Nebosh Ndip Examiners Report 2018 & 2019 PDF

Examiners’ Report
NEBOSH NATIONAL DIPLOMA IN

OCCUPATIONAL HEALTH AND SAFETY
UNIT A:
MANAGING HEALTH AND SAFETY
JANUARY 2019
CONTENTS
Introduction 2
General comments 3
Comments on individual questions 4
Examination technique 12
Command words 16
 2019 NEBOSH, Dominus Way, Meridian Business Park, Leicester LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700 fax: 0116 282 4000 email: info@nebosh.org.uk website: www.nebosh.org.uk
The National Examination Board in Occupational Safety and Health is a registered charity, number 1010444
Introduction
NEBOSH (The National Examination Board in Occupational Safety and Health) was formed in 1979 as
an independent examining board and awarding body with charitable status. We offer a comprehensive
range of globally-recognised, vocationally-related qualifications designed to meet the health, safety,
environmental and risk management needs of all places of work in both the private and public sectors.
Courses leading to NEBOSH qualifications attract around 50,000 candidates annually and are offered
by over 600 course providers, with examinations taken in over 120 countries around the world. Our
qualifications are recognised by the relevant professional membership bodies including the Institution
of Occupational Safety and Health (IOSH) and the International Institute of Risk and Safety Management
(IIRSM).
NEBOSH is an awarding body that applies best practice setting, assessment and marking and applies
to Scottish Qualifications Authority (SQA) Accreditation regulatory requirements.
This report provides guidance for candidates and course providers for use in preparation for future
examinations. It is intended to be constructive and informative and to promote better understanding of
the syllabus content and the application of assessment criteria.
© NEBOSH 2019
Any enquiries about this report publication should be addressed to:
NEBOSH
Dominus Way
Meridian Business Park
Leicester
LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700

fax: 0116 282 4000
email: info@nebosh.org.uk
2
General comments
Many candidates are well prepared for this unit assessment and provide comprehensive and relevant
answers in response to the demands of the question paper. This includes the ability to demonstrate
understanding of knowledge by applying it to workplace situations.
There are other candidates, however, who appear to be unprepared for the unit assessment and who
show both a lack of knowledge of the syllabus content and a lack of understanding of how key concepts
should be applied to workplace situations, which is an essential requirement at Diploma level.
This report has been prepared to provide feedback on the standard date examination sitting in January
2019.
Feedback is presented in these key areas: responses to questions, examination technique and
command words and is designed to assist candidates and course providers prepare for future
assessments in this unit.
Candidates and course providers will also benefit from use of the ‘Guide to the NEBOSH National
Diploma in Occupational Health and Safety’ which is available via the NEBOSH website. In particular,
the guide sets out in detail the syllabus content for Unit A and tutor reference documents for each
Element.
Additional guidance on command words is provided in ‘Guidance on command words used in learning
outcomes and question papers’ which is also available via the NEBOSH website.
3
Unit A
Managing health and safety
Question 1 Accidents and incidents disrupt an organisation’s normal operations,

adding to the organisation’s operating costs.
(a) Outline potential sources of financial loss arising from accidents

and incidents. (5)
(b) Outline benefits to the organisation of effective health and safety

management. (5)
This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning outcome

1.1: Explain the moral, legal and economic reasons for the effective management of
health and safety.
In part (a) candidates gained marks for outlining sources of financial loss such as lost
production, fines, sick pay and repairs to damaged plant and equipment. Many
candidates were able to gain the maximum marks available for this part of the question.
Some candidates did include material on direct/indirect and insured/uninsured costs
which was not asked for.
In part (b) candidates gained marks for outlining benefits to the organisation such as
reduced costs, improved employee morale and reduced insurance premiums. Some
candidates appeared to respond to a different question by outlining benefit of a health
and safety management system and introduced material that was not worthy of marks.
Additionally, some candidates missed the opportunity to gain marks by not providing
the necessary amount of discussion required by the ‘outline’ command word.
Overall this question was answered well by candidates.
Question 2 An office employee has been assessed as medically fit to return to work
after a serious, non-work-related accident. As a result of the accident,
the employee is now a wheelchair user. The Managing Director has
refused to allow the employee’s return citing ‘safety concerns’.
(a) Given that disability is a protected characteristic in law, outline

the advice the health and safety practitioner should give the
Managing Director in this situation. (6)
(b) The injured employee decides to make a claim for constructive

dismissal.
Identify the body that would hear the claim in the first instance. (1)
(c) Outline the orders that the body could make if the employee
wins the dismissal case. (3)

2.7: Explain the principles of employment and discrimination law as it effects health and
safety issues.
In part (a) some candidates gained marks for outlining that the Managing Director’s
actions were discriminatory, that there are employer duties around treatment of disabled
workers, including making reasonable adjustments. However, several candidates
provided limited responses beyond these points. Some candidates provided reasonable
practical examples of reasonable adjustment for the scenario.
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Although the question directed the candidate towards responsibilities of making
necessary provisions, some candidates gave wider discussion on how the Managing
Director could discuss the issues with the workforce or to have training and information,
which did not gain marks.
In part (b) most candidates were able to gain the mark for correctly identifying the
correct hearing body.
In part (c) most candidates gained marks for outlining the orders that could be made.
However, there was occasional confusion over the difference between re-instatement
and re-engagement.
Overall, there appeared to be a lack of knowledge on reasonable adjustments and

principles of discrimination law as applied to health and safety issues. Candidates are
advised to study this section of the law in much greater detail.
Question 3 For a range of internal information sources:
(a) outline how EACH source contributes to risk assessment; (7)
(b) outline limitations of internal information sources. (3)

7.1: Explain how to use internal and external information sources in identifying hazards
and the assessing of risk.
In part (a) most candidates were able to identify some relevant sources of information,
such as accident reports, ill-health data and existing risk assessments and gained
marks where they outlined how the source contributes to risk assessment. Some
candidates missed the opportunity to outline the contribution and therefore did not gain
marks. Others focused too much on the source itself rather than how it could contribute
to the risk assessment process. Better answers incorporated a range of sources and
succinctly outlined the contribution to risk assessment.
In part (b) answers were limited and focused on the issues of internal subjectivity of the
data or concerns about bias, and did not demonstrate a full understanding of the
limitations of internal information sources.
Question 4 (a) Outline the defences available to a defendant who, in a civil

case, is sued in an action for common law negligence. (6)
(b) Outline what should be considered when determining the level

of general damages paid to a successful claimant. (4)

4.2: Explain the criteria required to establish a successful civil action for breach of
statutory duty and negligence, the main defences available and the procedure for
assessment of damages under civil law.
In part (a) many candidates gained marks for clearly outlining the defences available.
Although duty not breached was included in many answers, some candidates missed
the opportunity to gain a mark by omitting ‘reasonableness’. A few candidates missed
opportunities to gain marks by only listing defences instead of outlining each one.
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For part (b) some candidates had difficulty differentiating between general and special
damages leading to answers that contained a mixture of considerations. Better
answers did outline one or two relevant considerations, while limited answers focused
on special damages and omitted any future considerations.
Question 5 Multi-causality theories recognise that accidents can have multiple

causes.
(a) (i) Outline why multi-causality theories are used in accident

investigation. (2)
(ii) Outline possible limitations of multi-causality theories in
accident investigation. (2)
(b) Explain why accident data should be recorded by an

organisation. (6)
This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning

outcomes 5.1: Outline theories/models and use of loss causation techniques; 5.2:
Explain the use of quantitative methods in analysing loss data; and 5.3: Explain the
significance and use of statutory and internal reporting of loss events.
In part (a) (i) answers were limited, although candidates were able to outline at least
one reason for the use of multi-causality theories such as identification of root causes.
For part (a) (ii) the limitations were not well discussed. Answers seem to focus on
models being complex and expensive, for example. Some candidates strayed away
from the question, stating for example that if an accident was not investigated quickly
enough then the models may not work, or that the organisation may choose to ignore
the outcome therefore making the exercise pointless.
In part (b) reasons provided for recording accident data were variable. Most answers
cited legal requirements and trend analysis for example, but more complex reasons
such as prioritising actions or performance review against objectives were rarely
covered.
Question 6 (a) Outline TWO principles of the following risk management

strategies AND give ONE example of EACH strategy:
(i) risk transfer; (3)
(ii) risk reduction. (3)
(b) When applying a risk reduction strategy, outline factors that

affect the choice of risk control measures. (4)

outcomes 8.1: Explain the use of common risk management strategies; and 8.2: Outline
factors to be taken into account when selecting risk controls.
In part (a) (i) many candidates gained marks for outlining the principle of shifting
responsibility to third party and giving a relevant example. Few candidates considered
other principles. However, some answers to part (ii) lacked clarity in relation to the
principle and the examples given. With both parts in (a) some candidates missed the
opportunity to gain marks by outlining only one principle and giving more than one
example – the latter not gaining more marks. Additionally, some candidates adopted a
widespread approach when providing examples to both parts in (a) for which marks
were gained but did not necessarily demonstrate a clear understanding of the concepts
explored in this question.
6
In part (b) some candidates appeared to misinterpret the question and gave an outline
of either a hierarchy of control or the principles of prevention. Other candidates missed
the opportunity to gain marks by omitting many considerations such as cost,
practicability and meeting legal requirements.
Question 7 A logistics organisation owns a two-storey warehouse that is in regular

use for storing equipment. The building has fallen into a state of disrepair
and there is a large hole in the upper floor, through which it is possible to
fall down to ground level. Signs with ‘Danger – no entry’ have been
placed on the ground floor by each of the two staircases. Despite this,
their employees still have access.
The logistics organisation uses a security firm whose employees also

regularly enter the warehouse. The security firm has reported signs of
unlawful entry.
This has both civil and criminal implications.
(a) Outline the relevant duties under the Occupiers’ Liability Act
1984 OR Occupiers’ Liability (Scotland) Act 1960 that may apply
to this scenario. (8)
Use case law to support your answer.
The Health and Safety Executive (HSE) has visited the warehouse and
has decided to prosecute due to the significant risk present.
(b) (i) With reference to possible breaches of the Health and

Safety at Work etc Act 1974, outline the specific legal
requirements that may have been breached. (5)
(ii) Explain which of the Management of Health and Safety
at Work Regulations 1999 may have been contravened,
AND give a reason in EACH case. (4)
(iii) Identify the criminal court that may hear a prosecution. (1)
(iv) Identify the possible penalties should either of the two
organisations and/or their managers be found guilty. (2)

outcomes 3.1: Explain the key requirements of the Health and Safety at Work etc Act
1974 and the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999; and 4.3:
Outline the main civil law statutory duties owed by the occupier of premises to lawful
and unlawful visitors.
In part (a) candidates outlined the duties under the Occupier Liability Act 1984 to varying
levels. Many answers recognised a duty to trespassers and that warning signs could
help to discharge duties of care. However, many missed the opportunity to expand and
fully outline the circumstances in which the duties are owed and how it could be
discharged in relation to the scenario. Some candidates included responsibilities
relating to children, which was not required.
In part (b) (i) candidates were able to outline legal requirement that may have been
breached such as the general duty owed by the organisations to their employees.
However, many candidates gave limited answers by simply requoting all of Section 2 of
the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974 and missing the opportunity to consider
other relevant requirements, such as duties owed to non-employees and offences by
the body corporate.
7
In part (b) (ii) many candidates limited their answers to outlining risk assessment and
principles of prevention but omitted other relevant requirements under the Management
of Health and Safety at Work Regulation 1999. The reasons given were often a
statement of the law that had been breached without giving a practical reason linked to
the scenario. Better answers provided a wider range of requirements.
In part (b) (iii) most candidates correctly identified the criminal court, however
occasionally a civil court answer was given.
In part (b) (iv) several candidates missed the opportunity to gain marks by not
distinguishing between penalties for individuals and organisations; for example, an
individual fine and an organisational fine have clear differences.
Question 8 An office is protected with an automatic fire detection and alarm system.
A number of false alarms have been activated. A false alarm can be
triggered by sunlight striking a UV flame detector, dust obscuring a smoke
detector or by a failure of the primary power supply. The primary power is
normally supplied by connection to the mains electricity. If this should fail,
a back-up generator activates to supply the electricity.
The expected probabilities of the causes of the false alarms are shown
below:
Cause of false alarm Probability
Mains electricity failure 0.15
Dust obscuring a smoke detector 0.1
Sunlight striking a UV flame detector 0.25
Back-up generator does not start 0.04
(a) Outline the principles of fault tree analysis. (2)
(b) Outline the technique of fault tree analysis. (8)
(c) Using a simple fault tree and the data above, calculate the
probability of a false alarm. (6)
Show calculations to support your answers.
(d) (i) Identify the main cause of false alarms. (1)

(ii) Outline remedial actions that could minimise false
alarms. (3)

7.4: Explain the analysis, assessment and improvement of system failures and system
reliability with the use of calculations.
In parts (a) and (b) candidates missed the opportunity to gain many marks by not
sufficiently outlining the principles and technique of fault tree. Better answers included
points such as outlining that the top event needed to be determined to carry out an
analysis of causes based on AND and OR gates. Limited answers considered issues
such as the team doing the analysis and the paperwork behind an investigation rather
than the actual format of FTA, which was not what the question asked.
In part (c) most candidates presented the fault tree diagram correctly and carried out
the calculation accurately, gaining maximum marks. The occasional multiplication
rather than adding or vice versa was noted.
8
In part (d) (i) most candidates gained marks for correctly identifying main cause of a
false alarm and also for outlining the remedial actions with reasonable suggestions in
(ii).
Question 9 The management of an organisation intends to introduce new, safer

working procedures.
(a) Outline practical measures that management could take to

communicate effectively when managing this change. (10)
(b) Other than effective communication, outline ways in which

management could gain the support and commitment of
employees when managing this change. (10)

outcomes 9.7: Explain health and safety culture and climate; and 9.8: Outline the factors
which can both positively and negatively affect health and safety culture and climate.
In part (a) candidates gained marks for outlining a range of practical communication
measures such as different types of meetings and noticeboards. However, many
candidates missed the opportunity to gain marks by focusing on specific verbal or
organisational communication issues and not offering a breadth of practical measures.
Other limited answers focused on why communication is important and barriers to
communications, how to get support for the new working procedures, or providing too
much information on one measure or many examples of the same measure, which did
not gain additional marks. Better answers demonstrated the required breadth of
communication techniques.
In part (b) candidates gained marks for outlining a range of techniques that
management could deploy such as demonstration of management commitment and
allocation of resources. Some answers provided too much general discussion on the
individual rather than practical methods. For example, stating that management should
be approachable, adaptable, ready to listen, rather than giving a set of ten specific areas
to advise on. There was also a lack of consideration of the process before the change
happens, such as staff surveys, trials and finding out the reasons for change.
Candidates should be encouraged to ensure that the breadth of their answer is

commensurate with the mark allocation. In this case, there were 10 marks for each
part, signposting that ten mark worthy items were needed. Therefore, providing much
less or lengthy discussion on a limited number of points is not going to allow for gaining
marks.
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Question 10 (a) Explain the objectives of:
(i) active health and safety monitoring; (5)
(ii) reactive health and safety monitoring. (4)
(b) Outline a range of active health and safety monitoring methods. (5)
(c) Outline examples of reactive performance data that could be

used to benchmark health and safety performance. (6)

outcomes 6.2: Explain the need for, and the objectives and limitations of, health and
safety monitoring; and 6.3: Describe the variety of health and safety monitoring and
measurement techniques.
Part (a) required an explanation of the objectives of the two types of health and safety
monitoring. Answers were generally limited in the breadth of points covered. Few
answers considered the organisational objectives in performance monitoring or looking
at how a system operates in practice. Likewise, for reactive measures there was often
no consideration of historic performance measurement and deviations from procedures.
Some candidates appeared to misunderstand the core differences between the
objectives of the two types of monitoring or outlined the natures of the monitoring types
rather than the objectives.
In part (b) most candidates were able to clearly identify a suitable range of monitoring
methods but some missed the opportunity to gain marks by not giving an accurate
outline of suitable depth. Often the answer was a repeat of the heading rather than
actual discussion; for example, stating that safety inspections are where a workplace is
inspected. Better answers provided correct and succinct outlines of a range of
appropriate methods.
In part (c) there was a similar issue to that in part (b). Many candidates were able to
give suitable performance data but did not adequately outline their application to
benchmarking.
A tendency to list rather than to outline was common to limited answers. Candidates
should be encouraged to respond appropriately to the command word to gain marks.
10
Question 11 (a) Outline the meaning of the following terms in the context of
controlling human error in the workplace:
(i) ergonomics; (2)
(ii) anthropometry; (2)
(iii) task analysis. (2)
(b) Other than ergonomic issues, outline ways in which human

reliability in the workplace may be improved. In your answer,
consider:
(i) individual; (4)
(ii) job; (4)
(iii) organisational. (6)

10.6: Explain how job factors can contribute to improving human reliability.
In part (a) most candidates gained some marks for outlining the meaning of the three
terms. Ergonomics and task analysis appeared to be better understood than
anthropometry. However, many candidates missed out on the opportunity to gain full
marks by not making the link to controlling human error in the workplace.
In part (b) candidates outlined some reasonable ways for improving human reliability in
the workplace. Often, answers were limited due to incorrect alignment with the
categories of individual, job and organisation or not providing enough different points
with each sub-part of the question. Candidates should be mindful that the marks
available for a question part is indicative of the number of separate mark worthy points
required. Part (b) (iii) had a greater mark allocation than (i) and (ii), yet candidates often
limited their answers to a short paragraph containing one or two points.
11
Examination technique
The following issues are consistently identified as the main areas in need of improvement for candidates
undertaking Diploma level qualifications:
Candidates misread/misinterpreted the question
NEBOSH questions are systematically and carefully prepared and are subject to a number of checks
and balances prior to being authorised for use in question papers. These checks include ensuring that
questions set for the Diploma level qualifications relate directly to the learning outcomes contained within
the associated syllabus guides. The learning outcomes require candidates to be sufficiently prepared
to provide the relevant depth of answer across a broad range of topic areas. For example, a candidate
could be asked about the causes of stress, or could be asked about the effects of stress, a question
could require a response relating to the principles of fire initiation, or a question could require a response
relating to the spread of fire. Therefore, a candidate should focus not only on the general topic area (eg
stress, fire), but also the specific aspect of that topic to which the question relates.
Examiners suggest that while many candidates do begin their answer satisfactorily and perhaps gain
one or two marks, they then lose sight of the question and include irrelevant information. Although
further points included in an answer can relate to the general topic area, these points are not focused
on the specific learning outcome and marks cannot be awarded. However, some candidates appear to
misread or misinterpret several questions. This situation is more likely due to candidates preparing for
the examination with a number of stock answers obtained through rote-learning, that again can provide
answers that are loosely associated with the topic matter but do not provide answers specific to the
question. Such an approach is clearly evident to an Examiner and demonstrates little understanding of
the topic matter and marks are not awarded.
Examiners noted a tendency on the part of many candidates to write about things that were not asked
for, despite the fact that guidance as to what to cover had been given in the question. An example is a
question where candidates were instructed that there was no need to make reference to specific control
measures and yet did so. In another example candidates wrote about selection of PPE when the
question wording had clearly stated that this had already been undertaken. Another example was where
candidates wrote about barriers to rehabilitation without relating them to the bio-psychosocial model,
even though the question specifically asked them to do this.
Some candidates wrote large amounts of text on a single topic where only one mark could be awarded.
Candidates did not recognise that the amount of marks awarded to each section gives an indication of
the depth of the answer required.
It would therefore appear that a sizeable number of candidates misread some of the questions, to their
disadvantage. This should be a relatively easy pitfall to overcome; candidates should ensure that they
make full use of the 10 minutes reading time to understand what each question requires. Candidates
are advised to allow sufficient time to read and re-read the question in order to determine the key
requirements. Underlining or highlighting key words can assist in keeping focused and simple mind
maps or answer plans can also be useful. An answer plan will often be helpful in ensuring that all
aspects of the question are attended to; maps and plans should be kept simple so as not to use up too
much examination time; if all aspects are not dealt with it will be difficult to gain a high mark. Candidates
should not assume when they see a question that it is exactly the same as one that they may have seen
in the past; new questions are introduced and old questions are amended. It is therefore of the utmost
importance that questions are read carefully and the instructions that they give are followed.
It may help if, when preparing for the examinations, candidates write out their answers in full and ask a
tutor or other knowledgeable third party to mark their work. In so doing, issues with understanding can
be noted and remedial action taken.
Course providers and candidates should note that various means are used to draw attention to keywords
in examination questions. These means include emboldened and italicised text and the use of words in
capitals. These means are intended to draw the candidate’s attention to these words and this emphasis
should then be acted upon when making a response. These devices can often assist in giving guidance
on how to set out an answer to maximise the marks gained. For example: Identify THREE things to be
considered AND for EACH…..
12
Candidates often have a reasonable body of knowledge and understanding on the topic covered by a
question, but they have not been able to apply this to the examination question being asked. This could
be because sufficient time has not been taken to read the question, noting the words being emphasised.
When preparing candidates for examination, or offering advice on examination technique, accredited
course providers should stress that understanding the question requirements and the sub-structure of
the response to the question is the fundamental step to providing a correct answer. Rather than learning
the ‘ideal answer’ to certain questions effort would be better spent in guided analysis on what a question
requires. The rote learning of answers appears to close the candidates’ minds to the wider (and usually
correct) possibilities.
Candidates repeated the same point but in different ways
There are instances where candidates repeat very similar points in their answers, sometimes a number
of times. This is easily done in the stressful environment of the examination. However, once a point
has been successfully made and a mark awarded for it, that mark cannot be awarded again for similar
points made later in the answer. In some cases, particularly where questions had more than one part,
candidates gave an answer to, say, part (b) of a question in part (a), meaning that they needed to repeat
themselves in part (b) thus wasting time.
One possible reason for this might be that candidates have relatively superficial knowledge of the topic
- a view supported by the low marks evident in some answers. It appears that, faced with a certain
number of marks to achieve and knowing that more needs to be written, but without detailed knowledge,
candidates appear to opt to rephrase that which they have already written in the hope that it may gain
further marks. Another possible reason is a failure to properly plan answers, especially to the Section
B questions - it would appear that candidates sometimes become ‘lost’ in their answers, forgetting what
has already been written. It may be due either to a lack of knowledge (so having no more to say) or to
limited answer planning, or to a combination of the two. When a valid point has been made it will be
credited, but repetition of that point will receive no further marks. Candidates may have left the
examination room feeling that they had written plenty when in fact they had repeated themselves on
multiple occasions, therefore gaining fewer marks than they assumed.
Candidates sometimes think they have written a lengthy answer to a question and are therefore
deserving of a good proportion of the marks. Unfortunately, quantity is not necessarily an indicator of
quality and sometimes candidates make the same point several times in different ways. Examiners are
not able to award this same mark in the mark scheme a second time. The chance of repetition increases
when all marks for a question (eg 10 or 20) are available in one block. It can also happen when a
significant proportion of the marks are allocated to one part of a question.
This issue is most frequently demonstrated by candidates who did not impose a structure on their
answers. Starting each new point on a new line would assist in preventing candidates from repeating a
basic concept previously covered, as well as helping them assess whether they have covered enough
information for the available marks.
As with the previous area for improvement (‘misreading the question’) writing an answer plan where
points can be ticked off when made, or structuring an answer so that each point made is clearly shown,
for example by underlining key points, can be of great use. This technique aids candidates and makes
it much clearer in the stress of the examination for candidates to see which points have been made and
reduce the chances of the same point being made several times. Course providers are encouraged to
set written work and to provide feedback on written answers, looking to see that candidates are able to
come up with a broad range of relevant and accurate points; they should point out to candidates where
the same point is being made more than once.
Candidates are advised to read widely. This means reading beyond course notes in order to gain a fuller
understanding of the topic being studied. In that way, candidates will know more and be able to produce
a broader and more detailed answer in the examination. Candidates may also find it helpful to read
through their answers as they write them in order to avoid repetition of points.
Course providers should provide examination technique pointers and practice as an integral part of the
course exercises. Technique as much as knowledge uptake should be developed, particularly as many
candidates may not have taken formal examinations for some years.
13
Candidates produced an incoherent answer
Candidates produced answers that lacked structure, digressed from the question asked and were often
incoherent as a result. In many cases, there seemed to be a scatter gun approach to assembling an
answer, which made that answer difficult to follow. Answers that lack structure and logic are inevitably
more difficult to follow than those that are well structured and follow a logical approach. Those
candidates who prepare well for the unit examination and who therefore have a good and detailed
knowledge commensurate with that expected at Diploma level, invariably supply structured, coherent
answers that gain good marks; those candidates who are less well prepared tend not to do so.
Having good written communication skills and the ability to articulate ideas and concepts clearly and
concisely are important aspects of the health and safety practitioner’s wider competence. Candidates
should be given as much opportunity as possible to practice their writing skills and are advised to
practice writing out answers in full during the revision phase. This will enable them to develop their
knowledge and to demonstrate it to better effect during the examination. It may help if candidates ask
a person with no health and safety knowledge to review their answers and to see whether the reviewer
can understand the points being made.
Candidates did not respond effectively to the command word
A key indicator in an examination question will be the command word, which is always given in bold
typeface. The command word will indicate the depth of answer that is expected by the candidate.
Generally, there has been an improvement in response to command words, but a number of candidates
continue to produce answers that are little more than a list even when the command word requires a
more detailed level of response, such as ‘outline’ or ‘explain’. This is specifically addressed in the
following section dealing with command words, most commonly failure to provide sufficient content to
constitute an ‘outline’ was noted. Failure to respond to the relevant command word in context was also
a frequent problem hence information inappropriate to the question was often given.
Course exercises should guide candidates to assessing the relevant points in any given scenario such
that they are able to apply the relevant syllabus elements within the command word remit.
Candidate’s handwriting was illegible
It is unusual to have to comment on this aspect of candidate answers, as experienced Examiners rarely
have difficulties when reading examination scripts. However, Examiners have independently identified
and commented on this as an area of concern. While it is understood that candidates feel under pressure
in an examination and are unlikely to produce examination scripts in a handwriting style that is
representative of their usual written standards; it is still necessary for candidates to produce a script that
gives them the best chance of gaining marks. This means that the Examiners must be able to read all
the written content.
Some simple things may help to overcome handwriting issues. Using answer planning and thinking time,
writing double-line spaced, writing in larger text size than usual, using a suitable type of pen, perhaps
trying out some different types of pens, prior to the examination. In addition, it is important to practise
hand writing answers in the allocated time, as part of the examination preparation and revision. Today,
few of us hand-write for extended periods of time on a regular basis, as electronic communication and
keyboard skills are so widely used. Accredited course providers should encourage and give
opportunities for candidates to practise this hand-writing skill throughout their course of study. They
should identify at an early stage if inherent problems exist. These can sometimes be accommodated
through reasonable adjustments, eg by the provision of a scribe or the use of a keyboard. Candidates
with poorly legible handwriting need to understand this constraint early in their course of studies in order
for them to minimise the effect this may have.
NEBOSH recommends to accredited course providers that candidates undertaking this qualification
should reach a minimum standard of English equivalent to an International English Language Testing
System score of 7.0 or higher in IELTS tests in order to be accepted onto a Diploma level programme.
14
For further information please see the latest version of the IELTS Handbook or consult the IELTS
website: https://www.ielts.org/about-the-test/test-format
Candidates wishing to assess their own language expertise may consult the IELTS website for
information on taking the test: http://www.ielts.org
Course providers are reminded that they must ensure that these standards are satisfied or additional
tuition provided to ensure accessible and inclusive lifelong learning.
Candidates did not answer all the questions
It has been noted that a number of candidates do not attempt all of the questions on the examination
and of course where a candidate does not provide an answer to a question, no marks can be awarded.
Missing out whole questions immediately reduces the number of possible marks that can be gained and
so immediately reduces the candidate’s opportunity for success. There can be several reasons for this
issue: running out of the allocated time for the examination, a lack of sufficient knowledge necessary to
address parts of some questions, or in other cases, some candidates have a total lack of awareness
that the topic covered in certain questions is even in the syllabus.
If candidates have not fully studied the breadth of the syllabus they may find they are not then equipped
to address some of the questions that are on a question paper. At that late stage there is little a
candidate can do to address this point. Responsibility for delivering and studying the full breadth of the
syllabus rests with both the course provider and the individual candidates and both must play their part
to ensure candidates arrive at the examination with a range of knowledge across all areas of the
syllabus.
Unit B
Lack of technical knowledge required at Diploma level
In Section A, candidates must attempt all questions and it was clear that some struggled with those
requiring more detailed and technical knowledge. For example, it is not acceptable that at Diploma level,
candidates have no knowledge of the principles of good practice that underpin COSHH. Unfortunately
this was often found to be the case in responses to questions.
In Section B, where candidates have a choice of questions, many sought to avoid those questions with
a higher technical knowledge content. For example questions on radiation, lighting and vibration.
Practitioners operating at Diploma level need to be confident with the technical content of the whole
syllabus and this does require a significant amount of private study, particularly in these areas of the
syllabus that are perhaps less familiar to them in their own workplace situations.
Candidates provided rote-learned responses that did not fit the question
It was apparent in those questions that were similar to those previously set, that the candidates’ thought
processes were constrained by attachment to memorised answer schemes that addressed different
question demands.
While knowledge of material forms a part of the study for a Diploma-level qualification, a key aspect
being assessed is a candidate’s understanding of the topic and reciting a pre-prepared and memorised
answer will not show a candidate’s understanding. In fact, if a candidate gives a memorised answer to
a question that may look similar, but actually is asking for a different aspect of a topic in the syllabus, it
shows a lack of understanding of the topic and will inevitably result in low marks being awarded for that
answer.
15
Command words
Please note that the examples used here are for the purpose of explanation only.
The following command words are listed in the order identified as being the most challenging for
candidates:
Explain
Explain: To provide an understanding. To make an idea or relationship clear.
This command word requires a demonstration of an understanding of the subject matter covered by the
question. Superficial answers are frequently given, whereas this command word demands greater
detail. For example, candidates are occasionally able to outline a legal breach but do not always explain
why it had been breached. A number of instances of candidates simply providing a list of information
suggests that while candidates probably have the correct understanding, they cannot properly express
it. Whether this is a reflection of the candidate’s language abilities, in clearly constructing a written
explanation, or if it is an outcome of a limited understanding or recollection of their teaching, is unclear.
It may be linked to a general societal decline in the ability to express clearly explained concepts in the
written word, but this remains a skill that health and safety professionals are frequently required to
demonstrate.
When responding to an ‘explain’ command word it is helpful to present the response as a logical
sequence of steps. Candidates must also be guided by the number of marks available. When asked
to ‘explain the purposes of a thorough examination and test of a local exhaust ventilation system’ for 5
marks, this should indicate a degree of detail is required and there may be several parts to the
explanation.
Candidates are often unable to explain their answers in sufficient detail or appear to become confused
about what they want to say as they write their answer. For example, in one question many candidates
explained the difference between the types of sign, explaining colours and shapes of signs without
explaining how they could be used in the depot, as required by the question.
Describe
Describe: To give a detailed written account of the distinctive features of a subject. The account should
be factual without any attempt to explain.
The command word ‘describe’ clearly requires a description of something. The NEBOSH guidance on
command words says that ‘describe’ requires a detailed written account of the distinctive features of a
subject such that another person would be able to visualise what was being described. Candidates
have a tendency to confuse ‘describe’ with ‘outline’. This means that less detailed answers are given
that inevitably lead to lower marks. This may indicate a significant lack of detailed knowledge and/or a
lack of ability to articulate the course concepts clearly. Candidates should aim to achieve a level of
understanding that enables them to describe key concepts.
Some candidates see the command word ‘describe’ as an opportunity to fill out an answer with irrelevant
detail. If a person was asked to describe the chair they were sitting on, they would have little difficulty
in doing so and would not give general unconnected information about chairs in general, fill a page with
everything they know about chairs or explain why they were sitting on the chair. Candidates should
consider the general use of the command word when providing examination answers.
Outline
Outline: To indicate the principal features or different parts of.
This is probably the most common command word but most candidates treat it like ‘identify’ and provide
little more than a bullet pointed list. As the NEBOSH guidance on command words makes clear, ‘outline’
is not the same as ‘identify’ so candidates will be expected to give more detail in their answers. ‘Outline’
requires a candidate to indicate ‘the principal features or different parts of’ the subject of the question.
An outline is more than a simple list, but does not require an exhaustive description. Instead, the outline
requires a brief summary of the major aspects of whatever is stated in the question. ‘Outline’ questions
16
usually require a range of features or points to be included and often ‘outline’ responses can lack
sufficient breadth, so candidates should also be guided by the number of marks available. Those
candidates who gain better marks in questions featuring this command word give brief summaries to
indicate the principal features or different parts of whatever was being questioned. If a question asks
for an outline of the precautions when maintaining an item of work equipment, reference to isolation,
safe access and personal protective equipment would not be sufficient on their own to gain the marks
available. A suitable outline would include the meaning of isolation, how to achieve safe access and
the types of protective clothing required.
Identify
Identify: To give a reference to an item, which could be its name or title.
Candidates responding to identify questions usually provide a sufficient answer. Examiners will use the
command word ‘identify’ when they require a brief response and in most cases, one or two words will
be sufficient and further detail will not be required to gain the marks. If a question asks ‘identify typical
symptoms of visual fatigue’, then a response of ‘eye irritation’ is sufficient to gain 1 mark. If having been
asked to identify something and further detail is needed, then a second command word may be used in
the question.
However, in contrast to ‘outline’ answers being too brief, many candidates feel obliged to expand
‘identify’ answers into too much detail, with the possible perception that more words equals more marks.
This is not the case and course providers should use the NEBOSH guidance on command words within
their examination preparation sessions in order to prepare candidates for the command words that may
arise.
Give
Give: To provide short, factual answers.
‘Give’ is usually in a question together with a further requirement, such as ‘give the meaning of’ or ‘give
an example in EACH case’. Candidates tend to answer such questions satisfactorily, especially where
a question might ask to ‘identify’ something and then ‘give’ an example. The candidate who can answer
the first part, invariably has little difficulty in giving the example.
Comment
Comment: To give opinions (with justification) on an issue or statement by considering the issues
relevant to it.
For example, if candidates have already calculated two levels of the exposure to wood dust and are
then asked to comment on this the issues would include the levels of exposure they had found, and
candidates would need to give their opinion on these, while considering what is relevant. The question
guides on what may be relevant for example, did it meet the legal requirements, did it suggest controls
were adequate, so based on that guidance, did exposure need to be reduced further or did anything
else need to be measured or considered? If candidates comment with justification on each of these
areas they would gain good marks in that part of question.
Few candidates are able to respond appropriately to this command word. At Diploma level, candidates
should be able to give a clear, reasoned opinion based on fact.
For additional guidance, please see NEBOSH’s ‘Guidance on command words used in learning
outcomes and question papers’ document, which is available on our website:
https://www.nebosh.org.uk/i-am/a-student/ - from this page the document can be found by clicking on
the relevant Qualification link, then on the ‘Resources’ tab.
17
Examiners’ Report

