
evaluations?
a. Conduct performance evaluation in a group setting so input from peers and
subordinates is
considered when evaluating a staff member’s effectiveness.
b. Provide feedback on strengths as well as areas for improvement and clarify what the
staff
member is expected to accomplish before the next performance evaluation
c. Document areas for improvement in writing. Areas of strength don’t need to be
documented because these areas are complementary and don’t describe actions
the staff
member must take to improve
d. Delegate responsibility for conducting performance evaluations to primary nurses
whenever possible to help them grow professionally.
Answer: B
Rationale: An effective performance evaluation provides recognition of strengths,
identifies areas for improvement, and clarifies performance expectations. Performance
evaluation should be done in private, not in front of others. All components of a
performance evaluation should be documented in writing. Although input from staff
members can be useful in preparing performance evaluations, delegating all
responsibility to others is inappropriate. The nurse- manager is responsible for the
performance of the staff.
page 784
21. The correct sequence of steps in the research process is:

1. Selection and development of the tools/ techniques for collecting data
2. Formulation of hypothesis
3. Determining the research design or the approach suitable for the study
4. Formulation of the problem
a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 4, 1, 2, 3 c. 4, 2, 3, 1 d. 1, 3, 4, 2
Answer: C
Rationale: The major steps in the research process listed in chronological order as
follows: Formulation of the problem, formulation of the hypothesis, determining the
research design or the approach suitable for the study, selection and development of
the tools/techniques for collecting data.
Source: Introduc When selecting your study sample. Which of the following activities
should you do first?
22. When selecting your study sample. Which of the following activities should you do
first?
a. specify the sampling frame
b. identify the target population
c. specify the criteria for selection of subjects
d. identify the available population
Answer: B
Rationale: In selecting study sample the researcher must first identify the target
population. He/she must identify the common characteristics of the population.
Source: Understanding Nursing Research by Carol Macnee, 2004, page 103 tion to
Nursing Research by Lydia Venzon, 2004, page 36-37
23. You decided to use convenience sampling. This is an example of convenience

sampling:
a. selection with consent c. availability of subjects
b. simple selection d. first come, first selected basis
Answer: C
Rationale: In convenience sampling data are collected from anyone most conveniently
available such as people on a street.
Source: Introduction to Nursing Research by Lydia Venzon, 2004, page 53
24. You decided to use Prospective Longitudinal Sampling. Which of the following is an
example of
this?
a. Growth of newborn 2 years ago to the present
b. Mastectomy patients are studied from operation to 3 years after discharge
c. Asking high school students their choices of career after graduation
d. Asking mothers their past experiences in giving birth
Answer: B
Rationale: In longitudinal sampling a given group of subjects are studied for an
extended period of time, which can be retrospective (past) or prospective (future)
25. A type of sampling that starts with one participant or member of the population and
uses that
member’s contacts to identify other potential participants for the study is:
a. cluster sampling c. snowball sampling
b. convenience sampling d. purposive sampling
Answer: C
Rationale: Snowball sampling involves subjects suggesting or referring other subjects
who meet the researcher’s eligibility criteria.
26. A patient refuses to take his antibiotics because he believes that it’s not giving him
any good. Which of the following actions of the nurse is MOST appropriate?
a. Explains to the patient that he needs the medications for his recovery and clarify any
misconceptions
b. Writes in the chart that the patient refuses to take his medication
c. Refer to the attending physician about his refusal
d. Ask the patient to sign the waiver of responsibility
Answer: A
Rationale: The nurse must explain all the appropriate measures that have to be done to
the patient. If after the explanation, he still refuses to sign the consent form he should
be made to fill out the release form to protect the hospital/personnel from any liability
that may result from his refusal.
Source: Professional Nursing in the Philippines by Lydia Venzon, 9 th edition, 2003, p.
135
27. When conflict arises regarding management of patient care, which of the following
should be
upheld?
a. Physician’s orders c. Patient’s rights
b. Preference of the family d. Institutional Policy
Answer: C
Rationale: when conflict arises regarding management of patient care, the patients’
right are upheld.
Source: Professional Nursing in the Philippines by Lydia Venzon, 9 th edition, 2003,
page 83
28. The most common major risk to safety of unconscious patient in the hospital is:
a. carbon dioxide poisoning c. falls
b. any poisoning d. insect bites
Answer: C
Rationale: The most common risk for unconscious patients is falls. For the protection of
patient, padded siderails are provided and raised at all times.
Source: Brunner and Suddarth’s Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing, 10 th edition,
2004, page 1854
29. Devolution of the Health department of care is implemented in order to:

a. bring services near to the people c. become self reliant
b. empower local politician d. stop funding for national funds
Answer: A
Rationale: Local Government Code transfers responsibility for delivery of basic
services and facilities of the national government to local government units to bring
services near to the people.
page 119
30. Which of the following is your vital role in cancer care?

a. arrange for spiritual consultation c. maintain dignity of patient
b. allow patient to get angry d. control shame and guilt
Answer: C
Rationale: The primary responsibility of the nurse to the patient is to give him/her the
kind of care his/her needs regardless of his/her status.
page 86
31. If the died without a will, the succession is called:

