Class 12 CBSE Chapterwise Tests

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Class 12 CBSE Physics Test

1
Electric Charges and Field
Time: 1 Hour Full Marks: 30
1 Mark Questions
1. Draw the electric field vs. distance graph for a long-charged rod having linear charge density α>0.
2. Diagrammatically represent the position of a dipole in stable and unstable equilibrium?
3. Draw equipotential surface for a dipole.
2 Mark Questions
4. Draw E and V vs. r on the same graph for a point charge.
5. Obtain an expression for the electric field due to electric dipole at any point on the equatorial line.
6. Explain the meaning of the statement (a) electric charge of a body is quantised. (b) Why can one
ignore quantisation of electric charge when dealing with macroscopic i.e., large scale charges?
7. Express Coulomb’s law in vector form.
8. An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field E with its dipole moment p parallel to the
field. Find
(i)the work done in turning the dipole till its dipole moment points in the direction opposite to E.
(ii)the orientation of the dipole for which the torque acting on it becomes maximum.
3 Mark Questions
9. Two point charges + q and -2q are placed at the vertices B and C of
an equilateral triangle ABC of side a as given in the figure. Obtain the
expression for (i) the magnitude and (ii) the direction of the resultant
electric field at the vertex A due to these two charges.
10. Sketch the pattern of electric field lines due to
(i) a conducting sphere having negative charge on it.
(ii) an electric dipole.
11. Deduce the expression for the torque acting on a dipole of dipole moment p in the presence of a
uniform electric field E.
4 Mark Questions
12. Derive an expression for the electric field due to a uniformly charged infinite plane sheet.
13. An infinite line charge produces a field of 9 x 104 N/C at a distance of 2 cm. Calculate the linear
charge density.
Study Centers: Kharghar/ Nerul /Ulwe /Seawoods. M/WP: 9869806131, 9757397413.

Class 12 CBSE Chemistry Test

2
Solutions
1 Mark Questions
1. Which of the two molality and molarity is better to express concentration of solution? Why?
2. Mention a large-scale use of the phenomenon called ‘reverse osmosis’.
3. Give an example of a miscible liquid pair showing positive deviation from the Raoult’s Law. Give reason.
2 Mark Questions
4. Henry’s law constant for CO2 dissolving in water is 1.67 x 108 Pa at 298 K . Calculate the quantity of CO2 in
1L of soda water when packed under 2.5 atm CO2 pressure at 298K.
5. Why does sodium chloride solution freeze at a lower temperature than water?
6. Define azeotropes.
7. 15g of an unknown molecular substance was dissolved in 450g of water. The resulting solution freezes at -
0.34oC. What is the molar mass of the substance? ( Kf for water is = 1.86 K Kg mol-1).
3 Mark Questions
8. What are minimum boiling and maximum boiling azeotropes? Can azeotropes be separated by fractional
distillation?
9. What is “Bends”, if a diver has bends describe how this can be treated.
10. Define the terms osmosis and osmotic pressure. Is the osmotic pressure of a solution a colligative
property?
4 Mark Questions
11. Calculate the boiling point of a solution prepared by adding 15 g of NaCl to 250.0 g of water (K b for water
= 0.512 kg K mol -1. Molar mass of NaCl = 58.44 g)


3
Electrochemistry
1 Mark Questions
1. The difference between the electrode potentials of two electrodes when no current is drawn
through
the cell is called ___________.
2. How the cell constant of a conductivity cell changes with change of electrolyte, concentration and
temperature?
3. Why is alternating current used for measuring resistance of an electrolytic solution?
4. Unlike dry cell, the mercury cell has a constant cell potential throughout its useful life. Why?
2 Marks Questions
5. Two metals A and B have electrode potential values of – 0.25V and 0.80V respectively. Which of
these will liberate hydrogen gas from dilute H2SO4?
6. Why is the equilibrium constant K, related to only E° cell and not Ecell ?
7. Which will have greater molar conductivity and why?

1 mole KCl dissolved in 200 cc of the solution OR 1 mole KCl dissolved in 500 cc of the solution.
8. Why Lead storage battery as a secondary cell can be recharged?
9. State the factors which influence the value of cell potential.
10. What is the role of ZnCl2 in dry cell?
4 Marks Questions
11.
12. Write the Nernst equation and find emf of the following cells at 298 K:
Mg(s) Mg2+ (0001 M) Cu2+ (00001 M) Cu(s)

Answers:
4
1. 1. Cell emf
2. Remain unchanged for a cell
3. Alternating current is used to prevent electrolysis so that concentration of ions in the solution
remains constant. Otherwise if DC is used the ions will get discharged and electrolysis will occur
4. Ions are not involved in the overall cell reaction of mercury cells.
5. Metal – A
6. This is because E cell is zero at equilibrium.
7. 1 mole KCl dissolved in 500 cc of the solution, Due to more mobility of ions and more degree of
dissociation.
8. Recharging is possible in this case because PbSO4 formed during discharging is a sticky solid which
sticks to the electrode. Therefore it can either take up or give up electrons during recharge.
9. Concentration of electrolyte and no. of electron exchanged
10. Zn2+ ions combines with NH3 to form complex [Zn(NH3)2]2+

11.
12.



6
Chemical Kinetics
1 Mark Questions
1. What do you understand by the rate determining step of a reaction?
2. The rate constant of a reaction is 5.0 X 10-5 L mol-1 min-1. What is the order of the reaction?
3. Write Arrhenius equation.
4. The reaction A + 3B ---- 2C obeys the rate equation. Rate = k [A]1/2 [B]3/2.
What is the order of this reaction?
5. What do you understand by half-life period of a reaction?
2 Mark Questions
6. Express the rate of reaction in terms of disappearance of hydrogen and appearance

of ammonia in the given reaction. N2(g) + 3 H2 (g) → 2NH3 (g)
7. For the elementary step of a chemical reaction: H2 + I2 →2HI rate of reaction →[H2]
[I2] What is the (i) molecularity and (ii) order of the reaction.
8. Mention one example of zero order reaction.
9. For a chemical reaction, activation energy is zero and at 300K rate constant is 5.9 ×
10-5s–1, what will be the rate constant at 400K?
10. The rate constant of a reaction is given by the expression k = Ae –Ea/RT. Which factor in this
expression should register a decrease so that the reaction proceeds rapidly?
3 Mark Questions
11. The decomposition of phosphine 4PH3(g)---- P4(g) + 6H2(g) has rate law; Rate = k [PH3]. The
rate constant is 6.0 × 10–4 s–1 at 300K and activation energy is 3.05 × 105 J mol–1.
Calculate the value of the rate constant at 310K. (R = 8.314 J k–1mol–1).
12. Show that for a first order reaction, time required for 99% completion is twice for the time required
for the completion of 90% of reaction.
13.The rate of reaction triples when the temperature changes from 20°C to50°C.
Calculate the energy of activation. [R = 8.314 J k–1mol–1, log 3 =0.48]

1. The slowest step in a reaction is known as rate determining step.

7
2. The order of reaction is 2.
3. Ae-Ea/RT Where,k = Rate constant Ea = Activation energy A = Arrhenius factor
4. Order =(1/2) + (3/2) = 2
5. The time taken for half of the reaction to complete is known as half–life period of that reaction.
6. Rate= -1/3d[H2]/dt rate=+1/2d[NH3]/dt
7. i)2 ii) 1
8. 2NH3 (g)→N2 (g) +3H2(g) (at1130K and Pt as catalyst)
9. 5.9 × 10–5 s–1
10. Ea should. Decrease. : Rate = k [AB2] [C2]; Order = 1 + 1 = 2]
11.
12. For a first order reaction, the time required for 99% completionis
t1 = 2.303/k Log 100/100-99
= 2.303/k Log 100
= 2x 2.303/k
For a first order reaction, the time required for 90% completion is
t2 = 2.303/k Log 100/100-90
= 2.303/k Log 10
= 2.303/k
Therefore, t1 = 2t2
Hence, the time required for 99% completion of a first order reaction is twice the time required for the
completion of 90% of the reaction.
13. T1 = 50 + 273 = 323 K, T2 = 100 + 273 = 373 K,
K2 = 3k1



9
Electrostatic potential and capacitance
1 Mark Questions
1. What is the value of electric field inside a conductor?
2. What is the direction of electrostatic field at every point on the surface of a charged conductor?
3. What are dielectric substances? How are they different from conductors?
4. Give the common unit of capacitance.
5. A bird perches on a high-power line and nothing happens to it. A man standing on the ground
touches the same line and gets a fatal shock, why?
2 Mark Questions
6. What is electrostatic shielding? What is the advantage of it?
7. State and derive Gauss’s law.
8. Show that 1 Farad is a big unit in practice
9. What is the effect of an electric field on a polar molecule and a non-polar molecule.
10. Draw equipotential surfaces due to a single point charge.
3 Mark Questions
11. Two point charges q1 and q2 are located at r1 and r2, respectively in an external electric field E.
Obtain the expression for the total work done in assembling this configuration.
12. Derive an expression to find the potential energy of a dipole in an electric field.
13. Derive an expression to find the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor.
14.
15. Derive the expression to find the electric field at a point due to a uniformly charged infinite plane
sheet.


10
Chapter 3 – Current Electricity
1 mark questions
1. Plot a graph showing variation of current versus voltage for the material GaAs.
2. Define the term mobility of charge carriers in a conductor. Write its SI unit.
3. Two wires of equal length, one of copper and the other of manganin have the same
resistance. Which wire is thicker?
4. A heating element is marked 210 V, 630 What is the value of the current drawn by the
element when connected to a 210 V DC Source?
5. State the underlying principle of a potentiometer?
2 Marks Questions
6. Derive an expression for the current density of a conductor in terms of the drift speed of
electrons.
7. Distinguish between emf and terminal voltage.
8. Obtain the formula for the power loss (i.e. power dissipated) in a conductor of resistance
R, carrying a current.
9. With the help of circuit diagram, explain how a potentiometer can be used to compare
emf of two primary cells?
3 Marks Questions
10. The sequence of coloured bands in two carbon resistors Rt and R2 is

(i)brown, green, blue and (ii)orange, black, green. Find the ratio of their resistances
11. (i) State the working principle of a potentiometer. (ii) Write two possible causes for one
sided deflection in a potentiometer experiment.
12. In a metre bridge, the null point is

found at a distance of 33.7 cm from A. If
now a resistance of 12Ω is connected in
parallel with S, the null point occurs at
51.9 cm. Determine the values of R and
S.

1.
11
2.
3. manganin
4.
5. The potentiometer works on the principle that potential difference across any two points
of uniform current carrying conductor is directly proportional to the length between the two
points.

12
6.
7.

8.
13
10.

9.
14

15
13.
11. (i) Working principle of potentiometer When a constant current is passed through a wire of
uniform area of cross-section, the potential drop across any portion of the wire is directly
proportional to the length of that portion.
(ii) (a) The emf of the cell connected in main circuit may not be more than the emf of the primary
cells whose emfs are to be compared.
(b) The positive ends of all cells are not connected to the same end of the wire
12. Answer: - From the first balance point, we get

(R/S) = (33.7)/ (66.3) = (3.87) (i)
After S is connected in parallel with a resistance of 12Ω, the
resistanceacross the gap changes from S to Seq, where
Seq= (12S)/(S+12) and hence the new balance condition now gives
(51.9)/ (48.1) =(R/ Seq) =R(S+12)/ (12S)
Substituting the value of (R/S) from Eq. (i), we get
(51.9)/ (48.1) = ((S+12)/12) x (33.7)/ (66.3)which gives
S = 13.5Ω. Using the value of (R/S) above, we get
R = 6.86 Ω


16
Chapter 4 – Moving Charges and Magnetism
1 Marks
1. A circular coil of radius ‘R’ carries a current ‘I’. Write the expression for the magnetic field due to
this coil at its centre. Find out the direction of the magnetic field.
2. Explain why steel is preferred for making permanent magnets while soft iron is preferred for making
electromagnets.
3. What do you mean by current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer? On what factors does it
depend?
4. How will the magnetic field intensity at the centre of the circular coil carrying current will change, if
the current through the coil is doubled and radius of the coil is halved?
2 Marks
5. Obtain the force per unit length experienced by two parallel conductors of infinite length carrying
current in the same direction. Hence define one ampere.
6. Derive an expression for the force acting on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field.
Under what conditions this force is maximum and minimum?
7. With the help of diagram explain how a galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter and a
voltmeter.
8. State Ampere’s Circuital Law. Derive an expression for the magnetic field at a point due
to straight current carrying conductor.
3 Marks
9. Derive an expression for torque acting on a rectangular current carrying loop kept in a
uniform magnetic field B. Indicate the direction of torque acting on the loop.
10. With neat diagram, describe the principle, construction and working of a moving coil
galvanometer. Explain the importance of radial field.
11. State Biot Savart Law. Use this law to obtain a formula for magnetic field at the centre of
a circular loop of radius R, number of turns N carrying current I.
12. With the help of labeled diagram, explain principle and working of a cyclotron.


17
Alcohols Phenols and Ethers
1 Marks
1. Give the IUPAC name of the following.

CH3-C (CH3) =CH-CH2OH
2. The boiling point of ethanol is higher than that methoxy methane.
3. Which catalyst is used in Friedel craft reaction?
4. Name a substance that can be used as an antiseptic as well as a disinfectant.
2 Marks
5. Explain why Phenol do not undergo substitution of -OH group like alcohol.
6. How are the following conversions carried out?

(i) Benzyl chloride to benzyl alcohol,
(ii) Methyl magnesium bromide to 2-methylpropan-2-ol
7. Give a test to distinguish between phenol and Benzyl alcohol.
8. While separating a mixture of ortho and para nitrophenols by steam distillation, name
the isomer which will be steam volatile. Give reason.
3 Marks
9. (i) The bp. of ethanol is higher than that of methoxy methane.

(ii) Phenol is more acidic than ethanol.
(iii) O & p nitrophenol are more acidic than phenol.
10. What is meant by hydroboration-oxidation reaction? Illustrate it with an example.
11. Write chemical reaction for the preparation of phenol from chlorobenzene.
12. Name the reagents used in the following reactions:

(i) Oxidation of a primary alcohol to carboxylic acid.
(ii) Oxidation of a primary alcohol to aldehyde.
(iii) Bromination of phenol to 2,4,6-tribromophenol

18
Answers:
1. 3-Methyl But-2-en 1-ol
2. Ethanol has inter molecular hydrogen bonding, methoxy mehane does not have H-bonding.
3. Anh.AlCl3.
4.. Phenol can be used as an antiseptic as well as a disinfectant. 0.1% Soln of phenol is used as an
antiseptic & 1% Soln of phenol is used as a disinfectant.
5. C-O bond in phenol has some double bond characters due to resonance and hence cannot be
easily replaced by Nu. In contrast the C-O bond in alcohol is pure single bond and hence can be
easily released by Nu.
6.
7. Phenols give violet colour with ferric chloride while benzyl alcohol does not give this colour.
8. Intramolecular H-bonding is present in o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol. In p-nitrophenol,

the molecules are strongly associated due to the presence of intermolecular
bonding. Hence, o-nitrophenol is steam volatile.

