Form Number : Paper Code

(1015CMA303319007) *1015CMA303319007*
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2019 - 2020)

PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER COURSE

PHASE : MLG
Test Type : MINOR Test Pattern : AIIMS(CBT)
TEST DATE : 22 - 09 - 2019

Important Instructions /
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so
[

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be alloted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the
correct seat only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be
removed from the examination and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
;
;
2. Duration of Test is 3½ Hours and Questions Paper Contains 200 Questions. The Max. Marks are 200.
3½ = 200 200

3. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
] ; ;
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
; }
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
= ,
6. Each correct answer carries 1 marks, while one third mark will be deducted from the total of individual subject for each
incorrect answer.
1 , ] ;

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 Leader Course/Phase-MLG/22-09-2019
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1. A particle of mass 4 kg moves simple harmonically 1. 4 kg ,

such that its PE (U) varies with position x, as PE (U), (x)
shown. The period of oscillations is :-
:-
U(x) joule U(x) joule

1.0 1.0

O 0.2 x(m) O 0.2 x(m)

2 2 2 2
(1) s (2) s (1) s (2) s
25 5 25 5

4 2 2 4 2 2
(3) s (4) s (3) s (4) s
5 5 5 5
2. A particle is moving on x–axis has potential 2. x–
energy U = 2 – 20x + 5 x 2 joules along U = 2 – 20x + 5 x2 (x-
x-axis. The particle is released at x = – 3. X=–3 'x'
The maximum value of 'x' will be
[x U ]:-
[x is in meters and U is in joules]:-
(1) 5 m (2) 3 m (3) 7 m (4) 8 m (1) 5 m (2) 3 m (3) 7 m (4) 8 m
3. A system is shown in the figure. The time 3. = , ; ,
period for small oscillations of the two blocks
will be :-

3m 3m
3m 3m (1) 2 (2) 2
(1) 2 (2) 2 k 2k
k 2k

3m 3m 3m 3m
(3) 2 (4) 2 (3) 2 (4) 2
4k 8k 4k 8k

4. A particle is executing SHM with time period 4. /; T

T Starting from mean position, time taken by 5
5
}
8
it to complete oscillations is, ;
8

(1) (2) (1) (2)

12 6 12 6

5 7 5 7
(3) (4) (3) (4)
12 12 12 12

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 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/AIIMS-CBT TEST/22-09-2019
5. Figure shows the position-time graph of an 5. ; =
object in SHM. The correct equation
representing this motion is :-
:-
x(cm)
x(cm)

4
4
2
2
0 t(s)
5 11 0 t(s)
5 11

–4
–4

2
(1) 2sin t (2) 4sin t 2
5 6 5 6 (1) 2sin t (2) 4sin t
5 6 5 6

(3) 4sin t (4) 4sin t (3) 4sin t (4) 4sin t

6 3 6 6 6 3 6 6

6. Two particles P and Q describe SHM of same 6. P Q a

amplitude a and frequency along the same
straight line. The maximum distance between
2a
two particles is 2a . The initial phase
:-
difference between the particles is :-
(1) zero (2) /2 (3) /6 (4) /3 (1) ; (2) /2 (3) /6 (4) /3
7. A particle of mass m in a unidirectional potential 7. ; {= m
field have potential energy U(x) = + 2 x2, U(x) = +2 x 2

where and are positive constants. Find its

time period of oscillations.
2 m
(1) 2 (2) 2
m 2
2 m
(1) 2 (2) 2
m 2

m
m (3) (4)
(3) (4) m
m
8. S1, S2 are two coherent sources of sound located 8. S 1, S 2 / ] x-
along x-axis separated by 4 where is 4 /
wavelength of sound emitted by them. Number /; ,
of maximum located on the elliptical boundary
[; :-
around it will be :-

(1) 16 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 4 (1) 16 (2) 12 (3) 8 (4) 4

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9. Two coherent sources of different intensities 9.
send waves which interfere. The ratio of the
maximum intensity to the minimum intensity
25 :-
is 25. the intensities are in the ratio :-
(1) 25 : 1 (2) 5 : 1
(1) 25 : 1 (2) 5 : 1
(3) 9 : 4 (4) 625 : 1 (3) 9 : 4 (4) 625 : 1
10. 41 tuning forks are arranged such that every 10. 41
fork gives 5 beats with the next. The last fork = 5 =
has a frequency that is double of the first. The = =
frequency of the first fork is :-
:-
(1) 200 (2) 400 (1) 200 (2) 400
(3) 205 (4) 210 (3) 205 (4) 210
–1
11. A source of sound gives five beats per second 11. / 100 /
when sounded with another source of
frequency 100 s–1. The second harmonic of the –1
205
source together with a source of frequency
205 s–1 gives five beats per second. What is the
frequency of the source :- :-
(1) 105 s–1 (2) 205 s–1 (1) 105 s–1 (2) 205 s–1
(3) 95 s–1 (4) 100 s–1 (3) 95 s–1 (4) 100 s–1
12. An unknown frequency x produces 8 beats per 12. x 250 8
seconds with a frequency of 250 Hz and 270 12
12 beats with 270 Hz source, then x is :- x :-
(1) 258 Hz (1) 258 Hz
(2) 242 Hz
(2) 242 Hz
(3) 262 Hz
(3) 262 Hz
(4) 282 Hz (4) 282 Hz
13. The equation of stationary wave along a stretched 13. ,/
x x
string is given by y = 5 sin cos 40 t,
y = 5 sin cos 40 t ]
3 3
x y t
where x and y are in cm and t in second. The
:-
separation between two adjacent nodes is:-
(1) 1.5 cm (2) 3 cm (1) 1.5 (2) 3
(3) 6 cm (4) 4 cm (3) 6 (4) 4
14. A 1 cm long string vibrates with fundamental 14. 1 256
frequency of 256 Hz. If the length is reduced
1
,;
1 4
to cm keeping the tension unaltered, the new
4 , :-
fundamental frequency will be :-
(1) 64 (2) 256
(1) 64 (2) 256
(3) 512 (4) 1024
(3) 512 (4) 1024
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 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/AIIMS-CBT TEST/22-09-2019
15. Transverse waves of same frequency are 15. A B
generated in two steel wires A and B. The A B A
diameter of A is twice of B and the tension in B A B
A is half that in B. The ratio of velocities of
:-
wave in A and B is :-
(1) 1: 3 2 (2) 1: 2 2
(1) 1: 3 2 (2) 1: 2 2
(3) 1 : 2 (4) (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 :1
2 :1
16. Two closed pipes produce 10 beats per second 16. 10
when emitting their fundamental nodes. If their ; 25 : 26
lengths are in ratio of 25 : 26. Then their % Hz :-
fundamental frequency in Hz, are :-
(1) 270, 280
(1) 270, 280
(2) 260, 270
(2) 260, 270
(3) 260, 250 (3) 260, 250

(4) 260, 280 (4) 260, 280

17. A cylindrical tube, open at both ends, has a 17. f0
fundamental frequency f 0 in air. The tube is
dipped vertically into water such that half of its
length is inside water. The fundamental frequency
(1) 3f0/4 (2) f0
of the air column now is :-
(1) 3f0/4 (2) f0 (3) f0/2 (4) 2f0 (3) f0/2 (4) 2f0
18. An observer moves towards a stationary 18. n /
source of sound of frequency n. The apparent } 2n ;
frequency heard by him is 2n. If the velocity / 332 ]
of sound in air is 332 m/sec, then the velocity
:-
of the observer is :-
(1) 166 (2) 664
(1) 166 m/sec (2) 664 m/sec
(3) 332 m/sec (4) 1328 m/sec (3) 332 (4) 1328
19. A sound source is moving towards a stationary 19. / / 1/10
observer with 1/10 of the speed of sound. The
ratio of apparent to real frequency is :- :-
(1) 10/9 (2) 11/10 (1) 10/9 (2) 11/10
2
(3) (11/10) (4) (9/10)2 (3) (11/10)2 (4) (9/10)2
20. A source and listener are both moving towards 20. / , ,
v v
each other with speed , where v is the speed ] v ; }
10 10
of sound. If the frequency of the note emitted f ] }
by the source is f, the frequency heard by the :-
listener would be nearly :-
(1) 1.11 f (2) 1.22 f
(1) 1.11 f (2) 1.22 f
(3) f (4) 1.27 f (3) f (4) 1.27 f

