AIPGMEE: RADIOLOGY (2001-12) thorax.

Which of the following is the most likely

AIPGMEE 2001 diagnosis?
1. A neonate presents with respiratory distress, contra- a) Pneumothorax
lateral mediastinal shift and multiple cystic air filled b) Acute epiglottitis
lesions in the chest. Most likely diagnosis is c) Massive pleural effusion
a) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia d) Foreign body aspiration
b) Congenital lung cysts Answer: Foreign body aspiration
c) Pneumonia
d) None of the above 4. A child with acute respiratory distress shows
Answer: Congenital diaphragmatic hernia hyperinflation of unilateral lung in chest X-ray. Most
likely cause for above presentation is
2. Ground glass appearance is not seen in a) Staphylococcal bronchopneumonia
a) Hyaline membrane disease b) Aspiration pneumonia
b) Pneumonia c) Congenital lobar emphysema
c) Left to right shunt d) Foreign body aspiration
d) Obstructive TAPVC Answer: Foreign body aspiration
Answer: Left to right shunt
5. Abdominal Ultra-sonography in a 3 year old boy
3. Drug that is radio-protective shows a solid well circumscribed hypo-echoic renal
a) Paclitaxel mass. Most likely diagnosis is
b) Vincristine a) Wilm’s tumor
c) Amifostine b) Renal cell carcinoma
d) Etoposide c) Mesoblastic nephroma
Answer: Amifostine d) Oncocytoma
Answer: Wilm’s tumor
4. Most radiosensitive Tumour of the following is
a) Ca kidney 6. A newborn presenting with intestinal obstruction
b) Ca colon &constipation showed, on abdominal X-ray, multiple air
c) Ca pancreas fluid levels. The diagnosis is not likely to be
d) Ca cervix a) Pyloric obstruction
Answer: Ca cervix b) Duodenal atresia
c) Ileal atresia
AIPGMEE 2002 d) Ladd’s bands
1. Which of the following ha mot penetrating power? Answer: Pyloric obstruction
a) α- particle
b) β-particle 7. Which one of the following statement is false about
c) γ-radiation loculated pleural effusion?
d) Electron beam a) They form obtuse angles against the
Answer: γ-radiation mediastinum/chest wall when viewed in profile
b) They have un-sharp margins when viewed enface
2. What contrast is needed for proper radiographic c) They do not conform to segmental distribution
image is a heavy bony built person? d) The opacity may show air bronchogram
a) ↑ mA Answer: The opacity may show air bronchogram
b) ↑ KVP
c) ↑ exposer time 8. Radiographic appearance of Pindborg’s tumor is
d) ↑ developing time a) Onion peel appearance
Answer: ↑ mA b) Sun burst appearance
c) Cherry blossom appearance
3. Pappu a 2 yrs old boy is brought with sudden onset of d) Driven snow appearance
stridor and respiratory difficulty. The chest examination Answer: Driven snow appearance
reveals decreased breath sounds & wheezes in the right
side. The chest X-ray showed an opaque right hemi- 9. Cranio-spinal irradiation is employed in the treatment
of
a) Oligo-dendroglioma d) Siderosis
b) Pilocytic Astrocytoma Answer: Asbestosis
c) Mixed oligo-Astrocytoma
d) Medulloblastoma 6. CT scan of a patient with history of head injury shows
Answer: Medulloblastoma a biconvex hyper-dense lesion displacing the grey-white
matter interface. The most likely diagnosis is
10. Prophylactic cranial irradiation is indicated in the a) Sub-dural hematoma
treatment of all of the following; except: b) Diffuse axonal injury
a) Small cell Ca of lung c) Extra-dural hematoma
b) ALL d) Hemorrhagic contusion
c) Hodgkin’s lymphoma Answer: Extra-dural hematoma
d) NHL
Answer: Hodgkin’s lymphoma 7. Which of the following is the best choice to evaluate
radiologically a posterior fossa tumor?
AIPGMEE 2003 a) CT scan
1. Which endocrine disorder is associated with b) MRI
epiphyseal dysgenesis? c) Angiography
a) Hypothyroidism d) Myelo-graphy
b) Cushing’s syndrome Answer: MRI
c) Addison’s disease
d) Hypo-parathyroidism 8. An eight year old boy presents with back pain and
Answer: Hypothyroidism mild fever. His plain X-ray of the dorso-lumbar spine
reveals a solitary collapsed dorsal vertebra with
2. Fraying and cupping of metaphyses of long bones in preserved disc spaces. There was on associated soft
a child does not occur in: tissue shadow. The most likely diagnosis is
a) Rickets a) Ewing’s sarcoma
b) Lead poisoning b) Tuberculosis
c) Metaphyseal dysplasia c) Histiocytosis
d) Hypophosphatasia d) Metastasis
Answer: Lead poisoning Answer: Histiocytosis

