Solutions - AIATS Medical-2021 (XI Studying) - Test-4 - (Code-C & D) - (29-12-2019)

Test - 4 (Code-C)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2021
TEST - 4 (Code-C)
Test Date : 29/12/2019
ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (2) 73. (4) 109. (3) 145. (4)
2. (2) 38. (1) 74. (1) 110. (2) 146. (1)
3. (1) 39. (3) 75. (4) 111. (1) 147. (4)
4. (4) 40. (2) 76. (4) 112. (2) 148. (1)
5. (3) 41. (1) 77. (2) 113. (4) 149. (4)
6. (3) 42. (2) 78. (3) 114. (1) 150. (3)
7. (1) 43. (3) 79. (2) 115. (2) 151. (2)
8. (3) 44. (4) 80. (2) 116. (1) 152. (2)
9. (4) 45. (3) 81. (3) 117. (2) 153. (4)
10. (2) 46. (4) 82. (2) 118. (1) 154. (2)
11. (2) 47. (1) 83. (1) 119. (3) 155. (3)
12. (4) 48. (1) 84. (2) 120. (4) 156. (2)
13. (3) 49. (3) 85. (4) 121. (3) 157. (1)
14. (2) 50. (2) 86. (3) 122. (4) 158. (3)
15. (1) 51. (4) 87. (4) 123. (3) 159. (3)
16. (4) 52. (3) 88. (3) 124. (3) 160. (4)
17. (4) 53. (1) 89. (3) 125. (4) 161. (4)
18. (1) 54. (4) 90. (1) 126. (1) 162. (1)
19. (2) 55. (1) 91. (4) 127. (3) 163. (3)
20. (1) 56. (2) 92. (2) 128. (4) 164. (3)
21. (1) 57. (2) 93. (3) 129. (4) 165. (1)
22. (3) 58. (3) 94. (1) 130. (1) 166. (2)
23. (1) 59. (2) 95. (3) 131. (2) 167. (4)
24. (1) 60. (4) 96. (2) 132. (1) 168. (1)
25. (3) 61. (1) 97. (3) 133. (1) 169. (1)
26. (1) 62. (1) 98. (2) 134. (4) 170. (3)
27. (2) 63. (4) 99. (1) 135. (2) 171. (3)
28. (2) 64. (3) 100. (2) 136. (4) 172. (3)
29. (1) 65. (4) 101. (3) 137. (2) 173. (1)
30. (1) 66. (3) 102. (1) 138. (1) 174. (2)
31. (4) 67. (1) 103. (4) 139. (1) 175. (1)
32. (3) 68. (4) 104. (2) 140. (4) 176. (2)
33. (1) 69. (2) 105. (3) 141. (4) 177. (2)
34. (2) 70. (1) 106. (2) 142. (2) 178. (2)
35. (4) 71. (3) 107. (3) 143. (3) 179. (3)
36. (4) 72. (1) 108. (2) 144. (3) 180. (1)
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 4 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (3) 5. Answer (3)
  
Hint: Use v = ω × r Hint: Moment of inertia depends on mass and
  effective distance from axis of rotation.
Sol.: Angle between r and ω is 90°
Sol.: From the figure shown, effective distance of
Hence v = rω mass is farthest from the axis 3.
v 4 6. Answer (3)
ω= =   
r 0.5
Hint: L= ( r × p )
= 8 rad/s
Sol.: Angular momentum of the particle about
2. Answer (2)
   origin will be same because perpendicular distance
Hint: Use τ = r × F from origin remains same
i j 7. Answer (1)
k

Sol.: τ = 2 0 4 Hint: I = ∑ mi ri 2
2 −4 −1 Sol.: I = IA + IB + IC+ ID
= i (16 ) − j ( −2 − 8 ) + k ( −8 )  a 
2
 a 
2
= m  + 0 + m  +0
= (16i + 10 j − 8k ) N m  2  2
3. Answer (1) = ma2

Hint: Moment of inertia I = Mk2
5MR 2
Sol.: Given I =
2
5
Mk 2 = MR 2
2
5
k= R
2
4. Answer (4)
d ω d 2θ 8. Answer (3)
Hint: Use τ = Iα and =
α =
dt dt 2    
B AB sin θ and=
Hint: Use A ×= A.B AB cos θ
Sol.: θ(t) = 2t3 – 9t2
  1  
ω(t) = 6t2 – 18t Sol.: Given A × B = A.B
3
α(t) = 12t – 18
1
 τ =0 when α = 0 AB sin θ
= AB cos θ
3
i.e. 12t – 18 = 0
1
3 tan θ =
t= s 3
2
2 θ= 30°
 3  3 3  
ω  t = s  = 6 ×   − 18 ×
 2  2 2 Now, A − B= A2 + B 2 − 2 AB cos θ
27 54 −27 1
=−
2 2
= =
2
−13.5 rad/s = ( A2 + B 2 − AB 3 )2
2/16
Test - 4 (Code-C)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021
    
9. Answer (4) Sol.: τ= r A × ( −F ) + r B × F
Hint: In case of pure rolling v = Rω   
   = − (r A − r B ) × F
Sol.: v=A
v cm +r ω   
Rω = F × (r A − r B )
= v cm +
2 15. Answer (1)
3 Hint: At equilibrium ΣF = 0, Στ = 0
= v cm
2 Sol.: RA + RB = w + w1
10. Answer (2) = 60 + 100

 dL RA + RB = 160 N ...(1)
Hint: Torque ( τ ) =
dt
 Take moment about A
 dL
Sol.: If τ = 0 ⇒ = 0 τA = 100 × 0.2 + 60 × 0.25 – RB × 0.5
dt
 RB
L = constant 35 − 0
=
2
11. Answer (2) RB = 70 N
Hint: Parallel axis theorem
RA = 160 – 70 = 90 N
Sol.: I = Icm + md2
here d = R
I = mR2 + mR2
= 2mR2
16. Answer (4)

θ 1
Hint: n = and θ= (ω0 + ω)t
12. Answer (4) 2π 2
Hint: Moment of inertia of ring about its axis is mR2 Sol.: Given ω0 = 1200 rpm = 40π rad/s
Sol.: Mass of complete ring = M ω = 3120 rpm = 104π rad/s
M 5M 1
Mass of incomplete ring (m) = M − = (40π + 104
= π) 1152π
6 6 2
5MR 2 1152π
Iring = mR2 = =n = 576 revolutions
6 2π
  
Hint: Use angular momentum L= r × p Hint: I = mk2 and I = Icm + md2
i j k Sol.: mk2 = Icm + md2

Sol.: L = x y z Icm = m(k2 – d2)
px py pz
mk '2 m ( k 2 − d 2 )
=
= i ( ypz − zpy ) − j ( xpz − zpx ) + k ( xpy − ypx ) k' = k2 − d2 = 102 − 62 = 8 cm

Hence, y component of= L zpx − xpz 18. Answer (1)
14. Answer (2) 2h  k2 
   Hint:
= Use T  1 + 
Hint: Torque
= τ ∑ (r i × F i ) g sin2 θ  R 2 
3/16

2 τ0 =3FR
k
1+  
Tsphere  R sphere
Sol.: = 2
Tdisc k
1+  
 R disc
2 7
1+
= 5 = 5 = 14
1 3 15
1+
2 2
23. Answer (1)
19. Answer (2)
2gh
2 Hint: Use v cm =
Hint: L = mR 2ω and L ⇒ conserved k2
5 1+ 2
R
∆R 1 ∆V 1
Sol.: % = × 100 = × 3 = 1% 2gh
R 3 V 3 Sol.:=
v cm = gh
1+ 1
∆L ∆R ∆ω ∆m 24. Answer (1)
Now, × 100 = 2 × 100 + × 100 + × 100
L R ω m
2h  k2 
∆ω Hint: t
= 1 + 2 
0=2 × 1% + × 100 + 0 g sin θ  R 
ω
∆ω k2
× 100 =
−2% Sol.: time ∝ 1+
ω R2
20. Answer (1) Hence, time to reach the bottom will be minimum
for solid sphere and maximum for hollow cylinder.
Hint: Use energy conservation 25. Answer (3)
1 2 Hint: For rotational equilibrium Στ = 0
Sol.: mgh
= Iω
2 l
Sol.: τ=
A Fminh − mg.= 0
L 1 mL2 2 2
mg =sin θ .ω
2 2 3 mgl
Fmin =
3g 2h
sin θ = ω2
L
3g sinθ
ω=
L
21. Answer (1)
r12 + r22 + r32 + r42 + r52

Hint: rr.m.s = 26. Answer (1)
5
1 40  1 2 2 1 2
Sol.: I = ∑ mi ri 2 Hint:
= Icmω2 =  mv   mv 
2 100  2  52 
= m ( r12 + r22 + r32 + r42 + r52 ) Sol.:
1 2 1
Icmω2 = × mv 2
2 5 2
= m. ( 5rrms
2
) = 1× 5 × 62 = 180 kg m2 v2 2
or, Icm = mv 2
22. Answer (3) r2 5
   2 2
Hint: Use τ = r × F or, Icm = mr
       5
Sol.: τ0 = R × F 1 + R × F 2 + R × F 3 so, body is solid sphere.
4/16
27. Answer (2) ve Re ρ 1

  Sol.:
= =
Hint: Pinst = τ.ω v e′ Re 1
⋅ 2ρ
2 2
Sol.: Pins = τ.ω.cos θ = 10 × 30 × cos0° = 300 W
28. Answer (2) ve
v e′ =
Hint: Use angular conservation 2
Sol.: ( M = 2m ) 33. Answer (1)
2
L ML Hint: g = gp – Rω2cos2λ
mu= ×ω
2 12
Sol.: if ω = 0 then value of g increases at all the
L places except at poles.
mu
= ω = 2 3u 34. Answer (2)
2mL2 L
2 3
12 Hint: T ∝ R
29. Answer (1) 3
T  R 2
2h  k  2 Sol.: 1 =  1 
Hint: troll
= 1 + 2  T2  R2 
2
g sin θ  R 
3
3
2h 6  R 2  1 
and tslide = = =   
g sin2 θ T  4R  2
tslide 1 T = 48 h
Sol.: =
trolling 35. Answer (4)
k2
1+
R2 −GM
Hint: V =
r
ts 1 1
for ring
= =
tr 1+ 1 2 Sol.: V0 = V1 + V2 + V3 + V4
30. Answer (1)

Hint: For pure rolling there should not be slipping
at contact points.
Sol.: vcm + rω = 6
−Gm
=
V0 ×4
r
2
=−G × × 4 =−4G
2
vcm = rω 36. Answer (4)
6  h 
⇒ v cm= = 3 m/s = g0  1 −
Hint: g depth
2 
 Re 
31. Answer (4)
Hint & Sol.: Kepler’s law of area is consequence of  2h 
= g0  1 −
and gheight  (If h << Re)
conservation of angular momentum  Re 
32. Answer (3)
Sol.: For same value of depth and height,
4 decrement in g is greater at height for h << Re.
Hint:
= v e Re πρG
3 Hence W2 > W1 > W3
5/16
37. Answer (2) ⇒ r = 9 × 106 m = 9000 km

