ORTHODONTICS AND PEDIATRIC DENTISTRY

1. Bite plane therapy for deep bite, active Hawley’s plate are examples of:
A. Preventive Orthodontics C. Limited Corrective Orthodontics
B. Interceptive Orthodontics D. Extensive Corrective Orthodontics E. none of the choices

2. The normal sequential events from fertilization to death:

A. growth B. differentiation C. translocation D. development E. none of the choices

3. ______will give rise to tissues that will become the mandible

A. Reichert’s cartilage C. Meckel’s cartilage
B. 3rd branchial arch D. 1st branchial arch E. none of the choices

4. Emphasized how cartilage of nasal septum during growth paced the growth of maxilla
A. Genetic Theory C. Moss’ Hypothesis
B. Sicher’s Hypothesis D. Scott’s Hypothesis E. Petrovic’s Hypothesis

5. Skeletal tissues grow in response to soft tissue growth

A. Genetic Theory C. Moss’ Hypothesis
B. Sicher’s Hypothesis D. Scott’s Hypothesis E. Petrovic’s Hypothesis

6. Cranial vault grows primarily by cartilage growth at:

A. synchondrosis B. sutures C. fontanelles D. disappears at birth

7. Cranial base grows primarily by__ growth at the synchondrosis:

A. intramembranous B. endochondral C. combination of intramembranous and endochondral

8. Over 90% of brain growth is achieved by age: A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 E. 15

9. Neurocranium follows what Scammon’s curve?

A. lymphoid B. neural C. general D. bodily E. genital type

10. Growth of brain case is primarily by proliferation and ossification of:

A. synchondrosis B. sutural connective tissue C. fontanelles D. none of the choices

11. Nasomaxillary complex is hafted to the cranium by the following sutures except: A.
frontomaxillary C. zygomaticotemporal E. zygomaticomaxillary
B. pterygopalatine D. frontotemporal

12. As the maxilla decends, there is __ on the orbital floor, __ on the nasal floor and __ on the inferior palatal
surface:
A. + + - B. - + - C. + - + D. + + + E. - - +

13. The increase in length of the maxilla is due to:

A. apposition on the posterior border of the maxillary tuberosity
B. progressive movement of the entire zygomatic process in posterior direction D. A&B
C. growth in the median suture E. none of the choices

14. Mechanism for maxillary growth:

A. sutural connective tissue proliferation C. surface apposition / resorption
B. ossification D. translation E. all of the choices

15. The mechanism for bone growth of the nasomaxillary complex is:
A. intramembranous B. endochondral C. combination

16. The sutures of the nasomaxillary complex are oblique and more or less parallel with each other thus, growth in
these areas would serve to displace the maxilla:
A. downward B. forward and upward C. downward and forward D. upward and backward

17. Continued apposition of alveolar bone on the free borders of the alveolar process as the teeth erupt increases the
__ of the maxilla.
A. height B. width C. length

18. Increase in the width of the maxilla involves palatal growth following the expanding V principle. The buccal
segments move:
A. downward and forward B. posterior and superior C. upward and posterior D. upward
19. The maxilla Is displaced downward and forward by growth in __ parts of the bone:
A. anterior and inferior B. posterior and superior C. anterior and superior D. posterior and anterior

20. What characteristic growth pattern is shown in the vertical section through the coronoid process?
A. (+) on the lingual, (-) on the buccal C. (-) on the lingual, (+) on the buccal surface
B. (+) on the lingual, (-) on half of the buccal surface D. (-) on the lingual, (-) on the buccal surface

21. What characteristic growth pattern is shown in the vertical section through the basal part of the ramus? A. (+)
on the lingual, (-) on the buccal C. (-) on the lingual, (+) on the buccal surface
B. (+) on the lingual, (-) on half of the buccal surface D. (-) on the lingual, (-) on the buccal surface

22. When teeth are lost, alveolar bone: A. persists B. resorbs C. no effect

23. Mandibular growth follows what growth curve? A. lymphoid B. neural C. general D. genital

24. At age 5-10, the mandible is __ completed. A. 45% B. 40% C. 65% D. 96%

25. The predominant direction of mandibular growth is:

A. superior and inferior C. superior and posterior
B. downward and forward D. downward E. superior

26. Displacement of the mandible occurs in what direction? A. superior and inferior B. superior and posterior
C. downward and forward D. downward E. superior

27. Increase in mandibular length is accomplished by:

A. (+) on the inferior border of the ramus
B. (-) on the inferior border of the ramus
C. (-) on the posterior border, (+) on the anterior border of the ramus
D. (+) on the posterior border, (-) on the anterior border of the ramus

28. Growth of the posterior border of the mandible with additive growth at the ends of the “V” increases the terminal
points. This increases the __ of the mandible.
A. width B. height C. depth

29. Condylar growth with significant alveolar growth increase the __ of the mandible.
A. width B. height C. depth

30. Some mandibles grow more forward than downward. If there is predominance of forward growth __ is the
result.
A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. open bite

31. When is the best time to influence , retard or redirect growth?

A. after puberty C. before puberty
B. just before and during puberty D. time element is not important

32. The order form most rapid to least amount of growth for the cranium:
A. height, depth, width B. depth, width, height C. depth, height, width D. width, height, depth

33. The order form greatest to least incremental change for the face:
A. depth, height, width B. width, depth height C. height, depth, width D. height, width, depth

34. At age 0-5, which has grown the most at 85%? A. neurocranium B. maxilla C. mandible

35. Because of the differential growth of the maxilla and the mandible at age 0-5, the normal profile at birth is: A.
straight B. convex C. concave

36. Maxillary intercanine width is completed in girls at age: A. 7-8 B. 9-10 C. 11 D. 12 E. 18

37. Second peak for girls: A. 3 B. 6-7 C. 7-9 D. 11-12 E. 14-15

38. For boys, maximum condylar changes concurrently with sutural and skeletal height peaks 3 years later that for
girls. A. true B. false

39. Treatment timing must be based on the individual’s own pattern of growth. A. true B. false

40. Primate space if found:

A. mesial of the lower cuspid and distal of upper cuspid
B. distal of the lower cuspid and distal of the upper cuspid
C. mesial of the lower cuspid and mesial of the upper cuspid
D. mesial of the upper cuspid and distal of the lower cuspid

41. Normal terminal plane relationship[: A. mesial step B. distal step C. flush/straight

42. The most common sequence of eruption for the upper arch:
A. 6124537 B. 6123457 C. 6142537 D. 6125437

43. The stage at which a tooth begins its eruptive movement: A. stage 0
B. stage 2 C. stage 3 D. stage 6 E. stage 10

44.Periapical lesions, pulpitis and pulpotomy of a primary molar will___ the eruption of successor premolar. A.
hasten B. delay C. have no effect on

45. If a primary tooth is extracted prior to the onset of permanent eruptive movement (prior to root formation), the
permanent tooth is likely to be:
A. delayed B. accelerated C. no effect on eruption

46. Which one is an incorrect description of Nolla’s stages of calcification?

A. Stage 4, 2/3 of crown completed C. Stage 7, 1/3 of root completed
B. Stage 6, crown almost completed D. Stage 9, root almost complete, open apex

47. Space differential in the anterior segment ( BA/AB ) - 21/12 gives:

A. excess space B. no space differential C. negative space

48. The proper crown angulation of a permanent incisor is one where the gingival portion of the long axis of the
crown should be __ to the incisal portion.
A. mesial B. distal C. incisal D. cervical