3. High resolution computed tomography of the chest is 9. Most suitable radioisotope of iodine for treating
the ideal modality for evaluating hyperthyroidism is
a) Pleural effusion a) I-123
b) Interstitial lung disease b) I-125
c) Lung mass c) I-131
d) Mediastinal adenopathy d) I-132
Answer: Interstitial lung disease Answer: I-131

4. Which one of the following is a recognized X-ray 10. Which of the following radio-isotopes is commonly
feature of rheumatoid arthritis? used as a source for external beam radiotherapy in the
a) Juxta-articular Osteosclerosis treatment of cancer patients?
b) Sacroiliitis a) Strontium - 89
c) Bone erosion b) Radium - 226
d) Peri-articular calcification c) Cobalt - 59
Answer: Bone erosion d) Cobalt – 60
Answer: Cobalt – 60
5. Extensive pleural thickening and calcification
especially involving the diaphragmatic pleura are AIPGMEE 2004
classical features of 1. A patient is suspected to have vestibular
a) Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis schwannoma. The investigation of choice for its
b) Asbestosis diagnosis is
c) Silicosis a) Contrast enhanced TC scan
b) Gadolinium enhanced MRI 8. Which of the following is the classic CT appearance of
c) SPECT an acute subdural hematoma?
d) PET scan a) Lentiform- shaped hyper-dense lesion
Answer: Gadolinium enhanced MRI b) Crescent- shaped hypo-dense lesion
c) Crescent – shaped hyper-dense lesion
2. In scurvy all of the following radiological signs are d) Lentiform- shaped hypo-dense lesion
seen except Answer: Crescent – shaped hyper-dense lesion
a) Pelican spur
b) Soap bubble appearance 9. The first investigation of choice in a patient with
c) Zone of demarcation near epiphysis suspected subarachnoid hemorrhage should be
d) Frenkel’s line a) Non- contrast computed tomography
Answer: Soap bubble appearance b) CSF examination
c) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
3. On radiography widened duodenal ‘C’ loop with d) Contrast-enhanced computed tomography
irregular mucosal pattern on upper gastrointestinal Answer: Non- contrast computed tomography
barium series is most likely due to:
a) Chronic pancreatitis 10. Radio isotopes are used in the following techniques
b) Carcinoma head of pancreas except
c) Duodenal ulcer a) Mass spectroscopy
d) Duodenal ileus b) RIA
Answer: Carcinoma head of pancreas c) ELISA
d) Sequencing of nucleic acid
4. Which of the following is the most penetration beam Answer: ELISA
a) Electron beam
b) 8 MV photons AIPGMEE 2005
c) 18 MV photons 1. Gamma camera in nuclear medicine is used for
d) Proton beam a) Organ imaging
Answer: 18 MV photons b) Measuring the radioactivity
c) Monitoring the surface contamination
5. The radiation tolerance of whole liver is d) RIA
a) 15 Gy Answer: b > a
b) 30 Gy
c) 40 Gy 2. In radionuclide imaging the most useful radio
d) 45 Gy pharmaceutical for skeletal imaging is
Answer: 40 Gy a) Gallium 67
b) Technetium-sulphur-colloid (99mTc-Sc)
6. In which malignancy postoperative radiotherapy is c) Technetium-99m (99mTc)
minimally used? d) Technetium-99m linked to Methylene dis-
a) Head and neck phosphonate (99mTc-MDP)
b) Stomach Answer: Technetium-99m linked to Methylene dis-
c) Colon phosphonate (99mTc-MDP)
d) Soft tissue sarcomas
Answer: Stomach 3. Which of the following radioisotope is not used as
permanent implant?
7. Which of the following is not a CT scan feature of a) Iodine-125
acute pancreatitis? b) Palladium-103
a) Ill defined outline of the pancreas c) Gold-198
b) Enlargement of the pancreas d) Cesium -137
c) Poor contrast enhancement Answer: Cesium -137
d) Dilated main pancreatic duct
Answer: Dilated main pancreatic duct 4. The technique employed in radiotherapy to
counteract the effect of tumour motion due to
breathing is known as:
a) Arc technique d) CNS lymphoma
b) Modulation Answer: Meningioma
c) Gating
d) Shunting AIPGMEE 2006
Answer: Gating 1. Which one of the following has the maximum
ionization potential?
5. At t= 0 there are 6X1023 radioactive atoms of a a) Electron
substance which decay with a disintegration constant b) Proton
(λ) equal to 0.01/sec. What would be the initial decay c) Helium ion
rate? d) Gamma photon
a) 6 X 1023 Answer: Helium ion
b) 6 X 1022
c) 6 X 1021 2. All of the following radioisotopes are used as
d) 10 X 1020 systemic radio-nuclide, except
Answer: 6 X 1021 a) Phosphorus 32
b) Strontium 89
6. The gold standard for the diagnosis of osteoporosis is c) Iridium 192
a) Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry d) Samarium 153
b) Single energy X-ray absorptiometry Answer: Iridium 192
c) Ultrasound
d) Quantitative computed tomography 3. Phosphorus 32 emits
Answer: Dual energy X-ray absorptiometry a) Beta particles
b) Alfa particles
7. The most sensitive imaging modality for diagnosis c) Neutrons
Ureteric stones in a patient with acute colic is? d) X-rays
a) X-ray KUB region Answer: Beta particles
b) Ultra-sonogram
c) Non contrast CT scan of the abdomen 4. Which of the following is used in the treatment of
d) Contrast enhanced CT scan of the abdomen differentiated thyroid cancer?
Answer: Non contrast CT scan of the abdomen a) 131I
b) 99m Tc