a. holographic will b. testate c. heir d. intestate
Answer: D
Rationale: a person who dies leaving a will is said to have died testate, while one who
dies without a will is said to have died intestate.
page 190
32. This is treated as the most important attribute of a true Professional Nurse
a. competence and independent approach
b. professional accountability
c. self autonomy
d. responsibility
Answer: A
Rationale: Nurses must acquire and develop the necessary competence.
page 82
33. The board may allow licensed nurses from foreign countries or state to practice
nursing in the Philippines through special and temporary permit if they belong to the
following categories EXCEPT:
a. internationally-well specialist or outstanding experts in any branch of specialty
of nursing
b. nurses on medical mission whose services shall be free in a particular
hospital, center or
clinic
c. employed by schools, colleges of nursing as exchange professors in a branch
or specialty
of nursing
d. Balikbayan nurses who wants to practice nursing in order to earn credits for
continuing
professional education
Answer: B
Rationale: A special/temporary permit may be issued by the Board to the following
persons: Licensed nurses from foreign countries/states whose service are either for a
fee or free; Licensed nurses from foreign countries/states on medical mission whose
services shall be free in a particular hospital; and Licensed nurses from foreign
countries/states employed by schools/colleges of nursing as exchange professors in a
branch of specialty or training
Source: Professional Nursing in the Philippines by Lydia Venzon, 9 th edition, 2003, page
10
34. The following are grounds for the suspension and revocation of certificates of
registration/professional license or special/temporary permit; which one is NOT
included?
a. use of fictitious date in obtaining a professional license
b. Commission of a serious negligence
c. Unprofessional or unethical conduct
d. Not a member of the accredited professional organization
Answer: D
Rationale: The Nursing Board of the PRC shall have the power to revoke or suspend
the certificate of registration of a nurse upon any of the ff. grounds: unprofessional and
unethical conduct; gross incompetence or serious ignorance and the use of fraud,
deceit, or false statements in obtaining a certificate of registration
page 16
35. Nursing is considered as rewarding and fulfilling career. Nursing is best described
as a profession that;
a. concerned with patients
b. concerned with proper organization of the ward
c. assist the people towards self care
d. helps to prevent disease and promote wellness
Answer: D
Rationale: As independent practitioners, nurses are primarily responsible for the
promotion of health and prevention of illness.
page 205
36. Which of the following are grounds for removal of suspension of the Board
Members?
1. Unprofessional, immoral or dishonorable conduct
2. Continued neglect of duty
3. Commission or toleration of irregularities in the licensure examination
4. Gross incompetence or serious ignorance
a. 1,2,4 b. 2,3,4 c. 1,3,4 d. 1,2,3
Answer: D
Rationale: The President may remove or suspend any member of the Board after
having been given the opportunity to defend himself/herself in a proper administrative
investigation, on the following grounds: continued neglect of duty or incompetence;
commission or toleration of irregularities in the licensure examination and
unprofessional, immoral or dishonorable conduct.
page 23-24
37. The Board has the mandate to determine whether an applicant for the licensure
examination is
qualified to take the said examination. Who among the following is NOT qualified
under the
provision of the law?
a. Nurse who finished BSN then proceeded to pursue a medical degree
b. Medical degree graduate who pursued nursing course for one year.
c. Midwife graduate who took up nursing following the AHSE program
d. BSN graduate of a ladderized BSN curriculum
Answer: B
Rationale: In order to be admitted to the examination for nurses an applicant must be a
holder of a Bachelor’s Degree in Nursing from a college or university that complies with
the standards of nursing education duly recognized by the proper government agency.
page 11
38. Which TWO of the following courses of action would an examinee that got a general
average of 76.8% but a rating of 59% in Curative-A need a take?
1 Repeat the whole examination all over again
2 Take only the subject where she got a rating below 60%
3 Enroll in a refresher course in the subject that she failed
4 Obtain a score of 75% in the repeated subjects
a. 1&2 b. 2&3 c. 1&3 d. 2&4
Answer: D
Rationale: An examinee who obtains an average rating of 75% or higher but gets a
rating below 60% in any subject must take the examination again but only in the subject
or subjects where he/she is rated below 60%. In order to pass the succeeding
examination, an examinee must obtain a rating of at least 75 % in the subject or
subjects repeated.
page 13
39. Which of the following considered quasi-judicial powers of the Board?

