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PHYSICS

DPP BOOKLET

60 + 28

Topic-wise Chapter-wise Improves

Tests for Concept your learning

Checking & by at least

Speed Building

20%

Ü Collection of 3100 + MCQs of all variety of questions

Ü Unique & innovative way of learning

Ü Detailed solutions to Topic-wise & Chapter-wise practice sheets

Ü Covers all important concepts of each topic

Ü As per latest pattern & syllabus

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EBD_7156

• Corporate Office : 45, 2nd Floor, Maharishi Dayanand Marg, Corner Market,

Malviya Nagar, New Delhi-110017

Tel. : 011-49842349 / 49842350

DISHA PUBLICATION

ALL RIGHTS RESERVED

© Copyright Publisher

No part of this publication may be reproduced in any form without prior permission of the publisher. The author and the

publisher do not take any legal responsibility for any errors or misrepresentations that might have crept in. We have tried

and made our best efforts to provide accurate up-to-date information in this book.

Log on to www.dishapublication.com or email to info@dishapublication.com

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NEET/AIIMS/JIPMER (Kota's formula to Success)

PREPARE ASSESS IMPROVE

Assessment is the most integral part of a student’s preparation but still most of them avoid it. Only assessment can tell

where you stand and how you can improve from that point. So it is very important that you take the right assessment, which

is on the correct pattern, has the same level of difficulty as the actual exam and covers all the important concepts of the

subject.

Disha Publication launches a first of its kind product which changed the way coaching was conducted in KOTA - the hub

of Engineering and Medical Entrance education in India.

The book “Daily Practice Problem (DPP) Sheets for NEET/AIIMS” is precise, apt and tuned to all the requirements of a

NEET/AIIMS aspirant.

• Part A provides 60 DPP's with division of the complete NEET syllabus of Physics into 60 most important Topics.

Each of the chapter has been broken into 2 or more topics.

• Part B consist of — Chapter-wise tests based on NCERT and NEET syllabus.

• Time Limit and Maximum Marks have been provided for each DPP Sheet/ topic. You must attempt each Sheet in

test like conditions following the time limits. Further to achieve perfect preparation in a topic or chapter one has

to score atleast 135 marks.

• Ultimate tool for Concept Checking & Speed Building.

• Collection of 3100 Standardised MCQ’s of all variety of NEW pattern questions – MCQ only one correct option

and Assertion-Reason.

• Unique & innovative way of learning. Whenever you have prepared a topic(Part A) or a chapter (Part B) just

attempt that worksheet.

• Do not refer the Solution Booklet until and unless you have made all the efforts to solve the DPP Sheets.

• Covers all important Concepts of each Topic in the form of different Questions in the DPP Sheets.

• Compliant to all boards of education.

No matter where you PREPARE from – a coaching or NCERT books or any other textbook/ Guide - Daily Practice Problem

Sheets provides you the right ASSESSMENT on each topic. Your performance provides you the right clues to IMPROVE

your concepts so as to perform better in the final examination.

It is to be noted here that these are not tests but act as a checklist of student’s learning and ability to apply concepts to

different problems. Do proper analysis after you attempt each DPP sheet and try to locate your weak areas.

It is our strong belief that if an aspirant works hard on the clues provided through each of the DPP sheets he/ she can

improve his/ her learning and finally the SCORE by at least 20%.

Χisha ∆xperts

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EBD_7156

The book comprises of following two parts

Part A : Topic-wise DPP Sheets Page No.

Detailed Index (i) to (iv)

Topic-wise Sheets 1-60 (Each sheet 4 pages) 1 - 4

Solutions of Topic-wise Sheets 1 - 158

Detailed Index (a) to (c)

Chapter-wise Sheets 1-28 p-1 – p-112

Solutions of Chapter-wise Sheets S-1– S-115

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TOPIC-WISE

DPP SHEETS

WITH SOLUTIONS

[i]

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EBD_7156

INDEX/SYLLABUS

DPP-1Page No.

DPP-3 MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE 1 (Distance, Displacement, Uniform & Non-uniform motion) P1 - P 4

DPP-4 MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE 2 (Relative Motion & Motion Under Gravity) P1 - P 4

DPP-5 VECTORS P1 - P 4

DPP-12 WORK, ENERGY AND POWER-1 (Work by constant and variable forces, kinetic and potential energy,

work energy theorem) P1 - P 4

DPP-13 WORK, ENERGY AND POWER-2 (Conservation of momentum and energy, collision, rocket case) P1 - P 4

DPP-15 ROTATIONAL MOTION – 1: Basic concepts of rotational motion, moment of a force, torque, angular

momentum and its conservation with application P1 - P 4

DPP-16 ROTATIONAL MOTION-2 : Moment of inertia, radius of gyration, (values of moments of inertia simple

geometrical objects) P1 - P 4

DPP-17 ROTATIONAL MOTION - 3 : Rolling Motion, Parallel and perpendicular theorems and their

applications, Rigid body rotation, equations of rotational motion P1 - P 4

DPP-18 GRAVITATION - 1 (The Universal law of gravitation, Acceleration due to gravity and its variation with

altitude and depth, Kepler's law of planetary motion) P1 - P 4

DPP-19 GRAVITATION - 2 (Gravitational potential energy, Gravitational potential, Escape velocity & Orbital

velocity of a satellite, Geo-stationary satellites) P1 - P 4

[ii]

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Heat, work and internal energy, Different thermodynamic processes) P1 - P 4

DPP-25 THERMODYNAMICS-2 (1st and 2nd laws of thermodynamics, Reversible & irreversible processes,

Carnot engine and its efficiency) P1 - P 4

DPP-27 OSCILLATIONS-1 (Periodic motion - period, Frequency, Displacement as a function of time. Periodic

functions, Simple harmonic motion and its equation, Energy in S.H.M. - kinetic and potential energies)

P1 - P 4

DPP-28 OSCILLATIONS-2 (Oscillations of a spring, simple pendulum, free, forced and damped oscillations,

Resonance) P1 - P 4

DPP-29 WAVES-1 (Wave motion, longitudinal and transverse waves, speed of a wave, displacement relation for a

progressive wave, principle of superposition of waves, reflection of waves) P1 - P 4

DPP-30 WAVES-2 (Standing waves in strings and organ pipes, Fundamental mode and harmonics, Beats, Doppler

effect in sound) P1 - P 4

DPP-32 ELECTROSTATICS-1 (Coulomb's law, electric field, field lines, Gauss's law) P1 - P 4

DPP-33 ELECTROSTATICS-2 (Electric potential and potential difference, equipotential surfaces, electric dipole)

P1 - P 4

DPP-36 CURRENT ELECTRICITY – 1 (Electric Current, drift velocity, Ohm's law, Electrical resistance, Resistances

of different materials, V-I characteristics of Ohm and non-ohmic conductors, electrical energy and power,

Electrical resistivity, Colour code of resistors, Temperature dependance of resistance) P1 - P 4

DPP-37 CURRENT ELECTRICITY – 2 Electrical cell and its internal resistance, Potential difference and E.M.F of a

cell, Combination of cells in series and in parallel, Kirchoff's laws and their applications, RC transient circuit,

Galvanometer, Ammeter, Voltmeter] P1 - P 4

DPP-38 CURRENT ELECTRICITY-3 : Wheatstone bridge, Meter bridge, Potentiometer-principle and its applications.

P1 - P 4

DPP-39 MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT-1 (Magnetic field due to current carrying wires, Biot savart law)

P1 - P 4

DPP-40 MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT-2 : (Motion of charge particle in a magnetic field, force between

current carrying wires.) P1 - P 4

[iii]

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DPP-41 MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT-3 (Magnetic dipole, Current carrying loop in magnetic

field,Galvanometer ) P1 - P 4

DPP-42 MAGNETISM AND MATTER - 1 (Bar magnet as an equivalent solenoid, Magnetic field lines, Earth's

magnetic field and magnetic elements) P1 - P 4

DPP-43 MAGNETISM & MATTER-2 (Para, dia and ferro-magnetic substances, magnetic susceptibility and

permeability, Hysteresis, Electromagnets and permanent magnets.) P1 - P 4

Lenz's law, motional e.m.f.) P1 - P 4

DPP-45 ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION - 2 : Self inductance, mutual inductance, Growth and decay of

current in L.R. circuit, Transformer, Electric motor, Generator P1 - P 4

DPP-46 ALTERNATING CURRENT - 1 (Alternating currents, peak and rms value of alternating current/voltage;

reactance and impedance, Pure circuits, LR, CR ac circuits.) P1 - P 4

DPP-47 ALTERNATING CURRENT - 2 (LCR series circuit, resonance, quality factor, power in AC circuits, wattless

and power current) P1 - P 4

DPP-48 EM WAVES P1 - P 4

DPP-50 RAY OPTICS - II (Refraction on plane surface, total internal reflection, prism) P1 - P 4

DPP-54 DUAL NATURE OF MATTER & RADIATION (Matter Waves, Photon, Photoelectric effect, X-ray) P1 - P 4

DPP-55 ATOMS P1 - P 4

DPP-56 NUCLEI P1 - P 4

transistor as an amplifier, logic gates) P1 - P 4

[iv]

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Name : Date :

01

SYLLABUS : Physical World, Units & Dimensions

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 30 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice and n2 are number of particles per unit volume in the position

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out x1 and x2. Find dimensions of D called as diffusion constant.

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (a) [M 0 L T 2] (b) [M 0 L2 T –4]

0

(c) [M L T ] –3 (d) [M 0 L2 T –1]

Q.1 If L, C and R represent inductance, capacitance and

2

Q.3 X = 3YZ find dimensions of Y in (MKSA) system, if X and

resistance respectively, then which of the following does

not represent dimensions of frequency? Z are the dimensions of capacity and magnetic field

respectively

1 R

(a) (b) (a) [M –3L –2T – 4A –1] (b) [ML– 2]

RC L –3 –2 4 4

(c) [M L T A ] (d) [M –3L– 2T 8A 4]

1 C aZ

(c) (d) a - kq

LC L Q.4 In the relation P = , P is pressure, Z is the distance,

e

Q.2 Number of particles crossing unit area perpendicular to b

k is Boltzmann constant and q is the temperature. The

n2 - n1

X-axis in unit time is given by n = - D , where n1 dimensional formula of b will be

x2 - x1 (a) [M 0L 2T 0] (b) [M 1L 2T 1]

1 0

(c) [M L T ] –1 (d) [M 0L 2T –1]

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4.

Space for Rough Work

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1/ 2

Q.12 Wavelength of ray of light is 0.00006 m. It is equal to

P éF ù (a) 6 microns (b) 60 microns

Q.5 The frequency of vibration of string is given by n = ê ú .

2l ë m û (c) 600 microns (d) 0.6 microns

Here P is number of segments in the string and l is the Q.13 SI unit of permittivity is

length. The dimensional formula for m will be (a) C2 m2 N–2 (b) C–1 m 2N –2

(a) [M 0LT –1] (b) [ML 0T –1] (c) C2 m2 N2 (d) C2 m–2 N –1

(c) [ML T ] –1 0 (d) [M 0L 0T 0]

Q.6 What is the relationship between dyne and newton of force? 1

Q.14 The dimensions of e E2 (e0 = permittivity of free space

(a) 1 dyne = 10–5 newton (b) 1 dyne = 10–7 newton 2 0

(c) 1 dyne = 105 newton (d) 1 dyne = 107 newton and E = electric field) are

Q.7 The speed of light (c), gravitational constant (G) and (a) MLT–1 (b) ML2 T–2

(c) ML T –1 –2 (d) ML2 T–1

Planck's constant (h) are taken as the fundamental units in a

system. The dimensions of time in this new system should Q.15 Which of the following pairs is wrong?

be (a) Pressure-Baromter

(a) G1/2 h1/2 c –5/2 (b) G–1/2 h 1/2 c 1/2 (b) Relative density-Pyrometer

(c) G1/2 h1/2 c –3/2 (d) G1/2 h 1/2 c 1/2 (c) Temperature-Thermometer

Q.8 If the constant of gravitation (G), Planck's constant (h) and (d) Earthquake-Seismograph

the velocity of light (c) be chosen as fundamental units. Q.16 A physical quantity x depends on quantities y and z as

The dimensions of the radius of gyration is follows: x = Ay + B tan Cz, where A, B and C are constants.

(a) h1/2 c –3/2G 1/2 (b) h1/2 c 3/2 G 1/2 Which of the following do not have the same dimensions?

(c) h c1/2 –3/2 G –1/2 (d) h–1/2 c –3/2 G 1/2 (a) x and B (b) C and z–1

Q.9 The magnitude of any physical quantity (c) y and B/A (d) x and A

(a) depends on the method of measurement Q.17 If the time period (T) of vibration of a liquid drop depends

(b) does not depend on the method of measurement on surface tension (S), radius (r) of the drop and density (r)

(c) is more in SI system than in CGS system of the liquid, then the expression of T is

(d) directly proportional to the fundamental units of mass,

length and time

(a) T = k rr 3 / S (b) T = k r1/ 2 r 3 / S

Q.10 The unit of Stefan's constant s is (c) T = k rr 3 / S1/ 2 (d) None of these

(a) Wm–2 K–1 (b) Wm2K–4

(c) Wm K –2 –4 (d) Wm–2K4 Q.18 The dimensional formula for Planck’s constant (h) is

Q.11 In S = a + bt + ct2 , S is measured in metres and t in seconds. (a) [ML–2T–3 ] (b) [M0L2T–2 ]

The unit of c is (c) [M0L2T–1 ] (d) [ML–2T–2 ]

(a) ms–2 (b) m Q.19 What are the dimensions of permeability (m0) of vaccum?

(c) ms –1 (d) None (a) MLT–2I2 (b) MLT–2I–2

(c) ML–1T–2I2 (d) ML–1T –2I–2

5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

RESPONSE 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

GRID

15. 16. 17. 18. 19.

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DPP/ P 01 3

Q.20 A small steel ball of radius r is allowed to fall under gravity Q.23 P represents radiation pressure, c represents speed of light and

through a column of a viscous liquid of coefficient of S represents radiation energy striking unit area per sec. The non

viscosity h. After some time the velocity of the ball attains a zero integers x, y, z such that Px Sy cz is dimensionless are

constant value known as terminal velocity vT. The terminal (1) x = 1 (2) y = – 1

velocity depends on (i) the mass of the ball m, (ii) h, (iii) r (3) z = 1 (4) x = – 1

and (iv) acceleration due to gravity g. Which of the following Q.24 Which of the following pairs have same dimensions?

relations is dimensionally correct? (1) Angular momentum and work

mg hr (2) Torque and work

(a) vT µ (b) vT µ

hr mg (3) Energy and Young’s modulus

(4) Light year and wavelength

mgr

(c) vT µ hrmg (d) vT µ DIRECTION (Q.25-Q.27) : Read the passage given below and

h

answer the questions that follows :

Q.21 The equation of state of some gases can be expressed as

Three of the fundamental constants of physics are the universal

æ a ö gravitational constant, G = 6.7 × 10–11m3kg–1s–2, the speed

ç P + 2 ÷ (V - b) = RT . Here P is the pressure, V is the of light, c = 3.0 × 10 8 m/s, and Planck’s constant,

è V ø

h = 6.6 × 10–34 kg m2 s–1.

volume, T is the absolute temperature and a, b and R are

Q.25 Find a combination of these three constants that has the

constants. The dimensions of 'a' are

dimensions of time. This time is called the Planck time and

(a) ML5 T–2 (b) ML–1 T–2 represents the age of the universe before which the laws of

(c) M0L3T0 (d) M0L6T0 physics as presently understood cannot be applied.

DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions, more

hG hG

than one of the answers given are correct. Select the correct (a) (b)

answers and mark it according to the following codes: c 4

c3

Codes :

hG hG

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct (c) (d)

c c5

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

Q.26 Find the value of Planck time in seconds

Q.22 The frequency of vibration f of a mass m suspended from

a spring of spring constant k is given by a relation of the (a) 1.3 × 10– 33 s (b) 1.3 × 10– 43 s

type f = c mx ky, where c is a dimensionless constant. The (c) 2.3 × 10– 13 s (d) 0.3 × 10– 23 s

values of x and y are

Q.27 The energy of a photon is given by E = hc .

1 1 l

(1) x= (2) x=-

2 2

If l = 4 ´ 10 -7 m , the energy of photon is

1 1 (a) 3.0 eV (b) 4.5 eV

(3) y=- (4) y=

2 2 (c) 2.10 eV (d) 3.95 eV

GRID 25. 26. 27.

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4 DPP/ P 01

DIRECTIONS (Q. 28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains two

æ 1 1 ö

statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). v = Rç - ÷ , where the symbols have their usual

çn 2 2÷

Each of these questions has four alternative choices, only one of è 1 n2 ø

which is the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice.

meaning.

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a Q.29 Statement -1: The time period of a pendulum is given by

correct explanation for Statement-1.

the formula, T = 2p g / l .

(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT

a correct explanation for Statement-1. Statement -2: According to the principle of homogeneity of

(c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True. dimensions, only that formula is correct in which the

(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False. dimensions of L.H.S. is equal to dimensions of R.H.S.

Q.28 Statement -1 : Unit of Rydberg constant R is m–1 Q.30 Statement -1: L/R and CR both have same dimensions.

Statement -2 : It follows from Bohr’s formula Statement -2: L/R and CR both have dimension of time.

Total Questions 30 Total Marks 120

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 30 Qualifying Score 50

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

02

SYLLABUS : Measurements (Errors)

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 30 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

Q.1 A wire has a mass 0.3 ± 0.003g, radius 0.5 ± 0.005 mm and measurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 2% and 2%

length 6 ± 0.06 cm. The maximum percentage error in the respectiely. What is the percentage error in the quantity A

measurement of its density is (a) 12% (b) 7%

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5% (d) 14%

Q.2 If 97.52 is divided by 2.54, the correct result in terms of

Q.4 A physical quantity is given by X = M a LbT c . The

significant figures is

percentage error in measurement of M, L and T are a, b and

(a) 38.4 (b) 38.3937

g respectively. Then maximum percentage error in the

(c) 38.394 (d) 38.39

quantity X is

Q.3 A physical quantity A is related to four observable a, b, c

(a) aa+ bb + cg (b) aa+ bb – cg

a 2b3 a b c

and d as follows, A = the percentage errors of (c) + + (d) None of these

c d a b g

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4.

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2 DPP/ P 02

Q.5 If the length of rod A is 3.25 ± 0.01 cm and that of B is Q.11 The mean time period of second's pendulum is 2.00s and

4.19 ± 0.01 cm then the rod B is longer than rod A by mean absolute error in the time period is 0.05s. To express

(a) 0.94 ± 0.00 cm (b) 0.94 ± 0.01 cm maximum estimate of error, the time period should be

(c) 0.94 ± 0.02 cm (d) 0.94 ± 0.005 cm written as

Q.6 If L = 2.331 cm, B = 2.1 cm, then L + B = (a) (2.00 ± 0.01)s (b) (2.00 + 0.025) s

(a) 4.431 cm (b) 4.43 cm (c) (2.00 ± 0.05) s (d) (2.00 ± 0.10) s

(c) 4.4 cm (d) 4 cm Q.12 Error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 1%. The

Q.7 The number of significant figures in all the given numbers error in the calculated value of its volume is

25.12, 2009, 4.156 and 1.217 × 10–4 is (a) 1% (b) 3%

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5% (d) 7%

Q.8 In an experiment, the following observation's were Q.13 The relative density of material of a body is found by

recorded: L = 2.820 m, M = 3.00 kg, l = 0.087 cm, weighing it first in air and then in water. If the weight in air

is (5.00 ± 0.05) newton and weight in water is (4.00 ± 0.05)

Diameter D = 0.041 cm. Taking g = 9.81 m/s2 using the

newton. Then the relative density along with the maximum

formula, Y = 4 MgL , the maximum percentage error in Y permissible percentage error is

pD 2l (a) 5.0 ± 11% (b) 5.0 ± 1%

is

(a) 7.96% (b) 4.56% (c) 6.50% (d) 8.42% (c) 5.0 ± 6% (d) 1.25 ± 5%

Q.9 A physical parameter a can be determined by measuring V

Q.14 The resistance R = where V = 100 ± 5 volts and

i

b a cb

the parameters b, c, d and e using the relation a = . i = 10 ± 0.2 amperes. What is the total error in R ?

d g ed

If the maximum errors in the measurement of b, c, d and e 5

(a) 5% (b) 7% (c) 5.2% (d) %

are b1%, c1%, d1%, and e1%, then the maximum error in 2

the value of a determined by the experiment is Q.15 The length of a cylinder is measured with a meter rod having

(a) (b1+ c1+ d1+ e1)% (b) (b1+ c1– d1– e1)% least count 0.1 cm. Its diameter is measured with vernier

(c) (ab1+ bc1– gd1– de1)%(d) (ab1+ bc1+ gd1+ de1)% calipers having least count 0.01 cm. Given that length is

5.0 cm. and radius is 2.0 cm. The percentage error in the

Q.10 The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is given by

calculated value of the volume will be

l (a) 1% (b) 2%

T = 2p where l is about 100 cm and is known to have

g (c) 3% (d) 4%

1mm accuracy. The period is about 2s. The time of 100 Q.16 According to Joule’s law of heating, heat produced H =

oscillations is measured by a stopwatch of least count 0.1s. I2Rt, where I is current, R is resistance and t is time . If the

The percentage error in g is errors in the measurements of I,R. and t are 3%, 4% and

6% respectively then error in the measurement of H is

(a) 0.1% (b) 1%

(a) ± 17% (b) ± 16%

(c) 0.2% (d) 0.8% (c) ± 19% (d) ± 25%

5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

RESPONSE 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

GRID

15. 16.

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3

A B2 figures in expressing results of experiment, which of the

Q.17 A physical quantity P is given by P = 3

. The quantity following is/are correct?

-4 1. Out of the two measurements 50.14 cm and 0.00025

C D2

ampere, the first one has greater accuracy

which brings in the maximum percentage error in P is 2. Out of the two measurements 50.14 cm and 0.00025

(a) A (b) B ampere, the second has greater accuracy.

(c) C (d) D 3. If one travels 478 km by rail and 397 m by road, the

Q.18 If there is a positive error of 50% in the measurement of total distance travelled is 875 km.

velocity of a body, then the error in the measurement of 4. If one travels 697 m by rail and 478 km by road, the

kinetic energy is total distance is 478 km.

(a) 25% (b) 50% Q.23 A thin copper wire of length l metre increases in length by

(c) 100% (d) 125% 2% when heated through 10°C. Which is not the

Q.19 The random error in the arithmetic mean of 100 percentage increase in area when a square copper sheet of

observations is x; then random error in the arithmetic mean length l metre is heated through 10°C

of 400 observations would be (1) 12% (2) 8% (3) 16% (4) 4%

1 1 Q.24 A body travels uniformly a distance of (13.8 ± 0.2) m in a

(a) 4x (b) x (c) 2x (d) x

4 2 time (4.0 ± 0.3) s.

Q.20 The percentage errors in the measurement of mass and

speed are 2% and 3% respectively. How much will be the 1. Its velocity with error limit is (3.5 ± 0.31) ms–1

maximum error in the estimation of the kinetic energy 2. Its velocity with error limit is (3.5 ± 0.11) ms–1

obtained by measuring mass and speed?

(a) 11% (b) 8% 3. Percentage error in velocity is ± 4%

(c) 5% (d) 1% 4. Percentage error in velocity is ± 9%

Q.21 The unit of percentage error is

(a) Same as that of physical quantity DIRECTION (Q.25-Q.27) : Read the passage given below

(b) Different from that of physical quantity and answer the questions that follows :

(c) Percentage error is unitless

(d) Errors have got their own units which are different The internal radius of a 1m long resonance tube is measured as

from that of physical quantity measured 3 cm. A tuning fork of frequency 2000 Hz is used. The first

resonating length is measured as 4.6 cm and the second

DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions, resonating length is measured as 14.0 cm.

more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the Q.25 Calculate the maximum percentage error in measurement

correct answers and mark it according to the following of e.

codes: (a) 3.33% (b) 2.23% (c) 4.33% (d) 5.33%

Codes : Q.26 Calculate the speed of sound at the room temperature.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct (a) 275 m/s (b) 376 m/s

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct (c) 356 m/s (d) 330 m/s

GRID 22. 23. 24. 25. 26.

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Q.27 Calculate the end correction. (c) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

(a) 0.2 cm (b) 0.3 cm (d) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

(c) 0.1 cm (d) 0.4 cm Q.28 Statement-1: Number of significant figures in 0.005 is

one and that in 0.500 is three.

DIRECTIONS (Q. 28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains Statement-2 : This is because zero is not significant.

two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 Q.29 Statement-1: Out of three measurements l = 0.7 m;

(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, l = 0.70 m and l = 0.700 m, the last one is most accurate.

only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the

Statement-2: In every measurement, only the last

correct choice.

significant digit is not accurately known.

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a Q.30 Statement-1: Parallex method cannot be used for

correct explanation for Statement-1. measuring distances of stars more than 100 light years

(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is away.

NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1. Statement-2: Because parallex angle reduces so much that

it cannot be measured accurately.

Total Questions 30 Total Marks 120

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 28 Qualifying Score 46

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

SYLLABUS : MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE 1 (Distance, Displacement, Uniform & Non-uniform motion)

03

Max. Marks : 116 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 29 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

(a)v0 t + bt 2 (b) v0 t + bt

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out 3 3

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. 1 3 1 2

Q.1 A particle moving in a straight line covers half the distance (c) v0 t + bt (d) v0t + bt

6 2

with speed of 3 m/s. The other half of the distance is Q.3 The motion of a body is given by the equation

covered in two equal time intervals with speed of 4.5 m/s

dv(t )

and 7.5 m/s respectively. The average speed of the particle = 6.0 - 3v(t ), where v(t) is speed in m/s and t in sec.

during this motion is dt

(a) 4.0 m/s (b) 5.0 m/s If body was at rest at t = 0

(c) 5.5 m/s (d) 4.8 m/s (a) The terminal speed is 4 m/s

Q.2 The acceleration of a particle is increasing linearly with (b) The speed varies with the time as v(t) = 2(1 – e–5t)m/s

time t as bt. The particle starts from the origin with an initial (c) The speed is 0.1m/s when the acceleration is half the

velocity v0. The distance travelled by the particle in time t initial value

will be (d) The magnitude of the initial acceleration is 6.0 m/s2

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3.

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Q.4 A particle of mass m moves on the x-axis as follows: it Q.8 A particle starts moving from the position of rest under a

starts from rest at t = 0 from the point x = 0 and comes to constant acc. If it covers a distance x in t second, what

rest at t = 1 at the point x = 1. No other information is distance will it travel in next t second?

available about its motion at intermediate time (0 < t < 1). (a) x (b) 2 x (c) 3 x (d) 4 x

If a denotes the instantaneous acceleration of the particle, Q.9 What will be the ratio of the distances moved by a freely

then falling body from rest in 4th and 5th seconds of journey?

(a) a cannot remain positive for all t in the interval (a) 4 : 5 (b) 7 : 9 (c) 16 : 25 (d) 1 : 1

0 £ t £1 Q.10 If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the

(b) | a | cannot exceed 2 at any point in its path distance covered during the last t seconds of its ascent is

(c) | a | must be > 4 at some point or points in its path 1 2 1

(d) | a | = 2 at any point in its path. (a) (u+gt)t (b) ut (c) gt (d) ut – gt2

2 2

Q.5 A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a) versus time Q.11 If the displacement of a particle is (2t2 + t + 5) meter

(t) graph is as shown in the figure. The maximum speed of then, what will be acc. at t = 5 second?

the particle will be (a) 21 m/s2 (b) 20 m/s2

a (c) 4 m/s 2 (d) 10 m/s2

Q.12 A particle moves along x-axis with acceleration a = a0 (1 – t/

10 m/s2

T) where a0 and T are constants if velocity at t = 0 is zero

then find the average velocity from t = 0 to the time when a

= 0.

t (s) a 0T a 0T a 0T a 0T

11 (a) (b) (c) (d)

(a) 110 m/s (b) 55 m/s 3 2 4 5

(c) 550 m/s (d) 660 m/s Q.13 A point moves with uniform acceleration and v1, v2 and v3

denote the average velocities in the three successive

Q.6 A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate a for some

intervals of time t1, t2 and t3 . Which of the following

time, after which it decelerates at a constant rate b and relations is correct ?

comes to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, then the maximum (a) (v1– v2) : (v2– v3) = (t1– t2) : (t2+ t3)

velocity acquired by the car is (b) (v1– v2) : (v2– v3) = (t1+ t2) : (t2+ t3)

æ a 2 + b2 ö æ a 2 - b2 ö (c) (v1– v2) : (v2– v3) = (t1– t2) : (t2 – t3)

(a) çç ÷t

÷ (b) çç ÷t

÷

(d) (v1– v2) : (v2– v3) = (t1– t2) : (t2 – t3)

è ab ø è ab ø Q.14 The position of a particle moving in the xy-plane at any

(a + b)t abt time t is given by x = (3t2 – 6t) metres, y = (t2 – 2t) metres.

(c) (d) Select the correct statement about the moving particle from

ab a +b

Q.7 A small block slides without friction down an inclined plane the following

starting from rest. Let Sn be the distance travelled from (a) The acceleration of the particle is zero at t = 0 second

Sn (b) The velocity of the particle is zero at t = 0 second

time t = n – 1 to t = n. Then is (c) The velocity of the particle is zero at t = 1 second

S n +1

2n - 1 2n + 1 2n - 1 2n (d) The velocity and acceleration of the particle are never

(a) (b) (c) (d) zero

2n 2n - 1 2n + 1 2n + 1

4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

RESPONSE 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

GRID

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Q.15 Two cars A and B are travelling in the same direction with Q.19 A particle moves along x-axis as x = 4 (t – 2) + a (t – 2)2

velocities v1 and v2 (v1 > v2). When the car A is at a distance Which of the following is true?

d ahead of the car B, the driver of the car A applied the (a) The initial velocity of particle is 4

brake producing a uniform retardation a. There will be no (b) The acceleration of particle is 2a

collision when (c) The particle is at origin at t = 0

(d) None of these

( v1 - v2 ) 2 v12 - v22 Q.20 The displacement x of a particle varies with time t,

(a) d< (b) d <

2a 2a x = ae –at + bebt, where a, b, a and b are positive constants.