8. Which of the following ultrasound marker is c) 32P
associated with greatest increased risk for trisomy 21 in d) 131I-MIBG
fetus? Answer: 131I
a) Echogenic foci in heart
b) Hyper-echogenic bowed 5. All of them use non- ionizing radiation except
c) Choroid plexus cysts a) Ultra-sonography
d) Nuchal edema b) Thermography
Answer: Nuchal edema c) MRI
d) Radiography
9. Which one of the following is the most preferred Answer: Radiography
route to perform cerebral angiography?
a) Trans-femoral route 6. Which of the following imaging techniques gives
b) Trans-axillary route maximum radiation exposure to the patient?
c) Direct carotid puncture a) Chest X-ray
d) Trans-brachial route b) MRI
Answer: Trans-femoral route c) CT scan
d) Bone- Scan
9. Which one of the following tumors shows Answer: Bone- Scan
calcification on CT scan?
a) Ependymoma 7. The ideal timing of radiotherapy for Wilms tumor
b) Medulloblastoma after surgery is
c) Meningioma a) Within 10 days
b) Within 2 weeks d) MRI
c) Within 3 weeks Answer: Echocardiography
d) Any time after surgery
Answer: Within 10 days 14. The most important of significance of renal artery
stenosis on an angiogram is
8. The most radiosensitive tumor among the following a) A percentage diameter stenosis >70%
is: b) Presence of collaterals
a) Bronchogenic carcinoma c) A systolic pressure gradient > 20 mm Hg across the
b) Carcinoma parotid lesion
c) Dysgerminoma d) Post – stenotic dilatation of the renal artery
d) Osteogenic sarcoma Answer: Presence of collaterals
Answer: Dysgerminoma
15. The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show
9. Which of the following cause rib-notching on the lesions in
chest radiograph? a) White matter
a) Bidirectional Glem shunt b) Grey matter
b) Modified Blalock-Taussing shunt c) Thalamus
c) IVC occlusion d) Basal ganglia
d) Coarctation of aorta Answer: White matter
Answer: Coarctation of aorta
AIPGMEE 2007
10. Which is the objective sign of identifying pulmonary 1. Investigation of choice for a lesion of the temporal
plethora in a chest radiograph? bone
a) Diameter of the main pulmonary artery> 16 mm a) X-ray
b) Diameter of the left pulmonary artery > 16 mm b) USG
c) Diameter of the descending right pulmonary artery > c) CT Scan
16 mm d) MRI
d) Diameter of the descending left pulmonary artery > Answer: CT scan
16 mm
Answer: Diameter of the descending right pulmonary 2. A young male is brought unconscious to the hospital
artery > 16 mm with external injuries. CT brain showed No midline shift.
Basal cistern was compressed with multiple small
11. The procedure of choice for the evaluation of an hemorrhages. What is the likely diagnosis?
aneurysm is a) Cerebral contusion
a) Ultra-sonography b) Cerebral laceration
b) Computed tomography c) Multiple infarcts
c) Magnetic resonance imaging d) Diffuse axonal injuries
d) Arteriography Answer: Diffuse axonal injuries
Answer: Arteriography
3. A 45 years old female complains of progressive
12. The most sensitive imaging modality to detect early weakness and spasticity of the lower limb with difficulty
renal tuberculosis is: in micturition. CT shows an intra-dural mid-dorsal
a) Intravenous urography midline enhancing lesion the likely diagnosis is
b) Computed tomography a) Meningioma
c) Magnetic resonance imaging b) Intra-dermal lipoma
d) Ultra-sonography c) Neuro-epithelial cyst
Answer: Intravenous urography d) Dermoid cyst
Answer: Meningioma
13. The most accurate investigation for assessing
ventricular function is: 4. Basal ganglia calcification is seen in all except
a) Multi-slice CT a) Hypo-parathyroidism
b) Echocardiography b) Wilson’s disease
c) Nuclear scan c) Perinatal hypoxia
d) Fahr’s syndrome 5. Flaring of anterior ends of the ribs is
Answer: Wilson’s disease characteristically seen in
a) Neurofibromatosis
5. Radio-contrast is contraindicated in all except b) Scurvy
a) Obesity c) Rickets
b) Dehydration d) Hypothyroidism
c) Patient on metformin Answer: Rickets
d) Renal failure
Answer: Obesity 6. Inferior rib notching is seen in
a) Coarctation of aorta
6. Which of the following isotopes is used for RAIU? b) Marfan’s syndrome
a) I123 c) Rickets
b) I125 d) SLE
c) I 131 Answer: Coarctation of aorta
d) I132
Answer: I123 7. Earliest radiological sing of pulmonary venous
hypertension in chest X-ray is
AIPGMEE 2008 a) Cephalization of pulmonary vascularity
1. Photoelectric effect can be best described as in b) Pleural effusion
a) Interaction between high energy incident photon and c) Kerley B lines
the inner shell electron d) Alveolar pulmonary edema
b) Interaction between low energy incident photon and Answer: Cephalization of pulmonary vascularity
the outer shell electron
c) Interaction of the high energy incident photon and 8. Earliest sign of left atrial enlargement is
the outer shell electron a) Posterior displacement of esophagus
d) Interaction between a low energy incident photon b) Widening of carinal angle
and the inner shell electron c) Elevation of left bronchus
Answer: Interaction between a low energy incident d) Double shadow of right border
photon and the inner shell electron Answer: Posterior displacement of esophagus

