CLINICAL CHEMISTRY 15.

T3 and T4 in hypothyroidism
a. both increased
1. The proper order in capillary puncture: b. both decreased
a. EDTA-serum-smear c. T3 increased, T4 decreased
b. smear-serum-EDTA d. T4 decreased, T3 increased
c. serum-EDTA-smear
d. smear-EDTA-serum 16. Triglyceride level in hypothyroidism
a. increased
2. The proper order when dispensing a syringe into vacutainer tubes: b. decreased
a. Black-Lavender-Red-Gray c. variable
b. Black-Lavender-Gray-Red d. cannot be determined
c. Red-Black-Lavender-Gray
d. Black-Red-Lavender-Gray 17. Triglyceride level in hyperthyroidism
a. increased
3. Age group associated with moderate risk of 240 mg/dL total b. decreased
cholesterol and high risk of 260 mg/dL. c. variable
a. 2-19 years old d. cannot be determined
b. 20-29 years old
c. 30-39 years old 18. Increase in AMS is indicative of what condition?
d. 40 years old and above a. acute gastritis
b. appendicitis
4. Measures liver function in transplant patients: c. muscle dystrophy
a. coagulation studies d. acute pancreatitis
b. bilirubin
c. AST/ALT 19. Uric acid measurement affected by turbidity
d. AOTA a. Colorimetric, endpoint
b. Colorimetric, kinetic
5. Disinfection of vacutainer tubes is done using: c. Enzymatic, kinetic
a. autoclave d. Enzymatic, endpoint
b. autoclave, ethylene oxide, gamma radiation
c. gamma radiation 20. Creatinine measurement which is simple and nonspecific
d. ethylene oxide a. Colorimetric, endpoint
b. Colorimetric, kinetic
6. Measurement that is included in identifying risk for CHD c. Enzymatic, kinetic
a. Cholesterol d. Enzymatic, endpoint
b. HDL
c. TAG 21. Conversion factor for thyroxine:
d. Protein a. 9.9
b. 10.9
7. GGT belongs to what class according to type of reaction it c. 11.9
catalyzes? d. 12.9
a. Oxidoreductase
b. Transferase 22. A consent from the attending physician is needed when this
c. Hydrolase venipuncture site is used.
d. Ligase a. antecubital
b. back of hands
8. LDH is considered a/an: c. foot
a. Oxidoreductase d. below IV line
b. Transferase
c. Hydrolase 23. A measure of precision
d. Ligase a. Mean
b. Mode
9. CK, ALT and AST all belongs to what class of enzymes according to c. Standard deviation
type of reaction? d. Coefficient of variation
a. Oxidoreductase
b. Transferase CLINICAL CHEMISTRY PART II
c. Hydrolase
d. Ligase 1. Independent variable is related to:
a. Y-axis
10. It has a moderate specificity for liver, skeletal and cardiac muscle. b. Vertical axis
a. LDH c. Ordinate
b. ALT d. Abscissa
c. AST
d. Aldolase 2. Vertical axis is the same with:
a. X-axis
11. Primary organ involved in the production of estrogen. b. Abscissa
a. Adrenal glands c. Independent Variable
b. Placenta d. Y-axis
c. Ovary
d. Pituitary gland 3. In hypothyroidism, the patient’s triglyceride level:
a. Increases
12. Associated with female reproductive hormones: b. Decreases
a. Infertility c. Normal
b. polycystic ovarian syndrome d. No change
c. hirsutism
d. AOTA 4. In hyperthyroidism, the patient’s triglyceride level:
a. Increases
13. The following pose a mechanical hazard: b. Decreases
I. centrifuge II. refrigerator c. Normal
III. gas cylinder d. No change
a. I and II
b. II and III 5. A drunk driver will be considered as legally intoxicated with
c. I and III alcohol if its %w/v in body is:
d. II only a. 0.05
b. 0.10
14. Considered as minor lipoproteins c. 0.15
a. LpX and HDL d. 0.20
b. HDL and LDL
c. VLDL and chylomicrons
d. IDL and Lp(a)
6. Manifesting impaired consciousness, an individual 20. A patient with Gilbert syndrome has a problem with bilirubin:
intoxicated with alcohol has its %w/v in the body of: a. Excretion
a. 0.09-0.25 b. Conjugation
b. 0.18-0.30 c. Transport
c. 0.27-0.40 d. Inhibitor
d. 0.35-0.50
21. Increase in enzyme concentration in the blood is best
7. This approach to the assay for urea nitrogen is inexpensive indicates:
and lacks specificity. a. Cellular injury and organ damage
a. Diacetyl monoxime b. Specific disease
b. Ammonia formation c. Excessive medication
c. Caraway d. Damage in storage areas
d. Kinetic
22. All but one are example of an oxidoreductase enzyme:
8. The most simple method for creatinine determination but is a. G-6-PD
nonspecific is: b. LDH
a. Enzymatic c. CHS
b. Colorimetric endpoint d. Cytochrome oxidase
c. Colorimetric kinetic
d. Red tautomer 23. Phenobarbital can be categorized as an
_____________________ drug.
9. In SI units, a value of 2.1 mg/dL of bilirubin is equivalent to: a. Antihistamine
a. 35.91 mmol/L b. Anticonvulsant
b. 35.91 µmol/L c. Antipyretic
c. 36.54 mmol/L d. Antispasmic
d. 36.54 µmol/L
24. For every 1°C increase in body temperature: pH decreases
10. What is the conversion factor for thyroxine? by _____; pO2 decreases by ______; and pCO2 increases by
a. 12.2 ______.
b. 12.4 a. 0.015; 7; 3
c. 12.6 b. 0.015; 3; 7
d. 12.8 c. 0.010; 7; 3
d. 0.010; 3; 7
11. For venipuncture, the angle in the procedure is:
a. 15° 25. Hazard number 2 indicates:
b. 20° a. Extreme
c. 25° b. Slightly
d. 30° c. Moderate
d. Severe
12. Which among the photodetectors below is the most
sensitive? 26. What age group is usually affected with serum cholesterol of
a. Photodiode high risk > 260mg/dL and moderate risk > 240 mg/dL?
b. Photovoltaic cell a. 2 – 19 years old
c. Photomultiplier tube b. 20-29 years old
d. Photobarrier c. 30-39 years old
d. 40 and above
13. This machine uses a specialized light source wherein the
analyte of interest is coated within the hollow-cathode lamp. 27. In order to attain a perfect Gaussian curve, which of the
a. Nephelometry following is true?
b. Flame Emission Photometry a. Mean>Median>Mode
c. Atomic Absorption Spectrometry b. Mean<Median<Mode
d. Fluorometry c. Mean=Median=Mode
d. Mean>Median<Mode
14. The most basic pipette and is commonly used in the
laboraties. 28. Which of the following is true about Fahey and McKelvey
a. Automatic pipette method?
b. Glass pipette a. Kinetic method
c. Air displacement pipette b. Measured after 18 hours
d. Positive displacement pipette c. Diameter = log of concentration
d. All of the above
15. This type of chemical is used for human consumption and
drug manufacturing. 29. In patient undergoing liver transplant, which of the test
a. Analytical grade requires a normal result?
b. Chemically pure a. PT and Albumin
c. USP and NF b. Bilirubin
d. Commercial grade c. Enzymes
d. All of the above
16. Which among the assays for cholesterol determination has
colorimetry as its principle? 30. In hypothyroidism, the T3 uptake test is ________________.
a. Salkowski a. Increased
b. Abell Kendal b. Decreased
c. Liebermann Burchardt c. Normal
d. Van Handel Zilversmith d. No change