9. Ans:-(i) Due to presence of a hydrogen attached to oxygen atom. As a result ethanol exists as associated
molecules & hence it has higher bp. than methoxy methane which does not form hydrogen bond. 19
(ii) Because the phenoxide ion left after the release proton is stabilized by resonance but ethoxide.
Moreover ethoxide ion is destabilized by +1 effect of ethyl group.
(iii) Due to I-effect or R-effect of NO2 gp. The resulting phenolate ion is more destabilized by +1 effect of
ethyl gp.
10. The addition of borane followed by oxidation is known as the hydroboration-oxidation
reaction. For example, propan-1-ol is produced by the hydroboration-oxidation reaction
of propene. In this reaction, propene reacts with diborane (BH3)2 to form trialkyl borane
as an addition product. This addition product is oxidized to alcohol by hydrogen peroxide
in the presence of aqueous sodium hydroxide.
11. Chlorobenzene is fused with NaOH (at 623 K and 320 atm pressure) to produce sodium
phenoxide, which gives phenol on acidification.
12. (i) Acidified potassium permanganate

(ii) Pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC)
(iii) Bromine water


20
Electrochemistry & Surface Chemistry
1 Marks Questions
1. The reaction : Zn2+ (aq) + 2e- → Zn (s) has a electrode potential of - 0.76 V. This means-
(A) Zn cannot replace hydrogen from acids (B) Zn is reducing agent
(C) Zn is oxidizing agent (D) Zn2+ is a reducing agent
2. Bleeding caused by a nick from a razor during shaving can be stopped by rubbing with alum.
Why?
3. Why does physisorption decrease with increase of temperature?
4. Standard electrode potentials are

Fe2+/Fe (E° =- 0.44 V), Fe3+ /Fe2+ (E° = 0.77 V)
Fe2+, Fe3+ and Fe blocks are kept together, then :
(A) Fe3+ increases
(B) Fe3+ decreases
(C) Fe2+ /Fe3+ remains unchanged
(D) Fe2+ decreases
2 Marks Questions
5. What is Zeta potential?
6. Explain why lyophilic sol are more stable than lyophobic sols?
7. Describe Bredig’s Arc method for preparation of gold sol?
8. The specific conductivity of 0.02 M KCl solution at 25°C is 2.768 × 10-3 ohm-1 cm-1. The resistance
of this solution at 25°C when measured with a particular cell was 250.2 ohm. The resistance of 0.01
M CuSO4 solution at 25°C measured with the same cell was 8331 ohm. Calculated the molar
conductivity of the copper sulphate solution.
3 Marks Questions
9. Name & explain three methods of purification of colloids.
10. Fused Ni(NO3)2 is electrolysed between platinum electrodes using a current of 5 ampere for 20
minute. What mass of Ni is deposited at the cathode ?
11. Account for the following

(i) Delta is formed when river meets sea water
(ii) For water purification alum is added
(iii) Cottrell smoke precipitator is used to reduce pollution.
12. Estimate the mass of copper metal produced during the passage of 5A current through CuSO4
solution for 100 minutes, the molar mass of Cu is 63.5g mol-1

21
1. Sol. (B) Negative electrode potential shows that Zn2+ is difficult to be reduced and therefore, Zn
acts as reducing agent.
2. Blood is a negatively charged colloidal solution. When alum is rubbed the positively
charged Al3+ ions from alum neutralizes the charge on the particles and makes it coagulate to
form a clot.
3. Adsorption is an exothermic phenomenon. The increase in temperature will favour the

reverse process i.e. desorption according to Le Chatalier’s principle. Therefore physisorption
decreases with increase in temperature.
4. (B) Fe 2+ → Fe + Fe+3, =- 0.44- 0.77 = -0.121

So spontaneous reaction is Fe + Fe3+ → Fe 2+
5. The potential difference between the fixed layer and diffused layer of opposite charges
around the colloidal particles.
6. Lyophilic colloids have great affinity for the dispersion medium i.e. dispersed phase particles are
solvated to a greater extent in case of Lyophilic colloids. Hence lyophilic sols are relatively more
stable than lyophobic sols.
7. An electric arc is struck between electrodes made of gold immersed in dispersion medium water.
The intense heat produced vapourises the metal which then condenses to form particles of colloidal
gold.(Label diagram to be drawn).
8. Sol. Cell constant = = = 2.768 × 10-3 × 250.2

For 0.01 M CuSO4 solution
Sp. conductivity = Cell constant × Conductance = 2.768 × 10-3 × 250.2 ×
Molar conductance = Sp. cond. × = × =8.312 ohm-1 cm2 mol-1

9. Dialysis:-Separation of electrolytes and colloidal solution uses a semi-permeable
membrane.
Electro-dialysis:- When dialysis is carried out with an electric field around the membrane,
the purification process is enhanced.
Ultra-filtration:- Use of special filters, which are permeable to all substances except
colloidal particles.
10. Sol. Eq. of Ni deposited
= =
= 0.0622
or wNi = 0.0622 × 58.71/2 = 1.825 g

(Ni2+ + 2e → Ni)
22
11. Ans:-(i) Electrolytes of sea water coagulate colloidal clay particles of river water.
(ii)Alum coagulates the suspended colloidal impurities.
(iii)In Cottrell smoke precipitator colloidal smoke particles lose their charge as they pass
through it and coagulate.
12. Given:
I=5A
t = 100 min
= 100× 60
= 6000 sec
The reaction is,
Cu2+ + 2e− → Cu
We know,
Q = It
= 5 × 6000
= 3 × 104 C
As 2×96500 C requires to deposite 63.5 gm of Cu.
So, 3 × 104 C will give,
Mass of copper metal deposited is 9.87 gm

Chapter 5 23
Magnetism and Matter
1 Marks Questions
1. Questions 1.
The permeability of a magnetic material is 0.9983. Name the type of magnetic materials it
represents. (Delhi 2011)
2. Where on the surface of Earth is the angle of dip zero? (All India 2011)
3. Which of the following substances are para-magnetic ?
Bi, Al, Cu, Ca, Pb, Ni (Delhi 2013)
4. Where on the surface of Earth is the Earth’s magnetic field perpendicular to the surface of the
Earth? (Comptt. Delhi 2013)
3 Marks Questions
5. (i) Write two characteristics of a material used for making permanent magnets.
(ii) Why is core of an electromagnet made of ferromagnetic materials? (Delhi)
6. Depict the behaviour of magnetic field lines when
(i) a diamagnetic material and
(ii) a paramagnetic material is placed in an external magnetic field. Mention briefly the properties of
these materials which explain this distinguishing behaviour.
7. Define the following using suitable diagrams :

(i) magnetic declination and
(ii) angle of dip. In what direction will a compass needle point when kept at the
(i) poles and
(ii) equator? (Comptt. Delhi 2015)
8. At a place, the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is B and angle of dip is 60°. What is
the value of horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at the equator? (Delhi 2017)
9. A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical plane parallel to the magnetic meridian has its north
tip down at 60° with the horizontal. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at the
place is known to be 0.4 G. Determine the magnitude of the earth’s magnetic field at the place.
(Delhi 2011)
5 Marks Questions

10. a) A small compass needle of magnetic moment ‘m’ is free to turn about an axis perpendicular
24
to the direction of uniform magnetic field ‘B’. The moment of inertia of the needle about the axis is ‘I’.
The needle is slightly disturbed from its stable position and then released. Prove that it executes
simple harmonic motion. Hence deduce the expression for its time period.
(b) A compass needle, free to turn in a vertical plane orients itself with its axis vertical at a certain
place on the earth. Find out the values of
1. horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field and

2. angle of dip at the place. (Delhi 2013)
1. Answer:
It represents diamagnetic materials.
2. Answer:
At the magnetic equator, the angle of dip is 0°.
3.. Answer:
Al and Ca are para-magnetic.

4. Answer:
25
At poles of the Earth. The Earth’s magnetic field is perpendicular to the surface of the Earth.
5. Answer:
(i) Two characteristics of a material used for making permanent magnets are :
(a) High retentivity so that it produces a strong magnetic field.
(b) High coercivity so that its magnetisation is not destroyed by strong magnetic fields, temperature
variations or minor mechanical damage.
(ii) The core of electromagnet is made of ferromagnetic materials because they have
high initial permeability so that magnetisation is large even for a small magnetising field and low
resistivity to reduce losses due to eddy currents.
6. Answer:
Diamagnetic materials. Diamagnetic materials are those which have tendency to move from
stronger to the weaker part of the external magnetic field.
Examples. Bismuth, copper, lead and silicon.
Properties:
(i) When a rod of diamagnetic material is sus-pended inside a magnetic field, it slowly sets itself at
right angles to the direction of field.
(ii) When a diamagnetic material is placed inside a magnetic field, the magnetic field lines become
slightly less dense in the diamagnetic material.
(iii) For diamagnetic material :
Paramagnetic materials. Paramagnetic materials are those which get weakly magnetised when
placed in an external magnetic field. They have tendency to move from a region of weak magnetic
field to strong magnetic field.
Examples. Aluminium, sodium, calcium and oxygen.
7. Answer:
Magnetic declination:

Angle between magnetic meridian and geographical meridian

26
Angle of dip : It is the angle which the magnetic needle makes with the horizontal in the magnetic
meridian.
8. Answer:
9. Answer:

10.
27
. Answer:
(a) This is done by placing a small compass needle of known magnetic moment m and moment of
inertia I and allowing it to

28
(b) Since, the compass needle is oriented vertically
1. Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field will be zero.

2. The value of angle of dip at that place will be 90°.

Chapter 6 29
General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements

1 Marks Questions
1. Why is the froth flotation method selected for the concentration of sulphide ores? (Delhi 2009)
2. What is meant by the term ‘pyrometallurgy’? (All India 2009)
3. How is copper extracted from a low grade ore of it? (All India 2012)
4. What is the role of depressants in the froth floatation process of dressing of ores?
5. Name the methods used for refining of following metals :

(i) Nickel
(ii) Titanium (Comptt. Delhi 2012)
2 Marks Questions
6. Although thermodynamically feasible, in practice, magnesium metal is not used for reduction of
Alumina in the metallurgy of aluminium. Why? (Comptt. All India 2012)
7. Write the chemical reaction which takes place in Mond’s process for refining of nickel. (Comptt.
Delhi 2013)
8. Describe the underlying principle of each of the following metal refining methods :
(i) Electrolytic refining of metals
(ii) Vapour phase refining of metals(All India 2009)
9. Explain the role of each of the following :
(i) NaCN in the extraction of silver
(ii) SiO2 in the extraction of copper (All India 2012)
3 Marks Questions
10. Why is copper matte put in silica lined converter? (Comptt. Delhi 2012)
11. What is the significance of leaching in the extraction of aluminium ?
12. (a) Give an example of zone refining of metals. (b) What is the role of cryolite in the metallurgy
of aluminium? (Delhi 2013)
13. Write the principle behind the froth floatation process. What is the role of collectors in this
process?
1. Answer:
Because the method is based on preferential wetting properties with the frothing agent and water,
and the sulphide particles of ore stick to the oil droplets and rise in the form of froth.

2. Answer:
30
The process of extraction of metal by heating the metal oxide with a suitable reducing agent is
called pyrometallurgy.
3. Answer:
Copper is extracted by hydrometallurgy from low grade ores. It is leached out using add or bacteria.
4. Depressants are used to prevent certain type of particles from forming the froth with the bubbles.
Example : In case of an ore containing ZnS and PbS, the depressant used is NaCN. It selectively
prevents ZnS from coming to the froth but allows PbS to come with the froth.
5. Answer:
(i) Nickel: Mond process
(ii) Titanium: Van Arkel method
6. Answer:
Below the temperature 1665K, the point of intersection of Al2O3 and MgO curves in Ellingham
diagram, Mg can reduce Al2O3. However, Mg is a much costlier metal than A1 and hence the
process will not be economical.
7. Answer:
Mond process for refining of nickel :
8.. Answer:
(i) Electrolytic refining of metals: Here the impure metal is made to act as anode and a strip of the
same metal in pure form is used as cathode. When they both are put in suitable electrolyte
containing soluble salt of same metal, the more basic metal remains in the solution and the less
basic ones go to the anode mud.
Example : In refining of Cu At anode : (oxidation)
Cu → Cu2+ + 2e–
Af cathode : (reduction)
Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu
(ii) Vapour phase refining of metals: In this method, the impure metal is converted into its volatile
compound and collected elsewhere which is then decomposed by heating to a higher temperature
to give pure metal. The requirements are

• the metal should form a volatile , compound with an available reagent.

• the volatile compound should be easily decomposable so that recovery is easy. 31
• Nickel, zirconium and titanium are refined using this method.
9. Answer:
(i) Ag is leached with dil NaCN or KCN solution in the presence of air from which the metal is
obtained by replacement.
4Ag + 8CN– + 2H2O + O2 → 4[Ag(CN)2]– + 4OH–
2[Ag(CN)2]– + Zn → [Zn(CN)4]-2 + 2Ag
(ii) SiO2 reacts with FeO to form fusible slag and can easily be removed.
FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3
10. Answer:
Copper matte mainly contains Cu2S and FeS. When a hot air blast is blown through molten matte
taken in a silica lined converter, FeS is oxidised to FeO. Silica (SiO 2) present as lining acts as flux
and combines with FeO to form slag.
2FeS + 3O2 → 2FeO + 2SO2
FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3 (slag).
11. Answer:
Leaching: Bauxite ore contains FeO, SiO2, TiO2 as impurities . The powdered ore is treated with a
concentrated solution of NaOH at 473 – 523 K and 35 – 36 bar pressure when Al2O3 dissolves in
alkali to form soluble complex while the impurities do not react and can be removed by filtration.
12. Answer:
(a) Zone refining is based on the principal that the impurities are more soluble in the melt than in the
solid state of the metal.
(b) The role of cryolite (Na3AIF6) is to lower the melting point of the mixture and brings conductivity.
13. Answer:
Froth floatation method : This method is used for removing gangue from sulphide ores. In this
powdered ore is mixed with collectors (e.g. pine oils, fatty acids etc.) and froth stabilisers (e.g.
cresols, aniline) which enhance non-wettability of the mineral particles and froth stabilisation
respectively. As a result of which ore comes with froth and gangue remain in the solution.


32
Chapter 6 - Electromagnetic Induction
1 mark questions
1. Predict the polarity of the capacitor when the two magnets are quickly moved in the directions
marked by arrows.
2. State Lenz’s law. (Comptt. All India 2012)
3. A light metal disc on the top of an electromagnet is thrown up as the current is switched on. Why?
Give reason. (All India 2013)
4. The electric current flowing in a wire in the direction from B to A is decreasing. Find out the
direction of the induced current in the metallic loop kept above the wire as shown. (All India 2014)
5. Name any two applications where eddy currents are used to advantage. (Comptt. Delhi 2015 )
2 marks questions
6. A coil Q is connected to low voltage bulb B and placed near another coil P as shown in the figure.
Give reasons to explain the following observations :
(a) The bulb ‘B’ lights.

(b) Bulb gets dimmer if the coil Q is moved towards left. (Delhi 2010)
3 marks questions
7. A metallic rod of ‘L’ length is rotated with angular frequency of ‘ω’ with one end hinged at the
centre and the other end at the circumference of a circular metallic ring of radius L, about an axis
passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of the ring. A constant and uniform
magnetic field B parallel to the axis is present everywhere. Deduce the expression for the emf
between the centre and the metallic ring. (Delhi 2012)
8. A coil of number of turns N, area A, is rotated at a constant angular speed ω, in a uniform

magnetic field B, and connected to a resistor R. Deduce expressions for :
(i) Maximum emf induced in the coil.
(ii) Power dissipation in the coil. (Delhi 2008)

4 marks questions
33
9. (i) State Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction.
(ii) A jet plane is travelling towards west at a speed of 1800 km/h. What is the voltage difference
developed between the ends of the wing having a span of 25 m, if the Earth’s magnetic field at the
location has a magnitude of 5 × 10-4 T and the dip angle is 30°? (All India)
10. Write its SI unit for self-inductance of a coil. Derive the expression for self-inductance of a long
solenoid of cross-sectional area ‘A’, length ‘l’ having ‘n’ turns per unit length. (Comptt. All India
2013)
11. Obtain the expression for the mutual inductance of two long co-axial solenoids S1 and S2 wound
one over the other, each of length L and radii r1 and r2 and n1 and n2 number of turns per unit length,
when a current I is set up in the outer solenoid S2. (Delhi 2017)

1. Answer:
Current in the coil will be anti-clockwise, when seen from the left, therefore plate A will become + ve 34
(positive) and plate B will be negative.
2. Lenz’s law states that “the polarity of induced emf is such that it tends to produce a current, which
opposes the change in magnetic flux that induced it”.
3. Answer:
Because of Eddy Current
If the upper force of the core of the electromagnet acquires north polarity, then according to Lenz’s
Law, the lower face of the disc will also acquire north polarity. Due to the force of repulsion between
the lower face (N-pole) of the core of the electromagnet, the disc jumps upto a certain height.
4. Answer:
The direction of current in loop wire will be clockwise.
5. Answer:
Applications of Eddy currents :
1. Electromagnetic Damping
2. Magnetic Breaking
3. Induction Furnace
4. Electric Power meters (any two)
6. Answer:
1. The bulb B lights on account of emf induced in the coil Q due to mutual induction between P
and Q.
2. When coil Q is moved towards left, magnetic flux linked with Q decreases and may even
reduce to zero at some distance. The emf induced may decrease and the bulb B gets
dimmer.
7. Answer:
The magnitude of the emf, generated across a length dr of the rod, as it moves at right angles to the
magnetic field, is given by
dε = Bvdr