GM R + h = 9000
Hint: v =
(R + h ) h = (9000 – 6000) km
Sol.: Near earth surface h = 3000 km
GM 41. Answer (1)

v=
R Hint & Sol.: When energy of the body planet
system is positive then system becomes
At altitude 8R
unbounded and body will escape out the planet.
GM 1 v 42. Answer (2)
=
v′ = = v
9R 3 3
Hint: At height h,
38. Answer (1)
GM
Hint: Use energy conservation method g=
( Re + h )2
1 GMm GMm
Sol.: mv 2 − =
− +0
2 R 16R gRe2
Sol.: g ′ =
1 GMm  1 (Re + h )2
= mv 2 1 − 
2 R  16 
120 × Re2
15GM so, mg ′ =
v2 =  3Re 
2
8R  
 2 
15GM
v= 480 160
8R W′
= = N
9 3
39. Answer (3)
43. Answer (3)
 ∂V ˆ ∂V ˆ ∂V ˆ
Hint: Use I =
− i − j− k GMm
∂x ∂y ∂t Hint: Use U = −
r
− ( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ) J/kg
Sol.: V =
GMm  GMm   GMe m 
Sol.: ∆U =− − − = 
Ix =
−
∂V
+2 x
= 2Re  Re   2Re 
∂x
mgRe
∂V = = 50gRe
Iy =
− +2y
= 2
∂y
44. Answer (4)
∂V
Iz = = +2z Hint & Sol.: Gravitational field intensity due to a
∂x
 spherical shell is zero for r < R.
I = I x i + I y j + Iz k = 2 xi + 2y j + 2zk
45. Answer (3)
   
I (1, 1, 0
= ) ( 2i + 2 j ) N/kg Hint: Use principle of superposition, =
F 1 F 12 + F 13
40. Answer (2)
GM GM
Hint: V =
− and g =
r r2 Sol.:
GM
−
V r = −r
Sol.: =
g GM 1 1
=F1 Gm 2  2 + 2 
r2 1 2 
−4.5 × 107 5G
⇒ −r = Hence F1 =
5.0 4
6/16
[CHEMISTRY]
Hint: Due to common ion effect solubility Hint: An acidic buffer requires presence of a weak
decreases. acid and its salt with strong base in the same
Sol.: Na2 CO3 → 2Na + + CO3 2 − solution.
0.04 M 0.02 M Sol.: H2SO4 is a strong acid. Hence, NaHSO4 +
H2SO4 is not an acidic buffer.
K SP
Ag2CO3  2Ag+ ( aq) + CO32− (aq) 51. Answer (4)
2s s + 0.02
M1V1 + M2 V2
Hint: M =
Ksp = [Ag+]2 [CO32–] = (2s)2 (s + 0.02)1 V1 + V2
Since 0.02 >> s ⇒ s + 0.02 ≈ 0.02 0.01× 2 × V + 0.1× V
Sol.: H+  =
8 × 10 –12
= 4s × 0.02 ⇒ s = 10 M
2 –5
2V
47. Answer (1) 0.02 + 0.1
= = 0.06 M
Hint: H+ ions are neutralized by OH– 2
1 pH = –log[H+] = –log (0.06) = 1.22
Sol.: mmol of OH– = 40 × = 10
4 52. Answer (3)
 1  1 Hint: For neural molecules, net charge = 0.
mmol of H+ =  50 ×  +  10 ×  = 15
 5   2  Sol.: Na2S2O3 ⇒ 2 × 1 + 2 × a + 3x(–2) = 0 ⇒ a = 2
H + OH → H2O
+ −
SF6 ⇒ a + 6x(–1) ⇒ a = 6
(i) 15 10 −
SO2 ⇒ a + 2x(–2) ⇒ a = 4
(f ) 5 0
53. Answer (1)
5 mmol
H+ 
= = 0.01 M K2 ∆H°  T2 − T1 
f 500 mL Hint: log =  
K1 2.303R  T2 T1 
⇒ pH =
− log0.01 =
2
Sol.: Endothermic ⇔ ∆H° > 0
48. Answer (1)
Hint: α = 0.40, it is comparable to 1 (unity). When T increases,
Ka K2
HA ( aq)  H+ ( aq) + A − ( aq ) ⇒ log > 0 ⇒ K 2 > K1
Sol.: K1
Eq. c (1 − α ) cα cα
54. Answer (4)
Ka =
( cα )( cα ) = cα 2
Hint: Salt of strong acid and weak base will have
{c (1 − α )} 1 − α lowest pH.
Sol.: NaBr : Salt of S.A. + S.B.
0.2 × ( 0.4 )
2
= = 5.33 × 10 −2 CH3COONa : Salt of W.A + S.B.

0.6
(NH4)2SO4 : Salt of S.A. + W.B.
49. Answer (3)
Hint: Factor, with which reaction is multiplied, 55. Answer (1)
becomes the power of K Hint: [OH–] = 10–pOH
Sol.: N2 ( g) + 3H2 ( g)  2NH3 ( g) , K eq =
K Sol.: pOH = 14 – 11 = 3 ⇒ [OH–] = 10–3
1 3 1 X ( OH)2 ( s )  X2 + ( aq) + 2OH− ( aq)

NH3 ( g)  N2 ( g) + H2 ( g) , K eq =
2 2 K s 2 s = 10 −3
7/16
At equilibrium, 65. Answer (4)

1 −3  −3 2
Hint: Addition of inert gas at constant volume does
Ksp = [X2+] [OH–]=
2
 × 10  (10 )
2  not affect the equilibrium.
Ksp = 5 × 10–10 66. Answer (3)

Hint: At equilibrium K = Q
56. Answer (2)
Sol.: ∆G = ∆G° + RT lnQ
Hint: In SO3 sulphur is in its maximum oxidation
state, so it cannot act as a reducing agent. At equilibrium, Q = K, ∆G = 0
Hint: At equilibrium, rate of forward reaction is Hint: pH = 14 – pOH
equal to rate of backward reaction. Sol.: NaOH → Na + + OH−
58. Answer (3) 0.1 M 0.1 M
Hint: If Keq. < 10 –3
then extent of reaction is ⇒ pOH = –log[OH–] = –log [0.1] = 1
negligible
⇒ pH = 13
Sol.: At equilibrium, the system lies largely in the
68. Answer (4)
favour of reactants.
Hint: Ag+ forms complex with NH3.
59. Answer (2)
Sol.: Common ion decreases the solubility of weak
1 electrolyte so solubility of AgCl will not change in
Hint: pH = 7 + (pKa – pKb)
2 presence of NaNO3 as no ion is common.
Hint: Structure of Br3O8 is
(PN )(PH )
3
Hint: K p = 2 2
(PNH )
2
3
Sol.: 2NH3 ( g)  N2 ( g) + 3H2 ( g)

Sol.: BrO B rO B rO
− − −
x 3x , PT
+1 +5
3
+7
4
eq. 1− x
2 2
61. Answer (1)
x 3x
Hint: K a1 > K a2 > K a3 Total moles at equilibrium = 1 − x + + =1+ x
2 2
62. Answer (1)  
 1− x  x
=pNH3 =  PT , pN2 P
Hint: Lesser is the reduction potential, greater is the  1+ x   2 (1 + x )  T
 
reducing power.
 3x 
pH2 =  P
63. Answer (4)  2 (1 + x )  T
 
Hint: Exothermic reaction favours at low
temperature. At eqbm,
1 3
Sol.: Since ∆ng < 0, so high pressure favours the  x   3x 
(p ).(p )3 2  2  4−2
product formation. N2 H2      P 
=Kp = . T 
(1 − x )
2 2
64. Answer (3) (pNH3 )  1+ x 
Hint: Cr2O72– + 3SO32– + 8H+ → 2Cr3+ + 27x 4PT2

=
3SO42– + 4H2O 16
2 [ x << 1∴ 1 − x = 1 + x ≈ 1]
nCr O2− 1  3 
Sol.: n = 3= 2
2 7
70. Answer (1)
SO2−3 Hint: MnO4– acts as self indicator
8/16

Hint: K P = K C (RT )
∆ng
Hint: F cannot act as a reducing agent.
Sol.:  For 2NO2 ( g)  2NO ( g) + O2 ( g) 77. Answer (2)

Hint: Anionic hydrolysis takes place in of sodium
∆ng = ( 2 + 1) − 2 = 1
salt of substituted benzoic acid.
Hence, KP = KCRT = KC × 0.0821 × 300 Kh
⇒ KP > K C Sol.: A − (aq) + H2O ( l )  HA(aq) + OH− (aq)

eqbm c (1 − h ) ch ch
 For H2 (g) + I2 (g)  2HI(g) Kc has no unit
 For 2Ag2O(s)  4Ag(s) + O2 (g) At equilibrium, K
=
( ch )( ch
=
) K w 10 −14
=
c (1 − h )
h
Ka 10 −4
K P = p O2
Assume, h << 1
 KC or KP is affected only by temperature
( ch ) [HA ]
2 2
72. Answer (1)
Kh = ⇒ 10 −10 =
[XY3 ] [Y2 ] c 0.01
Hint: K C =
[XY5 ] ⇒ [HA ] =
10 −6 M
Sol.: XY5 ( g)  XY3 ( g) + Y2 ( g) 78. Answer (3)
initially 10 0 0 Hint: Precipitation occurs when
eqbm 10 (1 − α ) 10α 10α Ksp < Ionic product (IP)
Total moles = 10(1 + α) K sp
Sol.: NiS ( s )  Ni2 + ( aq) + S2 − ( aq)
 10α  10α 
 2  2 
At equilibrium, Kc =    Ksp Ksp < IP
10 (1 − α ) 
 
