ALL INDIA TEST SERIES (MIN TEST - 1st, AIIMS) : 15.08.

2016
[Time : 3 ½ Hours] Full Marks : 200

01. If L and C den ote the indu ctan ce and    

capacitance respectively, the dimensional 07. Given that A  B  C and that C is  to 
A.
formula for (CL)2 is  
(1) [M0L0T2I0] (2) [M0L0T3I0] Further if A  C , then what is the angle

(3) [M–1L–2T6I4] (4) [M0L0T4I0]

 
02. In an experiment the angles are required to be between B and C
measured using an instrument. 49 divisions of
the main scale exactly conicide with the 50 3 2 4 
divisions of the vernier scale. If the smallest (1) rad (2) rad (3) rad (4) rad
4 3 5 4
division of the main scale is one fourth-a-degree
(= 0.25º) then the least count of the instrument 08. A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a)
is versus time (t) is as shown in the figure. The
maximum speed of the particle will be
(1) 18 sec. (2) 15 sec. (3) 24 sec. (4) 12 sec. a
(1) 80 m/s
03. If pressure (P), acceleration (A) and density (D)
are taken as fundamental physical quantities, (2) 40 m/s 12
the dimensional formula of angular momentum (3) 90 m/s m/s2
is
(4) 180 m/s t(s)
(1) [P7/2 A–3 D5/2] (2) [P9/2 A–4 D–7/2] 15
09. A particle of mass m moves on the x-axis as
(3) [P5/2 A–5 D–9/2] (4) [P–6 A–11/3 D5/3]
follows : it starts from rest at t = 0 from the point
04. The random error in the arithmetic mean of 200 x = 0, and comes to rest at t = 2 at the point x = 2.
observations is x; then random error in the No other information is available about its motion
arithmetic mean of 1600 observations would be at intermediate times (0 < t < 2). If  denotes
x x the instantaneous acceleration of the particle,
(1) 8x (2) 2 2 x (3) (4) then wrong statement is :
8 2 2
05. A physical quantity A is related to fo ur (1)  cannot remain positive for all t in the
a 3b4 interval 0  t  2
observations a, b, c and d as follows, A  2 .
c d (2) must change sign during the motion but
no other assertion can be made with the
The percentage error of measurement in a,b,c
information given.
and d are 1% ,3% , 2% and 2% respectively. What
is the percentage error in the quantity A (3) || must be  2 at some point or points in
(1) 20% (2) 17% (3) 23% (4) 13% its path
06. A man crosses a 480 m wide river perpendicular (4) None of these
to the current in 8 minutes. If in still water he can 10. For a particle moving along a straight line, its
velocity ‘v’ and displacement ‘s’ are related as
5
swim with a speed times that of the current, v2 = 4cs here c is a constant. If the displacement
4 of the particle at t = 0 is zero, its velocity after 4
then the speed of the current, in m/min is seconds is :
(1) 70 (2) 90 (3) 50 (4) 80 (1) 4c (2) 8c (3) 16c (4) 2c

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11. The displacement x of a particle varies with time 16. A particle moves a distance x in time t according
t as x  ae – be t  t , where a, b  and  are 1
positive constants. to equation x= . The acceleration of
2t  3
The velocity of the particle will particle is :
(1) go on decreasing with time
(1) 4 2 (velocity)3/2 (2) 2 2 (velocity)3/2
(2) go on increasing with time
(3) drop to zero when  =  (3) 8 2 (velocity)3/2 (4) 2 (velocity)3/2
(4) first decreases then increases with time
17. A particle moving with a uniform acceleration
12. Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a along a straight line covers distance a and b in
ground where AB = 50 m. The boy at B starts successive intervals of p and q second. The
running in a direction perpendicular to AB with acceleration of the particle is :
velocity 12. The boy at A starts running
simultaneously with velocity 13 and catches the 2(bp  aq) 2(bp  aq)
other boy in a time t, where t is : (1) pq(p  q) (2) pq(p  q)

(1) 10 sec. (2) 5 2 sec.

2(aq  bp) bp  2aq
(3) 20 sec. (4) 10 2 sec . (3) pq(p  q) (4) pq(p  q)

13. A body is thrown up in a lift with a velocity u 18. A particle moves along the positive branch of the
relative to the lift and the time of flight is found
to be t. The acceleration with which the lift is x2 t2
curve y= where x= , where x and y are
moving down is 4 4
measured in metre and t in second. At t = 8 sec,
2u  gt 2u  gt u  gt u  gt
(1) (2) (3) (4) the velocity of the particle is :
t t 2t 2t
   
14. A projectile is projected from ground with initial (1) (2 i  2 j)m/s (2) (4 i  8 j)m/s
  
velocity u  u0 i  v0 j . If acceleration due to
   
gravity (g) is along the negative y-direction then (3) (4 i  16 j)m/s (4) (4 i  32 j)m/s
find maximum displacement in x-direction.
19. A rigid rod is placed against the wall as shown
u0 v0 4u0 v 0 in figure. When its velocity of lower end is 9 ms–1,
(1) 2g (2) and its base makes an angle  = 30° with
g
horizontal, then the vertical velocity of its end B
2u0 v 0 u0 v 0 will be (in m/s) :
(3) (4) B
g 4g
15. A particle starting from the point (1, 2) moves in
a straight line in the (X, Y) plane. Its coordinates
at a later time are (3, 4). The path of the particle
VB = ? VA = 9 ms–1
makes with the X-axis an angle of :

1  2  1  1  
(1) tan   (2) tan   A
3 2
(1) 9 3 m/s (2) 3 3 m/s
1  1 
(3) 45° (4) tan  
6 (3) 6 3 m/s (4) 12 3 m/s