49. Rotated teeth occupy less space within the arch: A. true B. false

50. Plane of occlusion for permanent teeth: A. flat B. exaggerated

51. Posterior crown inclination from canine to molar:

A. lingual crown inclination B. buccal crown inclination C. upright

52. Size of teeth correlates well with stature. Size of teeth is sex-linked.
A. 1st statement is true, 2nd is false C. both are true
B. 1st statement is false, 2nd is true D. both are false

53. The most prevalent malocclusion in the primary dentition:

A. Class II Div. 1 B. Class I type 5 C. Class III D. anterior openbite E. Class II types 1

54. A dolichofacial face would likely to have ___ arch form.

A. round B. average C. broad and square D. long and tapering

55. A face that is broad and short is:

A. dolichofacial B. brachyfacial C. mesofacial D. normofacial

56. The most common malocclusion in the mixed dentition period is:
A. Class II Div. 1 B. anterior open bite C. posterior open bite D. crowding E. Class I type 2

57. A type of conditioning where in a specific response is immediately rewarded

A. Classical conditioning C. operator conditioning
B. Operant conditioning D. conditioning E. classic conditioning

58. The patients history of childhood diseases are under

A. familial history B. social history C. medical history D. dental history

59. The history on the behavior of the child toward dentistry:

A. familial history B. medical history C. Dental history D. history of present illness

60. Method of early examination where the dentist and parent are seated face to face
A. Knee position B. leg position C. cradling position D. Knee to knee position E. all

61. In pedodontic triangle the apex of the triangle is:

A. Child B. Dentist C. Parent D. Assistant
62. Parent who are mistrusting are:
A. Overprotective Parent B. Neglectful Parent C. Manipulative Parent D. Hostile parent

63. Parent who are demanding and can extend to directing the course of the treatment is a :
A. Overprotective Parent B. Neglectful Parent C. Manipulative Parent D. Hostile parent

64. Panoramic Radiographic Film:

A. 5 “ x 7” B. 5” x 12” C. 2”x 3” D. 8” x 10”

65. Frankl behavior rating characterized by refusal of treatment and extreme negativism:
A. rating 1 B. rating 2 C. rating 3 D. rating 4

66. A period that child undergoes the phase of separation anxiety:

A. Toddler B. school age C. Pre school D. Adolescent

67. In Nitous oxygen sedation, once a petient takes a distant gaze the concentration of the nitous oxide- oxygen is
reduces to:
A. 30-70 B. 20-80 C. 40-60 D. 10-90 E. none

68. Device that assess the arterial hemoglobin oxygen saturation and pulse rate:
A. automated vital sign monitor B. pulse oximeter C. pretracheal stethoscope D. none

69. Quadrant used in the gluteal region when intramuscular sedation is used:
A, upper inner quadrant B. upper outer quadrant C. Lower inner quadrant D. Lower outer quadrant

70. The most unstable form of fluoride used for topical application:
A. Acidulated Phosphate Fluoride B. Stannous Fluoride C. Sodium Fluoride . D. None

71. A sudden firm command use dto get the child’s attention:
A. Voice control B. Multisensory communication C. .Aversive conditioning D. HOME

72. Procedure which slowly develops behavior by reinforcing successive approximation of the desired behavior until
desired behavior develop:
A. Pre appointment behavior modification C. behavior shaping
B. Behavior management D. Retraining

73. Parents should be allowed inside a treatment room when:

A. infant to 41 months B. handicapped patient C. 7-8 Years old D. A & B E. None

74. A technique of diverting the attention of the patient from what may be perceived as an umpleasant procedure:
A. tell show do C. Voice control
B. Positive reinforcement D. Distraction E Non verbal communication

75. Plastics applied to the occlusal surface of posterior teeth by simple acid etch method to prevent dental caries &
early carious lesion from developing further
A. Composite C. Fluoride
B. Preventive Restorative Resin D. Glass Ionomer E. None

76. Medicament used in type A PRR:

A. Glass ionomer B. Bonding agent C. Composite D. Pit and fissure sealant E. all of these

77. Distance of punched holes on the rubber dam for primary teeth:
A. 1.0mm B. 1.5 mm C. 2.0mm D. 2.5 mm E. 3.0mm

78. Gingival cavosurface beveling is not indicated in Class II cavity preparation for deciduous teeth, because the
direction of the enamel rods are toward:
A. Cervical B. Occlusal C. gingival D. Apical E. all of these

79. Etching time for deciduous dentition is ----- compared to permanent dentition:
A. shorter B. the same C. longer D. none

80. The least amount of tooth surface reduction in stainless steel crown preparation is:
A. Occlusal B. lingual C. Proximal D. Buccal E. none

81. Ellis classification of tooth fracture when the coronal pulp is exposed:
A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV E. Class V

82. Ellis classification of tooth fracture when a tooth is lost as a result of trauma
A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV E. Class V

83. Ellis classification of a non vital traumatized tooth:

A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV E. Class V

84. Treatment of choice for an immature non vital permanent tooth to stimulate root closure:
A. Indirect pulp capping B. Pulpectomy C. Pulpotomy D. Apexogenesis E. Apexification

85. Materials that is used to induced apexification:

A. calcium hydroxide B. Zinc oxide eugenol C. Formocresol D. IRM E. Gutta percha

86. Superficial wound due to scrapping of the mucosa:

A. laceration B. abrasion C. Contusion D. Attrition E. Erosion

87. Hypoplastic enamel is a result in the disturbance at:

A. initiation stage B. Appostion stage C. . Morphodifferentation D. Histodifferentiation E. None
88. Macrodontia incisor crown with two root canals:
A. Flexion B. Fusion C. Gemination D. Supernumerary root E. none

89. Presence of enamel at the furcation of the root:

A. enameloma B. Enamelin C. ameloblast D. Epstein PearlE. all of the above

90. Radiograph picture of a caries is generally--- than the actual caries:

A. smaller B. the same C. larger D. deeper E. B&D

91. Primary molars with multisurface caries ( 3 or more) are best restored using:
A.GIC B. Posterior composite C. stainless steel crown D. amalgam restoration E. none

92. Primary teeth have pulpal inflammation when the bacterial infested dentin is __ mm from the pulp:
A. 0.6 B. 0.8 C. 1.6 D. 1.8 E. none

93. Requires retentive groove in tooth preparation:

A. anterior SSC B. strip crown C. posterior SSC D. none of these

94. T-cut made on celluloid strip crown is placed on the ___ surface?
A. labial B. lingual C. mesial D. distal

95. The following are favorable storage medium for avulsed tooth, except:
A. Hank’s buffered saline C. pasteurized bovine milk
B.Isotonic saline D. human saliva E. water

96.Treatment for non-vital tooth with open apex:

A.IPC B. Pulpotomy C. DPC D. Pulpectomy E. Apexification

97. This method is not indicated on children who are emotionally immature
A. TSD B Voice control E. Positive reinforcement
B. Distraction D. Non Verbal communication

98. Diverts the attention of the patient from what may be perceived as an unpleasant procedure
A. TSD C Voice control E. Positive reinforcement
B. Distraction D. Non Verbal communication

99. Conveying reinforcement and guiding behavior through contact, posture and facial expression
A. TSD C Voice control E. Positive reinforcement
B. Distraction D. Non Verbal communication

100. Method used to strengthen the occurrence of desired behavior through verbal praise, giving tokens and toys
A. TSD C Voice control
B. Positive reinforcement D. Distraction E. Non Verbal communication