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21. Find the charge on the capacitor C in the given 21. =C , %&
circuit :- 12 V 2
12 V 2
2µF
2µF
C
C
(1) 12µC (2) 14µC
(1) 12µC (2) 14µC (3) 20µC (4) 18µC (3) 20µC (4) 18µC
22. Two identical parallel plate capacitors are 22. , V0
placed in series and connected to a constant
, ;
voltage source of V 0 volt. If one of the
capacitors is completely immersed in a liquid = K
with dielectric constant K, the potential ] =
difference between the plates of the other
capacitor will change to :- %&
K 1 K K 1 K
(1) V0 (2) V0 (1) V0 (2) V0
K K 1 K K 1
K 1 2K K 1 2K
(3) V0 (4) V0 (3) V0 (4) V0
2K K 1 2K K 1
23. Two capacitors, 3µF and 4µF, are individually 23. 3µF 4µF 6
charged across a 6 volt battery. After being
disconnected from the battery, they are ] ,
connected together with the negative plate of /
one attached to the positive plate of the other. %&
What is the common potential ?
(1) 6 (2) (6/7)
(1) 6 volt (2) (6/7) volt
(3) 2 volt (4) (3/2) volt (3) 2 (4) (3/2)
24. Condenser A has a capacity of 15µF when it 24. =A / 15µF ] 15
is filled with a medium of dielectric constant /; 1µF =
15. Another condenser B has a capacity of 1µF 100
with air between the plates. Both are charged
separately by a battery of 100 V. After
charging, both are connected in parallel without ]
the battery and the dielectric material being %&
removed. The common potential is now :- (1) 400 (2) 800
(1) 400 V (2) 800 V
(3) 1200 V (4) 1600 V (3) 1200 (4) 1600
25. Four identical capacitors are connected in series 25. , 10
with a 10 V battery as shown. The point N is N
earthed. The potentials of points A and B are :- A B %&
+ – + –
10 V 10 V

N N
A B A B
C C C C C C C C
(1) 10 V, 0 V (2) 7.5 V, –2.5 V (1) 10 ,0 (2) 7.5 V, –2.5
(3) 5 V, –5 V (4) 7.5 V, 2.5 V (3) 5 , –5 (4) 7.5 V, 2.5

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26. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii a 26. a b (b > a) ; A B
and b (b > a) are placed concentrically in air.
] ,
The two are connected by a copper wire as
shown in figure. Then the equivalent ; ;/ %&
capacitance of system is :- B
b
B A
b
A a
a

4 0ab
4 0ab (1) (b – a) (2) 4 0 (a + b)
(1) (b – a) (2) 4 0 (a + b)
(3) 4 0 b (4) 4 0 a (3) 4 0b (4) 4 0a
27. For the circuit shown in the figure, the charge 27. = 4µF =
on 4µF capacitor is :- %&
4µF 4µF
1µF 1µF

5µF 5µF

3µF + – 3µF + –

10V 10V
(1) 30µC (2) 40µC (3) 24µC (4) 54µC (1) 30µC (2) 40µC (3) 24µC (4) 54µC
28. In the condenser shown in the circuit is 28. = 5V
charged to 5 V and left in the circuit, in 12 =
12 second the charge on the condenser will %&
become :-
2F 6
2F 6

10 e 10 e
(1) coulomb (2) coulomb (1) (2)
e 10 e 10
10 e2 10 e2
(3) 2 coulomb (4) coulomb (3) 2 (4)
e 10 e 10
29. Two capacitors of capacitance C 1 = 2µF and 29. / C1 = 2µF C2 = 3µF
C 2 = 3µF are connected as shown to two A 6 10 A
batteries A and B which have emf 6 V and 10 V
respectively. Energies stored in the capacitors B % C1 C2
C1 and C2 are :- %&
X X
C2 3µF + +
C2 3µF
B B
+ +
A C1 2µF – –
A C1 2µF
– –
Y Y
(1) 36µJ, 36µJ (2) 24µJ, 24µJ (1) 36µJ, 36µJ (2) 24µJ, 24µJ
(3) 24µJ, 36µJ (4) 36µJ, 24µJ (3) 24µJ, 36µJ (4) 36µJ, 24µJ
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 Leader Course/Phase-MLG/22-09-2019
30. Two capacitors C1 and C2 = 2C1 are connected 30. C1 C2 = 2C1 ,
in a circuit with a switch between them as [ ] C1
shown in the figure. Initially the switch is open
and C1 holds charge Q. The switch is closed. Q
At steady state, the charge on each capacitor = %&
will be :-
Q C1 Q 2Q Q C1
Q 2Q
(1) Q, 2Q (2) , (1) Q, 2Q (2) ,
3 3 3 3
R R
3Q 2Q 4Q
(3) ,3Q (4) , 3Q 2Q 4Q
2 3 3 (3) ,3Q (4) ,
C2 = 2C1 2 3 3 C2 = 2C1
31. A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance has 31. 50 / 25
25 divisions. A current of 4 × 10–4 ampere gives 4 × 10 –4
/ ,
a deflection of one division. To convert this
25
galvanometer into a voltmeter having a range
, %&
of 25 volt. It should be connected with resistance of :-
(1) 2500 as a shunt (2) 2450 as a shunt (1) 2500 (2) 2450
(3) 2550 in series (4) 2450 in series (3) 2550 (4) 2450
32. Two sources of equal emf are connected to an 32. R
external resistance R in series. The internal
R1 R2
resistance of the two sources are R 1 and R 2
(R2 > R1). If the potential difference across the (R2 > R1) R2
source having internal resistance R 2 is zero,
; ] %&
then :-
R1 R 2 R1 R 2 R1 R 2 R1 R 2
(1) R = (2) R = (1) R = (2) R =
R1 R 2 R 2 – R1 R1 R 2 R 2 – R1
R1 + R 2 R1 + R 2
(3) R R2 (4) R = R2 – R1 (3) R R2
R 2 – R1 (4) R = R2 – R1
R 2 – R1
33. In a potentiometer experiment the balancing 33. ],
with a cell is at a length of 240 cm. On shunting 240 2
the cell with a resistance of 2 the balancing 120
length becomes 120 cm. The internal resistance %&
of the cell is :- (1) 4 (2) 2
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 0.5 (3) 1 (4) 0.5
34. In a wheatstone's bridge, three resistance P, Q 34. P, Q R
and R are connected in the three arms and ]
fourth arm is formed by two resistance S1 and
S1 S2
S 2 connected in parallel. The condition for
bridge to be balanced will be :- %&
P R P 2R P R P 2R
(1) (2) (1) Q S1 S2 (2) Q S1 S2
Q S1 S2 Q S1 S2

P R(S1 S2 ) P R(S1 S2 ) P R(S1 S2 ) P R(S1 S2 )

(3) Q (4) Q (3) Q S1S2 (4) Q 2S1S2
S1S2 2S1S2
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 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/AIIMS-CBT TEST/22-09-2019
35. In the following circuit diagram the potential 35. = =C :-
difference across the plates of the capacitor C 10
is :-
1.0V
10 C

1.0V 1.5V
C
2.5V 20
1.5V
(1) 2.5 volt
2.5V 20 (2) 1.5 volt
(1) 2.5 volt (2) 1.5 volt (3) 1.0 volt
(3) 1.0 volt (4) zero (4) ;
36. Current I flow through a long conducting wire 36. ], ]
bent at right angles as shown in the figure. The
] / I XOY ]
magnetic field at a point P on the right bisector
of the angle XOY at a distance r from O is :- O r P ; { = %&
Y
Y
P P