a. Conduct licensure examination
b. Recognize nursing specialty organization
c. Conduct hearing and investigations to resolve complaints against nurses
d. Promulgate a Code of Ethics for nurses
Answer: C
Rationale: Conducting hearings and investigations to resolve complaints against nurse
practitioners for unethical and unprofessional conduct and violations is a quasi-judicial
power of the Board.
page 25-26
40. Some functions of the board are considered to be quasi-legislative. Which of the
following
functions belong to this category?
a. Ensure quality nursing education by examining prescribed facilities of colleges of
nursing
b. Monitor and enforce quality standards of nursing education in the Philippines
c. Prescribe, adopt and promulgate guidelines, regulations, measures and decisions as
maybe necessary for the improvement of the nursing practice.
d. Issue, suspend and revoke certificates of registration for the practice of nursing
Answer: C
Rationale: Prescribe, adopt, issue and promulgate guidelines, regulations, measures
and decisions as may be necessary for the improvement of the nursing practice and the
advancement of the profession are considered as quasi-legislative power of the Board.
page 26
41. Which of the following areas should be represented by the members of the Board?
1. Nursing education
2. Nursing practice
3. Community health Nursing
4. Maternal & Child health
Nursing
a. 1,2,3 b. 2,3,4 c. 1,3,4 d. 1,2,3,4
Answer: A
Rationale: The board created under Section 3, Article III of the said Nursing Act shall be
composed of a Chairperson and 6 members, representing the 3 areas of nursing,
namely, nursing education, nursing service, and community health nursing.
page 25
42. The following are qualifications of the Chairperson of the Board. Which one is NOT
included?
a. A natural born citizen and resident of the Philippines
b. Member of good standing of the Philippine Nurses Ass.
c. Be a registered nurse and holder of a Master’s degree in Hospital Administration
d. Have at least ten years of continuous practice of the profession prior to appointment
Answer: C
Rationale: The chairperson shall be a holder of a Master’s degree in Nursing.
page 22
43. Some patients have different health beliefs and practices, and Nesty is aware how
these can be considered in the plan of care she and her team will prepare for the
patients. Which theory is appropriate for these groups of patients?
a. Transcultural theory c. Health System Theory
b. Adaptation Theory d. Self care Theory
Answer: A
Rationale: Transcultural theory is a humanistic and scientific mode of helping a client
through specific cultural caring process (cultural values, beliefs and practices) to
improve or maintain a health condition.
Source: Fundamentals of Nursing by Josie Udan, 2nd edition, 2004, page 17
Situation: The Board of Nursing has two vacant positions for members. The Philippine
Nurses Association (PNA) has launched its search for nominees.
44. The PNA after having deliberated whom to nominate to PRC must have at least how
many candidates for the two positions?
a. two b. four c. Six d. Eight
Answer: C
Rationale: There shall be created a Professional Regulatory Board of Nursing,
hereinafter referred to as the Board, to be composed of a Chairperson and 6 members.
They shall be appointed by the President of the Republic of the Philippines from among
2 recommendees per vacancy, of the PRC, hereinafter referred to as the Commission,
chosen and ranked from a list of 3 nominees, per vacancy.
page 21
45. After 2 years in hospital nursing, Nesty decided to change career military nursing.
She knows that the chief nurse in the military hospital is qualified if she has completed:
a. Master’s degree in nursing
b. General Staff Course
c. At least 9 units in management and administration courses at the graduate level
d. Masters Degree in Nursing and General Staff Course
Answer: D
Rationale: Qualification for chief nurse in the military hospital must have Masters
Degree in Nursing and General Staff Course
page 53
46. Nesty should be working in collaboration with the members of the health team.
Collaboration means:
a. Cooperation
b. Unity
c. Concerted efforts of individuals and groups to meet the goal
d. Loyalty to the health team
Answer: C
Rationale: Collaboration means a collegial working relationship with another health
care provider in the provision of patient care to meet the goal.
Source: Fundamentals of Nursing Concepts, Process, and Practice by Barbara Kozier,
7th edition 2004, page 111
47. Which of the following pursues continuing professional education in emergency care
order to be
certified as a nurse specialist in critical care. Which of the following agencies are
mandated by
law to be formulated and develop the comprehensive specialty program?
Board of nursing
Accredited Professional Organization
1. Department of Health
2. Specialty Organizations
a. 1,2,3 b. 1,2,4 c. 1,3,4 d. 1,2,3,4
Answer: D
Rationale: In the Philippines the implementation of Board of Nursing Resolution No.
1903 of 1985 on CPE accreditation program for nurses became effective by 1998.
Continuing education programs may be offered by: national professional nursing
association such as PNA, LGN and ANSAP; professional organizations representing
various nursing specialties; health agencies with specialties and employing agencies in
the form of in-service training programs.
page 158-160
Situation: Ms. Baluyot is the newly appointed manager of primary hospital in Sta. Fe.
As a new Manager, she deems it appropriate that she gains competence in her
professional responsibilities.
48. Ms. Baluyot knows that the fundamental responsibility of a nurse is in fourfold.
Which is the most
basic of these responsibilities?
a. Promote Health c. Restoration of Health
b. Prevention of Illness d. Alleviation of Suffering
Answer: A
Rationale: As independent practitioners, nurses are primarily responsible for the
promotion of health.
page 205
49. Which of the following demonstrates the responsibility towards her profession?
1. Participate in the development and implementation of standards of Nursing practice
in
her department.
2.Ensures that the core competencies of her staff are enhanced.
3. Participates in the activities of the local chapter of the PNA and ANSAP
4. Lobbies for the implementation of the incentives and benefit system for Nurses and
dependents as stipulated in the law.
a. 1,2,3 b. 2,3,4 c. 3,4 d. 1,2,3,4
Answer: D
Rationale: All of these demonstrate the responsibility of a nurse towards her profession.
Nurses should assert the implementation of labor standards and lobby for favorable
legislations to improve existing socio economic conditions of nurses. Nurses help to
determine and implement desirable standards of nursing practice and nursing
education. They must participate actively in the development and growth of the nursing
profession. They are enjoined to members of the PNA and avail of the prevailing
continuing education unit privilege.
page 85
50.When Ms. Baluyot is certain that Marie Flor, a new Nurse, is not competent in taking
care of
critically ill patient , she would not be ethical if she:
Discusses this concern with Marie Flor herself
Assigns another Nurse to the patient
Explains to Marie Flor the nature of the condition of the patient and the need for a
competent Nurse to handle the increased demand for care
Discusses to the other Nurse that Marie Flor is new and lacking in skills for the needs of
the patient.
Answer: D
Rationale: Nurses should honor and safeguard the reputation and dignity of the
members of nursing and other professions. They shall refrain from making unfair
and unwarranted comments or criticisms on their competence, conduct, and
procedure or do anything that will bring discredit to a colleague and to any member
of the other professions.
page 84
51. The nurse teaches a client how to prepare for a barium enema. Which statement by
the client
indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
a. “I’ll cleanse my bowel with laxatives and enemas before the test.”
b. “I’ll receive a muscle relaxant during the test.”
c. “I’ll drink a contrast medium during the test.”
d. “I’ll stop eating red meat 3 days before the test.”
Answer: A
Rationale: Barium sulfate is administered rectally. To ensure that it adheres to the lower
portion of the intestine, the area must be properly cleaned, using laxatives and enemas.
A muscle relaxant isn’t administered during the test. Barium sulfate isn’t administered
orally (C). The client is put on a liquid diet the night before the procedure and receives
nothing by mouth the morning of the procedure.
Source: Springhouse Review for NCLEX RN, 5th edition, 2002, page 605
52. The infusion site of your client is edematous and reddened. Your client is
complaining of pain
along the vein. What should you do FIRST?
a. Check the IV solution and refer immediately
b. Stop infusion and reinsert the IV immediately
c. Place a warm compress over the IV site
d. Slow down the IV infusion
Answer: B
Rationale: If an infiltration is present, stop the infusion and remove the catheter. Restart
the infusion at another site.
7th edition, 2004, page 1394
53. The nurse is performing a wound irrigation and dressing change. Which action, if
taken by the
nurse, would be a break in technique?
a. Consistently facing the sterile field
b. Washing hands before opening the sterile set
c. Opening the bottle of irrigating solution and pouring directly into a container on the
sterile field
d. Opening the sterile set so that the initial flap is opened away from the nurse
Answer: C
Rationale: After opening a sterile bottle the edge of the bottle is considered to be
contaminated. The nurse should pour a little solution out first to wash away organisms
on the lip of the opening and then pour from the same side of the bottle into the sterile
container on the sterile field.
Source: NSNA NCLEX-RN Review by Alice Stein, 4th edition, 2000, page127
54. To prevent complications of immobility, which activities would the nurse plan for the
first
postoperative day after a colon resection?
a. Turn, cough, and deep breathe every 30 minutes around the clock
b. Get the client out of bed and ambulate to a bedside chair
c. Provide passive range of motion three times a day
d. It is not necessary to worry about complications of immobility on the first
postoperative
day.
Answer: A
Rationale: To prevent complications of immobility, the nurse should teach the client to
turn, cough, and deep breathe every 30 minutes around the clock for the first
postoperative day after a surgery.
Source: Fundamentals if Nursing by Barbara Kozier, 7 th edition, 2004, page 1068
55. The nurse has received a report on assigned clients. In planning the initial
assessment of each
client, what approach should be implemented?
a. A thorough history of the hospitalization should be reviewed for trends in care,
responses to therapy, and currency of medication orders.
b. An assessment should be done to determine the client’s current status and the
development of complications and to determine whether any changes in nursing care
are necessary
c. A complete head-to-toe physical examination should be conducted with emphasis on
current health care problems
d. All laboratory results for the past 24 hours should be reviewed to determine changes
that have occurred in the client’s condition and to plan effective nursing care
Answer: B
Rationale: An initial focused assessment should be conducted to determine the client’s
current status with regard to his primary health care needs.
2006,page 614
56. A client receives instructions about high-calcium foods. The client shows an
understanding of
these instructions by selecting which food as highest in calcium?
a. Liver b. Yogurt c. Bran muffin d. Carrots
Answer: B
Rationale: Milk, milk products, and some green vegetables are good sources of
calcium. The other options are lower in calcium.
57. The following are correct nursing actions when taking the radial pulse EXCEPT:
a. put the palms downward
b. use the thumb to palpate the artery
c. use two to three fingertips to palpate the pulse at the inner wrist
d. assess the pulse rate, rhythm, volume, and bilateral equality
Answer: B
Rationale: A pulse is normally palpated by applying moderate pressure with the three
middle fingers of the hand.
58. The nurse is caring for a client who has a temperature of 105º F (40.5ºC). The
physician orders
the application of a cooling blanket. The nurse should know that which of the
following statements
is true about the use of a cooling blanket?
a. Cold application will increase the metabolic rate
b. Vital signs should be monitored every 8 hours
c. The client should remain in one position to conserve energy
d. Skin hygiene and protection of body surface areas is essential
Answer: D
Rationale: Cold application lowers the metabolic rate and causes vasoconstriction in
the area. Therefore, assessment of the skin, protection of the skin surfaces with oil, and
repositioning are all temperature will be monitored continually with a rectal probe and
blood pressure, pulse, and respirations will be monitored frequently.
59. How does the school health nurse, working with sexually active teenagers,
incorporate the
concept of secondary prevention into practice?
a. By setting up a birth control clinic in the school health office
b. By attending health curriculum meetings to ensure that contraceptive information is
included in a unit on sexuality
c. By teaching a group of parents about the problems of adolescent pregnancy
d. By referring a pregnant adolescent for prenatal care
Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse knows that secondary prevention efforts are directed toward
promoting early case findings so that prompt intervention can be instituted.
2006,page 614
60. As the nurse assists a client with breathing exercises, the client says, “I don’t feel
any better. Why
should I bother learning how to do these exercises?” How should the nurse
respond?
a. Tell the client that the physician ordered the exercises
b. Encourage the client to express feelings
c. Ask if the client would like to do the exercises at another time
d. Inform the physician of the client’s statements
Answer: B
Rationale: A client who is upset with the treatment regimen should be given the
opportunity to express feelings. The other options don’t provide this opportunity.
61. The physician orders an upper GI series for a client with GI complaints. The nurse
teaches the
client about the upper GI series. Which statement indicates that the client
understands the
instructions?
a. “I’ll have a special instrument passed through my mouth into my stomach.”
b. “I’ll take several tablets the night before the test.”
c. “I’ll drink a contrast medium while X-rays are taken.”
d. “I’ll have a CT scan taken after I’m injected with a radioactive substance.”
Answer: C
Rationale: In an upper GI series, the client swallows barium and has x-rays of the
stomach taken. A, B, and D don’t apply to an upper GI series. A gastroscope is passed
through the mouth into the stomach to observe the gastric mucosa to perform
gastroscopy. The night before a gallbladder series, a client takes radiopaque tablets. A
CT scan isn’t a component of an upper GI series.
62. Which statement by the nurse best indicates a correct understanding of “log rolling”
when moving
a client?
a. One nurse may perform this task alone
b. Pillows are needed for positioning in order to provide support
c. The legs should be moved before the head is moved
d. Keeping the neck in a straight position is the primary concern
Answer: B
Rationale: A pillow should be placed between the knees/legs for support while the client
is being turned. It takes two or three nurses to do log rolling. The whole spinal column
should be kept straight and the entire body moved at once.
63. Which of the following statements is TRUE about thoracentesis?