UNIT B:
HAZARDOUS AGENTS IN THE WORKPLACE
JANUARY 2019
CONTENTS
Introduction 2
General comments 3
Command words 20
Introduction
(IIRSM).
© NEBOSH 2019
NEBOSH
Dominus Way
Leicester
LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700

fax: 0116 282 4000
2
General comments
2019.
the guide sets out in detail the syllabus content for Unit B and tutor reference documents for each
Element.
3
Unit B
Hazardous agents in the workplace
Question 1 Employees driving vehicles on a large construction site have reported

back pain caused by exposure to whole body vibration (WBV).
(a) Outline control measures that could minimise their exposure to

WBV. (7)
(b) Outline other possible work-related causes of the back pain being
experienced by these employees. (3)

outcomes 6.6: Explain the effects of vibration on the individual; 6.8: Explain the
principles and methods of controlling vibration and vibration exposure; and 9.1: Outline
types, causes and relevant workplace examples of injuries and ill-health conditions
associated with repetitive physical activities, manual handling and poor posture.
Candidates’ responses in part (a) included some relevant control measures, such as
maintaining roadways by filling potholes and using suspension seats in the cabs of
vehicles. A more fundamental control measure of selecting vehicle size or power or
capacity to suit the terrain, was often missed.
Some responses were too vague for the scenario given in this question. Candidates
did not gain a mark for simply indicating job rotation, as this did not outline that this
needed to be a break away from driving vehicles. Rotating to a job that also involved
exposure to vibration would not minimise exposure. Similarly, simply stating the need
to train or inform drivers was not awarded a mark. What was required was an outline
that training and information should be given about how to minimise exposure to WBV.
Most candidates were able to outline other possible causes of work-related back pain
in part (b). Poor posture and sitting for long periods were the obvious and most common
responses. Fewer candidates outlined incorrect seat adjustment or the lack of
adjustability for other controls in the cab. Repeated climbing into high cabs or jumping
down from high cabs is also a possible cause.
Question 2 The management company of a large, new shopping centre are planning
first-aid provision for the centre. They already have in place a sufficient
number of trained first-aid personnel.
Describe the first-aid equipment and facilities that could be included in

these plans. (10)

10.4: Explain the requirements and provision for first aid in the workplace.
This question asked specifically for a description of first-aid equipment and facilities,
therefore those candidates who wrote about a first-aid needs assessment were not
addressing this question. However, those candidates who did answer the question
combined their real life experience of visiting such shopping centres with their
knowledge of learning outcome 10.4.
4
The command word in the question is ‘describe’ and that requires a detailed written
account of the distinctive features of a subject such that another person would be able
to visualise what is being described. Sometimes candidates did not answer in
accordance with this command word and so missed out on some possible marks. For
example, if candidates stated there should be first-aid signage, this is not a description.
If candidates described first-aid signage that is a white cross on a green background,
they did gain marks.
The main focus for a description of first-aid equipment and facilities should have
considered first-aid boxes and first-aid rooms. There is detail that could be included in
a description of each of these, in particular the locations, contents and management.
Candidates and course providers are referred to the detail provided in the HSE
guidance L74, particularly the content in relation to Regulation 3 of the Health and
Safety (First-Aid) Regulations 1981. L74 is the only relevant reference listed in the
syllabus in relation to learning outcome 10.4, so should be central to the study of this
part of the syllabus.
Some candidates were familiar with this guidance, they included in their answers
reference to the possible provision of automated defibrillators and the availability of
aspirin in case of a heart attack. There were further marks available for indicating that
aspirin should be kept separate to the first-aid box, not inside it.
Question 3 Sailing instructors at a freshwater sports centre are at increased risk of

contracting leptospirosis.
(a) Identify ill-health effects associated with leptospirosis. (2)
(b) Outline the mode of transmission of leptospira for these sailing

instructors. (2)
(c) Outline control measures the sailing instructors could take to

minimise the risk of contracting leptospirosis. (6)

outcomes: 5.1: Explain the types and properties of biological agents found at work; and
5.2: Explain the assessment and control of risk from deliberate and non-deliberate
exposure to biological agents at work.
This question assessed these learning outcomes in relation to one of the biological
agents specifically listed in the syllabus.
In part (a) there were a wide range of possible ill-health effects and most candidates
were able to achieve the two marks available. A rash or meningitis were rarely identified
by candidates as possible ill-health effects, but are listed in the guidance leaflet on the
HSE website:
http://www.hse.gov.uk/agriculture/zoonoses-data-sheets/leptospirosis.pdf
Candidates often gained marks in part (b) as they outlined a wide range of possible
modes of transmission, some of which were correct and some of which were not. An
outline should have indicated that there is bacteria (leptospira) in water due to the
presence in the water of urine from rats (and some other animals such as cows). The
bacteria are transmitted via cuts in the skin and also via the mucous membrane in the
nose or eyes or mouth. Inhalation and ingestion are not the accepted modes of
transmission.
5
Part (c) presented little difficulty for candidates who were able to outline a range of
control measures that minimise the risk of contracting leptospirosis in this scenario.
However, some candidates were vague in the outline of some control measures and
therefore missed out on marks. For example, if wounds or cuts are to be covered to
minimise the risk of transmission, then these must be waterproof, given the scenario
and mode of transmission. Candidates did not always include this important detail in
their outline. Similarly the washing down of equipment needs to include the use of a
suitable disinfectant, and this part of the outline was sometimes missed.
Question 4 Glass blowers use furnaces to produce molten glass that they then blow
into shapes to make glasses and vases. During their work they are
exposed to different types of non-ionising optical radiation.
(a) Identify the possible ill-health effects to the glass blowers from
exposure to the non-ionising optical radiation. (3)
(b) Describe the specific requirements of the personal protective

equipment that would be required to protect the glass blowers
from the non-ionising optical radiation. (3)
(c) Other than ill-health effects and control measures, outline what
should be considered in a radiation risk assessment. (4)

outcomes 7.1: Outline the nature of the different types of ionising and non-ionising
radiation; 7.2: Explain the effects of exposure to non-ionising radiation, its measurement
and control; 3.4: Explain the effectiveness of various types of personal protective
equipment (PPE) and the factors to consider in selection of PPE; and10.1: Explain the
need for, and factors involved in, the provision and maintenance of temperature in both
moderate and extreme thermal environments.
Candidates were expected to recognise that in this scenario glass blowers are being
exposed to both infrared (IR) and ultraviolet (UV) radiation, both of which are types of
non-ionising radiation. It was not clear in the overall responses to this question if
candidates understood these hazards. However, in part (a) most candidates were able
to identify three possible ill-health effects such as skin reddening or, skin cancer and
cataracts. Whole body heating or thermal discomfort was also a valid ill-health effect.
Part (b) was not well answered with few candidates providing a description of the
requirements of any PPE. Often candidates just wrote ‘wear gloves and goggles’. This
is not acceptable as a Diploma-level answer and this is not a description of how the
requirements of PPE protect the glass blowers. To gain marks it was necessary to
describe, for example, the need for leather gauntlets or long heat resistant gloves that
would protect against the infrared radiation. Similarly, a description of goggles, glasses
or a visor with a UV and IR filter is needed to protect the eyes from both these types of
radiation. Long-sleeved clothing and a leather apron would also afford protection from
UV and IR radiation respectively.
Responses to part (c) were also limited, with candidates not reading the question
carefully enough to appreciate that an outline of control measures was not required.
The words ‘other than’ are italicised to draw attention. The question asks what else
should be considered in a radiation risk assessment. As the syllabus indicates in
learning outcome 7.2, such a risk assessment should consider the assessment or
measurement of the actual levels of exposure to the radiation and then compare these
to the exposure limits and exposure values. A risk assessment for exposure to most
hazardous agents requires consideration of both the duration of exposure and in the
case of radiation proximity or closeness to the source is also important. References to
health surveillance although relevant were often vague. To address this question it is
necessary to outline that the results of health surveillance should be considered in a
radiation risk assessment as they give an indication of any over-exposure that may be
occurring.
6
Question 5 The Health and Safety Executive (HSE) identifies six stress Management
Standards, one of which is Change. The requirement of this standard is
that ‘Employees indicate that the organisation engages them frequently
when undergoing an organisational change’.
(a) An organisation is about to undergo a significant change.
Outline steps the organisation could take to help reduce the risk
of employees suffering from work-related stress as a result of
this change. (6)
(b) Identify TWO other HSE stress Management Standards AND

give the requirement for EACH. (4)

8.2: Explain the identification and control of workplace mental ill-health with reference
to legal duties and other standards.
The stem to the question reminded candidates of the HSE stress Management
Standards and in particular the wording of the standard regarding ‘change’. However,
a number of candidates had difficulty providing an outline of what an organisation could
practically do to reduce the risk of stress by reassuring employees about the process
and timescale for change.
Some candidates did gain marks for referring to the need for consultation, and
communication throughout the change process. For the six marks available, candidates
needed to expand on these themes of consultation and communication.
Marks were available for those steps listed in the HSE guidance found on the HSE
website and in the HSE guidance document INDG430. Providing timely information,
setting out a clear timetable for the change process, agreeing the methods and
frequency of communication and updates were all mark worthy. The provision of
support to employees during the organisational change was another area where
candidates could have gained marks. This support could be in relation to their
understanding of objectives and workload as the changes progress, or support with
training, so that they are prepared for the changes to their job.
Part (b) required candidates to have knowledge of the other five HSE stress
Management Standards by identifying two of these standards and briefly stating what
the requirement of those two standards were. Four marks were available but
candidates could not gain these four marks by simply listing four of the other standards.
This is indicated clearly in the question as the two requirements of the question are
linked by the word AND.
Many candidates gained two of the four marks by naming two of the standards:
Demands, Control, Support, Relationships and Role. Fewer candidates gave an
acceptable summary of the requirement of those two standards. For example,
Demands: employees indicate that they are able to cope with the demands of their jobs.
7
Question 6 (a) Outline what is meant by the term ‘biological monitoring’. (2)
(b) Outline circumstances in which biological monitoring may be

appropriate. (4)
(c) Outline difficulties an employer must overcome when introducing

a programme of biological monitoring. (4)

4.3: Outline the principles of biological monitoring.
Some candidates find the topic of biological monitoring challenging. A common

confusion is to think this topic is about exposure to biological agents, but that is
addressed in element 5 of the syllabus and not relevant here in element 4. Some
candidates seem only to associate biological monitoring with drug or alcohol testing in
a workplace. While that may be the extent of biological monitoring in some workplace
settings, this is not the intended emphasis in learning outcome 4.3. That type of testing
is perhaps more relevant in the consideration of occupational health and health
assessment in element 1. Course providers should ensure candidates being prepared
for examination appreciate the relevance of this part of the syllabus, which clearly states
that biological monitoring is a form of health surveillance.
The term ‘biological monitoring’ required in part (a) is the measurement of a hazardous
substance or their metabolites in tissues, blood, exhaled air or secretions.
There are particular circumstances when biological monitoring is relevant and these are
outlined in the HSE document EH40 (page 38). Candidates and course providers
should review this.
Part (c) required an understanding of the practical difficulties of firstly collecting samples
for biological monitoring (eg blood urine, etc), managing these samples, then reporting,
storing and utilising the results. Difficulties include consent, having appropriately
trained individuals, maintaining confidentiality and the obvious cost implications. There
are few biological monitoring guidance values with which to compare the results. These
values are also listed in the HSE document EH40.
8
Question 7 Employees in a busy restaurant frequently use hand-held trays to carry
plates of food and drinks from the kitchen to the customers’ tables.
These hand-held trays can be heavy and unstable.
There are regular incidents where employees drop the trays.
To help reduce these incidents, the employer has decided to introduce

non-powered trollies, on wheels, that will be used by the restaurant
employees to transport their customers’ food and drink orders.
(a) Outline what the employer should consider when selecting

suitable non-powered trollies for this task. (14)
(b) Comment on how this change could affect the manual handling
risks to the employees. (3)
(c) Comment on how this change could affect other risks to the
employees and to customers’ safety and health. (3)

outcomes 9.1: Outline types, causes and relevant workplace examples of injuries and
ill-health conditions associated with repetitive physical activities, manual handling and
poor posture; and 9.2: Explain the assessment and control of risks from repetitive
activities, manual handling and poor posture.
The majority of marks for this question were available in part (a) and some candidates
gave too limited a response for the 14 available marks in this part.
Some candidates did not address the part (a) question about selecting trollies and
instead answered a different question about a manual handling risk assessment for the
scenario given, using the TILE approach. Therefore, few relevant points were
addressed.
Candidates gained marks for outlining the following considerations when selecting the
trollies: the size of the trollies in relation to the space to operate; the design of the
wheels; the floor conditions in the restaurant; whether brakes should be fitted and what
maintenance or inspection is required for the trollies. Few candidates indicated the
need to carry out trials and ask for testimonials or feedback from other restaurants.
Some candidates did not confine their response to purely ergonomic or manual handling
related matters and were therefore able to score further marks. In this type of work
environment hygiene and ease of cleaning of the trollies is also an important
consideration, as is cost and the aesthetics of the trollies. It is important that health and
safety practitioners recognise these wider considerations form part of decision-making
processes in an organisation.
Changes in a work process can often reduce some risks but at the same time introduce
or increase other risks. Candidates were required to comment on this in parts (b) and
(c). In part (b) this comment was restricted to just manual handling risks. Many
candidates indicated that while the trollies may reduce carrying, pushing and pulling of
the trollies would now occur. Depending on the height of trollies and in particular the
handles on the trollies, some employees may also now need to stoop.
In part (c) candidates were asked to comment on wider risks and many did indicate that
the use of the trollies should reduce the instances of food being dropped or spilt.
However, foot injuries may occur as trollies are wheeled around. Few candidates
indicated that both the storage and use of the trollies could affect fire escape routes,
perhaps causing obstruction in the event of an evacuation.
9
Question 8 An asbestos survey of a large office block has identified significant
amounts of asbestos containing materials (ACMs) throughout the
building.
(a) Occasionally, minor maintenance tasks that involve drilling into

ACMs are carried out.
(i) Outline criteria that must be met for these minor
maintenance tasks to be considered as ‘non-licensed’
work under The Control of Asbestos Regulations 2012
(CAR 2012). (4)
(ii) Describe the personal protective equipment (PPE) that
would be appropriate for these minor maintenance tasks
involving ACMs. (4)
(iii) Other than PPE, outline control measures that should
be used when drilling into ACMs. (5)
(b) Significant parts of the office block are due to be refurbished and
this will require the removal of some ACMs.
Outline TWO reasons why the information in the existing

asbestos survey may not be sufficient to allow this refurbishment
work to take place safely. (2)
(c) The work to remove ACMs is to be carried out by a licensed

contractor in accordance with CAR 2012.
Outline arrangements that should be in place before the

licensed contractor can start work on site. (5)
You are not required to outline details of how the removal work
should be carried out on site.

outcomes 3.2: Outline the specific requirements for working with asbestos; and 3.4:
Explain the effectiveness of various types of personal protective equipment (PPE) and
the factors to consider in selection of PPE.
This question was divided into a number of parts and the performance on each part of
the question was variable. Overall candidates responded better to part (a) than part
(c). However, part (a) responses often lacked technical detail and in part (c) many
candidates ignored the advice provided in the question that specifically indicated not to
include details of how removal work should be carried out.
In part (a) (i) most candidates appreciated that the criteria for ‘non-licensed’ work,
related to short duration, non-continuous maintenance tasks of typically less than 1
hour. Few candidates were familiar with the numerical detail of asbestos control limits,
but did gain a mark for stating that this legal control limit must not be exceeded in non-
licensed work.
Descriptions of the PPE and other equipment required for these maintenance tasks
were often limited. This suggests candidates answering parts (a) (ii) and (a) (iii) were
not familiar with the task sheets provided on the HSE’s asbestos essentials website. In
part (a) (ii) detail such as wearing boots with no laces was required. While many
candidates indicated face fitted RPE was needed, fewer candidates described these as
needing to have an assigned protection factor of 20 and an FFP3 filter.
10
Many candidates limited their outline in part (a) (iii) to restricting access to the area
where the non-licensed work was being carried out and did not include controls such
as using a hand drill or drilling through a paste or foam to help minimise fibre release.
In the scenario given in the question the work now changes from being a limited
maintenance task in part (a) to a more significant refurbishment activity in parts (b) and
(c). There are a number of reasons why the asbestos survey, referred to before carrying
out the maintenance work, might not now be sufficient before carrying out the
refurbishment work. Most candidates achieved 1 or 2 of the marks available and did
this by limiting the reasons to the survey being out-of-date, or the survey being a
management survey rather than a demolition and refurbishment survey. Marks were
also available for outlining that the survey may not have been carried out by a
competent person, or may not have been carried out in accordance with HSE guidance
HSG264.
Answers to part (c) were limited because candidates did not focus on the question,
which asked about arrangements before the work starts on site. Candidates and course
providers are reminded that when words in questions are italicised it is intended to draw
the candidate’s attention to that word, so they respond accordingly. In this question
further guidance was given in the final italicised sentence. However, many candidates
did not act on this guidance and wrote about the construction of enclosures, air
clearance testing, etc which was not required.
The key arrangements that need to be in place before licensed work starts on site are
concerned with notification of the work, a plan of work, competence of employees and
health and medical records. There were a wide range of marks available in relation to
each of these arrangements, but many candidates only had knowledge of the
requirement to notify the HSE, and to do this using a form ASB5 at least 14-days before
the work starts. Few candidates included the need for a plan of work and the
communication of that plan to all those involved. Course providers and candidates
should refer to the HSE document L143, which is listed as one of the syllabus
references. (L143: Managing and working with asbestos, Control of Asbestos
Regulations 2012, Approved Code of Practice and guidance).
Question 9 Human epidemiology and animal studies are methods that can be used
to investigate whether a substance is carcinogenic.
(a) (i) Explain what is meant by the term ‘carcinogen’. (2)

(ii) Outline the advantages and disadvantages of human
epidemiology. (5)
(iii) Outline the advantages and disadvantages of animal
studies. (5)
(b) Outline the control measures that should be in place in a

workplace where a carcinogenic substance is used. (8)

outcomes 2.2: Explain the identification, classification and health effects of hazardous
substances used in the workplace; 2.4: Outline the role of epidemiology and
toxicological testing; and 3.1: Explain the principles of prevention and control of
exposure to hazardous substances (including carcinogens and mutagens).
In part (a) (i) some candidates limited their explanation to stating that a carcinogen was
a chemical that can induce cancer and so achieved one of the two marks available.
Those candidates who gave a fuller explanation and included information such as
causing benign or malignant tumours and causing cells to divide at a faster rate than
normal, achieved the second of the two marks available.
11
Many candidates were able to provide an outline of the advantages and disadvantages
of both human epidemiology and animal studies when responding to parts (a) (ii) and
(a) (iii). The requirement to provide both advantages and disadvantages within the
same part of the question meant that candidates were not penalised if they knew more
advantages compared to disadvantages or vice versa. Obvious disadvantages of
human epidemiology are that large study populations are needed and often people are
lost from the study as it progresses over time. Many candidates appreciated that
lifestyle factors could affect the study and that such studies are costly.
When outlining advantages and disadvantages of animal studies nearly all candidates
referred to the ethical issues and again the cost, but indicated the obvious advantage
of no direct risk to humans.
Responses to part (b) were limited, with many candidates simply stating the Control of
Substances Hazardous to Health (COSHH) hierarchy of control, without giving proper
consideration to the control measures that are particular to carcinogenic substances.
These are listed in the syllabus at learning outcome 3.1 and are total enclosure,
prohibition of eating and drinking in contaminated areas, designation and cleaning of
contaminated areas, the use of suitable warning signs and closed and labelled
containers. Further reading would be Regulation 7 of the COSHH Approved Code of
Practice (HSE document L5). Some of the general hierarchy of control used for other
hazardous substances can be relevant when controlling carcinogens, such as reducing
the number of people that are exposed and the time people are exposed – marks were
available for these.
12
Question 10 (a) A machine operator works at a number of different machines
during each 8-hour working day.
(i) Describe how static measurements of sound pressure
level can be made while the operator is operating the
machines. (4)
(ii) Explain how to determine the daily personal noise
exposure (LEP,d) for the operator from the static
measurements of these sound pressure levels. (3)
(b) The operator’s job changes so that two days each week they do
not operate any machines and instead undertake maintenance
work while some of the machines are switched off. It is decided
to reassess their exposure to noise using weekly personal noise
exposure (LEP,w).
(i) Outline circumstances in which it might be appropriate
to use LEP,w to assess noise exposure. (2)
(ii) Using information in the table and the noise exposure
ready-reckoner (weekly exposure), shown in the
Appendix, calculate the LEP,w for the operator in this new
job. (7)
Day LEP,d dB(A) Activity

Monday 88 Operating machine 1
Tuesday 78 Maintenance
Wednesday 84 Operating some time on machines 1, 2 & 3
Thursday 83 Operating machine 3
Friday 79 Maintenance
Saturday Insignificant Day off
Sunday Insignificant Day off
(iii) Using the information in the table and your calculated

value of LEP,w comment on the operator’s noise
exposure in relation to The Control of Noise at Work
Regulations 2005. (4)

outcomes 6.1: Explain the basic physical concepts relevant to noise; 6.3: Explain the
measurement and assessment of noise exposure; and 6.4: Explain the principles and
methods of controlling noise and noise exposure.
Part (a) (i) of the question was not always well answered, as candidates did not describe
sufficiently well how to make static measurements. Few candidates indicated that the
measurements being made were an equivalent continuous A-weighted sound pressure
or LAeq. Candidates were more familiar with the idea of using the HSE ‘Noise exposure
calculator’ or ‘Noise exposure ready reckoner’ to determine the daily personal noise
exposure and so gained more marks in part (a) (ii).
Part (b) (i) required candidates to understand the reasons for using the weekly personal
noise exposure; however, few did. The circumstances when this would be appropriate
include, when the noise varies markedly from day-to-day and when the working week
comprises of three or fewer days. Most candidates were able to use the ready reckoner
provided and the information in the table to perform the calculation in part (b) (ii). Most
arrived at the correct numerical value and gained almost all the marks available.
However, some candidates did not express the answer in the correct units, dB(A) and
therefore did not gain the mark available for it.
13
The final part of the question was not well answered. Candidates could gain marks for
stating the position of the calculated weekly personal exposure compared to the legal
requirements. Careless use of language often meant candidates missed out on marks
as they were not clear which exposure action value or exposure limit value was being
quoted.
Few candidates recognised the need to comment on the information in the table, as
well as the calculated value of LEP,w, therefore did not gain some of the marks available
in part (b) (iii). The information in the table indicates that the exposure on Monday
exceeds the upper exposure limit value, so immediate action must be taken to reduce
exposure and the reason for this level of exposure must be identified.
Question 11 An employer has an occupational health department that carries out

vocational rehabilitation.
(a) Outline the meaning of the term ‘vocational rehabilitation’. (2)
(b) Outline the benefits of vocational rehabilitation to:

(i) the employer; (4)
(ii) an employee. (4)
(c) An employee is required to take 12 months away from their work

to receive treatment for a long-term medical condition.
Outline what the employer can do to assist the employee BOTH

during the absence and at the time of their return to work. (10)

1.2: Outline the principles and benefits of the management of return to work including
the role of outside support agencies.
The meaning of vocational rehabilitation was widely known and many candidates
achieved the 2 marks available in part (a).
Candidates understood how to distinguish between the benefits of vocational

rehabilitation for employers that was required in part (b) (i) and the benefits for
employees that was required in part (b) (ii). Employers can benefit from increased
productivity and morale, as well as reducing staff turnover and therefore costs.
Employees benefit financially as they return to a full salary as well as gaining from social
interaction in the workplace, an increased feeling of self-worth and feel assured that
their employer cares.
The scenario presented in part (c) of the question resulted in some limited responses,
and many candidates did not include a sufficient range of points for the 10 marks
available. The employer can do much to assist the employee, including carrying out a
return to work interview and planning a phased return to work. Making reasonable
adjustments in the workplace and to the work pattern. It is also important the employer
accurately records the reasons for absence and makes arrangements to have the sick
pay entitlement paid to the employee. Keeping the employee informed of changes and
developments in the workplace and with colleagues during the absence is also an
important part of the assistance an employer can give.
14
APPENDIX
15
16
17
18
syllabus.
Unit B
question demands.
answer.
19
Command words
candidates:
Explain
demonstrate.
explanation.
Describe
Outline
20
Identify
the question.
arise.
Give
Comment
relevant to it.
21
Examiners’ Report

UNIT C:
WORKPLACE AND WORK EQUIPMENT
JANUARY 2019
CONTENTS
Introduction 2
General comments 3
Command words 13
Introduction
(IIRSM).
© NEBOSH 2019
NEBOSH
Dominus Way
Leicester
LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700

fax: 0116 282 4000
2
General comments
2019.
the guide sets out in detail the syllabus content for Unit C and tutor reference documents for each
Element.
3
Unit C
Workplace and work equipment
Question 1 A flammable solvent is to be used by an organisation in part of its

processes.
(a) Outline features of a building that may prevent a fire or

explosion. (4)
(b) Outline features of a building that may mitigate a fire or

explosion should one occur. (6)

outcomes 2.1: Outline the properties of flammable and explosive materials and the
mechanisms by which they ignite; and 2.3: Outline the main principles and practices of
prevention and protection against fire and explosion.
The question was aimed at assessing candidates’ knowledge of control measures that
were features of the building.
For part (a) building features that would help prevent the fire explosion would have
included ventilation and zoning and prevention of sources of ignition.
For part (b) the emphasis moved to mitigation features, again building-based. Answers
that referred to the prevention of fire travelling between rooms and this also included
firefighting systems would have gained marks.
Answers that referred to procedures did not gain marks. Candidates who recognised
that the two parts were looking for different features and answered them in the correct
sections, gained higher marks.
Question 2 An organisation provides an overnight security guard service.
The duties of the security guard include locking the building at night,
patrolling the perimeter, conducting visual checks during the night and
unlocking again in the morning.
(a) Explain why the security guard is at greater risk of harm as a

lone worker in these circumstances. (3)
(b) Outline what the organisation could provide to help reduce the
lone working risks of the security guard. (7)

1.5: Explain the hazards, risks and controls for lone working.
Candidates seemed to have difficulty with this question and answers were varied.
An explanation of why these security guards were at a greater risk was sought in part
(a). While many candidates gave the lack of medical support in an emergency, few
managed to explain that the actions of the guard may increase the risk, for example
attempting to resolve problems independently rather than call for support.
In part (b) some candidates referred to arming the guard and provision of self-defence
as control measures, which were not realistic in the scenario. Procedures such as
regular communication checks, provision of alarms and trackers were topics worthy of
marks.
4
Question 3 A new waste material reception area is being built at a recycling plant.
Outline what should be considered when designing on-site traffic routes

in the area. (10)

10.1: Outline the factors to be considered in a workplace transport risk assessment and
the controls available for managing workplace transport risk.
This was generally a well answered question with many candidates gaining high marks.
Those candidates who were familiar with HSG136 Workplace Transport Safety
provided better answers. Traffic routes were the subject of the question, however some
candidates strayed into other procedural controls that did not attract marks. Topics that
could have been included were roadway conditions, widths and markings. Some
candidates gave answers based on construction sites which limited marks.
Question 4 Outline what should be considered during the selection and purchase of
a suitable powered saw for use on a construction site. (10)

5.1: Outline the criteria for the selection of suitable work equipment for particular tasks
and processes to eliminate or reduce risks.
This question (based around the requirements of the Provision and Use of Work
Equipment Regulations 1998, and in particular Regulation 4) assessed candidates’
application of knowledge to a specific piece of construction site equipment – a powered
saw. Candidates who approached the question in a structured manner, considering
areas such as intended use, the working environment, ergonomics, maintenance and
competency, gained the highest marks.
While there were many good answers, few candidates addressed ergonomics or CE
marking.
Question 5 (a) Outline how an interlocked guard works. (5)
(b) Outline limitations with interlocked guard systems. (5)

6.3: Outline the main types of protective devices found on general workplace machinery.
The majority of candidates found this question challenging. In part (a) candidates
needed to demonstrate that they understood how an interlock guard helped reduce risk
by preventing access to danger zones, both by preventing starting and bringing the
system to a halt if guards were opened. However, few candidates gained good marks.
Part (b) also brought limited responses with many answers correctly giving employee
interference but not mentioning maintenance, damage or electrical problems.
5
Question 6 Outline what a competent person would need to take into account when
deciding the frequency of examination for items of lifting equipment. (10)

7.2: Outline the main hazards and control measures associated with lifting equipment.
This question was generally answered well. Candidates who could give not only the
requirements under the Lifting Operations and Lifting Equipment Regulations 1998, but
also addressed topics such as previous history, expected usage and design standards
etc, gained the highest marks. However, a lack of breadth of knowledge limited some
answers.
Question 7 A manufacturer is intending to place on the market a stand-alone

machine covered by the self-assessment process for use at work within
the European Economic Area.
(a) Outline the general conditions that must be met before supplying
the machine. (4)
(b) Outline the contents of the technical file. (10)
(c) Outline the contents of the declaration of conformity. (6)

6.1: Outline the principles of safety integration and the considerations required in a
general workplace machinery risk assessment.
The three parts of this question asked for different topics to be addressed, however
many candidates did not separate the answers to each part, placing some valid topics
in the wrong sections and consequently not gaining all the available marks.
For part (a) the general conditions of supply were required; this is covered by Regulation
7 of the Supply of Machinery (Safety) Regulations 2008, and candidates who were
familiar with this Regulation gained higher marks.
Part (b) addressed the required contents of a technical file. The technical file is intended
to show that the machinery had been subject to rigorous design and would include
drawings, standards used, how the machinery meets the essential health and safety
requirements and copies of the declarations, among others.
Part (c) looked for the contents of the declaration of conformity and addressed the
administrative requirements of the Regulations. This could include details of the
manufacturer, the machine and the person signing the declaration.
6
Question 8 (a) Outline what should be included in a user check for portable
electrical equipment. (10)
(b) Outline what should be included in a formal visual inspection for

portable electrical equipment. (6)
(c) Outline considerations when planning a portable appliance test. (4)

8.5: Outline the main hazards, risks and controls associated with the use of portable
electrical equipment.
When considering checks on portable electrical equipment HSG107 suggests three

levels of checks; firstly user checks carried out by the equipment user, secondly formal
visual inspection, and thirdly combined inspection and testing. Very few organisations
seem to use the second method and the simple ‘PAT’ (portable appliance testing)
approach seems to have replaced the more thorough ‘formal visual inspection’ and
‘combined inspection and test’.
The first part of this question assessed candidates’ knowledge on the ‘user’ level of
checks. Most candidates gave suitable answers to part (a) including looking for
damage, burns and temporary repairs.
Candidates had difficulty with part (b), becoming confused between ‘user’ checks and
‘portable appliance testing’, and only a few gained high marks. Marks were available
for topics such as checking cable connections in the plug and the equipment, correct
fuse and cable grips and contamination, among others.
Part (c) assessed candidates’ understanding of the management of the ‘portable

appliance test’ process rather than the contents of the test. Candidates gained marks
for considering when to test, competency of the tester and records.
Overall, marks were not high with a few exceptions where candidates appeared to have
practical experience of portable electrical equipment checking and testing.
Question 9 A leisure centre has been extended to incorporate childcare facilities on

the ground floor, and conference rooms to hire out to local organisations
on the upper floors.
Outline what would need to be considered when updating the fire risk
assessment. (20)

3.2: Explain the processes involved in the identification of hazards and the assessment
of risk from fire.
To gain good marks, topics related to the change of use of the leisure centre, and not
just the contents of a fire risk assessment needed to be included. Most candidates
were able to relate the extra hazards of the change and outlined the topics needed to
be covered by this change. These included the change of types of persons using the
centre such as parents, children and venue attendees on a casual basis and the
problems that these different groups of persons might create. Changes to the fire risk
assessment might include a review of alarm and firefighting capabilities and whether
extra centre personnel might be necessary.
7
Question 10 An old building is due to be demolished to make way for a new
development. A contractor has submitted a demolition health and safety
plan to cover the work.
Outline control measures that should be included in the plan to help

reduce risks to health and safety from demolition activities. (20)

9.5: Explain the hazards and control measures, associated with demolition work.
Construction definitions include the demolition of existing structures, often to make way
for new building construction and this question assessed candidates’ knowledge and
understanding of health and safety requirements involved in demolition work, which are
the contents of a demolition health and safety plan.
Those candidates who structured their answers into the following topics were able to
gain higher marks: prevention of uncontrolled collapse, prevention of falls from height
and falling objects, hazardous and waste materials, traffic movements, site services,
noise and vibration, fire, competency and training, and emergency response.
A number of candidates focused on the various demolition methods available including

wrecking balls and explosives, which were not relevant and gained no marks.
This question seemed to polarise candidates into those with some knowledge and
experience, and those who had only a theoretical knowledge and hence did not outline
the many practical points necessary.
Question 11 A retail stockist is considering storing liquefied petroleum gas (LPG)

cylinders on the premises.
Outline control measures that could help ensure safe storage of LPG
cylinders. (20)

4.2: Outline the main principles of the storage, handling and transport of dangerous
substances.
The storage of LPG cylinders is an area well covered by guidance from the HSE and
LPG suppliers, however many answers were limited. Controls might include prevention
of damage (leading to leakage), control over sources of ignition and no flammable
material near cylinders. The relative density of LPG should mean no below-ground
storage. The conditions and topography of the ground and surroundings would also
need to be taken into account. Many candidates mentioned bunding, which would be
inappropriate for a gas heavier than air. Some candidates appeared to have difficulty
understanding the properties of LPG.
By addressing the conditions necessary for a fire or explosion, such as the creation of
a flammable mixture in air and sources of heat or ignition, many candidates were able
to gain high marks.
8
9
10
11
syllabus.
Unit B
question demands.
answer.
12
Command words
candidates:
Explain
demonstrate.
explanation.
Describe
Outline
13
Identify
the question.
arise.
Give
Comment
relevant to it.
14
Examiners’ Report

UNIT A:
JULY 2019
CONTENTS
Introduction 2
General comments 3
Command words 17
Introduction
Courses leading to NEBOSH qualifications attract around 50,000 learners annually and are offered by
over 600 Learning Partners, with examinations taken in over 120 countries around the world. Our
(IIRSM).
This report provides guidance for learners and Learning Partners for use in preparation for future
© NEBOSH 2019
NEBOSH
Dominus Way
Leicester
LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700

fax: 0116 282 4000
2
General comments
Many learners are well prepared for this unit assessment and provide comprehensive and relevant
There are other learners, however, who appear to be unprepared for the unit assessment and who show
both a lack of knowledge of the syllabus content and a lack of understanding of how key concepts should
be applied to workplace situations, which is an essential requirement at Diploma level.
This report has been prepared to provide feedback on the standard date examination sitting in July
2019.
command words and is designed to assist learners and Learning Partners prepare for future
Learners and Learning Partners will also benefit from use of the ‘Guide to the NEBOSH National
Element.
3
Unit A
Question 1 Outline how the following societal factors could influence an

organisation’s health and safety standards and priorities:
(a) economic climate; (3)
(b) Government policy; (2)
(c) business risk profile; (2)
(d) migrant workers. (3)
This question assessed learners’ knowledge and understanding of learning outcome

1.2: Outline the societal factors which influence an organisation’s health and safety
standards and priorities.
In part (a) learners were able to identify that a poor climate could place health and safety
at a lower priority. However, many were unable to expand upon this to give a more in-
depth outline and gain more marks.
In part (b) government policy was discussed along the lines of having new laws
introduced or enforced, whereas the question was endeavouring to identify the
influence rather than the physical mechanisms used. As such, too many learners
discussed examples of safety legislation or the enforcement system and missed the
opportunity to concentrate on initiatives or policy development.
In part (c) some learners showed limited understanding in relation to how an

organisation’s ‘business risk profile’ could be an influence. Others had a clear
understanding on the principles of business risk profile but often missed the opportunity
to express the view that higher risks equate to more control and vice versa. Better
answers outlined how the public perception of industry activities can impact standards.
Part (d) was more fully answered but opportunities were still missed to gain marks.
Language barrier was a common answer, but not expanded upon to outline that this
was not checked by the employer and training was not adapted.
Overall, many learners were awarded relatively low marks for this question. Several
learners missed the opportunity to gain marks by not providing the necessary amount
of discussion required by the ‘outline’ command word.
4
Question 2 (a) Outline how regulations are made under the Health and Safety
at Work etc Act 1974. (6)
(b) (i) Outline the purpose of cost benefit analysis as it applies

to proposed regulations. (1)
(ii) Outline the principles of cost benefit analysis as it
applies to proposed regulations. (3)

2.4: Outline the status and procedure for creation of UK Acts, Regulations and Orders.
Overall answers to this question were very limited.
In part (a) some learners appeared to misunderstand the question and outlined how a
UK Act is made, with long discussion on green and white papers. Better answers
recognised Section 15, the powers of the Secretary of State and the necessary
consultation.
In part (b) learners demonstrated a very limited understanding on both the purpose and
principles of cost benefit analysis, as applied to proposed regulation. For (b) (i) many
missed the concept of value to society and in (b) (ii) matters of timescale and conversion
of costs and benefits to monetary values was completely missed.
Question 3 A Health and Safety Executive (HSE) inspector visits a small, limited
company. The inspector finds an unguarded machine and decides to
serve a prohibition notice on the employer.
(a) Outline the legal criteria that must be satisfied in order for a
prohibition notice to be lawfully served. (2)
(b) If the employer chooses to appeal against the notice:

(i) identify the effect of the bringing of the appeal; (1)
(ii) identify the timescale within which an appeal must be
made; (1)
(iii) identify the possible outcomes of the appeal. (2)
(c) At a subsequent visit the inspector discovers that the unguarded

machine is still in use by an employee as instructed by the
Operations Director. The prohibition notice is still in force. The
inspector decides to bring a prosecution against the Operations
Director under Section 37 of the Health and Safety at Work etc
Act 1974 for breaching the prohibition notice.
(i) Outline the legal criteria that the inspector would need to
satisfy to bring a successful prosecution. (3)
(ii) Identify the maximum penalties that would be available
on conviction of the Operations Director. (1)

3.3: Explain the responsibilities and powers of enforcing agencies and officers and the
range of options related to enforcement action, their implications and appeal
procedures.
In part (a) many learners were able to gain marks for the legal criteria to be satisfied;
although some learners did miss the opportunity to outline the requirement for risk of
serious personal injury and others offered points relevant to an improvement notice.
5
In part (b) better answers clearly set out the timeframes, the immediate effects of the
appeal and its outcomes. Limited answers did not fully identify the effect of bring the
appeal, did not give the correct timeframe, nor explored the outcome of the appeal
beyond cancelling the notice.
In part (c) (i) the legal criteria to be satisfied for a successful prosecution led to
difficulties among learners. Too many answers gave a non-legal subjective-based
discussion on the criteria for a civil claim. Few learners could outline Section 37 of
HSWA and/or the consent and connivance. In part (ii) learners often confused
organisation and individual penalties.
Question 4 A large transport organisation has recently suffered an incident in which

several passengers died. The subsequent investigation criticised the
organisation for putting profit before safety.
Outline how the Board of Directors could lead the development of a

safety culture that values health and safety with equal importance to
other areas of risk. (10)
This question assessed learners’ knowledge and understanding of learning outcomes

9.2: Explain the organisational benefits of effective health and safety leadership; 9.7:
Explain health and safety culture and climate; 9.8: Outline the factors which can both
positively and negatively affect health and safety culture and climate; 9.6: Explain the
role, influences on and procedures for formal and informal consultation with employees
in the workplace; and 9.5: Explain the requirements for managing third parties in the
workplace.
The focus of this question was on how the Board of Directors of an organisation can
lead to the development of a safety culture. Learners needed to outline good examples
of how this could be done.
Few learners were able to understand that a Board’s role is more about the concepts
and direction rather than day-to-day safety tasks. Therefore, comments such as
providing training and writing risk assessments missed the main points being asked for.
Learners missed the opportunity to demonstrate strategic decision-making
requirements of the Board and translate this into real-world examples.
Many learners incorrectly focused on how the organisation could improve safety
through development of their employees, or focused upon management systems such
as risk assessment, procedures, accident reporting and training.
Question 5 Routine, situational and exceptional are all categories of violations in the
workplace.
(a) Distinguish between routine, situational and exceptional

violations. (4)
(b) Outline how situational violations can be minimised. (6)

10.3: Explain the classification of human failure.
In part (a) better answers were able to adequately distinguish between the three types
of violation. Although limited answers lacked understanding of exceptional violations
with examples not always relating to the concepts. Additionally, some learners delved
into discussion based upon slips, lapses and errors rather than violations.
6
In part (b) better answers outlined a reasonable range of ways to minimise this type of
violation. Marks were gained by those who included ergonomics, working environment
and equipment as well as behavioural awareness and monitoring.
There was however a tendency to either focus on only a few examples, such as
supervision and risk assessments therefore limiting overall marks, or to explore one
concept and ignore others. Limited answers did not link the answer to the situational
violation.
Question 6 A manufacturer wants to introduce a permit-to-work system at a factory

that operates continuously over three shifts.
Outline the essential features that will make an effective permit-to-work

system at the factory. (10)
An outline of the content of the permit-to-work form is not required.

8.3: Explain the development, main features and operation of safe systems of work and
permit-to-work systems.
Better answers were given by learners who adhered to the guidance to not outline the
content of a permit-to-work form. Some good points were outlined such as record
management, monitoring, training and communication arrangements. However,
opportunities to gain marks were missed by learners not breaking down a feature into
more detail or conflating two or more features into one general point that was not
specific enough to be mark worthy; for example, training of permit issuers and training
of permit receivers.
Limited answers did not heed the guidance and outlined the permit-to-work form or
answered a different question about the benefits of a permit-to-work system.
At Diploma-level wider knowledge and a strategic approach on systems and procedures

is expected.
7
Question 7 A manufacturing organisation has designed and installed a large oven for
use in an industrial process. The oven has a power-operated door that
closes and locks automatically when the oven is switched on. There is
no means of releasing the door lock from inside the oven and there is no
alarm.
An employee of the manufacturing organisation, accompanied by a

contractor’s employee, entered the oven to perform a maintenance task.
They were locked in when the oven was switched on by another member
of staff who did not know that they were inside. Both men suffered
serious burns as a result. Staff had not been given training on the risks
associated with using the new oven and there were no written
instructions for cleaning and maintenance.
(a) Outline the possible breaches of the Health and Safety at Work
etc Act 1974 that may have been committed by the
manufacturing organisation. (8)
Use an example of case law to support your answer.
Section numbers or regulation numbers are not required.
(b) The injured parties intend to bring an action in the tort of

negligence (delict in Scotland) against the manufacturing
organisation.
Outline what the injured parties will need to show for their claims
to succeed. (8)
Use an example of case law to support your answer.
(c) Identify the two main types of damages the injured parties may
claim AND give an example of what may be claimed under
EACH type. (4)

3.1: Explain the key requirements of the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974 and
the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999; and 4.2: Explain the
criteria required to establish a successful civil action for breach of statutory duty and
negligence, the main defences available and the procedure for assessment of damages
under civil law.
In part (a) some learners were able to sufficiently outline the breaches of the HSWA to
gain good marks. Other learners gave limited answers in which the breaches were not
coherently expressed, and section numbers without further outline were given, and in
some cases with a duplication of answers. Some learners provided a widespread
answer, including breaches of regulations for which marks could not be awarded. The
case law used to support the answer was often not relevant; for example, a civil case
was used, or the learner missed the opportunity to draw out the legal point in the case.
In part (b) many learners were able to provide the three basic civil law tests, although
some missed the opportunity to gain marks by not providing a sufficient outline and
simply stating the tests. At Diploma-level a deeper knowledge is expected. Many
learners did not develop their answers further by considering reasonableness and
foreseeability. Better answers linked the case law to the tests thereby gaining more
marks.
In part (c) better answers correctly identified the types of damages and gave correct
examples. Limited answers gave incorrect examples of the damages or rephrased the
damage types. Some learners also adopted a widespread approach in an attempt to
gain marks.
8
Question 8 An organisation is considering assessing its health and safety culture
prior to implementing a programme of cultural change.
(a) Outline what should be considered when assessing the

organisation’s current health and safety culture. (10)
(b) Identify methods the organisation can use to gather information

when assessing current health and safety culture. (2)
(c) Outline factors influencing the success of a cultural change

programme. (8)

9.7: Explain health and safety culture and climate; 9.8: Outline the factors which can
both positively and negatively affect health and safety culture and climate.
In part (a) several learners were able to outline a reasonable range of points to consider
when assessing an organisation’s culture. Most learners included various management
issues but wider individual and systems issues were often omitted. Some learners
missed the opportunity to gain more marks by overly elaborating on a small number of
issues rather than offering a breadth of points.
In part (b) most learners identified at least one method to obtain data to assess the
current health and safety culture of an organisation. Better answers included multiple
methods. Some learners did not acknowledge the command word and proceeded to
provide a detailed outline.
In part (c) several learners provided an outline around four factors. Opportunities to
gain marks were missed by not providing a broad range of factors and instead
concentrating on a limited few. Typically, learners were able to provide commitment,
training and resources, but answers were often simplistic and discussion on other
factors, such as engagement strategies, and overcoming resistance to change were
overlooked. Learners appeared to find it challenging to relay information at a
management or strategic level.
9
Question 9 The management of a chemical store with major on-site and off-site
hazard potential is analysing the risks and controls associated with a
particular storage facility and potential containment failure. Following
containment failure (f=0.5 per year), an automatic failure detection
mechanism should detect the release. Once detected, an alarm sounds
followed by a suppressant being dispersed. Finally, in order to reduce
the consequences of the event an operator is required to take manual
control measures following the release of the suppressant. As part of the
analysis, the organisation has decided to quantify the risks from the
containment failure and develop a quantified event tree from the data.
Activity Frequency / reliability

Process containment failure 0.5 per year
Failure detection 0.98
Alarm sounders 0.99
Release suppression 0.8
Manual control measures activated 0.7
(a) Outline why constructing an event tree could be helpful. (3)
(b) Using the information provided in the above table, demonstrate

the sequence of events following process containment failure
using a simple event tree. (6)
(c) Calculate the frequency of an uncontrolled release resulting

from process containment failure. (6)
(d) Outline what should be considered when determining whether

the frequency of the uncontrolled risk is tolerable. (5)

7.5: Explain the principles and techniques of failure tracing methodologies with the use
of calculations.
For learners choosing this question, most were confident on the mathematics necessary
and consequently good marks were gained in respect to parts (b) and (c). However,
this was not always the case and a few learners made significant calculation errors or
could not replicate the event tree correctly.
In part (a) very few learners were able to correctly outline the main benefits of event
trees. Answers were too general and lacked sufficient detail to gain marks.
In part (b) most learners were able to construct the tree to a satisfactory design to depict
the sequence of events. However, some learners could have made better use of the
space afforded by the examination booklet in laying out the sequence.
In part (c) many learners were able to gain marks for partially or in some cases fully
correctly carrying out the calculation. Most errors were based on calculation – for
example adding rather than multiplying, or not converting a decimal number to a
frequency.
In part (d) many answers showed a limited understanding in the determination of

tolerability. In general, the answers lacked the breadth of factors to obtain good marks
with learners concentrating on one or two areas. Some were able to outline the
risk/consequence of a release and cost issues, and a few added environmental or
health aspects but could not consider wider factors in determining tolerability.
10
Question 10 An organisation operating in the oil and gas sector employed 5 000
people in 2016. The number of employees has reduced to 4 000 in 2017
and 3 000 in 2018. The table below shows the accident history of the
organisation over the past 3 years.
Year 2016 2017 2018

Number of
14 15 14
accidents
Number of hours
8 000 000 6 400 000 4 800 000
worked
Days lost due to
65 75 90
accidents
(a) Calculate the accident frequency rate for EACH of the years. (6)
Show your calculations at EACH step.
(b) Comment on why the organisation should be concerned about

the accident frequency rate. (2)
(c) Human reliability can impact accident rates.
Outline ways in which:

(i) organisational factors can contribute to improving human
reliability; (6)
(ii) job factors can contribute to improving human reliability. (6)

10.5: Explain how organisational factors can contribute to improving reliability; 10.6:
Explain how job factors can contribute to improving human reliability; and 5.2 Explain
the use of quantitative methods in analysing loss data.
In general, part (a) was answered well with most learners gaining full marks; those who
did not often confused the number of hours worked with days lost.
In part (b) most learners identified that the accident frequency rate rose despite a
reduction in employees and hours. Better answers were able to expand on this to
consider the severity aspect and greater lost time.
In part (c) learners missed the opportunity to gain good marks due to a limited
understanding of the differences between organisational and job factors that contribute
to human reliability. As a result, factors were outlined in the wrong category. Also,
some learners gave too much detail to a small number of factors instead of outlining a
broad range of examples. The marks available should signpost the learners that a
similar breadth of answer is required in parts (c) (i) and (ii).
11
Question 11 An organisation is due to have an external certification audit of its health
and safety management system against a recognised standard. The
information from the audit will be used in a formal review of health and
safety performance.
(a) Outline the purpose of health and safety management system

auditing. (4)
(b) Describe the in-house safety practitioner’s role in this external

audit. (6)
(c) Outline the purpose of a health and safety management

performance review. (2)
(d) (i) Outline possible inputs to the health and safety

management performance review. (6)
(ii) Outline possible outputs from the health and safety
management performance review. (2)

