GENETICS QUESTION BANK

MCQ/ Questions carrying 1 Marks

1. The terms cistron, muton and recon were coined by

a) Jenner b) Benzer c) Carlson d) none
2. A cross involving two crosses in first cross ‘A’ is taken as male and ‘B’ as female where as in second cross is its opposite. This is
called…….Reciprocal cross b) test cross c) sib cross d) none
3. Individual with Turner’s syndrome contains ……………. number of barr body.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) none
4. T even phages are _____________ in nature.
a) Temperate b) Virulent c) Both a and b d) None
5. D-loop model of replication is found in
a) prokaryotes b) mitochondria c) eukaryote d) none of these
6. A bag contains 6 white balls, 9 black balls. What is the probability of drawing a black ball
a) 3/5 b) 2/5 c) 2/3 d) 1/9
7. The medium of the items listed below is
52, 13, 20, 5, 17, 10, 8, 2, 40, 34
a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) none
8. The Ames test assays whether or not a compound causes
a) Chromosome mutations b) DNA repair
c) Crossing over d) gene mutations
9. The gene which exhibits multiple effects is known to be
a) Complimentary b) pleiotropic
c) Pseudogenes d) non
10. ADA gene is located on chromosome number ………… in human.
a) 21 b) 22 c) 23 d) none
11. Consider a locus with two alleles, A and a. If the frequency of AA is 0.25, what is the frequency of A under Hardy-Weinberg?
a) 0.25 b) 0.125 c) 0.5 d) none of these
12. 9:3:3:1 dihybrid ratio in F2 is modified in recessive epistasis is
a) 9:3:4 b) 9:7 c) 13:1 d) 12:3:1
13. Genes between related organism exhibits high variation. The variations would maximally occur in
a) Exons b) Intron c) Promoters d) Polyadenylation site
14. In herd of cattle there are 4 cows, 3 bulls and 1 calf. What is probability of correct parents of calf if a pair is randomly drawn from herd.
a) 1/7 b) 2/7 c) 2/5 d) 1/12
15. When crossing over occur within an inversion loop, leads to deleted and duplicated crossover chromosomes and inviability of zygotes carrying
them. a) No crossing over in the inversion loop b) Crossing over leads to formation of all acentric chromosomes
c) Segregation of chromosome is not normal d) None
16. The following pedigree represents the inheritance of a rare disorder,