Alternatively, The potential difference across the resistor is equal to the induced emf and equal B x
35
.(rate of change of area of loop), If θ is the angle between the rod and the radius of the circle at P at
time t, the area of the sector OPQ (as shown in the figure) is given by
where [R is the radius of the circle]
8. Answer:
We know that induced emf
9. Answer:
(i) First law : Whenever the magnetic flux linked with a closed circuit changes, an emf (and hence a
current) is induced in it which lasts only so long as the change in flux is taking place. This
phenomenon is called electromagnetic induction.
Second law : The magnitude of the induced emf is equal to the rate of change of magnetic flux
linked with the closed circuit.
Since v, l and B are to be perpendicular to get induce emf, the vertical component alone will
contribute to the induction

36
– ve sign signifies that the emf will oppose the change in magnetic flux causing it.
10. Answer:
Coefficient of self induction.
Consider a coil L as shown in Figure. Suppose a current I flows through the coil at any instant then
magnetic flux ϕ linked with the coil is directly proportional to the current passing through it at that
instant.
⇒ ϕ = LI where [L is called coefficient of self induction]

If I = 1, then ϕ = L
Thus, self inductance of a coil is numerically equal to the magnetic flux linked with the coil, when a
unit current flows through it.
The SI unit of self inductance is henry (H).
Expression for self-inductance : Consider a long solenoid of length Z and cross-sectional area A
having n turns per unit length.
The magnetic field due to a current flowing in the solenoid is B = µ0nl
Total flux linked with the solenoid is,
where [nl is the total number of turns.]
Thus, the self inductance is,
If we fill the inside of the solenoid with a material of relative permeability µ r then
L = µrµ0n2Al
11. Consider two long solenoids S1 and S2 of same length l such that solenoid S2 surrounds
S1 completely.
Let a current I2 flow through S2. This sets up a magnetic flux ϕ1 through each turn of the coil S1

37
Total flux linked with S1, N1ϕ1 = M12I2… (i)

Where M12 is the mutual inductance between the two solenoids
Magnetic field due to the current I2 and S2 is µ0n2I2
Therefore, resulting flux linked with S1
Question 11. (a) Mutual inductance of two coils is equal to the magnetic flux linked with one coil
when a unit current is passed in the other coil.
Hence, Mutual inductance is equal to the induced emf set up in one coil when the rate of change of
current flowing through the other coil is unity.
S.I. unit : Henry, (Weber ampere-1) or (volt second ampere-1)

38
Chapter 7 – the p-block elements

1 Mark Questions
1. What is the oxidation number of phosphorus in H3PO2 molecule? (Delhi 2010)
2. Draw the structure of 03 molecule. (Delhi 2010)
3. Nitrogen is relatively inert as compared to phosphorus. Why? (All India 2010)
4. Draw the structure of XeF2 molecule. (Delhi 2011)
5. Though nitrogen exhibits +5 oxidation state, it does not form pentahalide. Why? (Comptt. Delhi
2012)
2 Mark Questions
6. Why does PCl3 fume in moisture? (Comptt. Delhi 2012)
7. Bond enthalpy of fluorine is lower than that of chlorine. Why?
8. Write the structural formula and hybridization state of PCl5(s). (Comptt. All India 2013)
9. Why does NO2 dimerise? (All India 2014)
10. Complete the following chemical reaction equations : (Delhi 2009)

(i) P4 (s) + NaOH (aq) + H2O (1) →
(ii) I– (aq) + H2O (1) + O3 (g) →
3 Mark Questions
11. State reasons for each of the following :
(i) All the P-Cl bonds in PCl5 molecule are not equivalent.
(ii) Sulphur has greater tendency for catenation than oxygen. (Delhi 2011)
12. Explain the following facts giving appropriate reason in each case :
(i) NF3 is an exothermic compound whereas NCl3 is not.
(ii) All the bonds in SF4 are not equivalent. (All India 2012)
13. Explain the following :
(a) Xenon does not form such fluorides as XeF3 and XeF5.
(b) Out of noble gases, only Xenon is known to form real chemical compounds. (Comptt. Delhi
2012)
14. (a) Which form of sulphur shows paramagnetic behaviour and why ?
(b) Fluorine exhibits only -1 oxidation state whereas other halogens exhibit +1, +3, +5 or +7
oxidation states also. Explain as to why. (Comptt All India 2012)
15. (a) Draw the structures of the following :
(i) H2S2O8 (ii) HClO4
(b) How would you account for the following :
(i) NH3 is a stronger base than PH3

1. Answer:
39
H3PO2
3 + x- 4 = 0 or x – 1 = 0 ∴ x = + 1
Thus oxidation number of P in H3PO2 = +1.
2.
3. Answer:
Because P -P single bond is much weaker than N = N triple bond and the bond length of nitrogen is
small and bond dissociation energy is very large which makes it inert and urtreactive and thus
phosphorus becomes more reactive.
4.
5. Answer:
Due to non-availability of d-orbitals in its valence electronic configuration nitrogen does not form
pentahalide.
6. Answer:
PCl3 hydrolyses in moisture giving fumes of HCl.
PCl3 + 3H2O → H3PO3 + 3HCl
7. Answer:
Because F2 is very small and its interelectronic repulsions between the lone pairs of electrons are
very large.

40
8.
9. NO2 contains 7 + 2 × 8 i.e. 23 odd electrons. In the valence shell N has seven electrons and
hence less stable. To acquire stability it dimerizes to form
N 2 O4 .
10.
11. (i) The PCl5 molecule has sp3d hybridization and trigonal bipyramidal geometry. Therefore it has
3 equatorial P – Cl bonds and two axial P-Cl bonds. Since two axial P-Cl bonds are repelled by 3
bond pairs while 3 equatorial bonds are repelled by two bond pairs, so axial bonds are longer than
equatorial bonds.
(ii) The greater catenation tendency of sulphur is due to two reasons :

(a) The lone pair of electrons feels more repulsion in 0-0 bond than S-S bond due to its small size

and thus S-S forms strong bond.

41
12. Answer:
(i) The bond energy of F – F bond is lower than that of N-F bond so NF3 is an exothermic .
compound. On the other hand bond energy
of Cl – Cl bond is higher than that of N – Cl bond so NCl3 is an endothermic as well as unstable
compound.
(ii) SF4 has trigonal bipyramidal structure in which one position of equitorial is occupied by a lone
pair of electrons. Sulphur undergoes sp3d hybridisation and has sea-saw geometry.
13. Answer:
(a) By impairing of one paired orbital, two singly occupied orbitals come into existence.Thus, either
two or four or six singly occupied orbitals can be formed instead of one, three or five singly occupied
orbitals. Hence XeF, XeF3 or XeF5 are not formed.
(b) Xe atom has a large size and lower ionisation potential and hence the force of nucleus over the
electrons is weak and hence very small energy can excite the electrons and hence it is easier for
Xenon to form compounds than other noble gases.
14. Answer:
(a) In vapour state sulphur partly exists as S2 molecule which has two unpaired electrons in the
antibonding π* orbitals like O2 and hence exhibits paramagnetism.
(b) It is because fluorine is the most electronegative element and it does not have d-orbitals.
15. Answer:
(a) (i) H2S2O8 (Peroxodisulphuric acid) or Marshall’s acid :
(b)
(i) Since both P and N contain lone pairs of electrons but due to small size and high
electronegativity of Nitrogen in NH3, the electron density is much higher than PH3, therefore it can
easily donate electrons and acts as strong Lewis base than PH3.


42
Chapter 7 – Alternating Current
1 Mark Questions
1. Define the term ‘wattless current’. (Delhi 2011)

2. A heating element is marked 210 V, 630 W. Find the resistance of the element when connected
to a 210 V dc source.
3. Why is the core of a transformer laminated? (Comptt. Delhi 2013)
4. Define capacitor reactance. Write its S.I. units. (Delhi 2015)
5. Why is the use of a.c. voltage preferred over d.c. voltage? Give two reasons. (All India 2013)
2 Mark Questions
1.
The circuit arrangement as shown in the diagram shows that when an a.c. passes through the coil
A, the current starts flowing in the coil B.
(i) State the underlying principle involved.

(ii) Mention two factors on which the current produced in the coil B depends.(All India 2008)
2. A 15.0 µF capacitor is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz source. Find the capacitive reactance and the
rms current. (All India 2009)
3. An electric lamp having coil of negligible inductance connected in series
with a capacitor and an a.c. source is glowing with certain brightness. How
does the brightness of the lamp change on reducing the
(i) capacitance, and
(ii) the frequency? Justify your Answer. (Delhi 2009)
4. State the principle of working of a transformer. Can a transformer be used to step up or step
down a d.c. voltage? Justify your Answer. (All India 2009)
5. State the underlying principle of a transformer.
3 Mark Questions
1. The figure shows a series LCR circuit connected to a variable frequency 200 V source with L = 50
mH, C = 80 µF and R = 40 Ω.
Determine
(i) the source frequency which derives the circuit in resonance;

(ii) the quality factor (Q) of the circuit. (Comptt. All India 2014)
43
2. A series LCR circuit with L = 4.0 H,C = 100 μF and R = 60 Ω. is connected to a variable
frequency 240 V source as shown in the figure.
Calculate :
(i) the angular frequency of the source which derives the circuit at resonance;
(ii) the current at the resonating freqency;
(iii) the rms potential drop across the inductor at (Delhi 2008)
3. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac source. Using the phasor diagram, derive the
expression for the impedance of the circuit. Plot a graph to show the variation of current with
frequency of the source, explaining the nature of its variation. (All India 2008)
4. Draw a sketch showing the basic elements of an a.c. generator. State its principle and explain
briefly its working. (Comptt. All India 2008)
5. A 200 mH (pure) inductor, and a 5µF (pure) capacitor, are connected, one by one, across a
sinusoidal ac voltage source V = [70.7 sin (1000 t)] voltage. Obtain the expressions for the current in
each case. (Comptt. All India 2016)

1. Answer:
44
Wattless current is that component of the circuit current due to which the power consumed in the
circuit is zero.
2. Answer:
3. Answer:
The core of a transformer is laminated to minimize eddy currents in the iron core.
4. Answer:
‘Capacitor reactance’ is defined as the opposition to the flow of current in ac circuits offered by a
capacitor.
S.I. Unit : Ohm.
1. Answer:
(i) It is based on the principle of “mutual induction”.
(ii) Two factors are:
• distance between the coils.

• orientation of the coils.
• Number of turns in the coil, (any two)
2.
3. Answer:
Brightness of lamp I0,
Assuming zero resistance and zero inductance of lamp

On reducing C or v; It would decrease

45
∴ Brightness of the lamp will decrease.
4. Answer:
Transformer works on the principle of mutual induction, i.e., when a changing current is passed
through one of the two inductively coupled coils, an induced emf is set up in the other coil.
No, transformer cannot be used to step up or step down a d.c. voltage because d.c. voltage cannot
produce a change in magnetic flux.
5. Principle : It works on the principle of mutual induction i.e., “when a changing current is passed
through one of the two inductively coupled coils, an induced emf is set up in the other coil.”
1.
2. Answer:

46
3.
4. Answer:
(a) Principle of A.C. generator : The working of an a.c. generator is based on the principle of
electromagnetic induction. When a closed coil is rotated in a uniform magnetic field with its axis
perpendicular to the magnetic field, the magnetic flux linked with the coil changes and an induced
emf and hence a current is set up in it.
(b) Let N = number of turns in the coil

A = Area of face of each turn
B = magnitude of the magnetic field
θ = angle which normal to the coil makes with field B at any instant
ω = the angular velocity with which coil rotates
The magnetic flux linked with the coil at any instant f will be,
ϕ = NAB cos θ = NAB cos ωt
By Faraday’s flux rule, the induced emf is given by,

47
When a load of resistance R is connected across the terminals, a current I flows in the external
circuit.
5. Answer:
Given: For the applied voltage V = 70.7 sin(1000 t),
we have V0 = 70.7 volts, ω = 1000s-1


48
Chapter 7 – Alternating Current
1 Mark Questions
1. What is meant by ‘lanthanoid contraction’? (Delhi 2011)
2. Why do transition elements show variable oxidation states? (Comptt. Delhi 2014)
3. Write the formula of an oxo-anion of Manganese (Mn) in which it shows the oxidation state equal
to its group number. (Delhi 2017)
4. What happens when (NH4)2Cr2O7 is heated? (Delhi 2017)
5. Write the formula of an oxo-anion of Chromium (Cr) in which it shows the oxidation state equal to
its group number. (Delhi 2017)
2 Mark Questions
6. How would you account for the following :
(i) Cr2+ is reducing in nature while with the same d-orbital configuration (d4) Mn3+ is an oxidising
agent.
(ii) In a transition series of metals, the metal
which exhibits the greatest number of oxidation states occurs in the middle of the series. (All India
2011)
7. Explain giving reasons :
(i) Transition metals and their compounds generally exhibit a paramagnetic behaviour.
(ii) The chemistry of actinoids is not so smooth as that of lanthanoids. (All India 2011)

(a) The enthalpies of atomization of transition metals are quite high.
(b) The transition metals and many of their compounds act as good catalysts. (Comptt. Delhi 2012)
9. What is Lanthanoid contraction? What are its two consequences? (Comptt. Delhi 2013)
10. Describe the general trends in the following properties of the first series (3d) of the transition
elements :
(i) Number of oxidation states exhibited
(ii) Formation of oxometal ions (Comptt. Delhi 2014)
3 Mark Questions
11. How would you account for the following?

(i) Many of the transition elements are known to form interstitial compounds.
(ii) The metallic radii of the third (5d) series of transition metals are virtually the same as those of the
corresponding group members of the second (4d) series.
(iii) Lanthanoids form primarily +3 ions, while the actinoids usually have higher oxidation states in
their compounds, +4 or even +6 being typical. (Delhi 2012)
12. Explain the following observations giving an appropriate reason for each.
(i) The enthalpies of atomization of transition elements are quite high.
(ii) There occurs much more frequent metal- metal bonding in compounds of heavy transition metals
(i.e. 3rd series).

(iii) Mn2+ is much more resistant than Fe2+ towards oxidation. (Delhi 2012)
49
13. How would you account for the following?
(i) Transition metals exhibit variable oxidation states.
(ii) Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have almost identical radii.
(iii) Transition metals and their compounds act as catalyst. (Delhi 2013)
14. Complete the following chemical equations: (Delhi 2013)
15. Describe the preparation of potassium permangnate. How does the acidified permanganate
solution react with oxalic acid? (Comptt. All India 2016)

1. Answer:
50
The steady decrease in the ionic radius from La 3+ to Lu3+ is termed as lanthanoid contraction.
2. Answer:
The variability of oxidation state of transition elements is due to incompletely filled d-orbitals and
presence of unpaired electrons, i.e. (ns) and (n -1) d electrons have approximate equal energies.
3. Answer:
Permanganate ion, i.e., MnO4– with oxidation number +7.
4. Answer:
5. Answer:
Cr2O72- (dichromate ion) in which oxidation state of Cr is +6 which equal to its group number 6.
6. Answer:
(i) Cr2+ has the configuration 3d4 which easily changes to d3 due to stable half filled t2g orbitals.
Therefore Cr2+ is reducing agent. While Mn2+ has stable half filled d5 configuration. Hence Mn3+
easily changes to Mn2+ and acts as oxidising agent.
(ii) Due to presence of more unpaired electrons and use of all 4s and 3d electrons in the middle of
series.
7. Answer:
(i) Because of presence of unpaired electrons in their d-subshell in atomic and ionic state.
(ii) Lanthanoids show limited number of oxidation state, viz. +2, +3 and +4 (out of which +3 is most
common) because of large energy gap between 4f and 5d subshells. Actinoids also show stable +3
oxidation state but show a number of oxidation states i.e. +4, +5 and + 6, +7 due to small energy
difference between 5f, 6d and 7s subshells.
8. Answer:
(a) In transition elements, there are large number of unpaired electrons in their atoms, thus they have
a stronger inter atomic interaction and thereby stronger bonding between the atoms. Due to this they
have high enthalpies of atomization.
(b) Because of the availability of d-orbitals, they can easily form intermediate products which are
activated. The sizes of transition metal atoms and ions are also favourable for transition complex
formation with the reactants.
9. Answer:
Lanthanoid contraction: The overall decrease in atomic and ionic radii with increasing atomic
number is known as lanthanoid contraction. In going from La+3 to Lu+3 in lanthanoid series, the size
of ion decreases. This decrease in size in the lanthanoid series is known as lanthanoid contraction.
The lanthanoid contraction arises due to imperfect shielding of one 4f electron by another present in
the same subshell.
10. Answer:
(i) The number of oxidation states increases upto middle of series i.e. unto +7 and then decreases.