The velocity of the particle will

(v1 - v2 ) 2 v 2 - v22 (a) Go on decreasing with time

(c) d > (d) d > 1

2a 2a (b) Be independent of a and b

Q.16 A body travels for 15 second starting from rest with (c) Drop to zero when a = b

constant acceleration. If it travels distances S1, S2 and S3 (d) Go on increasing with time

in the first five seconds, second five seconds and next five

seconds respectively the relation between S1, S2 and S3 is DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions,

(a) S1 = S2 = S3 (b) 5S1 = 3S2 = S3 more than one of the answers given are correct. Select

1 1 the correct answers and mark it according to the following

1 1

(c) S1 = S2 = S3 (d) S1 = S2 = S3 codes:

3 5 5 3

Q.17 The position of a particle moving along the x-axis at certain Codes :

times is given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

t (s) 0 1 2 3

x ( m) -2 0 6 16

Q.21A particle moves as such acceleration is given by

a = 3 sin 4t, then :

Which of the following describes the motion correctly? (1) the acceleration of the particle becomes zero after

(a) Uniform, accelerated p

each interval of second

(b) Uniform, decelerated 4

(c) Non-uniform, accelerated (2) the initial velocity of the particle must be zero

(d) There is not enough data for generalization (3) the particle comes at its initial position after sometime

Q.18 A body A moves with a uniform acceleration a and zero (4) the particle must move on a circular path

initial velocity. Another body B, starts from the same point

Q.22 A reference frame attached to the earth :

moves in the same direction with a constant velocity v. The

(1) is an inertial frame by definition

two bodies meet after a time t. The value of t is

(2) cannot be an inertial frame because the earth is

2v v revolving round the sun

(a) (b)

a a (3) is an inertial frame because Newton’s laws are

v v applicable in this frame

(c) (d) (4) cannot be an inertial frame because the earth is

2a 2a

rotating about its own axis

GRID 20. 21. 22.

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Q.23 If a particle travels a linear distance at speed v1 and comes 2 2t 2 2t

back along the same track at speed v2. (a) sin pt - (b) - 2 sin pt +

p2 p p p

(1) Its average speed is arithmetic mean (v1 + v2)/2 2t

(2) Its average speed is harmonic mean 2 v1v2/(v1 + v2)/2 (c) (d) None of these

p

(3) Its average speed is geometric mean v1v2 DIRECTIONS (Qs. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions

(4) Its average velocity is zero contains two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and

DIRECTION (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions has four

and answer the questions that follows : alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer.

You have to select the correct choice.

A particle moves along x-axis and its acceleration at any time t

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

is a = 2 sin (pt), where t is in seconds and a is in m/s2. The initial

correct explanation for Statement-1.

velocity of particle (at time t = 0) is u = 0.

(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

Q.24. The distance travelled (in meters) by the particle from

NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

time to t = 0 to t = 1s will be –

(c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

2 1

(a) (b) (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

p p Q.27 Statement-1 : The position-time graph of a uniform motion

4

(c) (d) None of these in one dimension of a body can have negative slope.

p

Statement-2 : When the speed of body decreases with time,

Q.25 The distance travelled (in meters) by the particle from time

the position-time graph of the moving body has negative slope.

t = 0 to t = t will be –

Q.28 Statement-1 : A body having non-zero acceleration can

2 2t 2 2t

(a) sin pt - (b) - 2 sin pt + have a constant velocity.

p 2 p p p Statement-2 : Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity.

2t Q.29 Statement-1 : Displacement of a body may be zero when

(c) (d) None of these

p distance travelled by it is not zero.

Q.26 The magnitude of displacement (in meters) by the particle Statement-2 : The displacement is the longest distance

from time t = 0 to t = t will be – between initial and final position.

GRID 28. 29.

Total Questions 29 Total Marks 116

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 28 Qualifying Score 48

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

Space for Rough Work

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Name : Date :

SYLLABUS : MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE 2 (Relative Motion & Motion Under Gravity)

04

Max. Marks : 112 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 28 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

(a) + (b) 1- 1+ ú

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out g 2 g êë g û

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct.

Q.1 A stone is dropped from a minar of height h and it reaches vé 2 gh ù vé 2 2g ù

(c) ê1 + 1 + 2 ú (d) ê1 + v + ú

after t seconds on earth. From the same minar if two stones gë v û gë h û

are thrown (one upwards and other downwards) with the same

velocity u and they reach the earth surface after t1 and t2 Q.3 A man throws balls with the same speed vertically upwards,

seconds respectively, then one after the other at an interval of 2 seconds. What should

be the speed of the throw so that more than two balls are in

t1 + t2

(a) t = t1 - t2 (b) t = the sky at any time? (Given g = 9.8 m/s2)

2

(a) At least 0.8 m/s

(c) t = t1t2 (d) t = t12 t22

(b) Any speed less than 19.6 m/s

Q.2 A ball is projected upwards from a height h above the surface (c) Only with speed 19.6 m/s

of the earth with velocity v. The time at which the ball strikes

(d) More than 19.6 m/s

the ground is

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.4 If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the Q.8 A body is projected up with a speed 'u' and the time taken

distance covered during the last t second of its ascent is by it is T to reach the maximum height H. Pick out the

1 2 1 correct statement

(a) gt (b) ut - gt 2 (c) (u – gt)t (d) ut d

2 2 (a) It reaches H/2 in T/2 sec

Q.5 A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Which of the following (b) It acquires velocity u/2 in T/2 sec

graphs represent velocity-time graph of the ball during its (c) Its velocity is u/2 at H/2

flight? (air resistance is neglected) (d) Same velocity at 2T

v v

Q.9 Time taken by an object falling from rest to cover the height

of h1 and h2 is respectively t1 and t2 then the ratio of t1 to t2

is

(a) t (b) t

(a) h1 : h2 (b) h1 : h2 (c) h1 : 2h2 (d) 2h1 : h2

Q.10 Three different objects of masses m1, m2 and m3 are allowed

v v to fall from rest and from the same point 'O' along three

different frictionless paths. The speeds of the three objects,

t t on reaching the ground, will be in the ratio of

(c) (d) (a) m1 : m2 : m3 (b) m1 : 2m2 : 3m3

1 1 1 1

Q.6 A ball is dropped vertically from a height d above the (c) 1 : 1 : 1 (d) : :

m1 m2 m3

ground. It hits the ground and bounces up vertically to a

height d/2. Neglecting subsequent motion and air Q.11 From the top of a tower, a particle is thrown vertically

resistance, its velocity v varies with the height h above the downwards with a velocity of 10 m/s. The ratio of the

ground is distances, covered by it in the 3rd and 2nd seconds of the

v v motion is (Take g = 10m/s2)

(a) 5 : 7 (b) 7 : 5 (c) 3 : 6 (d) 6 : 3

d Q.12 A body falls from a height h = 200 m. The ratio of distance

h h

(a) (b) d travelled in each 2 second during t = 0 to t = 6 second of

the journey is

(a) 1 : 4 : 9 (b) 1 : 2 : 4

v v (c) 1 : 3 : 5 (d) 1 : 2 : 3

Q.13 The effective acceleration of a body, when thrown upwards

d d with acceleration a will be :

h h

(c) (d)

(a) a - g2 (b) a2 + g 2

Q.7 P, Q and R are three balloons ascending with velocities U, (c) (a – g) (d) (a + g)

4U and 8U respectively. If stones of the same mass be Q.14 An aeroplane is moving with a velocity u. It drops a packet

dropped from each, when they are at the same height, then from a height h. The time t taken by the packet in reaching

(a) They reach the ground at the same time the ground will be

(b) Stone from P reaches the ground first æ 2g ö æ 2u ö æ h ö æ 2h ö

(c) Stone from R reaches the ground first (a) ç ÷ (b) ç ÷ (c) ç ÷ (d) ç ÷

è h ø è g ø è 2g ø è g ø

(d) Stone from Q reaches the ground first

4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

RESPONSE 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

GRID

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Q.15 Two trains, each 50 m long are travelling in opposite direction Q.20 Two particles move simultaneously from two points A and B,

with velocity 10 m/s and 15 m/s. The time of crossing is 300m apart. The particle at A, starts towards B with a velocity

(a) 2s (b) 4s of 25 m/s and that at B, moves normal to the former with a

velocity of 20 m/s.

(c) 2 3s (d) 4 3s (1) The relative velocity of the particle at A, w.r.t. that at B is

Q.16 A train of 150 metre length is going towards north direction 32.02 m/s

at a speed of 10 m/s. A parrot flies at the speed of 5 m/s (2) The relative velocity of the particle at A, w.r.t. that at B is

towards south direction parallel to the railway track. The 12.04 m/s

time taken by the parrot to cross the train is (3) They are closest to each other after 7.32 sec.

(a) 12 sec (b) 8 sec (4) They are closest to each other after 4.25 sec.

(c) 15 sec (d) 10 sec Q.21 A plane is to fly due north. The speed of the plane relative

Q.17 The distance between two particles is decreasing at the rate to the air is 200 km/h, and the wind is blowing from west

of 6 m/sec. If these particles travel with same speeds and in to east at 90 km/h.

(1) The plane should head in a direction of sin –1 (0.45)

the same direction, then the separation increase at the rate

(2) The plane should head in a direction of sin –1 (0.60)

of 4 m/s. The particles have speeds as

(3) The relative velocity of plane w.r.t. ground is 179 km/h

(a) 5 m/sec; 1 m/sec (b) 4 m/sec; 1 m/sec (4) The relative velocity of plane w.r.t. ground is 149 km/h

(c) 4 m/sec; 2 m/sec (d) 5 m/sec; 2 m/sec Q.22 From the top of a multi-storeyed building 40m tall, a boy

Q.18 A train is moving towards east and a car is along north, both projects a stone vertically upwards with an initial velocity

with same speed. The observed direction of car to the of 10 ms–1 such that it eventually falls to the ground.

passenger in the train is (1) After 4 s the stone will strike the ground

(a) East-north direction (b) West-north direction (2) After 2 s the stone will pass through the point from

(c) South-east direction (d) None of these where it was projected

Q.19 An express train is moving with a velocity v1. Its driver (3) Its velocity when it strikes the ground is 30 m/s

finds another train is moving on the same track in the same (4) Its velocity when it strikes the ground is 40 m/s

direction with velocity v2. To escape collision, driver applies

DIRECTIONS (Q.23-Q.25) : Read the passage given below

a retardation a on the train, the minimum time of escaping

and answer the questions that follows :

collision will be

When an airplane flies, its total velocity with respect to the

v -v v 2 - v22

(a) t= 1 2 (b) t1 = 1 ground is vtotal = vplane + vwind,

a 2

where vplane denotes the plane’s velocity through motionless air,

(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these and vwind denotes the wind’s velocity. Crucially, all the quantities

in this equation are vectors. The magnitude of a velocity vector

DIRECTIONS (Q.20-Q.22) : In the following questions, more

is often called the “speed.”

than one of the answers given are correct. Select the correct

Consider an airplane whose speed through motionless air is 100

answers and mark it according to the following codes: meters per second (m/s). To reach its destination, the plane must

Codes : fly east.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct The “heading” of a plane is in the direction in which the nose of

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct the plane points. So, it is the direction in which the engines propel

the plane.

GRID 20. 21. 22.

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Q.23 If the plane has an eastward heading, and a 20 m/s wind (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

blows towards the southwest, then the plane’s speed is – correct explanation for Statement-1.

(a) 80 m/s (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT

(b) more than 80 m/s but less than 100 m/s a correct explanation for Statement-1.

(c) 100 m/s (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

(d) more than 100 m/s (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

Q.24 The pilot maintains an eastward heading while a 20 m/s Q.26 Statement-1 : The magnitude of velocity of two boats

wind blows northward. The plane’s velocity is deflected relative to river is same. Both boats start simultaneously

from due east by what angle?

from same point on the bank may reach opposite bank

-1 20 -1 20 simultaneously moving along different paths.

(a) sin (b) cos

100 100

Statement-2 : For boats to cross the river in same time.

-1 20 The component of their velocity relative to river in

(c) tan (d) none

100 direction normal to flow should be same.

Q.25 Let f denote the answer of above question. The plane has Q.27 Statement-1 : The acceleration of a body of mass 2 kg

what speed with respect to the ground ? thrown vertically upwards is always constant.

(a) (100 m/s) sin f (b) (100 m/s) cos f Statement-2 : A body of all mass group travels under

100 m/ s 100 m/ s constant acceleration when only gravity acts on it.

(c) sin f

(d) cosf Q.28 Statement-1 : The velocity of a body A relative to the body

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-Q.28) : Each of these questions B is the sum of the velocities of bodies A and B if both

contains two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and travel in opposite direction on a straight line.

Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions has four Statement-2 : The velocity of a body A relative to the body

alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. B is the difference of the velocities of bodies A and B if

You have to select the correct choice. both travel in opposite direction on a straight line.

GRID 28.

Total Questions 28 Total Marks 112

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 28 Qualifying Score 44

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

SYLLABUS : Vectors

05

Max. Marks : 116 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 29 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

(a) zero (b) m/s 2 N-W

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out 2

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. 1 1

Q.1 The length of second’s hand in watch is 1 cm. The change

(c) m/s2 N-E (d) m/s 2S-W

2 2

in velocity of its tip in 15 seconds is ur

Q.3 A force F = - K ( yiˆ + xjˆ ) (where K is a positive constant)

p

(a) zero (b) cm/sec acts on a particle moving in the x-y plane. Starting from

30 2 the origin, the particle is taken along the positive x-axis to

p the point (a, 0) and then parallel to the y-axis to the point

p 2 ur

(c) cm/sec (d) cm/sec

30 30 (a, a). The total work done by the forces F on the particle

Q.2 A particle moves towards east with velocity 5 m/s. After is

10 seconds its direction changes towards north with same (a) – 2 Ka2 (b) 2 Ka2

(c) – Ka 2 (d) Ka2

velocity. The average acceleration of the particle is

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.4 A metal sphere is hung by a string fixed to a wall. The

A

sphere is pushed away from the wall by a stick. The forces

acting on the sphere are shown in the second diagram. 30°

Which of the following statements is wrong? 30 N

O

W

q

(c) 60 3,30 (d) None of these

P

W

Q.9 A boat is moving with a velocity 3iˆ + 4 ˆj with respect to

r r r

(a) P = W tan q (b) T + P + W = 0 ground. The water in the river is moving with a velocity

(c) T 2 = P 2 + W 2 (d) T = P + W – 3iˆ - 4 ˆj with respect to ground. The relative velocity of

Q.5 The speed of a boat is 5km/h in still water. It crosses a

the boat with respect to water is

river of width 1 km along the shortest possible path in 15

minutes. The velocity of the river water is (a) 8 ˆj (b) -6iˆ - 8 ˆj (c) 6iˆ + 8 ˆj (d) 5 2 iˆ

(a) 1 km/h (b) 3 km/h Q.10 A person aiming to reach the exactly opposite point on the

(c) 4 km/h (d) 5 km/h bank of a stream is swimming with a speed of 0.5 m/s at an

Q.6 A man crosses a 320 m wide river perpendicular to the angle of 120° with the direction of flow of water. The speed

current in 4 minutes. If in still water he can swim with a of water in the stream is

speed 5/3 times that of the current, then the speed of the (a) 1 m/s (b) 0.5 m/s (c) 0.25 m/s(d) 0.433 m/s

current in m/min is Q.11 A man can swim with velocity v relative to water. He has to

(a) 30 (b) 40 cross a river of width d flowing with a velocity u (u > v).

(c) 50 (d) 60 The distance through which he is carried down stream by

Q.7 P, Q and R are three coplanar forces acting at a point and the river is x. Which of the following statements is correct?

are in equilibrium. Given P = 1.9318 kg wt, sin q1 = 0.9659,

the value of R is (in kg wt) (a) If he crosses the river in minimum time x = du

v

150° du

P Q

(b) x cannot be less than

v

q2 q1

(c) For x to be minimum he has to swim in a direction making

R

ο ævö

an angle of , sin,1 çç ÷÷÷ with the direction of the

2 çè u ø

(a) 0.9659 (b) 2 flow of water.

1 (d) x will be maximum if he swims in a direction making

(c) 1 (d) p

2 ævö

an angle of + sin -1 ç ÷ with direction of the flow of

Q.8 As shown in figure the tension in the horizontal cord is 30 2 èuø

N. The weight W and tension in the string OA in newton are water.

RESPONSE 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

GRID 9. 10. 11.

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Q.12 A 120 m long train is moving towards west with a speed of r r

Q.20 Two forces F1 = 5iˆ + 10 ˆj - 20kˆ and F2 = 10iˆ - 5 ˆj - 15kˆ

10 m/s. A bird flying towards east with a speed of 5 m/s

r r

crosses the train. The time taken by the bird to cross the act on a single point. The angle between F1 and F2 is nearly

train will be

(a) 30° (b) 45°

(a) 16 sec (b) 12 sec (c) 10 sec (d) 8 sec

ur (c) 60° (d) 90°

Q.13 What is the value of linear velocity, if w = 3$i - 4 $j + k$ and Q.21 With respect to a rectangular cartesian coordinate system,

r

r = 5i$ - 6 $j + 6k$

three vectors are expressed as

r r

(a) 6$i - 2 $j + 3k$ (b) 6$i - 2 $j + 8k$ a = 4iˆ - ˆj, b = -3iˆ + 2 ˆj , and cr = - kˆ

(c) 4$i - 13 $j + 6k$ (d) -18$i - 13 $j + 2k$ where iˆ, ˆj , kˆ are unit vectors, along the X, Y and Z-axis

ur ur ur ur ur ur

Q.14 If | A ´ B | = 3 A . B, then the value of | A + B | is respectively. The unit vectors r̂ along the direction of sum

1/ 2 of these vector is

æ 2 2 AB ö

(a) çè A + B + ÷ (b) A + B 1 ˆ ˆ ˆ 1 ˆ ˆ ˆ

3ø (a) rˆ = (i + j - k ) (b) rˆ = (i + j - k )

3 2

(c) ( A2 + B 2 + 3 AB )1/ 2 (d) ( A2 + B 2 + AB )1/ 2 1 1 ˆ ˆ ˆ

ur (c) rˆ = (iˆ - ˆj + kˆ) (d) rˆ = (i + j + k )

Q.15 Find the torque of a force F = -3$i + $j + 5k$ acting at a point 3 2

r

r = 7$i + 3 $j + k$ DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions,

(a) 14$i - 38 $j + 16k$ (b) 4$i + 4 $j + 6k$ more than one of the answers given are correct. Select

the correct answers and mark it according to the following

(c) 21$i + 4 $j + 4k$ (d) -14$i + 34 $j - 16k$ codes:

ur ur ur ur ur ur

Q.16 If | A ´ B | = | A . B |, then angle between A and B will be Codes :

(a) 30° (b) 45° (c) 60° (d) 90° (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

ur ur

Q.17 The vector P = ai + a j + 3k and Q = ai$ - 2 $j - k$ are

$ $ $ (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

Q.22 A boy walks uniformally along the sides of a rectangular

perpendicular to each other. The positive value of a is

(a) 3 (b) 4 park of size 400 m × 300 m, starting from one corner to

(c) 9 (d) 13 the other corner diagonally opposite. Which of the

following statements is correct?

Q.18 A particle moves from position 3$i + 2 $j - 6k$ to (1) He has travelled a distance of 700 m

14$i + 13 $j + 9k$ due to a uniform force of (4i$ + $j + 3k$ ) N . (2) His displacement is 500 m

If the displacement in metres then work done will be (3) His velocity is not uniform throughout the walk

(a) 100 J (b) 200 J (c) 300 J d) 250 J (4) His displacement is 700 m

ur ur r r

Q.19 The three vectors A = 3iˆ - 2 ˆj + kˆ, B = iˆ - 3 ˆj + 5kˆ and Q.23 The three vectors A = 3iˆ - 2jˆ - k, ˆ B = iˆ - 3jˆ + 5kˆ and

ur r

C = 2iˆ + ˆj - 4kˆ form C = 2iˆ – ˆj - 4kˆ does not form

(a) an equilateral triangle (b) isosceles triangle (1) an equilateral triangle (2) isosceles triangle

(c) a right angled triangle (d) no triangle (3) a right angled triangle (4) no triangle

RESPONSE 17. 18. 19. 20. 21.

GRID

22. 23.

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r r r r

Q.24 If for two vectors A and B, A ´ B < 0, which of the following DIRECTIONS (Q.28-Q.29) : Each of these questions contains two

is not correct? statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason).

(1) They are perpendicular to each other Each of these questions has four alternative choices, only one of

(2) They act at an angle of 60° which is the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice.

(3) They act at an angle of 30°

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

(4) They are parallel to each other

correct explanation for Statement-1.

DIRECTIONS (Q.25-Q.27) : Read the passage given below (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

and answer the questions that follows : NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

r r

A = 2iˆ + ˆj + kˆ and B = iˆ + ˆj + kˆ are two vectors. (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

r (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

Q.25 The unit vector perpendicular to A is

r r r r r

- ˆj + kˆ - ˆj - kˆ iˆ + kˆ iˆ - kˆ Q.28 Statement-1:If A + B = A - B , then angle between A

(a) (b) (c) (d)

2 2 2 2 r

r and B is 90°

Q.26 The unit vector parallel to A is r r r r

2iˆ - ˆj + 3kˆ 2iˆ + ˆj + kˆ Statement-2 : A + B = B + A

(a) (b) Q.29 Statement-1 : The sum of two vectors can be zero.

2 6

ˆ ˆ

2i - j - k ˆ 2i + ˆj - 2kˆ

ˆ Statement-2 : Two vectors cancel each other, when they

(c) (d) are equal and opposite.

5 6

r

Q.27 The unit vector perpendicular to B is

- ˆj - kˆ - ˆj + kˆ iˆ - kˆ iˆ + kˆ

(a) (b) (c) (d)

3 2 3 2

GRID 29.

Total Questions 29 Total Marks 116

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 30 Qualifying Score 44

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

06

Max. Marks : 112 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 28 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice Q.3 If t1 be the time taken by a body to clear the top of a building

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out and t2 be the time spent in air, then t2 : t1 will be –

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 4

Q.1 The path followed by a body projected along y axis is given Q.4 The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time t are given

by x = ct2 and y = bt2. The speed of the particle is

by y = 3 x – (1/2) x2. If g = 10 m/s2 , then the initial

(a) 2t (c + b) (b) 2t c2 - b2

velocity of projectile will be – (x and y are in m)

(c) t c 2 + b 2 (d) 2t c 2 + b 2

(a) 3 10 m/s (b) 2 10 m/s

Q.5 The height y and the distance x along the horizontal at plane

(c) 10 3 m/s (d) 10 2 m/s of the projectile on a certain planet (with no surrounding

Q.2 When the angle of elevation of a gun are 60º and 30º atmosphere) are given by y = (8t – 5t2) metre and x = 6t

respectively, the height it shoots are h1 and h2 respectively, metre where t is in second. The velocity with which the

h1/h2 equal to – projectile is projected is

(a) 3/1 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/2 (d) 2/1 (a) 8 m/s (b) 6 m/s

(c) 10 m/s (d) Data is insufficient

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.6 A body is thrown at an angle 30º to the horizontal with the to meet the ball at that instant. What must be his speed so

velocity of 30 m/s. After 1 sec, its velocity will be that he could catch the ball before hitting the ground ?

(in m/s) (g = 10 m/s2)

(a) 2.82 m/s (b) 2/ 2 m/s

(a) 10 7 (b) 700 10 (c) 100 7 (d) 10 (c) 39.2 m/s (d) 10 m/s

Q.7 A particle is moving in a plane with a velocity given by, Q.13 A ball is thrown from ground level so as to just clear a wall

r 4 metres high at a distance of 4 metres and falls at a distance

u = u0 î + (wa cos wt) ĵ , where î and ĵ are unit vectors of 14 metres from the wall. The magnitude of velocity of

along x and y-axes respectively. If the particle is at the origin the ball will be

at t = 0, then its distance from the origin at time t = 3p/ (a) 182 m/s (b) 181 m/s

2w will be

(c) 185 m/s (d) 186 m/s

éæ 3pu ö 2 ù éæ 3pu 0 ö 2 ù Q.14 A ball is projeced from O with an initial velocity 700 cm/

(a) êç 0

÷ + a2ú (b) êç ÷+a ú

êëè 2w ø úû ëè 2w ø û s in a direction 37° above the horizontal. A ball B, 500 cm

away from O on the line of the initial velocity of A, is

éæ 3pu ö 2 ù éæ 4pu ö 2 ù released from rest at the instant A is projected. The height

(c) ê ç 0

÷ + a ú (d) êç 0

÷ + a2 ú through which B falls, before it is hit by A and the direction

êëè 2w ø úû êëè 2w ø úû of the velocity A at the time of impact will respectively be

Q.8 A ball thrown by one player reaches the other in 2 sec. The [given g = 10 m/s2, sin 37° = 0.6 and cos 37° = 8.0]

maximum height attained by the ball above the point of (a) 250 cm, 28° 42' (b) 255 cm, 27° 43'

projection will be about- (c) 245 cm, 20° 44' (d) 300 cm, 27° 43'

(a) 2.5 m (b) 5 m (c) 7.5 m (d) 10 m Q.15 A ball is thrown horizontally from a height of 20 m. It hits

Q.9 Rishabh and Bappy are playing with two different balls of the ground with a velocity three times its initial velocity.

masses m and 2m respectively. If Rishabh throws his ball The initial velocity of ball is

vertically up and Bappy at an angle q, both of them stay in (a) 2 m/s (b) 3 m/s (c) 5 m/s (d) 7 m/s

our view for the same period. The height attained by the Q.16 A projectile thrown from a height of 10 m with velocity of

two balls are in the ratio of

(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 1 : cos q (d) 1 : sec q 2 m/s, the projectile will fall, from the foot of

Q.10 A projectile is thrown at an angle q and (900 – q) from the projection, at distance-(g = 10 m/s2)

same point with same velocity 98 m/s. The heights attained (a) 1 m (b) 2 m (c) 3m (d) 2m

by them, if the difference of heights is 50 m will be (in m) Q.17 Savita throws a ball horizontally with a velocity of 8 m/s

(a) 270, 220 (b) 300, 250 from the top of her building. The ball strikes to her brother

(c) 250, 200 (d) 200, 150 Sudhir playing at 12 m away from the building. What is the

Q.11 A particle is projected with a velocity u so that its horizontal height of the building ?

range is twice the maximum height attained. The horizontal (a) 11m (b) 10 m (c) 8 m (d) 7 m

range is Q.18 A body is projected downdwards at an angle of 30º to the

(a) u2/g (b) 2u2 /3g (c) 4u2/5g (d) u2/2g horizontal with a velocity of 9.8 m/s from the top of a tower

Q.12 Mr C.P. Nawani kicked off a football with an initial speed 29.4 m high. How long will it take before striking the

19.6 m/s at a projection angle 45º. A receiver on the goal ground?

line 67.4 m away in the direction of the kick starts running (a) 1s (b) 2s (c) 3s (d) 4s

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

RESPONSE 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

GRID

16. 17. 18.

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Q.19 A ball is thrown from the top of a tower with an initial velocity (3) A hunter aims his gun and fires a bullet directly at a

of 10 m/s at an angle of 30º above the horizontal. It hits the monkey on a tree. At the instant bullet leaves the gun,

ground at a distance of 17.3 m from the base of the tower. monkey drops, the bullet misses to hit the monkey.

The height of the tower (g = 10 m/s2) will be (4) If a baseball player can throw a ball at maximum

(a) 10 m (b) 12 m (c) 110 m (d) 100 m distance = d over a ground, the maximum vertical

height to which he can throw it, will be d

Q.20 A ball 'A' is projected from origin with an initial velocity

(Ball have same initial speed in each case)

v0 = 700 cm/sec in a direction 37º above the horizontal as Q.22 A ball projected with speed 'u' at an angle of projection

shown in fig .Another ball 'B' 300 cm from origin on a line 15º has range R. The other angle of projection at which the

37º above the horizontal is released from rest at the instant range will not be same with same initial speed 'u' is

A starts. How far will B have fallen when it is hit by A ? (1) 45º (2) 35º

Y (3) 90º (4) 75º

B Q.23 A projectile can have the same range R for two angles of

projections. If t1 and t2 be the times of flight in two cases,

cm A

0 then choose the incorrect relations –

30

= (1) t1t2 µ 1/R2 (2) t1t2 µ R2

B y-axis

O

(3) t1t2 µ 1/R (4) t1t2 µ R

O X

(a) 9 cm (b) 90 cm DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below

(c) 0.9 cm (d) 900 cm and answer the questions that follows :

DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions, Velocity at a general point P(x, y) for a horizontal projectile

more than one of the answers given are correct. Select motion is given by

the correct answers and mark it according to the following u

codes: u

h

v= u 2 + g 2 t 2

Codes : vy gt

v= v 2x + v 2y ; tan a =

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct vx

R

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

Q.21 Choose the correct options a is angle made by v with horizontal in clockwise direction

(1) A ball is dropped from the window of a moving train Trajectory equation for a horizontal projectile motion is given

on horizontal rails, the path followed by the ball as by x = vxt = ut

vx

observed by the observer on the ground is parabolic a

path.

vy

(2) If T be the total time of flight of a current of water y = – (1/2) gt2

and H be the maximum height attained by it from the v

point of projection, then H/T will be (1/4) u sinq

gx 2

(u = projection velocity and q = projection angle) eliminating t, we get y = – (1/2)

u2

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Q.24 A ball rolls off top of a stair way with a horizontal velocity DIRECTIONS (Q.27-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains

u m/s. If the steps are h m high and b meters wide, the ball two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2

will just hit the edge of nth step if n equals to (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,

only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select

hu 2 u 2g the correct choice.