Based on the above pedigree, what is the most likely mode of inheritance?
a) Autosomal recessive b) X-linked recessive c) X-linked dominant d) Y-linked dominant
17. Mendel believed that the characteristics of pea plants are determined by the:
a) Inheritance of units or factors from both parents b) Inheritance of units or factors from one parent
c) Relative health of the parent plants at the time of pollination d) None of these
18. The genotype and phenotype of F1 generation is:
a) Both hererogygote b) heterozygote and homozygous c) Both homozygous d) None
19. A cancer that spreads is termed:
a) Benign b) Carcinogenic c) Metastatic d) Mutagenic
20. Transduction has been used extensively for genome mapping for bacteria. Which of the following process is useful for gene mapping?
a) Generalized transduction b) Specialized transduction c) Site specific recombination d) None
21. Female with Down syndrome contains ……………. number of barr body.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) None
22. In Neurospora crassa tetrad analysis showed following result + : m :: 6 : 2. The phenomenon involved for the above result would be
a) branch migration b) Strand exchange c) Holiday junction d) DNA replication
23. Type of mutation which is most suitable for study of regulation of cell like DNA replication is
a) Suppressor mutation b) Conditional mutation c) Both d) None
24. The distance between gene A and B is 10 cM. If a genotype Ab/aB is crossed with double recessive, the percentage of progeny with genotype
aabb will be a) 10% (b) 45% (c) 0.25% (d) None
25. jun. fos, v-myc are group of ………………
a) Oncogenes b) genes producing DNA-binding protein c) Both d) None
26. Circular single stranded DNA occur in bacteriophage
a) M13, ф X174 b) T2, T4 c) T3, T5 d) none
27. Suppose there is a population of 100 snails in which shell colour is controlled by two allels- B (Black) and b (yellow). What is the total number
of loci for the gne for the shell colour in this population?
a) 3 b) 200 c) 100 d) none
28. Suppose a white-furred rabbit breeds with a black-furred rabbit and all of their offspring have a phenotype of gray fur. What does the gene for
fur color in rabbits appear to be an example of?
a) Mosaicism b) Codominance c) incomplete dominance d) Complete dominanc
29. A bag contains 6 white balls, 9 black balls. What is the probability of drawing a black ball?
a) 3/5 b) 2/5 c) 2/3 d) None of these
30. The gene which exhibits multiple effects is known to be
a) complimentary b) pleiotropic c) pseudogenes d) none
31. Consider a locus with two alleles, B and b. If the frequency of bb is 0.25, what is the frequency of A under Hardy-Weinberg?
a) 0.25 b) 0.125 c) 0.5 d) none of these
32. . …………………………. referred to as the suicidal enzyme.
a) Ligase b) Methyl transferase c) DNA polymerase d) none of these
33. The ………………………… genes help establish lysogeny.
a) Early genes b) Late genes c) Delayed late d) Delayed –early
33. The standard deviation for a certain group is 5.03. Calculate the variance.
a) 25.3 b) 5.03 c) 4.22 d) none of these
34. Lampbrush chromosome is found in ……………………
a) Invertebrates b) Vertebrates c) Both a and b d) none of these
35. Traits such as weight, hand span, length of feet, milk of cow are examples of ……..
a) Continuous variation b) Multifactorial inheritance c) Both a and b d) None
36. NF -1, a tumor suppressor gene stimulates ………
a) GTPase activity b) Down regulation of p21 ras c) Both a and b d) none of these
37. Circular single stranded DNA occur in …….
a) T2, T4 b) TMV c) ф X174 d) none
38. Suppose there is a population of 200 snails in which shell colour is controlled by two allels- B (Black) and b (yellow). What is the total number
of loci for the gene for the shell colour in this population?
a) 3 b) 200 c) 100 d) none of these
39. Individual with Klinfelter’s syndrome contains ……………. number of barr body.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) none of these
40. What is the phenotype of a fruit fly whose genotype is g+g+vsvs (where g = gray body and vs = vestigial wings; wild type = black body and
normal wings)?
a) gray body; vestigial wings b) gray body; normal wings c) black body; vestigial wings d) None
41. Epistasis is a genetic condition in which certain alleles of one locus can alter the expression of alleles of a different locus.
a) True b) False c) Either of these d) None of these
42. Which of the following is not a result of nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes?
a) Down syndrome b) Turner syndrome c) Both a and b d) None
43. Number of gametes for genotypes: AABbCc and DdAaCCEeFF
a) 8 and 4 b) 4 and 8 c) 8 and 16 d) 2 and 4
44. The ………………………… genes help establish lysogeny.
a) Early genes b) Late genes c) Delayed late d) Delayed –early
45. The variance for a certain group is 25. Calculate the standard deviation.
a) 25.3 b) 5 c) 4.22 d) none of these
46. When two or more pairs of independent genes act together to produce a single phenotypic trait.
a) Lethal genes b) Basic genes c) Both d) None
47. You cross a p+/v+ p+/v+ male drosophila to a p-/v- p-/v- and obtain the F1 hybrid. Now you cross the F1 male with double recessive female.
What will be the recombination phenotype in F2?
a) p+/v+ p-/v- only b) p+/v+ p-/v- and p-/v- p-/v- c) p+/v+ p-/v- and p-/v- p-/v- also p+/v- p-/v- and p-/v- p-/v-
d) p+/v+ p-/v- and p-/v- p-/v- also p-/v+ p-/v- and p-/v- p-/v-
48. Probability to have consecutive fourth child as male from an Indian couple will be
a) 50% b) 12.5 % c) 6.25 % d) none
49. If one parent has type A blood and the other parent has type B blood, what blood type will the offspring have ?
a) Type A b) Type B c) Type AB D) All four type
50. Long radishes crossed with round radishes result in all oval radishes. This type of inheritance is:
 a) Multiple alleles b) Complete dominance c) Co-dominance d)Incomplete dominance
51. The following pedigree represents the inheritance of a rare disorder,

