Test 1

PHYSICS
1. A clock hung on a wall has marks instead 1. ,d ?kM+h ,d nhokj ij Vaxh gSA bleas la[;k
of numbers on its dial. On the opposite ds LFkku ij fpUg gSA blds lkeus okyh
wall there is a mirror, and the image of nhokj ij ,d niZ.k gS] vkSj tc ?kM+h ds le;
the clock in the mirror if read, indicates
the time as 8 : 20. What is the time in
dks niZ.k esa ns[kk tkrk gS] rks ;g 8 % 20 gksrk
the clock- gS] rks ?kM+h dk okLrfod le; D;k gS\
(1) 3 % 40 (2) 4 % 40 (1) 3 % 40 (2) 4 % 40
(3) 5 : 20 (4) 4 : 20 (3) 5 : 20 (4) 4 : 20
2. The image of a real object formed by a 2. ,d lery niZ.k }kjk ,d okLrfod oLrq dk
plane mirror is- cuk;k x;k izfrfcEc gksrk gS&
(1) Erect, real and of equal size (1) lh/kk] okLrfod rFkk leku vkd`fr dk
(2) Erect, virtual and of equal size (2) lh/kk] vkHkklh rFkk leku vkd`fr dk
(3) Inverted, real and of equal size (3) mYVk] okLrfod rFkk leku vkd`fr dk
(4) Inverted, virtual and of equal size (4) mYVk] vkHkklh rFkk leku vkd`fr dk
3. Two mirrors are inclined at an angle as 3. nks lery niZ.kksa dks fp=uqlkj  dks.k ij
shown in the figure. Light ray is incident >qdkdj j[kk tkrk gSA fdlh ,d niZ.k ds
parallel to one of the mirrors. Light will
start retracing its path after third reflection lekukUrj vkifrr izdk'k fdj.k rhljs ijkorZu
if : ds ckn vius iqjkus iFk dk vuqlj.k (retrace)
djsxh ;fn&
(1)  = 45º (2)  = 30º

(3)  = 65º (4) all three (1)  = 45º (2)  = 30º
(3)  = 65º (4) all three
4. A man 180 cm high stands in front of a 4. ,d 180 lseh Å¡pkbZ dk vkneh ,d lery
plane mirror. His eyes are at a height of niZ.k esa lkeus [kM+k gS] mldh vka[ks tehu ls
170 cm from the floor. Then the minimum
length of plane mirror for him to see his 170 lseh Å¡pkbZ ij gksxh] rks mlds fy,
full length image is- niZ.k dh de ls de yEckbZ D;k gksxh fd og
(1) 90 cm (2) 180 cm viuk izfrfcEc iwjk dj lds\
(3) 45 cm (4) 360 cm (1) 90 cm (2) 180 cm
(3) 45 cm (4) 360 cm
5. A thick plane mirror shows a number of
images of the filament of an electric bulb.
5. ,d eksVk lery niZ.k ,d fo/kqr cYc ds
Of these, the brightest image is the- rUrq ds cgqr ls izfrfcEc fn[kkrs gSa] rks lcls
(1) First (2) Second pedhyk izfrfcEc gksxk&
(3) Last (4) Fourth (1) izFke (2) f}rh;
(3) vfUre (4) prqFkZ
6. When a plane mirror is placed horizontally 6. ,d ehukj ds ikn ls {kSfrt lrg ij ,d
on a level ground at a distance of 60m from
the foot of a tower, the top of the tower
lery niZ.k 60 eh dh nwjh ij j[kk tkrk gSA
and its image in the mirror subtend an angle ehukj dh pksVh vkSj niZ.k esa mldk izfrfcEc
of 90Â° at the eye. The height of the tower vk¡[k ij ,d&nwljs ls 90º dk dks.k cukrs gSa
will be ehukj dh Å¡pkbZ gksxh\
(1) 30 m (2) 60 m (1) 30 m (2) 60 m
(3) 90 m (4) 120 m (3) 90 m (4) 120 m
ACHIEVER CAREER INSTITUTE, Reg. Office : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Opp. City Mall Kota
1 Mob.: 8955300365, 8955300394 ; Website: www.achieverkota.com ; E-mail: achieverkota@gmail.com
7. An object is at a distance of 0.5 m in front 7. ,d oLrq lery niZ.k ls 0.5 ehVj dh nwjh
of a plane mirror. Distance between the ij fLFkr gSA oLrq ,oa izfrfcEc ds chp nwjh
object and image is: gSA
(1) 0.5 m (2) 1 m (1) 0.5 m (2) 1 m
(3) 0.25 m (4) 1.5 m (3) 0.25 m (4) 1.5 m
8. A convex mirror has a focal length f. A 8. ,d mÙky niZ.k ftldh Qksdl nwjh f gSA
real object is placed at a distance f in front blds lkeus /kzqo ls f nwjh ij ,d oLrq j[kh
of it from the pole, then it produces an
image at-
gS] rks oLrq dk izfrfcEc fuEu fLFkfr ij cusxk&
(1) Infinity (2) f
(1) Infinity (2) f
(3) f/2 (4) 2f
(3) f/2 (4) 2f
9. The image formed by convex mirror of 9. ,d 30 cm ds Qksdl nwjh ds mÙky niZ.k ds
focal length 30 cm is a quarter of the size }kjk cukbZ xbZ fdlh oLrq dh Nk;k mldh
of the object. Then the distance of the okLrfod lkbt dh 1/4 gS] rks oLrq dh niZ.k
object from the mirror, is- ls nwjh gksxh&
(1) 30 cm (2) 90 cm (1) 30 cm (2) 90 cm
(3) 120 cm (4) 60 cm (3) 120 cm (4) 60 cm
10. ,d vory niZ.k dh fLFkfr esa] ,d okLrfod
10. In case of concave mirror, the minimum
distance between a real object and its real
oLrq rFkk blds okLrfod izfrfcEc ds e/;
image is- de ls de nwjh gS&
(1) f (2) 2f (3) 4f (4) zero (1) f (2) 2f (3) 4f (4) zero
11. A luminous point object is moving along 11. ,d pedhyk fcUnqor~ fcEc 12 cm Qksdl
the principal axis of a concave mirror of nwjh ds vory niZ.k ds izdk'kh; v{k ds
focal length 12 cm towards it. When its
vuqfn'k niZ.k dh vksj xfr'khy gSA tc ;g
distance from the mirror is 20 cm its
velocity is 4 cm/s. The velocity of the niZ.k ls 20 cm nwjh ij gS rks bldk osx
image in cm/s at that instant is 4cm/s gksrk gSA bl le; izfrfcEc dk osx
(1) 6, towards the mirror cm/s esa gksxk\
(2) 6, away from the mirror (1) 6 niZ.k dh rjQ (2) 6 niZ.k ls nwj
(3) 9, away from the mirror (3) 9 niZ.k ls nwj (4) 9 niZ.k dh rjQ
(4) 9, towards the mirror. 12. f Qksdl nwjh okys mÙky niZ.k }kjk cus izfrfcEc
12. A convex mirror of focal length f forms an
image which is 1/n times the object. The 1
dk vkdkj oLrq ds vkdkj ls xquk gSA
distance of the object from the mirror is n
oLrq dh niZ.k ls nwjh gksxhA
 n 1 
(1) (n – 1)f (2)  f  n 1 
 n  (1) (n – 1)f (2)  f
 n 
 n 1 
(3)  f (4) (n – 1)f  n 1 
 n  (3)  f (4) (n – 1)f
 n 
13. It is desired to photograph the image of an 13. ,d lery niZ.k ls 3 eh- dh nwjh ij j[kh
object placed at a distance of 3 m from a oLrq ds izfrfcEc dk Nk;kfp= ysus dh bPNk
plane mirror. The camera, which is at a gSA ,d dsejk tks fd niZ.k ls 4.5 eh- dh nwjh
distance of 4.5 m from the mirror should
ij fLFkr gS] rks bls fdruh nwjh ij Qksdflr
be focused for a distance of-“
(1) 3 m (2) 4.5 m (3) 6 m (4) 7.5 m djuk iM+sxk–
(1) 3 m (2) 4.5 m (3) 6 m (4) 7.5 m
Mob.: 8955300365, 8955300394 ; Website: www.achieverkota.com ; E-mail: achieverkota@gmail.com
2
14. A point object is kept in front of a plane 14. 2 cm vk;ke ls ljy vkorZ xfr dj jgs
mirror. The plane mirror is performing
SHM of amplitude 2 cm. The plane mir- lery niZ.k ds lEeq[k ,d fcUnq dks j[kk
ror moves along the x-axis and x- axis is tkrk gSA lery niZ.k x-v{k ds vuqfn'k xfr
normal to the mirror. The amplitude of the
djrk gS o x-v{k niZ.k ds
mirror is such that the object is always
infront of the mirror. The amplitude of (1) 0 (2) 2 cm
SHM of the image is
(3) 4 cm (4) 1 cm
(1) 0 (2) 2 cm
(3) 4 cm (4) 1 cm
15. In the figure shown, the image of a real 15. n'kkZ;s x;s fp= eas okLrfod oLrq dk izfrfcEc
object is formed at point . AB is the I ij curk gSA niZ.k dk eq[; v{k AB gSA
principal axis of the mirror. The mirror niZ.k gksuk pkfg,
must be:
(1) concave and placed towards right of I (1) vory o I nak;h vksj fLFkr
(2) concave and placed towards left of O (2) vory o O cak;h vksj fLFkr
(3) convex and placed towards right of I (3) mÙky o I nak;h vksj fLFkr
(4) convex and placed towards left of I (4) mÙky o I cak;h vksj fLFkr
16. A ball is hit by a batsman at an angle of 37º 16. fp=kuqlkj ,d ckWy ,d f[kykM+h }kjk 37º ds
as shown in figure. The man standing at P dks.k ij ekjh tkrh gSA vkneh P ij [kM+s jgrs
should run at what minimum velocity so that
gq, fdl U;wure osx ls nkSM+uk pkfg, rkfd
he catches the ball before it strikes the
ground. Assume that height of man is og blds tehu ls Vdjkus ds igys ckWy dks
negligible in comparison to maximum idM+ ysA ekuk dh vkneh dh Å¡pkbZ iz{ksI;
height of projectile. dh vf/kdre Å¡pkbZ dh rqyuk esa ux.; gS &
(1) 3 ms–1 (2) 5 ms–1 (1) 3 ms–1 (2) 5 ms–1

(3) 9 ms–1 (4) 12 ms–1
(3) 9 ms–1 (4) 12 ms–1
17. A man is walking on a road with a velocity 17. ,d euq"; lM+d ij 3 km/hr ds osx ls xfr
3 km/hr. Suddenly rain starts falling. The
djrk gSA vpkud cjlkr 'kq: gks tkrh gSA
velocity of rain is 10 km/hr in vertically
downward direction. The relative velocity of cjlkr dk osx 10 km/hr Å/okZ/kj uhps dh vksj
the rain is - gksrk gSA rks cjlkr dk lkis{k osx gS &
(1) 13 km/hr (2) 7 km/hr (1) 13 km/hr (2) 7 km/hr
(3) 109 km/hr (4) 13 km/hr (3) 109 km/hr (4) 13 km/hr
18. The velocity at the maximum height of a 18. ;fn vf/kdre Å¡pkbZ ij iz{ksI; dk osx] mlds
projectile is half of its initial velocity u. Its izkjfEHkd osx u dk vk/kk gksrk gSA rks {kSfrt
range on the horizontal plane is ry ij bldh ijkl (range) gksxh&
2u2 3 u2 2u2 3 u2
(1) 3g (2) 2g (1) 3g (2) 2g
u2 u2 u2 u2
(3) 3g (4) 2g (3) 3g (4) 2g
19. ,d iz{ksI; ds iFk ds 'kh"kZ fcUnq ij osx rFkk

19. At the top of the trajectory of a projectile the
Roj.k dh fn'kk gksrh gS &
direction of its velocity and acceleration are-
(1) ,d nwljs ds lekUrj
(1) Parallel to each other
(2) Inclined at an angle of 45 ° to the (2) {kSfrt ls 45º ds dks.k ij
horizontal (3) ,d nwljs ds yEcor
(3) Perpendicular to each other (4) mijksDr ls ,d Hkh dFku lR; ugha gS
(4) None of the above statement is correct
20. nks d.k A vkSj B fp=uqlkj ,d lkFk iz{ksfir
20. Two particles A and B are projected fd;s x;s gSA VDdj gksus ds fy, d.kks ds fy;s
simultaneously as shown in the figure. The
dks.k  gksxk &
angle  for the particles to collide is
Y
Y
14ms
–1
45°
14ms
–1
45° X
10ms
–1
X A B
10ms
–1
A B 22m
22m
(1) 60° (2) 45°
(1) 60° (2) 45° (3) 30° (4) 90°
(3) 30° (4) 90°
21. A body is projected with a kinetic energy 21. ,d oLrq {kS frt ls q dks.k ij xfrt ÅtkZ
K at an angle  to the horizontal. The K ls iz { ks fir dh xbZ gS A blds mPpre
kinetic energy at its highest point is - fcUnq ij fLFkfrt ÅtkZ esa o`f ) gksx h &
(1) K cos2  (2) K sin2  (1) K cos2  (2) K sin2 
K K
(3) K (4) (3) K (4)
2 2
22. A gun fires two bullets at 60° and 30° with 22. fdlh cUnwd ls nks xksfy;k¡ {kSfrt ls 60° o 30°
the horizon. The ratio of the maximum dks.k ij nkaxh tkrh gSA nksuksa xksfy;k¡ ds fy, vf/
heights for the two bullets is kdre Å¡pkbZ;ksa dk vuqikr gksxk&
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 4 : 1 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
4
23. Two stones are projected so as to reach the 23. nks iRFkj iz{ksfir fd;s tkrss gS rkfd os {kSfrt
same distance from the point of projection lrg ij iz{ksI; fcUnq ls leku nwjh ij igq¡p
on a horizontal surface. The maximum
tk;sA ,d d.k rFkk nwljs d.k ds vf/kdre
height reached by one exceeds the other
Å¡pkbZ ij igq¡pus dk vUrj muds vf/kdre
by an amount equal to half the sum of the
heights reached by them. What are the Å¡pkbZ;ksa ij igq¡pus ds ;ksx ds vk/kh ek= ds
angles of projection respectively? cjkcj gSA iz{ksI; ds dks.k Øe'k% D;k gksxsa \
(1) 30º, 45º (2) 60º, 30º (1) 30º, 45º (2) 60º, 30º
(3) 45º, 45º (4) 15º, 75º (3) 45º, 45º (4) 15º, 75º
24. The maximum height attained by a 24. iz{ksI; d.k ds }kjk izkIr dh xbZ vf/kdre
projectile is increased by 10 %. Keeping ÅapkbZ dks 10 % vf/kd c<+k fn;k tkrk gSA
the angle of projection constant, what is
iz{ksI; d.k dk dks.k fu;r j[kus gq, mì+;u
the percentage increase in the time of flight ?
dky esa izfr'kr o`f) D;k gS -
(1) 5 % (2) 10 %
(1) 5 % (2) 10 %
(3) 20 % (4) 40 %
(3) 20 % (4) 40 %
25. A swimmer wishes to cross a river 500 m 25. ,d rSjkd u nj ij izokfgr 500 eh- pkSMh+ ,d
wide flowing at a rate u. His speed with unh dks ikj djuk pkgrk gSA ty ds lkis{k
respect to water is v. For this, he makes an
mldh pky v gSA tc] og n'kkZ;s vuqlkj unh ds
angle q with the perpendicular to the
izokg dh fn'kk esa yEcor~ ds lkFk q dks.k cukrk
direction of the flow of the river as shown.
He cross the river in minimum time, the gSA mls U;wure le; esa unh ikj djus ds fy, 
value of  should be : dk eku dk gksxk&
B
B v u d=500m
d=500m
v u
A
A
(1) 0° (2) 90°