a. NPO is required after the procedure
b. The patient should remain immobile during the procedure
c. The patient should remain flat on bed for at least 4 hours after the procedure
d. The procedure is contraindicated for COPD clients
Answer: B
Rationale: Make sure the patient is firmly supported. Remind the patient not to cough,
deep breathe deeply or move suddenly during the procedure to avoid puncture of the
visceral pleura or lung.
Source: Nursing Procedures by Springhouse, 3rd edition, 2000, page 486
64. What is the most effective method for obtaining an accurate blood pressure reading
from a client?
a. Obtain a cuff that covers the upper one third of the client’s arm
b. Position the cuff approximately 4 inches above the antecubital space
c. Use a cuff that is wide enough to cover the upper two thirds of the client’s arm
d. Identify the Korotkoff sounds, and take a systolic reading at 10 mm Hg after the first
sound
Answer: C
Rationale: To obtain an accurate reading in an adult, the blood pressure cuff should
cover the upper two thirds of the client’s arm; it should be positioned approximately 2
inches above the antecubital space. The systolic reading is obtained with the first of
Korotkoff sounds.
2006,page 614
65. The nurse suspects that a client is in severe pain even though he denies it and
refuses pain
medications. The nurse understands that he or she may be dealing with a person
who:
a. Uses stoicism as a psychological response to pain
b. Is angry and hostile
c. Gets needs met by being a martyr
d. Has a psychological need to punish himself
Answer: A
Rationale: Stoicism is a common psychological response to pain, particularly in some
cultures. The remaining answers are assumptions that cannot be made with this amount
of information.
Source: Successful test-taking learning strategies for nurses by Marian Sides, 3 rd
edition, 1998, page 345
66. The nurse is teaching a client who is scheduled for a paracentesis. Which of the
following
statements, if made by the client to the nurse, indicates that teaching has been
successful?
a. “I will be in surgery for less than one hour.”
b. “I must not void prior to the procedure.”
c. “the physician will remove 2-3 L of fluid.”
d. “I will lie on my back and breathe slowly.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Fluid removed slowly to decrease ascites; can remove up to 4-6 L in sever
cases
Source: Kaplan NCLEX-RN, 2003-2004 edition, page 256
67. For which of the following signs should the nurse monitor the client during
paracentesis?
a. Hiccups b. incontinence c. fever d. syncope
Answer: D
Rationale: During paracentesis observe the client loosely for vertigo, faintness
(syncope) diaphoresis, pallor, heightened anxiety, tachycardia, dyspnea and
hypotension.
Source: Nursing Procedures by Springhouse, 3rd edition, 2000, page 577-578
68. A nurse checks on a patient awaiting surgery the following morning and finds her
alone quietly
weeping. Which of the following would be the most appropriate initial response of
the nurse?
a. Leave the room quietly and close the patient’s door
b. Apologize for disturbing the patient and return to the room later
c. Sit with the patient silently and use therapeutic touch
d. Ask the patient if there is a family member the patient would like to be with.
Answer: C
Rationale: Sitting with the patient and using touch therapeutically conveys the nurse’s
interest in and concern for the patient, which will help to reduce the patient’s
preoperative fears and anxieties. A and B convey a message of avoidance of the patient
and offer no support to the patient. D is ineffective because the nurse is not offering
himself or herself, but rather a family member to support the patient.
edition, 1998, page 255-256
69. The homecare nurse is performing chest physiotherapy on an elderly client with
chronic airflow
limitations (CAL). Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
a. Perform chest physiotherapy prior to meals
b. Auscultate the chest prior to beginning the procedure
c. Administer bronchodilators after the procedure
d. Percuss each lobe prior to asking the client to cough
Answer: B
Rationale: Identify areas of the lung that require drainage; auscultate chest at the end
of procedure to determine effectiveness.
Source: Kaplan NCLEX-RN, 2003-2004 edition, page 256
70. The nurse is instructing a group of middle-aged women anticipating mammography