Based on the above pedigree, what is the most likely mode of inheritance?
a) Autosomal recessive b) X-linked recessive c) X-linked dominant d) None of the above
52. Male to male transmission is a key feature of which pattern of inheritance?
a) Autosomal dominant b) Autosomal recessive c) X-linked dominant d) X-linked recessive
53. Which of the following disorders does not show X-linked inheritance?
a) Duchenne muscular dystrophy b) Tay-Sachs disease c) Haemophilia d) None of these
54. If an autosomal recessive disorder which shows Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium has an incidence of 1 in 6400 then the frequency of carriers is
approximately _______.a) 1 in 20 b) 1 in 40 c) 1 in 80 d) 1 in 160
55. Which of the following disorders is not suitable for population carrier screening?
a) Cystic fibrosis b) Tay-Sachs disease c) Sickle cell disease d) Oculocutaneous albinism
56. Complete the following sentence. The Philadelphia chromosome: a) is an example of gene amplification. b) is a product of a reciprocal
translocation. c) causes Burkitt's lymphoma. d) causes retinoblastoma.
57. Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene? a) APC b) NF1 c) RB1 d) RET
58. If a genotype is not known it is crossed with recessive parent to reveal what is hidden then the cross is known as:
a) Backcross b) Monohydrid cross c) Test cross d) Dihybrid cross
59. Based on the pedigree below, what is the inheritance mode the fetus (indicated by the diamond) will have?

