200-125 V29.02

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The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
Exam : 200-125
Title : CCNA Cisco Certified

Network Associate CCNA
(v3.0)
Version : V29.02
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1.Which frame type allows STP to compute the spanning-tree topology?

A. LSA
B. BPDU
C. RSTP
D. LSP
Answer: B
2.What is the danger of the permit any entry in a NAT access list?
A. It can lead to overloaded resources on the router
B. It can disable the overload command
C. It can cause too many addresses to be assigned to the same interface
D. It prevents the correct translation of IP addresses on the inside network.
Answer: D
3.Which command must be present in a Cisco device configuration to enable the device to resolve an
FQDN?
A. ip domain-name
B. ip host
C. ip domain-lookup
D. ip name-server
Answer: C
4.Which issue is a common cause of runts?

A. duplex mismatch
B. native VLAN mismatch
C. overloaded hardware queues
D. collisions on the wire
Answer: D
5.Which two commands can you enter to configure an interface to actively negotiate an Ether Channel?
(Choose two)
A. channel-group 10 mode auto
B. channel-group 10 mode on
C. channel-group 10 mode passive
D. channel-group 10 mode active
E. channel-group 10 mode desirable
Answer: DE
6.Which two options are requirements for configuring RIPv2 on an IPv4 network router? (Choose two)
A. enabling RIP authentication
B. allowing unicast updates for RIP
C. enabling automatic route summarization
D. connecting RIP to a WAN interface
E. enabling RIP on the router
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Answer: BE
7.An administrator is trying to ping and telnet from Switch to Router with the results shown below:
Switch>
Switch> ping 10.4.4.3
Type escape sequence to abort.
Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.4.4.3, timeout is 2 seconds:
U.U.U
Success rate is 0 percent (0/5)
Switch>
Switch> telnet 10.4.4.3
Trying 10.4.4.3 …
% Destination unreachable; gateway or host down
Switch>
Click the console connected to RouterC and issue the appropriate commands to answer the questions.
What would be the effect of is suing the command ip access-group 114 in to the fa0/0 interface?
A. Attempts to telnet to the router would fail
B. It would allow all traffic from the 10.4 4.0 network
C. IP traffic would be passed through the interface but TCP and UDP traffic would not
D. routing protocol updates for the 10 4.4.0 network would not be accepted from the fa0/0 interface
Answer: B
8.Which two statements correctly describe distance-vector routing protocols? (Choose two)
A. They update other devices on the network when one device detects a topology change.
B. They generate a complete topology of the network.
C. They specify the next hop toward the destination subnet.
D. They require quick network convergence to support normal operations
E. They use a variety of metric s to identify the distance to a destination network.
Answer: AC
9.Which two statements about northbound and southbound APIs are true? (Choose two)
A. Only southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer
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B. Only southbound APIs allow program control of the network.

C. Only northbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer
D. Both northbound and southbound API interfaces use a Service Abstraction Layer
E. Only northbound APIs allow program control of the network
F. Both northbound and southbound APIs allow program control of the network.
Answer: AE
10.After you configure a DHCP server on VLAN 10 to service clients on VLAN 10 and VLAN 20, clients on
VLAN 10 are given IP address assignments, but clients on VLAN 20 fail to receive IP addresses.
Which action must you take to correct the problem?
A. Configure the default gateway in the DHCP server configuration
B. Configure a separate DHCP server on VLAN 20
C. Configure the ip helper-address command in the DHCP server configuration
D. Configure the DNS name option in the DHCP server configuration
Answer: B
11.Which feature is automatically enabled on voice VLAN ports?

A. 802.1X
B. 802.1Q
C. PortFast
D. port security
Answer: C
12.Under which circumstance is a router on a stick most appropriate?

A. when the router must route multiple subnets across multiple physical links
B. when the router must route a single subnet across multiple physical links
C. when the router must route a single subnet across a single physical link
D. when the router must route multiple subnets across a single physical link
Answer: D
13.Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an EIGRP neighbor adjacency?
(Choose two)
A. An ACL is blocking traffic from multicast address 224.0.0.5
B. The two routers have the same autonomous system number
C. The routers are on different subnets
D. Both routers have the same router ID
E. The routers have mismatched K values
Answer: CE
14.When troubleshooting a user complaint, you notice that two routers failed to establish an OSPF
neighbor adjacency.
Which two issues are root causes for the problem? (Choose two)
A. The two routers are using the same router ID
B. The two routers are configured with the same area ID
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C. OSPF is configured on the primary network of the neighbor, but not on the secondary network
D. The passive-interface command is configured on the connected interfaces
E. The two routers are configured with different process IDs
Answer: BD
15.Which benefit of implementing a dual homed WAN connection instead of a single-homed connection is
true?
A. Only dual-homed connections support split horizon with EIGRP.
B. Only dual-homed connections enable an individual router to tolerate the loss of a network link
C. Only dual-homed connections support OSPF in conjunction with BGP.
D. Only dual-homed connections support recursive routing.
Answer: B
16.Which two protocols does the internet layer in the TCP/IP model encapsulate? (Choose two)
A. SMTP
B. DNS
C. ARP
D. TCP
E. ICMP
Answer: CE
17.Which tunneling mechanism embeds an IPv4 address within an IPv6 address?

