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M14/3/PSYCH/BP2/ENG/TZ0/XX/M

MARKSCHEME

May 2014

PSYCHOLOGY

Higher and Standard Level

Paper 2

18 pages

Mindset Centre 1
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This markscheme is confidential and for the exclusive use of


examiners in this examination session.

It is the property of the International Baccalaureate and must not


be reproduced or distributed to any other person without the
authorization of the IB Assessment Centre.

Mindset Centre 2
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Paper 2 assessment criteria

A — Knowledge and comprehension

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 3 The answer demonstrates limited knowledge and understanding that is of marginal


relevance to the question. Little or no psychological research is used in the response.

4 to 6 The answer demonstrates limited knowledge and understanding relevant to the question or
uses relevant psychological research to limited effect in the response.

7 to 9 The answer demonstrates detailed, accurate knowledge and understanding relevant to the
question, and uses relevant psychological research effectively in support of the response.

B — Evidence of critical thinking: application, analysis, synthesis, evaluation

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 3 The answer goes beyond description but evidence of critical thinking is not linked to the
requirements of the question.

4 to 6 The answer offers appropriate but limited evidence of critical thinking or offers evidence
of critical thinking that is only implicitly linked to the requirements of the question.

7 to 9 The answer integrates relevant and explicit evidence of critical thinking in response to the
question.

C — Organization

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 2 The answer is organized or focused on the question. However, this is not sustained
throughout the response.

3 to 4 The answer is well organized, well developed and focused on the question.

Mindset Centre 3
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Abnormal psychology

1. Evaluate one individual (psychological, not biomedical) approach to treatment for


one disorder.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of one individual approach to treatment for one disorder. Although a
discussion of both strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to
gain high marks.

Anxiety disorders, affective disorders and eating disorders will most likely be presented. It is
however, acceptable to use other examples of disorders or abnormal behaviours. Candidates are not
required to outline the symptoms of the disorder.

Responses may include, but are not limited to:


• the appropriateness of one individual approach to treatment by weighing up the strengths and
limitations of that approach for the disorder
• underlying assumptions of a certain approach to treatment
• confirming or refuting empirical findings related to the treatment
• psychological theories that are relevant to the approach to treatment of the disorder
• ethical implications of the approach to treatment.

If a candidate evaluates more than one individual approach to treatment, credit should be given only
to the first evaluation. However, candidates may address other approaches to treatment and be
awarded marks for these as long as they are clearly used to evaluate the individual treatment
addressed in the response (for example, responses may suggest that individual treatment is most
often combined with drug treatment and use this discussion of an eclectic approach as part of
the evaluation).

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for
criterion C, organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge
and comprehension.

If a candidate evaluates individual approaches without referring to a specific disorder, the response
should be awarded up to a maximum of [4 marks] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension,
up to a maximum of [3 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks]
for criterion C, organization.

If a candidate evaluates one biomedical or one group approach to treatment then the response
should be awarded up to a maximum of [3 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a
maximum of [2 marks] for criterion C, organization. No marks should be awarded for criterion A,
knowledge and comprehension.

Mindset Centre 4
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2. Discuss concepts of normality and abnormality.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review that
includes various concepts of normality and abnormality.

Concepts of normality and abnormality may include, but are not limited to:
• the mental health criterion/model
• the statistical criterion/model
• abnormality as mental illness (medical model)
• the psychoanalytic explanation of the concept of abnormality
• the cognitive explanation of the concept of abnormality.

Responses may include, but are not limited to:


• cross-cultural issues
• gender biases
• research findings
• the issue of labelling
• historical perspectives on changing norms on normality (for example, changing views on
homosexuality or political dissent)
• difficulties in defining normality/abnormality.

Relevant research may include, but is not limited to:


• Rosenhan and Seligman (1984) – seven criteria of abnormality
• Jahoda (1958) – six characteristics of mental health
• Szasz (1962) – mental disorders as “problems in living”.

Candidates may discuss a smaller number of concepts of normality and abnormality in order to
demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may discuss a larger number of concepts of normality and
abnormality in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are
equally acceptable.

Mindset Centre 5
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3. Discuss cultural variations in the prevalence of psychological disorders.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review that
includes a range of cultural variations in the prevalence of disorders.

The term “prevalence” refers to the percentage of individuals within a population who are affected
by a specific disorder at a given time. The prevalence of any psychological disorder may be
discussed.

Responses may include, but are not limited to:


• reference to an increase in diagnoses related to differences in cultural norms (for example, an
increase in diagnoses of depression or eating disorders in women)
• addressing cultural factors that seem to increase the risk of developing affective or
eating disorders
• reference to evidence that with increasing Westernization, rates of certain disorders tend to
increase
• addressing changes in diagnostic screening which help mental health professions become more
culturally aware in their diagnoses
• culture-bound disorders
• the interaction between biological, cognitive and sociocultural factors
• some prevalence rates are consistent across cultures, for example, schizophrenia.

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Okulate et al. (2004) – core symptoms of depression are shared in different cultures
• Jaeger et al. (2002) – body dissatisfaction suggesting significant differences between cultures
• Dutton (2009) – cultural variations in prevalence of major depression could be due to cultural
differences in stress, standard of living and reporting bias
• how emic versus etic approaches affect prevalence rates.

Candidates may discuss a smaller number of cultural variations in order to demonstrate depth of
knowledge, or may discuss a larger number of cultural variations in order to demonstrate breadth of
knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

Candidates may discuss a small number of disorders in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or
may discuss a larger number of disorders in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both
approaches are equally acceptable.

Mindset Centre 6
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Developmental psychology

4. Examine the relationship between physical change and development of identity during
adolescence.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “examine” requires candidates to consider an argument in a way that uncovers
the assumptions and interrelationships between physical changes and identity development
during adolescence.

Relevant content may provide an outline of the emergence of primary and secondary sexual
characteristics and how that affects identity formation during adolescence, such as:
• Simmons and Blyth (1987) – the cultural ideal hypothesis
• Mead’s cross-cultural theory
• studies on the timing of puberty and its impact on body image, self-esteem and behaviour:
Jones (1965), Blyth, Bulcroft and Simmons (1981), Brooks-Gunn and Paikoff (1993).

The answer should focus on the fact that physical changes have psychological ramifications that
contribute to an adolescent’s sense of self. In certain cultures, preoccupation with one’s body
image is strong throughout adolescence and this preoccupation influences development of identity.

Responses may include, but are not limited to:


• the difficulty of generalizing the psychological effects of physical changes – because they
depend on the timing of puberty, they differ in boys and girls
• the development of identity is influenced by the interaction of biological, cognitive and social
factors and is not dominated by biology
• culture is also a strong determinant in self-perception and body shape perception
• researchers have expressed doubt that puberty’s effects on development of identity are as strong
as once believed.

If a candidate only addresses development of identity, the response should be awarded up to a


maximum of [4 marks] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of
[3 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for criterion C,
organization.

If a candidate only addresses physical change in adolescence, the response should be awarded up to
a maximum of [4 marks] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of
[3 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for criterion C,
organization.

Mindset Centre 7
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5. Explain cultural variation in gender roles.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “explain” requires candidates to give a detailed account, including reasons for,
or causes of, cultural variation in gender roles.

Responses may address how sociocultural factors such as the media, stereotypes and parental role
influence gender roles in relation to aggression, working behaviour, parenting behaviour, domestic
work, and so on.

Examples of how candidates may show evidence of critical thinking could include:
• using evidence from studies that support or disconfirm the existence of cultural variation in
gender roles.
• analysis of the methodology and/or ethical considerations of research
• whether sociocultural influences create gender differences or merely accentuate them
• whether differences between males and females are purely social constructs or a result of
biological differences
• analyzing differences between collectivistic versus individualistic societies
• analysis of the interaction between biological, cognitive and cultural factors.

Relevant theories may include, but are not limited to:


• Eagly’s social role theory
• Bandura’s social learning theory
• Money’s theory on gender roles
• gender schema theory.

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Mead’s (1935) anthropological study
• Best et al.’s (1977) cross-cultural study on gender stereotypes
• Smith and Lloyd’s (1978) experiment on the perception of gender
• Cuddy et al.’s (2010) study on how gender stereotypes are shaped in different cultures with
participants attributing positive traits to men.

Candidates may present one or a number of explanations of cultural variation in gender roles.
Both approaches are equally valid.

Mindset Centre 8
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6. Evaluate one example of psychological research (theory or study) relevant to attachment.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of one theory or study related to attachment. Although a discussion of
both strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks.

Relevant theories may include, but are not limited to:


• Schaffer’s cognitive theory of attachment
• Bowlby’s attachment theory
• Ainsworth’s attachment theory
• Spitz’s psychodynamic theory of attachment.

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Ainsworth’s strange situation studies (1967, 1971, 1978)
• Robertson and Bowlby’s study (1952) on the short-term effects of deprivation
• Harlow and Harlow’s rhesus monkeys study (1962)
• Hodges and Tizard’s adoption study (1989)
• Van Ijzendoorn and Kroonenberg’s cross-cultural study (1988)
• Hazan and Shaver’s study (1987) on adult attachment behaviour.

Whichever theory or study is selected, the focus of the answer should be on the evaluation of that
theory or study. The focus of the response should be on one example of psychological research
relevant to attachment rather than a general overview of attachment

Evaluation of the research may include, but is not limited to:


• methodological considerations
• cultural considerations
• contrary findings or explanations
• the productivity of the theory in generating psychological research
• the applications of the empirical findings.

If a candidate evaluates more than one theory or study, credit should be given only to the first
evaluation. However, candidates may address other theories/studies and be awarded marks for
these as long as they are clearly used to evaluate the main research addressed in the response.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for
criterion C, organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge
and comprehension.

Mindset Centre 9
– 10 – M14/3/PSYCH/BP2/ENG/TZ0/XX/M

Health Psychology

7. Discuss physiological and social aspects of stress.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of
physiological and social aspects of stress.

Candidates do not have to make a distinction between social/cultural and environmental aspects of
stress. Candidates may discuss causes, consequences and/or strategies for dealing with stress.

Candidates can use research that deals with both the physiological and social aspects of stress.

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Kiecolt-Glaser et al.’s (1984) study on how exam stress influences the immune system  
• Evans and Kim’s (2007) or Fernald and Gunnar’s (2008) studies on the relationship between
poverty and stress  
• Taylor et al.’s (2000) study on gender differences in stress  
• O’Driscoll and Cooper’s (1994) study on coping with work-related stress.  

If a candidate discusses only physiological or only social aspects of stress, the response should be
awarded up to a maximum of [5 marks] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a
maximum of [4 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for
criterion C, organization.

Candidates may address a smaller number of physiological and social aspects of stress in order to
demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may address a larger number of physiological and social
aspects of stress in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally
acceptable.    

Mindset Centre 10
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8. To what extent do biological factors influence health-related behaviour?

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the merits or otherwise of the
influence of biological factors on health-related behaviour.

Stress, eating disorders, substance abuse and other health-related behaviours are equally acceptable
for answers to this question. Candidates may approach health-related behaviour as a whole or use
specific examples of health-related behaviour. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

Biological factors may include, but are not limited to:


• evolutionary explanations
• genetic predisposition
• the effect of circadian rhythms
• the effects of drug treatment for addictive behaviour
• the neurobiology of food addiction (for example, Volkow et al., 2002).

Each factor that is identified should be related to health-related behaviour. Where this connection is
not made, no marks should be awarded for the mere listing or description of biological factors.

It is appropriate and useful for candidates to address sociocultural and/or cognitive factors in order
to respond to the command term “to what extent”.

Candidates may address a smaller number of biological factors in order to demonstrate depth of
knowledge, or may address a larger number of biological factors in order to demonstrate breadth of
knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

Mindset Centre 11
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9. Discuss two prevention strategies for substance abuse or addictive behaviour.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of two
prevention strategies for substance abuse or addictive behaviour.

Substance abuse or addictive behaviour may refer to addictions to tobacco, alcohol, marijuana,
cocaine, sex, gambling or food, among others.

Relevant prevention strategies may include, but are not limited to:
• targeting risk groups with health education
• use of social learning theory in media campaigns
• fear arousal through advertising
• government interventions, banning advertising, increasing the cost of the substance, or banning
smoking and alcohol.

Relevant campaigns may include, but are not limited to:


• smoking prevention campaigns such as the TRUTH anti-tobacco campaign in Florida in
the 1990s
• The Australia North Coast Study, which resulted in a 15 % reduction in smoking over three years
• Carr’s (1994) field study on the use of peer education in the prevention of fetal alcohol syndrome
in Canada.

Responses may discuss treatment of substance abuse and addictive behaviour (for example,
alcoholics anonymous, nicotine patches) and this approach should be awarded marks if the response
indicates how this treatment will prevent further substance abuse and/or addictive behaviour.
A clear link must be made to indicate how the treatment serves as a preventative strategy.
One example of how this might be approached would be a statement such as: “One strategy is the
use of medicinal patches, and although this appears to be a treatment it may also serve as a
preventative measure”.

If a candidate discusses more than two prevention strategies, credit should be given only to the first
two discussions. However, candidates may address other prevention strategies and be awarded
marks for these as long as they are clearly used to evaluate one or both of the two main strategies
addressed in the response.

If a candidate discusses only one prevention strategy, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5 marks] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of
[4 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for criterion C,
organization.

Mindset Centre 12
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Psychology of human relationships

10. Contrast two theories explaining altruism in humans.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “contrast” requires candidates to give an account of the differences between
two theories of altruism in humans.

Animal research may be used as long as a clear link is made to human behaviour.

Theories may include, but are not limited to:

Evolutionary theories, such as:


• kin selection theory
• reciprocal altruism theory
• mimetic theories.

Psychological theories, such as:


• the negative-state relief model
• empathy-altruism theory
• social exchange theory.

Candidates may contrast the broader groups of theories (for example, evolutionary and
psychological) or specific theories within or between these groups.

Mindset Centre 13
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11. Discuss the effectiveness of two strategies for reducing violence.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of two
strategies for reducing violence.

A number of different strategies may be included. A strategy is any plan of action or a programme
for reducing violence.

Examples of strategies may include, but are not limited to:


• Olweus, 1993 – a community based strategy
• MACS, 2002 – a community based strategy
• zero tolerance anti-bullying programmes
• Aronson, 1979 – jigsaw classrooms against bullying
• Feshbach and Feshbach, 1982 empathy training
• Figueiredo et al., 2007 – computer based strategies to improve empathy.

Discussion of the effectiveness of the strategies may include, but is not limited to:
• cultural issues
• gender issues
• ethical issues
• long-term versus short-term effects
• the difficulty in assessing the effectiveness of a strategy.

If a candidate discusses more than two strategies for reducing violence, credit should be given only
to the first two discussions. However, candidates may address other strategies for reducing violence
and be awarded marks for these as long as they are clearly used to evaluate one or both of the two
main strategies addressed in the response.

If a candidate discusses only one strategy for reducing violence, the response should be awarded up
to a maximum of [5 marks] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of
[4 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for criterion C,
organization.

Mindset Centre 14
– 15 – M14/3/PSYCH/BP2/ENG/TZ0/XX/M

12. Evaluate one theory or study relevant to the study of human relationships.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of one theory or study relevant to the study of human relationships.
Although a discussion of both strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly
balanced to gain high marks.

Candidates may evaluate one theory or study from any area of the option:
• social responsibility (altruism, bystanderism, prosocial behaviour)
• interpersonal relationships (attraction, the role of communication, the role of culture, dissolution
of relationships)
• violence (bullying, domestic violence, terrorism).

Relevant theories may include, but are not limited to:


• evolutionary theory of altruism
• social learning theory of violence
• proximity theory of attraction.

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Latané and Darley (1968) – bystander intervention and diffusion of responsibility
• Buss et al. (1990) – cross-cultural study of mate preferences
• Schuster et al. (2001) – stress response to direct and indirect exposure to terrorism.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for
criterion C, organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension.

If a candidate evaluates more than one theory/study, credit should be given only to the first
evaluation. However, candidates may address other theories/studies relevant to the study of human
relationships and be awarded marks for these as long as they are clearly used to evaluate the main
theory/study addressed in the response.

Mindset Centre 15
– 16 – M14/3/PSYCH/BP2/ENG/TZ0/XX/M

Sport psychology

13. To what extent does the role of coaches influence individual and/or team behaviour in sport?

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the merits or otherwise of the
influence of coaches on individual and/or team behaviour.

Coaches can have a positive or negative effect on the athletes they coach. Candidates may compare
the role of the coach to the motivations of the athlete. Candidates may consider self-efficacy,
goal-setting, the role of feedback, or the role of expectations. Another approach would be to
discuss the difficulties of assessing the influence of coaches. This could include discussion of the
difficulty in isolating variables, the problem of generalizability (transference) or the general
subjectivity of this type of research.

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Horn and Lox (1993) – the roles of coaches’ expectations
• Chase et al. (1997) – coaches’ efficacy and team performance
• Slavin (1995) – facilitating a community of cooperative learners
• Duda and Pensgaard (2002) – improving intrinsic motivation
• Alfermann et al. (2005) – coaches’ leadership styles.

It is appropriate and useful for candidates to make reference to factors other than the role of the
coach (factors such as personality characteristics, attribution style, peer influences etc) in order to
respond to the command term “to what extent”.

Mindset Centre 16
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14. Discuss the use of two techniques used for skill development in sport.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of two
techniques used for skill development in sport.

The most common skill development technique is repetition. However, more and more sport
psychologists are stressing the role that cognition plays in skill development. Two of the most
commonly used techniques are mental imagery (visualization) and concentration (attention) training
which includes self-talk.

Responses may include, but are not limited to:


• mental imagery research: Rushall (1970); Baroga (1973); Isaac (1992)
• research on self-talk: Martin et al., (1995); Landin and Hebert (1999); Araki et al., (2006)
• massed practice and distributed practice: Fitts and Posner (1967); Singer (1965).

As part of their discussion, candidates may outline the theories that underpin these techniques,
evaluate their effectiveness, or discuss their application in different sports.

If a candidate discusses more than two techniques, credit should be given only to the first two
discussions. However, candidates may address other techniques and be awarded marks for these as
long as they are clearly used to evaluate the two main techniques addressed in the response.

If a candidate discusses only one technique, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of
[5 marks] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4 marks] for
criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for criterion C, organization.

Mindset Centre 17
– 18 – M14/3/PSYCH/BP2/ENG/TZ0/XX/M

15. Evaluate psychological research (theories and/or studies) relevant to the study of causes
and/or prevention of burnout in sport.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of psychological research (theories and/or studies) relevant to the study of
causes and/or prevention of burnout. Although a discussion of both strengths and limitations is
required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks.

Burnout can be defined as psychological, emotional, and even physical withdrawal from an activity
that previously was enjoyable. Burnout may be a response to environmental factors such as
overtraining and injury, an unrewarding environment, excessive stress or monotonous training.
Personal factors may also play a role, such as perfectionism, unrealistic expectations, poor coping
strategies for stress or poor social skills with team members.

Relevant models/theories on the causes and/or prevention of burnout include, but are not limited to:
• Smith’s (1980) cognitive affective model
• Meichenbaum’s (1985) stress inoculation theory (SIT)
• Raedeke’s (2002) investment model of burnout (also known as entrapment theory)
• Kjormo and Halvari (2002) – role conflict.

In order to address the command term, candidates may either evaluate theories regarding the nature
of burnout, or they may evaluate specific studies. As part of their response, candidates may address
the difficulties faced by sport psychologists in trying to study burnout.

Candidates may evaluate a smaller number of theories and/or studies in order to demonstrate depth
of knowledge, or may evaluate a larger number of theories and/or studies in order to demonstrate
breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for
criterion C, organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension.

Mindset Centre 18
N14/3/PSYCH/BP2/ENG/TZ0/XX/M

MARKSCHEME

November 2014

PSYCHOLOGY

Higher and Standard Level

Paper 2

18 pages

Mindset Centre 19
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This markscheme is confidential and for the exclusive use of


examiners in this examination session.

It is the property of the International Baccalaureate and must not


be reproduced or distributed to any other person without the
authorization of the IB Assessment Centre.

Mindset Centre 20
–3– N14/3/PSYCH/BP2/ENG/TZ0/XX/M

Paper 2 assessment criteria

A — Knowledge and comprehension

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 3 The answer demonstrates limited knowledge and understanding that is of marginal


relevance to the question. Little or no psychological research is used in the response.

4 to 6 The answer demonstrates limited knowledge and understanding relevant to the question or
uses relevant psychological research to limited effect in the response.

7 to 9 The answer demonstrates detailed, accurate knowledge and understanding relevant to the
question, and uses relevant psychological research effectively in support of the response.

B — Evidence of critical thinking: application, analysis, synthesis, evaluation

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 3 The answer goes beyond description but evidence of critical thinking is not linked to the
requirements of the question.

4 to 6 The answer offers appropriate but limited evidence of critical thinking or offers evidence
of critical thinking that is only implicitly linked to the requirements of the question.

7 to 9 The answer integrates relevant and explicit evidence of critical thinking in response to the
question.

C — Organization

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 2 The answer is organized or focused on the question. However, this is not sustained
throughout the response.

3 to 4 The answer is well organized, well developed and focused on the question.

Mindset Centre 21
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Abnormal psychology

1. To what extent do cognitive factors or sociocultural factors influence abnormal behaviour?

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the contributions of cognitive
or sociocultural factors influencing abnormal behaviour.

Cognitive factors may include, but are not limited to:


 negative cognitive schemas influencing depression
 distorted weight-related schema influencing bulimia
 intrusive memories influencing panic reactions in PTSD (post-traumatic stress disorder) patients.

Sociocultural factors may include, but are not limited to:


 vulnerability models
 cross-cultural differences influencing body dissatisfaction
 socialization differences leading to different symptoms of PTSD.

The focus of the response should be on the cognitive factors or sociocultural factors influencing
abnormal behaviour. However, it is appropriate and useful for candidates to address other factors
(including biological factors) in order to respond to the command term “to what extent”.

Candidates could choose to provide a general response on the extent to which cognitive or
sociocultural factors influence abnormal behaviour or they could provide a response discussing the
extent to which cognitive or sociocultural factors influence one specific disorder.

Candidates may consider a small number of cognitive or sociocultural factors in order to


demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may consider a larger number of cognitive or sociocultural
factors in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

Mindset Centre 22
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2. Discuss gender variations in the prevalence of one or more disorder(s).

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of
gender variations in the prevalence of one or more disorder(s).

Relevant research may include, but is not limited to:


 the effect of oestrogen on the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis (HPA) in response to stress
(Pasquali, 2012)
 vulnerability models/life stressors (eg Brown and Harris, 1978)
 bias in diagnosis (Caplan, 1995)
 gender norms (Brown and Harris, 1978)
 cognitive styles (eg Nolen-Hoeksema, 1994).

Discussion may include, but is not limited to:


 cultural considerations
 role of historical context
 methodological considerations
 empirical evidence
 comparison of validity of arguments.

Candidates may discuss a small number of gender variations in order to demonstrate depth of
knowledge, or may discuss a larger number of gender variations in order to demonstrate breadth of
knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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3. Evaluate the use of an eclectic approach to treatment.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of an eclectic approach to treatment. Although a discussion of both
strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks.

An eclectic approach to treatment refers to instances where the therapist selects treatments and
strategies from a variety of current approaches. Responses may refer to an eclectic treatment in
general or an eclectic treatment for specific disorders.

Candidates may claim clinicians have realized that often one type of treatment is not enough.
Many examples of eclectic approaches to treatment are available: for example, for severely
depressed individuals combining CBT (cognitive behavioural therapy) and drug therapy is a popular
choice; Sharp et al. (1999) found that in a study of depressed individuals, the most significant
treatment gains were seen in a combination of drug therapy and CBT.

Strengths of the eclectic approach may include, but are not limited to:
 strengths of each separate approach are combined so that potential limitations of a specific
approach are decreased
 the overall treatment is tailored to the specific needs of the client
 it provides flexibility in treatment (for example, many patients suffer from several disorders at
the same time)
 lower relapse rates.

Limitations of the eclectic approach may include, but are not limited to:
 too complex for one clinician to manage
 difficult to empirically study its effectiveness
 using too many approaches may reduce the effectiveness of each individual approach.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for
criterion C, organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension.
Candidates may evaluate one or a small number of eclectic approaches in order to demonstrate
depth of knowledge, or may evaluate a larger number of approaches in order to demonstrate breadth
of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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Developmental psychology

4. Examine how one or more biological factors influence human development.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “examine” requires candidates to consider how biological factors affect human
development in a way that uncovers the interrelationships of this issue.

Responses may refer to biological factors including, but not limited to:
 the effects of maturation of the nervous system and cognitive development
 Waber’s (2007) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) studies of normal brain development
 the role of neuroplasticity in brain development
 the role of stress hormones on faulty development
 the role of sex hormones
 Bowlby’s theory that attachment is innate.

Evidence of critical thinking may be provided by candidates in the following ways:


 discussing the issue of reductionism
 asserting that human development is the result of complex interactions between biological,
sociocultural and cognitive factors
 evaluation of empirical research
 methodological and ethical considerations.

Although the focus of the answer should be on biological factors, candidates may discuss how
cognitive and sociocultural factors interact with biological factors. Biology and experience are
assumed to act together to produce the normal course of development (eg when examining the
influence of gender on human development, candidates could assert the presence of an interaction
between sociocultural and biological factors).

Candidates may address one biological factor in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may
address more than one biological factor in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge.
Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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5. Evaluate one theory of cognitive development.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of one theory of cognitive development. Although a discussion of both
strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks.

Relevant theories may include, but are not limited to:


 Piaget’s theory of cognitive development
 Vygotsky’s theory of cognitive development
 Kohlberg’s cognitive theory of moral judgement
 information-processing approach to cognitive development
 Bruner’s theory of cognitive development
 neurobiological theories of cognitive development.

Evaluation of the selected theory may include, but is not limited to:
 methodological, cultural and gender considerations
 controversies related to stages versus continuous process
 the accuracy and falsifiability of the concepts
 productivity of the theory in generating psychological research
 applicability of the theory such as its impact on educative practice or work
 supporting and contradicting evidence.

If a candidate evaluates more than one theory, credit should be given only to the first evaluation.
However, candidates may address other theories and be awarded marks for these as long as they are
clearly used to evaluate the main theory addressed in the response.

A discussion of attachment theory or other theories that are not cognitive in nature should not be
awarded marks.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for
criterion C, organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension.

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6. Discuss two strategies to build resilience.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review that
includes a range of arguments, factors or hypotheses of two strategies building resilience, which is
the ability to overcome adversity.

Candidates may refer to factors associated with resilience such as caring and supportive
relationships within the family, skills in communication and problem-solving, the capacity to make
realistic plans and take steps to carry them out, education, and relationships with pro-social adults.

Strategies may include, but are not limited to:


 social programmes for youth such as Head Start or the Big Brothers Big Sisters programme
(Tierney et al., 1985)
 programmes dealing with parental education (for example, social learning theory)
(Sanders et al., 2002)
 developing skills to protect and promote well-being, for example, CBT (cognitive behavioural
therapy) and social skills training
 stress inoculation training
 programmes to develop psychological strengths (for example, anger management).

Relevant discussion may highlight that:


 resilience is a complex concept and it is important to put forward multiple ways of promoting it
 strategies building resilience should consider that a child’s ability to build resilience is dependent
on their age and stage of development
 these programmes may reflect cultural differences: a person’s culture might have an impact on
how he or she communicates feelings and deals with adversity
 being resilient does not guarantee that young people will always have happy and
productive lives.

If a candidate discusses more than two strategies, credit should be given only to the first two.
However, candidates may address other strategies and be awarded marks for these as long as they
are clearly used to evaluate one or both of the two main strategies addressed in the response.

If a candidate discusses only one strategy, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of
[5 marks] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4 marks] for
criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for criterion C, organization.

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Health psychology

7. Examine factors related to overeating and the development of obesity.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “examine” requires candidates to consider how different factors are related to
overeating and the development of obesity in a way that uncovers the interrelationships of this
issue.

Factors may include, but are not limited to:


 physiological factors – for example, genetic predisposition, the role of dopamine,
neurobiological explanation of food addiction
 psychological/cognitive factors – for example, low self-esteem, distorted body image,
pessimistic thinking patterns, cognitive restraint
 sociocultural factors – for example, sedentary lifestyle, high-fat diet, coping with poverty.

Relevant research may include, but is not limited to:


 Stunkard et al.’s (1990) study of identical twins reared apart – genetic factors accounted for
66–70 % of the variance in their BMI (body mass index)
 Theory of compulsive overeating – food craving is related to secretion of dopamine in the brain’s
reward circuit
 Volkow et al.’s (2002) fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging) study investigating the
brains of 10 obese individuals – scanning indicated that obese participants had the same
deficiency in dopamine receptors as drug addicts
 Restraint theory – this theory suggests that due to either external triggers or emotional
experiences a person is more likely to experience a lack of control that leads to overeating
 Jeffery (2001): an increasingly sedentary way of life promoted by too much television viewing,
and/or the preference for travelling in cars or buses leads to more people suffering from the
results of obesity.

Higher quality responses will probably argue that overeating and developent of obesity are the
result of complex interactions between biological, cognitive and/or sociocultural factors.

Candidates may address a small number of factors related to overeating and the development of
obesity in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may address a larger number of factors
related to overeating and the development of obesity in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge.
Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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8. Discuss physiological aspects of stress.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of
physiological aspects of stress.

Physiological aspects of stress may include, but are not limited to:
 the role of the brain in the development of stress and the mechanisms that exist in the brain that
seek to minimize stress (Hegel et al., 1989)
 adrenal responses to environmental stressors
 the role of cortisol on hippocampal cell loss
 the role of cortisol depletion on PTSD (post-traumatic stress disorder)
 the connection between stress and the immune system
 the link between stress and heart disease.

Research may include, but is not limited to:


 Cannon’s fight or flight theory (1914)
 Selye’s general adaptation syndrome model (1956)
 Kiecolt-Glaser et al.’s (1984) natural experiment to investigate whether the stress of an
important exam had an effect on the body’s immune functioning
 Vogelzangs et al.’s (2010) study on the link between high stress hormone levels and increased
cardiovascular mortality.

Candidates may legitimately consider psychological or social aspects of stress in order to offer
evidence of critical thinking, provided this is related to the question.

Candidates may consider a small number of physiological aspects of stress in order to demonstrate
depth of knowledge, or may consider a larger number of physiological aspects of stress in order to
demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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9. Evaluate treatments for substance abuse and/or addictive behaviour.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of the treatments used for substance abuse and/or addictive behaviour.
Although a discussion of both strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly
balanced to gain high marks.

Responses are not required to make a distinction between “substance abuse” and “addictive
behaviour”. Also the question is phrased in such a way that candidates may offer an evaluation of
treatments for only substance abuse, or only addictive behaviour or both. All responses are
equally acceptable.

Treatments may include, but are not limited to:


 secondary prevention strategies
 nicotine replacement therapy
 drug treatment
 MBSR (mindfulness-based stress reduction)
 combination treatment (for example, offering Zyban and providing group-based cessation
treatment)
 group therapies (for example, Alcoholics Anonymous).

Relevant research may include, but is not limited to:


 Davis et al.’s (2007) study on effectiveness of MBSR
 Hughes’s (1993) research on the effectiveness of nicotine replacement therapy
 Jorenby et al.’s (1999) study on the effectiveness of nicotine patches and Zyban in
smoking cessation.

Candidates may consider a small number of treatments for substance abuse and/or addictive
behaviour in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may consider a larger number of
treatments for substance abuse and/or addictive behaviour in order to demonstrate breadth of
knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for
criterion C, organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension.

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Psychology of human relationships

10. Discuss factors influencing bystanderism.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of
factors influencing bystanderism.

Bystanderism can be defined as the tendency of a person not to intervene despite awareness of
another person’s need.

Factors may include, but are not limited to:


 Latané and Darley’s (1968) research which looked at the role of the number of people available
to help (diffusion of responsibility) as well as the informational social influence (pluralistic
ignorance)
 cognitive dissonance and arousal (Piliavin, 1981)
 the costs versus benefits of helping (Piliavin et al., 1969)
 personality and/or social norms (Oliner and Oliner, 1989)
 cultural norms (Levin, 1990).

Discussion may include, but is not limited to:


 cultural considerations
 role of historical context
 methodological considerations
 empirical evidence
 arguments for the existence of altruism
 application of programmes to promote prosocial behaviours (eg Zimbardo’s heroism project).