17. Minor lipoproteins 31. Which assay for lactate dehydrogenase uses lactate as its
a. CM and VLDL substrate then converting it to pyruvate?
b. LDL and HDL a. Wacker
c. IDL and Lp(a) b. Wrobleuski Ladue
d. Lp(a) and LpX c. Tanzer-Gilbarg
d. Oliver-Rosalki
18. All but one are found in the alpha 2 region in serum protein
electrophoresis.
a. Fibrinogen
b. Haptoglobin
c. Ceruloplasmin
d. α-2 MAC

19. The presence of two distinct band in the albumin region in

serum electrophoresis indicates:
a. Analbuminemia
b. Bisalbuminemia
c. Disalbuminemia
d. Byalbuminemia
MICROBIOLOGY & PARASITOLOGY
16. Can be diagnosed using serological test
1. Third population of Taenia a. Q fever
a. taiwan b. Leptospirosis
b. asiatica c. Rickettsial infection
c. philippines d. Tuberculosis
d. atlantica
17. Ascaris egg seen in stool:
2. Automated machines usually seen in a Microbiology lab, except: I. fertilized II. unfertilized
a. Advanced Expert system III. decorticated IV. dead
b. PCR a. I and II
c. Vitek b. II only
d. BacT/Alert c. I, II and III
d. I, II, III and IV
3. What is the color of the colonies of non-lactose fermenters in MAC?
a. yellow 18. Infective stage of Leishmania
b. pink a. amastigote
c. colorless b. promastigote
d. green c. epimastigote
d. trypomastigote
4. Positive result in Lactamase Chromogenic method.
a. Color change 19. Infective stage of malaria parasites to human
b. Production of acid a. cyst
c. Decolorization of starch-iodine mixture b. ova
d. Reduction of nitrates c. gametocyte
d. sporozoite
5. What is the color of E. coli in methyl red/Voges-Proskauer test?
a. pink MICROBIOLOGY & PARASITOLOGY PART II
b. yellow
c. bright red 1. The smallest RNA virus is
d. blue a. Picornaviridae
b. Retroviridae
6. Color of fungi in Acridine orange c. Flaviviridae
a. orange d. Caliciviridae
b. green fluorescence
c. yellow 2. This is known as third Taenia species
d. blue fluorescence a. Taenia taiwanica
b. Taenia asiatica
7. Acridine orange stain which part of bacteria? c. Taenia thailandica
a. mitochondria d. Taenia philippina
b. ribosome
c. cell wall 3. Which among these fungi is known for its short chain
d. nucleic acid acrotheca?
a. Phialophora verrucosa
8. Bacteria stain what color in acid-fast stain b. Fonsecae pedrosoi
a. pink c. Cladosporium carrionii
b. purple d. Rhinosporidium seeberi
c. blue
d. red 4. In the life cycle of a leishmania, trypanosome is also known
as
9. What is the preferred storage temperature for CSF suspected of a. Amastigote
having Neisseria spp. b. Promastigote
a. 22°C c. Epimastigote
b. 4°C d. Trypomastigote
c. 37°C
d. 45°C 5. The most common parasitic infection of human consists of
three roundworms known as the “Unholy Three” which are
10. What is the stage in Gram stain which differentiates Gram-positive Ascaris lumbricoides, Trichuris trichiura and
from Gram-negative? a. Strongyloides stercoralis
a. Primary staining b. Hookworms
b. Mordant c. Dracunculus medinensis
c. Decolorization d. Capillaria philippinensis
d. Counterstaining
6. The most commonly used method in diagnosing seatworm
11. Plasma used in coagulase test infection is
a. Horse a. Knott technique
b. Sheep b. Formalin ether concentration method
c. Rabbit c. Scotch tape method
d. Guinea pig d. Xenodiagnosis

