tructure of CBSE Class 9 Maths Sample Paper 2019 is as follows:

 Includes questions asked from the complete syllabus of CBSE class 9 Maths
 Consists of 30 questions divided into four sections A, B, C and D
 Section A contains 6 questions of 1 mark each
 Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each
 Section C contains 10 questions of 3 marks each
 Section D contains 8 questions of 4 marks each
 Total marks: 80
 Maximum time : 3 Hours
Solving this Sample Paper will help you fine tune your preparations for the
final exam letting you know your weak areas which you may improve with a
little more practice and revision.

Given below is the complete sample paper for CBSE Class 9

Mathematics:
Sample Paper 2019
CBSE Class 9
Mathematics
Section – A
1. Write linear equations representing a line which is parallel to y-axis and is
at a distance of 2 units on the left side of y-axis.
2. Find whether (0, −3) is a solution of linear equation, x – y + 3 =0?
CBSE Class 9 Mathematics Examination Pattern and Question Paper
Design 2019
3. Construct an acute angle and draw its bisector.
4. The edge of a solid cube is 6 cm. How many cubes of 6cm edge can be
formed from this cube?
5. The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of height 21 cm is
957cm2. Find the diameter of the base of the cylinder.
6. Find the radius of largest sphere that is carved out of the cube of side 8
cm.
Section-B
7. In the given figure, P is any point on the diagonal AC of the parallelogram
ABCD. Show that ar(ΔADP) = ar (ΔABP).

8. In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle and BA = AC. If ∠ABC =
50o, find ∠BOC and ∠BDC.
9. Using ruler and compass, construct ∠XYZ = 105o.
10. A cone is 8.4 cm high and the radius of its base is 2.1 cm. It is melted
and recast into a sphere. Find the radius of sphere.
11. A die is rolled 150 times and its outcomes are recorded as below:

Find the probability of getting:

(i) An odd number

(ii) A multiple of 4

12. Check whether 7/6 can be an emperical probability or not. Give reasons.
CBSE Class 9 Maths Important Questions with Solutions for Annual
Exam 2019
Section-C
13. Find two integral solutions of 13x + 17y = 221. Represent this equation
by a graph. Does it pass through origin.
14. Plot A(3, 0), B(0, 2), C(-3, 0) and D(0, -2) on a graph paper. Join A to
B, B to C, C to D and D to A to form a quadrilateral ABCD. Is ABCD is
rhombus? Also write the equations of AC and BD.
15. PQRS is a quadrilateral. A line through S parallel to PR meets QR
produced in X. Show that ar(PQRS) = ar(ΔPXQ).
16. Small spherical balls, each of diameter 0.6 cm, are formed by melting a
solid sphere of radius 3 cm. Find the number of balls thus obtained.
17. Draw a line segment SR of length 10 cm. Divide it into 4 equal parts,
using compass and rular.
18. There are 100 students in a class. The mean height of the class is 150
cm. If the mean height of 60 boys is 70 cm, find the mean height of the girls
in the class.
19. If adjacent angles A and B of parallelogram ABCD are in the ratio 7:5,
then find all the angles of parallelogram.
20. 26. A Room is 30m long, 24 m broad and 18 m high. Find:
(a) Iength of the longest rod that can be placedd in the room.
(b) its total surface area.
(c) its volume.
21. Two coins were tossed 20 times simultaneously. Each time the number
of heads occurring was noted as follows:
0, 1, 1, 2, 0, 1, 2, 0, 0, 1, 2, 2, 0, 2, 1, 0, 1, 1, 0, 2

Prepare a frequency distribution table for the data.

22. Weekly wages (in rupees) of workers in a factory are as follow:

Find the probability that a worker chosen at random earns:

(a) Rs. 1800 or more but less than Rs. 1850.

(b) Below Rs. 1825.

(c) at least Rs. 1775.

CBSE Class 9 Maths Chapter-wise Important Topics and Questions

Section-D
23. Draw the graphs of the following equations on the same graph sheet:
x – y = 0, x + y = 0, y + 5 = 0. Also, find the area enclosed between these
lines.

24. Let the cost of a pen and a pencil be Rs. x and Rs. y respectively. Anuj
pays Rs. 34 for 3 pens and 2 pencils. Write the given data in the form of a
linear equation in two variables. Also, represent it graphically.
25. Construct a ΔABC in which BC = 7.2 cm, ∠B = 45 and AB – AC = 3cm.
26. In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram in which CB is produced to
E such that BC = BE. The line segment DE intersects side AB at F. If ar(
ΔADF) = 4cm2, find the area of parallelogram ABCD.

27. Prove that the angle subtended by an arc of a circle at the centre is
double the angle subtended by it at any point on the remaining part of the
circle.
28. A group of 21 school students shared the ice-cream brick in lunch break
to celebrate the Independence Day. If each one takes a hemispherical scoop
of ice-cream of 3 cm radius, find the volume of ice-cream eaten by them.
(a) If the dimensions of the ice-cream brick are 10cm × 10cm × 12cm, how
much volume of cream is left?

(b) Which value is depicted by the students?

(Use π = 22/7)

29. A cone, hemisphere and a cylinder stand on the same base and have
equal height. Find the ratio of their:
(a) Volumes,

(b) Curved surface areas.

30. Without drawing a histogram, construct a frequency polygon for the

given frequency distribiution:
 Some sample questions from the set of Important Very Short Answer
Type Questions for CBSE Class 9 Science Exam, are given below:
Q. Mention two uses of isotopes in the field of medicine.
Ans.
(i) An isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of cancer.