Candidates may discuss a small number of factors influencing bystanderism to demonstrate depth of
knowledge, or may discuss a larger number of factors influencing bystanderism in order to
demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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11. Explain the role that culture plays in the formation and maintenance of relationships.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “explain” requires candidates to give a detailed account, including reasons or
causes, of why culture plays an important role in the formation and maintenance of relationships.

Candidates do not need to distinguish between the formation and maintenance of relationships, as
the two are so closely linked.

Evidence of critical thinking may be provided by candidates in the following ways:


 Analysing how and/or why factors within and/or between cultures affect relationships.
 Discussing interaction between biological and cultural factors.
 Evaluation of relevant research.
 Discussing the role of the individualistic–collectivistic dimension. For example, individualistic
cultures focus on individual choice and romantic love whereas collectivist cultures often
emphasize arranged marriages.
 Analysing the difference between continuous versus discontinuous cultures. Continuous
societies show a concern for heritage and tradition, whereas discontinuous cultures focus on
youth and progress, and change is seen as important and inevitable.
 Asserting that equity is not a universal value in relationships.
 Debating universality – for example, evolutionary theory suggests there are some universals in
the formation and maintenance of relationships.

Studies may include, but are not limited to:


 Yelsma and Athappilly’s (1988) comparative study of Indian arranged marriages and American
love marriages
 Levine et al.’s (1995) study on the role of love in the establishment of marriage
 Buss’s (1994) cross-cultural study of relationships
 Canary and Dainton’s (2003) study of Korean relationships
 Ahmad and Reid’s (2008) study of communication styles in arranged marriages.

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12. Evaluate psychological research (theories and/or studies) relevant to the origins of attraction.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of studies and/or theories relevant to the origins of attraction. Although a
discussion of both strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to
gain high marks.

Theories and/or studies include, but are not limited to:


 the role of neurotransmitters (Fisher, 2004) and hormones
 evolutionary explanations (Buss, 1996)
 the role of self-esteem
 social exchange theory (Kelley and Thibaut, 1959)
 proximity theory
 the role of cultural norms.

Evaluation of the research may include, but is not limited to:


 methodological considerations
 cultural and gender considerations
 the accuracy and clarity of the concepts
 contrary findings or explanations
 the productivity of the theory in generating psychological research
 the applications of the empirical findings.

Candidates may evaluate a small number of studies and/or theories in order to demonstrate depth of
knowledge, or may evaluate a larger number of studies and/or theories in order to demonstrate
breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for
criterion C, organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension.

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Sport psychology

13. Explain relationships between team cohesion and performance.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “explain” requires candidates to give a detailed account including reasons or
causes for relationships between team cohesion and performance.

The word “team” should be interpreted to include sports in which all team members participate at
the same time (for example, football) or in which team members participate one at a time
(for example, track and field).

Studies include, but are not limited to:


 Locke and Latham (1985) on the value of process goals and their potential to enhance team
performance
 Slater and Sewall (1994) on the bidirectional relationship between team cohesion and
performance
 Gould et al. (1999) on US Olympic teams’ cohesiveness and performance
 Grieve et al.’s (2000) study on the unidirectional relationship of team cohesion and performance
 Carron et al.’s (2002) study on the positive effect of team cohesion on performance
 Ingham et al.’s (1974) study on “social loafing” as a result of team cohesion.

Evidence of critical thinking may be provided by candidates in the following ways:


 gender and/or cultural factors
 analysis of negative and/or positive effects
 bidirectionality
 factors other than team cohesion that influence performance
 evaluation of relevant research.

Candidates may explain a small number of relationships between team cohesion and performance in
order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may address a larger number of relationships between
team cohesion and performance in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge.
Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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14. Discuss research (theories and/or studies) relating arousal and/or anxiety to performance.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of how
arousal and/or anxiety may affect performance in sport.

Candidates do not have to distinguish between arousal and anxiety in their responses.

Research suggests that the relationship between arousal/anxiety and performance in sport is
multi-dimensional and complex. Cognitive, emotional and physical factors combine in various
ways to produce various performance outcomes.

Research may include, but is not limited to:


 Yerkes and Dodson’s (1908) inverted-U hypothesis
 Oxendine’s (1970) study on level of arousal and optimal performance in different sports
 Baumeister’s (1984) explicit monitoring theory and “choking”
 Fazey and Hardy’s (1988) study on cognitive anxiety and “choking”
 Hanin’s (1997) optimum arousal theory
 Klavora’s (1998) study on pre-game anxiety and optimal performance
 Gucciardi and Dimmock’s (2002) study on overthinking and performance deterioration.

Candidates may discuss a small number of theories and/or studies in order to demonstrate depth of
knowledge, or may discuss a larger number of theories and/or studies in order to demonstrate
breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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15. Discuss athlete response to stress and/or chronic injury.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of
athlete response to stress and/or chronic injury.

Candidates may focus their responses on stress alone, chronic injury alone, or address both topics in
their answers. Candidates may consider how stress and chronic injury may interact, and this is also
a valid approach to the question.

Research may include, but is not limited to:


 Williams et al. (1991) on stress, reduction of attention, and injury
 Anderson and Williams (1999) on negative life-events, stress and injury
 Cramer et al. (2000) on stress and impaired healing
 Smith et al. (2000) on stress, muscle tension and injury
 Perna et al. (2003) on stress, sleep disturbances, and impaired healing.

In regard to chronic injury, research may include, but is not limited to:
 Hardy and Crace’s (1990) application of Kubler-Ross’s model to rehabilitation
 Nixon (1992) on coping in a sport “culture of risk”
 Brewer’s (1994) critique of the Kubler-Ross model
 Petipas and Danish (1995) on identity loss in response to injury
 Shuer et al. (1997) on avoidance coping
 Udry et al.’s (1997) information-processing model of injury response
 Wiese-Bjornstall’s (1998) cognitive appraisal model and coping.

If a candidate addresses only general theories/models of stress without linking them to athlete
response, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [3 marks] for criterion A,
knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [3 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and
up to a maximum of [2 marks] for criterion C, organization.

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Markscheme

May 2015

Psychology

Higher level and standard level

Paper 2

18 pages

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This markscheme is confidential and for the exclusive use


of examiners in this examination session.

It is the property of the International Baccalaureate and


must not be reproduced or distributed to any other person
without the authorization of the IB Assessment Centre.

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Paper 2 assessment criteria

A — Knowledge and comprehension

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 3 The answer demonstrates limited knowledge and understanding that is of marginal relevance
to the question. Little or no psychological research is used in the response.

4 to 6 The answer demonstrates limited knowledge and understanding relevant to the question or
uses relevant psychological research to limited effect in the response.

7 to 9 The answer demonstrates detailed, accurate knowledge and understanding relevant to the
question, and uses relevant psychological research effectively in support of the response.

B — Evidence of critical thinking: application, analysis, synthesis, evaluation

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 3 The answer goes beyond description but evidence of critical thinking is not linked to the
requirements of the question.

4 to 6 The answer offers appropriate but limited evidence of critical thinking or offers evidence of
critical thinking that is only implicitly linked to the requirements of the question.

7 to 9 The answer integrates relevant and explicit evidence of critical thinking in response to the
question.

C — Organization

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 2 The answer is organized or focused on the question. However, this is not sustained
throughout the response.

3 to 4 The answer is well organized, well developed and focused on the question.

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Abnormal psychology

1. Discuss one theory or study relevant to the study of abnormal behaviour.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of
one theory or study relevant to the study of abnormal behaviour.

Relevant theories or studies may be related to, but are not limited to:
• models of normality
• etiologies of disorders
• cultural or gender considerations in diagnosis
• effectiveness of treatment
• studies of validity and reliability of diagnosis.

Discussion of the theory or study may include, but are not limited to:
• methodological and ethical considerations
• cultural and gender considerations
• the accuracy and clarity of the concepts
• contrary findings or explanations
• the productivity of the theory in generating psychological research
• applications of the findings of the theory or study.

If a candidate discusses more than one theory or study, credit should be given only to the
discussion of the first theory or study. However, candidates may address other theories or studies
and be awarded marks for this as long as these theories or studies are clearly used to discuss the
main theory or study addressed in the response.

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2. Discuss one or more cultural considerations in diagnosis.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of
cultural considerations relevant to diagnosis.

Discussions may include, but are not limited to:


• how different cultures define abnormality
• classificatory systems may be culturally biased
• difference in prevalence rates across cultures
• changes in culture over time
• symptoms may be culturally determined
• emic versus etic approaches to diagnosis
• culture-bound syndromes
• “over-pathologizing” due to lack of understanding of different cultural norms.

Candidates may discuss one cultural consideration in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge,
or may discuss a larger number of cultural considerations in order to demonstrate breadth of
knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

The focus of the response must be on cultural considerations in diagnosis. If cultural


considerations related to abnormal psychology in general, or treatment of specific disorders, are
addressed, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for criterion A, knowledge and
understanding, up to a maximum of [4] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2]
for criterion C, organization.

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3. Contrast the use of biomedical and individual approaches to the treatment of one disorder.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “contrast” requires candidates to give an account of the differences between
biomedical and individual approaches to the treatment of one disorder.

Expect a range of different approaches to treatment to be offered in response to the question.


Individual treatments could include systematic desensitization, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
or person-centred therapy. Biomedical approaches could include drug therapy, electroconvulsive
therapy (ECT) or psychosurgery, for example. Responses should provide an accurate and
well-organized description of both approaches to treatment.

Responses may contrast, but are not limited to:


• the effectiveness of the two approaches to treatment;
• the assumptions about etiology upon which they are based with regard to the disorder;
• cultural, gender, ethical or practical issues related to the implementation of biomedical and
individual approaches to the treatment of one disorder.

Responses should be focused on biomedical and individual approaches to treatment of one


specific disorder in order to demonstrate detailed knowledge and understanding relevant to the
question.

It is acceptable for candidates to refer to an eclectic approach that combines biomedical and
individual approaches to treatment of one disorder as part of critical thinking.

If a candidate contrasts the use of biomedical and individual approaches to treatment for more than
one disorder, credit should be given only to the part of the response relevant for the first disorder.

If a candidate constrasts the use of biomedical and individual approaches to the treatment with no
explicit link to one specific disorder, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [4] for
criterion A, knowledge and understanding, up to a maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking,
and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

The focus of the response must be on differences between biomedical and individual approaches
to treatment. If only similarities between biomedical and individual approaches to treatment are
addressed, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [6] for criterion A, knowledge and
understanding, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2]
for criterion C, organization.

If the response contrasts group/biomedical approaches to treatment or group/individual


approaches to treatment, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [4] for criterion A,
knowledge and understanding, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a
maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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Developmental psychology

4. Examine how one or more social and/or environmental variables may affect cognitive
development.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “examine” requires candidates to uncover the assumptions and
interrelationships between social and/or environmental variables and cognitive development.
The variables examined do not have to be specifically identified as social or environmental as they
are arguably very much related.

Candidates may examine social/environmental variables in relation to specific aspects of cognitive


development (for example, memory, intelligence or attention) or examine cognitive development in
general. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

Candidates may examine positive influences of social/environmental variables (for example,


Head Start programmes or parental training) as well as negative influences (for example,
deprivation or trauma) on cognitive development.

Variables may include, but are not limited to:


• interactions with parents, siblings, peers, teachers and other significant figures (for example,
Farah et al., 2008)
• social/environmental variables in relation to specific cultures differ in the kinds of cognitive skills
that are valued and consequently encouraged and developed (Vygotsky, 1978; Cole and
Scribner, 1974)
• children living in poverty are more likely to suffer from learning disabilities and developmental
delays (for example, Rutter’s studies; Krugman, 2008)
• malnutrition can influence cognitive development (for example, Bhoomika et al., 2008)
• early nutritional supplements in the form of protein and increased calories can have positive
long-term consequences for cognitive development (Pollitt, 1995).

Animal studies may be used to support the answer as long as they are explicitly linked to human
cognitive development.

Candidates may examine one variable in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may
examine a larger number of variables in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both
approaches are equally acceptable.

If a candidate only examines how one or more social and/or environmental variables may affect
attachment, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for criterion A, knowledge
and understanding, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum
of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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5. Examine how attachment in childhood plays a role in the formation of relationships later in life.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.


The command term “examine” requires candidates to uncover the assumptions and
interrelationships between childhood attachment and relationships later in life.

Responses should highlight that research has found several indications of associations between
attachment in childhood and relationship development in later life even if there is no clear evidence
of direct causality.

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Pratt and Norris (1994) showed that, among older people, the more positive their earlier
attachment relationships, the more positive their reports on their current social relationships.
• Hazan and Shaver (1987) showed similarities between romantic love as experienced by adults
and the characteristics of attachment.
• Sternberg and Beall (1991) pointed out that many adults find that their relationships vary: with
one partner, they experience an insecure bond, but with the next a secure one. Similarly,
research into infant attachment has shown that a child could be securely attached to one
parent, but be anxious towards the other.

Responses referring to research with animals, such as Harlow’s experiments with rhesus monkeys,
are relevant but must be linked to attachment in human children and its role in the subsequent
formation of relationships.

In order to demonstrate knowledge relevant to the question, responses should focus on the effect
of attachment in childhood on later formation of relationships. Descriptions of research on
attachment in childhood with no link to subsequent formation of relationships (such as Bowlby or
Ainsworth) should be awarded up to a maximum of [4] for criterion A, knowledge and
understanding, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2]
for criterion C, organization.

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6. Evaluate two examples of psychological research (theories and/or studies) into adolescence.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal of two examples of
psychological research into adolescence by weighing up the strengths and the limitations.
Although a discussion of both strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly
balanced to gain high marks.

Research is defined as including both psychological theories and studies. Candidates can choose
any combination, as long as two relevant examples are provided.

Relevant theories may include, but are not limited to:


• Erikson’s identity theory
• Coleman’s focal theory
• Baethge’s cultural theory
• Elkind’s theory of adolescent egocentrism.

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Marcia’s identity studies
• Mead’s anthropological studies
• Rutter et al.’s studies on the relationships between adolescents and their parents
• Steinberg’s studies on parent-adolescent conflicts
• studies related to teenage brain development.

Evaluation of the research may include, but is not limited to:


• methodological considerations
• cultural and gender considerations
• contrary findings or explanations
• the productivity of the theory in generating psychological research
• the applications of the theories.

If a candidate evaluates more than two theories or studies, credit should be given only to the first
two theories or studies. However, candidates may address other theories or studies and be
awarded marks for this as long as these theories or studies are clearly used to evaluate the two
main theories or studies addressed in the response.

If a candidate evaluates only one theory or study, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4] for criterion
B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension.

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Health psychology

7. Explain two or more factors related to the development of substance abuse and/or addictive
behaviour.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “explain” requires candidates to give a detailed account of factors related to
the development of substance abuse and/or addictive behaviour, including reasons or causes.

Candidates do not need to distinguish between factors related to either substance abuse or
addictive behaviour.

Relevant factors may include, but are not limited to:


• parental influence (Bauman et al., 1990)
• peer pressure (Unger et al., 2001)
• genetic and biological factors (Heath and Madden, 1995; Overstreet, 2000)
• role of advertising and marketing (Charlton et al., 1997; Chen et al., 2005)
• personality traits (Stein et al., 1987)
• cognitive factors such as expectancies regarding the effects of substances (Brown et al., 1980,
Hansen et al., 1991).

Examples of how candidates may show evidence of critical thinking may include, but are not
limited to:
• analysis of the methodology and/or ethical considerations
• application of empirical support in relation to a given problem or issue
• using evidence from studies that support or disconfirm a theory, model or concept
• analysis of the interaction between biological, cognitive and cultural factors
• questioning the direction of cause and effect.

Candidates may explain two factors in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may explain a
larger number of factors in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge.
Both approaches are equally acceptable.

If a candidate explains only one factor, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [5]
for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4] for criterion B, critical
thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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8. Evaluate two treatments for overeating and/or obesity.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of two treatments for obesity. Although a discussion of both strengths
and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks.

Treatment approaches may include, but are not limited to:


• various forms of diets, including low-carbohydrate and low-fat diets (Geissler and Powers, 2005)
• Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT): research such as Beck (2005) who found that CBT could
help patients to deal with cognitions that lead to obesity.
• drug treatments such as appetite suppressants (Berkowitz et al., 2006) or lipase inhibitors
• surgical procedures such as gastric bypass and gastric banding (Maggard et al., 2005)
• group-based treatments such as Weight Watchers or Overeaters Anonymous (Westphal and
Smith, 1996).

Evaluation of the treatments may include, but is not limited to:


• cultural and gender considerations
• empirical findings
• condition under which the treatments may be employed
• comparison to other treatments.

If a candidate evaluates more than two treatments, credit should be given only to the evaluation of
the first two treatments. However, candidates may address other treatments and be awarded
marks for these as long as these treatments are clearly used to evaluate one or both of the two
main treatments addressed in the response.

If a candidate evaluates only one treatment, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of
[5] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4] for criterion B, critical
thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension.

Responses may discuss preventative strategies for overeating and/or obesity (for example, health
promotion strategies) and this approach should be awarded marks if the response indicates how
this preventative strategy contributes to treatment for overeating and/or obesity. One example of
how this might be approached would be a statement such as: “one strategy is public service
announcements advocating exercise and/or healthy eating habits and although it appears to be a
preventative strategy it may also serve as a facet of treatment.”

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9. Discuss the effectiveness of one or more health promotion strategies.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of the
effectiveness of one or more health promotion strategies.

There is no explicit reference to a specific area of health promotion within health psychology in this
question so candidates may choose any relevant area, for example those studied in the health
psychology option such as drug abuse or obesity. However, the response may also include an
area not specifically mentioned in the programme, such as practising safe sex to prevent HIV.

Candidates should focus their response on the effectiveness of one or more health promotion
strategies. It is appropriate for candidates to address models and theories of health promotion
such as the health belief model, stages of change model, theory of reasoned action etc in their
discussion of a health promotion strategy.

Relevant health promotion strategies may include, but are not limited to:
• the Victoria (Australia) campaign, “Go for your life” promoting healthy eating and exercise in
schools (2004)
• the Florida (US) campaign, “TRUTH” an anti-smoking campaign arranged by and aimed at
adolescents (1998–1999)
• the Canadian community-based peer intervention programme to prevent pregnant mothers from
drinking alcohol (Carr, 1994)
• social learning theory (for example, the Sabido method to encourage safe sex practices).

Discussion may include, but is not limited to:


• challenges in measuring outcomes of strategies and campaigns
• conditions under which the strategy may be employed
• cultural and ethical considerations
• empirical evidence (for example, experimental research into the use of fear appeals in health
messages).

Candidates may discuss the effectiveness of one health promotion strategy in order to
demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may discuss the effectiveness of more than one health
promotion strategy in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally
acceptable.

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Psychology of human relationships

10. To what extent do two or more cognitive factors influence human relationships?

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the merits or otherwise of the
argument that (two or more) cognitive factors influence human relationships.

Candidates may address any aspects of the psychology of human relationships option (for
example, social responsibility, interpersonal relationships, and/or violence).

Candidates may choose to discuss the extent to which cognitive factors influence one or more
aspects of human relationships. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

Relevant factors may include, but are not limited to:


• cognitive dissonance (Batson et al.’s (1981) empathy-altruism model of helping behaviour)
• self-esteem (Kiesler and Baral’s (1970) study of the role of self-esteem in attraction)
• social learning theory (Bandura 1961,1963, 1965)
• attribution (Markey and Markey, 2007)
• language/communication (Gottmann, 1977).

It is appropriate and useful for candidates to address biological and/or sociocultural factors in order
to address the command term “to what extent”.

Candidates may discuss two cognitive factors in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may
discuss a larger number of cognitive factors in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both
approaches are equally acceptable.

If a candidate discusses only one factor, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [5]
for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4] for criterion B, critical
thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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11. Using one or more research studies, explain cross-cultural differences in prosocial behaviour.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “explain” requires candidates to give a detailed account, including reasons, for
cross-cultural differences in prosocial behaviour.

Relevant factors may include, but are not limited to:


• cultural norms
• different socialization processes in an individual’s upbringing
• cultural dimensions (for example, individualism versus collectivism).

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Whiting’s (1979) research on the role of extended family
• Bond and Leung’s (1988) research on in-group bias
• Levine’s studies on cultural differences in prosocial behaviour
• Whiting and Whiting’s (1975) research into altruism levels in children from industrialized and
non-industrialized countries.

Examples of how candidates may show evidence of critical thinking may include, but are not
limited to:
• analysis of the methodology and/or ethical considerations
• application of empirical support in relation to a given problem or issue
• alternative explanations of prosocial behaviour
• addressing the issue of universality (for example, kin selection theory) versus cultural
differences.

Candidates may use one research study in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may use a
larger number of research studies in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches
are equally acceptable.

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12. Discuss two social origins of attraction.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of two
different social origins of attraction. Candidates can uncover how social interaction or the social
situation of the individual can influence attraction.

Candidates are not required to differentiate between social, environmental, and cultural origins of
attraction.

Explanations of the social origins of attraction may include, but are not limited to:
• proximity theory of attraction
• cultural norms
• physical attractiveness
• the mere exposure effect
• social exchange theory
• social identity theory.

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Simmons et al.’s (1986) study investigating cross-cultural differences in the way romantic love is
valued
• Buss’s (1994) questionnaires on mate selection from respondents in 37 countries
• Zajonc et al.’s (1960s) studies on the mere exposure effect.

Discussion points may include, but are not limited to:


• alternative factors (cognitive and biological)
• supporting evidence
• methodological considerations
• reductionist approach.

If a candidate discusses more than two social origins of attraction, credit should be given only to
the discussion of the first two social origins of attraction. However, candidates may address other
origins of attraction and be awarded marks for these as long as these factors are clearly used to
discuss one or both of the two social origins of attraction addressed in the response.

If a candidate discusses only one social origin of attraction, the response should be awarded up
to a maximum of [5] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4] for
criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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Sport psychology

13. Evaluate one or more theories of motivation in sport.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of one or more theories of motivation in sport. Although a discussion of
both strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high
marks.

Relevant theories may include, but are not limited to:


• cognitive-evaluation theory
• achievement goal theory
• self-efficacy theory
• inverted U theory
• McClelland–Atkinson model (MAM).

Candidates could make theories of intrinsic or extrinsic motivation relevant to the question, as well
as general motivation theories such as instinctual models, drive models or expectancy theories by
directly linking the theories to sport.

Evaluation of the selected theories may include, but is not limited to:
• methodological considerations
• cultural and gender considerations
• difficulties in defining and measuring motivation
• contrary findings or explanations
• the productivity of the theory in generating psychological research
• the applications of the theories.

Candidates may evaluate one theory in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may evaluate
a larger number of theories in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are
equally acceptable.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension.

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14. Evaluate one or more techniques for skill development used in sport.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of techniques for skill development used in sport. Although a discussion
of both strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high
marks.

Techniques may include, but are not limited to:


• specific imagery for skills
• mental rehearsal of strategies
• imagining positive outcomes
• progressive relaxation techniques
• positive self-talk
• repetition of proper technique.

Evidence for the strengths of these techniques includes:


• studies supporting the efficacy of the techniques
• theories supporting the efficacy of techniques, for example, psychoneuromuscular theory,
information-processing model of imagery.

Evidence for the limitations of these techniques includes:


• absence of empirical evidence for the efficacy of some techniques
• empirical research questioning the efficacy of some techniques
• ecological validity of experiments
• anecdotal nature of some evidence
• use of retrospective accounts.

Relevant research may include, but is not limited to:


• Martin et al. (1995) on positive self-talk in long-distance running
• Issac (1992) on mental practice in trampoline skill development
• Baroga (1973) on the use of imagery by weightlifters
• Rushall (1970) on mental rehearsal in swimmers.

Candidates may evaluate one technique for skill development in order to demonstrate depth of
knowledge, or may evaluate a larger number of techniques for skill development in order to
demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension.

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15. Discuss two or more reasons for using drugs in sport.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of
why people use drugs in sport.

The question is specifically asking about reasons for using drugs in sport. Discussion of addiction
or drug abuse is not the focus of the question. Candidates may address both licit and illicit use of
drugs in sport. A discussion of blood doping in sport is an appropriate topic for use in a response.

Reasons for using drugs in sport include, but are not limited to:
• improvement of performance
• prolong a career in sport
• more rapid recovery from injury
• stress reduction
• pain reduction
• increase attractiveness
• peer pressure.

Relevant research includes, but is not limited to:


• Shermer’s (2008) application of game theory (eg prisoner’s dilemma) to drug usage in sport
• Anshel (1998) on the role of social learning theory in drug use in young athletes
• Whitehead et al. (1992) on steroid use in US male high school students
• Newman and Newman (1991) on the role of conformity in steroid use by Canadian adolescent
athletes.

Candidates may discuss two reasons in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may discuss
a larger number of reasons in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are
equally acceptable.

If a candidate discusses only one reason, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of
[5] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4] for criterion B, critical
thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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Markscheme

November 2015

Psychology

Higher level and Standard level

Paper 2

18 pages

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This markscheme is confidential and for the exclusive use


of examiners in this examination session.

It is the property of the International Baccalaureate and


must not be reproduced or distributed to any other person
without the authorization of the IB Assessment Centre.

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Paper 2 assessment criteria

A — Knowledge and comprehension

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 3 The answer demonstrates limited knowledge and understanding that is of marginal relevance
to the question. Little or no psychological research is used in the response.

4 to 6 The answer demonstrates limited knowledge and understanding relevant to the question or
uses relevant psychological research to limited effect in the response.

7 to 9 The answer demonstrates detailed, accurate knowledge and understanding relevant to the
question, and uses relevant psychological research effectively in support of the response.

B — Evidence of critical thinking: application, analysis, synthesis, evaluation

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 3 The answer goes beyond description but evidence of critical thinking is not linked to the
requirements of the question.

4 to 6 The answer offers appropriate but limited evidence of critical thinking or offers evidence of
critical thinking that is only implicitly linked to the requirements of the question.

7 to 9 The answer integrates relevant and explicit evidence of critical thinking in response to
the question.

C — Organization

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 2 The answer is organized or focused on the question. However, this is not sustained
throughout the response.

3 to 4 The answer is well organized, well developed and focused on the question.

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Abnormal psychology

1. Explain two etiologies of one disorder from one of the following groups:

• anxiety disorders
• eating disorders.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “explain” requires candidates to give a detailed account, including causes, of
one disorder.

Etiology refers to the cause(s) or origins of an abnormal condition.

Anxiety disorders may include, but are not limited to:


• phobias
• PTSD (post-traumatic stress disorder)
• OCD (obsessive-compulsive disorder).

Eating disorders may include, but are not limited to:


• anorexia
• bulimia
• binge eating disorders.

The two etiologies explained could be from different levels of analysis or the same level
of analysis.

Examples of how candidates may show evidence of critical thinking could include:
• analysis of the methodology and/or ethical considerations
• application of empirical support in relation to a given problem or issue
• using evidence from studies that support or disconfirm a theory, model or concept
• analysis of the interaction between biological, cognitive and cultural factors
• addressing the issue of universality versus cultural differences
• questioning the direction of cause and effect.

If a candidate explains the etiology of a disorder which is neither an anxiety nor eating disorder
(for example, schizophrenia, ADHD or depression) then the response should be awarded
[0 marks] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [3 marks] for
criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for criterion C, organization.

If a candidate explains more than two etiologies, credit should be given only to the first two
explanations. However, in some cases, candidates may use other etiologies in order to
demonstrate critical thinking relevant to the two main etiologies addressed in the response.
This approach is acceptable and should be awarded marks.

If a candidate explains etiologies of more than one disorder, credit should be given only to the
first disorder.

If a candidate explains only one etiology of a disorder, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5 marks] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of
[4 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for criterion C,
organization.

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2. To what extent do one or more biological factors influence abnormal behaviour?

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the contributions of biological
factors influencing abnormal behaviour.

Anxiety disorders, affective disorders and eating disorders will most likely be presented. It is,
however, acceptable to use other examples of disorders or abnormal behaviours.

Biological factors could, for example, include:


• brain damage
• the role of genes
• biochemical factors (eg hormones and neurotransmitters).

Candidates could choose to provide a general response on the extent to which biological factors
influence abnormal behaviour or they could provide a response discussing the extent to which
biological factors influence one specific disorder.

Candidates may examine one biological factor in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may
examine a number of biological factors in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both
approaches are equally acceptable.

It is appropriate and useful for candidates to address cognitive and/or sociocultural factors in order
to respond to the command term “to what extent”.

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3. Discuss psychological research (theories and/or studies) relevant to validity and reliability
of diagnosis.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of
psychological research related to various aspects of validity and reliability of diagnosis.

Anxiety disorders, affective disorders and eating disorders will most likely be presented. It is,
however, acceptable to use other examples of disorders or abnormal behaviours.

Although a discussion of psychological research on both validity and reliability is required, it does
not have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks. The terms “validity” and “reliability” need to be
consistently and appropriately used throughout the response.

Theories and studies may include, but are not limited to:
• Cooper’s (1972) study on inter-rater reliability in the UK and USA
• Rosenhan et al.’s (1973) study on validity of diagnosis
• Nicholls et al.’s (2000) correlational study of inter-rater reliability across several diagnostic
systems.

Candidates may refer to Szasz's criticism (in The Myth of Mental Illness: foundations of a theory of
personal conduct (1961)) of the validity of the term “mental illness” as long as the focus of the
response is on the process of diagnosis.

Discussion of the selected research may include but is not limited to:
• methodological considerations
• the use of classification systems
• cultural and gender considerations
• the accuracy and clarity of concepts of disorders
• contrary findings or explanations.

Candidates may discuss a relatively small number of theories and/or studies in order to
demonstrate depth of knowledge or a greater number of theories and/or studies in order to
demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

If a candidate discusses only one theory/study the response should be awarded up to a maximum
of [5 marks] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4 marks] for
criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for criterion C, organization.

If a candidate discusses only “validity” or only “reliability” the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5 marks] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of
[4 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for criterion C,
organization.

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Developmental psychology

4. Evaluate one theory or study relevant to developmental psychology.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of one theory or one study relevant to developmental psychology.
Although a discussion of both similarities and differences is required, it does not have to be evenly
balanced to gain high marks.

Candidates should address research on the topics covered in the psychology guide ie cognitive
development, social development (attachment and resilience), and identity development
(adolescence and gender roles).

Research may include but is not limited to:


• a theory or study on cognitive development (eg Piaget, Vygotsky, Kohlberg, Bruner)
• identity research (eg Erikson, Marcia, Elkind, Coleman)
• research on attachment (eg Bowlby, Ainsworth, Hazan and Shaver)
• a theory or study on resilience (eg Cyrulnik, Werner)
• a gender role theory or study (eg Kohlberg, Bem, Mead).

Responses may also focus on a general theory such as social learning theory, psychodynamic
theory or evolutionary theory. Both approaches are equally acceptable as long as these theories
are relevant to developmental psychology.

Evaluation of the selected research should be the focus of the answer and may include, but is not
limited to:
• methodological and ethical considerations
• cultural and gender considerations
• contrary findings or explanations
• the productivity of the theory in generating psychological research
• the applications of the empirical findings.

If a candidate evaluates more than one theory or study, credit should be given only to the first
evaluation. Candidates may address other research (theories/studies) and be awarded marks for
these as long as they are clearly used to evaluate the main research addressed in the response.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for
criterion C, organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension.

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5. Discuss one or more potential effects of deprivation and/or trauma in childhood on later
development.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of the
potential effects of deprivation and/or trauma in childhood on later development. Candidates may
address deprivation and/or trauma experiences and they do not have to specifically identify them
as deprivation or trauma situations.

Research may include, but is not limited to:


• Rutter (1981) and Rutter et al. (2001)
• Case study of Genie
• Bowlby’s maternal deprivation hypothesis
• Cockett and Tripp’s (1994) study on long-term attachment deprivation effects
• Cyrulnik’s theory of resilience
• Koluchova’s case study showing the possibility to reverse the effects of deprivation
• Tedeschi and Calhoun’s (2004) theory on the positive aspects emerging from the struggle
with trauma.

Discussion may include, but is not limited to:


• traditional deterministic theories of deprivation
• methodological and ethical considerations
• research dealing with how resilience and protective factors reduce the impact of deprivation or
trauma in childhood
• biological, cognitive or sociocultural factors in relation to potential effects of deprivation or
trauma in childhood on later development.

Candidates may make reference to animal studies as part of their response, and credit should be
awarded for this as long as they relate the findings to human development.

Candidates may discuss one or a small number of potential effects of deprivation/trauma in order
to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may discuss a larger number of potential effects of
deprivation/trauma in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally
acceptable.

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6. To what extent does physical change influence the development of identity during adolescence?

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the merits or otherwise of the
argument that physical change during adolescence influences identity development. Candidates
should highlight how physical change affects the formation of identity and specify that there are
other contributing factors in the development of identity.