a) X linked b) X linked recessive c) Autosomal dominant d) None of these

60. Which of the following is the most likely outcome of a cross between a heterozygous tall plant and a heterozygous tall plant?
a) 63 tall : 59 short b) 76 tall : 23 short c) 24 tall : 49 medium : 25 short d) 53 tall : 147 short
61.Given an individual who is heterozygous at 5 loci, how many different gametic genotypes are possible? a) 25 b) 10 c) 15 d) 32
62. In peas, a tall, yellow-seeded plant is crossed with a homozygous short, green-seeded plant and yields 203 tall, green-seeded plants, 199 short,
green-seeded plants, 207 tall, yellow-seeded plants, and 192 short, yellow-seeded plants. The most likely genotype of the tall, yellow-seeded parent
is a) TtYy b) TTYY c) ttyy d) ttYY
63. If an affected male has affected daughters and sons in about the same number as unaffected daughters and sons, the trait is likely to be an
a) X-linked dominant trait b) autosomal recessive trait c) autosomal dominant trait d) X-linked recessive trait
64. Based on the genic balance theory, you would predict that a human with XXY sex chromosomes and a normal number of autosomes would be
a) female b) male c) intersex d) metafemale
65. Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait in humans. If a father and a son are both hemophiliacs, but the mother is normal, her genotype must
h h H h H H H
be: a) X X b) X X c )X X d) X Y
66. Which blood type would not be possible for children of a type AB mother and a type A father? a) O b) AB c) A d) B
67. Autism is a neurodevelopmental disorder characterized by impaired social interaction, communication capabilities, and restricted
behavior. What is the cause of Autism? a) Genetic factors b) Environmental factors c) Epigenetic factors d) None of these
68. Each of the following have been observed as mechanisms resulting in the activation of a proto-oncogene EXCEPT:
 a) A chromosome translocation fusing portions of the oncogene and another cellular gene b) Capture of the oncogene sequence
by a retrovirus c) A point mutation altering the function of the oncogene protein product d) None of these
69. Patients with familial retinoblastoma carry a germline mutation in one copy of the Rb gene. Potential mechanisms for inactivation
of the other allele in a retinoblastoma tumor arising in one of these patients include: a) An independent point mutation b) Loss of the
normal chromosome 13 c) All of the above d) None of the above.
70. Which of the following statements is false?
2
a) Mathematical equation for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is: p +2pq+ q2 = 1 b) Mathematical equation for Hardy-Weinberg
equilibrium is: p + 2pq + q = 1 c) Mathematical equation for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is: p +q =1 d) None of these
71. Which of the following is an incorrect matching between the named disease and listed mode of inheritance? a) Mascular dystrophy:
autosomal dominant b) cystic fibrosis: autosomal recessive c) Colour blindness: Autosomal dominant d) Phenylketonuria: Autosomal recessive
72. Barr bodies are found in human and are associated with:
a) Male autosome b) Female autosome c) Male sex chromosome d) female sex chromosome
73. Lyon hypothesis deals with
a) Centromere position b) Genetic compatibility c) Number of Barr bodies d) None of these
74. The sex in drosophila is dermine by
a) X and Y chromosome b) X and X chromosome c) X chromosome and Autosome d) None of these
75. Genic balance theory of sex determination was proposed by
a) Muller b) Benzer c) Mendel d) Bridges
76. If you cross a white eyed female drosophila with a red eyed male drosophila, what will be the colour of eyes for their male and female offspring?
a) Both red eyed b) Both white eyed c) Red eyed daughter and white eyed son d) Red eyed son and white eyed daughter
77. You observe a genetic trait which is a common occurrence in the male of a particular pedigree, this is possibly a ______________
a) X linked b) Y linked c) X linked recessive d) Y linked dominant
78. If a gamete has 16 chromosomes, what will be the number of chromatids before anaphase 1? a) 8 b) 16 c) 32 d) 64
79. Which of the following harmful mutations will have the most severe effect in the progeny?
a) Mutation in a muscle tissue b) Mutation in a gamete c) Mutation in sperm mother cells d) Mutation in mammary gland tissue
80. Which of the following is a neutral mutation?
a) Replacement of a Glu by Val b) Replacement of AAA by UAA c) Replacement of Lys by Arg d) Replacement of Thr by Tyr
81. What is the probability of getting a recessive phenotype for all three gene locus for the cross Aa Bb Cc X aa Bb cc?
a) ¼ b) 1/16 c) ½ d) 1/8
82. Two black female mice are coupled with a brown male mouse. If female A produces 4 black and 3 brown children and female B in its litter
produces 10 black children, what is the genotype of A, B and male mouse respectively?a) BB Bb and bb b) Bb Bb and Bbc) Bb BB and bb
d) bb Bb and BB83.
83. In mouse agouti locus is hypostatic to pigment development locus. If C is for pigment development, and A is for agouti, and recessive alleles in
agouti locus gives black colour and recessive in pigment locus gives white colour, what will be the phenotype of A/- c/c and a/a c/c.
a) Agouti, white b) Black, agouti c) Black, black d) White, white
84. The genes that Mendel worked with were__________________a) Variable in penetrance and expressivity b) Variable in penetrance only
c) Variable in expressivity only d) 100% penetrant with 100% expressivity
85. Deamination of which of the bases which nitrous acid will not lead to any change in the base pairing? a) A b) G c) C d) T
86. Which of the following agents can lead to both addition and deletion mutation?
a) UV b) 5 Bromo Uracil c) Proflavin d) Hydroxylation
87. Which of the following mutation will lead to AT->GC transition?
 a) Nitrous acid acting on Ab b) Nitrous acid on C c) Hydroxylation of C d) Methylation of G
88. In Ames test, the bacterial culture are grown in _________a) Natural media b) Blood agar c) Enriched media d) Minimal media
89. Conjugation can’t take place between_________________a) F- and F+ b) F’ and F- c) HFR and F- d) HFR and F+
90. In an experiment you have met, bio, thr+ and leu + bacterial strain in test tube 1; and met+, bio+, thr and leu bacterial strain in other test tube
2. Which of the following will not comply with your experimental results?
nd
a) Both the strains will grow in enriched media b) 2 strain will grow in met absent media c) Mixture of two strains will grow in
st
minimal media d) 1 stain will not grow in leu absent media
91. If the bacterial DNA sequence is Leu Met Att Gal Bio, which of the genes can be transferred via specialized transduction?
a) Met and Gal only b) Met, Att and Gal c) Gal and Bio d) Leu and Met
92. What is the phenotypic ratio in case of duplicate dominant epistasis? a) 9:3:4 b) 12:3:4 c) 15:1 d) 9:7
93. Consider this sequence A—O—B —C—D—E—F, be a DNA sequence where O is the centromere. Which of the following will be a
pericentric inversion?
a) A—O—B—D—E—F b) C—B—O—A—D—E—F
c) D—B—O—A—E—F d) A—O—E—D—B—F

