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DATE : 30-04-17 CODE - A

VIBRANT ACADEMY
(India) Private Limited
A-14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota-324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2423406, 2428666, 2428664 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com

REVIEW TEST–1 (MEGA PHASE-I COURSE-2018)


JEE Mains
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 360
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 90 questions. The booklet has
32 pages.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and
on the back page (page no. 32) of this booklet.

3. The question paper contains 3 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and VA
Roll No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 32) of this booklet.

6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided


separately.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

8. Do not open the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.

B. Question paper format  Read the instructions printed on the back page

C. Marking scheme  (page no. 32) of this booklet.
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.

.......................................................... ............................................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator

USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, g = 10 m/s2 , B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Ne = 20, Na = 23,
Mg = 24, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Ar = 40 , Ti = 48, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.5, Br = 80, Mo = 96, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, U = 238
PART I : MATHEMATICS
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. P(a, b) is a point in first quadrant. If two circles which passe through point P and touches both the coordinate
axis, intersect each other orthogonally, then
(A) a2 – 6ab + b2 = 0 (B) a2 – 2ab – b2 = 0 (C) a2 – 4ab + b2 = 0 (D) a2 – 8ab + b2 = 0

2. A quadratic equation with integral coefficients has two different prime numbers as it’s roots. If sum of the
coefficients of the equation is prime, then the sum of the roots is :
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 8 (D) 10

tan(  cos 2 x ) L
3. If L  lim 2
, then is equal to
x  ( x – ) 

(A) –1 (B) – (C) –2 (D) –2

4. Let k be a real number such that inequality x – 3  6 – x  k has a solution. Then maximum value of k is

(A) 6– 3 (B) 3 (C) 6 3 (D) 6

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MATHEMATICS
6
5. The integral part of  2 1 is

(A) 198 (B) 196 (C) 197 (D) None of these

6. The sum of real values of k for which the cubic x3 – kx + k – 1 = 0 has exactly two distinct real solution

13 15 3 11
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 4 4 4

7. The value of sin 47º – sin 25º + sin 61º – sin 11º is equal to :
(A) cos 7º (B) sin 7º (C) 2 cos 7º (D) 2 sin 7º

8. Range of f(x) = sin–1 x + tan–1 x + sec–1 x is

  3    3    3 
(A)  ,  (B)  ,  (C)  ,  (D) None of these
4 4  4 4  4 4 

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MATHEMATICS
9. Let f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) + 9xy(x + y) + 4xy + 1  x, y  R and f '(0) = 0 then
(A) f(2) < f(1) (B) f(1) = f(2) (C) f(–1) = f'(–1) (D) f(–1) < f(1)

10. Suppose a matrix A satisfies A2 – 5A + 7I = 0. If A5 = aA + bI, then the value of 2a + b is


(A) –87 (B) –105 (C) 1453 (D) 1155

11. A spider has an unique sock and an unique shoe for each of its eight legs. In how many different orders can
the spider put on its socks and shoes, assuming that, on each leg, the sock must be put on before the shoe?

16! 16! 16!


(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
82 8! 28

12. Three points in the plane are given, not all on the same straight line. How many lines can be drawn which are
equidistant from these points?
(A) 3 (B) 6
(C) 9 (D) Depends on relative position of points

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MATHEMATICS
13. In a triangle ABC, we have

abc
acosB + bcosC + ccosA =
2
where A, B, C are internal angles and a, b, c are length of sides opposite to them respectively. Then ABC
must be
(A) Equilateral (B) Isosceles (C) Right angled (D) Can’t say

1
14. The sequence {xn} is defined by x1 = , x = xk2 + xk , then the greatest integer less than the value of the
2 k+1
expression,

 1 1 1 1 
    ..........   is given by :
x
 1  1 x 2  1 x 3  1 x 63  1 

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8

15. f(x) is a periodic function which satisfies the relation


1
f(a  x)  b  {b3  1  3b2 f(x)  3b(f(x))2  (f(x))3 } 3 x  R , where a, b  R are fixed positive numbers. Then
the period of f(x) is.
(A) a (B) 2a (C) 3a (D) 4a

16. a, b, c are 3 positive numbers such that b2(a – c)2 = 2(c2(b – a)2 + a2 (b – c)2). Then a, b, c must be in :
(A) AP (B) GP (C) HP (D) None of these

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MATHEMATICS
y3  3y
17. The value of Lt as (x, y)  (1, 0) along the line y = x – 1 is :
x 1 x3 – y 2 – 1
y 0

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

1
18. A function f(x) is defined as f(x) = and the representations f 2(x) and f 3(x) mean f(f(x)) and f(f(f(x)))
1– x
respectively, then the number of points of discontinuity of the function f2017(x) is/are
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 2017 (D) None of these

1 2
19. A function f(x) is defined as f(x) = – 2x ; x  0 and f(0) is choosen such that f(x) is continuous at
x e –1
x = 0 then value of right hand derivative at x = 0 is :

1 1 1 1
(A) (B) – (C) (D) –
2 2 3 3

20. (x) is function given by

 
(x) | sin x |  | cos x |, then  '   is
 2

(A) 1 (B) –1 (C) 0 (D) does not exist

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MATHEMATICS
x1 x4 x7
 2  2  2
x4 x7 x10
21. If x1, x2, x3,........,x 13 are in A.P., then the value of  2  2  2 is
x7 x10 x13
 2  2  2
(A) 2 (B) 2
(C) 0 (D) Depends on x1, x4, x7,......,x13

22. The equation of straight line belonging to both the families of lines x – y + 1 + 1(2x – y – 2) = 0 and
5x + 3y – 2 + 2 (3x – y – 4) = 0, where 1, 2 are arbitrary numbers is
(A) 5x – 2y – 7 = 0 (B) 2x + 5y – 7 = 0 (C) 5x + 2y – 7 = 0 (D) 2x – 5y – 7 = 0

1
23. The number of solutions of tan x  2cos x  in [– , 2] is
cos x
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 0 (D) 3

4  2x
24. Let f1(x)  and fn(x) = fn–1(f 1(x)) for n  2, n  N. If n(x) = f2(x) + f4(x) + f6(x) + ......... + f2n(x), n  N then
x2
(A) n + 1(x) > n(x) x  R+ (B) n + 1(x) > n(x) x  R
(C) n + 1(x) < n(x) x  R+ (D) None of the above is correct

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MATHEMATICS
25. Let f : [– 10, 10]  [a, b], f(x) = tan–1(x) + sinx + 3x3 – x be an onto function, then
(A) 2a + b < 0 (B) 3a + b > 0 (C) a + 2b < 0 (D) 3a + 4b < 0

 1  2
26. tan1    tan1   is equal to
 4  9

1  3  4 1  3 1  8 
(A) cos1   (B) sin1   (C) tan1   (D) tan  
2  5  5 2  5 9

sin 2x  k sin x
27. If for some real number k, lim exists, then the limit is equal to
x 0 x3

k
(A) (B) k + 2 (C) k2 (D) None of these
2

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MATHEMATICS
 2  cos x  1
, x
28. If the function f(x)   (   x)2 is continuous at x = , then k equals
 k , x

1 1
(A) 2 (B) (C) (D) 0
4 2

 
29. Let f(x) = x  tan  x    | cos x | . No. of points in the interval (– 1, ) where f is non-differentiable is/are :
 4

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

30. Sum of all the values of x satisfying the equation log1331 log11  
x  11  x  0 is ______

(A) 25 (B) 36 (C) 171 (D) 0

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PART II : PHYSICS
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. Two stones A and B are projected from an inclined plane such that A has range up the incline and B has range
down the incline. For range of both stones on the incline to be equal in magnitude, pick up the correct
condition. (Neglect air friction).

A
B

(A) Component of initial velocity of both stones along the incline should be equal and also component of
initial velocity of both stones perpendicular to the incline should be equal.
(B) Component of initial velocity of both stones perpendicular to the incline should be equal and also horizontal
component of initial velocity of both stones should be equal.
(C) Horizontal component of initial velocity of both stones should be equal and also vertical component of
initial velocity of both stones should be equal.
(D) None of these

32. In the figure shown, the pulleys and strings are massless. The acceleration of the block of mass 4m just after
the system is released from rest is ( = sin–1 3/5)

2g
(A) downwards
5

2g
(B) upwards
5  

5g 4m
(C) downwards
11
m m
5g
(D) upwards
11

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33. A uniform rope of length L and mass M is placed on a smooth fixed wedge as shown. Both ends of rope are
at same horizontal level. The rope is initially released from rest, then the magnitude of initial acceleration of
rope is :

 

(A) M (cos  – cos ) g (B) zero


(C) M (tan  – tan ) g (D) None of these

34. Determine the force P required to just begin the motion of the block B shown in figure. Take coefficient of
friction = 0.3 for all surfaces in contact.

m = 3 kg
T
A

B m = 5kg P
C
m = k kg

(A) 12 N (B) 33 N (C) 62 N (D) 6 N

35. A uniform rope of linear mass density  and length  is coiled on a smooth horizontal surface. One end is
pulled up with constant velocity v. Then the average power applied by the external agent in pulling the entire
rope just off the horizontal surface is
v
2
1  g
(A) v 2 
2 2
(B) gv

1 3 vg
(C) v 
2 2

1 3
(D) vg  v
2

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36. A block lying on a smooth surface with spring connected to it is pulled by an external force as shown. Initially
the velocity of ends A and B of the spring are 4 m/s and 2 m/s (rightwards both) respectively. If the energy of
the spring is increasing at the rate of 20 J/sec, then the stretch in the spring is :

K = 100 N/m
B A

(A) 1.0 cm (B) 2.0 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 2.0 cm

37. Two masses of 1 gm and 4 gm are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio of the magnitude of their
linear momenta is :
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 2 :1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 16

38. A particle of mass m = 1 kg is lying at rest on x-axis, experiences a net force given by law F = x (3x – 2)
Newton, where x is the x-coordinate of the particle in meters. The magnitude of minimum velocity in negative

x-direction to be imparted to the particle placed at x = 4 meters such that it reaches the origin is P / 27 m / s .

Find the value of P.


(A) 3500 (B) 3000 (C) 2600 (D) 2000

39. A lateral object of height 0.5 cm is placed on the optical axis of bi-convex lens of focal length 80 cm, at an
object distance = 60 cm. The image formed is :
(A) virtual, erect and 4 cm high (B) virtual, inverted and 2 cm high
(C) virtual, erect and 2 cm high (D) real, inverted and 2 high

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PHYSICS
40. A glass hemisphere of radius R and material having refractive index
1.5 is silvered on its flat face as shown in the figure. A small object
of height h is located at a distance 2 R from surface of hemisphere.
The final image will form h
2R
(A) at a distance of R from silvered surface, on right side
(B) on the object it self
(C) at the hemispherical surface
(D) at a distance of 2R from the silvered surface on left side

41. The width of man's face is 10 cm. The distance between the eyes of the man is 4 cm. Then the minimum
width of plane mirror to see his full face, is :
(A) 5 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 3 cm (D) 10 cm

42. What should be the value of refractive index n of a glass rod placed in air, so that the light entering at any
angle through the flat surface of the rod does not cross the curved surface of the rod.

air
r'
r
i
glass

(A) n  2 (B) 2 n (C) n  3 (D) 3 n

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PHYSICS
43. Which of the following ray diagram is correct.

(A) (B)
2f f

(C) (D)
2f f f 2f f

44. A plane mirror is moving with velocity 2iˆ  3ˆj  4kˆ . A point object in front of the mirror move with a velocity

3iˆ  4ˆj  4kˆ . There k̂ is along the normal to the plane mirror and facing towards the object. Find velocity of
image.

(A) 2iˆ  14ˆj  4kˆ (B) 2iˆ  14ˆj  4kˆ (C) 2iˆ  14ˆj  4kˆ (D) None

45. Two plane mirrors of length L are separated by a distance L and a man M2 is standing at a distance L from
the connecting line of mirrors as shown in the figure. A man M1 is walking in a straight line at a distance 2 L
parallel to mirrors at speed u, then the man M2 at O will be able to see the image of M1 for total time :

u M1
L
O
L
L
L

2L
4L 3L 6L 9L
(A) (B) (C) (D)
u u u u

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46. A block of mass 1 kg is pulled along the curve path ACB by a tangential force as shown in figure. The work
done by the frictional force when the block moves from A to B is

 = 0.2
C

A B
x = 10m

(A) 5 J (B) 10 J (C) 20 J (D) None of these

47. Water is flowing on a horizontal fixed surface, such that its flow velocity varies with y (vertical direction) as

 2y2 y3 
v = k  2  3  . If cofficient of viscosity for water is , what will be shear stress between layers of water at
 a a 

y = a?

k  a
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
a ka k

48. Following are some statements about buoyant force on a body of certain shape, immersed completely,
inside ideal fluid. Select the correct statement(s) (Liquid is of uniform density)
(A) Buoyant force depends upon orientation of the concerned body inside the liquid
(B) Buoyant force depends upon the density of the body immersed
(C) Buoyant force depends on the fact whether the system is on moon or on the earth
(D) Buoynat force depends upon the depth of the body inside the liquid

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49. A capillary tube with inner cross-section in the form of a square of side 'a' is dipped vertically in a liquid of
density  and surface tension  which wet the surface of capillary tube with angle of contact . The approximate
height to which liquid will be raised in the tube is (Neglect the effect of surface tension at the corners capillary
tube)

2 cos  4 cos  8 cos 


(A) ag (B) ag (C) ag (D) None of these

50. A pump is designed as a horizontal cylinder with a piston having an area of A and an outlet orifice having an
area of 'a' arranged near the cylinder axis. Determine the velocity of outflow of a liquid from the pump if the
piston moves with a constant velocity under the action of a force F. The density of the liquid is . (a << A)

2F F F 2F
(A) (B) (C) (D)
A A 2A 3A

51. A body is executing simple harmonic motion. At a displacement x from mean position, its potential energy is
E1 = 2J and at a displacement y from mean position, its potential energy is E2 = 8J. The potential energy E
at a displacement (x + y) from mean position is
(A) 10 J (B) 14 J (C) 18 J (D) 4 J

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52. A simple pendulum has time period T1. The point of suspension is now moved upward according to the
relation y = Kt2, (K = 1 m/s2) where y is the vertical displacement and t is time. The time period now becomes

T12
T2. The ratio of 2 is (g = 10 m/s2)
T2

(A) 5/6 (B) 6/5 (C) 1 (D) 4/5

53. If the fundamental frequency of a vibrating organ pipe is 200 Hz, then
(A) The first overtone must be 200 Hz (B) The first overtone may be 400 Hz
(C) The first ovetone must be 300 Hz (D) None of the above

54. A siren placed at a railway platform is emitting sound of frequency 5 kHz. A passenger sitting in a moving
train A records a frequency of 5.5 kHz while the train approaches the siren. During his return journey in a
different train B be records a frequency of 6.0 kHz while approaching the same siren. The ratio of the velocity
of train B to that of train A is
(A) 242/252 (B) 2 (C) 5/6 (D) 11/6

55. The extension in a string, obeying Hooke's law, is x. the speed of sound in the stretched string is v. If the
extension in the string is increased to 1.5x, the speed of sound will be
(A) 1.22 v (B) 0.61 v (C) 1.50 v (D) 0.75 v

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PHYSICS
56. In the diagram below (not to scale), each of the loudspeaker emits a continuous sound of the same frequency.
A microphone moved along the line PQ detects a series of maximum and minimum sound intensities. Which
one of the following actions on its own, will lead to an increase in the distance between the points of maxima
of sound intensity?
Q
Loudspeaker

Loudspeaker
P
(A) Decreasing the frequency of the sound emitted by the loudspeakers
(B) Increasing the frequency of the sound emitted by the loudspeakers
(C) Increasing the separation of the loudspeakers
(D) Decreasing the distance of the loudspeakers from the line PQ

57. Find number of images of O formed by system of mirrors?

45° d
O
d 45°

d
2

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

58. The focal length of a concave mirror is 30 cm. Find the position of the object in front of the mirror, such that
the image is three times the size of the object.
(A) 40 CM (B) – 20 cm (C) Both (D) Neither

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PHYSICS
59. A point object is between the Pole and Focus of a concave mirror, and moving away from the mirror with a
constant speed. The velocity of the image is :
(A) away from the mirror and increasing in magnitude
(B) towards the mirror and increasing in magnitude
(C) away from the mirror and decreasing in magnitude
(D) towards the mirror and decreasing in magnitude

sin i
60. In the figure shown is equal to :
sin r

1 2 3
r
i

 22 3  3 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
 3 1 1  22

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PART III : CHEMISTRY
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. Which pair of molecules have hybrid H.O.M.O
(A) H2, Li2 (B) N2, P2 (C) O2, S2 (D) F2, Cl2

62. A first order reaction 75% completed in 50 min. Find the fraction of initial concentration of reactant dissociated
in next 50 min.
(A) 6.25% (B) 18.75% (C) 75% (D) 93.75%

63. Identify the intermediate formed in below reaction


2
Hg
CH3 – C CH 
dil. H2 SO4
 Major

OH OH O
(A) CH3–C=CH2 (B) CH3–CH=CH (C) CH3–C–CH3 (D) CH3–CH2–CH=O

64. Which s-block metal carbonates’s solubility increases as atomic number increases down the group
(A) Only alkali metals (B) Only alkaline earth metals
(C) Alkali as well as alkaline earth metals (D) Neither alkali alkaline nor alkaline earth metals

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CHEMISTRY
65. For a reaction 2A(g)  B(g) + C(g) concentration of reactant A and time ‘t’ is plotted as

30º
[At](M)

t(min)

Find rate of appearance of B at time t = 30 sec. If initial concentration of A is 0.5 M.


(A) Zero (B) 0.25 M/sec (C) 0.289M/sec (D) 1.732 M/sec

66. Identify the correct relationship between P & Q.

HCl (P)
CH3 CH2 Peroxide Major

HCl (Q)
CH3 CH2 CCl4 Major

(A) Positional isomer (B) Chain isomer (C) Functional isomer (D) Identical isomer

67. In which of the following transformation process, symmetry of HOMO of both species is different but their
magnetic behaviour is same.
(A) O2  O22– (B) N2  N22– (C) C2  C22– (D) B2  B2–

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CHEMISTRY
68. For the reaction NO(g) + Cl2(g)  NOCl(g) at 300 K following data are obtained.
Expt. No. Initial concentration Initial rate
[NO] [Cl2] [M/sec.]
1 0.01M 0.01M 1.2 × 10–4
2 0.01M 0.02M 2.4 × 10–4
3 0.02M 0.02M 9.6 × 10–4
Find rate law of reaction
(A) Rate = k[NO]2[Cl2] (B) Rate = k[NO][Cl2]
(C) Rate = k[NO][Cl2]2 (D) Rate = k[NO]2[Cl2]2

69. In which of the following reactions diastereomers are formed.


CH3
CH3
H D
HBr HBr
(A) CCl4 (B) CH CCl4
CH2 CH

Br

(C) HBr (D) All of these


CCl4

70. Which of the following is not obtained when Na2C2O4 is thermally decomposed at higher temperature
(A) Na2O (B) CO (C) C (D) CO2

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CHEMISTRY
71. Value of x is

cis-2-hexene Br2 (x) products


CCl4
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 2

8
72. The wave number of the spectral line in emission spectrum of hydrogen atom will equal to times the
9
Rydberg’s constant. If electron jumps from _______.
(A) 9th excited state to ground state. (B) 2nd excited state to ground state.
(C) 2nd orbit to ground state. (D) 9th orbit to ground state.

73. Which of the following species exists at room temperature.


(A) SH6 (B) FeI3 (C) XeF3– (D) PI5

Cl2
74. A mixture of all isomers possible from mono-chlorination of structure is subjected
hv
to fractional distillation. How many fractions will obtained.
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

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75. For reaction, 2A  B, following data are obtained :

Tim e 0 t 2t
[A] a b c

If b = a × c then the only correct graph for reaction is :

d[B] [A] t1/2 [A]


(A) dt (B) (C) (D)
time ekt A0 ekt

76. The correct order of boiling point is


(A) H3PO4 < H3PO3 < H3PO2 (B) HF < H2O2 < H2O
(C) CH3NH2 < C3H7NH2 < C2H5NH2 (D) Ethyl alcohol < glycol < glycerol

CH3
? OH
77.
Br

(A) (i) Br2/H2O (B) (i) NaOH, (ii) NaBr


(C) (i) BH3 then NaOH/H2O2 (D) (i) Br2/CHCl3, (ii) NaOH

78. The gram-equivalent mass of H2O2 in its self decomposition will be :


(A) 17 g (B) 8.5 g (C) 34 g (D) 68 g

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CHEMISTRY
79. In which of the following pair, both the species have same hybridisation.
(i) SF4, XeF4 (ii) I–3, XeF2 (iii) ICl4+, SiCl4 (iv) ClO3–, PO43–
(A) i, ii (B) ii, iii (C) ii, iv (D) i, ii, iii

80. What is major product expected from following reaction.

KMnO4
A
OH– cold

OH OH OH
H H
OH
(A) (B) OH (C) H (D)
H
H OH O

81. Consider given Born Haber cycle for dissolution of ionic solid MX into water.

H1
M+X–(s) M+(g) + X–(g)
H2O
(excess) H2
H3
M+(aq) + X–(aq)
excess H2O

If the sign of H3 is negative, then select incorrect option.


(A) Ionic solid M+X– is soluble in water.
(B) |H1| < |H2|
(C) Dielectric constant of H2O does not support in making negative value of H3.
(D) Hydration energy of M+ contributes more to the magnitude H2 than hydration energy of X–.
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CHEMISTRY
82. For redox reaction,
H
Cr2O72– (aq)  Cl– (aq) 
 2 Cr 3  (aq)  ClO – (aq)
If rate constant of reaction is x then rate constant for disappearance of Cl–(aq) will be :
(A) 3x (B) x (C) 6x (D) 2x

83. Which of the following is optical active :

Me Me Me
Me Me
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Me Me H H Me

84. At 298 K, HI(g) is filled in a rigid container at 10 atm pressure and is allowed to achieve equilibrium as
following,
1 1


HI(g)  H2 (g)  I2 (g)
2 2
1
If Kc of the reaction is then at equlibrium, the only incorrect statement is :
3

1
(A) K p  (B) Ptotal = 10 atm (C) PHI = 6 atm (D) PH2  4 atm
3

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CHEMISTRY
85. In the following molecules, predict non planar species which forms (2p – 2p) back bond :
(I) B3O3(OH)3 (II) [B3O3(OH)4]– (III) [B3O3(OH)5]2– (IV) [B3O3(OH)6]3–
(A) I, II, III, IV (B) II, III (C) I, IV (D) III, IV

(X) H2/Ni
86. diene (2eq)
No. of possible alkene (X) including stereochemistry.
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 6

87. Hydrolysis constant of NH4Cl(aq) is 2 × 10–9. Find % degree of hydrolysis of 0.2 M NH4Cl (aq).
(A) 0.1 % (B) 0.01 % (C) 0.05% (D) 0.005%

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CHEMISTRY
88. If dxz orbital of atom A and px orbital of atom B form  bond along a particular molecular axis, then which bond
will be formed along same molecular axis by combination of (dxy + dxy) orbitals of (A) and (B) atoms.
(A)  bond (B)  bond (C) -bond (D) Non bonding

89. Two glass bulbs of equal volumes are connected by a narrow tube and filled with a gas at 0ºC and pressure
of 76 cm of Hg. One of the bulb is then placed in a water bath maintained at 62ºC. If the volume of the
connecting tube is negligible, the new value of the pressure inside the bulbs is :
(A) 75 cm of Hg (B) 80 cm of Hg (C) 83.75 cm of Hg (D) None of these

90. How many products will be formed in these reaction?

cold dil. KMnO4


(i) (x) products

cold dil. KMnO4


(ii) (y) products

Sum of (x + y)
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

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DATE : 30-04-17 CODE - A
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

B. Question paper format :


9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics).

10. Parts contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.

C. Marking Scheme :
11. For each question in Parts, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened only
the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.

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DATE : 21-05-17 CODE - A

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REVIEW TEST–2 (MEGA PHASE-I COURSE-2018)


JEE Advance (Paper-1)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 264
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions. The booklet has
32 pages.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and
on the back page (page no. 32) of this booklet.

3. The question paper contains 4 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and VA
Roll No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 32) of this booklet.

6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided


separately.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

8. Do not open the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.

B. Question paper format  Read the instructions printed on the back page

C. Marking scheme  (page no. 32) of this booklet.
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.

.......................................................... ............................................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator

USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, g = 10 m/s2 , B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Ne = 20, Na = 23,
Mg = 24, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Ar = 40 , Ti = 48, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.5, Br = 80, Mo = 96, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, U = 238
PART I : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

n! (n  1)! (n  2)!
(3n3 – 5) n
1. If n  N and n = (n  1)! (n  2)! (n  3)! , then nlim is equal to
  n1
(n  2)! (n  3)! (n  4)!

2. The number of triplets (a, b, c) of natural numbers such that a  b  c and a! + b! + c! = 3d, d  N is :

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MATHEMATICS
3. If all roots of equation x4 – 12x3 + bx2 + cx + 81 = 0 are positive and g(x) is inverse of
f(x) = x+2 + ( + 2)x + , where is a root of 2bx + c = 0, then 24g(5) is equal to :

4. A is a real, non-zero, skew symmetric matrix of order 3 × 3,  is a non-zero scalar and X be a non-zero
column matrix, such that AX = X, then number of real values of  is

 f ( x )  x 2n g( x ) 
5. Let f(x) = x2 + ax + 3 and g(x) = x + b, where F( x )  lim   . If F(x) is continuous  x  R, then
n   1  x 2n 
 

2a + b is equal to

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MATHEMATICS
6. If Sn denote the sum of n terms of the series 1.2 + 2.3 + 3.4 + ....... upto n-terms and n – 1 denote the sum

1 1 1 1
of (n – 1) terms of the series    .....  . Then Sn(1 – 18n – 1) is
1.2.3.4 2.3.4.5 3.4.5.6 (n – 1)n(n  1)(n  2)

equal to

7. If A is a square matrix of order 3 such that |A| = 2, then |(adj A–1)–1| is equal to

Sn 1 15
8. Let Sn = nC0nC1 + nC1nC2 + ...... + nCn – 1 nCn, n  N, n > 2. If S  4 , then n is equal to
n

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

9. If n is the smallest positive integer such that polynomial x4 – nx + 63 can be written as a product of a linear
and a cubic polynomial with integer coefficients, then
(A) Number of divisors of n is 10
(B) Sum of the digits of n is 12
(C) Number of natural solutions of xy = n is 10
(D) Number of odd divisors of n is 2

10. If x1, x2, x3 are the roots of 3x3 – 13x2 + 14x – 2 = 0, where x1 < x2 < x3 and
[x ]
if f(x) = tan [ x1] x + sin ([x2]x) + sin 3 x
where [.] denotes greatest integer function, then

3  3 
(A) Range of f(x) is  , 2 (B) Range of f(x) is  , 3 
4  4 

5 3
(C) tan–1x1 + tan–1x2 + tan–1x3 = (D) tan–1x1 + tan–1x2 + tan–1x3 =
6 4

11. Consider the following two infinite series in real x and ,

x2 x3
a = x sin + sin2+ sin 3+ ...........
2! 3!

x2 x3
b = 1 + x cos + cos 2 + cos 3+ ............ 
2! 3!

where is constant, then

2 2 2 2
 da   db   da   db 
(A)      = e2xsin (B)      = (a2 + b2) sin2
 dx   dx   dx   dx 

2 2 2 2
 da   db  2 2  da   db  2 x cos 
(C)       a  b (D)       e
 dx   dx   dx   dx 

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MATHEMATICS
12. Three concentric circles of which biggest is x2 + y2 = 1, have their radii in A.P. If the line y = x + 1 cuts all the
circles in real and distinct points, then common difference of A.P. can be

2– 2 2 –1 2– 2 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 4 2 5 5

13. Let f : R  R, be a function such that f(xy + 1) = f(x) f(y) – f(y) – x + 2 x, y R, if f(0) = 1, then
(A) f(16) = 17 (B) f(42) is prime

10
(C) sin –1 sin f –1(7) = 6 – 2 (D)  f(k)  66
k 1

45
2
14. If  cos ec (2K – 1)0  mn , where m, n are integers greater than 1, then
K 1

(A) m + n = 91
(B) |n – m| = 87
(C) m + n = 92
(D) The number of ways in which n + 5m + 1 can be resolved as product of two divisors is 5

n
15. Let f(x) = (x2 + 3x + 2)cosx , then the possible values of 'n' for which  log
K 1
10 f (K ) = 1 is/are

(A) 3 (B) 7 (C) 18 (D) 20

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MATHEMATICS
16. Let a1, a2, a3 be three numbers in increasing A.P. and g1, g2, g3 be three numbers in G.P. Given that
a1 + g1 = 85, a2 + g2 = 76, a3 + g3 = 84 and and a1 + a2 + a3 = 126. Then
(A) Common difference of A.P. is 26 (B) Common difference of A.P. is 25

1
(C) Common ratio of G.P. is (D) Common ratio of G.P. is 2
2

   
17. Let f ( x )   – cos –1(cos x )  – sin –1(sin x )  , then
2  2 

 2 2 
(A) Range of f(x) is  – , 
 4 4 

 2 2 
(B) Range of f(x) is  – , 
 2 2 

(C) Number of point in interval (0, 4) where f(x) is non-differential is 4


(D) Number of point in interval (0, 4) where f(x) is non-differential is 3

a b c
18. In a triangle ABC with usual notations if   , then
13 7 15

B – C  4 3
(A) tan  (B) Triangle ABC is obtuse
 2  11

3
(C) r : r1 = 9 : 35 (D) r : r2 
5

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - III
Matrix - Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to
be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are
labelled P, Q, R, S and T. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have
to be darkened as illustrated in the following example :
If the correct matches are A – Q, S and T; B – Q and R; C – P and Q; and D – S and T; then the correct
darkening of bubbles will look like the following.
P Q R S T
A P Q R S T

B P Q R S T

C P Q R S T

D P Q R S T

19. Column-I Column-II


(A) There is a prime number p such that 16p + 1 is (P) 5
a cube of positive integer m, then exponent of m in p! is
(B) There exist two circles which passes through the points (Q) 6
(2, 2) and (9, 9) and touches the x-axis. The absolute value
of the difference of x-coordinate of then point of contact (R) 12
with x-axis is
 3
 
(C) Let f(x) = cos–1(3x – 4x3) then f   2  has the value equal to (S) 18
 

 2
 ; | x | 1
(D) Let f(x) =  | x | , where a and b are constants (T) 19
a  bx 2 ; | x | 1

If f(x) is differentiable at x = 1, then (2a + b) equals

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MATHEMATICS
20. Column-I Column-II
(A) If the circle passing through A(1, 2), B(2, 3) and (P) 9
having least possible perimeter intersects orthogonally
the circle x2 + y2 + 2x + 2ky = 26, then k equals (Q) 4

1 – cos(1 – cos(1 – cos x ))


(B) If xlim is finite then the value of a can be (R) 3
0
xa

 1 3 p  2
 
(C) If the matrix A = 2 4 8  is non-singular, then p can be (S) 2
3 5 10 

(D) Number of ordered pairs (x, y) satisfying the equation (T) 0


4y2 +2 cos2x = 4y – sin2x, where x, y  [0, 2], is

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PART II : PHYSICS
SECTION - I
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

21. A cubical block of wood has density 1 = 500 kg/m3 and side l = 30 cm. It is floating in rectangular tank
partially filled with water of density 2 = 1000 kg/m and having base area, A = 45cm × 60 cm. Calculate the
work done (in joule) to press the block slowly so that it is just immersed in water. (g = 10 m/s2) (Express your
27
answer in J). If this work is   Joules , find n
 n

22. A transparent sphere of radius R has a cavity of radius R/2 as shown in figure. Find the refractive index of the
3 x
sphere if a parallel beam of light falling on left surface focuses at point P. If this refractive index is   ,
2
find x.

P
O

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PHYSICS
23. mA = 1kg, mB = 2kg, mC = 10 kg
= 0.1
A
u=0 B
 =0
Smooth
C
2m

Find velocity (in m/s) of A, when C has descended 2m from rest. Block B is very long and  is cofficient of
friction.

24. As shown in the figure a person is pulling a mass ‘m’ from ground on a fixed rough hemispherical surface
upto the top of the hemisphere with the help of a light inextensible string. Find the work (in Joule) done by
tension in the string if radius of hemisphere is R and friction coefficient is µ. Assume that the block is pulled
1
with negligible velocity. (Given µ  , m = 0.6 kg, R = 1 meter).
2

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PHYSICS
25. Two rays are incident on a spherical concave mirror of radius R = 5 cm parallel to its optical axis at perpen-
dicular distances 3 cm and 4 cm respectively. Determine the value of x if distance between the points at
5x
which these rays intersect the optical axis after being reflected from the mirror is cm .
24

26. A slab of glass of thickness 6 cm and index 1.5 is placed somewhere in between a concave mirror and a
point object, perpendicular to the mirror’s optical axis. The radius of curvature of the mirror is 40 cm. If the
reflected final image coincides with the object, find the distance of the object from the mirror. If this distance
is (50 – x) cm, find x.

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PHYSICS
27. A convex lens is symmetrically cut into two parts and parts are separated by 1 cm. In the figure shown, find
the relative speed of approach/separation of the two final images formed after the light rays pass through the
lens, at the moment when distance of object is 30 cm from lens. The speed of the object = 4 cm/s towards
lens. The two lens halves are placed symmetrically w.r.t. the moving object. If this speed is (8/x) cm/sec,
find x.

f=40cm

object 1cm

30cm

28. In the shown arrangement both pulleys and the string are massless and all the surfaces are frictionless.
30x
Find the acceleration of the wedge. If this acceleration is m/s2, find x. (m1 = 1 kg, m2 = 2 kg, m3 = 3 kg)
21

m2 m3
m1

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PHYSICS
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

29. An elevator is rising at constant speed. Consider the following statements and pick up the statement(s)
which is/are correct

Cable

Elevator

(A) The force exerted by cable on elevator is constant


(B) The kinetic energy of the elevator is constant
(C) The gravitational potential energy of the Earth-elevator system is constant
(D) The mechanical energy of the Earth-elevator system is constant

30. An object O is kept infront of a converging lens of focal length 30cm behind which there is a plane mirror at
15cm from the lens.

30cm

15cm 15cm

(A) the final image is formed at 60cm from the lens towards right of it.
(B) the final image is at 60 cm from lens towards left of it.
(C) the final image is real
(D) the final image is virtual

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PHYSICS
31. The energy of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by E = Ax2 + Bv2 where x is the displacement
from mean position x = 0 and v is the velocity of the particle at x then choose the correct statement(s)

2E
(A) amplitude of S.H.M. is
A

E
(B) maximum velocity of the particle during S.H.M. is
A

B
(C) Time period of motion is 2
A

(D) Displacement of the particle is proportional to the velocity of the particle

32. Standing waves can be produced


(A) on a string clampled at both the ends
(B) on a string clampled at one end free at the other
(C) when incident wave gets reflected from a wall
(D) when two identical waves with a phase difference of  are moving in the same direction

33. A string is stretched along the x-axis. There is a transverse perturbation along the string :
 x 
(x,t)  4 sin   cos(10t) where x is measured in centimeters and t in seconds. Two waves moving
 3
towards each other create this disturbance. Assume the velocities and amplitudes are equal for the two
waves.
Choose the correct option(s),
(A) amplitude of each waves is 2 cm
(B) velocity of each waves is 40 cm/sec
(C) distance between two adjacent nodes is 2cm
(D) distance between two adjacent nods is 3 cm

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PHYSICS
34. Two identical straight wires are stretched so as to produce 6 beats per second when vibrating simultaneously
in fundamental mode. On changing the tension slightly in one of them, the beat frequency remains unchanged.
Denoting by T1, T2 the higher and the lower initial tension in the strings, then it could be said that while
making the above changes in tension,
(A) T2 was decreased (B) T2 was increased
(C) T1 was decreased (D) T1 was increased

35. A concave mirror cannot form


(A) Virtual image of virtual object (B) Virtual image of a real object
(C) Real image of a real object (D) None of these

36. The radius of curvature of the left and right surface of the concave lens are 10cm and 15cm respectively. The
radius of curvature of the mirror is 15cm.

| |||
| ||||
air
||||||||
water
|||||||||||||||||||||
( =4/3)

Glass
|||||
|| ||

( =1.5)
|

(A) Equivalent focal length of the combination is – 18 cm


(B) Equivalent focal length of the combination is +36 cm
(C) The system behaves like a concave mirror
(D) The system behaves like a convex mirror

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PHYSICS
37. A lens of focal length 'f' is placed in between an object and screen at a distance 'D' apart.The lens forms two
real images of the object on the screen for two of its different positions, a distance 'x' apart. The two real
images have magnifications m1 and m2 respectively (m1 > m2)

x D2  x 2
(A) f  m  m (B) m1m2 = 1 (C) f  (D) D  4f
1 2 4D

38. There is relative motion between blocks A & B and their common surface is rough. Consider different possible
frames of observation. Choose the correct statement(s).

rough B 10m/s
5m/s A
smooth

(A) Work done by friction on B may be positive. (B) Work done by friction on B may be negative.
(C) Work done by friction on A must be positive. (D) Work done by friction on A may be negative.

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PHYSICS
SECTION - III
Matrix - Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to
be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are
labelled P, Q, R, S and T. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have
to be darkened as illustrated in the following example :
If the correct matches are A – Q, S and T; B – Q and R; C – P and Q; and D – S and T; then the correct
darkening of bubbles will look like the following.
P Q R S T
A P Q R S T

B P Q R S T

C P Q R S T

D P Q R S T

39. A small block lies on a rough horizontal platform above its centre C as shown in figure. The plank is moved
in vertical plane such that it always remains horizontal and its centre C moves in a vertical circle of centre O
with the constant angular velocity . There is no relative motion between block and the plank and the block
does not loose contact with the plank anywhere. P, Q, R and S, T are points on circular trajectory of centre
C of platform. P and R lie on same horizontal level as O. Q is the highest point on the circle and S is the
lowest point on the shown circle. Match the statements in Column I with points in Column II.
Q
block

C plank
R P
O
30°
T
S
Column I Column II
(A) Magnitude of frictional on block is maximum (P) When block is at position P
(B) Magnitude of normal reaction on block is equal to mg (Q) When block is at position Q
(C) Magnitude of frictional force is zero (R) When block is at position R
(D) Net contact force on the block is directed towards the centre (S) When block is at position S
(T) When block is at position T

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PHYSICS
40. A lens of radii of curvature R0 & 2R0 and material of refractive index 2 is placed in medium of refractive index
1 as shown. Some operations are done slowly on the lens and the medium as described in column I. |f| =
magnitude of focal length, Initially 2 > 1

R0 2R0

1 2 1

Column I Column II (in the process)


(A) 2 increases slowly (P) |f| increases always
(B) 1 increases slowly to a value greater than 2 (Q) |f| decreases always
(C) 2 decreases slowly but always remains greater than 1 (R) |f| first increases than decreases
(D) Radius of left surface slowly increases to 2R0 with same (S) |f| first decreases than increases
sense of curvature (T) Nature of lens changes

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PART III : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

41. Find out total number of compound(s) from the following list, that are water insoluble and also coloured.
CaS2O3, Ba(MnO4)2, PbI2, Ag2O, PbO, CuSO4.5H2O, Na2CrO4, CH3COOAg, Ag3PO4

42. Number of structural isomer of C4H10O that reacts with PCC to give aldehyde

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CHEMISTRY
43. The decomposition of H2O2 can be observed by titration with KMnO4 and is found to be a first order reaction.
The rate constant is 4.5 × 10–2 min–1. In an experiment the initial litre value was 25 ml. After 35.55 min, the
titre value of same solution of KMnO4 will be (in ml). [Given : n 5 = 1.6]

44. For complex compound [Ni(dmg)2]


Find out the value of expression |x – y|
where ; x = total number of N-atoms that are sp2 hybridized in the given complex compound
y = total number of rings that are formed by H-bonds in the given complex compound

Br Br Br Br
45.