(a) (b) (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

gb 2 gb 2

correct explanation for Statement-1.

(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

2hu 2 2u 2g NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

(c) (d)

gb 2 hb 2 (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

Q.25 An aeroplane is in a level flying at an speed of 144 km/hr Q.27 Statement -1 : Two projectiles are launched from the top

at an altitude of 1000 m. How far horizontally from a given of a cliff with same initial speed with different angles of

target should a bomb be released from it to hit the target ? projection. They reach the ground with the same speed.

(a) 571.43 m (b) 671.43 m Statement -2 : The work done by gravity is same in both the

cases.

(c) 471.34 m (d) 371.34 m

Q.28 Statement-1 : A man projects a stone with speed u at some

Q.26 An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a velocity of 720 angle. He again projects a stone with same speed such that

km/h at an altitude of 490 m. When it is just vertically above time of flight now is different. The horizontal ranges in

the target a bomb is dropped from it. How far horizontally it both the cases may be same. (Neglect air friction)

missed the target? Statement-2 : The horizontal range is same for two

(a) 1000 m (b) 2000 m projectiles projected with same speed if one is projected

at an angle q with the horizontal and other is projected at

(c) 100 m (d) 200 m

an angle (90° – q) with the horizontal. (Neglect air friction)

Total Questions 28 Total Marks 112

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 28 Qualifying Score 42

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

07

Max. Marks : 120 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 30 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice (a) 1 : 12 (b) 6 : 1 (c) 12 : 1 (d) 1 : 6

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out Q.4 The angular displacement of a particle is given by

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. 1 2

q = w0t + at , where w0 and a are constant and

Q.1 A particle completes 1.5 revolutions in a circular path of 2

radius 2 cm. The angular displacement of the particle will w0 = 1 rad/sec, a = 1.5 rad/sec2. The angular velocity at

be – (in radian) time, t = 2 sec will be (in rad/sec) -

(a) 6 p (b) 3 p (c) 2 p (d) p (a) 1 (b) 5

Q.2 A particle revolving in a circular path completes first one

third of circumference in 2 sec, while next one third in 1 (c) 3 (d) 4

sec. The average angular velocity of particle will be – (in Q.5 The magnitude of the linear acceleration of the particle

rad/sec) moving in a circle of radius 10 cm with uniform speed

(a) 2p/3 (b) p/3 (c) 4p/3 (d) 5p/3 completing the circle in 4 s, will be -

Q.3 The ratio of angular speeds of minute hand and hour hand (a) 5p cm/s2 (b) 2.5p cm/s2

of a watch is - (c) 5p2 cm/s2 (d) 2.5p2 cm/s2

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.6 A cane filled with water is revolved in a vertical circle of Q.13 A particle is moving in a circular path with velocity varying

radius 4 m and water just does not fall down. The time with time as v = 1.5t2 + 2t. If the radius of circular path is

period of revolution will be – 2 cm, the angular acceleration at t = 2 sec will be -

(a) 1 s (b) 10 s (a) 4 rad/sec2 (b) 40 rad/sec2

(c) 400 rad/sec 2 (d) 0.4 rad/sec2

(c) 8 s (d) 4 s

Q.7 The length of second's hand in a watch is 1 cm. The change Q.14 A grind stone starts from rest and has a constant-angular

in velocity of its tip in 15 second is - acceleration of 4.0 rad/sec2.The angular displacement and

p angular velocity, after 4 sec. will respectively be -

(a) 0 (b) cm/s

30 2 (a) 32 rad, 16 rad/s (b) 16 rad, 32 rad/s

p p 2 (c) 64 rad, 32 rad/s (d) 32 rad, 64 rad/s

(c) cm/s (d) cm/s

30 30 Q.15 The shaft of an electric motor starts from rest and on the

Q.8 An electron is moving in a circular orbit of radius 5.3 × 10– application of a torque, it gains an angular acceleration

11 metre around the atomic nucleus at a rate of 6.6 × 1015

given by a = 3t – t2 during the first 2 seconds after it starts

revolutions per second. The centripetal force acting on the after which a = 0. The angular velocity after 6 sec will be -

electron will be - (a) 10/3 rad/sec (b) 3/10 rad/sec

(The mass of the electron is 9.1 × 10–31kg) (c) 30/4 rad/sec (d) 4/30 rad/sec

(a) 8.3 × 10–8N (b) 3.8 × 10–8N Q.16 Using rectangular co-ordinates and the unit vectors i and

(c) 4.15 × 10 N –8 (d) 2.07 × 10–8N j, the vector expression for the acceleration a will be (r is

Q.9 An air craft executes a horizontal loop of radius 1 km with a position vector) -

a steady speed of 900 km/h. The ratio of centripetal (a) wr2 (b) –w2 r/2

acceleration to that gravitational acceleration will be- (c) –2wr 2 (d) –w2r

(a) 1 : 6.38 (b) 6. 38 : 1 Q.17 The vertical section of a road over a canal bridge in the

(c) 2.25 : 9.8 (d) 2.5 : 9.8 direction of its length is in the form of circle of radius 8.9

Q.10 A car driver is negotiating a curve of radius 100 m with a metre. Find the greatest speed at which the car can cross

speed of 18 km/hr. The angle through which he has to lean this bridge without losing contact with the road at its highest

from the vertical will be - point, the center of gravity of the car being at a height h =

1 1 1.1 metre from the ground. (Take g = 10 m/sec2)

(a) tan–1 (b) tan–1

4 40 (a) 5 m/s (b) 7 m/s

æ 1 ö÷ æ 1 ö÷ (c) 10 m/s (d) 13 m/s

(c) tan –1 çççè ø÷÷ (d) tan –1 çççè ø÷÷ Q.18 The maximum speed at which a car can turn round a curve

2 20

of 30 metre radius on a level road if the coefficient of

Q.11 A particle moves in a circle of radius 20cm with a linear

friction between the tyres and the road is 0.4, will be -

speed of 10m/s. The angular velocity will be -

(a) 10.84 m/s (b) 17.84 m/s

(a) 50 rad/s (b) 100 rad/s

(c) 11.76 m/s (d) 9.02 m/s

(c) 25 rad/s (d) 75 rad/s

Q.19 The angular speed with which the earth would have to rotate

Q.12 The angular velocity of a particle is given by w = 1.5 t – 3t2 +

on its axis so that a person on the equator would weigh

2, the time when its angular acceleration decreases to be

(3/5)th as much as present, will be:

zero will be -

(Take the equatorial radius as 6400 km)

(a) 25 sec (b) 0.25 sec

(a) 8.7 × 104 rad/sec (b) 8.7 × 103 rad/sec

(c) 12 sec (d) 1.2 sec 4

(c) 7.8 × 10 rad/sec (d) 7.8 × 103 rad/sec

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

RESPONSE 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

GRID

16. 17. 18. 19.

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Q.20 A smooth table is placed horizontally and a spring of (1) The speed of the particle will be 0.98 m/s

unstreched length l0 and force constant k has one end fixed

rg

to its centre. To the other end of the spring is attached a (2) tan q = (q is semi-apex angle)

mass m which is making n revolution per second around v2

the centre. Tension in the spring will be (3) The speed of the particle will be 98 m/s

(a) 4p2 m k l0 n2/ (k – 4p2 m n2) rg

(b) 4p2 m k l0 n2/ (k + 4p2 m n2) (4) tan q = (q is semiapex angle)

v

(c) 2p2 m k l0 n2/ (k – 4p2 m n2) Q.24 Choose the correct statements

(d) 2p m k l0 n2/ (k – 4p2 m n2) (1) Centripetal force is not a real force. It is only the

Q.21 A motor car is travelling at 30 m/s on a circular road of requirement for circular motion.

radius 500 m. It is increasing its speed at the rate of 2 m/ (2) Work done by centripetal force may or may not be

s2. Its net acceleration is (in m/s2) – zero.

(a) 2 (b) 1. 8 (3) Work done by centripetal force is always zero.

(c) 2.7 (d) 0 (4) Centripetal force is a fundamental force.

DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions, DIRECTIONS (Q.25-Q.27) : Read the passage given below

more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the and answer the questions that follows :

correct answers and mark it according to the following

codes: The velocity of the particle changes moving on the curved path,

this change in velocity is brought by a force known as centripetal

Codes :

force and the acceleration so produced in the body is known as

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

centripetal acceleration. The direction of centripetal force or

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

acceleration is always towards the centre of circular path.

Q.22 Three identical particles are connected by three strings as

Q.25 A ball is fixed to the end of a string and is rotated in a

shown in fig. These particles are revolving in a horizontal

horizontal circle of radius 5 m with a speed of 10 m/sec.

circle. The velocity of outer most particle is v, then choose

The acceleration of the ball will be -

correct relation for T1,T2 and T3

(a) 20 m/s2 (b) 10 m/s2

(where T1 is tension in the outer most string etc.) 2

(c) 30 m/s (d) 40 m/s2

m m Q.26 A body of mass 2 kg lying on a smooth surface is attached

O m

l l l to a string 3 m long and then whirled round in a horizontal

circle making 60 revolution per minute. The centripetal

mvA2

5mv 2A acceleration will be-

(1) T1 = (2) T2 = (a) 118.4 m/s2 (b) 1.18 m/s2

3l 9l 2

(c) 2.368 m/s (d) 23.68 m/s2

6mvA2 5mvA2 Q.27 A body of mass 0.1 kg is moving on circular path of diameter

(3) T3= (4) T3 =

9l 9l 1.0 m at the rate of 10 revolutions per 31.4 seconds. The

Q.23 A particle describes a horizontal circle on the smooth centripetal force acting on the body is -

surface of an inverted cone. The height of the plane of the (a) 0.2 N (b) 0.4 N

circle above the vertex is 9.8 cm, then choose the correct (c) 2 N (d) 4 N

options

GRID 25. 26. 27.

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DIRECTIONS (Q. 28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains two normal as well as tangential acceleration.

statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). Each Q.29 Statement - 1 : A cyclist is cycling on rough horizontal

of these questions has four alternative choices, only one of which is circular track with increasing speed. Then the frictional force

the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice. on cycle is always directed towards centre of the circular

track.

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a Statement - 2 : For a particle moving in a circle, radial

correct explanation for Statement-1. component of net force should be directed towards centre.

(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is r

NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1. Q.30 Statement - 1 : If net force F acting on a system is

r

(c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True. changing in direction only, the linear momentum ( p) of

(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False. system changes in direction.

Q.28 Statement - 1 : In non-uniform circular motion, velocity Statement - 2 : In case of uniform circular motion,

vector and acceleration vector are not perpendicular to each magnitude of linear momentum is constant but direction

other. of centripetal force changes at every instant.

Statement - 2 : In non-uniform circular motion, particle has

Total Questions 30 Total Marks 120

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 30 Qualifying Score 48

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

08

Max. Marks : 112 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 28 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out D

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. E r

Q.1 A man whirls a stone round his head on the end of a string r C

r

4.0 metre long. Can the string be in a horizontal, plane? If

the stone has a mass of 0.4 kg and the string will break, if B

the tension in it exceeds 8 N. The smallest angle the string (a) h > 5 r/2 (b) h < 5 r/2

can make with the horizontal and the speed of the stone (c) h < 2r/5 (d) h > 2r/5

will respectively be (Take g = 10 m/sec2)

Q.3 An aircraft loops the loop of radius R = 500 m with a

(a) 30º, 7.7 m/s (b) 60º, 7.7 m/s

constant velocity v = 360 km/h. The weight of the flyer of

(c) 45º, 8.2 m/s (d) 60º, 8.7 m/s

mass m = 70 kg in the lower, upper and middle points of

Q.2 In figure ABCDE is a channel in the vertical plane, part BCDE

the loop will respectively be-

being circular with radius r. A ball is released from A and

slides without friction and without rolling. It will complete (a) 210 N, 700 N, 1400 N (b) 1400 N, 700 N, 2100 N

the loop path when (c) 700 N, 1400 N, 210 N (d) 2100 N, 700 N, 1400 N

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.4 A particle of mass 3 kg is moving under the action of a Q.11 The roadway bridge over a canal is the form of an arc of a

central force whose potential energy is given by U(r) = circle of radius 20 m. What is the minimum speed with

10r3 joule. For what energy and angular momentum will which a car can cross the bridge without leaving contact

the orbit be a circle of radius 10 m ? with the ground at the highest point (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(a) 2.5 × 104 J, 3000 kgm2/sec (a) 7 m/s (b) 14 m/s (c) 289 m/s (d) 5 m/s

(b) 3.5 × 104 J, 2000 kgm2/sec Q.12 A cane filled with water is revolved in a vertical circle of

(c) 2.5 × 103 J, 300 kgm2/sec radius 0.5 m and the water does not fall down. The

(d) 3.5 × 103 J, 300 kgm2/sec maximum period of revolution must be -

Q.5 A string of length 1 m is fixed at one end and carries a (a) 1.45 (b) 2.45 (c) 14.15 (d) 4.25

mass of 100 gm at the other end. The string makes 2/p Q.13 A particle of mass m slides down from the vertex of semi-

revolutions per second about a vertical axis through the

hemisphere, without any initial velocity. At what height

fixed end. The angle of inclination of the string with the

from horizontal will the particle leave the sphere-

vertical, and the linear velocity of the mass will respec-

tively be - (in M.K.S. system) 2 3 5 8

(a) 52º14', 3.16 (b) 50º14', 1.6 (a) R (b) R (c) R (d) R

3 2 8 5

(c) 52º14', 1.6 (d) 50º14', 3.16 Q.14 A body of mass m tied at the end of a string of length l is

Q.6 A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant

radius r such that its centripetal acceleration ac is varying projected with velocity 4lg , at what height will it leave

with time t as ac = k2rt2, where k is a constant. The power the circular path -

delivered to the particle by the force acting on it will be -

(a) mk2t2r (b) mk2r2t2 (c) m2k2t2r2 (d) mk2r2t 5 3 1 2

(a) l (b) l (c) l (d) l

Q.7 A car is moving in a circular path of radius 100 m with 3 5 3 3

velocity of 200 m/sec such that in each sec its velocity Q.15 A string of length L is fixed at one end and carries a mass

increases by 100 m/s, the net acceleration of car will be - M at the other end. The string makes 2/p revolutions per

(in m/sec) second around the vertical axis through the fixed end as

(a) 100 17 (b) 10 7 (c) 10 3 (d) 100 3 shown in the figure, then tension in the string is

Q.8 A 4 kg balls is swing in a vertical circle at the end of a cord

1 m long. The maximum speed at which it can swing if the (a) ML S

(a) 6 m/s (b) 36 m/s (c) 8 m/s (d) 64 m/s (b) 2 ML L

(c) 4 ML

bob is m. Now the string is released. The tension in the M

string in the lowest position is -

(d) 16 ML R

(a) 1 mg (b) 2 mg (c) 3 mg (d) 4 mg

Q.10 A swimmer can swim in still water at a rate 4 km/h. If he Q.16 A train has to negotiate a curve of radius 400 m. By how

swims in a river flowing at 3 km/h and keeps his direction much should the outer rail be raised with respect to inner

(w.r.t. water) perpendicular to the current. Find his velocity rail for a speed of 48 km/hr. The distance between the rails

w.r.t. the ground. is 1 m.

(a) 3 km/hr (b) 5 km/hr (a) 12 m (b) 12 cm

(c) 4 km/hr (d) 7 km/hr (c) 4.5 cm (d) 4.5 m

4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

RESPONSE 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

GRID

14. 15. 16.

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Q.17 A ship is steaming towards east at a speed of 12 ms–1. A Q.21 A swimmer who can swim in a river with speed mv (with

woman runs across the deck at a speed of 5 ms–1 in the respect to still water) where v is the velocity of river

direction at right angles to the direction of motion of the current, jumps into the river from one bank to cross the

ship i.e. towards north. What is the velocity of the woman river. Then

relative to sea ? (1) If m < 1 he cannot cross the river

(a) 13 m/s (b) 5 m/s (c) 12 m/s (d) 17 m/s (2) If m £ 1 he cannot reach a point on other bank di-

Q.18 A man is walking on a level road at a speed of 3 km/h. rectly opposite to his starting point.

Raindrops fall vertically with a speed of 4 km/h. Find the (3) If m > 1 he can reach a point on other bank

velocity of raindrops with respect to the men. (4) He can reach the other bank at some point, whatever

(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 5 km/hr (d) 7 km/hr be the value of m.

Q.19 A stone of mass 1 kg tied to a light inextensible string of Q.22 Consider two children riding on the merry-go-round Child

1 sits near the edge, Child 2 sits closer to the centre.

length L = 10 m is whirling in a circular path of radius L Let vl and v2 denote the linear speed of child 1 and child 2,

3 respectively. Which of the following is/are wrong ?

in a vertical plane. If the ratio of the maximum tension in (1) We cannot determine v 1 & v 2 without more

the string to the minimum tension in the string is 4 and if g information

is taken to be 10m / sec2, the speed of the stone at the (2) v1 = v2

highest point of the circle is (3) v1 < v2

(a) 20 m/sec (b) 10 3m/sec (4) v1 > v2

(c) 5 2m/sec (d) 10 m/sec DIRECTIONS (Q.23-Q.25) : Read the passage given below

and answer the questions that follows :

DIRECTIONS (Q.20-Q.22) : In the following questions,

more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the Three of the fundamental constants of physics are the universal

correct answers and mark it according to the following gravitational constant, G = 6.7 × 10–11m3kg–1s–2, the speed of

codes: light, c = 3.0 × 108 m/s, and Planck’s constant, h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js–1.

Two particles A and B are projected in the vertical plane with

Codes :

same initial velocity u0 from part (0, 0) and (l, –h) towards each

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

other as shown in figure at t = 0.

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

Q.20 Two bodies P and Q are moving along positive x-axis their y

r

position-time graph is shown below. If VPQ is velocity of u0

r

P w.r.t. Q and VQP is velocity of Q w.r.t P, then g = 10m/s2

r r x

(1) | VPQ | = | VQP | = constant A x

P (0,0)

r l

(2) VPQ towards origin Q

u0 h

r

(3) VQP towards origin

r r

(4) | VPQ | ¹ | VQP | = constant t (l, –h) B

GRID 22.

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Q.23 The path of particle A with respect to particle B will be – (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

(a) parabola correct explanation for Statement-1.

(b) straight line parallel to x-axis (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

(c) straight line parallel to y-axis NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

(d) None of these (c) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

Q.24 Minimum distance between particle A and B during motion (d) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

will be –

Q.26 Statement-1 : The relative velocity between any two

(a) l (b) h

bodies moving in opposite direction is equal to sum of the

(c) l2 + h 2 (d) l + h velocities of two bodies.

Q.25 The time when separation between A and B is minimum is Statement-2 : Sometimes relative velocity between two

x 2h bodies is equal to difference in velocities of the two.

(a) u 0 cosq (b) g Q.27 Statement-1: A river is flowing from east to west at a

l 2l

speed of 5m/min. A man on south bank of river, capable of

(c) 2u cos q (d) u cosq swimming 10 m/min in still water, wants to swim across

0 0

the river in shortest time. He should swim due north.

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains Statement-2 : For the shortest time the man needs to swim

two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 perpendicular to the bank.

(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,

Q.28 Statement-1 : Rain is falling vertically downwards with

only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the

velocity 6 km/h. A man walks with a velocity of 8 km/h.

correct choice.

Relative velocity of rain w.r.t. the man is 10 km/h.

Statement-2 : Relative velocity is the ratio of two

velocities.

GRID 28.

Total Questions 28 Total Marks 112

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 28 Qualifying Score 44

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

t.me/Ebooks_Encyclopedia27. t.me/Magazines4all

Name : Date :

09

Max. Marks : 116 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 29 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice Q.3 A boat of mass 1000 kg is moving with a velocity of

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out 5 m/s. A person of mass 60 kg jumps into the boat. The

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. velocity of the boat with the person will be -

(a) 4.71 m/s (b) 4.71 cm/s

Q.1 A boy standing on a weighing machine observes his weight (c) 47.1 m/s (d) 47.1 cm/s

as 200 N. When he suddenly jumpes upwards, his friend Q.4 A disc of mass 10 gm is kept horizontally in air by firing

notices that the reading increased to 400 N. The bullets of mass 5 g each at the rate of 10/s. If the bullets

acceleration by which the boy jumped will be- rebound with same speed. The velocity with which the

(a) 9.8 m/s2 (b) 29.4 m/s2 bullets are fired is -

(c) 4.9 m/s 2 (d) 14.7 m/s2 (a) 49 cm/s (b) 98 cm/s (c) 147 cm/s (d) 196 cm/s

Q.2 A force of (6 î + 8 ĵ ) N acted on a body of mass 10 kg. The Q.5 A fire man has to carry an injured person of mass 40 kg

displacement after 10 sec, if it starts from rest, will be - from the top of a building with the help of the rope which

(a) 50 m along tan –1 4/3 with x axis can withstand a load of 100 kg. The acceleration of the

(b) 70 m along tan –1 3/4 with x axis fireman if his mass is 80 kg, will be-

(c) 10 m along tan–1 4/3 with x axis (a) 8.17 m/s2 (b) 9.8 m/s2

(d) None (c) 1.63 m/s 2 (d) 17.97 m/s2

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.6 A body of mass 0.02 kg falls from a height of 5 metre into force of engine is 4500 N. The acceleration of the engine

a pile of sand. The body penetrates the sand a distance of 5 and tension in the coupling will respectively be-

cm before stoping. What force has the sand exerted on the (a) 0.04 m/s2, 2000 N (b) 0.4 m/s2, 200 N

body ? 2

(c) 0.4 m/s , 20 N (d) 4 m/s2, 200 N

(a) 1.96 N (b) –19.6 N Q.11 A body whose mass 6 kg is acted upon by two forces

(c) –0.196 N (d) 0.0196 N

(8iˆ + 10j)

ˆ N and (4iˆ + 8j)

ˆ N. The acceleration produced will

Q.7 The magnitude of the force (in newton) acting on a body

varies with time t (in microsecond) as shown in fig. AB, be (in m/s2) –

BC, and CD are straight line segments. The magnitude of (a) (3iˆ + 2j)

ˆ (b) 12iˆ + 18jˆ

the total impulse of the force on the body from t = 4 ms to

t = 16 ms is 1 ˆ ˆ

800 C (c) (i + j) (d) 2iˆ + 3jˆ

(a) 5 × 10–4 N.s 3

600

Force F (N)

(b) 5 × 10–3 N.s 200

A B

stopped by the brake force of 1000 N. The distance covered

F E

(c) 5 × 10–5 N.s by it before coming to rest is -

0 2 4 6 8 10 12 1416D

Time (m s)____ (a) 1 m (b) 162 m (c) 12.5 m (d) 144 m

(d) 5 × 10–2 N.s Q.13 A block of metal weighing 2 kg is resting on a frictionless

Q.8 The total mass of an elevator with a 80 kg man in it is 1000 plane. It is struck by a jet releasing water at a rate of 1 kg/

kg. This elevator moving upward with a speed of 8 m/sec, s and at a speed of 5 m/s. The initial acceleration of the

is brought to rest over a distance of 16m. The tension T in block will be –

the cables supporting the elevator and the force exerted (a) 2.5 m/s2 (b) 5 m/s2 (c) 0.4 m/s2 (d) 0

on the man by the elevator floor will respectively be- Q.14 A man fires the bullets of mass m each with the velocity v

(a) 7800 N, 624 N (b) 624 N, 7800 N with the help of machine gun, if he fires n bullets every

(c) 78 N, 624 N (d) 624 N, 78 N sec, the reaction force per second on the man will be -

Q.9 In the arrangement shown in fig. the ends P and Q of an

unstretchable string move downwards with a uniform speed m mv vn

(a) n (b) m n v (c) (d)

U. Pulleys A and B are fixed. Mass M moves upwards with v n m

a speed of Q.15 A body of mass 15 kg moving with a velocity of 10 m/s is

A B to be stopped by a resistive force in 15 sec, the force will

be -

q q (a) 10 N (b) 5 N

P Q (c) 100 N (d) 50 N

Q.16 A cricket ball of mass 250 gm moving with a velocity of

24 m/s is hit by a bat so that it acquires a velocity of 28 m/

M s in the opposite direction. The force acting on the ball, if

(a) 2U cos q (b) U cos q the contact time is 1/100 of a second, will be -

(c) 2U/cos q (d) U/cos q (a) 1300 N in the final direction of ball

Q.10 An engine of mass 5 × 104 kg pulls a coach of mass 4 × (b) 13 N in the initial direction of ball

104 kg. Suppose that there is a resistance of 1 N per 100 (c) 130 N in the final direction of ball

kg acting on both coach and engine, and that the driving (d) 1.3 N in the initial direction of ball

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

RESPONSE 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

GRID

16.

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Q.17 A force of 2 N is applied on a particle for 2 sec, the change Q.23 Choose the correct options

in momentum will be - (1) A reference frame in which Newton’s first law is valid

(a) 2 Ns (b) 4 Ns (c) 6 Ns (d) 3 Ns is called an inertial reference frame.

Q.18 A body of mass 2 kg is moving along x-direction with a (2) Frame moving at constant velocity relative to a known

velocity of 2 m/sec. If a force of 4 N is applied on it along inertial frame is also an inertial frame.

y-direction for 1 sec, the final velocity of particle will be - (3) Idealy, no inertial frame exists in the universe for

practical purpose, a frame of reference may be

(a) 2 2 m/s (b) 2 m/s

considered as inertial if its acceleration is negligible

(c) 1/ 2 m/s (d) 1/ 2 2 m/s with respect to the acceleration of the object to be

Q.19 A cricket ball of mass 150 g is moving with a velocity of observed.

12m/sec and is hit by a bat so that the ball is turned back (4) To measure the acceleration of a falling apple, earth

with a velocity of 20 m/sec, the force on the ball acts for cannot be considered as an inertial frame.

0.01 sec, then the average force exerted by the bat on the

ball will be DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below

(a) 48 N (b) 40 N (c) 480 N (d) 400 N and answer the questions that follows :

Q.20 A body of mass 20 kg moving with a velocity of 3 m/s, Pseudo force is an imaginary force which is recognised only by a

rebounds on a wall with same velocity. The impulse on the non-inertial observer to explain the physical situation according

body is - to newton’s laws. Magnitude of pseudo force Fp is equal to the

(a) 60 Ns (b) 120 Ns (c) 30 Ns (d) 180 Ns product of the mass m of the object and the acceleration a of the

DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions, frame of reference. The direction of the force is opposite to the

more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the direction of acceleration, Fp = –ma

correct answers and mark it according to the following Q.24 A spring weighing machine inside a stationary lift reads

codes: 50 kg when a man stand on it. What would happen to the

scale reading if the lift is moving upward with (i) constant

Codes : velocity (ii) constant acceleratioin ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

æ 50a ö

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct (a) 50 kg wt, 50 + kg wt

çè g ÷ø

Q.21 A mass of 60 kg is on the floor of a lift moving down. The

lift moves at first with an acceleration of 3 m/sec2, then æ 50g ö

(b) 50 kg wt, ç 50 + kg wt

with constant velocity and finally with a retardation of è a ÷ø

3m/sec2 . Choose the correct options related to possible

reactions exerted by the lift on the body in each part of the æ 50a ö

(c) 50 kg wt, ç kg wt

motion – è g ÷ø

(1) 408 N (2) 588 N (3) 768 N (4) 508 N æ 50g ö

Q.22 A mass of 10 kg is hung to a spring balance in lift. If the (d) 50 kg wt, ç ÷ kg wt

è a ø

lift is moving with an acceleration g/3 in upward &

Q.25 A 25 kg lift is supported by a cable. The acceleration of

downward directions, choose the correct options related

the lift when the tension in the cable is 175 N, will be -

to the reading of the spring balance.

(a) 2.8 m/s2 (b) 16.8 m/s2

(1) 13.3 kg (2) 6.67 kg (3) 32.6 kg (4) 0 2

(c) – 9.8 m/s (d) 14 m/s2

GRID 22. 23. 24. 25.

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Q.26 A body is suspended by a string from the ceiling of an (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT

elevator. It is observed that the tension in the string is a correct explanation for Statement-1.

doubled when the elevator is accelerated. The acceleration (c) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

will be - (d) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

(a) 4.9 m/s2 (b) 9.8 m/s2

(c) 19.6 m/s 2 (d) 2.45 m/s2 Q.27 Statement-1 : A cloth covers a table. Some dishes are kept

on it. The cloth can be pulled out without dislodging the

DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions contains dishes from the table.

two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 Statement-2 : To every action there is an equal and oppo-

(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, site reaction.

only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the Q.28 Statement-1 : If the net external force on the body is zero

correct choice. then its acceleration is zero.

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a Statement-2 : Acceleration does not depend on force.

correct explanation for Statement-1. Q.29 Statement-1 : The slope of momentum versus time graph

give us the acceleration.

Statement-2 : Force is given by the rate of change of

momentum.

