E1 Paper I

KERALA ENGG.
MODEL Brilliant STUDY CENTRE, PALA

ALL UNITS 20 - 04 - 2019
WARNING: Any malpractice or any attempt to commit any kind of malpractice, in the
Examination, will DISQUALIFY THE CANDIDATE.
VERSION
CODE
E1 TEST
771
ID
PAPER - I PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY

Questions : 120 Marks : 480 Time : 150 Minutes
Name of the Candidate :
Signature of the Candidate : Roll No.
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATE

1. Please ensure that the VERSION CODE shown on the top of this Question Booklet is the
same as that shown in the OMR Answer Sheet issued to you. If you have received a Question
Booklet with a different VERSION CODE, please get it replaced with a Question booklet with
the same VERSION CODE as that of the OMR Answer Sheet from the Invigilator.
THIS IS VERY IMPORTANT.
2. For each question in this examination, there are five suggested answers given against (A), (B),
(C), (D) and (E) of which only one will be the MOST APPROPRIATE ANSWER and indicate
it in the OMR Answer Sheet.
3. Negative Marking: In order to discourage wild guessing, the score will be subject to a
penalisation formula based on the number of right answers actually marked and the number of
wrong answers marked. Each correct answer will be awarded FOUR marks. ONE mark will
be deducted for each incorrect answer. More than one answer marked against a question will
be deemed as an incorrect response and will be negatively marked.
4. Rough work should be done only in the space provided for.
IMMEDIATELY AFTER OPENING THE QUESTION BOOKLET, THE CANDIDATE

SHOULD VERIFY THAT THE QUESTION BOOKLET ISSUED CONTAINS ALL THE
120 QUESTIONS IN SERIAL ORDER
PLEASE DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL UNTILTHE INVIGILATOR ASKS YOU TO DO SO

1. Pressure on a square plate of side  is measured by measuring the force on the plate and the length  .
Maximum error in the measurement of force is 4% and that for  is 2%. The maximum error in the
measurement of pressure is
A) 6% B) 16% C) 8% D) 12% E) 4%
2. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate a1 for sometime after which it retards at constant rate a2 to
come to rest. If the total time lapse is T, the total distance travelled is
 a1a 2  T 2  a1  a 2  T 2  a1a 2   a1a 2  2  a1  a 2  2

A)  a  a  2 B)  a a  2 C)  a  a  T D)  a  a  T E)  a a  T
 1 2  1 2   1 2  1 2  1 2 
3. A boat having a speed of 5km/h in still water crosses a river of width 1km in 15 minutes along the shortest
possible path. The velocity of the river water is
A) 1 km/h B) 3 km/h C) 5km/h D) 41km / h E) 4 km/h

4. A lift of mass 2000kg is supported by a steel rope. If the maximum upward acceleration of the lift is 1m/s2
and the breaking stress of the rope is 2.8  108 Nm 2 , What would be the minimum diameter of the rope?
A) 1cm B) 2cm C) 3cm D) 5cm E) 6cm
5. A force F acting on a body depends on its displacement S as FS1/ 3 . The power delivered by F will
depend on displacement as
A) S1/ 3 B) S C) S3 D) S2 / 3 E) S0
6. A ball of mass 6kg starts from rest and rolls down an inclined plane of inclination 300 until it reaches a
height 80cm lower than the starting point. Then the speed of the ball is (neglect friction).
A) 1.95 m/s B) 2.5 m/s C) 3.5 m/s D) 4.8 m/s E) 1m/s
7. A fly wheel of mass 1000kg and radius 1m is rotating at the rate of 420 r.p.m. What is the torque required
to stop the wheel in 14 revolutions assuming the mass to be concentrated at the rim?
A) 11000 N-m B) –11000 N-m C) 42000 N-m D) –4200 N-m E) 22000 N-m
8. A body of mass 6 kg moves along a straight line according to the equation t 3  x  75 where, t is the time
in sec. and x is the distance in m. The force on the body at t = 4 second is
A) 64 N B) 72 N C) 144 N D) 36 N E) 28 N
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
PAPER - I (E1)P 3 BRILLIANT STUDY CENTRE PALA

9. Two projectiles are thrown with same initial velocity at angles  and (90 0   ) with the horizontal. The
h1
maximum heights attained by them are h1 and h2 respectively. Then, the value of h is
2
A) sin 2  B) cos 2  C) tan 2  D) cot 2  E) 1
10. An object of mass 40kg moving with velocity 4m/s collides with another object of mass 60kg having
velocity 2m/s. If the collision is perfectly in elastic, the loss of KE is
A) 392 J B) 440 J C) 48 J D) 110 J E) 220 J
11. The period of a planet round the sum is 27 times that of the earth. The ratio of radius of the planet’s orbit
to the radius of the earth’s orbit is
A) 4 B) 9 C) 64 D) 27 E) 54
12. Three waves of equal frequencies having amplitudes 10m , 4m , and 7m arrive at a point with

successive phase difference of . The amplitude of the resulting wave in m is given by
2
A) 7 B) 6 C) 5 D) 4 E) 3
13. The gauge pressure of water in a tank is 2.88  10 5 Pa Then the velocity of efflux of water from the orifice
at the bottom in the tank is
A) 12ms–1 B) 24 ms–1 C) 144 ms–1 D) 14ms–1 E) 6ms–1
14. The lower end of a capillary tube of radius 1mm is dipped 18 cm below the surface of water. The pressure
required to form a hemispherical bubble at the end of the tube is nearly (ST of water = 72  10 3 Nm 1
.  105 Pa )
Atmospheric pr = 101
A) 0.03 Pa B) 1.03 Pa C) 1.3 Pa
D) 1.03  10 5 Pa E) 0.03  10 5 Pa
15. A slab consists of two parallel layers of copper and brass having thickness in the ratio 2 : 1 and thermal
conductivities in the ratio 3 :1. If the free face of brass is at 1000C and that of copper is 00C, the temperature
of the interface is
A) 800 B) 700C C) 600C D) 550C E) 400C