A. ISATAP
B. GRE
C. 4to6
D. Teredo
E. 6to4
Answer: E
18.Which enterprise device provides centralized control of authentication and roaming?

A. a LAN switch
B. a firewall
C. a lightweight access point
D. a wireless LAN controller
Answer: D
19.Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attacks? (Choose three)
A. VLAN hopping
B. ARP attacks
C. spoofing attacks
D. botnet attacks
E. DDOS attacks
F. brute force attacks
Answer: ABC
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20.Which value is included in the initial TCP SYN message?

A. an acknowledgment number
B. a TTL number
C. a session ID
D. a sequence number
Answer: D
21.Which two statements about IPv6 multicast addresses are true? (Choose two)
A. They use the prefix FC80::/8
B. If the lifetime parameter is set to 1, the route is permanent
C. They use the prefix FF00::/8
D. They identify a group of interfaces on different devices
E. If the scope parameter is set to 5, the route is local to the node
Answer: CD
22.Which two statements about exterior routing protocols are true? (Choose two)
A. BGP is the current standard exterior routing protocol
B. Most modern network routers support both EGP and EIGRP for external routing
C. They determine the optimal path between autonomous systems
D. Most modern networking supports both EGP and BGP for external routing
E. They determine the optimal path within an autonomous system
Answer: AE
23.Which WAN topology is most appropriate for a centrally located server farm with several satellite
branches?
A. point-to-point
B. hub and spoke
C. star
D. full mesh
Answer: B
24.Which two features of the extended ping command are valid? (Choose two)
A. It can count the number of hops to the remote host
B. It can send packets from a specified interface or IP address
C. It can resolve the destination host name
D. It can ping multiple hosts at the same time
E. It can send a specified number of packets
Answer: BE
25.Which command disables DTP?

A. switchport mode passive
B. switchport nonegotiate
C. switchport negotiate
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D. switchport mode active

Answer: B
26.Which keyboard shortcut can you use to exit the System Configuration Dialog on a Cisco networking
device and return to privileged EXEC mode without making changes?
A. Ctrl-C
B. Ctrl-Alt-Delete
C. Shift-ESC
D. Ctrl-V
Answer: A
27.Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command?
(Choose two)
A. the configured NTP servers
B. whether the NTP peer is statically configured
C. the NTP version number of the peer
D. the IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized
E. whether the clock is synchronized
Answer: DE
28.Which command can you enter on a switch to determine the current SNMP security model?
A. show snmp group
B. show snmp pending
C. snmp-server contact
D. show snmp engineID
Answer: A
29.Which two TLVs does LLDP support? (Choose two)

A. port duplex
B. system description
C. native VLAN
D. spanning tree
E. management address
Answer: BE
30.Which type of port supports voice VLAN configuration?

A. access switch port
B. trunk switch port
C. private VLAN switch port
D. Layer 3 switch port
Answer: A
31.What are two common types of copper cable? (Choose two)

A. single-mode
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B. multimode
C. unshielded twisted pair
D. shielded twisted pair
E. OM4
Answer: CD
32.Refer to the exhibit.
Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down.

Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
A. Router C will send a Source Quench message type
B. Router C will use ICMP to inform Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached
C. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1, Router A, and Router B that Host 2 cannot be reached
D. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached
E. Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type
F. Router C will send a Router Selection message type.
Answer: DE
33.Which command should you enter to configure a DHCP client?

A. ip dhcp pool
B. ip helper-address
C. ip dhcp client
D. ip address dhcp
Answer: D
34.What is the effect of PortFast on the MAC aging process?

A. It ignores the MAC aging timer when IEEE 802.1D is in use
B. It prevents fast aging of MAC addresses when IEEE 802.1D is in use
C. It prevents fast aging of MAC addresses when RSTP is in use.
D. It ignores the MAC aging timer when RSTP is in use
Answer: B
35.When you troubleshoot an IPv4 connectivity issue on a router, which three router configuration checks
you must perform? (Choose three)
A. verify that the router interface IP address is correct.
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B. Verify that the route appears in the routing table

C. verify that a default route is configured
D. Verify that the DNS is configured correctly
E. Verify that the router firmware is up-to-date
F. Verify that the router and the host use the same subnet mask
Answer: ABF
36.Which circumstance is a common cause of late collisions?