 2  NiS 5 × 10–5 Precipitation occurs
second
α2
5×
= 1.33 (α = 0.4)
=
1− α CuS 6 × 10–36 Yes, precipitation
occurs first
73. Answer (4)
Hint: Mixture of weak acid and its salt with strong 79. Answer (2)
base can form buffer solution. Hint: In a saturated solution, Ksp = IP
74. Answer (1)
Sol.: A 2SO4 ( s )  2A + ( aq)+ SO4 2− ( aq)
Hint: Salts of strong acid with strong base do not 2x x
undergo salt hydrolysis.
Ksp = (2x)2x1 = 4x3
75. Answer (4)
Hint: NH3 reacts with H2SO4, HCl and HCOOH to ⇒ 8 × 10–8 = 4x3
form (NH4)2SO4, NH4Cl and HCOONH4 ⇒ (2)1/3 × 10–8/3 = x
respectively. [A+] = 2x = 24/3 × 10–8/3
Sol.:
80. Answer (2)
Solution Moles of H+ pH Hint: A lewis base has the ability to donate an
electron pair.
A. 2M H2SO4 4 mol Least
81. Answer (3)
B. 2M HCl 2 mol More
Hint: Balance the atoms as well as charge.
C. 2 M HCOOH Less than 2 moles Maximum
Sol.: 2MnO−4 + 10I− + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 5I2 + 8H2O
9/16
Hint: Comparable quantities of RNH2 and RNH3+ Hint: For a conjugate acid-base pair, Kw = KaKb
lead to a basic buffer solution. Sol.: Kw = Ka . Kb
Kb
Sol.: RNH2 + H2 O  RNH3 + + OH− 10 −14
Kb = =0.25 × 10 −4 =2.5 × 10 −5
4 × 10 −10
At equilibrium,
86. Answer (3)
RNH3 +  OH− 
Kb =  ...(1) Hint: When an element in a particular oxidation
[RNH2 ] state is simultaneously oxidized as well as
Also, reduced, such reaction is classified as
disproportionation redox reaction
RNH2 + H+ → RNH3 +
Sol.:  Pb3O4 + 8HCl → 3PbCl2 + Cl2 + 4H2O
bef 0.20 0.16 0
8
aft 0.04 0 0.16 + -1 +2 -1 0
3
RNH3 +  OH− 
From (1) : K b =  2NO2 + 2OH− → NO2 − + NO3 − + H2O
[RNH2 ] +4 +3 +5
0.16 6ClO2 − → 4ClO3 − + 2Cl−
⇒ 1× 10 −5 = OH−  
0.04 
+3 +5 −1
⇒ OH−  =
2.5 × 10 −6 M
 S8 + 12OH− → 4S2− + 2S2O32− + 6H2O
83. Answer (1) 0 −2 +2
Hint: This is example of a basic buffer 87. Answer (4)
Sol.: For a basic buffer, Hint: Carbon suboxide is C3O2
pOH
= pK b + log
[salt ] Sol.: O = C = C = C = O
[base] 88. Answer (3)
⇒ 5.8 = 4.8 + log

[salt ] Hint: Conjugate acid, base pair differ in one
[base] hydrogen atom.
[base] Sol.: NH3 and NH2 is a conjugate acid-base pair.

⇒ = 0.1
[salt] 89. Answer (3)
84. Answer (2) Hint: Oxygen can form oxide, peroxide and
Hint: Ionization of water is an endothermic superoxide.
process. 90. Answer (1)
K  ∆H°  T2 − T1  Hint: Lower the pKa value, more will be the acidic
Sol.: log  2  =  
 K1  2.303R  T1T2  strength.
pK w Sol.: pK a =
− logK a =
4 − log 1.8
 pH = for neutral water
2
so, pKa < 4
⇒ pKw = 15 ⇒ Kw = 10–15 < 10–14 at 298 K
Hence, W(pKa = 3) will be stronger acid than formic
Hence, temperature has decreased acid.
10/16
[BIOLOGY]
Hint: Most algae have haplontic life cycle while Hint: Ferns belong to the class Pteropsida.
some others have haplodiplontic life cycle.
Sol.: Adiantum, a fern belongs to class pteropsida.
Sol.: Polysiphonia shows haplodiplontic life cycle 101. Answer (3)
while Chlamydomonas shows haplontic life cycle.
Hint: Gametophytes of spermatophytes are
92. Answer (2) reduced and dependent structures.
Hint: All seed bearing plants show diplontic life Sol.: In pteridophytes and bryophytes,
cycle. gametophytes show independent and free living
Sol.: Male and female gametophytes of both existence.
gymnosperms and angiosperms are reduced, 102. Answer (1)
dependent and limited to one or few cells.
Sol.: Endodermis is impervious to water because
93. Answer (3) of the presence of casparian strips which are
Hint: Embryo sac is the female gametophyte of composed of suberin.
angiosperms. 103. Answer (4)
Sol.: Embryo sac is 7 celled 8 nucleated structure Hint: Main plant body of pteridophytes is diploid.
which has 3 celled egg apparatus, 3 antipodal cells
and a central cell with two haploid polar nuclei. Sol.: Main plant body of pteridophytes is
sporophyte and it is differentiated into root, stem
94. Answer (1) and leaves.
Sol.: Water potential of pure water at standard 104. Answer (2)
temperature which is not under any pressure is
taken as zero. Sol.: The figure is of Equisetum.
Hint: Coralloid roots are present in Cycas. Hint: Gnetales is the most advanced group of
gymnosperms.
Sol.: Cyanobacteria which are in symbiosis with
coralloid roots of Cycas, have the ability to fix Sol.: Ginkgo, a living fossil, belongs to most
nitrogen. primitive group of gymnosperms i.e. Ginkgoales.
Sol.: Double fertilisation is a unique feature of Hint: Surface tension represents a phenomenon
angiosperms. which explains that water molecules are attracted
to each other in liquid phase more than to water in
97. Answer (3) gas phase.
Hint: Gymnosperms have naked seeds. Sol.: Transpiration → Water loss in form of
Sol.: In gymnosperms ovary is absent, ovules are vapour.
borne on megarporophylls which cluster to form Adhesion → Attraction of water
female cones. Embryo sac is not the female molecules to polar surface
gametophyte of gymnosperms. It is present in
flowering plants only. Cohesion → Mutual attraction between
water molecules.
98. Answer (2)
107. Answer (3)
Sol.: Absorption of water by seeds and dry wood is
called imbibition. Sol.: Bryophytes are called amphibians of plant
kingdom because they are land plants but still
99. Answer (1) require water for their reproduction.
Hint: Seed bearing plants produce heterospores. 108. Answer (2)
Sol.: Gymnosperms and angiosperms are Sol.: Events precursor to seed habit first appeared
heterosporous plants. in heterosporous pteridophytes.
11/16
109. Answer (3) 117. Answer (2)

Hint: Leafy stage of bryophytes is the gametophyte Hint: Bentham and Hooker’s classification system
of mosses while capsule is a part of their was a natural classification system.
sporophyte.
Sol.: Artificial classification system was given by
Sol.: Cells of leafy stage of mosses are haploid Linnaeus.
and cells of capsule are diploid. So if there are 118. Answer (1)
eleven chromosomes present in the cells of their
leafy stage then in the cells of capsule there will be Hint: Cytoplasmic streaming is the movement of
22 chromosomes. cytoplasm.
110. Answer (2) Sol.: Cytoplasmic streaming can easily be
observed in the cells of Hydrilla leaves by
Hint: Solute potential is lowering of water potential observing the movement of chloroplasts.
of a solution.
119. Answer (3)
Sol.: Solute potential of any solution is always
negative. Sol.: Volvox is a colonial and motile alga.
111. Answer (1) 120. Answer (4)
Sol.: Rhizoids of mosses are multicellular and Hint: Diplontic life cycle and oogamous
branched. reproduction are characteristic features of
angiosperms.
112. Answer (2)
Sol.: Wolfia being angiosperm show diplontic life
Hint: Antheridia and archegonia are present in cycle and oogamous reproduction. A brown alga,
bryophytes and pteridophytes. Fucus also have these features. Ectocarpus show
haplodiplontic life cycle while Spirogyra show
Sol. Chlamydomonas 
 Algae haplontic life cycle.
Volvox  121. Answer (3)
Laminaria 
Hint: Members of chlorophyceae produce motile
Marchantia  asexual spores.
Funaria  Bryophytes
 Sol.: Phaeophyceae members produce zoospores
with two unequal, laterally attached flagella. In
Adiantum  rhodophyceae, non-motile spores are produced.
Pteridophytes
Dryopteris  122. Answer (4)
Cycas – Gymnosperms Hint: Passive transport occurs along the
concentration gradient.
Both antheridia and archegonia are present in
Marchantia, Funaria, Adiantum and Dryopteris. Sol.: In both simple diffusion and facilitated
diffusion, movement of molecules occur along the
113. Answer (4)
Hint: Mosses have great ecological importance in
123. Answer (3)
succession process.
Sol.: Chlamydomonas is a unicellular green alga.
Sol.: Mosses along with lichens are the first
organisms to colonise rocks. 124. Answer (3)
114. Answer (1) Hint: Algin is obtained from brown algae.
Sol.: Calcium is an immobile element. Sol.: Carrageen is a phycocolloid obtained from
red algae.
115. Answer (2)
125. Answer (4)
Sol.: Peat used as fuel is obtained from
Sphagnum. Sol.: Red algae lack mobile stages in their life
cycle.
116. Answer (1)
126. Answer (1)
Sol.: Artificial classification is based on few
observable morphological characters. Hint: Macrophyllous leaves are present in ferns.
12/16
Sol.: Adiantum, Pteris and Dryopteris are ferns. Sol.: Fibrous joints in cranium prevent any
Lycopodium belongs to class Lycopsida and does movement in skull bones.
not have macrophylls.
137. Answer (2)
127. Answer (3)
Hint: This bone helps constitute ribcage.
Sol.: Photosynthetic pigments of brown algae are
Sol.: Sternum is a single bone that interacts with
chlorophyll a and c.
ribs to form ribcage to protect lungs.
128. Answer (4)
138. Answer (1)
Hint: Both brown and red algae are found in
Hint: Identify a cranial bone.
marine habitat, have thalloid body and show sexual
reproduction. Sol.: Sphenoid is a single bone that interacts with
Sol.: Cell wall of red algae have polysulphated all cranial bones.
esters exclusively. 139. Answer (1)
129. Answer (4) Hint: The number of phalanges in a human hand.
Hint: Prothallus is the monoecious gametophyte of Sol.: There are 14 bones forming the human face.
homosporous pteridophytes. Total number of bones in adult human body is 206.
Sol.: Prothallus is inconspicuous, multicellular, The number of zygomatic bones and mandible is 2
haploid, photosynthetic and free living structure. and 1 respectively.
130. Answer (1) 140. Answer (4)
Hint: Turgor pressure is due to the water content Hint: The given structure is associated with
of the cell. pectoral girdle.
Sol.: Turgor pressure is the pressure of cytoplasm Sol.: Glenoid cavity is a depression in scapula
exerted on the cell wall of the cell. associated with pectoral girdle. Acetabulum
articulates with thigh bone.
131. Answer (2)
141. Answer (4)
Sol.: Pollen grains in gymnosperms are carried to
the opening of ovules by air current. Hint: Joint permitting movement in only one plane.
132. Answer (1) Sol.: Hinge joints are synovial joints where convex
end of one bone interacts with concave end of the
Hint: Algae are non embryophytes. other bone.
Sol.: Embryo formation is observed in bryophytes, 142. Answer (2)
pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms.
Hint: This bone supports the weight of human
133. Answer (1) head.
Hint: Transpiration leads to passive transport of
Sol.: The 9th and 10th pair of ribs are called
water.
vertebrochondral ribs. Each half of pectoral girdle
Sol.: Active absorption of minerals ions is not a comprises one clavicle and one scapula. The
function associated with transpiration. number of sacral vertebrae changes from 5 to 1
from foetus to adult stage.
134. Answer (4)
Hint: Loading and unloading of sucrose in phloem 143. Answer (3)
is active. Hint: Tetany results from hypocalcemia.
Sol.: Mass flow of sucrose in phloem does not Sol.: Ribs are bicephalic in man as they have two
require ATP i.e. passive process. articulation surfaces on their dorsal end to interact
135. Answer (2) with thoracic vertebrae.
Hint: Floridean starch is the stored food of red 144. Answer (3)
algae. Hint: Locomotion results in displacement.
Sol.: Porphyra is a red alga. Sol.: Talking involves movement of muscles but
136. Answer (4) the person does not essentially have to move from
one place to another. Change in location occurs if
Hint: These are called sutures. a person walks, climbs and swims.
13/16
145. Answer (4) 153. Answer (4)