(ii) Oxometal ions are polyatomic ions with oxygen.

51
Example : VO2+, VO+2, T1O2+
11. Answer:
(i) The transition metals form a large number of interstitial compounds in which small atoms such as
hydrogen, carbon, boron and nitrogen occupy the empty spaces in the crystal lattices of transition
metals.
(ii) Because of lanthanoid contraction.
(iii) This is due to comparable energies of 5f, 6d, 7s orbitals in actinoids.
12. Answer:
(i) In transition elements, there are large number of unpaired electrons in their atoms, thus they have
a stronger inter atomic interaction and thereby stronger bonding between the atoms. Due to this they
have high enthalpies of atomization.
(ii) Because of high enthalpy of atomisation of 3rd series, there occurs much more frequent metal-
metal bonding in compounds of heavy transition metals.
(iii) The 3d orbital in Mn2+ is half-filled and is more stable compared to Fe2+ has 6 electrons in the 3d
orbital. Mn2+ prefer to lose an electron or get oxidised whereas Fe 2+ will readily loose one electron or
get oxidised. Therefore, Mn2+ is much more resistant than Fe2+ towards oxidation.
13. Answer:
(i) Because the energy difference between (n-1) d-orbitals and ns-orbitals is very less. Since there is
very little energy difference between these orbitals, both energy levels can be used for bond
formation. Thus transition elements exhibit variable oxidation states.
(ii) Zr and Hf have almost identical radii due to lanthanoid contraction which is due to weak
shielding of d-electrons.
(iii) The catalytic properties of the transition elements are due to the presence of unpaired electrons
in their incomplete d-orbitals and variable oxidation states.
14.
15. Answer:
Pyrollusite ore is digested in KOH in the presence of oxygen
2MnO2 + 4KOH + O2 → 2K2MnO4 + 2H2O
3MnO42- + 4H+ → 2MnO4– + MnO2 + 2H2O
Reaction with oxalic acid in Acidic medium
5C2O42- + 2MnO4– + 16H+ → 2Mn+2 + 8H2O + 10CO2


52
Chapter 8 – EM Waves
1 Mark Questions
1. Name the EM waves used for studying crystal structure of solids. What is its frequency range?
(All India 2009)
2. Which part of electromagnetic spectrum is used in radar systems? (Delhi 2010)
3. Name the part of electromagnetic spectrum whose wavelength lies in the range of 10 -10 m. Give
its one use. (All India 2010)
4.. Which of the following has the shortest wavelength :
Microwaves, Ultraviolet rays, X-rays. (All India 2010)
5. How are radio waves produced? (All India 2011)
2 Mark Questions
6. How are infrared waves produced? Why are these referred to as ‘heat waves’? Write their one
important use. (Delhi 2009)
7. When an ideal capacitor is charged by a dc battery, no current flows. However, when an ac
source is used, the current flows continuously. How does one explain this, based on the concept of
displacement current? (Delhi 2012)
8. Arrange the following electromagnetic waves in the descending order of their wavelengths :
1. Microwaves
2. Infra-red rays
3. Ultra-violet radiation
4. Gamma rays
9. Name the types of e.m. radiations which
1. are used in destroying cancer cells,
2. cause tanning of the skin and
3. maintain the earth’s warmth.
10. How is electromagnetic wave produced? Draw a sketch of a plane e.m. wave propagating along
X-axis depicting the directions of the oscillating electric and magnetic fields. (Comptt. Delhi 2017)
3 Mark Questions
11. Identify the following electromagnetic radiations as per the wavelengths given below. Write one
application of each.
(a) 1 mm
(b) 10-12 m
(c) 10-8 m (All India 2008)
12. When an ac source is connected across a capacitor, current starts flowing through the circuit.
Show how Ampere’s circuital law is generalized to explain the flow of current through the capacitor.
Hence obtain the expression for the displacement current inside the capacitor. (Comptt. All India
2012)
13. Answer the following questions:
(i) Show, by giving a simple example, how em waves carry energy and momentum.
(i) How are microwaves produced? Why is it necessary in microwave ovens to select the frequency
of microwaves to match the resonant frequency of water molecules?
(iii) Write two important uses of infrared waves. (Comptt. Delhi 2014)

1. Answer: 53
X-rays frequency range : 1017 Hz to 1020 Hz
2. Answer:
Microwave region of electromagnetic spectrum is used in radar systems.
3. Answer:
Name : X-rays
Use : In medical diagnosis to look for broken bones; treatment study of crystal structure.
4. Answer:
X-rays have the shortest wavelength.
5. Answer:
Radio waves are produced by the accelerated motion of charges in conducting wires.
6. Answer:
Infrared rays are produced by hot bodies and molecules. This may involve vibration and bending of
molecules. Infrared band lies adjacent to low-frequency or long-wavelength end of the visible
spectrum. Infrared waves are sometimes referred to as heat waves.
Use: Infrared rays are used to take photographs in darkness. These are also used to study secret
writing. They are also used in physical therapy.
7. Answer:
A dc battery connected to an ideal capacitor ‘ provides only a momentarily charge, whereas an ac
battery allows a continuous flow of current
As charge on capacitor plates changes, electric field associated with that also changes and hence
giving rise to a displacement current according to
8. Arrangement:
1. Microwaves
2. Infra-red rays
3. Ultra-violet radiation
4. Gamma rays
9. Answer:
1. γ-rays
2. Ultraviolet rays

3. Infrared rays
54
10. Answer:
Electromagnetic waves are produced due to oscillating/accelerating charged particles.
Sketch of e.m. wave :
11. Answer:
(a) 1 mm : Microwaves
Application : In aircraft navigation for the radar system. Also used in microwave ovens.
(b) 10-12 m : Gamma rays

Application : Gamma rays are used as medicine to destroy cancer cells
(c) 10-8 m : Ultraviolet rays

Application : Ultraviolet rays are used in LASIK eye surgery.
12. Answer:
When an ‘ac’ source is connected across a capacitor, the charge on the capacitor also becomes
time dependent. It gives rise to a time dependent electric field between the plates of capacitor. As a
result the electric flux changes.
It was suggested that we need to regard this changing electric flux, between the plates of capacitor,
as equivalent to a current which is called the displacement current.

13. Answer:
55
(i) Consider a plane perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave. An electric charge, on
the plane, will be set in motion by the electric and magnetic fields of em wave, incident on this
plane. This illustrates that em waves carry energy and momentum.
(ii) Microwaves are produced by special vacuum tubes like the Klystron/Magnetron/Gunn diode.
In microwave ovens, the frequency of microwaves is selected to match the resonant frequency of
water molecules, so that energy is transferred efficiently to the kinetic energy of the molecules.
(iii) Important uses of infra-red waves :

1. These are associated with the green house effect.
2. These are used in remote switches of household electrical appliances.


56
Chapter 9 – Coordination Compounds
1 Mark Questions
1. Give an example of ionization isomerism. (Delhi 2010)
2. Give IUPAC name of ionization isomer of [Ni(NH3)3NO3]Cl. (Comptt. All India 2012)
3. Write down the formula of : Tetraamineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride. (Comptt. All India 2012)
4. Give IUPAC name of the ionization isomer of [Ni(NH3)3NO3]Cl. (Comptt. All India 2013)
5. Which of the following is more stable complex and why?

[Co(NH3)6]3+ and [Co(en)3]3+ (Delhi 2014)
2 Mark Questions
6. What is meant by chelate effect? (Comptt. All India 2015)

7. Name the following coordination compounds according to IUPAC system of nomenclature :
(i) [Co(NH3)4 (H2O)Cl]Cl2
(ii) [CrCl2(en)2]Cl,
(en = ethane – 1, 2 – diamine) (Delhi 2010)
8. [Fe(H2O)6]3+ is strongly paramagnetic whereas [Fe(CN)6]3- is weakly paramagnetic. Explain. (At.

no. Fe = 26) (Comptt. All India 2012)
9. Explain why [Co(NH3)6]3+ is an inner orbital complex whereas [Ni(NH3)6]2+ is an outer orbital
complex. (At. no. Co = 27, Ni = 28) (Comptt. All India 2013)
10. Write the IUPAC name of the complex [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]+. What type of isomerism does it exhibit?
(Delhi 2014)
3 Mark Questions
11. Giving a suitable example for each, explain the following :

(i) Crystal field splitting
(ii) Linkage isomerism
(iii) Ambidentate ligand (All India 2009)
(i) Low spin octahedral complexes of nickel are not known.
(ii) The π-complexes are known for transition elements only.
(iii) CO is a stronger ligand than NTL, for many metals. (All India 2009)
13. Explain the following terms giving a suitable example in each case :
(i) Ambident ligand
(ii) Denticity of a ligand
(iii) Crystal field splitting in an octahedral field (All India 2011)

1. Answer:
57
Example : [Pt (NH3)5 (Br)3] SO4 and
[Co (NH3)5 (SO4)] Br
2. Answer:
IUPAC name : Triammine nitrato nickel (III) chloride
3. Answer:
[Co(NH3)4(H2O)Cl]Cl2
4. Answer:
IUPAC name : Triammine chlorido nickel (II) nitrate [Ni(NH 3)3NO3]Cl
5. Answer:
[Co(en)3]3+ is more stable complex than [CO(NH3)6]3+ because of chelate effect.
6. Answer:
Chelate effect : When a bidentate or a polydentate ligand contains donor atoms positioned in such a
way that when they coordinate with the central metal ion, a five or a six membered ring is formed.
This effect is called Chelate effect. As a result, the stability of the complex increases.
Example: the complex of Ni2+ with ‘+ion’ is more stable than NH3.
7. Answer:
(i) [CO(NH3)4 (H2O)Cl]Cl2
Tetraammine aquachlorido cobalt (III) chloride
(ii) [CrCl2(en)2]Cl
Dichlorobis (ethane-1, 2-diamine) chromium (III) chloride
8. Answer:
In both the cases, Fe is in oxidation state +3. Outer electronic configuration of Fe+3 is :
In the presence of CN–, the 3d electrons pair up leaving only one unpaired electron. The
hybridisation involved is d2sp3 forming inner orbital complex which is weakly paramagnetic. In the
presence of H2O (a weak ligand), 3d electrons do not pair up. The hybridisation involved is sp 3d2
forming an outer orbital complex. As it contains five unpaired electrons so it is strongly
paramagnetic. .
9. Answer:
In [Co(NH3)6]3+, the d-electrons of Co3+ ([Ar]3d6 45°) get paired leaving behind two empty d-orbital
and undergo d2sp3 hybridization and hence inner orbital complex, while in [Ni(NH3)6]2+ the d-
electrons of Ni2+ ([Ar]3d8 45°) do not pair up and use outer 4d subshell hence outer orbital complex.

10. Answer:
58
IUPAC name : Tetraamine dichlorido chromium (III) ion.
It exhibits geometrical isomerism.
11. Answer:
(i) Crystal field splitting: It is the splitting of the degenerate energy levels due to the presence of
ligands. When ligand approaches a transition metal ion, the degenerate d-orbitals split into two sets,
one with lower energy and the other with higher energy. This is known as crystal field splitting and
the difference between the lower energy set and higher energy set is known as crystal field splitting
energy (CFSE)
Example : 3d5 of Mn2+

(ii) Linkage isomerism: When more than one atom in an ambidentate ligand is linked with central
metal ion to form two types of complexes, then the formed isomers are called linkage isomers and
the phenomenon is called linkage isomerism.
[Cr(H2O)5(NCS)]2+ Pentaaquathiocyanate chromium (III) ion
[Cr(H2O)5(NCS)]2+
Pentaaquaisothiocyanate chromium (III) ion
(iii) Ambidentate ligand: The monodentate ligands with more than one coordinating atoms is known
as ambidentate ligand. Monodentate ligands have only one atom capable of binding to a central
metal atom or ion. For example, the nitrate ion NO2– can bind to the central metal atom/ion at either
the nitrogen atom or one of the oxygen atoms.
Example : — SCN thiocyanate, — NCS isothiocyanate
12 Answer:
(i) The electronic configuration of Ni is [Ar] 3d8 4s2 which shows that it can only form two types of
complexes i.e. square planar (dsp2) in presence of strong ligand and tetrahedral (sp3) in presence
of weak ligand. There are four empty orbitals in Ni while octahedral complexes require six empty
orbitals.

(ii) Due to presence of empty d-orbitals in transition metals, they can accept electron pairs from
59
ligands containing π electrons and hence can form ic-bonding complexes.
Example : ligands like C5H5, C6H6 etc.
(iii) Due to greater magnitude of Δ0, CO produces strong fields which cause more splitting of d-
orbitals and moreover it is also able to form π bond due to back bonding.
13. Answer:
(i) Ambidentate ligand : The monodentate ligands with more than one coordinating atoms is known
as ambidentate ligand. Monodentate ligands have only one atom capable of binding to a central
metal atom or ion. For example, the nitrate ion NO2– can bind to the central metal atom/ion at either
the nitrogen atom or one of the oxygen atoms.
Example : — SCN thiocyanate, — NCS isothiocyanate
(ii) Denticity of a ligand: The number of donor atoms in a ligand which forms coordinate bond with
the central metal atom are called denticity of a ligand.
Example : If donor atom is one then it is called Monodentate ligand, if it is two, then it is called
Bidendentate and so on.
(iii) Crystal field splitting: It is the splitting of the degenerate energy levels due to the presence of
ligands. When ligand approaches a transition metal ion, the degenerate d-orbitals split into two sets,
one with lower energy and the other with higher energy. This is known as crystal field splitting and
the difference between the lower energy set and higher energy set is known as crystal field splitting
energy (CFSE)
Example : 3d5 of Mn2+


60
Chapter 9 – Ray Optics
1 Mark Questions
1. How does the power of a convex lens vary, if the incident red light is replaced by violet light?
(Delhi 2008)
2.. A glass lens of refractive index 1.45 disappears when immersed in a liquid. What is the value of
refractive index of the liquid? (Delhi 2010)
3. State the conditions for the phenomenon of total internal reflection to occur. (Delhi 2010)
4. Under what condition does a biconvex lens of glass having a certain refractive index act as a
plane glass sheet when immersed in a liquid? (Delhi 2012)
5. Two thin lenses of power -2D and 2D are placed in contact coaxially. What is the focal length of
the combination? (Comptt. All India 2011)
2 Mark Questions
6. A biconvex lens made of a transparent material of refractive index 1.25 is immersed in water of
refractive index 1.33. Will the lens behave as a converging or a diverging lens? Give reason. (All
India 2014)
7. Draw a ray diagram of a reflecting type telescope.
8. Draw a labelled ray diagram of an astronomical telescope in the near point position. Write the
expression for its magnifying power. (All India 2008)
9. Calculate the distance of an object of height h from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm, so as
to obtain a real image of magnification 2. (Delhi 2008)
10. (i) What is the relation between critical angle and refractive index of a material?
(ii) Does critical angle depend on the colour of light? Explain. (All India 2009)
4 Mark Questions
11. A biconvex lens has a focal length 2/3 times the radius of curvature of either surface. Calculate
the refractive index of lens material.
12. Deduce, with the help of ray diagram, the expression for the mirror equation in the case of
convex minor. ‘ (Comptt All India 2012)
13. Two monochromatic rays of light are incident normally on the face AB of an isosceles right
angled prism ABC. The refractive indices of the glass prism for the two rays ‘1’ and ‘2’ are
respectively 1.35 and 1.45. Trace the path of these rays entering through the prism. (All India 2014)
14. Derive the lensmakers formula.