A. overloaded hardware queues
B. software misconfiguration
C. native VLAN mismatch
D. duplex mismatch
Answer: D
37.Which command can you enter on a switch to display the IP addresses associated with connected
devices?
A. show cdp traffic
B. show cdp neighbors
C. show cdp interface
D. show cdp neighbors detail
Answer: D
38.Which utility can you use to identify redundant or shadow rules?

A. the Cisco APIC-EM automation scheduler
B. the ACL trace tool in Cisco APIC-EM
C. the Cisco IWAN application
D. the ACL analysis tool in Cisco APIC-EM
Answer: D
39.What is the simplest IP SLA operation that can measure end-to-end response time between devices?
A. ICMP jitter
B. ICMP path jitter
C. ICMP path echo
D. ICMP echo
Answer: D
40.Which two statements about Ethernet standards are true? (Choose two)
A. Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.2.
B. Ethernet 10BASE-T does not support full-duplex
C. Ethernet is defined by IEEE standard 802.3
D. When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CD, it terminates transmission as soon as a collision occurs
E. When an Ethernet network uses CSMA/CA, it terminates transmission as soon as a collision occurs
Answer: CD
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Drag and drop the routing table components on the left onto the corresponding letter from the exhibit on
the right. (Not all components are used.)
Answer:
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42.How many bits can be used to identify unique hosts in the address range for network 10.0.0.0/8?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: C
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Which two statements are true of the interfaces on switch1? (choose two)
A. Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthernet0/1
B. FastEthernet0/1 is configured as a trunk link
C. FastEthernet0/5 has statically assigned MAC addresses
D. FastEthernet0/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards
E. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernet0/5
F. Interface FastEthernet0/2 has been disabled
Answer: AE
44.Which two functions describe benefits of aggregated chassis technology? (Choose two)
A. It reduces management overhead
B. It requires only one IP address per VLAN
C. It requires only three IP addresses per VLAN
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D. It supports HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP

E. It supports redundant configuration files
Answer: AB
45.Which step in the router boot process searches for an IOS image to load into the router?
A. mini-IOS
B. ROMMON mode
C. POST
D. bootstrap
Answer: D
46.You are implementing WAN access for an enterprise network while running applications that require a
fully meshed network, which two design standards are appropriate for such an environment? (Choose
two)
A. multiple MPLS VPN connections with static routing
B. a dedicated WAN distribution layer, to consolidate connectivity to remote sites
C. a centralized DMVPN solution, to simplify connectivity for the enterprise
D. multiple MPLS VPN connections with dynamic routing
E. a collapsed core and distribution layer, to minimize costs
Answer: CD
47.What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?

A. 0007.0123.4567
B. 0000.0C07.AC15
C. 0007.B400.AE01
D. 0000.5E00.01A3
Answer: B
48.After you configure the ip dns spoofing command globally on a device, under which two conditions is
DNS spoofing enabled on the device? (Choose two)
A. The ip host command is disabled
B. The no ip domain lookup command is configured
C. The DNS server queue limit is disabled
D. All configured IP name server addresses are removed
E. The ip dns spoofing command is disabled on the local interface
Answer: BD
49.Which value must you configure on a device before EIGRP for IPv6 can start running?
A. router ID
B. process ID
C. public IP address
D. loopback interface
Answer: A
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50.Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two)
A. It is bandwidth-intensive
B. It is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
C. It simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data
D. It uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth
E. It burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts
Answer: BD
51.Which two advantages do dynamic routing protocols provide over static routing? (Choose two)
A. Dynamic routing is more secure than static routing
B. Dynamic routing protocols automatically adapt to reroute traffic if possible
C. Dynamic routing protocols are easier to manage on very large networks.
D. Only dynamic routing is supported on all topologies that require multiple routers
E. Dynamic routing requires fewer resources than static routing
Answer: BC
52.Which Rapid PVST+ port role provides a different path to the root bridge?
A. alternate
B. designated
C. forwarding
D. backup
Answer: A
53.Which two approaches are common when troubleshooting network issues? (Choose two)
A. top-down
B. layer-by-layer
C. round-robin
D. divide and conquer
E. policing
Answer: AD
54.Which two descriptions of TACACS+ are true? (Choose two)

A. It encrypts only the password
B. It can authorize specific router commands.
C. It combines authentication and authorization.
D. It uses UDP as its transport protocol.
E. It separates authentication, authorization, and accounting functions.
Answer: BE
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What is the effect of the configuration?