Hint: The root word ‘myo’ indicates muscle. Hint: Amoeboid movement occurs in
macrophages.
Sol.: Muscular dystrophy is a disorder of muscular
system. Sol.: Specialised cells in our body such as
macrophages in tissues exhibit amoeboid
146. Answer (1)
movement through pseudopodia formation.
Hint: Identify a cartilaginous joint. 154. Answer (2)
Sol.: Synovial joints offer maximum range of Hint: Skeletal muscles are voluntary.
movement among which ball and socket joint
permits movement in many planes. e.g., joint Sol.: ‘I’ represents skeletal muscle e.g., biceps.
present between femur and acetabulum. These muscle fibres are voluntary in nature and
have striped appearance.
147. Answer (4)
155. Answer (3)
Hint: This protein has three subunits.
Hint: This system involves neurotransmitters.
Sol.: Binding of calcium to troponin ‘C’ subunit Sol.: Chemicals called neurotransmitters are
unmasks myosin binding site on actin by pulling released at synapses between neurons to facilitate
filamentous tropomyosin away from the binding signalling. Endocrine system requires hormones to
site. provide chemical integration.
148. Answer (1) 156. Answer (2)
Hint: This results from inflammation of joints. Hint: This neurotransmitter is released at
Sol.: The accumulation of uric acid crystals leading parasympathetic junctions.
to inflammation of joints causes simple gout. Sol.: In Myasthenia gravis, the immune system
Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder produces antibodies that bind to and block
affecting neuromuscular junctions while myelin receptors for acetylcholine.
sheath is damaged in multiple sclerosis.
157. Answer (1)
149. Answer (4)
Hint: A transmembrane pump.
Hint: Muscle fibres and neurons respond to Sol.: Na+/K+ ATPase is the electrogenic
threshold stimulus. transmembrane pump that throws 3 Na+ ions from
Sol.: Contractility, extensibility and elasticity are axoplasm into ECF in exchange for 2K+ ions at
properties exhibited by muscle cells (myocytes). expense of one ATP.
150. Answer (3) 158. Answer (3)
Hint: Sarcomere is a feature of striated muscle Hint: Hyperpolarised neurons have potential lesser
fibres. than resting membrane potential.
Sol.: Smooth/visceral muscle fibres are non Sol.: –70 mV is the general value of resting
striated and uninucleated. Syncytial appearance is membrane potential for a neuron. –55 mV can be
a property of skeletal muscle fibres. Gap junctions the value for threshold potential when a neuron is
are present in cardiac and smooth muscle fibres. stimulated.
151. Answer (2) 159. Answer (3)

Hint: Electroencephalogram is a test used to
Hint: Part of sarcomere with both myosin and actin
detect electrical activity of brain.
filaments.
Sol.: EEG helps to evaluate nerve action potentials
Sol.: A band / anisotropic band remains constant in in the brain.
dimension. The size of H zone, I band and
sarcomere decreases during contraction. 160. Answer (4)
152. Answer (2) Hint: All or none principle.
Hint: Red muscle fibres are rich in mitochondria. Sol.: Even suprathreshold stimulus evokes an
action potential similar to threshold stimulus.
Sol.: Red muscle fibres contain large quantities of Increase in temperature increases the speed of
myoglobin. Both type of fibres are unbranched and conduction. Diameter of nerve fibre is directly
multinucleated. proportional to the transmission of nerve impulse.
14/16
161. Answer (4) 168. Answer (1)

Hint: These are involuntary responses of CNS. Hint: Trained but involuntary response.
Sol.: Reflex actions are very rapid and automatic Sol.: Memory indicates prior exposure to a certain
responses in which same kind of stimulus evokes a food which evokes a response. The other options
short lived response. listed are unconditioned reflexes / responses.
162. Answer (1) 169. Answer (1)
Hint: It represents bundle of muscle fibres. Hint: Monosynaptic reflex.
Sol.: Each muscle fibre is enclosed by Sol.: In this patellar reflex, a kicking response is
endomysium. A bundle of muscle fibres is called seen. Motor end plate is the effector while muscle
fascicle which is protected by perimysium. Many spindle is the receptor. Only two neurons are
bundles along with their blood supply are enclosed involved in knee jerk reflex.
by sheath of collagen fibres called epimysium.
170. Answer (3)
163. Answer (3)
Hint: Hunger center also lies in this part of brain.
Hint: Nissl’s granules are involved in protein
synthesis. Sol.: Hypothalamus part of forebrain houses center
for hunger, thirst, satiety and pleasure. Medulla
Sol.: Nissl’s granules are combination of RER and oblongata harbours centers for controlling vomiting,
ribosomes, hence called site of protein synthesis respiration etc.
that are present in dendrites and cell body of
neurons. 171. Answer (3)
164. Answer (3) Hint: It is present in forebrain.
Hint: Spindle formation is essential for cell division Sol.: A bundle of axons is termed tract in CNS
in most animal cells. while it is called a nerve in PNS. Cerebral aqueduct
and Crura cerebri are present in midbrain whereas
Sol.: Centrosome comprises a pair of centrioles vermis connects the two cerebellar hemispheres.
that result in formation of spindle to facilitate cell
division. Neuron is the structural and functional unit 172. Answer (3)
of neural tissue which lacks centrosome. Hint: Organ of sight.
165. Answer (1) Sol.: Optic nerve exits from the eye and relays
Hint: This germ layer gives rise to epidermis. information to forebrain.
Sol.: Calcium ions are essential for exocytosis of 173. Answer (1)
neurotransmitters. Neurons cannot produce stimuli,
Hint: Sympathetic system operates dominantly in
they respond to it. Somatic neural system relays
situation of fright / fear / flight.
impulses from CNS to skeletal muscles. Microglial
cells of neural tissue are mesodermal in origin. Sol.: Sweat glands are not innervated by
parasympathetic fibres. Pupillary constriction is a
166. Answer (2)
parasympathetic stimulus. Sympathetic stimulation
Hint: A neuron has a cell membrane. results in bronchial dilation to facilitate breathing.
Sol.: Axolemma is the term for neuronal cell 174. Answer (2)
membrane in axon region. Schwann cells form
Hint: The brain exits the skull through the largest
myelin sheath in neurons of PNS.
foramen in skull.
Oligodendrocytes form myelin sheath in neurons of
CNS. Sol.: Foramen of Magendie and Luschka provide
167. Answer (4) route for passage of CSF from metacoel into
subarachnoid space.
Hint: A single process arises from the cell body
and then bifurcates. 175. Answer (1)
Sol.: Bipolar neurons characteristically found in Hint: It is a part of limbic system.

neuro sensory epithelium of nose, eye and ear. Sol.: Hippocampus converts short term memory to
Apolar neurons are found in cnidarians. Unipolar long term. Amygdala is involved in expression of
neurons are found usually in embryonic stage. emotion e.g., rage.
15/16
176. Answer (2) 179. Answer (3)

Hint: Ventral horn of the spinal cord. Hint: Connexons/Gap junctions play a key part in
these synapses.
Sol.: Grey matter of spinal cord is produced into
posterior/dorsal horns that are sensory in function. Sol.: Electrical synapses are effective due to the
Anterior/ventral horn is motor in nature. presence of gap junctions. They do not involve the
use of neurotransmitters and permit bidirectional
177. Answer (2) flow of ions.
Hint: Arbor vitae. 180. Answer (1)
Sol.: Cerebellum is a part of hindbrain. Hint: Innermost meninx.
178. Answer (2) Sol.: Piamater is continuous with the surface of the
brain. Duramater is the outermost meninx.
Hint: This part is major coordinating centre for
Subdural space is the space present between
sensory and motor signalling.
duramater & arachnoid. Arachnoid and duramater
Sol.: Reticular activating system (RAS) is the do not follow all irregularities (gyri, sulci and
gatekeeper of consciousness. fissures) of brain.
  