Br Br

x - meso isomer y - meso isomer


Sum x + y

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CHEMISTRY
A
46. 0.8 g-atom of an -emitting radionuclide Z X (ty2 = 2 hrs) were placed in a sealed container. If 15.68 L of He(g)
was collected in container kept in 1 atm, 273 K conditions in t hours. Find value of t ?

47. The activation energy of a second order reaction :


A + B  P is 9.2 kcal mole–1. At 500 K product is formed at the rate of 0.08 mol L–1 min–1, find the rate
of formation of product at 1000 K in mol L–1min–1, if other factors are assumed to be uniform.
[Use nx = 2.3 logx]

48. Number of possible plane of symmetry in


X = Benzene
Y = CH4

Z=

Then X + Y – Z is :

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

49. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct ?


(A) Angular wave functions of 2px and 3px orbitals in H-atom are identical.
(B) Radial wave functions of orbitals in H-atom mainly determine their energy and size.
(C) Radial wave functions of 2px and 2s orbitals are identical.
(D) is the probability density of finding the electron at a certain point in space.

Br Br

50.
Br Br

Correct statement about following compound is/are :


(A) Plane of symmetry present (B) Center of symmetry present
(C) Axis of symmetry present (D) Compound is chiral

51. In an evacuated vessel of 8.2 L capacity, 0.2 moles of A(g) is taken. The vessel is sealed and heated to
127ºC, by which the following Ist order reaction occurred at constant volume and temperature over the
surface of volatile liquid (C) :
A(g)  2B(g)
The vapour pressure of C() is 0.1 atm at 127ºC. If the half life of reaction is 20 min, then the correct
information(s) related with reaction is/are : (R = 0.082L-atm K–1mol–1)
(A) Ptotal = 1.7 atm after long time
(B) Ptotal = 0.98 atm after 10% decomposition of A(g)
(C) Ptotal = 0.88 atm after 5% decomposition of A(g)
(D) Ptotal = 1.3 atm at t = 20 min

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CHEMISTRY
52. Which of the following reaction(s) has/have been mentioned with incorrect products
normal
(A) CrSO4(s) 
heating
 CrO(s) + SO2(g) + SO3(g)

Room temp . 1
(B) Fe3+ (aq) + 3CN–(aq)     Fe(CN)2 + (CN)2
2
Room temp .
(C) AuCl3 + SnCl2(excess)     Au + SnCl4
Normal
(D) Cu(OH)2.CuCO3(s) Heating
  Cu + CO (g) + H O + O (g)
2 2 2

53. Select incorrect statement(s) :


(A) In K-shell electron capture process X-rays emission also takes place.
(B) In successful (n, ) type reactions isobars are formed.
(C) The resulting element will be in 15th group, due to emission of 3-particles in succession from an alkaline
earth metal.
(D) In – emission process one neutron is converted into proton.

54. Which ether can not be prepared by Williamson ether synthesis.

O O O O
(A) (B) (C) (D)

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CHEMISTRY
55. Select correct statement(s) for given Lewis acid-base interaction
warm
B2H6 + CO  Adduct

(A) CO exhibits weaker donor ability with B2H6


(B) Bond order of CO in the formed adduct is greater than bond order of free CO molecule
(C) B2H6 undergoes symmetrical cleavage due to strong donor ability of CO
(D) Bond order of (B–C) bond in the formed adduct is one

56. In which reactions final product is ketone :


NaNH2 CH3 –  HgSO 4
(A) CH3 – C  C–H    (a)    (b)    (c)
H2SO 4

NaNH2 CH3 – CH2 –  Hg( OAc ) , H O


(B) H – C  C – H    (c)     (d)   22– (e)
NaBH 4 , HO

O
|| NaOH CH – I
(C) R – C – OH   (a)  3
 (b)
(1) BH3 :THF
NaNH2 CH – I ( 2) H2O 2 / HO
(D) 1-butyne   (a)  3
 (b)    (c)

57. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true ?


(A) Work appears at the boundary of system and depends upon the initial and final state of the system.
(B) Internal energy of system is an extensive property.
(C) Heat capacity is an intensive property.
(D) The volume of a closed system is always constant.

58. Which of the following compound on heating gives amphoteric oxide and coloured paramagnetic gas.
(A) BeSO4 (B) Pb(NO3)2 (C) SnC2O4 (D) ZnCO3

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - III
Matrix - Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to
be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are
labelled P, Q, R, S and T. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have
to be darkened as illustrated in the following example :
If the correct matches are A – Q, S and T; B – Q and R; C – P and Q; and D – S and T; then the correct
darkening of bubbles will look like the following.
P Q R S T
A P Q R S T

B P Q R S T

C P Q R S T

D P Q R S T

59. Column-I Column-II


(Ligands) (Characteristics of ligands)
(A) Gly (P) Unsymmetrical didentate ligand
(B) trien (Q) Forms five membered ring(s) with central metal atom/ion
(C) bcac (R) Denticity of ligand is greater than two
(D) H2EDTA2– (S) All donor atoms of ligand are of same element
(T) Denticity of ligand decreases as pH of its medium decreases

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CHEMISTRY

60. Column-I Column-II


Br2
(A) CCl4 (P) Electrophilic addition reaction

NaI
(B) Acetone (Q) Free-radical substitution
Br

HBr
(C) CCl4 (R) Nucleophilic substitution reaction

NBS
(D) (S) Racemic mixture as product

(T) DIastereomer as products

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DATE : 21-05-17 CODE - A
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

B. Question paper format :


9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry).
Each part has 3 sections.

10. Section I contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is an


integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the
ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section.

11. Section II contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.

12. Section III contains 2 questions. Each questions has four statements (A, B, C and D)
given in Column I and five statements (P, Q, R, S and T) in Column II. Any given
statement in Column I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s)
given in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the
statements given in Q and R, then for that particular question, against statement B,
darken the bubbles corresponding to Q and R in the ORS.

C. Marking Scheme :
13. For each question in Section-I, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened.
No negative marks will be awarded for in this Section.

14. For each question in Section-II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened
only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. In all other cases, minus two (–2) mark will be awarded.

15. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in
which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer and zero
mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be
awarded. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks.
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DATE : 21-05-17 CODE - A

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REVIEW TEST–2 (MEGA PHASE-I COURSE-2018)


JEE Advance (Paper-2)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 240
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions. The booklet has
32 pages.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and
on the back page (page no. 32) of this booklet.

3. The question paper contains 5 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and VA
Roll No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 32) of this booklet.

6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided


separately.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

8. Do not open the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.

B. Question paper format  Read the instructions printed on the back page

C. Marking scheme  (page no. 32) of this booklet.
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.

.......................................................... ............................................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator

USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, g = 10 m/s2 , B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Ne = 20, Na = 23,
Mg = 24, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Ar = 40 , Ti = 48, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.5, Br = 80, Mo = 96, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, U = 238
PART I : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

1. Find the number of solution(s) of the equation log[x] (5 – [x]) = |x – 4|, where [·] denotes greatest integer
function.

2. If 15x + 8y = 34 ; find minimum value of x2 + y2.

3. Let 'O' be the origin and OA and OB be two perpendicular chords of equal length of the circle
(x – 1)2 + (y + 2)2 = 5. If m1 and m2 be the slopes of there perpendiculars chords and m12 + m22 = .
Find []. (where [·] denotes greatest integer function)

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MATHEMATICS
4. Let A be 3 × 3 matrix and has entries either 1 or –1. Let M be the set of all matrices such that the product of
elements of any row or column is –1.

 1 –1 1 
 
For example  1 1 – 1 is an element of M and number of elements in set M is p.
 – 1 1 1 

3 – 2 3
  p
Let B  2 – 2 3 and trace of the matrix adj(adj B) is q then find the value of .
q
0 – 1 1

5. Find the number of integral values of  for which the equation x26 + (k2 + 2k –  – 3)x6 + x4 + 3 = 0 has no
real solution for all real values of k.

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MATHEMATICS
6. If 'p' be a positive integer and f be a function defined for positive reals and attains only positive values such
that f(x f(y)) = xpy4 then find the value of p.

7. The two adjacent sides of a cyclic quadrilateral are 2 and 5 and the angle between them is 60º. If the third
side is 3, then find the length of remaining fourth side.

8. Find the number of points in (–5, 5) in which the function f(x) = x sin ([x]4 – 5[x]2 + 4) is discontinuous.

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - II
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

cos ec 2 x
9.  cot 99
x  cot x
dx

1 1
(A) – ln(1 + cot–98 x) + c (B) ln(1 + cot–98 x) + c
98 98

1 1
(C) ln(1 + cot x) + c (D) ln(1 + cot–98 x) + c
99 99

 2  3
10. If f '() = sin2 |cos |   R and f    1 – then the value of lim – f( ) is
3
  8 
3
2

1 4 2 2
(A) – (B) (C) (D) –
3 3 3 3

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MATHEMATICS
11. If lim [sin–1x + cos–1x + tan–1x] does not exist, then sum of the all possible values of 'a' equals :
x a

(where [·] denotes greatest integer function)

– sin 3 – sin 2 – sin1 – sin 1 . sin 2


(A) sin1 sin 2 (B) sin1 . sin 3 (C) sin 2 . sin 3 (D)
sin 3

ex  
12. Let g be the inverse function of f ( x )  ; x   0,  . If g(2 sec ) = , then g'(2sec ) equals
cos x  2

 
2 sin  ln 2 
  cos 2 (ln 2) 2
cos (ln 2) 4 
(A) 2 2 sin  ln 2  (B) (C) (D)
4      cos 2 (ln 2)
2 sin  ln 2  2 2 sin  ln 2 
 4  4 

13. The equation x2 + bx + c = 0 has distinct roots. If 2 is subtracted from each root the result are the reciprocal
of the original roots, then the value of b2 + c2 equals
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

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MATHEMATICS

x2 – x d –1
14. Let f ( x )  ; then (f ( x )) equals
x 2  2x dx

–3 3 1 –1
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D)
(1 – x ) (1 – x ) (1 – x ) (1 – x )2

15. If A = [aij] be a square matrix of even order such that [aij] = i2 – j2, then which of the statement is necessarily
true?
(A) A is a symmetric matrix (B) A is a skew-symmetric matrix
(C) A is a skew-symmetric matrix such that |A| = 0 (D) None of these

e x ( x – 1)( x – ln x )
16.  x2
dx equals

x  x – ln x  x  x – ln x  1  x  x – ln x  x  x – ln x – 1 
(A) e  c (B) e  c (C) e  c (D) e  c
 x   x   x2   x 

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE
is/are correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 18


Let f and g are two linear functions such that f(x – 1) = 2x – 3 + g(1) – f(1) and g(x – 1) = 4x + 5 – g(1) – f(1)
for all real number x.

cos ec x
 g(x) 
17. The value of lim   equals
x 0  f(x) 

(A) 1 (B) e (C) e2 (D) e4

f ( x)  2 1
18. If   f (x ) – 1  f ( x )  1  g(x )  7   g( x)  11  dx  c – where h(x) is of the form ax2 + bx + c; then
h( x )
    1
 2  2  4  4 

(a + b + c) equals
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) None

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MATHEMATICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 19 to 20
If A and B are square matrices of same order such that |A| = |B| = 1 and A(adj A + adj B) = B.

19. The value of |A + B|


(A) –1 (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) 2

20. If B is orthogonal then AB–1 is


(A) B–1A (B) A–1B (C) BA–1 (D) B–1A–1

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PART II : PHYSICS
SECTION - I
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

21. A source S emitting sound of frequency 180 Hz is placed in front of a wall at a distance of 2m from it. A
detector D is also placed in front of the wall at some distance from it. Find the minimum distance (in m)
between the source and the detector for which the detector detects a maximum of sound. Speed of sound in
air = 360 m/s.

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PHYSICS
1
22. A plank of mass 1 kg is kept on a smooth inclined plane. A block of mass kg on the plank, remains
3
stationary with respect to ground as the plank begins to move up the incline under force F. Initialy the block
was on end A. The block meets end B of the plank after 5 sec. Length of the plank is 50 meter. Find F in
Newton.
A

B
 =sin–1 (3/20)
F

23. A ball of mass 1 kg is released from position A inside a wedge with a hemispherical cut of radius 0.5 m as
shown in the figure. Find the force exerted by the vertical wall OM on wedge, when the ball is in position B.
5 3 
(neglect friction everywhere). If this force  x Newton. Find x :
 2 
 
M
A C
60º

N
O

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PHYSICS
24. A parallel beam of light is incident on the upper part of a prism of angle 1.8º and R.I. 3/2. The light coming out
of the prism falls on a concave mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm. The distance of the point, where the rays
4x
are focused after reflection from the mirror, from the principal axis is about cm . Find x. ( = 3.14)
100

///
///
/////// //////////
Radius of curvature = 20 cm

//
///
25. A thin converging lens is arranged between a small illuminated object & a screen so that an image of the
object of linear magnification 3 is formed on a screen. The object and the screen are then 64 cm apart. A thin
biconcave lens is then placed between the converging lens & the screen so that the lenses are coaxial & 6
cm apart. To restore a sharply focussed image on the image screen, the object was moved away from the
converging lens through a distance of 14 cm. If the focal length (magnitude) of the biconcave lens is 7x cm,
find x.

26. In a two slit experiment with monochromatic light, fringes are obtained on a screen placed at some distance
from the slits. If the screen is moved by 5 × 10–2 m towards the slits, the change in fringe width is 3 × 10–5.
If the distance between the slits is 10–3 m, calculate the wavelength of the light used, (in throusand Å).

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PHYSICS
27. A wedge of mass M is placed on a smooth horizontal x-z plane as shown in the figure. On the rough inclined

surface of the wedge a block of mass m is placed. By applying a force F  –Fk, ˆ it is desired to just start
relative motion between the wedge and the block. Given  = 2tan, find the minimum value of F.
1 3
(M = 1kg, m = kg, sin = )
10 11

x
 F

28. A circular tube of mass M is placed vertically on a horizontal surface as shown in the figure. Two small
spheres, each of mass m, just fit in the tube are released from the top. If  gives the angle between radius
vector of either ball with the vertical, obtain the value of the ratio m/M if the tube breaks its contact with
ground when  = 60º. Neglect any friction.

mm

M

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PHYSICS
SECTION - II
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
29. A mass M attached to a spring oscillates with a period of 2 sec. If the mass is increased by 2kg, the period
increases by one second. Find the initial mass M (in kg) assuming that Hooke's law is obeyed.

8 7
(A) kg (B) kg (C) 1 kg (D) None
5 5

30. A sonometer wire resonates with a given tuning fork forming standing waves with five antinodes between the
two bridges when a mass of 9 kg is suspended from the wire. When this mass is replaced by a mass M, the
wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for the same positions of the bridges.
The value of M is
(A) 25 kg (B) 5 kg (C) 12.5 kg (D) 1/25 kg

31. In a resonance tube experiment to determine speed of sound, air column in the pipe is made to resonate with
a given tuning fork of frequency 480 Hz. The diameter of the pipe is 5 cm and it is open at one end.
The smallest resonating length is observed to be 16 cm. Calculate the speed of sound (in m/s) from the given
experimental data. This speed is (345 – x) m/sec. Find x
(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 11 (D) 13

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PHYSICS
32. A triangular prism of glass is inside water. A ray, incident normally, on one of the faces, is totally reflected
4
from face BC. Then the minimum refractive index of glass is (RI of water = )
3

A C

45°

B nW = 4/3

3 5 2 2 4 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 5 3

33. A large open tank has two holes in the wall. One is a square hole of side L at a depth y from the top and the
other is a circular hole of radius R at a depth 4 y from the top. When the tank is completely filled with water,
the quantities of water flowing out per second from both holes are the same. Then, R is equal to

L L
(A) (B) 2L (C) L (D)
2 2

34. Two identical soap bubbles, each of radius x, coalesce to form a bubble of radius y. If P be the atmospheric
pressure, and assuming that the process is isothermal, what is the surface tension of soap solution? (No air
comes from outside).

P[2x 3  y 3 ] P[2x 3  y 3 ] P[2x 3  y 3 ] P[x 3  y 3 ]


(A) (B) (C) (D)
4(y 2  2x 2 ) 4(y 2  2x 2 ) 4(y 2  2x 2 ) 4(y 2  2x 2 )

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PHYSICS
35. Two projectiles are thrown at the same time from two different point. The first projectile thrown from the origin
has initial velocity 3 î  3 ĵ with respect to earth. The second projectile has initial velocity a î  b ĵ with respect

to earth thrown from the point (10, 5). ( î is a unit vector along horizontal, ĵ along vertical). If the projectiles
collide after two second, then the
1 1
(A) Value of a is 2 (B) Value of a is (C) Value of b is (D) Value of b is –2
2 2

36. The maximum value of the block m2 for which the system will remain in equilibrium (coefficient of friction
between block m1 and plane surface is ), is m 1
m1 m1
(A)  (B)
2 2
(C)  m1 (D) 2 m1 m2

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PHYSICS
SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE
is/are correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 37 to 38


One way of measuring a person's body fat content is by "weighing" under water. This works because fat
tends to float on water as it is less dense than water. On the other hand muscle and bond tend to sink as
they are more dense. Knowing your "weight" under water as well as your real weight out of water, the
percentage of your body's volume that is made up of fat can easily be estimated. This is only an estimate
since it assumes that your body is made up of only two substances, fat (low density) and everything else
(high density). The "weight" is measured by spring balance both inside and outside the water. Quotes are
placed around weight to indicate that the measurement read on the scale is not your true weight, i.e. the
force applied to you body by gravity, but a measurement of the net downward force on the scale.

37. Ram and Shyam are having the same weight when measured outside the water. When measured under
water, it is found that weight of Ram is more than that of Shyam, then we can say that
(A) Ram is having more fat content than Shyam
(B) Shyam is having more fat content than Ram
(C) Ram and Shyam both are having the same fat content
(D) Data insufficient

38. A person of mass 165 kg having one fourth of his volume consisting of fat (relative density 0.4) and rest of the
volume consisting of everything else (average relative density 4/3) is weighed under water by the spring
balance. The reading shown by the spring balance may be.
(A) 15 kg (B) 65 kg (C) 150 kg (D) None of these

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PHYSICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 40
The kinetic energy of any body depends on the frame of reference of the observer. The kinetic energy is given
2
by 1/ 2mv rel . Similarly the displacement of the object from different frames of reference will be different. But
the forces acting on the body remain unchanged. So work done by the forces as seen from different frames
will be different. But work energy theorem will still be hold in every inertial reference frame.
For example, if a block of mass 2 kg is moving with velocity of 1m/s towards east on a rough surface, its
1
KE   2  12  1 J
2
If it comes to rest, its KE = 0
Work done by friction = Kf – Ki = – 1 J
If we observe it from a frame 2 moving with 1 m/s toward east, its initial velocity will appear to be 1 – 1 = 0.
1 2
Initial KE   2  0  0
2
Final velocity = 0 – 1 = – 1
1 2
Final KE =  2  (1)  1J
2
 Work done by friction = 1 – 0 = 1J

39. According to passage :


(A) In 2nd frame, force of friction was opposite to displacement
(B) In 2nd frame, force of friction was in same direction as displacement
(C) In ground frame, force of friction is in same direction as the displacement
(D) None of the above

40. What should be the velocity of an observer so that he will report the work done by friction on the block to be
zero :

1 1
(A) m/s W (B) m/s E (C) 1 m/s W (D) 1 m/s E
2 2

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PART III : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

41. Which of the following non-classical ligand(s) use their -antibonding molecular orbital (*MO) in synergic
bonding.

CO, OH–, N2H4, PH3, N2, CH2 – CH  CH2 , en, pyridine, SO32 

42. Identify which compound give identical product by Oxymercuration-demercuration, Hydroboration-oxidation.

, , , , , , , ,

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CHEMISTRY
43. If the mean free path of a molecule of a Vanderwaal gas at 360 K (the Boyle’s temperature for the given gas)
& 1 atm is (z × 10–y). What is the value of (y + z)?
[Given : Excluded volume for the gas is 9.6 × 10–3 dm3 mol–1, NA = 6 × 1023, K = 1×10–23 J/k, 1 atm = 105 Pa]

44. Number of diastereomer of given compound :


CH3
H Cl
H Cl
H Cl
CH3

45. If EAN of central metal ion X3+ in non chelating complex is 35 and its atomic number of X is 28. The number
of monodentate ligand in complex is :

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CHEMISTRY
46. In which of following racemic mixture will be formed

H2
H2 Na
(i) Ni (ii) CH3–CC–CH3 (iii) CH 3–C C– CH3 Liq.NH3
O Pd-BaSO4

HBr HBr NBS


(iv) (v) (vi)
CCl4 peroxide

Br2 Cold KMnO 4


(vii) CCl4 (viii)

47. Give the number of species in which (C–O) bond order less than three.
[Fe(CO)5], [Sc(CO)6]3+, CO, CH3COCH3, CO2, Na2CO3, [Mn2(CO)10], [V(CO)6] , BF3•CO

48. A radioactive isotope ‘A’ undergoes two parallel type of decay, one by electron capture (to give B) & other by
-decay (to give C) with half live respectively as 2 × 109 years and 2.22 × 108 years. If mass ratio of A : B : C
is 10 : 3 : 32 in a mineral sample and age of the mineral is represented as (x × 10y) years. Then calculate the
 x  y
value of  ?
3 
[Given all the ‘C’ present in the mineral is not formed from the radioactive isotope “A”]

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - II
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
49. Identify correct order of nucleophilicity :
(A) F– > HO– > NH2– in H2O (B) F– > Cl– > Br– in H2O
– – –
O O COO

(C) > > in H2O (D) I– > Br– > Cl– > F– in DMSO

50. Hydrogen bond does not play dominant role in which of the following observation.
(A) Volume of water in solid state is greater than in liquid state, for fixed number of moles of H2O molecules.
(B) Ice has open cage like structure
(C) Volatility of C2H5OH decreases on dissolving it into water
(D) Bicarbonate of alkaline earth metal cations do not exist in solid state at room temperature

COOH
dil.KMnO4
COOH COOH (D)
51. dil.KMnO4
(C) ;
(A) (B) COOH
Relation between A & B, C & D respectively.
(A) Enantiomer, Enantiomer (B) Diasteromer, Enantiomer
(C) Enantiomer, Diasteromer (D) Diasteromer, Diasteromer

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CHEMISTRY
52. For chemical reaction : 2A + 2B  C + D
Following mechanism is proposed :
k1
A+B X ; fast
k2

X+A k3 Y + C ; Slow

B+Y k4 D ; fast
If activation energies Ea1 , Ea2, Ea3 & Ea4 are 30, 60, 80, 40 kJ/mol respectively, then the overall activation
energy (kJ/mol) for the reaction will be :
(A) 110 (B) 50 (C) 40 (D) 10

53. In which of the following complex compound (Cr – C) bond length is least
(A) [Cr(CO)6] (B) [Cr(en)(CO)4] (C) [Cr(trien)(CO)2] (D) [Cr(dien)(CO)3]

54. Assume that the decomposition of HNO3 is


4HNO3(g) 4NO2(g) + 2H2O(g) + O2(g)
and the reaction approaches equilibrium at 400 K and 30 atm pressure. At equilibrium the partial pressure of
HNO3 is 2 atm. Find Kc at 400 K (R = 0.08 L atm K–1 mol–1)
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 16 (D) 32

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CHEMISTRY
CH3

55. What are the products obtained on hydroboration-oxidation of the given alkene

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

H OH H OH
OH H OH H

CH3 CH3

(V) (VI)

H HO
OH H
(A) I and III (B) II and IV (C) II and VI (D) III and V

56. 20 ml of Na2S2O3 solution is required for complete reaction with 40 ml of 0.2 M I2 solution in acidic medium.
What volume of 0.5 M KMnO4 solution is needed to react completely with 30 ml of same stock solution of
Na2S2O3 in weakly basic medium where S2O32– converts into SO42– ?
(A) 32 ml (B) 64 ml (C) 77 ml (D) 128 ml

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE
is/are correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 57 to 58


Thermal stability of ionic compounds having polyatomic anion depends on the fact that to what extent the
anion has been polarized by associated metal cation in solid state. Therefore, when ionic compounds containing
polyatomic anion are heated then they firstly decompose and then on further heating formed product melt.
57. Consider thermal decomposition reaction :
T
PbCO3 (s)   X(s)  Y(g)

and select INCORRECT statement for given reaction


(A) Substance ‘X’ is coloured
(B) Substance ‘X’ is more basic than Ag2O
(C) Gas ‘Y’ reacts with Ca(OH)2 solution
(D) PbCO3 decomposes at relative lower temperature than BaCO3

58. Consider the following thermal decomposition reactions :


Normal
(i) AgNO3 (s) 
heating
 P  Q(g)  R(g)

Normal
(ii) Sn(NO3 )2 (s) 
heating
 ' X ' Q(g)

and select INCORRECT statement for given reactions :


(A) Gas ‘Q’ is mixed acid anhydride of nitrogen
(B) Both reactions (i) and (ii) are redox reactions
(C) Reducing character of compound ‘X’ is due to +2 oxidation state of tin
(D) Both gases ‘Q’ and ‘R’ are paramagnetic

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CHEMISTRY
Paragraph for Question Nos. 59 to 60
The order of reaction is an experimentally determined quantity. It may be zero, positive, negative or fractional.
The integrated equation of nth order reaction.

1  1 1 
k × t = n – 1 n–1
– n–1  .......(1)
 (a – x) a 

Half life of nth order reaction depends on the initial amount according to following relation.

1
t1/2  n–1 .......(2)
a

The differential rate law for nth order reaction (A  product)

dx
may be given as = k[A]n
dt

59. For the reacrtion.


2NOCl(g)  2NO(g) + Cl2(g)
In an experiment with an initial pressure at 0.35 atm, the gas was half decomposed in 75 sec. In an another
experiment, the gas was half decomposed in 175 sec. with an initial pressure at 0.15 atm what is the order
of reaction ?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3/2 (D) 2

60. Select correct option :

t1/2 t1/2 –dc


dt
(A) then t = 2t1/2 (B) then
a a time

1
(a–x) (a–x)
(C) then t1/2 × a = constant (D) then reaction is first order
time time

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DATE : 21-05-17 CODE - A

Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

B. Question paper format :


9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry).
Each part has 3 sections.

10. Section I contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is an


integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the
ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section.

11. Section II contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.

12. Section III contains 2 groups of questions. Each groups has 2 questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which one or more is/are correct.

C. Marking Scheme :
13. For each question in Section-I, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened.
No negative marks will be awarded for in this Section.

14. For each question in Section-II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened
only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. In all other cases, minus two (–2) mark will be awarded.

15. For each question in Section-III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened
only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. In all other cases, minus two (–2) mark will be awarded.
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DATE : 11-06-17 CODE - A

VIBRANT ACADEMY
(India) Private Limited
A-14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota-324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2423406, 2428666, 2428664, 2425407 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com

REVIEW TEST–3 (MEGA PHASE-I COURSE-2018)


JEE Mains
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 360
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 90 questions. The booklet has
32 pages.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and
on the back page (page no. 32) of this booklet.

3. The question paper contains 4 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and VA
Roll No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 32) of this booklet.

6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided


separately.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

8. Do not open the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.

B. Question paper format  Read the instructions printed on the back page

C. Marking scheme  (page no. 32) of this booklet.
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.

.......................................................... ............................................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator

USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, g = 10 m/s2 , B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Ne = 20, Na = 23,
Mg = 24, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Ar = 40 , Ti = 48, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.5, Br = 80, Mo = 96, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, U = 238
PART I : MATHEMATICS
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. E is a point on altitude AD of ABC. If AB = 6, AC = 9 and BE = 2, then the value of CE is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) None of these

sin x  sin 2x  sin 3 x sin 2x sin 3 x /2


2. f(x) = 3  4 sin x 3 4 sin x ; then the value of  f (x ) dx is :
1  sin x sin x 1 0

1 1 1
(A) 1 (B) (C) (D)
2 3 6

b
3. The value of 
a
( x – a) (b – x ) dx is :

  
(A) (b – a)2 (B) (b – a ) 2 (C) (b – a ) 2 (D) (b – a ) 2
2 4 8

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MATHEMATICS
1
4. If f(x) = sinx + cosx + tanx + cotx + secx + cosecx ; then the value of  1  f(x) dx is

1 3  sin x  cos x 1  2 tan x  1


(A) ln  tan1    c
2 3 3  sin x  cos x 3  3

1 3  sin x  cos x 1  2 tan x  1


(B) ln  tan1    c
2 3 3  sin x  cos x 3  3

1 3  sin x  cos x 1  2 tan x  1


(C) ln  tan1    c
2 3 3  sin x  cos x 3  3

(D) None of these

 
2 4
5. The value of  e x 1  2x  2x 2  4x 3  4x 4 e x dx is


(A) e x
2
 x4
  2x  1  c 
(B) e x
2
 x4
  x  1  c 
(C) e
x 2
 x4
  2x  1  c (D) None of these

dx
6. The value of  (x  1)(x  2)(x  3)(x  4) is

1  (x  1)3 (x  3)  1  (x  1)3 (x  3) 
(A) ln  (B) ln 
6  (x  4)(x  2)3  6  (x  4)3 (x  2) 

1  (x  1)(x  3)3 
(C) ln  (D) None of these
6  (x  4)(x  2)3 

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MATHEMATICS

7. If f(x)  x  2 2x  4  x  2 2x  4 ; then the value of f(4) is

1 1
(A) (B)  (C) 0 (D) Non existant
2 2

dx
8. If y  x  x  x  x  ......... and z  y  y  y  y  ....... ; then the value of is
dz
(A) (2z + 1)(2y-1) (B) (2z – 1)(2y + 1) (C) (1 + 2y)(1 – 2z) (D) (1 – 2y)(1 – 2z)

d2 y
9. If y = sinx and z = cosx ; then the value of is
dz 2
(A) tan2x (B) sec4x (C) cosec3x (D) – cosec3x

sin(3x  a)  3 sin(2x  a)  3 sin(x  a)  sina


10. The value of lim is
x 0 x3
(A) sina (B) –sina (C) cosa (D) –cosa

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MATHEMATICS
11. Number of points of non-differentiability of the function f(x) = ||x – 1| + |x – 2| + |x – 3| – 4| are
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8

12. If x2 + y2 + z2 = 1; where x, y, z are all positive real numbers, then the greatest value of x2y3z4 is
(A) 25 × 3–9/2 (B) 25 × 3–6 (C) 25 × 3–15/2 (D) 25 × 39

13. Let a, b, c be non zero real numbers such that a + b + c = 0 and a3 + b3 + c3 = a5 + b5 + c5 ; then the
value of (a2 + b2 + c2) is

1 3 6 8
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 5 5 5

14. Number of non negative integral solutions to the system of equations x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 = 20 and
x1 + x2 + x3 = 5
(A) 10626 (B) 336 (C) 21 (D) 16

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MATHEMATICS
n
1
15. The value of nlim


k 1 (k  1) k  k k  1
is

1 1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) 1
3 2 3

 
16. Let f : (– , 0]  0,  be defined as f(x) = tan–1 (x2 + x + a), then the set of values of a for which f(x) is onto,
 2

is ___________.

1   1
(A)  ,  (B) [4, ) (C)  –,  (D) None of these
4   4

n n
4
17. Let Sn   r 4 , then  (2r  1)
r 1
is given by
r 1

(A) S2n – 8Sn (B) S4n – 24S2n (C) S2n – 16Sn (D) None of these

18. Let function 'f' be defined from set A to set B, where A = B = {1, 2, 3, 4}. If f(x) x, where x  A, then total
number of functions which are surjective is given by
(A) 12 (B) 10 (C) 9 (D) 8

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MATHEMATICS

i  j 2
19. Let A = [aij]10 × 10 be a matrix for which aij = 2i3 + ij – 2i2j + 
4   sin (i  j) , where [] represents greatest
 

integer function, then trace(A) is equal to _____


(A) 420 (B) 400 (C) 410 (D) 500

1  26  36  46  .........  n6
20. lim is
n n8

1 1
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D) None of these
6 7

100 sin x  100 tan x 


21. lim    m and lim    n where [] denotes greatest integer function then :
x 0
 x  x 0
 x 

(A) m = n (B) m + n = 200 (C) n – m = 1 (D) None of these

 x
 2 ; x0
22. If f(x)   2x  | x | , then f(x) is :
 1 ; x  0

(A) Differentiable at x = 0 (B) Discontinuous at x = 0


(C) Continuous but not differentiable at x = 0 (D) f(0+) = – 1

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MATHEMATICS
23. Let f(x) = |sinx| + |cosx|. No. of points where f is non-differentiable in (– 2, 2) is ...........
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

f (0) f n (0)
24. If f(x) = (1 + x)n, then the value of f(0) + f (0) +  ........  is
2! n!
(A) n (B) 2n (C) 2n – 1 (D) None of these

x 3 dx
25. Let f(x) =  1  x2
and f  2   0 , then
2 1 2
(A) f  5  6 (B) f(–1) =
3
(C) f(0) =
3
(D) f(1) 
3

 1 1  2x 2 
x
26. The value of integral  e  2
  dx is equal to
 1 x (1  x 2 )5 

   1 x 
1 x x
(B) e    c
x
(A) e    c 2
 1 x
2
(1  x 2 )3   1 x (1  x 2 )3 

 1 x 
x
(C) e  2
  c (D) None of these
 1 x (1  x 2 )5 

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MATHEMATICS
dx
27. If x 2
 2 x  1
 K.f(x)  c then f(x) is ______. (Where K and c are constants)

(A) Logarithmic function (B) Inverse tangent function


(C) Algebraic function (D) Tangent function

x
ee x
28. e .e e .e x .dx is equal to

ex

ex ee
x ee ex
(A) x c (B) e .(log10 e)  c3
(C) c (D) ee  c
(log10 e)3

dx  x  x
29. If  (x 2
 K.tan1    L.tan1    c , then
 4)(x 2  9)  2  3

1 1 1 1
(A) K   (B) L  (C) K  (D) L  
10 3 5 15

f(x)
30. Let f(x) be a function satisfying f(x) – f(x) = 0 and f(0) = 3. Then  4  5f(x) dx is equal to _______.

1 1 1
(A) ln(4  5e x )  c (B) ln(4  15e x ) + c (C) ln(4  5e x )  c (D) None of these
5 5 4

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PART II : PHYSICS
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. A particle moves in a circle from O to A through C with an average velocity B
of magnitude v 1 and from A to B with an average velocity of magnitude v 2.
D
Then the magnitude of average velocity of the particle for the path OCADB

v12 sin  v 22 sin  O A
(A) (B)
v1 cos   v 2 v 2 cos   v1

v1v 2 sin  C
(C) v cos   v (D) None of these
1 2

32. A body has maximum range R1 when projected up the inclined plane. It has the maximum range R2 when
projected down the plane with same speed as in first case. Then which of the following is maximum range (R)
for it when projected at certain angle with the horizontal ground and with same speed as in previous two
cases?
R1R2 2R1R2
(A) R = R1 + R2 (B) R = R2 – R1 (C) R = R  R (D) R = R  R
1 2 1 2

a
33. A body of mass m is moving with acceleration towards left relative to the trolley car. An observer acceler-
3
a
ates towards left with acceleration (relative to trolley). Car is moving rightward with acceleration a. What
3
is the pseudo force on body as observed by observer?
Observer y
a a
3 m 3
x
car a

2ma ma 2ma
(A) î (B) î (C) zero (D) î
3 3 3

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PHYSICS
34. If the coefficient of friction between all surfaces is 0.4, then what is the minimum force F to have equilibrium
of the system. (Take g = 10 m/s2)

25 kg 15 kg F

(A) 62.5 (B) 31.25 (C) 93.75 (D) None of the above

35. A semicircular path is shown in the diagram. A particle is taken along the path OAB. B is at (4, 0). If applied
 
force F is given by F  (xy 2 )iˆ  (x 2 y)j,
ˆ what is the work done by the force?

Take force in Newton and displacement in meter:


y

x
O B
(4, 0)

35 75 83
(A) J (B) J (C) J (D) None
3 2 2

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PHYSICS
36. Interactive Potential energy U and distance of separation (r) between two particles have relation as shown in
the graph. Which of the following statements are correct

U
A E

B D
r
C
(i) B and D are equilibrium points
(ii) C is point of stable equilibrium
(iii) the force of interaction between the two particles is attractive between points C and B and
repulsive between D and E.
(iv) The force of interaction between the particles is repulsive between C and A.
(A) (i) & (iii) (B) (i) & (iv) (C) (ii) & (iv) (D) (ii) & (iii)

37. It is required to hold equal charges 'q' in equilibrium at corners of a square. What charge when placed at the
center of the square will do this ?

q q q q
(A) – (1  2 2) (B) (1  2 2) (C) (1  2 2) (D) – (1  2 2)
2 2 4 4

38. Given that


q1 = 2C (sign not known)
q2 = unknown charge
q3 = + 4C
It is known that net force on q3 is in negative x-direction then the magnitude of force acting on q3 is :

F q3

3

cm
cm

4
 q2
q1 5 cm

(A) 25.24 N (B) 32.5 N (C) 56.25 N (D) None of these

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PHYSICS
39. A particle executing SHM has velocities 'u' and 'v' and accelerations (magnitude) 'a' and 'b' in two positions.
Then the distance between these two positions is :

u2 – v 2 v 2  u2 v 2  u2 v 2 – u2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
ab a–b ab a–b

40. A uniform semi-circular ring having mass m and radius 'r' is hanging at one of its ends freely (as shown in
figure). The ring is slightly disturbed so that it oscillates in its own plane. Then the time period of oscillation
of the ring is :

2r r r
(A) 2 1/ 2 (B) 2 1/ 2 (C) 2 1/ 2 (D) Noneof these
 4   4   2 
g 1  2  g1 – 2  g1 – 2 
        

41. If the maximum speed of a particle on a travelling wave is V0, then find the speed of a particle when the
displacement is half of the maximum value

V0 3 V0 3 V0
(A) (B) (C) (D) V0
2 4 2

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PHYSICS
 15 
42. Due to a point istropic sonic source, loudness at a point is L = 60 dB. If density of air is  =   Kg/m3 and
 11 
velocity of sound in air is V = 330 m/s, the pressure oscillations amplitude at the point of observation is
[I0 = 10–12 W/m2 is minimum intensity]
(A) 0.3 N/m2 (B) 0.03 N/m2 (C) 3 × 10–3 N/m2 (D) 3 × 10–4 N/m2

43. Two organ pipes, both closed at one end have lengths L and (L + L). Neglect end correction. If the velocity
of sound is V. then number of beats/sec is (L << L) (Consider fundamental mode of both) :

V V V V
(A) (B) 2
L (C) (D) L
4L 4L 2L 2L2

44. A block of wood is floating in water in a closed vessel as shown in figure. The vessel is connected to an air
pump. When more air is pushed into the vessel the block of wood floats with

(A) larger part in water (B) smaller past in water


(C) same part in water (D) at some time it will sink

45. A drop of water of volume V is pressed between the two glass plates so as to spread in an area A. If T is the
surface tension, then the normal force required to separate the glass plates is :

TA 2 2TA 2 4TA 2 TA 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
V V V 2V

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PHYSICS
46. A vessel filled with air under pressure P0 contains a soap bubble of diameter D. The air pressure have been
reduced n times then the bubble diameter increased r times isothermally. What is the surface tension of
soap water solution.