(1) 0° (2) 90°
(3) 30° (4) 60°
(3) 30° (4) 60°
26. For a projectile the ratio of maximum 26. ,d iz{ksI; ds fy, mM~M;udky ds oxZ dk
height reached to the square of flight time vf/kdre Å¡pkbZ rd igqapus dk vuqikr gS&
is :
(1) 5 : 4 (2) 5: 2
(1) 5 : 4 (2) 5: 2
(3) 5 : 1 (4) 10 : 1
(3) 5 : 1 (4) 10 : 1
27. A ball thrown by one player reaches the 27. ,d f[kykM+h }kjk QSadh xbZ ,d ckWy nwljs
other in 2 sec. The maximum height ds ikl 2 lSd.M esa igqaprh gSA iz{ksi ds
attained by the ball above the point of
fcUnq ds mij ckWy }kjk izkIr vf/kdre
projection will be about :
(1) 2.5 m (2) 5 m ÅapkbZ gksxh &
(3) 7.5 m (4) 10 m (1) 2.5 m (2) 5 m
(3) 7.5 m (4) 10 m
28. The pulley is given an acceleration a0 = 2 m/s2 28. f?kjuh dks fojke ls vkjEHk djus ds fy;s
starting from rest. A cable is connected to a Roj.k a0 =2m/s2 fn;k tkrk gSA ,d rkj 50
blockAof mass 50 kg as shown. Neglect the kg ds ,d xqVds ls fp=uqlkj tqM+k gqvk gSA
mass of the pulleyand friction between block f?kjuh ds æO;eku rFkk xqVds o Q'kZ ds chp
and ground. Then the acceleration of blockA
?k"kZ.k ux.; ekuus ijA rc xqVds A dk
Roj.k gksxk &
a0
a0
A
A
(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2
(3) 1 m/s2 (4) None (1) 2 m/s2 (2) 4 m/s2
    (3) 1 m/s2 (4) ugha
29. When force F1 ,F2 ,F3 .....Fn act on a particle,    
 29. tc cy F ,F ,F .....F d.k ij dk;Z djrs gS]
1 2 3 n
the particle remains in equilibrium. If is F1 
now removed then acceleration of the d.k lkE;oLFkk esa jgrk gSA ;fn vc F dks 1
particle is gVk ns rc d.k dk Roj.k gkssxk &

   
F1 F1 F1 F1
(1) (2)  (1) (2) 
m m m m
         
F  F  ...Fn  F1 F F  F  ...Fn  F1 F
(3)  2 3 (4) 2 (3)  2 3 (4) 2
m m m m
30. Two blocks of masses 2 kg and 1 kg are in 30. 2 kg o 1 kg æO;ekuksa ds nks xqVds ?k"kZ.kghu
contact with each other on a frictionless Vscy ij ,d&nwljs ds lEidZ esa j[ks gSA tc
table. When a horizontal force of 3.0 N is 3.0 N dk {kSfrt cy 2 kg æO;eku ds xqVds
applied to the block of mass 2 kg, the value
ij yxk;k tkrk gS, rc nks xqVdksa ds chp
of the force of contact between the two
blocks is : lEidZ cy dk eku gksxk & :
(1) 4 N (2) 3 N (1) 4 N (2) 3 N
(3) 2 N (4) 1 N (3) 2 N (4) 1 N
31. Two bodies of masses 5 kg and 4 kg are 31. 5 kg o 4 kg æO;ekuksa ds nks fi.M fp=uqlkj
arranged in two positions as shown in nks fLFkfr;ksa (1) o (2) esa O;ofLFkr gS, ;fn
figure (1) & (2), if the pulleys and the table f?kjfu;k¡ rFkk Vscy iw.kZr% fpdus gS] rc 5 kg
are perfectly smooth, the accelerations of
the 5 kg body in case (1) and (2) are : fi.M dk Roj.k fLFkfr (1) o (2) esa gksxk :
5 kg
5 kg
(A) 4 kg
(A) 4 kg
(B)
(B)
4 kg 5 kg
4 kg 5 kg
(1) g and (5/9)g (1) g rFkk (5/9)g
(2) (4/9)g and (1/9)g (2) (4/9)g rFkk (1/9)g
(3) g/5 and g/5 (3) g/5 rFkk g/5
(4) (5/9)g and (1/9)g (4) (5/9)g rFkk (1/9)g
6
32. Two blocks each of mass M are resting on a 32. M æO;eku ds nks xqVds fp=uqlkj ?k"kZ.k jfgr
frictionless inclined plane as shown in urry ij fojke esa gS -
figure. Then
M M
M M B
B A
A
60º 30º
60º 30º
(1) The block A moves down the plane (1) xqVdk A ry ij uhps xfr djsxkA
(2) The block B moves down the plane (2) xqVdk B ry ij uhps xfr djsxkA
(3) Both the blocks remains at rest (3) nksuks xqVds fojke esa jgsaxsA
(4) Both the blocks moves down the plane
(4) nksuks xqVds ry ij uhps xfr djsaxsA
33. Two bodies A and B each of mass M are 33. M æO;eku ds nks fi.M A o B ,d æO;eku
fixed together by a massless spring.A force fLiazx ds lkFk ,d&nwljs ls tqM+s gq;s gSA fdlh
F acts on the mass B as shown in figure.
At the instant shown the mass A has {k.k ij fp=uqlkj æO;eku dks Roj.k A fn;k
acceleration a. What is the acceleration of tkrk gSA B dk Roj.k D;k gksxk & ?
mass B ?
A B F A B F
(1) (F/M) – a (2) a (1) (F/M) – a (2) a

(3) – a (4) (F/M) (3) – a (4) (F/M)
34. Figure showns a man of mass 60 kg 34. n'kkZ;s x;s fp= esa 60 kg æO;eku dk ,d vkneh
standing on a light weighing machine kept in 30 kg æO;eku ds ckWDl esa ,d gYdh Hkkfjr e'khu
a box of mass 30 kg. The box is hanging ij [kM+k gSA ckWDl gYdh jLlh ls Nr ij n`<+
from a pulley fixed to the ceiling through a f?kjuh ls yVdk gqvk gSA nwljs fljs ij vkneh
light rope, the other end of which is held by Lo;a [kM+k gqvk gSA ;fn vkneh ckWDl dks fojke
the man himself. If the man manages to keep
theboxatrest,Findforcerequiredtopullthebox? esa cuk;s j[krk gSA ckWDl dks [khapus ds fy;s
/////////////////////////////////////////////
vko';d cy Kkr djks\
/////////////////////////////////////////////
(1) 900 N (2) 540 N

(3) 750 N (4) 450 N (1) 900 N (2) 540 N
(3) 750 N (4) 450 N
35. A block of mass 10 kg is suspended by three
strings as shown in the figure. the tension T2 35. 10 kg æO;eku dk ,d xqVdk fp=uqlkj rhu
is jfLl;ksa }kjk yVdk gqvk gSA rc ruko T2 gS&
(1) 100 N 60° 30° (1) 100 N
100 100 60° 30°
(2) N T2 T3 (2) N
3 3
T2 T3
(3) 3 × 100 N T1 (3) 3 × 100 N
10 kg T1
(4) 50 3 N (4) 50 3 N 10 kg
36. A body of mass 2 kg is hang on a spring 36. 2 kg æO;eku dk ,d fi.M fy¶V esa
balance mounted vertically in a lift. If the Å/okZ/kj j[ks fLiazx larqyu ij yVdk gqvk gSA
lift moves up with an acceleration equal
;fn fy¶V xq:Roh; Roj.k ds leku Roj.k ls
to the acceleration due to gravity. The
reading on the spring balance will be Åij xfr djrh gSA rc fLiax z ij ikB~;kad gksxk
(1) 3 kg (2) 1 × g kg (1) 3 kg (2) 1 × g kg
(3) 4 × g kg (4) 5 kg (3) 4 × g kg (4) 5 kg
37. A monkey is descending from the branch 37. ,d cUnj ,d isM+ dh 'kk[kk ls fu;r Roj.k
of a tree with a constant acceleration. If
ls uhps mrjrk gSA ;fn 'kk[kk ds VwVus dh
the breaking strength of the branch is 75%
of the weight of the monkey, the minimum lkeF;Z ¼{kerk½ cUnj ds Hkkj dh 75% gS]
acceleration with which the monkey can U;wure Roj.k gksxk] ftlds lkFk cUnj 'kk[kk
slide down without breaking the branch is ds fcuk VwVs uhps fQly lds
(1) g (2) 3g/4 (1) g (2) 3g/4
g g
(3) g/2 (4) (3) g/2 (4)
4 4
38. In the figure shown the v e l o c i t y o f 38. n'kkZ;s x;s fp= esa vyx&vyx xq V dks dk
different blocks is shown. The velocity
osx n'kkZ;k x;k gSA C dk osx gksxk &
of C is
(1) 6 m/s
(1) 6 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 0 m/s
6 m/s
4 m/s
6m/s
(3) 0 m/s
6 m/s
4 m/s
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

6m/s
A B C D
(4) none of these A B C D
39. In the arrangement shown, end A of light 39. fn;s x;s izcU/k esa gYdh vforkU; jLlh dk
inextensible string is pulled with constant A fljk v osx ls [khapk tkrk gSA CykWd B dk
velocity v. The velocity of block B i osx Kkr djksA
A v A
v v
v (1)
(1) 2
2 (2) v
(2) v
v
v (3)
(3) 3
3 (4) zero
B B
(4) zero
40. Two smooth spheres each of radius 5 cm 40. 8cm ds fLFkj fpdus csyu esa nks fpdus xksys
and weight W rest one on the other inside ftudh f=T;k 5 cm vkSj Hkkj W gS] fojke eas
a fixed smooth cylinder of radius 8 cm. j[ks gSaA xksys vkSj csyu dh m/okZ/kj nhokj ds
The reactions between the spheres and the
vertical side of the cylinder are : chp izfrfØ;k,¡ Kkr djksA
(1) W/4 & 3W/4
(1) W/4 & 3W/4 (2) W/4 & W/4
(2) W/4 & W/4 (3) 3W/4 & 3W/4
(3) 3W/4 & 3W/4 (4) W & W
(4) W & W
8
41. Three blocks of masses 3kg, 2 kg and 1 kg are 41. 3kg, 2 kg rFkk 1 kg nzO;eku ds rhu CykWd
placed side by side on a smooth surface as fp=uqlkj ,d fpdus {kSfrt lrg ij ,d ds
shown in figure .A horizontal force of 12 N is ckn ,d j[ks tkrs gSA 3 kg ds CykWd ij ,d
applied to 3 kg block. The net force on 2 kg 12 N dk {kSfrt cy vkjksfir fd;k tkrk gSA
block is –
2 kg CykWd ij dqy cy gS &
12 N
3 kg 2 kg 1 kg 12 N
3 kg 2 kg 1 kg
(1) 2 N (2) 4 N (1) 2 N (2) 4 N

(3) 6 N (4) 12 N (3) 6 N (4) 12 N
42. In the arrangement shown in figure the 42. fp=kuqlkj O;oLFkk esa B vkSj C ds chp tksM+h
tension in the string connected between B xbZ jLlh esa ruko gS &
and C is –
g
g (1)
(1) 7
7
6g
6g (2)
(2) 7
7
12g 2kg B
12g 2kg B (3) A 3kg
(3) A 3kg 7
7
24g 2kg C
24g 2kg C (4)
(4) 7
7
43. A dynamometer D is attached to two blocks 43. 6 kg rFkk 4 kg nzO;eku ds nks CykWd ,d
of masses 6 kg and 4 kg. Forces of 20 N Mk;uksehVj D ls tksM+s tkrs gSA CykWd ij
and 10 N are applied on the blocks as fp=kuqlkj 20 N vkSj 10 N ds cy vkjksfir
shown in figure. The dynamometer reads– fd;s tkrs gSA Mk;uksehVj dk ikB~;kad gS &
D D
6 kg 4 kg 6 kg 4 kg
F =20 N F =10 N F =20 N F =10 N
(1) 10 N (2) 20 N (1) 10 N (2) 20 N
(3) 6 N (4) 14 N (3) 6 N (4) 14 N
44. At the instant t = 0 a force F = kt (k is 44. {k.k t = 0 ij] ,d cy F = kt (k fu;rkad gS)
constant) acts on a small body of mass m ,d fpduh {kSfrt lrg ij fojke ij m
resting on a smooth horizontal surface. The nzO;eku dh NksVh oLrq ij dk;Zjr gSA og
time, when body leaves the surface is - le; tc oLrq lrg dks NksM+rh gS] gS &
F F


m
m
(1) mg k sin a (2) k sin a / mg
(3) mg sin a/k (4) mg / k sin a (1) mg k sin a (2) k sin a / mg
45. A particle of mass 2 kg is initially at rest. A (3) mg sin a/k (4) mg / k sin a
force acts on it whose magnitude changes 45. 2 kg nzO;eku dk ,d d.k izkjaHk esa fojke ij gSA
with time. The force time graph is shown in ,d cy bl ij dk;Zjr gS] ftldk ifjek.k
figure. The velocity of the particle after 10 s le; ds lkFk ifjofrZr gksrk gSA cy≤ xzkQ
is : fp=kuqlkj gSA 10 s ckn d.k dk osx gs &
(1) 20 ms–1 (2) 10 ms–1 (1) 20 ms–1 (2) 10 ms–1

(3) 75 ms–1 (4) 50 ms–1 (3) 75 ms–1 (4) 50 ms–1
CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following follow octet rule? 46. fuEu esa ls dkSulk v"Vd fu;e dk ikyu
(a) [BeF4]– (b) Be2Cl4 djrk gS \
(c) (BeH2)n (d) BeCl2(s) (a) [BeF4]– (b) Be2Cl4
(1) a & c (2) c & d (3) a & d (4) Only d (c) (BeH2)n (d) BeCl2(s)
(1) a o c (2) c o d (3) a o d (4) dsoy d
47. Which molecule is not super octet? 47. fuEu esa ls dkSulk v.kq lqij v"Vd ugha gS \
(1) I2Cl6 (2) ICl4– (3) I3– (4) I3+ (1) I2Cl6 (2) ICl4– (3) I3– (4) I3+
48. p–p and p–d bonding present : 48. p–p rFkk p–d cU/ku n'kkZrs gSa %
(a) SO2 (b) SO3 (c) SO2Cl2 (a) SO2 (b) SO3 (c) SO2Cl2
(d) XeO2F2 (e) XeO3 (d) XeO2F2 (e) XeO3
(1) a, b, e (2) a, b, c (3) only a (4) a & b (1) a, b, e (2) a, b, c (3) dsoy a (4) a o b
49. Correct order of decreasing melting point is: 49. xyukad dk lgh ?kVrk Øe gS %
(1) BeF2 > MgF2 > CaF2 (1) BeF2 > MgF2 > CaF2
(2) NaF > MgF2 > AlF3 (2) NaF > MgF2 > AlF3
(3) NaCl > MgCl2 > AlCl3 (3) NaCl > MgCl2 > AlCl3
(4) HgCl2 > Hg2Cl2 (4) HgCl2 > Hg2Cl2
50. In which compound only present one type 50. fuEu esa ls dkSulk ;kSfxd ,d çdkj dh caU/kqrk
of bond present ? n'kkZrk gS \
(a) NaOH (b) Be2C (c) PH4I (d) Al4C3 (a) NaOH (b) Be2C (c) PH4I (d) Al4C3
(e) CaC2 (f) HNO2 (e) CaC2 (f) HNO2
(1) a, b, e, f (2) b, d, e (1) a, b, e, f (2) b, d, e
(3) a, c, e (4) b, d, f (3) a, c, e (4) b, d, f
51. Coordinate bond present in : 51. milgla;ksth cU/k fdlesa ik;k tkrk gS \
(1) NH2– (2) HF2– (3) CO3–2 (4) P2H5+ (1) NH2– (2) HF2– (3) CO3–2 (4) P2H5+
52. ClO2 is the anhydride of : 52. ClO2 fdldk ,ugkbMªkbM gS \