A. Traffic from PC B is dropped when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC A
B. Traffic from PC B is sent untagged when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC A
C. Traffic from PC A is sent untagged when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC B
D. Traffic from PC A is dropped when it uses the trunk to communicate with PC B
Answer: C
56.Which effect does the switchport trunk native vlan 10 command have?
A. It prevents traffic on VLAN 1 from passing on the trunk
B. It allows traffic from native VLAN 10 on the trunk
C. It sets VLAN 10 as the native VLAN on the trunk.
D. It configures the interface as a trunk port
Answer: C
57.Which command should you enter to configure a single port to discard inferior BPDUs?
A. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter
B. spanning-tree guard root
C. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard
D. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default
Answer: A
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The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch

2950 Switch(config-if )# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
2950 Switch(config-if )# switchport port-security maximum 1
The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1.
What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two)
A. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1
B. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be
forwarded out fa0/1.
C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950 Switch
D. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be
forwarded out fa0/1
E. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
F. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000 00aa aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1
Answer: AF
59.Which two statements about how a router makes forwarding decisions are true? (Choose two)
A. The data plane forwards traffic through the router.
B. The management plane gathers information from routing protocols.
C. The control plane forwards traffic based on information that it receives from the data plane
D. The control plane gathers information from routing protocols
E. The management plane forwards traffic based on information that it receives from the data plane
F. The data plane gathers information from routing protocols
Answer: EF
60.Refer to the topology below and answer the following questions.
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Why did Branch1 router lose WAN connectivity with R1 router?

A. The IP address is misconfigured on PPP multilink interface on the Branch1 router
B. The PPP multilink group is mis configured on the Branch 1 serial interfaces
C. The PPP multilink group is mis configured on the R1 serial interfaces
D. The Branch 1 serial interfaces are placed in a shutdown condition
Answer: D
Which two facts about the routing table are true? (Choose two)
A. The router uses interface GigabitEthernet0/0 to reach host address 10.111.35 106
B. The router uses interface Serial0/0/0 to reach network 192.168.1.0/24
C. Nine different networks are within the 10.0.0.0/8 range
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D. Three different networks are within the 10.00 0/8 range

E. The router uses interface Serial0/0/0 to reach host address 10.43.76.123
Answer: BC
62.Refer to the topology below and answer the following questions.
Why is the Branch2 network 10.10.20.0/24 unable to communicate with the Server farm1 network
10.10.10.0/24 over the GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the R2 router
B. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the Branch2 router.
C. The static route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the Branch2 router
D. The static route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the R2 router
Answer: C
63.GRE Tunnel
Refer to the topology below and answer the following questions.
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Why has the Branch3 router lost connectivity with R1?

Use only show commands to troubleshoot and usage of the debug command is restricted on Branch3 and
R1 routers.
A. APPP chap hostname mismatch is noticed between Branch3 and R1.
B. APPP chap password mismatch is noticed between Branch 3 and R1.
C. PPP encapsulation is not configured on Branch3.
D. The PPP chap hostname and PPP chap password commands are missing on the Branch 3 router.
Answer: A
64.Which statement about the router configurations is correct?

A. PPP PAP authentication is configured between Branch1 and R1
B. Tunnel keepalives are not configured for the tunnel interface on Branch2 and
C. The Branch2 LAN network 192.168.11.0/24 is not advertised into the EIGRP network
D. The Branch3 LAN network 192.168.10.0/24 is not advertised into the EIGRP
E. PPP CHAP authentication is configured between Branch2 and R1
Answer: E
65.
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Which will fix the issue and allow ONLY ping to work while keeping telnet disabled?
A. Correctly assign an IP address to interface fa0/1.
B. Change the ip access-group command on fa0/0 from “in” to “out”.
C. Remove access-group 106 in from interface fa0/0 and add access-group 115 in.
D. Remove assess-group 102 out from interface s0/0/0 and add access-group 114 in.
E. Remove access-group 106 in from interface fa0/0 and add access-group 104 in.
Answer: E
66.
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What would be the effect of is suing the command ip access-group 115 in on the s0/0/1 interface?
A. No host could connect to RouterC Through s0/0/1.
B. Telnet and ping would work but routing updates would fail.
C. FTP, FTP-DATA, echo, and www would work but telnet would fail.
D. Only traffic from the 10.4.4.0 network would pass through the interface.
Answer: A
67.Why did Branch 1 router lose WAN connectivity with R1 router?

A. The IP address is misconfigured on PPP multilink interface on the Branch1 router
B. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the Branch1 serial interfaces.
C. The PPP multilink group is misconfigured on the R1 serial interfaces
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D. The Branch1 serial interfaces are placed in a shutdown condition

Answer: D
68.The GRE tunnel between R3 and Branch1 is down.