12. Intermediate host of Fasciolopsis buski 7. Eosinophilic meningoencephalitis is caused by which

a. Snail parasite?
b. Crabs and crayfish a. Acanthamoeba spp.
c. Copepods b. Naegleria fowleri
d. Fish c. Angiostrongylus cantonensis
d. Dirofilaria immitis
13. Infective stage of Fasciolopsis buski
a. ingestion of aquatic vegetations 8. What is a schistosomule?
b. ingestion of encysted metacercaria a. Cercaria minus a tail
c. ingestion of cysticercus b. Cercaria minus a head
d. ingestion of hydatid cyst c. Metacercaria
d. Cercaria with a tail
14. Babes-Ernst granules:
a. Bacillus anthracis 9. Demonstration of the dichotomous branches in the
b. Corynebacterium diphtheria proglottids of Taenia spp is best observed using
c. Listeria monocytogenes a. Gram’s Iodine
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis b. Carbol Fuchsin
c. India Ink
15. Has oral and genital suckers d. Polyvinyl alcohol
a. Cestodes
b. Protozoans
c. Trematodes
d. Nematodes
10. Which of the following best characterize Entamoeba polecki? 23. In β-lactamase detection, which of the following indicates a
a. Usually seen in squirrels positive result?
b. Uninucleated amoeba a. Disappearance of color
c. Blunt chromatoidal bodies b. Arc of identity
d. Ingested bacteria in cytoplasm c. Color change
d. Turbidity
11. With the advent of technology, toxin produced by Clostridium
difficile is best detected using 24. Which of the following is the best specimen for drug
a. One step kit detection?
b. PCR a. Urine
c. EIA b. Serum
d. FIA c. Stool
d. Hair
12. Schuffner dots
a. P. vivax 25. Woolsorter’s disease is also known as
b. P. malariae a. Intestinal anthrax
c. P. ovale b. Cutaneous anthrax
d. P. falcifarum c. Pulmonary anthrax
d. Oral anthrax
13. The following are techniques used for detection of parasitic
infection and their corresponding causative agent. Which of 26. Why is that thioglycollate broth is boiled for 10 minutes?
the following is correctly matched? a. To drive off oxygen
a. Harada Mori Technique and Capillaria b. To drive off bubbles
philippinensis c. To drive off carbon dioxide
b. Xenodiagnosis and Leishmania d. To drive off excess resazurin
c. Knott’s Technique and Microfilariae
d. Sellotape Method and Trichuris trichiura 27. Tree like uterine branches of Taenia is associated with what
species?
14. The presence of bacteria in water analysis is reported using a. T. taiwanica
a. MPN b. T. asiatica
b. MNPB c. T. solium
c. PNM d. T. saginata
d. MPNB
28. Potable water testing is done in which of the following?
15. Germ tube test is used to demonstrate the presence of this I. Restaurant
fungi II. Swimming pool
a. Candida albicans III. Hospital
b. Malassezia furfur IV. Hotel
c. HIstoplasma capsulatum a. I, III
d. Coccidiodes immitis b. I, III, IV
c. I, II
16. This newly identified bloodborne virus poses is named after d. I, II, III, IV
the Japanese patient to which it is first isolated.
a. TGV
b. HGV
c. TTV
d. HTV

17. Deionized water is usually recommended for preparation of

culture media especially for isolation of which bacteria
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Escherichia coli 0157:H7
c. MRSA
d. Vibrio cholera

18. This bacteria is usually the associated with the UTI in young
female
a. S. saprophyticus
b. S. epidermidis
c. E. coli
d. L. acidophilus

