2 parts Part 1

1- Which of the following types of microscopy is most useful for viewing the
internal structures of unstained specimens?
a- Electron
b- Confocal
c- Phase-contrast
d- Fluorescence
2-A simple stain
a-differentiates one bacterial group from another.
b-allows visualization of bacterial motility.
c-see bacteria morphology only.
d-requires one stain and one decolorizing agent.
e-requires multiple staining steps.
3-In the Gram stain, if the decolorizing step is deleted, gram-negative cells will
appear:
a-blue
b-pink
c-green
d-purple
4-Which is common to the Gram stain and acid-fast stain?
a-Fixation of the smear prior to staining.
b-Use of methylene blue as a counterstain.
c-Use of acid alcohol for decolorizing.
d-Use of steam for stain penetration.
e-Use of iodine as a mordant.
5- Place the structures of the compound light microscope in the order that
light passes through them on the way to the observer's eyes:
(1) condenser, (2) ocular lens, (3) illuminator, (4) specimen, (5) objective lens
a- 3-4-1-5-2
b-3-1-4-5-2
c-3-1-5-4-2
d-2-1-4-3-5
6-In the decolorizing step of the Gram stain, which reagent is used?
a-malachite green
B-crystal violet
c-iodine
d-alcohol

7-In the decolorizing step of the acid-fast stain, which reagent is

used?
a-acid-alcohol
b-alcohol-acetone
 c-carbol fuchsin
d-methylene blue

8-The purpose of the counterstain in the Gram stain is to:

a-decolorize gram-positive cells.
b-make gram-negative cells visible.
c-gram-positive cells visible.
d-decolorize gram-negative cells.

9-A decolorizer is used to:

a-selectively remove stain from cells.
b-stain gram-negative cells.
c-clean off excess stain.
d-wash slides.

10-In a negative stain, gram-negative bacteria will be:

a-colorless.
b-red.
c-blue.
d-green.

11-Assume that you are looking at a 25 m plant cell magnified 100

If you are using a 10x ocular lens, what is the magnifying power of
the objective lens?
a-10
b-1
c-100
d-1000

12- In serological test if Ag is particulate it is called:

a- agglutination
b- Precepitation
c- Toxin neutralization
d- Virus neutralization

13- diagnostic titre: > 1/ 80 is significant in:

a- Widal test
b- Brucella
c- HCV
d- Weil weilux
 14- Titre is :
a- highest dilution of the serum that give positive Ag Ab reaction
b- highest dilution of the serum that give negative Ag Ab reaction
c- lowest dilution of the serum that give positive Ag Ab reaction
d- lowest dilution of the serum that give negative Ag Ab reaction

15- Which of the following is a serological test:

a- Haemagllutination
b- Haemaglutination inhibition
c- Catalase test
d- coagulase test

16- Direct Coomb s test detect:

a- Rh Ab in the blood of neonate
b- Rh Ab in the blood of mother
c- Non
d- a+b

17- Which of the following is an example for passive agglutination:

a- Pregnanct test
b- Widal
c- ASO
d-CRP

18- which of the following is an example for double diffusion:

a- Pregnency
b- Shick test
c- Elecks test
d- Dick test

19- Which of the following is an example for in vitro toxin neutralization:

a- Pregnanct test
b- Widal
c- ASO
d-CRP

20- diagnosis of treponema pallidum mostly done by:

a- ELISA
b- Immunoflourescence
c- RIA
d- Diffusion test

21- all are precaution for the use of microscope except:

 a- Oil immersion lenes is used
b- Drop of ceder wood oil is used
c- Condenser is high up
d- Iris diaphragm is not opened

22- Spirochetes and cholera best seen by :

a- LM
b- Dark ground microscope
c- EM
d- Phase contrast microscope

23- Viruses are examined by:

a- LM
b- Dark ground microscope
c- EM
d- Phase contrast microscope

24- All the following are correct about gram stain except:
a- Thick & complex peptidoglycan in G+ve bacteria retain the dye.
b-Cytoplasm of G+ ve bacteria is strong acidic with -ve charge:
c- cell wall permeability of G+ve bacteria are more than in G-ve
d- 1st step in gram stain is methyl violet

25- all are correct about hanging drop except:

a- test bacterial motility
b- Active motility : detect motile bacteria
c- Passive motility: on adding specific antibodies : not stop motility
d- oil lens is used

26- About anaerobic jar:

a- methylene blue indicator is used as it is colorless and in presence of
O2 →blue color
b- Used for growing of aerobic organisms as clostridium
c- contains reducing substances e.g haematin and glutathione
d- contains sodium thioglycolate

27- About ZN all are correct except:

a- Concentrated carbol fucshcin is uesd
b- Methylene blue is used
c- film should not be reported as negative unless examined for 2 minutes.
d- If the result is negative; it is necessary to repeat examination of the sputum

28- Alkaline peptone water is used for growth of :

 a- Vibrio cholera
b- Paeudomonas
c- Staph
d- Strept

29- Culture of anaerobic organisms done in :

a- Nutrient agar deep
b- Nutrient agar Slope
c- Nutrient agar plate
d- Blood agar

30- Lofflers serum used for culture:

a- Dipheteria
b- Haemophilus
c- Neiserria
d- TB

31- about TCBS all are correct except:

a- composed of :Thiosulphate - citrate & sucrose + Thymol blue
indicator
b- used for culture of V cholera
c- green media
d- used for culture of staph

32- Hot air oven temp:

a- 180 for seconds
b- 160 C for 2 hour
c- 210 for 1 hour
d- 120 for 2 hour

33- Pasteurization of milk by:

a- 63 C for 30 min and rapid cooling
b- 1 hour at 56C for 7 successive days
c- in special water bath, "vaccine bath" at 60 C for 60 min
d- autoclave