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20. The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A 24. A ball is projected with a velocity 60 3 m/s at
Λ Λ
is (3 i  4 j) m/s. It’s velocity (in m/s) at point B angle 60° to the horizontal. The time interval
after which the velocity vector will make an
is :
angle 30° to the horizontal is :
y (take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 4 sec. (2) 6 sec. (3) 8 sec. (4) 3 sec.
25. The initial velocity of a particle of mass 4 kg is
B x   
A (2 3 i  2 j) m/s. A constant force of 48 j N is
    applied on the particle. Initially the particle was
(1) (3 i  4 j) (2) (3 i  4 j)
at (0, 0). Find the x-coordinates of the point where
   
its y-coordinate is again zero.
(3) (3 i  4 j) (4) (3 i  4 j)
4 2
21. Figures (1) and (2) show the displacement-time (1) 2 3 m (2) m (3) 3m (4) m
3 3
graphs of two particles moving along the x-axis.
We can say that : 26. A ball is projected horizontally from the top of a
x x tower with a velocity u. It will be moving at an
angle of 30° with the horizontal after time.

u 3u 2u u
(1) 2g (2) (3) (4)
2g 3g 3g
t t 27. A car when passes through a convex bridge
Fig. (1) Fig. (2)
(1) both the particles are having an uniformly exerts a force on it which is equal to :
accelerated motion
Mv2 Mv2
(2) both the particles are having an uniformly (1) Mg  (2)
retarded motion r r
(3) particle ( 1) i s havin g an uni formly
accelerated motion while particle (2) is Mv2
(3) Mg – (4) None of these
having an uniformly retarded motion r
(4) particle (1) is having an uniformly retarded 28. A bucket full of water is rotated in a vertical circle
motion while particle (2) is having an of radius R. If the water does not split out, the
uniformly accelerated motion. speed of the bucket at topmost point will be :
22. A particle is projected from the ground at an angle
of  with the horizontal with an initial speed of (1) Rg (2) 5gR (3) 2Rg (4) 3Rg
u. Time after which velocity vector of the 29. In the shown arrangement mass of A = 1 kg,
projectile is perpendicular to the initial velocity
mass of B = 2 kg. Coefficient of friction between
u u A and B = 0.3
(1) g sin  (2) g cos 
A
B F = 12 N
u u
(3) 2g sin  (4) 2g cos 
There is no friction between B and ground. The
23. A projectile is thrown with a velocity of 30 m/s frictional force exerted by A of B equals.
at an angle of 60° with horizontal. The interval (g = 10 m/s2)
between the moments when speed is 25 m/s is
(g = 10 m/s2). 8
(1) 4 N (2) 2 N (3) 3 N (4) N
(1) 2 sec. (2) 6 sec. (3) 4 sec. (4) 3 sec. 3

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30. Find the force exerted by 10 kg block on floor of
lift, as shown in figure. (Take g = 10 m/s2)
v0

2
10 m/s

5 kg
10 kg
60°
(1) 250 N (2) 300 N (3) 225 N (4) 200 N (1) continue of move down the plane with
constant velocity v0
31. There is no slipping between the two blocks.
What is force of friction between two blocks ? (2) accelerate downward
2 kg (3) decelerate and come to rest
(4) first accelerate downward then decelerate
3 kg F = 20 N
35. A block of mass m, lying on a rough horizontal
Smooth plane, is acted upon by a horizontal force P and
(1) zero (2) 8 N (3) 12 N (4) 6 N another force Q, inclined at an angle  to the
32. Two masses are connected by a string which vertical upwards. The block will remain in
passes over a pulley accelerating upwards at rate equilibrium, if minimum coefficient of friction
between it and the surface is :
A as shown. If a1 and a2 be the acceleration of
bodies 1 and 2 respectively, then : P  Qsin  P  Q cos 
(1) mg  Q cos  (2) mg  Q sin 
A
P  Qsin  P s in   Q
(3) mg  Qcos  (4) mg  Q cos 

a1 36. Three blocks are placed at rest on a smooth

inclined plane with force acting on m1 parallel
a2 to the inclined plane. Find the contact force
1 between m1 and m2.
m1F
2 (1) m  m  m
a1  a 2 1 2 3

3
(1) (2) a1 – a2 m
2

2
m1F sin  m
(2) m  m  m

1
m
a1  a 2 1 2 3
(3) a1 + a2 (4) 
2 (m2  m3 )F F
(3) m  m  m
33. The breaking strength of the cable used to pull 1 2 3

a body is 120 N. A body of mass 12 kg is resting

m1m2g sin 
on a table of coefficient of friction  = 0.4. The (4) F  m  m  m
maximum acceleration which can be produced 1 2 3

by the cable is (Take g = 10 ms–2) 37. Four forces act on a point object. The object will
be in equilibrium, choose wrong statement :
(1) 6 m/s2 (2) 4.8 m/s2
(1) all of them are in the same plane
(3) 5.6 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2 (2) they are opposite to each other in pairs
34. A block of mass m is given an initial downward (3) the sum of x, y and z components of forces is
velocity v 0 and left on an inclined plane zero separately
(coefficient of friction = 0.8). The block will : (4) they from a closed figure of 4 sides when added
as per polygon law