19. Known for its ability to pit the agar media.

a. Haemophilus influenza
b. Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
c. Kingella kingae
d. Eikenella corrodens

20. DNase (+)

a. S. pyogenes
b. M. catarrhalis
c. E. coli
d. E. rhusiopathiae

21. In Gram’s stain, this bacteria is known for its palisade

arrangement
a. C. tetani
b. C. botulinum
c. C. diphtheria
d. C. vulnificus

22. A successful pasteurization is achieved if the bacterial count

is reduced from __________________ to
__________________.
a. 50 000; 12 500
b. 75 000; 15 000
c. 100 000; 20 000
d. 125 000; 25 000
CLINICAL MICROSCOPY CLINICAL MICROSCOPY PART II

1. In routine urinalysis, how do you report cystine crystals? 1. The reagent used in APT Test is
a. rare, few, moderate, many per HPF a. NaOH
b. rare, few, moderate, many per LPF b. HCl
c. average number per HPF c. H2SO4
d. present or absent d. KOH

2. What is the principle of the automated strip readers? 2. This RBC count indicates blunt trauma in peritoneal lavage.
a. Reflectance photometry a. 1 000
b. Flow cytometry b. 10 000
c. Light scattering c. 100 000
d. Fluorometry d. 1 000 000

3. Reabsorption of Na+ 3. Manner of reporting for casts

a. PCT a. #/ LPF
b. DLH b. #/ HPF
c. ALH c. Few, moderate, many
d. DCT d. 1+, 2+, 3+, 4+

4. Positive result in CTAB 4. Manner of reporting for crystals

a. Fluorescence a. #/ LPF
b. Turbidity b. #/ HPF
c. Red color c. Few, moderate, many
d. Black precipitate d. 1+, 2+, 3+, 4+

5. What analyte/s is/are reported in Ehrlich units? 5. Manner of reporting for RTE
a. urobilin, urobilinogen a. #/ LPF
b. urobilinogen b. #/ HPF
c. bilirubin c. Few, moderate, many
d. bilirubin, urobilin, urobilinogen d. 1+, 2+, 3+, 4+

6. Convert 40 Ehrlich units to mg/dL. 6. During microscopy, casts are usually seen
a. 0.4 a. Center of the coverslip
b. 4 b. Side of the coverslip
c. 40 c. Near the edge of the coverslip
d. 400 d. Outside of the coverslip

7. Fire caused by electrical equipments 7. What urine color is associated with the use of drug for UTI
a. Class A fire treatment?
b. Class B fire a. Green
c. Class C fire b. Orange
d. Class D fire c. Black
d. Red
8. It is used to extinguish Class A fire.
a. Halon 8. The normal color of gastric fluid is
b. Dry chemical a. Colorless
c. Water b. Green
d. Carbon dioxide c. White
d. Gray
9. The amniotic fluid is yellow in color. Using the spectrophotometer, it
has a peak absorbance at 450 nm. What substance is indicated? 9. What is the size of the sperm’s acrosomal cap?
a. phospholipid a. Half of the head
b. hemoglobin b. 2/3 of the head
c. bilirubin c. ¼ of the head
d. carotene d. 1/3 of the head

10. In a poorly equipped laboratory, this is used to identify rape cases: 10. Spinal fluid tube for hematology is usually stored in
a. zinc a. Room temperature
b. fructose b. Frozen temperature
c. ACP c. Incubator
d. citric acid d. Water bath

11. Bacteria: few 11. Protein: Sorensen’s Reaction; pH: ___________________

a. 10-20 a. Double indicator system
b. 10-50 b. Double sequential enzyme reaction
c. 20-50 c. Greiss reaction
d. 50-100 d. Sodium nitroprusside reaction

12. Most characteristic of pyelonephritis: 12. This is known as the filtering unit of the urinary system
a. RBC cast a. Proximal convoluted tubule
b. RBCs b. Distal convoluted tubule
c. WBC cast c. Glomerulus
d. OFB d. Podocyte

13. Which of the following produces an alkaline urine? 13. Nomarski microscope
a. meat a. Brightfield microscope
b. vegetable b. Interference contrast microscope
c. cranberry juice c. Darkfield microscope
d. dehydration d. Fluorescent microscope
14. In the acronym RACE, A stands for
14. What is the normal color of gastric fluid? a. Alarm
a. light yellow b. Attach
b. pale gray c. Aline
c. amber d. Artificial
d. colorless with a brown tinge
15. The urine volume of a patient with polyuria usually is
Reporting! Reporting! Reporting! a. 1 500 – 2 000 mL
b. >2 000 mL
c. >3 000 mL
d. >4 000 mL
16. When trying to repair a broken electrical equipment, the first 30. A brown semen indicates the presence of
thing to do is to a. Bile
a. Unplug the equipment b. Cholesterol
b. Turn off the circuit breaker c. Blood
c. Always use gloves d. Bilirubin
d. Read the manual
31. Renal calculi is usually formed in the
17. In reporting the urine clarity, blurred print is reported as a. Bladder
a. Hazy b. Ureter
b. Cloudy c. Calyces and pelvis of kidney
c. Turbid d. All of the above
d. Milky
32. Ammonium precipitation test is also known as
18. Which of the following is a component of acetest tablet? a. Florence Test
a. Copper sulfate b. Blondheim Test
b. Sodium hydroxide c. Turbidity Test
c. Lactose d. Liley Test
d. Sodium carbonate
33. During a pregnancy test, you observed a faint line along the
19. Which of the following is not a component of clinitest tablet? test area in the kit. What will you do?
a. Copper sulfate a. Report as positive
b. Sodium hydroxide b. Report as negative
c. Lactose c. Indeterminate
d. Sodium carbonate d. Repeat test