1. It is considered to be the best space maintainer

A. crown and crib
B. a well-restored deciduous teeth
C. fixed space maintainer
D. functional space maintainer
2. Chin cap is used to redirect the growth of the
A. maxilla B. cranial base
C. cranial case D. mandible

3. Cases of maxillary protrusion in a growing child can be treated with

A. chin cap B. fixed braces only
C. headgear D. face mask

4. Deep bite cases in young children can be treated with

A. fixed braces B. bite plane
C. extraoral force appliance D. space maintainer

5. Fluoride reduces the incidence of carious lesions on the

A. pit and fissure B. occlusal surfaces
C. smooth surfaces D. lingual surfaces of teeth

6. Serial extraction is a part of:

A. preventive orthodontics B. interceptive orthodontics
C. limited corrective D. extensive corrective

7. Serial extraction is done if the space deficiency to align the is

A. 3 mm B. 6 mm C. 5 mm D. 8 mm

8. Its is a way of predicting the future alignment of erupting permanent teeth

A. mixed dentition analysis B. Nolla’s calcification
C. size of the teeth D. none of the above

9. Increase in breadth means increase in

A. depth B. vertical deimension
C. length D. width
E. height

10. Facial structures follow the

A. bodily growth curve B. neural growth curve
C. a and b D. none of the above

11. It is the synchondrosis whose activity stops after age of 25.

A. intersphenoidal
B. intraoccipital
C. spheno-occipital
D. sphenoethmoidal

12. It is the growth center of the mandible which is responsible for the major increase in length
A. alveolar process
B. condyle
C. lingual tuberosity
D. Ramus of the mandible

13. The cranial base lengthens because of the growth on the

A. interparietal suture B. coronal suture
C. parieto-temporal suture D. lambdoidal suture

14. The V principle of growth is found in the following structures of the skull except
A. mandible B. palate
C. orbits of the eyes D. alveolar process

15. It is the growth center that is largely dependent on the presence of teeth
A. nasal septum B. alveolar process
C. condyle D. max. and mand. Basal bones

16. The relationship of the upper and lower gum pads is such that
A. the upper is within the lower B. the upper is posterior to the lower
C. the lower is anterior to the upper D. it presents a convex profile

17. A child in the “ugly duckling” stage is characterized by

A. a flat nasal bone
B. absence of maxillary incisors
C. diastema between 2 central incisors
D. presence of only one maxillary central incisor

18. Late mesial shift is possible because of

A. primate spaces
B. terminal plane
C. space differential bet. Deciduous and permanent teeth in the posterior segment
D. none of the above

19. The space that allows an increase in the mandibular intercanine width is
A. leeway pace B. interdental space
C. primate space D. anterior intermaxillary space

20. It is the arch dimension that is occupied by all the succedaneous teeth
A. arch length B. arch width
C. arch perimeter D. intercanine length

21. What are the growth dimensions in the maxilla that are sex-linked?
A. width and depth B. height and width
C. height and depth D. width

22. From birth to 5 years, the dominance of growth is on the

A. nasomaxillary structures B. cranial structures
C. mandible D. muscular components of the body

23. Early loss of upper D will end up to what type of terminal plane?
A. mesial step B. flush terminal plane
C. distal step D. a ny of the above

24. This is growth movement which mean movement of whole bone as a unit
A. drift B. displacement C. deposition D. relocation E. remodeling

25. Mandible comes from ? branchial arch

A. first B. second C. third D. fourth

26. Maxilla is formed from the maxillary processes and ?

A. medial nasal process C. globular process
B. lateral processes D. tuberculum impar

27. Dental Fluorosis is most likely to occur on a:

A. two-year-old child ingesting 1 ppm of fluoride
B. 17-year-old patient ingesting 1 ppm of fluoride
C. on a 3-year-old child ingesting 0.50 ppm of fluoride
D. none of the above.

28. Pulpotomy with formocresol of primary tooth:

A. result in lower success rate compared to calcium hydroxide,
B. result in higher success rate compared to calcium hydroxide,
C. should never be used,
D. induces formation of a dentin bridge at site of amputation,
E. none of the above.

29. A 4-year-old child visited a dentist for the first time and received prophylaxis quite well. Before he
left, the dentist was glad that he gave the child a toy. This kind of gesture is called:
A. classical conditioning C. positive reinforcement,
B. bribery, B. public relations E. none of the above.

30. If a primary tooth has been extracted before succedaneous tooth has begun eruptive movement, its
eruption will be __
A. hastened B. delayed C. not affected

31. Excessive orthodontic force used to move a tooth may:

1. cause hyalinization
2. cause undermining resorption
3. crush the periodontal ligament
A. 1 & 2 B. 2 & 3 C. 1 & 3 D. 1, 2 & 3 E. 3 only

32. Severely crowded mandibular incisors usually result from:

A. mesial migration of teeth

B. premature loss of primary teeth

C. presence of supernumerary teeth
D. tooth size-arch length discrepancy

33. How will extraction of a primary maxillary central incisor in a 5-year old child with incisal
spacingaffect the size of the intercanine space?

A. The intercanine space will increase in size.

B. The intercanine space will decrease in size.

C. No change will occur in the size of the intercanine space.

34. The major criterion to differentiate between a true Class III and a pseudo-Class III malocclusion is:

A. degree of anterior crossbite

B. presence of a bilateral crossbite

C. existence of a forward shift of the mandible during closure

D. occlusal relationship between maxillary and mandibular first molars

35. Orthodontic correction of which of the following is most easily retained?

A. Diastema C. Expansion
B. Rotation D. Posterior crossbite E. Anterior crossbite

36. A bimaxillary protrusion occurs when:

A. large horizontal overlap with biteral crossbite exits

B. the maxillary dentition is forward with respect to basal bone

C. both dental arches are forward with respect to basal bone

D. none of the choices.

37. When a simple tipping force is applied to the crown of a single-rooted tooth, the center of rotation is
usually located:

A. at the apex D. at the cervical line

B. 5mm beyond the apex E. one-third the root length from the apex

C. two-third the root length from the apex.

38. Which of the following is the most common orofacial malformation that produces malocclusion?

A. Cleft palate C. Ectodermal dysplasia

B. Pierre Robin syndrome D. Osteogenesis imperfecta E. Cleidocranial dysostosis

39. A 4-year old child has a traumatized central incisor with a Class III (Ellis) fracture. The injury occurred
about one month ago, and examination indicates that the pulp is necrotic. There are no other pathologic
findings. Treatment of choice is:

A. watchful observation

B. extraction and use of a space maintainer

C. pulpectomy and root canal filling using gutta-percha points and cement

D. endodontic treatment and root canal filling with a resorbable paste.

40. Supervision of a child’s development of occlusion is most critical at ages:

A. 3-6 years B. 7-10 years C. 11-14 years E. 14-17 years

41. A child with congenital heart disease requires special treatment planning for dental care because of
potential problems with:
A. bleeding
B. local infection
C. systemic infection
D. enamel hypoplasia
A. 1 , 2 & 3 B. 1 & 3 C. 1 only D. 3 only E. 1,2,3 & 4

42.In festooning and trimming a stainless steel crown, greater length is necessary in the region of the
mesiofacial bulge in a primary:

A. first molar B. second molar C. maxillary canine D. maxillary lateral incisor

43. Using a topical fluoride rinse before acid etch direct bonding of orthodontic brackets is contraindicated
because fluoride:

A. decreases the solubility of enamel

B. increases the pH of the etching agent

C. causes copious amounts of saliva

D. directly reacts chemically with the bonding agent.

44. If a 7-year old patient loses a primary mandibular canine about the same time the adjacent lateral
incisor is erupting or shortly thereafter, the dentist should be alert to the possibility of:

A. a tongue habit

B. a developing crossbite

C. an early eruption of the permanent canine

D. lingual collapse of mandibular anterior teeth

45. Which of the ff. approaches is best for a child suffering from celebral palsy

A. HOM exercise B. towel method C. use of sedation D. psychological Approaches

46. Type of fear which is produced by direct physical stimulation of sense organ
A. associative fear B. objective fear C. subjective fear D. acquired fear

47. A 4-year old child has a traumatized central incisor with a Class III (Ellis) fracture. The injury occurred
about one month ago, and examination indicates that the pulp is necrotic. There are no other pathologic
findings. Treatment of choice is:

A. watchful observation

B. extraction and use of a space maintainer

C. pulpectomy and root canal filling using gutta-percha points and cement

D. endodontic treatment and root canal filling with a resorbable paste.

48. Supervision of a child’s development of occlusion is most critical at ages:

A. 3-6 years B. 7-10 years C. 11-14 years E. 14-17 years

49. Which of the following are likely to occur during orthodontic therapy?
1. gingival irritation
2. cementum resorption
3. increased mobility of teeth
4. demineralization of enamel adjacent to appliances in patients with poor oral hygiene
A. 1, 3 & 4 C. 2 & 4 only E. 3 & 4 only
B. 1 & 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 & 4

50. A distal shoe space maintainer is indicated when a primary:

A. incisor is avulsed
B. first molar is prematurely lost
C. second molar is lost after eruption of a permanent first molar
D. second molar is lost before eruption of a permanent first molar

51. The normal downward and forward direction of facial growth results from
1. upward and backward growth of maxillary sutures and the mandibular condyle
2. vertical eruption and mesial drift of the dentitions
3. interstitial growth in the maxilla and the mandible
4. epithelial induction at growth centers
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 1 & 4 D. 2 & 3 E. 2 & 4

52. An 8-year-old girl has 2mm diastema between permanent maxillary central incisors.
Permanent maxillary lateral incisors are in position. The diastema is probably the result of:
1. thumb-sucking
2. an abnormal frenum attachment
3. a normal developmental process
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 2 only E. 3 only

53. When comparing cementum to bone in their responses to orthodontic forces, cementum resorbs:
A. more readily C. not at all
B. less readily D. under lighter loads E. by indirect (undermining)

54. The tooth in the mandibular arch most likely to be malposed in cases of arch space discrepancy is the:
A. first molar B.. first premalor C. second molar D. second premolar

55. Asymmetrical anterior open bite with normal posterior occlusion is characteristic of:

A. thumb-sucking C. abnormal swallowing habits

B. mouth breathing D. both A & B E. both B & C

56. If the norm for the cephalometric angle SNA is 82°, a patient’s reading of 90° for SNA most likely
indicates:

A. maxillary protrusion C. the patient’s ethnic background

B. protrusive maxillary incisors D. dysplasia of the anterior cranial base.

57. A child with Down’s syndrome is characterized as being:

A. affectionate C. fearful of quick movements

B. capable of learning dental procedures D. both A & B E. all of these

58. A 3 ½ year old child has an acute fever, diarrhea, oral vesicular lesions and gingival tenderness. The
most likely diagnosis is:

A. thrush D. drug allergy

B. aphthous ulcerations E. . acute herpetic stomatitis

C. necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

59. Transillumination of soft tissues is useful in detecting which of the following problems in a child?

A. Koplick’s spot C. Sialolithiasis

B. Aortic stenosis D. Sickle cell disease E. abnormal frenum attachment

60. Which of the following is least likely to result from persistent long-term thumb-sucking?
A. a deep overbite D. protrusion of maxillary incisor

B. constriction of maxillary arch E. rotation of maxillary lateral incisor

C. lingual inclination of mandibular incisors

61. The least desirable method used in child management is:

A. tell-show do technique, C. voice control,

B. gift before treatment, D. hand-over-mouth technique.

62. Induce formation of apical closure of young permanent molar using CAOH

A. apexogenesis C. apexification
B. apeximation D. apex formation

63. Neurocranium follows what Scammon’s curve?

A. lymphoid B. neural C. general D. bodily E. genital type

71. Bodily force that moves the central incisor mesially produces:

A. stretching of the periodontal fiber on the distal side

B. compression of the periodontal fiber in the distal side

C. osteoblastic activity on the mesial side

D. osteoclastic activity on the distal side

72. Frankfort-horizontal is a reference plane constructed by joining which of the following landmarks?

A. Porion and sella C. Porion and nasion

B. Porion and orbitale D. Nasion and Sella

73. Which of the following is not a space maintainer?

A. Lingual arch D. Nance holding arch

B. Class III restoration E. Stainless steel crown

C. Palatal expansion appliance

74.Space closure is least likely to occur after loss of which of the following teeth?

A. Primary mandibular canines D. Primary mandibular second molars

B. Primary maxillary first molars E. Primary maxillary central incisors

C. Permanent maxillary central incisors

75. Crowding that occurs with mandibular incisors after age 18 is most often the result of:

A. orthodontic relapse C. Periodontal disease

B. impacted thid molars D. a physiologic maturational change

76. The undesirable side-effect most commonly associated with use of a finger spring to tip the crown of a
tooth is:

A. Pain D. gingival irritation

B. tendency for the tooth to intrude E. severe mobility of the tooth

C. tendency for the root apex to move in the direction opposite from the crown.
77. After the age 6, the greatest increase in size of the mandible occurs:

A. at the symphysis C. along the lower border

B. between the canines D. distal to the first molars

78. Child refuses to accept treatment or open the mount minimally:

A. Frankl 1 B. Frankl 2 C. Frankl 3 D. Frankl 4

79. Definitely negative behavior.

A. Frankl 1 B. Frankl 2 C. Frankl 3 D. Frankl 4

80. Child has good rapport with the dentist.

A. Frankl 1 B. Frankl 2 C. Frankl 3 D. Frankl 4.

81. The treatment option contraindicated in patients who are not able to breathe nasally.
A. no treatment C. nitrous oxide & oxygen inhalation
B. conscious sedation D. genera anesthesia

82. The treatment option for patients who have sustained extensive orofacial & or dental Trauma
A. no treatment C. nitrous oxide & oxygen inhalation
B. conscious sedation D. general anesthesia

83. With a flush terminal plane, permanent first molars will:

A. initially be Class II
B. initially be Class III
C. immediately assume a normal relationship
D. erupt immediately into an end-to-end relationship

84. In infant oral care, clean mouth with gauze after feedings and at bed time done during:
A. 0-6 mons B. 6-12 mons C. 12-24 mons. D. 24-36 mons

85. Space differential between combine width of CDE and 345 is__
A. positive B . negative C. zero D. 2.2 mm E. 2.4 mm

86. A supra erupted mand. canine with respect to Frankfurt Horizontal plane is said to be in?
A. attraction B. Abstraction C. Protraction D.
Retraction E. Contraction.