(ii) An isotope of iodine is used in the treatment of goitre.

Q. Who discovered vaccine for the first time?

Ans.
Edward Jenner discovered vaccine for the first time.

Q. Why do fish go in deep waters during day light?

Ans.
During day time, the shallow water is warmer and hence contains less
dissolved oxygen. Therefore fish tend to go in deep water during day time.

Get here the complete set of CBSE Class 9 Science: Important Very Short Answer Type
Questions
Important Short Answer Type Questions:
Here you will get important questions to be prepared for 3 marks answer
type questions asked in CBSE class 9 Science paper.

 Question numbers 15 to 24 in Section- B of CBSE Class 9 Science paper will

be asked for three marks. These are to be answered in about 50-60 words
each.
Some sample questions from the set of Important Short Answer
Type Questions for CBSE Class 9 Science Exam, are given below:
Q. (a) Name two properties of a substance to check its purity?
(b) Alloys cannot be separated by physical means, though it is considered
mixture, Why?

Ans.
(a) A pure substance has a fixed melting point or boiling point at constant
pressure. The purity of a substance can be tested by checking its melting
point or boiling point. If a substance is impure i.e. it contains traces of
another substance, the melting and boiling point of that substance will
change.

(b) Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of metals and cannot be separated

into their components by physical methods. But still, an alloy is considered
 as a mixture because it shows the properties of its constituents and can
have variable composition.

Q. Is it possible that an object is in the state of accelerated motion due to

external force acting on it, but no work is being done by the force? Explain it
with an example.
Ans.
Yes, it is possible, if an object is moving in a circular path because in that
case the centripetal force always acts perpendicular to the direction of
displacement.

For example: Consider the motion of earth around sun. The earth is
constantly moving in a direction perpendicular to the gravitation pull of sun,
hence work done by the gravitational force is zero.

Get here the complete set of CBSE Class 9 Science: Important Short Answer Type
Questions
Important Long Answer Type Questions:
Get here a collection of long answer type questions to be prepared for the 5
marks answer type questions:

 Question numbers 25 to 30 in Section-C of Class 9 Science paper will be

asked for 5 marks each. These are to be answered in about 80-90 words
each.
Some sample questions from the set of Important Long Answer Type
Questions for CBSE Class 9 Science Exam, are given below:
Q. (a) List any four properties of a colloid and mention any two properties in
which colloids differ from suspension.
(b) State what is Tyndall effect ? Which of the following solutions will show
Tyndall effect ? Starch solution, sodium chloride solution, Tincture iodine, air

Ans.
(a) Properties of a colloid (any four)
(i) A colloid is a heterogeneous mixture.
(ii) The size of particles of a colloid is too small to be individually seen by
naked eyes.
(iii) Colloids are big enough to scatter a beam of light passing through it and
make its path visible.
(iv) They do not settle down when left undisturbed, that is, a colloid is quite
stable.
(v) They cannot be separated from the mixture by the process of filtration.
But, a special technique of separation known as centrifugation can be used
to separate the colloidal particles.
Two properties in which colloids differ from suspension are (ii) and (iii) as
the particles of a suspension are large enough to be observed with a naked
eye and these particles settle down well when the mixture is left
undisturbed.

(b) Tyndall effect is the phenomenon of scattering of a beam of light by the

particles of a colloid.

Starch solution and tincture iodine are colloid and thus will show Tyndall
effect.

CBSE Class 9 Syllabus 2019-2020: All Subjects

Q. (a) What is immunisation ?
(b) Define immunity and vaccination.

(c) Define vaccine.

(d) What type of diseases can be prevented through vaccination?

Ans.
(a) Immunisation: It is a process of inoculation (injecting) of substance
(vaccine) into a healthy person in order to develop immunity against the
disease.

(b) Immunity: Immunity is the ability of a body to recognise, destroy and

eliminate external disease-causing agents.

Vaccination: Vaccination is the administration of antigenic material

(a vaccine) to stimulate an individual's immune system to develop immunity
to a pathogen.

(c) Vaccine: A vaccine is a solution containing the disease-causing organisms

in a diluted or weakened form. It may have organisms in living or even dead
form.This does not actually cause the disease but this would prevent any
subsequent exposure to the infecting microbe from turning into actual
disease.

(d) Protection against diseases like smallpox, rabies, polio, diphtheria,

chickenpox and hepatitis is provided through vaccination. It has been
possible to eradicate smallpox from all regions of the world through a
massive vaccination programme.
Question 1. (a) Which method will you use to separate : (i) components of
air (ii) acetone and water? Explain each.
(b) What is the difference in the apparatus used for distillation and fractional
distillation?

Answer.
(a) (i) Separation of constituents of air by fractional distillation:

Air consists mainly of nitrogen and oxygen. Carbon dioxide and other gases
are also present in trace amounts. To separate these different gases first we
need to liquify the air. When the air is compressed and cooled down, at 0°C,
water present in air freezes to ice. On further cooling, carbon dioxide
separated as dry ice at about -78°C. on further cooling under pressure, air
gets liquefied at -200°C. After this, through fractional distillation each gas
can be separated on the basis of their boiling points. The gas having lower
boiling point will be obtained first and the gas having highest boiling points
will be obtained at last.

Nitrogen has a boiling point of -196°C while oxygen has -183°C. The
nitrogen gas will start to escape through the outlet and it is collected. The
liquid oxygen will be collected in the fractionating column.

