1.

(Proposed by India for IMO-92) Circles G1 and G2 touch each other ex-
ternally at a point W and are inscribed in a circle G. A, B, C are points
on G such that A, G1 and G2 are on the same side of chord BC which is
also tangent to G1 and G2 Suppose AW is also tangent to G1 and G2 .
Prove that W is the incenter of triangle ABC.
Solution:
Let P and Q be the points of tangency of G1 with BC and arc BAC
respectively.
Let D be the midpoint of the complementary arc BC of G not containing
A and L be a point on G1 so that DL is tangent to G1 and intersects
segment P C. Considering the homothety with center Q that maps G1
onto G we see that Q, P, D are collinear because the tangent at P namely
BC and and tangent at D are parallel.
Since ∠BQD, ∠CBD subtend equal arcs, 4BQD and 4P BD are simi-
lar Hence DB/DP = DQ/DB By the power of point D wrt G1 DB 2 =
DP · DQ = DL2
So DL = DB = DC .Then D has the same power DB = DC with respect
to G1 and G2 Hence D is on the radical axis AW of G1 and G2 So L = W
and DW is tangent to G1 and G2 .
Since D is the midpoint of arc BC so AW bisects BAC Also

∠ABW = ∠BW D − ∠BAD = ∠W BD − ∠CBW

and BW bisects ∠ABC.Hence W ∈ bisector of ∠BAC.

Also BD = W D = CD and D ∈ circumcenter of 4ABC and D ∈
bisector of ∠BAC so D is the circumcenter of circle with diameter as
I4ABC IA4ABC .
Hence W = I4ABC .
Therefore W is the incenter of 4ABC.
Comments: The first part of the proof can be done by inversion wrt the
circle centered at D and of radius DB = DC. It maps arc BC into chord
BC . Both G1 and G2 are invariant because the power of D with respect
to them is DB 2 = DC 2 . Hence W is fixed and so DW is tangent to both
G1 and G2 .

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2. (2012 EGMO) Find all functions f : R → R such that

f (yf (x + y) + f (x)) = 4x + 2yf (x + y)

for all x, y ∈ R.
solution:
1) Let P (x, y) the assertion f (yf (x + y) + f (x)) = 4x + 2yf (x + y)
2) P (x, 0) imply f (f (x)) = 4x , this relation proves that f are bijective .
3) Let f (0) = a 6= 0,
f (f (0)) = f (a) = 0

Now
f (f (a)) = 4a
But
f (f (a)) = f (0) = a

we get a = 4a (by injectivity) and so a = 0 , hence f (0) = 0 .

4)P (0, x): f (xf (x)) = 2xf (x), take x = 1 , we get : f (f (1)) = 2f (1) = 4
,
f (1) = 2

5)P (x, 1 − x): f (f (x) + 2(1 − x)) = 4 = f (b) for an unique b ∈ R and by
injectivity , we get : f (x) = 2x + b − 2 , ∀x ∈ R , where b is the pre-image
of 4.
6) From f (f (a)) = 4a we get b = 2 and so f (x) = 2x , ∀x ∈ R .

3. (Kürschák 1992, problem 2) For any positive integer k define f1 (k) as

the square of the digital sum of k in the decimal system, and fn (k) =
f1 (fn−1 (k)) ∀n > 1. Compute f1992 (21991 ).
First we look modulo 9 to see f1992 (21991 ) ≡ 4 (mod 9).
Because f2k (21991 ) ≡ 4, f2k−1 (21991 ) ≡ 7 (mod 9) for all k ≥ 1. Next we
claim it will be 256.
f1 (21991 ) < (1000 ∗ 9)2 < 108 .
f2 (21991 ) < f1 (99999999) = 722 < 9999
f3 (21991 ) < 362 < 1999
f4 (21991 ) < 282 < 900
f5 (21991 ) ≤ 900
f6 (21991 ) = (7 + 9t)2 where 7 + 9t is the sum of the digits of a square.
Hence it is 49, 256 or 625 f7 (21991 ) = 132 = 169
f8 = 256
and now it keeps repeating.

4. (2001 USA Math Olympiad) Each point in the plane is assigned a real
number such that, for any triangle, the number at the center of its in-
scribed circle is equal to the arithmetic mean of the three numbers at its
vertices. Prove that all points in the plane are assigned the same number.

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 Solution:

Let A, B be arbitrary distinct points and consider a regular hexagon

ABCDEF in the plane. Let lines CD and EF intersect at G. Let L
be the line through G perpendicular to line DE.
Observe that ∆CEG and ∆DF G are symmetric with respect to L and
hence they have the same incenter. So c + e + g = d + f + g. Also, ∆ACE
and ∆BDF are symmetric with respect to L and have the same incenter.
So a + c + e = b + d + f . Subtracting these two equations, we see a = b.
5. In the plane, let there be given a circle C, a line l tangent to C, and a
point M on l. Find the locus of points P that have the following property:
There exist two points Q and R on l such that M is the midpoint of QR
and C is the incircle of P QR.
Solution:

Denote by U the point of tangency of the circle C and the line l. Let X and
U 0 be the points symmetric to U with respect to S and M respectively;
these points do not depend on the choice of P .
Also, let C 0 be the excircle of P QR corresponding to P, S 0 the center

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 of C 0 , and W , W 0 the points of tangency of C and C 0 with the line P Q
respectively. Obviously, 4W SP ∼ 4W 0 S 0 P .
Since SX k SU and SX : S 0 U 0 = SW : S 0 W 0 = SP : S 0 P , we deduce that
∆SXP ∼ ∆S 0 U 0 P , and consequently that P lies on the line XU 0 . On the
other hand, it is easy to show that each point P of the ray U 0 X over X
satisfies the required condition. Thus the desired locus is the extension of
U 0 X over X.
6. On an infinite chessboard, a solitaire game is played as follows: At the
start, we have n2 pieces occupying n2 squares that form a square of side n.
The only allowed move is a jump horizontally or vertically over an occupied
square to an unoccupied one, and the piece that has been jumped over is
removed. For what positive integers n can the game end with only one
piece remaining on the board?
Solution: For n = 1 the game is trivially over. If n = 2, it can end, for
example, in the following way:

The sequence of moves shown in Fig. 2 enables us to remove three pieces

placed in a 1 × 3 rectangle, using one more piece and one more free cell.
In that way, for any n ≥ 4 we can reduce an (n + 3) × (n + 3) square to
an n × n square (Fig. 3). Therefore the game can end for every n that is
not divisible by 3.

Suppose now that one can play the game on a 3k × 3k square so that at
the end only one piece remains.
Denote the cells by (i, j), i, j ∈ {1, ..., 3k}, and let S0 , S1 , S2 denote the
numbers of pieces on those squares (i, j) for which i + j gives remainder
0, 1, 2 respectively upon division by 3.
Initially S0 = S1 = S2 = 3k 2 . After each move, two of S0 , S1 , S2 diminish
and one increases by one. Thus each move reverses the parity of the Si ’s,
so that S0 , S1 , S2 are always of the same parity. But in the final position
one of the Si ’s must be equal to 1 and the other two must be 0, which is
impossible.
Hence n ≡ 1, 2(mod3)