87. A supra erupted max. canine with respect to Frankfurt Horizontal Plane is said to be in?
A. attraction B. Abstraction C. Protraction D.
Retraction E. Contraction

88. Child’s arms and legs can be immobilized with:

A. forearm-body support B. plastic bowl C. Posey straps D. head positioner

89. To avoid vomiting and complications during treatment with sedation, no milk or solid food should be
taken___ before the scheduled procedure.
A. 4 hrs. B. 6 hrs. C. 8 hrs. D. after midnight

90. For sedation via intramuscular route, the ___ of the gluteal region is the safest. A.
upper, inner B. upper outer C. lower inner D. lower outer

91. Stabilization period for teeth with fractured roots:

A. 2-3 months B. 2-3 days C. 2-3 weeks D. 7-14 days

92. The correct angulation of the inclined plane in relation to the tooth in crossbite is: A. . 15º B. 25º
C. 35º D. 45º E. 55º

93. The following are sequelae of untreated crossbite, except:

A. faceting on the labial surface of the tooth in crossbite
B. faceting of the labial surface of the tooth opposing the inlocked tooth
C. abrasion
D. periodontal involvement.

94. Choice of nursing nipple to prevent oral habit formation :

A. Evenflo B. MimifloC. NukSauger nipple D. nonphysiologic nipple
95. Mesial surface of E can be disked in case the 3 cannot erupt because of insufficient space. This is:
A. contingency of extraction B.occlusal equilibration C.
space regaining D. observation

96. In managing abnormal oral habits, therapy must be:

A. mechanical C.of physical control
B. of conditioning responses D. a means of punishment

97. Occlusal reduction for SSc :

A. 0.25-0.5mm B. 1-1.5mm C. 2-3mm D. 5mm.

98. Grinding of the sharp edges is sufficient.

A. lateral luxation B. dentin fracture C. enamel fracture D. extrusion.

99. Restore with bonding agent and composite

A. extrusion C. dentin fracture
B. intrusion D. enamel fracture E. enamel-dentin fracture.

100. In acute ingestion of fluoride, the following can be given to the patient to counteract its effect, except:
A. 2 tsp of ipecac syrup B. milk C. milk of magnesia D. alum

1. Which of the following conditions is usually present in a Class II, Division 2 malocclussion?
A. Open bite
B. Steep mandibular plane
C. Mesiocclusion of permanent first molars
D. Lingual inclination of maxillary central incisors
2. The following are the conditions found on the area of pressure in the presence of heavy forces:
1. area of hyalinization
2. occlusion of blood vessels
3. stretched periodontal fibers
4. undermining resoprtion
A. 1, 2& 3 B. 1, 2 & 4 C. 2 , 3 & 4 D. 3 only E. 1 & 4 only

3. Generalized osteoclastic activity along the walls of the alveolar socket is the bone response to:
A. depressing force C. extrusion
B. elongating force D. rotating force E. both B & D

4. The major source of anchorage in a maxillary Hawley appliance is the :

A. molar clasp C. acrylic portion
B. labial bow D. interproximal clasp E. bracket of the band

5. A narrow maxillary arch with respect to midsagittal plane is said to be in:

A. Protraction C. contraction
B. retraction D. distraction E. both C & D
6. Slow progress in molar uprighting in an adult patient is usally due to:
A. overextended bands
B. an overcontoured spring
C. lack of anchorage control
D. the occlusion not being relieved
E. the stabilizing wire not being passive

7. The “V” principle of growth is best illustrated by the:

A. nasal spetum C. mandibular symphysis
B. mandibular ramus D. spheno-occipital synchondrosis

8. Anterior crossbite in the primary dentition usually indicates a developing:

A. Class I malocclusion
B. Class II malocclusion
C. Class III malocclusion
D. Class IV maloccusion
E. none of the above

9. A mixed dentition analysis determines:

 A. intercanine width
B. skeletal growth pattern
C. discrepancies in jaw size
D. size of permanent incisors
E. space available versus space required

10. With a flush terminal plane, permanent first molars will:

A. initially be Class II
B. initially be Class III
C. immediately assume a normal relationship
D. erupt immediately into an end-to-end relationship

11. Arch shape & symmetry are best evaluated from the:
A. study cast C. frontal photograph
B. panoramic x-ray D. lateral cephalogram E. intraoral photograph

12. Bodily force that moves the central incisor mesially produces:
A. stretching of the periodontal fiber on the distal side
B. compression of the periodontal fiber in the distal side
C. osteoblastic activity on the mesial side
D. osteoclastic activity on the distal side

13. A 9-year-old patient has a slightly convex profile and a suspected tooth mass-arch length (circumference)
discrepancy. Before instituting space management procedures, the dentist should:
A. complete a space analysis
B. complete a cephalometric analysis
C. seek orthodontic consultation
D. all of the above
E. Either A or C above

14. A primary maxillary anterior tooth in a 4-year-old child was traumatically intruded into the tissues so that
only half the tooth is visible. The most appropriate treatment is to:
A. extract the tooth.
B. perform a pulpotomy
C. administer no treatment
D. place orthodontic bands on adjacent teeth and draw the tooth down with elastics

15. Which of the following orthodontic movements of teeth are most difficult to accomplish?
1. Tipping
2. Rotation
3. Intrusion
4. Extrusion
5. Translation
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 1 & 5 D. 3 & 4 E. 3 & 5

16. Interstitial growth is observed at which of the following sites?

1. Spheno-occipital syndrondrosis
2. Maxillary tuberosity
3. Mandibular condyle
4. Zygomaticomaxillary suture
5. Apex of an erupting premolar
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 1 & 4 D. 2 & 4 E. 2 & 5

17. When force is applied, bone reflexes that produces deformation of crystalline materials and allows flow of
electric current necessary for tooth movement:
A. deposition C. hyalinization
B. piezoelectricity D. undermining resoprtion

18. Cephalometrics is useful in assessing which of the following relationships?

1. tooth-to-tooth
2. bone-to-bone
3. tooth-to-bone
A. 1 & 2 B. 1 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1,2 & 3 E. 3 only

19. Which of the following is the most essential factor related to correction of an anterior crossbite?
 A. age of the patient
B. depth of the corssbite
C. shape of the tooth involved
D. space available mesiodistally
20. The growth movement of the mandible is complimented by the growth of the
maxilla, which is:
A. down and forward C. downward and backward
B. forward only, D. upward and backward

21. Direction of displacement of the mandible in an individual with developing Class II malocclusion:
A. down and forward, C. down and backward,
B. forward only, D. forward and upward, E. upward and backward.

22. Child refuses to accept treatment or open the mount minimally:

A. Frankl 1 B. Frankl 2 C. Frankl 3 D. Frankl 4

23. Definitely negative behavior.

A. Frankl 1 B. Frankl 2 C. Frankl 3 D. Frankl 4

24. Mandible comes from ? branchial arch

A. first B. second C. third D. fourth

25. Maxilla is formed from the maxillary processes and ?

A. medial nasal process C. globular process
B. lateral processes D. tuberculum impar

26. Protrusiveness or retrusiveness of the chin point can be known by analyzing the:
A. SNB B. FMLA C. IMPA D. FMA E. FH/NP

27. In young child, paradoxical excitement occurs most frequently following premedication with:
A. a narcotic C. a barbiturate
B. nitrous oxide D. an amphetamine

28. The average age at which calcification of crowns of permanent central incisors is completed is:
A. Birth B. 2-3 years of age C. 4-5 years of age D. 6-7 years of age

29. Amalgam is most often the restorative material of choice for primary teeth. The most important
modification in its use for children is in:
A. cavity preparation C. use of a rubber dam
B. use of a zinc-free alloy D. condensation of the alloy E. placement of matrix bands

1. The principal growth site of the cranial base believed to be responsible for its anteroposterior growth is?
A. spheno-occipital C. spheno-ethmoidal
B. intersphenoidal D. intraoccipital