94. In drosophila male there is no cross over suppression due to pericentric inversion as__________a) They have only one set of chromosome
b) They always have double cross over c) They never recombine d) They don’t undergo meiosis
95. In translocating gene fragment which part is responsible for translocation? a) The LTR b) The transcribed gene c) The non-coding part
of gene d) The surrounding sequences
96. Which of the following is a result of reciprocal translocation?
a) Burkitt’s lymphpma b) Trychothiodystrophy c) Thalassemia d) Cockyne’s syndrome
97. If the XIC passes to chromosome 3 in a human what will be the result?
a) Chromosome 3 will have one more protein to express b) Human race will divide into two species
c) Chromosome 3 will be inactivated
d) There will be sticking of chromosome 3 with other chromosomes
98.Pulse rate or weight of patient are known as
a) Continuous variation b) Nominal data c) random variable d) None of these
99. Answer which of the following statements are false:
The paired t-test:
a. Tests the null hypothesis that the two population means are equal
b. Must have equally sized numbers of observations in each group.
c. Assumes that the data in each group are normally distributed.
d. Is appropriate for comparing the means of independent groups of observations.
e. When appropriately used, is more powerful when the sample size is large.
a) a, c, d b) b, d c) a, b, c, e d) None of these
100. With regard to the chi-squared test which one is not correct:
a) Experimental data are required to prove hypothetical theory
b) the null hypothesis is not required.
c) the greater the value of the chi-squared test, the more likely it is to be significant
d) None of these
Answer for MCQ:

26) a 52) a 78) d

1) b 27) d 53) b 79) c
2) a 28) c 54) b 80) c
3) d 29) d 55) d 81) b
4) b 30) b 56) b 82) c
5) b 31) c 57) d 83) d
6) a 32) d 58) c 84) d
7) b 33) d 59) a 85) b
8) d 34) c 60) b 86) c
9) b 35) c 61) d 87) a
10) b 36) c 62) a 88) d
11) c 37) c 63) c 89) d
12) a 38) d 64) a 90) d
13) b 39) d 65) b 91) a
14) d 40) c 66) a 92) c
15) c 41) a 67) a 93) b
16) a 42) a 68) d 94) c
17) a 43) b 69) c 95) a
18) b 44) d 70) b 96) a
19) c 45) b 71) c 97) c
20) d 46) d 72) d 98) a
21) a 47) d 73) c 99) a
22) b 48) c 74) c 100) b
23) b 49) d 75) d
24) b 50) a 76) c
25) b 51) c 77) b
Short Answer Type Questions (5 Marks each)

1. Described with diagram Meselson and Stahl experiment.

2. Discuss the fine structure of gene as revealed through the work on rII locus in T4 bacteriophage.
+ + + + -
3. An HFR strain carrying the phototrophic markers a , b , c , and d is mixed with an F strain carrying the auxotrophic alleles a, b, c and
d. Conjugation was interrupted at every 5 min intervals and plated on medium that revealed the presence of recombinants.

Time (min) Recombinants detected

+
5 ab cd
a+ +
10 b cd
15 a+b+cd+
a+ + + +
20 bcd

4. What is the order of the markers in the Hfr strain? Explain the order and draw a genetic map of the four markers in time units.
5. What are the factors which determine sexes in plant and animals? Draw the sex chromosome of Melandrium.
6. What is complementation testing?
7. Describe in brief location and function of two tumor suppressor genes.
8. Illustrate Interrupted mapping.
9. Describe gynandromorphy in drosophila and the maternal inheritance pattern in garden snail.
10. (i) What is complementation testing?
(ii) Six mutations (1-6) are known to belong three cistrons. From the results of the complementation tests, determine which mutants
are in the same cistron.

11. Draw the life cycle of Rous sarcoma RNA tumor virus.
12. Describe Genic balance theory of sex determination.
13. Draw the life cycle of Rous sarcoma RNA tumor virus.
14. Describe in brief location and function of two tumor suppressor genes.
15. Name three human genetic disorders caused due to the anomaly in chromosome number. How disjunction of chromosome leads to
these abnormalities.
16. Write down the scientific contribution of any two of the following:

a) Bateson and Punnett b) Meaelson and Stahl c) Hardy and Weinberg

17. Discuss the fine structure of gene as revealed through the work on rII locus in T4 bacteriophage.

18. Which do you think would be easier to identify, the effects of plasmagenes or the effects of chromosomal genes? Explain.