(1) HOCl (2) HClO2 (1) HOCl (2) HClO2
(3) HClO3 (4) HClO2 and HClO3 (3) HClO3 (4) HClO2 rFkk HClO3
53. Which of the following oxides is amphoteric 53. fuEu esa ls dkSuls vkWDlkbM dh çd`fr mHk;èkehZ
in nature? gS \
(1) N2O3 (2) P4O6 (1) N2O3 (2) P4O6
(3) Sb4O6 (4) Bi2O3 (3) Sb4O6 (4) Bi2O3
54. The compound which contains both ionic and 54. fuEu esa ls dkSuls ;kSfxd esa vk;fud rFkk
covalent bonds is : lgla;ksth cU/k gksrs gSa \
(1) Al4C3 (2) HCl (1) Al4C3 (2) HCl
(3) NH4Cl (4) KCl (3) NH4Cl (4) KCl
10
55. Which of the following compound has 55. fuEu esa ls dkSuls ;kSfxd dh tkyd ÅtkZ
highest lattice energy? vfèkdre gS \
(1) AlF3 (2) Na2S (3) Al2O3 (4) CaF2 (1) AlF3 (2) Na2S (3) Al2O3 (4) CaF2
56. Which of the following halides has the highest 56. fuEu gSyksbMksa esa ls fdldk mPp xyukad gksrk
melting point? gS \
(1) NaCl (2) KCl (3) NaBr (4) NaF (1) NaCl (2) KCl (3) NaBr (4) NaF
57. Which species do not exists ? 57. fuEu esa ls dkSuls vk;u dk vfLrRo ugha gS \
(1) AlF6–3 (2) BF4– (3) BeF4–2 (4) CCl62– (1) AlF6–3 (2) BF4– (3) BeF4–2 (4) CCl62–
58. Increasing order of electron affinity is : 58. bysDVªkWu cU/kqrk dk c<+rk lgh Øe gS %
(1) N < O < Cl < Al (2) O < N < Al < Cl (1) N < O < Cl < Al (2) O < N < Al < Cl
(3) N < Al < O < Cl (4) Cl < N < O < Al (3) N < Al < O < Cl (4) Cl < N < O < Al
59. The electronegativity of the following 59. fuEu rRoksa dh fo|qr_.krk dk c<+rk Øe gS %
elements increases in the order of : (1) C, N, Si, P (2) N, Si, C, P
(1) C, N, Si, P (2) N, Si, C, P (3) Si, P, C, N (4) P, Si, N, C
(3) Si, P, C, N (4) P, Si, N, C
60. The correct values of ionization energies (in 60. Be, Ne, He rFkk N dh vk;uu ÅtkZvksa dk
kJ mol–1) of Be, Ne, He and N respectively Øe'k% lgh eku gS % (kJ mol–1 esa)
are : (1) 786, 1012, 999, 1256
(1) 786, 1012, 999, 1256 (2) 1012, 786, 999, 1256
(2) 1012, 786, 999, 1256 (3) 786, 1012, 1256, 999
(3) 786, 1012, 1256, 999 (4) 786, 999, 1012, 1256
(4) 786, 999, 1012, 1256
61. Out of Na+, Mg+2, O–2 and N–3, the pair of 61. Na+, Mg+2, O–2 rFkk N–3 esa ls] rRoksa ds fdl
species showing minimum and maximum IP ;qXe dk vk;uu foHko U;wure rFkk vf/kdre
would be : gksxk %
(1) Na+, Mg+2 (2) Mg+2, N–3 (1) Na+, Mg+2 (2) Mg+2, N–3
(3) N–3, Mg+2 (4) O–2, N–3 (3) N–3, Mg+2 (4) O–2, N–3
62. The amount of energy released for the 62. fuEu ds fy,] çØe X(g) + e–  X–(g) ds fy,
process X(g) + e–  X–(g) is minimum and eqDr ÅtkZ dh ek=k Øe'k% U;wure rFkk vfèkdre
maximum respectively for :
gS %
(a) O (b) S (c) N (d) B (a) O (b) S (c) N (d) B
Correct answer is :
lgh mRrj gS %
(1) c & a (2) d & b (3) a & b (4) c & b
(1) c o a (2) d o b (3) a o b (4) c o b
63. In which of the following pairs, the ionization 63. fuEu esa ls dkSuls ;qXe esa çFke dh vk;uu
energy of the first species is less than that of
ÅtkZ f}rh; ls de gS \
the second ?
(1) N, P (2) Be+, Be
(1) N, P (2) Be+, Be (3) N, N– (4) Ne, Ne+
(3) N, N– (4) Ne, Ne+
64. The hybridization states of the central atoms 64. I3–, ICl4– rFkk ICl2– vk;uksa ds dsUnzh; ijek.kq
o f t he ions I 3 – , ICl 4 – and ICl 2 – are dh ladj.k voLFkk;sa Øe'k% gSa %
respectively : (1) sp2, dsp2 rFkk sp3
(1) sp2, dsp2 and sp3
(2) sp3d, sp3d2 rFkk sp3d
(2) sp3d, sp3d2 and sp3d
(3) sp3d, sp3d rFkk dsp2
(3) sp3d, sp3d and dsp2
(4) sp, sp rFkk dsp2
(4) sp, sp and dsp2
65. The standard electrode potential for the 65. 25°C ij vfHkfØ;k
reaction Ag+ (aq) + e–  Ag(s)
Ag+ (aq) + e–  Ag(s)
Sn2+(aq) + 2e–  SN(s)
2+
Sn (aq) + 2e–  Sn(s)
ds fy, ekud bySDVªkM foHko Øe'k% 0.80
at 25°C are 0.80 volt and – 0.14 volt,
oksYV – 0.14 oksYV gSA lSy Sn | Sn2+(1M) | |
respectively. The emf of the cell.
Ag+(1M) | Ag dk EMF fuEu gS :
Sn | Sn2+(1M) | | Ag+(1M) | Ag is :
(1) 0.66 volt (2) 0.80 volt
(1) 0.66 volt (2) 0.80 volt
(3) 1.08 volt (4) 0.94 volt
(3) 1.08 volt (4) 0.94 volt
66. The reduction electrode potential E, of 0.1 66. M+ vk;u ds 0.1 M foy;u dk vip;u
M solution of M+ ions (E°RP = – 2.36 V) is : bysDVªkWM foHko (E°RP = – 2.36 V) fuEu gS :
(1) – 2.41 (2) + 2.41 (1) – 2.41 (2) + 2.41
(3) –4.82 (4) None (3) –4.82 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
67. When two half reaction of electrode potential 67. tc E1 vkSj E2 ds bySDVªkWM foHko dh nks v)Z
of E 1 and E 2 are combined to form a vfHkfØ;k la;ksftr gksdj bysDVªkWM foHko E3 dk
complete reaction of electrode potential E3,
,d lSy cukrs gS rc (tc n1, n2 o n3 izFke]
then (when n1, n2 and n3 are no. of electrons
exchanged in first, second and combined
f}rh; o la;ksftr vfHkfØ;k esa fofues;h bySDVªkWu
reaction) : dh la[;k gks)
(1) E3 = E2 – E1 (1) E3 = E2 – E1
E1n1  E 2n 2 E1n1  E 2n 2
(2) E3 = (2) E3 =
n3 n3
E1n1  E 2n 2 E1n1  E 2n 2
(3) E3 = (3) E3 =
n 23 n 23
(4) E3 = E1 + E2 (4) E3 = E1 + E2
68. lsy Co | Co2+ (C2) || Co2+ (C1) | ds fy, G 68. lsy Co | Co2+ (C2) || Co2+ (C1) | ds fy, G
_.kkRed gS ;fn _.kkRed gS ;fn
(1) C2 > C1 (2) C1 > C2 (1) C2 > C1 (2) C1 > C2
(3) C1 = C2 (4) crk;k ugha tk ldrk (3) C1 = C2 (4) crk;k ugha tk ldrk
12
69. Which of the following will increase the 69. fuEu lSy vfHkfØ;k ds lkFk lSy ds oksYVst esa
voltage of the cell with following cell reaction o`f) fdlds }kjk gksxh
Sn(s) + 2Ag+(aq)  Sn+2(aq) + 2Ag(s) Sn(s) + 2Ag+(aq)  Sn+2(aq) + 2Ag(s)
(1) Increase in the size of silver rod (1) flYoj NM+ ds vkdkj esa o`f) dj
(2) Increase in the concentration of Sn2+ (2) Sn2+ vk;uksa dh lkUnzrk esa o`f) dj
ions (3) Ag+ vk;uksa dh lkUnzrk esa o`f) dj
(3) Increase in the concentration of Ag+ ions
(4) lkE; fu;rkad ds eku esa o`f) dj
(4) Increase in the value of equilibrium
constant
70. Electrolysis can be used to determine atomic

70. ijek.kh; nzO;eku dks Kkr djus ds fy,
masses. A current of 0.550 A deposits 0.55 g
of a certain metal in 100 minutes. Calculate
oS|qr&vi?kVu dks iz;qDr fd;k tk ldrk gSA
the atomic mass of the metal if n = 3 : 0.550 A /kkjk dks izokfgr dj 100 feuV esa
(1) 100 (2) 45.0 0.55 g dk fuf'pr /kkrq fu{ksfir fd;k tkrk gSA
(3) 48.25 (4) 144.75 /kkrq dk ijek.kh; nzO;eku ifjdfyr dhft;s
;fn n = 3 gks
(1) 100 (2) 45.0
(3) 48.25 (4) 144.75
71. How many minutes will it take to plate out 71. 1.50 A /kkjk izokfgr dj Cr2(SO4)3 ls 0.5g
0.5 g of Cr from a Cr2(SO4)3 solution using Cr dks fudkyus dks fdruk le; yxsxk\
a current of 1.50 A ? (ijek.kq Hkkj : Cr = 52.0)
(Atomic weight : Cr = 52.0) (1) 254 (2) 30 (3) 152 (4) 103
(1) 254 (2) 30 (3) 152 (4) 103
72. During discharge of a lead storage cell the 72. ,d lhlk lapk;d lSy dks fujkosf'kr djus ij]
density of sulphuric acid in the cell : lSy esa mifLFkr lY¶;wfjd vEy ds /kuRo dh
(1) Increasing ek=k %
(2) decreasing (1) c<+rh gS
(3) remians unchanged (2) ?kVrh gS
(4) initiallyincreases but decrease subsequently (3) dksbZ ifjorZu ugha
(4) izkjaHk esa c<+rh gS fdUrq ckn esa ?kVrh gSA
73. 108 g fairly concentrate solution of AgNO3 73. 0.1 F oS|r

q dks iz;qDr dj 108 g AgNO3 ds
is electrolyzed using 0.1 F of electricity. The Li"V lkfUnzr foy;u dk oS|qr vi?kVu fd;k
weight or resulting solution is : tkrk gSA Hkkj vFkok ifj.kkeh foy;u fuEu gS
(1) 94 g (2) 11.6 g (1) 94 g (2) 11.6 g
(3) 96.4 g (4) None (3) 96.4 g (4) mijksDr dksbZ ugha
74. A certain current liberated 0.504 g of 74. ,d fuf'pr /kkjk 2 ?k.Vs esa gkbMªkstu ds 0.504
hydrogen in 2 hours. How many grams of xzke dks eqDr djrh gSA dkWij lYQsV foy;u
copper can be liberated by the same current esas leku le; ds fy, leku /kkjk izokfgr dj
flowing for the same time in copper sulphate dkWij ds fdrus xzke eqDr fd;s tk ldrs gaS \
solution (1) 31.8 g (2) 16.0 g
(1) 31.8 g (2) 16.0 g (3) 12.7 g (4) 63.5 g
(3) 12.7 g (4) 63.5 g
75. The ionization constant of a weak electrolyte 75. ,d nqcZy fo|qr vi?kV; dk vk;fud fLFkjkad
is 25 × 10–6 while the equivalent conductance 25 × 10–6 gSA tcfd blds 0.01 M foy;u dh
of its 0.01 M solution is 19.6 S cm2 eq–1. rqY;kad pkydrk 19.6 S lseh2 rqY;–1 gS] rks
The equivalent conductance of the electrolyte
at infinite dilution (in S cm2 eq–1 ) will be
vUur ruqrk ij fo|qr vi?kV~; dh rqY;kad
(1) 250 (2) 196 (3) 392 (4) 384 pkydrk (S cm2 eq–1 ) D;k gksxhA
(1) 250 (2) 196 (3) 392 (4) 384
76. The molar conductance at infinite dilution 76. AgNO3, AgCl rFkk NaCl dh vuUr ruqrk ij
of AgNO3, AgCl and NaCl are 116.5, 121.6 eksyj pkydrk Øe'k% 116.5, 121.6 rFkk 110.3
and 110.3 respectively. The molar gSA NaNO3 dh eksyj pkydrk fuEu gS :
conductances of NaNO3 is :
(1) 111.4 (2) 105.2
(1) 111.4 (2) 105.2
(3) 130.6 (4) 150.2
(3) 130.6 (4) 150.2
77. The specific conductivity of a saturated 77. 25ºC ij AgCl ds larÌr foy;u dh fof'k"V
solution of AgCl is 3.40  106 ohm1 cm1 pkydrk 3.40  106 vkse 1 lseh 1 gSaA ;fn
at 25 ºC. If Ag+ = 62.3 ohm1 cm2 mol1 & Ag+ = 62.3 vkse1 lseh2 eksy1 rFkk Cl =
Cl = 67.7 ohm1 cm2 mol1 , the solubility
67.7 vkse1 lseh2 eksy 1 gS rks 25 ºC ij AgCl
of AgCl at 25 ºC is :
(1) 2.6  105 M (2) 4.5  103 M dh foys;rk Kkr djksA
(3) 3.6  105 M (4) 3.6  103 M (1) 2.6  105 M (2) 4.5  103 M
(3) 3.6  105 M (4) 3.6  103 M
78. Given : Eº(Cu 2+ | Cu) = 0.337 V and 78. fn;k x;k gS : Eº(Cu2+ | Cu) = 0.337 V rFkk Eº
Eº (Sn2+ | Sn) = – 0.136 V. Which of the (Sn2+ | Sn) = – 0.136 V gSA fuEufyf[kr esa
following statements is correct? dkSulk lgh dFku gS \
(1) Cu2+ ions can be reduced by H2(g)
(1) H2(g) ds }kjk Cu2+ vk;u vipf;r gks
(2) Cu can be oxidized by H+
(3) Sn2+ ions can be reduced by H2(g) ldrs gSA
(4) Cu can reduce Sn2+ (2) H+ ds }kjk Cu vkWDlhd`r gks ldrs gSA
(3) H2(g) ds }kjk Sn2+ vk;u vipf;r gks
ldrs gSA
(4) Cu,Sn2+ dks vipf;r gks ldrk gSA
1
79. The standard potential of the reaction 79. 298K ij vfHkfØ;k H2O + e–  H + OH–
2 2
1 dk ekud foHko Kkr djks \
H2O + e–  H + OH– at 298 K is
2 2 (1) – 0.828 V (2) 0.828 V
(1) – 0.828 V (2) 0.828 V (3) 0 V (4) – 0.5 V
(3) 0 V (4) – 0.5 V
80. The weight of silver (eq. wt = 108) displaced 80. vkos'k dh og ek= tks STP ij 5600 ml
by that quantity of current which displaced gkbMªkstu xSl dks foLFkkfir djrh gS] ogh
5600 ml. of hydrogen at STP is : vkos'k dh ek= Ag ds fdrus xzke foLFkkfir
(1) 54 g (2) 108 g djsxhA (rqY;kad Hkkj = 108)
(3) 5.4 g (4) None of these (1) 54 g (2) 108 g
(3) 5.4 g (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
14
81. Consider the following Galvanic cell. 81. fuEu xSYosfud lSy ij fopkj fdft;s µ
By what value the cell voltage change when lSy oksYVrk dk eku fdruk ifjofrZr gksxk tc
concentration of ions in anode and cathodic 298K ij ,uksMhd rFkk dSFkksMhd nksuksa Hkkxksa
compartments both increased by factor of 10 ¼d{kksa½ esa vk;uksa fd lkUnzrk esa 10 ds xq.kkad ls
at 298 K
o`f) gks tkrh gSA
(1) + 0.591 (2) – 0.0591
(1) + 0.591 (2) – 0.0591
(3) – 0.1182 (4) 0
(3) – 0.1182 (4) 0
82. In the adjacent diagram the electrolytic cell 82. fn;s x;s fp= esa oS|rq vi?kV~; lSy ,d tyh;
contains 1 L of an aqueous 1 M Copper (II) 1 M dkWij (II) lYQsV foy;u dk 1 yhVj j[krk
sulphate solution. If 0.4 mole of electrons
gSAa ;fn lSy ds }kjk bysDVªkWu ds 0.4 eksy
passed through of cell, the concentration of
copper ion after passage of the charge will
izokfgr fd;s x;s rks vkos'k ds izokfgr gksus ds
be ckn dkWij vk;u dh lkUnzrk D;k gksxhA
(1) 0.4 M (2) 0.8 M (1) 0.4 M (2) 0.8 M