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38. If the coefficient of friction between A and B is , (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
the maximum acceleration of the wedge A for the Reason is the correct explanation of the
which B will remain at rest with respect to the Assertion
wedge is : (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
the Reason is not the correct explanation of
the Assertion
B
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
A (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
41. Assertion : The error in the measurement of
a radius of the sphere is 0.2% . The
60° permissible error in its surface
area is 0.8% .
Reason : The permissible error is calculated
3 3  2
(1) (2) A r
3 3  2 by the formula 4 .
A r
2  3 3 42. Assertion : Spe cifi c gravity of a fluid is
(3) (4) dimensionless quantity.
2  3 1  3
Reason : It is the ratio of density of fluid to
39. When a force F acts on a body of mass m, the the density of water.
acceleration produced in the body is a. If three
43. Assertion : Density is a derived physical
equal forces F1 = F2 = F3 = F act on the same
quantity.
body as shown in figure. The acceleration
produced is : Reason : Density cannot be derived from
F2 th e fu ndamen tal ph ysical
(1) 3 2 a quantities.
44. Assertion : Two students measure the length
of a rod as 4.2 m and 4.20 m
(2) 3 2 a 210° 90° respectivel y. Both the
m F1
measurements have same degree
(3) 1 3 2 a of precision.
F3 Reason : All trailing zeros at the end of a
(4) 3 2 1 a number are always meaningless.
45. Assertion : For an observer looking out through
40. A mass is hanging on a spring balance which is
the window of a fast moving train,
kept in a lift. The lift ascends with increasing
the nearby objects appear to move
speed. The spring balance will show in its
in the opposite direction while the
reading
di stan t objects appear to be
(1) increase stationary.
(2) decrease Reason : If the observer and the object are
(3) no change  
moving at velocities v 1 and v 2
(4) change will depend upon velocity
respectively with reference to a
Direction for Q. 41 to Q. 60 In each of the laboratory frame, the velocity of
following questions a statement of Assertion is
the object with respect to the
given followed by a corresponding statement of
Reason just below it. Of the statements mark  
the correct answer as observer is v 2  v 1 .

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46. Assertion : The slope of displacement-time
graph of an object moving with high
velocity is steeper than the slope
of displacement-time graph of an
object having small velocity.
Reason : Slope of displacement-time graph
gives the velocity of a particle.
47. Assertion : It is observed that relative velocity
between two given objects in
motion is equal to the sum of the
velocities of the given objects.
Reason : So me ti me s, rel ative ve lo ci ty
between two objects may be equal
to the difference in velocities of
two objects.
48. Assertion : An objects may have a finite value
of acceleration even when its
velocity is zero at a given instant
of time.
Reason : An object is momentarily at rest
when it reverses its direction of
motion.
49. Assertion : If dot product as well as cross
 
product of A and B are zero, it
implies that one of the vectors
 
A and B must be a null vector.
Reason : Null vector is a vector with zero
magnitude.
50. Assertion : Tw o objects start fro m re st
simultaneously and proceed with
same acceleration so as to move in
a plane. The relative velocity of
these objects will be zero throughout
their motion.
Reason : At every instant, the two objects
wi ll h ave e xactly th e same
velocity.
51. Assertion : Generally, path of a projectile from
the Earth is parabolic but it is
elliptical for a projectile going to a
very large height.
Reason : Th e path o f a pro je ctil e is
independent of the gravitational
force of the Earth.
52. Assertion : A cloth covers a table. Some dishes
are kept on it. The cloth can be
pulled out without dislodging the
dishes from the table.
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Reason : For every action, there is an equal
and opposite reaction.
53. Assertion : Banking of a curved road reduces
the wear and tear of tyres of
vehicles turning on the curved
road.
Reason : A component of normal reaction of
ground on moving vehicle provides
the requisite centripetal force to
it, which was otherwise being
provided by the force of friction.
54. Assertion : It is difficult to walk on a slippery
road.
Reason : When we walk, friction on us
always acts in backward direction.
55. Assertion : An athlete runs a certain distance
before taking a long jump.
Reason : The velocity acquired during an
athlete’s run gets added into his
velocity of jump which results in a
longer jump.
56. Assertion : The acceleration of a body down a
rough inclined plane is greater
than th e acceleration due to
gravity.
Reason : The body is able to slide on an
incline d plane o nly w hen its
acce le rati on i s greate r th an
acceleration due to gravity.
57. Assertion : A safe turn by a cyclist should
neither be fast nor sharp.
Reason : Th e be nding ang le from the
ve rti cal wo uld de cre ase wi th
increase in velocity.
58. Assertion : It is easier to pull a heavy object
than to push it on a level ground.
Reason : The magnitude of frictional force
depends on the nature of the two
surfaces in contact.
59. Assertion : A horse has to apply more force to
start a cart than to keep it moving.
Reason : The coefficient of static friction is
greater than the coefficient of
kinetic friction.
60. Assertion : Static friction is self adjusting
force.
Reason : The magnitude of static friction is
less than the applied force.
AITS - 2016 - 17 - AIIMS - 1- TEST - 01 - 6
61. Rearrange the following (I to IV) in the order of 67. Ionization energy for hydrogen atom in ergs.
increasing masses. Joules and ‘eV’ respectively is.
I. 0.5 mole of O3 (1) 21.8 × 10–12 , 218 × 10–20, 13.6
II. 0.5 gm atom of oxygen (2) 13.6 , 218 × 10–20, 21.8 × 10–13
III. 3.011 × 1023 molecules of O2 (3) 21.8 × 10–20, 13.6 , 21.8 × 10–13
IV. 5.6 litre of CO2 at STP. (4) 21.8 × 10–13, 13.6, 21.8 × 10–20
(1) II < IV < III < I (2) II < I < IV < III 68. Which of the following is correct for following
(3) IV < II < III < I (4) I < II < III < IV statements.
62. An organic compound whose empirical and (1) If electron has zero magnetic number, then
molecular formula are same contains 20% it must be present in s-orbital.
carbon 6.7% hydrogen, 46.7% Nitrogen and rest
(2) In orbital diagram. Pauli’s
oxygen. On heating, it yields ammonia. Leaving
solid residue. The solid residue gives a violet exclusion principle is violated.
colour with dilute solution of alkaline copper (3) Bohr’s model can explain spectrum of the
sulphate. The organic compound is. hydrogen atom.
(1) NH2COONH4 (2) NH2CONH2 (4) A d-orbital can accommodate maximum 10
(3) CH3COONH4 (4) NH2NHCHO electrons only.
63. If 0.30 mole of CaCl2 is mixed with 0.20 mole of 69. The set of quantum numbers n = 3, l = 2, m = 0
Na 3PO 4 the maximum number of moles of (1) Describes an electron in a 2s-orbital
Ca3(PO4)2 which can be formed is (2) is not allowed.
(1) 0.70 (2) 0.50 (3) 0.20 (4) 0.10 (3) Describes an electron in a 3p – orbital.
64. One mole of element ‘X’ has 0.44 times the mass (4) Describes one of the five orbitals of same
of one mole of element Y. One atom of element energy.
X has 2.96 times the mass of one atom of C12 . 70. Arrange in decreasing order, the energy of
What is the atomic weight of Y? 2s-orbital in the following atoms, H, Li, Na, K.
(1) 80 (2) 15.77 (3) 46.67 (4) 40.0 (1) E2S (H) > E2S (Li) > E2S (Na) > E2S (K)
65. According to Bohr’s atomic theory, which of the (2) E2S(H) > E2S (Na) > E2S (Li) > E2S(K)
following is correct? (3) E2S (H) > E2S(Na) = E2S (K) = E2S (Li)
(4) E2S (K) > E2S (Na) > E2S (Li) > E2S (H)
z2
(1) Potential energy of electron  71. Which of the following is characteristics of
n2
x-rays?
(2) The product of velocity of electron and (1) It causes Fluorescence effect on H2S.
2
principle quantum number (n)  z (2) Deflected by electric and magnetic fields
(3) Frequency of revolution of electron in an orbit (3) The radiation can ionise the gas
(4) Have wavelength shorter than ‘  ’ rays.
z2
 72. The position of both an electron and a He-atom
n3
is known within 1.0 nm and the momentum of
(4) Coulombic force of attraction on the electron the electron is known within 50 × 10 –26 kg
ms -1 . The min imum un certain ty in the
z2
 measurement of the momentum of the helium
n2 atom is
66. The correct order of total number of node of (1) 50 kg ms-1
atomic orbitals is. (2) 60kg ms-1
(1) 4f > 6s > 5d (2) 6s > 5d > 4f (3) 80 × 10–26 kg ms-1
(3) 4f > 5d > 6s (4) 5d > 4f > 6s (4) 50 × 10–26 kg ms-1