6.3: Describe the variety of health and safety monitoring and measurement techniques;
and 6.4: Explain the need for and process of reviewing health and safety performance.
In part (a) the purpose of management system auditing was not fully understood by
most of the learners. Limited answers lacked breadth and explored the definition of an
audit or its contents rather than its purpose. Better answers outlined points on
identification of strengths and weaknesses and supporting continuous improvement.
Part (b) produced mixed answers. Better answers described a reasonable range of
activities that the practitioner would be involved in linked to the external audit. More
marks could have been gained for considering prior planning issues and the final report.
Limited answers placed too much emphasis on general day-to-day roles rather than
specifically for the purposes of audit, were overly simplistic, or concentrated on one or
two points.
Part (c) appeared to challenge learners and it appeared that the purpose of
management performance review was not well understood. Some learners considered
it could help establish gaps and areas for improvement.
In part (d) the inputs and outputs proved challenging for many learners with too much
emphasis often placed upon reactive data sets rather than active indicators in (d) (i)
and could not go beyond reports in (ii). Several inputs were overlooked making answers
limited. Many learners appeared not to recognise the mark distribution between (i) and
(ii) and gave a similar amount of discussion for both parts when (i) was worth more
marks.
12
The following issues are consistently identified as the main areas in need of improvement for learners
Learners misread/misinterpreted the question
the associated syllabus guides. The learning outcomes require learners to be sufficiently prepared to
provide the relevant depth of answer across a broad range of topic areas. For example, a learner could
be asked about the causes of stress, or could be asked about the effects of stress, a question could
require a response relating to the principles of fire initiation, or a question could require a response
relating to the spread of fire. Therefore, a learner should focus not only on the general topic area (eg
Examiners suggest that while many learners do begin their answer satisfactorily and perhaps gain one
or two marks, they then lose sight of the question and include irrelevant information. Although further
points included in an answer can relate to the general topic area, these points are not focused on the
specific learning outcome and marks cannot be awarded. However, some learners appear to misread
or misinterpret several questions. This situation is more likely due to learners preparing for the
examination with a number of stock answers obtained through rote-learning, that again can provide
Examiners noted a tendency on the part of many learners to write about things that were not asked for,
despite the fact that guidance as to what to cover had been given in the question. An example is a
question where learners were instructed that there was no need to make reference to specific control
measures and yet did so. In another example learners wrote about selection of PPE when the question
wording had clearly stated that this had already been undertaken. Another example was where learners
wrote about barriers to rehabilitation without relating them to the bio-psychosocial model, even though
the question specifically asked them to do this.
Some learners wrote large amounts of text on a single topic where only one mark could be awarded.
Learners did not recognise that the amount of marks awarded to each section gives an indication of the
depth of the answer required.
It would therefore appear that a sizeable number of learners misread some of the questions, to their
disadvantage. This should be a relatively easy pitfall to overcome; learners should ensure that they
make full use of the 10 minutes reading time to understand what each question requires. Learners are
advised to allow sufficient time to read and re-read the question in order to determine the key
much examination time; if all aspects are not dealt with it will be difficult to gain a high mark. Learners
It may help if, when preparing for the examinations, learners write out their answers in full and ask a
Learning Partners and learners should note that various means are used to draw attention to keywords
capitals. These means are intended to draw the learner’s attention to these words and this emphasis
13
Learners often have a reasonable body of knowledge and understanding on the topic covered by a
When preparing learners for examination, or offering advice on examination technique, Learning
Partners should stress that understanding the question requirements and the sub-structure of the
response to the question is the fundamental step to providing a correct answer. Rather than learning
requires. The rote learning of answers appears to close the learners’ minds to the wider (and usually
Learners repeated the same point but in different ways
There are instances where learners repeat very similar points in their answers, sometimes a number of
times. This is easily done in the stressful environment of the examination. However, once a point has
been successfully made and a mark awarded for it, that mark cannot be awarded again for similar points
made later in the answer. In some cases, particularly where questions had more than one part, learners
gave an answer to, say, part (b) of a question in part (a), meaning that they needed to repeat themselves
in part (b) thus wasting time.
One possible reason for this might be that learners have relatively superficial knowledge of the topic - a
view supported by the low marks evident in some answers. It appears that, faced with a certain number
of marks to achieve and knowing that more needs to be written, but without detailed knowledge, learners
appear to opt to rephrase that which they have already written in the hope that it may gain further marks.
Another possible reason is a failure to properly plan answers, especially to the Section B questions - it
would appear that learners sometimes become ‘lost’ in their answers, forgetting what has already been
written. It may be due either to a lack of knowledge (so having no more to say) or to limited answer
planning, or to a combination of the two. When a valid point has been made it will be credited, but
repetition of that point will receive no further marks. Learners may have left the examination room feeling
that they had written plenty when in fact they had repeated themselves on multiple occasions, therefore
gaining fewer marks than they assumed.
Learners sometimes think they have written a lengthy answer to a question and are therefore deserving
of a good proportion of the marks. Unfortunately, quantity is not necessarily an indicator of quality and
sometimes learners make the same point several times in different ways. Examiners are not able to
award this same mark in the mark scheme a second time. The chance of repetition increases when all
marks for a question (eg 10 or 20) are available in one block. It can also happen when a significant
proportion of the marks are allocated to one part of a question.
This issue is most frequently demonstrated by learners who did not impose a structure on their answers.
Starting each new point on a new line would assist in preventing learners from repeating a basic concept
previously covered, as well as helping them assess whether they have covered enough information for
the available marks.
for example by underlining key points, can be of great use. This technique aids learners and makes it
much clearer in the stress of the examination for learners to see which points have been made and
reduce the chances of the same point being made several times. Learning Partners are encouraged to
set written work and to provide feedback on written answers, looking to see that learners are able to
come up with a broad range of relevant and accurate points; they should point out to learners where the
same point is being made more than once.
Learners are advised to read widely. This means reading beyond course notes in order to gain a fuller
understanding of the topic being studied. In that way, learners will know more and be able to produce a
broader and more detailed answer in the examination. Learners may also find it helpful to read through
their answers as they write them in order to avoid repetition of points.
Learning Partners should provide examination technique pointers and practice as an integral part of the
learners may not have taken formal examinations for some years.
14
Learners produced an incoherent answer
Learners produced answers that lacked structure, digressed from the question asked and were often
more difficult to follow than those that are well structured and follow a logical approach. Those learners
who prepare well for the unit examination and who therefore have a good and detailed knowledge
commensurate with that expected at Diploma level, invariably supply structured, coherent answers that
gain good marks; those learners who are less well prepared tend not to do so.
concisely are important aspects of the health and safety practitioner’s wider competence. Learners
knowledge and to demonstrate it to better effect during the examination. It may help if learners ask a
person with no health and safety knowledge to review their answers and to see whether the reviewer
Learners did not respond effectively to the command word
typeface. The command word will indicate the depth of answer that is expected by the learner.
Generally, there has been an improvement in response to command words, but a number of learners
Course exercises should guide learners to assessing the relevant points in any given scenario such that
they are able to apply the relevant syllabus elements within the command word remit.
Learner’s handwriting was illegible
It is unusual to have to comment on this aspect of learner answers, as experienced Examiners rarely
and commented on this as an area of concern. While it is understood that learners feel under pressure
representative of their usual written standards; it is still necessary for learners to produce a script that
keyboard skills are so widely used. Learning Partners should encourage and give opportunities for
learners to practise this hand-writing skill throughout their course of study. They should identify at an
early stage if inherent problems exist. These can sometimes be accommodated through reasonable
adjustments, eg by the provision of a scribe or the use of a keyboard. Learners with poorly legible
handwriting need to understand this constraint early in their course of studies in order for them to
minimise the effect this may have.
NEBOSH recommends to Learning Partners that learners undertaking this qualification should reach a
minimum standard of English equivalent to an International English Language Testing System score of
7.0 or higher in IELTS tests in order to be accepted onto a Diploma level programme.
15
Learners wishing to assess their own language expertise may consult the IELTS website for information
on taking the test: http://www.ielts.org
Learning Partners are reminded that they must ensure that these standards are satisfied or additional
Learners did not answer all the questions
It has been noted that a number of learners do not attempt all of the questions on the examination and
of course where a learner does not provide an answer to a question, no marks can be awarded. Missing
out whole questions immediately reduces the number of possible marks that can be gained and so
immediately reduces the learner’s opportunity for success. There can be several reasons for this issue:
running out of the allocated time for the examination, a lack of sufficient knowledge necessary to address
parts of some questions, or in other cases, some learners have a total lack of awareness that the topic
covered in certain questions is even in the syllabus.
If learners have not fully studied the breadth of the syllabus they may find they are not then equipped to
address some of the questions that are on a question paper. At that late stage there is little a learner
can do to address this point. Responsibility for delivering and studying the full breadth of the syllabus
rests with both the Learning Partner and the individual learners and both must play their part to ensure
learners arrive at the examination with a range of knowledge across all areas of the syllabus.
Unit B
In Section A, learners must attempt all questions and it was clear that some struggled with those
learners have no knowledge of the principles of good practice that underpin COSHH. Unfortunately this
was often found to be the case in responses to questions.
In Section B, where learners have a choice of questions, many sought to avoid those questions with a
higher technical knowledge content. For example questions on radiation, lighting and vibration.
Learners provided rote-learned responses that did not fit the question
It was apparent in those questions that were similar to those previously set, that the learners’ thought
question demands.
being assessed is a learner’s understanding of the topic and reciting a pre-prepared and memorised
answer will not show a learner’s understanding. In fact, if a learner gives a memorised answer to a
question that may look similar, but actually is asking for a different aspect of a topic in the syllabus, it
answer.
16
Command words
learners:
Explain
detail. For example, learners are occasionally able to outline a legal breach but do not always explain
why it had been breached. A number of instances of learners simply providing a list of information
suggests that while learners probably have the correct understanding, they cannot properly express it.
Whether this is a reflection of the learner’s language abilities, in clearly constructing a written
demonstrate.
sequence of steps. Learners must also be guided by the number of marks available. When asked to
‘explain the purposes of a thorough examination and test of a local exhaust ventilation system’ for 5
explanation.
Learners are often unable to explain their answers in sufficient detail or appear to become confused
about what they want to say as they write their answer. For example, in one question many learners
Describe
subject such that another person would be able to visualise what was being described. Learners have
a tendency to confuse ‘describe’ with ‘outline’. This means that less detailed answers are given that
inevitably lead to lower marks. This may indicate a significant lack of detailed knowledge and/or a lack
of ability to articulate the course concepts clearly. Learners should aim to achieve a level of
Some learners see the command word ‘describe’ as an opportunity to fill out an answer with irrelevant
everything they know about chairs or explain why they were sitting on the chair. Learners should
Outline
This is probably the most common command word but most learners treat it like ‘identify’ and provide
is not the same as ‘identify’ so learners will be expected to give more detail in their answers. ‘Outline’
requires a learner to indicate ‘the principal features or different parts of’ the subject of the question.
17
sufficient breadth, so learners should also be guided by the number of marks available. Those learners
who gain better marks in questions featuring this command word give brief summaries to indicate the
principal features or different parts of whatever was being questioned. If a question asks for an outline
of the precautions when maintaining an item of work equipment, reference to isolation, safe access and
personal protective equipment would not be sufficient on their own to gain the marks available. A
suitable outline would include the meaning of isolation, how to achieve safe access and the types of
protective clothing required.
Identify
Learners responding to identify questions usually provide a sufficient answer. Examiners will use the
the question.
However, in contrast to ‘outline’ answers being too brief, many learners feel obliged to expand ‘identify’
answers into too much detail, with the possible perception that more words equals more marks. This is
not the case and Learning Partners should use the NEBOSH guidance on command words within their
examination preparation sessions in order to prepare learners for the command words that may arise.
Give
an example in EACH case’. Learners tend to answer such questions satisfactorily, especially where a
question might ask to ‘identify’ something and then ‘give’ an example. The learner who can answer the
first part, invariably has little difficulty in giving the example.
Comment
relevant to it.
For example, if learners have already calculated two levels of the exposure to wood dust and are then
asked to comment on this the issues would include the levels of exposure they had found, and learners
would need to give their opinion on these, while considering what is relevant. The question guides on
what may be relevant for example, did it meet the legal requirements, did it suggest controls were
adequate, so based on that guidance, did exposure need to be reduced further or did anything else
need to be measured or considered? If learners comment with justification on each of these areas they
would gain good marks in that part of question.
Few learners are able to respond appropriately to this command word. At Diploma level, learners should
be able to give a clear, reasoned opinion based on fact.
https://www.nebosh.org.uk/i-am/a-learner/ - from this page the document can be found by clicking on
18
Examiners’ Report

UNIT B:
JULY 2019
CONTENTS
Introduction 2
General comments 3
Command words 18
Introduction
(IIRSM).
© NEBOSH 2019
NEBOSH
Dominus Way
Leicester
LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700

fax: 0116 282 4000
2
General comments
2019.
Element.
3
Unit B
Question 1 Outline how an occupational hygienist should determine an employee’s

long term personal exposure to total inhalable hazardous dust. (10)

4.2: Outline the methods for sampling of airborne contaminants.
Many learners appeared to be unfamiliar with the syllabus requirements in learning

outcome 4.2; in particular the general equipment and methodology for personal
sampling of solid particulates including inhalable dusts. Instead, learners outlined
general strategies for monitoring exposure to hazardous substances, or discussed
health surveillance, control measures and use of respiratory protective equipment.
The method for determining an employee’s long term personal exposure to inhalable
dust is set out in the HSE document MDHS 14-4. However, learners did not need to
know this specific document reference to gain full marks on this question. Instead, they
were expected to outline the gravimetric method required. This involves the use of a
filter (weighed before and after sampling), a sample head, connected to a pump with a
calibrated flow rate. Marks were also available for outlining where to place the sample
head and how to calculate the result in mg/m3.
Question 2 (a) Explain how exposure to silica dust can cause silicosis. (4)
(b) The construction of a city’s underground rail line involves

extensive tunnelling and concrete spraying activities.
Outline controls that reduce the risk of employees developing

silicosis, while carrying out tunnelling and concrete spraying
activities. (6)

3.1: Explain the principles of prevention and control of exposure to hazardous
substances (including carcinogens and mutagens); 2.2: Explain the identification,
classification and health effects of hazardous substances used in the workplace; and
2.1: Explain the main routes of entry and the human body’s defensive responses to
hazardous substances.
Silica is one of the listed hazardous substances in learning outcome 2.2 and many
learners were familiar with how silicosis occurs and were able to outline a good range
of control measures.
In part (a) some learners answered the question by explaining the body’s defence
mechanisms that may be activated when silica dust is inhaled. This did not answer the
question. Instead, it was necessary to explain how, once inhaled, the silica dust can be
trapped in the alveoli and the resultant scarring, or hardening of lung tissue, affects the
function of the lungs making breathing difficult. Very few learners indicated that the
symptoms of silicosis can worsen even if exposure ceases.
4
The scenario given in the question, tunnelling and concrete spraying, may not have
been familiar to some learners, but nevertheless many were able to outline a good
range of controls to reduce the risk of employees developing silicosis in part (b). These
included minimising the time employees spent in the area, and also restricting the
number of people working in the area. Other controls included the use of ventilation,
the provision of respiratory protective equipment, which would require face-fit testing,
and training on the hazards and controls measures for silica dust. Reference to health
surveillance was often too vague and instead learners were expected to outline the use
of lung function tests (spirometry) as part of the package of control measures that
reduce the risk of employees developing silicosis.
Some learners outlined control measures specifically relevant to this scenario, including
the use of de-dusting equipment or extraction on the tunnelling machines, or the use of
a concrete with lower silica content. However, it was not necessary to include these
more specific controls in order to gain full marks in part (b).
Question 3 Dilution ventilation can be used to control certain types of hazardous

substances generated in a workplace.
(a) Outline circumstances when dilution ventilation may be

appropriate as a control measure to reduce exposure to a
hazardous substance. (3)
(b) Describe the design features of the air input for a dilution
ventilation system. (3)
For a dilution ventilation system to be effective the number of air changes

achieved must be sufficient.
(c) (i) Calculate the number of air changes per hour for a
dilution ventilation system with the following
specification:
Workplace dimensions (metres): 10m x 10m x 3m

Volume of air throughput each hour: 3 000m3
Required number of air changes per 10 to 15
hour: (2)
(ii) Comment on the effectiveness of the specified dilution

ventilation system in controlling exposure to a hazardous
substance. (2)

3.3: Explain the uses and limitations of dilution ventilation and the purpose and
operation of local exhaust ventilation, including assessing and maintaining
effectiveness.
Many learners gave very brief answers in part (a) often limited to just one circumstance,
that dilution was appropriate for fumes, vapour or gas and not for dust. There is a wider
range of circumstances that could have been considered. Dilution ventilation is
appropriate when the hazardous substance has low toxicity or when it is generated at
a steady rate. Learners and Learning Partners are reminded that in learning outcome
3.3 the syllabus includes ‘the uses and limitations of dilution ventilation for hazardous
substances’.
In part (b) a number of learners described all the components of a local exhaust
ventilation system, instead of describing specifically the air input features of a dilution
ventilation system. The italicisation of the words air input in the question indicates to
learners that this is what they should address when answering this part of the question.
5
While fans can be a feature of an air input part of dilution ventilation, there are other
ways in which air input can occur, for example through windows, doors or vents. The
position or number of air inputs should be arranged so as to avoid ‘dead spots’.
Most learners were able to correctly calculate the number of air changes per hour from
the data provided in part (c) of the question. However, answers to part (d) were then
often limited to one line, simply stating that 10 air changes per hour is within the required
specification.
The command word ‘comment’ is to give opinions (with justification) on an issue or

statement by considering the issues relevant to it. At Diploma-level, learners should be
able to give a clear, reasoned opinion based on fact. To gain the two marks available
it was necessary to justify the comment further, perhaps by indicating this was at the
lower end of the specification range and better control could be achieved by increasing
the number of air changes closer to the upper end of the specification range (15 air
changes per hour). Another relevant comment could have justified that not all areas of
the workplace may achieve the minimum of 10 air changes per hour that was calculated.
Question 4 Employees are required to pick up small pasta pieces from a delivery
conveyor and transfer them to foil trays on a separate conveyor during
the production of pre-prepared pasta dishes. This work is carried out
standing in front of the conveyors for an 8-hour shift. An ergonomic risk
assessment is to be carried out.
(a) Outline the ergonomic risk factors to be considered in this

assessment. (5)
(b) A number of employees have complained about pains in their

arms, shoulders and back.
Other than automation outline control measures that could help

reduce the ergonomic risks these employees are exposed to. (5)

9.1: Outline types, causes and relevant workplace examples of injuries and ill-health
conditions associated with repetitive physical activities, manual handling and poor
posture; and 9.2: Explain the assessment and control of risks from repetitive activities,
manual handling and poor posture.
Most learners achieved good marks on this question. Part (a) required an outline of the
ergonomic risk factors, that include the repetitive nature of the task; the adoption of
static postures for prolonged periods of time; and also environmental factors such as
cold or hot temperatures that may be necessary in a food production environment. It
was necessary for learners to provide an outline of these risk factors and not simply
state the name of the risk factor, in order to fully gain the marks available. Some
learners mistakenly approached this question using TILE (task, individual, load,
environment) and this was not appropriate.
Control measures relevant in part (b) include a number of options to change the
conveyor system, for example changing the speed which affects the work rate,
repositioning the conveyor so employees could work from both sides and prevent over-
reaching, or perhaps positioning the conveyors in parallel to reduce the need for
twisting. Control measures that help manage postural issues would also be
appropriate, for example providing seating, encouraging employees to change posture
regularly and perhaps carrying out regular stretching exercises to relieve postural
tension.
6
Question 5 The use of hand-held power tools results in employees being exposed to
hand-arm vibration (HAV).
Outline what should be considered when conducting a risk assessment

for exposure to HAV. (10)

6.7: Explain the measurement and assessment of vibration exposure.
Many learners did not answer the question asked and instead wrote lengthy answers
outlining the control measures that could be used to minimise exposure to HAV. The
question clearly asks for what should be considered when conducting a risk assessment
and while it is necessary to consider what existing control measures are in place, this
is only one small part of all the considerations that are relevant in a risk assessment.
Learners should have considered the magnitude of the vibration that may have been
measured or read from manufacturers’ information. Duration and frequency of
exposure to HAV should also be considered. These, together with the magnitude of
vibration, give an indication of the dose employees are exposed to and this in turn
should be considered in relation to exposure limit values and action values. Other
considerations such as the temperature of the working environment and the age and
condition of the power tools are also relevant considerations.
7
Question 6 Audiometry can be used to assess an employee’s hearing.
(a) Explain what is meant by the term ‘threshold shift’. (2)
(b) The figure below shows an audiogram for an adult employee.
(i) Give the name of the hearing condition indicated in this

audiogram. (1)
(ii) Describe the physical changes in the inner ear for an
adult employee with this audiogram result. (2)
(iii) Outline the resultant effect on hearing for an adult
employee with this audiogram result. (1)
(iv) Outline reasons why audiometry testing may not
produce an accurate representation of the effects of
workplace noise exposure on an employee’s hearing. (4)

6.2: Explain the effects of noise on the individual and the use of audiometry.
Many learners demonstrated limited understanding of audiometry, an important

technique for measuring and monitoring the possible effects of workplace noise
exposure on an employee’s hearing.
‘Threshold shift’ is the term given to the reduction in hearing of an individual when
compared to a young adult with healthy ears. Many learners gained one of the two
marks available in part (a) as they did not refer to the comparison to the young adult
with healthy ears.
Some learners correctly identified the hearing condition shown in the audiogram, noise-
induced hearing loss. Others gave a wide range of other possible hearing conditions
and did not achieve the one mark available in part (b) (i).
The changes in the inner ear, for someone with noise-induced hearing loss, were to be
described in part (b) (ii). Some learners gave too brief a response to achieve the two
marks available. Those learners who described the damage occurring in the cochlea
where the hair cells are flattened or broken off did achieve full marks in this part of the
question.
Someone with noise-induced hearing loss would not hear consonants clearly and would
only hear vowels. In part (b) (iii) some learners briefly stated that ‘hearing conversation
would be difficult’ which did not achieve the one mark available.
8
Most learners gained the majority of their marks for this question in part (b) (iv).
Audiometry may not produce an accurate representation of the effects of workplace
noise exposure because there may be background noise or distraction during the test,
or the operator may not be competent to conduct the test. The test subject could be
tired and not concentrating, particularly if they have been in a noisy environment just
prior to the test. The test result shows all hearing loss, which may or may not be due
to occupational exposure.
Question 7 The avian influenza virus can be found in chickens, ducks, geese, and
wild birds. Poultry workers are at risk of becoming infected with this
virus.
(a) Outline how poultry workers can become infected by this virus. (4)
(b) Identify the symptoms of avian influenza if contracted by poultry

workers. (4)
A large poultry farm has a number of different locations where live birds
are kept. Vehicles transporting new stock birds and bird food access
each location and poultry workers move equipment between the
locations daily. Vets and external agencies frequently visit all the
locations.
(c) Outline control measures the poultry farm could use to minimise
the risk of the virus entering their locations or spreading between
the different locations. (12)

5.1: Explain the types and properties of biological agents found at work; and 1.1: Outline
the nature of occupational health.
Part (a) required an outline of how poultry workers could become infected with the avian
flu virus and therefore it is necessary to recognise that for this to happen the birds
themselves need to be infected with the virus. Therefore, learners needed to refer to
infected, diseased or unwell birds in their answer. Without this reference it was not
clear that learners appreciated how the risks of infection arose. Where birds are already
infected, poultry workers could become infected by contact with droppings, bedding or
body secretions, etc from the infected birds.
Most learners were able to identify a range of symptoms of avian influenza and
achieved a majority of the four marks available in part (b). There is a wide range of
possible symptoms including fever or high temperature, a cough or shortness of breath,
aching muscles or headaches, etc.
The detailed description of the nature of the work that is provided in the stem before
part (c) illustrates there are lots of movements of birds, food, equipment and people; in,
out and between the different locations. This description was intended to guide learners
into thinking about issues of biosecurity and how, if the avian flu virus was present at
one location, controls could be used to minimise the risk at other locations. Some
learners did understand this and included in their answer controls that were used both
on entry and exit from the various locations. Applying these controls only on entry or
only on exit would not properly control the risk of spreading avian flu from one location
to another.
These entry and exit controls include the cleaning or disinfecting of equipment and
vehicles as well as personal protective equipment that would not be single use, eg
boots.
9
Checks and controls on the buying of birds from reputable disease-free suppliers and
the quarantine of newly arrived birds are also relevant control measures. Few learners
recognised the importance of preventing wild birds access into the poultry areas, as
they could be a source of the virus. Good pest control measures are also important.
Question 8 (a) Identify signs that would indicate a worker may be suffering from
mental ill-health. (4)
Evidence recently published indicates that male construction workers are

three times more likely to commit suicide than an average working male.
(b) Outline what might contribute to increased mental ill-health

issues in construction workers. (8)
(c) Outline actions a construction company could take to actively

improve the mental health and well-being of their construction
workers. (8)

8.1: Explain the effects and causes of common types of mental ill-health within the
workplace; and 8.2: Explain the identification and control of workplace mental ill-health
with reference to legal duties and other standards.
Part (a) was well answered by most learners with many identifying more than four signs
of a worker suffering from mental ill-health, including decreased productivity, inability to
concentrate and isolating themselves from their peers.
Parts (b) and (c) were specifically focused on the construction industry and some
learners did not pay attention to this and gave very general answers not always
achieving the marks available.
There is a wide range of things that might contribute to mental ill-health in a construction
environment and those that may be particularly relevant are long and sometimes
unpredictable hours, often spent working away from home, perhaps in basic or shared
accommodation. Incomes can be unstable, as contract work can mean uncertainty over
employment. An itinerant workforce means it can be difficult to form good working
relationships.
Part (c) asks for an outline of what a construction company might do to improve mental
health and well-being. It does not ask what individual workers can do. Having policies
and procedures to prevent or minimise work-related stress and support a work-life
balance are relevant. Proactive actions such as promoting mental health campaigns
and reducing the stigma of mental ill-health are important. Appointing mental health
champions and mental health first-aiders can help. More reactive actions include
having in place specific plans to assist individual workers with existing mental health
issues and supporting them to return to or stay in work.
10
Question 9 Lasers are often used by the entertainment industry during displays and
music concerts attended by members of the public. The lasers used are
of very high power and are given a hazard classification.
(a) Outline the hazard classification system used for lasers. (4)
(b) Outline how exposure to lasers can cause damage to the eyes. (6)
(c) Outline control measures that could be used to reduce the risks
to the public at such displays. (10)

7.4: Outline the different sources of lasers found in the workplace, the classification of
lasers and the control measures.
Part (a) of the question was answered well by most learners. The outlines indicated
that laser classification was in classes 1 to 4, with 1 being the lowest power, and
therefore least hazardous and 4 being the most powerful and most hazardous. Some
learners provided further detail by referring to either the BS EN or IEC system of
classification, that have 7 or 8 sub classes respectively. Some learners listed the sub
classes correctly.
Answers to part (b) were generally limited and lacked the amount of information
required to be awarded all of the six marks available. Many answers simply stated that
lasers burn the retina and while this is worthy of marks it is not an outline of how
exposure to lasers can damage the eye. Further marks were available for outlining that
the light enters the eye and blinking response is not quick enough to protect the eye.
The light becomes focused in the back of the eye (retina) and causes a heating effect.
The severity of any injury from exposure to the laser light depends on a number of
features including wavelength, duration and angle of exposure.
Responses to part (c) were mixed. Many learners outlined control measures such as
protective housing for the lasers, controlled by interlock systems; use by only competent
or trained operators and the need to prevent unauthorised access to hazardous areas.
However, few learners referred to more technical measures such as using lasers that
are within the maximum permissible exposures (MPE) set down in standards and
making on-site measurements to confirm the MPE is complied with.
11
Question 10 (a) Identify FOUR environmental parameters that affect thermal
comfort. (4)
(b) Identify THREE other parameters that affect thermal comfort. (3)
(c) Employees are at risk of heat stress when working in a

manufacturing process that produces high levels of heat and
steam. Some employees are more vulnerable to the effects of
heat stress.
(i) Identify TWO reasons why some employees may be
more vulnerable to heat stress. (2)
(ii) Outline controls measures that help reduce the risk of
heat stress for all employees working in this
manufacturing process. (8)
(d) Wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT) is a commonly used heat

stress index.
Outline the purpose of WBGT. (3)

10.1: Explain the need for, and factors involved in, the provision and maintenance of
temperature in both moderate and extreme thermal environments.
Answers to part (a) were often imprecise. Learners need to identify the four
environmental parameters as they are listed in the Diploma syllabus in learning
outcome 10.1 which states ‘the environmental parameters affecting thermal comfort: air
temperature, radiant temperature, relative humidity, air velocity’.
Similarly in response to part (b) three other parameters are any of those listed in the
Diploma syllabus: metabolic rate, clothing, sweat rate, duration of exposure. In addition,
activity or work rate are also relevant.
In part (c) (i) age, weight, gender and medical conditions are all reasons why some
employees may be more vulnerable to heat stress. Few learners identified the level of
hydration or that alcohol intake could also be a reason.
Part (c) (ii) is where most learners achieved the majority of their marks on this question.
There is a wide range of possible controls measures for the situation described in the
question. Those control measures that were often missed by learners included having
an adequate number of employees, so the work rate or physical activity levels do not
significantly increase the risk of heat stress. Also omitted as control measures was the
need for acclimatisation of individuals to the work environment and both pre-
employment screening to identify vulnerable individuals and the ongoing health
surveillance of individuals working in this environment.
Answers to part (d) were limited with many learners unable to outline the purpose of the
heat stress index, WBGT. Many responded to the question by writing down the
equation from which WBGT can be calculated, but this was not required. The purpose
of a heat stress index, such as WBGT, is that it provides a single number representation
of the severity of a thermal environment, which can then be compared to standards and
can be helpful when risk assessing a thermal environment.
12
Question 11 Provision of sufficient lighting levels is necessary in all workplaces and
these levels of illuminance can be measured.
(a) Identify the unit of measurement typically used for illuminance. (1)
(b) Outline what could affect levels of illuminance measured in a

workplace. (10)
In addition to sufficient lighting, a workplace should have lighting that is

suitable for the work being carried out.
(c) Explain other key features of the lighting design that should be
considered when providing suitable lighting for an:
(i) operating theatre in a hospital; (5)
(ii) outdoor loading bay. (4)