(3) 1.0 M (4) 1.2 M (3) 1.0 M (4) 1.2 M
83. In a salt bridge, KCI is used because: 83. ,d yo.k&lsrq esa KCI dks iz;qDr djrs gSa D;ksfa d
(1) it is an electrolyte (1) ;g ,d oS|qr&vi?kV~; gS
(2) it is good conductor of electricity (2) ;g oS|qr dk vPNk pkyd gksrk gS
(3) the transport number of K+ and Cl– ions
(3) K+ rFkk Cl– dh vfHkxeukad (transport
are nearly same or both have same ionic
no.) yxHkx leku vFkok nksuks dh vk;fud
mobility
(4) it is ionic compound xfr'khyrk leku gksrh gS
(4) ;g vk;fud ;kSfxd gS
84. Which of the following are the correct axial 84. f=leurk{k fudk; ds fy, v{kh; nwjh rFkk
distance and axial angles for rhombohedral v{kh; dks.k dk dkSulk ;qXe lgh gS \
system? (1) a = b = c,  =  =  900
(1) a = b = c,  =  =  900 (2) a = b  c,  =  =  = 900
(2) a = b  c,  =  =  = 900 (3) ab c,  =  =  = 900
(3) ab c,  =  =  = 900 (4) ab c,   900
(4) ab c,   900
85. The shaded plane abcd is referred to as - 85. Nk;kafdr ry abcd iznf'kZr djrk gS -
Z Z
b b
a a
Y Y
c c
d d
X X
(1) rectangular plane of symmetry (1) vk;rkdkj lefefr ry