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73. What is the weight of oxygen that is required for 78. The correct order of decreasing electronegativity
the complete combustion of 2.8 kg of ethylene? val ues amon g th e el emen t I-Bery lliu m,
(1) 9.6 kg (2) 96.0 kg (3) 6.4 kg (4) 2.8 kg II-Oxygen, III-Nitrogen and IV-Magnesium is.
74. Which of the following is correct for number of (1) II > III > I > IV (2) III > IV > II > I
electrons, number of orbital and type of orbitals (3) I > II > III > IV (4) II > III > IV > I
respectively in N-orbit?
79. The correct order of decreasing first ionisation
(1) 4,4 and 8 (2) 4, 8 and 16 potential is.
(3) 32, 16 and 4 (4) 4, 16 and 32 (1) Ca > K > Rb > Cs (2) Cs > Rb > K > Ca
75. The electronic configuration of four elements are (3) Ca > Cs > Rb > K (4) K > Rb > Cs > Ca
I. [Xe]6s1 80. Which of the following sequence is correct for
II. [Xe]4f14, 5d1, 6s2 decreasing order of ionic radius.
III. [Ar] 4s2, 4p5 (1) Se–2 , O–2, I–, F–
IV. [Ar] 3d7, 4s2 (2) I–, Se–2, O–2, Br–, F–

Which one of the following statements about (3) Se–2. I–, Br–, F–, O–2
these elements is not correct.
(4) I–, Se–2, Br–, O–2, F–
(1) The compound formed between I and III is
ionic 81. Co-ordinate bond is absent in
(2) III has high electron affinity (1) BHΘ (2) CO23  (3) H3 O (4) NH4
4
(3) II is a d-block element.
82. Among the compound BF3, NCl3, H2S, SF4, and
(4) IV shows variable oxidation state BeCl2 identify the one in which the central atom
76. In the graph given below, the one which has the same type of hybridisation.
represents an alkali metal with the higher (1) BF3 and NCl3
atomic number is .
(2) H2S and BeCl2
Z (3) BF3, NCl3 and H2S
(4) NCl3 and H2S
First Ionisation

83. The charge/size ratio of a cation determines its

energy

polarizing power. Which one of the following

Y sequences represents the increasing order of the
polarizing power of the cationic species, K+, Ca+2,
Mg+2, Be+2
X L M
(1) Be+2 < K+ < Ca+2 < Mg+2
(2) K+ < Ca+2 < Mg+2 < Be+2
Atomic Number
(3) Ca+2 > Mg+2 < Be+2 < K+
(1) X (2) L (3) M (4) Z
(4) Mg+2 < Be+2 < K+ < Ca+2
77. The electron affinity of halogens are F = 322,
Cl = 349, Br = 324, I = 295 kJ mol–1. The higher 84. The electronic structure of four elements a, b, c
value for ‘Cl’ as compared to that of ‘F’ is due to and d are
(1) weaker electron-electron repulsion in Cl. a =1s2, b = 1s2, 2s2, 2p2, c = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 d
= 1s2, 2s2, 2p6
(2) Higher atomic radius of F.
The tendency to form electrovalent bond is
(3) Smaller electronegativity of F
greatest in.
(4) more vacant p - subshell in Cl.
(2) a (2) b (3) c (4) d