61
1. Answer:
According to Lens Maker’s formula
∴ power of the lens will be increased.
2.. Answer:
The value of refractive index of the liquid should be 1.45 so that the glass lens of refractive index
1.45 disappears when immersed in a liquid.
3. Answer:
Two essential conditions for total internal reflection are :
1. Light should travel from an optically denser medium to an optically rarer medium.
2. The angle of incidence in the denser medium must be greater than the critical angle for the
two media.
4. Answer:
When the refractive index of glass of biconvex lens is equal to the refractive index of the liquid in
which lens is immersed
or µ1 = µg
5. Answer:
Power of combination = -2D + 2D = 0
6. Answer:
The lens will behave as a diverging lens, because -1)
The value of (µ – 1) is negative and ‘f’ will be negative.

62
7.
8.
9. Answer:
Given : f = -10 cm; Magnification, m = 2
To calculate : u = ?

10. Answer:
63
11.

64
12.

13. Answer:
65
Since the angle of incidence (45°) is less than the critical angle (48°), the ray will be refracted.
(ii) For the ray 2,
Since the angle of incidence (45°) is more than the critical angle (43°), the ray will be total internally
reflected.
14.


66
Chapter 10 – Haloalkanes and Haloarenes
1 Mark Questions
1. Write the IUPAC name of the following compound : (CH3)3 CCH2Br (Delhi 2010)
2. Write the IUPAC name of the following compound : CH2 = CHCH2Br (All India 2010)
3. In the following pair of compounds, which will react faster by S N1 mechanism and why? (Comptt.
Delhi 2012)
4. Predict the order of reactivity of the following compounds in S N1 reaction :

C6H5CH2Br, C6H5C(CH3) (C6H5)Br, C6H5CH(C6H5)Br, C6H5CH(CH3)Br (Comptt. Delhi 2012)
5. Give a chemical test to distinguish between C2H5Br and C6H5Br. (Comptt. All India 2012)
2 Mark Questions
6. Write the structure of an isomer of compound C4H9Br which is most reactive towards SN1 reaction.
(All India 2016)
7. Out of
which is an example of allylic halide? (All India 2017)

8. How are the following conversions carried out?
(i) Benzyl chloride to benzyl alcohol,
(ii) Methyl magnesium bromide to 2-methylpropan-2-ol. (Delhi 2010)
9. Haloalkanes undergo nucleophilic substitution whereas haloarenes undergo electrophilic

substitution. Explain. (Comptt. Delhi 2012)
10. What are ambident nucleophiles? Explain with an example. (Comptt. All India 2014)
3 Mark Questions
11. How would you differentiate between SN1 and SN2 mechanisms of substitution reactions? Give
one example of each. (All India 2010)
12. Answer the following :
(i) Haloalkanes easily dissolve in organic solvents, why?
(ii) What is known as a racemic mixture? Give an example.
(iii) Of the two bromoderivatives, C6H5CH (CH3)Br and C6H5CH(C6H5)Br, which one is more reactive
in SN1 substitution reaction and why? (Delhi 2011)
13. How can the following conversions be carried out :
(i) Aniline to bromobenzene
(ii) Chlorobenzene to 2-chloroacetophenone
(iii) Chloroethane to butane (All India 2015)

1. Answer:
67
IUPAC name : 1-bromo-2, 2-dimethyl propane
2. Answer:
IUPAC name : l-Bromo-prop-2-ene
3. Answer:
reacts faster by SN1 mechanism as it is a tertiary halide and it produces a stable tertiary
carbocation.
4. Answer:
C6H5C(CH3) (C6H5)Br > C6H5CH(C6H5)Br > C6H5CH(CH3)Br > C6H5CH2Br
5. Answer:
Both are heated with aqueous NaOH. C2H5Br gives ethanol and NaBr, which on reacting with
AgNO3, gives yellow precipitate of AgBr.
C6H5Br does not respond to this test.
6. Answer:
(2-Bromo-2-methyl propane) or tert-butyl bromide is most reactive towards SN1 reaction as it Br can
form 3° carbocation.
7. Answer:
8. Answer:
(i) Benzyl chloride to benzyl alcohol

68
(ii) Methyl magnesium bromide to 2-methylpropan-2-ol
9. Answer:
Haloarenes (say chlorobenzene) is a resonance hybrid of the following five structures :
Resonance leads to lowering of energy and hence greater stability. On the other hand, no such
resonance is possible in haloalkanes. Halogens directly attached to benzene ring are o, p-directing
in electrophilic subsitution reactions. This is due to greater electron density at these positions in
resonance.
10. Answer:
Ambident nucleophile : A nucleophile that can form new bonds at two or more spots in its structure,
usually due to resonance contributors. Example: S = C = N – can act as a nucleophile with either the
S or N attacking.

11.
69
12. Answer:
(i) Because the new forces of attraction set up between haloalkanes and solvent molecules are of
the same strength as the forces of attraction being broken.
(ii) A mixture which contains the equal proportions of two enantiomers of a compound in equal
proportions is called racemic mixture
Example : (±) butan-2-ol
(iii) Since the reactivity of SN1 reactions increases as the stability of intermediate carbocation
increases. Of the two 2° bromides, the carbocation intermediate derived from C 6H-CH(C6H5)Br i.e.
C6H5CHC6H5 is more stable as compared to the carbocation obtained from

C6H5CH(CH3)Br because it is stabilized by two phenyl groups due to resonance.
13.. Answer:
(i) Aniline to bromobenzene


70
Chapter 10 – Wave Optics
1 Mark Questions
1. What type of wavefront will emerge from a

(i) point source, and
(ii) distant light source? (Delhi 2008)
2. Draw a diagram to show refraction of a plane wave front incident in a convex lens and hence
draw the refracted wave front. (Delhi 2008)
3. Differentiate between a ray and a wave front. (Delhi 2008)
4. In a single-slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit is made double the original width. How
does this affect the size and intensity of the central diffraction band. (All India 2012)
5. In what way is plane polarized light different from an unpolarized light? (Comptt. All India 2012)
2 Mark Questions
6. Why does Sun appear red at sunrise and sunset? (All India 2016)
7. Define the term ‘linearly polarised light’. When does the intensity of transmitted light become
maximum, when a polaroid sheet is rotated between two crossed polaroids? (All India 2008)
8. State two conditions required for obtaining co-herent sources.

In Young’s arrangement to produce interference pattern, show that dark and bright fringes
appearing on the screen are equally spaced. (Comptt. Delhi 2009)
9. Answer the following questions :

(i) In what way is diffraction from each slit related to the interference pattern in a double slit
experiment?
(ii) When a tiny circular obstacle is placed in the path of light from a distance source, a bright spot is
seen at the centre of the shadow of the obstacle. Explain, why. (Comptt. All India 2013)
10. Draw the intensity pattern for single slit diffraction and double slit interference. Hence, state two
differences between interference and diffraction patterns. (All India 2017)
4 Mark Questions
11. How is a wavefront defined? Using Huygen’s construction draw a figure showing the
propagation of a plane wave reflecting at the interface of the two media. Shpw that the angle of
incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. (Delhi 2008)
12. Describe Young’s double slit experiment to produce interference pattern due to a
monochromatic source of light. Deduce the expression for the fringe width. (Delhi 2011)
13. Explain briefly, giving a suitable diagram, how an unpolarised light incident on the interface
separating two transparent media gets polarised on reflection. Deduce the necessary condition for
it. (Comptt. Delhi 2011)
14. (a) What is linearly polarized light ? Describe briefly using a diagram how sunlight is polarised.
(b) Unpolarised light is incident on a polaroid. How would the intensity of transmitted light change
when the polaroid is rotated? (All India 2011)

1. Answer: 71
(i) Point source – Spherical wavefront
(ii) Distant light source – Plane wavefront.
2.
3. Answer:
Ray defines the path of light.
Wave front is the locus of points in the light wave’ having the same phase of oscillation at any
instant.
4. Answer:
If the width of the diffraction slit is doubled, the size of the central diffraction band will become half
and its intensity will become four times of its original value.
5. Answer:
In case of polarized light, the directions of electric field vector are restricted to only a particular /
plane whereas in an unpolarized light the direction of is in all possible directions in a plane
perpendicular to the direction of propagation.
6. It is due to least scattering of red light as it has the longest wavelength.

[As per Rayleigh’s scattering, the amount of light
7. Answer:
Linearly polarised light is one in which the
vibration of light is present in one line only.
Intensity is maximum.
8. Answer:
Two conditions for obtaining coherent sources: (0 Two sources should give monochromatic light.
(ii) Coherent sources of light should be obtained from a single source by some device.
The fringe width (dark and bright) is given by
Hence, it is same for both dark and bright fringes So they are equally spaced on the screen.

9. (i) Diffraction from each slit is related to interference pattern in a double slit experiment in the
following ways : 72
• The intensity of minima for diffraction is never zero, while for interference it is generally zero.
• All bright fringes for diffraction are not of uniform intensity, while for interference, these are of
uniform intensity
(ii) Waves from the distant source are diffracted by the edge of the circular obstacle and these
diffracted waves interfere constructively at the centre of the obstacle’s shadow produc¬ing a bright
spot.
10. Answer:
(i) Intensity distribution in the diffraction due to single slit
(ii) Intensity pattern for double slit interference.
(iii) Difference between Interference and Difference Patterns:

Interference pattern and Diffraction pattern :
The diagram, given here, shows several fringes, due to double slit interference, ‘contained’ in a
broad diffraction peak. When the separation between the slits is large compared to their width, the
diffraction pattern becomes very flat and we observe the two slit interference pattern.
11. Answer:
Wavefront : Wavefront is defined as the continuous locus of all such particles of the medium which
are vibrating in the same phase at any instant.

73
12. Answer:
Consider two coherent sources S1 and S2 separated by a distance d. Let D be the distance between
the screen and the plane of slits S1 and S2.
Light waves emitted from S1 and S2 reach point O on the screen after travelling equal distances. So
path difference and hence phase difference between these waves is zero. Therefore, they meet at
O in phase and hence constructive interference
takes place at O. Thus O is the position of the central bright fringe.

Let the waves emitted by S1 and S2 meet at point P and the screen at a distance y from the central
bright fringe.
The path difference between these waves at P is given by

74
For constructive interference/maxima:

If path difference is an integral multiple of λ, then bright fringe will be formed at P

75
…where [m = 1, 2, 3 …
which is the position of mth bright fringe from the central bright fringe.
Fringe width (β) : The distance between any two successive bright fringes (or successive fringes) is
called fringe width.
13. Answer:
Unpolarized light: A light which has vibrations in all directions in a plane perpendicular to the
direction of propagation is said to be unpolarized light.
When unpolarised light is incident on the boundary of two transparent media, the reflected light is
polarised with electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence when the refracted and
reflected rays make a right angle with each other.
Relation between Brewster angle i and refractive index (µ) is :
14. Answer:
(a) Linearly polarised light : Linearly or plane polarised light is that light in which vibrations of electric
field vector are taking place only in one particular plane perpendicular to the direction of propagation
of light wave. Sun-light is unpolarised light having electric field vector oscillating in all planes, when
it passes through a polariser which can be a nicol prism or tourmaline crystal, only those vibrations
of light pass through crystal which are parallel to axis of polarizer and hence we get a plane
polarised light having vibrations in one plane. Plane polarized light can be observed by using
analyzer.

76
(b) When the polaroid is rotated, the intensity of the transmitted light changes. When the angle of
rotation is 45°, the intensity become I0/2. When the polaroid is further rotated and at an angle of 90°,
the intensity is minimum. Thus the intensity of polarised light changes with the angle of rotation of
polaroid. It is shown graphically.


77
Chapter 11 – Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
1 Mark Questions
1. The stopping potential in an experiment on photoelectric effect is 1.5 V. What is the maximum
kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted? (All India 2008)
2. Show graphically, the variation of the de- Broglie wavelength (λ) with the potential (V) through
which an electron is accelerated from rest.
3. Define the term ‘stopping potential’ in relation to photoelectric effect. (All India 2011)
4. A proton and an electron have same kinetic energy. Which one has greater de-Broglie
wavelength and why? (All India 2011)
5. Why is photoelectric emission not possible at all frequencies? (Comptt. All India 2011)
2 Mark Questions
6. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 100 volts. What is the de-Broglie
wavelength associated with it? To which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does this value of
wavelength correspond? (Delhi 2010)
7. Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation. State clearly the three salient features observed in
photoelectric effect, which can be explained on the basis of the above equation. (All India 2010)
8. i) Define the term ‘threshold frequency’ as used in photoelectric effect.
(ii) Plot a graph showing the variation of photoelectric current as a function of anode potential for
two light beams having the same frequency but different intensities I1 and I2 (I1 > I2). (Comptt. All
India 2010)
9. Calculate the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron orbitting in the n = 2 state of hydrogen atom.
(All India 2015)
10. Derive the Bohr’s quantisation condition for angular momentum of the orbitting of electron in
hydrogen atom, using de Broglie’s hypothesis. (Comptt. All India 2015)
3 Mark Questions
11. Calculate the kinetic energy of an electron having de Broglie wavelength of 1Å. (Comptt. All
India 2015)
12. Draw a plot showing the variation of photoelectric current with collector plate potential for two
different frequencies, v1 > v2, of incident radiation having the same intensity. In which case will the
stopping potential be higher? Justify your answer. (All India 2011)
13. a) Why photoelectric effect cannot be explained on the basis of wave nature of light? Give
reasons.
(b) Write the basic features of photon picture of electromagnetic radiation on which Einstein’s
photoelectric equation is based. (Delhi 2013)
14. Using photon picture of light, show how Einstein’s photoelectric equation can be established.
Write two features of photoelectric effect which cannot be explained by wave theory. (All India 2017)
15. The photon emitted during the de-excitation from the 1st excited level to the ground state of
hydrogen atom is used to irradiate a photo cathode of a photocell, in which stopping potential of 5 V
is used. Calculate the work function of the cathode used. (Comptt. All India 2017)

1. Answer:
78
K.E. of the electron e– = 1.5 eV
2.
3. Answer:
The value of the retarding potential at which the photo electric current becomes zero is called cut off
or stopping potential for the given frequency of the incident radiation.
4.
5. Answer:
Photoelectric emission is possible only if the energy of the incident photon (hv) is greater than the
work function (ω0 = hv0) of the metal. Hence the frequency v of the incident radiation must be
greater than the threshold frequency v0.
6. Answer:
Given : V = 100 V
According to de-Broglie ivavelength
The value of de-Broglie wavelength is 0.123 nm which corresponds to the wavelength of X-rays
region of the electromagnetic spectrum.

7. Answer:
79
Einstein’s photoelectric equation is Kmax = hv – ϕ0
(i) We find Kmax depends linearly on V only. It is independent of intensity of radiation.
(iii) Greater the number of energy quanta, greater is the number of photoelectrons. So, photoelectric
current is proportional to intensity.
8. Answer:
(i) Threshold frequency. The minimum frequency v0 which the incident light must possess so as to
eject photoelectrons from a metal surface, is called threshold frequency of the metal.
9. Answer:
Given : n = 2 of hydrogen atom X = ?
Kinetic energy for the second state,

80
10.
11.
12. Answer:
Stopping potential is directly proportional to the frequency of incident radiation. The stopping
potential is more negative for higher frequencies of incident radiation. Therefore, stopping potential

is higher in v1.
81
13. (a) (i) The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electron should be directly proportional to the
intensity of incident radiations but it is not observed experimentally. Also maximum kinetic energy of
the emitted electrons should not depend upon incident frequency according to wave theory, but it is
not so.
(ii) According to wave theory, threshold frequency should not exist. Light of all frequencies should
emit electrons provided intensity of light is sufficient for electrons to eject.
(iii) According to wave theory, photoelectric effect should not be instantaneous. Energy of wave
cannot be transferred to a particular electron but will be distributed to all the electrons present in the
illuminated portion. Hence, there has to be a time lag between incidence of radiation and emission
of electrons.
(b) Basic features of photon picture of electromagnetic radiation :

(i) Radiation behaves as if it is made of particles like photons. Each photon has energy E = hv and
momentum p = h/λ.
(ii) Intensity of radiation can be understood in terms of number of photons falling per second on the
surface. Photon energy depends only on frequency and is independent of intensity.
14. Answer:
1st part :
This is Einstein’s photoelectric equation. Photoelectric emission is the result of interaction of two
particles—one a photon of incident radiation and other an electron of photo sensitive metal. The
free electrons are bound within the metal due to restraining forces on the surface. The minimum
energy required to liberate an electron from the metal surface is called work function ϕ0 of the metal.
Each photon interacts with one electron. The energy hv of the incident photon is used up in two
parts:
(a) a part of the energy of the photon is used in liberating the electron from the metal surface, which
is equal to the work function ϕ0 of the metal and
(b) the remaining energy of the photon is used in imparting K.E. of the ejected electron.
By the conservation of energy Energy of the inefficient photon = maximum K.E. of photoelectron +
Work function

15. Answer:
82


83
Chapter 12 – Aldehydes. Ketones and Carboxylic acids
1 Mark Questions
1. What is Tollen’s reagent? Write one usefulness of this reagent. (All India 2010)
2. Draw the structure of 4-chloropentan-2-one. (All India 2011)
3. Give a chemical test to distinguish between Benzoic acid and Phenol. (Comptt. Delhi 2012)
4. Give a chemical test to distinguish between Ethanal and Propanal. (Comptt. Delhi 2012)
5. Formaldehyde does not take part in Aldol condensation. Why ? (Comptt. All India 2012)
2 Mark Questions
6. Give the structure and IUPAC name of the product formed when propanone is reacted with
methylmagnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis. (Comptt. All India 2012)
7. Give a chemical test to distinguish between benzoic acid and phenol. (Comptt. Delhi 2013)
8. Give a test to distinguish between propan-2-one and pentan-3-one. (Comptt. All India 2014)
9. Name the reagents used in the following reactions : (Delhi 2015)
10. Write the equations involved in the following reactions:

(i) Wolff-Kishner reduction
(ii) Etard reaction (Delhi 2017)
3 Mark Questions
11. Write the reactions involved in the following reactions: (Delhi 2017)
(i) Clemmensen reduction
(ii) Cannizzaro reaction
12. Predict the products of the following reactions : (All India 2015)
13. Write structures of compounds A, B and C in each of the following reactions: (Delhi 2017)
14.. How will you bring about the following conversions :

(i) Ethanol to 3-hydroxybutanal (ii) Benzaldehyde to Benzophenone
15. Explain the mechanism of a nucleophilic attack on the carbonyl group of an aldehyde or a
ketone.