(2) diagonal plane of symmetry (2) fod.kZ lefefr ry
(3) unit plane (3) bdkbZ ry
(4) none of these
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
86. The second order Bragg diffraction of X- 86. ,d /kkrq esa ,d lekukUrj ryksa ds leqPp; ls
rays with  = 1.0 Å from a set of parallel X-fdj.kksa dk f}rh; dksfV czxs foorZu 60º dks.k
planes in a metal occurs at an angle 60º. The
ij gksrk gS ftldk  = 1.0 Å gSA fØLVy esa
distance between the scattering planes in the
crystals is - izdhf.kZr ryksa ds e/; nwjh gS -
(1) 1.155 Å (2) 1.00 Å (1) 1.155 Å (2) 1.00 Å
(3) 2.00 Å (4) 1.7 Å (3) 2.00 Å (4) 1.7 Å
87. Two liquids X and Y form an ideal solution 87. nks nzo X vkSj Y ,d vkn'kZ foy;u cukrs gSaA
At 300 K, vapour pressure of the solution X ds 1 eksy vkSj Y ds 3 eksy ds feykus ls cus
containing 1 mol of X and 3 mol of Y is 550
gq, foy;u dk ok"i nkc 300 K ij 550 mmHg
mmHg. At the same temperature, if 1 mol of
Y is further added to this solution, vapour gSA mlh rki ij ;fn ml foy;u esa Y dk 1
pressure of the solution increases by 10 eksy feyk fn;k tkrk gS rks foy;u dk ok"i
mmHg. Vapour pressure (in mmHg) of X and nkc 10 mmHg c<+ tkrk gSA 'kq) voLFkk esa X
Y in their pure states will be, respectively - o Y dk ok"i nkc (mmHg es)a , Øe'k% gksxk
(1) 300 and 400 (2) 400 and 600 (1) 300 and 400 (2) 400 and 600
(3) 500 and 600 (4) 200 and 300 (3) 500 and 600 (4) 200 and 300
16
88. The average osmotic pressure of human 88. ekuo ds jä dk 37°C ij vkSlr ijklj.k nkc
blood is 7.8 bar at 37°C. What is the (osmotic pressure) 7.8 bar gSA NaCl ds tyh;
concentration of an aqueous NaCl solution
foy;u esa mldh D;k lkUnzrk gks ftlls fd
that could be used in the blood stream -
(1) 0.16 mol/L (2) 0.32 mol/L mldk jä /kkjk esa mi;ksx fd;k tk lds &
(3) 0.60 mol/L (4) 0.45 mol/L (1) 0.16 mol/L (2) 0.32 mol/L
(3) 0.60 mol/L (4) 0.45 mol/L
89. A solution of urea (mol. mass 56 g mol–1) 89. ty esa ;wfj;k (vkf.od nzO;eku 56 g mol–1)
boils at 100.18°C at the atomospheric dk ,d foy;u ok;qe.Myh; nkc ij 100.18°C
pressure. If Kf and Kb for water are 1.86 and
ij mcyrk gSA ;fn ty ds fy;s Kf rFkk Kb
0.512K kg mol–1 respectively, the above
solution will freeze at- Øe'k% 1.86 vkSj 0.512K kg mol–1 gks] rks
(1) –6.54°C (2) –0.654°C mijksDr foy;u dk fgekad gksxk &
(3) 6.54°C (4) 0.654°C (1) –6.54°C (2) –0.654°C
(3) 6.54°C (4) 0.654°C
90. A solution containing 10g per dm3 of urea 90. ,d foy;u] ftleas ;wfj;k (vkf.od nzO;eku =
(molecular mass = 60g mol–1) is isotonic with 60g mol–1) dk 10g izfr dm3 gSA ,d vok"i'khy
a 5% solution of a nonvolatile solute. The foys; ds 5% foy;u ds lkFk leijkljh gSA
molecular mass of this nonvolatile solute is -
bl vok"i'khy foys; dk vkf.od nzO;eku gS &
(1) 250g mol–1 (2) 300g mol–1
(1) 250g mol–1 (2) 300g mol–1
(3) 350g mol–1 (4) 200g mol–1
(3) 350g mol–1 (4) 200g mol–1
BIOLOGY
91. Refer to the given figure. 91. fuEu fp= ds lanHkZ esa
Select the option which identifies X ,oa Y /kzork ,oa Serine ds lanHkZ esa
polarity X and Y and DNA sequence DNA dk dksMksu (P) ,oa mldk ,fUV
coding for serine (P) and the anticodon dksMksu (Q) n'kkZus okys lgh fodYi dk
for the same amino acid (Q). p;u djsaA
X Y P Q X Y P Q
(1) 3' 5' TCA UCA (1) 3' 5' TCA UCA
(2) 5' 3' UUG TCA (2) 5' 3' UUG TCA
(3) 3' 5' UCA TCA (3) 3' 5' UCA TCA
(4) 5' 3' TCA UCA (4) 5' 3' TCA UCA
92. What would happen if in a gene 92. D;k gksxk ;fn ,d thu tks 50 vehuks vEy
encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino ds ,d ikWyhisIVkbM dks ,udksM djrk gS]
acids, 25th codon (UAU) is mutated to dk 25oka izdwV (UAU), UAA esa mRifjofrZr
UAA? gks tk, ?
(1) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will (1) 24 vehuksa vEyksa okyk ,d ikWyhiSIVkbM
be formed. izkIr gksxkA
(2) Two polypeptide of 24 and 25 amino (2) 24 vkSj 25 vehuksa vEyksa ds nks
acid will be formed ikWyhiSIVkbM izkIr gksaxsA
(3) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will
(3) 49 vehuks vEyksa dk ,d ikWyhiSIVkbM
be formed
cusxkA
(4) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will
be formed (4) 25 vehuksa vEy dk ,d ikyhiSIVkbM
cusxkA
93. Which Antibiotic inhibit Transcription 93. fuEu esa ls dkSulh ,fUVck;ksfVd VªkalfØI'ku
Translocation is translation esa Vªkalyksds'ku dk laneu djrh gSA
(1) Tetracyclin (2) Streptomycin (1) VsVªklkbfDyu (2) LVªIs Vksekbflu
(3) Erythmicin (4) Neomucin (3) bfjFkkbfeu (4) fu;ksekbflu
18
94. Given diagram represents the component 94. fn;k x;k fp= ,d vuqys[ku bdkbZ ds
of a transcription unit, Select the correct vo;oksa dks n'kkZrk gSA blls lacfa /kr lgh
answer regarding it. mÙkj pqfu,A
A Transcription start site B A vuqy[s ku izkjaHku LFky B
3' C 5' C
3' 5'
D D
5' 3' 5' 3'
A B C D A B C D
(1) Terminato Promoter Templat Coding (1) lekiu mUuk;d lkapk jTtqd dwVys[ku
r e strand strand jTtqd
(2) Promoter Terminator Coding Templete (2) mUuk;d lekid dwVys[ku jTtqd lkapk jTtqd
strand strand
(3) mUuk;d lekid lkapk jTtqd dqVys[ku
(3) Promoter Terminator Templat Coding jTtqd
e strand strand
(4) lekid mUuk;d dqVys[ku jTtqd lkapk jTtqd
(4) Terminato Promoter Coding Template
r strand strand
95. Refer to the given diagram. What does it 95. uhps fn;k x;k fp= D;k n'kkZrk gS ?
represent ? 5' 5'
3' 3'
5' 5'
3' 3'
Capping 3' mRNA
Capping Cap Intron
3' mRNA m
GPPP
Cap Intron 5' RNA splicing
m Exon Polyadenylation
GPPP
5' RNA splicing 3'
Exon Polyadenylation m
Gppp
5'
m
Gppp 3' Poly A tail
m
5' Gppp
Poly A tail 5'
m
Gppp
3'
m
5' Gppp
3' 5'
m
Gppp mRNA
5'
mRNA (1) izksdSfj;ksV~l esa vuqys[ku
(1) Transcription in prokaryotes (2) ;wdSfj;ksV~l esa vuqys[ku
(2) Transcription in eukaryotes
(3) izksdSfj;ksV~l esa vuq:i.k
(3) Translation in prokaryotes
(4) ;wdSfj;ksV~l esa vuq:i.k
(4) Translation in eukaryotes
96. Amino acids which are specified by 96. vehuks vEy tks ,dy izdwV }kjk fof'k"V
single codons are gksrs gSa &
(1) phenylalanine and arginine (1) fQukby ,ykukbu vkSj vkftZuhu
(2) tryptophan and methionine (2) fVªIVksQSu vkSj esfFk;ksuhu
(3) Valine and proline (3) osyhu vkSj izksyhu
(4) methionine and arginine. (4) esfFk;ksuhu vkSj vkftZuhuA
97. What would be the base sequence of 97. fn;s x;s DNA ds [k.M ls izkIr RNA
RNA transcript obtained from the given vusys[ku esa {kkj dk dwVys[ku jTtqd
DNA segment ? 5'– G C A T T C G G C T A G T A A C
5'– G C A T T C G G C T A G T A A C – 3' DNA dk dwVys[ku
– 3' Coding strand of DNA
3' – C G T A A G C C G A T C A T T G
3' – C G T A A G C C G A T C A T T G –5' DNA dk ukWu dksfMax jTtqd
–5' Non–coding strand of DNA
(1) 5' – G C A U U C G G C U A G U A
(1) 5' – G C A U U C G G C U A G U A A C –3'
A C –3'
(2) 5' – C G U A A G C C G A U C A U
(2) 5' – C G U A A G C C G A U C A U U G –3'
U G –3'
(3) 5' – G C A T T C G G C T A G T A
(3) 5' – G C A T T C G G C T A G T A A C –3'
A C –3'
(4) 3' – C G T A A G C C G A T C A T
(4) 3' – C G T A A G C C G A T C A T T G – 5'
T G – 5'
98. Select the correct statements regarding 98. ;wdSfj;ksV~l esa vuqys[ku dh izfØ;k ls
the process of transcription in lacfa /kr lgh dFkuksa dks pqusaA
eukaryotes. (i) ds DNA dk og jTtqd tks vuqys[ku
(i) The stand of dsDNA which takes izfØ;k esa Hkkx ysrk gS] mls dwVys[ku
part in transcription process is jTtqd dgrs gSaA
called as coding strand.
(ii) ,Utkbe RNA ikWyhejsl cgqydhdj.k
(ii) The enzyme RNA polymerase can
dks dsoy ,d fn'kk vFkkZr~ 2'  3' esa
catalyse polymerisation only in one
mRizsfjr djrk gSA
direction i.e., 2'  3'
(iii) vkPNknu ds nkSjku ,d vlk/kkj.k
(iii) An unusual nucleotide methyl
U;wfDy;ksVkbM feFkk;y xqvkuksflu
guanosine triphosphate is added to
the 5' end of hnRNA during
VªkbZQkWLQsV hn RNA ds 5' fljs ij
capping. tqM+rk gSA
(iv) During tailing process, adenylate (iv) iqPNu izfØ;k ds nkSjku ,Mhuk;ysV
residues (200 – 300) are added at 3' jsflM~;w (200 – 300), ,d VsEiysV ls
end in a template independent Lora= fof/k 3'-fljs ij tqM+rk gSA
manner. (1) (i) and (ii)
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (iii) and (iv)
(2) (iii) and (iv) (3) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
20
99. Select the incorrectly marched pair. 99. csesy tksM+s dks pqusaA
(1) Initiation codons – AUG, GUG (1) vkjaHku izdwV – AUG, GUG
(2) Stop codons –UAA, UAG, UGA (2) lekiu –UAA,UAG,UGA
(3) Methionine – AUG (3) ehfFk;ksehu – AUG
(4) Anticodons – mRNA (4) izfr-izdwV(Anticodon) – mRNA
100. Read the following statements. 100. uhps fn;s dFkuksa dks i<+saA
(i) One codon codes for only one (i) ,d izdwV dsoy ,d vehuksa vEy ds
amino acid.
fy;s dwV djrk gSA
(ii) Some amino acids are coded by
more than one codon. (ii) dqN vehuks vEy ,d ls vf/kd izdwV
(iii) The sequence of three nitrogenous }kjk dwfVr gksrs gSaA
bases in DNA of mRNA (iii) DNA ;k mRNA esa rhu ukbVªkstuh
corresponds to the one amino acid
in the polypeptide chain. {kkjksa Øe ikWyhisIVkbM Jà[kyk ds ,d
Give suitable terms for the characteristics vehuksa vEy ds laxr gksrk gSA
of 'genetic code' as per the above mijksDr dFkuksa ds vk/kkj ij vuqokaf'kd
statements.
dwV ds y{k.kksa ds fy, lgh 'kCnkofy
Degener Triplet Unambi pqfu;sA
acy guous
viâkflr fVªIysV vlafnX/k
(1) (i) (iii) (iii)
(1) (i) (iii) (iii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii)
101. Match column I with column II and 101. LraHk-I dk esy LraHk-II ls djsa vkSj uhps fn;s
select the correct option from the given x;s dksM ls lgh fodYi pqusaA
codes.
LraHk I LraHk II
Column I Column II
A. flXek dkjd (i) 5'–3'
A. Sigma factor (i) 5'–3'
B. vkPNknu (ii) vkjaHku
B. Capping (ii) Initiation
C. iqPNu (iii) lekiu
C. Tailing (iii) Termination
D. dwVys[ku (iv) 5' fljk
D. Coding strand (iv) 5' end
(v) 3' fljk
(v) 3' end
(1) A-(iii), B-(v), C-(iv), D-(ii) (1) A-(iii), B-(v), C-(iv), D-(ii)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(v), D-(i) (2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(v), D-(i)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(v), D-(iii) (3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(v), D-(iii)
(4) A-(iii), B-(v), C-(iv), D-(i) (4) A-(iii), B-(v), C-(iv), D-(i)
102. Other than DNA polymerase, which of 102. DNA ikWyhejsl ds vykok DNA la'ys"k.k
the following enzymes involved in DNA esa dkSu ls ,Utkbe Hkkx ysrs gSa ?
synthesis ? (1) Vksiksvkblksejsl (2) gsyhdsl
(1) Topoisomerase (2) Helicase
(3) RNA izksbesl (4) mijksDr lHkh
(3) RNA primase (4) All of these
103. Given below the steps of protein 103. uhps izksVhu la'ys"k.k ds pj.k fn;s x;s gSaA
synthesis, Arrange them in correct mUgsa lgh Øe esa O;ofLFkr djsa vkSj lgh
sequence and select the correct option. fodYi pqusaA
(i) Codon–anticodon reaction between (i) mRNA vkSj vehuksa ,fly tRNA
mRNA and aminoacyl tRNA lfEeJ ds chp izdwV-izdwV vfHkfØ;kA
complex.
(ii) mRNA dk jkbckslkse dh NksVh bdkbZ
(ii) Attachment of mRNA and smaller
ls tqM+uk
sub–unit of ribosome.
(iii) tRNA dk vehuksa ,lhys'ku ;k
(iii) Charging or aminoacylation of
vkos'kuA
tRNA.
(iv) jkbckslkse dh cM+h mi bdkbZ dk
(iv) Attachment of larger sub–unit of
ribosome to the mRNA–tRNAMet mRNA-tRNAmet lfEeJ ls tqM+ukA
complex. (v) lehiLFk vehuksa vEyksa dk tqM+ukA
(v) Linking of adjacent amino acids. (vi) ikWyhisIVkbM Jà[kyk dk fuekZ.kA
(vi) Formation of polypeptide chain. (1) (ii)  (i) (iii)  (v)  (iv) (vi)
(1) (ii)  (i)  (iii)  (v)  (iv)  (vi) (2) (v) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (vi)
(2) (v)  (ii)  (i)  (iii)  (iv)  (vi) (3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (v) (vi)
(3) (iii)  (ii)  (iv)  (i)  (v)  (vi) (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (v) (vi)
(4) (iii)  (ii)  (i)  (iv)  (v)  (vi)
104. Refer to the given mRNA segment. 104. mRNA [k.M ds fn;s fp= dks ns[ksaA
A B A B
CG UG UU AU C 3' CG UG UU AU C
5' 5' 3'
It can be translated completely into a
polypeptide.
mldk iw.kZ:i ls ,d ikWyhiSIVkbM esa
Which of the following codons may vuq:i.k gks ldrk gSaA
correspond with A and B ? fuEu esa ls dkSu ls izdwV A vkSj B ds
(1) A-AUG, GUG; B-UAA, UAG or UGA lerqY; gks ldrs gSaA
(2) A-UAA, UGA; B-AUG, GUG or (1) A-AUG, GUG; B-UAA, UAG or UGA
UAG
(3) A-AUG, UGA; B-GUG, UAA or (2) A-UAA, UGA; B-AUG, GUG or UAG
UGA (3) A-AUG, UGA; B-GUG, UAA or UGA
(4) A-AUG, GAG; B-UAA, UUU or (4) A-AUG, GAG; B-UAA, UUU or UGA
UGA
22
105. Which of the following figures correctly 105. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk fp= DNA
represents the replication fork formed izfrÑfrdj.k ds nkSjku cuus okys izfrÑfr
during DNA replication ? f}'kk[k dks lgh :i ls n'kkZrk gS\
3' 3' 3'
5' 5' 3' 5'
5'
(1) 3'5' (2)3'5' (1)3'5' (2) 3'5'
3' 3' 3'
5' 5' 3'
5' 5'
3' 3' 3' 3'
5' 5' 5' 5'
(3) 5'3' (4) 5'3' (3) 5'3' (4) 5'3'
3' 3' 3' 3'
5' 5' 5' 5'
106. Match column I and column II and select 106. LraHk-I dk esy LraHk-II ls djsa vkSj fn;s x;s
the correct option from the given codes. dksM ls lgh fodYi pqusaA
Column I Column II LraHk I LraHk II
(Codons) (Translated (izdwV) (vuq:fir
amino acid) vehuksa vEy)
A. UUU (i) Serine A. UUU (i) lsjhu
B. GGG (ii) Methionine B. GGG (ii) esfFk;ksuhu
C. UCU (iii) Phenylalanine
C. UCU (iii) fQukby ,ykuhu
D. CCC (iv) Glycine
D. CCC (iv) Xykblhu
E. AUG (v) Proline
E. AUG (v) izksyhu
(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(v), E-(ii)
(1) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(v), E-(ii)
(2) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(v), E-(ii)
(2) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(v), E-(ii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(v), D-(i), E-(ii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(v), D-(i), E-(ii)
(4) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(v), E-(iii)
(4) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(v), E-(iii)
107. Match column I with column II and 107. LraHk-I dk esy LraHk-II ls djsa vkSj uhps fn;s
select the correct option from the given x;s dwV ls lgh fodYi pqusaA
codes.
LraHk-I LraHk-II
Column I Column II
A. vuq:i.k (i) SD Øe
A. Translation (i) SD sequence
B. vuqys[ku (ii) vksdktkdh [k.M
B. Transcription (ii) Okazaki fragments
C. DNA izfrÑfrdj.k (iii) RNA ikWyhejst
C. DNA (iii) RNA polymerase
replication (1) A–(ii), B–(i), C–(iii)
(2) A–(i), B–(iii), C–(ii)
(1) A–(ii), B–(i), C–(iii)
(3) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(ii)
(2) A–(i), B–(iii), C–(ii)
(4) A–(ii), B–(iii), C–(i)
(3) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(ii)
(4) A–(ii), B–(iii), C–(i)
108. Select the incorrect statement regarding 108. DNA izfrÑfrdj.k ls lacfa /kr xyr dFku
DNA replication. dks pqfu,A
(1) Leading strand is formed in 5'3' (1) vxzx oy;d (Leading strand) 5'3'
direction. fn'kk esa curk gSA
(2) Okazaki fragments are formed in 5' (2) vksdktkdh VqdM+s 5'  3' fn'kk esa curk
 3' direction
(3) DNA ikWyhejst 5' – 3' fn'kk esa
(3) DNA polymerase catalyses cgqydhdj.k dks mRizsfjr djrk gSA
polymerisation in 5' – 3' direction.
(4) DNA ikWyhejst 3'  5' fn'kk esa
(4) DNA polymerase catalyses
polymerization 3'  5' direction.
cgqydhdj.k dks mRizsfjr djrk gSA
109. The differences between mRNA and 109. mRNA vkSj tRNA ds chp fuEu izdkj gSa &
tRNA are that (i) mRNA dh 3 foeh; lajpuk {kkj
(i) mRNA has more elaborated 3- tksM+h ds foLr`r gksus ds dkj.k vf/kd
dimensional structure due to QSyh gksrh gSA
extensive base-pairing
(ii) tRNA dh 3 foeh; lajpuk {kkj tksM+h
(ii) tRNA has more elaborated 3– ds vf/kd foLr`r gksus ds dkj.k
dimensional structure due to vf/kd QSyh gqbZ gksrh gSA
extensive base–pairing
(iii) tRNA, mRNA ls lk/kkj.kr % NksVk
(iii) tRNA is usually smaller tham
mRNA
gksrk gSA
(iv) mRNA bears anticodon but tRNA (iv) mRNA esa izfr izdwV gksrk gS ijUrq
has codons. tRNA esa izdwV gksrs gSaA
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (1) (i) vkSj (ii) (2) (ii) vkSj (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (3) (i), (ii) vkSj (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i),(ii),(iii) vkSj (iv)
110. First experimental proof for semi– 110. v)Z&laj{kh DNA izfrÑfrdj.k ds fy;s
conservation DNA replication was izFke izekf.kr iz;ksx fuEu ij n'kkZ;k x;k
shown in Fkk&
(1) Streptococcus pneumoniae (1) LVªsIVksdksdl U;weksuh
(2) Escherichia coli (2) b'pksfjfp;k dksykbZ
(3) Neurospora crassa (3) U;wjksLiksjk Øklk
(4) Rattus rattus.
(4) jSVl jSVlA
111. Which of the following statement are 111. fuEu esa vlR; dFku crkb;s\
incorrect? (i) RNA vuqokaf'kd inkFkZ ,oa mRizsjd gS
(i) RNA act as a genetic material as (ii) RNA, DNA dh rqyuk esa vf/kd LFkkbZ gS
well as a catalyst.
(iii) RNA, DNA ls mRiUu gqvk gS
(ii) RNA is more stable than DNA.
(1) (i) and (iii) only (2) (ii) and (iii) only
(iii) RNA has evolved from DNA
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (ii) only
(1) (i) and (iii) only (2) (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (ii) only
24
112. To prove that DNA is the genetic 112. ;g izekf.kr djus ds fy;s fd DNA ,d
material, which radioactive isotopes were vkuqokaf'kd inkFkZ gS g"ksZ vkSj psl (1952) us
used by Hershey and Chase (1952) in vius iz;ksxksa esa dkSu ls leLFkkfudksa
their experiments ? (Isotopes) dk mi;ksx fd;k\
(1) 35S and 15N (2) 32P and 35S (1) 35S vkSj 15N (2) 32P vkSj 35S
(3) 32P and 15N (4) 14N and 15N (3) 32P vkSj 15N (4) 14N vkSj 15N
113. Select the correct statements out of the 113. fuEu esa ls lgh dFku dks pqfu,A
following. (i) DNA vkSj RNA nksuksa gh mRifjorZu
(i) Both DNA and RNA are able to ;ksX; gSaA
mutate. (ii) RNA vLFkk;h gksus ds dkj.k rhoz nj
(ii) RNA being unstable, mutates at a ls mRifjofrZr gksrk gSA
faster rate.
(iii) RNA mRizsjd ds y{k.k n'kkZrk gSA
(iii) RNA shows catalytic properties.
(iv) Fkkbehu (T) ds LFkku ij ;wjsfly (U)
(iv) Presence of uracil (U) at place of
dh mifLFkfr RNA dks vfrfjDr LFkkf;Ro
thymine (T) confers additional stability
to RNA.
nsrh gSA
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (1) (i) o (ii) (2) (ii) o (iii)
(3) (i) and (iv) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii) (3) (i) o (iv) (4) (i), (ii) o (iii)
114. Which of the following criteria should be 114. fuEu esa ls dkSu&ls ekun.M dh iwfrZ ,d
fulfilled by a molecule to act as a genetic v.kq ds vkuqoaf'kd inkFkZ ds :i esa dk;Z
material ? djus ds vko';d gS\
(i) It should be able to replicate. (i) ;g izfrÑfr djus ;ksX; gksuk pkfg;sA
(ii) It should be structurally and (ii) ;g lajpukRed vkSj jklk;fud :i
chemically stable. ls LFkk;h gksuk pkfg;sA
(iii) It should be able to undergo slow (iii) ;g /khes mRifjorZu ds ;ksX; gksuk
mutations. pkfg;sA
(iv) It should be able to express itself in (iv) ;g Lo;a dks 'esaMsfy;u y{k.k' ds :i esa
the form of 'Mendelian characters'. vfHkO;Dr djus ds ;ksX; gksuk pkfg;sA
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (1) (i) o (ii) (2) (ii) o (iii)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (3) (i), (ii) o (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) o (iv)
115. The process of transformation is not 115. :ikUrj.k dh izfØ;k fuEu esa ls dkSu ls
affected by which of the following ,Utkbe }kjk izHkkfor ugha gksrh gS\
enzymes ? A. DNase B. RNase
A. DNase B. RNase C. iSIVhMst D. ykbist
C. Peptidase D. Lipase
(1) A, B (2) A, B, C, D
(1) A, B (2) A, B, C, D
(3) B, C, D (4) A, B, C
(3) B, C, D (4) A, B, C
116. Match column I with column II and 116. LraHk-I dk LraHk-II ls feykus djsa o fn;s x;s
select the correct option from the given dksM ls lgh fodYi pqusaA
codes.
Column I Column II
LraHk I LraHk II
A. F. Mescher (i) DNA double A. ,Q. fe'pj (i) DNA Mcy
helix
B. fxzfQFk (ii) U;wfDyu
B. Griffith (ii) Nuclein
C. g"ksZ vkSj psl (iii) ,l- U;weksuh
C. Hershey and (iii) S. pneumoniae
Chase D. okWVlu vkSj (iv) thok.kqHkksth
fØd
D. Watson and (iv) Bacteriophages
Crick E. fofYdUl vkSj (v) X–js foorZu dk
E. Wilkins and (v) X–ray ÝsUdfyu v/;;u
Franklin diffraction
studies (1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i), E-(v)
(1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i), E-(v) (2) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i), E-(ii)
(2) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i), E-(ii) (3) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii), E-(v)
(3) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii), E-(v) (4) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(v)
(4) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(v)
117. Which one among the following was the 117. fuEu esa ls dkSulk izFke vkuqokaf'kd inkFkZ
first genetic material ? gS &
(1) DNA (2) RNA (1) DNA (2) RNA
(3) Protein (4) Nuclein (3) Protein (4) Nuclein
118. Refer to the given figure. 118. fuEu fp= ds lnHkZ esa
K K
N N
M M
L L
Select the option which correctly lgh fodYi dk p;u djksA