34- Heart lung machines sterilized by:

a- Ethylene oxide
b- Ozone
c- chlorine
d- Alcohol

35- all are correct about sample collection except:

 a- Adequate quantity.
b- Represent the infectious process .
c- Contamination must be avoided by using aseptic precautions.
d. container should not be labelled

36-Tyndallization at 100 °C used for sterilization of all the following except:

a- Gelatin media.
b- Sugar media .
c- Litmus milk media
d- Blood agar plate

37- Temperature of autoclave:

a- 125 C
b- 121
c- 160
d- 180

38- Cellulose membrane filter:

a- Made of cellulose acetate pores of
8mm to 0.01mm,
b- the filter is sterilized in autoclave,
121°C for 35-45 minutes.
c- The membrane can not be fitted in
metal or glass holder.
d- The retained bacteria can be cultured
by placing the filter in contact with
culture media "quantitative technique"

39- About Ultraviolet radiation all are correct except:

a- It is produced by mercury lamp.
b- Sterilization of plastic syringe.
c- Sterilization of inoculation chamber
for viruses.
d- Sterilization of water.

40- all about Ethylene oxide are correct except :

a- Lethal only to vegetative bacteria and viruses.
b- It has more rapid diffusion into dry and porous materials.
c- Used for sterilization of articles liable to be damaged by heat as
plastic, rubber, blankets, pharmaceutical products, and heart-
lung machines
d- Gas in nature
 41- coxackivirus is inoculated in:
a- guine pig
b- suckling mice
c- rat
d- flea

42- Source of complement in wasserman test:

a- guine pig
b- suckling mice
c- rat
d- flea

43- Indicator system: Consists of

a- sheep RBCs and its specific antibodies
b- complement
c- Serum
d- Cardiolipin

44- about Coagulase test all are correct except:

a- The test is used to differentiate Staphylococcus aureus that produce the

enzyme coagulase, from non coagulase producing bacteria such as S.
epidermidis and S. saprophyticus.
b- Coagulase causes plasma to clot by converting fibrinogen to fibrin.
c- Two types of coagulase are produced by most of Staph aureus
d- Free coagulase is detected with slide test.

45- Dnase agar differentiate:

a- Staph from strept
b- Staph aureus from other staph
c- Dipheteria from clostridum
d- Neisseria from dipheteria

46- which of the following organisms is resistance to Novobiocin:

a- Staph aureus
b- Staph epidermidis
c- Staph saprophyticus
d- non
 47 - which of the following organisms is sensitive to bacitracin:
a- Strept pyogenes
b- Strept agalactiae
c-Strept faecalis
d- Non

48- all about Strept pyogenes correct except::

a- are facultative anaerobes.
b- grow in normal atmospheric CO2 concentration, but 10% CO2
enhance growth . Optimum temperature37 °C.
c- grow on ordinary media
d- Colonies are small (pin point) and translucent

49- Schultz Charlton reaction

a- Is a neutralization test in vitro .
a- Intradermal injection of the anti–erythrogenic toxin in
the erythematous area of skin rash will lead to fading
of the rash within 6-12 hours in positive cases
b- Used in diagnosis of chickenpox
c- Used in diagnosis of small pox
50- Strept pneumoniae have:
a- Negative fermentation of inulin,
b- bile insolubility, resistance to optochin
c- alpha haemplysis
d- Capsular swelling reaction

51- Nocardia species stained with:

a-Modified kinyoun acid fast stain
b- Wright's stain and Giemsa stain
c- Periodic acid Schiff
d-Gomori's methanamine silver stain
52- Capsule of cryptococcus stained by:
a- India ink
b- Wright's stain and Giemsa stain
c- Periodic acid Schiff
d-Gomori's methanamine silver stain

53- About Weil-Felix test which one is correct:

 a- Proteus OX19, OX2 or OXK antigens are used as antigen for
detection of rickettsial antibodies
b- specific and sensitive.
c- Proteus strains have etiological role in rickettsial infections
d- used in diagnsis of typhoid

54- about rickettsia which one is incorrect:

a- cause typhus disease
b- by Machiavelli stain organisms are bright red against the blue
background of the tissue.
c- by Castaneda stain blue organisms against a red background.
d- by Giemsa stain red organisms
55- About widal test all are correct except:
a-In Egypt, titers below 1/80 are of no significance due to previous
subclinical infection.
B-Agglutination of O suspension indicates old infection.
c-If the test was done during the first week, it gives false negative results.
d-Non-enteric infections may cause a non-specific rise on antibody titer,
(anamnestic reaction).

56- All about campylobacter are correct except:

a- wet smear stool: darting motility (seagull” or “comma”) organisms
b- is microaerophilic
c- The optimal temperature for growth is 37°C
d- C jejuni: Is an important cause of diarrhea, in children & young
adults

57- All correct about V.cholera except:

a- is comma shaped Gram-negative rods motile by single polar flagellum ,
( darting motility)
b- ferments glucose, maltose, mannite and sucrose with production of acid
only.
c- Gives a positive cholera-red reaction
d- oxidase negative

58- Urea breath test is diagnostic to:

a- V cholera
b- Campylobacter
c- Helicobacter
d- Spirochetes

59- Drum stick appearance is characteristic to:

 a- Clostridum tetani
b- Clostridium welchi
c- Clos botulinum
d- Clost difficle

60- All are correct about candida except:

a- The colony appears as a rounded white creamy in colour and
creamy in texture.
b- Film stained by lactophenol blue show budding yeast and filaments
(pseudo-mycelium).
c-If stained by Gram stain appear Gram positive.
d- Germ tube test : culture of the yeast on serum causes rapid
formation of yeast when incubated at room temp for 4 hours.

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