as part of a
cancer screening program. Which of the following instructions should the nurse
provide to the
group members?
a. “You should have nothing to eat or drink after midnight before your scheduled
mammogram.”
b. “You should not wear deodorant or talc of the day of your mammogram.”
c. “An intravenous infusion will be started at a low flow rate just prior to your scheduled
mammogram.”
d. “You should not wear a bra or constrictive clothing for several hours following your
mammogram.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Use of deodorants or talcs interferes with mammographic screening. No
restriction of oral intake is necessary prior to diagnostic test. Although some women
may experience minimal breast tenderness following mammography, there is no need to
restrict wearing of undergarments or constrictive clothing posttest. IV fluids are neither
indicated nor used for this diagnostic testing.
71. Which one of the following actions by the nurse illustrates the principle that
evaluation is an
essential component in the achievement of effective pain relief?
a. Administering pain medication to her client promptly
b. Practicing guided imagery with her client
c. Determining the quantity and quality of pain
d. Returning to the client 20 minutes after pain medication has been administered to
assess effectiveness
Answer: D
Rationale: This nursing action evaluates the efficacy of the pain medication. The
remaining answers illustrate assessment and intervention strategies.
72. Which of the following is correct nursing action when collecting urine specimen from
a client with
indwelling urethral catheter?
a. collect urine specimen from the urinary drainage
b. detach the catheter from the connecting tube
c. use sterile needle and syringe to aspirate urine specimen from the drainage port
d. flush the catheter with sterile NSS before collection of urine specimen
Answer: C
Rationale: Sterile urine specimens can be obtained from closed drainage systems by
inserting a sterile needle attached to a syringe through a drainage port in the tubing.
73. What is the BEST position of the client who will undergo abdominal palpation?
a. Supine b. dorsal recumbent c. genupectoral d. trendelenburg
Answer: A
Rationale: In assessing the abdomen assist the client to a supine position, with the
arms placed comfortably at the sides.
74. A nurse is planning to teach a 4-day postoperative patient about care of his incision,
in preparation
for discharge. Which of these assessments of the patient should cause the nurse to
postpone the
teaching session?
a. I’m anxious to go home to my family. I’m looking forward to a good home-cooked
meal!”
b. “It’s still a little sore where they did my surgery, but I manage pretty well.”
c. “I’m feeling nauseated now. I think that antibiotic is making me feel sick to my
stomach.”
d. “I didn’t realize this incision would be so big. Do you think I’ll have a scar?”
Answer: C
Rationale: This patient has an increased need for communication with a health care
provider by virtue of his surgical experience. However, the patient’s present nausea will
prevent him from focusing completely on the important information being
communicated. The nurse should postpone the interaction with the patient until he is
feeling more physically able to share in the communication process.
75. The nurse would likely restrict protein intake for which of the following patients?
a. An elderly patient with stasis ulcers on heels and ankles
b. A teenage patient recovering from abdominal surgery
c. A middle-aged patient with advanced cirrhosis of the liver
d. An adult patient hospitalized for exacerbation of COPD
Answer: C
Rationale: Persons with liver failure require restriction of protein intake because
nitrogen by-products of protein metabolism for ammonia, a toxin to the neuromuscular
system. Patients in A and B would require increased protein intake to effect healing. The
patient in D would benefit from increased protein intake to enhance general nutritional
status.
Situation: A research study was undertaken in order to identify and analyze a disabled
boy’s coping reaction to pattern during stress.
76. The study which is an in depth study of one boy is a:

a. evaluative study c. cross-sectional study
b. case study d. longitudinal study
ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: case study- an in-depth research study of a single individual, single unit
or a single organization.
Cross-sectional- is a research design that includes the collection of all data at one point
in time.
Longitudinal- is a research design that includes a collection of data over time.
SOURCE: Understanding Nursing Research: reading and using research in practice by
Carol L. Macnee, p396, 399
Introduction to nursing research: quest for quality nursing by Lydia M. Venzon, p171
77. Which of these does not happen in a descriptive study?

a. manipulation of variables
b. exploration of relationships between two or more phenomena
c. investigation of a phenomenon in real life context
d. exploration of relationships between two or more phenomena
ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Manipulation of variable does no happen I descriptive study. It is done in
experimental designs and quasi-experimental designs. A descriptive design functions to
portray as accurately as possible some phenomenon in interest. Descriptive design is
used to answer research questions that seek to describe. It describes and interprets
what is, and reveals condition and relationship that exist or do not exist, practice that
prevails or do not prevail, beliefs or point of view or attitudes that are held or not held,
procedures that are continuing or otherwise effects that are being felt or trend that are
developing.
Carol L. Macnee, p198
78. The investigator also provides the nursing care of the subject. The investigator is
referred to as
a/an:
a. advocate c. participant observer
b. observer researcher d. caregiver
ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: Caregiver- the caregiver role has traditionally includes those activities
that assist the client’s physical and psychologically while preparing the client’s dignity.
The required nursing action may involve full care complete dependent client, partial care
for partially dependent client and supportive-educative care to assist clients in attaining
the highest possible level of health and wellness. Caregiver encompasses physical,
psychosocial, developmental, cultural and spiritual levels.
Advocate- The overall goal of the client advocate is to protect the clients’ rights. An
advocate informs clients about their rights and provides them with information they need
to make informed decision.
Observer researcher- stands out in the phenomenon being studied and, as objectively
as possible, records the acquired data.
Participant observation- the researcher intentionally imbeds himself into the
environment from which data will be collected and becomes a participant. From the
perspective of the active participation in the experience and lives of those studied the
researcher records observations, feelings, conversations and experiences regarding the
phenomenon of interest.
Fundamentals of nursing: concepts, process and practice, 7 th ed., by Kozier, p10
79. To ensure the reliability of the study, the investigator’s analysis and interpretations
were:
a. subjected to an inter-observer agreement
b. correlated with a list of coping behavior
c. scored and compared standard criteria
d. subjected to statistical treatment
ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: reliability of the measure reflects how definite we can be that the measure
will yield the same data consistently if the actual or real variable stays the same. When
quantitative data are collected using observation, the rate of agreement, or inter-rater
agreement, tells us how consistent the observational measure was. Test-retest reliability
or a Cronbach’s alpha coefficient is a statistics that tells us how consistently subjects
respond to a set of items or questions. In all three cases, the goal in quantitative
research is to use measures that will most consistently measure the variables of
interest.
Situation: as a nurse you are expected to initiate or participate in conducting research