identifies
K L M N
K L M N
(1) 5' end Phosphodiester Thymine Ribose sugar
(1) 5' end Phosphodiester Thymine Ribose sugar bond
bond
(2) 3' end Glycoside bond Guanine Deoxyribose
(2) 3' end Glycoside bond Guanine Deoxyribose sugar
sugar
(3) 5' end Hydrogen bond Adenine Ribose sugar
(3) 5' end Hydrogen bond Adenine Ribose sugar
(4) 5' end Hydrogen bone Adenine Deoxyribose
(4) 5' end Hydrogen bond Adenine Deoxyribose sugar
sugar
26
119. Refer the given figure of nucleosome and 119. fn;s x;s U;wfDy;kslkse ds fp= dks ns[ksa rFkk
select the option that correctly identifies Hkkx A, B o C dh igpku djus okys
the parts A, B and C. fodYi dks pqusa
B C B C
A A
A B C A B C
Histone fgLVksu
(1) DNA H1 histome (1) DNA H1 fgLVksu
octamer v"Vd
Histone fgLVksu
(2) H1 histone DNA
octamer (2) H1 fgLVksu DNA
v"Vd
Histone
(3) DNA H1 histone fgLVksu
octomer (3) DNA H1 fgLVksu
v"Vd
Histone
(4) DNA H1 histone fgLVksu
octomer (4) DNA H1 fgLVksu
v"Vd
120. Read the following statements and select 120. fuEu dFkuksa dks i<+s vkSj lgh fodYi pqusaA
the correct option. (i) ØksesfVu dk <hyk ca/kk gqvk vkSj gYdk
(i) Losely packed and lightly stained vfHkjaftr Hkkx gsVjksØksesfVu dgykrk
region of chromatin are called as
gSA
heterochromatin.
(ii) ØksesfVu dk la?kfur vkSj xgjk
(ii) Densely packed dark stained region
of chromatin are called as vfHkjaftar Hkkx ;wØksfVu dgykrk gSA
euchromatin. (iii) ,d lk/kkj.k U;wfDy;kslkse esa 200 bp ds
(iii) A typical nucleosome contains 200 DNA gsfyDl gksrs gSaA
bp of DNA helix.
(1) dFku (i) o (ii) lgh gSa ijUrq dFku
(1) Statements (i) and (ii) are true, but (iii) xyr gSA
statement (iii) is false.
(2) dFku (i) o (ii) xyr gSa] ijUrq dFku
(2) Statements (i) and (ii) are false, but
statement (iii) is true (iii) lgh gSA
(3) Statements (i) and (iii) are true, but (3) dFku (i) o (iii) lgh gSA ijUrq dFku
statement (i) is false. (i) xyr gSA
(4) All the statements are true. (4) lHkh dFku lgh gSaA
121. The given flow chart represents the flow 121. uhps fn;k x;k izokg vkjs[k tSp v.kqvksa ds
of genetic information between chp vuqokaf'kd lwpukvksa ds izokg dks
biomolecules. Identify the processes A, n'kkZrk gSA A, B, C, o D izfØ;k dks igpkusa
B, C, and D and select the correct option. vkSj lgh fodYi pqusaA
B D
DNA mRNA Proteins B D
A
C A DNA mRNA izksVhUl
C
A B C D A B C D
(1) Translation Transcription Replication Reverse
(1) vuq:i.k vuqys[ku izfrÑfrdj.k O;qRØe
Transcription
vuqys[ku
(2) Replication Transcription Translation Reverse
(2) izfrÑfrdj.k vuqys[ku vuq:i.k O;qRØe
Transcription
vuqys[ku
(3) Replication Transcription Reverse Translation
Transcription (3) izfrÑfrdj.k vuqys[ku O;qRØe vuq:i.k
vuqys[ku
(4) Replication Reverse Transcription Translation
Transcription (4) izfrÑfrdj.k O;qRØe vuqys[ku vuq:i.k
vuqys[ku
122. In one polynucleotide strand of a DNA 122. ,d DNA v.kq ds ,d ikWyhU;wfDy;ksVkbM

molecule the ratio of A + T/G + C is 0.3. esa A + T/G + C dk vuqikr 0.3 gSA lEiw.kZ
What is the A + G/T + C ratio of the f}dq.Myhr DNA v.kq esa A + G/T + C dk
entire Double strand DNA molecule ? vuqikr D;k gksxk\
(1) 0.3 (2) 0.6 (3) 1.2 (4) 1 (1) 0.3 (2) 0.6 (3) 1.2 (4) 1
123. Rho factor is present in 136. Rho dkjd izksVhu mifLFkr gksrs gS &
(1) Prokaryotic (2) Eukaryotic (1) izksdsfj;ksV (2) ;wdsfj;V
(3) Both (4) None (3) nksuksa (4) dksbZ ugha
124. Watson and Crick (1953) proposed DNA 124. okWVlu vkSj fØd (1953) us DNA dk
double helix model and won the Nobel f}dq.Mfyr ekWMy izfrikfnr djds ukscy s
prize; their model of DNA was based on iqjLdkj thrk] mudk ekWMy vk/kkfjr Fkk&
(i) X-ray diffraction studies of DNA (i) fofYdUl vkSj ÝsUdfyr }kjk fd, x,
done by Wilkins and Franklin DNA ds X-js v/;;u ij
(ii) Chargaff's base equivalence rule (ii) pkjxzkQ ds {kkj ds lkE;rk ds fu;e ij
(iii) Griffith's base equivalence
(iii) fxzfQFk ds :ikUrj.k iz;ksx ij
experiment
(iv) ehlsYlu vkSj LFky ds iz;ksx ijA
(iv) Meselson and Stahl's experiment.
(1) (i), (ii) vkSj (iv)
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(2) (i) vkSj (ii)
(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (iii) and (iv) (3) (iii) vkSj (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) o (iv)
28
125. Which of the following shows the correct 125. DNA dh lajpuk ds fuEu jsf[kr fp=ksa esa ls
positions of the phosphate (P), sugar (S) dkSu QkWLQsV (P), 'kdZjk (S) vkSj {kkj (B)
and base (B) molecules in the given line v.kqvksa dh lgh fLFkfr dks n'kkZrk gS
diagrams representing the structure of
DNA? P B
P B B S P S
B S P S P B
P B (1) B S (2) P S
(1) B S (2) P S P B
P B B S P B
B S P B P P
P P P S
P S S B B P
S B B P P S
P S (3) S B (4) B P
(3) S B (4) B P P S
P S S B B P
S B B P P S
P S
126. Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs 126. DNA v.kqvksa dk vlrr~ la'ys"k.k ,d
in one strand, because jTtqd esa gksrk gSa D;ksafd
(1) DNA molecule being synthesised is (1) la'ysf"kr DNA v.kq cgqr yEcs gksrs gSaA
very long
(2) DNA vk/kkfjr DNA ikWyhejsl dsoy
(2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase ,d fn'kk esa gh (5'  3') cgqydhdj.k
catalyses polymerization only in one
dks mRizsfjr djrk gSA
direction (5'  3')
(3) ;g ,d cgqr izHkko'kkyh izfØ;k gSA
(3) it is more efficient process
(4) DNA ykbxst dh ,d Hkwfedk gksrh
(4) DNA ligase has to have a role.
pkfg;sA
127. The human chromosome with the highest 127. os ekuo xq.klw= ftlesa lcls vf/kd vkSj
and least number of genes in them are lcls de la[;k de la[;k esa thUl gksrs
respectively gSa] os Øe'k% gSa &
(1) chromosome 21 and Y (1) xq.klw= 21 vkSj Y
(2) chromosome 1 and X (2) xq.klw= 1 vkSj X
(3) chromosome 1 and Y (3) xq.klw= 1 vkSj Y
(4) chromosome X and Y.
(4) xq.klw= X vkSj Y
128. During translation every new t–RNA 137. âkalyZgku dh f}/khZdj.k izfØ;k esa izR;sd
enter in Ribosome Elongation in to u;k t–RNA jkbckslkse es fuEu LFky ls
which site izo's k djrk gS &
(1) A–site (2) P–site (1) A–site (2) P–site
(3) Both (4) None (3) Both (4) None
129. With regard to mature mRNA in 129. ;wdSfj;ksV~l esa ifjiDo mRNA ds lac/a k esa
eukaryotes dkSu&lk dFku lgh gS\
(1) exons and introns do not appear in (1) O;Drsd vkSj vO;Drsd ifjiDo RNA esa
the mature RNA ugha gksrs gSaA
(2) exons appear but introns do not (2) ifjiDo RNA esa O;Drsd gksrs gSa ijUrq
appear in the mature RNA vO;Drsd ugha gksrs gSaA
(3) introns appear but exons do not
(3) ifjiDo RNA esa vO;Drsd gksrs gSa ijUrq
appear in the mature RNA.
O;Drsd ugha gksrs gSaA
(4) both exons and introns appear in the
(4) ifjiDo RNA esa O;Drsd vkSj vO;Drsd
mature RNA.
nksuksa gksrs gSaA
130. The promoter site and the terminator sire 130. vuqys[ku ds fy;s mUuk;d LFky vkSj
for transcription are located at lekid LFky fLFkr gksrs gSa &
(1) 3' (downstream) end and 5' (upstream) (1) vuqys[ku bdkbZ ds Øe'k % 3' (vuqizokg)
end, respectively of the transcription
fljs vkSj 5' (izfrokgd) fljs ij
unit
(2) 5' (upstream) end and 3' (downstream) (2) vuqys[ku bdkbZ ds Øe'k % 5' (izfrizokg)
end, respectively of the transcription fljs vkSj 3' (vuqizokg) fljs ij
unit (3) 5' (izfrizokg) fljs ij
(3) the 5' (upstream) end (4) 3' (vuqizokg) fljs ijA
(4) the 3' (downstream) end.
131. The fact that a purine base always paired 131. ;g rF; fd ,d I;wjhu {kkj ges'kk
base always paired through hydrogen gkbMªkstu cU/k }kjk ,d fijhfeMhu {kkj ls
bonds with a pyrimidine base leads to, in tqM+dj, DNA f}dq.Myu (Double helix)
the DNA double helix mRiUu djrk gS&
(1) the antiparallel nature (1) vlekukUrj izÑfr
(2) the semi–conservation nature (2) v)Z laj{kh izÑfr
(3) uniform width throughout DNA.
(3) lEiw.kZ DNA esa ,d leku pkSM+kbZ
(4) uniform length in all DNA.
(4) lHkh DNA esa ,d leku yEckbZA
30
132. If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the 132. ;fn ,d vuqys[ku bdkbZ esas DNA ds
coding strand of DNA in a transcription dqVys[ku jTtqd esa ukbVªkstuh {kkjksa dk
unit is : 5' – A T G A A T G – 3', the vuqØe bl izdkj gS : 5' – A T G A A T G
sequence of bases in its RNA transcript – 3', rks blds RNA vuqys[ku esa {kkjksa dk
would be Øe gksxk&
(1) 5' – A U G A A U G – 3' (1) 5' – A U G A A U G – 3'
(2) 5' – U A C U U A C – 3' (2) 5' – U A C U U A C – 3'
(3) 5' – C A U U C A U – 3' (3) 5' – C A U U C A U – 3'
(4) 5' – G U A A G U A – 3'. (4) 5' – G U A A G U A – 3'.
133. While analysing the DNA of an 133. ,d tho ds DNA ds fo'ys"k.k ds nkSjku
organism a total number of 5386 dqy 5386 U;wfDy;ksVkbM izkIr gq,A buesa
nucleotide were found out of of which fofHkUu {kkjksa dk vuqikr Fkk &
the proportion of different bases were:
,fMuhu = 29 %, xqvkuhu = 17%,
Adenine = 29 %, Guanine = 17%,
lkbVksflu = 32%, Fkkbehu = 17 %,
Cytosine = 32%, Thymine = 17 %,
Considering the Chargaff's rule it can be pkjxkQ fu;e dks /;ku esa j[kdj ;g
concluded that fu"d"kZ fudkyk tk ldrk gS fd &
(1) it is a double stranded circular DNA (1) ;g ,d f}jTtqdh; o`Ùkkdkj DNA gS
(2) it is single stranded DNA (2) ;g ,d ,dy jTtqdh; DNA gS
(3) it is a double stranded linear DNA (3) ;g ,d f}jTtqd js[kh; DNA gSA
(4) no conclusion can be drawn. (4) dksbZ fu"d"kZ ugha fudkyk tk ldrk gSA
134. To initiate translation, the mRNA first 134. vuq:i.k dks izkjaHk djus ds fy;s mRNA
binds to igys tqM+rk gS&
(1) the smaller ribosome sub–unit (1) NksVh jkbckslksey mibdkbZ ls
(2) the larger ribosomal sub–unit (2) cM+h jkbckslksey mibdkbZ ls
(3) the whole ribosome (3) iwjs jkbckslkse ls
(4) no such specificity exists. (4) ,slh dkbZ fof'k"Vrk ugha gksrhA
135. If the base sequence of a codon in 135. ;fn mRNA ds ,d izdwV esa {kkj Øe 5'–
mRNA is 5'–CAU–3', the sequence of CAU–3' gS, rks blds lkFk ;qXe cukus okys
tRNA pairing with it must be tRNA dk Øe gksxk &
(1) 5'–UAC–3' (2) 5'–CAU–3' (1) 5'–UAC–3' (2) 5'–CAU–3'
(3) 5'–AUG–3' (4) 5'–GUA–3' (3) 5'–AUG–3' (4) 5'–GUA–3'
136. Choose the correct option for A to B in 136. vU; ifjogu fØ;kfof/k;ksa dh rqyuk esa A o
comparison for the different transport B ds fy, lgh fodYi pqfu,
mechanisms.
ljy lqxe lfØ;
xq.k
Property
Simple Facilitated Active folj.k folj.k folj.k
diffusion diffusion transport
mPp
Highly
A Yes Yes p;ukRe A gk¡ gk¡
selective d
Uphill vifgy
B C Yes B C gk¡
transport ifjogu
Transpo ifjogu
rt D ugha gk¡
D No Yes larÌrrk
Saturati
on A B C D
A B C D (1) gk¡ gk¡ ugha gk¡
(1) Yes Yes No Yes (2) gk¡ ugha ugha gk¡
(2) Yes No No Yes (3) ugha ugha ugha ugha
(3) No No No No (4) gk¡ ugha gk¡ ugha
(4) Yes No Yes No
137. 137.
Initially solution in side A with respect to B fljs ds lanHkZ esa A fljs dk foy;u gS &
side B is (1) vYilkjh (2) vfrijkljh
(1) Hypotonic (2) Hypertonic (3) leijkljh (4) dksbZ ughaA
(3) Isotonic (4) None of these
138. What would be p of a fully flaccid cell? 138. iw.kZ LQhr dksf'kdk dk p D;k gksxk\
(1) +3 (2) +2 (3) –3 (4) 0 (1) +3 (2) +2 (3) –3 (4) 0
139. During plasmolysis, what occurs? 139. thonzO;dqapu ds nkSjku D;k ik;k tkrk gS\
(1) Movement of water occurs across the (1) ty dh xfr mPp foHko ls fuEu ty
membrane from an area of higher foHko ds {ks= rd f>Yyh ls gksrh gSA
water potential to lower water
(2) ty dh xfr fuEu ty foHko ls mPp
potential
ty foHko ds {ks= rd f>Yyh }kjk
(2) Movement of water occurs across the gksrh gSA
membrane from an area of low water
potential to higher water potential (3) ty dksf'kdk esa izo's k djrk gS tc rd
fd lkE; izkIr uk gks tk,A
(3) Water moves inside the cell until the
equilibrium is reached (4) dksf'kdk dk O.P. leku gksrk gSA
(4) O.P. of cell remains the same
32
140. _______ are generally moved by a mass 140. _______ nzO;eku izokg ra= }kjk xfr djrs
or bulk flow system. gSA
(1) Water and minerals (1) ty o [kfut
(2) Water and organic molecule (2) ty o dkcZfud v.kq
(3) Water, minerals and food (3) ty] [kfut o Hkkstu
(4) only water (4) dsoy ty
141. The primary function of casparian strips 141. dSLiSfj;u iV~Vh dk eq[; dk;Z D;k gS\
is to (1) ;s varLpehZ dksf'kdk esa ty ,oa [kfut
(1) forces water and minerals through yo.k ds LFkkukUrj.k esa cy yxkrs gSA
the membranes of endodermal cells
(2) ,iksIykLV ds }kjk LVhy esa izos'k dks
(2) prevent entry into the stele solely jksdrh gSA
through the apoplast
(3) ;s ikS/ks esa ty ,oa [kfut yo.kksa dh
(3) provide regulation for water and
xfr dks fu;af=r djrh gSA
minerals movements in the plants
(4) mijksDr lHkh
(4) All of these
142. The primary difference between the 142. ,iksIykLV vkSj fleIykLV esa izeq[k varj D;k
apoplast and the symplast is that the gS\
(1) apoplast is non-living space and cell (1) ,iksIykLV ,d futhZo LFkku gS vkSj ;g
walls dksf'kdk fHkfÙk gSA
(2) apoplast relies on active transport (2) ,iksIykLV lfØ; ifjogu esa en~n
(3) symplast is non-living spaces and djrk gSA
cell wall
(3) fleIykLV ,d futhZo LFkku ,oa
(4) apoplast prevents passive diffusion dksf'kdk fHkfÙk gSA
(4) ,iksIykLV fuf'Ø; folj.k dks jksdrk
gSA
143. All of the following increase the surface 143. fuEu ds vfrfjDr lHkh esa ewy }kjk ty o
area available for absorption of water and [kfutksa ds vo'kks"k.k ds fy, miyC/k lrg
minerals by a root, except {ks=Qy c<+krk gS &
(1) Mycorhiza (1) ekbdksjkbtk
(2) Numerous branches of root (2) ewy dh vusd 'kk[kk,sa
(3) Root hairs (3) ewyjkse
(4) None of these
(4) dksbZ ughaA
144. Guttation is most commonly observed 144. fcUnqL=ko.k fdl ifjfLFkfr esa lkekU;r%
under condition of fn[kkbZ nsrk gS\
(1) high atmospheric humidity and (1) mPp ok;qe.Myh; vknzZrk o e`nk ty
plentiful soil water esaA
(2) low atmospheric humidity and little (2) fuEu ok;qe.Myh; vknzZrk o de e`nk
soil water ty esaA
(3) high atmospheric humidity but little
(3) mPp ok;qe.Myh; vknzZrk ijUrq de
soil water
e`nk ty esaA
(4) low atmospheric humidity but
(4) fuEu ok;qe.Myh; vknzZrk] ijUrq de
plentiful soil water
e`nk ty esaA
145. Root pressure 145. ewy nkc