2. Which of the following is not a source of extra space for the resolution of permanent incisor crowding in
the lower arch?
A. increase in intercanine width
B. labial positioning of the permanent incisors
C. distal movement of the canines into the primate space
D. deposition of bone at the posterior border of the ramus

3. Which of the following factors will not increase maxillary width?

A. growth of the palate following “V” principle
B. deposition at the fronto-maxillary suture
C. deposition at the lateral walls
D. deposition at the median palatine sutre

4. The major mechanism for growth of the cranial case is the:

A. expansion of the cartilage cells
B. interstitial growth of bone
C. apposition of new bone at the synchondroses
D. apposition of new bone at the sutures.
5. The vertical lengthening of the maxillary complex is brought about by a composite of factors, except:
A. deposition of bone on the oral side of the palate with compensating resopriton on the entire oral
side
B. deposition on the posterior facing cortical surface of the maxillary tuberosity
C. deposition on the various sutures where it contacts the other bones above it

6. The main growth site of the mandible which is responsible for its increase ion height?
A. Condyle C. symphysis
B. gonial angle D. posterior border of the ramus E. inferior border of the body

7. The sequence of completion of facial growth by planes of space is?

A. depth, width, height C. height, depth, width
B. width, depth, height D. width, height, depth E. depth, height, width

8. The theory which states that the growth of the craniofacial bones is caused by the soft tissues adjacent
to them.
A. Functional matrix C. Sutural Dominance theory
B. Cartilaginous growth theory D. Limborgh’s theory

10. Space for eruption of permanent mandibular molars is created by:

A. apposition at the anterior border of the ramus
B. apposition at the alveolar process
C. resorption at the anterior border of the ramus
D. resorption at the posterior border of the ramus

11. Displacement of the mandible due to its growth at the condyle and posterior border of the ramus is?
A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. cortical drift

12. Chin cup is used to intercept a?

A. Class 1 type 3 C. Class II
B. Class III D. Developing Class III

13. A direct growth movement that is produced by deposition on one side of the orbital plate with
resorption on the opposite side is?
A. Displacement C. translation
B. cortical drift D. remodeling

14.. The following are distinctive structural features related to cartilage of the cranial base, except:
A. pressure- tolerant C. grows interstitially and appositionally
B. matrix is non-vascular D. grows appositionally

15. What is the chief factor in the formation of the alveolar process?
A. normal process of growth
B. eruption of teeth
C. lengthening of the condyle
D. overall growth of the maxilla and mandible

16. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a mature swallow?

A. active contractions of the muscles of the lips
B. tongue tip is placed against alveolar process behind the upper incisors
C. teeth are together during swallowing
D. both A & B
E. both A & C

17. These are six soft spots present between the bones of the skull roof.
A. Sutures B. synchondroses C. fontanelles D. cartilages

18. Class I permanent molar relationship can be achieved through the following, except
A. Late mesial shift after the loss of second primary molar
B. Greater forward growth of the mandible than the maxilla
C. Combination of both
D. None of the above.

19. An inherent disposition of most teeth to drift mesially even before they are in occlusion:
A. mesial drifting tendency
B. anterior component of force D. both A & B
C. physiologic movement of teeth E. both B & C
20. Spaces between the primary anteriors:
A. interdental space
B. primate space D. both A & B
C. Nance leeway space E. both B & C

21. Primate space is found between the:

A. maxillary canine and first molar
B. mandibular primary canine and lateral incisor
C. maxillary canine and lateral incisors
D. none of the above

22. At what stage in Nolla’s classification does a permanent tooth start to erupt?
A. Stage 7 C. Stage 6
B. Stage 5 D. Stage 8 E. Stage 4

23. From the flush terminal plane relationship of molars in the primary dentition, the permanent first molar
relationship in the permanent dentition can become the following in the transition period, except:
A. Class I C. Class III
B. Class II D. end to end / cusp to cusp E. none of the choices

24. Which of the following are normal signs of primary dentition?

I. ovoid arch form
II. deep overjet and overbite
III. straight terminal plane
IV. primate spaces
A. I, II, III & IV B. II, III & IV C. I, III & IV D. I, II & IV

25. It is the difference in size between the primary teeth and their permanent successor in the posterior
segment:
A. posterior liability C. Posterior size discrepancy
B. Nance Leeway space D. Late mesial shift

26. Mouth breather who seldom approximate their lips do muscle exercises. This can be varied
by. A. playing wind instrument B. blowing exercise C. A & B D. none

27. Child is 10years old. Tooth no. 55 has been exfoliated but tooth no. 65 is still very intact.
What must be done?
A. none, wait for 65 to exfoliate C. do percussion test before extracting 65
B. Extract 65 at once D. take x-ray to evaluate

28. When is the proper time to remove a space maintainer?

A. crown successor visible clinically and it is in stage 8 radiographically
B. bone barrier has resorbed
C. crown of successor is fully erupted
D. age 12.

29. Two or more tooth moving opposite directions and pitted against each other is equal and
opposite. The anchorage is.
A. simple B. stationary C. reciprocal D. none.

30. The following are caused by thumbsucking habit Except.

A. anterior open bite B. protrusion of upper incisor C. expansion of upper arch

31. Mesial surface of E can disked in the case of 3 cannot erupt because of insufficient space,
This is.
A. contingency of extraction B. occlusal equilibrium C. space regaining D. none.

32. In a condition characterized by partial or complete absence of clavicle.

A. torticollis B. cerebral palsy C. cleidocranial dysostosis

33. A condition characterized by foreshortening of sternocleidomastoid muscle.

A. torticollis B. cerebral palsy C. cleidocranial dysostosis

34. Type of force recommended for removable orthodontic appliance.

A. continuous B. functional C. dissipating D. intermittent

35. Type of force which can be seen in fixed appliance is.

 A. continuous B. functional C. dissipating D. intermittent

36. The ages of bone development for girls is.

A. 7,9,15,18 B. 8,10,12,17 C. 6,7,12,13 D. 7,8,11,12

37. It can detect thyroid disturbances which has an oral manifestation.

A. hand & wrist x-ray B. electromyographic exam C. BMR D. biostatic

38. Osteoclastic activity occurs on the.

A. tension side B. pressure side C. stress D. compression

39. Bone deposition occurs on the. A. tension side B. pressure side C. stress D. compression

40. The tooth is push towards the socket and pulled away from occlusal plane.
A. elongating force B. rotation C. depressing D. heavy force

41. Neutroclusion with labioversion of max centrals & buccoversion of mand. 1st premolar.
A. Class 1 type 2 & 3 B. Class 1 type 2 & 4 C. Class 1 type 2 & 5

42. A supraverted mand. Premolar with respect to Frankfurt horizontal plane is said it be in.
A. contraction B. abstraction C. Attraction D. distraction

43.. The resorption occurs from behind an immediate site of pressure, there is accumulation of
fluid and blood vessels are occluded.
A. direct resorption C. undetermining resorption
B. frontal osteoclastic attack D. all of the Above.

44. It refers to perfect arrangement of teeth when jaw’s are closed & condyies are at rest in the
glenoid fossa.
A. normal occlusion B. ideal occlusion C. malocclusion

45. The incidence of malocclusion is very high in.

A. homogeneous population B. Heterogeneous population C. Eskimos D. none of the above

46. The predominant type of malocclusion seen in mixed dentition is.

A. Crowding B. anterior open bite C. Class II Div. 1

47. A brachycephalic individual is associated with___ arch form:

A. square, B. ovoid, C. long and narrow, D. none of the above.

48. Increase in maxillary arch perimeter can be due to the following, except:
A. labial tipping or eruption of permanent incisors,
B. diverging increase in the height of alveolar bone,
C. interproximal wear out of tooth surfaces.