Relevant content may provide an outline of the emergence of primary and secondary sexual
characteristics and address how those changes affect identity formation during adolescence.

Responses may include, but are not limited to:


• the difficulty of generalizing the psychological effects of physical changes: these effects depend
on the timing of puberty and they differ in boys and girls
• the development of identity is influenced by the interaction of biological, cognitive and social
factors and is not dominated by biology
• culture is also a strong determinant in self-perception and body shape perception
• researchers have expressed doubt that puberty’s effects on development of identity are as
strong as once believed.

Responses may refer to research such as:


• Simmons and Blyth’s cultural ideal hypothesis
• Mead’s cross-cultural research on gender role development
• studies on the timing of puberty and its impact on body image, self-esteem and behaviour:
Jones (1965), Blyth, Bulcroft and Simmons (1981), Brooks-Gunn and Paikoff (1993).

Candidates who do not make any explicit reference to the link between physical change during
adolescence and identity can be awarded up to up to [6 marks] for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension, up to [6 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to [2 marks] for criterion C,
organization.

Candidates who address only “physical change during adolescence” or only “development of
identity” can be awarded up to [4 marks] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to
[3 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to [2 marks] for criterion C, organization.

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Health psychology

7. Discuss two prevention strategies for obesity.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of the
chosen prevention strategies.

Prevention strategies aim to change an individual’s lifestyle by targeting healthier eating, more
exercise or both. Prevention strategies could include, but are not limited to:
• government intervention programmes, such as requiring labelling of all food products or
imposing zoning laws for better access to healthy food markets (Ashe et al., 2003)
• campaigns promoting healthy eating (Golan et al., 1998)
• exercise awareness campaigns (Huhman et al., 2005)
• national health campaigns, such as the British Nutrition Foundation’s eatwell plate which
emphasizes healthy eating (2007).

Discussion may include but is not limited to:


• cultural and gender considerations
• empirical findings
• appropriateness of the strategies
• the effectiveness of combining strategies.

If a candidate discusses only one prevention strategy, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5 marks] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of
[4 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for criterion C,
organization.

If a candidate discusses more than two prevention strategies, credit should be given only to the
first two. Candidates may address other strategies and be awarded marks for these as long as
they are clearly used in the discussion of one or both of the two main strategies addressed in
the response.

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8. Evaluate two examples of psychological research (theories and/or studies) relevant to health
psychology.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal of two examples of
research relevant to health psychology by weighing up the strengths and the limitations of either
studies and/or theories. Although a discussion of both strengths and limitations is required, it does
not have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks.

Candidates should address research on the topics covered in the psychology guide ie stress,
addiction, substance abuse, obesity, and health promotion.

Theories may include, but are not limited to:


• Theories related to stress (GAS, fight or flight, cognitive appraisal model)
• Theories of health promotion (health belief model, theory of reasoned action, theory of planned
behaviour).

Studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Speisman et al.’s (1964) study on the role of appraisal in stressful situations
• Evans and Kim (2007) examined the role of stress and long-term exposure to poverty
in childhood
• Shapiro (1998) examined mindfulness-based stress reduction as a coping mechanism for
exam stress
• Stahre et al.’s (2007) study examining the effectiveness of cognitive behavioural therapy on
weight loss
• Stunkard et al.’s (2002) study investigating the role of genes and weight.

Evaluation of research may include but is not limited to:


• methodological, cultural, ethical or gender considerations
• the applications of the empirical findings
• the productivity of the theory in generating psychological research
• comparison to other research
• contrary findings or explanations.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for
criterion C, organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension.

If a candidate evaluates only one example of research, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5 marks] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of
[4 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for criterion C,
organization.

If a candidate evaluates more than two examples of research, credit should be given only to the
first two. Candidates may address other examples of research and be awarded marks for these as
long as they are clearly used in the evaluation of one or both of the two main examples of research
addressed in the response.

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9. Discuss one or more strategies for coping with stress.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of
one or more strategies for coping with stress.

Relevant strategies (including models and techniques) may include, but are not limited to:
• problem-focused and emotion-focused strategies (Lazarus and Folkman, 1975, 1988)
• forms of cognitive behavioural therapy such as stress inoculation training (Meichenbaum, 1985)
• social support groups/networks (Brown and Harris, 1978)
• mindfulness-based stress reduction strategies (Kabat-Zinn, 1979)
• Candidates may also address ineffective or unhealthy coping strategies, such as drug taking,
alcohol abuse, smoking, overeating, or the use of defence mechanisms.

Discussion of the strategies may include the following points:


• research supporting or refuting the effectiveness of these strategies
• presenting possible methodological, ethical or cultural considerations of the research referenced
relating to the coping strategy
• a comparison and/or contrast of the two strategies.

Candidates may discuss one strategy in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge or a greater
number of strategies in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally
acceptable.

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Psychology of human relationships

10. Evaluate one or more theories and/or studies on factors influencing bystanderism.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal of research (theories
and/or studies) related to factors influencing bystanderism by weighing up strengths and limitations
of the research. Although a discussion of both strengths and limitations is required, it does not
have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks.

In choosing psychological research related to factors influencing bystanderism, candidates may


choose to focus either on research that examines why people become bystanders, or why
individuals choose not to be bystanders, or a combination of both. If a candidate discusses one or
more theories, the candidate is not required to include studies to back up their argument.

Theories may include, but are not limited to:


• diffusion of responsibility
• pluralistic ignorance
• deindividuation.

Studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Piliavin et al. (1969)
• Latané and Darley (1968)
• Levine et al.’s (1990) cross-cultural study.

Evaluative comments may include, but are not limited to:


• strengths and limitations of the selected research
• application of findings
• methodological, cross-cultural, gender and ethical considerations
• productivity of the theory in generating psychological research
• comparison to other research
• contrary findings or explanations.

Candidates may evaluate one theory/study in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may
evaluate a larger number of theories/studies in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both
approaches are equally acceptable.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for
criterion C, organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension.

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11. Examine the role of communication in maintaining relationships.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “examine” requires candidates to consider the role of communication in human
relationships in ways that uncover the relationship between communication and maintaining
relationships.

Relevant studies and/or theories may include, but are not limited to:
• gender-based communication styles (Tannen, 1990)
• the importance of self-disclosure (Altman and Taylor’s social penetration theory, 1973)
• the role of micro-expressions (Gottman and Levinson, 1986)
• attributional styles (Bradbury and Fincham, 1990).

Responses may address issues such as, but not limited to:
• cultural biases in research
• difficulties of carrying out research on communication styles
• ethical concerns when conducting research.

Descriptions of research on communication that do not demonstrate the role of communication in


maintaining relationships should be awarded up to a maximum of [4 marks] for criterion A,
knowledge and understanding, up to a maximum of [3 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and
up to a maximum of [2 marks] for criterion C, organization.

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12. Discuss one or more sociocultural explanations of the origins of violence.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of the
chosen sociocultural factor(s) and the origins of violence.

Responses may include, but are not limited to, discussion of:
• social identity theory (for example, Maass, 2003)
• social learning theory (for example, Bandura, 1961)
• negative social schemas (for example, Bradshaw, 2004)
• subculture of violence theory (Nisbett and Cohen, 1996).

Discussion of the sociocultural explanation may include, but is not limited to:
• cultural and gender considerations
• empirical findings that support or refute the explanation
• comparison/contrast to other explanations.

Although the main focus of the response should be on sociocultural explanations, cognitive and
biological explanations are acceptable as part of a balanced response.

Candidates may discuss one sociocultural explanation of the origins of violence in order to
demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may examine a larger number of sociocultural explanations of
the origins of violence in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally
acceptable.

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Sport psychology

13. Explain the role of goal-setting in the motivation of individuals engaged in sport.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “explain” requires candidates to give a detailed account, including reasons or
causes, related to the role of goal-setting in the motivation of individuals engaged in sport.

Relevant concepts, studies, and theories could include, but are not limited to:
• achievement goal theory (for example, Duda and Hall, 2001)
• the role of outcome, performance, and process goals (for example, Steinberg et al., 2000)
• Duda et al. (1998) on the relationship between goals and perception of success in children
engaged in sport
• Smith (1994), SMART – components of effective goal setting
• Elliot and Dweck (1988) on ego orientation versus task orientation
• Locke and Latham (1981, 2006) on the role of goal-setting in regulating performance and
increasing self-efficacy.

Examples of how candidates may show evidence of critical thinking could include:
• analysis of the methodology and/or ethical considerations
• application of empirical support in relation to a given problem or issue
• using evidence from studies that support or disconfirm a theory, model or concept
• addressing the issue of universality versus cultural differences
• questioning the direction of cause and effect.

Candidates may explain theories and/or studies but they are not required to explain both a theory
and a study related to goal-setting in the motivation of individuals engaged in sport.

Descriptions of research on goal-setting in motivation without a link to motivation in sport should be


awarded up to a maximum of [4 marks] for criterion A, knowledge and understanding, up to a
maximum of [3 marks] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2 marks] for
criterion C, organization.

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14. To what extent does the role of coaches affect individual and/or team behaviour in sport?

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the merits or otherwise of how
the role of the coach affects individual and/or team behaviour.

Coaches can have a positive or negative effect on the athletes they coach. Candidates may
consider topics such as the role of the coach in regard to the motivation of the athlete,
self-efficacy, goal-setting, the role of feedback in improving performance, the role of coaches in
team cohesion, and the role of coaches’ expectations in the performance of athletes.

Candidates may adopt another approach and discuss the difficulties of assessing the influence of
coaches. This approach could include discussion of the difficulty in isolating variables, the problem
of generalizability (transference) or the general subjectivity of this type of research.

Both approaches may be mixed in a response.

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Garcia-Bengoechea (2003) on peers’ versus coaches’ effect on athlete motivation
• Jowett and Cockerill (2003) on coaches’ characteristics and successful Olympic swimmers
• Duda and Pensgaard (2002) on improving intrinsic motivation
• Chase et al. (1997) on coaches’ sense of self-efficacy and team performance
• Slavin (1995) on facilitating a community of cooperative learners
• Horn and Lox (1993) on the role of coaches’ expectations on athlete performance.

It is appropriate and useful for candidates to address personality characteristics, financial


motivations, peer influences, etc in order to respond to the command term “to what extent”.

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15. Discuss one or more effects of drug use in sport.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of the
effects of drug use in sport. Effects may contribute positively and/or negatively to an athlete’s
performance.

Effects of drug use may include, but are not limited to:
• physical effects such as quicker healing from injury, weight gain, liver/kidney damage, increased
risk of heart damage/stroke, weakened tendons
• psychological effects such as increased aggression, increased risk of mental illness, mood
swings (including “roid rage” as a result of steroid use)
• addiction and withdrawal symptoms
• masculinization and feminization of athletes
• enhanced performance
• the masking of pain, leading to greater injury.

Studies related to effects of drug use in sport could include, but are not limited to:
• Liv et al. (2008) on unclear results of use of human growth hormone on athletic performance
• McGrath and Cowan (2008) on drug use in sport including effect on performance and
detrimental effects
• Tokish et al. (2004) on performance and side effects of performance enhancing drugs
• Pope and Katz (1988) on steroid use and increased mood disorders
• Yates et al. (1992) on steroid use and increased aggression
• Brower et al. (1991) on steroid use leading to addiction.

Candidates may discuss one effect in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge or may discuss a
larger number of effects in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are
equally acceptable.

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Markscheme

May 2016

Psychology

Higher level and standard level

Paper 2

19 pages

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This markscheme is confidential and for the exclusive use


of examiners in this examination session.

It is the property of the International Baccalaureate and


must not be reproduced or distributed to any other person
without the authorization of the IB Assessment Centre.

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Paper 2 assessment criteria

A — Knowledge and comprehension

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 3 The answer demonstrates limited knowledge and understanding that is of marginal relevance
to the question. Little or no psychological research is used in the response.

4 to 6 The answer demonstrates limited knowledge and understanding relevant to the question or
uses relevant psychological research to limited effect in the response.

7 to 9 The answer demonstrates detailed, accurate knowledge and understanding relevant to the
question, and uses relevant psychological research effectively in support of the response.

B — Evidence of critical thinking: application, analysis, synthesis, evaluation

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 3 The answer goes beyond description but evidence of critical thinking is not linked to the
requirements of the question.

4 to 6 The answer offers appropriate but limited evidence of critical thinking or offers evidence of
critical thinking that is only implicitly linked to the requirements of the question.

7 to 9 The answer integrates relevant and explicit evidence of critical thinking in response to the
question.

C — Organization

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 2 The answer is organized or focused on the question. However, this is not sustained
throughout the response.

3 to 4 The answer is well organized, well developed and focused on the question.

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Abnormal psychology

1. Compare and contrast two approaches to the treatment of one disorder.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “compare and contrast” requires candidates to give an account of similarities
and differences between two approaches to the treatment of one disorder. Although a discussion
of both similarities and differences is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high
marks.

Expect a range of different approaches to treatment to be offered in response to the question.


Individual treatments could include systematic desensitization, cognitive behavioural therapy
(CBT), and person-centred therapy. Group approaches could include group cognitive therapy,
group mindfulness-based cognitive therapy (MBCT), or family therapy. Biomedical approaches
could include drug therapy, electrical brain stimulation, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), or
surgery.

Responses could compare and contrast:


• the effectiveness of the two approaches to treatment
• etiological assumptions influencing the treatment
• the role of the therapist
• appropriateness for different cultural contexts
• ethical considerations
• cost in time and money
• strengths and limitations of the approaches to treatment.

If a candidate compares and contrasts the use of two approaches to the treatment for more than
one disorder, credit should be given only to the part of the response relevant for the first disorder.

Candidates may address two approaches to treatment of a general disorder (for example, an
eating disorder) or a more specific type of disorder (for example, anorexia/bulimia). Both
approaches are equally acceptable.

Candidates may address two broad approaches to treatment of one disorder (for example,
individual cognitive approach to treatment versus group cognitive approach to treatment) or two
specific treatments of one disorder (for example, CBT versus MBCT). Both approaches are
equally acceptable.

If a candidate discusses only similarities or only differences, the response should be awarded up to
a maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension.

If a candidate compares and contrasts the use of two approaches to the treatment but does not
refer to a disorder, the response should be awarded a maximum of [4] for criterion A, knowledge
and understanding, up to a maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking and up to a maximum of
[2] for criterion C, organization.

If a candidate discusses treatment without specifically linking that treatment to an approach to


treatment, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [6] for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion B, critical thinking, and for criterion
C, organization.

If a candidate only describes and evaluates one approach to treatment with no specific reference
to another approach to treatment, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for

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criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking,
and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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2. Discuss ethical considerations in diagnosis.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of
ethical considerations in diagnosis.

Ethical considerations may include, but are not limited to:


• consequences of an incorrect diagnosis on treatment and the health of the client (self-fulfilling
prophecies)
• effects of labelling
• the possibility of stigmatization once a client is diagnosed
• confidentiality of diagnosis
• over-diagnosis of certain disorders (for example, in relation to gender and culture)
• potential bias in diagnosis by the doctor.

Responses may include, but are not limited to, the following theories and studies:
• Scheff (1966): labelling theory applied to the term “mentally ill”
• Thoits (1985) self-labelling processes in mental illness
• Broverman et al. (1970): gender bias in diagnosis
• Rosenhan et al. (1973): being sane in insane places
• Szasz's claim that most mental disorders should be considered as problems in living.
• Langer and Abelson (1974): studies regarding the prejudice and discrimination experienced by
persons perceived as having a mental illness.

Candidates may refer to ethical considerations related to treatment, institutionalization,


cultural/gender or other issues, and these should be credited if they are explicitly linked to
diagnosis.

If a candidate discusses diagnosis but makes no reference to ethical considerations (for example,
provides a general response about validity and reliability of diagnosis with no link to ethics) the
response should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2]
for criterion C, organization.

Candidates may discuss a small number of ethical considerations in diagnosis in order to


demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may discuss a larger number of ethical considerations in
diagnosis in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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3. Discuss gender variations in the prevalence of one or more disorders.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review that
addresses how gender may influence the prevalence of one or more disorder(s).

Relevant research may include, but is not limited to:


• the effect of estrogen on the hypothalamo-pituitary-adrenal axis (HPA) in relation to depression
• vulnerability models/life stressors (Brown and Harris, 1978)
• bias in diagnosis
• gender norms
• cognitive styles (Nolen–Hoeksema, 1994).

Discussion could include, but is not limited to:


• cultural considerations
• differences in reported and actual prevalence of a disorder
• role of historical context
• methodological considerations
• ethical considerations
• empirical evidence.

Candidates may discuss a small number of gender variations in order to demonstrate depth of
knowledge, or may discuss a larger number of gender variations in order to demonstrate breadth of
knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

Candidates may discuss one disorder in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may discuss
a larger number of disorders in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are
equally acceptable.

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Developmental psychology

4. Compare and contrast two theories of cognitive development.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “compare and contrast” requires candidates to give an account of similarities
and differences between two theories of cognitive development. Although a discussion of both
similarities and differences is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks.

Relevant theories may include, but are not limited to:


• Piaget’s assimilation/accommodation model of cognitive development
• Vygotsky’s contextual approach to cognitive development
• Bruner’s theory of cognitive development
• information-processing approach to cognitive development
• neurobiological explanations of cognitive development.

Comparing and contrasting points may include, but are not limited to:
• assumptions of the theories
• methodological considerations
• cultural and gender considerations
• stages versus continuous process
• productivity of the theories in generating psychological research
• applications of the empirical findings.

If a candidate discusses only similarities or only differences, the response should be awarded up to
a maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension.

If a candidate only describes and evaluates one theory with no specific reference to another
theory, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2]
for criterion C, organization.

If a candidate compares and contrasts more than two theories, credit should be given only to the
first two theories. However, candidates may address other theories and be awarded marks for
these as long as they are clearly used to clarify the comparison of the two main theories addressed
in the response.

If a response is based upon theories of attachment rather than cognitive development, the
response should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2]
for criterion C, organization.

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5. Discuss the formation and development of gender roles.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review that
includes a range of arguments, factors or hypotheses of the formation and development of gender
roles.

Candidates do not need to distinguish between the formation and development of gender roles, as
the two are so closely linked.

Relevant theories may include, but are not limited to:

• gender schema theory that stresses the key role of cognitive processes in the development of
gender roles
• social learning theory that highlights the importance of the social environment and emphasizes
the potency of observational and modelling processes
• theory of psychosexual differentiation that is based on the assumption that gender roles are
related to genetic sex determined by chromosomes
• evolutionary theory that attempts to locate gender role differences in a historical evolutionary
context
• psychodynamic theory that is based on the assumption that gender roles appear when children
identify with their same-sex parent.

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:

• Martin and Halvorson’s study (1983) showing the role of gender schemas on gender roles
• Fagot’s study (1978) showing the influence of parents on gender roles
• Mead’s study (1935) showing that gender roles depend upon the society
• Money and Ehrhardt’s study (1972) claiming that children are gender neutral at birth.

Discussion may include but is not limited to:


• supporting and contradicting evidence
• the role of sociocultural factors such as media, parental influence or stereotypes
• sociocultural differences in conceptualization of gender roles
• the interaction of nature and nurture
• methodological and/or ethical considerations.

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6. Evaluate one or more strategies to build resilience.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of one or more strategies to build resilience. Although a discussion of
both strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high
marks.

Strategies to build resilience may include but are not limited to:
• social programmes for youth such as Head Start or the Big Brothers Big Sisters Programme
(Tierney et al. 1985)
• programmes dealing with parental education (Sanders et al. 2002)
• programmes developing skills to protect and promote well-being (for example,
cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) and social skills training)
• stress inoculation training
• programmes to develop psychological strengths (for example, anger management).

Evaluation may include but is not limited to:


• methodological, cultural and gender considerations
• the importance of age and/or maturity of the individual
• the danger of a reductionist approach as resilience is complex and multiple ways of promoting it
should be proposed
• supporting and contradicting evidence.

If a candidate discusses only general issues related to resilience and does not address a strategy,
the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to [2] for criterion C,
organization.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension.

Candidates may evaluate one strategy in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may
evaluate a larger number of strategies in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both
approaches are equally acceptable.

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Health psychology

7. Discuss physiological and psychological aspects of stress.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of physiological and
psychological aspects of stress. Both aspects of stress must be discussed but this does not have
to be equally balanced in order to gain high marks.

Physiological aspects of stress may include, but are not limited to:
• the role of the brain in the development of stress and the mechanisms that exist in the brain that
seek to minimize stress (Hegel et al. 1989)
• adrenal responses to environmental stressors
• the role of cortisol depletion on post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
• the connection between stress and the immune system
• the link between stress and heart disease.

Psychological aspects of stress may include, but are not limited to:
• how an individual appraises a situation, ie cognitive appraisal
• attributional style, either positive or negative
• perceived threats to one’s “social self”
• role of personality in managing stress.

Research may include, but is not limited to:


• Canon’s fight or flight theory (1914)
• Selye’s general adaptation syndrome model (1956)
• Kiecolt–Glaser et al.’s (1984) natural experiment to investigate whether the stress of an
important exam had an effect on the body’s immune functioning
• Vogelzangs et al.’s (2010) study on the link between high stress hormone levels and increased
cardiovascular mortality
• Lazarus and Folkman’s (1984) transactional model of stress
• Kamen and Seligman’s (1987) study on attributional style and subsequent health predictors
• Kemeny et al.’s social self-preservation theory (2005)
• Sapolsky's (2000) study of the link between shrinkage of the hippocampus and cortisol.

Candidates may consider social aspects of stress in order to offer evidence of critical thinking,
provided the focus remains on the discussion of physiological and psychological aspects of stress.

Candidates may consider a small number of physiological and psychological aspects of stress in
order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may consider a larger number of physiological and
psychological aspects of stress in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches
are equally acceptable.

If a candidate discusses only physiological or only psychological aspects of stress, the response
should be awarded up to a maximum of [5] for criterion A, knowledge and understanding, up to a
maximum of [4] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization.

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8. To what extent do sociocultural factors influence health-related behaviour (stress, substance


abuse, addictive behaviour, overeating and/or obesity)?

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the merits or otherwise of the
argument that sociocultural factors influence health-related behaviour.

Candidates may approach health-related behaviour as a whole or use specific examples of


health-related behaviour. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

Sociocultural factors may include, but are not limited to:


• socio-economic status
• education
• cultural norms
• sociocultural norms, for example, sedentary lifestyle and attitudes to exercise/diet (Lakdawalla
and Philipson, 2002)
• influence of media (Huhman et al. 2005).

If a candidate addresses sociocultural factors and does not explicitly relate them to health-related
behaviour, award up to a maximum of [3] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a
maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization.

It is appropriate and useful for candidates to address biological and/or cognitive factors in order to
address the command term “to what extent”.

Candidates may address a small number of sociocultural factors in order to demonstrate depth of
knowledge, or may address a larger number of sociocultural factors in order to demonstrate
breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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9. Evaluate two treatments for substance abuse and/or addictive behaviour.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of two treatments used for substance abuse and/or addictive behaviour.
Although a discussion of both strengths and limitations of treatments is required for each
treatment, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks.

Responses are not required to make a distinction between “substance abuse” and “addictive
behaviour”. Also the question is phrased in such a way that candidates may offer an evaluation of
treatments for only substance abuse, or only addictive behaviour or both. All responses are
equally acceptable.

Different treatments may include, but are not limited to:


• nicotine replacement therapy
• drug treatment
• mindfulness-based stress reduction (MBSR)
• combination treatment (for example, offering Zyban and providing group-based cessation
treatment)
• group therapies (for example, Alcoholics Anonymous)
• self-efficacy training
• cognitive behaviour therapy and goal-setting training.

Relevant research may include, but is not limited to:


• Davis et al.’s (2007) study on effectiveness of MBSR in smoking cessation
• Sinclair’s (2001) and Krampe et al.’s (2006) studies on drug treatments and alcohol dependency
• Hughes's (1993) research on the effectiveness of nicotine replacement therapy
• Jorenby et al.’s (1999) study on the effectiveness of nicotine patches and Zyban in
smoking cessation.

Evaluation of the treatment may include but is not limited to:


• the effectiveness of treatment
• methodological considerations of research/studies
• cultural and/or gender considerations
• ethical considerations
• comparison with other treatments.

If a candidate evaluates more than two treatments, credit should be given only to the first two
treatments discussed. Candidates may address other treatments and be awarded marks for these
as long as they are clearly used to evaluate one or both of the two main treatments addressed in
the response.

If a candidate evaluates only one treatment, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of
[5] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4] for criterion B, critical
thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations for a treatment, the response should be
awarded up to a maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for
criterion C, organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension.

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Psychology of human relationships

10. Evaluate one theory explaining altruism in humans.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of one theory explaining altruism in humans. Although a discussion of
both strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high
marks.

Responses may refer to biological and/or psychological theories of altruism including, but not
limited to:
• Dawkins’ selfish gene theory
• kin selection theory
• Trivers’ reciprocal altruism theory
• Cialdini’s negative-state relief model
• Batson’s empathy-altruism model.

Animal research may be used as long as a clear link is made to human behaviour.

If a candidate evaluates more than one theory of altruism, credit should be given only to the first
evaluation, unless the other theory or theories are clearly used to evaluate the main theory, for
example, used to illustrate the strengths and/or limitations of the main theory.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to
a maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension.

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11. Analyse the role that culture plays in the formation and maintenance of relationships.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “analyse” requires candidates to bring out (emphasize) essential aspects of
the role that culture plays in the formation and maintenance of relationships.

Candidates do not need to distinguish between the formation and maintenance of relationships, as
the two are so closely linked.

Candidates may address different types of relationships, for example, romantic relationships,
marriages, friendship, family relationships.

Responses may include, but are not limited to:


• the role of individualism versus collectivism. Individualistic cultures emphasize the relevance of
individual choice and romantic love whereas collectivist cultures often emphasize arranged
marriages
• the difference between continuous versus discontinuous cultures. Continuous societies show a
concern for heritage and tradition, whereas discontinuous cultures focus on youth and progress,
and change is seen as important and inevitable
• equity is not a universal value in relationships
• in some traditional cultures chastity and homemaking skills are more valued in women
• evolutionary theory suggests there are universal patterns in the formation and maintenance of
relationships
• the role of cultural norms in the formation and maintenance of relationships.

Studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Yelsma and Athappilly’s (1988) comparative study of arranged marriages and love marriages
• Buss et al.’s (1990) study of international preferences in selecting mates (a study of 37 cultures)
• Levine et al.’s (1995) study on the role of love in the establishment of marriage
• Buss’s (1994) cross-cultural study of relationships
• Canary and Dainton’s (2003) study of Korean relationships
• Ahmad and Reid’s (2008) study of communication styles in arranged marriages.

Evidence of critical thinking may be provided by candidates in the following ways:


• a debate about universality
• comparing and contrasting cultural similarities and differences in relationships (for example,
do social norms affect how appropriate it is to express dissatisfaction with a marriage)
• discussing interaction between biological and cultural factors
• evaluation of relevant research.

If a candidate provides a general response about formation and maintenance of relationships with
no link to culture, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for criterion A, knowledge
and comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of
[2] for criterion C, organization.

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12. Discuss the effects of short-term and/or long-term exposure to violence.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review that
includes different effects of short-term and/or long-term exposure to violence.

It is not necessary for candidates to distinguish between short-term and long-term exposure to
violence.

Responses could focus on the effects of violence on individuals and/or groups. Examples of
violence may include, but are not limited to: bullying, domestic violence, war, terrorism, genocide.

Effects of exposure to violence may include, but are not limited to:
• physiological responses to stress (for example, fight or flight)
• cortisol depletion leading to chronic fatigue
• effects on mental health, for example, anxiety, low self-esteem, post-traumatic stress disorder
(PTSD), depression, suicide
• lower performance in school
• psychosomatic illnesses
• the circle of violence (for example, Totten’s (2003) study of domestic violence)
• delinquency.

Research may include, but is not limited to:


• Shalev and Freedman’s (2005) study on PTSD following terrorist attacks
• Kumar et al.’s (2005) study on the effect of domestic violence on mental health in Indian women
• Shuster et al.’s (2001) study of stress responses to exposure to terrorism during 9/11
• Hyman’s (1990) study of long-term exposure and depression.

Examples of discussion may include, but are not limited to:


• resilience (as an alternative argument)
• difficulty in obtaining empirical evidence
• difficulty in defining terms, for example, what is considered bullying
• gender and cultural differences.

Candidates may discuss a small number of effects in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or
may discuss a larger number of effects in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge.

NB for standardization: perhaps consider how to address responses that discuss the
short/long-term effects.

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Sport psychology

13. Compare and contrast two models of causes of burnout in sport.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “compare and contrast” requires candidates to give an account of similarities
and differences between two models of causes of burnout in sport. Although a discussion of both
similarities and differences is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks.

Burnout can be defined as psychological, emotional, and even physical withdrawal from an activity
that previously was enjoyable. Models/theories of the causes of burnout include, but are not
limited to:
• the cognitive-affective stress model
• negative training stress model
• self-determination theory
• investment model.

Comparing and contrasting points may include, but are not limited to:
• assumptions of the models
• methodological considerations
• cultural and gender considerations
• productivity of the models in generating psychological research
• applications of the empirical findings to specific sports.

In addition to the formal models listed above, candidates may also discuss the roles of coaches,
parents and peers in causing burnout, intrinsic versus extrinsic motivation, the role of injury,
challenges to identity, perfectionism and other psychological and physical factors in burnout.

If a candidate discusses only similarities or only differences, the response should be awarded up to
a maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension.

If a candidate describes and evaluates only one model of causes of burnout in sport the response
should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a
maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization.

If a candidate compares and contrasts more than two models, credit should be given only to the
first two models. However, candidates may address other models and be awarded marks for these
as long as they are clearly used to clarify the comparison of the two main models addressed in the
response.

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14. Evaluate one or more theories relating arousal and/or anxiety to performance in sport.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and the limitations of a theory relating arousal and/or anxiety to performance in sport.

Although a discussion of both strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly
balanced to gain high marks.

It is not necessary for candidates to distinguish between arousal and anxiety.

Theories include, but are not limited to:


• the inverted-U hypothesis
• drive theory
• the catastrophe model
• optimal arousal theory
• reversal theory
• the theory of self-efficacy.

Evaluation of the selected research may include but is not limited to:
• methodological considerations
• the accuracy and clarity of the concepts
• contrary findings or explanations
• the productivity of the theory in generating psychological research
• the applications of the empirical findings.

Candidates may discuss one theory in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may discuss a
larger number of theories in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are
equally acceptable.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5] for Criterion B, critical thinking and up to a maximum of [2] for Criterion C,
organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for Criterion A, knowledge and comprehension.

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15. Discuss athlete response to stress and/or chronic injury.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of athlete response
to stress and/or chronic injury.

Candidates may focus their responses on stress alone, chronic injury alone, or address both topics
in their answers. Candidates may consider how stress and chronic injury may interact, and this is
also a valid approach to the question.

Research with regard to stress may include, but is not limited to:
• Williams et al. (1991) on stress, reduction of attention, and injury
• Anderson and Williams (1999) on negative life-events, stress and injury
• Cramer et al. (2000) on stress and impaired healing
• Smith et al. (2000) on stress, muscle tension and injury
• Perna et al. (2003) on stress, sleep disturbances, and impaired healing.

Research with regard to chronic injury may include, but is not limited to:
• Hardy and Crace’s (1990) application of Kubler–Ross’s model to rehabilitation
• Brewer’s (1994) critique of the Kubler–Ross model
• Nixon (1992) on coping in a sport “culture of risk”
• Petipas and Danish (1995) on identity loss in response to injury
• Shuer et al. (1997) on avoidance coping
• Udry et al.’s (1997) information-processing model of injury response
• Wiese–Bjornstall’s (1998) cognitive appraisal model and coping.

Discussion could include, but is not limited to:


• cultural considerations
• gender considerations
• supporting or contradicting empirical evidence
• methodological considerations.

If a candidate addresses only general theories/models of stress without linking them to athlete
response to stress, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for criterion A,
knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to
a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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Markscheme

November 2016

Psychology

Higher level and standard level

Paper 2

18 pages

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This markscheme is confidential and for the exclusive use


of examiners in this examination session.

It is the property of the International Baccalaureate and


must not be reproduced or distributed to any other person
without the authorization of the IB Global Centre.

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Paper 2 assessment criteria

A — Knowledge and comprehension

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 3 The answer demonstrates limited knowledge and understanding that is of marginal relevance
to the question. Little or no psychological research is used in the response.