20. A result of 2.5 Ehrlich unit is also equivalent to 34. Bence Jones Protein is characterized by its unique ability to
a. 2.5 mg/dL coagulate in ______________ and dissolve
b. 5.0 mg/dL _________________.
c. 7.5 mg/dL a. 30-50°C : 80-100°C
d. 10 mg/dL b. 40-50°C : 80-90°C
c. 50-60°C : 90-100°C
21. Crystal which is characterized as yellow brown needles is d. 40-50°C : 80-100°C
a. Cysteine
b. Ampicillin
c. Sulfonamide
d. Tyrosine

22. What zone in Liley’s graph indicates that the fetus requires
close monitoring?
a. Zone I
b. Zone II
c. Zone III
d. Zone IV

23. The reagent used for Florence Test includes

a. Iodine
b. Ethanol
c. Pepsin
d. Fructose

24. Decreased neutral α-glucosidase indicates disorder in the

a. Testes
b. Epididymis
c. Bulbourethral gland
d. Urethra

25. Degenerating cartilage cells

a. Rice bodies
b. Orchronotic shards
c. RA cell
d. Reed Sternberg cell

26. Which of the following is a striated collagen like material?

a. Curshmann spiral
b. Psamomma bodies
c. Creola bodies
d. Charcott Leyden crystal

27. In steatorrhea, there is an increased excretion of this

substance.
a. Fiber
b. WBC
c. Pollen
d. Fats

28. The most commonly used method in fecal occult blood

testing utilizes
a. Benzidine
b. Sodium nitroprusside
c. Guaiac
d. Ether

29. Which of the following can cause a form of diarrhea which is

characterize with the absence of WBC?
a. S. aureus
b. S. dysenteriae
c. E. hystolytica
d. Rhinovirus
HEMATOLOGY 16. Increased RBC count:
a. high altitude
1. Dilution for WBC count using automated machines: b. low altitude
a. 1: 20,000 c. anemia
b. 1: 200 d. low pressure
c. 1: 50,000
d. 1: 500 17. Indicators of intravascular hemolysis
a. hemoglobin
2. Positive result is turbidity b. haptoglobin
a. Dithionite test c. hematocrit
b. Sucrose hemolysis d. AOTA
c. Ham’s test
d. Osmotic fragility 18. Hyposegmentation of the nucleus of granulocytes is associated
with:
3. Measures sensitivity to complement a. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
a. Ham’s b. Alder-Reilly syndrome
b. Ham’s, Sucrose hemolysis c. Homozygous Pelger-Huet
c. Dithionite d. Heterozygous Pelger-Huet
d. Dithionite, Metabisulfite
19. In electrical impedance, these parameters are directly measured:
4. Most useful in differentiating CML and leukemoid reaction a. WBC and RBC
a. MPO b. WBC, RBC, and hemoglobin
b. LAP c. WBC and hemoglobin
c. NSE d. RBC only
d. PAS
20. In electrical impedance, what is the relationship of the magnitude of
5. 4th layer in the spun hematocrit the pulse to the size of the cell?
a. buffy coat a. cannot be determined
b. fatty layer b. direct
c. plasma c. indirect
d. packed red cell d. variable

6. 3rd layer in the spun hematocrit 21. In light scattering, what does forward scatter depict?
a. buffy coat a. cell granularity
b. fatty layer b. cell size
c. plasma c. cell lobularity
d. packed red cell d. cell complexity

7. Present in neutrophils but not in monocytes 22. Blue-gray granules within the cytoplasm of neutrophils, usually
a. acid phosphatase found during infections.
b. muramidase a. May-Hegglin bodies
c. alkaline phosphatase b. Dohle bodies
d. peroxidase c. Russell bodies
d. Lysosomes
8. Causes of positive errors in automation
a. Bubbles 23. What is the corrected WBC count when a medical technologist
b. Extraneous pulses counted 1.2 x109 WBCs per liter, and seen 50 nucleated RBCs.
c. Aperture plugs a. 0.6 x 109 WBCs per liter
d. AOTA b. 0.8 x 109 WBCs per liter
c. 1.0 x 109 WBCs per liter
9. Causes of negative errors in automation d. 1.2 x 109 WBCs per liter
a. Excessive lysing
b. Aperture plugs 24. Needs contact with negatively charged surface for activation
c. Extraneous pulses a. FXII and FXI
d. Bubbles b. HMWK
c. PK
10. Stem cell marker d. AOTA
a. CD21
b. CD34 25. Also known as keratocytes.
c. CD45 a. Leptocytes
d. CD56 b. Drepanocytes
c. Helmet cells
11. The absence of Philadelphia chromosome in CML indicates: d. Mexican hat cells
a. Better prognosis
b. Rapid progression of disease 26. NOT a disorder of the macrophage/monocyte:
c. No relationship with CML a. Gaucher c. Niemann-Pick
d. AOTA b. Pelger-Huet d. Alder-Reilly