16/16
Test - 4 (Code-D)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2021
TEST - 4 (Code-D)
Test Date : 29/12/2019
ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (4) 73. (4) 109. (2) 145. (3)
2. (4) 38. (3) 74. (1) 110. (1) 146. (3)
3. (3) 39. (1) 75. (1) 111. (2) 147. (1)
4. (2) 40. (3) 76. (4) 112. (1) 148. (1)
5. (1) 41. (3) 77. (2) 113. (4) 149. (4)
6. (2) 42. (4) 78. (3) 114. (2) 150. (2)
7. (3) 43. (1) 79. (2) 115. (1) 151. (1)
8. (1) 44. (2) 80. (2) 116. (2) 152. (3)
9. (2) 45. (3) 81. (1) 117. (3) 153. (3)
10. (4) 46. (1) 82. (4) 118. (2) 154. (1)
11. (4) 47. (3) 83. (1) 119. (3) 155. (4)
12. (2) 48. (3) 84. (3) 120. (2) 156. (4)
13. (1) 49. (4) 85. (4) 121. (3) 157. (3)
14. (3) 50. (3) 86. (2) 122. (2) 158. (3)
15. (4) 51. (4) 87. (3) 123. (4) 159. (1)
16. (1) 52. (2) 88. (1) 124. (1) 160. (2)
17. (1) 53. (1) 89. (1) 125. (3) 161. (3)
18. (2) 54. (2) 90. (4) 126. (2) 162. (2)
19. (2) 55. (3) 91. (2) 127. (1) 163. (4)
20. (1) 56. (2) 92. (4) 128. (2) 164. (2)
21. (3) 57. (2) 93. (1) 129. (3) 165. (2)
22. (1) 58. (3) 94. (1) 130. (2) 166. (3)
23. (1) 59. (2) 95. (2) 131. (3) 167. (4)
24. (3) 60. (4) 96. (1) 132. (1) 168. (1)
25. (1) 61. (4) 97. (4) 133. (3) 169. (4)
26. (1) 62. (1) 98. (4) 134. (2) 170. (1)
27. (2) 63. (4) 99. (3) 135. (4) 171. (4)
28. (1) 64. (1) 100. (1) 136. (1) 172. (3)
29. (4) 65. (3) 101. (4) 137. (3) 173. (3)
30. (4) 66. (1) 102. (3) 138. (2) 174. (2)
31. (1) 67. (2) 103. (3) 139. (2) 175. (4)
32. (2) 68. (4) 104. (4) 140. (2) 176. (4)
33. (3) 69. (1) 105. (3) 141. (1) 177. (1)
34. (4) 70. (3) 106. (4) 142. (2) 178. (1)
35. (2) 71. (4) 107. (3) 143. (1) 179. (2)
36. (2) 72. (3) 108. (1) 144. (3) 180. (4)
1/16
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021 Test - 4 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions)
HINTS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
1. Answer (3) GM
   −
V r = −r
Hint: Use principle of superposition, =
F 1 F 12 + F 13 Sol.: =
g GM
r2
−4.5 × 107
Sol.: ⇒ −r =
5.0
⇒ r = 9 × 106 m = 9000 km
1 1 R + h = 9000
=F1 Gm 2  2 + 2 
1 2  h = (9000 – 6000) km
h = 3000 km
5G
Hence F1 = 7. Answer (3)
4
 ∂V ˆ ∂V ˆ ∂V ˆ
2. Answer (4) Hint: Use I = − i − j− k
∂x ∂y ∂t
Hint & Sol.: Gravitational field intensity due to a
spherical shell is zero for r < R. − ( x 2 + y 2 + z 2 ) J/kg
Sol.: V =
3. Answer (3) ∂V
Ix =
− +2 x
=
GMm ∂x
Hint: Use U = −
r ∂V
Iy =
− +2y
=
GMm  GMm   GMe m  ∂y
Sol.: ∆U =− − − = 
2Re  Re   2Re  ∂V
Iz = = +2z
mgRe ∂x
= = 50gRe 
2 I = I x i + I y j + Iz k = 2 xi + 2y j + 2zk
4. Answer (2) 
Hint: At height h,
I (1, 1, 0
= ) ( 2i + 2 j ) N/kg
8. Answer (1)
GM
g= Hint: Use energy conservation method
( Re + h )2
1 GMm GMm
Sol.: mv 2 − =
− +0
gRe2 2 R 16R
Sol.: g ′ =
(Re + h )2 1 GMm  1
= mv 2 1 − 
2 R  16 
120 × Re2
so, mg ′ = 2 15GM
 3Re  v2 =
  8R
 2 
15GM
480 160 v=
W′
= = N 8R
9 3
9. Answer (2)
5. Answer (1)
Hint & Sol.: When energy of the body planet GM
Hint: v =
system is positive then system becomes ( + h)
R
unbounded and body will escape out the planet.
Sol.: Near earth surface
6. Answer (2)
GM
GM GM v=
Hint: V =
− and g = R
r r2
2/16
Test - 4 (Code-D)_(Hints & Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021
At altitude 8R ve Re ρ 1
Sol.:
= =
GM 1 v v e′ Re 1
=
v′ = = v ⋅ 2ρ
9R 3 3 2 2
10. Answer (4) ve
v e′ =
 h  2
Hint: g depth
= g0  1 − 
 Re  15. Answer (4)
Hint & Sol.: Kepler’s law of area is consequence of
 2h 
= g0  1 −
and gheight  (If h << Re) conservation of angular momentum
 Re 
16. Answer (1)
Sol.: For same value of depth and height, Hint: For pure rolling there should not be slipping
decrement in g is greater at height for h << Re. at contact points.
Hence W2 > W1 > W3 Sol.: vcm + rω = 6
11. Answer (4)
−GM
Hint: V =
r
Sol.: V0 = V1 + V2 + V3 + V4
vcm = rω
6
⇒ v cm= = 3 m/s
2
17. Answer (1)
−Gm
=
V0 ×4
r 2h  k2 
Hint: troll
=  1 + 
2 g sin2 θ  R 2 
=−G × × 4 =−4G
2
2h
12. Answer (2) and tslide =
g sin2 θ
2 3
Hint: T ∝ R
tslide 1
3
Sol.: =
trolling k2
T1  R1  2 1+
Sol.: = R2
T2  R2 
3 ts 1 1
3 for ring
= =
6  R 2  1  tr 1+ 1 2
= =   
T  4R  2
18. Answer (2)
T = 48 h
Hint: Use angular conservation
13. Answer (1)
Sol.: ( M = 2m )
Hint: g = gp – Rω2cos2λ
L ML2
Sol.: if ω = 0 then value of g increases at all the mu= ×ω
2 12
places except at poles.
L
14. Answer (3) mu
=ω = 2 3u
4 2mL2 L
Hint:
= v e Re πρG
3 12
3/16
      
19. Answer (2) Sol.: τ0 = R × F 1 + R × F 2 + R × F 3
 
Hint: Pinst = τ.ω 
τ0 = 3FR
Sol.: Pins = τ.ω.cos θ = 10 × 30 × cos0° = 300 W
20. Answer (1)
1 40  1 2 2 1 2
Hint:
= Icmω2 =  mv   mv 
2 100  2  52 
1 2 1
Sol.: Icmω2 = × mv 2
2 5 2
v2 2 25. Answer (1)
or, Icm = mv 2
r2 5
r12 + r22 + r32 + r42 + r52
2 Hint: rr.m.s =
or, Icm = mr 2 5
5
so, body is solid sphere. Sol.: I = ∑ mi ri 2
21. Answer (3) = m ( r12 + r22 + r32 + r42 + r52 )

Hint: For rotational equilibrium Στ = 0
= m. ( 5rrms
2
) = 1× 5 × 62 = 180 kg m2
l
Sol.: τ=
A Fminh − mg.= 0
2 26. Answer (1)
mgl Hint: Use energy conservation
Fmin =
2h 1 2
Sol.: mgh
= Iω
2
L 1 mL2 2
mg =sin θ .ω
2 2 3
3g
sin θ = ω2
L
22. Answer (1) 3g sinθ

ω=
L
2h  k2 
Hint: t
= 1 + 2  27. Answer (2)
g sin θ  R 
2
Hint: L = mR 2ω and L ⇒ conserved
k2 5
Sol.: time ∝ 1+ 2
R ∆R 1 ∆V 1
Sol.: % = × 100 = × 3 = 1%
Hence, time to reach the bottom will be minimum R 3 V 3
for solid sphere and maximum for hollow cylinder. ∆L ∆R ∆ω ∆m
23. Answer (1) Now, × 100 = 2 × 100 + × 100 + × 100
L R ω m
2gh ∆ω
Hint: Use v cm = 0=2 × 1% + × 100 + 0
k2 ω
1+ 2
R ∆ω
× 100 =
−2%
2gh ω
Sol.:=
v cm = gh
1+ 1 28. Answer (1)
24. Answer (3) 2h  k2 
   Hint:
= Use T  1 + 
Hint: Use τ = r × F g sin2 θ  R 2 
4/16
2 32. Answer (2)

k   
1+  
Sol.:
Tsphere
=
 R sphere Hint: Torque
= τ ∑ (r i × F i )
2
Tdisc k     
1+   Sol.: τ= r A × ( −F ) + r B × F
 R disc
  
= − (r A − r B ) × F
2 7
1+   
= 5 = 5 = 14 = F × (r A − r B )
1 3 15
1+ 33. Answer (3)
2 2
  
29. Answer (4) Hint: Use angular momentum L= r × p
Hint: I = mk2 and I = Icm + md2 i j k
Sol.: mk2 = Icm + md2 
Sol.: L = x y z
Icm = m(k2 – d2) px py pz
mk '2 m ( k 2 − d 2 )
=
= i ( ypz − zpy ) − j ( xpz − zpx ) + k ( xpy − ypx )
k' = k2 − d2 = 102 − 62 = 8 cm 
Hence, y component of=
L zpx − xpz
30. Answer (4)
34. Answer (4)
θ 1
Hint: n = and θ= (ω0 + ω)t Hint: Moment of inertia of ring about its axis is mR2
2π 2
Sol.: Given ω0 = 1200 rpm = 40π rad/s Sol.: Mass of complete ring = M
ω = 3120 rpm = 104π rad/s M 5M

Mass of incomplete ring (m) = M − =
6 6
1
(40π + 104
= π) 1152π
2 5MR 2
Iring = mR2 =
1152π 6
=n = 576 revolutions
2π 35. Answer (2)
31. Answer (1) Hint: Parallel axis theorem
Hint: At equilibrium ΣF = 0, Στ = 0 Sol.: I = Icm + md2
Sol.: RA + RB = w + w1 here d = R
= 60 + 100 I = mR2 + mR2
RA + RB = 160 N ...(1)
= 2mR2
Take moment about A
τA = 100 × 0.2 + 60 × 0.25 – RB × 0.5
RB
35 − 0
=
2
RB = 70 N
RA = 160 – 70 = 90 N 36. Answer (2)

 dL
Hint: Torque ( τ ) =
dt

 dL
Sol.: If τ = 0 ⇒ = 0
dt

L = constant
5/16

Hint: In case of pure rolling v = Rω Hint: Moment of inertia depends on mass and
   effective distance from axis of rotation.
Sol.: v=A
v cm +r ω Sol.: From the figure shown, effective distance of
Rω mass is farthest from the axis 3.
= v cm +
2 42. Answer (4)
3 d ω d 2θ
= v cm Hint: Use τ = Iα and =
α =
2 dt dt 2
38. Answer (3) Sol.: θ(t) = 2t3 – 9t2
    ω(t) = 6t2 – 18t
B AB sin θ and=
Hint: Use A ×= A.B AB cos θ
α(t) = 12t – 18
  1  
Sol.: Given A × B = A.B  τ =0 when α = 0
3
i.e. 12t – 18 = 0
1
AB sin θ
= AB cos θ 3
3 t= s
2
1 2
tan θ =  3  3 3
3 ω t = s  = 6 ×   − 18 ×
 2  2 2
θ= 30° 27 54 −27
  =− = =−13.5 rad/s
Now, A − B= 2 2
A + B − 2 AB cos θ 2 2 2
43. Answer (1)
1
= ( A2 + B 2 − AB 3 )2 Hint: Moment of inertia I = Mk2
39. Answer (1) 5MR 2

Sol.: Given I =
2
Hint: I = ∑ mi ri 2
5
Mk 2 = MR 2
Sol.: I = IA + IB + IC+ ID 2
2 2 5
 a   a  k= R
= m  + 0 + m  +0 2
 2  2
44. Answer (2)
= ma2   
Hint: Use τ = r × F
i j k