4 to 6 The answer demonstrates limited knowledge and understanding relevant to the question or
uses relevant psychological research to limited effect in the response.

7 to 9 The answer demonstrates detailed, accurate knowledge and understanding relevant to the
question, and uses relevant psychological research effectively in support of the response.

B — Evidence of critical thinking: application, analysis, synthesis, evaluation

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 3 The answer goes beyond description but evidence of critical thinking is not linked to the
requirements of the question.

4 to 6 The answer offers appropriate but limited evidence of critical thinking or offers evidence of
critical thinking that is only implicitly linked to the requirements of the question.

7 to 9 The answer integrates relevant and explicit evidence of critical thinking in response to the
question.

C — Organization

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 2 The answer is organized or focused on the question. However, this is not sustained
throughout the response.

3 to 4 The answer is well organized, well developed and focused on the question.

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Abnormal psychology

1. To what extent do sociocultural factors influence abnormal behaviour?

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the contributions of
sociocultural factors influencing abnormal behaviour.

Candidates could choose to provide a general response on the extent to which sociocultural
factors influence abnormal behaviour or they could provide a response discussing the extent to
which sociocultural factors influence one specific disorder.

Discussion may include, but is not limited to, the relevance of sociocultural factors for etiology,
diagnosis and treatment.

Sociocultural factors may include, but are not limited to:


• sociocultural stressors
• media influences
• cross-cultural differences influencing body dissatisfaction
• the link between poverty and mood disorders
• differences in socialization which may produce different symptoms in post-traumatic stress
disorder (PTSD).

Relevant research may include but is not limited to:


• Zhang’s (1998) study of mood disorders in China
• Jacobs’ (1998) investigation of Indian women in Great Britain
• Kleinman’s (1982) study of neurasthenia in China
• Jenkins-Hall and Sacco’s (1991) study of ethnicity bias in diagnosis.

It is appropriate and useful for candidates to address other factors (including biological and/or
cognitive factors) in order to respond to the command term “to what extent”. Higher quality
responses will probably argue that for most psychological disorders, the onset and development of
the disorder is a result of complex interactions between biological, cognitive and/or sociocultural
factors.

Candidates may consider a smaller number of sociocultural factors in order to demonstrate depth
of knowledge, or may consider a larger number of cognitive or sociocultural factors in order to
demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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2. Discuss concepts of normality and abnormality.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review that includes
various concepts of normality and abnormality.

Concepts of normality and abnormality may include, but are not limited to:
• the mental health criterion/model
• the statistical criterion/model
• abnormality as mental illness (medical model)
• the psychoanalytic explanation of the concept of abnormality
• the cognitive explanation of the concept of abnormality.

Discussion may include, but is not limited to:


• cross-cultural issues
• gender biases
• supporting or contradicting evidence
• the issue of labelling
• historical perspectives on changing norms on normality (for example, changing views on
homosexuality or political dissent)
• difficulties in defining normality/abnormality
• difficulties in diagnosing normality/abnormality.

Relevant research may include, but is not limited to:


• Rosenhan and Seligman (1984) – seven criteria of abnormality
• Jahoda (1958) – six characteristics of mental health
• Szasz (1962) – mental disorders as “problems in living”.

Candidates may discuss a small number of explanations of normality and abnormality in order to
demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may discuss a larger number of explanations of normality and
abnormality in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally
acceptable.

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3. Evaluate the use of an eclectic approach to treatment.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of an eclectic approach to treatment. Although a discussion of both
strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks.

An eclectic approach to treatment refers to instances where the therapist selects treatments and
strategies from a variety of current approaches. Responses may refer to an eclectic treatment in
general or an eclectic treatment for specific disorders. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

Many examples of eclectic approaches to treatment are available, for example:


• Sharp et al.‘s (1999) study of drug therapy combined with cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
• Pampallona’s (2004) analysis of the relative effectiveness of drug therapy versus combined
treatment
• Elkin et al.’s (1989) study of the relative effectiveness of interpersonal therapy (IPT), CBT, drugs
and placebo
• McDermut et al.’s (2001) study of group therapy versus CBT.

Strengths of the eclectic approach may include, but are not limited to:
• strengths of each separate approach are combined so that potential limitations of a specific
approach are decreased
• the overall treatment is tailored to the specific needs of the client
• it provides flexibility in treatment (for example, many patients suffer from several disorders at the
same time)
• lower relapse rates.

Limitations of the eclectic approach may include, but are not limited to:
• too complex for one clinician to manage
• difficult to empirically study its long-term effectiveness
• using too many approaches may reduce the effectiveness of each individual approach
• cost.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension.

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Developmental psychology

4. Discuss one example of psychological research (theory or study) into adolescence.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of
one theory or one study related to adolescence.

Relevant theories may include, but are not limited to:


• Erikson’s identity theory
• Coleman’s focal theory
• Baethge’s cultural theory
• Lewin’s field theory.

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Marcia’s studies on the different types of identity status
• Mead’s anthropological studies
• Rutter et al.’s studies on the relationships between adolescents and their parents
• Steinberg’s studies on parent-adolescent conflicts
• Condon’s (1987) study challenging the cross-cultural validity of Erikson’s theory
• Ferron’s (1997) cross-cultural study on body image in adolescence
• studies related to teenage brain development.

Discussion of the research may include, but is not limited to:


• appropriateness of concepts in explaining adolescence
• problems in explaining individual differences
• cultural and gender considerations
• methodological considerations
• supporting and contradicting evidence
• the productivity of the theory in generating psychological research
• the applications of the research
• stage versus continuous development.

If a candidate discusses more than one theory or study, credit should be given only to the first
theory or study. However, candidates may address other theories or studies and be awarded
marks for this as long as these theories or studies are clearly used to discuss the main theory or
study addressed in the response.

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5. To what extent does attachment in childhood play a role in the formation of relationships later
in life?

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the influence that attachment
in childhood has on relationships later in life.

In order to respond to the command term, it is appropriate and useful for candidates to highlight
that on one hand, research has found several indications of associations between attachment in
childhood and relationship development in later life and on the other hand, there is no clear
evidence of direct causality between attachment in childhood and formation of relationships later in
life.

Relevant research may include, but is not limited to:


• Pratt and Norris (1994) – the more positive earlier attachment relationships, the more positive
reports on current social relationships
• Hazan and Shaver (1987) – similarities between romantic love as experienced by adults and the
characteristics of attachment
• Rossi and Rossi (1990) – people who grew up in cohesive families tended to establish positive
relationships with their own partners
• Sternberg and Beall (1991) – many adults find that their relationships vary: with one partner,
they experience an insecure bond, but with the next a secure one
• Bowlby’s research on how maternal deprivation can affect an individual later in life.

Responses referring to research with animals, such as Harlow’s studies with rhesus monkeys, are
relevant but must be linked to attachment in humans.

Responses that focus only on descriptions of research on attachment in childhood with no link to
the formation of relationships later in life (such as Ainsworth) should be awarded up to a maximum
of [4] for criterion A, knowledge and understanding, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical
thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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6. Analyse cultural variation in gender roles.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “analyse” requires candidates to bring out (emphasize) the essential aspects
of cultural variation in gender roles.

Responses may address how sociocultural factors such as media, stereotypes, ethnic and cultural
experiences, peer, school and parental roles influence gender roles. It is appropriate to address
cross-cultural differences in gender roles related to behaviour such as aggression, workplace
roles/status, parenting behaviour, domestic work, and so on.

Relevant research may include, but is not limited to:


• Eagly’s social role theory
• Bandura’s social learning theory
• gender schema theory
• Money’s theory on gender roles
• Mead’s (1935) anthropological study
• Best et al.’s (1977) cross-cultural study on gender stereotypes
• Cuddy et al.’s (2010) study on how gender stereotypes are shaped in different cultures with
participants attributing positive traits to men
• Smith and Lloyd’s (1978) experiment on the perception of gender.

Examples of how candidates may show evidence of critical thinking may include, but are not
limited to:
• evidence from studies concerning the existence of cultural variation in gender roles
• the methodological and/or ethical considerations of research
• whether sociocultural influences create gender differences or merely accentuate them
• whether differences between males and females are purely social constructs or a result of
biological differences
• differences between collectivistic versus individualistic societies
• interaction between biological, cognitive and cultural factors.

Candidates may present one analysis of cultural variation in gender roles in order to demonstrate
depth of knowledge, or may present a number of analyses of cultural variation in gender roles in
order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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Health psychology

7. To what extent do cognitive factors influence health-related behaviour (stress, substance abuse,
addictive behaviour, overeating and/or obesity)?

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the merits or otherwise of the
influence of cognitive factors on health-related behaviour.

It is appropriate and useful for candidates to address sociocultural and/or biological factors in order
to respond to the command term “to what extent”.

Candidates may approach health-related behaviour as a whole or use specific examples of


health-related behaviour. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

Responses may include, but are not limited to:


• social self-preservation theory
• cognitive restraint theory
• the use of cognitive-behavioural therapy
• the health belief model
• cognitive dissonance theory (Festinger, 1956)
• self-perception theory (Bem, 1967).

Studies that relate to cognitive factors may include, but are not limited to:
• Kamen and Seligman (1987) who suggest that attributional style might predict health levels later
in life
• Greer’s (1979) study connecting beliefs and physiology.

Factors that are identified should be directly related to health-related behaviour. If a candidate only
addresses cognitive factors in general, without linking them to health-related behaviour, the
response should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2]
for criterion C, organization.

Candidates may address a smaller number of cognitive factors in order to demonstrate depth of
knowledge or may address a larger number of cognitive factors in order to demonstrate breadth of
knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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8. Evaluate one or more treatments for obesity.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal of one or more treatments
for obesity by weighing up the strengths and the limitations of each. Although a discussion of both
strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks.

Treatment choices include, but are not limited to:


• the behavioural programme developed by Stuart and Davis (1972) for a clinical setting
• cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) combined with dieting (eg Beck, 2005)
• the psycho-social method proposed by Blair-West (2007) that combines goal setting, diet,
physical activity and cognitive awareness
• drug treatments such as appetite suppressants and lipase inhibitors
• surgical procedures such as gastric bypass and gastric banding
• treatments such as Weight Watchers.

Evaluation of the treatments may include, but is not limited to:


• cultural and gender considerations
• empirical findings
• ethical considerations
• conditions where the treatments may be employed
• comparison to other treatment methods.

Candidates may address one treatment in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge or may
address a larger number of treatments in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both
approaches are equally acceptable.

If a candidate addresses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5] for critical thinking and up to a maximum of [2] for organization. Up to full marks
may be awarded for knowledge and comprehension.

Responses that only address prevention strategies should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for
criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking,
and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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9. Evaluate one or more models and/or theories of health promotion.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of one or more models or theories of health promotion. Although a
discussion of both strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to
gain high marks.

Models/theories may include, but are not limited to:


• the health belief model (HBM)
• the stages of change model
• any of the various public health promotions such as the VERB (2002–2006), TRUTH (1998–99),
tips from former smokers (2012), ACT against AIDS (2011), HEART campaign (Zambia 1990s–
2000).

Evaluation may include, but is not limited to:


• cultural or gender considerations
• ethical considerations
• the productivity of the model or theory in generating psychological research
• application of the empirical findings
• competing theories or studies
• cognitive dissonance theory.

Candidates may address one model or theory in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge or may
address a larger number of models and/or theories in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge.
Both approaches are equally acceptable.

If a candidate addresses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension.

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Psychology of human relationships

10. Evaluate psychological research relevant to strategies for reducing violence.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up


the strengths and limitations of theories and/or studies relevant to strategies for reducing
violence. Although a discussion of both strengths and limitations is required, it does not
have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks.

There are a number of different strategies that candidates may refer to. A strategy is any
plan of action or a programme for reducing violence.

Examples of psychological research relevant to strategies for reducing violence may


include, but are not limited to:
• Olweus’s (1993) longitudinal study on the effect of Olweus’s bullying prevention
program (OBPP) on bullying
• metropolitan area child study (MACS), 2002 – longitudinal study on the effectiveness of
a community-based strategy
• Aronson’s (1979) jigsaw classrooms research
• Wilson and Kelling’s (1982) broken windows theory
• Feshbach and Feshbach (1982) on the effect of empathy training on reducing violence
• Ferguson et al.’s (2007) meta-analysis of effectiveness of school based programmes.

Evaluation of the selected research may include but is not limited to:
• ethical considerations
• methodological considerations
• cultural and gender considerations
• the effectiveness of the strategies
• supporting and contradicting evidence
• the applications of the empirical findings.

Candidates may evaluate a small number of theories and/or studies relevant to strategies
for reducing violence in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may evaluate a larger
number of theories and/or studies on the effectiveness of strategies for reducing violence
in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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11. Discuss one or more biological origins of attraction.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of
one or more biological explanations for the origin of attraction.

Responses may include, but are not limited to:


• the role of neurotransmitters (eg Fisher, 2004) and hormones
• evolutionary explanations (eg Buss, 1996; mechanisms of attraction in the brain, eg findings
suggesting the hypothalamus triggers physiological arousal; the influence of pheromones eg
Wedekind’s sweaty T-shirt study)
• studies on male ritual behaviour in animals.

Discussion of the biological explanation of attraction may include, but is not limited to:
• contradictory findings
• methodological considerations
• gender considerations
• empirical evidence
• alternative explanations of attraction, such as social and/or cognitive
• relevance of animal research.

Candidates may address one or a small number of biological origins of attraction in order to
demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may address a larger number of biological origins of attraction
in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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12. Explain why relationships may change or end.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “explain” requires candidates to give a detailed account, including reasons and
causes, as to why relationships may change or end.

Candidates do not have to differentiate between relationships that change or end to gain high
marks.

Candidates may address different types of relationships, for example, romantic relationships,
marriages, friendship, family relationships.

Responses may address how factors such as predisposing personal factors, intimacy, commitment
or similar/different interests can influence if relationships may change or end.

As part of their explanation, candidates should outline the theories/studies that underpin these
explanations, evaluate their effectiveness, or discuss their application in different relationships.

Explanations may include, but are not limited to:


• social exchange theory
• equity theory
• patterns of accommodation
• attachment styles
• Sternberg’s triangular (triarchic) theory of love.

Evidence of critical thinking may be demonstrated by, but is not limited to:
• analysis and application of research
• a discussion of cultural differences
• a discussion of gender differences.

Studies could include, but are not limited to:


• Flora and Segrin (2003) on the role of perception of the relationship
• Duck et al. (1988) on the role of age differences in couples
• Duck (1992) on the role of socio-economic differences in couples.

Candidates may address a small number of explanations of why relationships may change or end
in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may address a larger number of explanations of
why relationships may change or end in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both
approaches are equally acceptable.

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Sport psychology

13. Evaluate two or more theories of motivation in sport.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal of two or more theories of
motivation used in sport psychology by weighing up the strengths and the limitations of each.
Although a discussion of both strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly
balanced to gain high marks.

Theories of motivation in sport include but are not limited to:


• cognitive evaluation theory (Deci, 1975)
• achievement motivation needs theory (McClelland and Atkinson, 1961)
• Intrinsic motivation (Ashford et al. 1993)
• extrinsic motivation (Smith et al. 1979)
• self-efficacy theory (Bandura, 1977)
• competence motivation theory (Harter, 1978)
• Murray’s need for achievement (1938)
• fear of failure (Atkinson and Litwin, 1960)
• self-determination theory (Deci and Ryan).

Evaluation may include but is not limited to:


• strengths and weaknesses of the theories
• practical applications and efficacy of the various theories
• cultural and/or gender considerations
• studies that are used to support or refute the theories.

Candidates may evaluate two theories in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may discuss
a larger number of theories to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally
acceptable.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations of theories of motivation in sports, the
response should be awarded a maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a
maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A,
knowledge and understanding.

If a candidate evaluates only one theory of motivation, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4] for criterion
B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

If a candidate only evaluates theories of motivation but does not apply them to sport psychology,
the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2]
for criterion C, organization.

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14. Discuss the use of two or more techniques for skill development in sport.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered and balanced review of two
or more techniques used for skill development in sport.

Techniques for skill development may include, but are not limited to:
• massed practice vs distributed practices (eg repetition) – Fitts and Posner (1967); Singer
(1965), Wickelgren (1981)
• mental imagery research: Rushall (1970), Baroga (1973); Issac (1992)
• research on self-talk (Martin et al. 1995, Landin and Herbert, 1999; Araki et al. 2006).

Discussion may include, but is not limited to:


• theories that underpin these techniques
• an evaluation of their effectiveness
• an application in different sports
• comparison between different techniques.

Candidates may discuss two techniques in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may
discuss a larger number of techniques to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are
equally acceptable.

If a candidate discusses only one technique, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of
[5] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4] for criterion B, critical
thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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15. Evaluate one or more examples of psychological research relevant to sport psychology.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal of one or more
psychological research theories/studies relevant to the study of sport psychology by weighing up
the strengths and the limitations of each. Although a discussion of both strengths and limitations is
required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks.

Relevant psychological research may include, but is not limited to:


• goal setting behaviour (Hochstetler et al. 1985)
• arousal and anxiety as they are related to performance (eg inverted U theory)
• relationships between team cohesion and performance and the role of the coach (Chase et al.
1997)
• athlete response to stress and/or chronic injury (Anderson and Williams, 1999)
• burnout in sport (Smith, 1986; Gould et al. 1996).

Evaluation of the selected research may include, but is not limited to:
• methodological considerations
• cultural and gender considerations
• the accuracy and clarity of the concepts
• contrary findings or explanations
• the applications of the empirical findings.

Candidates may evaluate one or a small number of studies/theories to demonstrate depth of


knowledge, or may evaluate a larger number of studies/theories to demonstrate breadth of
knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension.

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Markscheme

May 2017

Psychology

Higher level and standard level

Paper 2

20 pages

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This markscheme is confidential and for the exclusive use


of examiners in this examination session.

It is the property of the International Baccalaureate and


must not be reproduced or distributed to any other person
without the authorization of the IB Assessment Centre.

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The following are the annotations available to use when marking responses.

Annotation Explanation

Unclear

Incorrect Point

Good Response/Good Point

IR Irrelevant
AQ Answers the Question
CKS Clear Knowledge Shown
NAQ Not Answered Question

Apply to blank pages

On-page comment text box (for


adding specific comments)

Highlight (can be expanded)

TNCE Theory is Not Clearly Explained


CON Contradiction
DEV Development
D Description
DET Relevant Detail
EG Example
EVAL Evaluation
EXC Excellent Point
GP Good Point

Wavy Underline Tool

NE Not Enough
VL Very Limited
WKAR Weak Argument

You must make sure you have looked at all pages. Please put the annotation on any blank page,
to indicate that you have seen it.

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Paper 2 assessment criteria

A — Knowledge and comprehension

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 3 The answer demonstrates limited knowledge and understanding that is of marginal relevance
to the question. Little or no psychological research is used in the response.

4 to 6 The answer demonstrates limited knowledge and understanding relevant to the question or
uses relevant psychological research to limited effect in the response.

7 to 9 The answer demonstrates detailed, accurate knowledge and understanding relevant to the
question, and uses relevant psychological research effectively in support of the response.

B — Evidence of critical thinking: application, analysis, synthesis, evaluation

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 3 The answer goes beyond description but evidence of critical thinking is not linked to the
requirements of the question.

4 to 6 The answer offers appropriate but limited evidence of critical thinking or offers evidence of
critical thinking that is only implicitly linked to the requirements of the question.

7 to 9 The answer integrates relevant and explicit evidence of critical thinking in response to the
question.

C — Organization

Marks Level descriptor

0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

1 to 2 The answer is organized or focused on the question. However, this is not sustained
throughout the response.

3 to 4 The answer is well organized, well developed and focused on the question.

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Abnormal psychology

1. Contrast one individual approach (psychological, not biomedical) and one group approach to the
treatment of one disorder.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “contrast” requires candidates to give an account of differences between one
individual approach and one group approach to the treatment of one disorder.

Expect a range of different approaches to treatment to be offered in response to the question.


Individual treatments could include, but are not limited to: systematic desensitization, cognitive
behavioural therapy (CBT), and person-centred therapy. Group approaches could include, but are
not limited to: group cognitive therapy, group mindfulness-based cognitive therapy (MBCT), or
family therapy.

Responses could contrast:


 the effectiveness of the two approaches to treatment
 the role of the therapist
 appropriateness for different cultural contexts
 ethical considerations
 gender differences
 cost in time and money
 strengths and limitations of the approaches to treatment.

If a candidate contrasts the use of one individual approach and one group approach to the
treatment of more than one disorder, credit should be given only to the part of the response
relevant for the first disorder.

Candidates may address the use of one individual approach and one group approach to the
treatment of a general disorder (for example, an eating disorder) or a more specific type of disorder
(for example, anorexia/bulimia). Both approaches are equally acceptable.

Possible disorders likely to be addressed are major depressive disorder, anorexia and bulimia, but
other disorders are equally acceptable.

Although the focus of the question is on individual and group approaches, candidates may, as part
of the response, include reference to a combination of biomedical and other approaches.
However, contrasting a biomedical approach with either an individual approach or a group
approach to treatment is not appropriate.

If a candidate contrasts the use of one individual approach and one group approach to treatment
but does not refer to a specific disorder, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [4]
for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical
thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

If a candidate compares and contrasts the use of one individual approach and one group approach
to treatment rather than contrasting, the response should be awarded up to full credit for criterion
A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up
to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

If a candidate only compares the use of one individual approach and one group approach to
treatment rather than contrasting, the response should be awarded up to full credit for criterion A,
knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking and up to a
maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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If a candidate only describes and evaluates one approach to treatment with no specific reference
to another approach to treatment, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for
criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking,
and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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2. To what extent do biological factors influence abnormal behaviour?

Refer to the paper 2 markbands when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the contribution of biological
factors influencing abnormal behaviour. It may be appropriate and useful for candidates to
address the influence of other factors (for example, environmental factors) in order to respond to
the command term “to what extent”.

Anxiety disorders, affective disorders and eating disorders will most likely be presented.
It is, however, acceptable to use other examples of disorders or abnormal behaviours.

Biological factors could include, but are not limited to:


 the role of genes (for example, correlational studies related to eating disorders)
 hormones (for example, the cortisol theory of depression)
 neurotransmitters (for example, the serotonin hypothesis)
 evolutionary theories (for example, preparedness with phobias).

Candidates could choose to provide a general response on the extent to which biological factors
influence abnormal behaviour or they could provide a response discussing the extent to which
biological factors influence one specific disorder.

Candidates may address one or a small number of biological factors in order to demonstrate depth
of knowledge, or may address a larger number of biological factors in order to demonstrate breadth
of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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3. Discuss one or more cultural considerations in diagnosis.

Refer to the paper 2 markbands when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of cultural
considerations relevant to diagnosis.

Discussion points may include, but are not limited to:


 how different cultures define abnormality
 classification systems may be culturally biased
 difference in prevalence rates across cultures
 changes in culture over time
 symptoms may be culturally determined
 emic versus etic approaches to diagnosis
 culture-bound syndromes
 “over-pathologizing” due to lack of understanding of different cultural norms.

Candidates may discuss one cultural consideration in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or
may discuss a larger number of cultural considerations in order to demonstrate breadth of
knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

The focus of the response must be on cultural considerations in diagnosis. If cultural


considerations related to abnormal psychology in general, or treatment of specific disorders, are
addressed, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension, up to a maximum of [4] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2]
for criterion C, organization.

If a candidate discusses diagnosis but makes no reference to cultural considerations (for example,
provides a general response about validity and reliability of diagnosis with no link to culture) the
response should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2]
for criterion C, organization.

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Developmental psychology

4. Examine how one or more sociocultural factors influence human development.

Refer to the paper 2 markbands when awarding marks.

The command term “examine” requires candidates to consider how sociocultural factors affect
human development in a way that uncovers the interrelationships between sociocultural factors
and human development.

Sociocultural factors influencing human development may include, but are not
limited to:
 the influence of culture on cognitive development (for example, Vygotsky, 1978; Cole and
Scribner, 1974)
 the effect of poverty on cognitive development (for example, Krugman, 2008;
Schoon et al., 2002)
 the influence of culture on gender roles (for example, Cuddy et al., 2010; Best et al., 1977;
Mead, 1935)
 the influence of sociocultural factors in attachment (for example, Van Ijzendorn and
Kroonenberg, 1988)
 the role of contextual factors (family, school, neighbourhood, community and culture) on
resilience (for example, Love et al., 2005).

Responses must focus on the sociocultural influence and must make a clear link between the
selected sociocultural factor(s) and human development. However, candidates may address
biological and/or cognitive factors and be awarded marks for these as long as they are clearly used
to clarify the sociocultural influence on human development.

Candidates may discuss (one or) a small number of sociocultural factors in order to demonstrate
depth of knowledge, or may discuss a larger number of sociocultural factors in order to
demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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5. Examine the relationship between physical change and development of identity


during adolescence.

Refer to the paper 2 markbands when awarding marks.

The command term “examine” requires candidates to uncover the assumptions and
interrelationships between physical change and identity development during adolescence.

Relevant content may provide an outline of the emergence of primary and secondary sexual
characteristics then show how that affects identity formation during adolescence, such as:
 Simmons and Blyth (1987) – the cultural ideal hypothesis
 Ferron (1997) - cultural differences in the way adolescents view bodily changes
 Mead’s cross-cultural theory
 studies on the timing of puberty and its impact on body image, self-esteem and behaviour:
Brooks-Gunn and Paikoff (1993); Blyth, Bulcroft and Simmons (1981); Jones (1965).

The examined points may include, but are not limited to:
 the difficulty of generalizing the psychological effects of physical changes – they depend on the
timing of puberty and they differ in boys and girls
 the development of identity is influenced by the interaction of biological, cognitive and social
factors and is not dominated by biology
 culture is also a strong determinant in self-perception and body shape perception
 researchers have expressed doubt that puberty’s effects on development of identity are as
strong as once believed.

The answer should focus on the link between physical changes and identity development. It should
examine the fact that physical changes have psychological ramifications that contribute to an
adolescent’s sense of self.

If a candidate only addresses development of identity or only addresses physical change in


adolescence, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [4] for criterion A, knowledge
and comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum
of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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6. Evaluate one theory of cognitive development.

Refer to the paper 2 markbands when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of one theory of cognitive development. Although a discussion of both
strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks.

Relevant theories may include, but are not limited to:


 Piaget’s assimilation/accommodation model
 Vygotsky’s contextual approach to cognitive development
 Bruner’s theory
 information-processing approach to cognitive development
 neurobiological explanations.

Evaluation may include, but is not limited to:


 the accuracy and clarity of the concepts
 productivity of the theories in generating psychological research
 methodological, cultural and gender considerations
 contrary findings or explanations
 applications of the theory.

If a candidate addresses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension.

If a candidate evaluates more than one theory, credit should be given only to the first evaluation.
However, candidates may address other theories and be awarded marks for these as long as they
are clearly used to evaluate the main theory addressed in the response.

Although attachment theory is actually a factor in social rather than cognitive development, a
candidate may be able to make a direct link between attachment and cognitive development.
When this direct link has been made, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for
criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking,
and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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Health psychology

7. Evaluate two strategies for coping with stress.

Refer to the paper 2 markbands when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of two strategies used to cope with stress. Although a discussion of both
strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks.

Relevant strategies (including models and techniques) may include, but are not limited to:
 problem-focused and emotion-focused strategies (Lazarus and Folkman, 1975, 1988)
 forms of cognitive behavioural therapy such as stress inoculation training (Meichenbaum, 1985)
 social support groups/networks (Brown and Harris, 1978)
 mindfulness-based stress reduction strategies (Kabat-Zinn, 1979)

Candidates may also address ineffective or unhealthy coping strategies, such as drug taking,
alcohol abuse, smoking, overeating, or the use of defence mechanisms.

Evaluation of the strategies may include, but is not limited to:


 research supporting or refuting the effectiveness of these strategies
 presenting possible methodological, ethical or cultural considerations
 a comparison and/or contrast of strategies.

If only one strategy is evaluated, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [5] for
criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4] for criterion B, critical thinking,
and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension.

If a candidate evaluates more than two strategies, credit should be given only to the first two
evaluations. However, candidates may address other strategies and be awarded marks for these
as long as they are clearly used to evaluate one or both of the two main strategies addressed in
the response.

If a candidate discusses only general issues related to stress and does not address strategies, the
response should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2]
for criterion C, organization.

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8. Discuss two or more factors related to overeating and the development of obesity.

Refer to the paper 2 markbands when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of the factors
related to overeating and the development of obesity.

It is not necessary for candidates to make a distinction between overeating and obesity.

Factors may include, but are not limited to:


 physiological factors – for example, genetic predisposition, the role of dopamine,
neurobiological explanation of food addiction
 psychological/cognitive factors – for example, low self-esteem, distorted body image,
pessimistic thinking patterns, cognitive restraint
 sociocultural factors – for example, sedentary lifestyle, high-fat diet, coping
with poverty.

Relevant research may include, but is not limited to:


 Stunkard et al.’s (1990) study of identical twins reared apart
 theory of compulsive overeating – food craving is related to secretion of dopamine in the brain’s
reward circuit
 Volkow et al.’s (2002) fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging) study indicating that obese
participants had the same deficiency in dopamine receptors as drug addicts
 restraint theory – due to either external triggers or emotional experiences a person is more likely
to experience a lack of control that leads to overeating
 Jeffery (2001): an increasingly sedentary way of life leads to more people suffering from the
results of obesity.

Discussion may include, but is not limited to:


 cultural and ethical considerations
 empirical evidence and related methodological factors
 interaction between biological, cognitive, and sociocultural factors.

Candidates may discuss two factors related to overeating and the development of obesity in order
to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may discuss a larger number of factors related to
overeating and the development of obesity in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge.
Both approaches are equally acceptable.

If a candidate discusses only one factor, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [5]
for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4] for criterion B, critical
thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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9. Explain two or more factors related to the development of substance abuse and/or
addictive behaviour.

Refer to the paper 2 markbands when awarding marks.

The command term “explain” requires candidates to give a detailed account of factors related to
the development of substance abuse and/or addictive behaviour, including reasons or causes.

Candidates do not need to distinguish between factors related to either substance abuse or
addictive behaviour.

Relevant factors may include, but are not limited to:


 parental influence (Bauman et al., 1990)
 peer pressure (Unger et al., 2001)
 genetic and biological factors (Overstreet, 2000; Heath and Madden, 1995)
 role of advertising and marketing (Chen et al., 2005; Charlton et al., 1997)
 personality traits (Stein et al., 1987)
 cognitive factors such as expectancies regarding the effects of substances
(Hansen et al., 1991; Brown et al., 1980).

Examples of how candidates may show evidence of critical thinking may include, but are not
limited to:
 analysis of the methodology and/or ethical considerations
 degree of empirical support
 analysis of the interaction between biological, cognitive and cultural factors
 questioning the direction of cause and effect.

Candidates may explain two factors related to the development of substance abuse and/or
addictive behaviour in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may explain a larger number of
factors related to the development of substance abuse and/or addictive behaviour in order to
demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

If a candidate explains only one factor, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [5]
for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4] for criterion B, critical
thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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Psychology of human relationships

10. Explain cross-cultural differences in prosocial behaviour.

Refer to the paper 2 markbands when awarding marks.

The command term “explain” requires candidates to give a detailed account, including reasons, for
cross-cultural differences in prosocial behaviour.

Cross-cultural differences may include, but are not limited to:


 cultural and societal norms
 different socialization processes in an individual’s upbringing
 cultural dimensions (for example, individualism versus collectivism).

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:


 Whiting’s (1979) research on the role of extended family
 Bond and Leung’s (1988) research on in-group bias
 Levine et al.’s (2001) studies on cultural differences in helping behaviour
 Whiting and Whiting’s (1975) research into altruism levels in children from industrialized and
non-industrialized countries
 Miller et al.’s (1990) study examining cultural norms and moral values on social responsibility.

Examples of how candidates may show evidence of critical thinking may include, but are not
limited to:
 analysis of the methodology and/or ethical considerations
 application of empirical support in relation to a given problem or issue
 alternative explanations of prosocial behaviour
 addressing the issue of universality (for example, kin selection theory) versus
cultural differences.

Candidates may use a small number of cross-cultural differences in order to demonstrate depth of
knowledge, or may use a larger number of cross-cultural differences in order to demonstrate
breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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11. Discuss the role of communication in maintaining relationships.

Refer to the paper 2 markbands when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of the role of
communication in maintaining human relationships.