2. Allergic reaction to radio-logical contrast agents are 9. Which of the following is the most common feature
a) Anaphylactic reaction of aortitis on chest X-ray?
b) IgE mediated reaction a) Calcification of ascending aorta
c) Urticaria b) Calcification of descending aorta
d) Edema c) Calcification of pulmonary artery
Answer: Anaphylactic reaction d) Focal oligemia
Answer: Calcification of ascending aorta
3. Which of the following is the most radiosensitive
phase of the cell cycle? 10. Investigation of choice for detection and
a) G2M characterization of interstitial lung disease is:
b) G2 a) MRI
c) S b) Chest X-ray
d) G1 c) High resolution CT scan (HRCT)
Answer: G2M d) Ventilation perfusion scan (VP scan)
Answer: High resolution CT scan (HRCT)
4. Which of the following agents is used to measure
glomerular filtration rate (GFR)? 11. Best radiographic view for fracture of C1-C2
a) Iodohippurate vertebrae is:
b) Tc99m-DTPA a) AP view
c) Tc99m-MAG3 b) Odontoid view
d) Tc99m-DMSA c) Lateral view
Answer: Tc99m-DTPA d) Oblique view
Answer: Odontoid view
 Answer: Mammography
12. All of the following are diagnostic feature of ileo-
cecal tuberculosis on barium follow through; except 6. Which of the following is not a MRI feature of mesial
a) Apple-core sign temporal sclerosis?
b) Pulled up contracted angle a) Atrophy of Mamillary body
c) Widening of ileocecal angle b) Atrophy of fornix
d) Strictures involving the terminal ileum c) Blurring of grey whit matter junction of ipsilateral
Answer: Apple-core sign temporal lobe
d) Atrophy of hippocampus
AIPGMEE 2009 Answer: Blurring of grey whit matter junction of
1. Focal and diffuse thickening of gall bladder wall with ipsilateral temporal lobe
high amplitude reflections and comet tail artifacts on
USG suggest the diagnosis of 7. Pruning of pulmonary arteries is seen in
a) Xantho-granulomatous cholecystitis a) Pulmonary hypertension
b) Carcinoma of gall bladder b) Chronic bronchitis
c) Adenomyomatosis c) Pulmonary infections
d) Cholesterolosis d) Pulmonary transplant
Answer: Adenomyomatosis Answer: Pulmonary hypertension