Which cause of the issue is true?
A. The tunnel source loopback interface is not advertised into EIGRP in Branch1.
B. The tunnel source loopback interface is not advertised into EIGRP in R3.
C. The EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due to EIGRP packets blocked by the inbound ACL
on R3.
D. The EIGRP neighbor relationship was not formed due the IP address being misconfigured between
the R2 and R3 interfaces
Answer: C
Which BGP configuration do you need to apply to router R4 to allow traffic to flow normally on this
network?
A. router bgp1
no synchronization
neighbor 192.168.1.1 remote-as 1
neighbor 192.168.1.1 ebgp-multihop 4
no auto-summary
B. router bgp1
no synchronization
no auto-summary
C. router bgp1
no synchronization
no auto-summary
D. router bgp1
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no synchronization
no auto-summary
Answer: B
70.DHCP
Examine the DHCP configuration between R2 and R3, R2 is configured as the DHCP server and R3 as
the client.
What is the reason R3 is not receiving the IP address via DHCP?
A. On R3, DHCP is not enabled on the interface that is connected to R2.
B. On R3, the interface that is connected to R2 is in shutdown condition.
C. On R2, the interface that is connected to R3 is in shutdown condition.
D. On R2, the network statement in the DHCP pool configuration is incorrectly configured
Answer: A
Explanation:
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Please check the below:
71.R1 router clock is synchronized with ISP router. R2 is supposed to receive NTP updates from R1. But
you observe that R2clock is not synchronized with R1.
What is the reason R2 is not receiving NTP updates from R1?
A. R1 router Ethernet interface that is connected to R2 is placed in shutdown condition.
B. R2 router Ethernet interface that is connected to R1 is placed in shutdown condition.
C. The NTP server command not configured on R2 router.
D. The IP address that is used in the NTP configuration on R2 router is incorrect.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Check the below configuration for this
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72.Why applications that are installed on PCs inR2 LAN network 10.100.20.0/24 are unable to
communicate with server1?
A. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R1 is blocking the traffic sourced from R2 LAN
network.
B. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R1 is blocking the traffic sourced from Server1
network.
C. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R2 is blocking the traffic sourced from Server1
network.
D. A standard ACL statement that is configured on R2 is blocking the traffic sourced from R2 LAN
network.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Check the below now:
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73.Users complain that they are unable to reach internet sites. You are troubleshooting internet
connectivity problem at main office.
Which statement correctly identifies the problem on Router R1?
A. NAT configurations on the interfaces are incorrectly configured.
B. NAT translation statement incorrectly configured.
C. Interesting traffic for NAT ACL is incorrectly configured.
D. Only static NAT translation configured from the server, missing Dynamic NAT or Dynamic NAT
overloading for internal networks.
Answer: A
Explanation:
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74.Drag and drop the source from the left to the numbers on the right.
Beginning with the lowest and ending with highest administrative distance.
Answer:
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75.Drag and drop the protocols from the left onto the correct IP traffic types on the right.
Answer:
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76.Drag and drop the extended traceroute options from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right
Answer:
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77.
Answer:
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78.Drag and drop the PPPoE message types from the left into the sequence in which PPPoE messages
are sent on the right.
Answer:
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Which two statements about the network environment of router R1 must be true? (choose two)
A. there are 20 different network masks within the 10.0.0.0/8 network
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B. A static default route to 10.85.33.14 was defined

C. Ten routes are equally load-balanced between Te0/1/0.100 and Te0/2/0.100
D. The 10.0.0.0/8 network was learned via external EIGRP
E. The EIGRP administrative distance was manually changed from 90 to 170
Answer: AC
Which two pieces of information can you determine from the command output? (Choose two)
A. Both 1.0.0.10 and 1.0.0.18 are ABRs that are generating Type 3 LSAs.
B. Routes from router 10.111 255.246 are redistributed into OSPF
C. Router R1 receives Type 3 LSAS from router 10.6.1.58
D. The ABR router Is sending routes with a tag of 40100
E. Router R1 is a multi-area OSPF router
Answer: BE
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Which VLAN ID is associated with the native VLAN?

A. VLAN 1
B. VLAN 5
C. VLAN 10
D. VLAN 20
Answer: A
82.You are configuring a 100-Mb Fast Ethernet connection between a PC and a switch.
Which action must you take to configure the speed on each of the two interfaces?
A. Set both interfaces to auto-negotiate
B. Set the switch port to auto-negotiate and the PC interface to 100 Mb
C. Set both interfaces to 100 Mb
D. Set the switch port to 100 Mb and the PC interface to auto-negotiate
Answer: A
83.Which two values must you specify to define a static route? (Choose two.)
A. destination network and mask
B. source network and mask
C. incoming interface
D. next-hop address or exit interface
E. administrative distance of the route
Answer: AD
84.Which symbol in the APIC-EM Path Trace tool output indicates that an ACL is present and might deny
packets?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C
85.Which two statements about single-and dual-homed links are true? (Choose two)
A. Dual-homed connections to multiple service providers typically use BGP.
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B. Single-homed connections to a service provider require OSPF or EIGRP

C. Dual-horned connections to a service provider most frequently use static routing
D. Single-homed connections to a service provider can use either static routing or BGP.
E. Dual-homed connections to multiple service providers can use OSPF or EIGRP for load balancing
Answer: AE
86.Which value is used to build the CAM table?