Total Questions 29 Total Marks 116

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 30 Qualifying Score 44

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

10

Max. Marks : 112 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 28 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice force of 25 N. The tension in the rope at the point 7 m

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out away from the point of application, will be -

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (a) 11.67 N (b) 13.33 N

(c) 36.67 N (d) None of these

Q.1 A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal frictionless

Q.4 A force of 100 N acts in the direction as shown in figure

surface by a rope of mass m. If a force P is applied at the

on a block of mass 10 kg resting on a smooth horizontal

free end of the rope, the force exerted by the rope on the

table. The speed acquired by the block after it has .moved

block will be -

a distance of 10 m, will be -

Pm MP mP (in m/sec) (g = 10 m/sec2)

(a) P (b) (c) (d)

M+m M+m M+m (a) 17 m/sec 100N

Q.2 A body of mass 50 kg is pulled by a rope of length 8 m on (b) 13.17 m/sec 30°

a surface by a force of 108N applied at the other end. The 10kg

(c) 1.3 m/sec

force that is acting on 50 kg mass, if the linear density of (d) 1.7 m/sec

rope is 0.5 kg/m will be - Q.5 In the above example, the velocity after 2 sec will be -

(a) 108 N (b) 100 N (c) 116 N (d) 92 N (in m/sec)

Q.3 A rope of length 15 m and linear density 2 kg/m is lying

length wise on a horizontal smooth table. It is pulled by a (a) 10 3 (b) 5 3 (c) 10 (d) 5

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.6 Two blocks of mass m = 1 kg and M = 2 kg are in contact on Q.11 The pulley arrangements of fig (a) and (b) are identical. The

a frictionless table. A horizontal force F(= 3N) is applied to mass of the rope is negligible. In (a) the mass m is lifted up

m. The force of contact between the blocks, will be- by attaching a mass 2 m to the other end of the rope. In (b)

(a) 2 N (b) 1 N (c) 4 N (d) 5 N m is lifted up by pulling the other end of the rope with a

Q.7 A force produces an acceleration of 5 m/s2 in a body and constant downward force F = 2 mg. Which of the following

same force an acceleration of 15 m/s2 in another body. is correct?

The acceleration produced by the same force when applied

to the combination of two bodies will be -

(a) 3.75 m/s2 (b) 20 m/s2

(c) 10 m/s 2 (d) 0.667 m/s2

Q.8 What is the tension in a rod of length L and mass M at a A m m

B 2m F=2mg

distance y from F1 when the rod is acted on by two unequal

forces F1 and F2 (<F1) as shown in fig (a) (b)

y (a) Acceleration in case (b) is 3 times more than that in

C B A

F2

case (a)

T T F1

(b) In case (a) acceleration is g, while in case (b) it is 2g

L (c) In both the cases, acceleration is same

æ yö æyö M æç F1 , F2 ö÷

F1 çç1 , ÷÷ ∗ F2 çç ÷÷

(d) None of the above

(a) (b) yç ÷

èç L ø÷ èç L ø÷ L çè M ø÷ Q.12 Three equal weights of mass m each are hanging on a string

passing over a fixed pulley as shown in fig. The tensions in

æ yö æ yö M æç F1 ∗ F2 ö÷

F1 çç1 ∗ ÷÷ ∗ F2 çç ÷÷ yç ÷ the string connecting weights A to B and B to C will

L çè M ø÷

(c) (d)

çè Lø÷ èç L ø÷ respectively be -

1 1 1 2 2

Q.9 A force produces acceleration 1 , , , , ......... (all in m/ (a) mg, mg

2 3 4 3 3

2 4

s2 ), applied separetly to n bodies. If these bodies are (b) mg , mg T1 T1

combined to form single one, then the acceleration of the 3 3

4 2 A

system will be, if same force is taken into account. (c) mg, mg

3 3 B T2

n 2 n2 n 2 (n + 1) 3

(a) (b) (c) (d) 3 C

2 n(n + 1) 2 2 (d) mg, mg

Q.10 Two blocks of masses 6 kg and 4 kg connected by a rope of 2 4

mass 2 kg are resting on frictionless floor as shown in fig. If a Q.13 In the situation shown in figure, both the pulleys and the

constant force of 60 N is applied to 6 kg block, tension in the strings are light and all the surfaces are frictionless. The

rope at A, B, and C will respectively be - acceleration of mass M, tension in the string PQ and force

exerted by the clamp on the pulley, will respectively be -

6kg

2kg 2kg F=60N

(a) (2/3)g, (1/3)Mg, ( 2 /3)Mg T’ Q T

CBA B 2M

Q P (b) (1/3)g, (1/3)Mg, ( 2 /3)Mg

T T

(c) (1/3)g, (2/3)Mg, 3 Mg 2Mg

(a) 30 N, 25 N, 20 N (b) 25 N, 30 N, 20 N

(d) 2g, (1/2)g, 2 Mg A M

(c) 20 N, 30 N, 25 N (d) 30 N, 20 N, 25 N

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

RESPONSE 11. 12. 13.

GRID

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Q.14 A body of mass 50kg resting on a smooth inclined plane is Q.19 Consider th e double Atwood’s

connected by a massless inextensible string passing over a machine as shown in the figure.

smooth pulley, at the top of the inclined plane have another What is acceleration of the masses ?

mass of 40 kg as shown in the figure. The distance through (a) g/3 T

m

T

a

which 50 kg mass fall in 4 sec will be - (b) g/2

(The angle of the inclined plane is 30º) (c) g mg

T (d) g/4 T

(a) 13.04 m T

T

Q.20 In above question, what is the a m m a

(b) 1.63m C tension in each string ? mg mg

(c) 1.304 m B (a) mg/3 (b) 4mg/3 (c) 2mg/3 (d) 5mg/3

mgcosq mgsinq

mg q

(d) 16.3m 40g DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.22) : In the following questions,

Q.15 A bob is hanging over a pulley inside a car through a string. more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the

The second end of the string is in the hand of a person correct answers and mark it according to the following codes:

standing in the car. The car is moving with constant

Codes :

acceleration 'a' directed horizontally as shown in figure.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

Other end of the string is pulled with constant acceleration

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

‘a’ vertically. The tension in the string is – Q.21 Choose the correct options –

car (1) Inertia µ mass (2) 1 newton = 105 dyne

(a) m g2 + a 2

a r DM r r

a (3) Thrust on rocket F = v - Mg

2

(b) m g + a - ma2 Dt

(4) Apparent weight of a body in the accelerated lift is

m

W = m (g + a).

(c) m g 2 + a 2 + ma

Q.22 Choose the correct statements –

(d) m (g + a) (1) For equilibrium of a body under the action of

® ® ® ®

Q.16 In the fig shown, the velocity of each concurrent forces F1 + F2 + F3 + ..... Fn = 0

particle at the end of 4 sec will be - (2) If the downward acceleration of the lift is a = g, then

(a) 0.872 m/s the body will experience weightlessness.

(b) 8.72 m/s (3) If the downward acceleration of the body is a > g,

T T

(c) 0.218 m/s a then the body will rise up to the ceiling of lift

(d) 2.18 m/s A a (4) If the downward acceleration of the lift is a > g, then

Q.17 In the above example, the height B the body will experience weightlessness.

ascended or descended, as the case may

11.5g DIRECTIONS (Q.23-Q.25) : Read the passage given below

be, during that time i.e. 4 sec will be -

(a) 1.744 m (b) 17.44 m and answer the questions that follows :

(c) 0.1744 m (d) None of these A bead of mass m is attached to one end of

B

Q.18 In the above question, if at the end of 4 sec, the string be a spring of natural length R and spring

cut, the position of each particle in next 2 seconds will ( 3 + 1) mg

constant K = . The other end of A

30°

respectively be - R

(a) 17.856 m, 21.344 m (b) –21.344 m, 17.856 m the spring is fixed at point A on a smooth

(c) –17.856 m, 21.344 m (d) –17.856 m, –21.344 m ring of radius R as shown in figure. When

bead is released to move then

GRID 19. 20. 21. 22.

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Q.23 Initial elongation in the spring is – Statement– 2 Acceleration of the both blocks will be

(a) R (b) 2R (c) 2R (d) 3R

different.

Q.24 The normal reaction force at B is –

mg 3 3mg F B

(a) (b) 3mg (c) 3 3mg (d) A

2 2

Q.25 Tangential acceleration of bead just after it is released.

Q.27 Statement– 1 Block A is moving on horizontal surface

g 3 g 2 towards right under the action of force F. All surfaces are

(a) (b) g (c) (d) g

2 4 4 3 smooth. At the instant shown the force exerted by block A

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains on block B is equal to net force on block B.

two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 Statement– 2 From Newton’s third law of motion, the

(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, force exerted by block A on B is equal in magnitude to

only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the force exerted by block B on A.

correct choice. A

B

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a F

correct explanation for Statement-1. Q.28 Statement– 1 : In the given fig.

(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

æ m , m1 ÷ö

NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1. a < ççç 2 ÷g

(c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True. çè m1 ∗ m 2 ÷÷ø a a

(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False. Statement– 2 : In the given fig., T

T

Q.26 Statement–1 In fig the ground is smooth and the masses m ∗ m2

of both the blocks are different. Net force acting on each T< 1 g m1

2m1m 2 m2

of block is not same.

GRID 28.

Total Questions 28 Total Marks 112

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 28 Qualifying Score 42

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

Space for Rough Work

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Name : Date :

11

Max. Marks : 112 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 28 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice (a) tan–1 (0.1) (b) tan –1 (0.2)

–1

(c) tan (0.3) (d) tan –1 (0.4)

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. Q.4 The coefficient of static friction between the two blocks

shown in figure is m and the table is smooth. What maximum

Q.1 A body of mass 400 g slides on a rough horizontal surface.

horizontal force F can be applied to the block of mass M

If the frictional force is 3.0 N, the angle made by the contact

so that the blocks move together?

force on the body with the vertical will be

(a) 37º (b) 53º (c) 63º (d) 27º

m

Q.2 In the above question, the magnitude of the contact force

is

(g = 10 m/s2) M F

(a) 3.0 N (b) 4.0 N (c) 5.0 N (d) 7.0 N

Q.3 The coefficient of static friction between a block of mass

m and an inclined plane is ms = 0.3. What can be the (a) mg (M + m) (b) mg (M – m)

maximum angle q of the inclined plane with the horizontal (c) 2mg (M + m) (d) mg (M + 2m)

so that the block does not slip on the plane?

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.5 Block A weighs 4 N and block B weighs 8 N. The coefficient of é ù é ù

1 1

kinetic friction is 0.25 for all surfaces. Find the force F to slide B at (a) Rêê1 + ú (b) R ê1 - ú

a constant speed when A rests on B and moves with it. ë (m 2 + 1) úû ê (m2 - 1) úû

ë

(a) 2N (b) 3N (c) 1N (d) 5N é

2

ù é ù

1

Q.6 In the above question, find the force F to slide B at a (c) R êê1 - ú (d) R ê1 - ú

ë (m 2 + 1) úû ê (m + 1) úû

2

constant speed when A is held at rest. ë

Q.12 A body of mass m is released from the top of a rough

(a) 2N (b) 3N (c) 1N (d) 4N

inclined plane as shown in figure. If the frictional force be

Q.7 In the above question, find the force F to slide B at a

F, then body will reach the bottom with a velocity

constant speed when A and B are connected by a light cord

passing over a smooth Pulley. m

(a) 2N (b) 3N (c) 1N (d) 5N

Q.8 Find the maximum value of M/m in the situation shown in

L h

figure so that the system remains at rest. Friction

coefficient at both the contacts is m.

m

2 1

M (a) (mgh - FL) (b) (mgh - FL)

m m

q 2

(c) (mgh + FL) (d) None of these

m 2m m

(a) sin q - m cos q

(b) sin q - m cos q Q.13 A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the floor. The coefficient

m m of static friction is 0.4.A force F of 2.5 N is applied on the

(c) sin q + m cos q

(d) cos q - m sin q block, as shown. Calculate the force of friction between

Q.9 A block placed on a horizontal surface is being pushed by the block and the floor. (g = 9.8 ms–2)

a force F making an angle q with the vertical, if the (a) 2.5 N (b) 25 N (c) 7.84 N (d) zero

coefficient of friction is m, how much force is needed to Q.14 A block is kept on a horizontal table. The table is undergoing

get the block just started? simple harmonic motion of frequency 3 Hz in a horizontal

m 2m plane. The coefficient of static friction between the block and

(a) sin q - m cos q

(b) sin q - m cos q the table surface is 0.72. Find the maximum amplitude of the

m m table at which the block does not slip on the surface (g = 10 ms–

(c) sin q + m cos q (d) cos q - m sin q 2)

Q.10 Assuming the length of a chain to be L and coefficient of (a) 0.01 m (b) 0.02 m (c) 0.03 m (d) 0.04 m

static friction m. Compute the maximum length of the chain Q.15 Two cars of unequal masses use similar tyres. If they are

which can be held outside a table without sliding. moving at the same initial speed, the minimum stopping

2m L mL mL 3mL distance -

(a) 1 + m (b) 1 - m (c) 1 + m (d) 1 + m (a) is smaller for the heavier car

Q.11 If the coefficient of friction between an insect and bowl is (b) is smaller for the lighter car

m and the radius of the bowl is r, find the maximum height (c) is same for both cars

to which the insect can crawl in the bowl. (d) depends on the volume of the car

5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

RESPONSE 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

GRID

15.

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Q.16 Consider the situation shown in figure. The wall is smooth DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions, more

but the surfaces of A and B in contact are rough in than one of the answers given are correct. Select the correct

equilibrium the friction on B due to A – answers and mark it according to the following codes:

(a) is upward Codes :

A B F

(b) is downward (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

(c) is zero (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

(d) the system cannot remain in equilibrium Q.21 Choose the correct statements –

Q.17 A block is placed on a rough floor and a horizontal force F (1) Kinetic friction is lesser than limiting friction.

is applied on it. The force of friction f by the floor on the

(2) In rolling the surfaces at contact do not rub each other.

block is measured for different values of F and a graph is

(3) If a body is at rest and no pulling force is acting on it,

plotted between them –

force of friction on it is zero.

(i) The graph is a straight line of slope 45°

(4) Kinetic friction is greater than limiting friction.

(ii) The graph is straight line parallel to the F axis

Q.22 Choose the correct statements –

(iii) The graph is a straight line of slope 45º for small F and

(1) Force of friction is partically independent of

a straight line parallel to the F-axis for large F.

microscopic area of surface in contact and relative

(iv) There is small kink on the graph

velocity between them. (if it is not high)

(a) iii, iv (b) i, iv (c) i, ii (d) i, iii

(2) Normally with increase in smoothness friction

Q.18 The contact force exerted by a body A on another body B decreases. But if the surface area are made too smooth

is equal to the normal force between the bodies. We by polishing and cleaning the bonding force of

conclude that - adhesion will increase and so the friction will increase

(i) the surfaces must be smooth resulting in 'Cold welding'

(ii) force of friction between two bodies may be equal to (3) Friction is a non conservative force, i.e. work done

zero against friction is path dependent.

(iii) magnitude of normal reaction is equal to that of (4) Force of fricton depends on area

friction Q.23 Choose the correct options –

(iv) bodies may be rough (1) Friction always opposes the motion

(a) ii, iv (b) i, ii (c) iii, iv (d) i, iv (2) Friction may opposes the motion

Q.19 It is easier to pull a body than to push, because - (3) If the applied force is increased the force of static

(a) the coefficient of friction is more in pushing than that friction remains constant.

in pulling (4) If the applied force is increased the force of static

(b) the friction force is more in pushing than that in friction also increases upto limiting friction.

pulling

(c) the body does not move forward when pushed DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below and

(d) None of these answer the questions that follows :

Q.20 A block of metal is lying on the floor of a bus. The

maximum acceleration which can be given to the bus so A block of mass 1 kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface. A

that the block may remain at rest, will be - spring is attached to the block whose other end is joined to a rigid

(a) µg (b) µ/g (c) µ2g (d) µg2 wall, as shown in the figure. A horizontal force is applied on the

block so that it remains at rest while the spring is elongated by x.

GRID 21. 22. 23.

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mmg DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains

x³ . Let Fmax and Fmin be the maximum and minimum values two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2

k

of force F for which the block remains a equilibrium. For a particular (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, only

x, one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the correct

choice.

Fmax – Fmin = 2N.

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

Also shown is the variation of Fmax + Fmin versus x, the elonga-

correct explanation for Statement-1.

tion of the spring.

(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

Fmax+Fmin (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

///////////////

5N

K (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

1 kg Q.27 A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of same mass M and

////////////////////////////////////////// same radius R are released from the top of a rough

0.1M

x inclined plane. Friction coefficient is same for both the

Q.24 The coefficient of friction between the block and the hori- bodies. If both bodies perform imperfect rolling, then

zontal surface is – Statement - 1 : Work done by friction for the motion of

(a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 bodies from top of incline to the bottom will be same

(c) 0.3 (d) 0.4 for both the bodies.

Q.25 The spring constant of the spring is – Statement - 2 : Force of friction will be same for both

the bodies.

(a) 25 N/m (b) 20 N/m

(c) 2.5 N/m (d) 50 N/m Q.28 Statement - 1 : Maximum value of friction force between

two surfaces is m × normal reaction.

Q.26 The value of Fmin, if x = 3 cm. is –

where m = coefficient of friction between surfaces.

(a) 0 (b) 0.2 N

Statement - 2 : Friction force between surfaces of two

(c) 5N (d) 1N

bodies is always less than or equal to externally applied

force.

Total Questions 28 Total Marks 112

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 26 Qualifying Score 42

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

SYLLABUS : Work, Energy and Power-1 (Work by constant and variable forces,

12

kinetic and potential energy, work energy theorem)

Max. Marks : 112 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 28 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

r

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice Q.3 A force F = (7 – 2x + 3x2) N is applied on a 2 kg mass

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out which displaces it from x = 0 to x = 5 m. Work done in

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. joule is -

r (a) 70 (b) 270 (c) 35 (d) 135

Q.1 A body is acted upon by a force F = -ˆi + 2jˆ + 3kˆ . The work

Q.4 An automobile of mass m accelerates from rest. If the engine

done by the force in displacing it from (0,0,0) to (0,0,4m) will supplies a constant power P, the velocity at time t is given by -

be -

(a) 12 J (b) 10 J Pt 2Pt Pt 2Pt

(a) v = (b) v = (c) (d)

(c) 8 J (d) 6 J m m m m

Q.2 The work done in pulling a body of mass 5 kg along an inclined Q.5 In the above question, the position (s) at time (t) is given by -

1/2

plane (angle 60º) with coefficient of friction 0.2 through 2 æ 2Ptö æ 8P ö

(a) çè m ÷ø t (b) çè ÷ø t 3/2

m, will be - 9m

(a) 98.08 J (b) 94.08 J æ 9P ö

1/2

æ 8P ö

1/ 2

(c) 90.08 J (d) 91.08 J (c) ç ÷ t1/2 (d) ç ÷ t

è 8m ø è 9m ø

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.6 A particle moving in a straight line is acted by a force, which Q.13 The power output of a 92 U235 reactor if it takes 30 days to

works at a constant rate and changes its velocity from u to use up 2 kg of fuel and if each fission gives 185 MeV of

v in passing over a distance x. The time taken will be - energy (Avogadro number = 6 × 1023/mole) will be -

v-u æ v+u ö (a) 58.4 MW (b) 5.84 MW

(a) x = 2 2 (b) x çè 2 2 ø÷ (c) 584 W (d) 5840 MW

v +u v +u

æ v2 - u 2 ö

Q.14 The stopping distance for a vehicle of mass M moving with

3 æ vö a speed v along a level road, will be -

(c) (x) ç 3 3 ÷ (d) x çè u ÷ø

2 è v -u ø (µ is the coefficient of friction between tyres and the road)

Q.7 A chain of linear density 3 kg /m and length 8 m is lying on

the table with 4 m of chain hanging from the edge. The v2 2v2 v2 v

work done in lifting the chain on the table will be - (a) (b) (c) (d)

mg mg 2mg mg

(a) 117.6 J (b) 235.2 J (c) 98 J (d) 196 J

Q.15 The earth circles the sun once a year. How much work

Q.8 The work done in lifting water from a well of depth 6 m

would have to be done on the earth to bring it to rest

using a bucket of mass 0.5 kg and volume 2 litre, will be-

relative to the sun, (ignore the rotation of earth about -

(a) 73.5 J (b) 147 J (c) 117. 6 J (d) 98 J

its own axis) Given that mass of the earth is 6 × 1024 kg

Q.9 An object of mass 5 kg falls from rest through a vertical

and distance between the sun and earth is 1.5 × 108 km-

distance of 20 m and reaches a velocity of 10 m/s. How

(a) 2.7 × 1033 (b) 2.7 × 1024

much work is done by the push of the air on the object ? 23

(c) 1.9 × 10 (d) 1.9 × 1024

(g = 10 m/s2).

Q.16 A particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle of

(a) 350 J (b) 750 J (c) 200 J (d) 300 J

radius r, under a centripetal force equal to (–k/r 2), where k

Q.10 A boy pulls a 5 kg block 20 metres along a horizontal sur-

is a constant. The total energy of the particle is -

face at a constant speed with a force directed 45° above

(a) k/2r (b) – k/2r

the horizontal. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.20,

(c) kr (d) –k/r

how much work does the boy do on the block?

Q.17 The work done by a person in carrying a box of mass 10 kg

(a) 163.32 J (b) 11.55 J

through a vertical height of 10 m is 4900 J. The mass of

(c) 150 J (d) 115 J

the person is -

Q.11 A uniform chain is held on a frictionless table with one-

(a) 60 kg (b) 50 kg

fifth of its length hanging over the edge. If the chain has a

(c) 40 kg (d) 130 kg

length l and a mass m, how much work is required to pull

Q.18 A uniform rod of length 4 m and mass 20 kg is lying

the hanging part back on the table ?

horizontal on the ground. The work done in keeping it

(a) mg l / 10 (b) mg l / 5

vertical with one of its ends touching the ground, will be -

(c) mg l / 50 (d) mg l / 2

(a) 784 J (b) 392 J (c) 196 J (d) 98 J

Q.12 A bus of mass 1000 kg has an engine which produces a

Q.19 If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface,

constant power of 50 kW. If the resistance to motion,

the gain in the potential energy of an object of mass m

assumed constant is 1000 N. The maximum speed at which

raised from surface of the earth to a height equal to radius

the bus can travel on level road and the acceleration when

R of the earth is - [M = mass of earth]

it is travelling at 25 m/s, will respectively be -

(a) 50 m/s, 1.0 m/s2 (b) 1.0 m/s, 50 m/s2 GMm GM GMm GM

2 (a) (b) (c) (d)

(c) 5.0 m/s, 10 m/s (d) 10 m/s, 5m/s2 2R R R 2R

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

RESPONSE 11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

GRID

16. 17. 18. 19.

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Q.20 The potential energy between two atoms in a molecule is given DIRECTIONS (Q.23-Q.25) : Read the passage given below

a b and answer the questions that follows :

by, U(x) = - , where a and b are positive constant and x

x12 x 6 In the figure shown, the system is released from rest with both

is the distance between the atoms. The atoms is an stable the springs in unstretched positions. Mass of each block is 1 kg

equilibrium, when- and force constant of each spring is 10 N/m.

1/6

æ a ö

(a) x=0 (b) x = ç ÷

è 2b ø

1/6 1/6

æ 2a ö æ 11a ö

(c) x= ç ÷ (d) x = ç

è bø è 5b ÷ø

DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.22) : In the following questions,

more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the

correct answers and mark it according to the following

codes:

Codes :

Q.23 Extension of horizontal spring in equilibrium is:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (a) 0.2 m (b) 0.4 m

(b) 1 and 2 are correct (c) 0.6 m (d) 0.8 m

(c) 2 and 4 are correct Q.24 Extension of vertical spring in equilibrium is

(a) 0.4 m (b) 0.2 m

(d) 1 and 3 are correct

(c) 0.6 m (d) 0.8 m

Q.21 A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it. Choose Q.25 Maximum speed of the block placed horizontally is:

incorrect statements related to his work (a) 3.21 m/s (b) 2.21 m/s

(1) Negative work (c) 1.93 m/s (d) 1.26 m/s

(2) Positive but not maximum work DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains

(3) Maximum work two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2

(4) No work at all (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,

only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the

Q.22 Choose the correct options –

correct choice.

(1) The work done by forces may be equal to change in

kinetic energy (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

(2) The work done by forces may be equal to change in correct explanation for Statement-1.

potential energy (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

(3) The work done by forces may be equal to change in NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

total energy (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

(4) The work done by forces must be equal to change in (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

potential energy.

GRID 25.

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Q.26 As shown in the figure, a uniform sphere is rolling on a Q.27 Statement - 1 : Sum of work done by the Newton’s 3rd law

horizontal surface without slipping, under the action of a pair internal forces, acting between two particles may be

horizontal force F. zero.

Statement - 2 : If two particles undergo same displacement

F

then work done by Newton’s 3rd law pair forces on them is

of opposite sign and equal magnitude.

Q.28 Statement - 1: A particle moves along a straight line with

constant velocity. Now a constant non-zero force is applied

Statement - 1 : Power developed due to friction force is on the particle in direction opposite to its initial velocity.

zero. After the force is applied, the net work done by this force

Statement - 2 : Power developed by gravity force is non- may be zero in certain time intervals.

zero. Statement - 2 : The work done by a force acting on a particle

is zero in any time interval if the force is always

perpendicular to velocity of the particle.

Total Questions 28 Total Marks 112

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 28 Qualifying Score 44

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

SYLLABUS : Work, Energy and Power-2 (Conservation of momentum and energy, collision, rocket case)

13

Max. Marks : 112 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 28 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice travelled a distance of 15 m. The coefficient of friction

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out between the block and the floor will be - (Duration of

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. impact is very short)

1 2 1 3

Q.1 A rifle man, who together with his rifle has a mass of 100 (a) (b) (c) (d)

2 3 3 4

kg, stands on a smooth surface fires 10 shots horizontally. Q.3 A 20 g bullet pierces through a plate of mass m1 = 1 kg and

Each bullet has a mass 10 gm and a muzzle velocity of 800 then comes to rest inside a second plate of mass m 2 = 2.98

m/s. What velocity does rifle man acquire at the end of 10 kg. It is found that the two plates, initially at rest, now move

shots with equal velocities. The percentage loss in the initial

(a) 0.8 m/s (b) 0.5 m/s (c) 0.3 m/s (d) 1.2 m/s velocity of bullet when it is between m1 and m2. (Neglect

Q.2 A bullet of mass 10 g travelling horizontally with a velocity of any loss of material of the bodies, due to action of bullet.)

300 m/s strikes a block of wood of mass 290 g which rests will be -

on a rough horizontal floor. After impact the block and the (a) 20% (b) 25%

bullet move together and come to rest when the block has (c) 30% (d) 45%

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.4 A bullet of mass 20 g hits a block of mass 1.98 kg suspended Q.9 The mass of a rocket is 500 kg and the relative velocity of

from a massless string of length 100 cm and sticks to it. the gases ejecting from it is 250 m/s with respect to the

The bullet flies down at an angle of 30º to the horizontal rocket. The rate of burning of the fuel in order to give the

with a velocity of 200 m/s. Through what height the block rocket an initial acceleration 20 m/s2 in the vertically

will rise- upward direction (g = 10 m/s2), will be -

(a) 0.15 m (a) 30 kg/s (b) 60 kg/s

(c) 45 kg/s (d) 10 kg/s

(b) 0.30 m v Q.10 A slow moving electron collides elastically with a hydrogen

(M+m)

(c) 0.45 m atom at rest. The initial and final motions are along the

30° h

same straight line. What fraction of electron's kinetic

(d) 0.75 m M

energy is transferred to the hydrogen atom? The mass of

Q.5 A bullet of mass 0.01 kg travelling at a speed of 500 m/s

hydrogen atom is 1850 times the mass of electron.

strikes a block of mass 2 kg, which is suspended by a string

(a) 0.217 % (b) 2.17 % (c) 0.0217 % (d) 21.7 %

of length 5 m. The centre of gravity of the block is found to

rise a vertical distance of 0.1 m. The speed of the bullet Q.11 A particle of mass 4 m which is at rest explodes into three

after it emerges from the block will be - fragments, two of the fragments each of mass m are found

to move each with a speed v making an angle 90º with each

(a) 1.4 m/s other. The total energy relased in this explosion is -

(a) mv2 (b) mv2

2

(c) 220 m/s v1 3

u1

(c) mv2 (d) 2 mv2

(d) 14 m/s 2

0.1m v2

m1 m

2

Q.12 A body of mass M splits into two parts aM and (1 – a) M

Q.6 The rate of burning of fuel in a rocket is 50 gm/sec. and by an internal explosion, which generates kinetic energy T.

comes out with and velocity 4 × 103 m/s. The force exerted After explosion if the two parts move in the same direction

by gas on rocket will be - as before, their relative speed will be -

(a) 200 N (b) 250 N

T 2T

(c) 2.5 × 106 N (d) 2.5 × 104 N (a) (b)

Q.7 A body of mass 1 kg strikes elastically with another body at (1 - a )M a(1 - a)M

rest and continues to move in the same direction with one T 2T

fourth of its initial velocity. The mass of the other body is - (c) (d)

2(1 - a )M (1 - a )M

(a) 0.6 kg (b) 2.4 kg (c) 3 kg (d) 4 kg

Q.8 A ball moving with a speed of 9 m/s strikes with an identical Q.13 A body of mass 1 kg initially at rest explodes and breaks

stationary ball such that after the collision the direction of into three fragments of masses in the ratio 1 : 1 : 3. The

each ball makes an angle of 30° with the original line of two pieces of equal mass fly off perpendicular to each other

motion. Find the speeds of the two balls after the collision. with a speed of 30 m/sec each. What is the velocity of the

Is the kinetic energy conserved in this collision process ? heavier fragment ?