(1) is not sufficient to rise water above (1) Hkwfexr Lrj ls ty dks Åij igqapkus
ground level esa i;kZIr ugha gksrk gSA
(2) is negative in all, except the tallest (2) yEcs o`{kksa ds vfrfjDr lHkh esa
trees _.kkRed gksrk gSA
(3) is the driving force for the mass flow (3) 'kdZjk ds izokg ds fy, mRiUu cy
of sugar
gksrk gSA
(4) can push water up to small heights in
(4) rus esa de Å¡pkbZ rd ty dks p<+krk
the stem
gSA
146. As a tree begins transpiring in the 146. lqcg ds le; loZizFke ok"iksRltZu ds
morning tension pressure occurs first in dkj.k d"kZ.k nkc fdlesa mRiUu gksrk gSA
(1) leaf (1) i.kZ
(2) branches (2) 'kk[kkvksa
(3) root (3) ewy
(4) all the regions of the tree (4) o`{k ds lHkh {ks=ksa
147. Which of the following is not a major 147. fuEu esa ls dkSu yEcs o`{k esa tkbye jl dh
factor in the movement of xylem sap up Åij dh vksj xfr esa eq[; dkjd ugha gS\
in a tall tree? (1) IykTeksMsLesVk
(1) Plasmodesmata
(2) llatu o vklatu
(2) Cohesion and adhesion
(3) ?k"kZ.k
(3) Tension
(4) ok"iksRltZu
(4) Transpiration
34
148. Which of the following is a difference 148. fuEu esa ls dkSu lk tkbye o ¶yks,e }kjk
between the transport by xylem and ifjogu ds e/; varj gS\
transport by phloem? (1) lfØ; ifjogu tkbye ls gksrk gS
(1) Active transport moves xylem but ijUrq ¶yks,e jl ls ughaA
not phloem sap
(2) ok"iksRltZu ¶yks,e jl ls gksrk gS
(2) Transpiration moves phloem sap but ijUrq tkbye jl ls ughaA
not xylem sap
(3) tkbye jl Åij xfr djrk gSA
(3) Xylem sap moves up and phloem sap
¶yks,e jl Åij o uhps xfr djrk gSA
moves up and down
(4) L=ksr ls 'kdZjk dh xfr tkbye ls
(4) Xylem moves from sugar source to
sink but phloem does not
gksrh gS ijUrq ¶yks,e ls ughaA
149. The tensile strength of water/high 149. ty dh rU; lkeF;Z@mPp dksf'kdkRo ty

capillarity is the outcome of which ds fdl xq.k dk ykHk gS\
properties of water? (1) llatu (2) vklatu
(1) Cohesion (2) Adhesion
(3) i`"B ruko (4) mijksDr lHkh
(3) Surface tension (4) All of these
150. I. The immediate cause of stomatal 150. I. ja/kzks dh xfr j{kd dksf'kdk dh fLQrrk
movement is a change in the esa ifjorZu ls gksrh gSA
turgidity of the guard cell II. ok;qe.Myh; ok"i nkc ds lanHkZ esa
II. Higher vapour pressure in miaj/kzh; dks"B o varZdksf'kdh; vodk'k
substomatal chamber and esa mPp ok"inkc ok"iksRltZu ds fy,
intercellular space with respect to vuqdwy ugha gSA
atmosphere vapour pressure does not
III. ok"iksRltZu }kjk mRiUu cy 130 ehVj
favour transpiration
Å¡pkbZ ij tkbye ds ty ds LraHk dks
III. Force generated by transpiration
Åij dks Åij p<+kus ds fy, i;kZIr
create pressure sufficient to lift a
xylem water column over 130 meters
nkc mRiUu djrk gSA
high IV. fuEu vknzZrk] vuqdwy rki ij j{kk
IV. Under low humidity, optimum dksf'kdk,sa 'yFk gks tkrh gS] ue e`nk esa
temperature, guard cells, are turgid, ok"iksRltZu vf/kd gksxkA
moist soil, transpiration would be mijksDr esa ls dkSu lk dFku lgh gS\
high (1) mijksDr lHkh
Which of the above point is correct? (2) I, III o IV lgh gSA
(1) All
(3) dksbZ lgh ugha gSA
(2) I, III and IV are correct
(4) dsoy IV lgh gSA
(3) No one is correct
(4) Only IV is correct
151. I. Like water, all minerals are 151. I. ty] lHkh [kfut ewy }kjk fuf"Ø; :i
absorbed passively by roots ls vo'kksf"kr fd;k tkrk gSA
II. Transport proteins of endodermal II. ewy dh var'pehZ dksf'kdk dk ifjogu
cells of roots are control points izksVhu] tkbye rd [kfutksa dh ek=k o
where a plant adjusts the quality and izdkj dks fu;fer djrs gSA
types of minerals that reach xylem
III. ok"iksRltZu vf/kd gksrk gSA
III. Transpiration has more than purpose
IV. inkFkZ ds fofue; dh de ek=k tkbye
IV. Small amount of exchange of
o ¶yks,e ds e/; ik;h tkrh gSA
materials does take place between
xylem and phloem (1) lHkh lgh gSA
(1) All are correct (2) lHkh xyrh gSA

(2) All are incorrect (3) II, III o IV lgh gSA
(3) II, III and IV are correct (4) II o III xyr ijUrq IV lgh gSA
(4) II and III are wrong but IV are
correct
152. The pressure flow model of translocation 152. LFkkukarj.k dk nkc izokg ekWMy _____ {ks=
depends entirely on the existence of ij ¶yks,e esa yksfMax 'kdZjk o _____ {ks=
mechanisms for loading sugars into ij blesa vuyksfMax 'kdZjk ds fy,
phloem at the _____ regions and for fØ;kfof/k ds vfLrRo ij fuHkZj djrk gSA
unloading them at the _____ regions.
(1) dqaM] L=ksr (2) dqaM] dqaM
(1) sink, source (2) sink, sink
(3) L=ksr] L=ksr (4) L=ksr] dqaM
(3) source, source (4) source, sink
153. What mechanism explains the movement 153. dkSulh fØ;kfof/k L=ksr ls dqaM rd lqØkst
of sucrose from source to sink? dh xfr dks Li"V djrh gS\
(1) Evaporation of water and active (1) dqaM ls ty dk ok"iu ,oa lqØkst dk
transport of sucrose from sink lfØ; ifjoguA
(2) Osmotic movement of water into the (2) lqØkst ls Hkjh pkyuh ufydk
sucrose loaded sieve tube cells dksf'kdkvksa esa ty dh ijklj.kh xfr
creating a higher hydrostatic
dqaM dh vis{kk L=ksr esa mPp
pressure into the source than in the
tyLFkSfrd nkc mRiUu djrh gSA
sink
(3) L=ksr o dqaM esa tyLFkSfrd nkc esa
(3) Tension created by differences in
hydrostatic pressure in the source
varj }kjk mRiUu rukoA
and sink (4) pkyuh ufydk f>Yyh ls Xywdkst dk
(4) Active transport of Glucose through lfØ; ifjogu izksVksu iai }kjk gksrk
the sieve tube membranes driven by gSA
the proton pump
36
154. Active loading of sugar into a sieve tube 154. pkyuh ufydk esa 'kdZjk ds lfØ;
is probably driven by LFkkukarj.k ds fy, fof'k"VhÑr gS &
(1) gravity (2) water flow (1) xq:Ro (2) ty izokg
(3) proton pumps (4) solar radiation (3) izksVkWu iai (4) lksyj fofdj.k
;
155. One cell is kept in 1M solution of 155. ,d dksf'kdk dks 1M lqØkst ds foy;u esa
sucrose and another cell in 1M solution rFkk vU; dksf'kdk dks 1M, NaCl foy;u esa
of NaCl. The water potential of the cells j[kk tkrk gSA dksf'kdk dk ty foHko
kept in _____. _____
(1) sucrose solution will be greater (1) lqØkst foy;u esa vf/kd c<+sxkA
(2) NaCl solution will be greater (2) NaCl foy;u esa vf/kd c<+sxkA
(3) both will be equal (3) nksuksa esa leku gksxkA
(4) sucrose solution would be lower and
(4) lqØkst foy;u esa ?kVsxk o NaCl
NaCl solution would be greater
foy;u esa c<+sxkA
156. Based on Munch's Pressure-flow 156. eap nkc&izokg ifjdYiuk ij vk/kkfjr]

Hypothesis which of the following fuEu esa ls dkSu lh ifjfLFkfr esa o
conditions would increase the rate of LFkkukUrj.k dh nj c<+sxh\
translocation?
(1) ckgjh ok;q dh vknzZrk esa o`f)A

(1) An increase in the humidity in the
(2) dqaM ij ¶yks,e vkuyksfMax esa dehA
outside air
(3) L=ksr ij lqØkst mRiknu esa o`f)A
(2) A decrease in phloem unloading at
the sink (4) izdk'k la'ys"k.k es dehA
(3) An increase in sucrose production at
the source
(4) A decrease in photosynthesis
157. Essential elements are 157. vko';dr rRo gS&
(1) not required for normal reproduction (1) lkekU; tuu ds fy, vko';d ugha gSA
(2) Not replaced by other elements (2) vU; rRo }kjk izfrLFkkfir ugh gksrs gSaA
(3) indirectly involved in metabolism (3) mikip; esa vizR;{k :i ls Hkkx ysrs
(4) required only in those metabolic gSaA
processes which lead to increase in (4) dsoy mu mikip; izØe esa vko';d
cytoplasmic mass
gSa tks dksf'kdk nzfO;d nzO;eku esa o`f)
djrs gSA
158. The effect of mineral deficiencies 158. xfr'khy iks"kdksa esa lfEefyr [kfut U;wurk
involving fairly mobile nutrients will be dk izHkko fdlesa izsf{kr gksxk\
observed in (1) ikni ds iqjkus Hkkx esa
(1) older protion of the plant
(2) ubZ ifÙk;k o izjksg esa
(2) new leaves and shoot
(3) ewyra= esa
(3) the root system
(4) ifÙk;ksa ds jax esa
(4) the colour of leaves
159. Of the four most abundant elements in 159. lokZf/kd ikniksa [C, H, O o N] esa pkj
most plants [C, H, O and N], which does lokZf/kd rRoksa esa ls] fdls LFkyh; gjs ikni
a terrestrial green plant procure mainly }kjk e`nk ls ewy }kjk xzg.k fd;k tkrk gS\
through its roots from the soil?
(1) H o O (2) H o N
(1) H and O (2) H and N
(3) C o O (4) O o N
(3) C and O (4) O and N
160. Which of the following techniques can 160. fuEu esa ls dkSu lh rduhd ikni iks"kd
researchers use to explore plant nutrient U;wurk dk irk yxkus esa iz;qDr dh tkrh
deficiencies? gS\
(1) Hydrophonics (1) gkbMªksikWfuDl
(2) Sun exposure (2) lw;Z ds fy;s izxVhdj.k
(3) Crop rotation (3) Qly pØhdj.k
(4) Hyperbaric chambers
(4) gkbijcsfjd dks"B
161. Soil could be deficient in any of the 161. fuEu iks"kdksa esa ls fdldh e`nk esa deh gksrh
following nutrients. If you had to supply gS\ ;fn vki bldh vkiwfrZ djrs gS rks ;g
one of them, which would be needed in lw+{e ek=k esa vko';d gksrk gS\
the smallest amount?
(1) S (2) P (3) K (4) Fe
(1) S (2) P (3) K (4) Fe
38
162. The amount of the macronutrients per kg 162. 'kq"d inkFkZ ds izfr fdyks o`gn~ iks"kdksa dh
of dry matter is ek=k gS
(1) 10 m mole (1) 10 feyh eksy
(2) above 10 m mole (2) 10 feyh eksy ls Åij
(3) less than m mole (3) feyh eksy ls de
(4) 0.1 mg (4) 0.1 fexzk
163. Which is a false statement regarding 163. o`gniks"kd rRoksa ds fy, dkSu lk dFku
macronutrients? xyr gS\
(1) Form plant structure (1) ikni lajpuk cukrs gSA
(2) Become toxic in slight excess (2) vkf/kD; esa fo"kkDr gks tkrs gSA
(3) Develop osmotic potential (3) ijklj.k foHko fodflr djrs gSA
(4) Component of energy-related (4) ÅtkZ&lacfa /kr ;kSfxdksa ds ?kVd gksrs gSA
compounds
164. Partial mineral elements is 164. vkaf'kd [kfut rRo gS &