Relevant studies and/or theories related to the role of communication in maintaining human
relationships may include, but are not limited to:
 the importance of self-disclosure (Altman and Taylor’s social penetration theory, 1973)
 the role of micro-expressions (Gottman and Levinson, 1986)
 relationship maintenance through communication (Canary and Dainton, 2003)
 marital type and communication (Weigel and Ballard-Reisch, 1999)
 attributional styles (Bradbury and Fincham, 1990)
 gender-based communication styles (Tannen, 1990).

Discussion may include, but is not limited to:


 cultural biases in research
 methodological considerations
 gender differences in communication
 difficulties of carrying out research on communication styles
 ethical concerns when conducting research
 application of research to enhance positive communication in relationships.

Descriptions of research on communication that do not demonstrate the role of communication in


maintaining relationships should be awarded up to a maximum of [4] for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2]
for criterion C, organization.

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12. Discuss the effectiveness of two strategies for reducing violence.

Refer to the paper 2 markbands when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of two strategies for
reducing violence.

A strategy is any plan of action or a programme for reducing violence. It is appropriate for
candidates to address models, studies and theories related to strategies for reducing violence.

Examples of strategies may include, but are not limited to:


 a community based strategy (for example, MACS (Metropolitan Area Child Study), 2002;
Olweus, 1993)
 group treatment programs, such as the Duluth model (for example, Robertson, 1999)
 zero tolerance anti-bullying programmes (for example, Boccanfuso and Kuhfeld, 2011)
 research into jigsaw classrooms against bullying (for example, Aronson, 1979)
 empathy training (for example, Feshbach and Feshbach, 1982)
 computer based strategies to improve empathy (for example, Figueiredo et al., 2007).

Discussion of the effectiveness of the strategies may include, but is not limited to:
 cultural, gender and ethical issues
 methodological issues
 long-term versus short-term effectiveness
 the difficulties in assessing the effectiveness of a strategy (eg, defining “effectiveness”, lack of
research in this area)
 contrary and/or supporting findings or explanations.

If a candidate discusses more than two strategies for reducing violence, credit should be given only
to the first two discussions. However, candidates may address other strategies for reducing
violence and be awarded marks for these as long as they are clearly used to evaluate one or both
of the two main strategies addressed in the response.

If a candidate discusses only one strategy for reducing violence, the response should be awarded
up to a maximum of [5] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4] for
criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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Sport psychology

13. To what extent do sociocultural factors influence behaviour in sport?

Refer to the paper 2 markbands when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the contribution of
sociocultural factors on behaviour in sport. It may be appropriate and useful for candidates to
address biological and/or cognitive factors in sport in order to respond to the command term “to
what extent.”

Responses could address individual behaviour or team behaviour in sport. Sociocultural factors
could include, but are not limited to:
 culture and motivation in sport (Guest, 2007)
 Western bias in motivational theory (Fontayne, 2001)
 the role of culture on cohesion (Williams, 1999)
 social learning theory’s role in drug use in sport (Anshel, 1998)
 patterns of attribution in varying cultures (Lee, 1996)
 cultural values and level of aggression (Segal et al., 1997)
 social facilitation (Allport, 1920) versus social inhibition (Bond and Titus, 1983)
 drive Theory (Zajonc, 1965)
 social loafing and diffusion of responsibility (Hardy and Latane, 1988).

Candidates may consider a small number of sociocultural factors in order to demonstrate depth of
knowledge, or a larger number of sociocultural factors in order to demonstrate breadth of
knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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14. Explain relationships between team cohesion and performance.

Refer to the paper 2 markbands when awarding marks.

The command term “explain” requires candidates to give a detailed account including reasons or
causes for relationships between team cohesion and performance.

The word “team” should be interpreted to include sports in which all team members participate at
the same time (for example, football) or in which team members participate one at a time (for
example, track and field).

Studies include, but are not limited to:


 Locke and Latham (1985) on the value of process goals and their potential to enhance team
performance
 Slater and Sewall (1994) on the bidirectional relationship between team cohesion
and performance
 Gould et al., (1999) on US Olympic teams’ cohesiveness and performance
 Grieve et al.’s (2000) study on the unidirectional relationship of team cohesion
and performance
 Carron et al.’s (2002) study on the positive effect of team cohesion on performance
 Ingham et al.’s (1974) study on “social loafing” as a result of team cohesion
 Boone et al.’s (1997) study on individual’s perceptions of a team.

Evidence of critical thinking may be provided by candidates in the following ways:


 gender and/or cultural factors
 analysis of negative and/or positive effects
 bi-directionality
 factors other than team cohesion that influence performance
 evaluation of relevant research.

Candidates may explain one or a small number of relationships between team cohesion and
performance to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may explain a larger number of relationships
to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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15. Discuss two or more reasons for using drugs in sport.

Refer to the paper 2 markbands when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of two or more
reasons for using drugs in sport.

The question is specifically asking about reasons for using drugs in sport. Discussion of addiction
or drug abuse is not the focus of the question. Candidates may address both licit and illicit use of
drugs in sport. A discussion of blood doping in sport is an appropriate topic for use in a response.

Reasons for using drugs in sport include, but are not limited to:
 improvement of performance
 prolong a career in sport
 more rapid recovery from injury
 stress reduction
 pain reduction
 increase attractiveness
 peer pressure.

Discussion points may include, but are not limited to:


 gender differences
 bi-directionality
 cultural variations
 empirical findings that support or refute the reasons for using drugs in sport.

Relevant research includes, but is not limited to:


 Shermer’s (2008) application of game theory (eg prisoner’s dilemma) to drug usage
in sport
 Anshel (1998) on the role of social learning theory in drug use in young athletes
 Whitehead et al. (1992) on steroid use in US male high school students
 Newman and Newman (1991) on the role of conformity in steroid use by Canadian
adolescent athletes.

Candidates may discuss two reasons in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may discuss
a larger number of reasons in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are
equally acceptable.

If a candidate discusses only one reason, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [5]
for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4] for criterion B, critical
thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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Markscheme

November 2017

Philosophy

Higher level and standard level

Paper 2

33 pages

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This markscheme is the property of the International


Baccalaureate and must not be reproduced or distributed to
any other person without the authorization of the IB Global
Centre, Cardiff.

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I. QIG availability
The following QIGs are available this coming session for you to attempt qualification for:

QIG Text/author English QIG Spanish QIG


number availability availability
01 Simone de Beauvoir The Second Sex,
Vol. 1 part 1, Vol. 2 part 1 and Vol. 2 part
4
02 René Descartes Meditations

03 David Hume Dialogues Concerning


Natural Religion
04 John Stuart Mill On Liberty

05 Friedrich Nietzsche The Genealogy of


Morals
06 Martha Nussbaum Creating Capabilities:
The Human Development Approach
07 Ortega y Gasset The Origin of
Philosophy
08 Plato The Republic, Books IV–IX

09 Peter Singer The Life You Can Save

10 Charles Taylor The Ethics of Authenticity

11 Lao Tzu Tao Te Ching


12 Zhuangzi Zhuangzi, Inner Chapters

II. Candidates who overlook the new Paper 2 rubric of answer both parts a and b of one question
However clearly the IB sets out its expectations on how candidates should answer exam questions there
are occasions when we receive work that does not match what we asked for. There is a specific case in
exams where we ask students to select particular questions to answer and they fail to follow these rules
(rubrics).
This note is intended to clarify how we deal with these situations through a series of scenarios. The
actions have been check to ensure that they are supported by RM Assessor.

Overarching principles
The following statements underpin our decisions below:
1. No candidate should be disadvantaged for following the rules.
2. Whenever possible candidates should receive credit for what they know.

Example
To help understand the different scenarios we will make reference to an example assessment.
Instruction: candidates must respond to both parts of one question.
Q7. (a) Explain Mill’s view of the relationship between liberty and utility. [10 marks]
(b) To what extent are liberty and utility fundamentally conflicting concepts? [15 marks]

Q9. (a) Explain the view that morality has a clear and traceable genealogy. [10 marks]
(b) To what extent do you agree with the genealogy Nietzsche proposes? [15 marks]

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Scenario 1. Candidate answers parts from two different questions.


Example: Candidate answers 7(a) and 9(a) or answers 7(b) and 9(a)
Action:
Mark all of the candidates answers. The student will receive their best mark from one question.
In the second example this means the best mark for either 7(b) or 9(a).
This requires that examiners assigns each mark to the correct question part (i.e. gives the mark for 9(a) to
9(a) and not 7(a) – if question is QIGed this will happen automatically).

Scenario 2. Candidate does not split their answer according to the sub-parts.
Example: Candidate writes one answer which they label as question 7 or they indicate they have only
answered 9(a) but actually answer both 9(a) and 9(b) in that answer.
Action:
Examiner uses their best judgement to award marks for all sub-parts as if the candidate has correctly
labelled their answer.
In the example this means the candidate would be able to gain up to 25 marks despite only labelling the
answer as 9(a).
Exception – where the nature of the two parts of the question means it is important to differentiate
between the two answers, for example the first part should be done before the second part (in maths) or
the candidate needs to show they understand the difference between the two parts of the question then
examiners should use their judgement and only award marks if it is clear that the candidate has simply
made a mistake in numbering their answers.

Scenario 3. Candidate duplicates their answer to the first part in the second part.
Example: Candidate answers 7(a) and the repeats the same text as part of 7(b)
Action:
Only give credit for the answer once (in the first part of the question). The assessment criteria should
assess distinct skills when there are parts to a question so this problem should not occur.

Scenario 4. Candidate provides the wrong question number for their answer.
Example: Candidate states they are answering 7(a) and 7(b) but their response clearly talks about
Nietzsche (Q9) rather than Mills (Q7).
Action:
Mark the answer according to the mark scheme for the question that they should have indicated.
Exception – this only applies when there is no ambiguity as to which question the student has attempted,
for example if they have rephrased the question in their opening paragraph. It is not the role of the
examiner to identify which question is the best fit for their answer (i.e. which questions their answer would
get most marks for). If the given question number is a plausible match with their answer then the student
should be marked according to that question. Only in exceptional circumstances should this rule be
applied to sub-questions (i.e. assuming the candidate had mistakenly swapped their answers for Q7(a)
and Q7(b).

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How to use the Diploma Programme Philosophy markscheme

The assessment markbands constitute the formal tool for marking examination scripts, and in these
assessment markbands examiners can see the skills being assessed in the examinations. The
markschemes are designed to assist examiners in possible routes taken by candidates in terms of the
content of their answers when demonstrating their skills of doing philosophy through their responses. The
points listed are not compulsory points, and not necessarily the best possible points. They are a
framework to help examiners contextualize the requirements of the question, and to facilitate the
application of marks according to the assessment markbands listed on page 8 for part A responses, and
page 9 for part B responses.

It is important that examiners understand that the main idea of the course is to promote doing philosophy,
and this involves activity and engagement throughout a two-year programme, as opposed to emphasizing
the chance to display knowledge in a terminal set of examination papers. Even in the examinations,
responses should not be assessed on how much candidates know as much as how they are able to use
their knowledge in support of an argument, using the skills referred to in the various assessment
markbands published in the subject guide, reflecting an engagement with philosophical activity throughout
the course. As a tool intended to help examiners in assessing responses, the following points should be
kept in mind when using a markscheme:

The Diploma Programme Philosophy course is designed to encourage the skills of doing philosophy in
the candidates. These skills can be accessed through reading the assessment markbands in the
subject guide
The markscheme does not intend to outline a model/correct answer
The markscheme has an introductory paragraph which contextualizes the emphasis of the question
being asked
The bullet points below the paragraph are suggested possible points of development that should not be
considered a prescriptive list but rather an indicative list where they might appear in the answer
If there are names of philosophers and references to their work incorporated into the markscheme, this
should help to give context for the examiners and does not reflect a requirement that such philosophers
and references should appear in an answer: They are possible lines of development.
Candidates can legitimately select from a wide range of ideas, arguments and concepts in service of
the question they are answering, and it is possible that candidates will use material effectively that is
not mentioned in the markscheme
Examiners should be aware of the command terms for Philosophy as published on page 54 of the
Philosophy subject guide when assessing responses
In markschemes for Paper 2 there is a greater requirement for specific content as the Paper requires
the study of a text by the candidates and the questions set will derive from that text. The markscheme
will show what is relevant for both part A and part B answers. In part B responses, candidates may
select other material they deem as relevant
Responses for part A and part B should be assessed using the distinct assessment markbands.

Note to examiners

Candidates at both Higher Level and Standard Level answer one question on the prescribed texts.
Each question consists of two parts, and candidates must answer both parts of the question
(a and b).

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Paper 2 part A markbands

Marks Level descriptor

0 Ÿ The work does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

Ÿ There is little relevant knowledge of the specified idea/argument/concept from the text.
1–2 Ÿ The explanation is minimal.
Ÿ Philosophical vocabulary is not used, or is consistently used inappropriately.

Ÿ Some knowledge of the specified idea/argument/concept from the text is demonstrated but
this lacks accuracy, relevance and detail.
3–4
Ÿ The explanation is basic and in need of development.
Ÿ Philosophical vocabulary is not used, or is consistently used inappropriately.

Ÿ Knowledge of the specified idea/argument/concept from the text is mostly accurate and
relevant, but lacking in detail.
5–6
Ÿ There is a satisfactory explanation.
Ÿ Philosophical vocabulary is used, sometimes appropriately.

Ÿ The response contains accurate and relevant knowledge of the specified idea/
argument/concept from the text.
7–8
Ÿ The explanation is clear, although may be in need of further development.
Ÿ Philosophical vocabulary is mostly used appropriately.

Ÿ The response contains relevant, accurate and detailed knowledge of the specified
idea/argument/concept from the text.
9–10
Ÿ The explanation is clear and well developed.
Ÿ There is appropriate use of philosophical vocabulary throughout the response.

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Paper 2 part B markbands

Marks Level descriptor

0 Ÿ The work does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.

Ÿ There is little relevant knowledge of the text.


Ÿ Philosophical vocabulary is not used, or is consistently used inappropriately.
1–3
Ÿ The response is mostly descriptive with very little analysis.
Ÿ There is no discussion of alternative interpretations or points of view.

Ÿ Some knowledge of the text is demonstrated but this lacks accuracy and relevance.
Ÿ Philosophical vocabulary is used, sometimes appropriately.
4–6 Ÿ There is some limited analysis, but the response is more descriptive than analytical.
Ÿ There is little discussion of alternative interpretations or points of view.
Ÿ Some of the main points are justified.

Ÿ Knowledge of the text is mostly accurate and relevant.


Ÿ Philosophical vocabulary is used, sometimes appropriately.
7–9 Ÿ The response contains analysis, but this analysis lacks development.
Ÿ There is some discussion of alternative interpretations or points of view.
Ÿ Many of the main points are justified.

Ÿ The response contains accurate and relevant knowledge of the text.


Ÿ Philosophical vocabulary is mostly used appropriately.
10–12 Ÿ The response contains clear critical analysis.
Ÿ There is discussion and some assessment of alternative interpretations or points of view.
Ÿ Most of the main points are justified.

Ÿ The response contains relevant, accurate and detailed knowledge of the text.
Ÿ There is appropriate use of philosophical vocabulary throughout the response.
13–15 Ÿ The response contains clear and well developed critical analysis.
Ÿ There is discussion and assessment of alternative interpretations or points of view.
Ÿ All or nearly all of the main points are justified.

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Simone de Beauvoir: The Second Sex, Vol. 1 part 1, Vol. 2 part 1 and Vol. 2 part 4

1. (a) Explain de Beauvoir’s idea that it depends on the human being to establish “the
reign of liberty in the midst of the world of the given”, therefore “men and women
should unequivocally affirm their brotherhood”. [10]

The question asks for an explanation of this central idea that articulates the argument of de
Beauvoir’s as stated at the very end of the concluding chapter. In this final part de Beauvoir
starts from the fact that today neither men nor women are satisfied with each other.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ The question is to know whether there is an original curse that condemns them to separate
each other or whether the conflicts in which they are opposed merely mark a transitional
moment in human history
Ÿ Society, being codified by man, decrees that woman is inferior
Ÿ The social oppression of woman by man creates a state of war where each free being
wishes to dominate the other
Ÿ Woman as trapped in the master-slave dialectic
Ÿ The quarrel will go on as long as men and women fail to recognise each other as equals
Ÿ The possibility of recognition and equality among sexes: If this possibility becomes real,
new forms of individuality would arise.

(b) Evaluate de Beauvoir’s idea that it depends on the human being to establish
“the reign of liberty in the midst of the world of the given”. [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ Humanity is something more than a mere species: It is a historical development; it is to be
defined by the manner in which it deals with its natural, fixed characteristics, its facticité
Ÿ Sex does not define a destiny
Ÿ The battle of the sexes is not implicit in the anatomy of man and woman: One takes for
granted that in the timeless realm of ideas a battle is being waged between those vague
essences “the eternal feminine” and the “the eternal masculine”
Ÿ The issue of biological determinism
Ÿ Women’s experience in terms of an ethical concept
Ÿ Identity as based on freedom, will to communicate and inter-subjectivity.

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2. (a) Explain de Beauvoir’s discussion of the psychoanalytical point of view. [10]

The question asks for an explanation of de Beauvoir’s analysis of the psychoanalytical point of
view as presented in the second chapter of the first part. Psychoanalysis represents a
“tremendous advance over psychophysiology” because it directs the attention to the factors
involved in the psychic life in relation to their human significance; it is not the body-object
described by science that actually exists, but the body as lived in by the subject.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ “Sexuality as coextensive with existence” might mean: a) Every experience of the existent
has a sexual significance; b) every sexual phenomenon has an existential significance. It is
possible to reconcile both statements
Ÿ Libido as a force of virile character
Ÿ A significant Freudian contribution: Masculine eroticism is located in only one zone (penis)
whereas in women there are two distinct erotic systems (clitoral and vaginal)
Ÿ There is no need to take sexuality as an irreducible fact
Ÿ The idea of liberty is not incompatible with the existence of certain constants as presented
by psychoanalysis.

(b) Evaluate de Beauvoir’s discussion of the psychoanalytical point of view. [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ Criticism of Freud’s account of psychic development because it is based upon a masculine
model. He assumes that a woman feels she is a mutilated man. But the idea of mutilation
implies comparison and evaluation
Ÿ A symbol is not an allegory elaborated by a mysterious unconscious but the perception of
certain significance through the analogy of the significant object. Psychoanalysis fails to
explain why woman is the other. The tendency of the subject towards alienation is the
ground condition for the development of the behaviours as identified in psychoanalysis,
eg anxiety
Ÿ de Beauvoir accepts aspects of psychoanalysis but poses the problem of feminine destiny
differently, she places woman in a world of values and gives her behaviour a dimension
of liberty
Ÿ Sex, gender and the construction of human identity
Ÿ How can a genuine mutual recognition between subjects arise?
Ÿ Might the experience of mutuality break the dilemma of narcissism or masochism?
Ÿ The role of the existential philosophy of freedom and corporality by Sartre and
Merleau-Ponty.

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René Descartes: Meditations

3. (a) Explain Descartes’s view of the intellect and the will. [10]

This question arises from a specific passage in Descartes’s Fourth Meditation, Of Truth and
Error. The main argument focuses on the possibility of error (in our judgments) and its
causes. Responses might consider the role played by the intellect and the will in Descartes’s
view and whether they can be evaluated as sources of error. Descartes’s assumption is
grounded in the perfection of God, that cannot be a direct source of error (as a deceiver), nor
can s/he breed imperfect creatures. Responses might mention Descartes’s argument to
support human imperfection, which is justified by human nature itself: Humans certainly
participate in God’s perfection, but at the same time they bear the hints of nothingness; and
this makes them finite, and therefore imperfect. Responses might develop Descartes’s next
analysis, focusing on the nature of two faculties, the intellect and the will. Candidates might
outline the main qualities of the intellect and the will and discuss whether they can be sources
of error or not, referring to Descartes’s view on the impossibility of attributing any fallacy to
them. According to Descartes, not only cannot the intellect and the will be imperfect,
inasmuch as they are created by God, but they are not actually imperfect because 1) the
intellect only perceives ideas and does not produce any judgments, and 2) the will in its
freedom to choose is as powerful and wide as God’s. So, the error in human judgments about
the world can come from their limited capacities of knowledge, which do not make them
properly distinguish and evaluate truth and falsity. Candidates might consider Descartes’s
suggestion that in such cases judgments should be suspended, because they should be
expressed on the basis of “clear and distinct” perceptions only.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ Descartes’s view of the faculties of the intellect and the will
Ÿ Perfection of God
Ÿ Human imperfection
Ÿ Infinite and finite; nothingness
Ÿ Perceptions, ideas, knowledge.

(b) Evaluate whether the intellect and the will can be sources of error. [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ Functions of the intellect
Ÿ Infinite possibilities of the will
Ÿ Truth, falsity, error
Ÿ Suspension of judgments
Ÿ Doubt versus certainty
Ÿ Body-mind issues.

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4. (a) Explain Descartes’s claim that we are driven to believe that “the star is not
greater than the flame”. [10]

This question arises from a sentence in Descartes’s Sixth Meditation, The existence of
material things, and the real distinction between mind and body. The quotation stands for a
central issue in Descartes’s theory of knowledge, which has been developed by Locke and
Hume as the distinction between primary and secondary qualities: There are certain specific
properties of the objects, such as heat, cold, colour, light, sounds, odours, tastes, hardness or
other tactile qualities that the subject cannot consider as properties of the objects. In
Descartes’s words, “I have no ground for holding that something resembling the heat I feel is
in the fire”; the only grounded belief is that there must be something in the object, whatever it
be, that stimulates in the subject the corresponding sensations. Responses might analyse
Descartes’s view of the issue and might mention the distinction between sensationalism and
physicalism, besides taking into account Descartes’s interpretation of senses, sensations,
perception, and ideas, in relation to the different functions of the faculty of the intellect.
Candidates might also mention imagination and memory as tools of the intellect, eg by
underlining the difference between sensory perception and intellectual understanding. Further
development might involve the origin of Descartes’s issues of external qualities of the objects:
The existence and knowledge of the body and its relation with the mind. The body-mind issue
might lead to the explanation of the divisibility of the body and the indivisibility of the mind.
Responses might also consider the doubts, limits, and fallacy of human knowledge and
judgments, as in the Dream Argument, with the distinction between waking experience and
dreams, or as in the Wax Argument, where there is an attack on the reliability of the senses.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ Sensationalism versus physicalism
Ÿ Theory of the primary and secondary qualities
Ÿ Intellect and senses
Ÿ Sensations and ideas
Ÿ Imagination and memory
Ÿ Mind-body dualism
Ÿ Divisibility of the body; indivisibility of the mind.

(b) Evaluate the extent to which the intellect has to distrust the senses. [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ Sensory perception and intellectual understanding; senses versus ideas
Ÿ Truth and falsity; certain/uncertain knowledge
Ÿ Judgments, doubts, certainty
Ÿ The Dream Argument; the Wax Argument.

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David Hume: Dialogues Concerning Natural Religion

5. (a) Explain Demea’s a priori argument for the necessary existence of God. [10]

Demea offers a version of the cosmological, or, first-cause argument. Unlike Cleanthes’s
probabilistic design arguments, Demea’s aim is to show exclusively from first principles, not
from experience, and beyond any possible doubt, that God exists; indeed that God could not
possibly not exist. Basically this is an argument to prove that the cosmos or physical universe
itself had a cause. If it did, then, being itself outside the physical universe, that cause would
be something non-physical.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ Demea makes use of a deductive rather than inductive argument and is convinced that, in
replacing Cleanthes’s inductive argument (in the previous section of the Dialogues) with the
right type of deductive argument, the existence of the deity can be proven
Ÿ Demea thinks the lesson to be learned is that we had “better adhere to that simple and
sublime argument a priori, which, by offering to us infallible demonstration, cuts off at once
all doubt and difficulty”
Ÿ By offering an a priori demonstration, Demea intends that his argument will not rely on
experience and he will use only propositions which, he thinks, have to be true, for instance,
that nothing exists without a cause, together with logical relations among such propositions
Ÿ The role of logical necessity.

(b) To what extent is Demea’s argument above weakened by subsequent objections? [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ A matter of fact, or state of affairs, cannot be demonstrated by an a priori argument
Ÿ The criticism that “nothing is demonstrable, unless the contrary implies a contradiction”
Ÿ Demea’s argument is severely criticized by Cleanthes, with its ultimate dismissal turning on
the distinction between a priori and a posteriori propositions
Ÿ The objection that “[t]he words, necessary existence, have no meaning”
Ÿ The problem for Demea’s argument is that whatever can be conceived of as existing, can
also be conceived of as not existing, including God. Therefore, it is impossible to
demonstrate by pure logic the existence of any being
Ÿ If the idea of necessary existence were meaningful, then, for all we know, the universe
would have as good a claim to it as the deity
Ÿ The fallacy of composition; Demea’s point that, over and above the cause or explanation of
each individual item in the universe, the universe itself needs a cause
or explanation
Ÿ Russell gives a very good example. It is that to suppose the universe must have a cause,
because each item in the universe has a cause, is like supposing that the human race must
have a mother because each individual person has a mother
Ÿ The fallacy of composition objection is not decisive. It does not refute the
cosmological argument
Ÿ It is not necessary to prove that something does exist either necessarily or eternally. What
must be proven is that the universe could not possibly be such a thing
Ÿ A practical objection which Philo puts forward is that ordinary people are seldom convinced
by a priori arguments. Philo suggests that only people who are accustomed to abstract
reasoning, and who (illegitimately?) transfer mathematical practices and concepts to
empirical considerations are likely to find this argument convincing.

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6. (a) Explain Philo’s suggestion that there are four circumstances of evil which
encompass most human misery. [10]

Philo makes the point to Cleanthes that no reasonable person would predict that a world
designed and made by a powerful, wise, and benevolent deity would turn out to be just like our
world. Philo’s example of evil is pain and suffering and he suggests, cautiously, the four
circumstances that arise – 1) pain as a cause of action, 2) “the conducting of the world by
general laws”, 3) the weaknesses of various sorts in all living things and 4) flaws and faults in
the workings of nature.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ Why is pain necessary when the feeling of pleasure alone might be sufficient?
Ÿ The world operates by general laws rather than by some other system, such as subtle
divine interventions: He who knows the secret springs of the world could influence sickness,
weather and circumstances to reduce evil without our awareness
Ÿ The precariousness of life, in that all our faculties are required for mere survival without any
faculties to prevent accidents, eg if humans were more industrious, this would mitigate
many evils without exalting our status in the universe
Ÿ Examples of natural evil, such as when rains are often too much or not enough, tempests
and hurricanes, extreme heat and cold as well as excessively strong passions and desires
Ÿ The world could have been different in significant ways from how it is, and, in being different
in those ways, better
Ÿ On this basis, the existence of evil shows that we cannot infer that a benevolent and
omnipotent creator exists
Ÿ A better hypothesis might be Manichaeism (primordial conflict between good and evil).

(b) To what extent is Philo’s understanding of evil convincing? [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ Is Philo’s distinction into four types of evil convincing?
Ÿ Cleanthes used items in the material world as evidence of design, but this empirical appeal
allowed Philo to raise the issue of misery and suffering
Ÿ Philo admits the logical possibility of evil and a benevolent creator but he is also disallows
Cleanthes from making use of this
Ÿ Philo employs the miseries of the world against the desire of Cleanthes to establish by an a
posteriori argument a benevolent and just God
Ÿ Philo presented the traditional dilemma of whether God’s goodness and omnipotence were
consistent with the abundance of suffering in the world
Ÿ Philo draws the conclusion that God is, at best, amoral – since Cleanthes argues from the
experience of the world, then Philo, arguing that such experience is one of suffering as
much, or more, than joy gives the conclusion of, at best, a morally indifferent Deity
Ÿ Hume aimed to show that if an a posteriori argument is employed to arrive at God’s nature,
then it is the issue of God’s nature, not his existence that is being disputed
Ÿ Demea is instrumental in obtaining the concession from Philo that evil is logically
compatible with God, but as Philo notes, this is hardly damaging to his case
Ÿ Cleanthes acknowledged that the existence of evil, if sustained, is fatal for his a posteriori
attempts to arrive at the nature of the Deity.

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John Stuart Mill: On Liberty

7. (a) Explain how Mill allows the flourishing of the individual. [10]

This question focuses on one of the fundamentals of Mill’s argument concerning the liberty
and, hence, flourishing of the individual. By establishing the Harm Principle he created a
mechanism to allow maximum freedom for the individual. Mill’s aim was to create space for
individuals to blossom and be happy which is grounded in the “permanent interests of man as
a progressive being”.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ The individual’s right to speak freely and act as they wish as long as what they did would
cause no harm to others or interfere with the liberty of others
Ÿ Guarding principles limiting the actions of an individual or the state against
another individual
Ÿ Limiting paternalism, which Mill was against; the idea that someone else could decide what
was in my own good
Ÿ Persuasion to change behaviour was allowed but coercion was not to be practiced
Ÿ Ways the Harm Principle did not relate to children and those who were deemed to
be insane
Ÿ Mill’s perception of a hierarchy of societies and so in “backward societies” the Harm
Principle did not apply. The Harm Principle allowed the individual to flourish in his or her
own space, free, away from the direction of the majority
Ÿ For him “self-regarding acts” would not harm others and therefore individuals would
become “a noble and beautiful object of contemplation” and, thus, flourish.

(b) Evaluate the effectiveness of Mill’s approach to the flourishing of the individual. [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ Mill did not clearly define the concept of harm in both a physical and moral sense and
whether harm is personalized or institutionalized
Ÿ Equally “private acts” might seem to become permissible but still might be seen as
abhorrent to some societies, for example incest
Ÿ Mill does not seem to fully explore the difference between legality and morality, and that
both could change with changing values within a society. The example of the man crossing
the bridge illustrates how lack of knowledge might cause a reinterpretation of the Harm
Principle
Ÿ In other cases he might be crediting individuals with a very high degree of rationality and
reflection to know of themselves what is in their best interests in order to flourish
Ÿ At the time of writing he was not aware of psychological factors that might govern human
behaviour and presently with our current knowledge it might be seen necessary to interfere
more in human behaviour
Ÿ Does Mill really want a society that is full of individuals who are self-interested, and have no
shared moral code which would by definition limit behaviour?
Ÿ For Mill the freedom that is created does have a purpose, a utility, which is happiness; for
him this is moral progress.

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8. (a) Explain why Mill was so opposed to social conformity. [10]

This question gives an opportunity to see the positive aspects of not conforming to social
norms. For Mill the rise of individualism was essential for a healthy society that could progress
and increase its collective happiness. The individual is free to act with very few constraints.
Freedom of action and expression were to be only limited by the Harm Principle. Mill had a
high view of human nature and the inherent rationalism of humans. Therefore he advocated
increasing non-conformity without any worry of abuse or misguided actions that would harm
individuals or society in general. For him this non-conformity was a positive influence in
society, however for many it is seen as a negative influence that might produce instability and
chaos; a lawlessness.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ Diverse opinions were to be encouraged as they would generate new ideas and challenge
accepted views
Ÿ Mill feared the ever increasing influence and control of the majority and therefore he
advocated individual freedom. Conformity in all social areas and thought, for him, would
produce decadence and lack of progress
Ÿ The state’s existence was not to produce social conformity but to protect social diversity
Ÿ Possible opposition to the social trends of Mill’s time, which were brought about by
Christianity and increasing democratization. Similarly (in more modern times), the effect of
the fear of those who have differing political and or religious views
Ÿ Middle class respectability would stifle creativity and change
Ÿ The idea that individuals were rational beings that could develop themselves freely.

(b) Evaluate the value of social non-conformity. [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ The clash between majority and minority rights
Ÿ Ways of producing common moral codes within a climate of increased diversity
Ÿ Is happiness increased with more freedom or is it diminished by increased responsibility?
Ÿ Does non-conformity produce a more dynamic society or simply dysfunctional groups with
no harmony or common cause or drive?
Ÿ Under what circumstances can a state or another social institution require conformity? Eg
at a time of war, civil unrest or economic upheaval
Ÿ Is utility, which for Mill drives human improvement, inherent in all human action or does it
have to be enforced?
Ÿ Without non-conformists, society does not progress or change; new artistic movements and
revolutionary ideas have their roots in non-conformity
Ÿ Darwinian notions of social progress through non-conformity.