(a) 3 3 m/s, no (b) 3 3 m/s, no (a) 10 2 m/s (b) 15 2 m/s

(c) 6 3 m/s, yes (d) 0, yes (c) 5 2 m/s (d) 20 2 m/s

RESPONSE 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

GRID 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

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Q.14 A body of mass m moving with a velocity v1 in the X- Q.19 In an inelastic collision-

direction collides with another body of mass M moving in (a) momentum is conserved but kinetic energy is not

Y-direction with a velocity v2. They coalasce into one body conserved

during collision. The magnitude and direction of the (b) momentum is not conserved but kinetic energy is

momentum of the final body, will be- conserved

æ Mv 2 ö

(c) neither momentum nor kinetic energy is conserved

(a) (mv1 ) + (Mv2 ) , tan–1 çè mv ÷ø (d) both the momentum and kinetic energy are conserved

1 Q.20 Inelastic collision is the-

æ Mv1 ö (a) collision of ideal gas molecules with the walls of the

(b) (mv1 ) + (Mv2 ) , tan–1 çè mv ÷ø

2 container

æ Mv 2 ö (b) collision of electron and positron to an inhilate each

(c) (mv1 ) 2 + (Mv 2 ) 2 , tan–1 çè mv ÷ø other.

1

æ Mv1 ö (c) collision of two rigid solid spheres lying on a

(d) (mv1 ) 2 + (Mv 2 ) 2 , tan–1 çè mv ÷ø frictionless table

2 (d) scattering of a-particles with the nucleus of gold atom

Q.15 A ball of mass m hits a wall with a speed v making an angle

q with the normal. If the coefficient of restitution is e, the DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions,

direction and magnitude of the velocity of ball after more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the

reflection from the wall will respectively be - correct answers and mark it according to the following

æ tan q ö

codes:

(a) tan–1 çè e ÷ø , v sin 2 q + e 2 cos 2 q Codes :

æ e ö 1 (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

(b) tan–1 çè tan q ÷ø , 2 2 2 (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

v e sin q + cos q Q.21 Which of the following statements is false for collisions-

v

(c) tan–1(e tan q), tan q (1) Momentum is conserved in elastic collisions but not

e in inelastic collisions.

(d) tan–1 (e tan q), v sin 2 q + e2 (2) Total-kinetic energy is conserved in elastic collisions

Q.16 A tennis ball dropped from a height of 2 m rebounds only 1.5 but momentum is not conserved.

metre after hitting the ground. What fraction of energy is lost (3) Total kinetic energy and momentum both are conserved

in the impact? in all types of collisions

(a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/16 (4) Total kinetic energy is not conserved in inelastic

Q.17 A bullet is fired from the gun. The gun recoils, the kinetic collisions but momentum is conserved

energy of the recoil shall be- Q.22 Which of the following hold when two particles of masses

m1 and m2 undergo elastic collision?

(a) equal to the kinetic energy of the bullet (1) When m1 = m2 and m2 is stationary, there is maximum

(b) less than the kinetic energy of the bullet transfer of kinetic energy in head on collision

(c) greater than the kinetic energy of the bullet (2) When m1 = m2 and m2 is stationary, there is maximum

(d) double that of the kinetic energy of the bullet transfer of momentum in head on collision

Q.18 Conservation of linear momentum is equivalent to- (3) When m1 >> m2 and m2 is stationary, after head on

(a) Newton's second law of motion collision m2 moves with twice the velocity of m1.

(b) Newton's first law of motion (4) When the collision is oblique and m1 = m2 with m2

(c) Newton's third law of motion stationary, after the collision the particle move in

(d) Conservation of angular momentum. opposite directions.

GRID 19. 20. 21. 22.

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Q.23 Two balls at the same temperature collide inelastically. DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains

Which of the following is not conserved? two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2

(1) Kinetic energy (2) Velocity (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,

(3) Temperature (4) Momentum only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the

DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below correct choice.

and answer the questions that follows : (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

correct explanation for Statement-1.

A small particle of mass m/10 is moving horizontally at a height (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

of 3R/2 from ground with velocity 10 m/s. A perfectly inelastic NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

collision occurs at point P of sphere of mass m placed on smooth (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

horizontal surface. The radius of sphere is R. (m = 10 kg and R = (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

0.1 m) (Assume all surfaces to be smooth). Q.27 A particle of mass m strikes a wedge of mass M horizontally

as shown in the figure.

m/10 P

m

10 m/s R/2

m M

R

B Statement - 1 : If collision is perfectly inelastic then, it

can be concluded that the particle sticks to the wedge.

Q.24 Speed of particle just after collision is Statement - 2 : In perfectly inelastic collision velocity of

(a) approx 5.0 m/s (b) approx 10 m/s both bodies is same along common normal just after

(c) approx. 15.0 m/s (d) approx 20.0 m/s collision.

Q.25 Speed of sphere just after collision is Q.28 Statement - 1 : In an elastic collision in one dimension

(a) 27/43 m/s (b) 30/43 m/s between two bodies, total momentum remains the same

(c) 35/43 m/s (d) 40/43 m/s before, during and after the collision.

Q.26 Angular speed of sphere just after collision is Statement - 2 : In an elastic collision in one dimension

(a) zero (b) 2 rad/sec between two bodies, total kinetic energy remains the same

(c) 2.5 rad/sec (d) 3 rad/sec before, during and after the collision.

[Assume external forces are absent in both the above

statements].

GRID 28.

Total Questions 28 Total Marks 112

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 28 Qualifying Score 44

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

Space for Rough Work

t.me/Ebooks_Encyclopedia27. t.me/Magazines4all

Name : Date :

14

Max. Marks : 112 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 28 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice Q.3 The distance between the carbon atom and the oxygen atom

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out in a carbon monoxide molecule is 1.1 Å. Given, mass of

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. carbon atom is 12 a.m.u. and mass of oxygen atom is 16

a.m.u., calculate the position of the centre of mass of the

Q.1 In the HCl molecule, the separation between the nuclei of

carbon monoxide molecule

the two atom is about 1.27 A° (1A° = 10 –10 m). The

(a) 6.3 Å from the carbon atom

approximate location of the centre of mass from the

(b) 1 Å from the oxygen atom

hydrogen atom, assuming the chlorine atom to be about

(c) 0.63 Å from the carbon atom

35.5 times massive as hydrogen is

(d) 0.12 Å from the oxygen atom

(a) 1 Å (b) 2.5 Å (c) 1.24 Å (d) 1.5 Å

Q.4 The velocities of three particles of masses 20g, 30g and

Q.2 A 2 kg body and a 3 kg body are moving along the x-axis. At

a particular instant the 2 kg body has a velocity of 3 ms–1 and the 50g are 10iˆ,10 ˆj and10kˆ respectively. The velocity of the

3 kg body has the velocity of 2ms–1. The velocity of the centre of mass of the three particles is

centre of mass at that instant is (a) 2iˆ + 3 ˆj + 5kˆ (b) 10(iˆ + ˆj + kˆ)

(a) 5 ms–1 (b) 1 ms–1

(c) 0 (d) None of these (c) 20iˆ + 30 ˆj +5 kˆ (d) 2iˆ + 30 ˆj +50 kˆ

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.5 The centre of mass of a triangle shown in figure has Q.10 Two particles of masses m1 and m2 initially at rest start

coordinates moving towards each other under their mutual force of

h b attraction. The speed of the centre of mass at any time t,

(a) x = , y = y when they are at a distance r apart, is

2 2

b h æ m1m2 1 ö

(b) x= , y=

2 2 (a) zero (b) çè G 2 . m ÷ø t

h r 1

b h

(c) x = , y =

3 3 æ m1m2 1 ö æ m1m2 1 ö

h b x (c) çè G 2 . m ÷ø t (d) çè G 2 . m + m ÷ø t

x= , y= r 2 r 1 2

(d) b

3 3

Q.11 A 'T' shaped object, dimensions shown in the figure, is

Q.6 Two bodies of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are moving with r

velocities 2 m/s and 10 m/s respectively along same lying on a smooth floor. A force ' F ' is applied at the point

direction. Then the velocity of their centre of mass will be P parallel to AB, such that the object has only the

(a) 8.1 m/s (b) 7.3 m/s translational motion without rotation. Find the location of

(c) 6.4 m/s (d) 5.3 m/s P with respect to C

Q.7 Four particles of masses m, 2m, 3m and 4m are arranged at 4 l

the corners of a parallelogram with each side equal to a (a) l

A

3 B

and one of the angle between two adjacent sides is 60°. (b) I P

The parallelogram lies in the x-y plane with mass m at the 2 F 2l

origin and 4m on the x-axis. The centre of mass of the (c) l

3

arrangement will be located at 3 C

(d) l

æ 3 ö æ 3 ö 2

(a) ç 2 a, 0.95a ÷ (b) ç 0.95a , 4 a ÷

è ø è ø

Q.12 Two spheres of masses 2M and M are initially at rest at a

æ 3a a ö æ a 3a ö

(c) çè , ÷ø (d) çè , ÷ø distance R apart. Due to mutual force of attraction, they

4 2 2 4

approach each other. When they are at separation R/2, the

Q.8 Three identical metal balls each of radius r are placed touching acceleration of the centre of mass of spheres would be

each other on a horizontal surface such that an equilateral (a) 0 m/s2 (b) g m/s2

triangle is formed, when centres of three balls are joined. (c) 3 g m/s2 (d) 12 g m/s2

The centre of the mass of system is located at Q.13 Masses 8 kg, 2 kg, 4 kg and 2 kg are placed at the corners

(a) Horizontal surface A, B, C, D respectively of a square ABCD of diagonal 80

(b) Centre of one of the balls cm. The distance of centre of mass from A will be

(c) Line joining centres of any two balls (a) 20 cm (b) 30 cm

(d) Point of intersection of the medians (c) 40 cm (d) 60 cm

Q.9 2 bodies of different masses of 2 kg and 4 kg are moving Q.14 If linear density of a rod of length 3m varies as l = 2 + x,

with velocities 20 m/s and 10 m/s towards each other due them the position of the centre of gravity of the rod is

to mutual gravitational attraction. What is the velocity of 7 12

their centre of mass? (a) m (b) m

3 7

(a) 5 m/s (b) 6 m/s 10 9

(c) 8 m/s (d) Zero (c) m (d) m

7 7

RESPONSE 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

GRID 10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

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Q.15 Four bodies of equal mass start moving with same speed Q.19 A cricket bat is cut at the location of its centre of mass as

as shown in the figure. In which of the following shown in the fig. Then

combination the centre of mass will remain at origin?

Y

(a) c and d d c

(b) a and b (a) The two pieces will have the same mass

X' X (b) The bottom piece will have larger mass

(c) a and c (c) The handle piece will have larger mass

a b

(d) b and d (d) Mass of handle piece is double the mass of bottom

Y' piece

Q.16 Three identical spheres, each of mass 1 kg are kept as Q.20 Consider a system of two particles having mass m1 and m2.

shown in figure, touching each other, with their centres on If the particle of mass m1 is pushed towards the centre of

a straight line. If their centres are marked P, Q, R mass of particles through a distance d, by what distance

respectively, the distance of centre of mass of the system would be particle of mass m2 move so as to keep the centre

from P is of mass of particles at the original position?

PQ + PR + QR m1 m m2

(a) y

(a) d (b) 1 d (c) d (d) d

3

m1 + m2 m2 m1

PQ + PR

(b) P Q R

3 x DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.22) : In the following questions,

PQ + QR

(c) more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the

3

PR + QR

correct answers and mark it according to the following

(d) codes:

3

Q.17 A ladder is leaned against a smooth wall and it is allowed Codes :

to slip on a frictionless floor. Which figure represents (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

trace of motion of its centre of mass

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

Q.21 Choose the wrong statements about the centre of mass

(CM) of a system of two particles

(a) (b) (1) The CM lies on the line joining the two particles

midway between them

Time Time

(2) The CM lies on the line joining them at a point whose

distance from each particle is proportional to the

square of the mass of that particle

(c) (d) (3) The CM is on the line joining them at a point whose

Time Time distance from each particle is proportional to the mass

Q.18 The two particles X and Y, initially at rest, start moving of that particle

towards each other under mutual attraction. If at any instant (4) The CM lies on the line joining them at a point whose

the velocity of X is V and that of Y is 2V, the velocity of distance from each particle is inversely proportional

their centre of mass will be to the mass of that particle

(a) 0 (b) V (c) 2V (d) V/2

GRID 20. 21.

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Q.22 Choose the wrong statements about the centre of mass of Q.25 Maximum extension in the spring after system loses

a body contact with wall

(1) It lies always outside the body 3mg 3mg

(2) It lies always inside the body (a) (b)

2k 2k

(3) It lies always on the surface of the body 3mg

(4) It may lie within, outside or on the surface of the body (c) (d) None of these

2k

DIRECTIONS (Q.23-Q.25) : Read the passage given below DIRECTIONS (Q. 26-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains

and answer the questions that follows : two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2

A system consists of block A and B each of mass m connected (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,

by a light spring as shown in the figure with block B in contact only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the

with a wall. The block A compresses the spring by 3mg/k from correct choice.

natural length of spring and then released from rest. Neglect (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

friction anywhere. correct explanation for Statement-1.

(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

3mg/k (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

k

B A (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

Q.26 Statement-1 : The centre of mass of a system of n particles

Q.23 Acceleration of centre of mass of system comprising A is the weighted average of the position vector of the n

and B just after A is released is particles making up the system.

(a) 0 (b) 3g/2 Statement-2 : The position of the centre of mass of a

(c) 3g (d) None of these system is independent of coordinate system.

Q.24 Velocity of centre of mass of system comprising A and B Q.27 Statement-1 : The centre of mass of a proton and an electron,

when block B just loses contact with the wall released from their respective positions remains at rest.

Statement-2 : The centre of mass remains at rest, if no

3g m

(a) 3 g m (b) external force is applied.

k 2 k

Q.28 Statement-1 : Position of centre of mass is independent

m of the reference frame.

(c) 2g (d) None of these

k Statement-2 : Centre of mass is same for all bodies.

GRID 27. 28.

Total Questions 28 Total Marks 112

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 28 Qualifying Score 46

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

Space for Rough Work

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Name : Date :

SYLLABUS : Rotational Motion – 1: Basic concepts of rotational motion, moment of a force, torque,

15

angular momentum and its conservation with application

Max. Marks : 112 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 28 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice (c) When no external impulse acts upon the system

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out (d) When axis of rotation remains same

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. Q.3 Two rigid bodies A and B rotate with rotational kinetic

Q.1 A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating energies EA and EB respectively. The moments of inertia

about its axis with a constant angular velocity w. Four of A and B about the axis of rotation are IA and IB respectively.

objects each of mass m, are kept gently to the opposite If IA = IB/4 and EA = 100 EB, the ratio of angular momentum

ends of two perpendicular diameters of the ring. The (LA) of A to the angular momentum (LB) of B is

angular velocity of the ring will be (a) 25 (b) 5/4 (c) 5 (d) 1/4

Q.4 A uniform heavy disc is rotating at constant angular velocity

Mw ( M + 4m) w ( M - 4m) w Mw w about a vertical axis through its centre and perpendicular

(a) (b) (c) (d)

M + 4m M M + 4m 4m to the plane of the disc. Let L be its angular momentum. A

Q..2 The angular momentum of a system of particles is lump of plasticine is dropped vertically on the disc and

conserved sticks to it. Which of the following will be constant?

(a) When no external force acts upon the system (a) w (b) w and L both

(b) When no external torque acts upon the system (c) L only (d) Neither w nor L

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.5 Two discs of moment of inertia I1 and I2 and angular speeds Q.11 An automobile engine develops 100 kW when rotating at a

w1 and w2 are rotating along collinear axes passing through speed of 1800 rev/min. What torque does it deliver

their centre of mass and perpendicular to their plane. If (a) 350 N-m (b) 440 N-m

the two are made to rotate combindly along the same axis

(c) 531 N-m (d) 628 N-m

the rotational KE of system will be

Q.12 A constant torque acting on a uniform circular wheel

(a)

I1w1 + I 2 w 2

(b)

( I1 + I2 )( w1 + w 2 )2 changes its angular momentum from A0 to 4A0 in 4 seconds.

2 ( I1 + I 2 ) 2 The magnitude of this torque is

( I1w1 + I2 w 2 ) 2

(c) (d) None of these 3A 0

2 ( I1 + I 2 ) (a) (b) A0

4

Q.6 A particle performs uniform circular motion with an

angular momentum L. If the frequency of a particle's (c) 4A0 (d) 12A0

motion is doubled and its kinetic energy is halved, the Q.13 A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg -m2 about its

angular momentum becomes. vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm about this axis.

(a) 2 L (b) 4 L (c) L/2 (d) L/4 The torque which can stop the wheel's rotation in 1 minute

Q.7 A round disc of moment of inertia I 2 about its axis would be

perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre is 2p p

placed over another disc of moment of inertia I1 rotating (a) Nm (b) Nm

15 12

with an angular velocity w about the same axis. The final

angular velocity of the combination of discs is p p

(c) Nm (d) Nm

I 2w I1w ( I1 + I2 ) w 15 18

(a) I1 + I 2 (b) w (c) I1 + I 2 (d) I1 r Ù Ù Ù

Q.14 Find the torque of a force F = -3 i + j + 5k acting at the

Q.8 Calculate the angular momentum of a body whose rotational

energy is 10 joule. If the angular momentum vector r Ù Ù Ù

point r = 7 i + 3 j + k

coincides with the axis of rotation and its moment of inertia

about this axis is 8×10-7 kg m2 Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù

(a) 14 i - 38 j + 16 k (b) 4 i + 4 j + 6 k

(a) 4 × 10–3 kg m2 /s (b) 2 × 10–3 kg m2/s

–3

(c) 6 × 10 kg m /s 2 (d) None of these Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù Ù

(c) -14 i + 38 j - 16 k (d) -21 i + 3 j + 5 k

Q.9 If the earth is treated as a sphere of radius R and mass M. Its

angular momentum about the axis of rotation with period T Q.15 A constant torque of 1000 N -m, turns a wheel of moment

is of inertia 200 kg -m2 about an axis passing through the

centre. Angular velocity of the wheel after 3 s will be

pMR 3 MR 2 p 2pMR 2 4pMR 2

(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) 15 rad/s (b) 10 rad/s (c) 5 rad/s (d) 1 rad/s

T T 5T 5T

Q.10 If the earth is a point mass of 6×1024kg revolving around Q.16 A torque of 30 N-m is applied on a 5 kg wheel whose

the sun at a distance of 1.5×108 km and in time T = 3.14 moment of inertia is 2kg-m2 for 10 sec. The angle covered

×107s. then the angular momentum of the earth around by the wheel in 10 sec will be

the sun is (a) 750 rad (b) 1500 rad

(a) 1.2 × 1018 kg m2/s (b) 1.8 × 1029 kg m2/s

(c) 1.5 × 1037 kg m2/s (d) 2.7 × 1040 kg m2/s (c) 3000 rad (d) 6000 rad

5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

RESPONSE

10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

GRID

15. 16.

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Q.17 A horizontal force F is applied such that the block remains Q.21 A child is standing with folded hands at the centre of a

stationary, then which of the following statement is false platform rotating about its central axis. The kinetic energy

of the system is K. The child now stretches his arms so

a

that the moment of inertia of the system doubles. The

kinetic energy of the system now is

a

(1) less than 2K (2) equal to K/2

F

(3) more thanK/4 (4) equal to 4K

Q.22 Two uniforms discs of equal mass but unequal radii are

mounted on fixed horizontal axiles. Light strings are

wrapped on each of the discs. The strings are pulled by

constant equal forces F for same amount of time as shown

(a) f = mg [where f is the friction force] in the figure.

(b) F = N [ where N is the normal reaction] F

F

(c) F will not produce torque

(d) N will not produce torque

Q.18 In a bicycle, the radius of rear wheel is twice the radius of

front wheel. If r F and rr are the radius, vF and vr are speeds

Disc I

of top most points of wheel, then

Disc II

(a) vr = 2 vF (b) vF = 2 vr Angular momenta of discs are L1 and L2 and their kinetic

(c) vF = vr (d) vF > vr energies are K1 and K2. Which of the following statements

Q.19 The wheel of a car is rotating at the rate of 1200 revolutions true –

per minute. On pressing the accelerator for 10 seconds, it (1) L1 = L2 (2) L1 < L2 (3) K1 > K2 (4) K1 = K2

starts rotating at 4500 revolutions per minute. The angular

acceleration of the wheel is DIRECTIONS (Q.23-Q.25) : Read the passage given below

(a) 30 rad/sec2 (b) 1880 degree/sec2 and answer the questions that follows :

(c) 40 rad/sec 2 (d) 1980 degree/sec2 Consider a cylinder of mass M = 1kg and radius R = 1 m lying on

Q.20 A wheel rotates with a constant acceleration of 2.0 radian/ a rough horizontal plane. It has a plank lying on its top as shown in

sec 2 . It the wheel starts from rest, the number of the figure.

revolutions it makes in the first ten seconds will be

approximately m = 1kg

F

60°

(a) 8 (b) 16 (c) 24 (d) 32

A

DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.22) : In the following questions,

more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the M R

correct answers and mark it according to the following

B

codes:

Codes : A force F = 55 N is applied on the plank such that the

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct plank moves and causes the cylinder to roll. The plank

always remains horizontal. There is no slipping at any

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

point of contact.

GRID 22.

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Q.23 Calculate the acceleration of cylinder. (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

(a) 20 m/s2 (b) 10 m/s2 NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

(c) 5 m/s 2 (d) None of these (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

Q.24 Find the value of frictional force at A (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

(a) 7.5 N (b) 5.0 N Q.26 Statement -1: Torque is equal to rate of change of angular

(c) 2.5 N (d) None of these momentum.

Q.25 Find the value of frictional force at B Statement -2: Angular momentum depends on moment

(a) 7.5 N (b) 5.0 N of inertia and angular velocity.

(c) 2.5 N (d) None of these Q.27 Statement -1: Torque due to force is maximum when angle

r r

DIRECTIONS (Q.26-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains between r and F is 90°.

two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 Statement -2: The unit of torque is newton- meter.

(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, Q.28 Statement -1: It is harder to open and shut the door if we

only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the apply force near the hinge.

correct choice. Statement -2: Torque is maximum at hinge of the door.

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

correct explanation for Statement-1.

GRID 28.

Total Questions 28 Total Marks 112

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 28 Qualifying Score 44

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

16

(values of moments of inertia simple geometrical objects)

Max. Marks : 120 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 30 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice (a) 2.5 × 10–3 kg–m2 (b) 2 × 10–3 kg–m2

–3

(c) 5 × 10 kg–m 2 (d) 3.5 × 10–3 kg–m2

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. Q.4 A constant torque of 31.4 N–m is exerted on a pivoted

wheel. If angular acceleration of wheel is 4 p rad/sec2, then

Q.1 Five particles of mass 2 kg are attached to the rim of a

the moment of inertia of the wheel is

circular disc of radius 0.1 m & negligible mass. Moment

(a) 2.5 kg–m2 (b) 2.5 kg–m2

of inertia of the system about an axis passing through the 2

(c) 4.5 kg–m (d) 5.5 kg–m2

centre of the disc & perpendicular to its plane is

Q.5 From a uniform wire, two circular loops are made (i) P of

(a) 1 kg-m2 (b) 0.1kg-m2 (c) 2 kg-m2 (d) 0.2 kg-m2

radius r and (ii) Q of radius nr. If the moment of inertia of

Q.2 Two discs of the same material and thickness have radii 0.2

loop Q about an axis passing through its centre and

m and 0.6 m. Their moments of inertia about their axes will

perpendicular to its plane is 8 times that of P about a similar

be in the ratio of

axis, the value of n is (diameter of the wire is very much

(a) 1 : 81 (b) 1: 27 (c) 1 : 9 (d) 1 : 3

smaller than r or nr)

Q.3 A cylinder of 500 g and radius 10 cm has moment of inertia

(a) 8 (b) 6

(about its natural axis)

(c) 4 (d) 2

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.6 The moment of inertia of a sphere of mass M and radius R Q.12 Three point masses m1, m2, m3 are located at the vertices

2

MR 2 . The radius

of an equilateral triangle of length 'a'. The moment of

about an axispassing through itscentre is 5 inertia of the system about an axis along the altitude of the

of gyration of the sphere about a parallel axis to the above triangle passing through m1, is

and tangent to the sphere is a2

æ 7 ö÷ æ 3 ÷ö (a) (m2 + m3) (b) (m1 + m2 + m3) a2

7 3 çç ÷ R ççç ÷÷ R

4

(a) R (b) R (c) çç 5 ÷÷ (d) çè 5 ÷ø a2

5 5 è ø (c) (m1 + m2) (d) (m2 + m3) a2

Q.7 Four particles each of mass m are placed at the corners of 4

a square of side length l. The radius of gyration of the Q.13 Three rods each of length L and mass M are placed along

system about an axis perpendicular to the square and X, Y and Z axis in such a way that one end of each of the

passing through its centre is rod is at the origin. The moment of inertia of this system

about Z axis is

l l

(a) (b) (c) l (d) ( 2)l 2ML2 4ML2 5ML2 ML2

2 2 (a) (b) (c) (d)

3 3 3 3

Q.8 The radius of gyration of a disc of mass 50 g and radius 2.5 Q.14 ABC is a triangular plate of uniform

cm, about an axis passing through its centre of gravity and thickness. The sides are in the ratio A

perpendicular to the plane is shown in the figure. IAB, IBC, ICA are

(a) 0.52 cm (b) 1.76 cm (c) 3.54 cm (d) 6.54 cm the moments of inertia of the plate

Q.9 Moment of inertia of a ring of mass m = 3 gm and radius about AB, BC, CA respectively. For 4 5

r = 1 cm about an axis passing through its edge and parallel this arrangement which one of the

to its natural axis is following relation is correct?

(a) 10 gm–cm2 (b) 100 gm–cm2 B 3 C

(c) 6 gm–cm2 (d) 1 gm–cm2

Q.10 A disc is of mass M and radius r. The moment of inertia of (a) ICA is maximum (b) IBC > IAB

it about an axis tangential to its edge and in plane of the (c) IBC > IAB (d) IAB + IBC = ICA

disc or parallel to its diameter is

Q.15 A 1m long rod has a mass of 0.12 kg. The moment of inertia

5 Mr 2 3 Mr 2

(a) Mr 2 (b) (c) Mr 2 (d) about an axis passin through the centre and perpendicular

4 4 2 2

to the length of rod will be

Q.11 Two spheres each of mass M and radius R/2 are connected

(a) 0.01kg-m2 (b) 0.001 kg-m2

with a massless rod of length 2R as shown in the figure. 2

(c) 1 kg-m (d) 10 kg-m2

M M Q.16 Two rings of the same radius and mass are placed such that

The moment of inertia

R/2 R/2 their centres are at a common point and their planes are

of the system about an

perpendicular to each other. The moment of inertia of the

axis passing through

system about an axis passing through the centre and

the centre of one of the 2R perpendicular to the plane of one of the rings is (mass of

spheres and

the ring = m and radius = r)

perpendicular to the

1 2

rod will be (a) mr (b) mr2

2

3 2

21 2 2 5 5 (c) mr (d) 2 mr2

(a) Mr (b) Mr 2 (c) Mr 2 (d) Mr 2 2

5 5 2 21

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

RESPONSE

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

GRID

16.

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Q.17 One quarter sector is cut from a uniform (a) 3 MR2 Y

circular disc of radius R. This sector has

3

mass M. It is made to rotate about a line (b) MR 2

2

perpendicular to its plane and passing

through the centre of the original disc. (c) 5 MR2

90°

Its moment of inertia about the axis of 7

(d) MR 2 Y¢

rotation is 2

1 1 1

(a) MR 2 (b) MR2 (c) MR 2 (d) 2MR 2 DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions,

2 4 8

Q.18 A thin wire of length L and uniform linear mass density r is more than one of the answers given are correct. Select

bent into a circular loop with centre at O as shown in figure. the correct answers and mark it according to the following

The moment of inertia of the loop about the axis XX¢ is codes:

rL3 Codes :

(a)

8p 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

rL3 X X¢ (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

(b)

16 p 2 Q.22 The density of a rod AB increases linearly from A to B. Its

90°

5rL3 midpoint is O and its centre of mass is at C. Four axes pass

(c) O through A, B, O and C, all perpendicular to the length of

16 p 2

3rL3 the rod. The moments of inertia of the rod about these

(d) axes are I A, IB, IO and IC respectively then:.

8p 2

Q.19 Two disc of same thickness but of different radii are made (1) IA > IB (2) IA < IB

of two different materials such that their masses are same. (3) IO > IC (4) IO < IC

The densities of the materials are in the ratio 1 : 3. The Q.23 The moment of inertia of a thin square plate ABCD of

ratio of the moments of inertia of these discs about the uniform thickness about an axis passing through the centre

respective axes passing through their centres and O and perpendicular to the plane of the plate is

perpendicular to their planes will be in 4

(1) I1 + I2 1

(a) 1 : 3 (b) 3 : 1 (c) 1 : 9 (d) 9 : 1

(2) I3 + I4 A B

R

Q.20 A circular disc of radius R and thickness has moment (3) I1 + I3

6

of inertia I about an axis passing through its centre and (4) I1 + I2 + I3 + I4 3

where I1 , I2 , I3 and I4 are O

perpendicular to its plane. It is melted and recasted into a

solid sphere. The moment of inertia of the sphere about respectively moments of

inertia about axes 1, 2, 3 and D C

one of its diameter as an axis of rotation will be

4 which are in the plane of the 2

2I I I

(a) I (b) (c) (d) plate.

8 5 10

Q.24 Moment of inertia doesn’t depend on

Q.21 Three rings each of mass M and radius R are

(1) distribution of particles

arranged as shown in the figure. The moment

(2) mass

of inertia of the system about YY' will be

(3) position of axis of rotation

(4) None of these

GRID 22. 23. 24.