10.2: Explain the need for suitable and sufficient lighting in the workplace, units of
measurement of light and the assessment of lighting levels in the workplace.
In part (a) the majority of learners correctly identified Lux.
Part (b) had ten marks available and many learners did not include a sufficiently wide
range of points in their answer. The most obvious things that affect the level of
illuminance are the number of lights and room dimensions, the amount of natural light
and the time of day or year when the levels of illuminance are measured. Other points
that were often overlooked by learners were the design of the lighting, for example did
the lights have diffusers and the amount of different types of lighting, for example local
lighting or general lighting.
Whereas the first half of this question considered the sufficiency of lighting the second
half considered the suitability of the lighting required in different types of workplace.
Application of this knowledge to ‘real-world’ scenarios was necessary in this part of the
question. For (c) (i) the scenario of a hospital operating theatre is specifically referred
to in the syllabus as a place where emergency lighting is critical. Many learners did not
refer to this in the answer. The emergency lighting required in this type of situation
needs to be more than just escape lighting, it needs to be standby lighting that will last
for a sufficient period of time. The emergency lighting would need to be at full capacity
immediately when it comes into use. Some learners did explain other features of
lighting relevant to this scenario, including the use of head lamps by surgeons and the
need for the light fitting to be sealed and easily cleaned for infection-control reasons.
The other scenario in part (c) (ii), an outdoor loading bay, has very differing
requirements. Lighting in the situation needs to be uniform across a wide area, avoiding
shadows and glare that may distract drivers or pedestrians. This lighting may need to
be activated by light sensors. Local planning requirements may also need to be
complied with, especially where large high-level floodlights are installed.
13
14
15
adjustments, eg by the provision of a scribe or the use of a keyboard. Learners with limitedly legible
16
Unit B
question demands.
answer.
17
Command words
learners:
Explain
demonstrate.
explanation.
Describe
Outline
18
Identify
the question.
Give
Comment
relevant to it.
19
Examiners’ Report

UNIT C:
JULY 2019
CONTENTS
Introduction 2
General comments 3
Command words 14
Introduction
(IIRSM).
© NEBOSH 2019
NEBOSH
Dominus Way
Leicester
LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700

fax: 0116 282 4000
2
General comments
2019.
Element.
3
Unit C
Question 1 Outline what should be considered when planning a fire evacuation

procedure for a multi-storey office building. (10)

3.6: Explain the purpose of, and essential requirements for, emergency evacuation
procedures.
There were many good answers to this question with those learners who focused purely
on the evacuation procedures achieving the higher marks.
Some learners included topics such as fire alarm systems, fire extinguishers, building
construction and emergency lighting which would be valid for a wider fire risk
assessment question, but were not required here and hence did not gain marks.
Topics that were expected to be covered included: action to be taken on hearing the
alarm and consideration of vulnerable persons. Few learners mentioned security
considerations such as door marshals which was also worthy of marks.
Question 2 An assessment under the Dangerous Substances and Explosive

Atmospheres Regulations 2002 is being carried out for the use of a
flammable solvent.
(a) Outline TWO zone classifications for explosive atmospheres

with a flammable solvent in air. (4)
(b) Outline control measures to help reduce the risk of an explosion

with a flammable solvent in air. (6)

4.2: Outline the main principles of the safe storage, handling and transport of dangerous
substances; and 4.3: Outline the main principles of the design and use of electrical
systems and equipment in adverse or hazardous environments.
For part (a) only a few learners gave a correct outline of the zone classifications, many
had difficulty matching the zone numbers to the appropriate definition.
For part (b) learners gave better answers based on control measures with which they
were familiar. Topics should have included measures to prevent a flammable
atmosphere forming and the exclusion of sources of ignition. Inspection and
maintenance was valid but rarely mentioned.
Learners found this question challenging with a wide spread of marks suggesting that,
while there were some who were familiar with the topic, there were many who were not.
4
Question 3 A scaffolder is lowering scaffold poles from the third floor of a scaffold
tower to a colleague below using a pulley wheel and rope. Next to the
scaffold tower there is a shop entrance. The scaffolder on the ground
floor places the scaffold poles horizontally onto the back of a vehicle
parked on a busy road. The scaffolders have already received
information, instruction, training and suitable supervision.
Outline additional control measures that could help reduce the risk of
injury to those who may be affected by this activity. (10)

9.3: Explain the appropriate site control measures that should be adopted to protect
employees and others during construction work; and 9.4: Outline the hazards and
control measures associated with working at height from fixed work or temporary
platforms.
For the given scenario learners were told that information, instruction, training and
supervision had already been given, but many learners chose to include these topics in
their answers. Areas that gained marks included control measures regarding traffic
movement, prevention of falls and falling objects and consideration of adverse weather.
Learners who structured their answers into the above topics gained higher marks.
Those who limited their answers to working at height were unable to gain the full marks
available.
Answers to this question were reasonable with most learners gaining good marks.
Question 4 During a construction project, a number of different types of crane will be

necessary to carry out mechanical lifting operations.
Outline what should be considered when selecting cranes that are

suitable for the required lifting operations. (10)

Marks achieved by learners for this question were on the whole quite reasonable. The
question focused on assessing learners’ knowledge and understanding of the
capabilities of various types of cranes that may be available and how to select the most
appropriate. Consideration should have been given to frequency of use, the reach and
load capabilities of the crane, and site conditions such as space.
Some learners wrote about inspection and test under LOLER and aspects of CDM,
which may have been relevant to the whole site operation but were not asked for here.
It may benefit some learners to witness these operations in a live, working environment
in order to increase practical experience and supplement theoretical knowledge.
5
Question 5 A lone worker is using a pallet truck to move pallets of frozen food
products in a low temperature store. The temperature of the store is
controlled at -5° Celsius.
Outline control measures to help the worker escape if they are

accidentally locked into this low temperature store. (10)

1.5: Explain the hazards, risks and controls for lone working.
This question appeared challenging with learners generally not achieving high marks.
Most learners appeared to have difficulty staying on the point of the question which was
on ‘escape if locked in’. Many mentioned heating up the cold store, perhaps by
switching off the cooling (not understanding how long it would take to warm up),
propping the door open and the use of warm clothing or PPE.
Better answers included communication systems and instructions to operators about

actions if trapped. Few answers included maintenance and inspection of door opening
mechanisms at regular intervals.
Question 6 A dental surgery uses a small steam steriliser to disinfect dental

instruments. The steriliser is labelled with a CE mark, and has a written
record with it in the form of a logbook.
(a) Outline why the steriliser would be considered a pressure

system. (3)
(b) Outline the purpose of the CE mark. (2)
(c) Outline what records need to be contained in the logbook. (5)

5.5: Outline the maintenance and prevention strategies when working with pressure
systems; and 6.1: Outline the principles of safety integration and the considerations
required in a general workplace machinery risk assessment.
For part (a) the learner was expected to outline reasons for the system being a pressure
vessel based on the definition given in the Pressure Systems Safety Regulations 2000.
Those familiar with the definitions gave better answers.
Part (b) required learners to understand the purpose of the EU directive aimed at the
free movement of products in the EU. Most learners had difficulty with this part of the
question.
Part (c) asked for what would be typically recorded in the logbook with the system. This
is effectively a record of what has taken place with the system since its installation and
should include records of service, modification and examination. Many learners
mistook this for the declaration of conformity supplied before installation and had
difficulty gaining higher marks.
6
Question 7 (a) Outline conditions that must be present for a primary dust
explosion to occur. (5)
(b) Outline additional conditions necessary for secondary dust

explosions to occur. (5)
(c) Outline design features that would minimise the risk of a dust
explosion. (10)

2.1: Outline the properties of flammable and explosive materials and the mechanisms
by which they ignite; and 2.3: Outline the main principles and practices of prevention
and protection against fire and explosion.
For part (a) answers based on the explosion pentagon gained the higher marks. Many
learners were able to give good responses to this part of the question.
In part (b) learners were asked to consider the secondary explosion and, while there
were a number of good responses, there were some learners who had difficulty outlining
where the source of ignition might come from.
Most marks were available for part (c) where control measures based on design
features were sought. An outline of the use of LEV, design of plant to withstand
explosion and the use of explosion-protected equipment would have gained marks. The
majority of learners were able to offer at least some of these points. The use of systems
of work, maintenance procedures, housekeeping and PPE were offered by some
learners, but these are not classed as design features, which was what the question
asked for.
Question 8 Telescopic materials handlers are commonly used for off-road

applications in the agricultural, quarrying and construction industries.
(a) Identify specific hazards associated with telescopic materials

handlers. (6)
(b) Outline characteristics of a safe site for telescopic materials

handlers. (7)
(c) Outline characteristics of a safe vehicle for telescopic materials

handlers. (7)

the controls available for managing workplace transport risk; and 7.1: Outline the main
hazards and control measures associated with mobile work equipment.
Answers to this question often gained high marks.
Specific hazards for telescopic materials handlers might include visibility issues due to
the boom, trapping between the boom and body of the vehicle, and possible contact
with overhead cables. There were some generic answers to this which suggested a
lack of familiarity with the particular vehicle although it is covered in the syllabus.
7
Part (b) was more generic in asking learners for characteristics of a safe site and this
brought many good responses, although systems of work and risk assessments were
mentioned which are not site characteristics. Typical answers could have included site
conditions such as slopes, ground stability, obstructions, etc. There seemed to be
confusion between this part which looked at the site and part (c) which looked at the
vehicle. For part (c), the vehicle, such items as roll-over protection, occupant restraints,
and guarding on engine parts gained marks.
This question was aimed specifically at telescopic materials handlers but produced too
many generic transport responses from learners.
Question 9 (a) Outline types of protection on electrical equipment that can

reduce the risk of contact with live conductors. (3)
(b) Outline types of protection on electrical equipment that can

reduce the risk of electric shock under fault conditions. (7)
(c) Outline precautions that should be considered, within a safe

system of work, to help prevent injury when working live on a UK
230v electric circuit. (10)

8.2: Outline the hazards of electricity and static electricity; and 8.3: Outline the issues
relevant to the installation, use, inspection and maintenance of electrical systems.
Part (a) looked at the basic methods of protection for electrical systems and for the
general type of protection rather than specific examples. This included barriers around
or in front of live systems. There was some confusion between part (a) and part (b)
with some learners repeating answers given in (a).
Better answers to part (b) would have included the more common systems of protecting
persons such as double insulation, earthing and automatic protection systems. There
were many good answers to this part, reflecting that Learning Partners and textbooks
covered this part well.
Part (c) was also well answered, those learners who gave a greater breadth to their
answers and included a wide range of controls gained higher marks. The main points
are highlighted in the HSE publication HSG85, which is referred to in the syllabus, and
mentions correct circuit identification, space and lighting around the worker, instruments
and emergency procedures as suitable topics.
Question 10 A number of lights in a storage warehouse have failed and need

replacing. The lights are at a height of 5 metres.
Outline what should be taken into consideration when replacing the

lights to help reduce the risk of work at height. (20)

1.4: Explain the hazards, risks, and controls when working at height.
The hierarchy of working at height should have been applied by learners to help
structure their answers, and those who tackled the question in this way gained the
higher marks.
8
The first consideration should have been to avoid work at height by choosing long-life
lamps or fittings that could be lowered. Prevention of falls could have included access
scaffolds, etc and the mitigation of falls with soft landing systems, fall arrest, etc.
Other risks when working at height might have included contact with overhead services.
This was a well answered question, with those who focused on the phrase ‘reduce the
risk of work at height’ gaining the higher marks.
Question 11 Workers at a furniture manufacturer use a bench-mounted circular saw to

cut pieces of timber to length.
(a) Outline mechanical hazards when carrying out this activity. (5)
(b) Identify non-mechanical hazards and corresponding risks when

carrying out this activity. (5)
(c) Outline control measures that should be considered to help

reduce risks to workers. (10)

6.2: Outline the principal generic mechanical and non-mechanical hazards of general
workplace machinery; and 6.3: Outline the main types of protective devices found on
general workplace machinery.
Part (a) was looking for the range of mechanical hazards covered in the standards but
with reference to their application to a circular saw for wood cutting. Hazards such as
entanglement and ejection of materials were worthy of marks when addressed to the
scenario.
For part (b) the non-mechanical hazards were asked for with their corresponding risks.
This proved challenging for many learners with the main problems being confusion with
the mechanical hazards in part (a) and not mentioning the corresponding risk. Hazards
such as electricity, dust, etc and also identifying the accompanying risk arising from the
particular hazard would have gained marks. This is where several learners had difficulty
in gaining the higher marks available.
For part (c) there were some good answers, with learners covering guarding. Better
answers also mentioned declaration of conformity and use of push sticks, etc. Those
learners who had made themselves familiar with the specific machines and protective
devices mentioned in the syllabus gained the higher marks.
9
10
11
adjustments, eg by the provision of a scribe or the use of a keyboard. Learners with poorly legible
12
Unit B
question demands.
answer.
13
Command words
learners:
Explain
demonstrate.
explanation.
Describe
Outline
14
Identify
the question.
Give
Comment
relevant to it.
15
Examiners’ Report

UNIT A:
JANUARY 2018
CONTENTS
Introduction 2
General comments 3
Command words 17
Introduction
(IIRSM).
© NEBOSH 2018
NEBOSH
Dominus Way
Leicester
LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700

fax: 0116 282 4000
2
General comments
2018.
Element.
Candidates and course providers should also make reference to the Unit A ‘Example question paper
and Examiners’ feedback on expected answers’ which provides example questions and details
Examiners’ expectations and typical areas of underperformance.
3
Unit A
Question 1 Outline reasons for introducing health and safety management systems. (10)

1.3: Outline the uses of, and reasons for, introducing a health and safety management
system.
Overall, responses to this question did not gain high marks. The topic is one that most
employers would expect their safety practitioner to be familiar with and to be able to
outline or ‘sell’ the reasons for introducing a system.
Quite a number of responses adopted the ‘moral, legal, financial’ route to frame their
answers that did not lend itself to fully answering the question. Candidates were able
to gain marks for points about legal compliance and costs, but missed the opportunity
to consider issues associated with corporate governance, insurance or alignment with
wider business objectives.
Question 2 Distinguish between:
(a) common law and statute law; (4)
(b) civil law and criminal law. (6)

2.1: Explain the sources and types of law in force in the UK relevant to health and safety.
Overall, responses to this question were able to gain some reasonably good marks,
with the average being well over half marks.
A safety practitioner needs to be able to distinguish between legal principles and how
they are preserved. Candidates who did well presented answers by logically
distinguishing between common and statute law, and then how these are acted out as
civil rights and criminal duties. Other candidates gained marks by outlining key features
of the different types of law. However, some candidates also included content that
indicated they did not fully understand the legal system.
In part (a) many candidates were able to distinguish between legal precedent, judge-
made law and law that is drawn up by parliament, consisting of acts. However, most
candidates stopped at this point and did not expand further.
Candidates achieved most marks for part (b), demonstrating a good understanding of
the difference between civil and criminal law. The majority of candidates detailed which
courts related to which law and the difference between balance of probabilities and
beyond reasonable doubt. Few candidates were able to go further and recognise the
availability or otherwise of insurance.
4
Question 3 (a) Outline how task analysis may be used to help with hazard
identification as part of a risk assessment process. (4)
(b) Explain why the number of people exposed to a hazard could

affect BOTH the probability and severity components of risk. (2)
(c) Employers may consult external UK publications when deciding

whether the level of risk associated with a specific hazard has
been reduced to an acceptable level.
Identify types of external UK publication that an employer may

choose to consult AND, in EACH case, outline how that
publication may assist in deciding on acceptable levels of risk. (4)

outcomes 7.1: Explain how to use internal and external information sources in
identifying hazards and assessing risks; 7.2: Outline the use of a range of hazard
identification techniques; and 7.3: Explain how to assess and evaluate risk and to
implement a risk assessment programme.
In part (a) many candidates were able to outline the purpose of a task analysis to
breakdown a task into smaller steps to make identifying hazards easier. Although very
few could provide further insight into a task analysis, missing key points such as
unforeseen hazards or scope for identifying human error.
In part (b) candidates had difficulty with the concept that the more people that were
exposed to a hazard, the greater chance there is of someone being harmed. Similarly,
with the severity, the more people exposed to a hazard, the more people will be affected
by the hazardous event.
Many responses alluded to an increase in the probability of harm occurring as the

number exposed increased, with some offering suitable examples to aid their
explanation but some had difficulty articulating it. Many candidates focused on the
accident triangle to explain the potential severity of harm, rather than being able to
explain that a single incident may result in a greater number of people harmed, thus
increasing the overall severity/categorisation of incident.
In part (c) many candidates identified a good range of sources of external publications
and reasons outlining how the publication may assist in deciding acceptable levels of
risk. Some candidates correctly identified a source but did not sufficiently outline how
it could be used, limiting marks that could be awarded. A few candidates also misread
the question and included publications external to the UK.
Question 4 Outline information that should be included in written safe systems of

work. (10)
Details of any specific risk controls are not required.

This question was well answered by the majority of candidates showing a good depth
of knowledge and understanding of this topic and on average gaining over half marks.
Reasonable answers were able to point to a description of the activity, identification of

risks or hazards, specification of PPE, emergency procedures and, sometimes, to the
review date for inclusion in a written safe system of work.
5
Marks could have been gained for outlining information concerned with the
authorisation, communication and safe completion procedures and linkages with a
permit-to-work.
Some candidates listed the components as opposed to outlining them, thus limiting
marks that could be awarded. Others gave specific risk controls, which the question
stated was not required. Candidates are reminded to read and re-read a question
carefully, to take note of the command word and any instructions that will instruct them
what is or is not required.
Question 5 (a) Outline:

(i) the purpose of regulatory enforcement; (2)
(ii) the principles of regulatory enforcement activities. (4)
(b) A fatal accident has happened at a workplace. An enforcing

agency inspector decides to make a visit to the site to take
statements from witnesses, including the managing director. The
managing director has refused the visit.
Outline possible courses of action that the inspector may

pursue. (4)

procedures.
This question was not well answered, with the majority of candidates gaining less than
half marks.
Answers to part (a) demonstrated little knowledge of the purpose and principles of
enforcement activities. In part (a) (i) few candidates outlined that the purpose of
regulatory enforcement is to take action to deal with serious risks and promote
compliance with health and safety law and ensure that those who break the law are
held to account.
In part (a) (ii) few candidates recognised that this question was about the Enforcement
Policy Statement HSE41; proportionality of how the law is applied; targeting of
enforcement action and transparency in enforcement.
In part (b) most candidates stated that the inspector could be accompanied by a police
officer. However, they did not seem to comprehend the serious nature of a manger
refusing to co-operate with the HSE and missed the opportunity to gain further marks
by stating that the manager could be prosecuted for obstructing the inspector or
attempting to prevent someone appearing before an inspector. Instead, candidates
talked about Improvement and Prohibition notices and seemed to be answering an
entirely different question.
6
Question 6 (a) Outline the behavioural attributes of the following types of
leadership:
(i) transformational; (4)
(ii) transactional. (4)
(b) Explain why leadership styles need to vary in practice. (2)

9.1: Explain the types of health and safety leadership, their advantages, disadvantages
and likely impact on safety performance.
Overall, this question was not well answered and candidates demonstrated a lack of
understanding of the behavioural attributes of both types of leadership.
In part (a) several candidates appeared to acknowledge and understand that there were
differences in behavioural attributes but were unable to articulate this, sometimes
mixing up the two types and limiting their marks. Additionally, some candidates gave
outcomes of the leadership types rather than the attributes. Some confusion in respect
of transformational leadership was also observed, with candidates attempting to
position it as an inferior leadership style that organisations should avoid.
Some candidates were able to outline that being inspirational and a good communicator
were attributes of the transformational style, and being authoritative and rewarding or
punishing were attributes of the transactional style.
In part (b) many candidates explained that leadership style needs to change depending
on different groups and situations. However, they did not develop this further into an
explanation with reference to situational and contextual leadership frameworks, limiting
marks that could be awarded.
7
Question 7 An organisation operating in the oil and gas sector employed 5 000
people in 2015. The number of employees has reduced to 4 000 in 2016
and 3 000 in 2017. The table below shows the accident history of the
organisation over the past 3 years.
Year 2015 2016 2017

Number of
15 16 15
accidents
Number of
8 000 000 6 400 000 4 800 000
hours worked
Days lost due to
75 85 100
accidents
(a) Calculate the accident frequency rate for EACH of the years. (6)
Show your calculations at EACH step.
(b) Comment on why the organisation should be concerned about

the accident frequency rate. (2)
(c) Human reliability can impact accident rates.
Outline ways in which:

(i) organisational factors can contribute to improving human
reliability; (6)
(ii) job factors can contribute to improving human reliability. (6)

outcomes 5.2: Explain the use of quantitative methods in analysing loss data; 10.5:
Explain how organisational factors can contribute to improving human reliability; and
Many candidates attempted this question, and most gained just under half-marks.
In part (a) most candidates gave good answers, manipulating the data in the table to
produce the correct accident frequency rate, thereby achieving full marks.
In part (b) candidates had difficulty interpreting the results. Although many candidates
were able to make a link between an increase in accident rate with reduced hours
worked, they were not able to develop this further; for example, to recognise that
increase in days lost with fewer workers indicated increased severity of the accidents
occurring.
In part (c) several candidates had difficulty in focusing on and distinguishing between
organisational and job factors and linking these to human reliability. In many cases, job
factors were discussed in part (c) (i) leaving few matters to be discussed in part (c) (ii),
limiting candidates’ marks. Some candidates approached this part of the question
negatively, for example outlining ways in which weaknesses in organisational and job
factors could impact human reliability, which was not what was asked in the question.
8
Question 8 A control panel aimed at reducing the likelihood of human error is
installed.
Outline the desirable design features of:
(a) controls; (12)
(b) displays (8)
for this control panel.

This question was attempted by around half of the candidates and on average gained
less than half marks.
In part (a) in terms of controls, most candidates stated that controls should be kept to a
minimum; they should be visible and easily reachable. Candidates must be able to
recognise that the number of marks in a section, along with the command word, should
signpost them to the number of points that should be made. Many candidates missed
the opportunity to develop their answers further to consider issues such as protection
against inadvertent operation or that the stop function should override the start and
adjust functions.
In part (b) candidates specified that displays should be clearly visible, shielded from
glare and strong ambient light, and that there should be a minimum number of displays.
Outlines of further issues such as consideration of appropriate sense or redundancy of
message were absent, limiting marks that could be awarded.
Answers were often given in the wrong section (part (a) instead of part (b)) and
sometimes in both, indicating some confusion between controls and displays.
Adopting the basic examination technique of ‘make a point to earn a point’ would have
resulted in improved answers and marks.
9
Question 9 A castle, surrounded by a dry moat, is open to the public. Access to the
castle ticket office is gained via a bridge across the moat. While crossing
the bridge, a visitor to the castle tripped over a low wall and fell a
distance of 5 metres into the moat, sustaining serious injuries.
(a) With reference to possible breaches of the Health and Safety at

Work etc Act 1974 and the Management of Health and Safety at
Work Regulations 1999, outline the specific legal requirements
that may have been breached by the:
(i) organisation; (6)
(ii) managers. (3)
(b) Identify the criminal court that may hear the prosecution. (1)
(c) Identify the possible penalties should the organisation and/or

managers be found guilty. (2)
(d) With reference to relevant civil legislation, outline the nature of

the duty owed by the occupying organisation to their lawful
visitors. (4)
(e) In its defence, the organisation attempts to rely on a warning

notice posted in the ticket office that reads ‘The management will
accept no liability for loss or injury howsoever caused’.
Explain why the organisation will be unable to use this statement

in its defence. (4)

outcomes 4.3: Outline the main civil law statutory duties owed by the occupiers of
premises to lawful land unlawful visitors; 3.1: Explain the key requirements of the Health
and Safety at Work etc Act 1974 and the Management of Health and Safety at Work
Regulations 1999; and 2.5: Outline the structure and functions of courts and related
institutions in the UK.
This question was attempted by half the candidates. The average mark was under half
marks.
In part (a) candidates demonstrated varying degrees of understanding of the possible

breaches. Many answers showed little understanding of the terminology required to
outline the breaches, with some candidates only quoting the section number/regulation
number with no more information supplied. This may indicate that candidates had
memorised the acts/regulations without gaining a full understanding of them.
Some candidates confused managers’ duties with those of the employer; for example,
claiming that managers have a duty to ensure risk assessments are conducted and to
provide a safe system of work.
Better answers to (a) (i) were able to outline a range of breaches in respect of duties to
employees and non-employees, risk assessment, principles of prevention and failure to
make effective safety management arrangements.
Part (a) (ii) was not well answered, with many candidates not outlining consent, or
connivance, or neglect, or the failure to bring shortcomings to the attention of the
organisation.
Part (b) was well answered with the majority getting the mark available for giving a
correct criminal court, although a few cited civil courts.
10
In part (c) there was some confusion over the penalties for the organisation and
penalties for managers, with candidates stating that the organisation could receive a
custodial sentence. Many answers were vague and did not specify organisation or
manager for a particular penalty. Some candidates claimed that fines are set at £50K
and that a publicity order could be handed down under HSWA. However, some were
able to clearly identify potentially unlimited fines for the organisation, fines for the
managers and custodial sentences for managers.
For part (d) many candidates outlined that the castle operator owed a common law duty
of care to the lawful visitors and some went on to quote the Occupiers Liability Act 1957.
However, several candidates provided an incorrect date for the Act and few could
outline that the castle occupier was the ‘occupier’ within the Act.
Part (e) was not well answered. The majority of candidates had only a vague
understanding of the reasons that the sign in the ticket office could not be used in the
organisation’s defence. Candidates gained marks for explaining that the notice was not
brought to the visitor’s attention and/or that the notice was not clear regarding the
hazard. However, few candidates recognised that the issue was covered by the Unfair
Contract Terms Act 1977.
Question 10 (a) Outline the purpose of health and safety management auditing. (4)
(b) Describe factors that should be considered when planning an

audit programme. (12)
You do not need to consider specific factors to be audited.
(c) Outline how senior managers can assist in the auditing process. (4)

outcomes 6.3: Describe the variety of health and safety monitoring and measurement
techniques; and 9.2: Explain the organisational benefits of effective health and safety
leadership.
Three-quarters of candidates attempted this question. The average mark was under
half marks.
In part (a) few candidates stated that the purpose of the audit was to obtain independent
or objective evidence of good health and safety management. Many gained a couple
of marks for outlining purposes such as identifying strengths and weaknesses and
evaluating performance against requirements. Limited responses included checking
that everything was okay and did not achieve marks.
Part (b) was answered reasonably well with stronger responses achieving more than
half marks. Candidates described that when planning an audit, factors that need to be
consisted include senior management commitment, logistics, resources, consideration
of standards, a scoring system and training of audit personnel.
Few candidates developed their answers further to include wider issues such as
communications on the purpose and implications of the audit process and
considerations around the independence of auditors.
Some candidates confused audits with inspections and this confusion compromised
answers, leading to low marks.
11
In part (c) most candidates were able to outline that senior managers should participate
in the audit and ensure that resources are available. They also stated that senior
managers should ensure that the action plans following the audit are implemented.
Very few candidates outlined the need to request an action plan or appoint a competent
auditing team.
Question 11 (a) Outline reasons for establishing effective consultation

arrangements with employees on health and safety matters in
the workplace. (4)
(b) Outline a range of formal and informal consultation

arrangements that may contribute to effective consultation on
health and safety matters in the workplace. (6)
(c) Outline how the health and safety practitioner can help to
develop and support arrangements for consultation with
employees on health and safety matters. (10)

9.6: Explain the role, influences on and procedures for formal and informal consultation
with employees in the workplace.
This question was attempted by half the candidates. The average mark was under half
marks.
For part (a) some candidates outlined the encouragement of submitting new ideas and
that the safety culture would be improved. However, few gave further insight, and many
candidates were unable to accurately make reference to the specific statutory
requirements for consultation.
Part (b) was answered most successfully although few candidates were able to offer
enough examples of arrangements that would contribute to effective consultation. Few
candidates outlined the need for staff appraisals, union-appointed safety reps and
questionnaires/suggestion schemes.
Part (c) was not well answered as the majority of candidates confused this part of the
question. Many candidates answered the question as if the practitioner was responsible
for ensuring adequate consultation and as such the suggested approach was very
practical. Other candidates missed the relevance of consultation altogether and
focused on the overall role of the practitioner.
12
13
14
15
syllabus.
Unit B
question demands.
answer.
16
Command words
candidates:
Explain
demonstrate.
explanation.
Describe
Outline
17
Identify
the question.
arise.
Give
Comment
relevant to it.
www.nebosh.org.uk/students/default.asp?cref=1345&ct=2.
18
Examiners’ Report

UNIT B:
JANUARY 2018
CONTENTS
Introduction 2
General comments 3
Command words 18
Introduction
(IIRSM).
© NEBOSH 2018
NEBOSH
Dominus Way
Leicester
LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700

fax: 0116 282 4000
2
General comments
2018.
Element.
Candidates and course providers should also make reference to the Unit B ‘Example question paper
3
Unit B
Question 1 Outline what an employer should consider when carrying out an

assessment to determine the first-aid provision needed in the workplace. (10)