I r I r

45º 45º
O X
O I X I

µ0I 2µ 0 I µ0I 2µ 0 I
(1) (2) (1) (2)
r r r r

µ 0I µ0 2I µ 0I µ0 2I
(3) ( 2 1) (4) ( 2 1) (3) ( 2 1) (4) ( 2 1)
4 r 4 r 4 r 4 r
37. A wire loop PQRS formed by joining two 37. ] R1 R2
semicircular wires of radii R1 and R2 carries a
, PQRS / I
current I as shown in the figure. The magnetic
induction at the centre O is :- O ; %&

I I
I I
R2 R2
I R1 I I R1 I
S R O Q P S R O Q P

µ 0I µ 0I µ 0I µ 0I
(1) (2) 4 R (1) 4 R (2) 4 R
4 R1 2 1 2

µ0 1 1 µ0 1 1 µ0 1 1 µ0 1 1
(3) 4 I –
R1 R 2 (4) 4 I R1 R2 (3) 4 I – (4) 4 I
R1 R 2 R1 R2

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38. An infinite wire bent in the form of L carries 38. L ]
current I. What is the magnetic field at the / I O ;{=
point O ? %&
(1) Zero (1) ;

µ0 I I µ0 I I
(2) (2)
4 d 4 d
d I d I
µ0 I O d µ0 I O d
(3) (3)
4 2d 4 2d

µ0 2I µ0 2I
(4) (4)
4 d 4 d

39. A long wire bent as shown in the figure carries 39. I ],

current I. If the radius of the semicircular ; a ] O
portion is a, the magnetic induction at the ; %&
centre O is :-
µ0I
(1) Z
µ0I 4a
(1) Z
4a
I
µ 0I 2
I (2) 4 a
µ 0I 2 4 a O
(2) 4 a Y
4 a O Y
I I
I I µ 0I µ 0I
µ 0I µ 0I (3)
(3) 4a 2 a X
4a 2 a X

µ 0I µ 0I
( – 4) (4) ( – 4)
(4) 4 a
4 a
40. A wire carrying current I is shaped as shown 40. I , [
in figure. The section AB is a quarter circle of AB ], ;{=
radius r. The magnetic field is directed :- %&

B B
r r

I A C C
I A

(1) At an angle /4 to the plane of paper

(1) /4
(2) Along the bisector of the angle ACB towards AB
(2) ACB AB
(3) Along the bisector of the angle CAB away from AB
(3) CAB AB
(4) Perpendicular to the plane of the paper and
directed into the paper (4)

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 Target : Pre-Medical 2020/AIIMS-CBT TEST/22-09-2019
41. Calculate number of neutrons present in 41. (8O17) 12 × 1025
12 × 1025 atoms of oxygen (8O17) :- [;
:-
(Given: NA = 6 × 1023) ( : NA = 6 × 1023)
(1) 1800 (2) 1600 (1) 1800 (2) 1600
(3) 1800 NA (4) 3200 NA (3) 1800 NA (4) 3200 NA
42. What is the number of moles of O-atom in 126 amu 42. 126 amu HNO3 O-
of HNO3 ? [; ?

2 6 2 6
(1) 2 (2) (3) 6 (4) (1) 2 (2) (3) 6 (4)
NA NA NA NA
43. 3.011 × 10 22 atoms of an element weight 43. 3.011 × 1022
1.15 gm. The atomic mass of the element is :- 1.15 :-
(1) 10 amu (2) 2.3 amu (1) 10 amu (2) 2.3 amu
(3) 35.5 amu (4) 23 amu (3) 35.5 amu (4) 23 amu
44. For which of the following sets of quantum numbers, 44. [; ,]
an electron will have the highest energy ? ?
n l m s n l m s
(1) 3 2 1 –1/2 (1) 3 2 1 –1/2
(2) 4 3 –1 +1/2 (2) 4 3 –1 +1/2
(3) 4 1 –1 +1/2 (3) 4 1 –1 +1/2
(4) 5 0 0 –1/2 (4) 5 0 0 –1/2
45. In any subshell, the maximum number of 45. , [;
electrons having same value of spin quantum [; :-
number is :-
(1) l (l 1) (2) l + 2
(1) l (l 1) (2) l + 2
(3) 2l + 1 (4) 4l + 2 (3) 2l + 1 (4) 4l + 2
46. How many electrons in an atom can have 46. , [;
1 1
n = 4, l = 2, m = –2 and s = + ? n = 4, l = 2, m = –2 s=+ ?
2 2
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 10 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 5 (4) 10
47. An equilibrium mixture of the reaction 47. 2H2S(g) 2H2(g) + S2(g) ;
2H2S (g) 2H2(g) + S 2(g) had 0.5 mole H2S, 0.5 H2S, 0.10 H2 0.4 S2
0.10 mole H2 and 0.4 mole S2 in one litre vessel. 1 ; (Kc)
–1
The value of equilibrium constant (K c) in ( ) :-
mol litre–1 is :- (1) 0.004 (2) 0.008
(1) 0.004 (2) 0.008
(3) 0.016 (4) 0.160
(3) 0.016 (4) 0.160
48. The value of Kp for the following reaction : 48. 2H2S(g) 2H2(g) + S2(g) , 106.5°C
–2
2H 2S (g) 2H 2(g) + S 2(g) is 1.2 × 10 –2 at Kp 1.2 × 10 , Kc
106.5°C. The value of Kc for this reaction is :- :-
(1) 1.2 × 10–2 (2) < 1.2 × 10–2 (1) 1.2 × 10–2 (2) < 1.2 × 10–2
(3) 83 (4) > 1.2 × 10–2 (3) 83 (4) > 1.2 × 10–2
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 Leader Course/Phase-MLG/22-09-2019
49. Consider the following reversible reaction at 49. ; ;
equilibrium, 2H2O(g) 2H2(g) + O2(g) ; H = 241.7
2H2O(g) 2H2(g) + O2(g) ; H = 241.7 kJ H2O(g)
Which one of the following changes in conditions ?
will lead to maximum decomposition of H2O(g) ?
(1) <+
(1) Increasing both temperature and pressure
(2) Decreasing temperature and increasing pressure
(2) ? <+
(3) Increasing temperature and decreasing pressure (3) <+ ?
(4) Increasing temperature at constant pressure (4) <+
50. 5 moles of SO2 and 5 moles of O2 are allowed 50. 5 SO2 5 O2
to react. At equilibrium, it was found that 60% ; 60% SO2 ;
of SO 2 is used up. If the pressure of the ; 1 O2
equilibrium mixture is one atmosphere, the :-
partial pressure of O2 is :-
(1) 0.52 (2) 0.21
(1) 0.52 atm (2) 0.21 atm
(3) 0.41 atm (4) 0.82 atm (3) 0.41 (4) 0.82
51. The conjugate base of H2PO4– is :- 51. H2PO4– { :-
(1) H3PO4 (2) H2PO4– (1) H3PO4 (2) H2PO4–
(3) HPO42– (4) PO43– (3) HPO42– (4) PO43–
52. Which salt can furnish H + in its aqueous 52. ; H+ ?
solution ?
(1) NaH2PO2 (2) Na2HPO3
(1) NaH2PO2 (2) Na2HPO3
(3) Na2HPO4 (4) All of these (3) Na2HPO4 (4) ;
53. A beer has a pH of 4.30. What is the [H3O+] ? 53. , pH 4.30 , [H3O+]
(1) 3.0 × 10–4 (2) 2.0 × 10–4 ?
–5 –5
(1) 3.0 × 10–4 (2) 2.0 × 10–4
(3) 2.0 × 10 (4) 5.0 × 10
(3) 2.0 × 10–5 (4) 5.0 × 10–5
54. pOH of 0.002 M HNO3 is :- 54. 0.002 M HNO3 pOH :-
(1) 11 + log 2 (2) 11 – log 2 (1) 11 + log 2 (2) 11 – log 2
(3) –3 + log 2 (4) None of these (3) –3 + log 2 (4)
55. If degree of ionization is 0.01 of decimolar 55. HA (decimolar)
solution of weak acid HA then pKa of acid is :- 0.01 , pKa
(1) 2 (2) 3 :-
(3) 5 (4) 7 (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 7
56. In the reaction A + 2B 6C + 2D, if the 56. A + 2B 6C + 2D t = 0
d[A] d[A]
initial rate – at t = 0 is 2.6 × 10–2 M sec–1, – = 2.6 × 10–2 M –1
t=0
dt dt
d[B] d[B]
what will be the value of – at t = 0 ? – ?
dt dt
(1) 8.5 × 10–2 M sec–1 (1) 8.5 × 10–2 M –1