19. Explain Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, stating all those factors which upset this equilibrium. Briefly, explain how mutation can change
the allele frequency of any population.
20. Explain how reciprocal translocation helps in inhibition of lethal gene action.
21. Define molecular basis of mutation. Explain frameshift mutation by illustration.

22. Write short notes on any two of the following:

a. Abortive transductants
b. Pleiotropy
c. Tautomeric shift
d. Genic balance theory
24. Write short notes on any two of the following:
a. Epistasis
b. QTL mapping
c. Genetic map of M13
d. Continuous variation
25. Write short notes on any two of the following:
a. Proto-oncogenes
b. Retinoblastoma
c. Autopolyploidy
d. Proto-oncogenes
26. Elucidate different types of Transposons.
27. Give characteristic features of tumor cells in comparison with normal cells.
28. Define pleotropic gene and illustrate with suitable example.
29. Differentiate between generalized and specialized transduction.
30. Match the following:
a) Benzer i) Lytic cycle
b) Virulent phage ii) rII locus
c) Lambda dgal iii) specialized transduction
d) Transducing particleiv) Phage with bacterial gene
e) Hfr strains v) No variation
f ) Linked genes vi) Bacterial genome with F factor
g) p53 vii) transcription factor
h) Rb viii) Barr bodies
i) Dosage compensation ix) Co-dominance
j) AB blood group x) Apotosis
31. Enlist the different methods to transfer recombinant DNA into the host cells. Explain in briefly any two.
32. What is non-disjunction? Mention any three genetic abnormalities which are due to non-disjunction.
33. Write short note on dosage compensation.
 34. Draw neat diagram on any one of the following:
+ -
a) F x F Mating
b) Genetic structure of M13 virus
35. Give a structural and functional organization of lampbrush chromosome.
36. Calculate the standard deviation for the following data:

Class intervals 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 70-80 80-90
Frequency 2 7 17 29 20 10 3 2
37. What is translocation? How this chromosomal structural change leads to cancer? Explain.
38. Enlist ten genetic disorders based on autosomal and sex linked gene mutation.
39. Differentiate between Mendelian and chromosomal disorders with suitable examples.
40. Sex determination in living organisms in determined by three important factors. Name and describe each factor with suitable example.
Long Answer Type Questions

1. a) Which do you think would be easier to identify, the effects of plasmagenes or the effects of chromosomal genes? Explain.
b) ‘Inversion causes suppression of crossing over’- justify the given phrase.
c) Sex determination in living organisms in determined by three important factors. Name and describe each factor with
suitable example.
d) Describe the maternal inheritance pattern in garden snail. (3+4+3+5)

2. a) Explain Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, stating all those factors which upset this equilibrium. Briefly, explain how mutation
can change the allele frequency of any population.
-
b) Among a population of 400 individuals, 230 were Rh+ and 170 were Rh . Assuming that the trait (Rh+) is controlled by a
dominant gene D, calculate the allele frequency of D and d. How many of the Rh+ individuals would be expected to be
heterozygous?
c) Explain how reciprocal translocation helps in inhibition of lethal gene action. (7+4+4)

3. a) A cross involving X-linked genes was made between yellow, bar, vermilion females Drosophila and wild males, and the F 1
+
females were crossed with y B v males. The following phenotype were obtained when 1000 progeny was examined.
yBv and +++ = 546
y++ and +Bv = 244
y+v and +B+ = 160
yB+ and ++v = 50
i. What is the order of the three genes? Construct a linkage map showing the genes in the correct order and the map
distances.
ii. Calculate the percentage interference of double crossed over.
iii. Write down the parental genotypes.
b) Explain the factors which effect the rate of recombination?
c) Explain continuous variation (8+4+3)
4. a) Write short notes on any three of the following: (2x3)
 i. Abortive transductant
ii. Chromosome painting
iii. Transcription factors in prokaryotes
iv. Position effect
b) Define molecular basis of mutation. Explain frameshift mutation by illustration.
c) Briefly describe the DNA repair mechanism in E .coli. (6+4+5)