16. When a thermodynamic system is taken from the state A to B through ACB as in figure 100J is given to the
system and 60 J of work is done. Along the path ADB work done is only 20J, the heat flowing in to the
system in this case is
A) 120 J B) 60 J C) 40 J D) 140 J E) 80 J
17. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit around the earth with a speed equal to half the magnitude
of the escape velocity from the earth, the height of the satellite above the surface of the earth is
R R
A) 2R B) C) R D) E) 4R
2 4
18. Two tuning forks have frequencies 380 Hz and 384 Hz respectively. When they are sounded together
what is the time interval between maximum sound and the next minimum sound
1 1 1
A) S B) S C) S
4 8 2
1
D) S E) 1S
16
19. A closed organ pipe is vibrating in first overtone and is in resonance with another open pipe vibrating in the
third harmonic. The ratio of lengths of two pipes is
A) 1 : 2 B) 2 : 1 C) 4 : 1 D) 1 : 4 E) 3 : 8
20. The dimensions of coefficient of viscosity  in terms of velocity V, force F and time T is :
A)  FV 2 T 1  B)  FV 2 T3  C) FV2T3 
D)  FV 2 T3  E)  F1V 2 T 3 

21. The graph between KE and momentum P is :
A) B)
C) D) E)
22. A solid sphere of mass 500g and radius 10cm rolls without slipping with a velocity of 20cm/s. The total KE
of the sphere is :
A) 140 J B) 280 J C) 0.014 J D) 0.028 J E) 2.8J
23. A planet revolves in an elliptical orbit around the sun. The semi-major and semi-minor axes are a and b.
Then the square of time period T is directly proportional to
3 3
ab ab
A) a 3
B) b 3
C)   D)   E)  a  b 3
 2   2 
24. The coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine is 49  105 / 0 C . The fractional change in its density for
300C rise in temperature is
A) 1.5  102 B) 1.5  103 C) 1.5  102 D) 1.5  103 E) 1.5
25. A standing wave consisting of 3 nodes and 2 antinodes is formed between the two atoms having a distance
of 1.21A0 between them. The wavelength of the standing wave is :
A) 1.21A0 B) 2.42A0 C) 6.05A0 D) 3.63A0 E) 0.65A0
26. In a young’s double slit experiment, 12 fringes are obtained to be formed in a certain segment of the screen
when light of wavelength 600nm is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400nm, number of fringes
observed in the same segment of the screen is given by
1) 12 B) 30 C) 24 D) 18 E) 36

27. A jet of water delivering 0.6 m3 per minute strikes a vertical wall horizontally with velocity of 25 ms-1. If the
water does not rebound, the force exerted on the wall is
A) 2.5 × 104 N B) 25 N C) 2500 N D) 250 N E) 3000 N
28. A wheel is subjected to uniform angular acceleration about its axis. Initially its angular velocity is zero. In
the first 2sec., it rotate through an angle  1, in the next 2sec., it rotate through an addition angle 2, then 2/1 is
A) 3 B) 2 C) 1 D) 4 E) 5
29. A hammer head moving at speed of 10 m/s strikes a nail and drives it into a wooden block. The duration
of impact is 0.005sec. If the hammer head weighs 1.5 kg, by how much distance the nail has penetrated in
to the wood.
A) 5 cm B) 2.5 cm C) 1 cm D) 1.5 cm E) 4 cm
30. To what depth below the surface of sea should a rubber ball be taken so as to decrease its volume by
0.1%. Given g = 10 m/s2, and bulkmodulus of rubber is 9 × 108 N/m2.
A) 90 m B) 45 m C) 300 m D) 350 m E) 200 m
31. The period of oscillation of a mass m suspended from a spring is 2 seconds. If along with it another mass
2 kg is also suspended, the period of oscillation increases by one seconds. The mass m will be
A) 2kg B) 1 kg C) 4 kg D) 2.6 kg E) 1.6 kg
32. If the radius of earth is increased by a factor is 5, by what factor its density be changed to keep the value
of acceleration due to gravity (g) the same
1 1 1
A) B) C) D) 5 E) 4
25 5 5
33. A carnot engine working between 300K and 600 K has a work output of 800 Joule per cycle. The amount
of heat energy supplied from the source to the engine in each cycle is
A) 800 joule B) 160 joule C) 3200 joule D) 6400 joule E) 1600 joule
34. A rectangular block is heated from 0oC to 100oC. The percentage increase in its length is 0.10%. What
will be the percentage increase in its volume.
A) 0.03% B) 0.10% C) 0.30% D) 0.40% E) 0.04%
   
35. Two vectors A and B are such that A  B  A  B . The angle between the vectors is
 
A) 0 B) C)  D) 2  E)
3 2

36. A ball is dropped on the ground from a height 1m. The coefficient of restitution is 0.6. The height to which
the ball will rebound is
A) 0.6 m B) 0.4 m C) 0.36 m D) 0.16 m E) 0.5 m
37. A pulley 1 m diameter rotating at 600 rev/min is brought to rest in 80 sec. by a constant force of friction.
How many revolution it will make before coming to rest.
A) 200 B) 300 C) 400 D) 800 E) 600
38. A glass slab of thickness 6 cm and refractive index 3/2 is placed on an ink mark on a paper. For a person
looking at the mark from 8 cm above it, the distance of the mark will appear to be
A) 4 cm B) 6 cm C) 5 cm D) 10 cm E) 8 cm
39. A transformer is used to light 140 watt 24 volt lamp from 240volt AC mains, the current in the main cable
is 0.7A. The efficiency of the transformer is
A) 63.8% B) 74% C) 83.3% D) 48% E) 56%
40. Six equal capacitors each of capacitance C are connected as shown in the figure. Then the equivalent
capacitance between A and B is
A) 6C B) C C) 2C D) C/2 E) 7C
41. n small drops of same size are charged to V volt each. If they coalesce to form a single large drop, then its
potential will be
A) Vn B) Vn–1 C) Vn1/3 D) Vn2/3 E) Vn3/2
42. Equal current I flows in two segments of a circular loop in the direction shown in figure. Radius of the loop
is r. The magnitude of magnetic field induction at the centre of the loop O is
 0 I 0 I 0 I  0 I  3   
A) zero B) C)     D)  2    E)
4r 2r 2r 4r