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85. Which of the following configuration shows 91. Covalent molecules are usually held in crystal
second excitation state of iodine. structure by.
(1) (1) Dipole-Dipolec attraction
(2) Electrostatic attraction
(2)
(3) Hydrogen bond
(3) (4) Vander waal’s attraction

(4) 92. Which of the following species are expected to

be planar.
86. Which order of decreasing bond angle is correct.
(a) NH3 (b) NH23  (c) CH3 (d) PCl3
(1) CCl4 > BF3 > NO2
The correct answer is
(2) NH3 > NCl3 > NBr3
(1) b and c (2) c and d
(3) Br2O > Cl2O > OF2
(3) b and d (4) a and d
(4) PCl3 > PBr3 > PI3
93. Which bond is least covalent
87. Which of the following set is not correct
(1) S – F in S F2 (2) S – F in SF4
(1) SO3, O3, NH4 , all have coordinate bond (3) S – F in SF6 (4) S – F in SF8

(2) H2O, NO2, ClO2– , all have V-shape molecules. 94. Which pair in the following has maximum and
minimum ionic character respectively.
(3) I3– ,ICl2– ,NO2 ,all are linear molecules. (1) LiCl, RbCl (2) RbCl, BeCl2

(4) SF4, SiF4, XeF4, are tetrahedral in shape (3) BeCl2, RbCl (4) AgCl, RbCl

88. Which of the following order of polar molecules 95.

I
Process Na e  Na  g  e 
II
 Na s 
is correct.
(1) HF > NH3 > PH3 (1) In I energy released, II energy absorbed
(2) CH4 > NH3 > H2O (2) In both I and II energy is absorbed.
(3) CH3Cl < CH2Cl2 < CHCl3 (3) In both I and II energy is released.
(4) BF3 > BeF2 > F2 (4) In I energy absorbed, II energy released.
89. Incorrect order of viscosity. 96. If the difference in atomic size of
(1) H2SO4 > HNO3 Na – Li = X, Rb – K = Y, Fr – Cs = Z
(2) H2O > CH3OH Then correct order will be
(3) O-nitrophenol > P-nitrophenol (1) X = Y = Z (2) X > Y > Z
(4) Glycol > ether (3) X < Y < Z (4) X < Y << Z
90. In which of the following set, the value of bond 97. Among the following the one which is not in
order will be 2.5. “green house gas” –
(1) O2 , NO, NO+2, CN (1) N2O (2) CO2 (3) CH4 (4) O2
(2) CN, NO+2, CN–, F2 98. Photochemical smog is due to the presence of .
(1) Oxides of sulphur
(3) O2 , NO+2, O22 , CN–
(2) Oxides of nitrogen
(4) O22 , O2 , O2 , O2 (3) Oxides of carbon
(4) Chlorofluorocarbons.

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99. The brown haze of photochemical somg is largely 105. Assertion : IE2 of ‘C’ is greater than that of B.
attributable to. Reason : Due to penetration effect
(1) NO
106. Assertion : Both NO3– and CO23  io ns are
(2) NO2
triangular planar
(3) CH 3 – COONO 2 Reason : Hybridisation of central atom in
O both NO3 and CO23  is sp2
(4) CH2 = CH – CH = O
107. Assertion : Bond order in a molecules can
100. The water pollutants mainly responsible for assume any valu e po siti ve,
eutrophication are. in tegral o r fracti onal val ue
(1) Cd, Pb and Hg Present in industrial waste. including zero.
(2) heavy metals present in mining waste. Reason : It depends on number of electrons
(3) Deterge nts and fertilisers containi ng in the bonding and antibonding
phosphate anion. orbitals.
(4) Polychlorinated biphenyls. 108. Assertion : Boiling point of halogen acids are
in the HF > HI > HBr > HCl
Direction for Q. 101 to Q. 120 In each of the
following questions a statement of Assertion is Reason : Electronegativities are in the order
given followed by a corresponding statement of F > Cl > Br > I
Reason just below it. Of the statements mark 109. Assertion : SiF62  anion exists but CF62  does
the correct answer as
not.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
the Reason is the correct explanation of the Reason : Si atom has vacant d-orbital while
Assertion C-atom has not.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but 110. Assertion : Bond angle of NH 3, PH 3, AsH 3 and
the Reason is not the correct explanation of SbH 3 decre ase s in order as
the Assertion mentioned.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false Reason : Th e ce ntral atom i n each
possesses a lone pair
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
111. Assertion : It is not possible to find an electron
101. Assertion : Properties of Beryllium is similar present in the nucleus.
to that of Aluminium.
Reason : Velocity of electron wave is less as
Reason : Both the elements belong to same compared to velocity of light
group.
112. Assertion : The transition of electrons n3n2
102. Assertion : Electronegativity of nitrogen is in H–atom will emit radiation of
greater than carbon higher frequency than n4  n3
Reason : Nitrogen has stable half filled Reason : Principal shells n2 and – n3 have
electronic configuration. lower energy than n4
103. Assertion : F atom has a less negative electron 113. Assertion : An orbital can not have more than
affinity than Cl atom two electrons.
Reason : Additional electrons are repelled Reason : The two electrons with opposite
more effectively by 3p electrons in spin in an orbital create opposite
Cl atom than by 2P electron in F magnetic field.
atom.
114. Assertion : Number of radial and angular node
104. Assertion : The first IE of Be is greater than for 3p-orbital are 1,1-respectively.
that of B.
Reason : No. of radial and angular node
Reason : 2p-orbital is lower in energy than de pe nds on ly on pri ncipal
2s. quantum number.