(2) 2.5 × 10–2 M sec–1 (2) 2.5 × 10–2 M –1

(3) 5.2 × 10–2 M sec–1 (3) 5.2 × 10–2 M –1

(4) 7.5 × 10–2 M sec–1 (4) 7.5 × 10–2 M –1

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d[A] d[A]
57. For the reaction 2A B + 3C ; if – = k1[A]2; 57. 2A B + 3C ,; – = k1[A]2;
dt dt

d[B] d[C] d[B] d[C]

k 2 [A]2 ; k 3 [A]2 the correct k 2 [A]2 ; k 3 [A]2 k1, k2 k3
dt dt dt dt
relation between k 1, k2 and k3 is :- ?
(1) k1 = K2 = K3 (2) 2k1 = k2 = 3k2 (1) k1 = K2 = K3 (2) 2k1 = k2 = 3k2

k1 k3 k1 k3
(3) 4k1 = k2 = 3k2 (4) k2 (3) 4k1 = k2 = 3k2 (4) k2
2 3 2 3
58. Which of the following represents the expression 58. ]
3 3
for th life of first order reaction ? th ; ?
4 4

k 2.303 k 2.303
(1) log 4 / 3 (2) log 3/ 4 (1) log 4 / 3 (2) log 3/ 4
2.303 k 2.303 k

2.303 2.303 2.303 2.303

(3) log 4 (4) log 3 (3) log 4 (4) log 3
k k k k
59. 6.0 g of urea (molecular weight = 60) was 59. 6.0 ; ( = 60) 9.9
dissolved in 9.9 moles of water. If the vapour ? ; P°
pressure of pure water is P°, the vapour :-
pressure of solution is :-
(1) 0.10 P° (2) 1.10 P°
(1) 0.10 P° (2) 1.10 P°
(3) 0.90 P° (4) 0.99 P° (3) 0.90 P° (4) 0.99 P°

60. The vapour pressure of an aqueous solution of 60. 373 K ;

sucrose at 373 K is found to be 750 mm Hg. 750 Hg
The molality of the solution at the same :-
temperature will be :- (1) 0.26 (2) 0.73
(1) 0.26 (2) 0.73
(3) 0.74 (4) 0.039 (3) 0.74 (4) 0.039

61. Which one of the following is the strongest 61. , ; { ?

base in aqueous solution ?
(1) ,
(1) Trimethylamine
(2)
(2) Aniline
(3) Dimethylamine (3) ,
(4) Methylamine (4) ,
62. Silver Mirror test is given by which one of the 62. ; ?
following compounds ?
(1)
(1) Formaldehyde
(2)
(2) Benzophenone
(3) Acetic acid (3)
(4) Acetone (4)

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63. In the following sequence of reactions 63. ; 'D'
CH3CH2OH CH3CH2OH
P + I2 Mg HCHO H2O P + I2 Mg HCHO H2O
A B C D, AA B C D
Ether Ether
Ether
then compound 'D' is - (1) (2) n– ,
(1) butanal (2) n–butyl alcohol
(3) n– , (4)
(3) n–propyl alcohol (4) propanal
64. End product of the following reaction is - 64. -
Cl2 Alc.KOH Cl2
CH3CH2COOH CH3CH2COOH
Alc.KOH
red P red P
(1) CH3CHCOOH (2) CH2CH2COOH (1) CH3CHCOOH (2) CH2CH2COOH
OH OH OH OH
(3) CH2= CHCOOH (4) CH2CH–COOH (3) CH2= CHCOOH (4) CH2CH–COOH
Cl OH Cl OH
65. When benzamide is treated with POCl 3, the 65. POCl3 ]
product formed is : :
(1) Benzonitrile (2) Aniline (1) (2)
(3) Chlorobenzene (4) Benzylamine (3) (4)
66. Arrange the following cation's in decreasing 66. / ?
order of stability :- , :-

CH2 = CH – CH2 CH2 = CH – CH2

(P) (Q) (P) (Q)

Ph – CH2 CH3 – CH 2 Ph – CH2 CH3 – CH 2

(R) (S) (R) (S)

(1) P > R > Q > S (2) R > P > S > Q (1) P > R > Q > S (2) R > P > S > Q
(3) Q > R > P > S (4) P > Q > S > R (3) Q > R > P > S (4) P > Q > S > R
67. Identify the compound which is not aromatic :- 67. , ; , :-

(1) N N–H (2) N (1) N N–H (2) N

| |
H H

N O N O
(3) (4) (3) (4)
| O | O
H H

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68. The decreasing order of stability of following 68. / ?
cations is :- , :-

CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2

NO2 NO2

NO2 NO2
(P) (Q) (P) (Q)

CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2

NO2 NO2
(R) (S) (R) (S)
(1) Q > R > P > S (2) S > Q > R > P (1) Q > R > P > S (2) S > Q > R > P
(3) S > R > P > Q (4) R > P > Q > S (3) S > R > P > Q (4) R > P > Q > S
Peroxide Peroxide
69. H3C–CH=CH2 + HCl Product, 69. H3C–CH=CH2 + HCl ,
the intermediate of reaction is :- /; :-

(1) CH3– C H –CH3 (2) CH3–CH2– CH 2 (1) CH3– C H –CH3 (2) CH3–CH2– CH 2

(3) CH3– C H –CH3 (4) CH3–CH2– CH 2 (3) CH3– C H –CH3 (4) CH3–CH2– CH 2
70. Which of the following products is not formed 70. ?
in following reaction ?

HBr
HBr

Br Br

Br Br
(1) (2) (1) (2)

Br Br
Br (3) (4) Br
(3) (4)

71. Which of the following is maximum reactive 71. E.S.R. :-

towards E.S.R. :-

(1) (2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
(3) (4)

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72. Which of the following compound give Iodoform 72. ; ?
test? O
O
(1) CH3 C NH2
(1) CH3 C NH2
(2) CH3 CH CH2 CH3
(2) CH3 CH CH2 CH3
OH
OH
(3) Ph CH2 C H
(3) Ph CH2 C H
O
O
(4) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 (4) CH3 CH2 CH CH2 CH3
CH
OH OH
73. Reaction of Benzaldehyde with formaldehyde 73. NaOH
in the presence of conc. NaOH gives :- :-
COONa COONa
(1) + CH3OH (1) + CH3OH

CH2OH CH2OH
(2) + CH3CH2ONa (2) + CH3CH2ONa

COONa COONa
(3) +HCOONa (3) +HCOONa

CH2OH CH2OH
(4) HCOONa + (4) HCOONa +

74. Which of the following compound does not 74. ; ,

give Aldol condensation reaction ? ?
(1) Acetophenone (1)
(2) Propanal (2)
(3) Cyclohexanone (3)
(4) Benzophenone (4)
NH2 NH2
NaNO2 HCl B
75. NaNO2 HCl
A B
75. 0 C–5 C
A
0 C–5 C

Reagent B can be :- B :-
(1) H3PO2 (2) C2H5N2Cl (1) H3PO2 (2) C2H5N2Cl
(3) CH3OH (4) SnCl2 + HCl (3) CH3OH (4) SnCl2 + HCl
(i)SnCl2 HCl (i)SnCl2 HCl
76. R–C N (ii)H2O R – CHO + NH3 76. R–C N (ii)H2O
R – CHO + NH3
Above reaction is known as :- :-
(1) Stephen Reduction (1)
(2) Mendius Reduction (2)
(3) Rosenmund Reduction (3)
(4) Etard Reaction (4)