10.4: Explain the requirements and provision for first aid in the workplace.
The question required candidates to think about what an employer should consider
when determining the first aid provision needed in a workplace. The HSE require
employers to take a risk assessment-based approach rather than rigidly specifying fixed
numbers of trained individuals. Therefore those candidates who wrote at length about
numbers of first aiders, emergency first aiders or appointed persons that were required
for a particular size of workforce did not gain marks.
Relevant considerations include the numbers of employees, shift patterns and

closeness to medical facilities or hospitals with accident and emergency departments.
Some candidates recognised the importance of the nature and degree of hazards
present in the workplace and the possible requirement for specialist training for first aid
personnel. For example, if employees are exposed to certain hazardous substances.
Few candidates mentioned consideration of employees who travel or those who work
remotely.
Some candidates wasted time writing in detail about first-aid box contents and first-aid
rooms arrangements and did not gain marks for this.
Course providers should direct candidates to the first-aid needs assessment in the HSE
document L74. This is one of the documents listed as a relevant reference in the
syllabus.
The performance on this question was reasonable with an average mark above half
marks.
Question 2 (a) Give the meaning of the term ‘occupational health’. (2)
A large organisation is outsourcing its occupational health service to a

contractor. It has been advised to choose a contractor that carries the
SEQOHS logo.
(b) (i) Identify what SEQOHS stands for. (1)

(ii) Outline how SEQOHS operates. (5)
(c) Outline TWO benefits to an employee of having access to an

occupational health service at work. (2)

outcomes 1.1: Outline the nature of occupational health; and 1.3: Outline the
management of occupational health (including the practical and legal aspects).
More specifically, in this question: ‘The meaning of occupational health’; benefits of

occupational health services; ‘The importance of auditing against standards in
occupational health provision with specific reference to SEQOHS’.
4
The overall performance on this question was limited and the average mark was around
a quarter of the ten marks available. It appeared that few candidates had any
knowledge or understanding of SEQOHS. Course providers should check that their
training materials make adequate reference to this accreditation scheme. SEQOHS
stands for Safe, Effective, Quality Occupational Health. Sufficient detail about this can
be found on the SEQOHS website. https://www.seqohs.org. This link is provided in the
list of references given in the syllabus.
As many practitioners will be involved in procuring occupational health services from

external providers it is important they have an understanding of what constitutes a safe,
effective and quality assured occupational health provider.
In part (a) many candidates were unable to give a basic definition of occupational health
and instead wrote about a range of possible services an occupational health department
could provide. Some candidates used this same approach in answer to part (c).
However, part (c) asked for two benefits to employees.
Some candidates did recognise that benefits are to identify early signs of ill-heath issues
and to assure the employee that they have a caring employer. Few candidates outlined
other benefits to employees such as providing an opportunity to raise concerns about
the effects of work on their health.
Question 3 Employees in a chemical plant are provided with gloves to protect

against the harmful effects of the chemicals, but a significant number of
employees are reporting hand and lower arm skin complaints.
Outline possible reasons why these skin complaints may be occurring

even though employees are provided with gloves. (10)

3.4: Explain the effectiveness of various types of personal protective equipment (PPE)
and the factors to consider in selection of PPE.
Candidates were able to outline a good range of possible reasons why the gloves
provided may not be working as a control measure and employees were reporting
problems. Those candidates who outlined reasons that were both technical and
organisational gained good marks. Simple reasons such as the employees not wearing
the gloves, not having sufficient information or training on their correct use or an
inadequate supply of the gloves were all relevant. Those candidates who understood
more about the technical issues associated with glove selection and use were able to
gain more marks. Possible reasons for the problems being reported were the selection
of the wrong type of glove, so the chemical was permeating through the glove material
and contaminating the skin, ie the breakthrough times for the gloves were not
adequate. A few candidates indicated that the skin problems may have occurred
because of an allergy to the glove material or because the gloves were being worn for
extended periods of times and the hands were sweating inside the gloves.
The average mark on this question was above half marks.
5
Question 4 An employer wants to use a local exhaust ventilation (LEV) system to
control employees’ exposure to a hazardous gas generated during a
manufacturing process.
(a) (i) Outline control options that the employer should

consider before deciding an LEV system is the
appropriate means of control. (4)
(ii) Outline what the employer should consider when
specifying an LEV system to control this hazardous gas. (4)
(b) Other than the employer, identify TWO other persons with
responsibilities in relation to an LEV system. (2)

outcomes 3.1: Explain the principles of prevention and control of exposure to hazardous
substances (including carcinogens and mutagens); and 3.3: Explain the uses and
limitations of dilution ventilation and the purpose and operation of local exhaust
ventilation, including assessing and maintaining effectiveness.
Candidates who have prepared themselves thoroughly to respond to examination

questions on LEV will have studied the HSE guidance document ‘HSG258 - Controlling
airborne contaminants at work; A guide to local exhaust ventilation (LEV)’. This
document is listed in the syllabus as a relevant reference.
Candidates who had knowledge and understanding of the hierarchy of control that is
included in learning outcome 3.1 will have been able to apply this understanding in
response to part (a) (i) of this question. However, some candidates appeared not to
notice the italicised word ‘before’ and so did not consider non-LEV control options that
sit above LEV in a hierarchy of control.
Marks were awarded for control options such as eliminating the need for the hazardous
gas generation in the process or reducing either the amount of gas generated, or the
time for which it is generated in the process. Full or partial enclosure of the
manufacturing process was also a control option to consider before LEV was selected.
As well as being addressed in the hierarchy of control for hazardous substances, the
approach required in response to part (a) (i) is set out in HSG258 under the heading
‘What employers should do before applying LEV’.
Part (a) (ii) relates to a specification for an LEV system. Chapter 5 of HSG258
addresses this. An employer would have specific knowledge and understanding of the
process that is to be controlled by LEV and must consider the following: the properties
of the hazardous gas, such as how it will arise from the process and how it will move in
the surrounding air. More practical considerations are the needs of the operators
working in the area and the maintenance requirements of the LEV. Candidates were
not aware of all these considerations, so gained less marks in part (a) (ii) compared to
part (a) (i).
Part (b) presented little difficulty and most candidates were able to identify two other
persons with responsibilities in relation to LEV. They recognised these responsibilities
exist throughout the lifetime of the LEV system and therefore included designers,
maintenance engineers and others.
The overall performance for this question was reasonable and the average mark was
just half marks.
6
Question 5 Norovirus is a common cause of gastroenteritis that can spread rapidly in
closed communities such as hospitals, care homes and cruise ships.
(a) Explain how the virus is transmitted. (3)
(b) Identify the symptoms of norovirus. (3)
(c) Outline how the spread of the virus can be minimised. (4)

5.1: Explain the types and properties of biological agents found at work.
In particular this question focused on one of the named biological agents in the syllabus,
about which candidates are expected to have specific knowledge and understanding.
A significant number of candidates demonstrated only superficial knowledge of

biological agents in general and as such limited the marks that could be awarded in
both parts (a) and (c) of the question. Candidates who only mentioned ‘spread by
inhalation’ in response to part (a) or ‘hand washing’ in response to part (c) did not have
marks awarded, as this detail of answer is insufficient for an explanation or outline at
diploma level. Some candidates referred to the biological agent Norovirus as bacteria
and then cited anti-bacterial hand gel as a control measure.
In order to gain marks in part (a) the explanation required reference to person-to-person
contact. Some candidates did appreciate that Norovirus survives outside the body for
several days therefore contact with contaminated surfaces is also a route of
transmission. As Norovirus is a gastrointestinal infection it is the inhalation of aerosol
droplets of vomit that is another possible route of transmission.
Part (b) is where many candidates were awarded the majority of marks. There was a
wide range of symptoms to identify and most candidates found this straightforward. For
this reason the average mark achieved on this question was half marks.
Lack of detail and accuracy on the control measures specific to Norovirus resulted in
many candidates achieving low marks in part (c) of the question. To gain marks for
reference to hand washing it was necessary to outline that this was with warm water
and soap. Other control measures relevant in the scenarios specifically mentioned in
the question (hospitals, care home and cruise ships) included: to avoid sharing towels;
to clean bathroom areas frequently; and to specifically use chlorine-based disinfectant.
Isolating the infected persons is also an important control measure. Avoiding eating
unwashed or raw or undercooked oysters or clams is also a relevant control measure,
although perhaps not so widespread in the UK.
Question 6 A Facilities Manager of a multi-occupancy office block built in the 1970s

is concerned that there may be asbestos in the building.
Outline steps that the Facilities Manager should take in order to comply
with the Control of Asbestos Regulations 2012 and to minimise the risk of
exposure to any asbestos that may be present in the building. (10)

3.2: Outline the specific requirements for working with asbestos.
In particular the syllabus content addressed in this question was: ‘The duty to manage
asbestos, including the types of asbestos surveys and keeping asbestos registers’.
7
Many candidates demonstrated limited knowledge of the legal requirements to manage
asbestos in a building such as that described in the question. The Control of Asbestos
Regulations 2012 is a specified piece of legislation in the diploma syllabus. In addition,
the HSE document ‘Managing and working with asbestos - Control of Asbestos
Regulations 2012; Approved Code of Practice and guidance; L143’ is also included in
the relevant references to the syllabus.
However, many candidates did not use appropriate terminology in their answers and
were unable to distinguish between asbestos assessments/surveys, an asbestos
record/register and an asbestos management plan - all of which are crucial steps in the
management of asbestos in a building such as this. It is recognised that the document
L143 is lengthy and does contain detail about specialist aspects of managing asbestos
such as licensing and removal. Therefore course providers may find it more
approachable for candidates to initially use the HSE’s brief guide INDG223(rev5),
revised 04/12 that sets out six simple steps in the management of asbestos.
The facilities manager should initially accept that they are the duty holder who has the
responsibility to manage asbestos in this multi-occupancy building and should assume
that because of the age of the building that asbestos is likely to be present.
Identifying all asbestos in the building by arranging for a competent person to undertake
a management survey, including the use of intrusive and destructive sampling, to
determine the presence or absence of asbestos containing materials (ACMs) are the
early steps in the asbestos management process.
A record or asbestos register would have to be kept showing where ACMs are located
and be updated following regular reviews of their condition. This information should be
made available to all occupants in the building and contractors working on the building.
The facilities manager should keep an up-to-date asbestos management plan that
considers what action if any, is necessary to deal with the various ACMs, ie to remove,
repair, encapsulate or leave in place, label and monitor.
When answering this question many candidates focused only on the removal of ACMs
and the detail associated with that, which did not address this question about the
asbestos management process.
Further marks were available for candidates who provided more detail on what
demonstrates competency for someone carrying out an asbestos survey (eg holding a
P402 certificate or equivalent). Recognising that a further demolition and refurbishment
survey may be necessary if, in the future major building works are to take place in the
building, would have gained marks.
The performance against the learning outcome 3.2 was limited with an average mark
below half of the 10 marks available.
8
Question 7 The Health and Safety Executive’s (HSE’s) manual handling assessment
charts (MAC) is a tool that can be used to determine manual handling
risks of various types of activity, including lifting operations. The MAC
tool assigns numerical scores to a range of risk factors.
(a) (i) Identify FIVE risk factors in the MAC tool that should be
considered for a lifting operation carried out by an
individual. (5)
(ii) For EACH of the risk factors identified in (a) (i), describe
how the numerical scores vary as the lifting operation
changes. (5)
Reference to the exact numerical scores is not required.
(b) Explain why using the MAC tool alone may not result in a fully
‘suitable and sufficient’ risk assessment. (5)
An internet-based delivery organisation operates a large warehouse

where employees pick loads weighing between 2kg and 20kg. The
employees carry these loads to an area where the items are stacked on
to pallets.
The organisation decides to use the HSE’s variable manual handling

assessment chart (V-MAC) to assess the manual handling risks to its
employees, who work 8-hour shifts.
(c) Outline why the V-MAC tool is suitable in this scenario. (4)
Delivery drivers use pallet trucks to load the stacked pallets on to delivery
vehicles.
(d) Comment on the use of the V-MAC tool in this situation. (1)

9.2: Explain the assessment and control of risks from repetitive activities, manual
handling and poor posture.
While candidates had some knowledge of the HSE’s MAC tool referred to in part (a)
responses to parts (b) and (c) suggest that awareness of other assessment tools was
limited. To be able to answer parts (b) and (c), candidates needed to be familiar with
both the HSE’s Variable Manual Handling Assessment chart (V-MAC) and the
appendix to the HSE’s manual handling guidance (L23). All these assessment tools
and others are listed in the syllabus and candidates who have prepared for the diploma
examination should be able to explain these tools, even if they have no direct
experience of using them in their workplace.
The answers in parts (a) (i) and (a) (ii) were reasonable, perhaps because candidates
were familiar with the simple MAC assessment tool, or perhaps because they were
aware of a similar question.
The MAC tool is described in the HSE document INDG383 and a link to this is provided
in the relevant references list in the diploma syllabus. A note at the start of the guidance
states that:
The MAC is not appropriate for some manual handling operations, for example those
that involve pushing and pulling. Its use does not comprise a full risk assessment (see
Manual handling in ‘Further reading’)..……..
9
To be ‘suitable and sufficient’, a risk assessment will normally need to take account of
additional information to that considered by the MAC tool. Therefore in response to part
(b) candidates were expected to refer to which risk factors were missing such as:
sudden movements of the load, unstable loads, the requirement for specialist training
etc. In addition, the MAC tool does not consider issues such as handling when seated,
pushing or pulling tasks, or individuals who may have a temporarily reduced capacity
to carry out manual handling.
It is important that when practitioners select assessment tools to assist them, they
appreciate both the limitations as well as the benefits of these tools. Therefore parts of
this question addressed that understanding. The appropriate use of the various manual
handling assessment tools are considered in the practical guidance in the appendix to
the manual handling operations guidance document L23. Course providers should
direct candidates to this important information.
The information given in part (c) of the question emphasised some of the criteria that
make the use of the V-MAC tool suitable in this type of manual handling task. For
example, the task described involves both lifting and carrying. In addition, the variability
of the load weights and the length of shifts (more than 4 hours) mean that the use of
the V-MAC tool is appropriate in this scenario.
A number of candidates recognised that using the V-MAC tool to assess the
pushing/pulling activities described in part (d) was not appropriate and commented that
instead the HSE’s RAPP tool would be more appropriate. They therefore gained the
mark available in this part of the question.
Less than 25% of candidates chose to answer this question. The average mark
achieved was low, significantly less than half marks.
Question 8 A 24-hour convenience store selling a wide range of products has

recently experienced a number of robberies involving violence and
aggression towards its employees.
(a) Identify FOUR reasons for the increased risk of violence and
aggression towards the employees. (4)
(b) (i) Identify a piece of case law relevant to this scenario

AND outline the circumstances of this case. (4)
(ii) Determine if the decision to no longer employ a security
guard means the employer is failing in their duty to take
reasonable care of their employees. (2)
(c) Other than employing a security guard, outline control measures

the employer could take to help minimise the risk of similar
incidents and reassure employees. (10)

outcomes 8.3: Explain the scope, effects and causes of work-related
violence/aggression; and 8.4: Explain the identification and control of work-related
violence/aggression with reference to legal duties.
In response to part (a) most candidates were able to identify four reasons for the risk of
violence and aggression in the scenario given. Some candidates identified more than
four reasons that were not required in this case.
Performance on part (b) (i) was limited with only a small number of candidates having
knowledge or understanding of the relevant case law. Unit B has very little reference
to case law and candidates must take time to familiarise themselves with the details
and points of law that these named cases illustrate.
10
In this question candidates were expected to refer to the case of Mitchell and others vs
United Co-operative Limited [2012]. Employees of this retailer were suffering from post-
traumatic stress disorder following a number of robberies at the same store. The
original court case brought by the employees and the subsequent appeal by the
employer focused on whether the provision of a full time security guard was necessary
in order for the employer to demonstrate that they had taken reasonable steps to
safeguard their employees.
Part (b) (ii) of the question required candidates to apply their knowledge of this case
law to the scenario in this question; and therefore determine that no longer employing
a security guard is not a failure to take reasonable care, especially if other control
measures are in place.
Most candidates gained the majority of marks in response to part (c) by outlining a
reasonable range of control measures for the scenario given. With 10 marks available
it was necessary to provide a wide range of controls and some answers were limited.
Many candidates referred to the use of CCTV, panic alarms and avoiding lone working.
Few candidates mentioned measures such as locating the tills in clear view of the
window or participating in local ‘business-watch’ schemes. The offer of counselling to
employees affected by or concerned about risks of violence and aggression is a valid
approach to reassuring employees; as is advising employees not put themselves at risk
by resisting attempted robberies.
More than 80% of candidates chose to answer this question. The six marks available
in part (b) were rarely gained, therefore the average mark for the question was just
below half marks.
Question 9 (a) Outline the properties of:

(i) alpha particles; (4)
(ii) X-rays. (4)
(b) Employees working in a hospital radiology department are

exposed to X-rays.
(i) Outline the legal requirements for monitoring the
employees’ exposure to X-rays. (6)
(ii) Outline how the employees’ exposure to X-rays can be
monitored. (6)

outcomes 7.1: Outline the nature of the different types of ionising and non-ionising
radiation; and 7.3: Outline the effects of exposure to ionising radiation, its measurement
and control.
This question was answered by just over half of candidates, but some candidates who
chose this question appeared to lack the level of knowledge and understanding needed
to provide outline answers. The average mark on this question was below half marks.
When responding to parts (a) (i) and (a) (ii) most candidates included relevant
information about how far the two types of ionising radiation can travel in air and what
can be used to shield the radiation. However, more technical information such as what
an alpha particle is (a helium nucleus containing 2 protons and 2 neutrons) was rarely
included. Similarly, few candidates indicated how X-rays are generated, both naturally
and artificially.
11
The syllabus at 7.3 specifically includes the measurement and assessment of ionising
radiation worker’s exposure, and refers directly to the Ionising Radiations Regulations
1999*. Some candidates lacked sufficient detail on these areas of the syllabus and
subsequently responses to part (b) (i) and (b) (ii) were often limited. The legal
requirements for monitoring exposure to ionising radiation means there are differing
dose limits for different parts of the body and some workers have to be considered as
classified persons. The specific dose limits that require the assignment as a classified
person should have been stated. More candidates did appreciate that the exposure
monitoring records need to be kept for at least 50 years or up to the age of 75.
* Note: IRR 1999 was replaced by IRR 2017 on the 1 January 2018. However, changes
to legislation will not be examined for at least 6 months after introduction. IRR 2017
is examinable from the July 2018 examination onwards.
Question 10 A night club hires musicians and DJs to play live and pre-recorded
amplified music daily, from a stage. In the same room is a bar where
workers are employed serving drinks.
Following personal noise exposure monitoring, a high risk of excessive

noise exposure was identified for all workers in the bar area. Suitable
hearing protection has been provided to all the bar workers.
Other than the provision of hearing protection, outline control measures

that could help reduce the risks to the bar workers’ hearing. (20)

outcomes 6.3: Explain the measurement and assessment of noise exposure; and 6.4:
Explain the principles and methods of controlling noise and noise exposure.
This question required candidates to apply their general understanding of noise control
methods to a practical real-world situation in a nightclub. When a question is not broken
down into parts it is helpful to first make an answer plan and perhaps use a structure
on which to base the answer. With noise control the basic concepts of control at source,
during transmission and at the receiver is a helpful approach to use. Few candidates
took this approach and therefore often repeated points in their answer that could only
be awarded marks once.
In a nightclub situation simply ‘turning down’ the source of the noise, the music, is not
realistic. However, the source of the noise could be limited during pre-show checks
and rehearsals. It is possible to set permissible volume limits and automatic noise
limiters on equipment.
The position and direction of speakers was often mentioned by candidates, and these
are valid control measures in this scenario. In addition, raising the speakers off the floor
or using anti-vibration materials between the speakers and the floor can reduce the
noise transmission via this route. Similarly, using a carpeted stage area for the live
musicians is also appropriate.
Moving the bar to another room, job rotation, and rest breaks in a quiet area are all
control measures for the bar workers who are the ‘receivers’ in this scenario.
The question indicates that hearing protection has been provided, but it was still
relevant to refer to the importance of training workers about this control measure and
supervising its use.
80% of candidates chose to answer this question. Many candidates did not include a
sufficiently wide range of points for the 20 marks available and even though some
answers were lengthy it was often the same points being expressed in a different way.
Therefore the average mark for this question was low and significantly below half marks.
12
Question 11 (a) Outline the purpose of a heat stress index when assessing the
thermal environment. (3)
The most widely used heat stress index in industry is the wet bulb globe
temperature (WBGT) index.
(b) (i) Identify the measurements that need to be taken to

determine the WBGT index. (3)
(ii) Outline the principle of operation of the instruments that
should be used to make EACH of the measurements
identified in (b) (i). (7)
(c) A manufacturing process produces high levels of heat and

steam.
Outline control measures that could help reduce heat stress

among employees in this environment. (7)

10.1: Explain the need for, and factors involved in, the provision and maintenance of
temperature in both moderate and extreme thermal environments.
Candidates had difficulty in outlining the purpose of a heat stress index and answers
were limited to stating that the index gives an indication of the risk presented by the
thermal environment. Few candidates mentioned that this was both a single number
and objective measure of the thermal environment that could be compared to
recommended standards.
The measurements to be taken to determine the wet bulb globe temperature (WBGT)
are: the wet bulb temperature, the air or dry bulb temperature and the radiant or globe
temperature. Some of these terms are named in the title WBGT, however some
candidates were not sufficiently accurate in their responses, so did not gain all of the 3
marks available.
In part (b) (ii) most candidates gained marks by outlining how an alcohol-filled
thermometer is used to measure the air temperature. Outlines of how the wet bulb
temperature is measured were less accurate and did not indicate that the evaporation
of the water from the wetted cloth causes the bulb on the thermometer to cool, resulting
in a depression of the measured temperature. Some candidates incorrectly outlined
the use of an anemometer that is used to measure air velocity or other devices that
measure humidity. These are not relevant in the determination of the WBGT.
Candidates provided a reasonable range of control measures for the scenario given in
part (c) but often omitted to include measures such as acclimatisation of individuals, the
use of health surveillance to monitor the effects of the environment on individuals and
training of the risks associated with work in a hot and humid environment.
This question was answered by 60% of the candidates and the average mark was more
than half marks.
13
14
15
16
syllabus.
Unit B
question demands.
answer.
17
Command words
candidates:
Explain
demonstrate.
explanation.
Describe
Outline
18
Identify
the question.
arise.
Give
Comment
relevant to it.
19
Examiners’ Report

UNIT C:
JANUARY 2018
CONTENTS
Introduction 2
General comments 3
Command words 15
Introduction
(IIRSM).
© NEBOSH 2018
NEBOSH
Dominus Way
Leicester
LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700

fax: 0116 282 4000
2
General comments
2018.
Element.
Candidates and course providers should also make reference to the Unit C ‘Example question paper
3
Unit C
Question 1 A fire protection contractor has recommended the provision of portable

water and carbon dioxide fire extinguishers to be placed in a multi-storey
office block.
(a) Identify the class of fire that the water extinguisher is designed
for AND give an example of a material that is included in this
class. (2)
(b) Outline advantages of a carbon dioxide extinguisher. (2)
(c) Outline what should be considered in siting the extinguishers. (6)

3.4: Outline the factors to be considered when selecting fixed and portable fire-fighting
equipment for the various types of fire.
Part (a) of this question was well answered with the majority of candidates able to
identify the class of fire and examples of material covered by the class.
Part (b) was less well answered with many candidates describing how the extinguisher
worked and where it could be used, rather than outlining the advantages. The
advantage of ‘non-conducting’ was not offered by most candidates, who instead
indicated that they could be used on electrical fires without an outline A further
advantage is that CO2 is a penetrating extinguisher and can reach inside equipment.
For part (c) candidates were only able to offer a few considerations regarding siting,
with many missing the ‘multi-storey’ pointer in the question. Better answers considered
height of handles, on escape routes, etc.
Question 2 A dental surgery uses a small steam steriliser to disinfect dental

instruments. The steriliser is labelled with a CE mark, and has a written
record with it in the form of a logbook.
(a) Outline why the steriliser would be considered a pressure

system. (3)
(b) Outline the purpose of the CE mark. (2)
(c) Outline what records need to be contained in the logbook. (5)

outcomes 5.2: Explain how risks to health and safety arising from the use of work
equipment are controlled; 5.5: Outline the maintenance and prevention strategies when
working with pressure systems; and 6.1: Outline the principles of safety integration and
the considerations required in a general workplace machinery risk assessment.
This question required candidates to apply their knowledge to a common piece of work
equipment in a dental surgery. On the whole the question was not well answered.
Part (a) asked candidates to outline factors that would classify this equipment as a
pressure system and answers were mixed, many candidates had difficulty in relating
this to the Pressure Systems (Safety) Regulations 2000. Better answers identified that
it was a pressure vessel containing relevant fluid (steam).
4
In part (b) many candidates were unable to outline the purpose of CE marking but did
not mention that it was to allow free movement of equipment within the EU. Some
candidates wrote about a Declaration of Conformity, which was not required. Better
answers outlined that it also showed compliance with EU standards and legislation.
For part (c) a number of candidates did not understand the function of a log book and
instead wrote about the manufacturer’s information in the Declaration of Conformity.
Other candidates wrote about what might need to be checked. Better answers covered
the written scheme of examination, installation records and records of routine
maintenance and repairs.
Question 3 A new machine is being designed for sale to meet the requirements of
the Supply of Machinery (Safety) Regulations 2008. From the Essential
Health and Safety Requirements:
(a) outline the safety characteristics of the control system that help
ensure that the machine is safe in use; (3)
(b) outline characteristics of the control devices that should be met

to help ensure safe operation of the machine. (7)

6.5: Explain the key safety characteristics of general workplace machinery control
systems.
Answers to this question were generally limited with many candidates unable to
differentiate between a control system which governs how the machine operates, and
a control device which is part of the interface between the machine and the operator.
In part (a) most candidates had difficulty providing an outline of the main function of the
system, instead often referring to emergency stop controls and guarding. Better
answers would have covered how the machine will behave in certain conditions such
as failure of devices, and that the system is designed to prevent exposure to hazards.
Many candidates gave answers in part (b) that they had already given in part (a), limiting
the marks that could be awarded. Better answers covered the positioning and
sturdiness of control devices, that operation of the device should not occur
unintentionally, and that its movement should be consistent with its effect and should
not cause additional risk.
This question was not well answered suggesting a lack of preparation in this subject
area.
5
Question 4 An inner city warehouse built in 1890 is due to be converted into
executive apartments. The premises has been derelict for a number of
years.
(a) Outline causes of structural damage that a building surveyor

might discover. (5)
(b) Outline ways in which the conversion activities may give rise to
structural failures. (5)

1.3: Outline the main issues associated with maintaining structural safety of workplaces.
This was a well answered question, many candidates gained higher marks by applying
their experience to the question.
In part (a) a range of causes were available to candidates with such topics as weather,
nearby works, vibration and modification.
Part (b) was equally well answered with candidates focusing on the effects of the
building work itself giving rise to possible structural problems. Some candidates
outlined safety measures rather than conversion activities: safety measures were not
asked for in the question.
Question 5 An excavation is required of an existing factory floor to repair a damaged

water main.
(a) Outline hazards and corresponding risks that may be created by

the excavation work. (5)
(b) Outline control measures that should be considered to help

ensure the safety of the work activity. (5)

9.6: Explain the hazards and control measures associated with excavation work.
A generally well answered question asking candidates to give both hazards and
corresponding risks when carrying out excavation work within an existing factory.
For part (a) many candidates were able to outline a range of hazards that might be
present, but few were able to outline the corresponding risk and therefore limited their
marks. Typical hazards were those related to the collapse of the excavation sides and
falls into the excavation.
In part (b) most candidates were able to outline a range of control measures including
prevention of collapse, exclusion zone for vehicles and identification of buried services
but few candidates identified the requirement for statutory inspection of the excavation.
6
Question 6 An office is constructed of non-load bearing timber and plasterboard
partition walls. Glass windows are set into the walls and an aluminium
framework suspended ceiling is fitted with fibreboard tiles. This office is
contained within a steel-framed industrial unit with brick-clad walls.
A fire has occurred causing severe damage to the office and contents.
Describe the effects of fire on the office structure and contents. (10)