5. a) Protein content (%) of leaves of 10 potted plants of Nigella sativa was assessed before and after gamma irradiations and
the following results have been obtained:
Before exposure to gamma-rays After exposure to gamma-rays
No.
of Plants
1 21 17
2 22 16
3 23 18
4 20 13
5 19 18
6 20 16
7 24 17
8 15 11
9 24 20
10 25 16
Find out whether gamma irradiation has any effect on leaf protein contents of the studied species.
b) From the data find out the regression equation and draw a regression line on the graph paper.
No. of Branches (x) No. of capsules (y)
2 4
5 10
8 15
10 20
15 25
20 30
c) Proteins are made up of chains of amino acids. Insulin is a relatively small protein with 53 amino acid residues. How
many possible proteins of length 53 can be made with 20 possible amino acids for each position in the protein?(5x3)
6. a) Six mutations (1-6) are known to belong three cistrons. From the results of the complementation tests, determine which mutants

are in the same cistron.

b) Draw the life cycle of Rous sarcoma RNA tumor virus.
c) Describe genic balance theory of sex determination.
(5x3)

7. a) Describe the maternal inheritance pattern in garden snail

b) Which do you think would be easier to identify, the effects of plasmagenes or the effects of chromosomal genes? Explain.
c) ‘Inversion causes suppression of crossing over’- justify the given phrase.
d) Describe gynandromorphy and the maternal inheritance pattern in garden snail .
(3+2+5+5)
8. a) The pedigree shown in the figure is of a family affected by disease ‘X’. The generations are labeled by roman numerals and the individuals in
each generation by Arabic numerals.

i. What is the mode of inheritance of the disease?

ii. What is the probability that III-2 is a carrier (heterozygous)?
iii. Which persons in the pedigree are known to be heterozygous for the said disease?
iv. If II-1 and II-3 marry, what is the probability that their first child will have disease ‘X’?
-
b) Among a population of 400 individuals, 230 were Rh+ and 170 were Rh . Assuming that the trait (Rh+) is controlled by a dominant gene D,
calculate the allele frequency of D and d. How many of the Rh+ individuals would be expected to be heterozygous?
c) Name three human genetical disorders caused due to the anomaly in chromosome number. Describe the mechanism of producing this
aneuploids.
(5+4+6)
9. a) In tomato the mutant genes o (oblate= flattened fruit), p (peach= hairy fruit), and s (compound inflorescence= many flowers in a cluster)
were found to be in chromosome 2. From the following data, determine:
(a) Assign the three gene sequence (b) genotypes of the parents (c) distance between the genes (d) coefficient of coincidence (e) percentage
interference

Phenotypes of test cross Number of progenies

+++ 73
++s 348
+p+ 2
+ps 96
o++ 110
o+s 2
op+ 306
ops 63

b) For a human blood, there are two alleles (called S and s) and three distinct phenotypes that can be identified by means of the appropriate
reagents. The following data was taken from people in Britain. Among the 1000 people sampled, the following genotype frequencies were observed
2
SS = 99, Ss = 418 and ss = 483. Calculate the frequency of S and s in this population and carry out a X test. Is there any reason to reject the
hypothesis of Hardy-Weinberg proportions in this population?

c) What is oncogene and how does it initiate carcinogenesis?

d) Draw genetic map of M13 or T4 bacteriophage.
(6+4+4)
10. a) Write short notes on any three of the following: (2x3)
i. Abortive transductant
ii. p53
iii. Alkalyting agents
iv. Properties of Transposon
v. Lysogenic cycle of bacteriophage
b) Define molecular basis of mutation. Explain frameshift mutation by illustration.
c) Illustrate the occurrence of cancer on account of mutation of proto-oncogenes.
(6+5+4)
11. a) Protein content (%) of leaves of 10 potted plants of Nigella sativa was assessed before and after gamma irradiations and the following
results have been obtained:
No. of Before exposure to gamma-rays After exposure to gamma-rays
Plants

1 21 17
2 22 16
3 23 18
4 20 13
 5 19 18
6 20 16
7 24 17
8 15 11
9 24 20
10 25 16
Find out whether gamma irradiation has any effect on leaf protein contents of the studied species by T-test analysis.
b) Assuming that the human sex ratio at birth is 1:1, consider two separate families, A and B, each having three children.
(a) What is the probability that all of the children in family A will be girls and that all children in family B will be boys?
(b) What is the probability that one or the other of the families will have only boys and the remaining family will have girls?

c) From the data find out the regression equation and draw a regression line on the graph paper.
No. of Branches (x) No. of capsules (y)
2 4
5 10
8 15
10 20
15 25
20 30