Sol.: τ = 2 0 4
2 −4 −1
= i (16 ) − j ( −2 − 8 ) + k ( −8 )
= (16i + 10 j − 8k ) N m
45. Answer (3)
  
Hint: Use v = ω × r
 
40. Answer (3) Sol.: Angle between r and ω is 90°
  
Hint: L= ( r × p ) Hence v = rω
v 4
Sol.: Angular momentum of the particle about ω= =
r 0.5
origin will be same because perpendicular distance
from origin remains same = 8 rad/s
6/16
[CHEMISTRY]
46. Answer (1) K  ∆H°  T2 − T1 
Sol.: log  2  =  
Hint: Lower the pKa value, more will be the acidic  K1  2.303R  T1T2 
strength.
pK w
Sol.: pK a =
− logK a =
4 − log 1.8  pH = for neutral water
2
so, pKa < 4
⇒ pKw = 15 ⇒ Kw = 10–15 < 10–14 at 298 K
Hence, W(pKa = 3) will be stronger acid than formic
Hence, temperature has decreased
acid.
53. Answer (1)
47. Answer (3)
Hint: This is example of a basic buffer
Hint: Oxygen can form oxide, peroxide and
superoxide. Sol.: For a basic buffer,
48. Answer (3)
pOH
= pK b + log
[salt ]
Hint: Conjugate acid, base pair differ in one [base]
hydrogen atom.
Sol.: NH3 and NH2 is a conjugate acid-base pair. ⇒ 5.8 = 4.8 + log
[salt ]
[base]
49. Answer (4)
Hint: Carbon suboxide is C3O2 [base]
⇒ = 0.1
[salt]
Sol.: O = C = C = C = O
Hint: When an element in a particular oxidation Hint: Comparable quantities of RNH2 and RNH3+
state is simultaneously oxidized as well as lead to a basic buffer solution.
reduced, such reaction is classified as Kb
disproportionation redox reaction Sol.: RNH2 + H2 O  RNH3 + + OH−
Sol.:  Pb3O4 + 8HCl → 3PbCl2 + Cl2 + 4H2O At equilibrium,
8
+ -1 +2 -1 0 RNH3 +  OH− 
3 Kb =  ...(1)
[RNH2 ]
 2NO2 + 2OH → NO2 + NO3 + H2O
− − −
+4 +3 +5 Also,
 6ClO2 − → 4ClO3 − + 2Cl− RNH2 + H+ → RNH3 +

+3 +5 −1 bef 0.20 0.16 0
aft 0.04 0 0.16
 S8 + 12OH− → 4S2− + 2S2O32− + 6H2O
0 −2 +2 RNH3 +  OH− 
From (1) : K b =
51. Answer (4) [RNH2 ]
Hint: For a conjugate acid-base pair, Kw = KaKb 0.16
⇒ 1× 10 −5 = OH− 
Sol.: Kw = Ka . Kb 0.04 
10 −14 ⇒ OH−  =
2.5 × 10 −6 M
Kb = =0.25 × 10 −4 =2.5 × 10 −5
4 × 10 −10
55. Answer (3)
52. Answer (2)
Hint: Balance the atoms as well as charge.
Hint: Ionization of water is an endothermic
process. Sol.: 2MnO4− + 10I− + 16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 5I2 + 8H2O
7/16
56. Answer (2) Sol.:

Hint: A lewis base has the ability to donate an Solution Moles of H+ pH
electron pair.
A. 2M H2SO4 4 mol Least
57. Answer (2)
Hint: In a saturated solution, Ksp = IP B. 2M HCl 2 mol More
Sol.: A 2SO4 ( s )  2A + ( aq)+ SO4 2− ( aq) C. 2 M HCOOH Less than 2 moles Maximum
2x x
Ksp = (2x)2x1 = 4x3 62. Answer (1)
⇒ 8 × 10–8 = 4x3 Hint: Salts of strong acid with strong base do not
undergo salt hydrolysis.
⇒ (2)1/3 × 10–8/3 = x
63. Answer (4)
[A+] = 2x = 24/3 × 10–8/3
Hint: Mixture of weak acid and its salt with strong
58. Answer (3)
base can form buffer solution.
Hint: Precipitation occurs when
64. Answer (1)
Ksp < Ionic product (IP)
[XY3 ] [Y2 ]
K sp Hint: K C =
Sol.: NiS ( s )  Ni2 + ( aq) + S2 − ( aq) [XY5 ]
Sol.: XY5 ( g)  XY3 ( g) + Y2 ( g)

Ksp Ksp < IP
initially 10 0 0
NiS 5 × 10–5 Precipitation occurs
second eqbm 10 (1 − α ) 10α 10α
CuS 6 × 10–36 Yes, precipitation Total moles = 10(1 + α)

occurs first
 10α  10α 
 2  2 
59. Answer (2) At equilibrium, Kc =
  
Hint: Anionic hydrolysis takes place in of sodium 10 (1 − α ) 
 
salt of substituted benzoic acid.  2 
Kh
A − (aq) + H2O ( l )  HA(aq) + OH− (aq) α2
Sol.: 5×
= 1.33 (α = 0.4)
=
1− α
eqbm c (1 − h ) ch ch
65. Answer (3)
At equilibrium, K
=
( ch )( ch
=
) K w 10 −14
=
c (1 − h ) Hint: K P = K C (RT )
h ∆ng
Ka 10 −4
Assume, h << 1 Sol.:  For 2NO2 ( g)  2NO ( g) + O2 ( g)
( ch ) [HA ]
2 2
Kh = ⇒ 10 −10 = ∆ng = ( 2 + 1) − 2 = 1
c 0.01
Hence, KP = KCRT = KC × 0.0821 × 300
⇒ [HA ] =
10 −6 M
⇒ KP > K C
60. Answer (4)
 For H2 (g) + I2 (g)  2HI(g) Kc has no unit
Hint: F cannot act as a reducing agent.
61. Answer (4)  For 2Ag2O(s)  4Ag(s) + O2 (g)
Hint: NH3 reacts with H2SO4, HCl and HCOOH to K P = p O2
form (NH4)2SO4, NH4Cl and HCOONH4
respectively.  KC or KP is affected only by temperature
8/16

Hint: MnO4– acts as self indicator Hint: Addition of inert gas at constant volume does
not affect the equilibrium.
67. Answer (2)
72. Answer (3)
(PN )(PH )
3
Hint: Cr2O72– + 3SO32– + 8H+ → 2Cr3+ +
Hint: K p = 2 2
(PNH )
2
3
3SO42– + 4H2O
2
Sol.: 2NH3 ( g)  N2 ( g) + 3H2 ( g) nCr O2− 1  3 
Sol.: n = 3= 2
2 7
x 3x , PT
eq. 1 − x SO2−3
2 2
73. Answer (4)
x 3x
Total moles at equilibrium = 1 − x + + =1+ x Hint: Exothermic reaction favours at low
2 2
temperature.
 1− x   x 
pNH3 = Sol.: Since ∆ng < 0, so high pressure favours the
=  PT , pN2   PT
 1+ x   2 (1 + x )  product formation.
 3x  74. Answer (1)
pH2 =  P
 2 (1 + x )  T Hint: Lesser is the reduction potential, greater is the
 
reducing power.
At eqbm,
75. Answer (1)
1 3
 x   3x  Hint: K a1 > K a2 > K a3
(pN2 ).(pH2 )3  2   2   PT  4−2
=Kp = .  76. Answer (4)
(1 − x )  1 + x 
2
(pNH3 )2
Hint: Structure of Br3O8 is
27x 4PT2
=
16
[ x << 1∴ 1 − x = 1 + x ≈ 1]
68. Answer (4) Sol.: BrO− B rO3− B rO4−

+1 +5 +7
Hint: Ag+ forms complex with NH3. 77. Answer (2)

Sol.: Common ion decreases the solubility of weak 1
Hint: pH = 7 + (pKa – pKb)
electrolyte so solubility of AgCl will not change in 2
presence of NaNO3 as no ion is common. 78. Answer (3)
69. Answer (1) Hint: If Keq. < 10–3 then extent of reaction is
Hint: pH = 14 – pOH negligible
Sol.: At equilibrium, the system lies largely in the
Sol.: NaOH → Na + + OH−
favour of reactants.
0.1 M 0.1 M
79. Answer (2)
⇒ pOH = –log[OH–] = –log [0.1] = 1 Hint: At equilibrium, rate of forward reaction is
⇒ pH = 13 equal to rate of backward reaction.
80. Answer (2)
70. Answer (3)
Hint: In SO3 sulphur is in its maximum oxidation
Hint: At equilibrium K = Q
state, so it cannot act as a reducing agent.
Sol.: ∆G = ∆G° + RT lnQ 81. Answer (1)
At equilibrium, Q = K, ∆G = 0 Hint: [OH–] = 10–pOH
9/16
Sol.: pOH = 14 – 11 = 3 ⇒ [OH–] = 10–3 87. Answer (3)

X ( OH)2 ( s )  X2 + ( aq) + 2OH− ( aq) Hint: Factor, with which reaction is multiplied,
s 2 s = 10 −3 becomes the power of K
At equilibrium, Sol.: N2 ( g) + 3H2 ( g)  2NH3 ( g) , K eq =

K
1 −3  1 3 1
Ksp = [X2+] [OH–]=
2 −3 2
 × 10  (10 ) NH3 ( g)  N2 ( g) + H2 ( g) , K eq =
2  2 2 K
Ksp = 5 × 10–10 88. Answer (1)
82. Answer (4) Hint: α = 0.40, it is comparable to 1 (unity).
Hint: Salt of strong acid and weak base will have Ka
lowest pH. Sol.: HA ( aq)  H+ ( aq) + A − ( aq )
Sol.: NaBr : Salt of S.A. + S.B. Eq. c (1 − α ) cα cα
CH3COONa : Salt of W.A + S.B. ( cα )( cα ) = cα 2