(1) N (2) P (3) K (4) Fe (1) N (2) P (3) K (4) Fe
165. I. Important constituent of proteins 165. I. ETS esa lfEefyr izksVhu dk eq[;
involved in ETS ?kVdA
II. Activator of catalase of cytochrome II. lkbVksØkse ds dsVsyst dk lfØ;.kA
III. Important constituent of cytochrome III. lkbVksØkse ds egRoiw.kZ vo;oA
IV. Essential for chlorophyll synthesis IV. DyksjksfQy la'ys"k.k ds fy, vko';dA
The above roles have been assigned to mijksDr y{k.k fdlls lacfa /kr gS\
(1) Cu (2) Fe (3) Ca (4) Mo (1) Cu (2) Fe (3) Ca (4) Mo
166. Match the following 166. fuEu dks lqesfyr dhft,A

Column-I Column-II LraHk-I LraHk-II
(A) K (i) Stomatal opening (A) K (i) ja/kzh; xfr
(B) Mo (ii) Constituent of cell (B) Mo (ii) dksf'kdk f>Yyh dk
membrane vo;o
(C) P (iii) Photolysis of water (C) P (iii) ty dk izdk'k vi?kVu
(D) Mn (iv) Most free ion (D) Mn (iv) lokZf/kd eqDr vk;u
(v) Component of
(v) ukbVªkstksust o ukbVªsV
nitrogenase and
nitrate reductase
fjMDVst dk ?kVd
Code A B C D Code A B C D
(1) i, iv v ii iii (1) i, iv v ii iii
(2) i, v iv iii ii (2) i, v iv iii ii
(3) i, v iv ii iii (3) i, v iv ii iii
(4) iv, i iii ii v (4) iv, i iii ii v
167. Excess of Mn causes deficiency of 167. Mn dk vkf/kD; fdldh deh ls gksrk gS\
(1) Fe (2) Mg (1) Fe (2) Mg
(3) Ca (4) All of these (3) Ca (4) mijksDr lHkh
168. I. Essential macronutrients are nine in 168. I. vko';d o`gn~iks"kd] la[;k esa ukS gksrs
number, while micronutrients are gS] rFkk lw{eiks"kdksa dh la[;k vkB gksrh
eight in number gSA
II. Every mineral element that is present II. izR;sd [kfut rRo tks dksf'kdk esa
in a cell is needed by the cell mifLFkr gS] dksf'kdk }kjk vko';d
III. Nitrogen as a nutrient element is gksrs gSA
highly immobile in plants
III. iks"kd rRoksa ds :i esa ukbVªkstu] ikniksa
IV. Deficiencies of essential elements esa vxfr'khy gksrh gSA
disrupt plant growth and
IV. vko';d rRoksa dh deh ikni o`f) o
development
fodkl dks jksdrh gSA
V. Although the functions of essential
elements are diverse, they can be V. vko';d rRoksa ds dbZ dk;Z gksrs gSA
grouped into four general categories bUgs pkj lkekU; Jsf.k;ksa esa lewfgr
Which is correct?
fd;k tk ldrk gSA
(1) All are correct buesa ls dkSu lk lgh gS\
(2) All are correct, except I, IV, V (1) lHkh lgh gSA
(3) I, IV and V are correct (2) I, IV, V ds vfrfjDr lHkh lgh gSA
(4) II and IV are correct (3) I, IV o V lgh gSA
(4) II o IV lgh gSA
169. Reaction carried out by N2 metabolising 169. N2 mikip;h lw{ethok.kq }kjk lEiUu
microbes include vfHkfØ;k,sa fuEu gS &
i. 2NH3 + 3O2  2NO2– + 2H+ + H2O i. 2NH3 + 3O2  2NO2– + 2H+ + H2O
ii. 2NO2– + O2  2NO3– ii. 2NO2– + O2  2NO3–
Find the incorrect - xyr dFku gS &
(1) Step (i) is carried out by (1) in (i) ukbVªkslkseksul ;k ukbVªksdksdl
Nitrosomonas or Nitrococcus }kjk lEiUu gksrk gSA
(2) Step (ii) is carried out by Nitrobacter (2) in (ii) ukbVªkscDs Vj }kjk lEiUu gksrk
(3) Both steps (i) and (ii) can be called gSA
nitrification
(3) in (i) o (ii) nksuksa dks "ukbVªhdj.k"
(4) Bacteria carrying out these steps are dgk tkrk gSA
usually photoautotrophs
(4) bu ikniksa dks lEiuu djus ds dkj.k
thok.kq dks "izdk'kloiks"kh" dgrs gSA
40
170. With regard to the biological nitrogen 170. lks;kchu ls lacfa /kr jkbtksch;e }kjk tSfod
fixation by Rhizobium in association ukbVªkstu fLFkjhdj.k ds lanHkZ esa fuEu esa ls
with soyabean, which one of the dkSu lgh ugh gS\
following does not hold true? (1) ukbVªksthust dks dk;Z djus ds fy, O2
(1) Nitrogenase may require O2 for its dh vko';d gks ldrh gSA
function
(2) ukbVªkstu Mo-Fe izksVhu gSA
(2) Nitrogen is Mo-Fe protein
(3) ySx&gheksXyksfcu xqykch jax dk o.kZd
(3) Leg-haemoglobin is a pink coloured
gSA
(4) Nitrogenase helps to convert N2 gas
(4) ukbVªksthust N2 xSl dks 2 v.kq NH3
into two molecules of NH3 (nitrogen
fixation) (ukbVªkstu fLFkfjdj.k) esa ifjofrZr
djus esa lgk;d gSA
171. Fe deficiency causes ______ leaves to 171. Fe dh deh ds dkj.k ______ ifÙk;ka
turn _____. _____ esa cny tkrh gSA
(1) old, yellow (2) young, yellow (1) iqjkuh, ihyh (2) r:.k, ihyh
(3) young, orange (3) r:.k, ukjaxh
(4) old, brown spotted (4) iqjkuh, Hkwjs /kCcs okyh
172. Leg-haemoglobin is 172. ySx&gheksXyksfcu gS &

(1) O2 scavenger (2) N2 scavenger (1) O2 vi?kVd (2) N2 vi?kVd
(3) CO2 scavenger (3) CO2 vi?kVd (4) izksVhu vi?kVd
(4) protein scavenger
173. The different steps in a nodule formation 173. xzfUFk fuekZ.k esa fofHkUu in uhps fn;s x;s gS
are given as follows : &
I. A matured nodule establishes a I. ifjiDo xzfUFk iks"kdksa ds fofue; ds
direct vascular connection with the
host for exchange of nutrients fy, ijiks"kh ds lkFk izR;{k laoguh
II. Root hair curls and the bacteria
lac/a k cukrh gSA
invade the root hair II. ewy jkse ?kwe tkrs gS rFkk thok.kq ewy
III. Rhizobium bacteria contacts a jkse esa jgrs gSaA
susceptile root hair, and divide near III. jkbtksfc;e thok.kq ewy jkse ds laidZ esa
it jgrs gS rFkk blds lehi foHkkftr gksrs
IV. The infection thread is produced gSA
carrying the bacteroids and grows
into the cortex of the root IV. laØed /kkxk cSfDVjksbM cukrs gS rFkk
V. The bacteria gets modified into rod- ewy ds oYdqV esa o`f) djrs gSA
shaped bacteroids and cause inner V. thok.kq NM+uqek cSfDVjksbM esa :ikarfjr
cortical layer and pericycle to divide gks tkrs gS rFkk vkUrfjd oYdqV ifjjaHk
to form nodule
esa foHkkftr gksdj xzfUFk cukrs gSA
The correct sequence is
lgh Øe gS &
(1) III, II, IV, I, V (2) III, II, IV, V, I
(1) III, II, IV, I, V (2) III, II, IV, V, I
(3) IV, V, III, II, I (4) I, III, V, II, IV
(3) IV, V, III, II, I (4) I, III, V, II, IV
174. Study the cycle shown below and select 174. uhps fn;s x;s pØ dk v/;;u dhft, rFkk
the option which gives correct words for og fodYi pqfu, tks lHkh A, B, C o D ds
all the four blanks A, B, C and D fy, lgh 'kCn nsrk gS\
A B C D A B C D
(1) Nitrification Ammonification Animals Plants (1) ukbVªhdj.k veksuhdj.k tUrq ikni
(2) Denitrification Ammonification Plants Animals (2) foukbVªhdj.k veksuhdj.k ikni tUrq
(3) Nitrification Denitrification Animals Plants (3) ukbVªhdj.k foukbVªhdj.k tUrq ikni
(4) Denitrification Nitrification Plants Animals
(4) foukbVªhdj.k ukbVªhdj.k ikni tUrq
175. Which one of the following is not a 175. fuEu esa ls dkSu ,d izdk'kla'ys"kh
photosynthetic diazotroph MkbZ,tksVªkQ ugha gS &
(1) Nostoc (2) Frankia (1) ukLVkWd (2) ÝSfUd;k¡
(3) Anabaena (4) Rhodospirillum (3) ,ukosuk (4) jksMksLikbjhye
176. I. Minerals are absorbed in ionic forms 176. I. [kfut vfrruq foy;u ds :i esa
as a very dilute solution vk;fud :i esa vo'kksf"kr gksrs gSA
II. Boron is absorbed as BO3– or B4O72– II. cksjksu BO3– ;k B4O72– ds :i esa
vo'kksf"kr gksrk gSA
III. Mo is absorbed as molybdate ions
III. Mo eksfyCMsV vk;u ds :i esa
IV. C, H, O, N = essential elements of vo'kksf"kr gksrk gSA
biomolecules/structural elements of IV. C, H, O, N = tSo v.kq ds vko';d
cells rRo ;k dksf'kdkvksa ds lajpukRed
V. Solutes play insignificant role in rRoA
cellular w determination V. foy;u dksf'kdh; w fu/kkZj.k ls eq[;
VI. Macronutrients = Mn, Zn, Cu, B, Hkwfedk fuHkkrk gSA
Mo, Cl, Fe and N VI. o`gn~ iks"kd rRo = Mn, Zn, Cu, B,
Mo, Cl, Fe rFkk N
VII. Micronutrients = C, H, O, P, K, N,
VII. lw{e iks"kd rRo = C, H, O, P, K, N,
S, Ca and Mg
S, Ca rFkk Mg
42
Which one is correct? dkSulk ,d lgh gS &
(1) All are false (1) lHkh xyr gSA (2) lHkh lgh gSA
(2) All are correct (3) V, VI, VII xyr gSA
(3) V, VI, VII are wrong (4) V, VI, VII xyr gSA
(4) V, VI, VII are false
177. A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen fixing 177. izksdsfj;ksfVd Loiks"kh ukbVªkstu fLFkfjdkjd
symbiont is found in fdlesa ik;k tkrk gS\
(1) Pisum (2) Alnus (1) ikble (2) ,Yul
(3) Cycas (4) Cicer (3) lkbdl (4) lkblj
178. The first stable product of fixation of 178. Qyhnkj ikniksa esa ok;oh; ukbVªkstu ds
atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous fLFkjhdj.k dk igyk fLFkj mRikn dkSu lk
plants is- gS\
(1) NO2– (2) Ammonia (1) NO2– (2) veksfu;k
(3) NO3– (4) Glutamate (3) NO3– (4) XyqVklsV
179. The lowest water potential in the xylem 179. tkbye esa fuEure ty foHko fleas gksrk
are in the : gS&
(1) Root hair (2) Leaves (1) ewy jkse (2) i.kZ
(3) Tracheids of the stem (3) drus dh ofguhdk
(4) Vascular cylinders of root (4) ewy dk logu ra=
180. Active transport is similar to facilitated 180. fuEu esa ls fdls j[kus esa lfØ; ifjogu]
transport but differ from simple diffusion lqlk/; ifjogu ds leku gS ijUrq ljy
in having :- folj.k ls fHkUu gS\
(a) Uphill transport (a) vifgy (f'k[kjksifj) ifjogu
(b) Selective nature of transport (b) ifjogu dh p;ukRed@o.kkZRed izÑfr
(c) Transport saturation (c) ifjogu larÌrrk
(d) Requirement of ATP energy
(d) ,Vhih ÅtkZ dh vko';drk
Choose the correct option :-
lgh fodYi pqfu, &
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(1) (a), (b), (c) rFkk (d)
(2) (b) and (c)
(2) (b) rFkk (c)
(3) (a) and (d)
(3) (a) rFkk (d)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b) ,oa (c)

Test 1

Загружено:

Сведения о документе

Оригинальное название

Авторское право

Доступные форматы

Поделиться этим документом

Поделиться или встроить документ

Параметры публикации

Этот документ был вам полезен?

Это неприемлемый материал?

Авторское право:

Доступные форматы

Test 1

Загружено:

Авторское право:

Доступные форматы

PHYSICS

(1)  = 45º (2)  = 30º

(1) 3 ms–1 (2) 5 ms–1 (1) 3 ms–1 (2) 5 ms–1

19. ,d iz{ksI; ds iFk ds 'kh"kZ fcUnq ij osx rFkk

(1) 0° (2) 90°

particle is gVk ns rc d.k dk Roj.k gkssxk &

(1) (F/M) – a (2) a (1) (F/M) – a (2) a

(1) 900 N (2) 540 N

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

(1) 2 N (2) 4 N (1) 2 N (2) 4 N

(1) 20 ms–1 (2) 10 ms–1 (1) 20 ms–1 (2) 10 ms–1

52. ClO2 is the anhydride of : 52. ClO2 fdldk ,ugkbMªkbM gS \

70. Electrolysis can be used to determine atomic

73. 108 g fairly concentrate solution of AgNO3 73. 0.1 F oS|r

(1) 0.4 M (2) 0.8 M (1) 0.4 M (2) 0.8 M

(1) rectangular plane of symmetry (1) vk;rkdkj lefefr ry

Select the option which correctly lgh fodYi dk p;u djksA

122. In one polynucleotide strand of a DNA 122. ,d DNA v.kq ds ,d ikWyhU;wfDy;ksVkbM

145. Root pressure 145. ewy nkc

149. The tensile strength of water/high 149. ty dh rU; lkeF;Z@mPp dksf'kdkRo ty

(1) All are correct (2) lHkh xyrh gSA

156. Based on Munch's Pressure-flow 156. eap nkc&izokg ifjdYiuk ij vk/kkfjr]

(1) ckgjh ok;q dh vknzZrk esa o`f)A

164. Partial mineral elements is 164. vkaf'kd [kfut rRo gS &

166. Match the following 166. fuEu dks lqesfyr dhft,A

172. Leg-haemoglobin is 172. ySx&gheksXyksfcu gS &

Вам также может понравиться