12. Using the Rule of Three. Find the Hemoglobin (in g/L) and the HEMATOLOGY PART II
Hematocrit (in decimal) using the RBC count 4.2 x 109/L, respectively.
a. 12.5 and 38 1. All of the following can cause a false positive result in
b. 12.5 and 0.38 automated hematological analyzers except:
c. 125 and 38 a. Bubbles
d. 125 and 0.38 b. Extraneous impulses
c. Aperture plugs
13. Screening test for sickle cells d. Improper setting of aperture current
a. Dithionite test
b. Heat denaturation test 2. Improper settling of aperture current can cause which of the
c. Ham’s test following:
d. Sucrose hemolysis test a. False positive
b. False negative
14. Leukocytosis is a term used for a WBC count greater than _____ x c. Either false positive or negative
109/L d. None of the above
a. 30 c. 20
b. 11 d. 25 3. Which of the following is the correct order of draw for
anticoagulants in collection tubes using syringe method?
15. If the count of lymphocytes is greater than the neutrophils in adult a. Citrate, heparin, EDTA, oxalate, none additive
WBC count, do a: b. Heparin, EDTA, oxalate, none additive, citrate
a. 50-differential c. EDTA, oxalate, none additive, citrate, heparin
b. 200-differential d. None additive, citrate, heparin, EDTA, oxalate
c. 250-differential
d. 500-differential
4. Which of the following is the correct order of draw in capillary 17. Normocytic and normochromic anemia is usually seen in
blood collection? patients with _______________________.
a. Blood gases, red top, lavender top, other additive a. Iron deficiency anemia
tube, slide b. Aplastic anemia
b. Blood gases, slide, lavender top, other additive c. Thalassemia
tube, red top d. Anemia of chronic disease
c. Slide, lavender top, other additive tube, red top,
blood gases 18. A reddish or pinkish PBS indicates
d. Lavender top, other additive tube, red top, blood a. Low pH of buffer
gases, slide b. Excessive washing
c. Long contact with acidic stain
5. Euglobin clot lysis is a _____________________ test. d. All of the above
a. Definitive
b. Screening 19. A dark bluish or purplish PBS indicates
c. Confirmatory e. High pH of buffer
d. Substitute f. Improper washing
g. Long contact with basic stain
6. Drepanocytes: 10-15/ HPF h. All of the above
a. 1+
b. 2+ 20. Which of the instrument used in coagulation has
c. 3+ electromechanical principle?
d. + a. Coag-a-mate
b. Siemens
7. The positive result for Sodium dithionite test is c. Advia
____________________. d. Fibrometer
a. Color change
b. Turbidity 21. Deficiency of this coagulation factor usually causes a
c. Solubility disease prominent in Ashkenazi Jews.
d. Coagulation a. VIII
b. IX
8. This is also known as the Common Acute Lymphoblastic c. X
Leukemia Antigen d. XI
a. CD 10
b. CD 15
c. CD 20
d. CD 25

9. Which of the following is true regarding Wintrobe tube?

a. Length: 11.0 cm Bore: 3 mm
b. Length: 11.5 cm Bore: 2.5 mm
c. Length: 11.0 cm Bore: 2.5 mm
d. Length: 11.5 cm Bore: 3 mm

10. Inclusion body in RBC of denatured hemoglobin and the

occurrence of hemolytic anemia upon exposure to certain
drugs and food is associated with
a. Pyruvate kinase deficiency
b. G6PD deficiency
c. Malate dehydrogenase deficiency
d. Lactate dehydrogenase deficiency

11. This cell is the youngest among the line of WBC which can
normally be seen in PBS.
a. Band cell
b. Metamyelocyte
c. Stab cell
d. Myelocyte

12. Which percentage represents the population of the large

granular lymphocytes?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%

13. Microscopically, this structure can be seen and is used as a

sex chromosome.
a. Sex chromosome
b. Barr body
c. Genotypic chromosome
d. Gender identifier chromosome