Ka =
(NH4)2SO4 : Salt of S.A. + W.B. {c (1 − α )} 1 − α
83. Answer (1)
0.2 × ( 0.4 )
2
K2 ∆H°  T2 − T1  = = 5.33 × 10 −2
Hint: log =   0.6
K1 2.303R  T2 T1 
89. Answer (1)
Sol.: Endothermic ⇔ ∆H° > 0
Hint: H+ ions are neutralized by OH–
When T increases,
1
K Sol.: mmol of OH– = 40 × = 10
⇒ log 2 > 0 ⇒ K 2 > K1 4
K1
 1  1
mmol of H+ =  50 ×  +  10 ×  = 15
84. Answer (3)  5   2 
Hint: For neural molecules, net charge = 0.
H+ + OH− → H2O
Sol.: Na2S2O3 ⇒ 2 × 1 + 2 × a + 3x(–2) = 0 ⇒ a = 2 (i) 15 10 −
SF6 ⇒ a + 6x(–1) ⇒ a = 6 (f ) 5 0
SO2 ⇒ a + 2x(–2) ⇒ a = 4 5 mmol
H  f 500
= 0.01 M
+
=
85. Answer (4) mL
M1V1 + M2 V2 ⇒ pH =
− log0.01 =
2
Hint: M =
V1 + V2
90. Answer (4)
0.01× 2 × V + 0.1× V Hint: Due to common ion effect solubility
Sol.: H+  =
2V decreases.
0.02 + 0.1 Sol.: Na2 CO3 → 2Na + + CO3 2 −
= = 0.06 M
2 0.04 M 0.02 M
pH = –log[H+] = –log (0.06) = 1.22
K SP
86. Answer (2) Ag2CO3  2Ag+ ( aq) + CO32− (aq)
Hint: An acidic buffer requires presence of a weak 2s s + 0.02
acid and its salt with strong base in the same Ksp = [Ag+]2 [CO32–] = (2s)2 (s + 0.02)1
solution.
Since 0.02 >> s ⇒ s + 0.02 ≈ 0.02
Sol.: H2SO4 is a strong acid. Hence, NaHSO4 +
H2SO4 is not an acidic buffer. 8 × 10–12 = 4s2 × 0.02 ⇒ s = 10–5 M
10/16
[BIOLOGY]
Hint: Floridean starch is the stored food of red Hint: Macrophyllous leaves are present in ferns.
algae.
Sol.: Adiantum, Pteris and Dryopteris are ferns.
Sol.: Porphyra is a red alga. Lycopodium belongs to class Lycopsida and does
not have macrophylls.
92. Answer (4)
101. Answer (4)
Hint: Loading and unloading of sucrose in phloem
is active. Sol.: Red algae lack mobile stages in their life
cycle.
Sol.: Mass flow of sucrose in phloem does not
102. Answer (3)
require ATP i.e. passive process.
Hint: Algin is obtained from brown algae.
93. Answer (1)
Sol.: Carrageen is a phycocolloid obtained from
Hint: Transpiration leads to passive transport of
red algae.
water.
103. Answer (3)
Sol.: Active absorption of minerals ions is not a
function associated with transpiration. Sol.: Chlamydomonas is a unicellular green alga.
Hint: Algae are non embryophytes. Hint: Passive transport occurs along the
Sol.: Embryo formation is observed in bryophytes,
Sol.: In both simple diffusion and facilitated
pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms.
diffusion, movement of molecules occur along the
95. Answer (2) concentration gradient.
Sol.: Pollen grains in gymnosperms are carried to 105. Answer (3)
the opening of ovules by air current. Hint: Members of chlorophyceae produce motile
96. Answer (1) asexual spores.
Hint: Turgor pressure is due to the water content Sol.: Phaeophyceae members produce zoospores
of the cell. with two unequal, laterally attached flagella. In
rhodophyceae, non-motile spores are produced.
Sol.: Turgor pressure is the pressure of cytoplasm
106. Answer (4)
exerted on the cell wall of the cell.
Hint: Diplontic life cycle and oogamous
97. Answer (4) reproduction are characteristic features of
Hint: Prothallus is the monoecious gametophyte of angiosperms.
homosporous pteridophytes. Sol.: Wolfia being angiosperm show diplontic life
Sol.: Prothallus is inconspicuous, multicellular, cycle and oogamous reproduction. A brown alga,
haploid, photosynthetic and free living structure. Fucus also have these features. Ectocarpus show
haplodiplontic life cycle while Spirogyra show
98. Answer (4) haplontic life cycle.
Hint: Both brown and red algae are found in 107. Answer (3)
marine habitat, have thalloid body and show sexual Sol.: Volvox is a colonial and motile alga.
reproduction.
108. Answer (1)
Sol.: Cell wall of red algae have polysulphated
esters exclusively. Hint: Cytoplasmic streaming is the movement of
cytoplasm.
99. Answer (3)
Sol.: Cytoplasmic streaming can easily be
Sol.: Photosynthetic pigments of brown algae are observed in the cells of Hydrilla leaves by
chlorophyll a and c. observing the movement of chloroplasts.
11/16
109. Answer (2) Sol.: Cells of leafy stage of mosses are haploid
and cells of capsule are diploid. So if there are
Hint: Bentham and Hooker’s classification system
eleven chromosomes present in the cells of their
was a natural classification system.
leafy stage then in the cells of capsule there will be
Sol.: Artificial classification system was given by 22 chromosomes.
Linnaeus.
118. Answer (2)
110. Answer (1) Sol.: Events precursor to seed habit first appeared
Sol.: Artificial classification is based on few in heterosporous pteridophytes.
observable morphological characters. 119. Answer (3)
111. Answer (2) Sol.: Bryophytes are called amphibians of plant
Sol.: Peat used as fuel is obtained from kingdom because they are land plants but still
Sphagnum. require water for their reproduction.
120. Answer (2)
112. Answer (1)
Hint: Surface tension represents a phenomenon
Sol.: Calcium is an immobile element. which explains that water molecules are attracted
113. Answer (4) to each other in liquid phase more than to water in
gas phase.
Hint: Mosses have great ecological importance in
succession process. Sol.: Transpiration → Water loss in form of
vapour.
Sol.: Mosses along with lichens are the first
organisms to colonise rocks. Adhesion → Attraction of water
molecules to polar surface
114. Answer (2)
Cohesion → Mutual attraction between
Hint: Antheridia and archegonia are present in water molecules.
bryophytes and pteridophytes.
121. Answer (3)
Sol. Chlamydomonas  Hint: Gnetales is the most advanced group of
Volvox  Algae
 gymnosperms.
Laminaria  Sol.: Ginkgo, a living fossil, belongs to most
primitive group of gymnosperms i.e. Ginkgoales.
Marchantia 
 Bryophytes 122. Answer (2)
Funaria  Sol.: The figure is of Equisetum.
Adiantum  123. Answer (4)
Pteridophytes
Dryopteris  Hint: Main plant body of pteridophytes is diploid.
Cycas – Gymnosperms Sol.: Main plant body of pteridophytes is
sporophyte and it is differentiated into root, stem
Both antheridia and archegonia are present in and leaves.
Marchantia, Funaria, Adiantum and Dryopteris.
124. Answer (1)
115. Answer (1)
Sol.: Endodermis is impervious to water because
Sol.: Rhizoids of mosses are multicellular and of the presence of casparian strips which are
branched. composed of suberin.
116. Answer (2) 125. Answer (3)
Hint: Solute potential is lowering of water potential Hint: Gametophytes of spermatophytes are
of a solution. reduced and dependent structures.
Sol.: Solute potential of any solution is always Sol.: In pteridophytes and bryophytes,
negative. gametophytes show independent and free living
existence.
117. Answer (3)
126. Answer (2)
Hint: Leafy stage of bryophytes is the gametophyte
Hint: Ferns belong to the class Pteropsida.
of mosses while capsule is a part of their
sporophyte. Sol.: Adiantum, a fern belongs to class pteropsida.
12/16
127. Answer (1) Subdural space is the space present between

Hint: Seed bearing plants produce heterospores. duramater & arachnoid. Arachnoid and duramater
do not follow all irregularities (gyri, sulci and
Sol.: Gymnosperms and angiosperms are fissures) of brain.
heterosporous plants.
137. Answer (3)
128. Answer (2)
Hint: Connexons/Gap junctions play a key part in
Sol.: Absorption of water by seeds and dry wood is these synapses.
called imbibition.
Sol.: Electrical synapses are effective due to the
129. Answer (3)
presence of gap junctions. They do not involve the
Hint: Gymnosperms have naked seeds. use of neurotransmitters and permit bidirectional
Sol.: In gymnosperms ovary is absent, ovules are flow of ions.
borne on megarporophylls which cluster to form 138. Answer (2)
female cones. Embryo sac is not the female
gametophyte of gymnosperms. It is present in Hint: This part is major coordinating centre for
flowering plants only. sensory and motor signalling.
130. Answer (2) Sol.: Reticular activating system (RAS) is the

gatekeeper of consciousness.
Sol.: Double fertilisation is a unique feature of
angiosperms. 139. Answer (2)
131. Answer (3) Hint: Arbor vitae.
Hint: Coralloid roots are present in Cycas. Sol.: Cerebellum is a part of hindbrain.
Sol.: Cyanobacteria which are in symbiosis with 140. Answer (2)
coralloid roots of Cycas, have the ability to fix
Hint: Ventral horn of the spinal cord.
nitrogen.
Sol.: Grey matter of spinal cord is produced into
132. Answer (1)
posterior/dorsal horns that are sensory in function.
Sol.: Water potential of pure water at standard Anterior/ventral horn is motor in nature.
temperature which is not under any pressure is
taken as zero. 141. Answer (1)
133. Answer (3) Hint: It is a part of limbic system.

Hint: Embryo sac is the female gametophyte of Sol.: Hippocampus converts short term memory to
angiosperms. long term. Amygdala is involved in expression of
emotion e.g., rage.
Sol.: Embryo sac is 7 celled 8 nucleated structure
which has 3 celled egg apparatus, 3 antipodal cells 142. Answer (2)
and a central cell with two haploid polar nuclei. Hint: The brain exits the skull through the largest
134. Answer (2) foramen in skull.
Hint: All seed bearing plants show diplontic life Sol.: Foramen of Magendie and Luschka provide
cycle. route for passage of CSF from metacoel into
Sol.: Male and female gametophytes of both subarachnoid space.
gymnosperms and angiosperms are reduced, 143. Answer (1)
dependent and limited to one or few cells.
Hint: Sympathetic system operates dominantly in
135. Answer (4) situation of fright / fear / flight.
Hint: Most algae have haplontic life cycle while Sol.: Sweat glands are not innervated by
some others have haplodiplontic life cycle. parasympathetic fibres. Pupillary constriction is a
Sol.: Polysiphonia shows haplodiplontic life cycle parasympathetic stimulus. Sympathetic stimulation
while Chlamydomonas shows haplontic life cycle. results in bronchial dilation to facilitate breathing.
136. Answer (1) 144. Answer (3)
Hint: Innermost meninx. Hint: Organ of sight.
Sol.: Piamater is continuous with the surface of the Sol.: Optic nerve exits from the eye and relays
brain. Duramater is the outermost meninx. information to forebrain.
13/16
145. Answer (3) Sol.: Centrosome comprises a pair of centrioles