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MgBr MgBr
77. + CH3CH2OH :- 77. + CH3CH2OH :-

OH OH
(1) + CH3CH2MgBr (1) + CH3CH2MgBr

OCH 2CH3 OCH 2CH3

(2) (2)

(3) + CH3CH2OMgBr (3) + CH3CH2OMgBr

CH2CH3 CH2CH3
(4) + MgBr (OH) (4) + MgBr (OH)

78. Which of the following is not suitable to obtain 78. ?

by Wurtz Reaction?
(1) n –
(1) n – butane
(2) 2,3 –
(2) 2,3– Dimethylbutane
(3) n – hexane (3) n –

(4) 2 – Methylbutane (4) 2 –

79. Which of the following compound has highest 79. ;
rate of Decarboxylation:- :-

COOH O COOH O

(1) (2) (1) (2)

COOH COOH

COOH O COOH O
COOH COOH
(3) (4) (3) (4)

H H H H H H
(i) O3 (i) O3
80. X (ii) Zn / H 2O + 80. X (ii) Zn / H 2O +
O O O O O O O O
Indentify X in above reaction .:- X , :-

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

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81. The number of photosynthetic cell types in C4 81. C4 CAM
and CAM plants is respectively :- [; % :-
(1) 1,2 (2) 2,2 (1) 1,2 (2) 2,2
(3) 2,3 (4) 2,1 (3) 2,3 (4) 2,1
82. To reduce six molecules of carbon dioxide to 82. NADPH ATP
glucose via photosynthesis, how many %
molecules of NADPH and ATP are required ? ] } ?
(1) 6 NADPH and 6 ATP (1) 6 NADPH 6 ATP
(2) 12 NADPH and 12 ATP (2) 12 NADPH 12 ATP
(3) 12 NADPH and 18 ATP (3) 12 NADPH 18 ATP
(4) 18 NADPH and 12 ATP (4) 18 NADPH 12 ATP
83. How many photons are required for splitting 83.
of one molecule of water during photolysis ? , ?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 8 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 8
84. Coralloid roots of Cycas has :- 84. :-
(1) Anabaena (2) Mycorrhiza (1) (2)
(3) Rhizobium (4) Azotobacter (3) (4)
85. The stem of Equisetum is rough due to presence 85. [
of :- ?
(1) Spines (2) Silica (1) (2)
(3) Fibres (4) Sclerides (3) (4)
86. Which of the following gymnosperm has 86.
presence of vessel ? ?
(1) Pinus (2) Ephedra (1) (2)
(3) Cycas (4) Cedrus (3) (4)
87. An edible part of mushroom is :- 87. [ ; ; :-
(1) Basidiocarp (2) Primary mycelium (1) (2)
(3) Tertiary mycelium (4) Secondary mycelium (3) (4)
88. In diatoms auxospores help in :- 88. :-
(1) Spore formation (2) Reproduction (1) (2)
(3) Metabolism (4) Growth (3) ; (4)
89. Viruses were first crystallised and isolated by :- 89. }
?
(1) Ivanowsky (2) Pasture
(1) (2)
(3) Stanley (4) Beijerinck (3) (4)
90. Red tide is mostly caused by :- 90. } [; % ?
(1) Noctiluca (2) Gonyaulax (1) (2)
(3) Pyrocystis (4) Physarum (3) (4)
91. In capsella pollen grains are shed at :- 91.
(1) Two celled stage (1) ;
(2) Three nuclei stage (2)
(3) One celled stage (3) ;
(4) Three cell stage (4) ;
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92. What will be the ploidy of (i) Embryo 92. (i) (ii)
(ii) Perisperm (iii) endosperm of angiosperms. (iii)
(1) (i)-3n (ii)-4n (iii)-5n (1) (i)-3n (ii)-4n (iii)-5n
(2) (i)-2n (ii)-3n (iii)-3n (2) (i)-2n (ii)-3n (iii)-3n
(3) (i)-2n (ii)-2n (iii)-3n (3) (i)-2n (ii)-2n (iii)-3n
(4) (i)-n (ii)-n (iii)-3n (4) (i)-n (ii)-n (iii)-3n
93. Which of the following anther wall is short lived? 93. ( ) ?
(1) Epidermis (1) (, )
(2) Tapetum (2)
(3) Endothecium (3) ,.
(4) Middle layer (4) /;
94. How many meiosis and mitosis are required for 94. 104 ; ,
formation of 104 male gametes in capsella? ?
(1) 25 meiosis, 50 mitosis (1) 25 , 50
(2) 26 meiosis, 52 mitosis (2) 26 , 52
(3) 13 meiosis, 104 mitosis (3) 13 , 104
(4) 13 meiosis, 100 mitosis (4) 13 , 100
95. If there are 25 microspore mother cells are 95. 25
present in each microsporangium of cyprus, ]
than find out total member of male gametophyte ; [; ?
form in this anther? (1) 100 (2) 1600
(1) 100 (2) 1600
(3) 400 (4) 800 (3) 400 (4) 800

96. Which one is not a monocarpic plant ? 96. , ; ?

(1) Bamboo (1)
(2) Mango (2)
(3) Century plant (3)
(4) Strobilanthus Kunthiana (4)
97. How many nodes and internodes are found in 97. ; , ?
flower shoot ? (1) 4 ,3
(1) 4 nodes, 3 internodes
(2) 3 ,4
(2) 3 nodes, 4 internodes
(3) 2 nodes, 4 internodes (3) 2 ,4
(4) 4 nodes, 2 internodes (4) 4 ,2
98. If there are 100 microspore mother cells present 98. ( )
in each microsporangium of cotton (Malvaceae) 100 ]
than find out how many pollen grains will form ?
in it's anther ? (1) 200 (2) 400
(1) 200 (2) 400
(3) 800 (4) 1600 (3) 800 (4) 1600

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99. Although in most of species fruits are result of 99. ;|
fertilisation, there are a few species in which fruit ; ,
develop without fertilisation - process is known
as:
(1) Parthenocarpy (2) Parthenogenesis (1) (2)
(3) Amphimixis (4) Apomixis (3) (4)
100. Non albuminous seeds are present in :- 100. &,
(1) Pisum (Pea) (1)
(2) Ground nut (Arachis) (2)
(3) Both (3)
(4) Maize (4)
101. Read the following four statements A-D :- 101. A-D <+, :-
(A) It is estimated that more than 70% of world (A) 70%
live stock population is in India and China.
(B) Inbreeding depression is the end result of cross
breeding. (B)
(C) Inbreeding is necessary if we want to evolve (C)
a pure line in any animal.
(D) The feeding of cattle should be carried out in
(D) <+
a scientific manner.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(1) Two (2) Four (3) One (4) Three (1) (2) (3) (4)
102. Which method of breeding was used for the 102. ,
development of Hisardale ?
(1) Out crossing (1)
(2) Cross breeding (2)
(3) Inbreeding (3)
(4) Interspecific Hybridisation (4)
103. Identify the animals, alongwith their correct names 103. (a) (b)
from the figure (a) and (b) given below :- , :-

(a) (b) (a) (b)

(1) (a) is Sahiwal and (b) is Aseel (1) (a) (b)
(2) (a) is Murrah and (b) is Karaknath (2) (a) (b)
(3) (b) is Leghorn and (a) is Jersey (3) (b) (a)
(4) (b) is Polymoth rock (a) Holstein-Freisian (4) (b) (a)
104. Which is a viral disease in poultry ? 104. ;
(1) Bird flu (2) Fowl cholera (1) (2)
(3) Thrush (4) Brooder pneumonia (3) (4)