2.2: Outline the behaviour of structural materials, buildings and building contents in a
fire.
On the whole this question was not well answered. While some candidates were able
to identify the effects of fire on particular materials, there was confusion between the
different materials. Many candidates answered the question purely as the effect on
basic materials rather than applying their understanding to a given scenario, notably an
office fire. Many candidates were able to offer answers in relation to the structure but
limited their marks by not covering the effect on contents.
Better answers included brick being largely undamaged, aluminium framework sagging
and perhaps collapsing into the office, and timber studwork charring before eventually
failing. Paper and books may have been fully consumed but few candidates mentioned
the effects on types of plastics and general smoke damage.
Question 7 Telescopic materials handlers are commonly used for off-road

applications in the agricultural, quarrying and construction industries.
(a) Identify specific hazards associated with telescopic materials

handlers. (6)
(b) Outline characteristics of a safe site for telescopic materials

handlers. (7)
(c) Outline characteristics of a safe vehicle for telescopic materials

handlers. (7)

outcomes 7.1: Outline the main hazards and control measures associated with mobile
work equipment; and 10.1: Outline the factors to be considered in a workplace transport
risk assessment and the controls available for managing workplace transport risk.
This question was well answered by most candidates.
In part (a) the requirement was to identify hazards specifically associated with
telescopic materials handlers. However, some candidates limited their answers by
providing forklift truck hazards or general vehicle hazards. While some general
handling hazards such as instability and falling loads were worthy of marks, better
answers considered the visibility problems caused by the boom and trapping between
the boom and the body.
Part (b) looked at the requirements for a safe site and candidates generally gave better
answers here, although many limited their marks by confining their answers to a factory
scenario. Better answers included the dimensions and load capability of the site routes,
adequate lighting and clear visibility not obstructed by site features.
7
For part (c) candidates who based their answers on a range of characteristics applicable
to most workplace vehicles would have gained reasonable marks. Better answers
included intact vehicle glazing and adequate access steps and doors.
Question 8 The final process in the manufacture of office furniture involves spraying
it with solvent-based paint, in a custom-designed spray room. The
solvent has a flash point of 15°C.
Assuming that a risk assessment has been carried out, outline control
measures that could help minimise the associated risk of fire and
explosion with this spraying activity. (20)

by which they ignite.
The question makes the point that a risk assessment has already been carried out and
yet a number of candidates spent time discussing the process of risk assessment in this
scenario. Candidates who broke down the subject into topics, such as flammability of
the structure, reduction of the likelihood of forming a flammable atmosphere, control of
sources of ignition (static electricity, EX rated electrical equipment, no smoking, etc),
spillage procedures and fire-fighting and fire suppression systems generally were able
to gain higher marks.
Marks varied on this question, those candidates who could apply their knowledge to the
scenario, perhaps by personal experience, generally gained more marks than those
candidates who followed a text book approach.
Although the question specifically asked for control measures that could minimise the
risk of fire and explosion, there were candidates who misunderstood the question and
gave answers including the use of breathing apparatus.
Many candidates gained reasonable marks for this question.
Question 9 The Control of Major Accident Hazards Regulations 2015 includes

emergency plans for operators of upper tier establishments.
(a) Explain the objectives of emergency plans. (6)
(b) (i) Identify who must be consulted by establishment

operators when preparing an internal (on-site)
emergency plan. (4)
(ii) Outline information that must be included in an internal
(on site) emergency plan within Schedule 4. (10)

4.4: Explain the need for emergency planning, the typical organisational arrangements
needed for emergencies and relevant regulatory requirements.
This question focused on emergency plans, their purpose, consultees and contents.
Most candidates had difficultly answering part (a). Many candidates gave the contents
of a plan and few were able to explain the objectives and this resulted in some limited
answers.
8
In part (b) (i) many candidates were able to identify local emergency services and the
appropriate agency. However, few identified employees at the premises or the local
health authority.
In part (b) (ii) candidates experienced difficulty and responses were generally quite
limited for this section. Better answers would have covered the person who would take
charge, description of actions to be taken limit consequences, descriptions of
equipment available, provision of information and to who it should be disseminated and
when, and methods for co-ordinating with emergency services.
This question was based on the requirements of the Control of Major Accident Hazard
Regulations 2015 and many candidates were unable to provide the standard of answer
required.
Question 10 (a) Outline the duties of principal designers under the Construction
(Design and Management) Regulations 2015 (CDM). (5)
(b) A construction project will entail the use of a number of

contractors.
Outline the contents of the health and safety file that has to be
produced by the principal designer. (5)
(c) A contractor will be hired to demolish a disused factory.
Outline examples of the information that the client should

provide to the tendering contractors to fulfil their duty under
CDM. (10)

9.2: Explain the scope and application of the Construction (Design and Management)
Regulations 2015 and associated guidance.
This question was answered well by many candidates. However, it is worth noting that
the role of the principal designer was not well understood by some candidates and so
limited the marks they could be awarded.
Part (a) was well answered by some candidates but many had difficulty with this part.
The role of the principal designer is well documented in the guidance on the Regulations
and candidates should have had little difficulty with this section.
The health and safety file contents asked for in part (b) are well established and again
should have drawn strong answers from candidates. However, too many confused the
health and safety file with the construction phase plan and limited the marks they could
be awarded. Better answers included an outline of the work, full as-built drawings,
remaining hazards not been eliminated in the design and structural principles and
building material hazards.
Although there were some candidates who gave limited answers to part (c), overall this
part of the question was well answered with many candidates giving a good range of
topics for inclusion in pre-construction information. These are based around possible
site hazards such as access and egress, previous usage, services, contamination,
existing structure details and neighbours.
9
Question 11 (a) Outline types of protection on electrical equipment that can
reduce the risk of contact with live conductors. (3)
(b) Outline types of protection on electrical equipment that can

reduce the risk of electric shock under fault conditions. (7)
(c) Outline precautions that should be considered, within a safe

system of work, to help prevent injury when working live on a UK
230v electric circuit. (10)

outcomes 8.2: Outline the hazards of electricity and static electricity; and 8.3: Outline
the issues relevant to the installation, use, inspection and maintenance of electrical
systems.
Some candidates did not differentiate between ‘risk of contact’ in part (a) and ‘risk of
electric shock’ in part (b).
In part (a) types of protection to reduce risk of contact with live conductors included
insulation, enclosures, barriers and distance. These are further covered in the IEE
Wiring Regulations, BS 7671. Answers that included RCDs, and MCBs did not gain
marks in this section as they only provide protection after contact.
For part (b) there were many good answers, but a number of candidates had difficulty
with the expression ‘under fault conditions’ and did not mention earthing, equipotential
bonding or neutral referenced to earth, terms that specifically deal with fault conditions.
Better answers included double insulation, isolating transformers, fuses and use of
lower voltages.
Part (c) was focused on the practice of working live on mains electrical circuits and
some candidates did not appreciate the difference between this and generally working
with mains electricity. This limited their ability to gain higher marks. Controls that could
have been outlined included selection and training, working environment
considerations, insulated tools and barriers, permits and control of the working area.
Fewer candidates chose to answer this question, although there were some good
answers. However, there were still some candidates who had difficulty with basic
electrical control measures.
10
question wording had clearly stated that this had already been undertaken.
11
12
13
syllabus.
Unit B
question demands.
answer.
14
Command words
candidates:
Explain
demonstrate.
explanation.
Describe
Outline
15
Identify
the question.
arise.
Give
Comment
relevant to it.
16
Examiners’ Report

UNIT A:
JULY 2018
CONTENTS
Introduction 2
General comments 3
Command words 16
Introduction
(IIRSM).
© NEBOSH 2018
NEBOSH
Dominus Way
Leicester
LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700

fax: 0116 282 4000
2
General comments
2018.
Element.
Candidates and course providers should also make reference to the Unit A ‘Example question paper
3
Unit A
Question 1 An organisation has introduced management systems for environmental

management and quality management. It is now considering
implementing a health and safety management system.
(a) Outline the role of the health and safety policy in relation to
health and safety management. (4)
(b) Outline the benefits of an integrated health and safety,

environmental and quality management system. (6)

1.4: Explain the principles and content of an effective health and safety management
system including the reasons for integration with other management systems.
In part (a) candidates gained marks for outlining the setting of objectives, demonstration
of commitment and the creation of responsibilities. However, few answers sufficiently
linked health and safety management with policy. Some answers described elements
of a health and safety policy in detail rather than outlining its role as the question
required.
In part (b) candidates gained marked for outlining benefits such as areas of cost savings
and avoiding duplication. Overall, there was quite a limited view of benefits with little
mention of spreading a positive culture, business harmonisation and resource
utilisation. Many candidates mentioned the benefit of the integrated policy in relation to
customers, tenders and customer perception of the organisation. However, in general,
there was a very narrow view of benefits with several answers focused on certification.
Overall, candidates gained a few marks in each section of this question. For marks to
be awarded candidates need to adhere to the command word – in this question ‘outline’,
which requires more content than ‘identify’.
Question 2 (a) Outline the legal criteria that must be satisfied to obtain a
conviction under the Corporate Manslaughter and Corporate
Homicide Act 2007 (CMCHA). (6)
(b) Identify the bodies responsible for investigating and prosecuting

offences under the CMCHA. (2)
(c) Outline the penalties that may be imposed following conviction

under the CMCHA. (2)

procedures.
In part (a) there was some confusion in outlining the legal criteria required and many
candidates were unable to provide more than a couple of points. Candidates appeared
not to start from the way the activities were managed or organised. With the legal
criteria quite specific, there was no scope for a wider range of mark-worthy responses.
Few candidates mentioned ‘gross breach’ or senior management level.
4
Limited answers considered that a ‘controlling mind’ needs to be identified. Other
answers only quoted the three tests for a tort of negligence or breach of statutory duty
and others quoted HSWA s37, none of which would obtain marks.
In part (b) too many candidates incorrectly stated that the HSE or local authorities
investigate offences under the CMCHA. Many answers focused on the investigation
and not the prosecution. Some candidates chose a rather widespread approach by
naming multiple bodies perhaps in the hope it might include a correct answer.
In part (c) most candidates were able to gain marks for outlining unlimited fines. Far
fewer candidates included publicity orders or remedial orders. Some answers
mentioned imprisonment, director disqualification and limited fines, which did not gain
marks.
Question 3 A vehicle driven by an employee of a delivery organisation was in a

collision with another vehicle driven by a member of the public. The
member of the public was injured but the driver of the delivery vehicle
was unharmed.
(a) Explain why the delivery organisation may have civil liability at
common law for the injury. (2)
(b) Outline the legal action available to the injured party in a claim
for compensation and the tests that would have to be satisfied for
the action to succeed. Use case law to support your answer. (8)

4.1: Explain the principles of common law.
In part (a) most candidates identified vicarious liability as a reason for the delivery
organisation having civil liability for the injury and gained a mark. However, few
answers elaborated on what vicarious liability is and only offered points such as the
organisation is in control of the driver, or that the driver had to be negligent while acting
in the course of their employment. This limited marks that could be awarded and few
candidates were able to achieve a second mark. This might suggest a general lack of
understanding as to the application of the principles of vicarious liability.
In part (b) most candidates could demonstrate the test for liability – duty owed, duty
breached and breach led to injury. However, few candidates were able to outline other
content worthy of marks such as identification of tort of negligence, or that there was
not much point in suing the driver. Several answers noted that proximity is a factor and
that the event should be reasonably foreseeable. Some case law was mentioned but
not a great deal of detail was included.
Where candidates attempted to use case law examples, these were often in relation to
negligence and not in relation to vicarious liability or the legal point was missed, so no
marks were awarded.
Question 4 Health and safety performance objectives are being reviewed at an

annual senior management meeting.
Outline what should be considered when setting health and safety

performance objectives. (10)

6.4: Explain the need for and process of reviewing health and safety performance.
5
Many candidates focused on the sources of information and methods to inform
objectives, rather than the wider process of development of a set of objectives which
was what the question asked. Most answers did not include the basic responsibilities
for setting and achieving the objectives, together with the combination of long and short-
term objectives and the prioritisation of key objectives. Some candidates also included
how to assess health and safety performance, outlining different reactive/proactive
measures. A few answers went into detail of SMART objectives which did gain some
marks, but on the whole this appeared to be more by default than design.
For those candidates who appreciated what the question was asking, reasonable marks
were awarded. However, this was for a narrow level of response based on
responsibilities, resources, consultation, and communication. Few candidates
developed the breadth of answers at the strategic level required.
Question 5 A permit-to-work system has been introduced at a factory that operates

continuously over three shifts.
An audit takes place a year later. The audit shows many permits-to-work
have not been completed correctly or have not been signed back.
Outline possible reasons why the permit-to-work system is not being

followed. (10)

Overall, candidates demonstrated a reasonable understanding of the key issues of this

question gaining just under half marks.
Most candidates gained marks with answers relating to competence, training, lack of
monitoring, complexity of the system and poor communication. Although there
appeared to be a lack of understanding of the level of detail required about permit
issuers and receivers. There was little recognition of identification and understanding
of hazards and controls and the practicality of putting controls into place before work
starts. Multiple permit issues were mostly overlooked.
Some answers detailed what was required for completion of a permit, rather than why
the permit system is not being followed, therefore marks could not be awarded. A
limiting factor was the lack of breadth to answers and in some cases a simplistic
approach, with some candidates only giving a bullet-pointed list rather than the required
outline.
Question 6 Outline organisational factors that may act as barriers to the

improvement of the health and safety culture of an organisation. (10)

outcomes 9.7: Explain health and safety culture and climate; and 9.8: Outline the factors
which can both positively and negatively affect health and safety culture and climate.
Candidates demonstrated a reasonable understanding of the key issues of this

question’s learning outcomes.
Most candidates identified factors such as lack of commitment, poor communication

and consultation. Better answers outlined a wider range of organisational factors such
as industrial relations and the impact of change processes.
6
Candidates who did not achieve high marks focused predominantly on more physical
attributes of the workplace, including plant, equipment, welfare or detailed operational
matters, which did not attract marks. In some cases, candidates focused on accident
rates as a reason for poor safety culture. The breadth of factors outlined was insufficient
which limited the number of marks that could be awarded.
Question 7 (a) Give the meaning of:

(i) qualitative risk assessment; (3)
(ii) quantitative risk assessment; (2)
(iii) dynamic risk assessment. (2)
(b) Identify sources of information that may be used to identify

hazards during the risk assessment process. (4)
(c) Outline potential difficulties of carrying out qualitative risk

assessments. (7)
(d) Other than significant risks, hazards and record of persons,

outline what should be included in the significant findings
section of a risk assessment. (2)

7.3: Explain how to assess and evaluate risk and to implement a risk assessment
programme.
Just under half the candidates attempted this question in Section B of the examination
In part (a) there was much confusion between qualitative and quantitative risk
assessments with some candidates having difficulty in giving the meaning to these
types of risk assessment. Dynamic risk assessment was something that most
candidates were able to give meaning to. Although some candidates identified that
dynamic risk assessment was used by the emergency services they missed the
opportunity to identify that it was used in changing circumstances. Some candidates
who correctly gave the meanings missed the opportunity to gain all the marks available
by only giving one of the mark-worthy items.
In part (b) most candidates were able to gain a few marks by identifying relevant
information sources, however some answers lacked breadth to gain good marks.
In part (c) many candidates found outlining the difficulties involved in carrying out a
qualitative risk assessment problematic. Most answers focused on a failure to identify
all hazards and the subjective nature of risk perception. Some enterprising candidates
turned the question around and outlined the methodology for conducting a qualitative
risk assessment and gained a few marks along the way.
In part (d) some candidates were able to identify the protective measures and further
actions required to control risks but missed the opportunity to gain a further mark.
7
Question 8 An employee suffered a fractured skull when he fell 3 metres from
storage racking as he was loading cartons on to a pallet held on the forks
of a lift truck.
An investigation revealed that a written safe system of work had been

provided to employees some months ago. It had become common
practice for employees to be lifted up on the forks and climb up the
outside of the racking. Employees stated that they could not understand
the written safe system of work, but admitted that they had not brought
this to their employer’s attention.
(a) Outline possible relevant breaches of the:

(i) Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974; (7)
(ii) Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations
1999. (3)
Section numbers or regulation numbers are not required.
(b) The injured employee intends to bring a negligence claim (delict

in Scotland) against his employer.
Outline what the employee will need to show in order for his
claim to succeed. Use case law to support your answer. (6)
(c) Shortly after the injured employee brings his negligence claim,
he is dismissed for ‘a serious breach of safety rules’. The injured
employee considers this to be unfair and decides to bring further
proceedings, this time for unfair dismissal.
(i) Identify the body that would hear such a claim. (1)
(ii) Outline the orders that could be made if the injured
employee wins his dismissal case. (3)

outcomes 2.5: Outline the structure and functions of the courts and related institutions
in the UK; 2.7: Explain the principles of employment and discrimination law as it affects
health and safety issues; 3.1: Explain the key requirements of the Health and Safety at
Work etc Act 1974 and the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations
1999; and 4.1: Explain the principles of common law.
Just over half the candidates attempted this question and overall achieved reasonable
marks.
In part (a), while many candidates showed a reasonable understanding of the potential
breaches, there was a tendency for candidates to not apply any structure to their
answer, often taking a widespread approach that did pick up some marks. Candidates
identified the employer breach of duty under the HSAW Act and some included the
employee’s failure to co-operate with the employer’s arrangements. However, there
was little mention of the forklift driver or supervisors and rarely any mention of senior
management. Overall, some answers lacked sufficient depth for an ‘outline’ question.
Some candidates provided section numbers which did not gain extra marks as the
instruction stated these were not necessary.
In part (b) several candidates were able to outline the various tests for a negligence
claim, although fewer candidates managed to identify any relevant case law and relate
it to the scenario. Some candidates gave details of a case without demonstrating
understanding of its significance.
8
Part (c) was mostly well answered with many candidates gaining 3 or 4 marks.
However, in part (i) some candidates thought that unfair dismissal cases would be heard
by the Magistrates’ or County Courts and in part (ii) the command of the specific terms
of the remedies was doubtful but most answers outlined the concept well enough to
achieve marks.
In many cases depth of knowledge concerning the sections, regulations and tests for a
claim for negligence was inadequate. At this level of study candidates should be able
to recall detail concerning these fundamentals.
Question 9 An employee was on an elevated working platform when it was struck by

a contractor’s vehicle. The platform overturned, the employee fell and
was seriously injured. An initial report recommends further investigation.
(a) Outline steps that should be followed when investigating the

accident. (10)
(b) Outline the benefits of conducting an accident investigation. (6)
(c) Outline the criteria that should be used to determine whether the
event and any subsequent injury is reportable under the
Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences
Regulations. (4)

outcomes 5.3: Explain the significance and use of statutory and internal reporting of
loss events; and 5.4: Explain the reasons for loss and near miss investigations and the
procedures to be followed.
Most candidates attempted this question.
In part (a) candidates limited their answers to the steps for gathering information, with
some going into specific detail on how to carry out interviews for example. As a result,
they missed the opportunity to gain more marks for outlining the procedural steps such
as setting up an inspection team, inspecting the workplace, analysing the information
and producing SMART objectives. Better answers recognised the link to HSG245 and
therefore adopted a four-step approach that enabled candidates to provide an answer
with structure and consequently were awarded better marks.
In part (b) candidates referred to root causes, preventing further injuries and
demonstrating management commitment, but did not usually look at the impact on
safety culture or the prevention of other business losses. As the breadth of answer
required was lacking the marks that could be awarded were limited.
In part (c) some candidates took the approach of outlining everything they could
remember about RIDDOR and gaining marks along the way. Few candidates
considered that this was a work-related accident and some veered off course to write
at length about dangerous occurrences. Some candidates provided a more succinct
answer and obtained marks more efficiently.
In general, far too many candidates attempted to answer this question at a basic level.
At diploma level, candidates need to remember to offer the breadth of response for an
‘outline’ question to gain the marks available.
9
Question 10 Contractors are due to start work on a project in a large chemical
manufacturing site. The work does not include any confined space
working or work at height.
The organisation has assessed the health and safety implications of the
work, level of risk and additional information that has been
communicated to the contractor management team. The contractors
have been selected based on competence, health and safety policy, risk
assessments and method statements.
The organisation and contractor management team have assessed the

risks to the organisation’s workers, contractor’s workers and the public,
based on the planned work.
Outline practical ways of managing contractors:
(a) in relation to provision of training when they initially arrive on site

for work; (7)
(b) during work; (10)
(c) on completion of work. (3)

9.5: Explain the requirements for managing third parties in the workplace.
Just under half the candidates attempted this question. It was the least popular of the
long questions.
In part (a) most candidates included induction training, site contact arrangements,
welfare arrangements and information on specific hazards/risks. Some candidates
suggested that this process should include competency checking, which if the question
had been read thoroughly would have indicated that the contractors had been selected
based on competency. Other candidates also outlined how contractors would be
selected, again missing the point that they had already been selected. Some answers
lacked any structure and contained significant duplication of answers. Overall, many
candidates found it quite difficult to outline the topics that might be included within an
induction training programme based on the scenario given. Only half the marks
available for this part were awarded.
In part (b) candidates gained marks for sign in/out compliance, ensuring compliance
with SSOW and supervision for example, but by concentrating on too few topics they
missed the chance to gain better marks.
In part (c) many candidates referred to more operational elements such as discussions
with contractors, site inspections to check work and physically escorting off site rather
than reviewing and recording of work, performance and standards. Some candidates
missed the opportunity to gain marks in the section.
It appears that in this sitting candidates either had little practical experience of managing
contractors in the workplace and/or were unaware of HSE guidance on the subject.
This was reflected in the insufficient level of responses to this question.
10
Question 11 An inexperienced train driver has passed a stop signal. An investigation
finds that the driver had seen the signal gantry but had not perceived the
relevant signal correctly. He was unaware that there had been previous
similar incidents at the signal gantry and had received no local route
training or information.
The signal was hard to see being partly obscured by a bridge on

approach and affected by strong sunlight. The light arrangement on the
signal was non-standard. The driver had no expectation from previous
signals that it would be on ‘stop’.
(a) Give reasons why the driver may not have perceived the signal
correctly. (7)
(b) Outline actions that could be taken in order to help reduce the
likelihood of a recurrence of this incident. (13)

outcomes 10.2: Explain the nature of the perception of risk and its relationship to
performance in the workplace; 10.4: Explain appropriate methods of improving
individual human reliability in the workplace; and 10.6: Explain how job factors can
contribute to improving human reliability.
Just over half the candidates attempted this question.
In part (a) most candidates were able to gain reasonable marks with a fair range of
points given. Some candidates went into unnecessary detail on the theory behind
human failure which did not achieve any extra marks. Some candidates appeared to
have misread the question and discussed all sorts of engineering issues as to why the
signal was not read correctly rather than driver perception issues.
In part (b) many candidates outlined a good range of actions thereby gaining some good
marks. However, some candidates went into too much detail on a few steps and were
unable to maximise on the marks available. Other candidates veered off course
discussing issues such as violations, management systems and offering actions that
were general and not practical or relevant to the scenario.
11
12
13
14
syllabus.
Unit B
question demands.
answer.
15
Command words
candidates:
Explain
demonstrate.
explanation.
Describe
Outline
16
Identify
the question.
arise.
Give
Comment
relevant to it.
17
Examiners’ Report

UNIT B:
JULY 2018
CONTENTS
Introduction 2
General comments 3
Command words 19
Introduction
(IIRSM).
© NEBOSH 2018
NEBOSH
Dominus Way
Leicester
LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700

fax: 0116 282 4000
2
General comments
2018.
Element.
Candidates and course providers should also make reference to the Unit B ‘Example question paper
3
Unit B
Question 1 Window cleaners frequently use extending ladders. They unload the
ladders from the roof of their van, carry them to position and extend them
to reach higher windows. When they have cleaned the windows, they
load the ladders back on to the roof of the van before moving to the next
location.
(a) Outline manual handling risk factors when using these ladders. (7)
You are not required to include any risks relating to working at
height in your answer.
(b) The employer wants employees to store the ladders inside the
van and not on the roof.
Comment on how this change could affect the manual handling

risks. (2)
(c) Outline ONE change in working practice that could eliminate the
manual handling risks from using extending ladders for the
window cleaners. (1)

9.2: Explain the assessment and control of risks from repetitive activities, manual
Some candidates had knowledge of the TILE (task, individual, load, environment)
approach to manual handling risk assessment, but did not give sufficient detail about
each of the specific risk factors. Candidates who were familiar with and able to apply
the detailed range of risk factors, described in schedule 1 of the HSE guidance L23,
performed well on this question. Course providers should note that L23 is specifically
referred to in the syllabus and in the tutor references.
A scenario is described in the question and therefore candidates are expected to apply
their knowledge of manual handling risk factors to the scenario. For example, by
outlining that the task will involve pulling the ladders off the roof of the van and then
pushing the ladders back on at the end of the task.
It is clear from the description in the scenario that this is a repetitive task, as the window
cleaners have to repeat the manual handling activities at a number of sites in a working
day.
Many candidates did not recognise that the load, the extension ladders, could be
unstable and likely to shift if the ladder sections start to move during handling. Neither
did candidates outline the risks that may result when carrying out this outdoor task in
high winds.
A number of candidates did not take note of the instruction given in italics in part (a)
and so wasted time including risks relating to working at height, in their part (a) answer.
Most candidates were able to provide valid responses to parts (b) and (c) of the
question. The change of working practice described in part (b) has the potential to
reduce some of the manual handling risks such as reaching upwards, but may also
introduce new risks such as the need to stoop when placing the ladders inside the van.
In part (c) marks were available for changes in working practice such as cleaning the
higher level windows from the ground floor using tools with extending handles or using
a mobile elevated work platform (MEWP).
4
Question 2 (a) Outline legal requirements for lighting in a workplace as required
by the Workplace (Health, Safety and Welfare) Regulations
1992. (2)
(b) Identify THREE symptoms associated with visual fatigue. (3)
Employees in a large open-plan office with windows and artificial ceiling

lights carry out work using display screen equipment for a significant part
of their working day. A number of employees are complaining that the
lighting in the office is not suitable.
(c) Consider what features of the lighting in the office might have
led to these complaints. (5)

outcomes 10.2: Explain the need for suitable and sufficient lighting in the workplace,
units of measurement of light and the assessment of lighting levels in the workplace;
and 9.2: Explain the assessment and control of risks from repetitive activities, manual
When responding to questions relating to legal requirements, accuracy is important.