(ii) Separation of acetone and water:

It can be done by simple distillation method. In this method, the

components of mixture are separated on the basis of difference in boiling
points of constituent liquids. First, the lower boiling point liquid will start
boiling and its vapours can be collected and condensed to obtain the liquid.
In this case acetone will come out first and left over will be water only.

(b) Fractional distillation uses a complex apparatus with a fractionating

column which is long tube packed with metal wire, metal ribbon or glass
beads that give extra condensing surfaces, allowing the liquid to vaporize
and condense at every minute change reduce in temperature.

Simple Distillation includes a simple apparatus with a flask to contain the

mixture, a condenser and a flask to collect purified components.

Question 2. (a) List any four properties of a colloid and mention any two
properties in which colloids differ from suspension.
(b) State what is Tyndall effect ? Which of the following solutions will show
Tyndall effect ? Starch solution, sodium chloride solution, Tincture iodine, air
Answer.
(a) Properties of a colloid (any four)

(i) A colloid is a heterogeneous mixture.

(ii) The size of particles of a colloid is too small to be individually seen by

naked eyes.

(iii) Colloids are big enough to scatter a beam of light passing through it and
make its path visible.

(iv) They do not settle down when left undisturbed, that is, a colloid is quite
stable.

(v) They cannot be separated from the mixture by the process of filtration.
But, a special technique of separation known as centrifugation can be used
to separate the colloidal particles.

Two properties in which colloids differ from suspension are (ii) and (iii) as
the particles of a suspension are large enough to be observed with a naked
eye and these particles settle down well when the mixture is left
undisturbed.

(b) Tyndall effect is the phenomenon of scattering of a beam of light by the

particles of a colloid.

Starch solution and tincture iodine are colloid and thus will show Tyndall
effect.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science: All Chapters

Question 3. Give reasons for the following:
(a) It is difficult to balance our body, when we accidentally step on a peel of
a banana.

(b) Pieces of bursting cracker fall in all possible directions.

(c) A glass pane of a window is shattered, when a flying pebble hits it.

(d) It is easier to stop a tennis ball than a cricket ball moving at the same
speed.

(e) Javelin thrower is marked foul, if an athlete crosses over the line marked
for the throw. Athletes often fail to stop themselves before the line.
Answer.
(a) The reason is that one cannot exert action force effectively on the
slippery peel of banana in the backward direction. Hence, in response, the
ground does not exert sufficient reaction force in forward direction and
hence we lose our balance.

(b) This can be explained by the law of conservation of momentum. When

due to explosion some pieces move in the same particular direction, then in
order to conserve momentum, the remaining pieces move in the opposite
direction.

(c) The reason is that, the glass pane of the window is a hard solid. The
flying pebble suffers change in momentum in a very short time, so the force
exerted by the glass window on the pebble will be large. Consequently the
glass pane of the window will shatter.

(d) The reason is that mass of the cricket ball is more than that of a tennis
ball. Thus, momentum is more in case of the cricket ball due to larger mass
as compared to the tennis ball. So, less force has to be applied in the case of
the tennis ball to stop.

(e) The reason is that when athletes are running for the throw then due to
inertia of motion they often fail to stop themselves before the line.

Question 4. (a) What is transformation of energy? Explain with any two

suitable examples.
(b) What must be the velocity of a moving body of mass 2kg so that its KE is
25J?

(c) Represent graphically a constant force acting on a body producing a

displacement along the direction of motion on a force-displacement graph.
What is the significance of force-displacement graph?

Answer.
(a) The conversion of energy from one form to another is called
transformation of energy.

For example:

(i) When we throw a ball, muscular energy which is stored in our body, gets
converted into kinetic energy of ball.
(ii) The wound spring in the toy car possesses potential energy. As the
spring is released, its potential energy changes into kinetic energy due to
which, toy car moves.

(b) Given, mass of the body, m = 2 kg

Kinetic energy, KE = 25 J

We know, KE = ½ mv2

⟹ ½ (2)(v)2 = 25
⟹ v = 5 m/s

(c) Graphical representation of force( f) applied along the direction of

displacement (s), is shown below:

From the graph,

Area of rectangle = f.S = Work done

Significance of force-displacement graph is that, area under F–S curve gives

the work done.

Question 5. (a) What is immunisation ?

(b) Define immunity and vaccination.

(c) Define vaccine.

(d) What type of diseases can be prevented through vaccination?

Answer.
(a) Immunisation: It is a process of inoculation (injecting) of substance
(vaccine) into a healthy person in order to develop immunity against the
disease.

(b) Immunity: Immunity is the ability of a body to recognise, destroy and

eliminate external disease-causing agents.

Vaccination: Vaccination is the administration of antigenic material

(a vaccine) to stimulate an individual's immune system to develop immunity
to a pathogen.

(c) Vaccine: A vaccine is a solution containing the disease-causing organisms

in a diluted or weakened form. It may have organisms in living or even dead
form.This does not actually cause the disease but this would prevent any
subsequent exposure to the infecting microbe from turning into actual
disease.

(d) Protection against diseases like smallpox, rabies, polio, diphtheria,

chickenpox and hepatitis is provided through vaccination. It has been
possible to eradicate smallpox from all regions of the world through a
massive vaccination programme.

Question 6. (a) Define

(i) Vector

(ii) Carrier

(b) What are the modes of transmission of AIDS?

Answer.
(a) (i) Vector: It is an organism that does not cause disease itself but
spreads infection by conveying pathogens from one infected person to the
other acting as host. For example; mosquito with malarial parasite.