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DIRECTIONS (Q.25-Q.27) : Read the passage given below (a) be doubled

and answer the questions that follows : (b) increase but be less than double

(c) remain the same

Four identical spheres having mass M and (d) decrease

radius R are fixed tightly within a massless ring

such that the centres of all spheres lie in the DIRECTIONS (Q. 28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains

plane of ring. The ring is kept on a rough two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2

(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,

horizontal table as shown. The string is wrapped

only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the

around the ring can roll without slipping. correct choice.

The other end of the string is passed over a massless frictionless

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

pulley to a block of mass M. A force F is applied horizontally on

correct explanation for Statement-1.

the ring, at the same level as the centre, so that the system is in

(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

equilibrium. NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

Q.25 The moment of inertia of the combined ring system about (c) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

the centre of ring will be (d) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

(a)

12

MR 2 Q.28 Statement-1 : Radius of gyration of a body is a constant

5 quantity.

48

MR2

F Statement-2 : The radius of gyration of a body about an

(b)

15 axis of rotation may be defined as the root mean square

(c)

24

MR 2

distance of the particles of the body from the axis of rotation.

5 M Q.29 Statement-1 : Moment of inertia of a particle is same,

48

MR2

whatever be the axis of rotation.

(d)

5 Statement-2 : Moment of inertia depends on mass and

Q.26 The magnitude of F is perpendicular distance of the particle from its axis of

(a) Mg (b) 2Mg rotation.

Mg Q.30 Statement-1 : If earth shrink (without change in mass) to

(c) (d) None of these half of its present size, length of the day would become 6

2

Q.27 If the masses of the spheres were doubled keeping their hours.

dimensions same, the force of friction between the ring Statement-2 : When the size of the earth will change, its

and the horizontal surface would moment of inertia will also change.

GRID 30.

Total Questions 30 Total Marks 120

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 32 Qualifying Score 50

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

Space for Rough Work

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Name : Date :

SYLLABUS : Rotational Motion - 3 : Rolling Motion, Parallel and perpendicular theorems and their

17

applications, Rigid body rotation, equations of rotational motion

Max. Marks : 116 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 30 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice Q.2 A uniform rod of length 2L is placed with one end in contact

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out with the horizontal and is then inclined at an angle a to the

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. horizontal and allowed to fall without slipping at contact

point. When it becomes horizontal, its angular velocity will

Q.1 A disc is rolling (without slipping) on a horizontal surface. C is be

its centre and Q and P are two points equidistant from C . Let vP,

3g sin a

vQ and vC be the magnitude of velocities of points P, Q and (a) w =

C respectively, then 2L

Q

(a) vQ > vC > vP 2L

C (b) w =

(b) vQ < vC < vP 3g sin a

vP P 6 g sin a

(c) vQ = vP , vC = (c) w =

2 L

(d) vQ < vC > vP L

(d) w =

g sin a

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.3 According to the theorem of parallel axes I = I cm + Mx 2 , Q.8 A solid sphere is rolling on a frictionless surface, shown

the graph between I and x will be in figure with a transnational velocity v m/s. If sphere climbs

I I up to height h then value of v should be

(a) (b) h

v

O x O x

I I 10

(a) ³ 10 gh (b) ³ 2gh (c) 2gh (d) gh

7 7

Q.9 Moment of inertia of a disc about its own axis is I. Its

(c) (d) moment of inertia about a tangential axis in its plane is

O x O x 5 3

(a) I (b) 3I (c) I (d) 2I

Q.4 A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls without 2 2

slipping down an inclined plane of length L and height h. Q.10 Three rings each of mass M and radius R are arranged as

What is the speed of its centre of mass when the cylinder shown in the figure. The moment of inertia of the system

reaches its bottom about YY' will be Y

3 4

(a) gh (b) gh (c) 4gh (d) 2gh (a) 3MR 2

4 3

Q.5 An inclined plane makes an angle 30° with the horizontal. 3

(b) MR 2

A solid sphere rolling down this inclined plane from rest 2

without slipping has a linear acceleration equal to (c) 5MR 2

g 2g 5g 5g

(a) (b) (c) (d) 7

3 3 7 14 (d) MR 2

Q.6 A cord is wound round the circumference of wheel of radius 2 Y'

r. The axis of the wheel is horizontal and moment of inertia Q.11 One circular ring and one circular disc, both are having the

about it is I. A weight mg is attached to the end of the cord same mass and radius. The ratio of their moments of inertia

and falls from the rest. After falling through a distance h, about the axes passing through their centres and perpendicular

the angular velocity of the wheel will be to their planes, will be

é 2mgh ù

1/ 2 (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1

2 gh

(a) (b) ê ú (c) 1 : 2 (d) 4 : 1

I + mr ë I + mr 2 û

1/ 2 Q.12 From a disc of radius R, a concentric circular portion of

é 2mgh ù radius r is cut out so as to leave an annular disc of mass M.

(c) ê ú (d) 2gh

ë I + 2 mr 2 û The moment of inertia of this annular disc about the axis

Q.7 A solid sphere, disc and solid cylinder all of the same mass perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre of

and made up of same material are allowed to roll down gravity is

(from rest) on an inclined plane, then 1

1 M (R2 - r 2 )

(a) Solid sphere reaches the bottom first (a) M (R2 + r 2 ) (b)

2 2

(b) Solid sphere reaches the bottom late 1

(c) Disc will reach the bottom first (c) M (R4 + r 4 ) (d) 1 M ( R 4 - r 4 )

2 2

(d) All of them reach the bottom at the same time

RESPONSE 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

GRID 8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

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Q.13 The moment of inertia of a straight thin rod of mass M and (a) 4MR 2

length l about an axis perpendicular to its length and passing

through its one end, is (b) 40

MR 2 2R/3

9 O

2 2 2

Ml Ml Ml

(a) (b) (c) (d) Ml2

12 3 2 (c) 10MR 2 R

Q.14 Four thin rods of same mass M and same length l, form a 37

square as shown in figure. Moment of inertia of this (d) MR 2

9

system about an axis through centre

O and perpendicular to its plane is Q.19 The moment of inertia of a thin rod of mass M and length L

4 2 about an axis perpendicular to the rod at a distance L/4 from

(a) Ml l one end is

3

ML2 ML2 7 ML2 7 ML2

Ml 2 (a) (b) (c) (d)

(b) 6 12 24 48

3 l l Q.20 A wheel has a speed of 1200 revolutions per minute and is

Ml 2 O

made to slow down at a rate of 4 radians /s2. The number of

(c)

6 revolutions it makes before coming to rest is

2 2 l (a) 143 (b) 272 (c) 314 (d) 722

(d) Ml

3

Q.15 The moment of inertia of a uniform circular ring, having a DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions,

more than one of the answers given are correct. Select

mass M and a radius R, about an axis tangential to the ring

the correct answers and mark it according to the following

and perpendicular to its plane, is

codes:

3 1

(a) 2MR 2 (b) MR 2 (c) MR 2 (d) MR 2 Codes:

2 2 (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

Q.16 The moment of inertia of uniform rectangular plate about an (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

axis passing through its mid-point and parallel to its length Q.21 In pure rolling fraction of its total energy associated with

l is (b = breadth of rectangular plate) rotation is a for a ring and b for a solid sphere. Then

Mb2 Mb3 Mb3 Mb2 (1) a = 1 / 2 (2) b = 2 / 7 (3) b = 2 / 5 (4) a = 1 / 4

(a) (b) (c) (d) Q.22 One solid sphere and a disc of same radius are falling along

4 6 12 12

Q.17 The moment of inertia of a circular ring about an axis passing an inclined plane without slip. One reaches earlier than the

through its centre and normal to its plane is 200 gm × cm2. other due to

Then moment of inertia about its diameter is (1) different size

(2) different radius of gyration

(a) 400 gm × cm2 (b) 300 gm × cm2

(3) different moment of inertia

(c) 200 gm × cm2 (d) 100 gm × cm2 (4) different friction

Q.18 From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9 M, a small disc of Q.23 A body is rolling down an inclined plane. Its translational

radius R/3 is removed from the disc. The moment of inertia of and rotational kinetic energies are equal. The body is not a

the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of (1) solid sphere (2) hollow sphere

the disc and passing through O is (3) solid cylinder (4) hollow cylinder

RESPONSE

18. 19. 20. 21. 22.

GRID

23.

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DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below and (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

answer the questions that follows : correct explanation for Statement-1.

A uniform solid cylinder of mass 2m and (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

radius R rolls on a rough inclined plane NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

2m

with its axis perpendicular to the line of (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

R

the greatest slope. m (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

System is released from rest and as q Q.27 Statement-1 : Two cylinders, one hollow (metal) and the

the cylinder rolls it winds up a light ////////////////////////// ////////////////

other solid (wood) with the same mass and identical

string which passes over a light pul- dimensions are simultaneously allowed to roll without

ley. slipping down an inclined plane from the same height. The

Q.24 The acceleration of block of mass m is - hollow cylinder will reach the bottom of the inclined plane

2 4

(a) g (1 - cos q) (b) g (1 - sin q) first.

7 7

(c)

2

g (1 - sin q ) (d)

2

g (1 + sin q)

Statement-2 : By the principle of conservation of energy,

7 14 the total kinetic energies of both the cylinders are identical

Q.25 The tension in the string is –

when they reach the bottom of the incline.

æ 4 + 3sin q ö æ 3 - 4sin q ö

(a) çè 7

÷ø mg (b) èç 7 ø÷

mg Q.28 Statement-1: The force of frction in the case of a disc

æ 3 + 4sin q ö 2 rolling without slipping down an inclined plane is 1/3 g

(c) çè ÷ø mg (d) (1 - sin q) mg

7 7 sin a.

Q.26 The frictional force acting on the cylinder is-

2 æ 6 - sin q ö Statement-2: When the disc rolls without slipping, friction

(a) (1 - sin q) mg (b) çè 7 ÷ø mg is required because for rolling condition velocity of point

7

æ 1 + 6 cos q ö æ 1 + 6 sin q ö of contact is zero.

(c) çè ÷ø mg (d) çè 7 ÷ø mg

7

Q.29 Statement-1: If two different axes are at same distance

DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions contains from the centre of mass of a rigid body, then moment of

two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 inertia of the given rigid body about both the axes will

(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, always be the same.

only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select Statement-2: From parallel axis theorem, I = Icm + md 2,

the correct choice. where all terms have usual meaning.

GRID 29.

Total Questions 29 Total Marks 116

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 28 Qualifying Score 44

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

Space for Rough Work

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Name : Date :

SYLLABUS : Gravitation - 1 (The Universal law of gravitation, Acceleration due to gravity and its variation

18

with altitude and depth, Kepler's law of planetary motion)

Max. Marks : 116 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 29 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice Q.3 The speed with which the earth have to rotate on its axis so

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out that a person on the equator would weigh (3/5) th as much

as present will be -

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct.

(Take the equatorial radius as 6400 km.)

Q.1 A mass M splits into two parts m and (M – m), which are (a) 3.28 × 10–4 rad/sec (b) 7.826 × 10–4 rad/sec

then separated by a certain distance. What ratio of (m / M) (c) 3.28 × 10–3 rad/sec (d) 7.28 × 10–3 rad/sec

maximises the gravitational force between the parts. ? Q.4 On a planet (whose size is the same as that of earth and

(a) 2/3 (b) 3/4

mass 4 times to the earth) the energy needed to lift a 2kg

mass vertically upwards through 2m distance on the planet

(c) 1/2 (d) 1/3

is (g = 10m/sec2 on the surface of earth) -

Q.2 What would be the angular speed of earth, so that bodies (a) 16 J (b) 32 J (c) 160 J (d) 320 J

lying on equator may experience weightlessness ? Q.5 Two bodies of mass 102 kg and 103 kg are lying 1m apart.

(g = 10m/s2 and radius of earth = 6400 km) The gravitational potential at the mid-point of the line

(a) 1.25 × 10–3 rad/sec (b) 1.25 × 10–2 rad/sec joining them is -

–4

(c) 1.25 × 10 rad/sec (d) 1.25 × 10–1 rad/sec (a) 0 (b) –1.47 Joule/kg

(c) 1.47 Joule/kg (d) –147 × 10–7 Joule /kg

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.6 If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface, Q.13 At what height above the earth’s surface does the force of

the gain in P.E. of an object of mass m raised from the surface gravity decrease by 10% ? Assume radius of earth to be

of the earth to a height of the radius R of the earth is - 6370 km.

1 1 (a) 350 km. (b) 250 km. (c) 150 km. (d) 300 km.

(a) mgR (b) 2mgR (c) mgR (d) mgR Q.14 A particle is suspended from a spring and it stretches the

2 4

Q.7 Four particles, each of mass m, are placed at the corners spring by 1 cm on the surface of earth. The same particle

of square and moving along a circle of radius r under the will stretches the same spring at a place 800 km above earth

influence of mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of surface by -

each particle will be - (a) 0.79 cm (b) 0.1 cm

(c) p / 6 rad/hr. (d) 2p / 7 rad/hr.

Gm Gm Q.15 The change in the value of acceleration of earth towards

(a) (2 2 + 1) (b)

r r sun, when the moon comes from the position of solar

Gm æ 2 2 + 1ö eclipse to the position on the other side of earth in line

2 2Gm

with sun is (Mass of moon = 7.36 × 1022 kg, the orbital

r çè 4 ÷ø

(c) (d)

r radius of moon 3.8 × 108m.

Q.8 Three particles of equal mass m are situated at the vertices (a) 6.73 × 10–2 m/s2 (b) 6.73 × 10–3 m/s2

of an equilateral triangle of side l. What should be the (c) 6.73 × 10 m/s–4 2 (d) 6.73 × 10–5 m/s2

velocity of each particle, so that they move on a circular Q.16 The radius of the earth is Re and the acceleration due to gravity

path without changing l ? at its surface is g. The work required in raising a body of

GM GM 2GM GM mass m to a height h form the surface of the earth will be -

(a) (b) (c) (d) mgh mgh mg

2l l l 3l (a)

mgh

(b) (c) (d)

Q.9 What will be the acceleration due to gravity on the surface æ h ö æ h ö

2

æ h ö æ h ö

of the moon if its radius is 1/4 th the radius of the earth and çè 1 - R ÷ø çè 1 + R ÷ø çè1 + R ÷ø çè1 + R ÷ø

e e e e

its mass is 1/80 th the mass of the earth ? Q.17 The masses and the radius of the earth and the moon are

(a) g/6 (b) g/5 (c) g/7 (d) g/8 M1, M2 and R1, R2 respectively their centres are at distance

Q.10 If the value of 'g' at a height h above the surface of the earth d apart. The minimum speed with which a particle of mass

is the same as at a depth x below it, then (both x and h being m should be projected form a point midway between the

much smaller than the radius of the earth) two centres so as to escape to infinity will be -

h

(a) x = h (b) x = 2h (c) x = (d) x = h2 G G

2 (a) 2 (M1 + M 2 ) (b) (M1 + M 2 )

d d

Q.11 At what height above the earth's surface the acceleration

due to gravity will be 1/9 th of its value at the earth’s G M1

G 2

surface? Radius of earth is 6400 km. (c) (M1 + M 2 ) (d)

2d d M2

(a) 12800 km (b) 1280 km

(c) 128000 km (d) 128 km Q.18 With what velocity must a body be thrown upward form the

Q.12 If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one percent, its surface of the earth so that it reaches a height of 10 Re?

mass remaining the same, the acceleration due to gravity earth’s mass Me = 6 × 1024 kg, radius Re = 6.4 × 106 m and

on the earth’s surface would - G = 6.67 × 10–11 N–m2/kg2.

(a) decrease (b) remain unchanged (a) 10.7 × 104 m/s (b) 10.7 × 103 m/s

5

(c) 10.7 × 10 m/s (d) 1.07 × 104 m/s

(c) increase (d) None of these

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

RESPONSE

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

GRID

16. 17. 18.

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Q.19 Two concentric shells of uniform density having masses M1 Q.23 Spot the correct statements :

and M2 are situated as shown in the figure. The force on the The acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ decreases if

particle of mass m when it is located at r = b is (1) We go down from the surface of the earth towards its

centre

M1 (2) We go up from the surface of the earth

(3) The rotational velocity of the earth is increased

O (4) We go from the equator towards the poles on the

b

r surface of the earth

m

p DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below and

M2

answer the questions that follows :

GM1m GM 2 m

(a) (b) The orbit of Pluto is much more eccentric than the orbits of the

b2 b2

other planets. That is, instead of being nearly circular, the orbit

(M1 + M 2 )m (M1 - M 2 )m

(c) G (d) G is noticeably elliptical. The point in the orbit nearest to the sun

b2 b2 is called the perihelion and the point farthest from the sun is

Q.20 What is the mass of the planet that has a satellite whose called the aphelion.

time period is T and orbital radius is r?

4p 2 r 3 3p 2r 3 4p 2 r 3 4p2T Sun

(a) (b) (c) (d)

GT 2

GT 2

GT 3

GT 2 Aphelion Perihelion

one of the answers given are correct. Select the correct answers

Q.24 At perihelion, the gravitational potential energy of Pluto

and mark it according to the following codes:

in its orbit has

Codes : (a) its maximum value

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

(b) its minimum value

Q.21 The gravitational force between two point masses m1 and (c) the same value as at every other point in the orbit

mm (d) value which depends on sense of rotation

m2 at separation r is given by F = k 1 2 2

r Q.25 At perihelion, the mechanical energy of Pluto’s orbit has

The constant k doesn't (a) its maximum value

(1) depend on medium between masses (b) its minimum value

(2) depend on the place (c) the same value as at every other point in the orbit

(3) depend on time

(d) value which depends on sense of rotation

(4) depend on system of units

Q.26 As Pluto moves from the perihelion to the aphelion, the

Q.22 Which of the following statements about the gravitional

work done by gravitational pull of Sun on Pluto is

constant are false ?

(1) It is a force (a) is zero

(2) It has no unit (b) is positive

(3) It has same value in all system of units (c) is negative

(4) It doesn’t depend on the value of the masses (d) depends on sense of rotation

GRID 24. 25. 26.

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DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions contains two Q.27 Statement-1 : Gravitational force between two particles is

statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). negligibly small compared to the electrical force.

Each of these questions has four alternative choices, only one of Statement-2 :The electrical force is experienced by charged

which is the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice. particles only.

Q.28 Statement-1 :The universal gravitational constant is same

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a as acceleration due to gravity.

correct explanation for Statement-1. Statement-2 :Gravitional constant and acceleration due to

(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is gravity have different dimensional formula.

NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1. Q.29 Statement-1 :There is no effect of rotation of earth on the

(c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True. value of acceleration due to gravity at poles.

(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False. Statement-2 :Rotation of earth is about polar axis.

Total Questions 29 Total Marks 116

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 30 Qualifying Score 48

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

19

Escape velocity & Orbital velocity of a satellite, Geo-stationary satellites)

Max. Marks : 120 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 30 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice centre of the earth will be- (The mass of the earth is 6.00 ×

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out 1024 kg and its angular velocity = 7.30 × 10–5 rad./sec.)

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (a) 2.66 × 103 m. (b) 2.66 × 105 m.

(c) 2.66 × 10 m.6 (d) 2.66 × 107 m.

Q.1 A body of mass 100 kg falls on the earth from infinity. Q.3 Two satellites S1 and S2 revolve round a planet in the same

What will be its energy on reaching the earth ? Radius of direction in circular orbits. Their periods of revolutions

the earth is 6400 km and g = 9.8 m/s2. Air friction is are 1 hour and 8 hour respectively. The radius of S1 is 104

negligible. km. The velocity of S2 with respect to S1 will be-

(a) 6.27 × 109 J (b) 6.27 × 1010 J (a) p × 104 km/hr (b) p/3 × 104 km/hr

(c) 6.27 × 10 J 10 (d) 6.27 × 107 J 4

(c) 2p × 10 km/hr (d) p/2 × 104 km/hr

Q.2 An artificial satellite of the earth is to be established in the Q.4 In the above example the angular velocity of S2 as actually

equatorial plane of the earth and to an observer at the equator observed by an astronaut in S1 is -

it is required that the satellite will move eastward, completing (a) p/3 rad/hr (b) p/3 rad/sec

one round trip per day. The distance of the satellite from the (c) p/6 rad/hr (d) 2p/7 rad/hr

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4.

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Q.5 The moon revolves round the earth 13 times in one year. If Q.12 The mean distance of mars from sun is 1.524 times the

the ratio of sun-earth distance to earth-moon distance is distance of the earth from the sun. The period of revolution

392, then the ratio of masses of sun and earth will be - of mars around sun will be-

(a) 365 (b) 356 (a) 2.88 earth year (b) 1.88 earth year

(c) 3.56 × 105 (d) 1

(c) 3.88 earth year (d) 4.88 earth year

Q.6 Two planets of radii in the ratio 2 : 3 are made from the

materials of density in the ratio 3 : 2. Then the ratio of Q.13 The semi-major axes of the orbits of mercury and mars are

acceleration due to gravity g1/g2 at the surface of two respectively 0.387 and 1.524 in astronomical unit. If the

planets will be period of Mercury is 0.241 year, what is the period of Mars.

4 (a) 1.2 years (b) 3.2 years

(a) 1 (b) 2 . 2 5 (c) (d) 0.12

9 (c) 3.9 years (d) 1.9 years

Q.7 A satellite of mass m is revolving in a circular orbit of radius Q.14 If a graph is plotted between T2 and r3 for a planet then its

r. The relation between the angular momentum J of satellite slope will be -

and mass m of earth will be -

(a) J = G.Mm 2 r (b) J = GMm 4p 2 GM

(a) (b)

GM 4p 2

mr

(c) J = GMmr (d) J = (c) 4p GM (d) 0

M

Q.8 A spaceship is launched into a circular orbit close to earth's Q.15 The mass and radius of earth and moon are M1, R1 and M2,

surface. What additional velocity has now to be imparted R2 respectively. Their centres are d distance apart. With

to the spaceship in the orbit to overcome the gravitational what velocity should a particle of mass m be projected from

pull? (Radius of earth = 6400 km, g = 9.8 m/sec2) the mid point of their centres so that it may escape out to

(a) 3.285 km/sec (b) 32.85 m/sec infinity -

(c) 11.32 km/sec (d) 7.32 m/sec

G(M1 + M 2 ) 2G(M1 + M 2 )

Q.9 The ratio of the radius of the Earth to that of the moon is (a) (b)

10. The ratio of g on earth to the moon is 6. The ratio of d d

the escape velocity from the earth’s surface to that from 4G(M1 + M 2 ) GM1M 2

the moon is approximately - (c) (d)

d d

(a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 2 Q.16 A satellite has to revolve round the earth in a circular orbit

Q.10 Acceleration due to gravity on a planet is 10 times the value of radius 8 × 103 km. The velocity of projection of the

on the earth. Escape velocity for the planet and the earth satellite in this orbit will be -

are Vp and Ve respectively. Assuming that the radii of the

(a) 16 km/sec (b) 8 km/sec

planet and the earth are the same, then -

(a) VP = 10 Ve (b) VP = 10 Ve (c) 3 km/sec (d) 7.08 km/sec

Ve Q.17 If the satellite is stopped suddenly in its orbit which is at a

(c) Vp = Ve (d) VP = distnace = radius of earth from earth’s surface and allowed

10 10

Q.11 The Jupiter’s period of revolution round the Sun is 12 times to fall freely into the earth, the speed with which it hits the

that of the Earth. Assuming the planetary orbits are circular, surface of earth will be -

how many times the distance between the Jupiter and Sun (a) 7.919 m/sec (b) 7.919 km/sec

exceeds that between the Earth and the sun. (c) 11.2 m/sec (d) 11.2 km/sec

(a) 5.242 (b) 4.242 (c) 3.242 (d) 2.242

5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

RESPONSE

10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

GRID

15. 16. 17.

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Q.18 A projectile is fired vertically upward from the surface of Q.22 Gas escapes from the surface of a planet because it acquires

earth with a velocity K ve m/s where ve m/s is the escape an escape velocity. The escape velocity will depend on

velocity and K < 1. Neglecting air resistance, the maximum which of the following factors:

height to which it will rise measured from the centre of (1) Mass of the planet

the earth is - (where R = radius of earth) (2) Radius of the planet

2 2 (3) Mass of the particle escaping

(c) 1 - K

R R

(a) (b) (d) K (4) Temperature of the planet

2

1 - K2 K R R

Q.23 ve and vp denotes the escape velocity from the earth and

Q.19 A satellite is revolving in an orbit close to the earth’s

surface. Taking the radius of the earth as 6.4 × 106 metre, another planet having twice the radius and the same mean

the value of the orbital speed and the period of revolution density as the earth. Then which of the following is (are)

of the satellite will respectively be (g = 9.8 meter/sec2) wrong ?

(a) 7.2 km/sec., 84.6 minutes (1) ve = vp (2) ve = 2vp

(b) 2.7 km/sec., 8.6 minutes (3) ve = vp/4 (4) ve = vp / 2

(c) .72 km/sec., 84.6 minutes Q.24 Select the wrong statements from the following

(d) 7.2 km/sec., 8.6 minutes (1) The orbital velocity of a satellite increases with the

Q.20 If the period of revolution of an artificial satellite just above radius of the orbit

the earth be T second and the density of earth be r, kg/m3 (2) Escape velocity of a particle from the surface of the

then earth depends on the speed with which it is fired

(G = 6.67 × 10–11 m3/kg. second2) (3) The time period of a satellite does not depend on the

radius of the orbit

(a) rT2 is a universal constant

(4) The orbital velocity is inversely proportional to the

(b) rT2 varies with time square root of the radius of the orbit

3p

(c) rT2 = DIRECTIONS (Q.25-Q.27) : Read the passage given below and

G

answer the questions that follows :

(d) Both (a) and (c)

Q.21 Two satellites P and Q of same mass are revolving near the It can be assumed that orbits of earth and mars are nearly circular

earth surface in the equitorial plane. The satellite P moves around the sun. It is proposed to launch an artificial planet around

in the direction of rotation of earth whereas Q moves in the sun such that its apogee is at the orbit of mars while its perigee

the opposite direction. The ratio of their kinetic energies is at the orbit of earth. Let Te and Tm be periods of revolution of

with respect to a frame attached to earth will be - earth and mars. Further the variables are assigned the meanings as

2 2 follows.

æ 8363 ö æ 7437 ö æ 8363 ö æ 7437 ö Me ® Mass of earth

(a) ç (b) ç (c) çè ÷ (d) çè ÷

è 7437 ÷ø è 8363 ÷ø 7437 ø 8363 ø Mm ® Mass of mars.

Le ® Angular momentum of earth around the sun.

DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions, more than Lm ® Angular momentum of mars around the sun.

one of the answers given are correct. Select the correct answers

Re ® Semi major axis of earth’s orbit.

and mark it according to the following codes:

Rm ® Semi major axis of mars orbit.

Codes : M ® Mass of the artificial planet.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

Ee ® Total energy of earth.

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

Em ® Total energy of mars.

GRID 23. 24.

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Q.25 Time period of revolution of the artificial planet about sun DIRECTIONS (Q. 28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains

will be (neglect gravitational effects of earth and mars) two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2

Te + Tm (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,

(a) (b) TeTm only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select

2

3/ 2 the correct choice.

2TeTm é T 2 / 3 + Tm2 / 3 ù

(c) (d) ê e ú (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

Te + Tm êë 2 úû correct explanation for Statement-1.

Q.26 The total energy of the artificial planet’s orbit will be (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

2 M æ Re Ee ö 2M æ Re Ee ö (c) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

(a) (b)

M e çè Re + Rm ÷ø M m çè Re + Rm ÷ø (d) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

Q.28 Statement-1 :The speed of revolution of an artificial

2 Ee M æ Re + Rm ö æ ö

2 Ee M Re + Rm satellite revolving very near the earth is 8kms–1.

(c) (d) ç ÷

M m çè Rm ÷ø Me ç R2 + R2 ÷ Statement-2 : Orbital velocity of a satellite, become

è e mø independent of height of near satellite.

Q.27 Areal velocity of the artificial planet around the sun will Q.29 Statement-1 :If an earth satellite moves to a lower orbit,

be there is some dissipation of energy but the speed of

(a) less than that of earth gravitational satellite increases.

(b) more than that of mars Statement-2 :The speed of satellite is a constant quantity.

(c) more than that of earth Q.30 Statement-1 :Gravitational potential of earth at every place

(d) same as that of the earth on it is negative.

Statement-2 :Every body on earth is bound by the attraction

of earth.

GRID 30.

Total Questions 30 Total Marks 120

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 32 Qualifying Score 50

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

Space for Rough Work

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Name : Date :

20

Max. Marks : 120 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 30 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out of which ONLY (c) 132 N (d) 22 N

ONE choice is correct.

Q.1 Length of a wire is doubled, when 20 × 108 N/m2 stress is Q.3 The work done in increasing the length of a one metre long

applied on it. Its Young’s modulus of elasticity in N/m2 will wire of cross-sectional area 1mm2 through 1mm will be

be (Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2)

(a) 20 × 108 (b) 20 × 109

(c) 20 × 10 10 (d) 10 × 108 (a) 250 J (b) 10 J

Q.2 A steel wire of uniform cross-sectional area 2mm2 is heated (c) 5 J (d) 0.1 J

upto 50°C and clamped rigidly at two ends. If the

Q.4 A spring is stretched by 3cm when a load of 5.4 × 10 6 dyne

temperature of wire falls to 30° then change in tension in

is suspended from it. Work done will be-

the wire will be, if coefficient of linear expansion of steel

is 1.1 × 10–5 /°C and young's modulus of elasticity of steel (a) 8.1 × 106 J (b) 8 × 106 J

is 2 × 1011 N/m2.

(c) 8.0 × 106 erg (d) 8.1 ×106 erg

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4.