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115. Assertion : One atomic mass unit (amu) is
mass of an atom equal to exactly
one twelth the mass of a carbon-
12 atom.
Reason : Carbon-12 isotopes was selected
as standard.
116. Assertion : 1 amu equals to 1.66 × 10–24g
1 (3) Order
Reason : 1.66 × 10–24g equals to
12
of C12–atom.
117. Assertion : 44gm of CO2 28, gm of CO have
same volume at STP.
Reason : Both CO2 and CO are formed by
Carbon and Oxygen.
118. Assertion : Photochemical somg is produced by
nitrogen oxide.
Reason : Vehicular pollution is a major
source of nitrogen oxides.
119. Assertion : The amount of oxygen required by
bacteria to breakdown the organic
matter in w ater is call ed
biochemical oxygen demand (BOD).
Reason : The amount of BOD in the water
is a measure of the amount of
organic material in the water.
120. Assertion : The electronic structure of O3 is
O
– (1) Collections of preserved plant and animal
O O
O
Reason : Structure is n ot
O O
allowed because octet around ‘O’
cannot be expanded.
121. Here some statements are given regarding
herbarium. All the statements are right except.
(a) A store house of collected plant specimens
that are dried, pressed and preserved on
sheets
(b) She ets are arranged accordi ng to a
universally accepted system of classification
(c) Used for identification of plants and animals
based on the similarities and dissimilarities
(d) Serve as qu ick refe rral systems in
taxonomical studies.
(1) a & c (2) b & c (3) c (4) d
122. Which one of the following is in right sequence.
(1) species  family  genus  order  class
(2) species  genus  order  family  class
(3) species  genus  family  class  order
(4) species  genus  family  order  class
123. How many of the following are species among
the following
Sapien, Musca, Triticum, Aestivum, Indica,
Homo, Mangifera, Poales, Diptera, Domestica,
Muscidae
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
124. Which one of the following is different from the
others
(1) Taxa (2) Species
(4) Family
th mass
125. Similar characters are a in number in order as
compared to different genera included in a b .
(1) a- More, b-Class (2) a - Less, b - Class
(3) a - Less, b - Family (4) a - More, b - Family
126. Match the following and select the right option.
(a) Primata - (i) Monocotyledonae
(b) Diptera - (ii) Dicotyledonae
(c) Sapindales - (iii) Insecta
(d) Poales - (iv) Mammalia
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii (4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
127. Organisms included in which one of the following
having more similar characters.
(1) Indica (2) Mangifera
(3) Triticum (4) Muscidae
128. Which one of the following statements is wrong
regarding Museum.
specimens for study and reference
(2) Specimens are preserved in the containers
in preservative solutions.
(3) Insects are preserved in containers in
preservative solution
(4) Larger animal are usually stuffed and
preserved
129. Fungi possess all the following except
(1) Heterotrophic mode of nutrition
(2) Saprophytic mode of nutrition
(3) Parasitic mode of nutrition
(4) Photosynthetic mode of nutrition
130. Different types of systems of classification were
proposed at different time on the basis of
changing in the criteria for classification. This
kind of changes will take place in future too
dependent on.
(a) The improvement in our understanding of
characteristics
(b) Evolutionary relationships
Which one of the following options is correct.
(1) Both a and b are true
(2) Both a and b are false
(3) a is true but b is false
(4) b is true but a is false

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131. Th ermo coccus, Methano coccus and 138. Chlamydomonas is
methanobacterium exemplify. (a) Isogamous (b) Anisogamous (c) Oogamous
(1) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and (1) a, b & c (2) a & c (3) b & c (4) a & b
ribosomes
139. Which one of the following statements is not
(2) Archaebacteria that contain protein to true.
eukaryotic core histones
(1) Some algae may store food in the form of oil
(3) Archaebacteria that lack any histones
droplets
resembling those found in eukaryotes but
whose DNA is negatively supercoiled (2) Peat is obtained from moss
(4) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively (3) Sporangia in pteridophytes are subtended by
supercoiled but which have a cytoskeleton leaf - like appendages, Sporophylls
as well as mitochondria (4) Pyrenoids contain only protein
132. Which one single organism or the pair of 140. A profusely branched algae, which may reach a
organisms is correctly assigned to its or their height of 100 metres does not possess.
named taxonomic group.
(1) Carotenoids (2) Xanthophylls
(1) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a
fungus (3) Chlorophyll b (4) Chlorophyll a
(2) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of protista 141. How many algae among the following are included
under chlorophyceae.
(3) Paramoecium and Plasmodium belong to the
same kingdom as that of penicillium Volvox, Fucus, Ulothrix, Laminaria, Chara,
Ectocarpus, Spirogyra, Porphyra, Gelidium,
(4) Lichen is a composite organism formed from
Sargassum, Chlamydomonas, Dictyota
the symbiotic association of an algae and a
protozoan. (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
133. Diatoms do not decay easily because 142. Which one of the following is different from the
(1) They have siliceous walls others.
(2) Their body is impervious to water (1) Sporophyte of Funaria
(3) They are chitinous (2) Spores of spirogyra
(4) They are abundant in saline soil (3) Spores of Ectocarpus
134. Match the following and select the right option. (4) Gametes of Ectocarpus
(a) Chrysophytes - (i) Paramoecium 143. In Polysiphonia gametogenesis occurs through.
(b) Dinoflagellates - (ii) Euglena (1) Mitosis
(c) Euglenoids - (iii) Gonyaulax (2) Meiosis
(d) Protozoans - (iv) Diatoms (3) Amitosis
(1) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (2) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii (4) Reductional division
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i 144. Salvinia is different from Adiantum in
135. When a fresh water protozoan is placed in marine (1) Having vascular tissues
water (2) Producing two kinds of spores
(1) The contractile vacuole disappears (3) Occuring in cool, damp, shady places
(2) The contractile vacuole becomes bigger in (4) Having sporophyte which is differentiated
size into true, root, stem and leaves
(3) The number of contractile vacuole increases 145. Which one of the following pairs of animals have
(4) The contractile vacuoles remain unchanged the digestive system, which has only a single
opening to the outside of the body that serves as
136. How many of the following belong to the sac-fungi,
both mouth and anus.
Albugo, yeast, Penicillium, Puccinia, Agaricus,
Asperg illu s, Neuro spora, A lternari a, (1) Planaria and Ctenoplana
Trichoderma, Rhizopus. (2) Taenia and Pleurobrachia
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 (3) Taenia and Fasciola
137. Which one of the following is wrongly matched. (4) Fasciola and Adamsia
(1) Phylogenetic classification - Evolutionary 146. Which one of the following is not a characteristic
relationships of phylum Annelida
(2) Nu meri cal taxo nomy - All obse rvable (1) Ventral nerve cord
characteristics (2) Closed circulatory system
(3) Chemotaxonomy - Metabolisms (3) Segmentation
(4) Cytotaxonomy - Cytological informations (4) Pseudocoelom