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Friedrich Nietzsche: The Genealogy of Morals

9. (a) Explain Nietzsche’s account of guilt. [10]

This question centres on the material in Nietzsche’s Second Essay in which he gives an
account of the origin of guilt. Here he accounts for the origins of morality in terms of a
genealogy and a feature of that genealogy is the role played by guilt and the so-called bad
conscience. Guilt is described in terms of a debt and the repayment of this debt involves
punishment. The majority of people accept the condition of guilt due to their following of
others, in Nietzsche’s account this is termed “slave morality”.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ Guilt as a debt and punishment as a means of repaying of debt
Ÿ Conscience arises from the “sovereign individual” having an ability to make promises and a
freedom to will
Ÿ Humans have always visited cruelty on bad debtors, hence the negativity of modern
experiences of guilt
Ÿ The tendency to accommodate a sense of guilt, due to the moral disobedience in ourselves,
stems from a “bad conscience”
Ÿ Slave morality accounts for the present sense of guilt as a form of a moral lapse
Ÿ The bad conscience arises from the original setting of individuals gathering in society;
individuals turn the animal aggression on themselves rather than on others
Ÿ Guilt depicts a submission of the majority of people to the powerful, which then causes self-
hatred in return
Ÿ Guilt is primarily a social experience rather than an expression of metaphysical
moral experience.

(b) Evaluate Nietzsche’s account of the relationship between guilt and the origins
of morality. [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ Is Nietzsche’s genealogical approach to the origin of moral concepts
convincing?
Ÿ All that is objective about morality is the bending of people’s will to power;
the content of morality is arbitrary
Ÿ Is Nietzsche’s “will to power” a credible underlying explanation for concepts
such as guilt and bad conscience?
Ÿ Is Nietzsche’s assertion that the meanings of concepts have been
subjugated to the will of the powerful convincing?
Ÿ Does Nietzsche suffer in the end from an overactive imagination about the
past that cannot be verified or falsified?
Ÿ Does the relativism inherent in perspectivism make Nietzsche’s account
more, or less, convincing?

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10. (a) Explain how Nietzsche gives individuals greater responsibility for morality. [10]

Nietzsche’s account of morality involves a discussion of possible historical roots that


influenced the way people behaved and believed. In the majority people would follow the lead
from others and it is the contention that only the individual can decide for him-/herself what the
moral act is. Nietzsche emphasizes this individuality with his concept of the “will to power”,
which – he says – underlines the moral lives of all. Nietzsche claims that humans would rather
will something than nothing – or not will at all.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ Humans seek goals to make sense of life, hence the impetus to will
Ÿ Religion inculcated fear in ensuring that individuals turned in on themselves and neglected
to assert their individuality
Ÿ With morality arising in a multiplicity of settings, the individual has more freedom to see
him-/herself in a broader context and thus define what is moral
Ÿ Ultimately, there is nothing sacred about morality; it is something we can criticize and hold
up to inspection for ourselves and it is something the individual can judge.

(b) Evaluate the view that Nietzsche gives individuals greater responsibility for morality.
[15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ Nietzsche’s historical analysis – is it convincing and justified?
Ÿ Nietzsche accounts for oral language not on the basis of an authoritative origin but from a
process of human discovery
Ÿ The individual has more freedom in a broader context to define what is oral, than in a
narrow authoritative context
Ÿ The meaning of morality can adapt over years and within different cultural settings at the
same time, if the genealogical account of its origin is accepted
Ÿ Is Nietzsche’s account of an unseen will convincing? Are Nietzsche’s references to
Schopenhauer persuasive? The genealogical explanation allows for an understanding that
meanings of morality vary over time and also vary at any given time, allowing the individual
to define meaning for him-/herself
Ÿ The winding route of moral understanding shows there to be no fundamental or objective
reality to the concepts involved, the individual must rather assert her/his will
Ÿ The will dominating a thing gives it its meaning.

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Martha Nussbaum: Creating Capabilities: The Human Development Approach

11. (a) Explain how “what each person is able to do and to be” can be a measure of a
nation’s development. [10]

This question seeks an explanation of how a new measure of development can be established
based on opportunities that are afforded to people. These opportunities create a threshold
which people should aspire to and exceed. It is egalitarian as those who have difficulty to
reach the threshold would be given extra help by the state. The measure of the degree to
which government supports such development becomes qualitative as uniformity is not to be
encouraged. What is to be encouraged is the creation of a life that recognises human dignity.
The achievement of a list of capabilities that Nussbaum presents, might also be seen as a way
of gauging progress. Such progress might be recognised as being culturally loaded.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ Positive freedoms that create opportunities
Ÿ The arbitrariness of a definitive listing of ten capabilities as the measure
Ÿ Whether the listing should be adjusted as a result of time, habits or place
Ÿ Ways in which governments might develop freedoms that create opportunities necessary
for human growth
Ÿ The degree to which such a measure of development is libertarian.

(b) To what extent does a nation’s development affect the individual? [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ The issue of whether a majority opinion would decide or whether an elite group, influenced
by a specific perspective, might impact on the individual
Ÿ The balancing of positive and negative freedoms of the individual within society, so as to
protect human development against possible abuse
Ÿ The degree of choice in areas such as the use of drugs or abortion or home schooling
Ÿ Does the list of capabilities reflect the expectations of an elite or the ‘average’ person?
Ÿ Can alternative listings exist and can the individual be allowed to pursue a
personalized list?
Ÿ The charge that the capabilities approach reflects an elitist view, heavily influenced by
Western thought
Ÿ Are some restrictions on human action necessary to protect human dignity?

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12. (a) Explain what duties a government has to fulfil for a capabilities approach to be enacted
and successful. [10]

This question seeks an explanation of the role of government in fulfilling a universal


fundamental political entitlement for individuals within society. There is a need to set up a
framework for social justice. Economic growth is often seen as a means of improving the life
of individuals but with the capabilities approach the discussion moves into a qualitative area
and the development of perhaps a more paternalistic government so that entitlements can be
achieved.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ The ways to balance the duties of government with the individual choices of people
Ÿ The effectiveness of legislation to promote human flourishing
Ÿ The difference between direct government action and opportunity making, leaving action to
the individual
Ÿ The relationship of a collective value overriding the well-being of an individual,
eg individual sacrifices made to care for another
Ÿ Ways in which governments can expand social justice
Ÿ Whether governments can or should differentiate in approaches so as to increase the
benefit/opportunity of action for the individual
Ÿ Whether government should abdicate their possible responsibilities and duties to other non-
state institutions
Ÿ The conflicting responsibilities of a government and the distribution of available resources,
eg quality education for all set against national defense
Ÿ Cultural variations in the role government plays in the lives of their citizens
Ÿ The appeal for rich governments to support poorer regimes so all can offer the
same entitlements.

(b) Evaluate the claim that without government direction a capabilities approach will
not be achievable. [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ The naivety of Nussbaum’s view that governments would act to share resources
internationally and therefore universalize entitlements
Ÿ The requirement of government to exercise negative liberty so as to allow positive
liberty to flourish: If citizens are not safe they cannot achieve any of Nussbaum’s
central capabilities
Ÿ Equality for all might mean making decisions about what is acceptable or not and the need
to put forward a rationale for these stances
Ÿ A critique of Nussbaum’s concept of the inherent goodness of humans to care for each
other and the wider environment
Ÿ The need for governments not individuals to define human flourishing as the individual
might not be able to define or achieve it without conflict with others
Ÿ The degree to which equality, dignity and justice is achievable without
government direction
Ÿ Positive versus negative liberty.

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Ortega y Gasset: The Origins of Philosophy

13. (a) Explain Ortega’s idea of freedom as projection and realization of possibilities. [10]

Freedom is the aspect assumed by humans’ whole lives when the diverse components in it
reach a point in their development to produce among themselves a particular dynamic
equation, which relates the two great components of human life; human needs and its
possibilities. The human is possibilities. Beyond needs it might appear the development of
human possibilities, ie its freedom.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ The issue is radically broad: Defining the notion of freedom primarily or exclusively
according to law and politics (as though these were the root from which the general
configuration of human life known as freedom springs) is an error that reduces and flattens
the enormity of the subject
Ÿ Choice assumes that the circle of one’s possibilities is notably greater than that of
one’s needs
Ÿ The stages of a civilization are determined and discerned as modifications of the
fundamental relation between the two great components of human life, human needs and
its possibilities
Ÿ Historicity and its connection with human life as possibility
Ÿ Probably every civilization or individual life passes through that form of life known as
freedom. It is a brief, glowing stage that unfolds like noon between the morning of
primitivism and the decline of evening, the petrification and necrosis of its senescence
Ÿ In the primitive or early stage, humans have the impression that the circle of possibilities
barely transcends that of their needs. Humans feel that what they can do in their lives
coincides almost strictly with what they have to do
Ÿ Both juridical freedom and economic wealth are effects or manifestations of generic
freedom and vital wealth
Ÿ When there are more possible things to do (haceres) than are needed, the problem is: One
has to choose among many possibilities. One must select. The basic emotion of existence
is now the opposite of resignation, for living means “having things in excess”
Ÿ Then humans deliberately begin to invent. Creating a new life becomes a normal function
of life, something that would not have occurred to one during the primitive stage of life.
Revolutions begin. Symptomatically the individual ceases to be totally inscribed to tradition,
even though life is still partially governed by it.

(b) Evaluate Ortega’s idea of freedom as projection and realization of possibilities. [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ Is freedom equal to projection and realization of possibilities? Eg human existence consists
in developing possibilities; however freedom might have grades or even be inexistent in
some relevant sense. Although both concepts might be distinguished the value of Ortega’s
conception is in their inter-connection
Ÿ Comparison and contrast with similar positions, eg Sartre’s existentialism
Ÿ Wealth in the economic sense means simply that the human is confronted with numerous
possibilities for possession and acquisition, or concretely, with many things to own, buy,
and sell. How much or how little must be interpreted in relation to the subjective
consciousness that man has of his needs
Ÿ Doubt as a result of the possibilities of choice: Doubt is not simply non-belief
Ÿ Someone who holds no opinion about something is ignorant, but he does not doubt. Doubt
presupposes that one is confronted with positive opinions. The human is stranded amid the
various opinions, none of which is able to sustain him or her firmly
Ÿ Doubt according to Ortega in relation to Descartes

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Ÿ To what extent might Ortega’s belief that “human life is always insecure” (which he gives as
a fact) be justified?
Ÿ Human life and freedom in relation to Ortega’s central thought: “I am myself and
my circumstance”
Ÿ Comparison of Ortega’s idea with other positions, eg Merleau-Ponty, who expresses clear
ideas on the concept of existence as open possibilities (he defines it as “possibilities of
situations”).

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14. (a) Explain Ortega’s view of the relation between philosophy and its history. [10]

The question invites an exploration of a central concern of Ortega’s argument: The


connections between philosophy and its history. Ortega’s argument, developing as idea and
method the notion of vital reason, looks after integration among two movements: One directed
towards the past in an effort to reconstruct the dramatic origin of philosophy and the other
orientated to the construction of a new philosophical synthesis.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ The essential unity of philosophy is discovered through a retrospective contemplation of its
total past by means of “historical reason”
Ÿ The philosophical past as a series of errors, but simultaneously as errors that contain some
truth and help to discover the truth
Ÿ Ways of approaching the philosophical past: Analytically and synthetically – Analytically: A
series of thoughts develops from an initial thought by virtue of progressive analysis.
Synthetically: Each thought presents a complication and impels one on to the next thought
Ÿ In order to adopt a philosophy of the past one must transform it
Ÿ The case of Thales as an example of vital reason as a method: The narration of historical
causes and circumstances is central.

(b) Evaluate Ortega’s account of the relation between philosophy and its history. [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ The importance of linking together historical and conceptual analysis in order to understand
the origins and advance of philosophy
Ÿ Ortega’s analysis of the philosophical past serves the purpose of constructing a new
philosophical synthesis
Ÿ Dialectic as the obligation to continue thinking. It shows the very fact of the human
condition: Man genuinely has no recourse but to continue thinking
Ÿ The temporal articulation: Past borders on the future, present is a tenuous line that it merely
serves to join and unite them
Ÿ We reflect on the philosophical past in order to act in the future
Ÿ The history of the philosophical past catapults us into the spaces of the future, toward a
philosophy yet to come; we have no choice but to attempt to construct one of our own.

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Plato: The Republic, Books IV – IX

15. (a) Explain the relationship between universals and particulars as depicted in Plato’s world
of Forms. [10]

Plato’s theory of Forms holds that all particular things have something in common, and they
have something in common because they are all instances of a universal idea. Plato argues
that because the material world is constantly changing it is untrustworthy. Behind this
constantly changing world of appearances is a world of permanence and reliability.
Plato calls this the world of Forms or ‘ideas’.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ Relation of Forms to particulars, participation, hierarchical structure
Ÿ Differences between Forms and particulars, eg beautiful things and beauty itself
Ÿ Form of the Good
Ÿ Plato’s view that the Forms are a condition for reason
Ÿ True and reliable knowledge is with those who can understand the true reality behind the
world of our everyday experience
Ÿ Similes used to demonstrate theory – likely to be the Cave, the Sun and Divided Line.

(b) Evaluate why, in relation to the theory of Forms, Plato regards our senses as
inadequate for the acquisition of knowledge? [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ No objective judgements are possible. So we hold that some particular state of affairs out
there in the world, in the realm of sensory experience, is, eg just or beautiful, it will always
fall short of absolute Beauty or absolute Justice (absolute in the sense of that which is ideal
and complete). Indeed, all particular instances of beauty and justice, can be defined as
such because they partake in Beauty in-itself and Justice in-itself
Ÿ In the realm of sensory experience, all we can obtain are beliefs that are in a sense correct
because they reflect what appears to be the case. However, beliefs involve just an
appearance of reality
Ÿ In contrast, complete knowledge would entitle us to say that what we believe truly is the
case. For Plato then, knowledge and belief belong in different realms and are very different
in kind
Ÿ In Plato’s theory the Forms are immaterial; they belong to the mind and appeal to
the intellect
Ÿ Plato often contrasts the Forms with the objects of sight, and in doing so makes a
distinction between the intelligible realm and the visible realm
Ÿ Plato’s Forms are a metaphysical idea. Metaphysics aims to give us an understanding of
the ultimate reality which lies beyond that which we confront in sensory experience; this
understanding is not itself based on sensory experience, but on rational analysis
Ÿ Our understanding of the Forms is based on rational insight, rather than
empirical observation
Ÿ Problems with the theory of Forms: Third Man Argument
Ÿ In contemporary metaphysics, debates surrounding universals have focused on the rival
claims of realists (who claim universals exist or are real) and nominalists (who claim that
only particulars exist in any meaningful sense). Contemporary realist philosophers tend to
say that universals exist but only in and through the particulars that exemplify them (and
thus advocate an Aristotelian concept of the nature of universals), rather than claim that
universals exist independently of all particulars (the Platonic notion of universals).

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16. (a) Explain Plato’s simile of the Ship in Book VI of the Republic. [10]

Plato’s purpose in offering the simile of the ship in Book VI is to explain why philosophers
appear useless, and explain how the democratic mode of government is flawed. The simile is
to account for why the philosopher was marginalized in society. Concerned in the first
instance with the purported ‘uselessness’ of the philosopher, Socrates asks Adeimantus to
imagine the state or polis as a ship.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ The ship represents the state
Ÿ The captain – the citizenry, “larger and stronger than any of the crew, but a bit deaf and
short-sighted, and similarly limited in seamanship”
Ÿ The crew – politicians “all quarrelling with each other about how to navigate the ship, each
thinking he ought to be at the helm”
Ÿ The art of navigation – the knowledge of the good needed to rule properly; none of the
squabbling crew possesses the true techne or art of navigation needed to guide the ship,
indeed no one believes that such a techne exists
Ÿ The true navigator – on the other hand, who “must study the seasons of the year, the sky,
the winds, and all the other subjects appropriate to his profession if he is to be really fit to
control the ship” – and who represents the philosopher – is ignored
Ÿ The philosopher navigator does not simply appear useless to the likes of Adeimantus,
he is useless
Ÿ On the democratic ship of state the natural order is inverted: “It is not natural”. Socrates
maintains it is inappropriate “for the master to request the crew to be ruled by him… [It is]
not for him to beg them to accept direction”. By right they ought to be asking him, as the
only one who possesses the knowledge and qualities required to rule in the name of
the good
Ÿ In a democracy the philosopher finds no place, or at least, he does not find his
natural place.

(b) Evaluate Plato’s approach to democracy. [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ The use of the simile of the Ship and the Beast as criticism of direct democracy
Ÿ Plato’s criticism of sophists plying their trade
Ÿ Plato’s criticism of the nature of empirical study as not real knowledge
Ÿ Plato asks a number of searching questions about democracy and highlights many of
its weaknesses
Ÿ One of Plato’s principal complaints about democracy is that its horizons are restricted to the
present moment
Ÿ Plato does not offer an argument for democratic pluralism
Ÿ A distinctly authoritarian state is proposed in which political decision making is the preserve
of a ruling elite whose legitimacy is based not on the consent of the citizenry but on their
fitness to rule
Ÿ The ideal state can only be brought about once philosophers become rulers
Ÿ That the state should regulate every aspect of its citizens’ lives in order to provide for their
best interests. Plato’s ideal society was divided into three classes: Workers to produce the
necessities of life; soldiers to defend the state; philosophers to rule. This elite class of
leaders would be specially trained to ensure order and justice. The wisest of them, a
philosopher-king, would have the ultimate authority
Ÿ Because democracy for Plato had a significant role in the condemning of Socrates he
appears to take a negative approach to it being a viable option for the ideal state
Ÿ Would philosophers necessarily make good rulers?
Ÿ Plato’s insistence that democracy is a perversion of the natural order

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Ÿ Plato seems to say that in a democracy reason is usurped by desire, and any objective
account of what is for the best is sacrificed to the subjective satisfaction of material desires
Ÿ What Plato would seem to be unsure about is whether or not democratic electorates get the
politicians they deserve: The simile of the Ship suggests not, the simile of the Beast
suggests that they do
Ÿ Plato describes the progressive corruption of the ideal state in four stages: Timocracy –
military rule – degenerates into oligarchy, literally the rule of the few (but Plato understands
it as the rule of the rich), which in turn degenerates into democracy and concludes in
tyranny
Ÿ To appreciate Plato’s analysis of democracy it is necessary to give attention to the account
of its descent from oligarchy
Ÿ Plato’s account of democracy is highly rhetorical, and, it might be argued, often lapses into
unrecognizable caricature.

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Peter Singer: The Life You Can Save

17. (a) Explain how Singer rejects relativism as a response to the demand to donate to
those in need. [10]

Singer’s thesis is an absolutist one. The duty to help those suffering when you have the ability
to, is a universal duty regardless of the place you are at, or the personal circumstances you
have. The analogy of saving the child drowning in the pond is extensively used and this might
be disputed as an analogy, since the cost involved to the bystander in helping the child might
vary from person to person, thus encouraging a more relativistic outlook on the duty to
sacrifice to help others.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ A response to Singer is to say that morality is a matter for the individual, not for prescription
by any other person or body
Ÿ Singer rejects relativism with common sense examples of the need to intervene if one
witnesses, say, animal cruelty or rape
Ÿ Singer attacks the view that we should only give what those around us give (he attacks
Appiah in Chapter 9)
Ÿ Singer claims the duty to alleviate poverty as an absolute one and denies the appeal to
special duties in the Chapter, Your Child and the Children of Others
Ÿ One response to the suffering of others might be to look at the circumstances of the cause
of the suffering, thus encouraging a situationist perspective – you might respond to different
situations you encounter differently.

(b) Evaluate the claim, “I don’t know where I’d set it, but I would not let many kids die
so my kids could live”, as a response to Singer’s inclusion of who is in need. [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ The issue of the moral demand of special duties
Ÿ The need to take situations into account in making moral judgments
Ÿ Utilitarianism and Kant’s deontology encourage an absolutist approach to calculating moral
action
Ÿ Virtue ethics would encourage a sensitivity to those around you allowing for different duties
to your own family as opposed to those of others
Ÿ Judith Jarvis Thomson says, “A father who says, ‘I’m no more concerned about my
children’s lives than about anybody else’s life’ is just flatly a defective parent”
Ÿ Is Singer’s demand too great emotionally as well as financially?
Ÿ The demand is not quite to love the children of others as much as one’s own – but it is
close, and is this calculation a reasonable one to ask any parent to make?
Ÿ Is Singer’s demand realistic?

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18. (a) Explain what Singer describes as the “common objections to giving” and how he meets
those “common objections”. [10]

Singer devotes a chapter to what he describes as “common objections to giving”. He attempts


to re-format these objections into types of philosophical argument, using examples including
High School student responses and the line taken by a libertarian thinker.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ Singer shows that the United States of America is generous, but that much of the large
amount of annual charitable donations goes to institutions, some of which are wealthy, and
not for aid towards the extreme poor
Ÿ The objection of there not being a black and white universal code of morality that applies to
everyone
Ÿ Singer asks if we can leave the individual to decide what is moral for him-/herself
Ÿ Singer is not making a demand that must be followed (unlike a tax which could be used to
give to the poor)
Ÿ The right of people to spend money on what they choose
Ÿ Narveson says, “..I have seen no plausible argument that we owe something, as a matter of
general duty, to those to whom we have done nothing wrong”
Ÿ Singer attacks the libertarian view by outlining that the economic policies of the wealthy
countries cause poverty in poorer countries
Ÿ Singer uses climate change and global warming as a further example of harm by the
developed economies being caused to poorer countries
Ÿ Singer outlines the situation with regard to taxed income going to poorer people, and finds it
is very low and not sufficient to enable people to think they do enough by paying taxes
Ÿ The argument that aid donation breeds dependency
Ÿ The defense of capitalism as a reason not to give money away
Ÿ The duty to provide for special relationships
Ÿ Singer later goes on to explain the lack of giving by evolutionary and
psychological reasons.

(b) Evaluate Singer’s second premise for his main argument, “If it is in your power to
prevent something bad from happening, without sacrificing anything nearly as
important, it is wrong not to do so.” [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ Is there the same moral duty to prevent suffering that happens distant from oneself as
opposed to that which you see directly?
Ÿ Could “something bad” mean any person being less well off – not just in monetary terms –
than you, making the moral duty far too demanding and unreasonable?
Ÿ Is there a difference between doing something morally wrong as opposed to preventing
something morally wrong occurring?
Ÿ Singer argues that much of the wealth of the developed world arises thanks to the structure
of global economics, hence there is an increased duty for the rich to help
the poor
Ÿ If the reason for the poverty of others is not our own cause, then how much responsibility
must we have to alleviate the conditions created by others?
Ÿ Singer admits the phrase “nearly as important” is problematic, does it distract from the
absolutist demand Singer makes? Who – or what – determines what sacrifice is “nearly
as important”?
Ÿ Where is the place for special duties we have towards, say, family or loved ones in Singer’s
account?

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Charles Taylor: The Ethics of Authenticity

19. (a) Explain Taylor’s claim that “our identity requires recognition by others”. [10]

The question arises from Chapter 5 of Taylor’s work, The Need for Recognition. It invites an
analysis of some properties of authenticity and individualism, related to the concept of
authenticity. Responses might consider Taylor’s view of the modern, socially structured world
and the kind of undertakings it implies. For instance, candidates might consider the role that
associations, social groups and relationships play in the modern society. In Taylor’s view, most
of these social activities and relationships are basically carried on for the sake of self-
fulfilment. Responses might explore the consequences of that view, by underlining Taylor’s
concern about the more marginal role that those social activities play in relation to the political
and social commitment within one’s community. Candidates might also recall Taylor’s
distinction between two main kinds of individualism, the one of “anomie and breakdown”, and
the other as moral principle. Besides underpinning the trend of modern society towards the
shaping of social existences, responses might also consider how the self-fulfilment has taken
the forms of “ordinary life, that is, the life of production and the family, of work and love”.
Responses might also refer to the two changes that Taylor illustrates in the passage from the
ancien régime society to a modern one: The collapse of “honour”, that is the decline of the
status of privileges and inequalities, in favour of a new concept of “dignity”, that is the typical
citizenry of a democratic society, where people’s identity is recognised regardless of their
social position. Reference to Rousseau’s view of hierarchical honour and/or to Hegel’s idea of
recognition might be another element in structuring the question. Candidates might well refer
to the principle of “fairness”, that “demands equal chances for everyone to develop their own
identity”: In other terms, Taylor underlines the crucial importance of recognising difference, or
“recognising the equal value of different ways of being”. It might be possible to explore
whether, and how, social recognition can coexist with individual models of life.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ Social undertakings and relationships; dialogue
Ÿ Political and social commitment
Ÿ Two kinds of individualism
Ÿ Recognition; self-fulfillment; “ordinary life”
Ÿ Honour versus dignity; Rousseau’s view of honour.

(b) Evaluate the relationship between authenticity and recognition. [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ Principle of “fairness”
Ÿ Equality
Ÿ Recognition of differences
Ÿ Authenticity and social conformity
Ÿ Whether and how social recognition can coexist with individual models of life
Ÿ Hegel’s view of recognition.

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20. (a) Explain Taylor’s view of the “culture of narcissism”. [10]

The question arises from Chapter 6 of Taylor’s work, The Slide to Subjectivism. It invites an
analysis of the concept of narcissism and the related “culture”. Responses might consider
Taylor’s distinction between narcissism as either responding to an ideal of self-fulfilment or just
being the expression of self-indulgence and egoism. Either way, the culture of narcissism
emerges from a culture of personal development, which is more and more in contrast with
other elements, such as social constraints, family ties or adherence to high ideals. Candidates
might refer to Taylor’s distinction between past cultures and the modern society in
approaching and solving these kind of contrasts, which sometimes feature in moral conflicts.
Reference to the origin of individualism as one of the emerging characteristics of modern
society might be another point of exploration. Taylor’s explanation of individualism might lead
candidates to mention the “entrenchment process” of the culture of authenticity, in which
fulfilment is individual and self only: Thereby social relationships and associations collapse to
mere instrumental activities and the demands coming from beyond the individual desires, such
as tradition, society, nature, etc. are totally delegitimised. In responding to the question,
candidates might focus on the concept of “atomism” and the causes of it: “Mobility”, intended
as a quality of the modern society, renders social relationships absolutely casual, superficial,
impersonal, with little or no room for deeper contact or ties. Moreover, the technocratic and
bureaucratic essence of modern society fortifies atomism, since it tends to reward the
“instrumental reason”, that is an instrumental conception and use of society. Anthropocentrism
is a clear consequence of this culture, which is a typical aspect of the modern society.
Responses might also consider the relationship between self-discovery and artistic creation,
and the change that art has made from imitation of reality (mimesis) to creation as self-making
(poiesis), as a path along the deconstruction of values.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ Narcissism, individualism, self-indulgence, egoism
Ÿ Personal development and social constraints
Ÿ How individualism has changed from past to modern societies
Ÿ Creation of values, deconstruction of reality: Nietzsche, Baudelaire, Derrida, Foucault
Ÿ Art: From imitation of reality to creation as self-making; Herder, Schiller, Rousseau, Kant;
Debord’s “society of the spectacle”.

(b) Evaluate the consequences of the “culture of narcissism”. [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ “Instrumental reason”
Ÿ “Instrumental society”
Ÿ Mobility: Superficial, impersonal contacts; Bauman’s “liquid modernity” and/or “pointillist
time”; the “quick-fix” approach
Ÿ Atomism
Ÿ Anthropocentrism.

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Lao Tzu: Tao Te Ching

21. (a) Explain the concept of the Sage in the Tao. [10]

The focus is on wisdom and how it can be related to the Tao. The Sage is gentle and kind, but
does not seek to be recognized for his or her gentleness or kindness. S/he is honest and
sincere, but does not seek to be recognised for her/his honesty or sincerity. S/he works to
improve the well-being of others because s/he truly wants to promote social justice and
harmony. The sage is detached from all things, but takes care of all things.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ The Sage, like a mirror, reflects impartially what is before it
Ÿ The Sage does not strive for any personal end; diminishes personal desire to the greatest
possible degree; a person who acts selflessly, and who demonstrates both honour and
humility
Ÿ The Sage relies on ‘actionless activity’; who teaches by not trying to teach, and who is able
to do everything by not striving to do anything
Ÿ The Sage must become as much like the Tao, and consequently as less like an individual
as possible
Ÿ The Sage has no personal desires, and so submits without protest to the unfolding of
events (Fate)
Ÿ The Sage is highly regarded throughout the Tao Te Ching
Ÿ The Sage is a person who is able to promote social cooperation and harmony by acting in
accordance with the Tao.

(b) Evaluate the claim that in the Tao, the Sage, like nature, treats everything impartially.
[15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ Tao literally basically means, ‘way’ or ‘path’ the ‘way of doing something’ and the ‘principle’
or ‘set of principles’
Ÿ In the constantly changing everyday world of all that exists there lies an ultimate and eternal
reality, the Tao. All things receive their te (virtue, power, capacity) from the Tao. For the
Taoist, nature is in a sense divine
Ÿ There is something that is real, ultimate and at the same time the basis of all there is
Impartiality is understood to be the root from which all manner of specific or individual
differences have no real meaning
Ÿ That wu wei, ‘actionless activity’, has consequences for both moral and political philosophy.
The implications could be discussed with relevant illustrations
Ÿ Candidates may offer a comparison and/or contrast with other traditions as part of the
response; eg Christian or classical Greek concepts in respect of the role of imitating nature
in shaping the personal/moral character
Ÿ The view on nature (and wisdom) conveyed by generations may (and probably should)
become dated. Examples might be drawn from contemporary issues or contexts.

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22. (a) Explain the theme of water in the Tao. [10]

Water is one of the two common symbols in the Tao (the other being the willow tree). It
appears to be the preferred metaphor for the primary quality of the Tao. Water is yielding,
which is exactly what makes it superior and so is indicative of one of the central themes in the
Tao, that of the strength to be found in softness and pliability.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ Water as the natural phenomenon that comes closest to a resemblance of the Tao’s
meaning. Water, then, was the closest parallel to the Tao in the natural world
Ÿ Water illustrates the paradoxical nature and the power of the Tao
Ÿ Water as the prototype of wu wei
Ÿ Water describes the action that flows from a life that is grounded directly in the Tao
Ÿ Nurtured by a force that is infinitely subtle, infinitely intricate, it is a consummate
gracefulness born from an abundant vitality that has no need for abruptness or violence
Ÿ Yet incomparably strong – these virtues of water are precisely those of wu wei as well
Ÿ One simply lets the Tao flow in and flow out again until all life becomes an event in which
there is neither feverishness nor imbalance
Ÿ How water adapts itself to its surroundings and seeks out the lowest places. So too, “The
supreme good is like water, which nourishes all things without trying to”
Ÿ Another characteristic of water that makes it an appropriate analogy to wu wei is the clarity
it attains through being still.

(b) Evaluate the claim that the theme of water in the Tao is essentially a metaphor for
an attitude toward life. [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ The aligning of one’s daily life to the Tao is to ride its boundless tide and delight in its flow.
The basic way to do this is to perfect a life of wu wei
Ÿ The pure effectiveness and creative quietude of wu wei
Ÿ Supreme activity and supreme relaxation. These seeming incompatibles can coexist
because human beings are not self-enclosed entities; they ride an unbounded sea of
wu wei that sustains them through their subliminal minds
Ÿ Wu wei is the supreme action, the precious suppleness, simplicity, and freedom that flows
from us, or rather through us, when our private egos and conscious efforts yield to a power
not their own
Ÿ Following the analogy of water, the Tao rejected all forms of self-assertiveness and
competition
Ÿ People should avoid being strident and aggressive not only toward other people but also
toward nature
Ÿ The relativity of all values and, the identity of opposites. This polarity sums up all of life’s
basic oppositions: Good/evil, active/passive, positive/negative, light/dark, summer/winter,
and male/female. But though the halves are in tension, they are not opposed; they
complement and balance each other.

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Zhuangzi: Zhuangzi

23. (a) Explain Zhuangzi’s metaphor of the butcher and the knife. [10]

The question arises from a metaphor that Zhuangzi illustrates in Chapter 3 of the Inner
Chapters, The Principle of Nurturing Life (Yang Shen Zhu). The metaphor is a clear example
of the whole of Zhuangzi’s philosophy, across all chapters. The central sentence of the chapter
is presented by the butcher’s words:

“A good butcher changes his knife once a year – because he cuts. A mediocre cook
changes his knife once a month – because he hacks. I’ve had this knife of mine for
nineteen years and I’ve cut up thousands of oxen with it, and yet the blade is as good
as though it had just come from the grindstone. There are spaces between the joints,
and the blade of the knife has really no thickness. If you insert what has no thickness
into such spaces, then there’s plenty of room – more than enough for the blade to play
about it. That’s why after nineteen years the blade of my knife is still as good as when
it first came from the grindstone.”