A. source IP address
B. destination IP address
C. destination MAC address
D. source MAC address
Answer: D
87.Which LLDP extension provides additional support for VoIP?

A. TLV
B. LLDP-MED
C. LLDPv3
D. LLDP-VOIP
Answer: B
88.Which two statements about private addresses are true? (Choose two)
A. By default, Class C private networks support up to 255 subnets.
B. Network 192.168.25.0/28 supports 14 usable private host addresses
C. The 172.16.x.x/16 private Class B network supports over 1 million addresses
D. Addresses in the range 172.16.0.1 to 172.32.255 254 are defined as Class B private addresses.
E. Network 10.1.1.0/29 supports 16 usable private host addresses
Answer: AB
89.Which command can you use to test whether a switch supports secure connections and strong
authentication?
A. Switch#ssh -I admin 10.1.1.1
B. Router>ssh -v 2 -I admin 10.1.1.1
C. Router#ssh -v 1 -I admin 10.1.1.1
D. Switch>ssh -v 1 -I admin 10.1.1.1
Answer: B
90.Which two statements describe key differences between single- and dual-homed WAN connections?
(Choose two)
A. Dual-homed WAN connections are more expensive than single-homed connections
B. Dual-homed WAN connections have more management-application overhead than single-homed
connections
C. Dual-homed WAN connections require more skill to administer than single-homed connections
D. Dual-homed WAN connections have a simpler topology than single-homed connections
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E. Dual-homed WAN connections have higher WAN speed than single- homed connections
Answer: AC
91.What are two reasons to use multicast to deliver video traffic, instead of unicast or broadcast? (choose
two)
A. it provides reliable TCP transport
B. it enables multiple clients to receive the video stream simultaneously
C. it enables multiple servers to send video streams simultaneously
D. it enables multiple clients to send video streams simultaneously
E. it supports distributed applications
Answer: BE
92.Which two conditions can be used to elect the spanning-tree root bridge? (choose two）
A. the highest MAC address
B. the lowest MAC address
C. the highest port priority
D. the lowest system ID
E. the lowest switch priority
Answer: BE
93.Which command should you enter to configure a single port to enter an err-disabled state when it
receives an inferior BPDU?
A. spanning-tree portfast bpduguard
B. spanning-tree guard root
C. spanning-tree portfast default
D. spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter
Answer: A
94.After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network, which two additional tasks should you
consider? (choose two)
A. deploy load balancers
B. configure additional VLANs
C. configure multiple VRRP groups
D. deploy POE switches
E. configure additional security policies
Answer: AE
95.Which two technologies can combine multiple physical switches into one logical switch? (Choose two)
A. HSRP
B. GLBP
C. StackWise
D. VRRP
E. VSS
Answer: CE
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Which port security violation mode is configured on interface Fa0/1?

A. restrict
B. protect
C. shutdown
D. shutdown VLAN
Answer: C
97.When a switch is running in VIP server mode, VLAN configuration information is stored in which file?
A. startup-config
B. vlan.dat
C. config.text
D. vlan.config
Answer: B
98.Which two differences between distance-vector and link-state routing protocols are true? (choose two)
A. only distance-vector routing protocols maintain identical topology tables on all connected neighbors
B. distance-vector routing protocols are less susceptible to loops than link-state protocols
C. only distance-vector routing protocols send full routing table updates
D. only link-state routing protocols use the Bellman-Ford algorithm
E. Link-state routing protocols offer faster convergence than distance-vector protocols during network
changes
Answer: CE
How will switch SW2 handle traffic from VLAN 10 on SW1?