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Q.5 A wire of length 1m and area of cross section 4 × 10-8 m2 Q.12 The compressibility of water is 5 × 10–10 m2/N. If it is

increases in length by 0.2 cm when a force of 16 N is applied. subjected to a pressure of 15 MPa, the fractional decrease in

Value of Y for the material of the wire will be volume will be -

(a) 2 × 106 N/m2 (b) 2 × 1011 kg/m2 (a) 3.3 × 10–5 (b) 5.6 × 10–4

(c) 2 × 1011 N/mm2 (d) 2 × 1011 N/m2 (c) 7.5 × 10–3 (d) 1.5 × 10–2

Q.6 The volume of a solid rubber ball when it is carried from the Q.13 The Young’s modulus of steel is 2 × 1011 N/m2 and its

surface to the bottom of a 200 m deep lake decreases by coefficient of linear expansion is 1.1 × 10–5 per deg. The

0.1%. The value for bulk modulus of elasticity for rubber will pressure to be applied to the ends of a steel cylinder to

be keep its length constant on raising its temperature by 100ºC,

(a) 2 × 109 Pa (b) 2 × 106 Pa will be -

(c) 2 × 104 Pa (d) 2 × 10–4 Pa (a) 5.5 × 104 N/m2 (b) 1.8 × 106 N/m2

Q.7 A steel wire is 4.0 m long and 2 mm in diameter. Young’s (c) 2.2 × 108 N/m2 (d) 2.0 × 1011 N/m2

modulus of steel is 1.96 × 1011 N/m2. If a mass of 20 kg is

suspended from it the elongation produced will be - Q.14 For a given material, the Young’s modulus is 2.4 times that

of rigidity modulus. It’s poisson’s ratio is

(a) 2.54 mm (b) 1.27 mm

(a) 1.2 (b) 1.02

(c) 0.64 mm (d) 0.27 mm

Q.8 A brass rod is to support a load of 400 N. If its elastic limit is (c) 0.2 (d) 2

4.0 × 108 N/m2 its minimum diameter must be - Q.15 A wire of length 1m is stretched by a force of 10N. The

(a) 1.13 mm (b) 2.26 mm area of cross-section of the wire is 2 × 10–6 m2 and Y is

2 × 1011N/m2. Increase in length of the wire will be -

(c) 3.71 mm (d) 4.52 mm

(a) 2.5 × 10–5 cm (b) 2.5 × 10–5 mm

Q.9 A 4.0 m long copper wire of cross sectional area 1.2 cm 2 is

stretched by a force of 4.8 × 103 N stress will be - (c) 2.5 × 10–5 m (d) None of these

(a) 4.0 × 107 N/mm2 (b) 4.0 × 107 KN/m2 Q.16 A stress of 1kg/mm2 is applied on a wire. If the modulus of

(c) 4.0 × 107 N/m2 (d) None of these elasticity of the wire is 1010 dyne/cm2, then the percentage

increase in the length of the wire will be

Q.10 A copper rod 2m long is stretched by 1mm. Strain will be -

(a) 0.007 (b) 0.0098 (c) 98 (d) 9.8

(a) 10–4, volumetric (b) 5 × 10–4, volumetric

(c) 5 × 10–4, longitudinal (d) 5 × 10–3, volumetric Q.17 A uniform steel wire of density 7800kg/m3

is 2.5 m long

and weighs 15.6 × 10–3 kg. It extends by 1.25 mm when

Q.11 A wire of cross sectional area 3mm2 is just stretched between loaded by 8kg. Calculate the value of young’s modulus of

two fixed points at a temperature of 20°C. Determine the elasticity for steel.

tension when the temperature falls to 20°C. Coefficient of

linear expansion a = 10–5 /°C and Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2. (a) 1.96 × 1011 N/m2 (b) 19.6 × 1011 N/m2

(a) 120 KN (b) 20 N (c) 120 N (d) 102 N (c) 196 × 1011 N/m2 (d) None of these

5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

RESPONSE

10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

GRID

15. 16. 17.

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Q.18 A metallic wire is suspended by suspending weight to it. If S (2) Reciprocal of bulk modulus of elasticity is called

is longitudinal strain and Y its young's modulus of elasticity compressibility

then potential energy per unit volume will be

(3) Hollow shaft is much stronger than a solid rod of same

1 2 2 1 2 length and same mass

(a) YS (b) YS

2 2 (4) It is difficult to twist a long rod as compared to small

rod

1 2

(c) YS (d) 2YS2 Q.23 Which statements are false for a metal?

2

Q.19 The lengths and radii of two wires of same material are (1) Y<h (2) Y=h

respectively L, 2L, and 2R, R. Equal weights are applied on

then. If the elongations produced in them are l1 and l2 (3) Y < 1/ h (4) Y>h

respectively then their ratio will be Q.24 Which of the following relations are false

(a) 2 : 1 (b) 4 : 1

(1) 3Y = K (1 - s ) (2) s = ( 6K + h) Y

(c) 8 : 1 (d) 1 : 8

9hY 0.5Y - h

Q.20 The ratio of radii of two wires of same material is 2 : 1. If (3) K = (4) s =

these wires are stretched by equal forces, then the ratio of Y+h h

stresses produced in them will be

DIRECTIONS (Q.25-Q.27) : Read the passage given below and

(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 answer the questions that follows :

(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1 A bar of cross section A is subjected to equal and opposite tensile

Q.21 A rod of length l and area of cross-section A is heated from forces F at its ends. Consider a plane through the bar making an

0°C to 100°C. The rod is so placed that it is not allowed to angle q with a plane at right angles to the bar as shown in figure.

increase in length, then the force developed is proportional to

(a) l (b) l –1 (c) A (d) A–1

F q F

DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions,

more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the

correct answers and mark it according to the following Q.25 The tensile stress at this plane in terms of F, A and q is

codes:

Codes : Fcos2 q F

(a) (b)

A A cos2 q

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

Fsin 2 q F

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct (c) (d)

A A sin 2 q

Q.22 Mark the correct statements

Q.26 In the above problem, for what value of q is the tensile

(1) Sliding of molecular layer is much easier than stress maximum ?

compression or expansion

(a) Zero (b) 90° (c) 45° (d) 30°

GRID 23. 24. 25. 26.

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Q.27 The shearing stress at the plane, in terms of F, A and q is (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

(a) (b)

2A 2A Q.28 Statement -1 : Steel is more elastic than rubber.

Fsin q F cos q Statement -2 : Under given deforming force, steel is

(c) (d) deformed less than rubber.

A A

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains two Q.29 Statement -1 : Bulk modulus of elasticity (K) represents

statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). Each incompressibility of the material.

of these questions has four alternative choices, only one of which is Statement -2 : Bulk modulus of elasticity is proportional

the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice.

to change in pressure.

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

Q.30 Statement -1 :The bridges declared unsafe after a long use.

correct explanation for Statement-1.

Statement -2 : Elastic strength of bridges losses with time.

(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

Total Questions 30 Total Marks 120

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 32 Qualifying Score 52

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

t.me/Ebooks_Encyclopedia27. t.me/Magazines4all

Name : Date :

21

Max. Marks : 112 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 28 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice Q.3 The amount of work done in blowing a soap bubble such that its

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out diameter increases from d to D is (T = surface tension of the

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. solution)

Q.1 The force required to separate two glass plates of area

(a) 4p( D 2 - d 2 )T (b) 8p( D 2 - d 2 )T

10–2m–2 with a film of water 0.05 m thick between them, is

(Surface tension of water is 70 × 10–3 N/m) (c) p( D 2 - d 2 )T (d) 2p( D 2 - d 2 )T

(a) 28 N (b) 14 N (c) 50 N (d) 38 N

Q.4 A film of water is formed between two straight parallel

Q.2 A thin metal disc of radius r floats on water surface and bends wires of length 10 cm each separated by 0.5 cm. If their

the surface downwards along the perimeter making an angle q separation is increased by 1 mm while still maintaining their

with vertical edge of the disc. If the disc displaces a weight of parallelism, how much work will have to be done (Surface

water W and surface tension of water is T, then the weight of tension of water = 70 × 10–2 N/m)

metal disc is (a) 7.22 × 10–6 Joule (b) 1.44 × 10–5 Joule

(a) 2prT + W (b) 2prT cos q - W (c) 2.88 × 10–5 Joule (d) 5.76 × 10–5 Joule

(c) 2prT cos q + W (d) W - 2prT cos q

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.5 The liquid meniscus in capillary tube will be convex, if the Q.11 Which graph represents the variation of surface tension

angle of contact is with temperature over small temperature ranges for water ?

(a) Greater than 90° (b) Less than 90°

(c) Equal to 90° (d) Equal to 0°

Q.6 Two soap bubbles of radii r1 and r2 equal to 4 cm and 5 cm S.T. S.T.

(a) (b)

are touching each other over a common surface S1 S2

(shown in figure). Its radius will be S1 Temp. Temp.

(a) 4 cm

4 cm 5 cm

(b) 20 cm

(c) 5 cm S2 S.T. S.T.

(d) 4.5 cm (c) (d)

Q.7 The radii of two soap bubbles are r1 and r2 . In isothermal

Temp. Temp.

conditions, two meet together in vaccum. Then the radius Q.12 A solid sphere of density h ( > 1 ) times lighter than water

R of the resultant bubble is given by is suspended in a water tank by a string tied to its base as

(a) R = (r1 + r2 ) / 2 (b) R = r1 ( r1r2 + r2 ) shown in fig. If the mass of the sphere is m then the tension

(c) R 2 = r12 + r22 (d) R = r1 + r2 in the string is given by

Q.8 Two parallel glass plates are dipped partly in the liquid of (a) æ h - 1ö

çè h ÷ø mg

density ' d ' keeping them vertical. If the distance between

(b) hmg

the plates is ' x ' , surface tension for liquids is T and angle

mg

of contact is q , then rise of liquid between the plates due (c)

h -1

to capillary will be (d) ( h - 1)mg

T cos q 2T cos q 2T T cos q

(a) (b) (c) (d) Q.13 A candle of diameter d is floating on a liquid in a cylindrical

xd xdg xdg cos q xdg

container of diameter D ( D >> d ) as shown in figure. If it

Q.9 A capillary tube of radius R is immersed in water and water is burning at the rate of 2 cm/ hour then the top of the candle

rises in it to a height H . Mass of water in the capillary will

tube is M . If the radius of the tube is doubled, mass of

water that will rise in the capillary tube will now be

(a) M (b) 2M (c) M / 2 (d) 4M L

L

rises upto 0.1 m. If the same experiment is repeated on an

artificial satellite, which is revolving around the earth, water d

(a) 0.1 m D

(c) 0.98 m (b) Fall at the rate of 1 cm/hour

(d) Full length of the capillary tube (c) Fall at the rate of 2 cm/hour

(d) Go up the rate of 1 cm/hour

RESPONSE 5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

GRID 10. 11. 12. 13.

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Q.14 A viscous fluid is flowing through a cylindrical tube. The circular hole of radius R at a depth 4y from the top. When

velocity distribution of the fluid is best represented by the the tank is completely filled with water the quantities of

diagram water flowing out per second from both the holes are the

same. Then R is equal to

(a) (b) L L

(a) 2pL (b) (c) L (d)

2p

2p

Q.18 Water is filled in a cylindrical container to a height of 3m.

(c) (d) None of these The ratio of the cross-sectional area of the orifice and the

beaker is 0.1. The square of the speed of the liquid coming

out from the orifice is (g = 10m/s2)

Q.15 When a body falls in air, the resistance of air depends to a (a) 50 m 2 / s 2

great extent on the shape of the body, 3 different shapes

are given. Identify the combination of air resistances which (b) 50.5 m 2 / s2

truly represents the physical situation. (The cross sectional 3m

(c) 51 m 2 / s 2 52.5 cm

areas are the same).

(d) 52 m / s 2 2

R R R

Q.19 An incompressible liquid flows through a horizontal tube

as shown in the following fig. Then the velocity v of the

fluid is

W W W v2 = 1.5 m/s

(1) (2) (3) A

Disc Ball Cigar shaped

v1 = 3 m/s A

(a) 1< 2 < 3 (b) 2 < 3 <1

1.5A

(c) 3 < 2 <1 (d) 3 <1< 2

v

Q.16 A homogeneous solid cylinder of length L( L < H / 2) .

Cross-sectional area A/5 is immersed such that it floats (a) 3.0 m/s (b) 1.5 m/s (c) 1.0 m/s (d) 2.25 m/s

with its axis vertical at the liquid-liquid interface with length Q.20 Radius of a capillary tube is 2 × 10–3m. A liquid of weight

L/4 in the denser liquid as shown in the fig. The lower 6.28 × 10 –4 N may remain in the capillary tube then the

density liquid is open to atmosphere having pressure P0. surface tension of liquid will be

Then density of solid is given by (a) 5 × 10–3 N/m (b) 5 × 10–2 N/m

(c) 5 N/m (d) 50 N/m

H/2 d

3L/4 DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions,

more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the

H/2 2d

correct answers and mark it according to the following

5 4 d codes:

(a) d (b) d (c) d (d)

4 5 5 Codes :

Q.17 A large open tank has two holes in the wall. One is a square (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

hole of side L at a depth y from the top and the other is a (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

GRID 19. 20.

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Q.21 The temperature at which the surface tension of water is Q.24 The force exerted by air on surface P is

zero (a) 0.1 N (b) 1.0023 N (c) 105 N (d) 1.0 N

(1) 370°C Q.25 The force exerted by mercury drop on the surface P is

(2) 0°C (a) 0.1 N (b) 1.0023 N

(3) Slightly less than 647 K (c) 0.00023 N (d) 0.10023 N

(4) 277 K

Q.22 Which of the following statements are true in case when DIRECTIONS (Qs. 26-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains

two water drops coalesce and make a bigger drop? two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2

(1) Energy is released. (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,

(2) Energy is absorbed. only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the

(3) The surface area of the bigger drop is smaller than the correct choice.

sum of the surface areas of both the drops. (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

(4) The surface area of the bigger drop is greater than the correct explanation for Statement-1.

sum of the surface areas of both the drops. (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

Q.23 An air bubble in a water tank rises from the bottom to the NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

top. Which of the following statements are true? (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

(1) Bubble rises upwards because pressure at the bottom (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

is greater than that at the top. Q.26 Statement-1 : A large soap bubble expands while a small

(2) As the bubble rises, its size increases. bubble shrinks, when they are connected to each other by a

(3) Bubble rises upwards because pressure at the bottom capillary tube.

is less than that at the top. Statement-2: The excess pressure inside bubble (or drop)

(4) As the bubble rises, its size decreases. is inverse ly proportional to the radius.

Q.27 Statement-1 : Bernoulli’s theorem holds for

DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.25) : Read the passage given below incompressible, non-viscous fluids.

and answer the questions that follows : v2

There is a small mercury drop of radius 4.0mm. A surface P of area Statement-2 : The factor is called velocity head.

2g

1.0 mm2 is placed at the top of the drop. Atmospheric pressure = Q.28 Statement-1 : The velocity increases, when water flowing

105 Pa. Surface tension of mercury = 0.465 N/m. Gravity ef- in broader pipe enter a narrow pipe.

fect is negligible. Statement-2 : According to equation of continuity, product

of area and velocity is constant.

GRID 26. 27. 28.

Total Questions 28 Total Marks 112

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 28 Qualifying Score 42

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

Space for Rough Work

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Name : Date :

22

Max. Marks : 116 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 29 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice Q.3 An iron tyre is to be fitted on to a wooden wheel 1m in

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out diameter. The diameter of tyre is 6mm smaller than that of

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. wheel. The tyre should be heated so that its temperature

increases by a minimum of (the coefficient of cubical

Q.1 A glass flask is filled up to a mark with 50 cc of mercury at expansion of iron is 3.6 × 10–5/°C)

18°C. If the flask and contents are heated to 38°C, how much (a) 167°C (b) 334°C (c) 500°C (d) 1000°C

mercury will be above the mark? (a for glass is 9 × 10–6/°C Q.4 A rod of length 20 cm is made of metal. It expands by

and coefficient of real expansion of mercury is 180 × 10–6/ 0.075 cm when its temperature is raised from 0°C to

°C) 100°C. Another rod of a different metal B having the same

(a) 0.85 cc (b) 0.46 cc (c) 0.153 cc (d) 0.05 cc length expands by 0.045 cm for the same change in

Q.2 The coefficient of apparent expansion of mercury in a glass temperature. A third rod of the same length is composed

vessel is 153 × 10–6/°C and in a steel vessel is 144 × 10–6/ of two parts, one of metal A and the other of metal B. This

°C. If a for steel is 12 × 10–6/°C, then that of glass is rod expands by 0.060 cm for the same change in

(a) 9 × 10–6/°C (b) 6 × 10–6/°C temperature. The portion made of metal A has the length

(c) 36 × 10 /°C–6 (d) 27 × 10–6/°C (a) 20 cm (b) 10 cm (c) 15 cm (d) 18 cm

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4.

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Q.5 A glass flask of volume one litre at 0°C is filled, level full 0.03 cal/gm°C, latent heat of fusion of lead = 6 cal/gm

of mercury at this temperature. The flask and mercury are and J = 4.2 joule/cal)

now heated to 100°C. How much mercury will spill out, if (a) 410 m/sec (b) 1230 m/sec

coefficient of volume expansion of mercury is 1.82 × 10– (c) 307.5 m/sec (d) None of the above

4/°C andlinear expansion of glass is 0.1 × 10–4/°C? Q.11 The temperature of equal masses of three different liquids

(a) 21.2 cc (b) 15.2 cc (c) 1.52 cc (d) 2.12 cc A, B and C are 12°C, 19°C and 28°C respectively. The

Q.6 The apparent coefficient of expansion of a liquid when temperature when A and B are mixed is 16°C and when B

heated in a copper vessel is C and when heated in a silver and C are mixed is 23°C, The temperature when A and C

vessel is S. If A is the linear coefficient of expansion of are mixed is

copper, then the linear coefficient of expansion of silver (a) 18.2°C (b) 22°C (c) 20.2°C (d) 25.2°C

is Q.12 50 gm of copper is heated to increase its temperature by

C + S - 3A C + 3A - S 10°C. If the same quantity of heat is given to 10 gm of

(a) (b) water, the rise in its temperature is (Specific heat of copper

3 3

S + 3A - C C - S + 3A = 420 Joule-kg–1°C–1)

(c) (d) (a) 5°C (b) 6°C (c) 7°C (d) 8°C

3 3

Q.7 The coefficient of volumetric expansion of mercury is 18 Q.13 A beaker contains 200 gm of water. The heat capacity of

× 10–5/°C. A thermometer bulb has a volume 10–6 m3 and the beaker is equal to that of 20 gm of water. The initial

cross section of stem is 0.004 cm2. Assuming that bulb is temperature of water in the beaker is 20°C. If 440 gm of

filled with mercury at 0°C then the length of the mercury hot water at 92°C is poured in it, the final temperature

column at 100°C is (neglecting radiation loss) will be nearest to

(a) 18.8 mm (b) 9.2 mm (c) 7.4 cm (d) 4.5 cm (a) 58°C (b) 68°C (c) 73°C (d) 78°C

Q.8 A piece of metal weight 46 gm in air, when it is immersed Q.14 One calorie is defined as the amount of heat required to

in the liquid of specific gravity 1.24 at 27°C it weighs 30 raise temperature of 1g of water by 1°C and it is defined

gm. When the temperature of liquid is raised to 42°C the under which of the following condition

metal piece weighs 30.5 gm, specific gravity of the liquid (a) From 14.5°C to 15.5°C at 760 mm of Hg

at 42°C is 1.20, then the linear expansion of the metal will (b) From 98.5°C to 99.5°C at 760 mm of Hg

be (c) From 13.5°C to 14.5°C at 76 mm of Hg

(a) 3.316 × 10–5/°C (b) 2.316 × 10–5/°C (d) From 3.5°C to 4.5°C at 76 mm of Hg

(c) 4.316 × 10 /°C–5 (d) None of these Q.15 A bullet moving with a uniform velocity v, stops suddenly

Q.9 2 kg of ice at – 20°C is mixed with 5 kg of water at 20°C after hitting the target and the whole mass melts be m,

in an insulating vessel having a negligible heat capacity. specific heat S, initial temperature 25°C, melting point

Calculate the final mass of water remaining in the container. 475°C and the latent heat L. Then v is given by

It is given that the specific heats of water and ice are 1 1 mv 2

kcal/kg /°C and 0.5 kcal/kg/°C while the latent heat of fusion (a) mL = mS (475 - 25) + .

2 J

of ice is 80 kcal/kg mv 2

(a) 7 kg (b) 6 kg (c) 4 kg (d) 2 kg (b) mS (475 - 25) + mL =

2J

Q.10 A lead bullet at 27°C just melts when stopped by an

mv 2

obstacle. Assuming that 25% of heat is absorbed by the (c) mS (475 - 25) + mL =

J

obstacle, then the velocity of the bullet at the time of

mv 2

striking (M.P. of lead = 327°C, specific heat of lead = (d) mS (475 - 25) - mL =

2J

5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

RESPONSE

10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

GRID

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Q.16 A stationary object at 4°C and weighing 3.5 kg falls from a DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions,

height of 2000 m on a snow mountain at 0°C. If the more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the

temperature of the object just before hitting the snow is correct answers and mark it according to the following

0°C and the object comes to rest immediately? (g = 10m/ codes:

s2 and latent heat of ice = 3.5 × 105 joule/sec), then the

Codes :

object will melt

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

(a) 2 kg of ice (b) 200 gm of ice

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

(c) 20 gm of ice (d) 2 gm of ice

Q.21 Heat is supplied to a certain homogenous sample of matter,

Q.17 Density of a substance at 0°C is 10 gm/cc and at 100°C,

at a uniform rate. Its temperature is plotted against time,

its density is 9.7 gm/cc. The coefficient of linear expansion

as shown. Which of the following conclusions can be

of the substance will be

drawn?

(a) 102 (b) 10–2 (c) 10–3 (d) 10–4

Q.18 The real coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine is

Temperature

0.000597 per °C and linear coefficient of expansion of

glass is 0.000009 per°C. Then the apparent volume

coefficient of expansion of glycerine is

(a) 0.000558 per°C (b) 0.00057 per°C Time

(c) 0.00027 per°C (d) 0.00066 per°C (1) Its specific heat capacity is greater in the liquid state

Q.19 A constant volume gas thermometer shows pressure than in the solid state

reading of 50 cm and 90 cm of mercury at 0°C and 100°C (2) Its latent heat of vaporization is greater than its latent

respectively. When the pressure reading is 60 cm of heat of fusion

mercury, the temperature is (3) Its specific heat capacity is greater in the solid state

(a) 25°C (b) 40°C (c) 15°C (d) 12.5°C than in the liquid state

Q.20 A student takes 50gm wax (specific heat = 0.6 kcal/kg°C) (4) Its latent heat of vaporization is smaller than its latent

and heats it till it boils. The graph between temperature and heat of fusion

time is as follows. Heat supplied to the wax per minute and Q.22 A bimetallic strip is formed out of two identical strips,

boiling point are respectively. one of copper and other of brass. The coefficients of linear

expansion of the two metals are αC and α B . On heating,

250

the temperature of the strip goes up by DT and the strip

bends to form an arc of radius of curvature R. Then R is

200 (1) inversely proportional to DT

Temperature (°C)

(3) inversely proportional to α B - αC

100

(4) proportional to DT

50 Q.23 A bimetallic strip is heated. Choose wrong statements.

0 (1) does not bend at all

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

(2) gets twisted in the form of an helix

Time (Minute)

(3) bends in the form of an arc with the more expandable

(a) 500 cal, 50°C (b) 1000 cal, 100°C metal inside.

(c) 1500 cal, 200°C (d) 1000 cal, 200°C (4) bend in the form of an arc with the more expandable

metal outside

GRID 21. 22. 23.

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DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions contains

and answer the questions that follows : two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2

(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,

In a thermally insulated tube of cross sectional area 4cm2 a liquid only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select

of thermal expansion coefficient 10–3 K–1 is f lowing. Its the correct choice.

velocity at the entrance is 0.1 m/s. At the middle of the tube a

heater of a power of 10kW is heating the liquid. The specific (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

heat capacity of the liquid is 1.5 kJ/(kg K), and its density is correct explanation for Statement-1.

1500 kg/m3 at the entrance. (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

Q.24 The rise in temperature of the liquid as it pass through the NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

tube is (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

1000 1 500

(a) °C (b) °C (c) °C (d) None Q.27 Statement-1 : Fahrenheit is the smallest unit measuring

9 9 9

temperature.

Q.25 What is the density of liquid at the exit ?

Statement-2 : Fahrenheit was the first temperature scale

(a) 1450 kg/m3 (b) 1400 kg/m3

3 used for measuring temperature.

(c) 1350 kg/m (d) None of these

Q.28 Statement-1 : A brass disc is just fitted in a hole in a steel

Q.26 How much bigger is the volume rate of flow at the end of

plate. The system must be cooled to loosen the disc from

the tube than at the entrance in cubic meters ?

the hole.

1 Statement-2 : The coefficient of linear expansion for brass

(a) 9 × 10–5 (b) × 10–5

3 is greater than the coefficient of linear expansion for steel.

4 Q.29 Statement-1 : Laten t heat of fusion of ice is

(c) × 10–5 (d) None

9 336000 J kg–1.

Statement-2 : Latent heat refers to change of state without

any change in temperature.

GRID 29.

Total Questions 29 Total Marks 116

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 28 Qualifying Score 42

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

Space for Rough Work

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Name : Date :

23

Max. Marks : 120 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 30 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice Q.2 A wall is made up of two layers A and B. The thickness of

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out the two layers is the same, but materials are different. The

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. thermal conductivity of A is double than that of B. In thermal

equilibrium the temperature difference between the two

Q.1 Two rods (one semi-circular and other straight) of same ends is 36°C. Then the difference of temperature at the

material and of same cross-sectional area are joined as two surfaces of A will be

shown in the figure. The points A and B are maintained at (a) 6°C (b) 12°C (c) 18°C (d) 24°C

different temperature. The ratio of the heat transferred Q.3 A room is maintained at 20°C by a heater of resistance 20

through a cross-section of a semi-circular rod to the heat ohm connected to 200 volt mains. The temperature is

transferred through a cross section of the straight rod in a uniform through out the room and heat is transmitted

given time is through a glass window of area 1m2 and thickness 0.2 cm.

circular r

(a) 2 : p mi What will be the temperature outside? Given that thermal

od

Se

cal

(c) p : 2

A Straight rod B (a) 15.24°C (b) 15.00°C

(d) 3 : 2 (c) 24.15°C (d) None of these

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3.