that result in formation of spindle to facilitate cell
Hint: It is present in forebrain.
division. Neuron is the structural and functional unit
Sol.: A bundle of axons is termed tract in CNS of neural tissue which lacks centrosome.
while it is called a nerve in PNS. Cerebral aqueduct
153. Answer (3)
and Crura cerebri are present in midbrain whereas
vermis connects the two cerebellar hemispheres. Hint: Nissl’s granules are involved in protein
synthesis.
146. Answer (3)
Sol.: Nissl’s granules are combination of RER and
Hint: Hunger center also lies in this part of brain. ribosomes, hence called site of protein synthesis
Sol.: Hypothalamus part of forebrain houses center that are present in dendrites and cell body of
for hunger, thirst, satiety and pleasure. Medulla neurons.
oblongata harbours centers for controlling vomiting, 154. Answer (1)
respiration etc.
Hint: It represents bundle of muscle fibres.
147. Answer (1)
Sol.: Each muscle fibre is enclosed by
Hint: Monosynaptic reflex. endomysium. A bundle of muscle fibres is called
Sol.: In this patellar reflex, a kicking response is fascicle which is protected by perimysium. Many
seen. Motor end plate is the effector while muscle bundles along with their blood supply are enclosed
spindle is the receptor. Only two neurons are by sheath of collagen fibres called epimysium.
involved in knee jerk reflex. 155. Answer (4)
148. Answer (1) Hint: These are involuntary responses of CNS.
Hint: Trained but involuntary response. Sol.: Reflex actions are very rapid and automatic
Sol.: Memory indicates prior exposure to a certain responses in which same kind of stimulus evokes a
food which evokes a response. The other options short lived response.
listed are unconditioned reflexes / responses. 156. Answer (4)
149. Answer (4) Hint: All or none principle.
Hint: A single process arises from the cell body Sol.: Even suprathreshold stimulus evokes an
and then bifurcates. action potential similar to threshold stimulus.
Sol.: Bipolar neurons characteristically found in Increase in temperature increases the speed of
neuro sensory epithelium of nose, eye and ear. conduction. Diameter of nerve fibre is directly
Apolar neurons are found in cnidarians. Unipolar proportional to the transmission of nerve impulse.
neurons are found usually in embryonic stage. 157. Answer (3)
150. Answer (2) Hint: Electroencephalogram is a test used to
Hint: A neuron has a cell membrane. detect electrical activity of brain.
Sol.: EEG helps to evaluate nerve action potentials
Sol.: Axolemma is the term for neuronal cell
in the brain.
membrane in axon region. Schwann cells form
myelin sheath in neurons of PNS. 158. Answer (3)
Oligodendrocytes form myelin sheath in neurons of Hint: Hyperpolarised neurons have potential lesser
CNS. than resting membrane potential.
151. Answer (1) Sol.: –70 mV is the general value of resting
Hint: This germ layer gives rise to epidermis. membrane potential for a neuron. –55 mV can be
the value for threshold potential when a neuron is
Sol.: Calcium ions are essential for exocytosis of
stimulated.
neurotransmitters. Neurons cannot produce stimuli,
they respond to it. Somatic neural system relays 159. Answer (1)
impulses from CNS to skeletal muscles. Microglial Hint: A transmembrane pump.
cells of neural tissue are mesodermal in origin.
Sol.: Na+/K+ ATPase is the electrogenic
152. Answer (3) transmembrane pump that throws 3 Na+ ions from
Hint: Spindle formation is essential for cell division axoplasm into ECF in exchange for 2K+ ions at
in most animal cells. expense of one ATP.
14/16
160. Answer (2) 168. Answer (1)

Hint: This neurotransmitter is released at Hint: This results from inflammation of joints.
parasympathetic junctions. Sol.: The accumulation of uric acid crystals leading
Sol.: In Myasthenia gravis, the immune system to inflammation of joints causes simple gout.
produces antibodies that bind to and block Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder
receptors for acetylcholine. affecting neuromuscular junctions while myelin
sheath is damaged in multiple sclerosis.
161. Answer (3)
169. Answer (4)
Hint: This system involves neurotransmitters.
Hint: This protein has three subunits.
Sol.: Chemicals called neurotransmitters are
released at synapses between neurons to facilitate Sol.: Binding of calcium to troponin ‘C’ subunit
signalling. Endocrine system requires hormones to unmasks myosin binding site on actin by pulling
provide chemical integration. filamentous tropomyosin away from the binding
site.
162. Answer (2)
170. Answer (1)
Hint: Skeletal muscles are voluntary.
Hint: Identify a cartilaginous joint.
Sol.: ‘I’ represents skeletal muscle e.g., biceps.
These muscle fibres are voluntary in nature and Sol.: Synovial joints offer maximum range of
have striped appearance. movement among which ball and socket joint
permits movement in many planes. e.g., joint
163. Answer (4) present between femur and acetabulum.
Hint: Amoeboid movement occurs in 171. Answer (4)
macrophages.
Hint: The root word ‘myo’ indicates muscle.
Sol.: Specialised cells in our body such as
macrophages in tissues exhibit amoeboid Sol.: Muscular dystrophy is a disorder of muscular
movement through pseudopodia formation. system.
164. Answer (2) 172. Answer (3)

Hint: Locomotion results in displacement.
Hint: Red muscle fibres are rich in mitochondria.
Sol.: Talking involves movement of muscles but
Sol.: Red muscle fibres contain large quantities of
the person does not essentially have to move from
myoglobin. Both type of fibres are unbranched and
one place to another. Change in location occurs if
multinucleated.
a person walks, climbs and swims.
165. Answer (2)
173. Answer (3)
Hint: Part of sarcomere with both myosin and actin
Hint: Tetany results from hypocalcemia.
filaments.
Sol.: Ribs are bicephalic in man as they have two
Sol.: A band / anisotropic band remains constant in articulation surfaces on their dorsal end to interact
dimension. The size of H zone, I band and with thoracic vertebrae.
sarcomere decreases during contraction.
174. Answer (2)
166. Answer (3)
Hint: This bone supports the weight of human
Hint: Sarcomere is a feature of striated muscle head.
fibres.
Sol.: The 9th and 10th pair of ribs are called
Sol.: Smooth/visceral muscle fibres are non vertebrochondral ribs. Each half of pectoral girdle
striated and uninucleated. Syncytial appearance is comprises one clavicle and one scapula. The
a property of skeletal muscle fibres. Gap junctions number of sacral vertebrae changes from 5 to 1
are present in cardiac and smooth muscle fibres. from foetus to adult stage.
167. Answer (4) 175. Answer (4)
Hint: Muscle fibres and neurons respond to Hint: Joint permitting movement in only one plane.
threshold stimulus.
Sol.: Hinge joints are synovial joints where convex
Sol.: Contractility, extensibility and elasticity are end of one bone interacts with concave end of the
properties exhibited by muscle cells (myocytes). other bone.
15/16
176. Answer (4) 178. Answer (1)

Hint: The given structure is associated with Hint: Identify a cranial bone.
pectoral girdle. Sol.: Sphenoid is a single bone that interacts with
Sol.: Glenoid cavity is a depression in scapula all cranial bones.
associated with pectoral girdle. Acetabulum 179. Answer (2)
articulates with thigh bone. Hint: This bone helps constitute ribcage.
177. Answer (1) Sol.: Sternum is a single bone that interacts with
Hint: The number of phalanges in a human hand. ribs to form ribcage to protect lungs.
180. Answer (4)
Sol.: There are 14 bones forming the human face.
Total number of bones in adult human body is 206. Hint: These are called sutures.
The number of zygomatic bones and mandible is 2 Sol.: Fibrous joints in cranium prevent any
and 1 respectively. movement in skull bones.
  
16/16

Solutions - AIATS Medical-2021 (XI Studying) - Test-4 - (Code-C & D) - (29-12-2019)

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Test - 4 (Code-C)_(Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2021

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2021

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

3. Answer (1) = ma2

16. Answer (4)

r12 + r22 + r32 + r42 + r52

27. Answer (2) ve Re ρ 1

30. Answer (1)

37. Answer (2) ⇒ r = 9 × 106 m = 9000 km

GM 41. Answer (1)

= = 5.33 × 10 −2 CH3COONa : Salt of W.A + S.B.

1 3 1 X ( OH)2 ( s )  X2 + ( aq) + 2OH− ( aq)

At equilibrium, 65. Answer (4)

Ksp = 5 × 10–10 66. Answer (3)

Sol.: 2NH3 ( g)  N2 ( g) + 3H2 ( g)

Hint: Cr2O72– + 3SO32– + 8H+ → 2Cr3+ + 27x 4PT2

71. Answer (3) 76. Answer (4)

Sol.:  For 2NO2 ( g)  2NO ( g) + O2 ( g) 77. Answer (2)

⇒ KP > K C Sol.: A − (aq) + H2O ( l )  HA(aq) + OH− (aq)

82. Answer (2) 85. Answer (4)

⇒ 5.8 = 4.8 + log

[base] Sol.: NH3 and NH2 is a conjugate acid-base pair.

95. Answer (3) 105. Answer (3)

96. Answer (2) 106. Answer (2)

109. Answer (3) 117. Answer (2)

130. Answer (1) 140. Answer (4)

145. Answer (4) 153. Answer (4)

151. Answer (2) 159. Answer (3)

161. Answer (4) 168. Answer (1)

Sol.: Bipolar neurons characteristically found in Hint: It is a part of limbic system.

176. Answer (2) 179. Answer (3)

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2021

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

21. Answer (3) = m ( r12 + r22 + r32 + r42 + r52 )

22. Answer (1) 3g sinθ

2 32. Answer (2)

ω = 3120 rpm = 104π rad/s M 5M

37. Answer (4) 41. Answer (3)

39. Answer (1) 5MR 2

 6ClO2 − → 4ClO3 − + 2Cl− RNH2 + H+ → RNH3 +

56. Answer (2) Sol.:

Ksp = (2x)2x1 = 4x3 62. Answer (1)

Sol.: XY5 ( g)  XY3 ( g) + Y2 ( g)

CuS 6 × 10–36 Yes, precipitation Total moles = 10(1 + α)

Assume, h << 1 Sol.:  For 2NO2 ( g)  2NO ( g) + O2 ( g)

66. Answer (1) 71. Answer (4)

68. Answer (4) Sol.: BrO− B rO3− B rO4−

Hint: Ag+ forms complex with NH3. 77. Answer (2)

Sol.: pOH = 14 – 11 = 3 ⇒ [OH–] = 10–3 87. Answer (3)

At equilibrium, Sol.: N2 ( g) + 3H2 ( g)  2NH3 ( g) , K eq =

CH3COONa : Salt of W.A + S.B. ( cα )( cα ) = cα 2

94. Answer (1) 104. Answer (4)

127. Answer (1) Subdural space is the space present between

130. Answer (2) Sol.: Reticular activating system (RAS) is the

133. Answer (3) Hint: It is a part of limbic system.

145. Answer (3) Sol.: Centrosome comprises a pair of centrioles

160. Answer (2) 168. Answer (1)

164. Answer (2) 172. Answer (3)

176. Answer (4) 178. Answer (1)

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