43. A proton, a deuteron and an  -particle accelerated through the same potential difference enter a region of
uniform magnetic field, moving at right angles to B. What is the ratio of their K.E?
A) 2:1:1 B) 2:2:1 C) 1:2:1 D) 1:1:2 E) 1:1:1
44. During a current change from 2A to 4A in 0.05 second, 8V of emf is developed in a coil. The coefficient of
self-induction is
A) 0.1 H B) 0.2H C) 0.4H D) 0.8H E) 0.7H
45. The temperature coefficient of resistance for a wire is 0.00125°C–1. At 300K its resistance is 1 ohm. The
temperature at which the resistance becomes 2 is
A) 450K B) 1127K C) 454K D) 900K E) 300K
46. When plate voltage in diode valve is increased from 100 volt to 150 volt then plate current increases from
7.5mA to 12mA. The dynamic plate resistance will be
A) 10k B) 13k C) 15k D) 11.1k E) 8.7k
47. If h is the Planks constant, e is the electric charge the dimensional formula of h/e is same as that of :
A) magnetic flux B) electric flux C) intensity of magnetic field
D) electric field E) Boltzmans constant
48. When a current of (2.5  0.5) A flows through a wire, it develops a potential difference of (20  1)V, the
resistance of the wire is :
A) (8  2)ohm B) (8  1.5)ohm C) (8  0.5)ohm D) (8  3)ohm E) (8  1)ohm
49. Which layer of atmosphere is helpful for skywave propagation of EM waves have frequency upto 30 MHz
A) troposphere B) stratosphere C) mesosphere D) ionosphere E) All the above
50. Two condensers C1 and C2 in a circuit are joined as shown in figure. The potential of point A is V1 and that
of point B is V2. The potential of point D will be
V1  V2 C1V2  C2 V1 C1V1  C 2 V2 C2 V1  C1V2 C1C 2

A) B) C1  C2 C) C1  C2 D) C1  C 2 E) C  C
2 1 2

51. In the circuit shown, if points A and B are connected by a wire having negligible resistance, then find current
through that wire
A) 1A from A to B B) Zero C) 1A from B to A

D) 1.5 A from A to B E) 1.5 A from B to A
52. A battery is connected to a circuit as shown in figure. Find the total energy stored in the capacitor
A) Zero B) 25 x 10-6 J C) 10  J
D) 18 x 10-6 J E) 5  J
53. In the following circuit the heat produced in 5ohm resistor due to a current flowing in it is 10 cal/sec. The
heat produced in 4 ohm resistor is
A) 4 cal/s B) 1 cal/s C) 2 cal/s D) 3 cal/s E) 8 cal/s

54. The following figure represents two bulbs B1 and B2, resistor R and an inductor L, when the switch S is
turned off
A) both B1 and B2 die out promptly

B) both B1 and B2 die out with same delay
C) B1 dies out promptly but B2 with some delay
D) B2 dies out promptly but B1 with some delay
E) depends on the value of resistance
55. In the circuit shown, find the current through battery long time after pressing the switch
A) 0.8A B) 0.3A C) 0.5A D) 1A E) 1.5A

56. Which one is reverse biased
A) B)
C) D)
E)

57. A gas at temp. 250 K is contained in a closed vessel. If the gas is heated through 10C, the percentage
increase in pressure is:
A) 0.4% B) 0.6% C) 0.8% D) 1% E) 4%
58. Two sources A and B are sounding notes of frequency 680 Hz. A listner moves from A to B with a constant
velocity u. If speed of sound is 340 ms–1 what must be the value of u so that he hears 10 beats per second
A) 2 ms–1 B) 2.5ms–1 C) 3ms–1 D) 3.5 ms–1 E) 4 ms–1
59. If the temperature of the sun was to increase from T to 2T and its radius from R to 2R then the ratio of the
radiant energy received on earth to what it was previously will be:
A) 4 B) 16 C) 32 D) 64 E) 128
60. The focal length of a convex lens is 30cm and the size of the image is quarter of the object; then the objects
distance is (in cm)
A) 160 B) 120 C) 90 D) 60 E) 30
61. An equilateral prism is placed on the prism table of a spectrometer in the position of minimum deviation. If
the angle of incidence is 600, the angle of deviation of the rays is
A) 900 B) 600 C) 450 D) 300 E) 150
62. A compound microscope has magnifying power as 32 and magnifying power of eye piece is 4; then the
magnifying power of the objective is
A) 32 B) 16 C) 12
D) 8 E) 4
63. In a meter bridge experiment, null point is obtained at 20 cm from one end of the wire when resistance x is
balanced against another resistance y. If x < y, then where will be the new position of the null point from the
same end, if one decides to balance a resistance of 4x against y?
A) 50 cm B) 80 cm C) 40 cm D) 70 cm E) 75 cm
64. In Young’s double slit experiment, the distance between the two slits is 0.1mm and wavelength of light used
is 4×10–7m. If the width of fringe on screen is 4mm, the distance between screen and slits is
A) 0.1mm B) 1cm C) 0.1cm D) 1m E) 2m
65. For a transistor, the current amplification factor is 0.8. The transistor is connected in common emitter
configuration. The change in the collector current when the base current changes by 6mA is
A) 6mA B) 4.8 mA C) 24mA
D)8mA E) 30mA

66. The combination of the gates shown in the figure below produces
A) NOR gate B) OR gate C) AND gate D) NAND gate E) XOR gate

67. Band width of optical fibre is
A ) Excess of 100GH 2 B) Excess of 100 MHz
C) Excess of 1 MHz D) Excess of 10 KHz E) Excess of 1 KHz
68. The work function for three different metals A, B, C are WA, WB and WC respectively with WA > WB >
WC The graph between stopping potetials V0 and frequency  for them would look like:
A) B) C) D) E)
69. Binding energy per nucleon is maximum in:

A) 2He4 B) 92U235 C) 56Ba
141 D) 26Fe
56 E) 1H3
70. A charged oil drop of mass 9.75 1015 kg and charge 30 1016 c is suspended in a uniform electricfield
existing between two parallel plates. The field between the plates (taking g = 10m/s2) is
A) 3.25V/m B) 300V/m C) 325V/m D) 32.5V/m E) 3000V/m
71. K.E. of photo-electrons is E when light of wavelength  falls on them. If K.E. of photoelectrons reduces to
half i.e. E/2, then wavelength of incident light will be:
A)
hc
B)
b
hc 2 hc  E g C) 2 D)  / 2 E)
2 hc
E  hc 2 2 hc  E
72. Stopping potential is V1 when wavelength of incident light is 1, and stopping potential is V2 when wavelength
of incident light is 2. Then V1 - V2 is:
hc FG  1 2 IJ hc
b g hc FG 1 1 IJ he
b g hc
A) e    H K B) 1   2 C) e    H K D) 1   2 E)   
1 2 e 1 2 e 1 2

73. The paramagnetism of O 2 is due to the presence of an odd electron in the MO.
A)   2 s B) 2p y C)  2pz D)  2p x E)   2p y
74. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature ?

A) BeO B) MgO C) CaO
D) BaO E) Both B and C
75. In the calcium fluoride structure, the co ordination number of the cations and anions are respectively
A) 6,6 B) 3,6 C) 4,4 D) 4,8 E) 8,4
76. Electron affinity is positive, when
A) O changes into O B) O changes into O2-
C) O changes onto O+ D) Electron affinity is always negative
E) Electron affinity is always positive
77. If the K.E of a particle is doubled , the de- Broglie wavelength becomes
1 1
A) 2 times B) times C) times
2 4
D) 2times E) 4 times
78. The half life period of a first order chemical reaction is 6.93 min. The time required for the completion of
99%of the chemical reaction will be
A) 230.3 min B) 23.03 min C) 46.06 min D) 460.6 min E) 4.60 min
79. The reaction of CH2 CH2 with RMgX leads to the formation of :
O
A) RCHOHR B) RCHOHCH3 C) R2CHCH2OH
D) RCH2CH2OH E) RCH2OH
80. KMnO4 oxidises C 2 O 24  to CO2 and each two molecules of KMnO4 gain 5e  during the process. The
number of moles of KMnO4 required to oxidise 126g of oxalic acid  H 2 C2 O4 .2H 2O  is
A) 0.2 B) 0.4 C) 0.6 D) 1.0 E) 2

81. In the refining of silver by electrolytic method, what will be the weight of 100g of Ag anode, if 5A current
is passed for 2 hours? The purity of silver anode is 95% ( by weight ). [ Atomic weight of Ag = 108]
A) 42.41 g B) 40.29 g C) 57.59 g D) 80g E) 75g
82. Secondary structure of protein refers to:
A) Three dimensional structure, specially the bond between amino acid residues that are distant from each
other in the polypeptide chain
B) Regular folding patterns of the polypeptide chain
C) Mainly denatured proteins and structures of prosthetic groups
D) Linear sequence of amino acid residues in the polypeptide chain
E) Both B and D
83. Oxidation no. of chlorine in perchloric acid is
A) +7 B) –7 C) +1 D) –1 E) 0
84. Of the following complex ions, the one that probably has the largest overall formation constant, Kf , is
3 3
A) Co  NH3 6  B) Co  H 2 O 6 
3 3
C) Co  H 2 O 4  NH3  2  D) Co  en 3  E) None of these
85. 6 g of the organic compound on heating with NaOH gave NH3, which is neutralised by 200 mL of 1 N
HCl percentage of nitrogen is
A) 12% B) 60% C) 46.67% D) 26.67% E) 33.33%
86. The enthalpy of formation of methane at constant pressure and 300K is –75.83 kJ. What will be the heat
of formation at constant volume?  R  8.3JK 1mol1 
A) –78.32 kJ B) 73.34 kJ C) –73.34 kJ D) –68.36 kJ E) 78.32 kJ

87. B2H6+NH3  Addition compound (x) 
450 K
 Y + Z(g)
In the above sequence Y and Z are respectively
A) Borazine, H2 B) Boron, H2
C) Boron nitride, H2 D) Boron, hydrazine
E) Borazine, N2

88. A cell constant is generally found by measuring the conductivity of aq. solution of
A ) BaCl 2 B) KCl C) NaCl D) MgCl 2 E) KNO3
89. Fluorine does not show positive oxidation states due to the absence of
A) d-orbitals B) s-orbitals
C) p-orbitals D) f-orbitals E) Both s & p orbitals
OH
OH
Anhyd. ZnCl2
90. HCN HCl . The reaction is known as
CHO
A) Perkin B) Gattermann
C) Kolbe’s D) Knoevenagel
E) Sabatier and Senderens reduction
91. The mole fraction of the solute in one molal aqueous solution is
A) 0.027 B) 0.036 C) 0.009 D) 0.025 E) 0.018
92. Names of some compounds are given. Which one is not in IUPAC system?
CH3
A) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH CH CH2 CH3 ; 3-methyl-4-ethylheptane
CH2CH3
B) CH3 CH CH CH3 ; 3- methyl-2-butanol

OH CH3
C) CH3 CH2 C CH CH3 ; 2-ethyl-3-methylbut-1-ene
CH2 CH3
D) CH3 C C CH(CH3)2 ; 4-methyl-2-pentyne
Cl
E) ; 2,3-dimethyl pentanoyl chloride
O

93. Hydrogen ion concentration in mol/L in a solution of pH = 5.4 will be
A) 3.98  108 B) 3.88  106 C) 3.68 109
D) 3.98 10 6 E) 3.28 10 7
94. 60.8 J are required to change the temperature of 25.0 g ethylene glycol by 1.0 K. Specific heat capacity
of ethylene glycol in J.g-1.K-1 is:
A) 243 B) 486 C) 12.0 D) 1.8 E) 2.43
95. When a hydrated salt (A) is heated white anhydrous residue (B) is formed. Aqueous solution of B when
passed with NO dark brown compound is formed. If the residue B is strongly heated product obtained is
A) SnO B) SnO2 C) MgO D) Fe2O3 E) CaO
96. First and second ionisation energies of Mg are 740 and 1450 KJ mol–1. The percentage of Mg2+ produced
if 1g of Mg(g) absorbs 50KJ of energy is :
A) 32% B) 40% C) 24% D) 68% E) 16%
97. An inorganic salt (A) when heated decomposes completely to give only two gases B and C. The neutral
gas B itself decomposes on heating to two different gases. The salt (A) expected to produce :
A) White fumes when heated with Con. H2SO4
B) White ppt. with AgNO3 solution
C) White ppt. with BaCl2 solution
D) Positive results in brown ring test
E) Rotten egg smell with dil. HCl
98. A current of dry air was passed through a solution of 2.5 g of non-volatile solute in 100g of water and then
through pure water. The loss of weight of the former was 1.25 g and that of latter was 0.05g. The mole
fraction of solute in the solution is :
A) 0.315 B) 0.0385 C) 0.11 D) 0.073 E) 0.0265
M M
99. Conductivity of KCl at 25oC is 0.002768 ohm–1 cm–1. The cell with KCl showed a resistance of
50 50
550 ohm. The cell constant of the cell is :
A) 7.5224 cm–1 B) 2.534 cm–1 C) 6.331 cm–1
D) 3.663 cm–1 E) 1.5224 cm–1

100. The formation of micelles takes places only above a particular temperature called :
A) Critical temperature B) micelles temperature
C) Kraft temperature D) Boyle temperature
E) Critical micelles temperature
101. The major product obtained on treatment of CH3CH2CH(F)CH3 with a very strong base like
CH3CH2O–/CH3 - CH2OH is :
A) CH3CH2CH(OCH3)CH3 B) CH3CH = CHCH3
C) CH3CH2CH = CH2 D) CH3CH2CH2CH2OCH2CH3
E) CH3 - CH2 - CH2 - CH2 - OH
102. Ozone depletion occur mainly over Antartica because :
A) In Antartica region NO2, CH4 ------ present in polar stratospheric clouds
B) In other parts solidified nitric acid trihydrate present in stratospheric clouds
 
C) In other parts of stratosphere NO2, CH4 ..... are present which acts as natural sink for ClO and Cl
D) In Antartica region U.V light entering is greater due to earth’s axis of rotation
E) Both A and B
103. An ester (A) with molecular formula C9H10O2 was treated with excess CH3MgBr and the compound so
formed was treated with conc. H2SO4 to get an alkene(B). Ozonolysis of B gave ketone with formula
C8H8O which answer iodoform test. Structure of A can be :
A) C6H5COOC2H5 B) CH3OCH2COC6H5
C) CH3CO - C6H5 - COCH3 D) C6H5COOC6H5
CH3
OH
E)
H3C
CH3

104. Product formed when cyclohexanone is heated with conc. NaOH is :
OH O
A) B)
O OH
O
C) D) E)
O OH
105. The compound that would not give ppt with AgNO3 is :
A) CH3CH = CHCl B) CH2 = CH - CH2Cl
C) CH2Cl D) (CH3)3CCl
CH CH3
E)
Cl
106. Addition product of HBr with styrene in the absence of peroxide is X and in the presence of the peroxide
is Y. X and Y are respectively :
A) 1 - Bromo - 2 - phenyl ethane & 1 - Bromo - 1 - phenyl ethane
B) 1 - Bromo - 1 - phenyl ethane & 1 - Bromo - 2 - phenyl ethane
C) Benzyl bromide & 1 - Bromo - 2 - phenyl ethane
D) 1 - Bromo - 2 - phenyl ethane & Benzyl bromide
E) p - Bromophenyl ethylene & Benzyl bromide

107. Orlon is a polymer of :
A) CF2 = CF2
B) CH2 = CH - CN
C) H2N - (CH2)6 - NH2 & HOOC- (CH2)4 -COOH
CH CH2
D) & CH2 = CH - CH = CH2
CH3
E)
CH2 C COOCH3
108. The solubility of Fe(OH)3 is x mol L–1. Its Ksp would be :

A) 9x3 B) 9x4 C) 27 x4 D) 108 x5 E) 3x4
109. 500mL of gas A at 1000 torr and 1000mL of gas at 800 torr are placed in an empty container of 2L
capacity. The pressure in the container would be :
A) 100 torr
B) 2400 torr
C) 650 torr
D) 1800 torr
E) 1300 torr
110. Which of the following willn’t undergo Hell-VolhardZelinsky(HVZ) reaction?
A) HCOOH
B) CH3COOH
C) CH3CH2COOH
D) CH3CH(Br)COOH
E) All the above

111. Match suitably
List - I List - II
(Mineral) (Formula)
1. Bauxite a) AlPO4.(Al(OH)3.H2O
2. Diaspore b) 3NaF.AlF3
3. Gibbsite c) Al2O3.H2O
4. Cryolite d) Al 2O 3 .3H 2O
5. Turquoise e) AlOx(OH)3 – 2x
f) Ca 2  AlO 2 4 SiO 2 8 H 2O 
1 2 3 4 5
A) e c d b a
B) e c d b f
C) e c d f a
D) e d c f a
E) a b c d f
112. Which of the following has no 4f7 configuration?