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147. Which one of the following statements about
certain given animals is correct
(1) Flatworms are coelomates
(2) Roundworms are pseudocoelomates
(3) Molluscs are acoelomates
(4) Insects are pseudocoelomates
148. Echinoderms are headless brainless and
heartless. Yet they are placed at the top of
invertebrates because of presence of
(1) Enterocoel
(2) Exclusive marine forms
(3) High power of regeneration
(4) Greater power of reproduction
149. Match the following and select right option
(a) Radial symmetry - (i) Unique to sponges
only
(b) Cephalisation - (ii) Unjointed
appendages of
annelids
(c) Spongocoel - (iii) Evolutionary
trend of developing
sense organs
(d) Parapodia - (iv)Divided into
many mirror images
through central
point
(1) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
150. Nutrition in sponges is
(1) Extracellular
(2) Intracellular
(3) First Extracellular and then intracellular
(4) First intracellular and then extracellular
151. Which of the following statements is not correct
(1) Larva o f echino dermata is bilateral ly
symmetrical
(2) Water vascular system helps in locomotion,
respiration, capture and transport of food
(3) Circulatory system of hemichordates is of
open type
(4) The body of tunicates is composed of an
anterior proboscis collar and a long trunk
152. Which one of the following is incorrectly
matched.
(1) Porifera - Have a water transport
(2) Adamsia - Tissue level of organisation and
are diploblastic
(3) Ctenoplana - The body bears eight external
rows of ciliated comb plates
(4) Platyhelminthes - They are bilaterally
symmetrical tri ploblastic
pseudocoelomate
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153. The content of nucleolus is continuous with the
rest of the nucleoplasm because
(1) It is present in nucleoplasm
(2) It is present in Cytoplasm
(3) It is homogenous structure
(4) It is not a membrane bound structure
154. Read the following statements and then select
the option that is right
(a) Blue-green algae represents a prokaryotic
cells
(b) Prokaryotic cells multiply more rapidly
(c) Prokaryotic cells are smaller in size
(d) Eukaryotic cells multiply less rapidly than
prokaryotic cells
(1) All are correct
(2) All are wrong
(3) All are correct except ‘b’
(4) All are correct except ‘d’
155. Wh at i s co mmon betwee n ch loro plast,
chromoplast and Leucoplast.
(1) Presence of pigments
(2) Storage of starch, proteins and lipids
(3) Possess thylakoids and grana
(4) Ability to multiply by a fission- like process
156. If the ribosomes of a cell are destroyed then
(1) Fats will not be stored
(2) Proteins will not be formed
(3) Carbon assimilation will not occur
(4) Respiration will not take place.
157. Read the following statements and select the
right one
(1) The ratio o f protei n an d li pid in the
membrane is same in different cell types
(2) The ratio of protein and lipid of the membrane
varies considerably in different cell types
(3) The ratio o f protei n an d li pid in the
membrane slightly varies in different cell
types
(4) The ratio o f protei n an d li pid in the
membrance is always equal in different cell
types
158. Which one of the following is right regarding
Golgi complex.
(1) Convex - cis-maturing face
(2) Concave - trans - forming face
(3) Concave - cis - maturing face
and
(4) Concave - cis - forming face
AITS - 2016 - 17 - AIIMS - 1- TEST - 01 - 13
159. Select the right combination from the following or red colour.
(1) Nucleoplasm = Nucle olus + ribosome 165. Assertion : The most unique mammalian
+ chromatin characteristic is the presence of
(2) Nucleoplasm = Nucleolus + chromatin milk producing glands by which the
young ones are nourished.
(3) Nucleoplasm = Nucleolus + chromatin
+ ribosomal RNA Reason : Mammals have two pairs of limbs,
adapted for walking, running,
(4) Nucleoplasm = Nucleolus + Ribosomes climbing, burrowing, swimming or
+ ribosomal RNA + chromatin flying
160. The Centrioles form 166. Assertion : Chondrichthyes are
(1) The basal body of cilia and flagella poikilothermous.
(2) The basal body of cilia and flagella and spindle Reason : They lack the capacity to regulate
apparatus their body temperature.
(3) The basal body of cilia and falgella and spindle 167. Assertion : Cephalochordata are often referred
fibres to as protochordates
(4) Spindle fibres and spindle apparatus Reason : Protochordates are exclusively
Direction for Q. 161 to Q. 180 In each of the fresh water.
following questions a statement of Assertion is 168. Assertion : The property of a living organism
given followed by a corresponding statement of to emi t li ght is call ed
Reason just below it. Of the statements mark bioluminescence.
the correct answer as Reason : This property is related to the
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and phylum Cnidaria.
the Reason is the correct explanation of the 169. Assertion : In the haplontic organisms,
Assertion spo roph ytic gen eration is
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but represented only by the one-celled
the Reason is not the correct explanation of zygote.
the Assertion Reason : There are no free- living sporophyte
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false 170. Assertion : Th e sy nerg ids and anti podals
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false degenerate after fertilisation.
161. Assertion : In acrocentric chromosome the Reason : During this event the ovules
centromere is situated close to its develop into seeds and the ovaries
end. develop into fruit.
Reason : Such chromosome forming one 171. Assertion : In gymnosperms the male and the
extremely short and one very long female gametophytes do not have
arm. an inde pendent free -living
162. Assertion : Bo th the centriole s in a existence.
centrosome lie perpendicular to Reason : Th e male and the femal e
each other in which each has an gametophytes remain within the
organisation like the cartwheel sporan gi a retai ne d on the
Reason : Centrioles are made up of nine sporophytes.
evenly spaced peripheral fibrils of 172. Assertion : In bryophytes the dominant phase
tubulin in the life cycle is the sporophytic
163. Assertion : In ribosomes 80S or 70S ‘S’ stands plant body.
for the sedimentation coefficient Reason : The sporophyte is differentiated
Reason : The sedimentation coefficient into true root, stem and leaves.
indirectly is a measure of density 173. Assertion : Lichens are symbiotic
and size. associations.
164. Assertion : Th e ch loro plasts contain Reason : Mu tual ly u sefu l associ atio ns
chl orophyll and caroten oid between algae and fungi.
pigments which are responsible for 174. Assertion : A virus is a nucleoprotein and the
trapping light energy essential for genetic material is infectious.
photosynthesis.
Reason : Viruses that infect plants have
Reason : Pi gmen ts l ike caro te ne , double stranded RNA.
Xanthophylls and others give the
part of the plant a yellow, orange