Responses might explain the main argument of the metaphor, consider its possible
interpretations, and connect it to other similar metaphors and/or to the whole of Zhuangzi’s
philosophy. Candidates might underline the central role that skilfulness, mastery, and wisdom
play in Zhuangzi’s view and how they are linked to one’s own “life force”
(sheng, xing) and proper, natural life. So, responses might also underpin the importance of
spontaneity and nature for a life to be proper, balanced, and harmonious. Zhuangzi’s criticism
of social life, civic involvement, artificial structures of city life are grounded in the risk not to
attune oneself with the transformations and rhythm of nature: Candidates might refer to this
aspect and relate it to the general spirit of the Tao. Responses might analyse the difference
between mastery or skilfulness and wisdom: To achieve a mastery is not a guarantee of
conducting a sage life, since a mastery implies the knowledge and possession of a mere
technique, whereas wisdom has to do with “art” (the Tao), that is a “spiritual state of
heightened awareness” (xu). Another possible path might develop the core theme of
“balance”, according to Zhuangzi’s invitation to “follow the middle” and “stay away from fame
and punishments”.

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ Meaning of the metaphor: Butcher, knife, mastery of a technique, skillfulness
Ÿ Spiritual, natural life versus social, city life
Ÿ Nature as movement, change, transformation
Ÿ Personal attuning with nature
Ÿ Comparison to other philosophers/schools, eg Epicureanism, Stoicism, Aristotle, Locke,
Hume, Rousseau, Emerson, Foot, MacIntyre.

(b) To what extent is the achievement of a mastery not a guarantee of wisdom? [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ Difference between technique and art; whether it is possible to learn/train art
Ÿ Concepts of wisdom and sage life
Ÿ Importance of balance, of the middle
Ÿ Fame and punishments
Ÿ Wisdom as a “spiritual state of heightened awareness”.

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24. (a) Explain Zhuangzi’s view of morality in relation to Ruist and Mohist ideas. [10]

The question focuses on an argument that is clearly expressed in Zhuangzi’s Chapter 4, The
Realm of Human Interactions (Ren Jian Shi). Candidates might illustrate Ruist and Mohist
ideas of morality and refer to Zhuangzi’s criticism of them. Therefore, responses might
analyse the meaning of Ruist concepts such as “humanity” (ren) and “rightness” (yi) and
Mohist terms such as “correct” (shi) and “not correct” (fei). Also, the importance of other
keywords might be underlined, such as “preference”, “pleasure”, “benefit”, “harm” and “pain”.
Some responses might well connect Zhuangzi’s criticism of Ruist and Mohist moral ideas to
his more general view of nature and society. In fact, Zhuangzi’s criticism is mainly grounded in
the consideration of Ruist and Mohist as holding dangerous conceptions, inasmuch as they do
not take into account Zhuangzi’s suggestion not to confront triggering situations: As a
supporting argument, candidates might mention the story of Yen Hui, a Confucius follower,
and his intention to “rectify” a corrupted state and its King. Responses might insist on
Zhuangzi’s idea that people can barely face the intertwined situations of a complex social and
artificial life, particularly in those cases of corruption, danger, or provocation. In these
situations, sages should be skilful enough to avoid dangers and steer these situations to a less
challenging point. Candidates might consider Zhuangzi’s idea that socialisation and
civilisation tend to impede their capacity to attune themselves with the characteristics of
nature: Change, transformation, development, whereas the aim is to perform the balanced
behaviour of heart and mind (xinzhai).

Candidates might explore:


Ÿ Ruist and Mohist ideals: Humanity (ren), rightness (yi), correct (shi), not correct (fei)
Ÿ Zhuangzi’s view of nature; transformation and change
Ÿ Nature versus society
Ÿ Dangerous situations, social undertakings, corruption, provocation
Ÿ Appropriate behaviour in danger situations
Ÿ Story of Confucius’s follower, Yen Hui, and the King.

(b) To what extent might Ruist and Mohist ideas be considered dangerous? [15]

Possible discussion points include:


Ÿ Zhuangzi’s criticism of Ruist and Mohist ideas
Ÿ Preference, judgment, pleasure, benefit, harm, pain
Ÿ Sage behaviour; balance, wisdom, attuning with nature, potencies
Ÿ Harmony as independent from passions
Ÿ Feelings as earthly, changing elements
Ÿ Comparison to other traditions, eg Epicureanism, Stoicism, Christianity.

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Markscheme

May 2018

Psychology

Higher level and standard level

Paper 2

19 pages

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This markscheme is confidential and for the exclusive use


of examiners in this examination session.

It is the property of the International Baccalaureate and


must not be reproduced or distributed to any other person
without the authorization of the IB Global Centre, Cardiff.

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The following are the annotations available to use when marking responses.

Annotation Explanation Short cut

Unclear

Incorrect Point

Good Response/Good Point

IR Irrelevant
AQ Answers the Question

CKS Clear Knowledge Shown


NAQ Not Answered Question

Apply to blank pages

On-page comment text box (for


adding specific comments)

Highlight (can be expanded)

TNCE Theory is Not Clearly Explained


CON Contradiction
DEV Development
D Description
DET Relevant Detail
EG Example
EVAL Evaluation
EXC Excellent Point
GP Good Point

Wavy Underline Tool

NE Not Enough

VL Very Limited
WKAR Weak Argument

You must make sure you have looked at all pages. Please put the annotation on any blank page,
to indicate that you have seen it.

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Paper 2 assessment criteria

A — Knowledge and comprehension

Marks Level descriptor


0 The work does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.
The answer demonstrates limited knowledge and understanding that is of marginal
1–3 relevance to the question. Little or no psychological research is used in the
response.
The answer demonstrates limited knowledge and understanding relevant to the
4–6
question or uses relevant psychological research to limited effect in the response.
The answer demonstrates detailed, accurate knowledge and understanding relevant
7–9 to the question, and uses relevant psychological research effectively in support of
the response.

B — Evidence of critical thinking: application, analysis, synthesis, evaluation

Marks Level descriptor


0 The work does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.
The answer goes beyond description but evidence of critical thinking is not linked to
1–3
the requirements of the question.
The answer offers appropriate but limited evidence of critical thinking or offers
4–6 evidence of critical thinking that is only implicitly linked to the requirements of the
question.
The answer integrates relevant and explicit evidence of critical thinking in response
7–9
to the question.

C — Organization

Marks Level descriptor


0 The work does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.
The answer is organized or focused on the question. However, this is not sustained
1–2
throughout the response.
3–4 The answer is well organized, well developed and focused on the question.

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Abnormal psychology

1. Discuss concepts of normality and abnormality.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review that includes
various concepts of normality and abnormality.

Concepts of normality and abnormality may include, but are not limited to:
• the mental health criterion/model
• the statistical criterion/model
• abnormality as mental illness (medical model)
• the psychoanalytic explanation of the concept of abnormality
• the cognitive explanation of the concept of abnormality
• deviation from social and cultural norms.

Discussion may include, but is not limited to:


• cross-cultural issues
• gender biases
• supporting or contradicting evidence
• the issue of labelling
• changing norms on perceptions of normality (for example, changing views on homosexuality or
political dissent)
• difficulties in defining normality/abnormality
• difficulties in diagnosing normality/abnormality.

Relevant research may include, but is not limited to:


• Rosenhan and Seligman (1984) – seven criteria of abnormality
• Jahoda (1958) – six characteristics of mental health
• Szasz (1962) – mental disorders as “problems in living”
• Bolton (1999) – cultural issues in overdiagnosis.

Although studies illustrating difficulty in diagnosis (eg Rosenhan) may be marginally relevant to the
question, the response must be focused on the broader issue of normality versus abnormality in
order to be awarded the full range of marks.

Candidates may discuss a small number of explanations of normality and abnormality in order to
demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may discuss a larger number of explanations of normality and
abnormality in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally
acceptable.

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2. Discuss the use of one or more examples of an eclectic approach to treatment.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of one or more
examples of an eclectic approach to treatment.

An eclectic approach to treatment refers to instances where the therapist selects treatments and
strategies from a variety of current approaches. Responses may refer to an eclectic treatment in
general or an eclectic treatment for specific disorders. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

Many examples of eclectic approaches to treatment are available, for example:


• Sharp et al.‘s (1999) study of drug therapy combined with cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
• Pampallona’s (2004) analysis of the relative effectiveness of drug therapy versus combined
treatment
• Elkin et al.’s (1989) study of the relative effectiveness of interpersonal therapy (IPT), CBT, drugs
and placebo
• McDermut et al.’s (2001) study of group therapy versus CBT.

Discussion may include, but is not limited to:


• strengths of each separate approach are combined so that potential limitations of a specific
approach are decreased
• the overall treatment is tailored to the specific needs of the client
• it provides flexibility in treatment (for example, many patients suffer from several disorders at the
same time)
• overall efficacy (lower relapse rates)
• treatment can be complex for one clinician to manage
• there are very few empirical studies on long-term effectiveness and more research is needed
• methodological, cultural and ethical considerations
• comparing the effectiveness of an eclectic approach to treatment to a singular approach.

Candidates may discuss one example of an eclectic approach to treatment in order to demonstrate
depth of knowledge, or a greater number of examples of an eclectic approach to treatment in order
to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

If a candidate compares and evaluates two separate treatment methods without addressing the
eclectic approach then the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [5] for criterion A,
knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a
maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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3. Explain, with reference to psychological research, two etiologies of one anxiety, affective or eating
disorder.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “explain” requires candidates to give a detailed account, including causes, of
two etiologies of one disorder. The two etiologies explained could be from different levels of
analysis or the same level of analysis. Although the question asks for two etiologies, the response
does not need to be evenly balanced.

Anxiety disorders may include, but are not limited to: phobias, PTSD (post-traumatic stress
disorder) or OCD (obsessive-compulsive disorder). Eating disorders may include, but are not
limited to: anorexia, bulimia or binge eating disorders. Affective disorders may include, but are not
limited to: major depression, bipolar disorder or seasonal affective disorder (SAD).

Examples of how candidates may show evidence of critical thinking could include, but are not
limited to:
• analysis of the methodology and/or ethical considerations related to the studies
• application of empirical support in relation to the causes of the disorder
• using evidence from studies that support or disconfirm the explanation/etiology of one disorder
• analysis of the interaction between biological, cognitive and cultural factors
• addressing the issue of universality versus cultural differences
• questioning the direction of cause and effect.

If a candidate explains the etiology of a disorder which is neither an anxiety, affective nor eating
disorder (for example, schizophrenia, or ADHD) then the response should be awarded [0] for
criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking,
and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

If a candidate approaches this question without referring to a specific disorder, then the response
should be awarded up to a maximum of [4] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a
maximum of [4] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization.

If a candidate explains more than two etiologies, credit should be given only to the first two
explanations. However, in some cases, candidates may use other etiologies in order to
demonstrate critical thinking relevant to the two main etiologies addressed in the response. This
approach is acceptable and should be awarded marks.

If a candidate explains etiologies of more than one disorder, credit should be given only to the first
disorder.

If a candidate explains only one etiology of a disorder, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4] for criterion
B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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Developmental psychology

4. Examine potential effects of deprivation and/or trauma in childhood on later development.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “examine” requires candidates to consider the relationships between
deprivation and/or trauma in childhood and later development. Candidates may address
deprivation and/or trauma experiences but they do not have to specifically identify them as
deprivation or trauma situations.

Research may include, but is not limited to:


• Rutter et al.’s (2001) and Rutter’s (1981) studies on the consequences of deprivation
• case study of Genie
• Bowlby’s maternal deprivation hypothesis
• Cockett and Tripp’s (1994) study on long-term attachment deprivation effects
• Cyrulnik’s theory of resilience
• Koluchova’s case study showing the possibility to reverse the effects of deprivation
• Tedeschi and Calhoun’s (2004) theory on the positive aspects emerging from the struggle with
trauma.

In order to respond to the command term “examine”, candidates may refer to:
• research explaining how resilience and protective factors reduce the impact of deprivation or
trauma in childhood
• biological, cognitive or sociocultural factors in relation to potential effects of deprivation or
trauma in childhood on later development
• traditional deterministic theories of deprivation
• research showing that deprivation or trauma may lead to positive growth
• short-term versus long-term effects of deprivation or trauma
• methodological and ethical considerations.

Candidates may make reference to animal studies as part of their response, and credit should be
awarded for this as long as they relate the findings to human development.

Candidates may examine a small number of potential effects of deprivation/trauma in order to


demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may examine a larger number of potential effects of
deprivation/trauma in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally
acceptable.

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5. Evaluate one or more examples of psychological research (theories and/or studies) into
adolescence.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of one or more theories or studies into adolescence. Although a
discussion of both strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to
gain high marks.

Relevant theories may include, but are not limited to:


• Erikson’s identity theory
• Coleman’s focal theory
• Baethge’s cultural theory
• Lewin’s field theory.

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Marcia’s studies on the different types of identity status
• Mead’s anthropological studies
• Rutter et al.’s studies on the relationships between adolescents and their parents
• Steinberg’s studies on parent–adolescent conflicts
• Condon’s (1987) study challenging the cross-cultural validity of Erikson’s theory
• Ferron’s (1997) cross-cultural study on body image in adolescence.
• studies related to teenage brain development.

Evaluation may include, but is not limited to:


• appropriateness of concepts in explaining adolescence
• appropriateness of explanation of individual differences
• cultural and gender considerations
• methodological considerations
• supporting and contradicting evidence
• the productivity of the theory in generating psychological research
• the applications of the research
• relevance of stage versus continuous development.

If a candidate addresses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension.

Theories such as those advanced by Piaget and Vygotsky may be presented for
discussion. However, the focus must be on the period of adolescence in order to be awarded the
full range of marks.

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6. To what extent does attachment in childhood play a role in the formation of relationships later in
life?

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the influence that attachment
in childhood has on relationships later in life.

It is appropriate and useful for candidates to address the fact that there is no clear evidence of
direct causality between attachment in childhood and formation of relationships later in life in order
to respond to the command term “to what extent”.

Relevant research may include, but is not limited to:


• Pratt and Norris (1994) – positive correlation between early attachment relationships and
reports of current social relationships
• Hazan and Shaver (1987) – similarities between romantic love as experienced by adults and the
characteristics of attachment
• Rossi and Rossi (1990) – people who grew up in cohesive families tended to establish positive
relationships with their own partners
• Sternberg and Beall (1991) – many adults find that their relationships vary: with one partner,
they experience an insecure bond, but with the next a secure one
• Bowlby’s research on how maternal deprivation can affect an individual later in life.

Responses referring to research with animals, such as Harlow’s studies with rhesus monkeys, are
relevant but must be linked to attachment in humans. Responses that do not explicitly make any
link to human behaviour should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for criterion A, knowledge and
comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2]
for criterion C, organization.

Responses that focus only on descriptions of research on attachment in childhood (such as


Ainsworth) with no link to the formation of relationships later in life should be awarded up to a
maximum of [4] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion
B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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Health psychology

7. Discuss physiological and/or social aspects of stress.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of physiological
and/or social aspects of stress.

Candidates can use research that deals with either or both the physiological and social aspects of
stress.

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Kiecolt-Glaser et al.’s (1984) study on how exam stress influences the immune system
• Steptoe and Marmot’s (2003) Whitehall study on the relationship between workplace stress and
the risk of heart disease
• Sapolsky (2005) on the influence of social hierarchy on primate health
• Fernald and Gunnar’s (2008) or Evans and Kim’s (2007) studies on the relationship between
poverty and stress
• Taylor et al.’s (2000) study on gender differences in stress
• O’Driscoll and Cooper’s (1994) study on coping with work-related stress.

Discussion may include but is not limited to:


• cultural and gender considerations
• conditions under which stress may be observed and/or measured
• methodological concerns in measuring aspects of stress
• risk factors associated with socio-economic status.

Responses may discuss either physiological or social aspects of stress or may discuss both
aspects of stress. Either approach is equally acceptable.

Candidates may address a smaller number of physiological and/or social aspects of stress in order
to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may address a larger number of physiological and/or social
aspects of stress in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally
acceptable.

Responses referring to research with animals, such as Callhoun’s study of the effects of crowding
on rats, are relevant but must be linked to human behaviour.

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8. Examine one or more models and/or theories of health promotion.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “examine” requires candidates to consider one or more models/theories in a
way that uncovers the assumptions of the models/theories, and relationships between the
models/theories and health promotion.

Models/theories may include, but are not limited to:


• the health belief model (HBM)
• the stages of change model
• any of the various public health promotions such as the VERB (2002–2006), TRUTH
(1998–1999), tips from former smokers (2012), ACT against AIDS (2011), HEART campaign
(Zambia 1990s–2000).

Examination of the chosen models and/or theories may include, but is not limited to:
• cultural or gender considerations
• ethical considerations
• application of the empirical findings
• competing theories or studies
• the difficulty of assessing the effectiveness of the health promotion with regard to
models/theories.

Studies may be used to illustrate or provide evidence for specific models and/or theories of health
promotion, but the focus of the response must be on addressing the actual model and/or theory of
health promotion in order to be awarded the full range of marks.

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9. To what extent do biological factors influence health-related behaviour?

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the influence of biological
factors on health-related behaviour.

Stress, obesity, substance abuse, and other health-related behaviours are equally acceptable for
answers to the question. Candidates may approach health-related behaviour as a whole or use
specific examples of health-related behaviour. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

Biological factors may include, but are not limited to:


• evolutionary explanations
• genetic predisposition
• the biological effects of drug treatment for addictive behaviour
• the neurobiology of food addiction (for example, Volkow et al., 2002).

Each factor that is identified should be connected to health-related behaviour. Where this
connection is not made, no marks should be awarded for the mere listing or description of
biological factors.

It is appropriate and useful for candidates to address sociocultural and/or cognitive factors in order
to respond to the command term “to what extent”.

Candidates may address a small number of biological factors in order to demonstrate depth of
knowledge, or may address a larger number of biological factors in order to demonstrate breadth of
knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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Psychology of human relationships

10. Discuss one or more social and/or cultural origins of attraction.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of one or more
social/cultural explanations for the origin of attraction.

Social/cultural origins of attraction may include, but are not limited to:
• Proximity factor – proximity increases chances for interaction which in turn increases familiarity.
Mere exposure effect is enough to increase liking (Zajonc, 1968)
• Cultural factors play a role in inducing attraction (for example, Buss et al., 1990) - values of
chastity, youth, good financial prospects are differently rated in different parts of the world.
• Reciprocity - people tend to like others who reciprocate their liking
• Balance theory - emphasizes people’s desire to maintain a consistent state, also predicts the
emergence of reciprocity, at least for people who are more like themselves
• Reward theory – we are often more inclined to spend time with people who make us feel good
or offer some kind of social status or benefits.
• Social exchange theory – we unconsciously weigh the rewards and costs of being in a
relationship. If a relationship is to last it should be profitable for both partners (Nye, 1979)
• Similarity (for example social class, cultural background, religion, ethnicity).

Discussion of social/cultural explanations of attraction may include, but is not limited to:
• methodological considerations
• gender considerations
• supporting or contradictory empirical evidence
• alternative explanations of attraction, such as biological and/or cognitive.

Candidates may address one or a small number of social/cultural origins of attraction in order to
demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may address a larger number of social/cultural origins of
attraction in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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11. Evaluate two examples of research (theories and/or studies) investigating the role of
communication in maintaining relationships.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal of two examples of
research investigating the role of communication in maintaining relationships by weighing up the
strengths and limitations of the research. Although a discussion of both strengths and limitations is
required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks.

Examples of research may include, but are not limited to:


• gender or cultural differences in communication patterns (for example, Tannen, 1990)
• the role of attribution in relationships (for example, Bradbury and Fincham, 1992)
• the value of disclosure (for example, social penetration theory)
• the role of communication of emotions in maintaining relationships (for example, Gottman and
Levenson, 1986)
• studies on marital satisfaction (for example, Fincham, 2004).

Evaluation of the research may include, but is not limited to:


• methodological considerations
• cultural and gender considerations
• the accuracy and clarity of the concepts
• supporting and/or contradictory evidence
• alternative explanations
• the productivity of the theory in generating psychological research
• the applications of the empirical findings.

If a candidate evaluates more than two examples of research, credit should be given only to the
first two examples of research. However, candidates may discuss other theories/studies and be
awarded marks for this as long as these theories/studies are clearly used to evaluate the two main
examples of research addressed in the response.
If a candidate evaluates only one theory/study, the response should be awarded up to a maximum
of [5] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4] for criterion B, critical
thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension.

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12. To what extent do sociocultural factors influence human relationships?

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the contribution of
sociocultural factors that affect human relationships.

Candidates may address one or all areas of the option: social responsibility, interpersonal
relationships and/or violence.

Factors which may be addressed include, but are not limited to:
• gender and cultural norms (for example, the role that culture plays in the formation and
maintenance of relationships, violence, or perception of attractiveness)
• proximity
• modelling
• social identity
• similarity
• familiarity.

It is appropriate and useful for candidates to address biological and/or cognitive factors in order to
address the command term “to what extent”.

Candidates may consider a small number of sociocultural factors in order to demonstrate depth of
knowledge, or may consider a larger number of sociocultural factors in order to demonstrate
breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

Studies may be used to illustrate or to provide evidence for factors influencing human
relationships, but the focus of the response must be on addressing the actual sociocultural factors
which influence human relationships in order to be awarded the full range of marks.

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Sport psychology

13. Evaluate two or more techniques for skill development used in sport.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal of two or more techniques
used for skill development in sport by weighing up the strengths and limitations of each technique.
Although a discussion of both strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly
balanced to gain high marks.

Techniques for skill development may include, but are not limited to:
• massed practice vs. distributed practice (e.g. repetition), for example Wickelgren (1981); Fitts
and Posner (1967); Singer (1965)
• mental imagery research, for example Issac (1992); Baroga (1973); Rushall (1970)
• research on self-talk, for example Araki et al. (2006); Landin and Herbert (1999); Martin et al.
(1995).

Evaluation of the selected techniques may include, but is not limited to:
• cultural or gender considerations
• empirical findings
• conditions under which the findings may be applied
• comparison to other techniques
• methodological considerations
• the effectiveness of the techniques.

Candidates may evaluate two techniques in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may
evaluate a larger number of techniques to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches
are equally acceptable.

If a candidate only evaluates one technique, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of
[5] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4] for criterion B, critical
thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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14. To what extent does the role of coaches influence individual and/or team behaviour in sport?

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the contribution of the coach’s
role in affecting individual and/or team behaviour in sport.

Coaches can have a positive or negative effect on the athletes they coach.

Candidates may consider topics such as, but not limited to:
• the role of the coach with regard to the motivation of the athlete
• self-efficacy
• goal-setting
• the role of feedback in improving performance
• the role of coaches in team cohesion
• the role of coaches’ expectations in the performance of athletes.

Candidates may discuss the difficulties of assessing the influence of coaches. This approach
could include discussion of the difficulty in isolating variables, the problem of generalizability
(transference) or the general subjectivity of this type of research.

It is appropriate and useful for candidates to address the role of other factors related to individual
and/or team behaviour in sport such as personality characteristics, financial motivations, peer
influences, team cohesion, etc. in order to respond to the command term “to what extent”.

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Garcia-Bengoechea (2003) on peers’ versus coaches’ effect on athlete motivation
• Jowett and Cockerill (2003) on coaches’ characteristics and successful Olympic swimmers
• Duda and Pensgaard (2002) on improving intrinsic motivation
• Chase et al. (1997) on coaches’ sense of self-efficacy and team performance
• Slavin (1965) on facilitating a community of cooperative learners
• Horn and Lox (1993) on the role of coaches’ expectations on athlete performance
• Alfermann et al. (2005) on coaches’ influence on skill development in athletes.

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15. Discuss one or more models/theories of burnout in sport.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of one or more
models/theories of burnout in sport. Candidates may discuss models/theories related to causes of
burnout in sport and/or prevention of burnout in sport.

Models/theories on burnout include, but are not limited to:


• Smith’s (1986) cognitive affective model
• Meichenbaum’s (1985) stress inoculation theory (SIT)
• Raedeke’s (2002) study of role conflict and other factors of burnout
• Maslasch and Jackson’s (1984) model of burnout.

If a response addresses models and/or theories of burnout that address behaviour in general
without explicit reference to behaviour in sport, the response should be awarded up to a maximum
of [3] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical
thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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Markscheme

November 2018

Psychology

Higher and standard level

Paper 2

18 pages

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This markscheme is the property of the International


Baccalaureate and must not be reproduced or distributed
to any other person without the authorization of the
IB Global Centre, Cardiff.

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Paper 2 assessment criteria

A — Knowledge and comprehension

Marks Level descriptor


0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.
The answer demonstrates limited knowledge and understanding that is of marginal
1–3 relevance to the question. Little or no psychological research is used in the
response.
The answer demonstrates limited knowledge and understanding relevant to the
4–6
question or uses relevant psychological research to limited effect in the response.
The answer demonstrates detailed, accurate knowledge and understanding relevant
7–9 to the question, and uses relevant psychological research effectively in support of
the response.

B — Evidence of critical thinking: application, analysis, synthesis, evaluation

Marks Level descriptor


0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.
The answer goes beyond description but evidence of critical thinking is not linked to
1–3
the requirements of the question.
The answer offers appropriate but limited evidence of critical thinking or offers
4–6 evidence of critical thinking that is only implicitly linked to the requirements of the
question.
The answer integrates relevant and explicit evidence of critical thinking in response
7–9
to the question.

C — Organization

Marks Level descriptor


0 The answer does not reach a standard described by the descriptors below.
The answer is organized or focused on the question. However, this is not sustained
1–2
throughout the response.
3–4 The answer is well organized, well developed and focused on the question.

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Abnormal psychology

1. To what extent do cognitive factors influence abnormal behaviour?

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the contribution of
cognitive factors that affect abnormal behaviour.

Cognitive factors may include, but are not limited to:


• cognitive approaches to treatment
• cognitive etiologies for specific disorders
• negative cognitive schemas influencing depression
• distorted weight-related schema influencing bulimia
• intrusive memories influencing panic reactions in patients with PTSD (post-traumatic
stress disorder).

The focus of the response should be on the cognitive factors influencing abnormal
behaviour. However, it is appropriate and useful for candidates to address other
factors (such as biological factors and/or sociocultural factors) in order to respond to
the command term “to what extent”.

The term “abnormal behaviour” can be interpreted by candidates differently – some


candidates may focus on the extent to which cognitive factors influence only one type
of abnormal behaviour (for example, a specific disorder) or address the term in a
general manner by offering several examples of how some cognitive factors relate to
several disorders. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

Candidates may consider a small number of cognitive factors in order to demonstrate


depth of knowledge, or may consider a larger number of cognitive or sociocultural
factors in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally
acceptable.

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2. Evaluate one or more examples of psychological research (theories and/or studies) related to
approaches to treatment.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires the candidate to make an evaluation of theories
and/or studies related to approaches to treatment by weighing up the strengths and
limitations of the selected theory or study. Although a discussion of both strengths and
limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks.

Relevant theories may include, but are not limited to:


• systematic desensitization
• the cognitive-behavioural model
• social learning theory (social cognitive theory)
• the serotonin hypothesis.

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Neale et al.’s (2011) meta-analysis of published studies on the outcome of anti-
depressants versus placebo
• Hay et al.’s (2004) study on the effectiveness of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)
in the treatment of bulimia
• Leuchter et al.’s (2002) study on the changes in brain function during treatment with
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) versus during treatment with placebo
• Elkin et al.’s (1989) controlled outcome study of treatment of depression
• Pampallona et al.’s (2004) meta-analysis of efficacy of drug treatment alone versus
drug treatment and psychotherapy in depression.

Evaluation of the selected theory or study may include, but is not limited to:
• cultural or gender considerations
• empirical findings
• conditions under which the explanations/findings may be applied
• comparison to other explanations
• methodological and ethical considerations.

Candidates may evaluate one theory/study in order to demonstrate depth of


knowledge, or a greater number of theories/studies in order to demonstrate breadth of
knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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3. Contrast the use of biomedical and individual approaches to the treatment of one disorder.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “contrast” requires candidates to give an account of the differences
between biomedical and individual approaches to the treatment of one disorder. Critical
thinking (synthesis/analysis) may also be demonstrated by referring to an eclectic
approach that combines biomedical and individual approaches to the treatment of one
disorder.

Expect a range of different approaches to treatment to be offered in response to the


question. Individual treatments could include systematic desensitization, cognitive
behavioural therapy (CBT) or person-centred therapy. Biomedical approaches could
include drug therapy, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) or psychosurgery, for example.
Responses should provide an accurate and well-organized description of both
approaches to treatment.

Contrasting points addressed may include, but are not limited to:
• the effectiveness of the two approaches to treatment
• the assumptions about etiology upon which they are based with regard to the
disorder
• cultural, gender, ethical or practical issues related to the implementation of
biomedical and individual approaches to the treatment of one disorder.

Responses should be focused on biomedical and individual approaches to treatment of


one specific disorder to demonstrate detailed knowledge and understanding relevant to
the question.

If a candidate contrasts the use of biomedical and individual approaches to treatment


for more than one disorder, credit should be given only to the part of the response
relevant for the first disorder.

If a candidate contrasts the use of biomedical and individual approaches to the


treatment with no explicit link to one specific disorder, the response should be awarded
up to a maximum of [4] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a
maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion
C, organization.

If the response contrasts group approaches to treatment to biomedical/individual


approaches to treatment, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [4] for
criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B,
critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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Developmental psychology

4. To what extent do biological factors influence human development?

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the contribution of
biological factors that affect human development.

Responses may refer to biological factors including but not limited to:

• the effects of maturation of the nervous system on cognitive development


• Waber’s (2007) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) studies showing that as children
mature, the speed of mental processing generally increases
• the role of neuroplasticity in brain development
• the role of stress hormones on faulty development
• the role of sex hormones
• Bowlby’s theory that the capacity for attachment is innate.

In order to respond to the command term, it is appropriate and useful for candidates to
discuss:
• the issue of reductionism
• how human development is the result of complex interactions between biological,
sociocultural and cognitive factors
• how biology and experience act together to produce the normal course of
development.

The focus of the response should be on the biological factors influencing human
development. However, it is appropriate and useful for candidates to address other
factors (such as cognitive factors and/or sociocultural factors) in order to respond to the
command term “to what extent”.

Candidates may address a small number of biological factors in order to demonstrate


depth of knowledge, or may address a larger number of biological factors in order to
demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

Animal research may be used as long as a clear link is made to human development.

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5. Evaluate one or more examples of psychological research (theories and/or studies) relevant to the
formation and development of gender roles.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal of research


related to the formation and development of gender roles by weighing up the strengths
and limitations. Although a discussion of both strengths and limitations is required, it
does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high marks.

Relevant theories may include, but are not limited to:


• gender schema theory that stresses the key role of cognitive processes in the
development of gender roles
• social learning theory that highlights the importance of the social environment and
emphasizes the potency of observational and modelling processes
• theory of psychosexual differentiation that is based on the assumption that gender
roles are related to genetic sex determined by chromosomes
• evolutionary theory that attempts to locate gender role differences in a historical
evolutionary context
• psychodynamic theory that is based on the assumption that gender roles appear
when children identify with their same-sex parent.

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Martin and Halvorson’s (1983) study showing the role of gender schemas on gender
roles
• Fagot’s (1978) study showing the influence of parents on gender roles
• Mead’s (1935) study showing that gender roles depend upon the society
• Money and Ehrhardt’s (1972) study claiming that children are gender neutral at birth.

Evaluation may include but is not limited to:


• methodological and ethical considerations
• cultural and gender considerations
• the accuracy and clarity of the concepts
• contrary findings or explanations
• the productivity of the theory in generating psychological research
• the applications of the empirical findings.

A candidate may evaluate one theory or study in order to demonstrate depth of


knowledge, or may evaluate a larger number of theories/studies in order to
demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be


awarded up to a maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum
of [2] for criterion C, organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A,
knowledge and comprehension.

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6. Discuss the relationship between physical change and development of identity during adolescence.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of the
relationship between physical change and development of identity during adolescence.

Relevant content may provide an outline of the emergence of primary and secondary
sexual characteristics then show how that affects identity formation during
adolescence, such as:
• Simmons and Blyth (1987) – the cultural ideal hypothesis
• Ferron (1997) – cultural differences in the way adolescents view bodily changes
• Mead’s cross-cultural theory
• studies on the timing of puberty and its impact on body image, self-esteem and
behaviour: Brooks-Gunn and Paikoff (1993); Blyth, Bulcroft and Simmons (1981);
Jones (1965).

Discussion may include, but is not limited to:


• the difficulty of generalizing the psychological effects of physical changes – they
depend on the timing of puberty and they differ in boys and girls
• biology is not the only factor influencing the development of identity
• culture is a strong determinant in self-perception and body shape perception
• puberty’s effects on development of identity may not be as strong as once believed.

Responses should focus on the link between physical changes and identity
development. Physical changes have psychological ramifications that contribute to an
adolescent’s sense of self.