A) Eu 2 B) Tb  C) Gd3
D) Pm3 E) None
113. Which is incorrect?
A) Mercurous ion is diamagnetic
B) MnO2 fused with KOH and KNO2 gives pink coloured KMnO4.
C) (NH4)2Cr2O7 on heating gives a gas which is also gives by heating NH4NO2
D) The pair of compounds having metals in their highest oxidation state is MnO4– and CrO2Cl2.
E) Spin only magnetic moment of Hg Co  SCN 4  is 15

114. Which of the boron compound is optically active?
A) Boron trifluoride B) Boric anhydride
C) Borosalicylic acid D) Sodium tetraborate
E) Boracic acid
115. Which of the following molecules is expected to rotate the plane of plane polarised light?
CHO
HO H
A) B)
SH
CH2OH
COOH H2N NH2
H H
C) H2N H D)
Ph Ph
E) All these
116. Which is incorrectly paired?
A) Lowest and Highest electronegativity  Cs, F
B) Electronegativity approximately same  C, S, I
C) Correct order of Electronegativity  Si < P< C < N
D) Electronegativity order with hybridisation  sp3 < sp2 < sp
E) Correct order of second ionisation enthalpy  F > O > C > N

117. The reagent ‘X’ in the reactions
 CH 3 3 CCH  CH 2 
'X '
THF
 Y 
NaBH
NaOH
4
  CH3 3  C  CH  CH3
|
OH
A) H3O
B) OH 
C) HCOOH
D) (CH3COO)2Hg
E) Glycol
OH ONa
118. + CHCl3  NaOH 

CHO
The electrophile involved in the above reaction is
A) dichloromethylcation CHCl2
B) dichlorocarbene CCl2
C) Trichloromethylanion CCl3
D) Formyl cation CHO
E) CH3

119. Cis-2-butene and trans-2-butene on hydrogenation give butane, and energy variation is shown in the
figure.Thus,
A) cis-2-2butene is more stable than trans-2-butene

B) trans-2-butene is more stable than cis-2-butene
C) both have equal stability the end product being identical
D) stability cannot be decided by heat of hydrogenation
E) None of these
120. Certain organic reactions don’t involve ionic or free radical intermediates and occur in single step with
breaking & making of bonds. These reactions are collectively called
A) Pericyclic B) rearrangement
C) condensation D) elimination
E) substitution

Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
VERS ION
E1
Name ................................................
PA L A
Batch.................... Roll No. ...............
20 - 04 - 2019 KERALA ENGG. MODEL - ALL UNITS
FT19P/PARER I/MOD/[E1] Physics + Chemistry - Key with Hints 771
F F P F P
1. C P  2 ;  2  4%  2  2%  8%
A  P F 
2. A
Vmax V 1 1 t1  2 T a  a2 T aa
a1 = a 2  max ;    ie. 1   Vmax  T. 1 2
t1 ; t2 a1 a 2 Vmax Vmax ; a 1a 2 Vmax a1  a 2
1 FG IJ
a 1a 2 T 2
Distance travelled = Area =
2
T. Vmax ; =
H K
a1  a 2 2
3. B
1 5
Distance moved by the boat (b) = Vt = 5   km ;
4 4
25 3
Distance moved by the boat down the river c = b2  a 2   1  km
16 4
3 4
Velocity of river =   3km / s
4 1
T 4T 4T
4. A T = m(g+a) = 2000  11  22000N ; B. S   ; 2 =
A D 2 D BS  
4  22000  7
D2   10 4 m ;  D  10 2 m  1cm
2.8  10 8  22
5. E P = FV FS1/ 3 ; F  maS1/ 3 ; ie, aS1/ 3 ;
dv dv dv
a   ;
dt ds ds
 ads  vd ; or
z

3
2
z
S1/ 3 ds  vdv V 2  S2 / 3
; V  S1/ 3 ; P = FV  S1/ 3 S1/ 3  S0
1 1 1 1 2 v2 7
6. C mv 2  I 2  mgh ; mv 2  . mr 2 . 2  mgh ; mv 2  mgh
2 2 2 2 5 r 10
10 10  10 .8
v2  gh; v   3.5m / s
7 7
420
7. B Torque  I, I  mr 2 ;  22  12  2 ; 1   2  14  ;   14  2   28
60
14 22
0  (14  )2  2 28 ; 14  4,      11rads 2 ;
4 7
   mr 2   1000  1  11  11000N  m
d2x
8. C t = x – 75 ; x = t + 75 ; a 
3 3
2
 6 t  24m / s 2 ;  F  ma  6  24  144N
dt
V 2 sin 2  V 2 cos 2 
9. C h1  h
; 2 
2g 2g
40  4  60  2
10. C For perfectly inelastic collision e = 0;  v1  v 2  v ;  v   2.8m / s
40  60
Loss of KE =
1
2
1 1
40  4 2  60  2 2  40  60 2.82 = 48J
2 2
b g
R T ;
3 R 2

T FG IJ 2/3
R

FG
27Te IJ 2/3
9
11. B
Re Te H K ;
Re H
Te K
12. C The resultant amplitude of Ist and 3rd wave = 10 – 7 = 3m
This wave has a phase difference of  / 2 with second wave. Hence resultant amplitude
a  32  4 2  5m
2 gh 2 2  2.88  10 5
13. B   2gh     24ms 1
p  10 3
2T
14. D Pin = Pout + p = P0 + h  g +
r
100   K C A(  0) 1(100  ) 3

15. E K BA  ; 
2 ; 200  2  3 ;   40 C
0
dB dC 1
16. B Q  u  W ; 100 = u  60 ;  u  40 J ; u is same for both

Q  40  20  60 J
e GM 1 2GM GM 1 2GM
17. C 0  ie.,  ;  ;h  R
2 Rh 2 R Rh 4 R
18. B Beat frequency 4; Period = 1/4 S. ; Interval bet. a max. and next min. = 1/8S.
3
19. A For the closed pipe in the first overtone c  4
c
3 3 3  1
For 3rd harmonic or 2nd overtone of openpipe 0  2 ; but  e   0 ;  4  2 or   2
c
0 c 0 0
20. C Total binding energy of C12  12  7  7.68  92.16

Total binding energy of C13 = 13  7.47  97.11MeV
Energy required = 9711 .  9216
.  4.95MeV