1. Answer:
84
Ammonical silver nitrate solution is called Tollen’s reagent.
Uses: It is used to test aldehydes. Both aliphatic and aromatic aldehydes reduce Tollen’s reagent to
shining silver mirror. It is also used to distinguish aldehydes from ketones.
2. Answer:
3. Answer:
Benzoic acid forms a brisk effervescence with NaHCO3 solution but phenol does not respond to this
test.
4. Answer:
Ethanal on heating with I2 in NaOH gives a yellow ppt of iodoform but propanal does not respond to
this test.
5. Answer:
Formaldehyde does not contain a-hydrogen atom. Therefore it does not take part in aldol
condensation.
6.
7. Answer:
On addition of NaHCO3 to both solutions carbon dioxide gas is evolved with benzoic acid while
phenol does not form CO2

8. Answer:
85
Propan-2-one and pentan-3-one can be distinguished by Iodoform test.
9. Answer:
(i) LiAlH4 (Lithium Aluminium Hydride)
(ii) KMnO4 (Alkaline Potassium Permanganate)
10. Answer:
(i) Wolff-Kishner reduction
(ii) Etard reaction
11. Answer:
(i) Clemmensen reduction. The carbonyl group of aldehyde and ketones is reduced to CH 2 group on
treatment with zinc amalgam and concentrated hydrochloric acid.
(ii) Cannizzaro reaction. Aldehydes, which do not have an a-hydrogen atom undergo self oxidation
and reduction on treatment with cone, alkali and produce alcohol and carboxylic acid salt.

12. Answer:
86
13. Answer:
14. Answer:
(a) (i) Ethanol to 3-hydroxybutanal :
15. Mechanism of a nucleophilic attack on the carbonyl group
is a polar group in which carbon acquires positive charge and O acquires

negative charge due to more electronegativity of oxygen. The Nu~ attacks on carbon and forms a
tetrahedral intermediate and then electrophile attacks on oxygen and forms a compound.


87
Chapter 13 – Amines
1 Mark Questions
1. Why is an alkylamine more basic than ammonia? (Delhi 2009)
2. Give a chemical test to distinguish between ethylamine and aniline. (All India 2011)
3. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of their basic strength in aqueous solutions:
CH3NH2, (CH3)2 NH, (CH3)3N and NH3 (Delhi 2012)
4. Write the structure of n-methylethanamine. (All India 2013)
5. Write the IUPAC name of the following compound: CH3NHCH(CH3)2 (Comptt. All India 2017)
2 Mark Questions
6. Identify A and B in each of the following processes : (All India 20100
7. Describe the following giving the relevant chemical equation in each case :
(i) Carbylamine reaction
(ii) Hofmann’s bromamide reaction (All India 2012)
8. Complete the following reaction equations : (All India 2012)
(i) C6H5N2Cl + H3PO2 + H2O →
(ii) C6H5NH2 + Br2 (aq) →
9. Illustrate the following reactions :
(a) Sandmeyer’s reaction
(b) Coupling reaction (Comptt. All India 2012)
10. Give reasons :
(a) Aniline is a weaker base than cyclohexyl amine.
(b) It is difficult to prepare pure amines by ammonolysis of alkyl halides. (Comptt. All India 2013)
3 Mark Questions
11. Complete the following reaction equations :
(i) C6H5Cl + CH3COCl →
(ii) C2H5NH2 + C6H5SO2Cl →
(iii) C2H5NH2 + HNO2 →
12. (a) Explain why an alkylamine is more basic than ammonia?
(b) How would you convert
(i) Aniline to nitrobenzene (ii) Aniline to iodobenzene (Delhi 2011)
13. Account for the following :
(i) Primary amines (R-NH2) have higher boiling point than tertiary amines (R3N).
(ii) Aniline does not undergo Friedel – Crafts reaction.
(iii) (CH3)2NH is more basic than (CH3)3N in an aqueous solution. (All India 2014)
14. Give reasons for the following:
(a) Acetylation of aniline reduces its activation effect.
(b) CH3NH2 is more basic than C6H5NH2.
(c) Although —NH2 is o/p directing group, yet aniline on nitration gives a significant amount of m-
nitroaniline. (All India 2017)

88
1. Answer:
Due to electron releasing inductive effect (+1) of alkyl group, the electron density on the nitrogen
atom increases and thus, it can donate the lone pair of electrons more easily than ammonia.
2. Answer:
Ethylamine and aniline :
By Azo dye test: It involves the reaction of any aromatic primary amine with HNO 2(NaNO2 + dil. HCl)
at 273-278 K followed by treatment with an alkaline solution of 2-naphthol when a brilliant yellow,
orange or red coloured dye is obtained.
3. Answer:
(CH3)2 NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3 N > NH3
4. Answer:
Structure of n-methylethanamine :
H3C—H2C—NH—CH2
5. Answer:
IUPAC name: N-Methylpropan-2-amine
6. Answer:
7. Answer:
(i) Carbylamine reaction : Aliphatic and aromatic primary amines on heating with chloroform and
ethanolic KOH form isocyanides or carbylamines which are foul smelling substances. This reaction
is known as carbylamines reaction.
(ii) Hofmann’s bromamide reaction : Primary amines can be prepared by treating an amide with Br2
in an aqueous or alcoholic soln of NaOH.

8. Answer:
89
9. Answer:
(a) Sandmeyer’s reaction : Aniline reacts with NaNO2 in HCl at 273 – 278 K giving diazonium salt
which further reacts with cuprous chloride/bromide to give chloro or bromo benzene.
This reaction is Sandmeyer’s reaction.

(b) Coupling reaction : Arene diazonium salts react with highly reactive aromatic compounds such
as phenols and amines to form brightly coloured azo compounds.
Ar – N = N – Ar. This reaction is known as coupling reaction.
10. Answer:
(a) In aniline, the lone pair of electrons on the N-atom is delocalised over the benzene ring. As a
result, the
electron density on the nitrogen decreases.
But in cyclohexylamine, the lone pair of electrons on N-atom is readily available due to absence of
π-electrons. Hence aniline is weaker base than cyclohexylamine.
(b) Because the primary amine formed by ammonolysis itself acts as a nucleophile and produces
further 2° and 3° alkyl amine.

11. Answer:
90
12. Answer:
(a) Due to electron releasing inductive effect (+1) of alkyl group, the electron density on the nitrogen
atom increases and thus, it can donate the lone pair of electrons more easily than ammonia.
(b) (i) Aniline to nitrobenzene
13. Answer:
(i) Due to presence of two H-atoms on N-atom of primary amines, they undergo extensive
intermolecular H-bonding while tertiary amines due to the absence of a H-atom on the N-atom, do
not undergo H- bonding. As a result, primary amines have higher boiling points than 3° amines.
(ii) Aniline being a Lewis base reacts with Lewis acid AlCl3 to form a salt.
As a result, N of aniline acquires positive charge and hence it acts as a strong deactivating group
for electrophilic substitution reaction. Consequently, aniline does not undergo Freidel Craft reaction.
(iii) Due to more steric hindrance in (CH3)3N it is less basic than (CH3)2NH.
14. Answer:
(i) Acetylation of aniline reduces its activation effect because acetyl group being electron

withdrawing group attracts the lone pair of electrons of the N-atom towards carboxyl group and the
91
lone pair of . electrons on N is less available for donation to benzene ring by resonance.
(ii) CH3NH2 is more basic than aniline due to availability of lone pair of electrons for donation while in
aniline lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom is delocalised over benzene ring and thus
unavailable for donation.
(iii) Because of nitration in an acidic medium, aniline gets protonated to give anilinium ion which is
indirecting.


92
Chapter 12 – Atoms
1 Mark Questions
1. Define ionisation energy. What is its value for a hydrogen atom? (All India 2010)
2. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What are the kinetic and potential
energies of electron in this state? (All India)
3. What is the maximum number of spectral lines emitted by a hydrogen atom when it is in the third
excited state? (Comptt. All India 2012)
4. Why is the classical (Rutherford) model for an atom—of electron orbitting around the nucleus—
not able to explain the atomic structure? (All India 2012)
2 Mark Questions
5. Using Bohr’s postulates of the atomic model, derive the expression for radius of nth electron orbit.
Hence obtain the expression for Bohr’s radius. (All India 2012)
6. Show that the radius of the orbit in hydrogen atom varies as n 2, where n is the principal quantum
number of the atom. (Delhi 2012)
7. Calculate the shortest wavelength of the spectral lines emitted in Balmer series.
[Given Rydberg constant, R = 107 m-1] (All India 2016)
8. Find the ratio between the wavelengths of the ‘most energetic’ spectral lines in the Balmer and
Paschen series of the hydrogen spectrum. (Comptt. All India 2016)
9. A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to excite a gaseous hydrogen atom at room temperature.
Determine the wavelengths and the corresponding series of the lines emitted. (All India 2016)
10. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. If an electron makes a transition from an
energy level -1.51 eV to -3.4 eV, calculate the wavelength of the spectral line emitted and name the
series of hydrogen spectrum to which it belongs. (All India 2016)
4 Mark Questions
11. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV.
(i) What is the kinetic energy of an electron in the 2nd excited
state?
(ii) If the electron jumps to the ground state from the 2 nd excited
state, calculate the wavelength of the spectral line emitted. (All
India 2008)
12. (i) State Bohr’s quantization condition for defining stationary
orbits. How does de-Broglie hypothesis explain the stationary
orbits?
(ii) Find the relation between the three wave-lengths λ1, λ2 and λ3 from the energy level diagram
shown below: (Delhi 2016)
13. Using Bohr’s postulates, derive the expression for the total energy of the electron revolving in n th
orbit of hydrogen atom.
14. Draw a schematic arrangement of the Geiger-Marsden experiment. How did the scattering of α-
particles by a thin foil of gold provide an important way to determine an upper limit on the size of the
nucleus? Explain briefly.(All India 2009)

1. Answer:
93
Ionisation energy : The energy required to knock out an electron from an atom is called ionisation
energy of the atom.
For hydrogen atom it is 13.6 eV.
2. Answer:
Kinetic energy, Ke = + T.E. = 13.6 eV
Potential energy, Pe = 2 T.E. = 2 (-13.6) = – 27.2 eV
3. Answer:
For third excited state, n2 = 4, and n1 = 3, 2, 1 Hence there are 3 spectral lines.
4. Answer:
As the revolving electron loses energy continuously, it must spiral inwards and eventually fall into
the nucleus. So it was not able to explain the atomic structure.
5. Answer:
Basic postulates of Bohr’s atomic model:
(i) Every atom consists of a central core called nucleus in which entire positive charge and mass of
the atom are concentrated. A suitable number of electrons revolve around the nucleus in circular
orbit. The centripetal force required for revolution is provided by the electrostatic force of attraction
between the electron and the nucleus.
(ii) Electron can resolve only in certain discrete non-radiating orbits, called stationary orbit. Total
angular momentum of the revolving electron in an integral multiple of h/2π.
… where [h is plank constant]
(iii) The radiation of energy occurs only when an electron jumps from one permitted orbit to another.
The difference in the total energy of electron in the two permitted orbit is absorbed when the
electron jumps from inner to the outer orbit and emitted when electron jumps from outer to inner
orbit.
6. Answer:
When an electron moves around hydrogen nucleus, the electrostatic force between electron and
hydrogen nucleus provides necessary centrepetal force.

Also we know from Bohr’s postulate,

94
7. Answer:
8. Answer:

9. Answer:
95
10. Answer:

11. Answer:
96
12.
12. Answer:

13. Answer:
97
For total energy of the electron orbiting in nth orbit :
Total energy of electron in Bohr’s stationary orbit K.E. which is due to velocity and P.E. due to
position of electron
From the first postulate of Bohr’s atom modal

14. Answer:
98
(i) Beam of α-particles get deviated at various angles with different probabilities.
(ii) α-particles with least impact parameter suffers larger scattering – rebounding on head on
collision.
(iii) For larger impact parameter, the particle remains almost undeviated.
Explanation:
The fact that the number of incident particles rebounding back is only a small of fraction, means that
numer of α-particles headon collision is small. This implies that the entire positive charge of the
atom is concentrated in a small volume. This confirms that the nucleus of the atom has an apper
size limit.


99
Chapter 13 – Nuclei
1 Mark Questions
1. An electron and alpha particle have the same de-Broglie wavelength associated with them. How
are their kinetic energies related to each other?
2. State two characteristic properties of nuclear force. (All India 2008)
3. Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 8:125. What is the ratio of their nuclear radii? (All
India 2009)
4. What is the relationship between decay constant and mean life of a radioactive nucleus? (Comptt
All India 2009)
5. Define the activity of a given radioactive substance. Write its S.I. unit. (All India 2012)
2 Mark Questions
6. Draw a plot of potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation. Write two
important conclusions which you can draw regarding the nature of nuclear forces. (All India 2016)
7. Using the curve for the binding energy per nucleon as a function of mass number A, state clearly
how the release of energy in the processes of nuclear fission and nuclear fusion can be explained.
(All India 2011)
8. Two radioactive samples, X, Y have the same number of atoms at t = 0. Their half lives are 3h
and 4h respectively. Compare the rates of disintegration of the two nuclei after 12 hours. (Comptt All
India 2017)
9. Distinguish between nuclear fission and fusion. Explain how the energy is released in both the
processes. (Comptt. All India 2017)
10. Why is the binding energy per nucleon found to be constant for nuclei in the range of mass
number (A) lying between 30 and 170?
4 Mark Questions
11. The number of nuclei of a given radioactive sample at time t = 0 and t = T are N 0 and N0/n
respectively. Obtain an expression for the half-life (T1/2) of the nucleus in terms of n and T.
12. (i) Define the term ‘mass defect’ of a nucleus. How is it
related with its binding energy?
(ii) Determine the Q-value of the following reaction:
13. Complete the following nuclear reactions :
14. (a) Write the basic nuclear process involved in the emission of β + in a symbolic form, by a
radioactive nucleus. (b) In the reactions given below :
Find the values of x, y, and z and a, b and c. (All India 2017)

100
1.
2. Answer:
(i) Nuclear forces are the strongest force in nature.
(ii) They are saturated forces.
(iii) They are charge independent.
3. Answer:
4. Answer:
Relationship between decay constant and mean life of a radioactive nucleus is
5. Answer:
The activity of a radioactive substance is defined as the rate of disintegration of the substance. The
SI unit for activity is becquerel (Bq).
6. Answer:
Two important conclusions :
(i) Nuclear force between two nucleons falls rapidly to zero as their distance is more than a few
femtometres. This explains constancy of the binding energy per nucleon for large-size nucleus.