12. a) Define ‘Dosage compensation’. Describe in brief, how inactivation of ‘X’ chromosome occurs in human female.
b) The pedigree shown in the figure is of a family affected by disease ‘X’. The generations are labeled by roman numerals and the
individuals in each generation by Arabic numerals.

i. What is the mode of inheritance of the disease?

ii. Which persons in the pedigree are known to be heterozygous for the said disease?
iii. If III-4 and III-5 marry, what is the probability that their first child will have disease ‘X’?
c) What is complementation testing?
There were eight mutants (A-H) found while studying one of the biological pathway.
From the experimental data generated (0 = no gene product, 1 = gene product), calculate the numbers of gene group involved in this
pathway. Comment on your result.
 4+6+5
13. a) The following numbers of were obtained for testcross progny in Drosophila:
+m+ 218
w+f 236
++f 168
wm+ 178
+mf 95
w++ 101
++= 3
wmf 1
iv. What is the order of the three genes? Construct a linkage map showing the genes in the correct order and the map
distances.
v. Calculate the percentage interference of double crossed over.
vi. Write down the parental genotypes.

b) Explain the types of variations in chromosome structure with illustration.

c) Define epistasis. Mention its types with suitable examples.
7+5+3

14. a) Distinguish between somatic and germinal mutation.

b) Define molecular basis of mutation. Explain substitutive mutation by hypothetical example.
c) Describe sex-linked mutation by Clb method
d) Briefly describe the DNA repair mechanisms in E .coli.
2+4+4+5
15. a) Explain Hardy-Weinberg Law, stating all those factors which disturb Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Prove p+q=1, when p and q are
the allelic frequency of A (dominant) and a (recessive) genes respectively.
A B
b) A sample of 1000 persons showed the following blood groups: A, 430; B, 140; AB, 50; O, 380. Calculate the allele frequencies of I , I
and i
c) Describe in brief continuous variation.
d) Illustrate how reciprocal translocation leads to formation of ring chromosome.
5+4+3+3
16. a) Amino acid content (%) of leaves of 10 potted plants of Nigella sativa was assessed before and after gamma irradiations and the
following results have been obtained:
 No. of Before exposure to gamma-rays After exposure to gamma-rays
Plants

1 21 17
2 22 16
3 23 18
4 20 13
5 19 18
6 20 16
7 24 17
8 15 11
9 24 20
10 25 16
Find out whether gamma irradiation has any effect on leaf protein contents of the studied species.

b) From the data below find out the value of correlation coefficient, regression equation (x on y) and draw a regression line
on the graph paper.

Antioxidant content (mg/g) % Inhibition of free radicals (y)

(x)
5 7
17 10
34 18
43 25
59 43
70 57

c) The effect of gene A is dominant to that of its allele a, and B is dominant to b.

What is the probability that a self fertilized plant heterozygous for those two gene pairs would produce 12 offspring, all of
AB phenotype?
5+6+4
17. a) Write short notes on any three of the following: (2x3)
a. Abortive transductant
b. Chromosome painting
c. Transcription factors in prokaryotes
d. Position effect
b) A women whose father was of blood group AB and whose mother was A married to a man of Blood B. Of their two children one belonges to
blood group O and other to group A.
a. What is the genotype of the women?
b. What is the genotype of her husband?
c. What is the genotype of her mother
c) ‘Gene linkage influences Mendelian ratio” justify.
6+5+4

19. a) Calculate correlation coefficient between total antioxidant content (A) and free radical scavenging percentage (B) from the data of five fruits
given below:
A (mg) 18 5 10 12 8
B (%) 95 20 45 72 37
b) Proteins are made up of chains of amino acids. Insulin is a relatively small protein with 53 amino acid residues. How many possible proteins of
length 53 can be made with 20 possible amino acids for each position in the protein?
10+5

20. a) From the data given below:

Height (cm) 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60
Frequency 5 7 9 13 10
Calculate the mean, mean deviation (about median), standard deviation and standard error.
b) What is complementation testing? Illustrate in brief.
c) Cancer is a disease which arises from malfunction of genes. List the three categories of cancer genes and explain how they cooperate
to initiate and promote tumorigenesis.
5+3+7