14. Which WBC type does Sezary cell an unusual form or

pathognomonic form?
a. B cell
b. T cell
c. Neutrophil
d. Eosinophil

15. The presence of Philadelphia chromosome usually is a

definitive tool in diagnosing
a. ALL
b. AML
c. CLL
d. CML

16. Hb S
a. Valine replaces glutamic acid in the 6th position
b. Lysine replaces glutamic acid in the 6th position
c. Valine replaces glutamic acid in the 26th position
d. Lysine replaces glutamic acid in the 26th position
IMMUNOLOGY/SEROLOGY & BLOOD BANKING 15. After collection, you noticed that the tubing of the blood bag is
leaking. What should you do?
1. Antigen determinant: a. Discard the unit.
a. Epitope b. Immediately separate the components into the satellite
b. Paratope bags, all components may be used.
c. Hinge region c. Immediately separate the components into the satellite
d. Fc region bags, only red cells may be used.
d. Immediately separate the components into the satellite
2. Part of antibody which binds foreign substance: bags, only plasma may be used.
a. Epitope
b. Paratope 16. Determine the blood type of the following result:
c. Hinge region A cells: +++ B cells: 0 H cells: 0
d. Fc region a. “AB”
b. “A”
3. This is where the antibody binds to the antigen. c. “B”
a. Carrier d. “O”
b. Schlepper
c. Deteminant 17. Permanently deferred:
d. Fab region a. use of human-derived GH
b. diabetic patient using injected insulin
4. Annie had a partner who was diagnosed of HIV. How long will Annie c. past history of drug abuse
wait before she can donate? d. AOTA
a. 2 to 4 weeks
b. 3 to 6 months 18. Tumor marker for bladder cancer
c. 6 to 12 months a. CA 27-29
d. 1 to 2 years b. her2/neu
c. calcitonin
5. PCR d. nuclear matrix protein
a. serological
b. molecular 19. Immediate hypersensitivity
c. cellular a. Type I
d. chemical b. Type II
c. Type III
6. RFLP d. Type IV
a. serological
b. molecular 20. Advantage of packing WB immediately just before infusion:
c. cellular a. decrease sodium, phosphate
d. chemical b. decrease sodium, lactic acid
c. decrease potassium, phosphate
7. A disease which is associated with HLA-B27 d. decrease potassium, lactic acid
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Ankyloarthritis 21. Pentameric Ig:
c. Diabetes mellitus a. IgG
d. Multiple sclerosis b. IgM
c. IgA
8. Which among the following disease is associated with anti-dsDNA d. IgD
and anti-phospholipid antibodies?
a. SLE 22. Immunoglobulin found in tears
b. RA a. IgG
c. MM b. IgM
d. MS c. IgA
d. IgD
9. First documented human transfusion
a. Queen Elizabeth I 23. Fluorescent label attached to an antibody against the antigen-
b. Prince Charles II antibody complex
c. Pope Innocent VII a. Indirect
d. King Arthur V b. Direct
c. Inhibition
10. Sample used in DAT: d. NOTA
a. heparin
b. EDTA 24. Indicates active infection and infectious state:
c. citrate a. HBs Ag
d. oxalate b. HBe Ag
c. anti-HBc
11. Fluoroscent stained specimens are visualized using what type of d. anti-HBe
microscope?
a. brightfield 25. NOT included in screening of infectious blood-borne pathogens
b. darkfield a. hepatitis A
c. phase contrast b. hepatitis B
d. polarizing c. syphilis
d. malaria
12. What blood component is most useful in patients with a history of
febrile reactions? 26. This blood-borne pathogen is not screened for WB donation, but
a. irradiated screened when doing component preparation.
b. washed a. CMV
c. leukoreduced b. HTLV I
d. pheresis c. HTLV II
d. HIV
13. Used for irradiation of blood components
a. Lithium 27. It is characterized by the presence of anti-smooth muscle antibody
b. Rubidium a. biliary obstruction
c. Cesium b. chronic active hepatitis
d. Radium c. multiple sclerosis
d. pemphigoid
14. A medical technologist working in Blood Bank noticed a clot
floating on top of the plasma of a stored whole blood. What should the 28. A patient experienced episodes of hemolytic anemia. Testing for
technologist do? the presence of antibody yielded positive, and reacted with almost all
a. Discard the whole unit. cells. What antibody is most likely?
b. Immediately remove and discard the plasma; issue a. anti-D
remaining packed red cell. b. anti-K
c. Use a filter to remove clot; issue unit afterwards. c. anti-P
d. Issue whole blood. d. anti-I
29. Confirmatory test for HIV 12. What collection tube is used in obtaining specimen for
a. EIA antibody screening?
b. RIBA a. Lavender
c. Western blot b. Green
d. Southern blot c. Pink
d. Red
30. Part of the light chains of MHC class I.
a. acid-1-glycoprotein 13. The collection tube used in DAT is
b. beta-2-microglobulin a. Lavender
c. serum amyloid A b. Green
d. alpha-2-macroglobulin c. Pink
d. Red
IMMUNOLOGY/SEROLOGY & BLOOD BANKING PART II
14. CD8
1. The first recorded blood transfusion in history is between this a. Helper cell
head of state and three donor. b. Cytotoxic cell
a. Pope John Paul I c. Null cell
b. Pope Peter XV d. Natural killer cell
c. Pope Pius XII
d. Pope Innocent XVI 15. This blood component is described as young RBCs and is
2. This is known as the marker Hepatitis B infectivity. usually used in patients with Thalassemia.
a. HBsAg a. Neocytes
b. HBeAg b. Kiddocytes
c. HBcAg c. Young RBC
d. None of the above d. Reticulocytes