101
(ii) Graph explains that force is attractive for distances larger than 0.8 fin and repulsive for distances
less than 0.8 fm.
7. Answer:
1. Nuclear fission : Binding energy per nucleon is
smaller for heavier nuclei than the middle ones
i.e. heavier nuclei are less stable. When a heavier
nucleus splits into the lighter nuclei, the
B.E./nucleon changes (increases) from about 7.6
MeV to 8.4 MeV. Greater binding energy of the
product nuclei results in the liberation of energy.
This is what happens in nuclear fission which is
the basis of the atom bomb.
2. Nuclear fusion : The binding energy per nucleon is small for light nuclei, i.e., they are less stable.
So when two light nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus, the higher binding energy per nucleon
of the latter results in the release of energy.
8. Answer:

9. Answer:
102
In nuclear fission a heavy nucleus breaks up into smaller nuclei accompanied by release of energy;
whereas in nuclear fusion two light nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus accompanied by
release of energy.
In both the cases, some mass (= mass defect) gets converted into energy as per the relation :
10. Nuclear forces are short ranged. For a particular nucleon inside a sufficiently large nucleus will
be under the influence of some of its neighbours which come within the range of the nuclear force.
The property that a given nucleon influences only nucleons close to it is also referred to as
saturation property of the nuclear force.
11.
12. Answer:
(i) (a) The mass defect of a nucleus equals the difference between the total mass of its constituents
and the mass of the nucleus itself.

13.
103
14. Answer:


104
Chapter 14 – Biomolecules
1 Mark Questions
1. What is meant by ‘reducing sugars’? (All India 2010)

2. What are monosaccharides? (All India 2010)
3. Write the structure of the product obtained when glucose is oxidised with nitric acid. (All India
2012)
4. What is a glycosidic linkage? (Delhi 2013)
5. What are the products of hydrolysis of sucrose? (All India 2013)
2 Mark Questions
6. Name the four bases present in DNA. Which one of these is not present in RNA? (All India 2009)
7. What are essential and non-essential amino acids in human food? Give one example of each
type.(Delhi 2009)
8. Write such reactions and facts about glucose which cannot be explained by its open chain
structure. (All India 2009)
9. Write down the structures and names of the products formed when D-glucose is treated with
(i) Hydroxylamine
(ii) Acetic anhydride. (Comptt. All India 2012)
10. (a) Name the only vitamin which can be synthesized in our body. Name one disease that is
caused due to the deficiency of this vitamin.
(b) State two functions of carbohydrates. (Comptt. All India 2012)
3 Mark Questions
11. Amino acids may be acidic, alkaline or neutral. How does this happen? What are essential and
non-essential amino acids? Name one of each type. (All India 2010)
12. Differentiate between fibrous proteins and globular proteins. What is meant by the denaturation
of a protein? (All India 2010)
13. What is essentially the difference between a-glucose and P-glucose? What is meant by
pyranose structure of glucose? (All India 2012)
14. What are the different types of RNA found in cells of organisms ? State the functions of each
type. (Comptt. Delhi 2012)
15. Define the following terms :
(i) Glycosidic linkage
(ii) Invert sugar
(iii) Oligosaccharides (All India 2014)

105
1. Answer:
Reducing sugar contains aldehydic or ketonic group in the hemiacetal and hemiketal forms and can
reduce Tollen’s reagent or Fehlmg’s solution.
2. Answer:
These are the simplest carbohydrates which cannot be hydrolysed to smaller molecules. Their
general formula is (CH2O)n where n = 3 – 7
Example : glucose, fructose etc.
3. Answer:
4. Answer:
The two monosaccharide units are joined together through an etheral or oxide linkage formed by
loss of a molecule of water. Such a linkage between two monosaccharide units through oxygen
atom is called glycosidic linkage.
5. Answer:
Invert sugar: An equimolar mixture of glucose and fructose is obtained by hydrolysis of sucrose in
presence of an acid such as dil. HC1 or the enzyme invertase or sucrase and is called invert sugar.
6. The four bases present in DNA are :

(i) Adenine (A)
(ii) Guanine (G)
(iii) Cytosine (C)
(iv) Thymine (T)
In RNA, Thymine (T) is absent. It has Uracil (U) in place of Thymine.
7. Answer:
Essential amino acids : Amino acids which the body cannot synthesize are called essential amino
acids.
Example : Valine, leucine etc. Therefore they must be supplied in diet.
Non-essential amino acids : Amino acids which the body can synthesize are called non-essential
amino acids. Therefore, they may or may not be present in diet.
Example : Glycine, alanine etc.
8. Answer:
Limitations of the open chain structure of glucose :

1. Glucose does not form NaHSO3 addition product. Despite having aldehyde-ammonia group, it
does not respond to 2,4-DNP test and does not respond to Schiff’s reagent test. 106
2. Glucose penta acetate does not react with NH2OH due to absence of aldehydic group.
9. Answer:
(i) D-glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form oxime.
(ii) D-glucose reacts with acetic anhydride to give penta-acetate.
10. (a) Vitamin that can be synthesized ‘.Vitamin B12

Disease due to the deficiency of Vitamin B12 : Pernicious anaemia.
(b) Two functions of glucose :
1. Carbohydrates such as glucose, starch, glycogen etc. provide energy for functioning of living
organisms.
2. Carbohydrates, especially cellulose in the form of wood is used for making furniture, houses
etc. by us.
11. Answer:
Amino acids can be broadly classified into three classes i.e. acidic, alkaline and neutral amino acids
depending on the number of —NH2 group and — COOH group.
Acidic amino acids : Those a-amino acids such as aspartic acid, asparagine and glutamic acid
which contain two -COOH groups and one -NH2 group are called acidic amino acids.
Alkaline or Basic amino acids : Those a-amino acids such as lysine, arginine and histidine which
contain two -NH2 groups and one -COOH group, are called basic amino acids.
Neutral amino acids : Those a-amino acids such as glycine, alanine, valine etc. which contain one -
NH2 and one – COOH group, are called neutral amino acids.

Essential amino acids : Amino acids which the body cannot synthesize are called essential amino
107
acids.
Example : Valine, leucine etc. Therefore they must be supplied in diet.
12.
Globular Proteins Fibrous Proteins
1. Polypeptide chains of fibrous proteins consist

1. Globular proteins have almost spheroidal
of thread like molecules which tend to lie side by
shape due to folding of the polypeptide chain.
side to form fibres.
2. Globular proteins are soluble in water. 2. Fibrous proteins are insoluble in water.
3. Globular proteins are sensitive to small
changes of temperature and pH. Therefore they 3. Fibrous proteins are stable to moderate
undergo denaturation on heating or on treatment changes of temperature and pH.
with acids/bases
4. They do not have any biological activity but

4. They possess biological activity that’s why
serve as chief structural material of animal
they act as enzymes.
tissues.
Example: Maltase, invertase etc., hormones

Example: Keratin in skin, hair, nails and wool,
(insulin) antibodies, transport agents
collagen in tendons, fibroin in silk etc.
(haemoglobin), etc.

13. Answer:
108
The two cyclic hemiacetal forms of glucose differ only in the configuration of the hydroxyl group on
the first carbon atom called anomeric carbon. Such isomers i.e, α-form and β-form are called
anomers. a-glucose is the monomer unit of starch and P-glucose is the monomer unit of cellulose.
The six membered cyclic structure of glucose is called pyranose structure.
Pyranose structure of glucose : The six membered ring containing 5 carbon atoms and one oxygen
atom because of its resemblance with pyron is called the pyranose form.
14. Answer:
Different types of RNA found in the cell are :
1. Messenger RNA (mRNA): carries the message of DNA for specific protein synthesis.
2. Ribosotnal RNA (rRNA) : provides the site for protein synthesis.
3. Transfer RNA (t-RNA): transfers amino acids to the site of protein synthesis.
15. Answer:
(i) Glycosidic linkage : The two monosaccharide units are joined together through an etheral or
oxide
linkage formed by loss of a molecule of water. Such a linkage between two monosaccharide units
through oxygen atom is called glycosidic linkage
(ii) Invert sugar : An equimolar mixture of glucose and fructose obtained by hydrolysis of sucrose in
presence of an acid such as dil. HC1 or the enzyme invertase or sucrase is called invert sugar.
(iii) Oligosaccharides : Those carbohydrates which on hydrolysis give 2-10 molecules of

monosaccharides are called oligosaccharides.
Example : sucrose, maltose.

109
Chapter 15 – Polymers
1 Mark Questions
1. Give an example of elastomers. (Delhi, All India 2009)

2. What does the part ‘6, 6’ mean in the name nylon-6, 6? (Delhi, All India 2009)
3. What is meant by ‘copolymerisation’? (All India 2010)
4. Give one example of a condensation polymer. (All India 2013)
5. Which of the following is a natural polymer?
Buna-S, Proteins, PVC (All India 2014)
2 Mark Questions
6. Draw the structures of the monomers of the following polymers : (Delhi 2009)
(i) Teflon
(ii) Polyethene
7. Differentiate between molecular structures and behaviours of thermoplastic and thermosetting
polymers. Give one example of each type. (All India 2009)
8. Differentiate between condensation and addition polymerisations. Give one example each of the
resulting polymers. (All India 2009)
9. Draw the molecular structures of the monomers of
(i) PVC
(ii) Teflon (All India 2010)
10. Draw the structures of the monomers of the following polymers : (All India 2010)
(i) Bakelite
(ii) Nylon-6
3 Mark Questions
11. Write the name and structure of the monomer of each of the following polymers :
(i) Neoprene
(ii) Buna-S
(iii) Teflon (Delhi 2013)
12. Write the names and structures of the monomers of the following polymers: (Delhi 2013)
(i) Polystyrene
(ii) Dacron
(iii) Teflon
13. a) Differentiate between chain growth and step growth polymerization.
(b) What is the function of sulphur in the vulcanization of rubber? (Comptt. Delhi 2013)
14. (a) Distinguish between homopolymers and copolymers. Give one example of each.
(b) What are biodegradable polymers? Give one example. (Comptt. All India 2013)
15. Write two uses of each of the following polymers.
(i) Polypropylene
(ii) PVC (iii) Nylon-66 (Comptt. Delhi & All India 2016)

1. Answer:
110
Buna-S, Buna-N.
2. Answer:
Nylon ‘6,6’ implies that it is a condensation polymer of two types of monomer molecules each
containing six carbon atoms i.e. adipic acid (HOOC (CH2)4 COOH) and hexamethylenediamine (H2N
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 NH2)
3.. Answer:
When two or more different monomers are allowed to polymerize together, the product formed is
called a copolymer and the process is called copolymerisation.
4. Answer:
Example : Nylon 6,6
5. Answer:
Protein is a natural polymer.
6. Answer:
7.

8. Answer:
111
Condensation polymerisation : In this, two or more bifunctional molecules undergo a series of
independent condensation reactions with the elimination of simple molecules like H2O, alcohol, NH3,
CO2, HCl etc. to form a macromolecule.
Example : Formation of nylon 6, 6
Addition polymerisation : In this, the molecules of the same or different monomers simply add on
one another to form macromolecule. These molecules occur among molecules containing double
and triple bonds.
Example : Formation of polyethene
9. Answer:
(ii)
10. Answer:
(i) Bakelite : Phenol and formaldehyde ➝ Condensation polymer.

(ii) Nylon-6 : The monomeric repeating unit of Nylon-6 is

112
11. Answer:
12. Answer:
13. Answer:
(a) Chain growth polymerization involves successive addition of monomer units to the growing chain
carrying a reactive intermediate such as a free radical, a carbocation or a carbanion.
Example : Polyethene, Teflon, PAN etc.
In step growth or condensation polymerization, the polymer is formed in a stepwise manner with the
loss of simple molecules like HzO, alcohol etc.
Example : Polyamides like Nylon 6,6, Polyesters etc.
(b) Sulphur introduces sulphur bridges or cross-links between polymer chains thereby imparting
more tensile strength, elasticity and resistance to abrasion.

14. Answer:
113
(a) Homopolymers : Polymers whose repeating structural units are derived from only one type of
monomer units are called homopolymers. Example : Polyethene, PVC, teflon.
Copolymers : Polymers whose repeating

structural units are derived from two or more types of monomer molecules are copolymers.
Example : Buna-S, Nylon 6, 6
(b) Biodegradable polymers : All those biopolymers which disintegrate by themselves in biological
systems during certain period of time by enzymatic hydrolysis are called biodegradable polymers.
Example : Poly-p-Hydroxybutyrate-Co-p-Hydro- xyvalerate (PHBV)
Uses : These are used
• in packaging
• in orthopaedic devices
• in controlled drug release
• in bacterial degradation
15. Answer:
(i) Polypropylene : Manufacture of ropes, toys, pipes etc.
(ii) PVC : Manufacture of raincoats, handbags, vinyl flooring, water pipes etc.
(iii) Nylon-66 : Manufacture of sheets, bristles from brushes, textiles etc.


114
Chapter 15 – Chemistry in Everyday Life
1 Mark Questions
1. What are limited spectrum antibiotics? Give one example. (Comptt. Delhi 2012)
2. What are food preservatives? Name two such substances. (All India 2012)
3. Why do we require artificial sweetening agents? (Comptt. All India 2012)
4. Name the important by-products of soap industry. (Comptt. Delhi 2012)
2 Mark Questions
5. Explain the following terms with suitable examples :

(a) Cationic detergents
(b) Anionic detergents (Comptt. Delhi 2013)
6. What are analgesic medicines? How are they classified and when are they commonly
recommended for use? (Delhi 2010)
7. Explain the following terms with one example in each case :

(i) Food preservatives
(ii) Enzymes
8. Answer the following questions :
(i) Why do soaps not work in hard water?
(ii) What are the main constituents of dettol?
3 Mark Questions
9. What are the following substances? Give one example of each type.
(i) Antacid
(ii) Non-ionic detergents
(iii) Antiseptics (All India 2008)
10. What are the following substances? Give one example of each one of them. (Delhi 2012)
(i) Tranquilizers
(ii) Food preservatives
11. (a) Which one of the following is a food preservative?
Equanil, Morphine, Sodium benzoate
(b) Why is bithional added to soap?
(c) Which class of drugs is used in sleeping pills? (Delhi 2013)
12. What are biodegradable and non-biodegradable detergents? Give one example of each.
(Comptt. Delhi 2014)

1. Answer:
Those antibiotics which are specific for certain diseases are called limited spectrum antibiotics. 115
Example: Streptomycin for tuberculosis.
2. Answer:
Food preservatives : Food preservatives are the compounds which prevent spoilage of food due to
microbial growth.
Two substances : Example : Sodium benzoate, vinegar.
3. Answer:
To reduce calorie intake and to protect teeth from decaying, we need artificial sweetners.
4. Answer:
Glycerol is the important by-product of soap industry.
5. Answer:
(a) Cationic detergents :
(i) Cationic detergents : They are quaternary ammonium salts of amines with acetates, chlorides or
bromides as anions and the cationic part possess a long hydrocarbon chain, and a positive charge
on nitrogen atom. Therefore they are called cationic detergents.
(b) Anionic detergents : Those detergents in which large part of their molecules are anions and used
in cleansing action, are called anionic detergents.
Example : Sodium alkyl sulphates These are obtained from long straight chain alcohols containing
12-18 carbon atoms by treatment with cone. H2S04 followed by neutralization with NaOH.
Example : Sodium lauryl sulphate.
6. Answer:
Analgesic medicine : Drugs which reduce or abolish pain without causing reduction of
consciousness, mental confusion, incoordination or paralysis or some other disorder of the nervous
system are called analgesic medicines.
They are classified into the following two categories :
(i) Non-narcotic (non-addictive) drugs Example : Aspirin, Ibuprofen

(ii) Narcotic (addictive) drugs Example : Morphine, Heroin.