52. A type of preventive dentistry where the main concern is to slow down the process of a disease:
A. Primary prevention C. tertiary prevention
B. Secondary prevention D. All of the Above

53. Characteristic behavior that is based on belief:

A. Phenomelogical C. Behavioral
B. Neurobiological D. Psychoanalytical E. none

54. A parent who postponed the dental treatment of his/her child is

A. Overprotective Parent C. Neglectful Parent
B. Manipulative Parent D. Hostile parent

55. Panoramic Radiographic Film:

A. 5 “ x 7” B. 2”x 3” C. 5” x 12” D.. 8” x 10”

56. Radiograph examination for a three years old patient with no apparent abnormalities and open
contact:
A. 2 posterior bitewing C. 4 film series
B. 8 film series D. 12 film Series E. None

57. Radiographic examination needed for a 6-7 years old with no apparent abnormalities:
 A. 2 posterior bitewing C. 4 film series
B. 8 film series D. 12 film Series E. None

58. Medicament used for Type C PRR:

A. Glass ionomer C. Bonding agent
B. Composite D. Pit and fissure sealant E. all of these

59. Advantage of Rubber dam utilization:

A. Control saliva C. Aids management
B. Provides Protection D. all of these E. None
60. Radiograph picture of a caries is generally--- than the actual caries:
A. smaller B. larger C. the same D. deeper E. B&D

96. Rain coat:

A cotton B. rubber dam C. tooth paint D. tooth camera E. pointer

97. Anesthesia:
A. rubber dam B. tooth paint C. Sleeping juice D. tooth camera E. pointer

98 Explorer:
A. Pointer B. toothbrush C. Tooth paint D. Injection E. none

99. Pit and Fissure sealant:

A. Pointer B. toothbrush C. Tooth paint D. Injection E. none

100 Excavator:
A. Pointer B. toothbrush C. Tooth paint D. Injection E. none

1. A linguoverted max. premolar with respect to Midsaggital plane is said to be in?

A. attraction B. Abstraction C. Protraction D. Retraction E. Contraction.

2. A linguoverted max. incisor with respect to Orbital Plane is said to be in?

A. attraction B. Abstraction C. Protraction D. Retraction E. Contraction.

3. Neutroclusion with maxillary anteriors are lingual in relation to the lower anteriors and there is mesial
drifting of molars.
A. Class 1 type 3 and 5 B. Class 1 type 3 and 4 C. Class 1 type 5 and 4.

4. The following are vertical planes, except:

A. Axis of 1 B. v-axis C. facial plane D. palatal

5. Bone ossification can be detected with the use of:

A, hand and wrist x-ray B. BMR C. electromyographic exam D. biostatic
6. The appliance to be used in correcting the anterior crossbite is determined by the:
A. amount of overbite B. age of the patient C. cooperation of the patient D. all of these

7. Inclined planes should not be left in the mouth for more than 2 months to prevent creation of:
A. anterior open bite B. posterior open bite C. anterior cross bite D. posterior cross bite.

8. The best appliance for 7 years old child with Class 1 Type 3 (inlocked maxillary central incisor) is A.
cross bite elastics C. myofunctional appliance
B. band and crib D. mandibular acrylic inclined plane.

9. Appliance for correcting Class 1 deep bite in a growing child.

A. tongue depressor B. band and crib C. inclined plane D. maxillary bite planes.

10. The overbite reduction achieved by the bite plane is due largely to:
A. intrusion of posterior teeth C. overeruption of posterior teeth
B. mesial drifting of posterior teeth D. buccal and lingual movement of posterior teeth.

11. In adult patient with excessive overbite the lower facial height in relation to the upper and lower
middle thirds is:
A. normal B. markedly short C. markedly long.

12. In deep bite the postural vertical dimension is/has:

A. in harmony with occlusal vertical dimension
B. not in harmony with occlusal vertical dimension
 C. no relations with occlusal vertical dimension

13. The prognosis of a cervical third root fracture:

A is not favorable, B. is favorable, C. depends on whether tooth is discolored

14. The most important predisposing factor to injury of the anterior teeth is:
A. rotated anterior teeth, B. protruding anterior teeth C. crossbite of anterior teeth,

15. The ultimate objective of pulp capping is:

A. to preserve the pulp and odontoblast so that secondary dentin will be deposited
B. to prevent bacterial contamination, C. to prevent pain,

16. The purpose of pulp treatment and root canal filling is to:
A. remove pulpal tissue,
B. prolong the usefulness of a tooth to function in mastication,
C. enlarge the root canal,

17. Stage of Nolla’s clacification wherein tooth begins eruptive movement:

A. 2 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 E. 10.

18. Which of the facial radiographs is best used in assessing whether the patient is gummy or not? A.
frontal view with lips repose B. lateral view C. smiling photograph.

19. Lip profile is influenced more by:

A. lip size B. lip tonicity C. lip shape D. deposition of upper incisors

20. The profile of the patient with protruded mandible and retruded maxilla is:
A. straight B. convex C. concave.

21. Which of the following cannot be assessed from cephalometric radiographs?

A. mandibular retrusion C. direction of mandibular growth
B. incisor inclination D. adequacy of dental arch perimeter.

22. Treatment for crown fracture involving the pulp of a primary incisor:
A. DPC B. formocresol pulpotomy C. pulpectomy D. extraction

23. The dental procedure that produces the greatest negative response in children:
A. extraction B. injection C. cavity preparation D. all of these

24. In inferior nerve block for a child patient, the injection must be made__ than for an adult patient. A.
slightly higher B. in level C. slightly lower and more posteriorly.

25. The maximum number of cartridges of 2% lidocaine with 1:100,000 epinephrine for a 40 pound child
patient is:
A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9 E. 10.

26. In inferior alveolar nerve blocked, the barrel of the syringe should be directed on the plane:
A. between C & D B. between D & E C. between E & 6 D. on top of D.

27. Indicated restoration on a primary anterior tooth with small mesial and distal caries and a cervical
caries but without pulp involvement:
A. stainless steel crown, B. composite resin C. strip-off crown,

28. In pulpectomy of primary teeth, filling of root canal should be:

A. 0.5 - 1 mm above the radiographic apex,
B. 2 - 3 mm above the radiographic apex, C. 4 - 5 mm above the radiographic apex,

29. The type of fear that is based on the feelings and attitude that have been suggested to the child by
others without having had the experience:
A. objective fear B. subjective fear C. BOTH

30. On the first dental visit, the basic fear of the children below 2 years old is concerned with.
A. injections C.. anxiety & being separated from parents
B. instruments used in dental treatment D. not understanding the reason for treatment.
31. Giving gifts to children.
A, should promised to the child for every appointment to ensure cooperation.
B, should be considered as a token for friendship
C, both A&B
D, Both B&C.