A. It sends the traffic to VLAN 100
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B. It sends the traffic to VLAN 1

C. It drops the traffic
D. It sends the traffic to VLAN 10
Answer: A
100.Which command should you enter on an interface m a vendor-neutral EtherChannel so that it will be
selected first to transmit packets?
A. lacp port-priority 1024
B. pagp port-priority 1024
C. pagp system-priority 1024
D. lacp system-priority 1024
Answer: D
101.To enable router on a router subinterface, which two steps must you perform? (choose two)
A. Configure full duplex and speed
B. configure the subinterface with an IP address
C. Configure an IP route to the VLAN destination network
D. Configure a default to route traffic between subinterface
E. Configure encapsulation dot1q
Answer: BE
102.Which statement is a benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?
A. It reduces the need for a backup data center
B. It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources
C. It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically
D. It eliminates the need r a GSS
Answer: B
103.Which two task does a router perform when it receives a packet that is being forwarded from one
network to another? (choose two)
A. It encapsulates the layer 2 packet
B. It examines the MAC address table for the forwarding interface
C. It removes the layer 2 frame header and trailer
D. It examines the routing table for the best path to the destination IP address of the packet
E. It removes the layer3 frame header and trailer
Answer: CD
104.Which command should you enter to configure a device as an NTP sever?

A. ntp sever
B. ntp peer
C. ntp authenticate
D. ntp master
Answer: D
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105.Which three commands can you use to set a router boot image? (Choose three.)
A. Router(config)# boot system flash c4500-p-mz.121-20.bin
B. Router(config)# boot system tftp c7300-js-mz.122-33.SB8a.bin
C. Router(config)#boot system rom c7301-advipservicesk9-mz.124-24.T4.bin
D. Router> boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
E. Router(config)#boot flash:c180x-adventerprisek9-mz-124-6T.bin
F. Router(config)#boot bootldr bootflash:c4500-jk9s-mz.122-23f.bin
Answer: ABC
106.A network administrator enters the logging trap 3 command on a router.

What are three message types that will be sent to the Syslog server? (Choose three)
A. warning
B. informational
C. error
D. emergency
E. debug
F. critical
Answer: CDF
107.In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Answer: ABC
108.Which three statements about IPv6 prefixes are true? (Choose three.)
A. FEC0::/10 is used for IPv6 broadcast.
B. FC00::/7 is used in private networks.
C. FE80::/8 is used for link-local unicast.
D. FE80::/10 is used for link-local unicast.
E. 2001::1/127 is used for loopback addresses.
F. FF00::/8 is used for IPv6 multicast.
Answer: BDF
109.What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)

A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Answer: AD
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110.Which option is the main function of congestion management?

A. discarding excess traffic
B. queuing traffic based on priority
C. classifying traffic
D. providing long-term storage of buffered data
Answer: B
111.Refer to the diagram.
All hosts have connectivity with one another.

Which statements describe the addressing scheme that is in use in the network? (Choose three.)
A. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.192
B. The subnet mask in use is 255.255.255.128
C. The IP address 172.16.1.25 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
D. The IP address 172.16.1.205 can be assigned to hosts in VLAN1
E. The LAN interface of the router is configured with one IP address.
F. The LAN interface of the router is configured with multiple IP addresses.
Answer: BCF
112.Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two)

A. It stores RIP neighbor adjacency information in a neighbor table.
B. It does not support clear text authentication, similar to RIPv1.
C. It uses the Bellman-Ford routing algorithm
D. It supports CIDR and VLSM
E. It sends periodic updates via broadcast
Answer: AC
113.Which configuration register setting do you use to bypass the password that is stored in the startup
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configuration?
A. 1x2102
B. 0x2142
C. 0xFFFF
D. 0x2102
Answer: B
114.Which two tasks should you perform to begin troubleshooting a network problem? (choose two)
A. Gather all the facts
B. Define the problem as a set of symptoms and causes
C. Monitor and verify the resolution
D. Analyze the results
E. Implement an action plan
Answer: AB
115.Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?

A. NCP
B. LCP
C. ISDN
D. DLCI
E. SLIP
Answer: B
Users in your office are complaining that they cannot connect to the servers at a remote site. When
troubleshooting, you find that you can successfully reach the servers from router R2.
What is the most likely reason that the other users are experiencing connection failure?
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A. The DHCP address pool has been exhausted

B. VLSM is misconfigured between the router interface and the DHCP pool
C. The ip helper-address command is missing on the R2 interface that connects to the switch
D. Interface ports are shut down on the remote servers
Answer: C
117.Which command is needed to send RIPV2 updates as broadcast?

A. ip rip receive version 2
B. ip rip receive version 1
C. version 2
D. ip rip v2-broadcast
Answer: D
118.Which MAC protocol sets a random timer to reattempt communication?