(ii) A carrier is an organism who has no symptoms of a disease but harbors

the pathogen in its body and passes it on to someone else. For Example:
human with HIV virus but not AIDS; or human with pathogen Salmonella
typhi but not Typhoid.

(b) Modes of transmission of virus of AIDS disease are given below.

(i) By sexual intercourse.

(ii) By use of infected syringes.

(iii) Through blood

(iv) From mother to child through birth or by breast feeding

CBSE Class 9 Science: Chapterwise important topics and questions

Question 7. (a) (i) Why denitrification of nitrogenous compounds is
necessary?
(ii) What is the special structure found in legumes and what is its function

(b) What is biomass?

(c) What is humification? why it is important?

Answer.
(a) (i) Denitrification of nitrogenous compounds is necessary so thatnitrogen
cycle does not stop and free nitrogen remainsavailable to living organisms.

(ii) Root nodules are found in the roots of legumes that containnitrogen
fixing bacteria which help in fixing nitrogen from thesurroundings

(b) The amount of living matter in each trophic level is called biomass.

(c) Addition of incomplete decomposed organic matter, the humus into the
soil is known as Humification.

It increases the fertility of soil as it enriches soil with organic matter.

Question 8. (a) Oxygen has three isotopes of atomic masses 16, 17 and 18
respectively. Explain the following:
(i) They have same chemical properties.

(ii) They are all electrically neutral.

(b) Name the isotopes ot hydrogen.

(c) Give one point of similarity and one point of difference between
isotopes 146C and 126C?
Answer.
(a) (i) Mass numbersof isotopes of oxygen are different, i.e.,16, 17 and 18
but they have same atomic number 8.Thus, the number of electrons is
same.Therefore, they have same the electronic configuration 2, 6 and same
number of valence electrons.So,their chemical properties are same.
(ii) They are electrically neutral because number of negatively charged
electrons is same to the number of positively charged protons.

(b) There are three isotopes of hydrogen-(i) Protium

(A=1) (ii) Deuterium (A=2) (iii) Tritium( A=3)

(c) One point of similarity between isotopes 146C and 126C:

They have the same number of protons.
One point of difference between isotopes 146C and 126C: They have
different number of neutrons.

Question 9. (a) Write the rules followed for filling the electrons in various
energy shells of any atom, as proposed by Bohr and Bury.
(b) Write the electronic configuration of an atom of sulphur. Also draw a
schematic diagram of its atom showing the distribution of electrons in its
shells.

(c) State the law of constant Proportion ith the help of an example.

Answer.
(a) The rules followed for filling the various electrons in various energy shells
of any atom, as proposed by Bohr and Bury are :

(i) The maximum number of electrons present in a shell is given by the

formula 2n2, where ‘ri is the orbit number or energy level index.
(ii) The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the
outermost orbit is 8.

(iii) Electrons are not accommodated in a given shell, unless the inner shells
are filled. That is, the shells are filled in a stepwise manner.

(b) Atomic number of sulphur(S) is = 16

Therefore, electronic configuration of sulphur = 2,8,6

Following diagram shows the distribution of electrons in various shells of

sulphur:
(c) According to the law of constant proportion , a chemical substance
always contains the same elements in a fixed proportion by mass,
irrespective of its source.

For example: Pure water obtained from any source will always contain two
hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom. Hydrogen and oxygen respectively
combine together in the ratio of 1:8 by mass to form water. The ratio by the
number of atoms for water will always be H : O = 2 : 1. Thus, 18 g of water
contains 2 g of hydrogen and 16 g of oxygen.

Question 10. (a) Why are angiosperms so called ? In which structures do

the seeds develop ? How are angiosperms different from gymnosperms ?
(b) Give an appropriate term for each of the following:

(i) Complex sugar that makes the fungal cell wall.

(ii) Plants which bear naked seeds.

(iii) Basic unit of classification.

(iv) Group of unicellular eukaryotic organism.

Answer.
(a) Angiosperms are so called because these plants have covered seeds.
Seeds develop within ovary which later modify into fruit.
Angiosperms can be differentiated from gymnosperms as follows:

S. Angiosperms Gymnosperms
No.
1. They are flowering plants. They are non-flowering plants.
2. The plants of this group contains The plants of this group bear naked
seeds which seeds.
develop inside an organ which is
further modified to become a fruit .
3. The plants of this group may be The plants of this group ane usually
annual, evergreen and woody. perennial, woody or non-woody.
(b)

(i) Complex sugar that makes the fungal cell wall - Chitin

(ii) Plants which bear naked seeds - Gymnosperms

(iii) Basic unit of classification - Cell structure

(iv) Group of unicellular eukaryotic organism - Protista.

CBSE Class 9 Science Practice Papers for Annual Exam 2020

Question 11. (a) Write any four characteristics exhibited by a pure
substance?
(b) What happen to sugar when it is dissolved in water? Where does the
sugar go? What information do you get about the nature of matter from the
this solution of sugar in water.

Answer.
(a) Four characteristics exhibited by a pure substance are:

(i) A pure substance contains only one kind of atoms or molecules.

(ii) It is perfectly homogenous

(iii) It has definite composition which does not vary with time.

(iv) It has definite melting point, boiling point, density etc.

(b) When sugar is dissolved in water, the particles of sugar gets settled in
between the spaces of the particles of water and fills that space. From this
process we conclude that the particles of water have space between them
and that is why the sugar particles gets into those spaces resulting in no
change in the water level.