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105. How many chromosomes are found in queen bee? 105. =
(1) 16 (2) 32 (3) 48 (4) 22 (1) 16 (2) 32 (3) 48 (4) 22
106. Which types of level of organisation is found in 106.
sponges ? (1) (2) ;
(1) Tissue level (2) Cellulae level
(3) Protoplasmic level (4) Organ system level
(3) ; (4) =
107. The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is :- 107. %&
(1) Bilateral symmetry (1)
(2) External fertilisation (2) ;
(3) Water vascular system (3) =
(4) Endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles (4) %
108. Which of the following insect is commonly known 108. %;
as gregareous pest ?
(1) Culex (2) Laccifer (1) (2)
(3) Locusta (4) Apis (3) (4)
109. Which of the following option is correct about 109. ;
deuterostomiate animals ?
(1) Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca (1) ] ]
(2) Annelida, Mollusca, Echinodermata (2) ] ]
(3) Echinodermata, Hemichordata, Chordata (3) ] ]
(4) Arthropoda, Chordata, Hemichordata (4) ] ]
110. 'H' shape excretory system is found in :- 110. 'H' = :-
(1) Ascaris (2) Leech (1) (2)
(3) Planaria (4) Pleurobrachia (3) (4)
111. Match the column I, II and III and choose the 111. I, II III ,
correct option :- , :-

Column-I Column- II Column-III -I - II -III

Transfer Transforming Binds to

1. (a) (i) 1. (a) (i)
RNA principle amino acid ,
X-ray Abnormal ;
2. (b) (ii) Pribnow box
diffraction nitrogen bases 2. (b) (ii)
{
5'-end of
Streptococcus
3. Griffith (c) structural (iii) 3. (c) (iii)
pneumoniae 5'-
gene

Double helix Wilkins and 4. (d) , (iv)

4. Promoter (d) (iv)
DNA Franklin

(1) 1–a–iii, 2–c–iv, 3–b–i, 4–d–ii (1) 1–a–iii, 2–c–iv, 3–b–i, 4–d–ii
(2) 1–c–ii, 2–b–i, 3–d–iv, 4–a–iii (2) 1–c–ii, 2–b–i, 3–d–iv, 4–a–iii
(3) 1–b–i, 2–d–iv, 3–a–iii, 4–c–ii (3) 1–b–i, 2–d–iv, 3–a–iii, 4–c–ii
(4) 1–d–iv, 2–a–iii, 3–c–ii, 4–b–i (4) 1–d–iv, 2–a–iii, 3–c–ii, 4–b–i

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112. Which of the following statements are correct? 112. ?
(a) Crick postulated the presence of adapter (a)
molecule
(b) Amino acids have structural specialities to (b) : <+
read the genetic code uniquely.
(c) If two charged tRNAs are brought close (c) , (tRNAs)
enough, the formation of peptide bond takes
place between them.
(d) Polynucleotide phosphorylase is helpful in RNA (d)
synthesis in template-dependent manner. ,
(1) a, d (2) a, c (3) b, d (4) b, c (1) a, d (2) a, c (3) b, d (4) b, c
113. Fill in the blanks :- 113. :-
(A) The presence of __a__ in place of __b__ (A) , ____ ____
also confers additional stability to DNA.
(B) __c__ has evolved from __d__ with chemical (B) __c__ __d__ :
modifications that make it more stable.
(1) a–Uracil, b–Thymine, c–RNA, d–DNA (1) a– , b– , c– ,, d– ,
(2) a–Ribose, b–Deoxyribose, c–DNA, d–RNA (2) a– , b– , c– ,, d– ,
(3) a–Thymine, b–Uracil, c–rRNA, d–mRNA (3) a– , b– , c–rRNA, d–mRNA
(4) a–Thymine, b–Uracil, c–DNA, d–RNA (4) a– , b– , c– ,, d– ,
114. Match the column I and II and choose the correct 114. I II ,
option :- , :-

Column-I Column- II -I - II

(i) Taylor (a) Lac-operon (i) (a)

Semiconservative ,
Hershey and
(ii) (b) replication of (ii) (b)
Chase
DNA

Jacob and
(iii) (c) Triplet code (iii) (c)
Monad

George DNA is genetic ,

(iv) (d) (iv) (d)
Gamow material

Options : :

(1) i–b, ii–d, iii–a, iv–c (1) i–b, ii–d, iii–a, iv–c

(2) i–c, ii–b, iii–d, iv–a (2) i–c, ii–b, iii–d, iv–a

(3) i–a, ii–c, iii–b, iv–d (3) i–a, ii–c, iii–b, iv–d

(4) i–d, ii–a, iii–c, iv–b (4) i–d, ii–a, iii–c, iv–b

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115. Which of the following statement most 115. mRNA ,
correctly describes mammalian mRNAs ? ?
(1) They are usually transcribed from both DNA (1) % ,
strands
(2) They are normally double stranded. (2) %
(3) They have an overall negative charge at (3) pH
neutral pH
(4) The ratio of ribose to purine bases is equal to (4) { ,
one
116. In prokaryotes DNA is held with some proteins 116. , ,
in a region termed as :- :-
(1) Nucleoid (1) ( )
(2) Nucleus (2)
(3) Cell wall (3)
(4) Nucleolus (4)
117. Permease enzyme increases the permeability of 117. , ,
cell for :- <+ :-
(1) Lactase (1)
(2) –galactosidase (2) –
(3) –galactosides (3) –
(4) Glucose (4)
118. Regulation of Lac-operon by repressor protein 118. } :-
is :- (1)
(1) Negative
(2)
(2) Positive
(3)
(3) Neutral
(4) All of the above (4)

119. Exonuclease activity is present in :- 119. :-

(1) DNA Polymerase (1) ,

(2) RNA Polymerase (2) ,
(3) Protease (3)

(4) Nucleic acid (4)

120. Genetic mutation occur in :- 120. ?

(1) Protein (1)

(2) RNA and Protein both (2) ,

(3) Enzyme (3)