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175. Assertion : Viruses did not find a place in 187. Who among the following is the chairman of the
classification. National Integration Council ?
Reason : Viruses are not truly living. (1) The President
176. Assertion : Plasmogamy is the process found (2) The Vice-President
in sexual reproduction of some (3) The Prime Minister
fungi.
(4) The Chief Justice of India
Reason : In thi s proce ss fusio n of
protoplasms between two motile or 188. Survey of India is under the Ministery of :
non-motile gametes takes place (1) Defence
177. Assertion : Flora, manuals, monographs and (2) Environment and Forests
catalogues are means of recording (3) Home Affairs
descriptions.
(4) Science and Technology
Reason : They are used as important keys.
189. The upper part of the mantle upon which the
178. Assertion : Zoological Parks are the places crust of the earth floats is called :
where wild animals are kept in
(1) Barysphere
protected environment.
(2) Mesosphere
Reason : All animals in zoo are provided the
co nditio ns differen t to the ir (3) Mohorovic Discontinuity
natural habitats. (4) Asthenosphere
179. Assertion : Hominidae is an order. 190. The most important coal field of India is :
Reason : Hominidae belongs to the class (1) Bokaro (2) Raniganj (3) Jharia (4) Giridih
Chordata.
191. Which state is the highest milk producer in
180. Assertion : Gen us comprises a g roup of India ?
related species.
(1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Bihar
Reason : Genus has less characters in
(3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Punjab
common in comparison to species
of other genera. 192. Who is the present defence minister of India
181. Who among the following Mauryan rulers did (1) Manohar Parrikar (2) A.K. Antony
conquer the Deccan ? (3) Jaswant Singh (4) Kalraj Mishra
(1) Ashoka (2) Chandragupta 193. Which bank is the Banker of the Banks ?
(3) Bindusara (4) Kunala (1) S.B.I.
182. Who among the following also had the name (2) R.B.I.
Devanama Piyadasi ?
(3) I.D.B.I.
(1) Mauryan King Ashoka
(4) Finance Commission
(2) Gautma Buddha
194. Jaspal Rana is a distinguished athlete in which
(3) Mauryan King Chandragupta Maurya game ?
(4) Bhagwan Mahavira (1) Archery (2) Shooting
183. Charak was the famous court physician of : (3) Billiards (4) Tennis
(1) Harsha 195. What can be the maximum length of a circket
(2) Chandragupta Maurya bat ?
(3) Ashoka (1) 32” (2) 22”
(4) Kanishka (3) 20” (4) 42”
184. The last Mauryan Emperor was : 196. Who is the winner of women’s singles in
(1) Jalok (2) Avanti Varma Wimbeldon tennis tournament 2016 ?
(3) Nandi Vardhana (4) Brihadratha (1) Steffi Graf (2) Serena Williams
185. Aryabhatta and Varahmihira belong to which age : (3) Venus Williams (4) Maria Sharapova
(1) Guptas (2) Cholas 197. Recently, a summit of NATO was held in warsaw,
(3) Mauryas (4) Mughals Warsaw is the capital of :
186. How many Fundamental Duties are in the Indian (1) Saint Helena (2) Poland
Constitution ?
(3) Belize (4) Saint Lucia
(1) Nine (2) Eleven
(3) Twelve (4) Twenty
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Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67, www.goalinstitute.org AITS - 2016 - 17 - AIIMS - 1- TEST - 01 - 15
198. Wh ich Indi an state recentl y re ceived 199. Kelvin Turner has resigned as COO of which of
investment proposals worth Rs. one lack crore ? the following multinational technology company?
(1) West Bengal (2) Andhra Pradesh (1) Microsoft (2) HCl
(3) Tamil Nadu (4) Jharkhand (3) TCS (4) None of these
200. Who is appointed as the new chief secretary of
Uttar Pradesh ?
(1) Dipa Kamarkar (2) Akash Agarwal
(3) Deepak Jain (4) Deepak Singhal

GOAL I I T- J E E
ME D IC A L
B-58, BUDDHA COLONY, PATNA - 800 001
Tel. : 9334594165 / 66 / 67, www.goalinstitute.org AITS - 2016 - 17 - AIIMS - 1- TEST - 01 - 16