2. Which of the following is not a CT feature of adrenal 8. Which of the following is not true regarding ossified
adenoma? posterior longitudinal ligament (OPLL)?
a) Low attenuation a) Most commonly involves thoracic spine
b) Homogenous density and well defined borders b) Gradient echo MR sequence may overestimate the
c) Enhances rapidly, contrast stays in it for a relatively canal stenosis
longer time and washes out late c) MRI is best for diagnosis
d) Calcification is rare d) Low signal intensity on all MR sequences
Answer: Enhances rapidly, contrast stays in it for a Answer: Most commonly involves thoracic spine
relatively longer time and washes out late
9. Test of choice for reversible myocardial ischemia
a) Thallium Scan
3. The sensitivity of mammography is low in young b) MUGA Scan
females because c) Resting ECHO
a) Less glandular tissue and more fat d) Coronary angiography
b) Young females are less cooperative Answer: Thallium Scan
c) Young breast have dense tissue
d) Because of less fat content AIPGMEE 2010
Answer: Young breast have dense tissue 1. Walls of the CT scanner room are coated with
a) Lead
4. Which of the following does not contain fat on b) Glass
mammography? c) Tungsten
a) Post-traumatic cyst d) Iron
b) Hamartoma Answer: Lead
c) Seborrheic Keratosis
d) Galactocele 2. The major difference between X-rays and light is
Answer: Seborrheic Keratosis a) Energy
b) Mass
5. The most sensitive investigation for DCIS (Ductal c) Speed
carcinoma in situ) of breast d) Type of wave
a) MRI Answer: Energy
b) USG
c) PET 3. Which of the following is the most ionizing radiation?
d) Mammography a) Alpha
b) Beta
c) X rays d) DTPA Scan
d) Gamma Answer: DTPA Scan
Answer: Alpha
10. A dense reno-gram is obtained by
4. Which of the following statements best describes a) Dehydrating the patient
background radiation? b) Increasing the dose of contrast media
a) Radiation in the background of nuclear reactors c) Rapid (Bolus) injection of dye
b) Radiation in the background during radiological d) Using non ionic media
investigations Answer: Rapid (Bolus) injection of dye
c) Radiation present constantly from natural sources
d) Radiation from nuclear fall out AIPGMEE 2011
Answer: Radiation present constantly from natural 1. Best investigation for bone metastases:
sources a) MRI
b) CT Scan
5. Which of the following best estimates the amount of c) Bone scan
radiation delivered to an organ in the radiation field? d) X- ray
a) Absorbed dose Answer: Bone scan
b) Equivalent dose
c) Effective dose 2. Aortic knuckle shadow on X-ray chest PA, obliterated
d) Exposure dose by consolidation of which portion of lung?
Answer: Absorbed dose a) Upper Lingula
b) Lower Lingula
6. Which of the following statements about stochastic c) Apex of lower lobe
effects of radiation is true? d) Posterior part of upper lobe
a) Severity of effect is a function of dose Answer: Posterior part of upper lobe
b) Probability of effect is a function of dose
c) It has a threshold 3. CT least accurate for:
d) Erythema and cataract are common examples a) 1 cm of aneurysm in hepatic artery
Answer: Probability of effect is a function of dose b) 1 cm of lymph node in para-aortic region
c) 1 cm of pancreas mass in tail
7. Egg on side appearance is seen in d) 1 cm gall stone
a) TOF Answer: 1 cm gall stones
b) TAPVC
c) Uncorrected trans-position of great artery (TGA) 4. Dose of radiation required for hematological
d) Tricuspid atresia syndrome:
Answer: Uncorrected trans-position of great artery a) 2.5 cGy
(TGA) b) 10 cGy
c) 100 cGy
8. All of the following statements about CT scan d) 200 cGy
features of adrenal adenoma are true; except Answer: 100 cGy
a) Calcification is rare
b) Low attenuation AIPGMEE 2012
c) Early enhancement with slow wash out of contrast 1. Which of the following liver metastasis appear hypo-
d) Regular margins echoic on USG?
Answer: Early enhancement with slow wash out of a) Breast cancer
contrast b) Colon cancer
c) Renal carcinoma
9. A patient presents acute renal failure and Anuria. d) Mucinous Adenocarcinoma
The USG is normal. Which of the following investigation Answer: Breast cancer
will give best information regarding renal function?
a) Intravenous pyelogram 2. All of the following are true about long term sequelae
b) Retrograde pyelography of Cranio-spinal Radiotherapy for children with CNS
c) Ante-grade pyelography tumors, except
a) Neuro-cognitive dysfunction Answer: DEXA Scan
b) Endocrinologic dysfunction
c) Musculo-skeleton hypoplasia 9. Best investigation for bone metastasis is
d) Neuropsychological sequelae are independent of a) MRI
radiation dose b) CT
Answer: Neuropsychological sequelae are independent c) Bone Scan
of radiation dose d) X-ray
Answer: Bone Scan
3. Which of the following drugs is a radio-protective
agent? 10. Widened Neural foramina is frequently seen in
a) Cisplatin a) Neurofibromatosis
b) Amifostine b) Tuberous sclerosis
c) Methotrexate c) Sturge Weber Syndrome
d) Colony stimulating factor d) Klippel Feil Syndrome
Answer: Amifostine Answer: Neurofibromatosis