(4) DNA (4) ,

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DIRECTIONS FOR Q. NO. 121 TO 180 [; 121 180 ,
These questions consist of two statements each, ,
printed as Assertion and Reason.While
answering these Questions you are required to
; , ,
choose any one of the following four responses.
A. If both Assertion & Reason are True & the A. , ;
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
B. If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason B. , ; ] ]
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
C. If Assertion is True but the Reason is False. C. ; ] ;
D. If both Assertion & Reason are False. D. ;
121. Assertion:- All oscillatory motions are 12 1. :- :
necessarily periodic motion but all periodic
motion are not oscillatory.
Reason :- Simple pendulum is an example of :-
oscillatory motion.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
122. Assertion:- Acceleration is proportional to the 122. :- ;
displacement. This condition is not sufficient
for motion in simple harmonic.
:-
Reason :- In simple harmonic motion direction
of displacement is also considered.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
123. Assertion:- Sine and cosine functions are 123. :- Sine cosine
periodic functions.
Reason :- Sinusoidal functions repeats it values :- sine ,
after a definite interval of time.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
124. Assertion:- The graph of total energy of a 124. :-
particle in SHM w.r.t., position is a straight line (position) /; [
with zero slope. ;
Reason :- Total energy of particle in SHM :-
remains constant throughout its motion.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
125. Assertion:- In simple harmonic motion, the velocity 125. :-
is maximum when acceleration is minimum.
Reason :- Displacement and velocity of S.H.M. :-
differ is phase by /2. /2
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
126. Assertion:- Two persons on the surface of 126. :- ,
moon cannot talk to each other.
Reason :- There is no atmosphere on moon. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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127. Assertion:- Transverse waves are not produced 12 7. :-
in liquids and gases.
Reason :- Light waves are transverse waves. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
128. Assertion:- Sound would travel faster on a hot 128. :-
summer day than on a cold winter day. /
Reason :- Velocity of sound is directly proportional :-
to the square root of its absolute temperature.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
129. Assertion:- The basic of Laplace correction was 129. :- ;
that, exchange of heat between the region of { /;
compression and rarefaction in air is not possible.
Reason :- Air is a bad conductor of heat and :- , /
velocity of sound in air is large.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
130. Assertion:- Solids can support both 130. :- /; ,
longitudinal and transverse waves but only /;
longitudinal waves can propagate in gases.
Reason :- For the propagation of transverse
:- /; <+
waves, medium must also necessarily have the
property of rigidity.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
131. Assertion:- The capacity of a conductor, under 131. :- , / ]
given circumstances, remains constant
irrespective of the charge present on it.
Reason :- Capacity depends on size and shape :- ]
of a conductor and also on the surrounding /;
medium.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
132. Assertion:- When as charged capacitor is filled 132. :- , , /
completely with a metallic slab, its capacity ] /
becomes very large.
Reason :- The dielectric constant for metals is :- ,
infinity.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
133. Assertion:- When charges are shared between 133. :- ]
two bodies there occurs no loss of charge but {; {;
there does occur a loss of energy.
:- ]
Reason :- In case of sharing of charges,
conservation of energy fails.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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134. Assertion:- When a capacitor is charged by a battery, 134. :- , = , }
both the plates receive charge equal in magnitude, ] ]
no matter size of plates are identical or not. ;
Reason :- The charge distribution on the plates
:- =
of a capacitor is in accordance with charge
conservation principle.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
135. Assertion:- Two protons placed at different 135. :- =
distances, between the plate of a parallel plate
capacitor experience the same force.
Reason :- The electric field between the plates :- = {=
of the capacitor is constant.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
136. Assertion:- If the distance between parallel 136. :- , =
plates of a capacitor is halved and dielectric
constant is three times, then capacitance the ] = / 6
capacitor becomes 6 times.
:- = /
Reason :- Capacity of a capacitor does not
depend on dielectric.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
137. Assertion : A voltmeter must be connected in 137. : ,
parallel in a circuit and it should have a high ,
resistance.
: }
Reason : The voltmeter in the circuit must not
affect the potential difference measured by it.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
138. Assertion : Terminal potential difference of a 138. :
cell is always less than its emf.
Reason : Potential drop due to internal
: ]
resistance of cell increases the terminal potential
<+
difference.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
139. Assertion : When wheatstone bridge is 139. :
balanced, the current through the cell depends ]/
on the resistance of galvanometer. : / / ;
Reason : In the balanced condition, current
through the galvanometer is very high.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
140. Assertion : Potentiometer measures the correct 140. :
value of emf of a cell.
Reason : No current flows through the cell being :
balanced at the null point of potentiometer.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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141. Assertion :- The empirical mass of ethene is 141. :-
half of its molecular mass. ?
Reason :- The empirical formula represents the :- = ;
simplest whole number ratio of various atoms
present in a compound.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
142. Assertion :- Molarity of pure water is 55.55 M 142. :- 55.55 M (298 K )
at 298 K. :-
Reason :- Molarity is temperature dependent. (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
h
143. Assertion :- The angular momentum of d-orbitals 143. :- d- ; 6
2
h
is 6 .
2 :- ;
Reason :- Angular momentum of electron in nh
mvr =
nh 2
orbit is mvr = .
2
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
144. Assertion :- A spectral line will be seen for a 144. :- 2px – 2py ;
2px – 2py transition. :- 2px 2py
Reason :- Energy is released in the form of wave of #
light when the electron drops from 2px – 2py orbital.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
145. Assertion :- The physical equilibrium is not 145. :- ;
static but dynamic in nature. :- ;,
Reason :- The physical equilibrium is a state in which
two opposing process are proceeding at the same rate.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
146. Assertion:- For the physical equilibrium 146. :- ; H2O(s) H2O(l) ,
H2O(s) H2O(l) on increasing temperature <+
and increasing pressure more water will form.
Reason :- Since forward reaction is endothermic :-
in nature and volume of water is greater than that
of the volume of ice.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
–7
147. Assertion:- pH of 10 M HCl is less than 7 at 147. :- 25° C 10–7 M HCl pH 7
25°C.
Reason :- At very low concentration of HCl, :- HCl ] } H+
contribution of H+ from water is considerable. ;
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
148. Assertion:- An elementary reaction cannot 148. :-
have fractional order.
Reason :- Stoichiometric coefficients in an :-
elementary reaction can be fractional.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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149. Assertion:- Molarity of a solution in liquid state 149. :-
changes with temperature.
Reason :- The volume of a solution changes :-
with change in temperature.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
150. Assertion:- On adding NaCl to water its vapour 150. :- NaCl <+
pressure increases.
Reason :- Addition of non-volatile solute :- ;
increases the vapour pressure.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
151. Assertion :- CHCl 3 is stored in transparent 151. :- CHCl 3
bottles.
Reason :- CHCl3 is oxidised in dark. :- CHCl3
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
152. Assertion :- Electron withdrawing groups in 152. :-
aryl halides decrease the reactivity towards ]
nucleophilic substitution.
Reason :- 2, 4–Dinitrochlorobenzene is less :- 2, 4– ]
reactive than chlorobenzene.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
153. Assertion :- Phenol is a weak acid than ethanol. 153. :-
Reason :- Groups with +M effect and –I effect :- +M , –I p-
decrease acidity at p-position.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
154. Assertion :- Phenol is more reactive than 154. :-
benzene towards electrophilic substitution
reaction.
:- /; }
Reason :- In the case of phenol, the intermediate
carbocation is more resonance stabilized.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
155. Assertion :- 4–nitrophenol is more acidic than 155. :- 4– ] 2, 4, 6–
2, 4, 6–trinitrophenol. ;
Reason :- Phenol is a weaker acid than
carbonic acid.
:- ]
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
156. Assertion :- Acetic acid does not undergo 156. :-
haloform reaction.
Reason :- Acetic acid has no alpha hydrogens. :- –
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
157. Assertion :- Acetylene on treatment with 157. :- { ; KMnO4
alkaline KMnO4 produce acetaldehyde.
Reason :- Alkaline KMnO4 is a reducing agent. :- ; KMnO4
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
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158. Assertion :- Aldol condensation can be 158. :- { }
catalysed both by acids and bases.
Reason :- –Hydroxy aldehydes or ketones :- – ,
readily undergo acid catalysed dehydration.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
159 Assertion :- Amines are basic in nature. 159 :- { ;
Reason :- Presence of lone pair of electron on :- , ;
nitrogen atom.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
–
160 Assertion :- CN ion is an ambident nucleophile. 160 :- CN– , ;/
Reason :- Nucleophiles are electron rich :-
species.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
161. Assertion:- C 4 plants are adapted to dry, 161. :- C4 ;{
tropical regions.
Reason :- These plants use C3 cycle as the main :- C3 [;
biosynthetic pathway. :
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
162. Assertion:- Non-cyclic photophosphorylation 162. :- ;
is connected with photolysis of water and
liberation of oxygen.
:- ;
Reason :- Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
occurs in the granal thylakoid.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
163. Assertion:- Slime moulds lack cell wall. 163. :-
Reason :- In reproductive phase, slime moulds :-
contain cell wall.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
164. Assertion:- Bryophytes and tracheophytes 164. :-
have an embryo stage in their life cycle.
Reason :- Embryophyta are terrestrial plants. :- ;
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
165. Assertion:- Mosses are gregarious in nature. 165. :- ;
Reason :- They appear in group. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
166. Assertion:- Filiform apparatus helps in entry of 166. :-
pollen tube into embryosac.
Reason :- Filiform apparatus secrete chemicals :-
which attract pollen tube.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
167. Assertion:- Male and female gametes in 167. :- ; ;
flowering plants are motile.
Reason :- Because both are not able to move :- ; ,
from one place to another place.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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168. Assertion:- The phenomenon of substitution of 168. :- ]
the usual sexual process by asexual method is
known as apoximis. :- 2
Reason :- Meiotic division of a cell results in
two daughter cell.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
169. Assertion :- Non synchronised pollen release 169. :- ,
and stigma receptivity is of evolutionary ;:
significance. :- % ,
Reason :- It prevent self pollination and <+
promote more genetic variability.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