21. A P  2mkE
1 2 1 1 2 1 1 1 7
22. C KE = I  mV 2   mr 2 2  mV 2  mV 2  mV 2  mV 2
2 2 2 5 2 5 2 10
23. A
V V V 
24. A   AT ; T since mass remains constant 
V T V V 
25. A
12 x600
26. D n1  1 = n2  2 , n2 =  18
400
27. D Mass of water striking per minute m = v  0.6 103  600kg
Momentum of water before striking the wall = mv = 600 × 25
Momentum after striking = 0
Change in momentum 600  25
 Force    250N
time taken 60
1 1 1 1  2 
28. A   0 t  t 2 , 1   22  2, 1  2  x42  8  4 , 2  4 1  3
2 2 2 1 1
1.5x10
29. B Force = rate of change of momentum =  3000N , Work done = f x s = 3000S
.005
1 1.5x10x10 1
Work done = change in K.E. , 3000S = (1.5)x102 , S =   2.5cm
2 2x3000 40
V 0.1 P V V
30. A  ,k  P=k hpg = k ,
V 100 V / V V V
 V 
k 
h =  V   9 10  .1  90m
8
pg 10 1000 100
m m m2 3 m2 8
31. E T = 2 2  2 and 3  2 or  m=  1.6Kg
k k k 2 m 5
4
G R 3 3g 3g 
32. B g = Gm  3 4
 GR ,   , /  
R 2
R 2
3 4GR 4G5R 5
T2 300 1   800
33. E   1  1   Q    1600J
T1 600 2 Q  1/ 2
L L .001
34. C = 0.10% = 0.001 and  T = 1000 C   T    105 / 0 C
L L 100
V
  3  3x105 / 0 C   T  3 105  100  3  103  .30%
V
35. E
36. C
 2  02
37. C   0  t,    ,    800  400rev.
8 2
38. B
39. C Output power = 140 watt
Input power = 240×0.7 = 168 wattt
output power
Efficiency   100 = 140 100  83.3%
input power 168
40. C
4 4
41. D As R 3  n  r 3  R  n1/3 r
3 3
nq nq
New potential V  4 R  4  n1/3 r  ;
0 0
q
n 2/3  n 2/3 V
40 r
 0 I
42. C Magnetic field induction at O due to current through ACB is B1 
4 r
It is acting perpendicular to the paper downwards. Magnetic field induction at O due to current
0 I
through ADB is B2   2   
4 r
It is acting perpendicular to paper upwards
 Total magnetic field at O due to current loop is
0 I  I  I
B  B2  B1   2     0  = 0      ; acting perpendicular to paper upwards
4 r 4 r 2 r
43. D K.E. gained by charged particle of charge q when accelerated under a potential difference V will be
E k  qV
For a given V, E k q . For proton, deuteron and  -particle, the ratio of charges is 1:1:2
44. B
45. B Here, R 27  1,   0.001250 C 1 ; R t  2, t  ? R t  R 0 1  t 
where R t , R 0 is the resistance at 00 C and t 0 C respectively
1  R 0 1  0.00125  27  ; 2  R 0 1  00125  t 
2 R 0 1  00125  t 
Divide (ii) by (i), we get; I  R 1  00125  27
0 
1.0675
2  0.0675  1  0.00125t  t  0.00125  854 C  t  1127K
0
Vp 150  100

46. D rp    11.1k
I p   7.5  103
12
47. A
V 20 R V I 1 0.5
48. A r   8ohm ;      1/ 4
I 2.5 R V I 20 2.5
R  8  1 / 4  2 ohm ; R  (8  2)ohm
49. D
V1  VD VD  V2
50. B q= 
C1 C2
18
51. A R eff  6 ; I =  3A
6
52. B
V 15  r2 r3  r1r4  1
I = R  3  5A ; VA  VB  I  r  r  r  r  ; V = C  VA  VB 
2
eff  1 2 3 4 2
10 10
53. E I 2  5  10; I 2  ; I  4   4  8 cal / sec
2
5 5
54. D
55. D
56. D
57. A
f1 
FG v  v IJ f ; f  FG v  v IJ f ; f  f
 
58. B
H v K 2
H v K 1 2  10
59. D P  AT4 ; A  r 2  P  r 2T4 ; P /  (2 r)2 (2T)4 ; P1  64 P
1 30
60. C m  f / f  u ; ie.   ; ie. u = –90 cm
4 30  u
61. B d  2 i  A ie., d = 120 – 60 = 60
0
62. D M  m0  me
R1 1 x 20 4 x 
63. A  where   (100   ) cm;  ;  ; ie   50cm
R 2 2 2 1 y 80 y 100  
D d 4  103  0.1103
64. D Fringe width   ,D  ; D  =1m
d  4  107
65. B I C  I B  0.8  6mA  4.8mA
66. D
67. A
68. B
69. D
mg
70. D E
q
71. E
72. C
73. E
74. A Acidity of oxides increases with decrease in electropositive character of central atom.
75. E
76. B Electron affinity is the energy change, when an electron is added when O- changes into O2-, the
electron affinity is positive, ie, change is endothermic. The reason is that O- repels the incoming
electron due to similar charge , hence it needs energy to accept the electron. Hence, electron affinity
is positive.
h h 1 p2
77. B   , K.E  mv 2 
mv p 2 2m
2
h
  h 1 KE 2 1 
 K.E      ,  2 or  2  1
2m 2m K.E  2 KE1  2 2
0.693 2.303 100

78. C k1   0.1 ; k1  log
6.93 t 100  x 
2.303 100 2.303 2.303
0.1  log ; t log10 2   2  46.06 min
t 1 k 0.1
79. D
80. B The balanced equation is
2MnO4- 5C2O42-16H+ 2Mn2+ 10CO2 8H2O
Now, 5 moles of oxalic acid (H2C2O4.2H2O) require KMnO4 = 2 mol
126 2
 126 g ie, mol of oxalic acid require KMnO 4   0.4mol
126 5
81. C Only pure Ag from the anode is oxidised, which in turn is deposited at the cathode. By Faraday’s
108
first law, Ag deposited at cathode w= zit   5  2  3600  40.29g
1 96500
100
but anode, is 95% pure w.r.t Ag, hence actual loss is  40.29   42.41g
95
Weight of Ag- anode after electrolysis  100  42.41  57.59g
82. B
83. A
84. D Most stable due to chelation
1.4 N1  V1 1.4  1  200
85. C 1% of N =   46.67
W 0.6
86. C C s   2H 2 g   CH 4 g  , H  75.83kJ
2 mole 1mole
R  8.3  103 kJK 1mol1 , T  300K

H  E  nRT ; E  73.34kJ
87. A 3B2 H 6  6NH 3  3  BH 2  NH 3  2   BH 4  
450K
 2B3 N 3 H 6  12H 2
88. B
89. A
90. B
1000
91. E One molal aq. soln. contains 1 mole of the solute in 1000 g of H 2 O . ie,  55.55 ,moles of
18
H 2 O .; Hence, mole fraction = 1(1 + 55.55) = 0.018
92. A
93. D
94. E
95. D Clearly the dark brown compound mentioned is brown ring complex
Mg 
50KJ
30.83KJ
 Mg  
19.17KJ
Mg 2
96. A 0.0417 mol 19.17
1450
97. A Description clearly shows the salt should be NH4NO3

98. B po  p  0.05 ; po  1.25  0.05
po  p
 xB
po
99. E Cell constant = R. K
100. C
101. C  hydrogen on C1 is more acidic. In alkyl fluoride Hofmann elimination product dominates over
saytzeff product.
102. C
OH
103. A C6 H 5 COOC2 H5 

CH3 MgBr
 C6H5 C CH3
CH3
104. D Aldol condensation

105. A In vinylic chloride chlorine attached to sp2 carbon. Hence it is inert.
HBr CH CH3
CH CH2
Br
106. B HBr/peroxide
CH2 CH2Br
107. B Orlonis polyacrylonitrile

108. C x × (3x)3 = 27x4
109. C P1V1 + P2V2 = PV ; 1000 × 0.5 + 800 × 1 = P × 2

110. A HCOOH doesn’t have any -hydrogen atom.
111. A
112. D
113. B Purple green K2MnO4
114. C
115. A The compound doesn’t have a plane of symmetry.
116. E IE 2 :O  F  N  C
117. D Oxymercuration-demercuration
 CH COO  Hg
 CH3 3 CCH  CH 2  3
THF
2
  CH 3 3 C  CH  CH 2 
NaBH 4
NaOH
  CH 3 3 C  CH  CH 3
| | |
OH HgOOC.CH 3 OH
3,3-dimethy-butan-2-ol
118. B Reimer-Tieman reaction
CHCl3  OH   CCl3  H 2O ; CCl3  : CCl2  Cl
119. B
120. A

E1 Paper I

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KERALA ENGG.

MODEL Brilliant STUDY CENTRE, PALA

PAPER - I PHYSICS & CHEMISTRY

Name of the Candidate :

Signature of the Candidate : Roll No.

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATE

IMMEDIATELY AFTER OPENING THE QUESTION BOOKLET, THE CANDIDATE

PLEASE DO NOT OPEN THE SEAL UNTILTHE INVIGILATOR ASKS YOU TO DO SO

 a1a 2  T 2  a1  a 2  T 2  a1a 2   a1a 2  2  a1  a 2  2

A) 1 km/h B) 3 km/h C) 5km/h D) 41km / h E) 4 km/h

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PAPER - I (E1)P 3 BRILLIANT STUDY CENTRE PALA

A) sin 2  B) cos 2  C) tan 2  D) cot 2  E) 1

A) 392 J B) 440 J C) 48 J D) 110 J E) 220 J

A) 12ms–1 B) 24 ms–1 C) 144 ms–1 D) 14ms–1 E) 6ms–1

A) 0.03 Pa B) 1.03 Pa C) 1.3 Pa

A) 800 B) 700C C) 600C D) 550C E) 400C

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PAPER - I (E1)P 4 BRILLIANT STUDY CENTRE PALA

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PAPER - I (E1)P 5 BRILLIANT STUDY CENTRE PALA

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PAPER - I (E1)P 6 BRILLIANT STUDY CENTRE PALA

PAPER - I (E1)P 7 BRILLIANT STUDY CENTRE PALA

PAPER - I (E1)P 8 BRILLIANT STUDY CENTRE PALA

V1  V2 C1V2  C2 V1 C1V1  C 2 V2 C2 V1  C1V2 C1C 2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PAPER - I (E1)P 9 BRILLIANT STUDY CENTRE PALA

A) 1A from A to B B) Zero C) 1A from B to A

A) 4 cal/s B) 1 cal/s C) 2 cal/s D) 3 cal/s E) 8 cal/s

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PAPER - I (E1)P 10 BRILLIANT STUDY CENTRE PALA

A) both B1 and B2 die out promptly

A) 0.8A B) 0.3A C) 0.5A D) 1A E) 1.5A

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PAPER - I (E1)P 11 BRILLIANT STUDY CENTRE PALA

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PAPER - I (E1)P 12 BRILLIANT STUDY CENTRE PALA

A) NOR gate B) OR gate C) AND gate D) NAND gate E) XOR gate

69. Binding energy per nucleon is maximum in:

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PAPER - I (E1)P 13 BRILLIANT STUDY CENTRE PALA

74. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature ?

A) 0.2 B) 0.4 C) 0.6 D) 1.0 E) 2

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PAPER - I (E1)P 14 BRILLIANT STUDY CENTRE PALA

A) –78.32 kJ B) 73.34 kJ C) –73.34 kJ D) –68.36 kJ E) 78.32 kJ

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PAPER - I (E1)P 15 BRILLIANT STUDY CENTRE PALA

B) CH3 CH CH CH3 ; 3- methyl-2-butanol

C) CH3 CH2 C CH CH3 ; 2-ethyl-3-methylbut-1-ene

D) CH3 C C CH(CH3)2 ; 4-methyl-2-pentyne

PAPER - I (E1)P 16 BRILLIANT STUDY CENTRE PALA

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PAPER - I (E1)P 17 BRILLIANT STUDY CENTRE PALA

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PAPER - I (E1)P 18 BRILLIANT STUDY CENTRE PALA

A) CH3CH = CHCl B) CH2 = CH - CH2Cl

A) 1 - Bromo - 2 - phenyl ethane & 1 - Bromo - 1 - phenyl ethane

B) 1 - Bromo - 1 - phenyl ethane & 1 - Bromo - 2 - phenyl ethane

C) Benzyl bromide & 1 - Bromo - 2 - phenyl ethane

D) 1 - Bromo - 2 - phenyl ethane & Benzyl bromide

E) p - Bromophenyl ethylene & Benzyl bromide