A. RARP
B. CSMA/CA
C. CSMA/CD
D. IEEE 802.1x
Answer: C
119.Which two characteristics of an ICMP echo-based IP SLA are true? (Choose two)
A. It can use RSPAN to report network statistics to a designated remote port
B. It aggregates traffic statistics for reporting on a configurable basis
C. It requires a remote device to log and maintain collected data
D. It measures traffic to determine the reliability of a connection from a Cisco router to a designated end
device
E. It generates continuous traffic to monitor network performance
Answer: DE
120.Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

A. in the MAC address table
B. in the CAM table
C. in the DHCP binding database
D. in the VLAN database
Answer: C
121.Which two statements about IGP and EGP routing protocols are true? (Choose two)
A. Service providers use OSPF and IS-IS for intra-AS routing
B. EGP routing protocols are used to connect multiple IGP networks.
C. OSPF, EIGRP, and BGP are categorized as IGP routing protocols
D. Service providers use EGP and BGP for intra- AS routing.
E. IGP routing protocols are used within internal networks.
Answer: AB
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122.What is the first step in the NAT configuration process?

A. Define inside and outside interfaces
B. Define public and private IP addresses
C. Define IP address pools
D. Define global and local interfaces
Answer: A
123.When you are troubleshooting an ACL issue on a router, which command would you use to verify
which interfaces are affected by the ACL?
A. show interface
B. list ip interface
C. show access-list
D. show ip interface
E. show ip access-list
Answer: D
124.Which two functions primary responsibilities of the APIC-EM controller? (Choose two.)
A. It makes network functions programmable
B. It provides robust asset management
C. It tracks license usage and Cisco IOS versions.
D. It automates network actions between legacy equipment
E. It automates network actions between different device types
Answer: AE
125.Which technology in a service provider environment can use labels to tunnel customer data?
A. MPLS
B. Metro Ethernet
C. PPPoE
D. DMVPN
Answer: A
126.Which two commands can you use to configure an PAgP EtherChannel? (Choose two)
A. channel-group 10 mode on
B. channel-group 10 mode auto
C. channel-group 10 mode passive
D. channel-group 10 mode desirable
E. channel-group 10 mode active
Answer: BD
127.Which two pieces of information can you learn by viewing the routing table? (Choose two)
A. the interface on which traffic is sent
B. whether routes were summarized
C. whether a route was learned via IGP or EGP
D. whether access lists are blocking incoming routes
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E. whether a route was tagged

Answer: BC
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KillTest

Title : CCNA Cisco Certified

1.Which frame type allows STP to compute the spanning-tree topology?

4.Which issue is a common cause of runts?

B. Only southbound APIs allow program control of the network.

11.Which feature is automatically enabled on voice VLAN ports?

12.Under which circumstance is a router on a stick most appropriate?

17.Which tunneling mechanism embeds an IPv4 address within an IPv6 address?

18.Which enterprise device provides centralized control of authentication and roaming?

20.Which value is included in the initial TCP SYN message?

25.Which command disables DTP?

D. switchport mode active

29.Which two TLVs does LLDP support? (Choose two)

30.Which type of port supports voice VLAN configuration?

31.What are two common types of copper cable? (Choose two)

32.Refer to the exhibit.

Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down.

33.Which command should you enter to configure a DHCP client?

34.What is the effect of PortFast on the MAC aging process?

B. Verify that the route appears in the routing table

36.Which circumstance is a common cause of late collisions?

38.Which utility can you use to identify redundant or shadow rules?

41.Refer to the exhibit.

43.Refer to the exhibit.

D. It supports HSRP, VRRP, and GLBP

47.What is a valid HSRP virtual MAC address?

54.Which two descriptions of TACACS+ are true? (Choose two)

55.Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of the configuration?

58.Refer to the exhibit.

The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch

60.Refer to the topology below and answer the following questions.

Why did Branch1 router lose WAN connectivity with R1 router?

61.Refer to the exhibit.

D. Three different networks are within the 10.00 0/8 range

62.Refer to the topology below and answer the following questions.

Why has the Branch3 router lost connectivity with R1?

64.Which statement about the router configurations is correct?

67.Why did Branch 1 router lose WAN connectivity with R1 router?

D. The Branch1 serial interfaces are placed in a shutdown condition

68.The GRE tunnel between R3 and Branch1 is down.

69.Refer to the exhibit.

Please check the below:

79.Refer to the exhibit.

B. A static default route to 10.85.33.14 was defined

80.Refer to the exhibit.

81.Refer to the exhibit.

Which VLAN ID is associated with the native VLAN?

B. Single-homed connections to a service provider require OSPF or EIGRP

86.Which value is used to build the CAM table?

87.Which LLDP extension provides additional support for VoIP?

96.Refer to the exhibit.

Which port security violation mode is configured on interface Fa0/1?

99.Refer to the exhibit.

How will switch SW2 handle traffic from VLAN 10 on SW1?

B. It sends the traffic to VLAN 1

104.Which command should you enter to configure a device as an NTP sever?

106.A network administrator enters the logging trap 3 command on a router.

109.What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)

110.Which option is the main function of congestion management?

111.Refer to the diagram.

All hosts have connectivity with one another.

112.Which two statements about RIPv2 are true? (Choose two)

115.Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?