4. The best view to visualize minimal Pneumo- 11. Chest X-ray of an industrial worker exposed to
peritoneum is asbestos over 20 years shows an ill defined rounded
a) AP view abdomen opacity in the lower lobe with a comet tail appearance
b) Erect view abdomen on PA view. Which of the following is the most likely
c) Right lateral decubitus with horizontal beam diagnosis?
d) Left lateral decubitus with horizontal beam a) Mesothelioma
Answer: Left lateral decubitus with horizontal beam b) Bronchogenic carcinoma
c) Round atelectasis
5. All of the following statements about MRI are true; d) Pulmonary infarct
except: Answer: Round atelectasis
a) MRI is better for calcified lesions
b) MRI is useful for localizing small lesions in the brain
c) MRI is contra-indicated in patient with pacemakers
d) MRI is useful in evaluating bone marrow
Answer: MRI is better for calcified lesions

6. Extra-axial intra-cranial lesion showing contrast

enhancement on MRI is suggestive of
a) Meningioma
b) Ependymoma
c) Arachnoid cyst
d) Astrocytoma
Answer: Meningioma

7. The investigation of choice for renal scarring defect in

kidney is
a) DMSA Scan
b) DTPA Scan
c) DEXA Scan
d) MCU
Answer: DMSA Scan

8. Bone density is best studied by

a) CT scan
b) DEXA Scan
c) MRI Scan
d) Bone Scan