32. The arrangement of 2 forces of equal magnitude and opposite but noncollinear lines of action:
A. center of rotation B. couple C. moment D. center of resistance

33. When one side of the arch is intact and there are several primary teeth missing on the other side,
use:
A. a Nance lingual arch C. a distal shoe
B. a transpalatal arch D. a partial denture space maintainer E. a soldered fixed lingual arch
34. Uses the principles of learning theory:
A. behavior modification B. behavior management C. behavior shaping

35. Poor personal experiences in the dental office:

A. overprotective parents C. hostile parents
B. neglectful parents D. manipulative parents.

36. Reluctant to accept treatment:

A. definitely negative B. negative C.positive D. definitely positive.

37. They have minimal apprehensions and are reasonably relaxed:

A. enthusiastic B. cooperative C. timid D. defiant.

38. In treating a pediatric patient, one must establish good communication with the
A. child only, since he is the one to be treated
B. parents only, because they are the ones who will pay the bill
C. the caretaker or the yaya who takes care of the child
D. both parent and child

39. The use of nitrous oxide is classified as a

A. physical restraint B. pharmacologic approach C. psychological approach

40. Guiding of behavior through eye contact, posture and facial expression.
A. distraction C. positive reinforcement
B. non-verbal communication D. HOM exercise E. TSD

41. Partial or complete immobilization of the patient to protect him from injury while providing dental
care.
A. conscious sedation C. positive reinforcement
B. HOM exercise D. physical restraint E. nitrous oxide and oxygen inhalation

42. The following are factors that will compensate incisor liability, except:
A. intercanine width growth C. labial positioning of permanent incisors
C. upright position of primary incisors D. favorable tooth size ratio

43. Crowding of permanent posterior teeth may be due to:

A. mesial drifting of permanent first molar C. crowding of anterior teeth
B. labioversion of anterior teeth D. spacing of anterior teeth

44. This will decrease lower arch perimeter during transitional period:
A. late mesial shift of first permanent molar
B. distal tipping of lower cuspid C. labial position of permanent incisors

45. As arch perimeter increase, arch length?

A. increases B. decreases C. no change.

46. This is measured from the distal of second primary molar to distal of second primary molar on the
other side following the contour of the arch.
A. arch width B. intercanine width C. arch perimeter D. arch length

47. Which of the developmental space will cause a decrease in arch perimeter when pre-empted?
A. primate space B. interdental space C. leeway space D. inter-occlusal space
48. Upper arch width increases significantly more than that of lower arch due to?
A. diverging alveolar growth C. vertical alveolar growth
B. labial positioning of permanent incisors D. distal tipping of cuspid

49. Point of injection for mandibular blocking in pediatric patient is ___ the occlusal plane.
A. above, B. below or at the level, C. higher than,

50. An incorrigible 4-year-old child who keeps on kicking and throwing objects in the clinic can be
managed by:
A. tell-show-do technique, C. physical restraint and conscious sedation
B. general anesthesia, D. all of these

51. If a child complains of pain on a direct pulp capped tooth, the first treatment option should be:
A. indirect pulp capping, B. pulpotomy, C. pulpectomy, D. extraction.

52. The following irrigating solution can be used as irrigant in pulpectomy procedure except:
A. normal saline solution, B. sodium hypochlorite and water solution,
B. distilled water, D. anesthetic solution,

53. The first dental appointment of a child patient should be:

A. before 1 year old, B. 2 1/2 to 3 years old, C. 6 years old

54. Least reduction in tooth preparation for posterior SSC:

A. buccal B. lingual C. occlusal D. proximal surfaces.
55. Two or more teeth moving in opposite directions and pitted against each other by the appliance.
Usually, the resistance to each other is equal and opposite. The anchorage is:
A. simple B. stationary C. reciprocal D. extraoral

56. The following are sources of extraoral anchorage except:

A. cervical B. occipital C.cranial D. facial E. mucosa

57. The order from greatest to least change of the dimensions of the cranium:
A. height, depth, width C. depth, width, height
B. depth, height , width D. width, height, depth

58. At age 4-5, what normal sign of primary dentition augers well for the erupting permanent incisors in
terms of space availability:
A. Class I cuspid relationship C. growth spaces, interdental spaces
B. upright vertical incisor relationship D. flush terminal plane

59. The basic form of the arch is determined:

A. by environmental factors B. by muscles
B. in intrauterine life D. two of the choices E. all of these

60. The ffg are true regarding the deciduous maxillary central incisor, except:
A. MD diameter of crown greater than its cervicoincisal length
B. developmental lines are usually not evident
C. well-developed marginal ridges on the lingual
D. root shape is conical

61. To avoid ingestion of lethal dose of fluoride, it is safe to dispense up to __ of fluoride.

A. 120mg B. 300 mg C. 500 mg. D. 700 mg.

62. Medium-size punch hole is used for:

A. primary molars C. permanent molars
B. maxillary permanent incisors D. lower permanent incisors.

63. Effect of abnormal eruptive path:

A. space loss C. delayed eruption E. deflection of eruption
B. increase in arch length D. elongation of adjacent teeth

64. Proximal caries, if not restored, will: ... the arch length
A. increase B. decrease C. not affect
65. Lack of anatomic detail of dental restoration produces:
A. increased arch length C. elongation of adjacent teeth
B. elongation of opposing teeth D. A and B

66. Trident factor of oral habit which is now considered as the most impt. contributory factor to the dev’t
of malocclusion:
A. duration B. frequency C. intensity

67. The ff. are true regarding thumb sucking EXCEPT:

A. it is a learned habit, not a symptom of a deeper emotional disturbance
B. for the first 3 years, damage to occlusion is confined to the anterior segment and is usually
temporary
C. normal from 1-1 1/2 then disappears at age 2 with proper attention to nursing
D. habit beyond age 4 can be controlled by badgering attempts of parents to break the habit
68. Lack of anatomic detail of dental restoration produces:
A. increased arch length C. elongation of adjacent teeth
B. elongation of opposing teeth D. A and B

69. At age 4-5, what normal sign of primary dentition augers well for the erupting permanent incisors in
terms of space availability:
A. Class 1 cuspid relationship C. growth spaces, interdental spaces
B. upright vertical incisor relationship D. flush terminal plane.

70. The basic form of the arch is determined:

A. by environmental factors B. by muscles C. in intrauterine life D. two of the choices

71. This aims to recognize and eliminate potential irregularities and malpositions in the developing
craniofacial complex:
A. Preventive Orthodontics C. Interceptive Orthodontics
B. Limited Corrective Orthodontics D. Extensive Corrective Orthodontics

72. The action taken to preserve the integrity of what appears to be normal occlusion at a specific time:
A. Preventive Orthodontics C. Interceptive Orthodontics
B. Limited Corrective Orthodontics D. Extensive Corrective Orthodontics
30. The most frequent cause of fracture of a root tip during extraction of a primary molar is:
A. ankylosis of the tooth
B. improper use of cowhorn forceps
C. presence of a supernumerary premolar
D. root resorption between the apex and the bifurcation
E. asymmetric root resorption in which only one root is completely resorbed.

31. The most common cause of sinus tracts in gingival tissues of children is:
A. pericementitis C. periapical cyst
B. acute periapical abscess D. chronic periapical abscess

32. A light bluish, dome-shaped lesion on the inside lip of a 2-year old child is most likely a:
A. Mucocele B. melanoma C. hematoma D. hemangioma E. sucking callous

33. Primary second molars usually erupt during ages:

A. 8-14 months C. 14-20 months
B. 20-30 months D. 30-36 months E. 36-48 months

34. A child in long-term remission of acute leukemia has dental problems characterized by unusual
susceptibility to:
A. dental caries C. oral infection
B. periodontal bone loss D. development of jaw deformities E. all of the above.

35. This is a contraindication of HOM

A. spoiled child C. very young patient
B. defiant child D. uncooperative behavior but capable of understanding