3. Antigenic determinant 16. This technique is used to collect blood sample from the
a. Paratope umbilical cord.
b. Epitope a. Cordocentesis
c. Hepatope b. PUBS
d. Kininogen c. Both
d. Neither A nor B
4. Which of the following is the most common
immunodeficiency?
a. Severe combined immunodeficiency
b. Selective IgA deficiency
c. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
d. Common variable immunodeficiency

5. The presence of HLA B27 is highly associated with what

disease?
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Arthritic spondylitis
c. Grave’s disease
d. SLE

6. A donor is about to donate blood for her mother who

required immediate blood transfusion. The donor is originally
based from Palawan and is about to move to Manila in order
to take care of her sick mother. How much time does the
donor need before he can donate blood?
a. None, he can donate.
b. 1 year
c. 3 years
d. 5 years

7. What is the color of the anti-sera used in B blood group?

a. Blue
b. Yellow
c. Transparent
d. Green

8. In Lewis blood group system, what is the genotypic order of

the appearance of the antigen from birth to adulthood?
a. (a-b-), (a+b-), (a+b+), (a-b+)
b. (a+b+), (a+b-), (a-b+), (a-b-)
c. (a-b+), (a-b-), (a+b+), (a-b+)
d. (a+b-), (a+b-), (a+b+), (a+b+)

9. The activity of this antibody is enhanced in an acidic

environment.
a. Anti-S
b. Anti-U
c. Anti-N
d. Anti-M

10. This blood group system is used as an anthropological

marker in Asian ancestry.
a. Di
b. Do
c. Co
d. JMH

11. Which of the blood antigens is usually associated with the

human leukocyte antigen?
a. Xg
b. Scianna
c. Benett Goodspeed
d. Rh
HISTOTECHNIQUES & MED. TECH. LAWS
16. Lungs, if prolonged exposure to air, will resemble:
1. Antigen determinant: a. emphysema
a. Epitope b. atelectasia
b. Paratope c. scarring
c. Hinge region d. NOTA
d. Fc region
17. How should we discard Zenker’s fluid?
2. Immunohistochemistry (IHC) is sensitive up to: a. Discard on sink with running water
a. kilogram b. Follow instruction according to manufacturer
b. microgram c. Dilute with tap water before flushing in the toilet
c. milligram d. Incinerate
d. nanogram
18. Included in the chain of custody
3. STAT in medicine means: a. specimen collection, processing
i. immediately ii. statim iii. as b. storage, processing
soon as possible iv. now c. specimen collection, storage, processing
a. i, ii and iii d. specimen collection, storage
b. ii only
c. i, ii and iv 19. Functions of the MT Board: (MORSE TYPE)
d. i, iii and iv

4. ASAP in medicine means:

a. as soon as possible HISTOPATHOLOGY, MEDICAL TECHNOLOGY LAWS AND
b. statim BIOETHICS PART II
c. hurry
d. quickly 1. Anastomosis - the connection or place of connection of two
or more parts of a natural branching system
5. “ITIS” attached to the end of an organ or tissue means:
a. acute inflammation 2. Double embedding – Celloidin then paraffin
b. chronic inflammation
c. inflammation 3. PDCA – Plan-Do-Check-Act
d. active inflammation
4. Revocation – 3 votes
6. Fixation of small tissues that were fragmented
a. Wrapped in gauze 5. Suspension – unanimous or 2 votes
b. Submerge into different container
c. Wrapped in filter paper 6. Cursing of co-worker
d. Directly put in a cassette
7. -itis – inflammation
7. Small tissues that are hard to find are fixed using this fixative
a. picric acid
b. osmium tetroxide
c. potassium dichromate
d. 70-100% alcohol

8. Aka dealcoholization
a. dehydration
b. clearing
c. infiltration
d. decalcification

9. X axis
a. vertical axis and independent variable
b. vertical axis and dependent variable
c. horizontal axis and independent variable
d. horizontal axis and dependent variable

10. Delayed transport and leakage of specimen from the container:

a. Grounds for rejection
b. Not grounds for rejection
c. Accept specimen
d. Check if specimen is still viable, then accept specimen

11. Fixative for lipids

a. osmium tetroxide
b. picric acid
c. aldehyde
d. alcohol

12. Methods of preparing tissues for viewing:

a. Teasing
b. Smear prep
c. Impression
d. AOTA

13. Routine H&E is:

a. regressive
b. progressive
c. direct
d. indirect

14. Investigation of the violations of RA 5527 is carried out by the:

a. MT Board
b. Council of MT
c. Supreme court
d. President of RP

15. How do you interpret the results of immunohistochemistry?

a. use of darkfield microscope
b. color change
c. pattern determination
d. presence of precipitate