If a candidate only addresses development of identity or only addresses physical


change in adolescence, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [4] for
criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B,
critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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Health Psychology

7. Discuss one or more strategies for coping with stress.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of one
or more strategies used to cope with stress.

Relevant strategies (including models and techniques) may include, but are not limited
to:
• problem-focused and emotion-focused strategies (Lazarus and Folkman, 1988;
1975)
• forms of cognitive behavioural therapy such as stress inoculation training
(Meichenbaum, 1985)
• social support groups/networks (Brown and Harris, 1978)
• mindfulness-based stress reduction strategies (Kabat-Zinn, 1979).

Candidates may also address ineffective or unhealthy coping strategies, such as drug
taking, alcohol abuse, smoking, overeating, or the use of defense mechanisms.

Discussion of the strategies may include, but is not limited to:


• research supporting or refuting the effectiveness of the strategy/strategies
• presenting possible methodological, ethical or cultural considerations
• a comparison and/or contrast of strategies
• strengths and limitations of the strategy/strategies.

Candidates may discuss one strategy in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge or


may discuss a larger number of strategies in order to demonstrate breadth of
knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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8. Examine one or more prevention strategies for substance abuse and/or addictive behaviour.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “examine” requires candidates to consider an argument or concept


in a way that uncovers the assumptions and relationships between substance abuse
and/or addictive behaviour and strategies designed to prevent this behaviour.

Substance abuse and/or addictive behaviour may refer to addictions to tobacco,


alcohol, marijuana, cocaine, sex, gambling, or food, among others.

Relevant prevention strategies may include, but are not limited to:
• targeting risk groups with health education
• use of social learning in media campaigns
• fear arousal through advertising
• government interventions, banning advertising, increasing the cost of the substance,
or banning smoking and alcohol.

Relevant campaigns/studies may include, but are not limited to:


• smoking prevention campaigns such as the TRUTH anti-tobacco campaign in
Florida in the 1990s
• the Australia North Coast study of the “Quit For Life” campaign, which resulted in a
15 percent reduction in smoking over three years
• Carr’s (1994) field study on the use of peer education in the prevention of fetal
alcohol syndrome in Canada.

In order to respond to the command term “examine”, candidates may refer to:
• health beliefs within cultures
• lifestyle and sociocultural context
• availability of health institutions
• socio-economic status.

Responses may examine treatment of substance abuse and/or addictive behaviour (for
example, Alcoholics Anonymous, nicotine patches) and this approach should be
awarded marks if the response indicates that this treatment will prevent further
substance abuse and/or addictive behaviour. For example, in secondary prevention
(such as for alcohol use disorder or nicotine addiction) in order to prevent relapse.

Candidates may address one or a small number of prevention strategies in order to


demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may address a larger number of prevention
strategies in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally
acceptable.

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9. Discuss two or more factors related to overeating and the development of obesity.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of two or
more factors related to overeating and the development of obesity.

It is not necessary for candidates to make a distinction between overeating and


obesity.

Factors may include, but are not limited to:


• physiological factors – for example, genetic predisposition, the role of dopamine,
neurobiological explanation of food addiction
• psychological/cognitive factors – for example, low self-esteem, distorted body
image, pessimistic thinking patterns, cognitive restraint
• sociocultural factors – for example, sedentary lifestyle, high-fat diet, coping with
poverty.

Relevant research may include, but is not limited to:


• Garn et al.’s (1981) study of correlation rates between body size in parents and their
children
• Stunkard et al.’s (1990) study of identical twins reared apart in terms of body size
• Jeffery (2001): an increasingly sedentary way of life leads to more people suffering
from the results of obesity
• Prentice and Jebb’s (1995) study of correlation rates between obesity and physical
activity
• Blundel et al.’s (1997) study of obesity and percentage of fat in one’s diet
• Volkow et al.’s (2002) fMRI (functional magnetic resonance imaging) study
indicating that obese participants had the same deficiency in dopamine receptors as
drug addicts
• Nylander and Soerensen’s (2004) study of body shape attitudes and cultural norms.

Discussion may include, but is not limited to:


• cultural, gender and ethical considerations
• empirical evidence and related methodological factors
• the interaction between biological, cognitive, and sociocultural factors.

If a candidate discusses only one factor, the response should be awarded up to a


maximum of [5] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4]
for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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Psychology of human relationships

10. Evaluate the effectiveness of two strategies for reducing violence.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing


up the strengths and limitations of two strategies for reducing violence. Although a
discussion of both strengths and limitations is required, it does not have to be evenly
balanced to gain high marks.

A strategy is any plan of action or programme for reducing violence. It is appropriate


for candidates to address models and theories related to strategies for reducing
violence.

Examples of strategies may include, but are not limited to:


• a community based strategy, for example, Metropolitan Area Child Study (MACS),
2002; Olweus, 1993
• group treatment programmes, such as the Duluth model (for example, Robertson,
1999)
• zero tolerance anti-bullying programmes (for example, Boccanfuso and Kuhfeld,
2011)
• jigsaw classrooms against bullying (for example, Aronson, 1979)
• empathy training (for example, Feshbach and Feshbach, 1982)
• computer-based strategies to improve empathy (for example, Figueiredo et al.,
2007).

Evaluation of the effectiveness of the strategies may include, but is not limited to:
• cultural, gender and ethical issues
• methodological issues
• long-term versus short-term effectiveness
• the difficulties in assessing the effectiveness of a strategy
• supporting and/or contradictory findings or explanations.

If a candidate focuses only on general issues related to violence and does not address
any strategies for reducing violence, the response should be awarded up to a
maximum of [3] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [3]
for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

If a candidate evaluates more than two strategies for reducing violence, credit should
be given only to the first two discussions. However, candidates may address other
strategies for reducing violence and be awarded marks for these as long as they are
clearly used to evaluate one or both of the two main strategies addressed in the
response.

If a candidate evaluates only one strategy for reducing violence, the response should
be awarded up to a maximum of [5] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up
to a maximum of [4] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for
criterion C, organization.

If a candidate discusses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be


awarded up to a maximum of [5] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum
of [2] for criterion C, organization. Up to full marks may be awarded for criterion A,
knowledge and comprehension.

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11. Analyse the role that culture plays in the formation and maintenance of relationships.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “analyse” requires candidates to bring out (emphasize) essential
aspects of the role that culture plays in the formation and maintenance of relationships.

Candidates do not need to distinguish between the formation and maintenance of


relationships, as the two are so closely linked.

Candidates may address different types of relationships, for example, romantic


relationships, marriages, friendship, family relationships, workplace relationships.

Studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Yelsma and Athappilly’s (1988) comparative study of arranged marriages and love
marriages
• Buss et al.’s (1990) study of international preferences in selecting mates (a study of
37 cultures)
• Levine et al.’s (1995) study on the role of love in the establishment of marriage
• Buss’s (1994) cross-cultural study of relationships
• Canary and Dainton’s (2003) study of Korean relationships
• Ahmad and Reid’s (2008) study of communication styles in arranged marriages
• Moghaddam et al.’s (1993) study on the influence of cultural dimensions, for
example of individualism versus collectivism and the Western bias in research on
relationships.

Evidence of critical thinking may be provided by candidates in the following ways:


• addressing the issue of universality (for example, equity is not a universal value in
relationships)
• comparing and contrasting cultural similarities and differences in relationships (for
example, do social norms affect how appropriate it is to express dissatisfaction with
a marriage?)
• discussing the influence of biological factors
• evaluation of relevant research including analysis of the methodology and/or ethical
considerations
• discussing evolutionary theory which suggests there are universal patterns in the
formation and maintenance of relationships.

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12. Discuss two theories explaining altruism in humans.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of two
theories of altruism in humans. Although two theories must be addressed, this does
not have to be evenly balanced.

Animal research may be used as long as a clear link is made to human behaviour.

Theories may include, but are not limited to:


• kin selection theory
• reciprocal altruism theory
• the negative-state relief model
• empathy-altruism theory
• social exchange theory.

Discussion may include, but is not limited to:


• strengths and limitations of the theories
• methodological considerations of studies
• cultural/gender considerations
• supporting and/or contradictory empirical evidence
• alternative explanations.

Explanations of bystanderism, diffusion of responsibility and/or cost–benefit analysis


should not be awarded marks.

If a candidate discusses more than two theories, credit should be given only to the first
two theories. However, candidates may discuss other theories/studies and be awarded
marks for this as long as these theories/studies are clearly used to discuss one or both
of the main theories addressed in the response.

If a candidate discusses only one theory, the response should be awarded up to a


maximum of [5] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4]
for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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Sport psychology

13. Discuss one or more theories relating arousal and/or anxiety to performance in sport.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of one
or more theories relating arousal and/or anxiety to performance in sport.

It is not necessary for candidates to distinguish between arousal and anxiety.

Theories include, but are not limited to:


• Yerkes and Dodson’s (1908) inverted-U hypothesis
• Zajonc’s (1965) drive theory
• Apter’s (1982) reversal theory
• Baumeister’s (1984) explicit monitoring theory
• Frazey and Hardy’s (1988) catastrophe model
• Hardy’s (1996) multidimensional anxiety theory
• Hanin’s (1997) individual zones of optimal functioning theory
• Bandura’s (1997) theory of self-efficacy.

Discussion of the selected research may include but is not limited to:
• methodological considerations
• the accuracy and clarity of the concepts
• contrary findings or explanations
• the productivity of the theory in generating psychological research
• the applications of the empirical findings.

If a candidate discusses one or more theories relating arousal and/or anxiety to


performance in general but not relevant for sport, the response should be awarded up
to a maximum of [3] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum
of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C,
organization.

Candidates may discuss one theory in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or a


greater number of theories in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both
approaches are equally acceptable.

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14. Explain relationships between team cohesion and performance in sport.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “explain” requires candidates to give a detailed account, including
reasons or causes, for relationships between team cohesion and performance.

The word “team” should be interpreted to include sports in which all team members
participate at the same time (for example, football) or in which team members
participate one at a time (for example, track and field).

Studies include, but are not limited to:


• Ingram et al.’s (1974) study on “social loafing” as a result of team cohesion
• Locke and Latham (1985) on the value of process goals and their potential to
enhance team performance
• Slater and Sewall (1994) on the bidirectional relationship between team cohesion
and performance
• Boone et al.’s (1997) study on individual’s perceptions of a team
• Kenow and Williams (1999) on comparison of cohesion strategies in coaches from
Australia and the US
• Gould et al. (1999) on US Olympic teams’ cohesiveness and performance
• Grieve et al.’s (2000) study on the unidirectional relationship of team cohesion
and performance
• Carron et al.’s (2002) study on the positive effect of team cohesion on performance.

Evidence of critical thinking may be provided by candidates in the following ways:


• gender and/or cultural factors
• analysis of negative and/or positive effects
• bidirectionality
• factors other than team cohesion that influence performance
• evaluation of relevant research.

Candidates may explain a small number of relationships between team cohesion and
performance to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may explain a larger number of
relationships to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally
acceptable.

The question is specifically asking about relationships between team cohesion and
performance in sport. Discussion of team cohesion and performance in general is not
the focus of the question.

If a candidate explains relationships between team cohesion and performance in


general but not relevant for sport, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of
[3] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion
B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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15. Examine two or more reasons for using drugs in sport.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “examine” requires candidates to consider an argument or concept in


a way that uncovers the assumptions and relationships of the issue of drug use in sport.

Candidates may address both legal (prescribed painkillers, for example) and illegal
(anabolic steroids, for example) use of drugs in sport. A discussion of blood doping in
sport is an appropriate topic for use in a response.

The question is specifically asking about reasons for using drugs in sport. Discussion of
addiction or drug abuse itself is not the focus of the question. In order to remain focused,
candidates must direct their response toward drug use in sport.

Reasons for using drugs in sport include, but are not limited to:
• improvement of performance
• prolong a career in sport
• more rapid recovery from injury
• stress reduction
• pain reduction
• increase attractiveness
• peer pressure.

Relevant research includes, but is not limited to:


• Newman and Newman (1991) on the role of conformity in steroid use by Canadian
athletes
• Whitehead et al.’s (1992) study of steroid use in US male high school students
• Anshel’s (1998) study on the role of social learning theory in drug use in young athletes
• Shermer’s (2008) application of game theory (for example, prisoner’s dilemma) to drug
usage in sport.

Discussion points may include, but are not limited to:


• gender differences
• bidirectionality
• cultural variations
• empirical findings that support or refute the reasons for using drugs in sport.

Candidates may discuss two reasons in order to demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may
discuss a larger number of reasons in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both
approaches are equally acceptable.

If a candidate discusses only one reason, the response should be awarded up to a


maximum of [5] for criterion A, knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [4] for
criterion B, critical thinking, and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

If a candidate examines two or more reasons for using drugs in general but not relevant
for sport, the response should be awarded up to a maximum of [3] for criterion A,
knowledge and comprehension, up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B, critical thinking,
and up to a maximum of [2] for criterion C, organization.

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Markscheme

May 2019

Psychology

Higher and standard level

Paper 2

17 pages

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No part of this product may be reproduced in any form or by any electronic


or mechanical means, including information storage and retrieval systems,
without written permission from the IB.

Additionally, the license tied with this product prohibits commercial use of
any selected files or extracts from this product. Use by third parties,
including but not limited to publishers, private teachers, tutoring or study
services, preparatory schools, vendors operating curriculum mapping
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permitted and is subject to the IB’s prior written consent via a license. More
information on how to request a license can be obtained from http://
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Aucune partie de ce produit ne peut être reproduite sous quelque forme ni


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De plus, la licence associée à ce produit interdit toute utilisation


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license.

No se podrá reproducir ninguna parte de este producto de ninguna forma ni


por ningún medio electrónico o mecánico, incluidos los sistemas de
almacenamiento y recuperación de información, sin que medie la
autorización escrita del IB.

Además, la licencia vinculada a este producto prohíbe el uso con fines


comerciales de todo archivo o fragmento seleccionado de este producto. El
uso por parte de terceros —lo que incluye, a título enunciativo, editoriales,
profesores particulares, servicios de apoyo académico o ayuda para el
estudio, colegios preparatorios, desarrolladores de aplicaciones y
entidades que presten servicios de planificación curricular u ofrezcan
recursos para docentes mediante plataformas digitales— no está permitido
y estará sujeto al otorgamiento previo de una licencia escrita por parte del
IB. En este enlace encontrará más información sobre cómo solicitar una
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guidance-for-third-party-publishers-and-providers/how-to-apply-for-a-
license.

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Paper 2 assessment criteria

Criterion A — Focus on the question [2]

To understand the requirements of the question students must identify the problem or issue
being raised by the question. Students may simply identify the problem by restating the
question or breaking down the question. Students who go beyond this by explaining the
problem are showing that they understand the issues or problems.

Marks Level descriptor

0 Does not reach the standard described by the descriptors below.

1 Identifies the problem/issue raised in the question.

2 Explains the problem/issue raised in the question.

Criterion B — Knowledge and understanding [6]

This criterion rewards students for demonstrating their knowledge and understanding of
specific areas of psychology. It is important to credit relevant knowledge and understanding
that is targeted at addressing the question and explained in sufficient detail.

Marks Level descriptor

0 Does not reach the standard described by the descriptors below.

The response demonstrates limited relevant knowledge and understanding.


1 to 2
Psychological terminology is used but with errors that hamper understanding.

The response demonstrates relevant knowledge and understanding but lacks detail.
3 to 4
Psychological terminology is used but with errors that do not hamper understanding.

The response demonstrates relevant, detailed knowledge and understanding.


5 to 6
Psychological terminology is used appropriately.

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Criterion C — Use of research to support answer [6]

Psychology is evidence based so it is expected that students will use their knowledge of
research to support their argument. There is no prescription as to which or how many pieces
of research are appropriate for their response. As such it becomes important that the
research selected is relevant and useful in supporting the response. One piece of research
that makes the points relevant to the answer is better than several pieces that repeat the
same point over and over.

Marks Level descriptor

0 Does not reach the standard described by the descriptors below.

Limited relevant psychological research is used in the response.


1 to 2
Research selected serves to repeat points already made.

Relevant psychological research is used in support of the response and is


3 to 4 partly explained.
Research selected partially develops the argument.

Relevant psychological research is used in support of the response and is


5 to 6 thoroughly explained.
Research selected is effectively used to develop the argument.

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Criterion D — Critical thinking [6]

This criterion credits students who demonstrate an inquiring and reflective attitude to their
understanding of psychology. There are a number of areas where students may
demonstrate critical thinking about the knowledge and understanding used in their responses
and the research used to support that knowledge and understanding. The areas of critical
thinking are:
• research design and methodologies
• triangulation
• assumptions and biases
• contradictory evidence or alternative theories or explanations
• areas of uncertainty.

These areas are not hierarchical and not all areas will be relevant in a response. In addition,
students could demonstrate a very limited critique of methodologies, for example, and a
well-developed evaluation of areas of uncertainty in the same response. As a result a
holistic judgement of their achievement in this criterion should be made when awarding
marks.

Marks Level descriptor

0 Does not reach the standard described by the descriptors below.

There is limited critical thinking and the response is mainly descriptive.


1 to 2
Evaluation or discussion, if present, is superficial.

The response contains critical thinking, but lacks development.


3 to 4
Evaluation or discussion of most relevant areas is attempted but is not developed.

The response consistently demonstrates well-developed critical thinking.


5 to 6
Evaluation or discussion of relevant areas is consistently well developed.

Criterion E — Clarity and organization [2]

This criterion credits students for presenting their response in a clear and organized manner.
A good response would require no re-reading to understand the points made or the train of
thought underpinning the argument.

Marks Level descriptor

0 Does not reach the standard described by the descriptors below.

The answer demonstrates some organization and clarity, but this is not sustained
1
throughout the response.

2 The answer demonstrates organization and clarity throughout the response.

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Abnormal psychology

1. Discuss validity and reliability of diagnosis.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review that
addresses various aspects of validity and reliability of diagnosis. Although a discussion of
both validity and reliability is required, it does not have to be evenly balanced to gain high
marks.

Relevant classification systems in the discussion of validity and reliability of diagnosis


include, but are not limited to:
• Diagnostic Statistical Manual (DSM)
• Chinese Classification of Mental Disorders (CCMD)
• International Classification of Diseases (ICD).

Examples of research that could be used include, but are not limited to:
• Nicholls et al.’s (2000) studies of inter-rater reliability
• Seeman’s (2007) literature review on the reliability of diagnosis
• Wakefield et al.’s (2007) study on the validity of diagnosis
• Silverman et al.’s (2001) study on test-retest of anxiety symptoms and diagnosis
• Rosenhan’s studies of diagnostic validity.

If a candidate discusses only validity or only reliability, the response should be awarded
up to a maximum of [3] for criterion B: knowledge and understanding. All remaining
criteria should be awarded marks according to the markbands independently, and could
achieve up to full marks.

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2. Discuss prevalence rates of one or more disorders.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of


prevalence rates of one or more disorders.

The disorder(s) chosen are likely to come from those presented in the guide:
• anxiety disorders
• depressive disorders
• obsessive compulsive disorders
• trauma and stress-related disorders
• eating disorders.

Examples of studies investigating prevalence of specific disorders could include but are not
limited to:
• Makino et al.’s (2004) study regarding prevalence of eating disorders in western and
non-western countries
• Weisman et al.’s (1995) study regarding cross-cultural variation in data on depression
rates
• Marsella et al.‘s (2002) study of depression rates
• Dutton’s (2009) study of cultural variation in prevalence of major depression
• Sartorius et al.’s (1983) study regarding cultural differences in the stigma associated
with mental health problems
• Nolen-Hoeksema’s (2001) study of gender rates in depression
• Kessler et al.‘s (1993) study of gender and likelihood of seeking medical help
• Piccinelli and Wilkinson’s (2000) study of gender differences in depression
• Brown and Harris’s (1977) study of factors affecting vulnerability to depression.

Discussion points may include, but are not limited to:


• age and gender differences
• lifestyle (diet, exercise, presence of physical or psychological abuse, relationships,
sleep, practising meditation)
• sociocultural context
• social and cultural norms
• availability of mental health treatment
• socioeconomic status.

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3. Discuss the role of culture in the treatment of one or more disorders.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of the role
of culture in the treatment of one or more disorders.

The disorder(s) chosen are likely to be from those presented in the guide:
• anxiety disorders
• depressive disorders
• obsessive compulsive disorders
• trauma and stress-related disorders
• eating disorders.

Relevant studies may include but are not limited to:


• Castillo’s (1997) study on a client centred approach in treatment
• Sue and Zane’s (2009) study on the role of culture and cultural techniques in
psychotherapy
• Marsala’s (2012) study on cultural conceptions of mental health and therapy
• Nicholl and Thompson’s (2004) study on psychological treatment of post-traumatic
stress disorder (PTSD) in adult refugees
• Sharen and Sundar’s (2015) study on eating disorders in women.

Discussion points related to culture and treatment may include but are not limited to:
• culture-bound disorders
• accessibility of treatment
• interpretation of the symptoms
• cultural norms
• different approaches to treatment
• cultural acceptance of treatment.

If the candidate addresses disorders in general, rather than specific disorder(s), award up
to a maximum of [4] for criterion B: knowledge and understanding.

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Developmental psychology

4. Contrast two theories of cognitive development.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “contrast” requires candidates to give an account of the differences
between two theories of cognitive development.

Theories may include, but are not limited to:


• Piaget’s (1936) theory of cognitive development
• Vygotsky’s (1978) theory of sociocultural cognition
• Bruner’s (1956) theory suggesting that thinking is the result of cognitive development
• the information-processing approach to cognitive development
• neurobiological explanations
• Kohlberg’s (1958) theory of levels of moral development.

Contrasting points may include, but are not limited to:


• cultural contexts
• gender differences and considerations
• strengths and limits of the theories
• empirical support and criticism of the theories
• application of the theories.

If the candidate provides only an implicit contrast, the response should be awarded up to
a maximum of [2] for criterion D: critical thinking. All remaining criteria should be awarded
marks according to the markbands independently, and could achieve up to full marks.

If the candidate chooses a theory that is not specific to cognitive development (eg Bowlby,
Erikson), award up to a maximum of [4] for criterion B: knowledge and understanding.

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5. Discuss the role of peers and/or play in development.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires the candidate to offer a considered review of the
role of peers and/or play in development.

Relevant studies may include but are not limited to:


• Fagot’s (1985) study on gender-specific toys and play
• Hughes’s (1999) study on learning social skills through role play
• Todd et al.’s (2016) study on preferences for gender-type toys
• Russ’s (2004) study of a child’s capacity for cognitive flexibility and creativity developed
by role play
• Bradley’s (1985) study on social cognitive development and toys
• Bradbard et al.’s (1986) study of the influence of sex stereotypes on children’s
exploration and memory
• Albert et al.’s (2013) study on peer influences in adolescent decision-making.

Topics for discussion may include, but are not limited to:
• gender specific toys and clothing in gender identity development
• the role of toys in cognitive development
• the role of peers in modelling behaviours
• the role of peers and play in gender role development
• the role of peers and play in cognitive development
• research into types of play and the effect on social development
• the role of play in learning about co-operation and competition.

Candidates may discuss one aspect of the role of peers or play in development in order to
demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may discuss a larger number of aspects of the role of
peers and/or play in development in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both
approaches are equally acceptable.

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6. Discuss the role of attachment in development.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of the role
of attachment in development. Candidates may address the role of attachment in
childhood and/or in any later stage of life.

Relevant research may include, but is not limited to:


• Bowlby’s research (various dates) on how maternal deprivation can affect an individual
• Ainsworth et al.’s (1978) studies showing how different types of attachment influence a
child’s attachment pattern
• Van Ijzendorn and Kroonenberg’s (1988) study on how cross-cultural patterns of
attachment influence development
• Pratt and Norris (1994) – positive attachment in early relationships leads to positive
reports on current social relationships
• Hazan and Shaver (1987) – similarities between romantic love as experienced by
adults and the characteristics of attachment
• Rossi and Rossi (1990) – people who grew up in cohesive families tended to establish
positive relationships with their own partners
• Sternberg and Beall (1991) – many adults find that their relationships vary: with one
partner, they experience an insecure bond, but with the next a secure one.

Discussion may include, but is not limited to:


• cultural considerations
• the role of deprivation in attachment
• short-term versus long-term effects in attachment
• the type of bond can vary with different partners
• methodological considerations of the supporting studies.

Responses referring to research with animals, such as Harlow’s studies with rhesus
monkeys, are relevant but must be linked to attachment in humans. Responses that do
not explicitly make any link to human behaviour should be awarded up to a maximum of
[2] for criterion D: critical thinking. All remaining criteria should be awarded marks
according to the markbands independently, and could achieve up to full marks.

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Health psychology

7. To what extent do dispositional factors and/or health beliefs affect health?

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the influence that
dispositional factors and/or health beliefs have on health.

The topics related to health are likely to come from one of the following (from the
psychology guide):
• stress
• obesity
• addiction
• chronic pain
• sexual health.

Relevant research may include, but is not limited to:


• Reed’s (1999) study relating to pessimism and HIV-related symptoms
• Kearney et al.’s (2006) study of stress and the immune system
• Weinberger et al.’s (1981) study on health beliefs and smoking behaviour
• Polivy’s (2001) false hope theory regarding dietary goals and optimism
• Gatchel’s (2017) study on fear avoidance belief and chronic pain
• Chapin’s (2010) study on the role of optimistic bias in adolescent risky sexual practices
• Festinger’s theory of cognitive dissonance in relation to health-related behaviour
• optimism bias in relation to health behaviour.

It is appropriate and useful for candidates to address other relevant factors in order to
respond to the command term “to what extent”.

Candidates could choose to discuss the extent to which dispositional factors or health
beliefs affect one, or more than one health-related phenomena. Both approaches are
equally acceptable.

Candidates may address a small number of factors and/or health beliefs in order to
demonstrate depth of knowledge, or may address a larger number of factors and/or health
beliefs in order to demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally
acceptable.

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8. Evaluate one or more studies related to explanations of one or more health problems.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires the candidate to make an appraisal of one or more
studies related to explanations of one or more health problems by weighing up the
strengths and limitations. The focus of the evaluation should be upon the study/studies,
not the explanation of health problems. Although both strengths and limitations should be
addressed, this does not have to be evenly balanced.

The health problems are likely to come from the list in the psychology guide, namely:
• stress
• obesity
• addiction
• chronic pain
• sexual health.

Relevant studies include, but are not limited to:


• Sohl and Moyer’s (2007) study on the effectiveness of the Health Belief Model
• Dunn et al.’s (2011) study on the effectiveness of the theory of planned behaviour.

Evaluation may include, but is not limited to:


• methodological, cultural, and gender considerations
• contrary and supporting findings
• applications of the research study
• ethical concerns regarding the study
• validity and reliability of the study.

If the candidate addresses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be
awarded up to a maximum of [3] for criterion D: critical thinking. All remaining criteria
should be awarded marks according to the markbands independently, and could achieve
up to full marks.

In questions that ask for evaluation of studies, marks awarded for criterion B should refer
to definitions of terms, theories and concepts. Overall, this includes knowledge of the
specific topic and general knowledge and understanding related to research methods and
ethics (for example definitions of relevant terms in research methodology or ethics in
research).

Marks awarded for criterion C assess the quality of the description of a study/studies and
assess how well the student linked the findings of the study to the question – this doesn’t
have to be very sophisticated or long for these questions but still the aim or the conclusion
should be linked to the topic of the specific question.

Criterion D assesses how well the student is explaining strengths and limitations of the
study/studies.

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9. Discuss one or more ethical considerations related to promoting health.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires the candidate to offer a considered review of
ethical considerations related to promoting health.

Relevant ethical considerations discussed may include, but are not limited to:
• cultural factors affecting health promotion
• the accuracy and validity of the research used to develop health promotion such as
“Fear-arousal factors” that are designed to scare people into healthy behaviours
• deception.

Relevant studies include, but are not limited to:


• McNeely et al.’s (2002) study on promoting school connectedness and adolescent
health
• Job’s (1988) study on effective and ineffective use of fear in health promotion
programmes
• Ruiter et al.’s (2014) review of research on fear appeal in promoting health
• Carter et al.’s (2011) study on evidence, ethics and values in promoting health
• Wallace and Forman’s (1998) study on religion’s role in promoting health among
American youths.

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Psychology of human relationships

10. To what extent does the sociocultural approach contribute to the understanding of
personal relationships?

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “to what extent” requires candidates to consider the contribution of
sociocultural factors to the understanding of personal relationships.

Relevant factors which may be addressed include, but are not limited to:
• gender and cultural norms (for example, the role that culture plays in the formation and
maintenance of relationships, violence, or perception of attractiveness)
• proximity
• similarity
• reciprocity
• modelling
• social identity.

Relevant studies may include, but are not limited to:


• Buss et al.’s (1990) study of cultural factors in attraction
• Newcomb’s (1961) field study of attitudes, similarity and liking
• Markey and Markey’s (2007) study on romantic ideals, romantic obtainment and
relationship experience.

It is appropriate and useful for candidates to address biological and/or cognitive factors in
order to address the command term “to what extent”.

Candidates may consider a small number of sociocultural factors in order to demonstrate


depth of knowledge, or may consider a larger number of sociocultural factors in order to
demonstrate breadth of knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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11. Discuss origins of conflict and/or conflict resolution.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “discuss” requires candidates to offer a considered review of origins
of conflict and/or conflict resolution.

Origins of conflict may include, but are not limited to:


• competition
• perceived injustice
• misperception.

Relevant factors related to conflict resolution may include, but are not limited to:
• styles of conflict resolution
• co-operation
• negotiation
• conflict management
• reference made to social cognition theory and Subido methodology.

Relevant theories/studies could include, but are not limited to:


• Realistic Group Conflict Theory (RGCT)
• in-group identity model
• dual concern model
• Deutsch’s theory of co-operation and competition
• Sherif’s (1966) field experiment on competition in groups
• Chambers and De Dreu’s (2014) study on egocentrism and misunderstanding
• Sternberg and Dobson’s (1987) study on resolution of interpersonal conflicts
• Sternberg and Soriano’s (1984) study on styles of conflict resolution.

Discussion may include but is not limited to:


• the role of egocentrism
• the effectiveness of the conflict resolution style
• gender considerations
• cultural considerations.

Candidates may consider a small number of origins in order to demonstrate depth of


knowledge, or may consider a larger number of origins in order to demonstrate breadth of
knowledge. Both approaches are equally acceptable.

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12. Evaluate one or more studies related to promoting prosocial behaviour.

Refer to the paper 2 assessment criteria when awarding marks.

The command term “evaluate” requires candidates to make an appraisal by weighing up


strengths and limitations of one or more studies related to promoting prosocial behaviour.
Although both strengths and limitations should be addressed, it does not have to be
evenly balanced.

The concept of promoting prosocial behaviour refers to any method that develops
prosocial behavior (i.e., Subido Methodology) or a more general application of a model
investigating factors investigating prosocial behavior (i.e., Social Cognitive Theory
suggesting the use of TV or video games).

Relevant studies related to promoting prosocial behavior may include, but are not limited
to:
• Luiselli et al.’s (2005) study evaluating the effectiveness of positive behavioral
interventions and supports
• Elliott et al.’s (1999) study on the effects of the Responsive Classroom programme on
students in elementary school
• Kleemans et al. (2015) study on the impact of prosocial television news on children’s
prosocial behaviour in the Netherlands
• Flook et al.’s (2015) study on promoting prosocial behaviour in schoolchildren using
mindfulness
• Layous et al.’s (2012) study on prompting prosocial behaviour in pre-adolescents
• Pollock’s (2014) field study done in Rwanda, concerning Subido methodology.

Evaluation may include, but is not limited to:


• validity/reliability of the study/studies
• supporting and/or contradictory studies
• productivity of the study in generating further research
• cultural and gender considerations
• application of the research.

If the candidate addresses only strengths or only limitations, the response should be
awarded up to a maximum of [3] for criterion D: critical thinking. All remaining criteria
should be awarded marks according to the markbands independently, and could achieve
up to full marks.

In questions that ask for evaluation of studies, marks awarded for criterion B should refer
to definitions of terms, theories and concepts. Overall, this includes knowledge of the
specific topic and general knowledge and understanding related to research methods and
ethics (for example definitions of relevant terms in research methodology or ethics in
research). Marks awarded for criterion C assess the quality of the description of a
study/studies and assess how well the student linked the findings of the study to the
question – this doesn’t have to be very sophisticated or long for these questions but still
the aim or the conclusion should be linked to the topic of the specific question. Criterion D
assesses how well the student is explaining strengths and limitations of the study/studies.

Mindset Centre 216

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