170. Assertion:- The functional megaspore in 170. :-

capsella in always at chalazal end.
Reason :- Pollen grains of capsella shed at 2 :- 2 ;
celled stage.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
171. Assertion :- Continuous inbreeding, especially 171. :- % ; ]
close inbreeding, usually reduces fertility and % % { ;
even productivity. ?
Reason :- Cross breeding often helps to :- %
overcome inbreeding depression.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
172. Assertion :- Multiple ovulation embryo transfer 172. :- ],
technology (MOET) is one such programme ,
for herd improvement. :- 8-32
Reason :- The fertilised eggs at 8-32 cells stage, ;
are recovered surgically and transfer to
surrogate mother.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
173. Assertion :- Keeping beehives in crop fields during 173. :- ;;
flowering period increases pollination efficiency ;
and improves the yield benificial both from <+
the point of view of crop yield and honey yield.
Reason :- Bees are the pollinators of many of :- ]
our crop species such as sun flower, brassica, ] ,
apple pear.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
174. Assertion :- Polyp produces medusa asexually 174. :- :
and medusa form polyp sexually. :
Reason :- Those cnidarians which exist in :- :
both forms exhibit alternation of generation , <+ , ( )
(Metagenesis).
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

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175. Assertion :- In porifera archaeocytes are 175. :-
totipotent cells.
Reason :- They can give rise to all other types :-
of the cells in poriferans.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
176. Assertion :- The relationship between genes and 176. :- , ,
DNA are best understood by mutation studies. <
Reason :- Mutations are mostly harmful. :-
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
177. Assertion :- Ribonucleoside triphosphate act as 177. :- , ,
a substrate during DNA replication. ;
Reason :- Ribonucleoside triphosphate act as an :- , ,
energy source for the formation of phosphodiester ; ,
bond during DNA replication.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
178. Assertion :- All three RNAs (mRNA, tRNA and 178. :- , , (mRNA, tRNA rRNA)
rRNA) are needed to synthesis a protein in a ,
cell.
Reason :- All three RNAs (mRNA, tRNA and :- , , (mRNA, tRNA rRNA)
rRNA) have information for protein synthesis.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
179. Assertion :- In the experiment of Avery, Mac Leod 179. :- ] ;
and McCarty it was proved that transforming : , ,
substance was not a protein or RNA.
Reason :- Protease and RNase did not affect :- :
transformation.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
180. Assertion :- If the sequence of bases in one 180. :- , , , {
strand of DNA is known than the sequence in {
other strand can be predicted.
Reason :- Both the strands of DNA are identical :- , , ,
to each other.
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
181. Who has become the first Indian woman 181. [
para-athlete to be conferred Rajiv Gandhi Khel ; &, ?
Ratna award?
(1)
(1) Girisha Nagarajegowda
(2)
(2) Dutee Chand

(3) Deepa Malik (3)

(4) Hima Das (4)

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182. National Sports Day in India is celebrated on 182. ;[ 29
the 29th of August every year. It is celebrated ; ________
in the memory of________
(1)Milkha singh (1)
(2)Mansoor Ali Khan Pataudi (2) [
(3)Major Dhyan chand (3) /;
(4)Dara Singh (4)
183. Who among the following to be honoured with 183.
Global Goalkeeper Award? ?
(1) Michel Temer (1)
(2) Lee Hsien Loong (2)
(3) Robert Mueller (3)
(4) Narendra Modi (4)
184. Who has become the India's first female flight 18 4.
commander? ?
(1) Sarla Thakral (1)
(2) Avani Chaturvedi (2)
(3) Shalija Dhami (3) /
(4) Bhawna Kanth (4)
185. Name the world's largest Integrated Online 185. , ,
Junction launched for school education to im- : , , ,
prove the school education system.
(1) Education (1)
(2) Shagun (2)
(3) Shala (3)
(4) Gunvatta (4)
186. What is the name of the Rover of Chandrayaan-2 186. -2 ?
mission? (1) (2)
(1) Vikram (2) Virat
(3) Drona (4) Pragyan (3) (4)

187. The capital of Bulgaria is ________ 187. ________

(1) Budapest (2) Belgrade (1) (2)
(3) Sophia (4) Bishkek (3) (4)
188. 'Sushi' is a famous food of which country? 188. ' ' ?
(1) Malaysia (1)
(2) Japan (2)
(3) Italy (3)
(4) Russia (4)

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189. Outside of an assembly house Jatin was told 189. ,
by a person that each meeting takes place after 3 15 ]
3hr 15 min, last meeting has been over just 45 [
before 45 minutes and next meeting will take 2 ; ;
place at 2 pm. At what time did Jatin receive ?
this information?
(1) 10.20
(1) 10.20 am
(2) 11.45
(2) 11.45 am
(3) 12.30 pm (3) 12.30

(4) 11.30 am (4) 11.30

190. Find the missing term in the given series. 190. [;
4, 25, 130, ?, 3280 4, 25, 130, ?, 3280
(1) 685 (1) 685
(2) 645 (2) 645
(3) 678 (3) 678
(4) 655 (4) 655
191. Some boys are sitting in a line. Mahendra is on 191. , 17
17th place from left and Surendra is on 18th 18 8
place from right. There are 8 boys in between ?
them. How many boys are there in the line?
(1) 43 (2) 42
(1) 43 (2) 42
(3) 41 (4) 44 (3) 41 (4) 44
192. Smoke : Pollution : : War : ? 192. : :: :?
(1) Destruction (1)
(2) Treaty (2)
(3) Victory (3) ;
(4) Peace (4)
193. If S means '-', Q means '×' , R means '÷' and P 193. S '-' ] Q '×' , R '÷'
means '+' then P '+'
1 P 45 R 2 Q 2 S 4 = ? 1 P 45 R 2 Q 2 S 4 = ?
(1) 40 (1) 40
(2) 42 (2) 42
(3) 36 (3) 36
(4) 46 (4) 46
194. Choose the word which is least like the other 194. , ;
words in the group.
(1) (2)
(1) Yen (2) Lira
(3) Dollar (4) Ounce (3) (4)

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195. If an electricity bill is paid before due date, 195.
one gets a reduction of 4 % on the amount of ] , 4%
the bill . By paying the bill before due date, a
person got a reduction of Rs. 13 .The amount ] 13
of his electricity bill was
(1) Rs.125 (1) 125
(2) Rs 225 (2) 225
(3) Rs.325 (3) 325
(4) Rs.425 (4) 425
196. Pramod started a business with Rs. 40000. 196. 40000 , ; :
After 4 months Vikas also joined him with 4 60000
Rs. 60000. If at the end of the year, the profit is + ; 16000
Rs. 16000, what is the share of Vikas in the profit?
(1) Rs. 8000 (1) 8000
(2) Rs. 4000 (2) 4000
(3) Rs. 12000 (3) 12000
(4) Rs. 10000 (4) 10000
197. In the following question, arrange the given 197. ] , , {
continents in descending order of area.
(i) South America (i)
(ii) Africa (ii)
(iii) Europe (iii)
(iv) Australia (iv)
(v) North America (v)
(1) (ii), (i), (v), (iii), (iv) (1) (ii), (i), (v), (iii), (iv)
(2) (ii), (v), (i), (iii), (iv) (2) (ii), (v), (i), (iii), (iv)
(3) (ii), (v), (i), (iv), (iii) (3) (ii), (v), (i), (iv), (iii)
(4) (ii), (i), (v), (iv), (iii) (4) (ii), (i), (v), (iv), (iii)
198. Find the question mark ? figure from answer 198. , , = (?)
figure. ?
Question Figures : iz'u fp= :

? ?

Answer Figures : mÙkj fp=

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
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199. Choose the alternative which is closely 199. = , , ,
resembles the water image of the given =
combination. iz’u fp=
Question Figure :

mÙkj fp= :
Answer Figures :

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
200. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives 200. , , ,
that would complete the figure.

Question Figure : iz’u fp=

? ?

Answer Figures : mÙkj fp= :

(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2020

34/35 1015CMA303319007
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / ,

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