Question 12. Give reasons for the following statements:

(a) Meristematic cells have a prominent nucleus and dense cytoplasm but
they lack vacuole.

(b) Intercellular spaces are absent in sclerenchymatous tissues.

(c) We get a crunchy and granular feeling, when we chew pear fruit.
(d) Branches of a tree move and bend freely in high wind velocity.
(e) It Is difficult to pull out the husk of a coconut tree.

Answer.
(a) Vacuoles have a function of storing food and other nutrients that a cell
might need to survive. But, as Meristematic cells have an ability to
divide and form new cell so there is no point in storing food and other
nutrients when the cell has to divide. So they lack vacuole.

(b) There are no intercellular spaces in the sclerenchyma cells as these cells
are lignified to provide strength to the plants.

(c) This is due to the presence of cells known as sclereids or stone cells. The
sclereids give a crunchy feeling to the pear fruit because it provides support
and hardens the tissue.

(d) Branches of a tree move and bend freely because of the presence of a
simple permanent tissue called collenchyma

(e) The husk of a coconut tree is made up of scelerenchyma tissues which

gives rigidity and stiffness to the plant cells due to which we find it tough to
pull the husk out.

Question 13. (a) We can’t hear the sound produced by a vibrating

pendulum but the sound produced by the humming bees can be heard
clearly. Why?
(b) What makes the voices of different people distinguishable?

(c) Name the three tiny bones present in the middle of the ear. What
function do they perform in working of ear?

Answer.
(a) The frequency of sound produced by humming bear is greater than 20
Hz, while the frequency of vibrations produced by pendulum is less than 20
Hz.
Since the audible range for human beings is 20 Hz to 20000 Hz, so the
sound produced by the humming bees can be heard, while the sound
produced by the vibrating pendulum cannot be heard.
(b) It is the pitch of the sound that makes the voices of different people
distinguishable.

(c) Three tiny bones present in the middle of the ear are: Hammer, Anvil
and Stirrup
Function:

(i) Hammer: This is the largest bone in the middle ear. It's attached to the
inner side of the eardrum. When the eardrum vibrates due to the incoming
sound waves, it causes hammer to vibrate which inturn passes these
vibrations to the next bone, Anvil.

(ii) Anvil: Anvil which is located in between Anvil and Stirrup, passes the
sound vibrations from Anvil to Stirrup.

(iii) Stirrup: The vibrating stirrup strikes on the membrane of the oval
window and passes its vibrations to the liquid in cochlea which then
produces electric impulses to be interpreted by the brain.

Question 14. (a) State the Law of Conservation of Momentum. Deduce it

from Newton’s second law of motion.
(b) Give reason for the following:

(i) An air filled balloon rise up slightly when punctured from below?

(ii) A swimmer push water backward with his hands, in order to swim in
forward direction?

Answer.
(a) The law of conservation of momentum states that for two objects
colliding in an isolated system (external forces are absent), the total
momentum before and after the collision is equal. This is because the
momentum lost by one object is equal to the momentum gained by the
other.

Derivation of Law of Conservation of Momentum from Newton’s second law

of motion:

Let p1 and p2 represent the sum of momenta of a group of objects before

and after the collision, respectively.
Let t be the time elapsed during the collision.
Hence, in the absence of an external force, the total momentum of a group
of objects remains unchanged or conserved during collision. This is the Law
of Conservation of Momentum.

(b) (i) When the air at the point of puncture moves out with a certain
momentum in the downward direction, in order to conserve momentum the
balloon moves with the same momentum in opposite direction. Thus, balloon
rise up slightly, before falling down.

(ii) When the fuel burns in the ignition chamber of a rocket, the hot gases
pass out from its exhaust with a certain momentum in backward direction.
Thus, in order to conserve momentum the rocket moves with the same
momentum in forward direction.

CBSE Class 9 Science Syllabus 2019-2020

Question 15. (a) What are the conditions required by an object to float on
water?
(b) Give reason for the following:

(i) A ship made of iron floats while a piece or nail sinks.

(ii) Solid fom of water (ice) floats on water.

Answer.
(a) For an object to float on water, mass of the object must be equal to the
mass of liquid displaced by it. Or the overall density of the object must be
less than or equal to the density of liquid in which it has to float.

(b) (i) A ship though made of iron has a lot of empty space. Due to which
the overall density of the given volume of the boat remains lower than the
density of the same volume of water. Now, since an object with density
lower than that of water floats on water therefore a boat also floats on
water.
on the other hand, there are no such air spaces in a nail. It is a complete
soild. Therefore, its average density is greater than that of water, hence it
sinks down when immersed in water.
Question 16. (a) Defne work. Give SI unit of work. Write an expression for
positive work done.
(b) Calculate the work done in pushing a box through a distance of 50 m
against the force of friction equal to 250 N. Also state the type of work done.

(c) What will be the work done, if displacement of the object is perpendicular
to the direction of force?

(d) When an object moves on a circular path, what will be the work done?

Answer.
(a) Work is the energy required to move an object against a force. The SI
unit for work is joule. Positive work is equal to the force times the distance
the object moves, i.e.,

Work = Force × Displacement

(b) Here, Distance moved by box = 50 m

Force acting on box = 250 N

Thus work done on box = force × displacement

= 250×50= 12500 J

Since the box moves against the force of friction, thus work done on box is
negative.

(c) When the force and displacement are perpendicular to each other, then
work done is equal to zero. As work done = Force x cos θ x Displacement

Where θ is the angle between force and displacement

Since here displacement of the object is perpendicular to the direction of

force.