studies to improve nursing practice. You have to be updated on the latest trends and
issues affecting the profession and the best practices arrived at the profession.
80. You are interested to study the effects of meditation and relaxation on the pain
experienced by
cancer patients. What type variable is pain?
a. dependent b. independent c. correlational d. demographic
ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: A variable is a quality, property or characteristic of a person or thing to be
studied that can be quantitatively measured. Choice A is correct answer. A dependent
variable is the variable that is determined by, that is, depends upon, other variables in
the study or in outcome variable of interest.
Choice B, the independent variables are those variables in the study that are used to
explain or predict the outcome of interest, that is, the independent variable. Other
variable aside from independent, may affect the dependent variable. If not taken into
account, this may confuse the interpretation of the study. This are called confounding
variables which are sometimes called extraneous and uncontrolled variables.
SOURCE: Introduction to Nursing Research: quest for quality nursing by Lydia M.
Venzon, p60
Understanding Nursing Research: reading and using research in practice by Carol L.
Macnee, p58
81. You would like to compare the support system of the patient with chronic illness to
those with
acute illness. What type of research is this?
a. Descriptive b. experimental c. correlational d. quasi-
experimental
ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: Choice C, correlational designs function to describe or to identify
interrelationships among factors of interest. Because correlational designs describe the
relationships, occasionally it is called descriptive correlational design. Descriptive
designs function to portray a phenomenon of interest. Descriptive designs are used to
answer research questions that seek to describe. Experimental design and quasi-
experimental research designs functions to answer questions involving prediction and
the effects of manipulation.
82. In any research study where individual persons are involved, it is important that any
informed
consent for the study is obtained. The following are essential information about the
consent that
you should disclose to the prospective subject except:
a. assurance of anonymity and confidentiality
b. explanation of procedure
c. consent to complete disclosure
d. description of benefits, risk and discomforts
ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Right to informed consent- informed consent has two components-
recognition of self determination and thorough comprehension of the proposed
participation. The freedom to choose that will do the vital part of human being. The right
to self determination is firmly established in the constitution and in moral beliefs. Every
code of ethics applicable to research studies states that free consent is prerequisite to
any human involvement.
All subjects must have clear, explicit information about every aspect of the research
project- the procedure to be followed and the reasons; the exact nature of the
participant’s role, including time and energy requirements, the risk and benefits
involved; any anticipation or potential loss or dignity or autonomy; any anticipated pain
or discomfort; psychological stress or embarrassment; and the way in which the data
will be handled and reported. Full disclosure is necessary to informed consent.
SOURCE: Introduction to nursing research: quest for quality nursing by Lydia M.
Venzon, p130-132
Situation: As a beginner in research, you are aware that sampling is an essential

element of a research process.
83. What does a sample group represent?

a. control group b. general population c. universe d. study
subjects
ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: a sample is the smaller group, or subset of the group, of interest that is
studied in the research.
Control group- is a group of subjects who do not received an intervention so that the
control group can be compared to those who received the intervention.
General population- the entire group of individuals about whom the researcher is
interested to study.
Carol L. Macnee, p24, 200, 400
84. Random sampling ensures that subjects have:

a. an equal chance of section c. been selected based on set criteria
b. been selected systematically d. characteristic that match other samples
ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: in a random sample, all the members of a population of interest must
identified and listed and each member of a population is assigned to a number.
Therefore to select a random sample, all the members of the sample frame must be
part. After deciding how many members of the population will be in the study, the
researcher uses some device, such as random number table or a computer program to
select who will be in the study. The researchers arbitrarily pick a number from a random
number table, which consist of rows and columns of numbers and then continuous in
any direction of the table to select number. Because all possible numbers are
represented in the table, it is by chance alone that the numbers of any particular
member of the population be chosen.
SOURCE: understanding nursing research: reading and using research in practice by
Carol L. Macnee, p109-110
85. Which of the following sampling methods allows the use of any group of research
subjects?
a. convenience b. purposive c. systematic sampling d. random sampling
ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: convenience sample- a sample that includes members of the population
who can be readily found and recruited.
Purposive sampling- is inclusion in a study of participants who are intentionally selected
because they have certain characteristics that are related to the purpose of the study.
Systematic random sampling- is an approach to selection of individuals for the study
where the members of the population are identified and listed and then members are
selected at a fixed interval from the list.
Random sampling- is a sample in which every member of the population had an equal
probability of being included.
Carol L. Macnee, p395, 401, 402, 404
86. You decided to include 5 barangays in your municipality and chose a sampling
method that would
get representative samples from each barangay. What should be the appropriate
method for you
to use in this care?
a. cluster sample b. stratified sampling c. systematic sampling d.
random sampling
ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Cluster sampling- a small sample is taken from various sections of the
population.
Choice B, Stratified sampling- here, the population is subdivided into areas, sections,
and then random samples are taken from each.
Choice C, Systemic sampling- this consist of taking every nth person in school,
community or telephone directory.
Choice D, Random sampling- in this method, the selection of the sample is done by
chance.
SOURCE: Introduction to Nursing Research: quest for quality nursing by Lydia M.
Venzon, p53
Situation: You are actively practicing nurse who just finished your graduate studies.
You learn the value of research and would like to utilize the knowledge and skills gained
in the application of research into nursing service. The following question applies to
research.
87. Which of the following studies is based on quantitative research?

a. A study examining the bereavement process in the spouses of the clients with
terminal
cancer
b. A study examining client’s feelings before, during and after a bone marrow aspiration
c. A study exploring factors influencing weight control behavior
d. A study measuring the effects of sleeping deprivation
ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Quantitative research progresses through systematic, logical steps
according to a specific plan to collect numerical information, often under conditions of
considerable control, that is a nalyz4ed using statistical procedures. The quantitative
approach is usually associated with positivism, philosophical doctrine that emphasizes
the rational and scientific. Quantitative research is often viewed as “hard” science and
uses deductive reasoning and the measurable attributes of human experiences.
SOURCE: Fundamentals of Nursing: concepts, process and practice, 7 th ed., by Kozier,
p27
88. Which of the following studies is based on qualitative research?