116
They are recommended with proper prescription because they are habit forming drugs.
7. Answer:
(i) Food preservatives : They are used to prevent spoilage of food due to microbial growth.
Example : Table salt, vegetable oils, sodium benzoate etc.
(ii) Enzymes : The enzymes may be defined as bio-catalysts which catalyse the bio-chemical
reactions in the living organisms.
Example : Pepsin and Amylase.
8. Answer:
(i) Hard water contains insoluble calcium and magnesium chlorides which forms insoluble
precipitate (scum) with soap and thus cannot be rinsed off easily.
(ii) Dettol is mixture of chloroxylenol and α-terpineol in a suitable solvent.
9. Answer:
(i) Antacid : Those substances which neutralize the excess acid and raise the pH to an appropriate
level in stomach are called antacids.
Example : Sodium bicarbonate, Mg(OH)2
(ii) Non-ionic detergents : These are esters of high molecular mass alcohols obtained by reaction
between polyethylene glycol and steric acid.
Example :
(iii) Antiseptics : These are chemical substances which prevent the growth of micro-organisms and
may even kill them and safe to be applied on living tissues.
Example : Furacin, soframycin etc.
10. Answer:
(i) Tranquilizers : Tranquilizers are chemical compounds used for the treatment of stress and mild or
even severe mental diseases. Example : Equanil, meprobamate, veronal. (any one)
(ii) Food preservatives : Food preservatives are the compounds which prevent spoilage of food due
to microbial growth.
Example : Sodium benzoate, table salt, vegetable oils etc.

11. Answer:
117
(a) Sodium Benzoate: It is a food preservative.
(b) Bithional acts as deodorant in soaps, hence it works as an antiseptic agent and reduces the
odours produced by bacterial decomposition of organic matter on the skin.
(c) Tranquilizers like barbiturates are used in sleeping pills.
12. Answer:
Biodegradable detergents : Detergents, having straight hydrocarbon chains are easily degraded or
decomposed by micro-organism, are known as biodegradable detergents.
Example : Sodium lauryl sulphate.
Non-biodegradable detergents : Detergents containing branched hydrocarbon chains and are not
easily decomposed by the micro-organisms, are known as non-biodegradable detergents.
Example : Sodium 4 – (1, 3, 5, 7-tetramethyloctyl) benzene sulphonate.


118
Chapter 14 – Semi-conductors
1 Mark Questions
1. State the reason, why GaAs is most commonly used in making of a solar cell. (All India 2008)
2. Why should a photodiode be operated at a reverse bias? (All India 2008)
3. What happens to the width of depletion layer of a p-n junction when it is
(i) forward biased,
(ii) reverse biased? (Delhi 2011)
4. How is forward biasing different from reverse biasing in a pn junction diode? (Delhi 2011)
5. Draw typical output characteristics of an n-p-n transistor in CE configuration.
2 Mark Questions
6. Explain, with the help of a circuit diagram, the working of a p-n junction diode as a half-wave
rectifier. (All India 2013)
7. Draw a circuit diagram of n-p-n transistor amplifier in CE configuration. Under what condition
does the transistor act as an amplifier? (All India 2014)
8. Distinguish between ‘intrinsic’ and ‘extrinsic’ semiconductors. (Delhi 2015)
9. With the help of a suitable diagram, explain the formation of depletion region in a p-n junction.
10. Explain with the help of a circuit diagram how a zener diode works as a DC voltage regulator.
Draw its I – V characteristics. (All India 2009)
3 Mark Questions
11. Draw a labelled diagram of a full wave rectifier circuit. State its working principle. Show the
input-output waveforms. (All India 2009)
12. Write any two distinguishing features between conductors, semiconductors and insulators on
the basis of energy band diagrams. (All India 2012)
13. Draw a circuit diagram of a transistor amplifier in CE configuration. Define the terms :
(i) Input resistance and
(ii) Current amplification factor. How are these determined using typical input and output
characteristics? (Delhi 2012)
14. (i) Write the functions of three segments of a transistor.
(ii) Draw the circuit diagram for studying the input and output characteristics of n-p-n transistor in
common emitter configuration. Using the circuit, explain how input, output characteristics are
obtained. (Delhi 2014)
15. For a CE-transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2kΩ is 2
V. Suppose the current amplification factor of the transistor is 100, find the input signal voltage and
base current, if the base resistance is 1 kΩ. (All India 2016)

119
1. Answer:
GaAs is most commonly used in making of a solar cell because :
(i) It has high optical absorption (~ 104 cm-1) .
(ii) It has high electrical conductivity.
2. Answer:
As fractional change in minority charge carriers is more than the fractional change in majority
charge carriers, the variation in reverse saturation current is more prominent.
3. Answer:
(i) In forward biased, the width of depletion layer of a p-n junction decreases.
(ii) In reverse biased, the width of depletion layer of a p-n junction increases
4. Answer:
Forward biasing : If the positive terminal of a battery is connected to a p-side and the negative
terminal to the -side, then the p-n junction is said to be forward biased. Here the applied voltage V
opposes the barrier voltage VB. As a result of this
• the effective resistance across the p-n junction decreases.

• the diffusion of electrons and holes into the depletion layer which decreases its width.
Reverse biasing : If the positive terminal of a battery is connected to the 72-side and negative
terminal to the p-side, then the p-n junction is said to be reverse biased.
The applied voltage V and the barrier potential VB are in the same direction
5. Answer:
6. Answer:
Rectifier. A rectifier is a circuit which converts an alternating current into direct current.
p-n diode as a half wave rectifier. A half wave rectifier consists of a single diode as shown in the
circuit diagram. The secondary of the transformer gives the desired a.c. voltage across A and B.
In the positive half cycle of a.c., the voltage at A is positive, the diode is forward biased and it

conducts current.
120
7. Answer
8. Answer:
9. Answer:
As soon as a p-n junction is formed, the majority charge carriers begin to diffuse from the regions of
higher concentration to the regions of lower concentrations. Thus the electrons from the n-region
diffuse into the p-region and where they combine with the holes and get neutralised. Similarly, the
holes from the p-region diffuse into the n-region where they combine with the electrons and get
neutralised. This process is called electron-hole recombination.

121
10. Answer:
Zener diode is fabricated by heavily doping both p and n-sides. Due to this, depletion region formed
is very thin (< 10-6 n and the electric field of the junction is extremely high (~5 × 106 V / m) even for a
small reverse bias voltage of 5 volts. It is seen that when the applied reverse bias voltage (V)
reaches the breakdown voltage (Vz) of the Zener diode, there is a large change in the current. After
the breakdown voltage Vz, a large change in the current can be produced by almost insignificant
change in the reverse bias voltage. In other words, Zener voltage remains constant even though
current through the Zener diode varies over a wide range. This property of the Zener diode is used
for regulating voltages so that they are constant.
11. Answer:
p-n junction diode as full wave rectifier
A full wave rectifier consists of two diodes and special type of transformer known as centre tap
transformer as shown in the circuit. The secondary of transformer gives the desired a.c. voltage
across A and B.
During the positive half cycle of a.c. input, the diode D1 is in forward bias and conducts current while
D2 is in reverse biased and does not conduct current. So we get an output voltage across the load
resistor RL.
12. Answer:
Distinguishing features between conductors, semiconductors and insulators :

(i) Insulator. In insulator, the valence band is completely filled. The conduction band is empty and
122
forbidden energy gap is quite large. So no electron is able to go from valence band to conduction
band even if electric field is applied. Hence electrical conduction is impossible. The solid/ substance
is an insulator.
(ii) Conductors (Metals). In metals, either the conduction band is partially filled or the conduction
and valence band partly overlap each other. If small electric field is applied across the metal, the
free electrons start moving in a direction opposite to the direction of electric field. Hence, metal
behaves as a conductor.
(iii) Semiconductors. At absolute zero kelvin, the conduction band is empty and the valence band is
filled. The material is insulator at low temperature. However the energy gap between valence band
and conduction band is small. At room temperature, some valence electrons acquire thermal energy
and jump to conduction band where they can conduct electricity. The holes left behind in valence
band act as a positive charge carrier.
13. Answer:
Circuit diagram of Transistor Amplifier in CE configuration

14. Answer:
123
(i)
(a) All the three segments of a transistor have different thickness and their doping levels are also
different. A brief description of the three segments of a transistor is given below :
• Emitter: This is the segment on one side of the transistor. It is of moderate size and heavily
doped. It supplies a large number of majority carriers for the current flow through the
transistor.
• Base : This is the central segment. It is very thin and lightly doped.
• Collector : This segment collects a major portion of the majority carriers supplied by the
emitter. The collector side is moderately doped and larger in size as compared to the emitter.
(ii)
Common emitter (CE) transistor characteristics. The transistor is most widely used in the CE
configuration. When a transistor is used in CE configuration, the input is between the base and
emitter and the output is between the collector and emitter.
The input and the output characteristics of an n-p-n transistor in CE configuration can be studied by
using the circuit as shown in Figure 1.
15. Answer:

Class 12 CBSE Biology Test

124
Chapter 1 – Reproduction in Organisms
1 Mark Questions
1. There are 380 chromosomes in meiocytes of a butterfly. How many chromosomes does male
gamete of butterfly have ?
2. Which characteristic property of Bryophyllum is exploited by gardeners?
3. Mention the unique flowering phenomenon exhibited by strobilanthus kunthiana (Neelakuranji).
4. Mention the unique feature with respect to flowering and fruiting in bamboo species.
2 Mark Questions
5. Higher organisms have resorted to sexual reproduction in spite of its complexity. Why ?
6. Bryophytes and Pteridophytes produce a large number of male gametes but relatively very few
female gametes. Why ?
7. What is regeneration, give example of regeneration in humans.
8. Which is better mode of reproduction : Sexual or Asexual ? Why ?
3 Mark Questions
9. Differentiate between monoecious and dioicous plants.

10. Distinguish between gametogenesis and embryogenesis.

Answers:
125
1. 190 chromosomes.
2. Adventitious bud arising from margin of the leaf.
3. Flower one in 12 years.
4. Flower once in their life time after 50-100 years, produce large no. of fruits and die.
5. Because of variations, gene pool, vigor and vitality and parental care.
6. Because male gamete need medium (water) to reach egg/female gamete. A large number of the
male gametes fail to reach the female gamete. It increases the probability of fertilisation.
7. It is a process of renewal, restoration and growth. It can
occur at the level of the cell, tissue and organ. It is common in Hydra, Planaria and echinoderms
In human, liver has power of regeneration, if it is partially damaged.
8. Sexual reproduction, it introduces variations in offspring and has evolutionary significance. It
helps offsprings to adjust according to the changes in environment. It produces better off springs
due to character combination.
9. Monoecious Plants : Plants having both male and female flowers on same plant. e.g. cucurbits
and coconut. The term. homothallic. is used in Fungi for same condition.
Dioecious Plants : Plants having male and female flowers on separate plant.
e.g. Papaya and date palm. The term. heterothallic. is used in fungi for the same condition.
10. Gametogenesis Embryogenesis
1. Formation of gametes Formation of Embryo
2. Produces haploid gametes Embryo is diploid
3. Cell division is meiotic Cell divison is mitotic.

Class 12 CBSE Biology Test

126
Chapter 2 – Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
1 Mark Questions
1. Give the scientific name of a plant with came to India as a contaminant with imported wheat and
causes pollen allergy.
2. Which characteristic of water pollinated species of pollen grains protect them from water.
3. Why are pollen grains produced in enormous quantity in maize ?
4. In some species of Asteraceae and grasses, seed are formed without fusion of gametes. Mention
the scientific term for such of reproduction.
5. If the diploid number of chromosomes in an angiospermic plant is 16. Mention number of
chromosomes in the endosperm and antipodal cell.
2 Mark Questions
6. Fruits generally develops from ovary, but in few species thalamus contributes to fruit formation.
(a) Name the two categories of fruits.
(b) Give one example of each.
7. Among the animals, insects particularly bees are the dominant pollinating agents. List any four
characteristic features of the insect pollinated flower.
8. Differentiate between geitonogamy and xenogamy.
9. In the given figure of a dicot embryo, label the parts (A)
and (B) and give their function.
3 Mark Questions
10. Continued self pollination lead to inbreeding
depression. List three devices,
which flowering plant have developed to discourage self-
pollination ?
11. Differentiate between microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis. What type
of cell division occurs during these events ? Name the structure formed at the
end of these two events.
5 Mark Questions
12. (a) Draw the embryo sac of a flowering plant and label the parts :
(i) Which guides the entry of pollen tube ?
(ii) Which develops into endosperm ?
(iii) Which fuses with male gamete to form zygote ?
(b) What will be the fate of antipodal cells after fertilisation ?
(c) Name the cell that develops into embryo Sac. How many embryo sacs are formed from one
megaspore mother cell.

1. Parthenium hysterophorus (carrot grass)

127
2. Presence of mucilagenous covering
3. To ensure pollination because Maize is pollinated by wind.
4. Apomixis
5. Chromosomes in endosperm and 8 chromosomes in antipodal cells.
6. Two categories of fruits are :
(i) True fruits e.g., Mango
(ii) False fruit e.g., Apple
7. (i) Flowers are large
(ii) Colourful petals of flowers
(iii) Presence of fragrance
(iv) Rich in nectar
8. Geitonogamy Xenogamy
1. Transfer of pollen grains from the Transfer of Pollen grains from anther
anther to stigma of another flower to Stigma of different plant.
of the same plant.
2. Does not provide opportunity for Provide opportunity for genetic
genetic recombination. recombination
9. A = Plumule . To form shoot system
B = Cotyledons . Storage of food
10. (a) Release of pollen and stigma receptivity is not synchronised in some species
(b) Anther and stigma are at different position/heights in some plants
(c) Self-incompatibility (a genetic mechanism).
11. Microsporogenesis.Process of formation of microspore from a Pollen mother cell.
Megasporogenesis.Process of formation of megaspore from megaspore mother cell.
Meiotic division in both.
Microsporogenesis results in the formation of pollen grain while
megasporogenesis results in the formation of megaspore.
12. (i) Filliform apparatus (ii) Central cell (iii) Egg cell
(b) They degenerate after fertilization.
(c) Functional megaspore, one megaspore develops to form one embryo
sac.

Class 12 CBSE Chapterwise Tests

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Class 12 CBSE Physics Test

2. Diagrammatically represent the position of a dipole in stable and unstable equilibrium?

3. Draw equipotential surface for a dipole.

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Class 12 CBSE Chemistry Test

2. Mention a large-scale use of the phenomenon called ‘reverse osmosis’.

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Class 12 CBSE Chemistry Test

3. Why is alternating current used for measuring resistance of an electrolytic solution?

7. Which will have greater molar conductivity and why?

8. Why Lead storage battery as a secondary cell can be recharged?

9. State the factors which influence the value of cell potential.

10. What is the role of ZnCl2 in dry cell?

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2. Remain unchanged for a cell

6. This is because E cell is zero at equilibrium.

9. Concentration of electrolyte and no. of electron exchanged

10. Zn2+ ions combines with NH3 to form complex [Zn(NH3)2]2+

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Class 12 CBSE Chemistry Test

1. What do you understand by the rate determining step of a reaction?

3. Write Arrhenius equation.

5. What do you understand by half-life period of a reaction?

6. Express the rate of reaction in terms of disappearance of hydrogen and appearance

8. Mention one example of zero order reaction.

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1. The slowest step in a reaction is known as rate determining step.

3. Ae-Ea/RT Where,k = Rate constant Ea = Activation energy A = Arrhenius factor

4. Order =(1/2) + (3/2) = 2

6. Rate= -1/3d[H2]/dt rate=+1/2d[NH3]/dt

8. 2NH3 (g)→N2 (g) +3H2(g) (at1130K and Pt as catalyst)

9. 5.9 × 10–5 s–1

10. Ea should. Decrease. : Rate = k [AB2] [C2]; Order = 1 + 1 = 2]

13. T1 = 50 + 273 = 323 K, T2 = 100 + 273 = 373 K,

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Class 12 CBSE Physics Test

1. What is the value of electric field inside a conductor?

4. Give the common unit of capacitance.

6. What is electrostatic shielding? What is the advantage of it?

7. State and derive Gauss’s law.

8. Show that 1 Farad is a big unit in practice

10. Draw equipotential surfaces due to a single point charge.

13. Derive an expression to find the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor.

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Class 12 CBSE Physics Test

7. Distinguish between emf and terminal voltage.

10. The sequence of coloured bands in two carbon resistors Rt and R2 is

12. In a metre bridge, the null point is

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12. Answer: - From the first balance point, we get

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Class 12 CBSE Physics Test

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Class 12 CBSE Chemistry Test

1. Give the IUPAC name of the following.

2. The boiling point of ethanol is higher than that methoxy methane.

3. Which catalyst is used in Friedel craft reaction?