∴ θ = 90
⟹ cos θ = cos 90 = 0
⟹ Work = f x 0 x s = 0

(d) The work done on a body moving in a circular path is zero. This is
because, when a body moves in a circular path, then the centripetal force
acts along the radius of the circle, and it is at right angles to the motion of
the body.

Question 17. (a) What happens to sugar when it is dissolved in water?

What information do you get about the nature of matter from the dissolution
of sugar in water?
(b) Why does diffusion occur more quickly in a gas than a liquid?

(c) What is Brownian motion? Write the characteristics of matter is

demonstrated by Brownian motion?

Answer.
(a) When we dissolve sugar into water, the particles of sugar occupy the
spaces between the molecules of water and eventually all the sugar
disappears.

We can conclude from this behavior of sugar in water that, a sugar crystal is
comprised of millions of tiny particles which keep on dividing themselves into
smaller particles. We can also draw a conclusion here that liquids are made
of particles which can move freely and have space between them.

(b) The speed of particles in gas is higher as compared to that of liquids.

Also the space between the particles in gases is also large as compared with
that of liquids, as a consequence the particles in gases have higher kinetic
energy and larger area to occupy and hence the diffusion in gases is faster
as compared to that of liquids.

(c) The random motion of particles in liquid or gases is known as Brownian

motion. Brownian motion demonstrates that particles of any have
kinetic energy which is higher in gases as compared to liquids and due to
larger space between the particle of gases, there is higher rate of random
motion occurring in gases as compared to liquids. Due to this random
motion, the particles keep colliding amongst each other. This Brownian
motion aids in mixing of two substances as well.

Question 18. (a) Explain the following statements giving appropriate

reasons:
(i) Fertile soil has a lot of humus.

(ii) Lichens help in the formation of soil.

(iii) During summer, walking around a lake or a river, will give you relief
from heat.
(b) How will you prove the dust to be a major pollutant?

Answer.
(a) (i) Humus is the organic matter contained in soil, formed by the
decomposition of leaves and other plant material by soil microorganisms. It
provides nutrients to the plants and increases the ability of soil to retain
water. Now, fertile soil contains lots of microorganisms, which decompose
the dead animal and plant material and thus add humus to the fertile soil.

(ii) Lichens are a symbiosis of fungi and green algae living and growing on
rocks where they help in the breakdown of the rocks’ surface by releasing
some chemicals. These chemicals produce pores and crevices and thus help
in weathering of rocks and formation of soil.

(iii) During summer days, the land near the lake or river gets heated up
quickly but the water in lake or river remains cool. The wind above the land
heats up, and hot air, being lighter, rises up, and the cool air above the
lake/river flows to take its place causing a cool breeze to blow from lake/
river to land hence reduces the heat in the adjoining land area.

(b) Dust is a common air pollutant generated by many different sources and
activities like natural erosion of soil, Pollen, microscopic organisms, concrete
crushing, cement batching and road stone plants. Smaller dust particles are
light enough to be carried by air which when inhaled penetrate deeply into
the lungs and even the ultra fine particles can be absorbed directly into the
blood stream causing the respiratory problems like coughing, sneezing,
asthma attacks, etc.

Question19. (a) What do the following symbols/formulae stand for:

(i) 2O (ii) O2 (iii) O3 (iv) H2O
(b) Give the chemical formulae of the following compounds:

(i) Calcium carbonate

(ii) Calcium chloride.
(c) Calculate the formula unit mass of Al2(SO4)3.
(Given atomic mass of Al = 27 u, S = 32 u, O = 16 u)

Answer:
(a) (i) 2O = 2 atoms of the element Oxygen

(ii) O2 = One molecule of oxygen. This is gaseous form.

(iii) O3 One molecule of ozone.
(iv) H2O= One molecule of water.
(b) (i) CaCO3
(ii) CaCl2
(c) Unit mass of Al2(SO4)3 = 2 × Al + 3 (S + 4 × O)
= 2 × 27 + 3 (32 + 4 × 16)

= 54 + 3 × 96

= 54 + 288

Question 20. (a) What were the observations concluded by Rutherford in

his alpha particle scattering experiment?
(b) This experiment led to the discovery of which sub atomic particle.

(c) What were the important points of information given by Rutherford about
this sub atomic particle?

Answer.
(a) Rutherford concluded from the α-particle scattering experiment that:

(i) Most of the space inside the atom is empty because most of the α-
particles passed through the gold foil without getting deflected.

(ii) Very few particles were deflected from their path, indicating that the
positive charge of the atom occupies very little space.

(iii) A very small fraction of α-particles were deflected by 180o, indicating

that the entire positive charge and mass of the gold atom were concentrated
in a very small volume within the atom.
(b) Rutherford, using the conclusions of his α-particle scattering experiment
discovered a sub atomic particle called ‘nucleus.’

(c) The important points of information given by Rutherford about nucleus

are:

(i) Nucleus is a positively charged centre in an atom and almost all the mass
of an atom resides in the nucleus.

(ii) Nucleus of an atom is very dense and hard.

(iii) The size of the nucleus is very small as compared to the size of the atom
as a whole.