a. A study measuring differences in blood pressure before, during and after a procedure.
b. A study examining client’s reactions to stress after open heart surgery
c. A study measuring nutrition and weight loss/gain in clients with cancer
d. A study examining oxygen levels after endotreacheal suctioning
ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: The qualitative approach is often associated with naturalistic inquiry,
which explores the subjective and complex experiences of human beings. Qualitative
research investigates “the human experiences as it is lived through careful collection
and analysis of narrative, subjective materials”. Data collection and its analysis occur
concurrently. Using the inductive method, data are analyzed by identifying themes and
patterns to develop a theory or framework that helps explain the processes under
observation.
SOURCE: Fundamentals of Nursing: concepts, process and practice, 7 th ed., by Kozoer,
p28
89. An 85 years old client in a nursing home tells a nurse, “I signed the papers for the
research study
because the doctor was so insistent and I want him to continue taking care of me”.
Which client
right is being violated?
a. right of self determination c. right to privacy and confidentiality
b. right to full disclosure d. right not to be harmed
ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Right to be protected from harm- an informed consent is important to the
research plan so that an appropriate balance exists between potential benefits of the
research and the risk assumed by the parents of the subjects. This is called the risk-
benefit ratio wherein the risk should outweigh by the benefits. Risk or harm is defined as
the exposure of the subjects to the possibility of the injury beyond everyday situations.
This includes physical, emotional legal financial and social harm. Minimal risk means
that the risk of harm anticipated in the proposed research are not greater than those
ordinarily encountered in daily life or during the performance of routine examinations or
test.
Sometimes, the subject may experience undue anxiety if the instruments to be
used are too sensitive as to evoke disturbing feelings. Debriefing is the process of
disclosing to the subject all information that was previously withheld. It may even be
necessary that provision for referral to counseling be included in the study protocol.
With the concern of the protection of human research subjects, factors that
threaten bodily harm such as drug toxicity or those who threaten a subject’s self-
esteem, self worth, values, privacy and religious freedom should be disclosed. Some
risks may lasts beyond the study or may produce permanent damage, such as the use
of drug or devices.
Venzon, p132
90. “A supposition or system of ideas that is proposed to explain a given phenomenon”

best defines:
a. a concept c. a theory
b. a conceptual framework d. a paradigm
ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: A theory is an abstract explanation describing how different factors or
phenomenon relate.
A concept is a term or idea that has a specific meaning with the context of a general
field of study; a notion that substitute for a definition with several words, or an
abstraction that categorizes observation based on commonalities and differences.
A paradigm is a kind of model framework for explaining or describing a theory that
includes methods, laws, traditions, encompasses a set of philosophical assumptions.
A conceptual framework is an underlying structure for building and testing knowledge
that is made up of concepts and the relationship among the concept.
Introduction to nursing research: quest for quality nursing by Lydia M. Venzon, p172,
179
Situation: A nurse professor assigns a group of students to do data gathering by

interviewing their classmates as the subject.
91. She instructed the interviewers not to tell the interviewees that the data gathering
are for his own
research project for publication. This teacher has violated the student’s right to:
a. Disclosure b. not be harmed c. privacy d. self determination
ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Right to informed consent- informed consent has two components-
recognition of self determination and thorough comprehension of the proposed
participation. The freedom to choose that will do the vital part of human being. The right
to self determination is firmly established in the constitution and in moral beliefs. Every
code of ethics applicable to research studies states that free consent is prerequisite to
any human involvement.
Venzon, p130-132
92. A nurse preceptor observes that many clients are being admitted in the ward for the
post operative
infections. She suggested to the students that they do a research on this topic. What
research
activity is this?
a. sharing research results with colleagues
b. data collection
c. developing guidelines for patient care
d. identifying clinical problem
ANSWER: D
RATIONALE: Once the research topic is selected, the research problem should be
formulated as specifically as possible. A problem should represent an action or change.
It may be geared toward practical real-life situations or it may represent a theoretical
situation that would expand nursing knowledge.
SOURCE: Introduction to Nursing: Quest for quality nursing by Lydia Venzon, p40-41
93. Quantitative research involves numerical data. Which of the following is based on
quantitative
research?a. The effects of regular nurse visits to client’s bedside on the number of
client’s call to
the nurse.
b. A study on the effects of the white uniform of hospital personnel on pediatrics
patients.
c. A study on benefits of pre-operative health instructions to clients feeling of anxiety.
d. A study on the effects of touch on the client’s of isolation.ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: Quantitative research progress through systematic, logical steps
according to a specific plan to collect numerical information, often under conditions of
considerable control, which is analyzed using statistical procedures. This quantitative
approach is frequently associated with positivism or logical positivism, a philosophical
doctrine that emphasizes the rational and scientific. Quantitative research is often
viewed as “hard” science and uses deductive reasoning and measurable attributes of
human experience. Choice B is the correct answer.
SOURCE: Fundamentals of nursing: concepts, process and practice, 7 th ed., by Kozier,
p25-26
94. Before the nurse researcher starts her study, she analyzes how much time, many
materials and
people she will need to complete the research project. This analysis prior to
beginning the study is
called:
a. Validity c. feasibility
b. Researchability d. reliability
ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: feasibility- pertains to the availability of time as well as the materials and
human resources needed to investigate the research problem or question. Conducting
studies involves the use of space, money, equipment, supplies, computers, subjects,
research assistants and consultants.
Validity in research reflects how accurately the measures yield information about the
true or real variable being studied. A measure is valid if it measures correctly and
accurately what is intended to measure.
Researchability- means that the problem can be subjected to scientific investigation.
Many significant problems that produce ambiguity and uncertainty in clinical situations
may not be amenable to research.
Reliability in research means that a measure can be relied on consistently to give the
same result if the aspects being measured have not changed.
Fundamentals of Nursing: concepts, process and practice, 7 th ed., by Kozier, p29
95. Data analysis is to be done and the nurse researcher wants to include measures of
variability.
These include the following except:
a. Range b. Variance c. Mean d. Standard deviation
ANSWER: C
RATIONALE: A measure of variability indicates the degree of dispersion or spread of
data. These includes, range, variance and standard deviation.
Range- is the extent or the spread of score from the highest to the lowest in a variable
or value.
Variance- is a statistic, that is, a number that can be used to show how much difference
or variety exists in group of number.
Standard deviation- is simply the square root of the variance, so it reflects the variety
among all the numbers.
Mean is a measure of central tendency. Mean- means the average of all the values for
variables- that is, the sum the sum of all the values divided by the number of values
summed.
Carol L. Macnee, p61, 63, 66
Fundamentals of Nursing: concepts, process and practice, 7 th ed., by Kozier, p30
Situation: The use of massage and meditation to help decrease stress and pain have
been strongly recommended based on documented testimonial.
96. Martha wants to study on the topic “The effects of massage and meditation on
stress and pain.”,
the type of research that best suits this topic is:
a. basic research c. quantitative research
b. applied research d. qualitative research
ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: Pure or basic research- the search for knowledge includes establishing
fundamental theories or relationship among facts, which are not intended for immediate
use for real life situation. It is useful in advancing scientific knowledge or in furthering
research.
Choice B, applied research- this type of research involves seeking new applications of
scientific knowledge in solving a problem, making a decision, developing or evaluating a
program, procedure or products.
Choice C, quantitative research- because quantitative studies uses numbers to
represent variables of interest and then, often apply statistical tests to allow inference,
we expect to see mostly number in the result of quantitative results.
Choice D, qualitative research- this study’s purpose is to increase our understanding
some aspects of experiences, so the results of qualitative studies describe what we
found, usually by the gauge used by participants to support and clarify the meaning of
those concept.
SOURCE: Understanding Nursing Research: Reading and Using Research in Practice
by Carol L. Macnee, p60
Introduction to Nursing Research: quest for quality nursing by Lydia M. Venzon, p6-7
97. This type of research design that does not manipulate independent variable is:
a. non-experimental design c. quantitative design
b. quasi-experimental design d. experimental design
ANSWER: A
RATIONALE: In a non-experimental research, it is easier to gain the cooperation of the
study subjects in a non-experimental research. Study subjects are not exposed to
unpleasant, unusual or even burdensome conditions.
Choice B, quasi-experimental design lacks both control group and random assignment.
It may not include two groups at all. Instead it may involve a series of observations,
followed by an intervention and another series of observations. In this case there is a
manipulation of the independent variable but no control group.
Choice C, quantitative design also manipulates variables.
Choice D experimental design always includes a control group and a random
assignment to groups. A control group is a group who does not receive an intervention,
so that the control group can be compared to those who do not receive the intervention.
This design includes manipulation of independent variable, random assignment and
control group; therefore, it is experimental.
Carol L. Macnee, p197, 200-201
98. Martha does review related literature for the purpose of:
a. to identify if the problem can be replicated
b. gather data about what is already known or unknown about the problem
c. answering the research question
d. determining statistical treatment of data
ANSWER: B
RATIONALE: A literature review is a synthesis of the literature that describes what is
known or has been studied regarding the particular research question or purpose.
99. The client’s right to be protected when doing research using human subjects,
Martha identifies this
right as follows except:
a. right to self determination c. right to not to be harmed
b. right to compensation d. right to privacy
ANSWER: B
RATIONALE:
Protecting human subjects means protecting their legal and moral rights. Attention must
be given to the rights of informed consent, the right to refuse or withdrawal from
participation, the right to privacy, to confidentiality or anonymity of data and to protection
from harm.
1. Right to informed consent- informed consent has two components- recognition of
self determination and thorough comprehension of the proposed participation. The
freedom to choose that will do the vital part of human being. The right to self
determination is firmly established in the constitution and in moral beliefs. Every code of
ethics applicable to research studies states that free consent is prerequisite to any
human involvement.
2. The right to refuse or withdraw from participation- just as the person has the right to
give consent; he has also the right to refuse. It should be clearly stated that their will be
no recrimination of any of the subject’s refusal. He may have several reasons to
withdraw. The subject may find his involvement tiring or more embarrassing than
expected. His conditions may change. He may change his mind after further reflection
or after consulting a friend or relative, or he may find his continuing participation
inconvenient. The nurse should explore the reason for the subject’s refusal and should
support his right to do so. The possibility of withdrawing however can minimize if, at the
onset, the subject is given a careful and honest explanation of what to be done.
3. Right to privacy- the right to privacy includes the privacy of one’s thought, opinions
and physical presence, and the privacy of one’s records. The right to control the extent
to which a person shares himself with others includes the freedom to decide the
schedule and the general circumstances under which he will share his beliefs and
attitudes with one another.Each subject should be consulted about his willingness to
share his privacy.Arrange a convenient time and place for the subject and the
investigator. Data collected from observation without the subject’s consent or knowledge
is clearly violated of the right to privacy.
4. Right to confidentiality and anonymity- research subject has the right to expect that
the date obtained about them will be handled in confidentially. Data should be available
only to research staff and should be reported anonymously. Remember that the subject
gave consent for a specific propose only, which means that the data should not be used
for any other reasons. It should not be made in public or available to others.
5. Right to be protected from harm- an informed consent is important to the research
plan so that an appropriate balance exists between potential benefits of the research
and the risk assumed by the parents of the subjects. This is called the risk-benefit ratio
wherein the risk should outweigh by the benefits. Risk or harm is defined as the
exposure of the subjects to the possibility of the injury beyond everyday situations. This
includes physical, emotional legal financial and social harm. Minimal risk means that the
risk of harm anticipated in the proposed research are not greater than those ordinarily
encountered in daily life or during the performance of routine examinations or test.
Venzon, p130-132
100. What is considered the most current priority for nursing research?
a. Improvements in patient care and outcomes
b. Problems relating to nurse professional identity
c. Content of nursing curricula
d. Staffing and shortage problems
Answer: A
Rationale: In the nursing profession, research is undertaken to:
 Provide a scientific basis for the nursing profession
 Develop and evaluate new technique for delivering patient care that is attuned to
patient’s health needs
 Develop tools for assessing the effectiveness of nursing interventions
 Provide solutions to problems concerning health maintenance, health delivery and
health care.
 Help determine the areas of need relative to nursing practices such as patient-
teaching and nurse- patient relationships.
Source: Introduction to Nursing Research Quest for Quality Nursing. Venzon. Page 9-
10
--------------------------------END OF EXAMINATION-------------------------------

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NURSING PRACTICE I

FOUNDATION OF PROFESSIONAL NURSING PRACTICE

3. Delegation is the process of transferring work to subordinates. A nurse-manager can

8. A nurse-manager appropriately behaves as an autocrat in which situation?

11. What is a key component in a quality assurance program?

20. Performance improvement is an important component of continuous quality

21. The correct sequence of steps in the research process is:

23. You decided to use convenience sampling. This is an example of convenience

29. Devolution of the Health department of care is implemented in order to:

30. Which of the following is your vital role in cancer care?

31. If the died without a will, the succession is called:

a. 1,2,4 b. 2,3,4 c. 1,3,4 d. 1,2,3

a. 1&2 b. 2&3 c. 1&3 d. 2&4

39. Which of the following considered quasi-judicial powers of the Board?

a. 1,2,3 b. 2,3,4 c. 1,3,4 d. 1,2,3,4

a. 1,2,3 b. 1,2,4 c. 1,3,4 d. 1,2,3,4

a. 1,2,3 b. 2,3,4 c. 3,4 d. 1,2,3,4

63. Which of the following statements is TRUE about thoracentesis?

70. The nurse is instructing a group of middle-aged women anticipating mammography

76. The study which is an in depth study of one boy is a:

77. Which of these does not happen in a descriptive study?

Situation: as a nurse you are expected to initiate or participate in conducting research

Situation: As a beginner in research, you are aware that sampling is an essential

83. What does a sample group represent?

84. Random sampling ensures that subjects have:

87. Which of the following studies is based on quantitative research?

88. Which of the following studies is based on qualitative research?

90. “A supposition or system of ideas that is proposed to explain a given phenomenon”

Situation: A nurse professor assigns a group of students to do data gathering by

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