The legal requirement for lighting in the workplace, as stated in the Workplace (Health,
Safety and Welfare) Regulations 1992, is for it to be suitable and sufficient. Referring
only to sufficient lighting is not correct, as the lighting also needs to be suitable for the
nature of the work being carried out.
The legal requirements for lighting, in the Workplace (Health, Safety and Welfare)
Regulations 1992, extend to a number of other features, including the provision of
emergency lighting, when the failure of artificial lighting can present a danger. Many
candidates did not include this in their response to part (a).
Part (b) presented little difficulty with most candidates able to identify three symptoms
of visual fatigue.
Part (c) covers both learning outcomes 10.2 and 9.2 as it relates to the use of display
screen equipment (DSE), for which suitable and sufficient lighting is an important
consideration. Those candidates who recognised this in the scenario, were able to gain
marks by considering features such as the position of the lighting in relation to the DSE,
or reflections from windows or artificial light fittings in the screens of the DSE, leading
to the complaints.
Another lighting feature to consider, is the lighting levels being either too high or too
low, and many candidates included this in their answer. Few candidates considered
the lighting ‘colour temperature’ not being suitable, ie an unsuitable balance of red and
blue light.
5
Question 3 A training organisation wants to introduce hand-held laser pointers for
use by their trainers when presenting courses to students.
Recent media reports suggest that some hand-held laser pointers can
contain Class 3B or Class 4 lasers.
(a) Identify potential eye damage that could result from exposure to
lasers with these classifications. (3)
(b) Outline control measures that could help reduce the potential for
eye damage to the trainers and students. (7)

7.4: Outline the different sources of lasers found in the workplace, the classification of
lasers and the control measures.
Answers to part (a) were often vague and therefore did not achieve the three marks
available. Eye damage caused by lasers includes temporary loss of vision, flash
blindness and retinal burns and can result in ‘floaters’. Simply stating that the laser
pointers could cause blindness is not sufficiently accurate for a diploma-level answer
and therefore did not receive a mark.
The accidental and deliberate misuse of higher hazard classification laser pointers has
featured in numerous news stories in the last 12 months, making consideration of this
possible exposure to lasers topical. Course providers should refer to the Public Health
England (PHE) advice on laser safety, which is listed in the references for Unit B
(https://www.gov.uk/government/publications/laser-radiation-safety-advice/laser-
radiation-safety-advice#laser-ointers-or-laser-pens)
The stem of the question implies that the hand-held laser pointers are to be used and
therefore part (b) required an outline of how this use could be carried out safely.
Therefore, a simple control measure is to only use laser pointers of lower hazard
classifications. The PHE advice referred to above is clear that only class 1, class 2 or
possibly class 3R laser pointers are appropriate in a training situation.
Marks were also awarded for more generic laser control measures, such as removing
reflective surfaces in the training rooms and always pointing the lasers away from the
direction of the students.
Question 4 (a) Give the meaning of ‘work-related stress’. (1)
(b) Identify potential signs that an employee could be stressed. (3)
(c) Outline control measures that could help manage work-related

stress in an organisation. (6)

outcomes 8.2: Explain the identification and control of workplace mental ill-health with
reference to legal duties and other standards; and 8.1: Explain the effects and causes
of common types of mental ill-health within the workplace.
Part (a) required candidates to be familiar with the HSE definition of ‘work-related
stress’: ‘The adverse reaction people have to excessive pressures or other types of
demand placed on them’. However, few candidates seemed to be aware of the
meaning.
6
Candidates performed well in response to part (b) and could identify at least three
potential signs of stress, such as mood swings, loss of motivation and also physical
signs such as sweating or agitation. Answers to this part of the question helped boost
the overall marks that candidates gained for this question, which was just above half
marks.
In contrast, part (c) was not well answered. Candidates were aware of the stress
management standards but had difficulty in translating this knowledge into control
measures a manager could utilise. Promoting flexible working, providing a good
working environment (including lighting, ventilation, etc) and having clearly defined
roles and responsibilities, are all controls measures that help to manage work-related
stress.
Question 5 Schedule 2A of the Control of Substances Hazardous to Health

Regulations 2002 (COSHH) sets out eight ‘principles of good practice’ for
controlling exposure to hazardous substances. One of the eight
principles is:
“Choose the most effective and reliable control options which minimise
the escape and spread of substances hazardous to health.”
(a) Explain why the use of personal protective equipment (PPE) is

often less effective as a control option than installing local
exhaust ventilation (LEV). (7)
(b) Outline THREE other ‘principles of good practice’. (3)

3.1: Explain the principles of prevention and control of exposure to hazardous
substances (including carcinogens and mutagens).
The fundamental principles that are the basis for the COSHH regulations should be well
known, however, the average mark for this question was around a third of the 10 marks
available. Course providers should consider how this syllabus content is delivered to
students as there continues to be confusion between the eight principles of good
practice and the application of a hierarchy of control.
Part (a) focused on the one principle of good practice that does specifically relate to
hierarchy of control. However, candidates had difficulty giving a full explanation of why
personal protective equipment (PPE) is a less effective control measure. In the
NEBOSH guidance document on command words ‘explain’ is defined as ‘to make an
idea or relationship clear’. Therefore, taking a step-wise approach when setting out an
answer is advisable. An explanation of the hierarchy of control was a sensible start
point, as specific reference to the hierarchy does not appear in the stem or part (a) of
the question. Explaining that effectiveness (and reliability) is greater for control
measures at the top of the hierarchy compared to those near the bottom was also
necessary. Simply stating the relative positions of PPE and LEV in the hierarchy was
also worthy of marks. However, many candidates missed out these key points in their
explanation.
Some candidates were able to explain why the effectiveness of PPE and LEV vary, as
PPE only protects the individual using it and relies on many factors to achieve
protection, including fit, face shape, time of use, etc. Whereas LEV protects all those
working in the vicinity and if designed, installed and maintained correctly is always
effective when it is switched on. Other marks were available for explaining that LEV
minimises the spread of the hazardous substance and can remove it close to the source
of emission.
Part (b) of this question required candidates to have knowledge of some of the other
principles of good practice and many candidates were able to refer to at least one or
two of these.
7
Question 6 Hazardous substances entering the body through the skin can cause
systemic effects.
(a) Describe the structure of the skin. (6)

Marks will not be awarded for diagrams. A description in words
is required.
(b) Explain how a hazardous substance could enter the body

through the skin and cause a systemic effect. (4)

2.1: Explain the main routes of entry and the human body’s defensive responses to
hazardous substances.
It was reassuring to see that when answering part (a) of this question nearly all
candidates followed the specific instruction and did not draw a diagram. The word
descriptions provided were variable in the level of detail provided. Most candidates
stated that the skin has three layers and were able to name the three layers. Some
candidates described correctly the relative positions of these layers.
With six marks available for part (a) further detail was required to achieve full marks.
This further detail was often missing or inaccurate. Marks were available for describing
other features in the skin’s structure, their position and function, eg sebaceous glands,
sweat glands and hair follicles.
Candidates were able to explain that hazardous substances can enter the body via cuts
and abrasions in the skin, as well as by injection. Many candidates also indicated
absorption through intact skin was possible for some hazardous substances. An
explanation of the systemic effect was not always given. Candidates sometimes
explained how the hazardous substances can move around the body but omitted to
mention that systemic effects are seen in other target organs with no local effect on the
skin at the point of entry.
Question 7 A large indoor poultry farm is concerned about employees being exposed
to the zoonose that causes the disease psittacosis (also known as
ornithosis).
(a) (i) Give the meaning of the term ‘zoonose’. (1)

(ii) Identify BOTH the type and name of the biological agent
that causes psittacosis. (2)
(b) Explain how the employees are likely to be exposed to the

biological agent that causes psittacosis. (4)
(c) Identify possible ill-health effects that could result from exposure
to the biological agent that causes psittacosis. (3)
(d) Describe control measures that could be put in place to help

reduce the risk of employees contracting psittacosis. (10)

outcomes 5.1: Explain the types and properties of biological agents found at work; and
5.2: Explain the assessment and control of risk from deliberate and non-deliberate
exposure to biological agents at work.
To gain the one mark available in part (a) (i) candidates needed to state that a zoonose
is an animal disease that might be transmitted to humans.
8
Part (a) (ii) did require some specific knowledge. The biological agent that causes
psittacosis is the bacterium Chlamydophila psittaci.
In part (b) candidates needed to understand that the key point was dust or aerosols
from urine or dried faeces present a risk if inhaled. Few candidates mentioned that
other possible routes of exposure include bites from infected birds and even human-to-
human transmission. Some candidates did not consider the routes of entry for the
biological agent and instead indicated that exposure occurs when handling the birds.
This is not sufficient for an explanation at diploma level.
Many candidates were able to mention ‘flu-like symptoms’, such as fever, headaches,
chills, etc as an ill-health effect when answering part (c). However, few mentioned the
other more specific symptoms associated with psittacosis. While there are no specific
reference documents listed in the syllabus for zoonoses, the HSE website does provide
suitable resources for tutors and candidates.
The range of control measures described in part (d) should have included ventilation
and the use of RPE as well as the more common hygiene-related controls. Cleaning
regimes are also important and these should avoid dry brushing and instead involve
dampening down or vacuum cleaning techniques. Having understood that the main
route of exposure was through inhalation when answering part (b), this should have
informed the range of control measures in part (d).
Few candidates considered how control measures relating to the health of birds could
also be relevant. Relevant control measures include minimising the stress of the flock,
to reduce the shedding of the organism from the birds, as well as screening the flock
and isolating infected birds.
This question was one of the least popular section B questions, selected by less than
half of all candidates.
Question 8 (a) Explain when it might be necessary to use respiratory protective

equipment (RPE) as a control measure to help reduce exposure
to a hazardous substance. (6)
Employees carrying out a task involving the corrosive vapour of ammonia

have been provided with RPE to protect them from exposure to ammonia
by inhalation. The employer used the following information to determine
the selection of the RPE:
Concentration of ammonia vapour in the workplace 280 ppm
Workplace exposure limit for ammonia is 35 ppm (15-min STEL)
Assigned protection factor for selected RPE 20
(b) Explain how the employer can use this information to determine
if the choice of RPE is appropriate. (4)
(c) Outline what an employer should consider when selecting RPE

for this particular task. (10)

3.4: Explain the effectiveness of various types of personal protective equipment (PPE)
and the factors to consider in selection of PPE.
This question focused specifically on respiratory protective equipment (RPE) as a type

of PPE.
9
Answers to part (a) were limited, with many candidates unable to explain when it might
be necessary to use RPE and limited their response to using RPE as a last resort.
Instead, candidates should have based their response on the information in the HSE
publication HSG53, Respiratory protective equipment at work; A practical guide. This
is listed in the Unit B syllabus references. RPE is necessary for some short duration
tasks, as an interim measure while other controls are being installed and to facilitate
escape in an emergency.
Responses to part (b) suggested a lack of technical understanding. Candidates did not
always appreciate that assigned protection factor is a ratio and as such has no units
associated with it. Some candidates were able to carry out the simple calculation and
determined the RPE was appropriate, but did not mention that the RPE selected also
provided a good safety factor.
There was a wide range of possible content for part (c) and with 10 marks available a
wide range of differing considerations was required. Some answers were limited.
This was a popular question in section B and was selected by two thirds of all
candidates, however most candidates received low marks.
Question 9 Forestry workers are required to wear personal protective equipment

(PPE) to protect them from hazards associated with the machinery they
use. This PPE includes eye and head protection, gloves and protective
clothing.
The workers are outdoors and being exposed to high levels of ultra-violet
(UV), non-ionising radiation from the sun. This situation can lead to heat-
related illness and health effects from exposure to the sun.
(a) Explain the importance of maintaining heat balance in the body. (4)
(b) Identify possible effects of heat-related illness. (4)
(c) Outline control measures to help reduce the risks from exposure
to heat and non-ionising radiation hazards for the forestry
workers. (12)

outcomes 10.1: Explain the need for, and factors involved in, the provision and
maintenance of temperature in both moderate and extreme thermal environments; 7.2:
Explain the effects of exposure to non-ionising radiation, its measurement and control;
and 7.1: Outline the nature of the different types of ionising and non-ionising radiation.
Responses to part (a) were too limited for a diploma level answer to the depth necessary
for an ‘explain’ command word. It was not sufficient to simply indicate that heat balance
is necessary for the body to function. With 4 marks available more detail was required.
Many candidates had difficulty and perhaps gained one mark for indicating that if you
get too hot or too cold this can eventually lead to death. Candidates were expected to
understand that maintaining a constant temperature in the body is important as many
chemical processes within the body rely on a specific temperature. Some deviations
from this temperature can be addressed through body responses such as shivering or
an increased blood flow to the extremities, but if not addressed a heat imbalance can
result in a loss of concentration and dexterity and can increase the risk of accidents.
In part (b) answers were again limited. Candidates often did not identify a sufficient
range of ill-health effects for the 4 marks available. Severe thirst and fainting were often
not included in candidates’ responses.
10
Most candidates gained the majority of their marks in part (c) of this question.
Candidates needed to include control measures relevant to each of the hazards; the
exposure to heat and the non-ionising radiation (UV). For example, use of sun cream
and having sufficient supplies of drinking water were worthy of marks. Some control
measures would help reduce the risks from both hazards. For example, providing
shaded areas for rest breaks and avoiding work in the hottest part of the day. Other
control measures awarding marks include, training in the effects of exposure to these
hazards and how to reduce the risks, identifying those who may be susceptible and
allowing time for acclimatisation to the working environment.
This question, which assessed understanding from two different elements of the
syllabus, was answered by two thirds of all candidates and produced reasonable
responses.
Question 10 An employee is using a hand-held jackhammer to break up a large area

of concrete. Jackhammers produce high levels of noise and vibration.
(a) Outline the possible ill-health effects to the employee from the
prolonged use of jackhammers to break concrete. (5)
(b) Outline actions that the employee can take to help reduce the
risks from their exposure to the noise and vibration of this work
activity. (7)
(c) Review the similarities and differences between hand-arm

vibration exposure assessment and noise exposure assessment. (8)

outcomes 6.2: Explain the effects of noise on the individual and the use of audiometry;
6.3: Explain the measurement and assessment of noise exposure; 6.4: Explain the
principles and methods of controlling noise and noise exposure; 6.6: Explain the effects
of vibration on the individual; 6.7: Explain the measurement and assessment of vibration
exposure; and 6.8: Explain the principles and methods of controlling vibration and
vibration exposure.
Responses to part (a) were limited and candidates did not always address both noise
and vibration ill-health effects equally, despite both hazards being stated in the stem of
the question. Noise-induced hearing loss and circulatory disorders are possible ill-
health effects. Few candidates also recognised that breaking concrete with jack-
hammers could result in exposure to silica dust, so silicosis is another possible ill-health
effect from this work activity.
Candidates frequently misread part (b) and answered with actions the employer could
take. The question asks what the employee can do and needed to take account of
actions that reduce exposure to both noise and vibration. Some control measures are
relevant to both, such as reducing the amount of time they are exposed. Other actions
an employee can take are only relevant in relation to one of the hazards. For example,
giving up smoking would help reduce the risks associated with exposure to the vibration
hazard.
Wearing the appropriate PPE is relevant for both hazards, although the PPE is different.
Marks were available for wearing hearing protection and wearing gloves to keep hands
warm.
11
In part (c) candidates had difficulty in reviewing the similarities and differences. There
were more differences that could gain marks but candidates were not penalised for
emphasising these over any similarities. ‘Review’ is a diploma command word and
means: ‘to make a survey of; examine, look over carefully and give a critical account’.
Answers to this part of the question suggested that some candidates were not able to
think broadly and instead could only focus on one aspect of the syllabus at a time, ie
how to assess noise or how to assess vibration. Candidates that had an understanding
of the concepts of noise and vibration assessment were able to recognise that both
involve consideration of magnitude, frequency and duration of exposure.
Measurements of both noise and vibration exposure are typically carried out over a
working shift and all sources of noise and vibration exposure must be considered.
The obvious differences between assessment of noise and vibration exposure arise
because different units of measurement are used, the measuring devices are placed in
different locations (ie near the ear or on the handle/wrist) etc. Noise assessment is
based on sound pressure levels, whereas vibration is an acceleration measurement.
This question was answered by just over two thirds of all candidates.
12
Question 11 In a chemical process employees are exposed to two organic liquids.
Table 1 below shows the average personal exposure levels to each of
the organic liquids for one employee measured over an 8-hour day.
Table 1:
Task undertaken Duration of task Exposure to Exposure to
by employee Liquid A (ppm) Liquid B (ppm)
Measuring out
30 minutes 280 140
liquid
Adding liquid to
1 hour 110 80
the mixing vessel
Supervision of
2 hours 150 50
mixing
Transfer of
mixture to 3 hours 150 50
containers
Assume exposure is zero at all other times.
Table 2:
Liquid A Liquid B
8-hour time-weighted average
125 ppm 50 ppm
exposure of the one employee
(a) Using the information in Table 1, demonstrate that the 8-hour

time-weighted average (TWA) exposures of the employee to
BOTH Liquid A and Liquid B are as shown in Table 2. (8)
Your answer should include detailed working to show how the
exposure is calculated.
The workplace exposure limits (WELs) for the two liquids are as follows:
Table 3:
Liquid Workplace exposure limit
Long-term exposure limit Short-term exposure limit
(8-hour TWA limit reference (15-minute reference
period) period)
A 200 250
B 200 300
(b) Outline what actions the employer might need to take to control
exposure to Liquid A, which is an essential component of the
chemical process. (7)
(c) Comment on the exposure to Liquid B. (1)
(d) There is a concern that exposure to a mixture of these two

liquids might increase the risk to employees.
Consider why this might be a valid concern. (4)

outcomes 2.3: Outline the factors to consider when undertaking assessment and
evaluation of risks from hazardous substances; and 4.1: Explain how workplace
exposure limits are used in the workplace.
13
This was a popular question in section B and most candidates who answered this
question achieved good marks for part (a). Occasionally, there was a small
mathematical slip or inadequate answer that resulted in one or two of the eight marks
being missed. As candidates were being asked to demonstrate that these 8-hour TWA
exposures were as stated in table 2, there were no marks available for writing down the
final answers, 125ppm and 50 ppm for liquid A and B respectively. The reason for
taking this approach was to ensure that candidates who had made a slip or were unable
to answer part (a) were not disadvantaged when answering part (b) that has an almost
equal number of marks available.
Most candidates provided only limited responses to part (b). Comparing the information
in table 2 and table 3 it was clear that neither the LTEL WEL nor the STEL WEL for
liquid A has been exceeded over the 8 hour time period. Therefore, in brief, it would
appear that no further action was required, other than to monitor the ongoing
effectiveness of the existing control. However, many candidates restricted their answer
to this conclusion that meant they did not achieve the 7 marks available.
Had candidates also referred back to the information in table 1 it would have been
apparent that the STEL WEL of 250ppm for liquid A was exceeded during the
measuring out of liquid A. This indicates other actions are required to control exposure
in this part of the chemical process. Some candidates noted this and went on to outline
a range of other actions relevant to that part of the process.
As the mark allocation suggests, there was little to include in part (c) other than to
comment that exposure to liquid B was adequately controlled at all times in the chemical
process.
Responses to part (d) were variable and some candidates did not appreciate the
possible increased risk of a mixed exposure to both liquids A and B. Synergistic effects
are referred to in EH40 and candidates should have considered that such an effect
could occur in this chemical process. Marks were available for outlining that this
synergistic effect means the risk of exposure to the mixture is greater than the sum of
the risks from exposure to the individual liquids.
Fewer candidates considered the other possible interactions that could result. It could
also be that the effects of exposure to liquids A and B were independent or additive.
14
15
16
17
syllabus.
Unit B
question demands.
answer.
18
Command words
candidates:
Explain
demonstrate.
explanation.
Describe
Outline
19
Identify
the question.
arise.
Give
Comment
relevant to it.
20
Examiners’ Report

UNIT C:
JULY 2018
CONTENTS
Introduction 2
General comments 3
Command words 14
Introduction
(IIRSM).
© NEBOSH 2018
NEBOSH
Dominus Way
Leicester
LE19 1QW
tel: 0116 263 4700

fax: 0116 282 4000
2
General comments
2018.
Element.
Candidates and course providers should also make reference to the Unit C ‘Example question paper
3
Unit C
Question 1 The Construction (Design and Management) Regulations 2015 (CDM)

apply to all construction projects in Great Britain.
(a) Outline the types of activity that are included in ‘construction

work’ under CDM. (8)
(b) Outline the conditions under which a project becomes ‘notifiable’

under CDM. (2)

9.1: Outline the scope and nature of construction activities.
In part (a) the range of activities listed in Regulation 2 of the Construction Design and
Management Regulations 2015 were expected. There were many good answers to this
part, but some candidates had difficulty with the less well known activities. Answers
referring to general trades that did not reference that this was applied to the structure
did not gain marks.
For part (b) the conditions under which a project becomes notifiable are covered by
Regulation 6 and many answers outlined this correctly. However, a large number of
answers confused ‘days’ with ‘hours’, incorrectly citing ‘500 person hours’.
Overall there was a mixed response to this question, with some very good answers but
others where the candidate clearly had difficulty.
Question 2 In order to commission a large item of machinery, such as a power

station turbine rotor, it is sometimes necessary to perform adjustments
while the rotor is in motion. These adjustments need to be done with the
rotor in an unguarded condition inside the building.
Outline the elements of a safe system of work for this activity. (10)

6.4: Explain the principles of control associated with the maintenance of general
workplace machinery.
The elements of the safe system of work on live rotating machines were asked for,
although a number of candidates mentioned isolation and locking out of the machine,
suggesting the question was not fully understood or misread.
Better answers included use of jigs, permit-to-work and close fitting clothing, for
example. Some candidates gave answers based on PUWER and the risk assessment
process which were not asked for in the question.
This was generally a fairly well answered question by those who read and focused on
the question carefully and thoroughly.
4
Question 3 (a) Outline how a boiling liquid expanding vapour explosion
(BLEVE) occurs. (8)
(b) Outline the effects of a BLEVE. (2)

by which they ignite.
There were many good answers to this question but some candidates were not familiar
with the sequence of events of the BLEVE. Part (a) asked for the sequence but
candidates did not lose out on marks if the steps were a little out of sequence. Some
candidates confused part (b) the effects of the explosion with part (a) the sequence,
and so did not achieve the marks available.
Key points that could have been included were the failure of the vessel, the subsequent
expansion of vapour and ignition. Effects in part (b) included thermal radiation and this
part of the question was generally awarded the higher marks.
Question 4 Large goods vehicles are loaded and unloaded at a distribution depot
that serves a national retail chain.
Outline hazards associated with these vehicles during this loading and
unloading process that should be considered in a workplace transport
risk assessment. (10)

the controls available for managing workplace transport risk.
This question was generally not well answered.
The scenario given in the question was hazards associated with loading and unloading
vehicles at a depot. This question highlights the difficulties that many candidates have
in understanding the difference between ‘hazards’, ‘risks’ and ‘controls’. Many
candidates gave answers based on control measures instead of hazards and therefore
could not gain the full range of marks available. Answers based on site traffic control
measures also did not gain marks.
Hazards such as the dock levellers, lifting devices, climbing over loads, would have
gained marks. The mention of one-way systems, mirrors, etc was not relevant to the
question. Candidates should take care that they read the question carefully to fully
understand what the question is asking and ensure their answers are relevant to the
scenario.
5
Question 5 A fire and rescue authority visited a premises and identified a number of
breaches of the Regulatory Reform (Fire Safety) Order 2005.
Outline the enforcement action that the fire and rescue authority may
take as a result of the findings. (10)

3.1: Outline the main legal requirements for fire safety in the workplace.
The enforcement actions available to the fire and rescue authority differ from the HSE
enforcement actions and this question was designed to assess candidates’ knowledge
of the former.
This question was not generally well answered, many candidates confused the Health
and Safety Improvement notice with the Fire Safety Enforcement notice. The question
expected candidates to outline three different notices plus the final option of
prosecution. Many candidates had difficulty outlining the three types of notice and
under what conditions they might be served.
Question 6 During a construction project, a number of different types of crane will be

necessary to carry out mechanical lifting operations.
Outline what would need to be considered when selecting cranes that

are suitable for the required lifting operations. (10)

Most candidates gave good answers to this question. Occasionally candidates strayed
off the topic referring to barriers and PPE, but on the whole this was a popular, well
answered question. Candidates demonstrated good knowledge outlining the need for
LOLER examination certificate, reach capability and gained marks by mentioning site
conditions such as obstructions, for example.
Question 7 (a) A flammable liquid is being transferred from a road tanker to a

bulk storage tank.
Outline control measures that would help reduce the risk of

ignition of the associated vapour due to static electricity. (10)
(b) Tanker drivers are routinely required to work on top of road

tankers during transfer operations.
Outline what should be considered when assessing the risk of

falls while working on top of the road tanker. (10)

outcomes 4.2: Outline the main principles of the safe storage, handling and transport of
dangerous substances; and 1.4: Explain the hazards, risks, and controls when working
at height.
This was a popular question attempted by most candidates. Part (a) of the question
covered control measures to reduce the risk of ignition by static electricity and attracted
reasonable answers that included earthing and bonding (separate topics), no splash
filling, blanketing or inerting, for example. Some candidates also mentioned safe
systems of work which was not required.
6
Part (b) covered work at height and attracted better answers than part (a). The work at
height hierarchy would have helped candidates achieve the most marks with topics
such as to avoid the need to work at height, and edge protection methods such as
gantries, or fall prevention systems, for example. Driver fitness was also worthy of
marks.
Although a popular question there was a wide range of marks awarded, many
candidates found the question challenging and had difficulty achieving high marks.
Question 8 Construction work is to take place in a rural area where electrical power
for the site is to be gained from an existing 11kV overhead supply that
cuts across the site on wooden poles.
Outline control measures that should be taken to help reduce risks

associated with the:
(a) overhead supply; (8)
(b) supply of electricity on the site. (12)

8.4: Outline the main principles for safe working in the vicinity of high voltage systems.
The question covered the use of electricity on a site in two forms. Part (a) dealt with an
overhead cable passing across the site and part (b) with the local supply of electricity
on the site.
Guidance note GS6 from the HSE refers to part (a) and candidates who demonstrated
a knowledge and understanding of this generally gave the better answers. These
included possible re-routing, height restrictions and consulting the supplier. Answers
to part (a) generally achieved higher marks than answers to part (b).
Part (b) caused difficulty for many candidates. Reduction of voltage to 110v was
common among the answers but included in the available marks were such topics as
protective devices, suitable cabling for the environment and system earthing.INDG231
was relevant but few candidates referred to this. The installation and maintenance by
a competent person was also important.
Question 9 A large item of production plant needs maintenance. The maintenance

will involve a number of personnel working in a machine shop containing
other plant items.
Outline what should be considered before the maintenance activity. (20)

outcomes 5.3: Explain safe working procedures for the maintenance, inspection and
testing of work equipment according to the risks posed; and 6.4: Explain the principles
of control associated with the maintenance of general workplace machinery.
This was not a popular question and many candidates had difficulty achieving high
marks and a structured approach was lacking in many answers. Those candidates who
addressed topic headings such as planning, people, working environment, plant
isolation, removal or release of stored energy, hazardous substances and emergency
procedures, gained the highest marks.
With a structured approach this question should have attracted high marks, however
many candidates seemed unable to adopt this approach.
7
Question 10 An organisation operates a multi-storey care facility.
(a) Outline what should be considered to help ensure an adequate

means of escape in the event of a fire. (12)
(b) Outline general requirements for fire doors that should be

installed in the facility. (8)

3.5: Outline the factors to be considered in providing and maintaining the means of
escape.
Part (a) of the question was assessed candidates’ knowledge of typical means of
escape considerations when applied to the given scenario of a multi-storey care facility.
Those candidates who focused on the scenario given, gained higher marks than those
who related general means of escape. As well as such factors as the number of
occupants, and width of escape routes, candidates could have addressed mobility of
occupants, staged evacuation by floors and phased evacuation by groups. Some
candidates mentioned PEEPS, housekeeping training and drills, alarms, emergency
plans, and although they would form part of a fire risk assessment they were not asked
for in this question and so did not gain marks. This part had 12 marks available.
Part (b) was specifically about the requirements of fire doors in the facility and
encompassed the fire doors themselves (fire resistance, self-closing, etc) but also such
topics as security, for example. There were only 8 marks available here but many
candidates gave a much longer answer for this part than for part (a). As a consequence,
marks were generally higher on part (b).
Overall, marks were not high on this question and along with the previous fire
enforcement question should highlight to course providers and candidates the
importance of fire safety within the syllabus.
Question 11 Contractors are required to work in a sewer chamber that is accessed via
a vertical shaft. The shaft and chamber are classed as a confined space
under the Confined Spaces Regulations 1997.
(a) Give the meaning of the term ‘confined space’. (2)
(b) Outline hazards that the contractors could be exposed to when

working in the sewer chamber. (10)
(c) Outline what should be considered when developing emergency

arrangements that will be provided during this activity. (8)

1.2: Explain the hazards, risks and control measures associated with work in confined
spaces.
A popular question that in general was well answered and gained high marks.
Part (a) asked for the meaning of a confined space and this is well documented in the
Confined Spaces Regulations 1997. Those candidates who could reproduce the
meaning gained high marks for part (a).
8
Part (b) assessed candidates’ ability to outline hazards that a contractor working in the
given scenario could encounter. These could be broken down into standard confined
spaces hazards, oxygen deficiency, etc) but also those hazards specific to the
environment or task that might include biological hazards, needlestick, slippery surface,
for example. Again, there seemed a reluctance for candidates to address the specific
scenario and instead they stuck to generic answers.
Part (c) was intended to assess emergency service provision. This part seemed less
well understood and was less well answered with candidates missing training for
emergency personnel, precautions for rescuers and specialised equipment.
9
10
11
12
syllabus.
Unit B
question demands.
answer.
13
Command words
candidates:
Explain
demonstrate.
explanation.
Describe
Outline
14
Identify
the question.
arise.
Give
Comment
relevant to it.
15

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Examiners’ Report

NEBOSH NATIONAL DIPLOMA IN

Comments on individual questions 4

Any enquiries about this report publication should be addressed to:

tel: 0116 263 4700

Question 1 Accidents and incidents disrupt an organisation’s normal operations,

(a) Outline potential sources of financial loss arising from accidents

(b) Outline benefits to the organisation of effective health and safety

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning outcome

Overall this question was answered well by candidates.

(a) Given that disability is a protected characteristic in law, outline

(b) The injured employee decides to make a claim for constructive

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning outcome

Overall, there appeared to be a lack of knowledge on reasonable adjustments and

Question 3 For a range of internal information sources:

(a) outline how EACH source contributes to risk assessment; (7)

(b) outline limitations of internal information sources. (3)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning outcome

Question 4 (a) Outline the defences available to a defendant who, in a civil

(b) Outline what should be considered when determining the level

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning outcome

Question 5 Multi-causality theories recognise that accidents can have multiple

(a) (i) Outline why multi-causality theories are used in accident

(b) Explain why accident data should be recorded by an

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning

Question 6 (a) Outline TWO principles of the following risk management

(b) When applying a risk reduction strategy, outline factors that

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning

Question 7 A logistics organisation owns a two-storey warehouse that is in regular

The logistics organisation uses a security firm whose employees also

This has both civil and criminal implications.

(b) (i) With reference to possible breaches of the Health and

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning

Cause of false alarm Probability

Mains electricity failure 0.15

Dust obscuring a smoke detector 0.1

Sunlight striking a UV flame detector 0.25

Back-up generator does not start 0.04

(a) Outline the principles of fault tree analysis. (2)

(b) Outline the technique of fault tree analysis. (8)

(d) (i) Identify the main cause of false alarms. (1)

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning outcome

Question 9 The management of an organisation intends to introduce new, safer

(a) Outline practical measures that management could take to

(b) Other than effective communication, outline ways in which

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning

Candidates should be encouraged to ensure that the breadth of their answer is

(c) Outline examples of reactive performance data that could be

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning

(b) Other than ergonomic issues, outline ways in which human

This question assessed candidates’ knowledge and understanding of learning outcome

Candidates misread/misinterpreted the question

Candidates repeated the same point but in different ways

Candidates did not respond effectively to the command word

Candidate’s handwriting was illegible

Candidates did not answer all the questions

Explain: To provide an understanding. To make an idea or relationship clear.

Outline: To indicate the principal features or different parts of.

Identify: To give a reference to an item, which could be its name or title.

Give: To provide short, factual answers.

NEBOSH NATIONAL DIPLOMA IN

Comments on individual questions 4

Any enquiries about this report publication should be addressed to: