NTPC Gadarwara

Quiz on Location Management Instruction

 LMIs - General, Performance and System

1. Choose the correct (ODs, OGNs, OINs):

a. Operation Document, Operation Guidance Notes, Operation Information Notes
b. Operation Directives, Operation Guidance Notes, Operation Implementation Notes
c. Operation Directives, Operation Guidance Notes, Operation Information Notes
d. None of the above

2. LMIs, by definition are:

a. Site specific, mandatory documents
b. Neither Site specific nor mandatory documents
c. Site specific but not mandatory documents
d. Not Site specific but mandatory documents

3. ODs, OGNs, OINs are issued by:

a. ODs, OGNs, are issued by D(O) and OINs are issued by head of CC-OS
b. ODs are issued by D(O) and OGNs, OINs are issued by head of CC-OS
c. ODs, OGNs, OINs all are issued by head of CC-OS
d. ODs, OGNs, OINs all are issued by D(O)

4. Internal Report received by the station / HOP for investigation ordered by him, which
department will examine / analyzed the report:
a. EEMG
b. TS
c. Regional -OS
d. FES

5. Objective of the LMI on Guidelines for Internal Technical Compliance Audit with in a Station is
a. To monitor the technical operational and maintenance requirements / procedures against
statutory and mandatory standards as applicable in all relevant documents

b. To notify management where the required standards / procedures identified in (a) above
have not been established or maintained.

c. In case of non compliance, to evolve solutions with the head of departments, that would
be adopted to satisfying the requirements of the relevant LMIs

d. all of the above

6. Competent authority to inform O&M I/C, in case of deviation from LMIs, which may affect the
continuous running of the unit
a. SCE

b. Head of Operation

c. Desk Engineer

d. UCE

7. Objectives of the ORT are

a. Review the operational and commercial performance of the station
b. To identify major constraints / deviations and O&M problems and finalise action plans for
the correction
c. To verify compliance of various TC documents
d. All of the above

8. ORT meetings would necessarily be chaired by Head of station

a. True
b. False

9. What is a reportable injury

a. If person is prevented from working for a period of more than 48 hours immediately
following the day of accident
b. If person is prevented from working for a period of less than 48 hours immediately
following the day of accident
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above

10. All near miss & fire incident

a. To be reported to head of safety by head of the department immediately but not later than
24 hours

b. To be reported to head of safety by head of the department

c. Not to be reported

d. All of the above

11. Near miss incidents are to be reported in which form
a. FORM III A
b. FORM IV
c. FORM III
d. None of the above
12. Dangerous Occurrence are
a. Bursting of boiler or vessel
b. Collapse or failure of a crane, derrick with hoist
c. Explosion or fire causing damage to any room or place in which persons are working
d. None of the above
13. Major Incidents are
a. Grid Failure
b. Major fire Accidents
c. Major structural failure
d. All of the above
14. Form IIIB is to be filled for
a. Fire Incident
b. Near miss Incident
c. Reportable Incident
d. All of the above
15. Enquiry Committee for accident causing fatal injury to one person is appointed by
a. HOP
b. Director (O)
c. RED
d. None of the above

16. Plant Modification shall include

a. Repair or replacement of a system /equipment /component where it involves a change to its
reference design or datum, geometry or materials.
b. Any change to the settings or mode of operations, of a component in a control, interlock or
protection system (including computer software)
c. Any addition or deletion of a system, component, or of a complete system or complete
equipment.
d. All of above
17. With respect to Plant Modification, what is true
a. Category A proposals (requiring external assessment) are necessarily to be approved by
Engg
b. For Category B proposals (requiring internal assessment), after modification, post facto
approval to be taken from Engg
c. Both a & b correct
d. Only a correct

18. Category A proposal shall be required in case of all proposals which if inadequately conceived or
executed, could lead to following
a. A major safety / environmental implication
b. A major plant failure
c. Any change in the protection scheme for main equipment i.e. boiler, turbine and generator
d. All of the above

19. What is full form of HAZOP studies

a. Hazard and Occupational studies
b. Hazard and Operability studies
c. Health and Operation studies
d. Health and Operability studies

20. Internal technical audit to be done

a. Once in two year
b. Once in a year
c. Once in three year
d. None of the above

21. Technical audit on any LMI to be done only after

a. 03 months after its issue
b. 06 months after its issue
c. 12 months after its issue
d. None of the above
22. Reason for Poor condenser vacuum can be
a. Air blanketing in condenser
b. Rise in CW inlet temp
c. Low CW flow
d. All of the above

23. For performance testing

a. Unit should be on full load in normal stable condition
b. Unit can be on any load in normal stable condition
c. Both of the above

24. Residual chlorine in CT basin should be maintained between

a. 0.5 - 0.8 ppm
b. 1-1.5 ppm
c. 0.0 - 0.5 ppm
d. None of the above

25. As per LMI, Frequency of performance study of CW system is to be done once in

a. 06 MONTH
b. 02 YEAR
c. 01 YEAR
d. 03 YEAR

26. CT Civil structure should be checked thoroughly once in

a. 06 MONTH
b. 02 YEAR
c. 01 YEAR
d. 03 YEAR

27. What is the interval of capacity testing of conveyor system-in presence of COS?
a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 12 months

28. During capacity test, the conveyor is to be tested at capacity(tones/hr) at:

a. 90 % of capacity
b. 100 % of capacity
c. 110 % of capacity
d. 120 % of capacity
29. For acceptance of crusher’s test, the output coal size (-) 20mm size should be more than :
a. 75%
b. 80%
c. 92%
d. 98%

30. What is the GCV band range of coal identified for pricing of coal as per GOI ?
a. G1 to G17
b. G2 to G20
c. G7 to G19
d. G3 to G13

31. What are the electrical systems & protections to be checked before running the conveyor belt ?
a. Pull cord switches
b. Zero speed switch
c. Belt sway switch
d. All of the above

32. Critical safety points to be checked before start of conveyor belt?

a. All inspection doors should be in closed condition
b. Alarm siren should be in working condition
c. No foreign material should be lying on the conveyor
d. All of the above

33. Which is not the critical check of the wagon tippler?

a. No lkg. & G/B oil level should be normal
b. NASH value of hydraulic oil to be maintained around less than 7
c. Availability of MD & MS
d. On line filtering unit should be in working condition

34. Major critical points of human safety to be ensured in CHP?

a. Welding connection to be taken through socket only
b. Oral permit should not be issued
c. Keep away from rotating equipment like coupling,fans etc.
d. All of the above
35. Periodic testing of MD/ILMS/MS is to be carried out in
a. Every shift
b. Every morning
c. Every month
d. Every week

36. What color is the label on a dry powder fire extinguisher?

a. Blue
b. Black
c. Cream
d. Red

37. You have committed an offence if you have:

a. Failed to put the right fire protection measures in place
b. Supplied all the necessary fire protection equipment after a thorough fire risk assessment,
but you haven’t recorded what you’ve done
c. Supplied all the necessary fire protection equipment after a thorough fire risk assessment,
and recorded what you’ve done
d. a and b above

38. What should everyone be trained to do as soon as a fire alarm sounds?

a. Turn off all electrical equipment and leave the building
b. Leave the building immediately and go to the designated Plant / Site assembly point
c. Gather personal possessions such as bags and coats and wait in their cars until the building
is safe
d. Ringing all available staff mobile phone numbers to ask individuals where they are

39. Ash water ratio can be optimized

a. Optimizing make up to BAH slurry tank
b. Arresting passing of BAH slurry lines
c. Optimizing BAH deashing time
d. All of the above

40. Following is/are method/methods by which water can be optimized in AHP

a. Minimizing water make up to TAC circulating water system
b. Timely maintenance of cooling towers
c. Ash water ratio optimization in GEHO pump
d. All of the above
41. If LRSB is to be manually retracted due to control or power failure then it’s motor power supply
should be in ‘ON’ condition. (true/false)

42. What is the total time taken by a LRSB?

a. 14 min
b. 13 min 30 sec
c. 15 min
d. 10 min

43. In a running machine, difference between primary water temp and cold gas temp should always
be less than 5 degree. (yes/no).

44. In case, online dew point monitoring system is not available. What should be the frequency of
dew point measurement during rainy and winter season?
a. Bi weekly
b. Tri weekly
c. Once in a week
d. None of the above

45. Practical training on switching should focuses on operational requirement, apparatus function,
operational procedures and consequences of -----------------------.(Correct operation/ Incorrect
operation) .

46. To identify correct apparatus for switching, written instruction must be taken to the apparatus
to be switched on, to be consulted and checked before switching.(True/False).

47. Test steam blow is given at

a. 25 ksc
b. 60 ksc
c. Between 25 & 60 ksc
d. None of the above

48. Criteria is followed for declaring completion of steam blowing:

a. Number of impacts greater than 1mm = 0
b. Number of impacts greater than 0.5mm < 4
c. Number of impacts greater than 0.2mm < 10
d. All of the above
49. What are the routine activities to avoid disaster during thunderstorm?

a. Checking of LA, lighting mast, lighting towers, earth wires

b. Removal of loose sheets, tree branches
c. Clear Station drainage system, Availability of Dewatering pumps/ Emergency Lighting
d. All of the above

50. What should be done during thunderstorm/ lightning for safety of personnel?
a. Avoid contact with corded phone, plugged in devices, metals
b. Avoid use of cordless phone, wireless phone not connected to wall outlet
c. Stay away from doors/ windows
d. All of the above

51. What should be plant readiness before thunderstorm/ lightning?

a. Readiness of all DG Sets, battery operated equipments
b. Availability of Rain coats, gumboots, torches
c. Availability of condenser diaphragms
d. All of the above

52. What is the frequency to conduct water audit at station? Once in

a. 6 months
b. 1 year
c. 3 years
d. 5 years

53. In close cycle, cooling tower losses should be taken as per design or can be taken as
(Evaporation + Drift)
a. 2%
b. 5%
c. 3%
d. 10%

54. The objectives of Commissioning Audit is

a. To ensure compliance of Systems and Processes with reference to the Guidelines
b. To identify measures and areas for Safe and Quality Commissioning %
c. To identify major issues and constraints in Commissioning
d. All of the above
55. . Executive Summary of Audit Report is submitted to
a. Director (Operations)
b. RED
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

56. The Commissioning Audit Team generally excludes member from

a. Regional Operation Services
b. Corporate Operation Services
c. Project monitoring group
d. Other Power Stations.

57. In Signaling and telecommunication system in MGR, IPS stands for

a. Individual power supply
b. Isolated power supply
c. Integrated Power Supply
d. None of the above

58. In MGR area, flash report of incident should include

a. Location, sequence of event and likely reason
b. Rolling stock involved
c. Injury, if any and approximate loss
d. All of the above

59. Major causes of erosion on dyke slope are……

a. Rain cuts
b. Slurry composition
c. Irregular ash disposal
d. None of the above

60. When turbine fails to freely rotate (barring gear stalling) after unit trip
a. It is advisable to hand barring continuously
b. Power barring may be applied
c. Leave the turbine rotor for 48-72 hours to become free with intermittent hand barring
d. Wait till shaft temperature comes down to 150 deg C
61. TG barring is essential
a. To take care of uneven expansion
b. To control the temperature of turbine top part
c. To control shaft vibrations
d. For cooling purpose

62. One of the main Causes of the Instability of the dyke is

a. Seepage
b. Composition of ash
c. Lean mixture of ash
d. High density ash

63. Turbine over speed test can be done in rotor cold condition ----- TRUE / FALSE.

64. During Main Turbine over speed test, if turbine trip do not occur at designed value, turbine to
be manually tripped if speed exceeds 3360 rpm or as decided by HOD (Oprn) & HOD (TMD)

65. DC supply in LT/HT switchboard/Breaker is used because

a. It is reliable
b. Allows close/trip of breaker in event of total AC failure
c. It is simple
d. All of the above

66. On receiving a information about APH fire , start APH soot blowing immediately.

67. Unit permissive & protection bypass to be done with approval of Head of O&M and to be
restored within shift or 8 hours

68. Valve closing time monitoring serves to detect irregularities in Valve movement .
69. All unit protection to be checked if unit outage time is greater than 48 hrs after 3 months of
annual overhauling.
70. The mill outlet temperature high alarm shall be set at 5 degree higher than maximum working
mill outlet temperature.

71. Fires in bunkers are caused by the spontaneous combustion of stagnant regions of coal.

72. The policy of pooling Interchangeable high value spares is aimed at achieving the Long term
business objective of
a. Minimize the stock out of critical spares
b. Monitoring repair / procurement of used Spares for replenishment to the Pool
 c. optimizing cost of inventory
d. All of above

73. Their interchange ability of High value Items would be finalized by

a. Steering committee
b. Amusement Committee
c. Vendor Committee
d. Screening Committee

74. What is the Local Management Instructions on Control Of Environmental Pollution It refers to
a. managing the release from its existing process plants of solid, liquid and gaseous
substances to the environment
b. handing wastes and by-products
c. It explains the Regulatory and Policy framework, defines and gives guidance on how the
control of emissions and discharges shall be affected, monitored and reported within
Operations
d. All of the above

75. SO2 & NOx value limit in stack emission as per 2017 Norms
a. 100 & 100 mg/NM3
b. 50 & 100 mg/NM3
c. 100 & 50 mg/NM3
d. 200 & 200 mg/NM3
76. In present ZLD scheme, all water /run off effluent from ESP & boiler will be treated in:
a. all type of effluents in Effluent Treatment Plant
b. all type of effluents Coal Sludge Settling Plant
c. Effluent contains coal particles in CSSP, Effluent contains oil in ETP and water having ash
particles in Ash Slurry
d. disposal of all in Ash Slurry sump

77. Following are to be considered while selecting Location of monitoring stations:

a. Highest population zone
b. wind direction
c. population density
d. All of the above
78. Why sewage treatment plants are essential ?
a. To maintain environment quality
b. To protect public health
c. To conserve the water
d. All of the above

79. While using Method 3 of isolation as per “Isolation for Plant Safety” LMI
a. Normal test procedures within the limits of isolations to be suspended
b. Normal test procedures within the limits of isolations to be followed
c. Normal test procedures can be followed, but only under supervision of competent person
d. None of the above

80. Ash build-up in BAH can be due to

a. Blocking in ash slurry pumps
b. Improper bottom de-ashing
c. Excessive soot blowing
d. All of the above

81. The problem of slag deposition with high iron coals, can be drastically reduced by
a. Maintaining high furnace temperature
b. Increasing amount of excess air
c. Increasing flue gas velocity
d. Reducing ash fusion temperature

82. Rate of fly ash collection in first field hoppers of ESPs, in normal condition is:
a. 90 – 95 %
b. 70 – 75 %
c. 16 – 18 %
d. 5 – 8 %

83. Correct actions to be taken in the case of poor evacuation of accumulated ash include:
a. Start ash evacuation from the corresponding identified ESP hopper immediately
b. If needed, then poking is to be done, taking necessary precautions
c. Switch off the corresponding rapping motors, when hoppers are overfilled.
d. All are correct
 LMIs - Electrical

84. What is hydrogen explosive % range in air

a. 4-74 %
b. 2-80 %
c. 5-90 %
d. 10-85 %
85. Hydrogen leakage can be identified by monitoring
a. Consumption of no. of cylinders / day
b. Hydrogen pressure
c. Hydrogen purity
d. All of the above

86. What is the frequency of capacity test?

a. Half yearly.
b. Annually.
c. Quarterly.
d. Two years.

87. Replacement of battery bank is done when capacity falls below.

a. 95%
b. 90%
c. 85%
d. 80%

88. Buchholz relay is provided:

a. Pole mounted distribution transformers.
b. LT power transformers only.
c. HT power transformers only
d. LT and HT power transformers both

89. The gas released from the transformer and collected in buchholz relay is mixed with silver
nitrate with no reaction, the gas is.
a. Methane
b. CO2
c. H2
d. Air bubbles.
90. Testing frequency of electrical protection is:
a. 2 years
b. 1 year
c. 3 years
d. When shutdown is available.

91. The electrical protection primary function needed to act:

a. Disconnect the faulty feeder.
b. Disconnect the incomer.
c. Disconnect the station transformer.
d. None of the above.

92. Rotor insulation resistance is meggered generally by

a. 100 V megger
b. 250 V megger
c. 500 V megger
d. 1kV megger

93. 2. Retaining rings are manufactured from non-magnetic steel. ( True / False )

94. What should be done if PTFE Hoses observed with Major Distortion or bad alignment
a. Must be replaced
b. Must be replaced in consultation with OEM
c. May be repaired at site
d. wait till leakage occurs

95. Permanent earth faults leading to longer forced outages are caused by
a. Insulation failure between rotor body and rotor copper conductor in slot portions or leads
b. Slip Ring Insulation Failure
c. Current carrying bolts or foreign metallic hips creating shorting between steel body parts
and copper conductor
d. All of the above

96. Which Technical factors affect the decision of choice of Insulating compound to be used?
a. Type of environment
b. Severity of pollution
c. Type of equipment whose insulation is protected
d. All of the above
97. Which of the following parameters is to be matched with previous readings during SCC and OCC
a. Control Voltage (Uc)
b. Stator current
c. Stator Voltage
d. All of the above

98. Normally for monitoring shaft voltage a brush is located at

a. Exciter End
b. Turbine End
c. Brushes are not required
d. It is located in AVR panel

99. Transformer oIl can be

a. Parafinic base oil
b. Napthanic base oil
c. Silicone oil
d. All of the above

100. The IS standard of transformer oil is

a. IS 335
b. IS 315
c. IS1866
d. None
101. When first sample for DGA of GT to be taken ?
a. prior to charging
b. After the charging
c. One week after charging
d. One week before charging

102. Pyrolitic carbon growth is seen in which part of in transformer ?

a. Radiator
b. Conservator
c. Buchholz relay
d. Tap changer
103. The purpose of Earthing System is to ensure that, in general, all parts of apparatus other
than live parts shall be
a. earth potential
b. neutral potential
c. higher potential
d. lower potential

104. the negative phase sequence currents circulating in the Generator windings set up a flux
that rotates at
a. same
b. twice
c. half
d. zero

105. The busbars must not protrude beyond the _________ and thus be liable to come into
contact with the braid
a. ferrule
b. terminal
c. door
d. none of the above

106. What precaution to be taken with tan delta test tap after testing?
a. test tap should be earthed
b. check continuity with earth using multi meter
c. test tap cover should be firmly secured
d. all of the above

107. what are the potential hazards of Hydrogen gas leakage?

a. Explosion
b. Fire
c. Health Hazards
d. all of the above
108. What is the recommendation for avoiding hydrogen leakage from gasket joints?
a. Quality gasket procurement
b. Proper storage
c. Checks before putting into use
d. All of the above

109. What is the frequency of checking of stroboscope light and view glass integrity?
a. Daily
b. Weekly
c. Monthly
d. Half yearly

110. What is the frequency of checking of welding, nuts & bolts and locking arrangement.
a. Opportunity shutdown
b. Half yearly
c. Unit overhaul
d. Once in life time

111. The moisture value of the transformer oil should be ______ before filling.
a. <=10ppm
b. <=20ppm
c. <=30ppm
d. <=40ppm

112. Oil to be filled in the transformer

a. From bottom with out Vacuum
b. From bottom with Vacuum
c. From top with Vacuum
d. From top with out Vacuum

113. Aircell will be the part of

a. Transformer
b. Motor
c. LV Switchgear
d. HT Switchgear

114. Air cell sucks air through

a. Silica gel breather
b. Pipe
c. Fully sealed
d. None of the above
115. Isolation and normalisation check list of Bus / Line to be verified by
a. Operation engineer
b. Maintenance engineer
c. Both
d. None of the above

116. Earthing interlocks should be _________ before charging.

a. Bypass
b. Checked
c. Check and Bypass
d. None of the above
 LMIs – C&I

117. Full form of ESSDs

a. ELECTRICAL STATIC SENSITIVE DEVICES
b. ELECTRO STATIC SENSITIVE DEVICES
c. ELECTRO SUPPLY SENSITIVE DEVICES
d. None of the above

118. Unauthorized network access allows which malicious software/viruses to effect CS-LAN
a. Trojan horses
b. logic bombs
c. network worms
d. All of the above

119. While working on module circuitry it is recommended to use

a. Safety shoes
b. Earth strip
c. Wrist straps
d. None of the above
 LMIs – Chemistry

120. In OT mode, chemical criteria of Steam sample are ph- 8.5 to 9.0, ACC <0.15 us/cm.
DO 30-150 ppb, Fe <5 ppb (True / False )

121. Ion exchanger unit consist of

a. Mixed bed ion exchanger, Fine Filter,
b. Conductivity Transmitter, Flow indicator,
c. Valves and inter connected pipes.
d. All of the above

122. Size of laboratory coal sample is 212 micron (True / False )

123. What PPEs to be wear at the time of unloading of bulk chemicals?

a. A full face shield/ Chemical safety goggles ,
b. Chemical resistant aprons,
c. Chemical proof gloves and Gum boots.
d. All of the above

124. Recommended limit of moisture content in turbine lube oil is <100 ppm (True / False )

125. What parameters are analyzed for coal as-fired sample?

a. Total Moisture
b. Proximate analysis
c. GCV
d. All of the above

126. Which regents are used for determination of Reactive Silica?

a. Diluted HCl
b. Ammonium molybdate solution
c. Oxalic acid and ANSA Solution
d. All of the above

127. What are the parameters to be monitored in steam water cycle?

a. pH, Sp. conductivity,
b. Cation conductivity, dissolved oxygen,
c. silica, total iron.
d. All of the above
128. What are the prime indication of condenser tube leakage?
a. All ACC, Sodium of CEP and MS increase sharply.
b. Silica concentration increase
c. pH of feed water dropped due to increasing salt concentration.
d. All of the above

129. In Wet preservation of boiler, limit of Boiler water ph is 10 -10.5 with nitrogen Capping
( True / False ).

130. What are the chemicals being dosed in DM clarifier?

a. Ferric chloride,
b. chlorine,
c. polyelctrolytes and Lime.
d. All of the above
 LMIs – Mechanical

131. Super heater & Reheater Attemperator pipes should be inspected after duration of
a. 50000 running hours,
b. 10000 running hours,
c. 100000 running hours,
d. Not required

132. After first inspection on De-super heater spray liners, subsequent inspections shall be
done after
a. Every Year
b. Every 2 Year
c. Every 3 Year
d. Every 5 Year

133. In case of cracking detected in header, header will be replaced by using same material
(as original) or
a. Using modified 11% Cr Steel
b. Using modified 10% Cr Steel
c. Using modified 09% Cr Steel
d. Using modified 08% Cr Steel

134. During inspection inside boiler what kind of illumination source should be used for
safety
a. 110 V AC Lamp
b. 6 V DC Lamp
c. 240 V AC Lamp
d. 24 V DC Lamp

135. As per LMI- High Pressure Pipe Support System, high pressure refers to
a. 20 bar or above
b. 30 bar or above
c. 40 bar or above
d. 50 bar or above

136. What extra precaution is taken if leakage of FRF occurs on Hot piping
a. Use of Helmets
b. Use of goggles
c. Use of protective shield
d. Use of Breathing apparatus
137. All Fluid containers should be labeled with a
a. Hazard data sheet
b. List of allergies
c. First aid in case of contact

138. FRF level can be topped up by

a. Oil of same grade
b. Oil of any grade
c. Oil of same grade and make
d. Any available oil in plant

139. The most severe cause of increasing of acidity in FRF is

a. Humidity
b. Deterioration of Fuller Earth Filter
c. High temp
d. Continuous operation

140. Boiler expansion indicators are required for assessing

a. Failure of furnace tube
b. Failure of buckstays attachments
c. Restricted boiler movement due to faulty erection
d. All of above

141. Principal requirement for permanent indicator installation

a. Robustness
b. Simplicity
c. Clearance of indications
d. All of above
142. Acid condensation in duct occurs when flue gas temp.
a. Falls below acid dew point
b. Raises above acid dew point
c. Either A,B
d. neither A&B
143. The Reason of shaft failure of the BHEL make axial ID fan is
a. Cracks in welding of vanes fixed to casing
b. Fan blades bolts loosen
c. Improper Fan Blade tip clearance
d. All of above
144. What is the time for which the pressure is to be held during hydraulic leak test
a. 10 min
b. 15 min
c. 20 min
d. 5 min

145. The ____ goes on increasing with the increase in degree of maintenance efforts.
a. Cost of down time
b. Cost of spares and maintenance
c. Labor and Overhead Cost
d. All of the above

146. A systematic approach for maintenance is

a. Problem – Cause – Diagnosis – Rectification
b. Problem– Diagnosis – Cause – Rectification
c. Problem – Measure – Diagnosis – Rectification
d. Problem– Diagnosis – Measure – Rectification

147. Full form of RCM is

a. Relative condition monitoring
b. Reliability centered monitoring
c. Regenerative Care Mounting
d. Reliability Centered Maintenance

148. What is full form of FMEA

a. Failure Modes & Effect Analysis
b. Familiar Modes of Effective Analysis
c. Failure Management by External Agency
d. Full Maintenance by Enterprise Authority

149. What is not one of John Mowbray’s Seven Questions

a. What are the functions and associated performance standards of the asset in its present operating
context?
b. In what ways does it fail to fulfill its functions?
c. What causes each functional failure?
d. Who is the person responsible for each failure?
150. Proof Load testing of Lifting Equipment’s

a. ensures that items of lifting equipment can perform to the required standard in accordance with
manufacturer's guidance, by giving it a full strength test
b. ensures that the person handling lifting person is authorized to conduct test
c. ensures that load used is made of suitable material
d. ensures that the Lifting equipment is from recognized Brand