 2 
r3 1 – n 
1 1  1  r 
n  
(A) T = PD (B) T = P0D
8 0 r2 – 1 8 1 – n2

1 r 2 – n2
(D) T = P0D (D) None of these
8 1– r 2

47 A body of density  is dropped from rest from a height h into a take of density , where > . Which of the
following statements for the body is correct if all dissipative effects are neglected?
(A) The speed of the body just entering the lake is 2 gh.
h
(B) The maximum depth to which body sinks in the lake is (  ) .

 
(C) The body experiences upward acceleration g   1

(D) The body does not come back to the surface of the lake.

48. The refracting angle of a prism is A and refractive index of the material of prism is cot(A/2). The angle of
minimum deviation will be
(A) 180o – 3A (B) 180o + 3A (C) 90o – 3A (D) 180o –2A

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PHYSICS
49. The figure shows a concavo - convex lens of material of refractive index 2. What is the condition on the
refractive indices so that the lens is diverging?

2R
1 3

2

(A) 23 < 1 + 2 (B) 23 > 1 + 2 (C) 3 > 2(1 – 2) (D) None of these

50. The lateral magnification of the lens with an object located at two different positions u1 and u2 are m1 and m2
respectively. Then the focal length of the lens is

u2  u1 u2  u1
(A) f = m1m2 (u2 – u1) (B) f = m1m2 (u2 – u1) (C) m2m1 (D) (m )1  (m )1
2 1

51. A plano convex glass lens (= 3/2) of radius of curvature R = 10 cm is placed at a distance of b from a
concave lens of focal length 20 cm. Then the distance 'a' of point O from the plano convex lens so that
position of final image is independent of b is

a b

(A) 20 cm. (B) 10 cm (C) any value (D) None of these

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PHYSICS
52. A thin biprism of obtuse angle 178° is placed at a distance  = 20 cm from a slit. Images are formed then
what is the separation between the images? (Approx). Refractive index of material of prism is  = 1.6
(A) 8 mm (B) 4 mm (C) 2 mm (D) Images coincide

53. Two coherent sources of light of intensity ratio  produce interference pattern. What would be the value of

Imax  Imin
Imax  Imin ?

2 2   
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1   1  1  1

54. A soap bubble ( = 1.33) is floating in air. If the thickness of the bubble wall is 115 nm, then the wavelength
of light most strongly reflected is equal to
(A) 612 nm (B) 306 nm (C) 918 nm (D) None of these

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PHYSICS
55. Two coherent sources emit light of wavelength , separation between them d = 4. The dectector moves
along the y-axis. What is the maximum number of minima observed?
y

S1

x
d
S2 dsin = x

D
D>>d

(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) None of the above

56. A beam of light linearly polarized along a line 'L' in xy plan is travelling in the z-direction. It passes through a
polarizer. When the transmission axis of the polarizer is along x-axis, you find that the intensity of light
emerging from polarizer is 3 I. Further when the transmission axis of the polarizer is in the y-direction,
intensity of light emerging from polarizer is I. What is the angle between the line L and x-axis?
(A) 0° (B) 30° (C) 45° (D) 60°

57. The figure shows an L-shaped tube filled with a liquid to a height H. What should be the horizontal acceleration
'a' of the tube so that the pressure at the point A becomes atmospheric

a
H

A
L

L  H
(A) a = g (B) a  g   (C) a  g   (D) Data insufficient
 H L

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PHYSICS
58. The kinetic energy of a particle continuously increases with time. Then correct statements are
(i) The resultant force on the particle must be parallel to the velocity at all instants
(ii) The resultant force on the particle must be at an angle less than 90° with velocity all the times
(iii) It height above the ground level must continuously decrease.
(iv) The magnitude of its linear momentum is increasing continously.
(A) (ii) and (iv) (B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (C) (i) and (iii) (D) None of these

59. The plane progressive wave is given by x = 40 cm cos(50t – 0.02y), where y is in cm and t in seconds.
1
The velocity of the particle at y = 25cm at time t  sec is
200
(A) 10  2 m/s (B) 100 2 m/s (C) 40 cm/se (D) None of the above

60. What can be the equation of SHM in the situation depicted

Start
x = –A x=0 x=A

 3   3 
(A) x = Acos(t) (B) x = Asin  t   (C) x = Acos  t   (D) x = 2Acost
2 2

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PART III : CHEMISTRY
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. Excess AgNO3 solution was added to 100 ml of 0.1 M solution of CoBr3xNH3 and 0.02 moles yellow
coloured precipitate was obtained, then the correct formula of the given complex compound is :
(A) [CoBr2(NH3)4]Br (B) [CoBr(NH3)5]Br2 (C) [Co(NH3)6]Br2 (D) [CoBr2(NH3)4]Br.NH3

62. Product of the following reaction is


OH

C2H5I
C2H5O–, anhy. C2H5OH

(A) C6H5OC2H5 (B) C2H5OC2H5 (C) C6H5OC6H5 (D) C6H5I

63. In the shown diagram, three identical containers holds methane, oxygen and SO2 gas in the mass ratio of
4 : 2 : 1 respectively, but at the same temperature. The pressures exerted by CH4 : O2 : SO2 are in the ratio
of

CH4 O2 SO2

(A) 1 : 2 : 4 (B) 1 : 1 : 1 (C) 3 : 5 : 15 (D) 16 : 4 : 1

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CHEMISTRY
64. Which of the following complex compound has maximum value of molar conductance in aqueous medium
(A) Sodium dicyanidoargentate(I) (B) Tetraamminecopper(II) sulphate
(C) Hexaamminecobalt(III) bromide (D) Potassium tetraiodidomercurate(II)

65. If we want to prepare a buffer solution using pyridine (C5H5N, Kb = 2 × 10–9) and pyridinium chloride (C5H5NHCl),
its pH would be in the approximate range
(A) 7.7 to 9.7 (B) 4.3 to 6.3 (C) 2.9 to 4.9 (D) 9.3 to 11.3

66. An SN2 reaction at an asymmetric carbon of a compound always gives


(A) an enantiomer of the substrate. (B) a product with opposite optical rotation.
(C) a mixture of diastereomers. (D) a single stereoisomer.

67. Which of the following complex ion / compound is low spin complex
(A) [Cr(CO)6] (B) [Zn(CN)4]2– (C) [Sc(NH3)6]2+ (D) [CoF6]3–

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CHEMISTRY
68. HBr reacts fastest with
(A) 2-methyl propan-2-ol (B) propan-1-ol
(C) propan-2-ol (D) 2-methyl propan-1-ol

69. For a first order process: A  P, the ratio of half-life to average life is equal to
(A) k (B) 1/k (C) ln 2 (D) ln 3

70. Which of the following metal doesnot form dinuclear metal carbonyl
(A) Mn (B) Co (C) Fe (D) Zn

71. Structure of the product in the following reaction:


Br
H Ph NaI
Me H acetone
Ph

I I
H Ph Ph H
(A) Me H (B) Me H
Ph Ph
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Substitution is not possible

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CHEMISTRY
72. A system undergoes a 3-step process. In step 1, 25 J of work is done by the system as its internal energy
(U) decreases by 50J. In step 2, w = –15 J and q = +40J. In step 3 at constant volume the system gives off
50J of heat to the surroundings. What is the net internal energy change in J as a result of these three steps?
(A) –50 (B) –75 (C) –125 (D) +100

73. Select CORRECT IUPAC name


(A) [CoBr(NH3)5]Br2 : Pentaamminebromidocobalt(III) dibromide
(B) [Ir(SCN)(H2O)(en)2]2+ : Aquabis(ethylenediamine)thiocyanato-S-irridium(III) ion
(C) [Cu(trien)][PtCl4] : Triethylenetetraminecopper(II) tetrachloridoplatinum(II)
(D) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 : Iron hexacyanidoferrate(II)

74. A solution of (+)-1-chloro-1-phenylethane in toluene racemises slowly in the presence of small amount of
SbCl5, due to the formation of
(A) Carbanion (B) Carbene (C) Free radical (D) Carbocation

75. In a reversible reaction, study of its mechanism says that both the forward and reverse reaction follows first
order kinetics.
If the half life of forward reaction (t1/2)f is 400 sec. and that of reverse reaction (t1/2)b is 250 sec. the equilibrium
constant of the reaction is
(A) 1.6 (B) 0.433 (C) 0.625 (D) 1.109

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76. A complex of certain metal cation has the magnetic moment 4.90 BM whereas another complex of the
same metal cation with same oxidation state has zero magnetic moment. The metal ion could be
(A) Co2+ (B) Mn2+ (C) Fe2+ (D) Fe3+

77. Which of the following has the highest nucleophilicity.


(A) F– (B) OH (C) CH 3 (D) NH2

78. 40% of a mixture of 0.2 mol of N2 and 0.6 mol of H2 reacts to give NH3 according to equation



N2(g) + 3H2(g) 
 2NH3(g)

at constant temperature and pressure then the ratio of the final volume to the initial volume of gases are
(A) 4 : 5 (B) 5 : 4 (C) 7 : 10 (D) 8 : 5

79. Which of the following species act as reducing agent?


(A) [Co(CO)4]– (B) [Mn(CO)6] (C) [Mn(CO)5] (D) [Cr(CO)6]

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CHEMISTRY
80. If 10 mol of carbon and 3 mol of O2(g) completely reacts to form CO(g), then total heat released at constant
volume at 300 K is
1
C(s) + O2(g)  CO(g) ; H = –110 kJ
2
[Given : R = 8 Jk–1 mol–1]
(A) –105.65 kJ (B) –108.75 kJ (C) –667.2 kJ (D) –112.45 kJ

81. Which of following is true for SNAr rate

Cl F F F

> >
(A) SNAr rate of (B) SNAr rate of

NO2 NO2 CH3 NO2

F F Cl Cl

NO2
> >
(C) SNAr rate of (D) SNAr rate of

NO2 NO2 NO2 CH3

82. For which of the following nonclassical complex compound, stretching frequency for CO bond is minimum
(A) [Cr(CO)3 ( – C6H6)] (B) [Cr(PF3)3 (CO)3]
(C) [Cr(CO)3 ( – C5H5)] (D) [Cr(dien) (CO)3]

83. The following ether, when treated with HI produces.

O – CH2 + HI

(A) CH2I (B) CH2–OH (C) I (D) Both A and C

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CHEMISTRY
84. Which of the following is correct ?
(A) In adiabatic compression the internal energy of a liquid decreases.
(B) In isochoric heating the internal energy of a liquid decreases.
(C) In adiabatic free expansion the internal energy of an ideal gas decreases.
(D) During expansion of an ideal gas there is no change in any type of potential energy.

85. Select CORRECT order among following


(A) BeCl2 < CO32– < XeF4 : Increasing % s-character in hybrid orbital.
(B) N(CH3)3 < N(SiH3)3 : Reactivity towards lewis acid.
(C) BeF2 < OF2 < OH2 : Order of dipole moment
(D) IOF3 > IO2F2– : I - O bond length

86. If 20% of the radioactive nuclei decayed after 1 day. The percentage of decayed nuclei after 2 days will be :
(A) 20 (B) 36 (C) 64 (D) 80

Br

87. CH3OH/Ag+

How many possible product.


(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 2

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CHEMISTRY
88. Which of the following compound is not organometallic compound
(A) [Fe(CO)5] (B) [Fe(-C5H5)2] (C) CaC2 (D) K[PtCl3(-CH2=CH2)]·H2O

89. Possible no. of monochlorinated product in Isopentane.


(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 7

90. Using the given graph showing concentration of reactants & products as a function of time for the reaction :
A4  4A
The time t, corresponds to :

[A]

Conc.
[A4]
t
time
(A) t1/2 (B) t1/3 (C) t1/4 (D) t1/5

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DATE : 11-06-17 CODE - A
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

B. Question paper format :


9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics).

10. Parts contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.

C. Marking Scheme :
11. For each question in Parts, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened only
the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.

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DATE : 02-07-17 CODE - A

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REVIEW TEST–4 (MEGA PHASE-I COURSE-2018)


JEE Advance (Paper-1)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 210
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions. The booklet has
28 pages.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and
on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet.

3. The question paper contains 2 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets
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5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and VA
Roll No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet.

6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided


separately.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

8. Do not open the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.

B. Question paper format  Read the instructions printed on the back page

C. Marking scheme  (page no. 28) of this booklet.
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.

.......................................................... ............................................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator

USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, g = 10 m/s2 , B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Ne = 20, Na = 23,
Mg = 24, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Ar = 40 , Ti = 48, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.5, Br = 80, Mo = 96, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, U = 238
PART I : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.


sin2 x
1. The value of 0 a2  2abcos x  b2 dx is

   
(A) ; if a  b  0 (B) ; if a  b  0 (C) ; if b  a  0 (D) ; if b  a  0
2a2 2b2 2a2 2b2


2. If I(n)   n(1  2ncos x  n2 )dx , then
0

I(1) I (2) I(3) I(1) I ( 2) I(3)


(A)  1 (B) 1
I( 1) I (2) I ( 3) I( 1) I (2) I ( 3)

I (1) I ( 2) I (3) 1 I ( 1) I (2) I ( 3) 1


(C)  (D) 
I (1)I (4) I (9) 8 I (1) I (4) I (9) 8

3. Let f(x) and g(x) be derivable functions satisfying the following equations :
(f'(x)–f(x)) g2(x) = g(x) + g'(x)
(g'(x) + g(x)) f 2(x) = f(x) – f'(x) ;  x  R

If f(0)  1  2 ;g(0)  1  2 , then

(A) f(x) is increasing function (B) g(x) is increasing function


(C) f(x) > 0  x  R (D) g(x) > 0  x  R

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MATHEMATICS
4. Consider the series
f(x) = 1 + 3sin2x + 5sin4 x ............
g(x) = cosx + cos 3x + cos 5x + ........ n terms ; then

2 tan3 x  
(A)  f(x)dx  tan x  c  x  (2n  1) 
3  2


2
1
(B) If I 2n   g(x)dx, then I14  I12 
0 13

cosec 2 x 3
g2 ( x ) 2
(C) lim(f(x))  en
x 0

(D) If x  [0, ] and n = 4, then equation g(x) = 0 has 7 solutions

5. If three 3 × 3 invertible matrices A, B, C are Indempotent, Involutary and Orthogonal matrices respectively,
then
(A) (ABC)–1 = (ABTC)T (B) |adj (2AB–1C)| = 8
(C) If (ABC)–1 = (CBA)–1 then BC = CB (D) adj (3A–1 BC–1) = 9 adj ((C(BT )–1A)T)

6. If f(x)  x  
x  x  1 , then

(A) f is continuous but not differnetiable at x = 0 (B) f is differentiable at x = 0


(C) f is not continuous at x = 0 (D) f is continuous at x = 0

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MATHEMATICS
 1 a  1 a
7. If x  tan   cos1  and y  tan   cos1  , (0 < a < b), then
 4 2 b   4 2 b

2b 2a 2 b2  a2 2 b2  a2
(A) x  y  (B) x  y  (C) x  y  (D) x  y 
a b a b

n
8. 
If 1  2   xn  yn 2 where xn, yn are integers and n  N, then

(A) x n2  2y n2  ( 1)n (B) xn + 2yn – xn + 1 = 0 (C) x n2  2y n2  1 (D) yn + 1 = xn + yn

9. Which of the following limits is/are equal to unity ?

1  e x  1  cos x
(A) xlim
 0
 (tan x)sinx  (sin x)tan x  (B) lim
x 0 sin x

 n 1 2 
1  k 
(C) lim([1 | x |]) |x|
where [.] denotes G..I.F (D) xlim  k 1  ,n  N
x 0   n 
2
 k 
 k 1 

10. If f : R  R be a function satisfying the functional rule f(x + f(y)) = f(x) + x + f(x – y),  x, y  R, then
(A) f(0) = 0 (B) |f(1) + f(2)| = 3 (C) |f(1) + f(2)| = 5 (D) |f(1) + f(–1)| = 2

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - II
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened.
For example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively,
then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

M(n) a  b
11. Let M(n) be the largest integer such that m c n 1  m1c n , and the value of xlim  ; where a, b, c are
 n c
natural numbers in their lowest form, then value of |a – b + c + 1| is

12. Let n = 211 323. The number of positive integer divisors of n2 which are less than n but do not divide n are 'N'
where N = 100 a + 10 b + c ; (a, b, c  N). The value of |a – b + c + 2| is

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MATHEMATICS
 1 1  1 b
13. The value of nlim n
  3n2  8n  4
 2  .........  upto n terms   log   ;
 3n  16n  16  a c 
where a, b, c are natural numbers in their lowest form, then the value of |a – b + c +3 | is

y
2x
dy b  c sin2 x  a b  c sin2 2x
14.  5  3 sin2 t dt   sin t dt  0 ; and  ; then the value of |a – b + c + 4| is
x 0
dx sin y

1
1007
x (1  x)1007 dx
15. Let N  22015 1
0
; then the number of divisors of N of the form (4n + 2), (n  N) is
1007 2016 1007
x
0
(1  x ) dx

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MATHEMATICS
16. The sum of distances of the point P lying inside the triangle formed by lines y = 0, 4x – 3y = 0, and

12
3x + 4y – 9 = 0 is , and the locus of P is ax – by = c ; then the value |a – b + c + 6| is
5

n
1   cna 
17. lim  (3k  3)  a!    ; where a, b, c  N in their lowest form, then the value of |a – b + c + 7| is
x 
k 0 c 3k b a b 

18. Two circles C1 and C2 both passes through the point A(1, 2) and E(2, 1), and touch the line 4x – 2y = 9 at B
and D respectively. The possible coordinates of a point C such that the quadrilateral ABCD is a parallelogram
is (a, b) then the value of 2|ab| is

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MATHEMATICS

sin x  cos x  2 a 3 5
19. If f(x)  is minimum at x  in  ,  , (where a and b are natural numbers in their
x b 4 4
lowest form) then the value of a + b is equal to

 3 0 2   2
20. Let A   1 x 5  ,B   b  and C = [3 5 1], then the sum of integral value(s) of b for which trace
 2 0 x 2   1

(ABC)  – 18  x  R is

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PART II : PHYSICS
SECTION - I
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
21. A body of mass 1 kg is taken from infinitey to a point P. When the body reaches that point, it has a speed of
2 ms–1. The work done by the consrvative force is –5J. Which of the following is true (assuming
non-conservative and pseudo forces to be absent)
(A) Work done by applied force is +7J
(B) The total mechanical energy possessed by the body at P is +7J
(C) The potential energy possessed by the body at P is +5J
(D) Work done by all forces together is equal to the change in kinetic energy

22. A box of mass 4kg placed on a horizontal floor, is acted upon by a horizontal force F that varies with time
t as shown in the given graph. If coefficients of static and kinetic frictions are 0.25, in which of the following
conclusion(s) can you arrive?

F/N
20

0 4 8
t(in sec.)

(A) The box starts moving at the instant t = 2.0 s.


(B) The maximum velocity acquired by the box is 5.0 m/s
(C) The box stops at the instant t = 9.0s
(D) Modulus of average power of the force F is more than that of the frictional force

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PHYSICS
 3
23. A point object is placed at 30 cm from a convex glass lens   g   of focal length 20 cm. The final image
 2
of object will be formed at infinity, if
(A) another concave lens of focal length 60 cm is placed in contact with the previous lens
(B) another convex lens of focal length 60 cm is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the first lens
4
(C) the whole system is immersed in a liquid of refractive index
3
9
(D) the whole system is immersed in a liquid of refractive index
8

24. A light wave of wavelength 0 propagates from point A to point B. We introduce in its path a glass plate of
refractive index n and thickness  . The introduction of the plate alters the phase of the point B by an angle
. If  is the wavelength of light in the plate, then

2 1 1 2
(A)  = 0 (B)    (C)   2      (D)     n  1
0  0 0

25. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the refraction of light from a plane surface when light
ray is (comes from) in denser medium. [C is critical angle]
(A) The maximum angle of deviation during refraction is (/2)–C, it will be at angle of incidence C.
(B) The maximum angle of deviation for all angles of incidence is –2C, when angle of incidence is slightly
greater than C
(C) If angle of incidence is less than C, then deviation increases if angle of incidence is also increased
(D) If angle of incidence is greater than C, then angle of deviation decreases if angle of incidence is increased.

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PHYSICS
26. Three simple harmonic waves identical in frequency n and amplitude A moving in the same direction are


superimposed in air in such a was, that the first, second and the third wave have the phase angles ,  
2
and ( + ) respectively at a given point P in the superposition. Then as the waves progresses, the superposition
will result in
(A) a periodic, non-simple harmonic wave of amplitude 3A
(B) a stationary simple harmonic wave of amplitude 3A
(C) A simple harmonic progressive wave of amplitude A
(D) The velocity of the superposed resultant wave will be the same as the velocity of each wave

27. In figure, a block of mass m is released from rest when spring was in its natural length. The pulley also has
mass m but it is frictionless. Suppose the value of m is such that finally it is just able to lift the block M up
after releasing it.
M Rod
(A) The weight of m required to just lift M is g
2
M String
(B) The tension in the string, when m has zero acceleration g
2

M
(C) The normal force acting on M when m has zero acceleration g
2
(D) The tension in the string when displacement of m is maximum possible is Mg

28. A particle is projected making an angle  to horizontal as shown in figure. u C


u 2 cos 2 
(A) Radius of curvature at highest point is
g 
A B
(B) Normal acceleration is same at A and B in magnitude
(C) Normal acceleration at A is gcos.
(D) Work done by gravity is zero from A to B.

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PHYSICS
29. A boat can travel at a speed of 3 m/s in still water. The speed of the river is 4 m/s, boatman starts from A. B
is a point directly across A on the opposite bank. Boat man wants to cross the river while covering the
shortest possible distance.

3
(A) the direction in which he must row the boat makes an angle   sin –1 , upstream with the line AB.
4
B
(B) The magnitude of resultant velocity of boat is 7 m/s
(C) The boat will reach point B. d
v1
(D) The boat will reach to a point which is on the right side of point B. A

30. We have two electric dipoles. Each dipole consists of two equal and opposite point charges at the ends of an
insulating rod of length d. The dipoles sit along the x-axis a distance r apart, oriented as shown in the figure.
Their seperation r >> d. The dipole on the left.

+ d – – +

(A) will feel a force to the left (B) will feel a force to the right
(C) will feel a torque trying to make it rotate counter clockwise. (D) will feel no torque

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PHYSICS
SECTION - II
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened.
For example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively,
then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

31. A block A of mass m is placed over a plank B of mass 2m. Plank B is placed over a smooth horizontal
surface. The coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.4. Block A is given a velocity v 0 towards right. Find
acceleration (in ms–2) of B relative to A.

A v0
B

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PHYSICS
32. A rod of length 6m has specific gravity  (= 25/36). One end of the rod is tied to a 5m long rope, which in turn
is tied to the floor of a pool 10 m deep, as shown. Find the length (in m) of the part of rod which is out of water.

FB

10m mg

5m

33. An open tank 10 m long and 2m deep is filled up to 1.5 m height of oil of specific gravity 0.82. The tank is
uniformly accelerated along its length from rest to a speed of 20 m/s horizontally. The shortest time in which
the speed may be attained without spilling any oil is t, then t/10 is

34. A ring of radius R has charge –Q distributed uniformly over it. If the charge (q) should be placed at the center
of the ring such that the electric field becomes zero at a point on the axis of the ring distance R from the

center of the ring, where the value of q is (Q/4) x . Find x.

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PHYSICS
35. The arrangement shown in the figure is at rest. An ideal spring of natural length 0 having spring cosntant
K = 220 Nm–1, is connected to block A. Blocks A and B are connected by an ideal string passing through a
frictionless pulley. The mass of each block A and B is equal to m = 2 kg when the spring was in antural
length, coefficient of of both surfaces is  = 0.25. If the maximum extension is 10x cm of the spring, the value
of x is (g = 10 ms–2)


a = 4i + 4j
y

A
m

Vertical
m B

36. A point object is kept at a distance of 60 cm from the combination of two identical thin prisms
(prism angle = 4º and refractive index = 1.5) as shown in figure. If distance between the two images formed
by the combination is x/3 cm approximately, what is the value of x?


60 cm

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PHYSICS
37. A ring of radius r made of wire of density  is rotated about a stationary vertical axis passing though its centre
and perpendicular to the plane of the ring as shown in figure. Determine the angular velocity (in rad/s) of ring


at which the ring breaks. The wire breaks at tensile stress . Ignore gravity. (Take = 4 and r = 1m)

38. Two blocks A and B of masses m and 2m are placed on a smooth floor and are connected by a spring. A third
block C of mass m moves with a velocity v 0 and collides head-on and elastically with A as shown. After some
time, it is found that the instantaneous velocities of A and B are the same and the instantaneous compression
2mv 20
of the spring is x0. If spring constant of the spring is k = , then the value of n is
nx 20
C A B
v0
m m 2m

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PHYSICS
39. A certain crude oil has an index of refraction of 1.25. A ship dumps 1 m3 of this oil into the ocean and oil

 4
spreads into a thin uniform film on water surface     . When light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on it,
 3 

the reflected light shows maxima. What is the area (in km 2) covered by the spilled oil? Assume that the
thickness of film is minimum required to satisfy this criterion.

40. The fundamental frequency of a sonometer wire increases by 6 Hz if its tension is increased by 44%,
keeping the length constant. Find the change (in Hz) in the fundamental frequency of the sonometer wire
(from original frequency) when the length of the wire is increased by 44% keeping its mass same, keeping
the original tension in the wire constant.

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PART III : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
41. Which of the following can exist in diastereomeric form ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

42. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding entropy change?
(A) In reversible change, Suniv. = 0.
(B) In an adiabatic process, Ssurr. = 0
(C) In an irreversible change, Suniv. > 0.
T2
(D) In an isochoric process, Ssyst. = nCv, m ln is always applicable
T1

43. In which of the following complex(es) unpaired electron lies in valence shell of central metal.
(A) [Cu(NO2)5]3– (B) [Ni(en)3]2+ (C) [Co(CN)6]4– (D) [Co(CO)4] –

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CHEMISTRY
HBr
44. x (KC product) + y (TC product)

(KC product = Kinetic control product, TC product = Thermodynamics control product)


Correct statemens :
(A) x = 2, y = 2
(B) rds  C formation
(C) No. of steps are 3 for kinetic control product
(D) No. of steps are 2 for thermodynamics control product

45. Which of the following statement is/are correct?


(A) For adiabatic process in closed system Ssys  0.
(B) An adiabatic closed system must be an isolated system.
(C) Standard Gibb's free energy of reaction may be equal to zero at equilibrium.
(D) Heat capacity at constant volume for an ideal gas is temperature dependent.

Br2
46. (P)
CCl4
Which of the following statement best describes the above reaction?
(A) It is a stereospecific reaction.
(B) It is a stereoselective reaction.
(C) Type of reaction is electrophilic addition reaction
(D) Product form is racemic mixture

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CHEMISTRY
47. Structural isomers of which of the following complexes absorb different wavelength in visible range of
electromagnetic radiations.
(A) [Ir Br2 (H2O)4] Br (B) [Co Br (NH3)5]SO4
(C) [Pt BrCl (H2O)4] (C2O4) (D) [Co(NO2) (NH3)5]2+

48. Select correct statement for three different real gases x, y and z. A curve is given between Z v/s P at T1K.

y x z

Z
1

P
On increasing temperature upto T2K, which of the following curve may be correct(s).
x y y y y
z x x z xz
z
Z Z Z Z
(A) (B) (C) (D)

P P P P

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CHEMISTRY
49. If both CN– ligands of complex ion [Au(CN)2]– are present at Z-axis, then which of the following combination
of orbitals is/are involved in bond formation in the given complex ion.

(A) dxz +  *2px (B) dyz + *2py (C) dxy +  *2px (D) d z 2  p z

50. Decomposition of 1 mole of A takes place as per given by first order kinetics, then select correct statement(s)

ol B
kJ/m 60%
0
=8
Ea1
A T1/
E 2 =0
2 = .
40 693
a

kJ h
/m r
ol C
40%

(A) Overall rate constant for disapperance of A, knet = 2.5 hr–1.


(B) Overall rate constant for disapperance of A, knet = 1.5 hr–1.
(C) Net Ea for conversion of 1 mole A into B and C is 64 kJ/mol
(D) Overall half life of A is 0.277 hr

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - II
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened.
For example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively,
then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

51. In the Redox reaction

K2Cr2O7 + HCl 
 CrCl3 + Cl2 + KCl + H2O

If number of moles of HCl required for 1M, 500 ml solution of K2Cr2O7 is used in the acid base neutralisation
reaction with Ba(OH)2 calculate volume of 0.7M Ba(OH)2 in litre required to neutralised complete HCl.

52. Find out total number of unpaired electron(s) in brown ring complex compound [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]SO4.

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CHEMISTRY
53. When a system is taken from state A to B along path ACB, as shown in the figure, 8J of heat flows into the
system and the system does 3J of work. How much heat flows into the system along the path ADB, if the
work done by the system is 4J?

C B

A D

54.  O bond(s) that have equal length in Fe(CO)


Find out maximum number of C — 5

Alc. KOH Number of alkene obtained by E2


55. Br
CH3

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CHEMISTRY
56. Find out maximum number of hydrogen atom(s) that can lie in molecular plane of complex compound of
[Ni(dmg)2]

57. The number of hydroxyl group(s) in Q is

H
aqueous dilute KMnO4 (excess)
H OH P Q
conc. 0°C
(Major)
HO H2SO4

58. Find out total number of complex(es), which is/are inner orbital complex as well as paramagnetic :
[Cr(en)3]2+, [Ni(NCS)6]2–, [Mn(NH3)6]2+, [Ni(NH3)6]2+, [Fe(CO)4]2–, [Cu(NH3)4]2+, [Fe(NH3)6]3+, [PtCl2(NH3)2],
[IrF6]3–

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CHEMISTRY
59. The activity of a sample of a radioactive isotope was found to be 2144 disintegration per minute. After 6 hrs,
the activity dropped to 1340 disintegration per minute. What is the half-life of radioactive isotope? (log2 = 0.3)

60. Ph–CH2–CH–CH3 (SN1 + E1) Product(s) = 'X'


Cl
Considering products including stereoisomerism, find the value of (X) :

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DATE : 02-07-17 CODE - A
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

B. Question paper format :


9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics).
Each part has 2 sections.

10. Section I contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.

11. Section II contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is an


integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the
ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section.

C. Marking Scheme :
12. For each question in Section-I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darken only
the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. No negative marks will be awarded in this Section.

13. For each question in Section-II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darken
only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. No negative marks will be awarded in this Section.

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DATE : 02-07-17 CODE - A

VIBRANT ACADEMY
(India) Private Limited
A-14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota-324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2423406, 2428666, 2428664, 2425407 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com

REVIEW TEST–4 (MEGA PHASE-I COURSE-2018)


JEE Advance (Paper-2)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 180
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions. The booklet has
36 pages.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and
on the back page (page no. 36) of this booklet.

3. The question paper contains 3 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and VA
Roll No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 36) of this booklet.

6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided


separately.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

8. Do not open the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.

B. Question paper format  Read the instructions printed on the back page

C. Marking scheme  (page no. 36) of this booklet.
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.

.......................................................... ............................................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator

USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, g = 10 m/s2 , B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Ne = 20, Na = 23,
Mg = 24, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Ar = 40 , Ti = 48, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.5, Br = 80, Mo = 96, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, U = 238
PART I : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Let f(x) be an odd function, then the function whose reflection about x + y = 0 is f(x) is :
(A) f –1(x) (B) f –1(–x) (C) –f –1(x) (D) None of these

x e2
2. 
If g(x) = logex. loge t dt then 2 g(x)dx =
 0
0

(A) e2 (B) 2e2 (C) e4 (D) 2e4

n  3 32 33 
3. Let an be the coefficient of x2 in  9– x  then 3.Lim 
n  a
   ......  inf inite terms  =
 4 a5 a6 

(A) 6 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) None of these

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MATHEMATICS
4. In ABC, the equations of internal and external bisectors of B are x + y –1 = 0and x – y + 4 = 0 respectively.
The equations of internal and external bisectors of C are 3x – y + 9 = 0 and x + 3y + 12 = 0 respectively.
m
If circumcentre of IBC is (m, n) then 4n – is ____ (where I is incentre of ABC).
4
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 0 (D) None of these


sin–1 x  cos–1 x  tan–1 x –
2
5. The value of Lim
x 0
x2  x4  x6

(A) Does not exist (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) –1

 1 
6. If
 sin x.  cot x   n( n x)  nx . (nx) dx = f(x) and f(1) = 0, then the value of sin
x –1(f(e)) =

(A) e (B) – e (C) e –  (D) –e

7. Consider a circle, x2 + y2 = 1 and point P(1, 3 ).PAB is a secant drawn from P intersecting circle in A and
B (distinct), then the range of PA + PB is :

(A)  2, 2 3  
(B) 2 3,4  (C)  3,4 
 (D) None of these

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MATHEMATICS
8. Number of ways 3 girls and 5 boys can be seated around a circular table such that no two girls sit together
and not more than two boys sit between two girls is :
(A) 4! × 3! (B) 4! × (3! – 5) (C) 4! × 5C3 × 3! (D) 4! × (5C3 – 5) × 3!

 1 1  3 /2 1/ 2 
9. If A =   and B =   , then (BBT A)2017 is equal to : _________
0 1  –1/ 2 3 / 2

2  3 1  1  1 2017   1 2017   2  3 2017 


(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
 –1 2 – 3  2 0 1  0 1   –2017 2 – 3 

10. The function y = f(x) is defined as follows : x = 2t – |t|, y = t2 + t|t|, t  R. Choose the correct statement :
(A) f(x) is not continous in [–1, 1].
(B) f(x) is differentiable in [–1, 1].
(C) f(x) is continuous but not differentiable at x = 0.
(D) f(x) is discontinuous at x = –1.

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - II
Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 11 to 12
Consider a continuous periodic function f : R  R with least possible period such that f(4 + x) + f(–x) = 0 and
 x 2 –x 
f(x) = min  1– ,e   x  [–2, 2], then
 4 
11. Let  R+ is the minimum value of x at which f(x) is non-differentiable, then which is incorrect (where [.]
denotes greatest integer function)

8  –8 
 
(A) 
8
f(x)dx 
42  4 – 2  (B) 
–8
f(x)dx 
2e
4 – 

8   –2 

(C)  f(x)dx  = 1 
(D)  f(x)dx  = –2
6   –4 

12. If a, b are number of points of local maxima and local minima respectively, of f(x) in x  (–2, 6), then the value

–1  b  is :
of  tan
n 1
 2 
 5n  an – b 
 
(A) – tan–1(5 + a – b) (B) – tan–1(5 – a + b)
ab ab

 
(C) – tan–1(5 – a – b) (D) – tan–1 (5 + a + b)
5 – 3a 5  3b

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MATHEMATICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 13 to 14
Let A, B, C and D be four real-valued continuous functions on R, defined by

x 4 – x2  2 ; x 1

px  3 ; 1  x2
A(x) = 
 2
 qx  4 ; x2

 a sin x  b tan x
 ; x0
B(x) =  x
a  3 ; x0

2
 x  14 ; x  2
C(x) =  4
 x  2 ; x  2

 a  b cos x
 ; x0
D(x) =  x2
– 3 ; x0
 2

13. The value of (a + b + p + q) is

7 7 3 3
(A) (B) – (C) – (D)
4 4 4 4

14. The value of D(C(A(B(0)))) is


(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Zero (D) Can't be determined

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MATHEMATICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 15 to 16
A square matrix B is said to be skew-symmetric if BT = – B
15. X, Y are square matrices of order n. If X.Y = O, then choose the best answer : _____ (O represents null
matrix of order n)
(A) One of the matrices X or Y should be a null matrix
(B) If X  O and Y  O, then both X and Y must be singular
(C) If X is non-singular then Y must be null matrix and vice-versa
(D) Both B and C are correct

16. If A is a skew-symmetric matrix of order 3, with real entries and X is a square matrix such that
X.(I – A) = I + A then |2XT X| is equal to :
(A) 0 (B) 8 (C) 1 (D) None of these

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - III
Matching List Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching liest. The codes for
the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
17. List-I List-II
(P) The number of non-zero diagonal matrices A of order three satisfying A2 = A is (1) 4

2
| sin x | 3m
(Q) If m   x dx, then  ____ where [.] denotes Greatest Integer Function (2) 7
0
1 4
 2
 

(R) If the co-efficient of x2 and x3 in (2017 + x)2018 (3) 8


 2017 
are equal, then the value of   2  is :
 96  

cos2x x 1
2 f(x)
(S) Let f(x) = sin2x x 2x , then 2. Lt 2 =_______ (4) 9
x 0 x
tan2x 2x 4

Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 1 2 3 4

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MATHEMATICS
18. List-I List-II
(P) If f is a differentiable function satisfying f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) + 2xy – 4,  x, y  R (1) 1
and f'(0) = –2, the minimum value of f(x) is

 xe –x  x2 e –2x  x3 e –3x  ..... 


(Q) Lt
The value of x    = ____ (2) 2
 ( n(1  x))–1

(R) Let f(x) and g(x) be differentiable functions on R. (3) 3


If h(x) = f(g(f(x))) where f(2) = 1, g(1) = 2, f'(2) = g'(1) = 1,

then h'(2) is ___


(S) If the least area of triangle formed by tangent to the circle (4) 0
x2 + y2 = 1 and x = 0, y = 0 is M, then 2M = ______
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 4 1 2

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MATHEMATICS
19. Consider a sequence of 10A's and 8B's placed in a row. By a run we mean single or more letters of a type
placed side by side. For example, following is an arrangement consisting of 4 runs of A and 4 runs of
B : AAAABBABBBAABAAABB. Number of arrangements of 10A's and 8B's in a row so that there are :
List-I List-II
(P) 3 runs of A and 3 runs of B (1) 2.9C3.7C3
(Q) 4 runs of A and 4 runs of B (2) 9C .7C
3 4
(R) 4 runs of A and 5 runs of B (3) 2.9C2.7C2
(S) 5 runs of A and 6 runs of B (4) 9C .7C
5 5

Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 1 3 4 2

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MATHEMATICS
x
20. If F(x) =  f(t)dt and f is defined as in List-I.
0

List-I List-II

 0, 0 x 1
(P) f(x) = sin x, 1 x
(1) F'(1/2) = 1

 2 – x, 0  x 1
(Q) f(x) =  –1/3 (2) F'(3/2) = –1
(7x – 6) , 1 x

 x2, 0  x 1

(R) f(x) =   (3) F'(1) = 1
cos x, x 1
 2

 sin x, 0  x  1 1
(S) f(x) =  (4) F'(5/2) = –
 3 – x, x 1 2

Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 4 3 1
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 4 2 1 3

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PART II : PHYSICS
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
21. An object is placed at f/2 away from first focus of a convex lens where f is the focal length of the lens. Its
image is formed at a distance 3f/2 in a slab of refractive index 3/2, from the face of the slab facing the lens.
Find the distance of this face of the slab from the second focus of the lens.

F1
F2
3f/2

f/2

(A) f/2 (B) 3f/2 (C) 2f (D) f

22. A potential energy function is shown in the graph. A particle moving in this potential field in the positive
x-direction, if possesses 1.0 J of kinetic energy at x = 1.0 m, where will it reverse its direction of motion?

U 5
4

3
2
1

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
x

(A) x = 1.0 m (B) x = 2.0 m (C) x = 5.0 m (D) x = 6.0 m

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PHYSICS
23. When identical point charges are placed at the vertices of a cube of edge length a, each of them experiences
a net force of magnitude f. Now these charges are placed on the vertices of another cube of edge length b.
What will magnitude of the net force on any of the other charges be? These cubes are simply geometrical
constructs and not made of any matter.

af bf a2 f b2 f
(A) (B) (C) (D)
b a b2 a2

24. In the setup shown, blocks of masses 3m and 2m are placed on a frictionless horizontal ground and the free
end p of the thread is being pulled by a constant force F. Find acceleration of the free end P.

F 2F F
(A) (B)
5m m 3m 2m P

3F 5F
(C) (D)
m m

25. A small ball is thrown from foot of a wall with the minimum possible velocity to hit a bulb B on the ground a
distance L away from the wall. Then the expression for height h of shadow of the ball on the wall as a function
of time t : y

gL L
(A) h  t (B) h  t g
2
h
(C) h  2t g (D) None
B x

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PHYSICS
26. A gun of mass m1 fires a bullet of mass m2 with a horizontal speed v 0. The gun is fitted with a concave mirror
of focal length f facing toward a receding bullet. Find the speed of separation of the bullet and the image just
after the gun was fired.

 m2   m2   2m2   m2 
(A)  1  m  v 0 (B) 2  f  m  v 0 (C) 2  f  m  v0 (D) 2 1  m  v 0
 1  1   1   1

27. String-1 is connected with string-2. The mass per unit length in string-1 is 1 and the mass per unit length in
string-2 is 41. The tension in the string is T. A travelling wave is coming from the left. What fraction of the
energy in the incident wave goes into string-2?

1 4 incident
(A) (B)  2 = 4 1
8 9 1

2 8
(C) (D)
3 9

28. A cubical block of wood of edge a and density  floats in water of density 2. The lower surface of the cube
just touches the free end of a massless spring of force constant k fixed at the bottom of the vessel. The
weight w put over the block so that it is completely immersed in water with weight just outside
(Consider final equilibrium position)

 2 k

(A) a a2g  k  (B) a(ag + 2k) (C) a  a g  
2
(D) None of these

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PHYSICS
29. A small body with relative density d1 falls in air from a height 'h' onto the surface of a liquid of relative density
d2 where d2 > d1. The time elapsed after entering the liquid to the instant when it comes to instantaneous rest
inside liquid :

2h d2 2h d1 2h d1 2h d2  d1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
g d1 g d2  d1 g d2 g d1

30. Monochromatic light of wavelength  passes through a pair of slits S1 and S2 separated by a distance equal
to fringe width . There is a screen placed at a distance D in which two parallel slits S1 and S2 are cut at


the positions of 3rd and 4th maxima. Again there is a screen at a distance D. P is a point at a distance of
2
from the central line of the first pair of slits S1 and S2, while Q is on the central line of the second pair of slits
S1 and S2. All slits are of same widths. If the intensity of light at the point P is I, then intensity at Q is.

S1

Q
4 S2

S1 3
P
 /2

S2

D D

I I
(A) (B) I (C) (D) None of these
2 4

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PHYSICS
SECTION - II
Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 31 to 32
A block is attached to a spring and is placed on a horizontal smooth surface as shown in which spring is
unstretched. Now the spring is given an initial compression 2x0 and block is released from rest. Collisions
with the wall PQ are elastic.

x=0
Q

x>0

P
x0

31. Write its equation of motion indicating position as a function of time (T is time period of motion)
T  2  T
(A) x = – 2x0cost; 0  t  (B) x   x0 cos  t  ; tT
2  3  2

T   T
(C) x = – x0cost; 0  t  (D) x  2x 0 cos  t   ;  t  T
2 3 2

32. Choose best x-t (position-time) graph for one period. Treating position of block in unstretched position of
spring as origin
x x

(A) t (B) t

x x

(C) (D)
t y

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PHYSICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 33 to 34
When monochromatic light is incident normally on a wedge shaped thin air film, refer figure, an interference
pattern may be seen by reflection.

33. If water is introduced into the region between the plates, the fringe separation
(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Remains same (D) May increase or decrease depending on length of plates

34. When white light is used?


(A) There will be a compltely dark fringe
(B) There will be a completely white fringe
(C) A visible pattern of bright & dark fringe is visible
(D) None of these

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PHYSICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 35 to 36
Consider a uniformly charged wire that has the form of a circular loop with radius b. Consider two points
on the axis of the loop. P1 is at a distance b from the loop's center, and P2 is at a distance 2b from the
loop's center. The potential V is zero, very far from the loop. At P1 and P2 the potentials are V1 and V2,
respectively.

P2
b
P1
b

2b
35. What is V2 in terms of V1?

V1 2V1 V1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D) V1
3 5 2 5

36. How much work would be required to move a charge q from P1 to P2?
V 
(A) qV2 (B) q loge  2  (C) qV1V2 (D) q(V2 – V1)
 V1 

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PHYSICS
SECTION - III
Matching List Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching liest. The codes for
the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
37. List-I List-II
(P) In refraction (1) Speed of wave does not change
(Q) In reflection (2) Wavelength is decreased
(R) In refraction from rarer to denser medium (3) Frequency does not change
(S) In reflection from a denser medium (4) Phase change of  takes place
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 3 1, 3 2, 3 1, 3, 4
(B) 1, 3 2, 3 3, 4 1, 3, 4
(C) 1, 3 2, 3 3, 4 1, 3, 4
(D) 2 1 3 4

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PHYSICS
38. A particle is moving in unifom circular motion in x-y plane, with radius 1 m and centre as origin. At t = 0, the
particles is (R, 0) as shown. Time period of the path is 4 seconds. Match the quantieis of the List-I with
possible instant of time(s) of List-II.

x
O (R,0)

List-I List-II
(P) Direction of average acceleration is (1) till t = 1 sec.

(Q) Direction of average velocity is (2) till t = 3 sec.

R
(R) Distance travelled by the particle is (3) till t = 5 sec.
2

(S) Magnitude of displacement of the particle is R 2 (4) till t = 7 sec.

Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 1, 3 2, 4 1 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 1, 3 2 1, 3 1, 2
(C) 1 2, 4 1 1, 2, 3
(D) 1, 3 2, 4 1, 3 1, 3

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PHYSICS
39. For harmonic wave y = (2 cm) sin (3t – 4x) where y and x in cm, t in second
List-I List-II
(P) Particle at x = 0 at t = 0 is (1) Moving downwards


(Q) Particle at x = cm at t = 0 is (2) Moving upwards
8


(R) Particle at x = 0 at t = s is (3) Accelerated upwards
3

 
(S) Particle at x = cm at t = s is (4) Accelerated downwards
8 3
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 1 2 3 4

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PHYSICS
40. In the following diagrams, all the charges have equal magnitude
List-I List-II

×
(P) (1) The potential & electric field both are zero at centre

Equilateral triangle

(Q) (2) The electric field alone is zero at the centre

×
(R) (3) Only potential is zero at centre

Square

(S) (4) Potential & electric field both are non-zero at centre
×

Rectangle
Code :
P Q R S
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 4 3 1
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 2 1 3 4
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PART III : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
41. Consider the following V-T graph for 1 mol of diatomic ideal gas.

A B
20
V(L)
10 D C

200 400
T(K)

Calculate the heat exchanged between system and surrounding in above process
(Given : R = 2 cal, ln2 = 0.7).
(A) q = 280 cal (B) q = –280cal (C) q = 140 cal (D) q = –140 cal

42. The correct stability order for the following species is

  
O O 
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(A) II > IV > I > III (B) I > II > III > IV (C) II > I > IV > III (D) I > III > II > IV

43. In a thermodynamic process for an ideal gas, if heat exchange is equal to tripple of increase in internal
energy, then identify the process equation.
1– 
2(– 1)  (1 –) 2 (1 –)
(A) TV 3 = constant (B)TV = constant (C) T V = constant (D) T V = constant

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CHEMISTRY
44. Select incorrect statement for complex [Co(en)2(H2O)2](NO2)3
(A) It is diamagnetic complex. (B) It exhibits hydrate isomerism.
(C) It exhibits ionisation isomerism. (D) It does not exhibit linkage isomerism.

45. Calculate total entropy change (SUniverse) for the transition at 400 K of 1 mole of sulphur from the monoclinic
to the rhombic solid state and H = – 400 J/mole for the transition assume the surrounding to be in a bath of
water at 27ºC
(A) –1J/k (B) +0.33 J/k (C) 1.67 J/k (D) None of these

46. Which one of the following reactions is incorrect ?

CH3 CH3
1. BH3 + Enantiomer
(A) 2. H2O2; NaOH
OH

CH3 CH3
Br2 Br + Enantiomer
(B)
CCl4
Br

CH3 CH3

(C) 1. Hg(OAc)2/H2O + Enantiomer


2. NaBH4
OH

CH3 CH3
(D) H2/Pd

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CHEMISTRY
47. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is expanded against constant external pressure of 2 atm adiabatically.
Starting from 3 atm pressure and 500 K temperature. Calculate work done by the gas.
(Given : R = 2 cal/mol K)
(A) w = –100 cal (B) w = –150 cal (C) w = –200 cal (D) w = –300 cal

48. What is the electronic arrangement for 3d electrons in low spin octahedral complex with 3d7 configuration.
(A) t2g6eg0 (B) t2g6 eg1 (C) t2g5 eg2 (D) t2g4 eg2

49. Acid hydrolysis of ether given below is fastest when X is


acid
X – CH2OH + ROH
X OR

(A) X = (CH2 = CH—) (B) X = (CH3 – CH2—) (C) X = ( ) (D) X = ( CH 3O )

50. One mol of non-ideal gas undergoes a change of state (1 atm, 4 L, 100 K) to (3 atm, 6 L, 275 K) with a change
in internal energy (U) = 25 L-atm. The change in enthalpy (H) of the process in L-atm.
(A) 39.0 (B) 42.3
(C) 44.0 (D) not defined, because pressure is not constant

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - II
Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 51 to 52

CH = CH2

NaNH2 CH3 – I Br 2 H2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1 mol) (1 mole) (1 mole) Pd-BaSO4
C
CH

51. Compound B is :

Br Br

CH = CH – CH3 CH – CH2 CH = CH2


(A) (B) (C) (D)

C C C
 
C Na CH C

52. Compound D is : Me

Br Br
Br
CH – CH2 Br C  C–CH3
(A) (B) (C) (D)

C
C
Me

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CHEMISTRY
Paragraph for Question Nos. 53 to 54
Crystal field theory(CFT) is an electrostatic model which consider metal-ligand bond to be ionic arising
purely from electrostatic interaction between metal cation and ligand. It provide information about splitting of
d orbitals and on that basis stability of complex can be predicted.

53. Select the correct increasing order of stability for given complexes.
(1) [Co(en)3]3+ (2) [Co(ox)3]3– (3) [CoF6]3– (4) [Co(H2O)6]3+
(A) 4 < 3 < 2 < 1 (B) 4 < 3 < 1 < 2 (C) 3 < 4 < 2 < 1 (D) 3 < 4 < 1 < 2

54. Select correct order of stability for given complexes.


(A) [Cr(NH3)2(en)2]3+ > [Cr(en)3]3+
(B) [PdBr2(NH3)4]2+ > [PdBr(ONO)(NH3)2]
(C) [Co(SCN)4]2– > [CoF6]4–
(D) [Ni(CN)4]2– > [Ni(NH3)6]2+

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CHEMISTRY
Paragraph for Question Nos. 55 to 56
For any reversible reaction Gibb's free energy of reaction is given at TK temperature.
G = G0 + RTnQ
Where G0 = Standard Gibb's free energy, Q = Reaction quotient.
At equilibrium G = 0 , Q = Keq equilibrium constant (Given : n 2 = 0.7)

55. For reaction NH4HS(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g) takes place in a closed Rigid Vessel and total pressure at
equilibrium is 4 atm at 300 K. Calculate G of above reaction when total pressure is 1 atm at 300 K.
(A) –1.68 kcal (B) Zero (C) –69.72 kcal (D) –0.72 kcal

56. The decomposition of ammonium carbamate


NH2COONH4(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g)
takes place in a Rigid Vessel of volume 8.21 L. Calculate the pressure exerted by NH3(g) (in atm). If G0 of
above reaction is –2.1 kcal at 300 K.
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 2 (D) 16

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - III
Matching List Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching liest. The codes for
the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
57. List-1 List-II (CFSE and hybridisation)
(P) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (1) 0.0 0, sp3d2 hybridisation
(Q) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (2) –1.2 0, d2sp3 hybridisation
(R) [Zn(H2O)6]2+ (3) –2.0 0 + 2P, d2sp3 hybridisation
(S) [Fe(NH3)6]3+ (4) –1.2 0, sp3d2 hybridisation
Code :
P Q R S
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 2 4 1 3

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CHEMISTRY
58. List-I List-II

H 2O
(P) Ph Cl (1) SN1

Cl  
(Q) Ph – S Na (2) SN2

F
(R) KOH (3) Carbocation is intermediate

NO2

Br2
(S) (4) Carbanion is intermediate
CCl4
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 2 1 3 4

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CHEMISTRY
59. List-I List-II
(P) [CoF6]3– (1) Diamagnetic and low spin complex
(Q) [Cr(C2O4)3]3– (2) Paramagnetic and outer orbital complex
(R) [AuCl4]– (3) Paramagnetic and inner orbital complex
(S) [Fe(CN)6]3– (4) Paramagnetic and low spin complex
Code :
P Q R S
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 1 3 2 4

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CHEMISTRY
60. List - I List - II
(Reaction Sequence) (Reagent required)

(P)  (1)

(Q)  (2) EtBr

(R)  (3) EtOH/H

(S) Et – Cl  (4) Et – Cl/Na ether

Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 3 2 1 4

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DATE : 02-07-17 CODE - A

Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

B. Question paper format :


9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each
part has 3 sections.

10. Section I contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.

11. Section II contains 3 groups of questions. Each groups has 2 questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which only one of correct.

12. Section III contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has matching
lists. The codes for the lists have choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.

C. Marking Scheme :
13. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened.
In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.

14. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened.
In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.

15. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to only the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is
darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (–1) mark will be
awarded.
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DATE : 30-07-17 CODE - A

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REVIEW TEST–5 (MEGA PHASE-I COURSE-2018)


JEE Mains
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 360
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 90 questions. The booklet has
28 pages.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and
on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet.

3. The question paper contains 1 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and VA
Roll No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet.

6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided


separately.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

8. Do not open the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.

B. Question paper format  Read the instructions printed on the back page

C. Marking scheme  (page no. 28) of this booklet.
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.

.......................................................... ............................................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator

USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, g = 10 m/s2 , B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Ne = 20, Na = 23,
Mg = 24, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Ar = 40 , Ti = 48, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.5, Br = 80, Mo = 96, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, U = 238
PART I : MATHEMATICS
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The value of the expression (sin 17º + sin 19º – sin 53º – sin 55º) is equal to :
(A) cos1º (B) cos91º (C) cos181º (D) cos271º

2. If the parabola y = f(x), has axis parallel to y-axis and touches the line x = y at (1, 1); then :
(A) 2f'(0) – f(0) = 1 (B) f(0) + 2f'(0) = 1 (C) f'(0) – 2f(0) = 1 (D) 2f(0) + f'(0) = 1


3. The tangent to the curve x  acos  cos 2, y  a sin  cos 2 at a point corrosponding to   is :
12
(A) Parallel to line x + y = 0 (B) Parallel to line x = y
(C) Parallel to x-axis (D) Parallel to y-axis

4. The lines tangent to the curves y3–x2y + 5y – 2x = 0 and x4 – x3y2 + 5x + 2y = 0 at the origin intersect at an
angle  which is equal to :

   
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 4 3 2

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MATHEMATICS
5. Which of the following is true ?

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
 1 e  1 3  1 2  1 5  1  5  1 3  1 e  1 2
(A)            (B)           
e 3 2 5 5 3 e 2

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
 1  e  1 3  1  2  1 5  1 5  1 3  1 e  1 2
(C)            (D)           
e 3  2 5 5 3 e 2

6. If f : R  R is a function defined by
2 2
e x  e x
f(x)  2 2 ; then
ex  e  x

(A) f(x) is an increasing function (B) f(x) is a decreasing function


(C) f(x) is onto (D) None of these


7. Which of the following is greater than the value of the expression (tan a – tan b) where o  a  b  is :
2
(A) (a – b) sec2 b (B) (a – b) sec2 a (C) Both a & b (D) None of these

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MATHEMATICS
8. Let f(x) be a polynomial function with negative co-efficients and f(x) = f(–x) for x. Then f(x) must have :
(A) Exaxtly 1 point of maxima. (B) Atleast 1 point of maxima
(C) Exactly 1 point of minima (D) Atleast 1 point of minima

9. A right cylindrical vessel of a given capacity is formed using least possible material. Then the ratio of the
height to the radius of the base is
(A)  : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) None of these

10. A point is in motion on the curve 12y = x3. The ordinate is changing at a slower rate than the abscissa in the
interval
(A) R (B) (–, –2)  (2, +) (C) (2, +) (D) (–2, 2)

 loge cos x 
11. Lt  p q  is equal to :
x  0  cos x  cos x 

pq pq pq qp
(A) (B) (C) (D)
pq pq qp pq

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MATHEMATICS

 3 1  tan1 3x  3 1  sin1 3x 
12. Lt   is equal to :
x0
 1  sin1 2x  1  tan1 2x 

(A) 1 (B) –1 (C) 2 (D) –2

13. The domain of the function y = sin x  cos x  7x – x2 – 6 is

 3   7   7 
(A) [1, 6] (B) 1,    ,6  (C) [1, ]   , 6 (D) None of these
 4 4  4 

3 2
 1   1  2x  1  1  x   2x  
14. The value of   1  x 2   sin  2
 cos  tan1   dx is
 3  1 x   2
 1 x   1  x 2  

2 22 42 8 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9 9 9 9

15. The number of real solutions of (x, y), where |y| = sinx and y = |cos–1(cosx)|, x  [–2, 2] is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

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MATHEMATICS
–1 3 –1 3
16. Greatest value of (sin x) + (cos x) is :

3 93 73
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
32 8 8


 x2  x  2 4
17. The value of    sin x cos xdx is
0    2x 

(1   ) (1   ) (1   ) (1   )


(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 8 16 32

8   1 
18. If f(x) = (2017 – x8)1/8 for 0 < x < 2017 , then f  f   =
  2017  

1 1
(A) 1 (B) (C) (2017)1/8 (D) 8
2017 2017

a b c 
 
19. If A  c a b  and a, b, c are roots of the equation
b c a 

x3 + x2 – 4 = 0, then AAT is equal to :


(A) I (B) A + I (C) A2 (D) A–I

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MATHEMATICS
20. Let f be a twice differentiable function such that f(x) = –f(x) and f(x) = g(x). If h(x) = (f(x))2 + (g(x))2 and
h(5) = 2, then h(10) =
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) None of these

y  e y  .... to  dy
21. If x = e y  e , x > 0, then is
dx

1– x 1 x 1 x
(A) (B) (C) (D)
x x 1 x x

3 1  s1 1  s2
22. If , are roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 & sn = n + n for n 1 and  = 1  s1 1  s2 1  s3 , then
1  s2 1  s 3 1  s 4

is -

(a  b  c)2 (b2  4ac) (a  b  c)2 (b2  4ac)


(A) (B)
a2 a3

(a  b  c)2 (b2  4ac)


(C) (D) None of these
a4

23. Let a be a factor of 120, then the number of positive integral solutions of x1x2x3 = a is
(A) 160 (B) 320 (C) 480 (D) 960

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MATHEMATICS
a
24. If in the expansion of (a –2b)n, the sum of 5th and 6th term is 0, then the value of is.
b

n4 2(n  4) 5 5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 5 n4 2(n  4)

6
25.  (x  7x5  6x 4  5x3  4x 2  3x  1)e x dx =

6 7 6

(A)  xi .e x  C (B)  xi e x  C (C)  x .ei x


C (D) None of these
i 0 i 0 i1

 3x – 4 
26. If f   = x + 2, then f(x)dx is
 3x  4 
 3x – 4  8 2
(A) ex+2 log   +C (B) – log | 1 – x |  x  C
 3x  4  3 3

8 x
log | 1– x |   C
x2
(C) (D) e[3x–4)/(3x+4)] – – 2x + C
3 3 2

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MATHEMATICS
27. In a ABC, a : b : c = 4 : 5 : 6. Then the ratio of the radius of the circumcircle to that of incircle is :

15 11 16 16
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 5 7 3

28. A(1, 1); B(2, 3); C(3, 4) are vertices of a ABC. DEF is the reflection of ABC w.r.t the line x+y = 0, then the
area of DEF is :

1 1 3
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
2 2 2

29. The circles x2 + y2 + 2ax + 2by = 0 and x2 + y2 + 2cx + 2dy = 0 touch each other if :
(A) ab = cd (B) ac = bd (C) ad = bc (D) None of these

1.2.3.4  2.3.4.5  3.4.5.6  ..........upto n terms


30. Let An =
n(1.2.3  2.3.4  3.4.5  ..........upton terms)

then xLt

An is equal to

1 2 3 4
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 4 5

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PART II : PHYSICS
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
31. A prism is kept in two different media as shown in figure. The prism is made of material of refractive index

6.

75°

60° n3
n1 =  2
n2 =  6

The ray undergoes a deviation of 45°, then n3 is


(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 2

32. The position of final image formed by the given lens combination from the third lens will be at a distance of
[f 1 = +10cm, f 2 = – 10cm, f 3 = 30 cm]

(A) 15 cm (B) infinity (C) 45 cm (D) 30 cm

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PHYSICS
4 1
33. One mole of ideal gas whose adiabatic ratio of molar specific heats   undergoes process P  200 
3 V
then change in internal energy of gas when volume changes form 2m3 to 4m3 is
(P = pressure in pascal, V = volume in m3)
(A) 400 J (B) 800 J (C) 1200 J (D) 600 J

34. A block of mass 2 kg is connected to a spring of spring constant 288 N/m and kept on a frictionless
horizontal floor as shown. The block is projected with a velocity of 6 m/s towards right. The amplitude of the
oscillation is

2kg

(A) 1/6m (B) 1/2m (C) 1/8m (D) 3m

35. The electric field due to a uniform line charge of length ‘’ and total charge Q, at a point on its perpendicular

2
bisector at a distance of from the line is
3

3Q 7Q 3Q 9Q
(A) 4  2 (B) 40 2 (C) 20  2 (D) 20  2
0 0 0 0

36. Two planets of same density and with radii R1 and R2 such that R1 = 2R2 have gravitation field on the surface

v1
g1 and g2 and escape velocities v 1 and v 2 respectively. Then find the value of v
2

(A) 1/2 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4

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PHYSICS
37. A charged non-conducting ring has quadrants with different charges uniformly distributed as shown. Net
dipole moment of this system is

16qR
(A) 0 (B)

16qR 2
(C) (D) None of these

38. Gravitational force between two identical uniform solid gold spheres of radius ‘r’ each in contact in proportional
to

1 1
(A) r4 (B) r2 (C) (D)
r2 r3

39. The figure shows a conical container of half apex angle 37° filled with certain quantities of kerosene and
water. The pressure exerted by the water on the kerosene is.

(A) 105 Pa (B) 2 × 105 Pa (C) 1.8 × 105 Pa (D) 2.6 × 105 Pa

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PHYSICS
40. The difference in pressures in bulbs A and C having fluids of densities 1 and 2, when tube B is horizontal will
be

h1 h2 h3
B
2

h vertical h

A
1
C

(A) (2 – 1)gh (B) 2g(h2 + h3) – 1gh1


(C) 2a(h + h2) – 1g(h + h1) (D) (1 + 2)gh

41. P and Q are two small loud-speakers, which emits sound waves of the same amplitude but with a phase
difference of . A small receiver R moves along the perpendicular bisector of PQ in the direction shown in
figure. The intensity of the sound recorder in the receiver.

(A) oscillates between a maximum and zero minimum


(B) oscillates between maximum and non zero minimum
(C) remains constant but not zero
(D) remains constant and equal to zero

42. Two charges q and – 2q are placed at (– d, 0) and (d, 0) respectively. Find locus of points where the potential
is zero.
(A) y = 0 (B) y2 + x2 – 4xd + 2d2 = 0
(C) 3y2 + 3x2 + 10xd + 3d2 = 0 (D) y2 + x2 – 7xd + 18d2 = 0

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PHYSICS
43. A small collar of mass m is given an initial velocity of magnitude v on the horizontal ciruclar track fabricated
from a slender rod. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is , determine the initial tangential acceleration of the
collar.

v2 v2 v2 v4
(A) 3  g2 (B) 2  g2 (C)  2  g2 (D)   g2
r2 r2 r2 r2

44. A solid conducting sphere of radius a having a charge Q is surrounded by a concentric conducting spherical
shell of inner radius 2a and outer radius 3a as shown in figure. Find the final potential of inner surface of shell
when switch is closed.

kQ kQ
(A) (B)
2a 3a

kQ kQ
(C) (D)
4a 6a

45. A hollow conducting sphere of inner radius R and outer radius 2R is given a charge Q as shown in the figure,
then the

(A) potential at A and B is different (B) potential at O and B is different


(C) potential at O and C is different (D) potential at A, B, C and O is same

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PHYSICS
46. If you tilt the board at an angle  to the horizontal brick moves on it with negligible constant speed. How long
brick will take to fall down the board if tilted at an angle  > ? Board length is equal to .

2 sin  2 cos  2 cos  2 sin 


(A) (B) (C) (D)
gsin(   ) gsin(   ) gsin(   ) gsin(   )

47. Block A of mass 12 kg is placed over block B of mass 8 kg. The combination is placed over a rough
horizontal surface. Coefficient of friction between B and the floor is 0.5. A horizontal force of 10N is applied on
block B. The force of friction between A and B is

A
12kg
B
8kg 10N

(A) Zero (B) 50 N (C) 40 N (D) 100 N

48. The phase difference between two simple harmonic oscillations.

1 3
y1  sin t  cos t ; y2 = sint + cost, is
2 2

7   
(A) (B) (C) (D)
12 12 2 6

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PHYSICS
49. Sound waves of frequency f = 600 Hz fall normally on a perfectly reflecting wall. The shortest distance from
the wall at which all particles will have maximum amplitude of vibration will be
(speed of sound = 300 ms–1)

7 3 1 1
(A) m (B) m (C) m (D) m
8 8 8 4

50. Two vibrating strings of the same material but lengths L and 2L have radii 2r and r respectively. They are
stretched under the same tension. Both the strings vibrate in their fundamental modes, the one of length L
with frequency f 1 and other with length 2L is f2. The ratio f1/f 2
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 8 : 1 (D) 1 : 1

51. An unpolarised beam of light of intensity I is incident on a set of four plarising plates such that each plate
makes an angle of /3 with preceding sheet. The intensity of light transmitted through the combination is

I I I I
(A) (B) (C) (D)
64 128 32 256

52. A particle is projected with 10m/s at 60° from horizontal ground. Find ratio of maximum kinetic energy to the
minimum kinetic energy of the projectile during its flight.
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 5 (D) 4

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PHYSICS
53. A 60 kg man running on horizontal road and increases his speed form 2 ms–1 to 6 ms–1. During this period
work done by friction on the man is
(A) 0 J (B) – 960 J (C) 960 J (D) Data insufficient

54. A transverse wave is described by equation = y0sin2(ft – x/8) then find wavelength (all quantities are in SI
units)
(A)  = 4m (B)  = 8m (C)  = 16m (D)  = 20m

55. The ratio of velocity of sound in two chamber one is filled with O2 and other is filled with He at same
temperature will be

21 1 200 8
(A) (B) (C) (D)
200 8 21 1

56. Two particles of mass ‘m’ and 9m are placed at distance r. The gravitational potential at a point on the line
joining them where the gravitational field is zero is

16Gm 16Gm 3Gm


(A) zero (B) (C) (D)
r 3r 16r

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PHYSICS
57. One thousand small water drops of equal radii combine to form a big drop. The ratio of final surface energy to
the total initial surface energy
(A) 1000 : 1 (B) 1 : 1000 (C) 10 : 1 (D) 1 : 10

58. In double slit interference experiment, the fringe width obtained with a light of wavelength 5900 Å was
1.2 mm for parallel narrow slits placed 2 mm apart. In this arrangement, if the slit separation is increased to
one-and-half times the previous value, then the fringe width is
(A) 0.9 mm (B) 0.8 mm (C) 1.8 mm (D) 1.6 mm

59. In the ideal double slit experiment, when a glass plate of refractive index 1.5 and thickness t is introduced in
the the path of one of the interfering beams of wavelength , the intensity at the position of central maximum
remains unchanged. Minimum thickness of glass plate is :
(A) 2 (B) 2/3 (C) /3 (D) 

Imax – I min
60. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio interfere. Find the ratio I in the interference pattern -
max  Imin

2  2  1 
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1  1   –1 1 

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PART III : CHEMISTRY
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. What can be correctly predicted regarding product of the following reaction?

H
Cl Cl + NaCN(aq) SN2
CH (1 mol)
3

(1.0 mol)

(A) The product would be achiral.


(B) The product would be optically active.
(C) The product would be racemic mixture.
(D) The product would contain unequal amount of enantiomers.

62. Calculate CFSE value and  for [RhF6]3–

(A) – 2.40 + 2P, 0 B.M. (B) – 2.40 + 3P, 24 B.M.

(C) – 0.40 + 2P, 24 B.M. (D) – 0.40 + 3P, 24 B.M.

63. Oxidation potential of lead electrode dipped in 0.01M Na2SO4(aq) solution saturated with PbSO4(s) is +0.405 V.
Calculate Ksp of PbSO4(s)
º
[Given : EPb/Pb2 = + 0.125 V ; log 3.2 = 0.51]

(A) 3.2 × 10–10 (B) 3.2 × 10–12 (C) 3.2 × 10–9 (D) 3.2 × 10–16

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CHEMISTRY
64. For the following reaction, pick out the best term which describe its mechanism
CH3
Br CN
H3CS NaCN CH3S
CH3
(A) SN1 (B) SN2
(C) Neighbouring group participation with SN2 (D) Addition followed by substitution.

65. Which of the following is incorrect option?


(A) [Pt(Gly)ClBr] exhibit 2 G.I. (B) [Zn(bcac)2] is optically inactive tetrahedral complex
(C) [Pt(pn)2Gly]+3 exhibit no G.I. (D) [Be(acac)2] is optically inactive tetrahedral complex

66. When a certain amount of butane was combusted 6000 KJ heat was evolved. If heat of combustion of butane
is 500 KJ/mol. The volume of O2 at 1 atm pressure and 273 K temperature required for the combustion of
above butane
(A) 1747.2 L (B) 873.6 L (C) 436.8 L (D) 145.6 L

67. What is the increasing order of reactivity of the following in an E2 reaction with ethanolic KOH solution?
Br O Br

Br
Br
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) III < I < II < IV (B) I < II < III < IV (C) IV < III < II < I (D) I < II < IV < III

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CHEMISTRY
68. Which of the following molecule forms hydrogen bond more than four?
(A) HF (B) H2O (C) NH3 (D) None

69. 0.2 mol of A is decomposed in a 20 litre rigid vessel at 500 K and equilibrium attained as A(g) B(g)+2C(g).
The equilibrium mixture exerted a pressure of 0.821 atm.
calculate concentration of B at equilibrium
(A) 5 × 10–3 M (B) 10–2 M (C) 5 × 10–2 M (D) 2 × 10–3 M

70. How many moles of CO2 will released when following compound treated with heat.

O
HOOC

COOH
HOOC

O COOH

(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 0

71. Which of the following is correct about [Fe(CO)5]?

(A) d 2 sp 3 (T.B.P.) (B) dx2  y2 sp3 (Sq.P.) (C) sp3 dz2 (T.B.P.) (D) sp3 dx2  y2 (Sq.P.)
z

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CHEMISTRY
72. Calculate pH of 0.1 M Ba(CH3COO)2 aqueous solution (A salt of SBWA) at 62ºC

[Given : Kw at 62º = 10–13, Kb of CH3 COO = 5 × 10–9 ; log 2 = 0.3]
(A) 9 (B) 8.5 (C) 8.35 (D) 8.85

73. Which of the following give racemic mixture after the reaction with CH3MgBr followed by H3O+?

O O O O
(A) CH 3 – C – H (B) CH3 – C – Et (C) Et – C – H (D) H – C – H

74. Which of the following can act as ligand?


(A) H+ (B) NO+ (C) NH4+ (D) None of these

75. Given Bond Energy (in kJ mol–1)


Bond H–H O=O O–H O–O
Bond Energy 435 498 464 142
–1
Enthalpy of vaporisation of H2O2() = 52 kJ mol .
The enthalpy of formation of H2O2() is (in kJ mol–1)
(A) –85 (B) +47 (C) –189 (D) –127

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76. Find out value of ‘x’

HO CHO
(1) 'X'PhMgBr (excess)
Product
(2) H+/H2O
HS
CN

(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 2 (D) 4

77. Which compound of xenon does not exist?


(A) XeF+ (B) XeF3+ (C) XeF7– (D) XeF3–

241  209 Bi + x + y


78. 94 Pu 83

Calculate the value of (x – y)


(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4

79. Which of the following will react most rapidly with CH3MgBr?

O O O
(A) CH3COOH (B) CH 3 – C – H (C) CH 3 – C – CH3 (D) H – C – H

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CHEMISTRY
80. Incorrect order of stability is
(A) [Co(ox)3]3– > [Co(CN)6]3– (B) [Co(EDTA)]– > [Co(NH3)6]3+
(C) [Co(EDTA)]– > [Co(en)3]3+ (D) [Co(en)3]3+ > [Co(ox)3]3–

81. Calculate emf of cell ? (at 25ºC)

Pt H2(g) (0.1 MNH4OH + 0.05 MHCl) solution 0.2 MCH3COOH H2(g) Pt


1 atm + –5
pKa of NH 4 =9 Ka of CH3 COOH = 2 × 10 1 atm

(A) 0.372 V (B) 0.118 V (C) 0.236 V (D) 0.159 V

CH 3
82. HBr Major product

(A) (B) (C) Br (D)


Br Br
Br

83. Which of the following option is incorrect about [Cu(NH3)4]2+?


(A) It’s square planar complex with dsp2 hybridisation
(B) It gives deep blue colour solution
(C) It act as reducing agent due to presence of unpaired electron
(D) Ammonia is acting as a strong field ligand in [Cu(NH3)4]2+.

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CHEMISTRY
84. Consider the following reaction

15
C6H6() + O (g)  6CO2(g) + 3H2O(g)
2 2
The signs of G, S & H for the above reaction will be respectively.
(A) +, –, + (B) –, +, – (C) –, +, + (D) +, +, –

OH OH

85. + Ph–NNCl Product

N=N–Ph

The colour of product is?


(A) Orange (B) Yellow (C) Blue (D) Green

86. Which of the following statement is correct?


(A) O2 is paramagnetic, O3 is paramagnetic
(B) O2 is paramagnetic, O3 is diamagnetic
(C) B2 is paramagnetic, C2 is paramagnetic
(D) Same observation is found in their bond lengths when NO  NO+ and CO  CO+

87. A certain weak acid has a dissociation constant of 10–10. The equilibrium constant for its reaction with a
strong base is
(A) 10–4 (B) 10+10 (C) 10–10 (D) 104

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CHEMISTRY
88. Which of the following reaction is correct?

CH3 CH3 CH3


(A) C=C Br2 H Br
H H CCl 4 Br H
CH3
(±) Racemic
product

CH3 CH3 CH3


(B) C=C Cold H OH
H H KMnO4 HO H
CH3
(±) Racemic product
+2
Hg /HgSO4
(C) CH3 – C  CH CH3 – CH2 – C – H
O
CH3 CH2–CH3 CH3 H
C = C m-CPBA C – C
(D)
H H H O CH2–CH3

89. Which of the following statement is incorrect?


(A) Green Malachite and blue Azurite are ore of copper
(B) Tinstone with siliceous impurities can be concentrated by using levigation method
(C) Bauxite ore with major impurity silica can be concentrated by leaching method
(D) Zinc blende can be roasted to form philosphers wool

90. For the reaction 2A(g)  2B(g) + C(g), starting with pure A, pressure after 9 min was 575 mm of Hg and
after a long time was 600 mm of Hg. Calculate half life of A in min.
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) 4

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DATE : 30-07-17 CODE - A
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

B. Question paper format :


9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics).

10. Parts contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.

C. Marking Scheme :
11. For each question in Parts, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened only
the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.

[RT-5,JM_Mega, Code-A]

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DATE : 20-08-17 CODE - A

VIBRANT ACADEMY
(India) Private Limited
A-14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota-324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2423406, 2428666, 2428664, 2425407 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com

REVIEW TEST–6 (MEGA PHASE-I COURSE-2018)


JEE Advance (Paper-1)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 240
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 69 questions. The booklet has
32 pages.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and
on the back page (page no. 31) of this booklet.

3. The question paper contains 1 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and VA
Roll No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 32) of this booklet.

6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided


separately.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

8. Do not open the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.

B. Question paper format  Read the instructions printed on the back page

C. Marking scheme  (page no. 32) of this booklet.
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.

.......................................................... ............................................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator

USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, g = 10 m/s2 , B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Ne = 20, Na = 23,
Mg = 24, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Ar = 40 , Ti = 48, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.5, Br = 80, Mo = 96, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, U = 238
PART I : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

 1  1 1  1 1 1
1. Let S = C1 – 1   C2 + 1    C3 – ............. + (–1)n–1 1    ....   Cn then
 2  2 3  2 3 n

(where Cr = nCr)
(A) S is an integer (B) S is independent of n
(C) nS = 1 (D) None

x
 1 
2. No. of solution of the equation log1/16 (x) =   is /are
 16 

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) None

3. If the points where the lines 3x – 2y – 12 = 0 and x + ky + 3 = 0 intersect both the coordinate axes are
concyclic, then number of possible real values of k is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

d
4. If (f(x)) = e–x f(x) + ex f(–x) also f(0) = 0 then f(x) is :
dx

(A) an even function (B) an odd function


(C) Neither even nor odd (D) Can not comment

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MATHEMATICS
5. If f : [0, 1]  [0, ) is differentiable function with decreasing first derivative such that f(0) = 0 and
f (x) > 0 then :

1
1
dx f(1) dx f (1)
(A)  2
0
f (x)  1

f (1)
(B) f
0
2
(x)  1

f (1)

1 1
dx tan –1(f (1)) dx f (1)
(C) f
0
2
(x)  1

f (1) (D) f
0
2
(x)  1

f (1)

6. If A is invertible idempotent matrix such that B = A6 – 2A5 + 3A4 – 4A3 + 5A2 – 2A then |B| is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 21 (D) None

 
2 e – jx
 e  x dx  a then
7. If
0

0
x
dx (j > 0) is

a 2a
(A) 2a j (B) (C) a j (D)
j j

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - II
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the first paragraph, 2 multiple choice questions and based
upon the second paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has
four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 8 to 9
Consider f, g be two real valued differentiable functions defined on R.
Let g(x) = x3 + g(1) x2 + (3g(1) – g(1) – 1) x + 3g(1)
f(x) = xg(x) – 12x + 1

8. The function y = f(x) has


(A) exactly one local minima and no local maxima
(B) exactly one local maxima and no local minima
(C) exactly one local maxima and two local minima
(D) exactly two local maxima and one local minima

9. Which of the following is/are true for the function y = g(x)


 1   1 
(A) g(x) monotonically decreases in   ,2    2 
  ,  
 3  3 

 1 1 
(B) g(x) monotonically increases in  2  ,2  

 3 3
(C) There exist exactly one tangent to y = g(x) which is parallel to the chord joining the points (1, g(1)) and
(3, g(3)).
(D) there exist exactly two distinct langrange's mean values in (0, 4) for the function y = g(x)

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MATHEMATICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 10 to 12
Define a function f : (0, ) B

x
e t dt
f(x) = x   e x then
t
1

10. Over the interval (0, )


(A) f(x) has a point of local minima and a point of local maximum
(B) f(x) has a point of local minima but no point of local maximum
(C) f(x) has no point of local minima and has no point of local maximum
(D) f(x) has point local maxima but no point of local minima

11. If f(x) is a surjective function then set B =


(A) (–, ) (B) [0, ) (C) (–, –e) (D) None of these

12. The number of solutions of the equation f(x) = ex (x  nx – 1) in the interval (0, 1] is :
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - III
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

1 1 1 1 1 1
13. Let A = 1 + + + ....... + and B =   ....  then
2 3 120 2 3 121

(A) A > 20 (B) B < 20 (C) A + B > 40 (D) A + B < 40

1 1
x ( xx )
14. Let I1 =  x dx , I2 = dx then
0
x
0

(A) I1 > 1 (B) I2 > 1/3 (C) I1 < 2 (D) I2 < 1/2

15. Consider a real valued function f(x) such that

/ 2

f(x) = sinx +  (sin x  t f (t )) dt . If M and m are maximum and minimum value respectively of f(x) then
– / 2

(A) M + m = 4( + 1) (B) M – m = 2+ 1


(C) M/m = 3 (D) Mm = 3 (2 + 1)

16. Let f(x) be a non constant twice differentiable function defined on R such that f(2 + x) = f(2 – x) and
f (1/2) = 0 = f (1). Then which of the following is/are correct
(A) f(–4) = f(8) (B) Minimum no. of roots of equation f (x) = 0 in (0, 4) is 4

 /4 2 4

(C)  f(2  x) sin x dx  0 (D)  f (t )5 cos t dt =  f (4  t )5


cos t
dt
– / 4
0 2

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 7 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

3
17. The value of  1  ( x  1)3  ( x 2  1)1/ 3  dx is :
 
1

 29   30   31   91 
18. If  x   +  x  100  +  x  100  + .....+  x  100  = 546
 100       

(where [.] denotes greatest integer function)

[100 x ]
then value of is :
170

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MATHEMATICS
19. If curve y = kx2 intersect y = e|x| at exactly two points then value of [4k] is
(where [.] denotes greatest integer function)


20. Find maximum possible integral value of where 0 < < < 3
tan 1   tan 1 

4
k
21. If the value of  n | 13 sin x  3 3 cos x | dx is k then the value of log 7
e is

0

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MATHEMATICS

  
 xnx  2xn sin 1   2
22. If L = xlim
     then value of  is :
  x  L

23. Find minimum value of expression ( x1  x 2 )2  (8 2  x1  4  x 22 )2 ; x1 R, x2 [–2, 2]

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PART II : PHYSICS
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
24. Four identical samples of same polyatomic ideal gas undergo addition of same amount of heat under four
different processes namely PV1/2 = C; PV3/2 = C; P = C and PV2 = C. The final internal energy will be
maximum for the sample which has undergone. (C = constant)
(A) PV1/2 = C (B) PV3/2 = C (C) P = C (D) PV2 = C

25. A sound wave is travelling in a uniform pipe with gas of adiabatic exponent . If u is particle velocity at any
dP
point in medium and c is wave velocity, then relative change in pressure while wave passes through this
P
point is :

u u u u2
(A) (B)  (C)  (D)
c c c c 2

26. Consider a metallic sphere of radius R concentric with another hollow metallic sphere of inner radius 2R and
outer radius 3R as shown in the figure. The inner sphere is given a charge –Q and outer +2Q.
The electrostatic potential energy of the system is :

Q2 3Q2 +2Q
(A) (B)
160R 160R
–Q
R
5Q2 11Q2 2R
(C) (D)
480R 480R 3R

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PHYSICS
27. In a cylindrical glass container a solid silica cylinder is placed vertically at its bottom and remaining space is
filled with mercury upto the top level of the silica cylinder as shown in the figure. Assume that the volume of
the silica remains unchanged due to variation in temperature. The coefficient of cubical expansion of mercury
is  and coefficient of linear expansion of glass is . If the top surface of silica and mercury level remain at
the same level with the variation in temperature then the ratio of volume of silica to the volume of mercury is
equal to (Initial volume).

 
(A) (B)
2 3

 
(C) –1 (D) –1
2 3

28. A liquid of density  and surface tension T is filled in the tube and the tube is rotated with angular velocity 
about the given axis. Radius is small. Contact angle is 0º. The difference in heights of liquid in two columns
is (Radius of columns are shown in figure).

2R R
L2 2R – T L2 2R  4T
(A) (B)
2Rg 4Rg

L2 2R – 4T L2 2R
(C) (D)
2Rg g L/4 3L/4

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PHYSICS
29. Two inclined planes AB and BC are at inclination of 60º and 30º as shown in the figure. The two projectiles of
same mass are thrown simultaneously from A and C with speed 2 m/s and v0 m/s respectively, they strike at
1
B with same speed. If length of AB is m and BC is 1m, then find the value of v 0
3

 
A C

60º 30º
B

(A) (1/2) m/s (B) 1 m/s (C) 2 m/s (D) None of these

30. Resistance of each resistor is R. Then the equivalent resistance across A and B is

F A

E B

D C

5 4 R
(A) R (B) R (C) (D) None of these
9 9 9

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PHYSICS
SECTION - II
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the first paragraph, 2 multiple choice questions and based
upon the second paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has
four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 31 to 32
Two charged particles approach each other from very large distance as shown, their masses, charges and
initial velocity are shown in figure. (consider gravitational force between the particle is negligible).

M,Q
V
L
2Q
2M 2V
31. If the least separation between the particles is b, what is the speed of M in center of mass frame when
particles are closest.
(A) LV/b, (B) 2LV/b, (C) 3LV/b, (D) 4LV/b

Q2
32. If = 180, find the least separation between the particles.
LMV 2

 3  13   3  13 
(A) 
 5
 L

(B) 
 2
 L


(C) 3  13 L  (D) 2L

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PHYSICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 33 to 35
In a cylindrical container of sufficiently large height, two easily moving thin pistons enclose certain amount of
same ideal gas in two chambers as shown in the figure. The upper piston is at a height 20 cm from the
bottom and lower piston is at a height 8 cm from the bottom. The mass of each piston is m kg and cross
mg
sectional area of each piston is A m2, where = P0 and P0 is the atmospheric pressure = 1 × 105 N/m2.
A
The cylindrical container and pistons are made of conducting material. Initially the temperature of gas is
27ºC and whole system is in equilibrium. Now if the upper piston is slowly lifted by 16 cm and held in that
position with the help of some external force. As a result, the lower piston rises slowly by  distance.

P0 (Thin pistons)

Upper chamber

20cm Lower chamber


8cm

33. The value of  is


(A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 8 cm (D) 6 cm

34. Find the ratio of volume of gas in upper chamber to that of in lower chamber in final state.
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4

35. Find the pressure of gas in lower chamber in final state.


(A) 1.0 × 105 N/m2 (B) 2.0 × 105 N/m2 (C) 3.0 × 105 N/m2 (D) 4.0 × 105 N/m2

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PHYSICS
SECTION - III
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

36. Two spherical black bodies A and B, having radii rA and rB where rB = 2rA emit radiation with peak intensities
at wavelength 400 nm and 800 nm respectively. If their temperature are TA and TB respectively in Kelvin scale,
their emissive powers are EA and EB and energies emitted per second PA and PB then (emissivity same).

TA PA EA EA
(A) =2 (B) =4 (C) =8 (D) =4
TB PB EB EB

37. In the figure shown.

(A) Currents in R4 and R5 are equal.


(B) Current in R2 and R3 are equal.
(C) Current in R1 is equal to the sum of currents in R3, R4 and R5.
(D) Current in R1 is equal to the sum of currents in R2, R4 and R5.

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PHYSICS
38. A hemispherical shell of mass 2M and radius 6R and a point mass M are performing circular motion due to
their mutual gravitational interaction. Their positions are shown in figure at any moment of time during motion.
If r1 and r2 are the radii of circular path of centre of mass of hemispherical shell and point mass respectively
and 1 and 2 are the angular speeds of hemi-spherical shell and point mass respectively, then choose the
correct statement(s). y

r1 2 r1 1
(A) r  1 (B) r  2
2 2
O x
M
GM GM
(C) 1  (D) 2 = z
72R3 72R3

39. A student performs an experiment to find the radius (R) of an equi-convex thin lens and refractive index (>1)
of a liquid. The refractive index of lens is 1.5.
Experiment-1 : The student puts the lens in air and keeps an object at point O, whose image is formed at
point I as shown in the figure-1.

A x
O I

60cm 60cm

Experiment-2 : The student again performs the experiment keeping the object and lens at same positions
and putting a liquid of refractive index of  to the left side of the lens only. Now the ray diagram is as shown
in the figure-2. xx represents the principal axis of the lens. Choose the incorrect statements.

O x
x'

(A) R = 60 cm (B) R = 30 cm (C)  = 4/3 (D)  = 5/3

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PHYSICS
SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 7 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

40. In the given figure, ABC is a non-conducting semicircular wire of radius “a” carrying total charge Q uniformly
distrbuted on it and a point charge q is at its centre. Ends of the wire are attached to, two seperate springs,
each having spring constant k as shown in the figure. In the given position, system is in equilibrium. Now the
xqQ
point charge q is suddenly removed. The amplitude of resulting oscillation is . Find the value of x.
82 0 a2k
(Ignore any force other than spring force and electrostatic force on the ring)

k A++++
++ Q
++
+++++++

q B
a
++
k C +++
++

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PHYSICS
41. Image distance |v| vs object distance |u| curve for two biconvex lens with same radii of curvatures is shown in
5
the figure. If refractive index of lens1 is , find refractive index of lens2.
2

|v|
30cm
(2)
20cm
(1)
45º
|u|

42. A thin sqaure plate of side  = 10cm is dragged with constatn velocity v = 3 cm/s in an oil. The width ‘d’ of the
oil column is 2mm. Square plate is placed symmetrically as shown in the figure. Assumed velocity of layer
of oil at the end is negligible. The coefficient of visocsity is 150 poise. Find the horizontal force (in Newton)
required to move the square plate with constant velocity.

d/2
d v

d/2

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PHYSICS
43. In the shown circuit all the resistors are of same resistance R = 11. They are connected through a battery
of 10 V. When cell is switched on, the current through the battery is 2/k amp. Find the value of k.

R R

R R R
R R

R R

44. In a young’s double slit experiment one of the slits is covered by a thin film of thickness t = 0.4 mm, and
9  10 –14 m2
refractive index  = 1.2 + , where,  is the wave length in meter. A beam of light consisting two
2
wavelengths 1 = 400 nm and 2 = 600 nm falls normally on the plane of the slits. Find the distance between
two central maxima in milimeter. Distance of screen from slits is 400 times the separation between the slits.

S1

P
S2

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PHYSICS
45. Two sound waves of frequencies 100 Hz and 102 Hz and having same amplitude ‘A’ are interfering. A stationary
detector, which can detect waves of amplitude greater than or equal to A, So, in a given time interval of 12
seconds, find the total duration in which detector is active.

46. A charge +Q is located somewhere inside a vertical cone such that the depth of the charge from the flat
3Q
surface of the cone is H. It is found that the flux associated with the cone with the curved surface is 5 . If
0
the charge is raised vertically through a height 2H, the flux associated with the cone with the curved surface
Q
is . What should be the value of ?
200

H
+Q

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PART III : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
47. Roasting of which of the following metal sulphide requires higher temperature :
(A) ZnS (B) Cu2S (C) FeS2 (D) PbS

HBr
48. (1 eq) Major product is:

CH3 Br
CH3
CH3
(A) (B) Br (C) (D)
Br Br

49. In the nuclear transmutation


16
8 O  X  14
7 N Y ; (X, Y) is :

(A) (p, ) (B) (D, ) (C) (n, p) (D) (, )

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CHEMISTRY
50. Select incorrect statement for Al2Cl6
(A) It is not electron deficient compound
(B) It does not react with NMe3
(C) It is more stable than Al2Br6
(D) It can undergo two types of bond cleavage on reaction with lewis bases

51.

Following conversion is carried out by reagent.


(A) LiAlH4, H2O (B) NaBH4, H2O (C) PhMgBr (D) H3O+

52. Which of the following process is not involved in the commercial extraction of pure copper from its ore
(A) Frothfloatation (B) Roasting (C) Poling (D) Carbon reduction

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CHEMISTRY
53. Give the suitable major product for following reaction ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - II
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the first paragraph, 2 multiple choice questions and based
upon the second paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has
four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 54 to 55
Refining of crude metal is carried out by physical methods, chemical methods, and finally electrolytic refining.
Chemical methods of refining like oxidation, poling are best explained by Ellingham diagram. Consider
following Ellingham diagram and answer following given questions :

Ag2O
+100
0
–100 Cu2O
–200 SnO2
PbO
–300  CO2
G CO+O2 FeO
(kJ/mole) –400
per mole O2 –500
–600
–700 MnO C+
SiO2 O
2 
–800 CO

1200ºC 1500ºC

54. If impure iron (pig iron) contains impurities of C, Mn, Si and it is refined by Bessemerization process or by
oxidation process, which of the following species can not thermodynamically reduce FeO at temperature
range 1200ºC to 1500ºC on the basis of above diagram?
(A) Si (B) Mn (C) C (D) MnO

55. Select incorrect statement for Cupellation process


(A) It is used for refining of silver by oxidation
(B) Impurity of lead is more oxidizable than silver metal
(C) Oxidation of impurity of lead is exothermic process
(D) Some part of refined silver is lost due to formation of Ag2O

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CHEMISTRY
Paragraph for Question Nos. 56 to 58

56. If LiAlH4 is replaced by 2 mole of CH3MgBr than the (D) product is :

O O HO HO

(A) OH (B) OH (C) OH (D) OH

57. If LiAlH4 is directly reacted with compound A than the end product can be :

HO OH OH HO
OH
OH COOCH3
(A) (B) OH (C) (D)

58. Product ‘F’ in above reaction sequence is :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - III
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

F
NO2 O
NH2–NH2
A +
B
59. H, Products

NO2

Correct statements regarding above reaction is


(A) Product A is 2, 4-DNP (B) A to B dehydration reaction
(C) A to B, geometrical isomersm will obtained as a product (D) B is known as oxime

60. For given complex formation reaction :


Hg2+(aq) + Co2+(aq) + SCN– (aq) ‘P’ (Water insoluble coloured complex compound)
excess
Select correct statement(s) for complex compound ‘P’.
(A) It has paramagnetic character due to its complex anionic part
(B) Central metal cation of complex compound ‘P’ is Hg2+
(C) Hybridization of central metal is sp3
(D) Colour of complex compound ‘P’ is not due to d–d electronic transition

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CHEMISTRY
61. For the reaction A(g) + B(g) C(g), Probable energy profile is

TS2
60

Potential energy
(kJ/mole)
TS1
35
25
20 C
I
10
A+B

Progress of reaction

Select correct statement(s)


(A) Reaction is endothermic. (B) Activation energy of first elementary reaction is 35 kJ/mole.
(C) It must be a complex reaction. (D) Activation energy for rate determining step is 40 kJ/mole.

62. Consider following reactions that occur in the extraction of lead by self reduction :
T1
PbS + 2O2 (g)  PbSO4 ....(i)

3
PbS + O (g) 
T2
 PbO + SO2 .....(ii)
2 2
T3
PbS + 2PbO   3Pb + SO2 .....(iii)
and select correct statement(s) :
(A) PbS and PbO do not melt at temperature T2
(B) Reactions (i) and (ii) are exothermic
(C) In reaction (iii), redox reaction occurs between S2– and Pb2+
(D) Thermodynamical feasibility of reaction (iii) increases when Pb is extracted in molten form

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 7 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

63. 0.6M, 10 Litre aqueous solution of CuSO4 is electrolysed completely using platinum electrode, if gas evolved
at anode is used in the complete combustion of C4H8 then calculate number of moles of CO2 evolved in the
combustion.

64. Consider following complex formation reactions :


(i) Co3+(aq) + KCN (excess) Complex ion ‘P’

(ii) Ni2+(aq) + KCN (excess) Complex ion ‘Q’

(iii) Cu2+(aq) + KCN (excess) Complex ion ‘R’


and find the value of expression |x + y – z| for complex ions ‘P’, ‘Q’ and ‘R’
Where, x = Total number of electron(s) present in t2g orbitals of central metal cation of complex ion ‘P’
y = Total number of electron(s) present in d orbital of central metal cation of complex ion ‘Q’
x2 – y2

z = Total number of electron(s) present in d orbital of central metal cation of complex ion ‘R’
x2 – y2

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CHEMISTRY
65. Magnitude of resonance energy of CO2 is x × 10y(kJ/mole). Calculate (x + y) from following data.
Given : HCombustion of CO(g) = – 280 kJ/mole ; HAtomisation of C(graphite) = 720 kJ/mole
fH CO(g) = – 120 kJ/mole ; BE of (O=O) = 500 kJ/mole ; BE of C=O = 710 kJ/mole

66. The pH of blood stream is maintained by a proper balance of H2CO3 and NaHCO3 concentrations. What
volume (in ml) of 5M NaHCO3 solution should be mixed with a 10ml sample of blood which is 2M in H2CO3
(pKa H2CO3 = 7.1) in order to maintain a pH of 7.4.

67. No. of reaction in which aromatic product form.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(E) (F)

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CHEMISTRY
68. Electrolysis of an aqueous solution of NaCl produces Cl 2(g). The reaction occurs at anode is

2Cl 
 Cl2  2e  . A constant electric current of 96.5% efficiency liberate 6.39 gm Cl2 in 60 minutes from

an aqueous solution of NaCl. What is the current (amp.)?

69. 0.004 mol of SO2Cl2(g) is taken in a sealed vessel where it decomposes as


SO2Cl2(g)  SO2(g) + Cl2(g)
After 0.2303 hour gaseous mixture is passed through a 150 ml of an acidified 0.1 N, I2(aq) solution where all
SO2 is oxidised to SO42–. The resulting solution of I2 required 90 ml of 0.1 M Na2S2O3 (aq) solution.
Calculate rate constant (in hr–1) of the reaction. (Given : log2 = 0.3)

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DATE : 20-08-17 CODE - A
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

B. Question paper format :


9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry). Each
part has 4 sections.

10. Section I contains 7 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.

11. Section II contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the first paragraph, 2 multiple choice
questions and based upon the second paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to
be answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which only one of correct.

12. Section III contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.

13. Section IV contains 7 questions. The answer to each of the questions is an


integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the
ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section.

C. Marking Scheme :
14. For each question in Section-I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened
only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.

15. For each question in Section-II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darken
only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.

16. For each question in Section-III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darken
only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. No negative marks will be awarded in this Section.
[RT-6,JA_Mega_Phase-I_P-1,A]

17. For each question in Section-IV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened.
No negative marks will be awarded for in this Section.

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DATE : 20-08-17 CODE - A

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REVIEW TEST–6 (MEGA PHASE-I COURSE-2018)


JEE Advance (Paper-2)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 240
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions. The booklet has
32 pages.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and
on the back page (page no. 32) of this booklet.

3. The question paper contains 2 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and VA
Roll No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 32) of this booklet.

6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided


separately.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

8. Do not open the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.

B. Question paper format  Read the instructions printed on the back page

C. Marking scheme  (page no. 32) of this booklet.
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.

.......................................................... ............................................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator

USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, g = 10 m/s2 , B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Ne = 20, Na = 23,
Mg = 24, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Ar = 40 , Ti = 48, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.5, Br = 80, Mo = 96, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, U = 238
PART I : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

 1 1 2
1. If A    then matrix B = A – A + I is given by
 1 1

(A) 3A – 2I (B) A – I (C) I – A (D) I + A

 
2. Let <A< and a function f(x) is defined as
3 2

 ax 2 (sin A  sin3 A)  (5x  b) | sin A  sin3 A |n


lim
n  ; x Q
 (sin A  sin3 A) | sin A  sin3 A |n
f(x) = 
ax 2 (sin A  sin3 A)  (5x  b) | sin A  sin3 A |n
 lim ; x Q
n  (sin A  sin3 A) | sin A  sin3 A |n

If f(x) is continuous at x = 2 and x = 3 then value of b – a is :


(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6

3. Let f(x) be an even function which is mapped from (–, ) to (1, 3). Then sum of all the possible values of

x 
 f ( t )dt  [ f ( x )]  dx is :
 
  0

(where [.] denotes greatest integer function)


(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 4

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MATHEMATICS
cos 
4.  n 
 f (x tan )dx    2 ,n  I  is equal to
sin 
 

tan  sin 

 f(x) dx
(A) (–cos) 
1
f ( x sin  ) dx (B) – tan
cos 

tan  sin  tan 


1
(C) sin  f ( x cos )dx (D)
tan 
sin 
 f (x )dx
1

/2
cos xdx
5. 
 / 2
1  2[sin –1(sin x )]
is (where [.] denotes greatest integer function)


(A)  (B) 1 (C) 0 (D)
2

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MATHEMATICS

4
sin 1(sin x)  cos 1(cos x )
 (1  2 )2 

dx  n 
 + btan–1  c –  
6.  2
  x   a 

 1  c 
 
4
(1  x 2 ) 1    
  17  
  

(where [.] denotes greatest integer function)

a5
then number of ways in which a – (b + c) distinct object can be distributed among persons equally is:
c

9! 12! 15! 18!


(A) 3 (B) 3 (C) 3 (D) 3!
(3! ) ( 4! ) (5! ) (6! )3

7. The locus of middle point of the chords of x2 + y2 = a2 such that these chords cut the curve x2 – 2x – 2y =
0 at A and B and AB subtends right angle at origin, will be :
(A) x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y = 0 (B) x2 + y2 + x – 6y + 3 = 0
2 2
(C) x + y – 6y – 4x = 0 (D) x2 + y2 – 6x + 3 = 0

8. 3C 11C + 4C 10C + 5C39C4 + ......... + 10C34C4 = xCy ; where y is odd natural number then x + y is :
3 4 3 4
(A) 21 (B) 23 (C) 22 (D) None

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

x2
 1 
9. If f(x) =   cos
0
t
 1 dt ; x  1 then

(A) f(x) is an increasing function in the interval [1, ) (B) xlim



f (x) = 4

(C) f(4) + f(6) > 2f(5) (D) for atleast one x in [1, ) , f (x + 3) – f (x) < 12

1 x 2
10. Consider a real valued function H(x) =  (t  2)(t  5)(t  10) dt then
1

(A) H(x) has 7 critical points (B) H(x) = 0 has exactly 3 positive roots
(C) H(x) = 0 has eactly 2 positive roots (D) H(x) H(x) = 0 has 13 distinct real roots

11. Let a, b R be the distinct consecutive root of a polynomial (x). Let be any real number. Then atleast one
root of
(A) (x) + (x) = 0 lies in [a, b] R (B) x (x) + (x)= 0 lies in [a, b] R
2
(C) (x + 1) (x) + (x) = 0 lies in [a, b] (D) (x) + x(x) = 0 lies in [a, b]

12. If (x) = f(x) + f(2a – x) and f (x) > 0, a > 0, x [0, 2a] then
(A) (x) increases in (a, 2a) (B) (x) increases in (0, a)
(C) (x) decrease in (0, a) (D) (x) decreases in (a, 2a)

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - III
Matrix - Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to
be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are
labelled P, Q, R, S and T. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have
to be darkened as illustrated in the following example :
If the correct matches are A – Q, S and T; B – Q and R; C – P and Q; and D – S and T; then the correct
darkening of bubbles will look like the following.
P Q R S T
A P Q R S T

B P Q R S T

C P Q R S T

D P Q R S T

13. Considering the function

x
2
f(x) =  (5n(1  t
0
) – 10t.tan–1t + 16sint) dt

Column-I Column-II
(A) f(x) is (P) Positive for all x  (0, 1)
(B) f (x) is (Q) Negative for all x (0, 1)

x
(C)  f (t)dt
0
is (R) Increasing for all x  (0, 1)

(D) f (x) is (S) Decreasing for all x (0, 1)


(T) Has a point of local maxima in (0, 1)

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MATHEMATICS
14. Column-I Column-II

1 6
cos xdx cos(  / 3)
(A) If 
0
1 x
 k and  6  3   dx = mk then m is
6  3
(P) 3

1
 –1  3 
(B)   sin
1
x  4   dx = k then k is
 
(Q) 4

(where [.] denotes greatest integer function)


(C) If f(x) = max (x – [x], x + [x]) (R) 1

3
9
and  f(x)dx  k
–3
then k is (S) 0

(where [.] denotes greatest integer function)

20
10k 2
(D) If  0
1  cos x dx =

then k is (T) None

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

15. Four friends (A, B, C, D) passing a ball to each other as A  B  C  A  D  B D  ...... If A start
passing the ball and k is the total number of ways such that after the 5th pass, the ball reaches back to A.

k
Then the value of is : (A can receive the ball in between as well)
20

16. Let f(x) = x+ 3xwith > 1, > 1. The value of a for which the area of the figure bounded by the graph of
y = f(x) and straightline x = 0, x = 1 and y = f(a) have the greatest value is A and the value for which area is
minimum is B. Find the value of A + 2B =

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MATHEMATICS
  
17. If f : (0, )    , 
 2 2

 nx 
f(x) = tan–1  
2 
 1  (nx ) 


if  [f (x )] dx is k then value of (2k + 5) is
0

(where [.] denotes gretest integer function)

0
  2   1  2
If I = =  cot 1   cot 1 cos x    dx , then
18. 
 / 3   2 cos x  1   2  I
is equal to

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MATHEMATICS
10
3 k
19. If ] dx  k then value of   is (where [.] denotes greatest integer function)
 [x
10
3

20. The line x + 2y + a = 0 intersect the circle x 2 + y2 = 4 at two distinct points A and B. Another line
12x – 6y – 41 = 0 intersect the circle x2 + y2 – 4x – 2y + 1 = 0 at two distinct point C and D. The value of "a"
for which four points A, B, C, D are concyclic is :

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PART II : PHYSICS
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
21. A rod is taken as a compound pendulum and can be pivoted at any of it's point along it's length. The time
period can be the same for a maximum of
(A) One point (B) Two points (C) Three points (D) Four points

22. A dipole is kept in circular plane of a uniformly charged hemispherical shell. Center of dipole coincide with
center of hemispherical shell and dipole is restricted to move in given circular plane. Identify it's type of
equilibrium if dipole is slightly rotate in this plane.

×××
××
×
×
× P
×

(A) Neutral (B) Unstable


(C) Stable (D) Depends upon the direction of rotation

23. An interference is observed due to coherent sources 'A' and 'B' having phase constant zero separated by a
distance 4 along the y-axis where  is the wavelength of the sources. A detector D is moved on the positive
x-axis. The numer of points on the x-axis excluding the points. x = 0 and x = at which maxima will be
observed are
y

B x
D
(A) Three (B) Four (C) Two (D) Infinite

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PHYSICS

 4
24. A parallel beam of light is incident on a thin prism of prism angle of   degree. The refractive index of the

prism is 1.5. The focal length of the lens is 60 cm. the coordinates of converging point of the beam is.
y
80 c.m.


x
O

 2   1   1   2 
(A)  60c.m., c.m. (B)  60c.m., c.m. (C)  60c.m.,  c.m. (D)  60c.m.,  c.m.
 3   3   3   3 

25. In an optical device silicon ( = 3.5) is coated with glass ( = 1.45). Determine the minimum thickness of
glass that produces the least reflection at  = 550 nm.
(A) 96.8 nm (B) 94.8 nm (C) 92.8 nm (D) 90.8 nm

26. One mole of a monoatomic gas is taken from P to R, via three paths PQR, PR ans PSR. If work done by the
gas in PQR is W 1, in PR is W 2 and in PSR is W 3. Then

V
Q R

P
S
T

(A) W 2 > W 3 > W 1 (B) W 1 > W 2 > W 3 (C) W 2 > W 1 > W 3 (D) W 3 > W 2 > W 1

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PHYSICS
3
27. Air is blown through a pipe AB at a rate of 1600 cm /sec. The cross section area of the broad portion of pipe
is 4 cm2 and that of narrow portion is 2 cm2. The difference in water length is
(air = 1.4 kg/m3, water = 103 kg/m3)

A
B

(A) 1.6 mm (B) 3 mm (C) 3.36 mm (D) None

28. Two points A and B are at difference of a and b respectively at one side from an infinite conducting plate
having surface charge density . The work done by external agent in moving charge Q from A to B is :

Q(b  a)  Q
(A) – (B) – Q (C) – (D) None of these
0 (b  a) (b  a) 0

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PHYSICS
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

29. A glass capillary tube is dipped vertically in water as shown in the figure. Due to capillary action water rises
upto height h. Now a small pin hole is made in capillary at point p shown in the figure. Choose the correct
statement / statements.

h p h
2

(A) Water will not come out of the tube from pinhole of the capillary.
(B) Surface of the meniscus on pinhole will be convex out ward.
(C) Pressure at point p inside the liquid is equal to atmospheric pressure.
(D) Pressure inside the liquid at point p is less than the atmospheric pressure.

30. A plane sound wave whose displacement versus position graph at any instant is shown here and wave
travelling along +ve x-direction. Select the correct statement(s).

S(m)

C
A B D X(m)

(A) air particle at point A has velocity in right direction and is a rare faction.
(B) air particle at point B has velocity in right direction and is a rarefaction.
(C) air particle at point C has zero velocity and is under compression.
(D) air particle at point D has velocity in left direction and is a rare faction.

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PHYSICS
31. A particle tied at one end of an inexpansible string of length R, whose another end is fixed. Particle is
performing circular motion in vertical plane. Ratio of maximum to minimum speed is . Choose the correct
options.

 4 2 
(A) Speed at the top most point is   2  1 gR

 4 
(B) Speed at the top most point is  2  gR
  1

 5 2  1
(C) Ratio of maximum to minimum tension is 
 5   2 

  2  1
2
(D) Ratio of tension in string to weight when string is horizontal is  2 .
   1

32. A metal cylinder of 5kg is heated electrically by a 20W heater in a room at 20oC. The cylinder temperature
rises uniformly to 30oC in 5 minute and finally becomes constant at 45oC. Assuming that the rate of heat loss
is proportional to the excess temperature over the surroundings. Choose the correct option(s).
(A) The rate of loss of heat of cylinder to surrounding at 25oC is 4W.
(B) The rate of loss of heat of cylinder to surrounding at 45oC is 20W.
(C) The rate of loss of heat of cylinder to surrounding at 25oC is 8W.
(D) The rate of loss of heat of cylinder to surrounding at 45o is zero.

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PHYSICS
SECTION - III
Matrix - Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to
be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are
labelled P, Q, R, S and T. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have
to be darkened as illustrated in the following example :
If the correct matches are A – Q, S and T; B – Q and R; C – P and Q; and D – S and T; then the correct
darkening of bubbles will look like the following.
P Q R S T
A P Q R S T

B P Q R S T

C P Q R S T

D P Q R S T

33. The magnitude of potential energies of the following system.


Column-I Column-II
2M

r
M 4GM2
(A) (P) 
4r Point 3r
Mass

Solid Sphere
2M

r
M GM2
(B) (Q) 
3r Point 2r
Mass

Ring

4M

r
M  2GM2 
(C) (R)    loge 2
3r Point  r 
Mass

Spherical Shell

M
GM2
(D) Rod 2M (S) 
r
r r
Point
Mass
[RT-6,JA_Mega_Phase-I_P-2,A]

2GM2
(T) 
r

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PHYSICS
34. A point charge q0 is placed inside a spherical cavity of a conductor. Another point charge Q is placed outside
the conductor as shown.

q0
Q
A B

List-I gives assertion statements and list-II gives it's reason statements. Match the assertions with proper
reason. (at v  = potential at infinite = zero)
Column-I Column-II
(A) Total charge induced on (P) if cavity is surrounded by
cavity wall is equal a gaussians surface, where all
and opposite to q0. parts of gaussians surface are
located inside conductor then,

 E.dA  0 . Hence, total charge
enclosed by cavity = 0
(B) As the point charge Q placed outside (Q) The resultant electric field due to
is pushed away from conductor, the charges on outer surface of conductor
potential difference (VA – VB) between and outside the conductor is zero at all
two points A and B within cavity of points inside the conductor.
sphere remains constant

(C) Electric field due to induced charges. on (R) The resultant electric field due to
the inner surface of cavity at a point charges induced on inner surface of
outside the conductor is non zero. conductor cavity and charge q0 placed
inside cavity is zero at all points
outside cavity.

(D) Electric potential at a point outside the (S) Net electric potential due to charges
conductor due to induced charges on the induced on inner Surface of cavity and
inner surface of cavity is non-zero. charge q0 placed inside cavity is zero
at all points outside cavity.

(T) Net electric field inside cavity is zero


every where.

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PHYSICS
SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

 4Re q 
35. Find equivalent resistance (in ohm) rounded to nearest integer across terminals of the battery. Fill  5 
 

in OMR sheet.

2 3
4
6 9

36. In a Y.D.S.E. set up, D = 3m, d = 2mm and  = 500nm. When a slab of transparent material ( = 1.5,
t = 2m) is pasted in front of lower slit, how many maxima are found between new central maxima and the
centre of the screen (excluding the central maxima and maxima at centre of screen, if any).

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PHYSICS
37. Conducting spheric shell of radius R carrying charge Q, another charge Q is placed at 3R distance from

 14KQ 
centre of shell. If the potential at point P due to charge on shell is   , Then the value of n is.
3nR 

× ××
×
× R
3R
×
× O P Q
× R/2
×
×
× × ×

38. A particle is taken to a height k times radius of earth, above the surface of earth and projected at an angle of

15
30o to the vertical. During it's subsequent motion, it just grazes the surface of earth with a speed times,
4
The escape speed from the surface of earth. Find the value of K if (k < 9).

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PHYSICS
39. A and B are thin lenses 1, 2 and 3 are representative wave fronts of incident and refracted monochromatic
light with distances from the lenses as shown. The radii of curvature of wave fronts. 2 and 3 are 4m and 7m
respectively. Find the focal length (modulus value) of lens B in meter. Take the distances as given in the
figure.

A B
1 2 3

1m 1m

2m

40. A straight rod of length L and mass M is pivoted freely from a point of the roof. It's lower end is connected to
an ideal spring of spring constant K. The other end of the spring is connected to the wall as shown in the

1 k g
figure. The frequency of small oscillations of the system is found to be r    , find r..
2  m 2L 

M, L

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PART III : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
41. Which of the following pair is incorrectly matched?
(A) Poling : Pb (B) Van Arkel method : Boron
(C) zone refining : Silicon (D) Froth floatation method : Calamine

42. Identify the compound that give diastereomeric product on reaction with MeMgCl.

CH3 O
O O H3C ||
||

||
(A) H3C CH3 (B) (C) CH3 C OH (D)
||
O

NO3 0.79V NO 2 1.12V HNO 2 1.0V NO 1.59V N2O 1.77V N2 0.27V NH4
– +
43.
Identify the set of species in which both can be disproprotionate
(A) NO2 , HNO2 (B) NO2 , NO (C) N2O , N2 (D) NO3– , NO2

44. Select incorrect process involved in commercial extraction of metal from its ore.
Complete roasting  thermal decomposition
(A) Cinnabar   Hg impure

Leaching  Metal displacement Ag impure


(B) Argentite  

Roasting  carbon reduction


(C) Galena   Pb impure

Leaching  Metal displacement


(D) Bauxite   Al impure

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CHEMISTRY
45. Solubility product of Ag2CO3 is 4×10–12M3.
(A) It’s solubility in water is 10–4 g/L.
(B) It’s solubility increase when K2CO3 added in saturated solution.
(C) It’s solubility increases when ammonia added in saturated solution.
(D) It solubility does not affected, when AgNO3 added in solution.

x y z
46. CH3–CH2–CH=CH2  CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH  CH3–CH=CH–CH3 

The correct reagent x,y,z for the following reaction is ?