21. (a) Define the terms and give one example of each:
(i) Bilateral symmetry
 (ii) Coelom

(iii) Diploblastic

(b) Identify the group of animals with

(i) Spiny body and radial body symmetry

(ii) Four pairs of jointed legs and no wings

Answer.
(a) (i) Bilateral symmetry: The type of body symmetry in which the two
sides of the body are irror images of one another is called bilateral
symmetry. Example: Earthworm

(ii) Coelom: Body cavity lined with an epithelium derived from the
mesoderm is called coelom. Example: Spider

(iii) Diploblastic: Animals which have two germ layers: outer ectoderm and
inner endoderm, in the embryo are said to be diploblastic.Example: Hydra

(b) (i) Echinodermata

(ii) Arachnida

22. (a) How does cork act as a protective tissue?

(b) Observe the figure carefully and label the parts marked A and B.

Answer.
(a)

 Cork cells are dead.

 They are arranged very closely so that there is no inter-cellular space.
 There is deposition of suberin on the walls which make them impervious to
water and gases. As a result, the cork cells prevent desiccation, infection
and mechanical injury to the plant body.
(b) A– Apical meristem

B– Intercalary meristem

CBSE Class 9 Science Solved Practice Paper 2019-2020

23. (a) What are the characteristics of the particles of matter?
(b) What happens when sugar is dissolved in water? Where does the sugar
go? What information do you get about the nature of matter from the
dissolution of sugar in water?

Answer.
(a) The characteristics of particles of matter are:

 They have intermolecular space between them.

 They are continuously moving.
 They attract each other.
(b) When sugar is dissolved in water, its crystals break down into tiny
particles. The sugar particles go into the spaces between the particles of
water and mix with them to form sugar solution. Sugar particles occupy the
space between water particles. From the dissolution of sugar in water, we
can infer

(i) Matter (consisting of sugar and water) is made of small particles.

(ii) Particles of matter have paces between them.

24. A man weighs 300 N on the surface of the Earth. If he were taken to the
Moon, his weight would be 50 N. Calculate the mass of this man on the
Moon (g = 10 m/s2).
(b) A man hears an echo of thunder 2 seconds after lightning strikes.
Calculate the distance of lightning from the man (Speed of sound in air =
330 m/s).

Answer.
(a) Given, weight of man on the Earth (WEarth) = 300 N
Acceleration due to gravity (gEarth) = 10 m/s2
Now, WEarth = massEarth × gEarth
But mass of the object is constant. It will be the same on moon.

Therefore, weight of man on moon = 30kg

(b) We know that

So, the distance between the man and the point of lightning is 660 m

25. Answer the following:

(a) Why solid carbon dioxide is called dry ice? Give its uses.

(b) Why is dry ice more effective for cooling purposes than ordinary ice?

(c) Why is dry ice stored under high pressure?

Answer.
(a) Solid carbon dioxide directly changes to carbon dioxide and does not
melt to produce a liquid (like ordinary ice. Therefore, it is called dry ice.

Dry ice is used to deep freeze food and to keep ice cream cold.

(b) Dry ice can produce much lower temperatures as its freezing point is (–
80 degree Celsius) than ordinary ice which freezes at 0 degree Celsius. So, it
is more effective for cooling purposes than ordinary ice.

(c) Dry ice is stored under high pressure because if the pressure is released
it would sublime back to its original form, i.e., carbon dioxide gas.

Keep practicing with the questions provided here to strengthen all important
concepts so that you are able to write accurate answers in exam and obtain
desired marks.
Given below is a collection of important questions based on practical
skills to prepare for CBSE class 9 Science exam:
1. Mention the two precautions to determine the boiling point of water in
laboratory.
Answer.
(i) The position of bulb should be slightly above the water level.

(ii) Stir the water continuously in beaker so that temperature should remain
constant

2. The frequency of a source of sound is 100 Hz. How many times does it
vibrate in a minute?
Answer.
Number of vibrations produced in 1s = 100

Number of vibrations produced in 60 sec = 100 × 60 = 6000

Now, 1 minute = 60 seconds

Thus, number of vibrations produced in one minute = 6000

CBSE Class 9 Science Notes: All Chapters

3. In which of the two, glycerine or kerosene, the loss in weight of a solid
when fully immersed in them will be more and why ?
Answer.
Density of glycerine is more than that of kerosene.

A liquid having higher density exerts more upthrust force on object than
other liquid having low density. Thus, greater the density of a liquid, the
more will be the the buoyant force exerted on the object immersed in
it. Now, due to this greater upthrust (buyont force), the object experiences
greater apparent weight loss.
Thus in case of glycerine, the loss in weight of a solid when fully immersed
in it will be more than when immersed in kerosene.

4. A sound wave travels at a speed of 340m/s. If its wavelength is 2 cm,

what is the frequency of the wave? Will it be in the audible range?
Answer.
It is given that,

Velocity of sound, v = 340 m/s

 Wavelength, λ = 1.4 m

Frequency, ν =?

We know that, speed = wavelength × frequency

⟹ 340 = 1.4 x ν
⟹ ν = 340/1.4 = 242.86 Hz
As the audible range is between 20 Hz – 20,000 Hz
Here, 242.86 Hz < 20,000 Hz
Therefore it is in the audible range.
5. When dipped in a fluid, name the factor on which the loss in weight of a
solid depends. Name the two forces which act upon the solid dipped in the
fluid.
Answer.
Loss in weight of a solid dipped in a fluid depends upon the density of that
fluid.
The two forces which act upon the solid dipped in the fluid are:
 True weight of the body acting vertically downwards.
 Buoyant force or upward thrust acting vertically upwards.
6. In an experiment to determine the boiling point of water, state reason for
the following:
(i) Pumice stone pieces are added to water in the beaker.

(ii) A glass stirrer is used.

Answer.
(i) Pumice stone is added to avoid any bumping of water. When the
temperature is raised for boiling the water, it starts to bump. But pumice
stone being porous, provides space for air. This reduces bubbling in hot
water to facilitate the boiling process.

(ii) A glass stirrer is used to ensure uniform heating of water.

7. A mixture of sand, powdered glass and common salt is dissolved in water

and then filtered. Name the substance left on filter paper. Name the
substance in the filtrate.
Answer.
Out of the given three substances only common salt is soluble in water
whereas both sand and powdered glass are insoluble in water. Thus when a
mixture of sand, powdered glass and common salt is dissolved in water and
then filtered sand and powdered glass would be left on filter paper while
common salt will be present in the filtrate.
8. A free falling object eventually stops on reaching the ground. What
happens to its kinetic energy?
Answer.
Its kinetic energy will be zero on reaching the ground. Actually, when an
object falls freely towards the ground, its potential energy decreases and
kinetic energy increases. But as soon as the object touches the ground, all
its potential energy gets converted into kinetic energy and finally when the
ball stops after hitting the ground, all its kinetic energy gets converted into
heat energy and sound energy.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science: All Chapters

9. Name the adaptation of fish which helps it in each of the following:
(i) Swimming in water

(ii) Breathing

Answer.
(i) Fish have fins for swimming in water.
(ii) They have gills for breathing in water.
10. A baby is not able to tell her/his caretakers that she/he is sick. What
would help us to find out that the baby is sick?
Answer.
Behavioural changes like constant crying, irritabilty, improper intake of food,
low period of activeness and mood swings can help to determine that the
baby is sick.

11. List any two precautions you must take while finding the melting point of
ice and boiling point of water.
Answer.
(i) The bulb of the thermometer should be completely inside the crushed
ice.

(ii) The thermometer should not touch the wall of the beaker.

12. When a body hanging with the hook of a spring balance is immersed in a
liquid, state the factor due to which the reading of spring balance decreases.
Define the factor.
Answer.
The factor due to which the reading of spring balance immersed in a liquid
decreases is buoyant force or upthrust.

Buoyant force (upthrust) is the upward force exerted by any fluid upon a
body immersed in it.
 13. A student recorded the mass of dry raisins as 2.0 g and mass of raisins
after soaking as 3.5 g. Calculate the percentage of water absorbed by
raisins. Write one precaution for this experiment.
Answer.
Mass of dry raisins = 2.0 g

Mass of raisins after soaking = 3.5 g

Mass of water absorbed = 3.5 – 2.0 = 1.5 g

Precaution:
Raisins should be well immersed in water instead of lying not on surface.
14. Mention two features adopted by birds which help them to fly.
Answer.
Two features adopted by birds which help them to fly are:

 Streamlined body shape which helps them to cut the air flow.
 Light bones reduce their overall body weight to help in easy flight.
15. Which of the following will show Tyndall effect?
(a) Salt solution

(b) Milk

(c) Copper sulphate solution

(d) Starch solution

Answer.
Milk and starch solution are colloids and hence will show Tyndall effect.

CBSE Class 9 Syllabus for Annual Exam 2020: All Subjects

16. When the wire of a guitar is plucked, what types of wave are produced
in (i) air and (ii) wire? Give reasons in support of your answer.
Answer.
(i) When the wire of a guitar is plucked, a longitudinal wave is produced in
air due to the to and fro motion of string of guitar.
(ii) In the wire of guitar, transverse wave is produced as the particle vibrates
perpendicular to the direction of motion.
17. Explain how both physical and chemical changes take place during the
burning of a candle.
Answer.
Wax of the candle undergoes the combustion process to produce light and
heat along with the liberation of carbon dioxide gas and water vapour. This
is a chemical change. As a result, the candle melts and its shape is
deformed. This is a physical change. So, during the burning of a candle, both
physical and chemical changes take place.

18. The given figure represents a tissue found in the human body.

(a) Identify the tissue and state its function.

(b) Mention any two locations where this tissue is found in the body.

Answer.
(a) The figure shows simple columnar epithelial tissue. Its main functions
include absorption and secretion.

(b)
Simple columnar epithelial tissue forms the lining of the stomach, sm
all intestine, colon, gall bladder and oviducts.

19. There are two nails; one sharp and other blunt with the point surface
areas being 0.1 m2 and 1.5 m2, respectively. These nails are to be
hammered into a wooden plank. Which nail will be hammered more easily if
the force applied on hammer is 200 N for both nails? Also calculate the
pressure required to hammer each nail.
Answer.
Let nail A be sharper than another nail B. Thus, the surface area covered by
the nail A is lesser than that of nail B. Therefore, more pressure will be
produced on nail A leading it to move inside the wooden plank more easily
than nail B.

Finding pressure required to hammer each nail

Now, Area of nail A = 0.1 m2
Area of nail B = 1.5 m

Force applied on both nails= 200 N

20. While verifying the laws of reflection of sound, a student measured the
angle between the incident sound wave and reflected sound wave as 100°.
What will be the angle of reflection?
Answer.
Given that the angle between incident sound wave and reflected sound wave
= 100°

⇒ angle of incidence (i) + angle of reflection (r) = 100o …(i)

But, according to the law of reflection of sound, the angle of the incident
sound wave is equal to the angle of the reflected sound wave.

⇒ ∠i = ∠r

Thus, equation (i) becomes:

∠i + ∠i = 100o
⇒ 2∠i = 100o
⇒ ∠i = 50o
Thus, angle of reflection, r = ∠i = 50o