(A) x = aqueous H2SO4 , y = BH3/ THF , z = O3 ; Zn
(B) x = BH3 ; THF followed by H2O2, OH– , y = Conc. H2SO4, , z = O3 ; H2O2
(C) x = BH3 ; THF followed by CH3COOH, y = Conc. H2SO4 , z = O3 / Zn
(D) x = H+/H2O , y = H2SO4 aqueous , z = O3; Zn

47. In which of the following pair of metals, both are commercially extracted from their respective ores by carbon
reduction method?
(A) Zn, Cu (B) Fe, Cu (C) Sn, Zn (D) Al, Pb

48. Which of the following option will be correct when equilibrium attain at half completion of reaction
A(g) B(g) ?
(A) Gº < 0 (B) Gº = 0 (C) Gº = RT log2 (D) Gº = – RT log2

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

H2/Pd
x
(1mole)
||

49.
HBr y
(1mole)

The 'x' and 'y' major products are :

Br
|| | | ||

(A) x = (B) y = (C) x = (D) y =

|
Br

50. For given Galvanic cell


Ag(s) | AgCl(s) | Cl–(aq, 0.1M) || Ag+(aq, 0.1M) | Ag(s)

RT
Given : Ksp (AgCl) = 10–10 ; E 0Ag / Ag = 0.8 volt ; 2.303 = 0.06
F
(A) Overall cell reaction is Ag+(aq) + Cl–(aq)  AgCl(s) (B) Eºcell is zero
(C) Eºcell is 0.2 volt (D) Ecell is 0.48 volt

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CHEMISTRY
51. Which order is correct for SN1 reaction ?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

52. The enthalpy change for vapourisation of liquid A at 400K and 1 atm is 26 kJ/mol.
For liquid A normal boiling point is 500K.
A (, 400, 1 atm) A(g, 400K, 1 atm)
Given : Cp,m A () = 50J/K mole ; Cp,m A(g) = 40 J/K mole ; n 5/4 = 0.22
Find correct option(s)
(A) Svap (400K) = 52.2 J/Kmole (B) Svap (500 K) > Svap (400K)
(C) G510K < 0 (D) G400K > 0

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - III
Matrix - Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to
be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are
labelled P, Q, R, S and T. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have
to be darkened as illustrated in the following example :
If the correct matches are A – Q, S and T; B – Q and R; C – P and Q; and D – S and T; then the correct
darkening of bubbles will look like the following.
P Q R S T
A P Q R S T

B P Q R S T

C P Q R S T

D P Q R S T

53. Column-I Column-II


Co-ordination compounds Characteristics of Co-orderation compounds
(A) K2[NiBr2(NO3)2(en)] (P) It exhibits structural isomerism
(B) [IrCl(SCN)(H2O)(NH3)3] (Q) Number of geometrical isomers are less
than optical isomers
(C) [Pt(gly)3](acac) (R) Low spin complex ion
(D) [Co(gly)(H2O)2(NH3)2][Cu(NO2)4] (S) Electron migrates from (n – 1) d-subshell of
central metal cation to its valence shell.
(T) Total number of optical isomers is equal to four.

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CHEMISTRY
54. Column - I Column - II

Ph
+
H3O
Me OEt
(A) (P) SN1
Et

NaI
(B) (Q) SN2
Acetone

(C) Conc. HI (R) SN–Ar


OH

F
(D) KOH (S) Carbanion is the intermediate

NO2

(T) Carbocation is the intermediate

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

55. Consider the electrolytic refining of Cu in presence of CuSO4(aq.) and dil. H2SO4 containing impurities of Fe,
Ag, Zn, Au, Pt, Al and Cr.
Find the value of |X – Y|.
where X = Number of impurities which are present in solution.
Y = Number of impurities present in anode mud.

56. The Ka values of H3PO4 are 10–3, 10–8 and 10–13. The pH of Solution containing 0.1 M NaH2PO4 and 1M
Na2HPO4 is

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CHEMISTRY
57. In a sample of pitchblende the ratio of 206Pb : 238U = 0.2 : 1 by weight. If disintegration constant of 238U is 1.54
× 10–10 per year and all Pb is supposed to be originated from uranium then, the age of mineral is
1.35 × 10x years. The value of x is
Given : log 1.2 = 0.08

58. Number of reactions give the following tertiary alcohol?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(5) (6)

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CHEMISTRY
59. Predict total number of stereoisomers of complex ion [Cr(gly)(en)2]2+

60. The value of KC for the following reaction at 25ºC is 10x


Cu+2 (aq) + Sn+2 (aq) Sn+4 (aq) + Cu(s)

0 0 2.303 RT
Given : E Cu2  / Cu  0.34 V, E Sn 4  / Sn2   0.16 V ,  0.06 ,
F
The value of x is

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DATE : 20-08-17 CODE - A

Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

B. Question paper format :


9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each
part has 4 sections.

10. Section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.

11. Section II contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.

12. Section III contains 2 questions. Each questions has four statements (A, B, C and D)
given in Column I and five statements (P, Q, R, S and T) in Column II. Any given
statement in Column I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s)
given in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the
statements given in Q and R, then for that particular question, against statement B,
darken the bubbles corresponding to Q and R in the ORS.

13. Section IV contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is an


integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the
ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section.

C. Marking Scheme :
14. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened.
In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.

15. For each question in Section-II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darken
only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. No negative marks will be awarded in this Section.

16. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in
which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus,
each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative
[RT-6,JA_Mega_Phase-I_P-2,A]

marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

17. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darkened the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened.
There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

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DATE : 24-09-17 CODE - A

VIBRANT ACADEMY
(India) Private Limited
A-14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota-324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2423406, 2428666, 2428664, 2425407 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com
Website : dlp.vibrantacademy.com
REVIEW TEST–7 (MEGA PHASE-I COURSE-2018)
JEE Advance (Paper-1)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 264
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions. The booklet has
32 pages.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and
on the back page (page no. 32) of this booklet.

3. The question paper contains 4 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and VA
Roll No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 32) of this booklet.

6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided


separately.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

8. Do not open the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.

B. Question paper format  Read the instructions printed on the back page

C. Marking scheme  (page no. 32) of this booklet.
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.

.......................................................... ............................................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator

USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, g = 10 m/s2 , B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Ne = 20, Na = 23,
Mg = 24, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Ar = 40 , Ti = 48, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.5, Br = 80, Mo = 96, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, U = 238
PART I : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

 2   4   6   1998   K 
1. If cos   cos   cos   .........cos    2K then   is (where [] denotes gretest
 1999   1999   1999   1999   200 

integer function)

1 1
1/3 1/2 I1
 1  x   1  x 
2 3
2. If I1 = dx , I = dx then if is K then value of [4K] is (where [] denotes gretest
2 I2
0 0

integer function)

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MATHEMATICS
1
3. If  k = 1, 2, 3,.......6 represent vertices of regular hexagon (where ak is any real number). If area of
2ak  i

that regular hexagon is A then [8A] is

 
tan  x  
 6  
4. If f(x)  ; x   0,  then minimum value of f(x) is
tan x  3

1
5. If lim  sin x.sin2x.sin3x......sin2nx  2n  K where  = (2n + 1)x ; n  N, then value of [8K] is (where []
x 0

denotes gretest integer function)

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MATHEMATICS
6. Area enclosed by y = g(x), x = – 3, x = 5 & x-axis is A where g(x) is inverse of f(x) = x3 + 3x +1 then [A] is

 3  3z  1 
7. |3z1 – 2z2 – 4|2 = |3z1 – 1|2 + |2z2 + 3|2 ;  z2    if cube root of w   1  are w1, w2, w3 where
 2  2z 2  3 
 w 22 
arg(w1) < arg(w2) < arg(w3) then value of  w w  is
 1 3

1 1
   1
8. If nlim   (n  1)!  n 1   n! n   K then   is (where [] denotes gretest integer function)

  K 

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

a 5a

9. If f(x) = 2x3 – 15x2 + 4 and g(a)   f(x)dx   f(x)dx ; (0  a  5) then


0 0

 5 5 
(A) g is increasing in  0,  (B) g is decreasing in  , 5 
 2 2 
(C) g is increasing in (0, 5) (D) None of these is correct

xn
10. y2 = 3x2 + 2x + 1 & In   dx then a1I10 + a2I9 + a3I8 = x9y  x  R, choose the correct option(s).
y

(A) a1 = 30 (B) a2 = 17 (C) a3 = 9 (D) a1 – a2 is prime

11. Suppose that f : [0, 1]  R is differentiable, f(0) = 0 and f(x) > 0 for x  (0, 1), then which of the following are
correct

f(c ) f (1  c ) 2f (c ) f (1  c )


(A) = for some c  (0, 1) (B) = for some c  (0, 1)
f (c ) f (1  c ) f (c ) f (1  c )

3f (c ) f (1  c ) f(c ) 5f (1  c )


(C) = for some c  (0, 1) (D) = for some c  (0, 1)
f (c ) f (1  c ) f (c ) f (1  c )

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MATHEMATICS
12. The curve C1 : y = e–x and C2 : y = e–x sinx (x > 0) touch each other at infinitely many points.
Let 0 < x1 < x2 < ..... < xn < ..... be the abscissa of these points of contact. If An denotes the area bounded
by two curves and ordinates x = xn and x = xn + 1 , then

1 ( e 2 – 1) 1 ( e 2  – 1)
(A) A 1  (B) A 2 
2 e 5 / 2 2 e9 / 2

(C) A1, A2, A3 are in A.P. (D) A1, A2, A3 are in G.P.

x  1
13. If tangents are drawn to the curve y  ; such that these tangents are concurrent at 1,  , then
2
1 x  2

(A) Number of such tangents are 3.


(B) Each of the tangents have exactly two points in common with the curve.

(C) Abscissa of point of contact for one of the tangents is 1 2 .

(D) Abscissa of point of contact of one of the tangents is 1 – 2 .

14. f : [0, 2]  R is continuous on [0, 2] and twice derivable in (0, 2). If f(0) = 0; f(1) = 1 and f(2) = 1, then

1
(A) f ' (c )  for atleast one c  (0, 2) (B) 2f '(c) + 2c = 3 for atleast one c  (0, 1)
3

(C) 2f '(c) + 2c = 3 for atleast one c  (1, 2) (D) f "(c) = –1 for atleast one c  (0, 2)

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MATHEMATICS
1
(nx )n
15. If  n  
0
x
dx, n  N, then

 2 3  4
(A) In has finite value for all natural values of 'n'. (B)       –4
1 4 3

(C) I4 = –9 (D) I8 = 40331

2
 dy  dy
16. The solution of    2y cot x  y 2 is
dx
  dx

–1  c  –1  c  c c
(A) x  2 sin   (B) x  2 cos   (C) y  (D) y – 0
 2y   2y  1 – cos x 1  cos x
(where c is arbitrary constant)

/2 /2

 100 sin d 100

0
/2  cos d
17. If   and 99 0
  , then
/ 2
99
 sin d 
100

0
cos d 0

100 99
 
(A)     (B)  >  (C)  <  (D)    
 2  2


18. If 0  and sin  1  sin  – 1 – sin  , then possible values of tan , is
2
(A) 4/3 (B) 0 (C) –3/4 (D) –4 / 3

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - III
Matrix - Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to
be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are
labelled P, Q, R, S and T. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have
to be darkened as illustrated in the following example :
If the correct matches are A – Q, S and T; B – Q and R; C – P and Q; and D – S and T; then the correct
darkening of bubbles will look like the following.
P Q R S T
A P Q R S T

B P Q R S T

C P Q R S T

D P Q R S T

19. A variable straight line through A(–1,1) is drawn to cut the circle x2 + y2 = 1 at the points B and C. A point P
is chosen on the line ABC satisfying the condition given in column-I. Let d be the minimum distance between
origin and locus of P.
Column-I Column-II
(A) AB, AP, AC are in A.P. (P) d = 0

1
(B) AB, AP, AC are in G.P. (Q) d 
2

(C) AB, AP, AC are in H.P. (R) d = 1

AP
(D) AB, , AC are in A.P.. (S) d  2  1
2

(T) d  2

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MATHEMATICS
20. Column-I Column-II

 1 
(r  1) r 
 
(A) Mr is defined as Mr =  1  (P) 16
1
 (r  1)2 

then lim (det M2 + det M3 + ......+ detMn)n n = (Q) 8


n 

1 cos  cos  0 cos  cos 


cos  1 cos   cos  0 cos 
(B) If (R) 4
cos  cos  1 cos  cos  0

then sin2  + sin2  + sin2  =

 3 1
(C) If A =  1 1 and a matrix C is defined as C = (BAB–1) (B–1AT B) (S) 2
 

when |B| 0, then det C is equal to

 1 1
(D) If A =  1 1 and A4 = –I then equals (T) 1
 

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PART II : PHYSICS
SECTION - I
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

21. A satellite is orbiting around the earth in a circular orbit of radius 'r'. A particle of mass m is projected from the

2
satellite in a forward direction with a velocity v = times the orbital velocity (the velocity is with respect to
3

the earth). During the subsequent motion of the particle its minimum distance from the centre of the earth is

r
, then what is the value of N?
N

22. The wattage rating of a light bulb indicates the power dissipated by the bulb if it is connected across 110V DC
potential difference. If a 50W and 100W bulb are connected in series to a 110V DC source and power
dissipated in the 50W bulb is approximately (22 × N) watt, then what is the value of N; (N is an integer).

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PHYSICS
23. The speed  of a particle moving along x-axis is given by, v2 = 8bx – x2 – 12b2, where b is a constant.
The amplitude of oscillation is N times b. What is the value of N?

24. In the shown situation in the diagram masses mA = 100kg, mB = 200kg and mC = n × 102kg. The mass of C
is that maximum mass so that neither A nor B moves. The coefficient of friction between A and B and
between B and horizontal surface is = 0.4. What is the value of n in the mass of block C?
[Take g = 10 m/s2]

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PHYSICS
25. There are two holes in the walls of a container filled with water. The distances of the holes from the level of
water are h and H + h. Assuming the level of water is maintained in the container by regular supply of water,
the distances x and y are calculated. Distances x and y are shown in the diagram. Streams meet as shown
in the diagram. What is the value of x in meter. The values of H = 4m and h = 2m.

A
h
B

H y
C
D x P

26. The average degrees of freedom per molecule for a gas is 6. The gas performs 25J of work when it expands
at constant pressure. If the heat absorbed is (25×N)J, What is N?

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PHYSICS
27. An ammeter and a voltmeter are connected in series to a battery with an emf  = 6.0 V. When a certain
resistance is connected in parallel with the voltmeter, the reading of the latter decreases two times, whereas
the reading of the ammeter increases the same number of times. Find the voltmeter reading after the connection
of the resistance.

28. A block of metal is heated directly by dissipating power in the internal resistance of block. Because of
temperature rise, the resistance increases exponentially with time and is given by R(t) = 0.5e2t, where t is in
second. The block is connected across a 110V source and dissipates 7644J heat energy over a certain
period of time. Calculated period of time is 't' (in sec). What is the value of 10 × t?
[Take ln(0.367) = –1]

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PHYSICS
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

29. The figure shows part of a large network in which potentials of some of the points are shown. Each capacitor
has a capacitance 5 µF. Which of the following statements is/are true ?
B

C2
C1 C3
A C
–10V O 10V
C4

(A) From the given information, potential of point O can be determined but that of B cannot be determined.
(B) From the given information, potential of both the points O and B cannot be determined.
(C) If charge on capacitor C2 were also specified, potential of point O can be determined but that of B cannot
be determined.
(D) If charge on capacitor C2 were also specified potentials of both the points O and B can be determined.

30. In the figure is shown a part of a large network. If resistance of the rheostat is increased, how will the readings
I1 and I2 of the ammeters A1 and A2 respectively and the reading of the voltmeter V change ?

(A) I1 and I2 will decrease and V increase.


(B) I1 will decrease and I2 and V increase.
(C) I2 will decrease and I1 and V increase.
(D) It is sure that I2 will decrease but nothing can be predicted about I1 and V from the given information.

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PHYSICS

31. If, instead of the coulomb's law, electric force F on a point like charge 'q' due to another point like charge Q
is found to obey the following law.


 Qq 1  r 
F r

40 r 3

Here  is a positive constant and r is the position vector of charge q relative to the charge Q.

 Q 1  r 
(A) Electric field due to a point charge Q is E 

r.

40r 3

 
(B) Line integral of this electric field  E.d  over a closed path is also zero as general electrostatics theory..
  qinclosed
(C) Gauss' law  E.ds  0
also holds true for this electric field.

(D) All the above statements are true but this electric field in not conservative.

32. Which of the following graphs is/are valid for the motion of a solid sphere projected with a velocity v 0 in a
gravity free viscous liquid? (x, v, a, t are displacement, velocity, acceleration, time respectively)

v0

x x a v

(A) (B) (C) (D)


t t v x
O O O O

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PHYSICS
33. Refer to the circuit given below. If capacitor d is shunted by an equal capacitor, then c

(A) Charge on capacitor a will increase


(B) Capacitance of the circuit will decrease a b
+
(C) Potential difference across capacitor e will decrease d
– f e
(D) Energy stored in the system will increase

34. Two points monochromatic and coherent sources of light of wavelength  each are placed as shown in the
figure. The initial phase difference between the sources is zero. O (D >> d). Mark the correct statement(s).

7
(A) If d  , O will be a minima.
2 D
S1 S2
(B) If d = , only one maxima can be observed on the screen. O
(C) If d = 4.8 , then total 10 minima would be there on the sreen. d

5
(D) If d  , the intensity at O would be minimum.
2

35. A light rigid rod AB of length 3 has a point mass m at end A and a point mass 2m at end B. It is kept on a
smooth horizontal surface. Point C is the center of mass of the system. Initially the system is at rest. The
mass 2m is suddenly given a velocity v 0 towards right. Take Z axis to be perpendicular to the plane of the
paper.
(A) The minimum moment of inertia (about Z-axis), I of the system is 5m2. A m
ZZ

2mv 20
(B) The magnitude of tension in the rod in subsequent motion is
9
3

I Azz
(C) The ratio of moment of inertia about Z-axis at points A and B, 2
IBzz B
2m
(D) Point C remains stationary during subsequent motion.

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PHYSICS
36. A student in an experimental study of a process 1  2  3 on an ideal gas prepares two graphs to show
relations between absolute temperature T, pressure p and volume V. Later he found that he has forgotten to
specify a coordinate axis in both the graphs and numbering the points in the second graph. Unspecified
coordinates are shown letters A and B in the graphs and numbers of the points by x, y and z in the second
graph. Which of the following combinations best suits these graphs ?

(A) A  P, B  T, x  1, y  2, z  3 (B) A  P, B  T, x  3, y  2, z  1
(C) A  T, B  V, x  3, y  2, z  1 (D) A  T, B  T, x  1, y  2, z  3

37. An object is placed in front of a converging lens at a distance equal to twice the focal length 'f1' of the lens. On
the other side of the lens is a concave mirror of focal length 'f 2' separated from the lens by a distance
2(f 1 + f 2). Light from the object passes rightward through the lens, reflects from the mirror, passes leftward
through the lens, and forms a final image of the object.
\\\\
\ \
\ \ \\
\\\\\\\\\\\\\

O
f1 f2
\\\
\\\

(A) The distance between the lens and the final image is equal to 2f1.
(B) The distance between the lens and the final image is equal to 2(f1 + f 2).
(C) The final image is real, inverted and of same size as that of the object.
(D) The final image is real, erect and of same size as that of the object.

38. The plates of a parallel-plate capacitor are connected across the terminals of a battery. Now the plates of the
capacitor are pulled slightly farther apart. When equilibrium is restored in the circuit,
(A) The potential difference across the plates has increased
(B) The energy stored on the capacitor has decreased
(C) The capacitance of the capacitor has increased
(D) The battery would have gained energy

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PHYSICS
SECTION - III
Matrix - Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to
be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are
labelled P, Q, R, S and T. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have
to be darkened as illustrated in the following example :
If the correct matches are A – Q, S and T; B – Q and R; C – P and Q; and D – S and T; then the correct
darkening of bubbles will look like the following.
P Q R S T
A P Q R S T

B P Q R S T

C P Q R S T

D P Q R S T

39. Column-I (Pure rolling) Column-II

(A) (P) Body acceleration forward (in the direction of F)

(B) (Q) Rotation about centre of mass is clockwise

(C) (R) Friction force acts backward

(D) (S) No friction acts

(T) Body acclerating backward (opposite to F)

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PHYSICS
40. A network consisting of three resistors, three cells and a capacitor as shown, then match the columns
considering steady state.

Column-I Column-II
(A) Current in branch EB (in ampere) is (P) 10
(B) Current in branch CB (in ampere) is (Q) 0.5
(C) Current in branch AF (in ampere) is (R) 1.5
(D) Charge on capacitor (in µC) is (S) 5
(T) None of these

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PART III : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

41. Calculate the pH at which the following conversion (reaction) will be at equilibrium in basic medium

I2(s) I–(aq) + IO3– (aq)

When the equilibrium concentrations at 300 K are



[I–] = 0.10 M and IO3  = 0.10 M


G0f (I , aq) = –50 kJ/mol, G0f ( IO3– , aq) = –123.5 kJ/mol, G0f (H2O, ) = –233 kJ/mol ,

– 25
G0f (OH , aq) = –150 kJ/mol ; R(Gas constant) = J/mol-K ; nx = 2.3 log10x
3

42. Find out total number of cation(s) that produce precipitate with aqueous solution of Na2CO3.
Cu2+ (aq) , Mg2+ (aq) , Fe3+ (aq) , Pb2+ (aq) , Al3+ (aq) , Hg2+ (aq) , Zn2+ (aq) , NH4+ (aq) , Cs+ (aq)

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CHEMISTRY
HO O
43. Base Product
CH3–CH–CH2–C–H

What is the sum of order and molecularity for above reaction.

44. The standard reduction potential of a silver chloride electrode is 0.2V are that of a silver electrode is 0.79V.
Calculate the maximum amount of AgCl in mmole that can be dissolved in 106L of a 0.1 M AgNO3 solution.

45. In the scheme given below, the total number of intramolecular aldol condensation products formed from (y) is:

(i) O 3 1. NaOH(aq.)
(y)
(ii) Zn, H2O 2. Heat

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CHEMISTRY

46. Find out total number of d-orbital(s) of each manganese atom that can participate in Mn   CO bond

formation in Mn2(CO)10.

4 mole of PCC O
47. (A)
O

Maximum number of moles of Ac2O consumed by reactant (A) is :

48. A sample of rock contains equal number of atoms of U238 and Pb206.
T
If age of rock is T years. Calculate the value of . Given t0.5 of U238 = 4.5 ×109 years.
4.5  10 9

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

49. Which of the following combination(s) of reagents produce observable change at given reaction condition :
R.T. R.T.
(A) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl + HNO3 (dil.)   (B) Ba3(PO4)2 + H2SO4(dil.)  

R.T. R.T.
(C) Ni2+(aq) + NH3 solution (excess)   (D) PbI2 + NaOH solution (excess)  

50. If vapour pressure of solution containing 2 moles of A() & 3 moles of B() is 320 torr and vapour pressure of
pure A() & pure of B() are 400 torr & 300 torr then which of the following is/are correct for above solution.
(A) Boiling point of solution is greater than B.P. of pure A.
(B) Entropy change of mixing of pure solute & pure solvent is less then zero.
(C) Mixture of A & B is separated by fractional distillation.
(D) There is volume contraction due to mixing of pure A() & pure B() to form solution.

51. Which of following statements about azo dye coupling reaction is true?
(A) It is electrophilic substitution reaction
(B) Electron withdrawing group at Benzene diazonium salt increases the rate of reaction
(C) Electron donating group at phenol increases the rate of reaction
(D) Extended conjugate system through –N=N– bond is responsible for colour

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CHEMISTRY
52. Select correct statement(s) for reaction :
warm
BaCO3   CH3 COOH   P  Q(gas)  H2 O

(A) Gas ‘Q’ reacts with acidified K2Cr2O7 solution


(B) Substance ‘P’ forms precipitate with AgNO3 solution
(C) Substance ‘P’ forms precipitate with Na2CrO4
(D) Oxy acid of gas Q is less acidic than CH3COOH

53. Which is/are correct order for following aq. solution assume 100% ionisation of electrolyte.
(A) Osmotic pressure 1M urea < 1M NaCl < 1M Na3PO4 < 1M K4[Fe(CN)6]
(B) Boiling point 1M urea < 1M NaCl < 1M Na3PO4 < 1M K4[Fe(CN)6]
(C) Freezing point 1M urea > 1M NaCl > 1M Na3PO4 > 1M K4[Fe(CN)6]
(D) Depression in Freezing point 1M urea > 1M NaCl > 1M Na3PO4 > 1M K4(Fe(CN)6]

54. In which of the following cases, the major product has been correctly shown ?

H+ CH3O–
(A) (B) CH3 – CH – Br CH3 – CH – O – CH3
 CH3OH
CH3 CH3
OH

– +
OH
(CH3)3CO K POCl3
CH2–Cl
(C) (CH3)3COH (D) Pyridine, 

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CHEMISTRY
55. 2 moles of ideal gas is involved in a reversible isothermal expansion process, where change in Gibb’s energy
is –11.5 kJ. Select the correct statement(s).
(A) w = –11.5 kJ (B) H for the gas is 0
(C) S for the gas is a positive value (D) Stotal is positive

56. O O

CH = O CH2OH
Which of the following reagent can perform this conversion successfully ?
(A) H2, Raney Ni,  (B) Mg, THF ; H2O
(C) NaBH4 (D) HCH = O ; –OH

57. Given
HCl(aq) + NH4OH(aq)  NH4Cl(aq) + H2O() + 52.5 kJ
CH3COOH(aq) + NH4OH(aq)  CH3COONH4(aq) + H2O() + 48 kJ
fH[H2O()] = –286 kJ mol–1
fH[OH–(aq)] = –230 kJ mol–1
Which is/are correct statement ?
(A) Enthalpy of neutralisation of HCl(aq) Vs NaOH(aq) is –57.3 kJ/mol.
(B) Enthalpy of ionisation of NH4OH(aq) is 3.5 kJ/mol.
(C) Enthalpy of ionisation of CH3COOH(aq) is 4.5 kJ/mol.
(D) Enthalpy of ionisation of NH4OH(aq) is 4.8 kJ/mol.

58. Consider chemical reaction :


warm
(NH4)2SO4(s) + 2NaOH solution   P + Q (gas)

Which of the following precipitate(s) is/are soluble in excess of aqueous solution of gas ‘Q’
(A) Cu(OH)2 (B) Pb(OH)2 (C) Ag2O (D) Cr(OH)3

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - III
Matrix - Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to
be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are
labelled P, Q, R, S and T. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have
to be darkened as illustrated in the following example :
If the correct matches are A – Q, S and T; B – Q and R; C – P and Q; and D – S and T; then the correct
darkening of bubbles will look like the following.
P Q R S T
A P Q R S T

B P Q R S T

C P Q R S T

D P Q R S T

59. Column-I Column-II


(Compounds) (Reactions)
O
(A) CH3—C–H (P) Disproportionation reaction in concentrated
basic medium
O
(B) (Q) Condensation reaction in dilute basic medium
H–C–H
O
(C) CH3—C–CH3 (R) Ammoniacal silver nitrate solution

O
(D) C—H (S) Cl2 + –OH (Haloform reaction)

(T) Fehling's test

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CHEMISTRY
60. Column-l Column-ll
(Metals) (Processes involved in the
commercial extraction of refined metal)
(A) Fe (P) Carbon reduction
(B) Cu (Q) Roasting
(C) Zn (R) Slag formation
(D) Hg (S) Distillation
(T) Formation of interstitial carbide

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DATE : 24-09-17 CODE - A
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

B. Question paper format :


9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry).
Each part has 3 sections.

10. Section I contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is an


integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the
ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section.

11. Section II contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.

12. Section III contains 2 questions. Each questions has four statements (A, B, C and D)
given in Column I and five statements (P, Q, R, S and T) in Column II. Any given
statement in Column I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s)
given in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the
statements given in Q and R, then for that particular question, against statement B,
darken the bubbles corresponding to Q and R in the ORS.

C. Marking Scheme :
13. For each question in Section-I, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened.
No negative marks will be awarded for in this Section.

14. For each question in Section-II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened
only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. In all other cases, minus two (–2) mark will be awarded.

15. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in
which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer and zero
mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be
awarded. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks.
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DATE : 24-09-17 CODE - A

VIBRANT ACADEMY
(India) Private Limited
A-14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota-324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2423406, 2428666, 2428664, 2425407 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com
Website : dlp.vibrantacademy.com
REVIEW TEST–7 (MEGA PHASE-I COURSE-2018)
JEE Advance (Paper-2)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 240
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 60 questions. The booklet has
28 pages.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and
on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet.

3. The question paper contains 2 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and VA
Roll No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet.

6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided


separately.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

8. Do not open the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.

B. Question paper format  Read the instructions printed on the back page

C. Marking scheme  (page no. 28) of this booklet.
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.

.......................................................... ............................................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator

USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, g = 10 m/s2 , B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Ne = 20, Na = 23,
Mg = 24, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Ar = 40 , Ti = 48, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.5, Br = 80, Mo = 96, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, U = 238
PART I : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

1. Family of circle touching the line x + y – 2 = 0 at (1, 1) & intersecting the circle x2 + y2 + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0
orthogonally then value of |g + f – 2c| is

5
2. f : R  R be a continuous function such that f(3x) = f(x)  x  R and f(2) = 5 then value of  sgn( f (x )) dx is
2

equal to :

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MATHEMATICS

cos( x   ) cos( x  ) cos( x   )


3. If f ( x )  sin( x   ) sin( x  ) sin( x   ) ,
sin 2 sin 2 sin 2

   
where , and  are real constants, then find the value of 2f   – 3f    f   is
4 6 3

4. f(x) is strictly increasing function and it is mapped as f : N  N (N is natural number)


and f(f(x)) = 3x

then value of f (16 ) is

x x
5. The number of solutions of the equation , x2 +       10 are
2 3

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MATHEMATICS
6. If p is positive integer and f be a function defined for positive numbers and attains only positive values such
that f(xf(y)) = xpy4 then p is :

7. If f(x) = x4 + ax3 + bx2 + cx + d is polynomial with real coefficient such that f(x) = 0 has all it’s roots real and
|f(1 + i)| = 1 then value of a + b – c + d is :

8. If f(x) = 4x3 – x2 – 2x + 1 and

min {f (t ) ; 0  t  x} ; 0  x  1
g(x) =  then
3 – x ; 1 x  2

g(1/4) + g(3/4) + g(5/4) has the value ‘K’ then 2K =

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - II
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
9. The equation of normal to the circle (x – 1)2 + (y – 2)2 = 4 which is at a maximum perpendicular distance from
the point (–1, –1) is
(A) x + 2y = 5 (B) 2x + y = 4 (C) 3x + 2y = 7 (D) 2x + 3y = 8

10. The possible solution of the differential equation y(y2 – 2x2)dx + x(2y2 – x2)dy = 0 is
(A) x2y2(x2 + y2) = c (B) x2(x2 – y2) = c (C) x2y2(y2 – x2) = c (D) None

11. The number of real roots of the equation x2 – xsinx – cosx = 0 is


(A) atleast 2 real roots (B) Exactly two real roots
(C) Atmost one real roots (D) None

12. If A is n × n order non singular matrices such that 3ABA–1 + A = 2A–1BA then
(A) both A and B are identity matrix (B) |A + B| = 0
(C) |ABA–1 – AB–1A| =0 (D) A + B is not a singular matrix.

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MATHEMATICS
cot 9º 3 cot 9º 9 cot 9 º 27cot 9º
13. The value of + + + is :
cot 9º 3 tan 9º cot 27 º3 tan 27º cot 81º 3 tan 81º cot 243º 3 tan243º

(A) 15 (B) 6 (C) 10 (D) None

14. Let f(x) = ax2 + bx + c where a, b, c are integers suppose f(1) = 0, 40 < f(6) < 50, 60 < f(7) < 70 and 1000t <
f (50) < 1000(t + 1) for some integer “t”, then value of t is :
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5 or more

15. If f(x) = x3 – 12x + P and P  {1, 2, 3, 4, ........, 15} and for each P, the number of real roots of the equation

f(x) = 0 is denoted by “Q” then  Q is :


(A) 45 (B) 30 (C) 20 (D) None

16. If z1, z2, z3 are distinct complex numbers such that z1 + z2 + z3 = 0 and |z1| = |z2| = |z3| then which of the
following options are correct.
Statement-I : z1, z2, z3 as vertices form equilateral triangle.
Statement-II : z13, z23, z33 are equal
Statement-III : z14, z24, z34 as vertices form an equilateral triangle.

1 1 1
Statement-IV : , , as vertices form an equilateral triangle.
z15 z 52 z 53

Statement-V : z16, z26, z36 as vertices form an equilateral triangle.


(A) All statement are correct (B) Only (I), (III), (IV) are correct
(C) Only (I) is correct (D) Only (I), (II), (III), (IV) are correct

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 3 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE
is/are correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 17 to 18

x 3  3 x 2  2x  1 dx
Consider  x2  x  1
dx = (ax2 + bx + c) x 2  x  1 +   2
x  x 1
then

17. Value of b =

13 12 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) 1
12 5 3

18. Value of 

1 10 10
(A) (B) (C) (D) 1
16 3 7

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MATHEMATICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 19 to 20

K 2 K  2
Let I =  x – K 2

– K – 1 K 2  K  2 – x dx 
K 2  K 1

Where K is any constant. Then answer following questions.

n–1
1 
19. Let L = Lim
n n 
2

 r 0
(rI )  , then the value of L, is

(A) /8 (B) /16 (C) /32 (D) None of these

 x 
[16 I ]
20. The value of the definite integral  x [16L] dx , is
–1
[where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x.]
(A) 2/7 (B) 0 (C) 1/2 (D) None of these

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PART II : PHYSICS
SECTION - I
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

21. In the given circuit the reading of ideal voltmeter is E/2. Find the internal resistance of the battery in .

1

E r
E

2

22. A rat is running on ice with speed v =  m/s. Suddenly he decides to turn by 90° and want to keep running
with the same speed throughout. What is the least amount of time (in sec) he needs for such a turn?
Suppose that rat's feet can move independently. Coefficient of friction between rat's feet and ice is 0.125.
(Given 2 = g)

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PHYSICS
23. In a car race sound singals emitted by the two cars are detected by the detector on the straight track at the
end point of the race. Frequency observed are 330 Hz & 360 Hz and the original frequency is 300 Hz of both
cars. Race ends with the separation of 100m between the cars. Assume both cars start from same point and
move with constant velocity and velocity of sound is 330 m/s. Find the time taken by winning car (in sec.)

24. A part of circuit in a steady state along with the currents flowing in the branches, values of resistance etc. are
shown in the figure. Calculate the energy stored (in J) in the capacitor C = (0.125F)

1A
3
3 5
4V 2A

C
3V 1 2A

2 4

1A

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PHYSICS
25. A light rod of length L, hanging from the vertical smooth wall of a vehicle moving with acceleration 3 g having
a small mass attached at it's one end, is free to rotate about an axis passing through the other end. The
minimum velocity given to the mass at its equilirbium position so that it can camplete vertical circular motion

is KgL . Find the value of K.

60°

26. Find the current 'i' required (in Ampere) to have the temperature of cylindrical tungsten wire as 3000K in
steady state. Assume that the wires acts like a black body & its resistivity () increases linearly with

 d 68 17 
temperature. (R = 0  at 0 K)  Take :   10 3 m / K, r  2mm,    108 W / m2K 4  . Fill
 dT 9 3 
approximate value of 50 i in OMR sheet.

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PHYSICS
27. Disc of mass M = 10 kg and radius R = 50 cm is revolving about fixed vertical axis on smooth horizontal
surface with angular velocity 0 = 4 rad/sec. A block of mass m = 5kg is connected to disc through slack
string as shown in the diagram. Find the velocity (in m/s) of the block when string become taut.
m

0

28. Five rods with identical geometries are arranged as shown. Their thermal conductivity are shown. Only A and
C are maintained at 100°C and 0°C respectively. In other words, heat flows in from A and flows out of C. If
temperature difference between ends D and B can be written as 10x °C where x is an integer. Find x.

A B
K/2
3K
E K F

K/2
2K
D C

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PHYSICS
SECTION - II
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
29. A capacitor of capacitance 'C' is connected to a battery of emf as shown. After full charging a dielectric of
same size as that of capacitor & dielectric constant k is inserted. Then choose the correct statement
(A) Electric field between plates of capacitor remains same C
(B) Charge on capacitor remains same
(C) Energy stored in capacitor decreases
(D) Electric field between plates of capacitor increases 

30. In the adjacent figure the switch S is closed at t = 0. QA, QB and QC are charges on the capacitor A, capacitor
B and capacitor C in the steady state respectively. Choose the correct statement.

10
10 B 10
10 3F
A C
1F 2F

60V S

(A) QA < QB < QC (B) QA < QC < QB (C) QC < QA < QB (D) QC < QB < QA

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PHYSICS
31. A thin uniform rod of mass 1 kg moves translationally with acceleration a = 2 ms–2
due to two antiparallel
 
forces F1 and F2 as shown. The distance between the points at which these forces are applied is equal to
d = 20 cm. If F2 = 5N, length of the rod =

F1 A

d
F2

(A) 0.5 m (B) 1 m (C) 1.5 m (D) 2 m

32. Block A is hanging from a vertical spring when the system is in equilibrium at rest. Now block B strikes A wtih
velocity V and sticks to it. Mass of each block = 6 kg. The value of V (in ms–1) for which the spring just attains
natural length when it is at its topmost point.

–1
K = 100Nm
A
B
(A) 12 (B) 9 (C) 3 (D) 6

33. A small bead of mass m is located on a parabolic wire with its axis vertical and vertex at the origin as shown.
Equation of that parabolic shape is given by x2 = 4ay.The wire frame is fixed and the bead can slide on it
without friction. The bead is released from the point y = 7a on the wire frame from rest. The tangential
acceleration of the bead when it reaches the position y = a is
Y
g 3g
(A) (B) m
2 2

g X
(C) (D) g
2

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PHYSICS
34. A conducting sphere of radius R and charge Q is surrounded by a medium of resistivity '' at t = 0. Due to the

Q
medium the charge starts decreasing from it. At t = t1 the charge on the sphere is found then the value of
4
t1 is [Absolute permitivity of the vacuum is 0]

0 ln2 0 ln2


(A) (B) (C) 40ln2 (D) 20ln2
2 4

35. One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas undergoes the process A  B in the given P-V diagram. The specific
heat for this process is

P
B
6P0

3P0 A
V
V0 5V0

(A) 3R/2 (B) 13R/6 (C) 5R/2 (D) 2R

36. In the given figure, two elastic rods A & B are rigidly joined to end supports. A small mass ‘m’ is moving with
velocity v between the rods. All collisions are assumed to be elastic & the surface is given to be smooth. The
time period of small mass ‘m’ will be :[A = area of cross section, y = young’s modulus, L = length of each rod]

2L mL 2L 2mL A/2, 2y, L A, y, L


(A)  2 (B)  2
v Ay v Ay m
v
A B
L
2L mL 2L
(C)  (D)
v Ay v

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PHYSICS
SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE
is/are correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 37 to 38
The spring of constant k = 50 N/m is unstretched when the slider of mass m = 2 kg passes through position
B. The slider is released from rest in position A. There is friction between slider and guide whose work done
from A to B is – 11 J and from B to C is – 4J. (Radius of guide R = 3m). The whole system is in vertical plane.

K 4m
m

B
R

37. If speed of slider at position B and C are v B and v C respectively then :


(A) v B = 6.5 m/s (B) v B = 13 m/s (C) v C = 16 m/s (D) v C = 15 m/s

38. If the normal force at position B and C are NB and NC respectively then
(A) NB = 112.67N (B) NB = 216.33 N (C) NC = 150 N (D) NC = 170 N

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PHYSICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 40
A vessel of uniform cross-section open at the top with an orifice at its bottom contains oil (relative density
0.8) on top of water. It is immersed vertically in a large open tank of same oil as shown in figure. (Take : Area
of orifice = 1 mm2 and area of vessel as 100 cm2)

Oil 5m

Oil Water Oil


10m

39. In which of following configuration will liquid level remain same. (Water does not come out or oil does not
enter vessel)

Oil 5m Oil 12m


15m
15m Oil Oil
(A) (B)
Water 8m
Oil Oil Water 2.4m

Oil 8m 12.5m
15m Oil 15m Oil
(C) (D) Oil
Oil Water 4m Oil 2m
Water

40. In the figure shown in comprehension,


(A) Water comes out from vessel into surrounding oil
(B) Oil from surrounding enters water

(C) Speed of liquid entering or leaving orifice is 40 m/s

2
(D) Speed of surface of oil in vessel is mm/ s
5

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PART III : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

41. Find out number of substrate those cannot undergeos cannizaro reaction.

, ,

42. 20 ml of 0.2 M NaOH (aq) solution is mixed with 35 ml of 0.1 M NaOH (aq) solution and the resultant solution
is diluted to 100 ml. 40 ml of this diluted solution reacted with 0.15 gram impure sample of oxalic acid
(H2C2O4). If % of impurity in sample is x then find the value of x/2.

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CHEMISTRY
43. Find number of basic radicals among the following cations, which form soluble coloured complex ion, on
adding excess of NH3 solution.
Co2+(aq), Pb2+(aq), Ni2+(aq), Cr3+(aq), Ag+(aq), Hg2+(aq), Mg2+(aq), Zn2+(aq)

44. Find out number of alcohol that can give positive iodoform test

, , , , ,

, ,

45. Find out maximum number of sp2 hybridized carbon atom(s) that are present in complex compound
[Zn (acac)2].

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CHEMISTRY
300 320
46. Ka for HA at K is 10–5 and at K is 4 × 10–5.
2.303  8.31 2.303  8.31

S 0
Calculate value of (JK–1) of ionisation of acid.
22

47. Find number of precipitates which are soluble in dil HNO3.


CH3COOAg, Ag2CO3, PbCrO4, Ba3(PO4)2, PbC2O4, PbBr2, BaC2O4, Fe(OH)3, Ag2CrO4.

48. How many compounds can form six membered ring in intramolecular aldol condensation.
(1) 2, 6 heptanedione (2) 2, 8-nonanedione (3) 2, 4 pentanedione
O O O
|| ||
(4) (5) H H
||
O

O
|| O
O
(6) (7) ||
||
O

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - II
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
49. The final product of the following reaction is :

h CH3MgBr
+ NBS (A) Alc. (B) (C)
KOH

(A) (B) (C) (D)

50. The rate constant for the first order decomposition of H2O2 is given by the following equation
log k = 14.34 – 1.25 × 104/T
Calculate Ea for this reaction (in kJ/mol)
(A) 102.625 (B) 239.33 (C) 143.4 (D) 125.33

51. A water soluble salt was treated with excess of ammonia solution and coloured solution was appeared.
However, when the given salt is treated with KI solution then white precipitate was obtained. Then which of
the following salt follow above properties.
(A) Fe2(SO4)3 (B) CuSO4 (C) Cu(OH)2.CuCO3 (D) ZnSO4

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CHEMISTRY
52. In the given reaction (X) major will be.

Ph Ph
(A) CH3 (B)
O O CH3

BrMgO Ph
(C) (D)
Cl

53. A gaseous mixture contains 20% A, 30% B & 50% C by moles at PT = 2 atm pressure & temperature this
mixture is allowed to dissolve in 20 moles of H2O at same temperature. Calculate sum of number of moles of
A & B dissolved in H2O (C is insoluble in water) KH for A(g) = 4 × 105 atm KH of B(g) = 6 × 105 atm
(A) 4 × 10–5 (B) 6 × 10–5 (C) 10 × 10–5 (D) 12 × 10–5

54. Chocolate brown precipitate is formed by mixing solution containing :


(A) Cu2+ and [Fe(CN)6]3– ion (B) Cu2+ and [Fe(CN)6]4– ion
(C) Fe2+ and [Fe(CN)6]4– ion (D) Ag+ and [Fe(CN)6]3– ion

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CHEMISTRY
55. 10 gm of A, when dissolved in 200 gm of benzene, lowers the freezing point by 1.5 K. 10 gm of A, when
dissolved in 200 gm of water lowers the freezing point by 0.75 K. If A forms dimer in benzene and ionised in
water calculate the value of Van’t Hoff factor (i) of A in water.
(Given : degree of dimer formation = 0.5; Kf (H2O) = 1.80 Kg mol–1 ; Kf (C6H6) = 5.00 Kg mol–1)
(A) 1.041 (B) 1.41 (C) 2 (D) None of these

56. What would be the major product of the following reaction ?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - III
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 2 multiple choice questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE
is/are correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 57 to 58


A water insoluble compound ‘P’ on heating gives Q, R, S and substance Q is also water insoluble and
changes colour on heating, R and S are gaseous compound where boiling point of R > S.
57. Compound ‘P’ is
(A) PbC2O4 (B) Fe2(SO4)3 (C) FeSO4 (D) BeC2O4

58. (R) gas + NaOH solution (excess)  solution ‘Y’


solution ‘Y’ + Cu(NO3)2  ppt Z
ppt ‘Z’ is
(A) Green colour compound (B) White colour compound
(C) Yellow colour compound (D) Brown colour compound

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CHEMISTRY
Paragraph for Question Nos. 59 to 60
The principle of conductometric titration is based on the fact that during the titration, one of the ions is
replaced by other and invariably these two ions differ in ionic conductivity with the result that conductivity of
solution varies during the course of titration the equivalence point may be located graphically by plotting the
change in conductance as function of volume of titrant added.
59. NaOH was added to an aqueous solution contains HCl and CH3COOH gradually and conductivity of the
solution was measured the plot of conductance verse volume of NaOH is :

M M M M
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Volume Volume Volume Volume

60. 0.44 gm of monobasic organic acid was conductometric titrated against 0.1 M KOH. Identify the acid, if
conductance against volume of KOH plot is :

M

50 mL
Volume of KOH

(A) CH3COOH (B) C3H7COOH (C) H2C2O4 (D) HCOOH

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DATE : 24-09-17 CODE - A

Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

B. Question paper format :


9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry).
Each part has 3 sections.

10. Section I contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the questions is an


integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the
ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section.

11. Section II contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.

12. Section III contains 2 groups of questions. Each groups has 2 questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which one or more is/are correct.

C. Marking Scheme :
13. For each question in Section-I, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened.
No negative marks will be awarded for in this Section.

14. For each question in Section-II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened
only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. In all other cases, minus two (–2) mark will be awarded.

15. For each question in Section-III, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened
only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. In all other cases, minus two (–2) mark will be awarded.
[RT-7_XII_M ega_(Phase-I)_P-2,A]

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DATE : 14-10-17 CODE - A

VIBRANT ACADEMY
(India) Private Limited
A-14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota-324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2423406, 2428666, 2428664, 2425407 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com
Website : dlp.vibrantacademy.com
REVIEW TEST–8 (MEGA PHASE-I COURSE-2018)
JEE Mains
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 360
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 90 questions. The booklet has
32 pages.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and
on the back page (page no. 32) of this booklet.

3. The question paper contains 3 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and VA
Roll No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 31) of this booklet.

6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided


separately.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

8. Do not open the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.

B. Question paper format  Read the instructions printed on the back page

C. Marking scheme  (page no. 31) of this booklet.
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.

.......................................................... ............................................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator

USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, g = 10 m/s2 , B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Ne = 20, Na = 23,
Mg = 24, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Ar = 40 , Ti = 48, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.5, Br = 80, Mo = 96, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, U = 238
PART I : MATHEMATICS
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Let f : [–1, 2] [0, ) be a continuous function such that f(x) = f(1 – x) for all x[–1, 2].

If R1 =  xf(x)dx and R2 is the area of region bounded by y = f(x), x = –1, x = 2 and x-axis then,
1

(A) R1 = 2R2 (B) R1 = 3R2 (C) 2R1 = R2 (D) 3R1 = R2

1 1
sin x cos x
2. If I =  .dx and J =  .dx then which one of the following is true ?
0 x 0 x

(A) I > 2/3 and J > 2 (B) I < 2/3 and J < 2 (C) I < 2/3 and J > 2 (D) I > 2/3 and J < 2

3. Three smallest squares are chosen randomly on a chess board, the probability that these squares have
exactly two corners but no side common is :

80 72 63
(A) 64 (B) 64 (C) 64 (D) None of these
C3 C3 C3

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MATHEMATICS
4. Consider a square OABC in an argand plane where O is origin and A = A(z0). Then the equation of the circle
that can be inscribed in this square is ; (vertices of square are given in anticlock wise order).

z 0 (1  i) z (1  i)
(A) |z – z0(1 + i)| = |z0| (B) 2 z  = |z | (C) z 0 = |z0| (D) None of these
2 0 2

n 1 n
 k 
5. The value of    Cr 1 (where r, k, nN) is equal to

r 1 k 1

(A) 2n+1 –2 (B) 2n+1–1 (C) 2n+1 (D) None

 3  z1   2  z2 
6. If  2  z   3  z  = k, then points A(z1), B(z2), C(3,0) and D(2, 0) (taken in clockwise sense) will
 1  2

(A) Lie on a circle only for k > 0. (B) Lie on a circle only for k < 0
(C) Lie on a circle  kR. (D) Be vertices of a square  kR(0,1)

7. The x-intercept of the tangent to a curve is equal to the ordinate of the point of contact. The equation of curve
through (1, 1) is
(A) yex/y = e (B) xex/y = e (C) xey/x = e (D) yey/x = e

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MATHEMATICS
8. A box has 2 white, 4 black and 6 green balls. Person A draws a ball from it. Then from remaining balls person
B draws two balls which are found to be green. The probability that A has drawn a black ball is :

3 4 1 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 5 5 5

9. If n is largest positive integer with property that (n + 10) divides n3 + 100 then value of n is -
(A) 890 (B) 900 (C) 880 (D) 910

ln{x } 1/ ln{x }
10. The number of solutions of equation e  {x} = [sgn(x)]

(where [.] is greatest integer function and {.} is fractional part functioni) is/are
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4

11. If sin(sinx + cosx) = cos(cosx – sinx), then largest possible value of sinx is :

  16   2
(A) 1 (B) (C) (D)
6 4 4

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MATHEMATICS
12. If equation xn – nxn–1 + a2xn–2 + a3xn–3 + ........+ an–1x + (–1)n = 0 has n positive roots, then least value of n
for which a2 + a3 is negative is
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 1

13. Number of triangles with each side having integral length and the longest side is of 11 units is equal to
(A) 6 (B) 36 (C) 20 (D) 32

1 pn (x)
14. Let k be a fixed positive integer. The nth derivative of k has the form (xk  1)n1 where pn(x) is a polynomial
x 1

of degree 'n' with p0(1) = 1. Then the value of pn(1) is


(A) (n – 1)! (–k)n (B) n! (–k)n–1 (C) (n –1)! (–k)n–1 (D) n! (–k)n

1 1 1
15. If a1, a2, a3, ..........., a4001 are terms of an AP. Such that a a  a a  ..........  a a = 10 and a2 + a4000
1 2 2 3 4000 4001

= 50
then |a1 – a40001| is equal to
(A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) None of these

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MATHEMATICS
x x
2 2
16. Let f(x) = csinx  cos tdt  2 tdt  c cos x  x .
0 0

If x2 – 2x + 3 f(x) xR then greatest area bounded by xf(x), y = 0 and x = 5 is :

35
(A) 16 (B) 25 (C) 8 (D)
2

17. A staircase has 10 steps. A person can go up the steps one at a time, two at a time, or any combination of
1's and 2's. Find no. of ways in which the person can go up the stairs.
(A) 66 (B) 89 (C) 68 (D) 93

x
18. If  f(x) sint dt = constant, 0 < x < 2and f() = 2
0

then,

     
(A) f    4 (B) f    2 (C) f    1 (D) None of these
2 2 2

19. For aR if |x + a – 3| + |x – 2a| = |2x – a – 3| is true  xR. Then exhaustive set of values of 'a' is :
(A) a[–4, 4] (B) a[–3, 2] (C) a[–2, 2] (D) a{1}

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MATHEMATICS
20. If A is skew symmetric matrix, then
B = (I – A) (I + A)–1 is (where I is an identity matrix).
(A) Idempotent Matrix (B) Symmetric Matrix (C) Orthogonal Matrix (D) None of these

21. Three circles touch each other externally. The tangents at their point of contact meet at a point whose
distance from point of contact is 4. Find ratio of product of radii to the sum of radii of the circles.
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 24 (D) 4

22. Solution to the differential equation

x3 x5
x   ........
3! 5! dx  dy

x2 x4 dx  dy is
1   ........
2! 4!

(A) 2ye2x = ce2x + 1 (B) 2ye2x = ce2x – 1 (C) y.e2x = ce2x + 2 (D) None of these

23. The number of points on the line 3x + 4y = 5 which are at a distance of sec2+ 2cosec2
R from point (1, 3) is :
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) Infinite

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MATHEMATICS
6N1
  r   r 
24. The value of  min   3N ,  6N  , where {a} = min (a – [a] , [a] – a + 1), [a] represents the greatest integer
r 1

less than or equal to a is equal to.

(2N  1) N(N  1)
(A) N (B) (C) 3N (D)
2 2

/ 4
(cos  sin  )d
25. 
0 (cos   sin ) sin  cos   sin2  cos2 
is

   
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 6 4 2

2 3
26. The difference between the greatest and least value of function f(x) = 3  4  x
2
   1 4  x2  is

14 500
(A) 18 (B) (C) (D) None of these
27 27

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MATHEMATICS
27. If A > 0 c, d, u, v are non-zero constants, and the graph of f(x) = |Ax + c| + d and g(x) = –|Ax + u| + v

uc
intersect exactly at two points (1, 4) and (3,1) then the value of equals :
A
(A) –4 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) –2

3
28. The area bounded by curves y = and y +|2 – x| = 2 is -
|x|

4  ln27
(A) (B) 2 – ln3 (C) 2 + ln3 (D) None of these
2

29. If f n =  (1  2 ) 
k n

Ck then
k 0

(A) fn+2 = 3fn+1 –2f n (B) f n+2 = 3f n+1 + 2f n (C) f n+2 = 5f n+1 – 6f n (D) f n+2 = 6f n+1 – 5f n

1
30. 
The value of integral  (x 2  x) x 8  2x 9  10 dx is

5 2 11/10 5 6
(A)
11

x  2x  +c (B)
6
(x + 1)11/10 + c (C)
7
(x + 1)11/10 + c (D) None of these

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PART II : PHYSICS
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
L
31. Figure shows a square lamina with a disc of radius removed from it which is now placed symmetrically
2
over upper right quarter. What is location of centre of mass of system relative to origin shown in figure.
2L
L ˆ ˆ L ˆ ˆ Removed part
(A) (i  j) (B) ( i  j) placed on
12 8
remaining sheet
2L
L ˆ ˆ L ˆ ˆ
(C) (i  j) (D) ( i  j) origin
4 16
removed
part

32. In the figure shown the cart of mass 6 m is initially at rest. A particle of mass m is attached to the end of the
light rod which can rotate freely about A. If the rod is released from rest in a hrizontal position shown,
determine the velocity v rel of the particle with respect to the cart when the rod is vertical. Assume frictionless
surface.
6m A
7 7  m
(A) g (B) g
3 6

14 8
(C) g (D) g
3 3

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PHYSICS
33. A small bead of mass m can moves on a smooth circular wire (radius R) under the action of a force
Km
F = 2 directed (r = position of bead from P & K = constant) towards a point P with in the circle at a
r
R
distance from the centre. What should be the minimum velocity of bead at the point of the wire nearest
2
the centre of force (P) so that bead will complete the circle.

3K 8K F
(A) (B) O P
R 3R
R R/2

6K
(C) (D) None of these
R

R
34. A circular rope of weight W and radius r = is resting on a smooth sphere of radius R (plane of circular loop
2
is horizontal). The tension in rope is Rope
(A) W/( 6 ) (B) W/( 12 ) r

(C) W/( 10 ) (D) None of these R

35. In the figure shown, there is a smooth tube of radius ‘R’, fixed in the vertical plane. A ball ‘B’ of mass ‘m’ is
released from the top of the tube. B slides down due to gravity and compresses the spring. The end ‘C’ of the
spring is fixed and the end A is free. Initially the line OA makes an angle of 60º with OC and finaly it makes
an angle of 30º after compression. Find the spring constant of the spring. B
m
12mg(2  3) 36mg(2  3 )
(A) 2 (B) O
R 2R
A
18mg
(C) (D) None of these C k
2R Fix smooth tube
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PHYSICS
36. A mechanism consists of a part which is translated with a velocity u and a road B
AB of length L and mass M hinged at A. The rod rotates about axis A with
angular velocity . The kinetic energy of rod when it is vertical as shown is : 

1 2 1 2 2 1 1
(A) Mu  ML  (B) Mu2  MLu
2 6 2 6

1 1 1 A u
(C) Mu2  ML2 2  MLu (D) None of these
2 6 2

37. In the figure shown, the instantaneous speed of end A of the rod is v to the left. The angular velocity of the rod
of length L, must be

A 30º 60º

(A) v/2L (B) v/L (C) v 3 / 2L (D) None

38. A particle performs sample harmonic oscillations along a straight line with a period T and amplitude a. The
a
mean velocity of the particle averaged over the time interval during which it travels a distance starting from
2
the extreme position is :

a 2a 3a a
(A) (B) (C) (D)
T T T 2T

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PHYSICS
39. Consider a very long stick of length 2R, which extends from just above the surface of the earth, to a radius
3R. If initial conditions have been set up so that this stick moves in a circular orbit while always pointing
radially. What is the period of this orbit. g represents acceleration due to gravity on surface of earth.

After some time

R 2R
stick
Earth

R R R
(A) 6 (B) 2 6 (C)  6 (D) None of these
2g g g

40. Maximum height reached by a bullet fired vertically upward with a speed equal to 50% of the escape velocity
from earth’s surface is (R is radius of earth) :
(A) R/3 (B) R/2 (C) 16R/9 (D) R/8

41. A sphere of brass released in a long liquid column attains a terminal speed v0. If the terminal speed attained
by the sphere of marble of the same radius and released in the same liquid is nv0, then the value of n will be.
Given : The specific gravities of brass, marble and the liquid are 8.5, 2.5 and 0.8 respectively.

5 17 11 17
(A) (B) (C) (D)
17 77 31 5

42. A solid floats with 2/3 of its volume immersed in a liquid and with 3/4 of its volume immersed in another liquid.
What fraction of its volume will be immersed if it floats in a homogenous mixture formed of equal volumes of
the liquids?
(A) 6/7 (B) 8/11 (C) 11/16 (D) 12/17

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PHYSICS
43. The wave function of a triangular wave pulse is defined by the relation below at time t = 0 sec.

 a
 for 0  x  Direction of pulse propagation
2
 mx
 a
y =  –m(x – a) for  x  a
 2
 0 every whereelse

The wave pulse is moving in the +x direction in a string having tension T and mass per unit length .
The total kinetic energy present with the wave pule is

m2 Ta m2 Ta
(A) (B) m2Ta (C) (D) None of these
2 

44. A closed organ pipe of length L is vibrating in its first overtone. There is a point Q inside the pipe at a distance
7 L/9 from the open end. The ratio of pressure amplitude at Q to the maximum pressure amplitude in the pipe
is :
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) 2 : 3

45. One mole of diatomic gas is being heated in a closed tank from 300 K up to 1000 K. During the process part
of the molecules dissociate. At 1000 K the energy of the diatomic molecules are only half of that of the whole
gas. By what factor has the gas pressure increased (P final /Pinitial ) ? (The oscillation of the
molecules are not to be taken in account).

160 16 3
(A) (B) (C) (D) None
33 11 2

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PHYSICS
46. An ideal gas at pressure, volume and temperature P0, V1 and T0 respectively is heated to point B, allowed to
expand to point C, and then returned to the original; point A. Points B and C have the same
temperatures. The internal energy decreases by (3P0V0/2) in going from point C to A. Heat transfer along the
process CA is :

P
B
2P0

P0 C
A

V0 V

(A) (+ P0V/2) (B) (–5P0V0/2) (C) (–3P0V0/2) (D) 0

47. A spherical insulator of radius R is charged uniformly with a chrage Q throughout its volume and contains a
Q
point charge located at its centre. Which of the following graphs best represent qualitatively, the variation
16
of electric field intensity E with distance r from the centre.

E E E E

(A) (B) (C) (D)


r r r r
R R R

48. A positively charged sphere of radius r0 carries a volume charge density (figure). A spherical cavity of radius
r0/2 is then scooped out and left empty, as shown. What is the direction and magnitude of the electric field
at point B?

17r0 r0 17r0 r0


(A) 54  left (B) 6  left (C) 54  (D) 6  right
0 0 0 0

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PHYSICS
49. In the circuit shown, the switch is shifted from position 1  2 at t = 0. The switch was initially in position 1
since a long time. The graph between charge on capacitor C and time ‘t’ is :

1 2

R C 2R

 2

q q q q
C 2C 3C C

(A) (B) (C) (D)


C/2 C C
t t t O t

50. Four capacitors and two sources of e.m.f. are connected as shown in the figure. The p.d. in volts between the
points a and b is :

b 3F

13V 3F 1F 27V

1F a

(A) Zero (B) 13 (C) 17 (D) 27

51. A 3 F and a 5F capacitor are connected in series across a 30 V battery. A 7F capacitor is then connected
in parallel across the 3F capacitor. Choose the INCORRECT option.
(A) Voltage across 3F capacitor before connecting 7F capacitor is 18.75V.
(B) Charge flown through battery after connecting 7F capacitor is 43.75 C.
(C) 5F capacitor and 7F capacitor can be said to be in series.
(D) After connecting 7F capacitor, it has charge of 70C.
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PHYSICS
52. Two conducting large plates P1 & P2 are placed parallel to each other at very small separation ‘d’.
The plate area of either face of plate is A. A charge +2Q is given to plate P1 & –Q to the plate P2 (neglect ends
effects). If plate P1 & P2 are now connected by conducting wire, then total amount of heat produced is :
P1 P2

air

d
4Q2 d 9 Q2 d 3Q2 d
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
3 0 A 8 0 A 4 0 A

53. In the two circuits shown, all the light bulbs and batteries are identical. If A, B and C respectively denotes the
brightness of light bulbs A, B & C then
A B
C

(A) C > A = B (B) C < A = B (C) C = A > B (D) C = A < B

54. A cell of internal resistance 1  is connected across a resistor. A voltmeter having variable resistance G is
used to measure p.d. across resistor. The plot of voltmeter reading V against G is shown. What is value of
external resistor R?

V
20V
V 10V
5V R
G()
24V 1
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 1

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PHYSICS
55. An object was placed upright 25 cm in front of a converging lens with a focal length of 20 cm. A concave mirror
with a focal length of 15 cm was placed 120 cm behind the lens. Which of these describes the final image?
(A) Real, enlarged (B) Virtual, upright (C) Virtual, inverted (D) Inverted, diminished

56. Figure shows crossection view of a infinite cylindrical wire with a cavity, y

current density is uniform j  – j kˆ as shown in figure. Which of the follow-
0
ing option is incorrect.
(A) Magnetic field inside cavity is uniform. x
 a
(B) Magnetic field inside cavity is along a .

(C) Magnetic field inside cavity is perpendicular to a .

(D) If an electron is projected with velocity v 0 ˆj inside the cavity it will move undeviated.

57. A neutral particle at rest in a magnetic field decays (splits) into two charged particles of different mass.
The energy released goes into their kinetic energy. Then what can be the path of the two particles. Neglect
any interaction between the two charges.

× × × × × × × × × × × ×
× × × × × × × × × × × ×
× × × × × × × × × × × ×
(A) × × × × × × (B) × × × × × ×
× × × × × × × × × × × ×
× × × × × × × × × × × ×
point of
collision

× × × × × × × × × × × ×
× × × × × × × × × × × ×
× × × × × × × × × × × ×
(C) (D) × × × × × ×
× × × × × ×
× × × × × × × × × × × ×
× × × × × × × × × × × ×
point of
collision

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PHYSICS
58. A current carrying wire is placed in the grooves of an insulating
semi circular disc of radius "R" as shown in figure. The current B
enters at point A and leaves point B. Determine the magnetic field
i A
at D point

0i  0i i
(A) (B) 30o
8 3R 4 3R
30o
C R D
3 0 i
(C) (D) None of these
4R

P
59. A wire carrying current I is shaped as shown in figure. Section AB & PQ is
a quarter circle. The magnetic field at C is dirercted.
(A) Along the bisector of the angle ACB, away from AB. B

(B) Along the bisector of the angle ACB, towards AB.


(C) Perpendicular to the plane of paper, directed in to the paper.
I
 Q
(D) At an angle to the plane of the paper.. A C
4

 
60. A proton is fired from origin with velocity v  v 0 ˆj  v0kˆ in a uniform magnetic field B  B0 ˆj . In the subsequal
motion of the proton.
(A) Its z coordinate can never be negative.
(B) Its x coordinate can never be positive.
(C) Its x and z coordinates can not be zero at the same time.
(D) Its y coordinate will be proportional to square of its time of flight.

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PART III : CHEMISTRY
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
61. Which of the following reaction is INCORRECT?
(A) P4 + 20HNO3 (conc.)  4H3PO4 + 20NO2 + 4H2O
(B) I2 + 10HNO3 (conc.)  2HIO3 + 10NO2 + 4H2O
(C) S + 6HNO3 (conc.)  H2SO4 + 6NO2 + 2H2O
(D) Sn + 4HNO3 (conc.)  Sn(NO3)2 + 2NO2 + 2H2O

62. Di chloro carbene is involved as an intermediate in the reaction of :


(i) phenol + CHCl3 + 4KOH
(ii) ethylamine + CHCl3 + KOH
(iii) Phenol + CCl4 + 4 KOH
(iv) CHCl3 + KOH
(A) i only (B) i, ii only (C) i , ii and iv (D) i , ii, iii and iv


63. MnO–4 (aq) + I (aq) + H+(aq)  Mn2+(aq) + IO3– (aq) + H2O(). Which of the following is true?

RateI– 3 RateMnO– 6 RateMnO– 2 RateH 2


 4 4
(A) Rate – 1 (B) RateI–

5 (C) Rate 
7 (D) Rate  1
IO 3 Mn2  I–

64. Oxygen gas is liberated by combination of reactants :


(A) MnO2 + Conc.HCl (B) PbO2 + Conc.HCl (C) Cl2 + H2O (D) PbO2 + Conc.HNO3

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CHEMISTRY
65. Which of the following must be true about a binary liquid mixture that obeys Raoult’s law?
(I) The partial pressure of each component at equilibrium is proportional to its mole fraction in the liquid
mixture.
(II) The volume of mixture is equal to the sum of volumes of each component before mixing.
(III) Intermolecular interaction in the mixture are identical to intermolecular interaction in the pure compo-
nent.
(A) I only (B) II and III only (C) III only (D) I, II and III

66. m-chlorobenzaldehyde on reaction with conc. KOH at room temperature gives.


(A) potassium m-chlorobenzoate and m-chlorobenzaldehyde
(B) m-Hydroxybenzaldehyde and m-chlorobenzyl alcohol
(C) m-chlorobenzyl alcohol and m-hydroxy benzyl alcohol
(D) potassium m-chloro benzoate and m-chlorobenzyl alcohol.

67. Which one of the following compounds on heating evolves ammonia gas?
(A) (NH4)2SO4 (B) HNO3 (C) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (D) NH4NO3

68. The positive carbylamine test is given by : -


(A) N, N-dimethyl aniline (B) Triethyl amine
(C) N-methyl-Ortho methyl aniline (D) paramethyl benzyl amine

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CHEMISTRY
69. A radio-isotope, which is used in diagnostic imaging, has a half life of 6 hours. If a quantity of this isotope has
an activity of 150 Ci. When it is delivered to a hospital, how much activity will remain 24 hours after delivery?
(A) 150 Ci (B) 37.5 Ci (C) 9.375 Ci (D) 140.625 Ci

R.T.
70. Br2 + NaOH 
 Y+Z
If Y gives ppt with AgNO3, then Z does not undergo reaction with
(A) Cr3+ (aq) (B) Fe2+(aq) (C) Al3+(aq) (D) Sn2+(aq)

71. The relative rate of acid catalysed dehydration of following alcohols would be :

(i) (ii) (iii)

(A) iii > i > ii (B) iii = i > ii (C) i > iii > ii (D) iii > ii > i

72. Considering 0.1 M aqueous solutions of each of the following, which solution has the lowest pH at 25ºC.
(A) Na2CO3 (B) Na2S (C) NaCl (D) CH3COONa

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CHEMISTRY
73. Comproportionation reaction occurs between
(A) Cl–(aq) + ClO–(aq) + OH–(aq) (B) PH3(g) + H3PO4 acid
(C) Na2S(aq) + Na2SO3(aq) (D) MnO–4 (aq) + Mn2+(aq) + ZnSO4(aq)

74. Toluene is nitrated and the resulting product is reduced with tin and hydrochloric acid. The product so
obtained is diazotised and then heated with cuprous bromide the reaction mixture so formed contains.
(A) The mixture of o- and m-bromotoluenes (B) Mixture of o- and p-bromotoluenes
(C) Mixture of o- and p-dibromobenzenes (D) Mixture of o- and p-bromoanilines

75. A metallic element exist as cubic lattice. Each edge of the unit cell is 3Å. The density of the metal is
7.2 g/cm3. How many unit cells there will be in 108 gm of the metal.
(A) 5.55 × 1023 (B) 5.55 × 1022 (C) 5.55 × 1024 (D) None of these

76. P + BaCl2  Q + R
(coloured solution) (white) (coloured solution)
Which of the following salt is following above given reaction.
(A) AgNO3 (B) Na2CrO4 (C) FeSO4 (D) ZnS

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77. An organic compound A upon reacting with NH3 gives B. On heating, B gives C. C in presence of KOH reacts
with Br2 to given CH3CH2 – NH2. A is

(A) CH3CH2COOH (B) CH3COOH (C) CH3CH2CH2COOH (D) CH3 – CH – COOH

CH3

78. For the reaction A(g) B(g) + C(g) at 500K equilibrium conc. of A, B and C are 10–3 M each. Calculate rG0
iof reaction [use R = 0.08 atm L/mol K, lnx = 2.3logx, ln2 = 0.7]
(A) 12.8 kJ/mol (B) 27.6 kJ/mol (C) –27.6 kJ/mol (D) –12.8 kJ/mol

79. Which of the following pair of cations are separated by both excess NH3(aq) and excess NaOH solution.
(A) Cr3+(aq), Al3+(aq) (B) Fe3+(aq), Al3+(aq) (C) Fe3+(aq), Cr3+(aq) (D) Ni2+(aq), Zn2+(aq)

80. In the given transformation, which of the following is the most appropriate reagent?

CH = CH – COCH3 CH = CHCH2CH3
Reagent

HO HO
(A) Zn – Hg / HCl (B) Na, liquid NH3 (C) NaBH4 (D) NH2 – NH2, OH–

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CHEMISTRY
81. The enthalpy of a dilute solution of KCl at 25ºC is 17.2 kJ/mol and standard enthalpy of formation of KCl(s) is

–435.9 kJ/mol. If fH0 (Cl , aq) = –163.5 kJ. Calculate standard enthalpy of formation of K+(aq) ion.
(A) 255.2 kJ/mol (B) + 288.7 kJ/mol (C) –255.2 kJ/mol (D) Zero

82. Select CORRECT order of reactivity towards HNO3 acid in redox reaction.
(A) Cl2 > S8 (B) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 (C) N2 > P4 (D) Ag2S > H2S > HgS

83. Calculate the emf of electrode concentration cell.


Pt | H2(P1) | HCl | H2(P2) | Pt at 25ºC
if P1 = 600 torr and P2 = 400 torr
(A) 5.19 × 10–3 V (B) 1.04 × 10–2 V (C) –5.19 × 10–3 V (D) –1.04 × 10–2 V

84. Br2/h Identify major product

Br
Br
Br Br

(A) (B) (C) (D)


Br Br
Br
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CHEMISTRY
85. Colour of CrO2–
4 (aq) is not changed by :

(A) Dilute HCl (B) NH3 solution (C) CH3COOH (D) NO2 gas

86. Element A crystallises in face centred cubic lattice with edge length 400 Å. Calculate the radius of particle
perfectly fitted at edge centre without any distortion in lattice of A.
(A) 31.82 Å (B) 200 Å (C) 100 Å (D) 58.54 Å

87. Compound (A), C8H9Br, gives a white precipitate when warmed with alcoholic AgNO3. Oxidation of (A) gives
an acid (B), C8H6O4. (B) easily forms anhydride on heating. Identily the compound (A)
CH2 – Br
CH2 – Br CH2 – Br C2H5
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CH3 Br
CH3 CH3

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CHEMISTRY
88. Which complex has higher number of optical isomers in comparison of geometrical isomers.
(A) [Pt(gly)3]+ (B) [Pt(en)(H2O)4]4+ (C) [Cr(NH3)3(H2O)3]3+ (D) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]+

89. Iodoform can be prepared from all except :


(A) Ethyl methyl ketone (B) Isopropyl alcohol

(C) 3-Methyl-2-butanone (D) Isobutyl alcohol

90. At what temperature will a solution containing 5.4 g glucose per 100 g of water boil.
[Given : kbH2O = 0.52 K kg/mol]
(A) 0.0156 k (B) 0.0156ºC (C) 100.156ºC (D) 100.0156ºC

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DATE : 14-10-17 CODE - A
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

B. Question paper format :


9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics).

10. Parts contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.

C. Marking Scheme :
11. For each question in Parts, you will be awarded 4 marks if you have darkened only
the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.

[RT-8,JM_Mega, Code-A]

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DATE : 12-11-17 CODE - A

VIBRANT ACADEMY
(India) Private Limited
A-14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota-324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2423406, 2428666, 2428664, 2425407 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com
Website : dlp.vibrantacademy.com
REVIEW TEST–9 (MEGA PHASE-I COURSE-2017)
JEE Advance (Paper-1)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 207
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 69 questions. The booklet has
32 pages.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and
on the back page (page no. 32) of this booklet.

3. The question paper contains 4 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and VA
Roll No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 32) of this booklet.

6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided


separately.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

8. Do not open the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.

B. Question paper format  Read the instructions printed on the back page

C. Marking scheme  (page no. 32) of this booklet.
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.

.......................................................... ............................................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator

USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, g = 10 m/s2 , B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Ne = 20, Na = 23,
Mg = 24, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Ar = 40 , Ti = 48, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.5, Br = 80, Mo = 96, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, U = 238
PART I : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

 
 
1 x   y y3 
1. General solution of   dy   2 – 2 dx is

 x x2  x x  y2 
 1 2 
 y 

(A) x2 + y2 + 2xy = c (B) x2 – y2 + x2y2 = cxy (C) y2 – x2 + x2y2 = c (D) None of these

z  
2. If tangents drawn to circle |z| = 4 at points A(z1) and B(z2) intersect at P such that arg  2   then locus
 z1  2

of P is

(A) |z| = 2 (B) | z |  4 2 (C) | z |  2 2 (D) |z| = 8

3. A vertor equation of curve in three dimentional space denoted by r  ( t 2  t – 2) î  ( t  2) ĵ  ( t  3) 2 k̂

represents
(A) a plane passing through origin (B) a plane passing through (0, 0, 1)

(C) a line parallel to the vector î  5 ĵ – k̂ (D) a line passing through (1, 1, 1)

4. The radius of the circle which touches the line x + y = 0 at point P(–1, 1) and cuts the circle
x2 + y2 + 6x – 4y + 10 = 0 orthogonally is

(A) 2 (B) 3 2 (C) 4 2 (D) 5 2

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MATHEMATICS

5. Given three non-zero, non coplanar vector a , b , c and r1  pa  qb  c and r2  a  pb  qc .

If the vectors r1  2 r2 and 2 r1  r2 are collinear, then (p, q) is


(A) (0, 0) (B) (1, –1) (C) (1, 1) (D) (–1, 1)

6. If A is a non singular matrix satisfying A = AB – BA, then which one of the following holds true
(A) det (B) = 0 (B) B = 0 (C) det (A) = 1 (D) det (B + I) = det (B – I)

7. The sum of two positive quantities is equal to 2n. The probability that their product is not less than 3/4 times
their greatest product is -
(A) 3/4 (B) 1/2 (C) 1/4 (D) None of these


x n I
8. If In =  e (sin x) dx,then I1311 is equal to -
0

65 78 91 104
(A) (B) (C) (D)
85 85 85 85

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

9. A bag contains b blue balls and r red balls. If two balls are drawn at random, the probability of drawing two red
balls is five times the probability of drawing two blue balls. Furthermore, the probability of drawing one ball of
each colour is six times the probability of drawing two blue balls. Then
(A) b + r = 9 (B) br = 18 (C) |b – r| = 4 (D) b/r = 2

10. If z1 = a1 + ib1 and z2 = a2 + ib2 are complex numbers such that |z1| = 1, |z2| = 2 and Re(z1z2) = 0, then the

ia 2
pair of complex number 1 = a1 + and 1 = 2b1 + ib2 satisfy -
2
(A) |1| = 1 (B) |2| = 2 (C) Re(12) = 0 (D) Im(12) = 2

2 3
dy x 2 y 2  dy  x3 y3  dy 
11. If y = f(x) passes through (1, 0) and satisfying x – 1 = xy      ......, then
dx 2!  dx  3!  dx 

1
(A) f(x) = nx (B) f(x) = n(1/x) (C) f(x) = (nx)2 (D) f(x) = nx
x

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MATHEMATICS
12. the set of values of p for which all the points of extremum of the function f(x) = x3 – 3p2 + 3(p2 – 1) x + 1 lie
in the interval (–2, 4) is -
(A) (–4, 5) (B) (0, 3) (C) (–1, 3) (D) (1, 3)

/ 4
(k 1)
| sin2x | dx dx
13. Let I = ,(k  N) and J =  ,
 | sin x |  | cos x | 0
sin x  cos x then which of the following hold. (s) good?
k

/ 2
sin 2x
(A) I = 2  dx (B) I = 4 – 4J
0
sin x  cos x

(C) I = 4 – 2J (D) I = 2 – 2J

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - III
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened.
For example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively,
then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

n
r4 n3 n2 5n f n
14. Let    
2r  12r  1 A B C D
 A, B, C, D  N
r 1

1
where f(n) is the ratio of two linear polynomials such that nLim
  f(n) = 2

Find the value of  A  B  C  D  where [.] denotes greatest integer function.

1 1 1
15. Let a and b be two vectors such | a |  | b |  . If  denotes the minimum value of  ,
2
2 |ab| | a – b |2

then find the number of solutions of the equation sec2 =  in the interval (–4, 0).

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MATHEMATICS
16. The point of contact of the tangent to the curve x2017y1033 = K divides the portion of the tangent between the
co-ordinate axes in the ratio of a : b (a from x-axis), then sum of the digits of (a + b) is

17. E is a point on the side AD of a rectangle ABCD so that DE = 6, DA = 8 and CD = 6. If CE is extended to meet
the circumcircle of the rectangle at F, then length of FD is k 2 . Then the value of k is

n n n n n n 1 1  1
18. lim       .....     tan1 c , where a, b,cN,
n n2  1 n2  2 n2  4 n2  8 n2  9 n2  18 2n 3n a b

then the value of a – b + c is equal to

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MATHEMATICS
n
p
19. Let Sk be the area bounded by the curve y = x2(1 – x)k and the lines x = 0, y = 0 and x = 1, if nlim

 Sk  ,
q
k 1

where p, qN, then find the least value of (p + q).

20. If composite function f1(f 2 (f 3......f n(x))) is an increasing function and the number of decreasing functions of all

n2
f i(1  i  n) functions are r and rest are increasing. The maximum value of r(n – r) is when n is even and

n2  1
maximum value of r(n – r) is when n is odd. Evaluate + .

d 1 p
21. Let f(x) = (2x – )3 + 2x – cosx. If the value of
dx
 
f (x) at x = can be expressed in the form of
q
(where

p and q are natural numbers in their lowest form), then the value of (p + q) is

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MATHEMATICS
22. Let f(x) be a derivable function  xR, where f(0) = f(2) = f(4) = 3 and f(1) = f(3) = f(5) = –2, then the minimum
number of roots of x(f(x) f”(x) + (f’(x))2) + f(x) f’(x) = 0 in [0, 4] is equal to

23. Let O be the interior point of ABC such that 2OA  3OB  6OC  0 where 'O' is origin.

Area of (ABC) m
If Area of ( AOB)  n , where m and n are relatively prime positive integers. Find the value of (m – n).

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PART II : PHYSICS
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
24. The drawing shows a top view of a frictionless horizontal surface, where there are two identical springs with
particles of mass m 1 and m 2 attached to them. Each spring has a spring constant of 1200 N/m.
The particles are pulled to the right and then released from the positions shown in the drawing. How much
time passes before the particles are again side by side for the first time if m1 = 3.0 kg and m2 = 27 kg ?

10cm
m1

m2

Natural length

  3 
(A) sec (B) sec (C) sec (D) sec
40 20 40 10

25. A rope hangs from a rigid support. A pulse is set by jiggling the bottom end. We want to design a rope in
which velocity v of pulse is independent of z, the distance of the pulse from fixed end of the rope. If the rope
is very long the desired function for mass per unit length (z) in terms of 0 (mass per unit length of the rope
at the top (z = 0), g, v and z is :
z=0
z

 g   v2 
2 2
(A) (z) = 0e–[g/v ]z (B) (z) = 0e+[g/v ]z (C) (z) = 0loge  2  (D) (z) = 0e +  g  z
v   

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PHYSICS
26. A circular hoop of mass m and radius R rests flat on a horizontal frictionless surface. A bullet, also of mass
m and moving with a velocity v, strikes the hoop and gets embedded in it. The thickness of the hoop is much
smaller than R. The angular velocity with which the system rotates after the bullet strikes the hoop is:

m
R

m v

(A) V/(4R) (B) V/(3R) (C) 2V/(3R) (D) 3V/(4R)

27. Figure shows force vectors at different points in space for two forces.

(a) (b)

  x
In figure (a) the force function is F1  F0 ˆj, where F0 is a constant. The force in figure (b) is given by F2  F0   ˆj,
a
where origin is taken at lower left corner of the box, a is width of the each square box. Mark the correct
options.
   
(A) Both forces F1 and F2 are conservative forces. (B) Both forces F1 and F2 are nonconservative forces.
   
(C) F1 is conservative F2 is non conservative (D) F1 is nonconservative F2 is conservative.

28. Spherical wave fronts shown in figure, strike a plane mirror. Reflected wave fronts will be as shown in.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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PHYSICS
29. Refer to the circuit diagram and the corresponding graphs. The current rises when key K is pressed. With R
= R1 and L = L1 the rise of current is shown by curve (1), while curve (2) shows the rise of current when R =
R2 and L = L2. The maximum current is same for both curves, then :

L R i
i0
(1)
(2)
K V
O Time(t)

(A) R1 = R2, L1 > L2 (B) R1 > R2, L1 = L2 (C) R1 > R2, L1 < L2 (D) R1 = R2, L1 < L2

30. In the given circuit, the initial charges on the capacitors are shown in the figure. The charge flown through the
switches S1 and S2 respectively after closing the switches are :

Q0/3 Q0
–+ +–
–+ +–
–+ +–
C 2C
Q0 3C
V=
2C
S2 S1

Q0 Q0 Q0 Q0 3 Q
(A) Zero, (B) , (C) Zero, (D) Q0 , 0
6 5 2 2 5 6

31. A plastic circular disc of radius R is placed on a thin oil film, spread over a flat horizontal surface.
The torque required to spin the disc about its central vertical axis with a constant angular velocity is proportional
to :
(A) R2 (B) R3 (C) R4 (D) R6

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PHYSICS
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

32. A charged rod having charge as shown is rotating with angular velocity  about on hinge at its centre.
At the instant shown rod is along x-axis. Consider effect of field at the instant shown.

(A) A magnetic field B0 ˆi will slow down rod.

(B) An electric field E0 ˆj will slow down rod.


y
(C) An electric field E0 (– ˆj) will slow down rod. 
– – – – – – + + + + + +
x
(D) A magnetic field can not slow down the rod.

33. A circular conducting loop of radius r0 and having resistance per unit length  as shown in the figure is placed
in a magnetic field B which is constant in space and time. The ends of the loop are crossed and pulled in
opposite directions with a velocity v such that the loop always remains circular and the radius of the loop
goes on decreasing, then
(A) Radius of the loop changes with r as r = r0 – vt/
(B) EMF induced in the loop as a function of time is e = 2Bv[r0 – vt/] B

Bv v v
(C) Current induced in the loop is I =
2

Bv
(D) Current induced in the loop is I =


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PHYSICS
34. A long straight wire carries a steady current I1. Nearby is a rectangular loop that carries a steady current I2.
The directions of the two currents are shown in the figure.

I1

I2

Which statement is/are false?


(A) The loop is attracted to the wire
(B) There is no net force on the loop from the wire
(C) The loop is attracted to the wire if I1 > I2 ; otherwise it is repelled
(D) The loop is repelled from the wire if I1 > I2 ; otherwise it is attracted

35. In the circuit shown there is steady state with the switch closed. The switch is opened at t = 0. Choose the
correct option(s). (Given  = 24V, C1 = 3F and C2 = 2F)

3

 9 C1
S

C2 6

(A) The voltage across C1 before the switch is open is 12V.


(B) The voltage across C1 after a long time after the switch is open is 12V.
(C) The voltage across C2 after a long time after the switch is open is 24V.
(D) The voltage across C2 before the switch is open is 8V.

36. Four identical rods which have thermally insulated lateral surfaces are joined at point A. Points B, C, D & E
are connected to large reservoirs. If heat flows into the junction from point B at rate of 1 W and from point C
at 3 W inside, flows out from D at 5W, which relation(s) is/are correct for temperature of these points ?

B C

E D
(A) TA < TE (B) TB = TC (C) TC > TD (D) TB = TE

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PHYSICS
SECTION - III
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened.
For example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively,
then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

37. The total number of fringes formed on screen in the Lloyd’s mirror arrangement shown is 3N then the value of
N is :

S(5000Å)
1 mm

20cm 30cm 50cm

38. A vessel, whose bottom is flat and perfectly reflecting, is filled with water (index = 4/3) upto a height = 40 cm.
A point object in air above is moving towards the water surface with a constant speed = 4 m/s. What is the
relative speed of its final image (in m/s), as seen by the object itself, at a moment when the object is 30 cm
above the water surface?

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PHYSICS
39. A long straight wire lies on y-axis and carries a current of 8 A in –y direction. In addition to the magnetic field
produced by the wire, a uniform magnetic field of 1.4 × 10–6 T î is also present. What is the magnitude of net
magnetic field at (1, 1, 1). Express your answer in (a + 1) × 10–7 T and fill a in OMR sheet.

40. The figure shows four identical conducting plates each of area A. The separation between the consecutive
plates is equal to L. When both the switches are closed, if charge present on the upper surface of the lowest
xV0 0 A
plate from the top is written as , then what is the value of x? Treat symbols as having usual meaning.
L

V0
4V0

41. Two conducting objects one with charge of +Q and another with –Q are kept on x-axis at x = –3m and
 4
x =+4m respectively. The electric field on the x-axis is given by 3Q  x 2   Newton/Coulomb
 3
(Net electric field due to both charged objects). The capacitance C of this configuration of objects is given by
 1 
 125 – b  Farad, then fill the value of b.
 

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PHYSICS
42. A positive charge +q1 is located to the left of a negative charge –q2. On a line passing through the two
charges, there are two places where the total potential is zero. The reference is assumed to be at infinity. The
first place is between the charges and is 4.00 cm to the left of the negative charge. The second place is 7.00
cm to the right of the negative charge. If q2 = –12 C, if the value of charge q1 in C is 22p then the value of
p is :


43. An electric field is given by E  4iˆ  3(y 2  2)jˆ pierces gaussian cube of side 1 m placed at origin such that
one of its corners is at origin & rest of sides are along positive side of coordinate axis. If the magnitude of net
charge enclosed in n0 then n (in SI units) will be equal to

44. In the given figure, a string of linear mass density 3 × 10–2 kg/m and length L = 1 m, is stretched by a force
F = (3 – kt)N, where k is a constant and t is time in sec. At the time t = 0, a pulse is generated at the end P
k
of the string. Find the value of where k (in N/s) if the value of force becomes zero as the pulse reaches point
4
Q.
P
Q

L
F=(3–kt)N

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PHYSICS
45. Two particles of mass ‘m’ and 3m are initially at rest an infinite distance apart. Both the particles start moving
Gm
due to gravitational attraction. At any instant their relative velocity of approach is , where ‘d’ is their
d
separation at that instant. Find .

46. The variation of alternating current I with time t is given in figure. The ratio of root mean square current (irms)
2
and average current (iavg) for half cycle is given by then the value of N is :
N

i0
3T
4
T T t
4 2
T
–i0

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PART III : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
47. 20 ml of a mixture of CO, CH4 & N2 exploded with excess of oxygen gave a contraction of 14 ml after
combustion. There was further contraction of 16 ml when residual gas treated with KOH. Find mole % of CO
in the original mixture.
(A) 60 (B) 25 (C) 30 (D) 20

48. Which of the following is the product of aldol condensation?

O
O OH O O
(A) (B) OH (C) (D) HO
OH

49. Na2C2O4(s) + conc. H2SO4 Warm Na2SO4 + P(g) + Q(g) + H2O

Ca(OH)2
P(g) + R(ppt)

Gas ‘P’ does not react with :


(A) I2O5 (B) Ag2O
(C) Heated Nickel metal (D) Water

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CHEMISTRY
50. Mark the correct order of decreasing acid strength of the following compounds

OH OH OH OH

NO2
NO2 OCH3
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) d > c > b > a (B) b > c > a > d (C) c > d > b > a (D) d > c > b > a

40 ºC
51. Cl2(g) + Ca(OH)2  Product (P)
(dry slaked lime)
Product ‘P’ does not undergo redox reaction with.
(A) Na2CO3 (B) SO2 (C) H3PO4 (D) HF

52. Which of the following statements is not true about glucose?


(A) It is an aldohexose (B) On heating with HI, it forms n-Hexane
(C) It is present in most stable furanose form (D) It doesn't give 2, 4-DNP test

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CHEMISTRY
53. The covalent bond length of C – C in diamond is x. The volume of unit cell of diamond is
8 64 3 3 3 3 3 3
(A) x3 (B) x3 (C) x (D) x
3 3 3 3 64 8

AlCl3 (i ) O 2 / 
54. + Cl – CH2CH2 CH3   P    
 Q + Phenol
(ii) H3O

P and Q are respectively


O
||
(A) + CH3CH2CHO (B) +

O
||
(C) + (D) + CH3CH2CHO

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

55. Choose the correct statement about given reaction.

H H
OH OH
HO HO
O O
H H
H OH
HO OH HO OH
H OH H H
-anomer -anomer

OH
H
H
HO O
Br2/H2O
 or anomer  HO
 H OH
O
H
-anomer
Product

(A) Product will be lactone (B) Rate of reaction is same for  and anomer
(C) It is a oxidation reaction (D) Rate of reaction is higher for  anomer.

56. For given following reactions :


R.T.
(i) Mg3N2(s) + H2O(l)  Mg(OH)2+ P(gas)


(ii) P(g) + excess O2(g)  Q(g) + R
Pt

If substance ‘R’ makes anhydrous CuSO4 into coloured substance, then select correct statement(s)
(A) Gas “P’ does not undergo self dissociation in water.
(B) Gas ‘Q’ combines with FeSO4 solution
(C) Gas ‘Q’ forms coloured substance with oxygen.
(D) Gas ‘P’ is used in surface treatment of steel.

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CHEMISTRY

57. FeSO4   P(solid) + Q(g) + R(g)
warm
P(solid) + H2SO4   ‘T’ (water soluble compound)
If gas ‘Q’ is polar, then select correct statement(s)
(A) Gas ‘Q’ changes colour of aqueous solution of compound ‘T’
(B) Gas ‘R’ does not change colour of aqueous solution of compound ‘T’
(C) Gas ‘Q’ can change colour of solution of IO3–(aq) / H+(aq)
(D) Gas ‘R’ forms precipitate with Ba(OH)2 and precipitate is soluble in dil. HCl

58. Which of the following pair is differentiated by iodoform test ?


O O O
|| || ||
(A) H–C–H, CH3–CHO (B) CH 3–C– CH 3, H–C–H
O OH

(C) (D)
O O

59. Select correct option(s) that is/are correctly matched with product of given sequence of reactions.
Re action occurs
Na 2CO 3 (s)  Cr2O 3 (s) 
in Molten phase and absence of air
 P  Q(g)

Q(g) excess
P  H2 O  R  S  
NH so ln.
T
Coloured Coloured 3
solution ppt.

(A) P : Na2CrO3 (B) R : Na[Cr(OH)4] (C) S : Cr(OH)3 (D) [Cr(NH3)6]3+

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - III
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging
from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened.
For example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively,
then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

60. Find out value of expression |x + y| for hydrolysis of six moles of XeF4.
where : x = Total number of mole(s) of explosive substance formed
y = Total number of mole(s) of paramagnetic substance formed.

61. Number of alcohol gives positive iodoform test and lucas test ?

OH
OH
OH OH OH

OH
OH
(v) (vi) (vii)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

O
C–H
NaBH4 LiAlH4
P CH3 – C – CH2 – CO2C2H5
OH EtOH Pridine Q
O
(viii) (ix) (x)

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CHEMISTRY
62. Given

ºm (Ag+) = 60 × 10–4 Sm2 mol–1 ºm (CrO –42 ) = 120 × 10–4 Sm2 mol–1

k (Ag2CrO4(aq)) = 5.66 × 10–4 Sm–1 kH2O(pure) = 0.86 × 10–4 Sm–1

S  1011
If solubility of Ag2CrO4 in 10–2 M AgNO3 solution is S. Calculate the value of Z. Where Z =
8

NH4Cl HCl
63. (1) MeCHO H2O A
KCN
(2) Cl CH2CO2H + 2NH3  B

CO   HCl
(3) NK + Cl – CH2CO2H  C D
CO

Lowest pI value among given products A, B & D ? (write only integer part e.g. pI = 4.3, answer will be 4)
Given pKa pKa pKa
-COOH -NH3+ side chain
Arginine 2.17 9.04 12.48
Glutamine 2.17 9.13
Histidine 1.82 9.17 6.04
Alanine 2.34 9.69
Lysine 2.18 8.95 10.79
Glycine 2.34 9.60

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CHEMISTRY
64. Consider following reaction :
Na2S2O3 + Cl2(g)  P + Q
(excess)
If compound ‘P’ is sodium salt, then find out number of moles of substance ‘Q’ for one mole consumption of
Na2S2O3

65. (A) 2, 4 DNP test (B) Iodoform test


(C) Tollen's test (D) Fehilings test
(E) Schiff's test (F) Sodium bisulphate test
Among given tests no. of positive test given by ketone only ?

66. Find the ratio of total Cl– Neighbour of Cl– ion and Cl– neighbour of Na+ ion in the crystaline structure of NaCl.

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67. For given following reaction, find out total number of substance(s) which can be used in place of ‘P’.
starch
I– (aq) + ‘P’  Blue colour..
(i) Acidified IO3– (aq) (ii) Cl2 (iii) H2O2 (iv) SO2
(v) FeCl3 (vi) CuSO4 (vii) H2S (viii) NO2– (aq) / H+ (aq)
(ix) H3PO4

68. In a fuel cell following reaction takes place to produce electricity


Anode : H2 + 2OH–  2H2O + 2e–
Cathode : O2 + 2H2O + 4e–  4OH–
If 67.2 L H2 at 1 atm and 273 K reacts in 15 min and current produced in the cell is use to deposit copper from
CuSO4 solution for same time then how many mol of Cu deposit at electrode.

AlCl3
69. CH2 = C —– O + Benzene Product
CH2— C = O

Degree of unsaturadtion in final product will be ?

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DATE : 12-11-17 CODE - A
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

B. Question paper format :


9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each
part has 3 sections.

10. Section I contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.

11. Section II contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which one or more is/are correct.

12. Section III contains 10 questions. The answer to each of the questions is an
integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the
ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section.

C. Marking Scheme :
13. For each question in Section-I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened
only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.

14. For each question in Section-II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darken
only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. In all other cases, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.

15. For each question in Section-III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darken
only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are
darkened. No negative marks will be awarded in this Section.

16. For each question in Section-IV, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles is darkened.
No negative marks will be awarded for in this Section.
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DATE : 12-11-17 CODE - A

VIBRANT ACADEMY
(India) Private Limited
A-14(A), Road No.1, Indraprastha Industrial Area, Kota-324005 (Raj.)
Tel.:(0744) 2423406, 2428666, 2428664, 2425407 Fax: 2423405
Email: admin@vibrantacademy.com Website : www.vibrantacademy.com
Website : dlp.vibrantacademy.com
REVIEW TEST–9 (MEGA PHASE-I COURSE-2017)
JEE Advance (Paper-2)
Time : 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 237
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS
A. General :
1. This booklet is your Question Paper containing 57 questions. The booklet has
28 pages.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and
on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet.

3. The question paper contains 1 blank pages for your rough work. No additional sheets
will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and
electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.

5. Fill in the boxes provided below on this page and also write your Name and VA
Roll No. in the space provided on the back page (page no. 28) of this booklet.

6. The answer sheet, a machine-readable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided


separately.

7. DO NOT TAMPER WITH / MUTILATE THE ORS OR THE BOOKLET.

8. Do not open the question-paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the invigilators.

B. Question paper format  Read the instructions printed on the back page

C. Marking scheme  (page no. 28) of this booklet.
Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information filled
shall abide by them. in by the candidate.

.......................................................... ............................................................
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the invigilator

USEFUL DATA
Atomic weights: H = 1, He = 4, Li = 7, g = 10 m/s2 , B = 11, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Ne = 20, Na = 23,
Mg = 24, Al = 27, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Ar = 40 , Ti = 48, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56,
Co = 59, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65.5, Br = 80, Mo = 96, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, U = 238
PART I : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Total number of solutions of sin {x} = cos {x} in [0, 2], where {•} denotes the fractional part, is.....
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 8


2. If f (x) = sec4x – 2 and f(0) = f (0) = 0, then 18 f   is equal to
3

(A) 9 – 12 ln 2 – 2 (B) 2 ln 2 + 5 – 2 (C) 12 ln 2 – 9 – 22 (D) 12 ln 2 + 9 – 22

1 2 3

 x dx
0
 [ x] dx
1
 {x} dx
2
1 2 3
3. A
0
 sin x dx  [sin x] dx  {sin x} dx
1 2
/ 2  /2
2 2 a
 (sin
0
x ) dx  {sin
0
x } dx  12 dx
0

(where [p] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to p and {p} denotes the fraction part of p). If value
of A = 0 then value of a is
(A) 12 (B) 6 (C) 3 (D) None of these

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MATHEMATICS
4. There exists a polynomial P of degree 5 with the property that if z is a complex number such that

 P(1) 
z5 + 2017z = 1 then P(z2) = 0. Find the value of  P(1)  (where [.] denote greatest integer function)
 

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) None of these

5.  f " (x)F(x) dx –  f ( x)F" ( x) dx 


(A) f(x) F(x) – f (x) F(x) + C (B) f (x) F(x) – f(x) F (x) + C
(C) f(x) F (x) – F(x) f (x) + C (D) f (x) F (x) – F (x) f (x) + C
(where C is arbitrary constant)

6. The contents of 3 bags w.r.t. green and red marbles is as given in the table shown. A child randomly selects
one of the bags, and draws a marble from it and retains it. If the marble is green, the child draws the second
marble randomly from one of the remaining bags. If the first marble drawn is red the child draws one more

m
marble from the same bag. The probability that the second drawn marble is green is expressed as (where
n

n
m and n are coprime). Find the value of .
m –1

Bag G R
A 3 1
B 2 2
C 1 3

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - II
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3 multiple choice questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 7 to 9

If z satisfies the relation |z– ((2 – 7+ 11) + i)| = 1 , R. Also arg z  is satisfied by atleast one 'z'. Now
2
answer the following questions
7. The value of '' lies in the interval:

 7
(A) [2, 6] (B) 1,  (C) [2, 5] (D) [–4, –2]
 2

8. Maximum value of |z – i| is

7 4 5 9
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 9 9 4

9. The value of arg(z) for which |z–i| is maximum :

4 1 9 4
(A) –tan1 (B) –tan1 (C) –tan1 (D) –tan1
9 9 4 5

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MATHEMATICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 10 to 12
A bag contains 3 red, 3 blue & 4 white balls. A ball is drawn at random and is replaced back together with a
ball of a different colour (which can only be red, blue or white) so that there are now 11 balls in the bag.
10. Probability that number of red and blue balls remain the same is ......

3 7 13 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
10 10 20 20

11. Probability that number of white balls will remain greater than the number of red balls

13 11 9 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20 20 20 20

12. If another ball is drawn from the bag containing 11 balls and found to be red than the probability that the first
drawn ball was also red is equal to

18 17 18 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
55 54 67 3

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - III
Matrix - Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to
be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are
labelled P, Q, R, S and T. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have
to be darkened as illustrated in the following example :
If the correct matches are A – Q, S and T; B – Q and R; C – P and Q; and D – S and T; then the correct
darkening of bubbles will look like the following.
P Q R S T
A P Q R S T

B P Q R S T

C P Q R S T

D P Q R S T

13. Column-I Column-II


2 2
(A) Function f(x)  (x  5x  6) | x  3x  2 | is not differentiable at x = (P) 1

  
(B) If the range of the function y  tan 2 x  4  6  x is ,tan k 1    tan k 2 ,   (Q) 2

k2
where k1 and k2 are integers, then  k1 is equal to (R) 3
2
(C) Number of points where f(x) = max. (|3 – x|, 3 – x3) is not differentiable (S) 4
(D) Number of real value(s) of ‘a’ such that a2 – 2a sin x + 1 = 0 some x  R is/are (T) 11

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MATHEMATICS
14. Column-I Column-II
(A) Let P(n) for n  1 denotes the probability that if n coins are tossed, (P) 1

all show up the same face. The value of the sum  p(k) equals.
k 1
(B) If the area bounded by the graph of y = xe–ax (a > 0) and the (Q) 2
1
abscissa axis is then the value of ‘a’ is equal to
9

 1  2  1
     
0    ; C =   1  . If , , are three real numbers
1
(C) Let A =  ; B= (R) 3
  3   0   1 

 2
 
5
such that A  B  C =   then the value of  is
 6 

(D) If the equation y = 2x – kx2 is a solution of the differential equation (S) 4

dy
x = y – x2 then k has the value equal to
dx
(T) 5

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MATHEMATICS
SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

2
2 –1
15. If f(x) = x + sin x, then find
2
.  (f

( x )  sin x ) dx .

16. If ai is negative or positive according as i is odd or even and the equation x4 + a1 x3 + a2 x2 + a3 x + 5 = 0 has

a1a3
four real roots, then minimum value of is equal to :
16

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MATHEMATICS

sec 2 1
17. If the ordered pair (, ) is the value for which the inequation 2

2     1 is satsfied where
2

(0 <  < 2), then the value of [7 + 6 – 7cos–1(–1)] is, (where [.] denotes greatest integer function)

18. If f : R  R be a twice differentiable function such that t2f(x) – 2tf '(x) + f "(x) = 0 has two equal values of t for
 f(x) – 1 t 
all x and f(0) = 1, f '(0) = 2, then the value of Lim  x – 2  is :
x 0  

 2  2 4
19. If tan–1  x   – tan–1  x – x  = tan–1 then the value of 250x4 + 320x2 – 1635 is equal to :
 x   x

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PART II : PHYSICS
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
20. Two identical thin rings each of radius R and placed coaxially at a distance R have a uniform mass distribution
and mass m1 and m2 respectively. Work done by gravitational force in moving a particle of mass m from
centre of ring of mass m1 to the centre of other ring will be :

(A)
Gm(m1  m2 )  
2 1
(B)
Gm(m1  m2 )
R 2 R 2

Gm(m2  m1) Gm(m1  m2 )


(C)
R 2
(D)
2R
1  2 

21. The end A is subjected to a tensile force F, while force applied at end B is F lesser than applied at end A and
opposite to F, Tension at mid point of the rod will be :
B A
F

(F  F) (2F  F) (2F  F)


(A) (B) (C) (D) F – F
2 2 4

22. The network shown in figure is part of a complete circuit. If at a certain instant the current (i) is 5A and is
decreasing at a rate of 103 A/s, then VB – VA is

5mH
A B
i 1 15V

(A) 5V (B) 10V (C) 15V (D) 20V

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PHYSICS
23. Find the angle of prism so that rays of light incident normally on face AB of the prism of refractive index µ,
come out of the prism along face AC.
A

B 90º C

 1   1 
 
(A) tan-1  2  (B) tan–1 (µ2–1) (C) tan–1 2
µ 1 (D) tan–1  µ2  1 
 µ  1  

24. A ball of mass m collides symmetriclly to two other identical balls. On smooth horizontal surface, as shown
in the figure. After collision first ball becomes stationary then the coefficient of restituation is :

v m
m
m

1 2 3 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 2 2

25. From an inclined plane two particles are projected with same speed at same angle , one up and other down
the plane as shown in figure, which of the following statements is correct?


(A) The time of flight of each particle is the same


(B) The particles will collide the plane with same speed.
(C) Both the particles strike the plane perpendicular.
(D) The particles will not collide in mid air even if projected simultaneously and time of flight of each particle
is greater then the time of collision.

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PHYSICS
SECTION - II
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3 multiple choice questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 26 to 27
A battery is connected across series combination of a capacitor and an uncharged resistor, at t = 0
26. If at an instant t, potential difference across the capacitor be V and energy stored in it be U then which of the
following graphs is correct?

U U U U

(A) (B) (C) (D)

O V O V O V O V
27. If heat generated in the resistor upto the instant t be H, then which of the following graphs is correct?
(v = potential difference across capacitor)

H H H H

(A) (B) (C) (D)

O V O V O V O V

28. If at instant t, current flowing through the circuit be i, then which of the following graphs is correct?

H H H H

(A) (B) (C) (D)

O i O i O i O i

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PHYSICS
Paragraph for Question Nos. 29 to 30
The figure shows a network of resistances in which the point A is earthed.

4V
4
8V
D
B

3
2V

29. The point which has the least potential is :


(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

30. The current through the 3resistor is :


(A) 2A from D to A (B) 2A from A to D (C) 3.33 A from A to D (D) 3.33 from D to A

31. The current through the 4resistor is :


(A) 0.5 A from B to C (B) 0.5A from C to B (C) 1 A from C to B (D) 1 A from B to C

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PHYSICS
SECTION - III
Matrix - Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to
be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are
labelled P, Q, R, S and T. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have
to be darkened as illustrated in the following example :
If the correct matches are A – Q, S and T; B – Q and R; C – P and Q; and D – S and T; then the correct
darkening of bubbles will look like the following.
P Q R S T
A P Q R S T

B P Q R S T

C P Q R S T

D P Q R S T

32. A square loop is placed near a long straight current carrying wire as shown in figure. Match the following
table.

Column I Column II
(A) If current is increased (P) induced current in loop is clockwise
(B) If current is decreased (Q) induced current in loop is anticlockwise
(C) If loop is moved away from the wire (R) wire will attract the loop
(D) If loop is moved toward the wire (S) wire will repel the loop
(T) net magnetic force on the loop is zero

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PHYSICS
33. Three infinite wires are carrying same constant current i in different directions. Four loops enclosing the wires

in different manners are shown in figure. The direction of d  is shown in the figure.

Loop 1

Loop 2

Loop 3
Loop 4

Column I Column II
 
(A) Along closed loop 1 (P)  Bd   µ0 i
 
(B) Along closed loop 2 (Q)  B.d   µ i0

 
(C) Along closed loop 3 (R)  B.d   0
(D) Along closed loop 4 (S) net work done by the magnetic force to move a unit
charge along the loop is zero
(T) net work done by the magnetic force to move a unit
charge along the loop is non zero

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PHYSICS
SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

34. Starting from the rest, at the same time, a ring and a disc of same mass roll down an incline without slipping.

x
The ratio of their translational kinetic energies at the bottom is . Find x :
4

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PHYSICS
35. Find the potential difference across C2 in volts.

2 C2=6µF

4 2
C 2
A
C1=4µF

10V

36. The ratio of current at steady state to the current at t = 0, when the switch is closed at t = 0 and the capacitor

3
is initially uncharged is . Find x
x

L 3R
A B
3R

C
i
6R

K
E

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PHYSICS
37. If the capacitance of each capacitor in the tetrahedron shown in C, then effective capacitance of the network
across any two junctions is nC. Write n the OMR sheet.

38. If the pressure P, in the diagram as shown, of monatomic gas of one mole in the process Abc in n × P0. While
in proces ABC, U/W = 9/2, then write n in the OMR sheet.

P
C
P
P0 B
A

V
V0 2V0

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PART III : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
39. The mean free path () of a gas sample is given by :

1 1
(A)   22N (B)   (C)   2u2N (D)  
22N 2N

40. warm
Na2S2O3 + dil. HCl  NaCl + X(g) + Y(yellow)
gas 'X' does not undergoes redox reaction with
(A) Fe3+(aq) (B) IO3– / H+(aq) (C) I–(aq) (D) Cl2(g)

41. Which of the following statement is correct?

If E 2  0.337V and E 2  0.136V .


Cu |Cu Sn |Sn

(A) Cu2+ ions are can be reduced by H2(g) (B) Cu can be oxidized by H+
(C) Sn2+ ions can be reduced by H2 (D) Cu can be reduce Sn2+

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CHEMISTRY
42. Calculate formula of a cubic crystalline solid which is formed by A, B, and C atoms in which two atoms of "A"
are present at each corner of unit cell. B atom is present at all that face centre whose opposite face centre
atom is "C" and C atom is also present at bocy centre of unit cell
(A) A4B3C5 (B) A2B3C5 (C) A2B3C3 (D) AB2C3

43. Which of the reaction product is insoluble whenever react with PhSO2Cl + KOH (Hinsberg reagent)

O O
KOH/Br2 LiAlH4
(A) R – C – NH2 (B) R – C – NH2
 H2O

RMgBr Ni / H2
(C) R – C  N   (D) R – N  C  
H2 O 

44. The coagulating value of electrolytes having ions Cl– , SO4–2, PO4–3, [Fe(CN)6]–4 for Fe(OH)3 sol increases in
the order
(A) Cl–< SO4–2 < PO4–3 < [Fe(CN)6]–4 (B) [Fe(CN)6]–4 < PO4–3 < SO4–2 < Cl–
– –3 –2
(C) Cl < PO4 < SO4 < [Fe(CN)6] –4 (D) [Fe(CN)6]–4 < SO4–2 < PO4–3 < Cl–

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - II
Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3 multiple choice questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is
correct.
Paragraph for Question Nos. 45 to 47
A solution contains one mole each of HA and HB (both are weak acids) in one litre solution. Now 1 mole of
NaOH is added to this solution so that both the acids are partly neutralised. Heat of neutralisation for HA and
HBare –11.8 and –12.4 kcal respectively and the heat produced during partial neutralisation of HA and HB is
–12.25 kcal.

45. Mole ratio of neutralisation of HA and HB is :


(A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 5

46. The ratio of dissociation constant of two acids are :


(A) 1 : 9 (B) 1 : 6 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 27

47. The ratio of NaA and NaB in solution left after reaction is :
(A) 1 : 9 (B) 1 : 3 (C) 1 : 6 (D) 1 : 4

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CHEMISTRY
Paragraph for Question Nos. 48 to 50

NBS/Benzoyl H2O, CaCO3


Compound (G) Compound (H)
CH3 Peroxide/ 
Br PCC in
CH2Cl2

Compound (K) + Compound (J) KOH/ Compound (I)


(C11H7BrO)

H /

Compound (L)

48. What is compound (H)

(A) (B)
CH2–Br CH2–OH
Br Br

(C) (D)
CH2–Br CH2
OH HO OH
49. What is compound (I)

(A) CH2–OH (B) CO2H


Br Br

(C) CHO (D)


CHO
Br
OH
50. What is compound (L)
Br

(A) O (B) O
C–OCH2 C–O
Br Br Br
[RT-9_XII_M ega_(Phase-I)_P-2,A]

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) O O


C–O–C
Br Br

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - III
Matrix - Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to
be matched. The statements in Column I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column II are
labelled P, Q, R, S and T. Any given statement in Column I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have
to be darkened as illustrated in the following example :
If the correct matches are A – Q, S and T; B – Q and R; C – P and Q; and D – S and T; then the correct
darkening of bubbles will look like the following.
P Q R S T
A P Q R S T

B P Q R S T

C P Q R S T

D P Q R S T

51. Column-I Column-II


(Aqueous salt solution) (Reaction with salt solution)
(A) K2CrO4 (P) Observable change with dil H2SO4.
(B) BaBr2 (Q) Precipitate with AgNO3 solution
(C) NaNO2 (R) Redox reaction with O3(g)
(D) Na2S (S) Reacts with acidified FeSO4 solution.
(T) Reacts with H2O2 in acidic medium.

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CHEMISTRY
52. Column-I Column-II

OEt
+
H3O
(A) A + B (P) A & B is differentiated by Iodoform test

O
|| +
H3O
(B) CH3–C–O–CH2–CH3 A + B (Q) A & B is differentiated by reaction with Na-metal

O O
|| || 
(C) Ph–C–CH2–C–OH A (R) A & B is differentiated by Tollen’s test

CN +
H3O
CH3–CH B

CN

HgSO4
(D) CH3–CCH dil·H SO A (S) A & B will be differentiated by NaHCO3
2 4

OH
H2SO4 O3
P B
 Zn
(Major)

(T) A & B will be differentiated by Fehling

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CHEMISTRY
SECTION - IV
Integer Answer Type
This section contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from
0 to 9. The appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the ORS have to be darkened. For
example, if the correct answers to question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively, then
the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following :
In all cases round answer to nearest integer value (if required)
X Y Z W
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9

53. Find out total number of reagents which can dissolve copper turnings,
dil.HNO3, conc. HNO3, dil H2SO4, Conc. H2SO4, dil HCl, Conc. HCl, NaOH, H3PO4, H2CO3

54. An element exists in the gaseous phase both as monomer (A) and dimer (A2). The mol. wt. of A is 48. In an
experiment 96 g of element was confined in a container of volume 33.6 litre and heated to 273ºC. Calculate
the pressure developed if the element exists as dimer to the extent of 50% by weight under same these
conditions.

Space For Rough Work

[RT-9_XII_M ega_(Phase-I)_P-2,A]

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CHEMISTRY
 Alkaline
55. BaSO4 + Coke X Y
Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
Purple solution

Calculate (a + b) :
a : Total number of electron present in t2g orbital of Y.
b : Total number of axial d-orbitals participates in hybridisation in Y.

56. The activity of a radioactive sample decreases to 1/3 of the original activity (A0), in a period of 9 years. After
9 years more, its activity A0/x. Find the value of x.

57. A mixture of two immiscible liquids nitrobenzene and water boiling at 99ºC shows a partial pressure of water
733 mm and that of nitrobenzene 27 mm. Find the closest value of their weight ratio (water: nitrobenzene) in
vapour phase.

Space For Rough Work

[RT-9_XII_M ega_(Phase-I)_P-2,A]

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Space For Rough Work

[RT-9_XII_M ega_(Phase-I)_P-2,A]

Vibrant Academy (I) Pvt. Ltd. "A-14(A)" Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.) Ph. 0744-2423406 (www.vibrantacademy.com) [27]
DATE : 12-11-17 CODE - A

Name of the candidate VA Roll Number

B. Question paper format :


9. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each
part has 4 sections.

10. Section I contains 6 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),
(B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.

11. Section II contains 2 groups of questions. Each groups has 3 questions based on a
paragraph. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of
which only one of correct.

12. Section III contains 2 questions. Each questions has four statements (A, B, C and D)
given in Column I and five statements (P, Q, R, S and T) in Column II. Any given
statement in Column I can have correct matching with one or more statement(s)
given in Column II. For example, if for a given question, statement B matches with the
statements given in Q and R, then for that particular question, against statement B,
darken the bubbles corresponding to Q and R in the ORS.

13. Section IV contains 5 questions. The answer to each of the questions is an


integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the
ORS as per the instructions given at the beginning of the section.

C. Marking Scheme :
14. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 5 marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened.
In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus two (–2) mark will be awarded.

15. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened.
In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.

16. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 2 marks for each row in
which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus,
[RT-9_XII_M ega_(Phase-I)_P-2,A]

each question in this section carries a maximum of 8 marks. There is no negative


marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

17. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darkened the
bubble corresponding to the correct answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened.
There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this section.

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