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Q.4 A composite metal bar of uniform section is made up of Q.9 A cylindrical rod with one end in a steam chamber and the

length 25 cm of copper, 10 cm of nickel and 15 cm of other end in ice results in melting of 0.1 gm of ice per

aluminium. Each part being in perfect thermal contact with second. If the rod is replaced by another with half the length

the adjoining part. The copper end of the composite rod is and double the radius of the first and if the thermal

maintained at 100°C and the aluminium end at 0°C. The 1

conductivity of material of second rod is that of first,

whole rod is covered with belt so that there is no heat loss 4

occurs at the sides. If KCu = 2KAl and KAl = 3KNi, then the rate at which ice melts in gm/sec will be

what will be the temperatures of Cu – Ni and Ni – Al (a) 3.2 (b) 1.6 (c) 0.2 (d) 0.1

junctions respectively Q.10 An ice box used for keeping eatable cold has a total wall

area of 1 metre2 and a wall thickness of 5.0 cm. The thermal

Cu Ni Al conductivity of the ice box is K = 0.01 joule/metre °C. It

100° C 0° C is filled with ice at 0° C along with eatables on a day when

(a) 23.33°C and 78.8°C (b) 83.33°C and 20°C the temperature is 30°C. The latent heat of fusion of ice is

(c) 50°C and 30°C (d) 30°C and 50°C 334 × 103 joules/kg. The amount of ice melted in one day

Q.5 Three rods of the same dimension have thermal is (1 day = 86,400 seconds)

conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged as shown (a) 776 gm (b) 7760 gm

in fig. with their ends at 100°C, 50°C and 20°C. The (c) 11520 gm (d) 1552 gm

temperature of their junction is Q.11 A solid copper sphere (density r and specific heat capacity

50°C

c) of radius r at an initial temperature 200 K is suspended

(a) 60°C 2K

inside a chamber whose walls are at almost 0 K. The time

100°C

(b) 70°C required (in µ s) for the temperature of the sphere to drop

3K

(c) 50°C K to 100 K is

72 r rc

(b) 7 r rc (c) 27 rrc (d) 7 rrc

20°C

(d) 35°C (a)

7 s 72 s 7 s 27 s

Q.6 A black body is at a temperature of 2880 K. The energy of Q.12 Four rods of identical cross-sectional area and made from

radiation emitted by this object with wavelength between the same metal form the sides of square. The temperature

499 nm and 500 nm is U1, between 999 nm and 1000 nm

is U2 and between 1499 nm and 1500 nm is U3. The Wein's of two diagonally opposite points are T and 2T

constant b = 2.88 × 106 nm K. Then respectively in the steady state. Assuming that only heat

(a) U1 = 0 (b) U3 = 0 (c) U1 > U2 (d) U2 > U1 conduction takes place, what will be the temperature

Q.7 A body initially at 80° C cools to 64° C in 5 minutes and difference between other two points

to 52° C in 10 minutes. The temperature of the body after 2 +1 2

(a) T (b) T

15 minutes will be 2 2 +1

(a) 42.7° C (b) 35° C (c) 47° (d) 40° C (c) 0 (d) None of these

Q.8 A 5 cm thick ice block is there on the surface of water in a Q.13 Consider two hot bodies B1 and B2 which have temperature

lake. The temperature of air is – 10° C; how much time it 100° C and 80° C respectively at t = 0. The temperature

will take to double the thickness of the block of surroundings is 40° C. The ratio of the respective rates

(L = 80 cal/g, Kice = 0.004 erg/s-k, dice = 0.92 g cm–3) of cooling R1 and R2 of these two bodies at t = 0 will be

(a) 1 hour (b) 191 hours (a) R1 : R2 = 3 : 2 (b) R1 : R2 = 5 : 4

. (c) 19.1 hours (d) 1.91 hours (c) R1 : R2 = 2 : 3 (d) R1 : R2 = 4 : 5

RESPONSE 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

GRID 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

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Q.14 A body cools from 60° C to 50° C in 10 minutes. If the Q.20 If between wavelength l and l + dl, el and al be the

room temperature is 25° C and assuming Newton's law of emissive and absorptive powers of a body and El be the

cooling to hold good, the temperature of the body at the emissive power of a perfectly black body, then according

end of the next 10 minutes will be to Kirchoff’s law, which is true

(a) 38.5° C (b) 40° C (c) 42.85° C (d) 45° C (a) el = al = El (b) el El = al

Q.15 The rates of cooling of two different liquids put in exactly (c) el = al El (d) el al El = constant

similar calorimeters and kept in identical surroundings are the

Q.21 Two thermometers A and B are exposed in sunlight. The

same if

bulb of A is painted black, But that of B is not painted. The

(a) The masses of the liquids are equal

(b) Equal masses of the liquids at the same temperature correct statement regarding this case is

are taken (a) Temperature of A will rise faster than B but the final

(c) Different volumes of the liquids at the same temperature will be the same in both

temperature are taken (b) Both A and B show equal rise in beginning

(d) Equal volumes of the liquids at the same temperature (c) Temperature of A will remain more than B

are taken (d) Temperature of B will rise faster

Q.16 For cooking the food, which of the following type of DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions, more

utensil is most suitable than one of the answers given are correct. Select the correct

(a) High specific heat and low conductivity

answers and mark it according to the following codes:

(b) High specific heat and high conductivity

(c) Low specific heat and low conductivity Codes :

(d) Low specific heat and high conductivity (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

Q.17 Two rods A and B are of equal lengths. Their ends are kept (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

between the same temperature and their area of cross- Q.22 Two bodies A and B have thermal emissivities of 0.01 and

sections are A1 and A2 and thermal conductivities K1 and 0.81 respectively. The outer surface areas of the two bodies

K2. The rate of heat transmission in the two rods will be are the same. The two bodies emit total radiant power at

equal, if the same rate. The wavelength λ B corresponding to

(a) K1 A2 = K 2 A1 (b) K1 A1 = K2 A2

maximum spectral radiancy in the radiation from B is

(c) K1 = K2 (d) K1 A12 = K 2 A22 shifted from the wavelength corresponding to maximum

Q.18 While measuring the thermal conductivity of a liquid, we spectral radiancy in the radiation from A, by 1.00 mm. If

keep the upper part hot and lower part cool, so that the temperature of A is 5802 K

(a) Convection may be stopped (1) The temperature of B is 1934 K

(b) Radiation may be stopped (2) lB = 1.5 mm

(c) Heat conduction is easier downwards (3) The temperature of B is 11604 K

(d) It is easier and more convenient to do so (4) The temperature of B is 2901 K

Q.19 When fluids are heated from the bottom, convection

Q.23 A cane is taken out from a refrigerator at 0°C. The

currents are produced because

atmospheric temperature is 25°C. If t1 is the time taken to

(a) Molecular motion of fluid becomes aligned

heat from 0°C to 5°C and t2 is the time taken from 10°C

(b) Molecular collisions take place within the fluid

(c) Heated fluid becomes more dense than the cold fluid to 15°C, then the wrong statements are

above it (1) t1 > t2 (2) t1 = t2

(d) Heated fluid becomes less dense than the cold fluid (3) There is no relation (4) t1 < t2

above it

GRID 19. 20. 21. 22. 23.

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Q.24 The rate of loss of heat from a body cooling under conditions DIRECTIONS (Q.28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains two

of forced convection is proportional to its statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). Each

(1) surface area of these questions has four alternative choices, only one of which is

(2) excess of temperature over that of surrounding the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice.

(3) heat capacity

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

(4) absolute temperature

correct explanation for Statement-1.

DIRECTIONS (Q.25-Q.27) : Read the passage given below (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

and answer the questions that follows : NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

A brass ball of mass 100g is heated to 100°C and then dropped (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

into 200g of turpentine in a calorimeter at 15°C. The final (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

temperature is found to be 23°C. Take specific heat of brass as Q.28 Statement-1 : The equivalent thermal conductivity of two

0.092 cal/g°C and water equivalent of calorimeter as 4g. plates of same thickness in contact (series) is less than

Q.25 The specific heat of turpentine is the smaller value of thermal conductivity.

(a) 0.42 cal/g°c (b) 0.96 cal/g°c Statement-2 : For two plates of equal thickness in contact

(c) 0.72 cal/g°c (d) 0.12 cal/g°c (series) the equivalent thermal conductivity is given by

Q.26 Heat lost by the ball is approximately 2 1 1

= +

(a) 810 cal (b) 610 cal K K1 K 2

(c) 710 cal (d) 510 cal Q.29 Statement-1 : The absorbance of a perfect black body is unity.

Q.27 Heat gained by turpentine and calorimeter is approximately Statement-2 : A perfect black body when heated emits

(a) 810 cal (b) 610 cal radiations of all possible wavelengths at that temperature.

(c) 710 cal (d) 510 cal Q.30 Statement-1 : As temperature of a black body is raised,

wavelength corresponding to maximum energy reduces.

Statement-2 : Higher temperature would mean higher

energy and hence higher wavelength.

GRID 29. 30.

Total Questions 30 Total Marks 120

Attem pted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 30 Qualifying Score 48

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

Space for Rough Work

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Name : Date :

24

concept of temperature, Heat, work and internal energy, Different thermodynamic processes)

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 29 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice questions. (c) 1.5 × 104 cal of heat flowed into the gas

Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out of which ONLY (d) 1.5 × 104 cal of heat flowed out from the gas

ONE choice is correct. Q.3 The latent heat of vaporisation of water is 2240 J/gm. If

Q.1 For an isothermal expansion of a perfect gas, the value of the work done in the process of expansion of 1 g of water

is 168 J, then increase in internal energy is

DP

is (a) 2408 J (b) 2240 J

P (c) 2072 J (d) 1904 J

1/ 2 DV DV DV 2 DV Q.4 One mole of an ideal gas expands at a constant temperature

(a) -g (b) - (c) -g (d) -g

V V V V of 300 K from an initial volume of 10 litres to a final

Q.2 When an ideal gas in a cylinder was compressed volume of 20 litres. The work done in expanding the gas is

isothermally by a piston, the work done on the gas was ( R = 8.31 J/mole - K)

found to be 1.5 × 104 Joule. During this process about

(a) 3.6 × 103 cal of heat flowed out from the gas (a) 750 Joules (b) 1728 Joules

(b) 3.6 × 103 cal of heat flowed into the gas (c) 1500 Joules (d) 3456 Joules

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4.

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Q.5 The pressure in the tyre of a car is four times the Q.11 For an adiabatic expansion of a perfect gas, the value of

atmospheric pressure at 300 K. If this tyre suddenly bursts,

DP

its new temperature will be ( g = 1.4) is equal to

P

-0.4 /1.4

(a) 300(4)1.4 / 0.4 (b) 300 æç 1 ö÷ (a) - g

DV

(b) -

DV

è4ø V V

(c) 300(2) - 0.4 /1.4 (d) 300(4)-0.4 /1.4 DV DV

(c) -g (d) -g 2

Q.6 A monoatomic gas ( g = 5 / 3) is suddenly compressed to V V

1 Q.12 If 300 ml of gas at 27°C is cooled to 7°C at constant

of its original volume adiabatically, then the pressure pressure, then its final volume will be

8

of the gas will change to (a) 540 ml (b) 350 ml

24 (c) 280 ml (d) 135 ml

(a) (b) 8 Q.13 A sample of gas expands from volume V1 to V2 . The amount

5

40 of work done by the gas is greatest when the expansion is

(c) (d) 32 times its initial pressure (a) isothermal (b) isobaric

3

(c) adiabatic (d) equal in all cases

8

Q.7 An ideal gas at 27°C is compressed adiabatically to of Q.14 How much work to be done in decreasing the volume of

27

5 and ideal gas by an amount of 2.4 ´ 10-4 m3 at normal

its original volume. If g = , then the rise in temperature

3 temperature and constant normal pressure of 1 ´ 105 N / m 2

is (a) 28 Joule (b) 27 Joule

(a) 450 K (b) 375 k (c) 225 K (d) 405 K

(c) 25 Joule (d) 24 Joule

Q.8 A given system undergoes a change in which the work done

Q.15 One mole of a perfect gas in a cylinder fitted with a piston has

by the system equals the decrease in its internal energy.

The system must have undergone an a pressure P , volume V and temperature T . If the temperature

(a) Isothermal change (b) Adiabatic change is increased by 1 K keeping pressure constant, the increase in

(c) Isobaric change (d) Isochoric change volume is

Q.9 Helium at 27° has a volume of 8 litres. It is suddenly 2V V V

compressed to a volume of 1 litre. The temperature of the (a) (b) (c) (d) V

273 91 273

gas will be [ g = 5 / 3] Q.16 Work done by 0.1 mole of a gas at 27o C to double its

(a) 108°C (b) 9327°C (c) 1200°C (d) 927°C

Q.10 One mole of an ideal gas at an initial temperature of TK volume at constant pressure is ( R = 2 cal mol -1o K -1 )

does 6 R joules of work adiabatically. If the ratio of (a) 54 cal (b) 600 cal (c) 60 cal (d) 546 cal

specific heats of this gas at constant pressure and at Q.17 When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure,

constant volume is 5/3, the final temperature of gas will the fraction of the heat energy supplied which increases

be the internal energy of the gas, is

(a) (T + 2.4) K (b) (T - 2.4) K 2 3 3 5

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(c) (T + 4) K (d) (T - 4) K 5 5 7 7

5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

RESPONSE

10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

GRID

15. 16. 17.

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Q.18 When heat is given to a gas in an isothermal change, the DIRECTIONS (Q.22 - Q.23) : In the following questions,

result will be more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the

(a) external work done correct answers and mark it according to the following

(b) rise in temperature codes:

(c) increase in internal energy

(d) external work done and also rise in temp. Codes : (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

Q.19 An ideal gas expands isothermally from a volume V1 to

Q.22 During the melting of a slab of ice at 273 K and one

V2 and then compressed to original volume V1 atmospheric pressure

(1) Positive work is done on the ice-water system by the

adiabatically. Initial pressure is P1 and final pressure is

atmosphere

P3 . The total work done is W . Then (2) Positive work is done by ice-water system on the

atmosphere

(a) P3 > P1 ,W > 0 (b) P3 < P1 , W < 0

(3) The internal energy of the ice-water system increases

(c) P3 > P1 ,W < 0 (d) P3 = P1 ,W = 0 (4) The internal energy of the ice-water system decreases

Q.20 An ideal gas expands in such a manner that its pressure and Q.23 One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is taken from A to C

along the path ABC. The temperature of the gas at A is T0.

volume can be related by equation PV 2 = constant. During For the process ABC –

this process, the gas is P

(a) heated 2P0 C

(b) cooled T0

P0 A

(c) neither heated nor cooled B

(d) first heated and then cooled

Q.21 In the following P - V diagram two adiabatics cut two

V0 2V0

isothermals at temperatures T1 and T2 (fig.). The value of (1) Work done by the gas is RT0

Va 11

will be (2) Change in internal energy of the gas is RT0

Vd 2

P

11

a b T1 (3) Heat absorbed by the gas is RT0

2

d

T2 13

(4) Heat absorbed by the gas is RT0

2

DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below

and answer the questions that follows :

Va Vd Vb Vc V

In the figure n mole of a monoatomic ideal gas undergo the

Vb Vc Vd

(a) (b) (c) (d) VbVc process ABC as shown in the P-V diagram. The process AB is

Vc Vb Va isothermal and BC is isochoric. The temperature of the gas at A

is T0. Total heat given to the gas during the process ABC is

measured to be Q.

GRID 23.

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DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions contains

P

A C two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2

(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,

only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the

correct choice.

B

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

2V 6V correct explanation for Statement-1.

Q.24 Temperature of the gas at C is equal to (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

(a) T0 (b) 3 T0 (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

(c) 6 T0 (d) 2 T0 (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

Q.25 Heat absorbed by the gas in the process BC Q.27 Statement-1 : The isothermal curves intersect each other

(a) 3nRT0 (b) nRT0 at a certain point.

(c) 2nRT0 (d) 6nRT0 Statement-2 : The isothermal change takes place slowly,

so the isothermal curves have very little slope.

Q.26 The average molar heat capacity of the gas in process ABC

Q.28 Statement-1 : In adiabatic compression, the internal

is

energy and temperature of the system get increased.

Q Q Statement-2 : The adiabatic compression is a slow process.

(a) (b) Q.29 Statement-1 : The specific heat of a gas in an adiabatic

nT0 2nT0

process is zero and in an isothermal process is infinite.

Q 2Q Statement-2 : Specific heat of a gas is directly proportional

(c) (d)

3nT0 nT0 to change of heat in system and inversely proportional to

change in temperature.

GRID 29.

Total Questions 29 Total Marks 116

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 28 Qualifying Score 44

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

Space for Rough Work

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Name : Date :

25

irreversible processes, Carnot engine and its efficiency)

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 28 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.19) : There are 19 multiple choice questions. Q.2 An ideal gas is taken from point A to the point B , as

Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out of which ONLY shown in the P - V diagram, keeping the temperature

ONE choice is correct. constant. The work done in the process is

P

Q.1 Six moles of an ideal gas performs a cycle shown in figure.

A

If the temperature TA = 600 K , TB = 800 K , TC = 2200 K PA

P

PB B

B C

V

A

O VA VB

D

1

(a) ( PA - PB )(VB - VA ) (b) ( PB - PA )(VB + V A )

2

T 1 1

(c) ( PB - PA )(VB - V A ) (d) ( PB + PA )(VB - V A )

(a) 20 kJ (b) 30 kJ (c) 40 kJ (d) 60 kJ 2 2

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.3 In the diagrams (i) to (iv) of variation of volume with Q.8 An ideal heat engine working between temperature T1 and

changing pressure is shown. A gas is taken along the path T2 has an efficiency h, the new efficiency of engine if both

ABCD. The change in internal energy of the gas will be the source and sink temperature are doubled, will be

V V

D

C D C h

(a) (b) h (c) 2 h (d) 3 h

(i) (ii) 2

A A B

Q.9 Efficiency of a Carnot engine is 50% when temperature

B

of outlet is 500 K. In order to increase efficiency up to

P P

V

D C

V D 60% keeping temperature of intake the same what will be

C

temperature of outlet

(iii) (iv) (a) 200 K (b) 400 K (c) 600 K (d) 800 K

A B A B Q.10 A scientist says that the efficiency of his heat engine which

P P operates at source temperature 120ºC and sink temperature

(a) Positive in all cases (i) to (iv) 27ºC is 26%, then

(b) Positive in cases (i), (ii) and (iii) but zero in case (iv) (a) It is impossible

(c) Negative in cases (i), (ii) and (iii) but zero in case (iv) (b) It is possible but less probable

(d) Zero in all cases (c) It is quite probable

Q.4 A monoatomic ideal gas, initially at temperature T1, is (d) Data are incomplete

enclosed in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless piston. The Q.11 The efficiency of Carnot’s engine operating between

gas is allowed to expand adiabatically to a temperature T2 reservoirs, maintained at temperatures 27°C and –123°C,

by releasing the piston suddenly. If L1and L2 are the lengths is

of the gas column before and after expansion respectively, (a) 50% (b) 24% (c) 0.75% (d) 0.4%

then T1 / T2 is given by Q.12 The temperature of sink of Carnot engine is 27°C and

æ L1 ö

2/3

L1 L2 æ L2 ö

2/3 Efficiency of engine is 25%. Then temperature of source

(a) ç ÷ (b) L2 (c) L1 (d) ç ÷ is

è L2 ø è L1 ø

(a) 227°C (b) 327°C (c) 127°C (d) 27°C

Q.5 A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 moles Q.13 In changing the state of thermodynamics from A to B state,

argon at temperature T. Neglecting all vibrational modes, the heat required is Q and the work done by the system is

the total internal energy of the system is

W. The change in its internal energy is

(a) 4 RT (b) 15 RT (c) 9 RT (d) 11 RT

Q.6 Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in succession. Q -W

(a) Q + W (b) Q – W (c) Q (d)

The first one, A receives heat from a source at T1 = 800 K 2

Q.14 The first law of thermodynamics is concerned with the

and rejects to sink at T2 K . The second engine B receives

conservation of

heat rejected by the first engine and rejects to another sink

(a) Momentum (b) Energy

at T3 = 300 K . If the work outputs of two engines are equal,

(c) Mass (d) Temperature

then the value of T2 will be Q.15 A system is given 300 calories of heat and it does 600

(a) 100K (b) 300K (c) 550K (d) 700 K

joules of work. The internal energy of the system change

Q.7 A Carnot engine whose low temperature reservoir is at 7°C

in this process is

has an efficiency of 50%. It is desired to increase the

(J = 4.18 Joule/cal)

efficiency to 70%. By how many degrees should the

temperature of the high temperature reservoir be increased (a) 654 Joule (b) 156.5 Joule

(a) 840K (b) 280 K (c) 560 K (d) 380K (c) –300 Joule (d) – 528.2 Joule

3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

RESPONSE

8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

GRID

13. 14. 15.

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Q.16 110 J of heat is added to a gaseous system, whose internal (2) That the process should be too fast

energy change is 40 J, then the amount of external work (3) That the process should be slow so that the working

done is substance should remain in thermal and mechanical

(a) 150 J (b) 70 J (c) 110 J (d) 40 J equilibrium with the surroundings

Q.17 For free expansion of the gas which of the following is (4) The loss of energy should be zero and it should be

true quasistatic

(a) Q = W = 0 and DEint = 0 Q.22 One mole of an ideal gas is taken through the cyclic through

(b) Q = 0, W > 0 and DEint = -W the cyclic process shown in the V-T diagram, where V =

(c) W = 0, Q > 0 , and DEint = Q volume and T = absolute temperature of the gas. Which of

the following statements are correct

(d) W > 0, Q < 0 and DEint = 0

V

Q.18 In a given process for an ideal gas, dW = 0 and dQ < 0 . 2V0

A B

(a) The temperature will decrease

(b) The volume will increase V0

D

C

(c) The pressure will remain constant

T

(d) The temperature will increase T0 2T0

Q.19 The specific heat of hydrogen gas at constant pressure is (1) Heat is given out by the gas

C p = 3.4 ´ 103 cal / kg oC and at constant volume is (2) Heat is absorbed by the gas

(3) The magnitude of the work done by the gas is RT0 (ln 2)

CV = 2.4 ´ 103 cal / kg oC . If one kilogram hydrogen gas is (4) The magnitude of the work done by the gas is V0T0

heated from 10°C to 20°C at constant pressure, the

external work done on the gas to maintain it at constant DIRECTIONS (Q.23-Q.25) : Read the passage given below and

pressure is answer the questions that follows :

(a) 105 cal (b) 104 cal

V-T graph of a process of monoatomic ideal gas is as shown in

(c) 103 cal (d) 5 × 103 cal

figure.

DIRECTIONS (Q.20-Q.22) : In the following questions, V

more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the a b

codes: d c

T

Codes : (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct Q.23 Sum of work done by the gas in process abcd is –

Q.20 Which of the following processes are irreversible? (a) zero (b) positive

(1) Transfer of heat by radiation (c) negative (d) data is insufficient

(2) Electrical heating of a nichrome wire Q.24 Heat is supplied to the gas in process(s) –

(3) Transfer of heat by conduction (a) da, ab and bc (b) da and ab only

(4) Isothermal compression (c) da only (d) ab and bc only

Q.21 For a reversible process, unnecessary conditions are Q.25 Change in internal energy of the gas is zero in process(s) –

(1) In the whole cycle of the system, the loss of any type (a) da, ab and bc (b) da and bc only

of heat energy should be zero (c) da only (d) da and ab only

GRID 21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

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DIRECTIONS (Q.26-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains two Q.26 Statement-1 : It is not possible for a system, unaided by an

statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). Each external agency to transfer heat from a body at lower

of these questions has four alternative choices, only one of which is temperature to another body at higher temperature.

the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice. Statement-2 : According to Clausius statement, “No

process is possible whose sole result is the transfer of

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a heat from a cooled object to a hotter object.

correct explanation for Statement-1. Q.27 Statement-1 : A room can be warmed by opening the door

(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is of a refrigerator in a closed room.

NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1. Statement-2 : Head flows from lower temperature

(c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True. (refrigerator) to higher temperature (room).

(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False. Q.28 Statement-1 : In isothermal process whole of the heat

energy supplied to the body is converted into internal

energy.

Statement-2 : According to the first law of themodynamics

DQ = DU + PDV

Total Questions 28 Total Marks 112

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 26 Qualifying Score 42

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

26

Max. Marks : 120 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 30 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.21) : There are 21 multiple choice questions. (c) Low pressure and high temperature

Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out of which ONLY (d) High pressure and low temperature

ONE choice is correct. Q.4 The pressure P, volume V and temperature T of a gas in

Q.1 If pressure of a gas contained in a closed vessel is increased the jar A and the other gas in the jar B at pressure 2 P ,

by 0.4% when heated by 1°C, the initial temperature must

V

be volume and temperature 2T, then the ratio of, the

(a) 250 K (b) 250°C (c) 2500 K (d) 25°C 4

Q.2 To double the volume of a given mass of an ideal gas at number of molecules in the jar A and B will be

27°C keeping the pressure constant, one must raise the (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2

temperature in degree centigrade to (c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1

(a) 54 (b) 270 (c) 327 (d) 600 Q.5 A flask is filled with 13 gm of an ideal gas at 27°C and its

Q.3 Under which of the following conditions is the law temperature is raised to 52°C. The mass of the gas that has

PV = RT obeyed most closely by a real gas? to be released to maintain the temperature of the gas in

(a) High pressure and high temperature the flask at 52°C and the pressure remaining the same is

(b) Low pressure and low temperature (a) 2.5 g (b) 2.0 g (c) 1.5 g (d) 1.0 g

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.6 The pressure and temperature of two different gases is Q.12 For a gas at a temperature T the root-mean-square velocity

P and T having the volume V for each. They are mixed vrms , the most probable speed vmp , and the average speed

keeping the same volume and temperature, the pressure of v au obey the relationship

the mixture will be

(a) vau > vrms > vmp (b) vrms > va u > vmp

(a) P / 2 (b) P (c) 2P (d) 4P

Q.7 The root mean square velocity of a gas molecule of mass (c) vmp > vau > vrms (d) vmp > vrms > va u

m at a given temperature is proportional to Q.13 One mole of ideal monoatomic gas ( g = 5 / 3) is mixed with

1 one mole of diatomic gas ( g = 7 / 5) . What is g for the

(a) mo (b) m (c) m (d)

m æ Cp ö

mixture? çè g = ÷

Q.8 Which of the following statements is true? Cv ø

(a) Absolute zero temperature is not zero energy (a) 3/2 (b) 23/15 (c) 35/23 (d) 4/3

temperature Q.14 The value of the gas constant (R) calculated from the

(b) Two different gases at the same temperature and perfect gas equation is 8.32 Joule/gm mol K , whereas its

pressure have equal root mean square velocities value calculated from the knowledge of Cp and CV of the

(c) The root mean square speed of the molecules of gas is 1.98 cal/gm mole K . From this data, the value of J

different ideal gases, maintained at the same is

temperature are the same (a) 4.16 J / cal (b) 4.18 J / cal

(d) Given sample of 1 cc of hydrogen and 1 cc of oxygen (c) 4.20 J / cal (d) 4.22 J / cal

both at NTP; oxygen sample has a large number of Q.15 Gas at a pressure P0 is contained in a vessel. If the masses

molecules

of all the molecules are halved and their speeds are

Q.9 At room temperature, the r.m.s. speed of the molecules of

doubled, the resulting pressure P will be equal to

certain diatomic gas is found to be 1930 m/s. The gas is

P0

(a) H 2 (b) F2 (c) O2 (d) Cl2 (a) 4P0 (b) 2P0 (c) P0 (d)

2

Q.10 Root mean square velocity of a particle is v at pressure P. Q.16 The relation between the gas pressure P and average kinetic

If pressure is increased two times, then the r.m.s. velocity energy per unit volume E is

becomes

2

(a) 2 v (b) 3 v (c) 0.5 v (d) v (a) P = 1 E (b) P = E (c) P = 3 E (d) P = E

Q.11 In the two vessels of same volume, atomic hydrogen and 2 2 3

helium at pressure 1 atm and 2 atm are filled. If temperature Q.17 Mean kinetic energy (or average energy) per gm molecule

of both the samples is same, then average speed of of a monoatomic gas is given by

3 1 1 3

hydrogen atoms < CH > will be related to that of helium (a) RT (b) KT (c) RT (d) KT

2 2 2 2

< CHe > as Q.18 At which of the following temperature would the molecules

of a gas have twice the average kinetic energy they have at

(a) < CH > = 2 < CHe > (b) < CH > = < CHe >

20°C?

< CHe > (a) 40o C (b) 80 o C (c) 313o C (d) 586o C

2

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

RESPONSE

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

GRID

16. 17. 18.

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Q.19 The kinetic energy of one gram molecule of a gas at normal

Q.23 Let v, vrms and v p respectively denote the mean speed,

temperature and pressure is (R = 8.31 J/mol - K)

root mean square speed and most probable speed of the

(a) 0.56 ´ 10 4 J (b) 1.3 ´ 10 2 J molecules in an ideal monoatomic gas at absolute

temperature T, the mass of a molecule is m. Then

(c) 2.7 ´ 10 2 J (d) 3.4 ´ 10 3 J (1) v p < v < v rms

Q.20 70 calories of heat are required to raise the temperature

3 2

o f (2) The average kinetic energy of a molecule is mv

2 moles of an ideal gas at constant pressure from 30°C to 4 p

35°C. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature (3) No molecule can have speed greater than 2vrms

of same gas through the same range (30o C to 35o C) at (4) No molecule can have speed less than v p / 2

Q.24 A gas in container A is in thermal equilibrium with another

constant volume (R = 2 cal/mol K) gas in container B, both contain equal masses of the two

(a) 30 cal (b) 50 cal (c) 70 cal (d) 90 cal gases in the respective containers. Which of the follow-

Q.21 A vessel contains a mixture of one mole of oxygen and ing can be true

two moles of nitrogen at 300 K . The ratio of the average (1) PA = PB , VA ¹ VB (2) PA VA = PB VB

rotational kinetic energy per O2 molecule to that per N2 PA PB

molecule is (3) PA ¹ PB , VA = VB (4) V = V

A B

(a) 1 : 1

(b) 1 : 2 DIRECTIONS (Q.25-Q.27) : Read the passage given below and

(c) 2 : 1 answer the questions that follows :

(d) Depends on the moments of inertia of the two A diathermic piston divides adiabatic cylinder of volume V0 into

molecules two equal parts as shown in the figure. Both parts contain ideal

DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.24) : In the following questions, more than monoatomic gases. The initial pressure and temperature of gas

one of the answers given are correct. Select the correct answers in left compartment are P0 and T0 while that in right compartment

and mark it according to the following codes: are 2P0 and 2T0. Initially the piston is kept fixed and the system

Codes : (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct is allowed to acquire a state of thermal equilibrium.

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

Q.22 From the following statements, concerning ideal gas at any

given temperature T, select the correct one(s) P0 , T0 2 P0 , 2T0

(1) The coefficient of volume expansion at constant

pressure is same for all ideal gases

(2) In a gaseous mixture, the average translational kinetic Q.25 The pressure in left compartment after thermal equilibrium

energy of the molecules of each component is same is achieved is

(3) The mean free path of molecules increases with the 3

decrease in pressure (a) P0 (b) P0

2

(4) The average translational kinetic energy per molecule 4

of oxygen gas is 3KT (K being Boltzmann constant) (c) P0 (d) None of these

3

GRID 24. 25.

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Q.26 The heat that flown from right compartment to left (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

compartment before thermal equilibrium is achieved is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

3 3 2 (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

(a) P0V0 (b) P0V0 (c) P0V0 (d) P0V0 (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

4 8 3

Q.27 If the pin which was keeping the piston fixed is removed Q.28 Statement-1 : Internal energy of an ideal gas does not

and the piston is allowed to slide slowly such that a state depend upon volume of the gas.

of mechanical equilibrium is achieved. The volume of left Statement-2 : Internal energy of an ideal gas depends on

compartment when piston is in equilibrium is temperature of gas.

Q.29 Statement-1 : Equal masses of helium and oxygen gases

3 V0 V0 2 are given equal quantities of heat. There will be a greater

(a) V0 (b) (c) (d) V0

4 4 2 3 rise in the temperature of helium compared to that of

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains two

oxygen.

statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). Each Statement-2 : The molecular weight of oxygen is more

of these questions has four alternative choices, only one of which is than the molecular weight of helium.

the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice. Q.30 Statement-1 : Maxwell speed distribution graph is

asymmetric about most probable speed.

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a Statement-2 : rms speed of ideal gas, depends upon it’s

correct explanation for Statement-1. type (monoatomic, diatomic and polyatomic).

Total Questions 30 Total Marks 120

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 30 Qualifying Score 48

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

SYLLABUS : Oscillations-1 (Periodic motion - period, Frequency, Displacement as a function of time. Periodic

27

functions, Simple harmonic motion and its equation, Energy in S.H.M. - kinetic and potential energies)

Max. Marks : 120 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 30 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out of which ONLY (a) sec (b) sec (c) sec (d) sec

8 6 4 3

ONE choice is correct.

æ pö

Q.1 A simple h armonic motion is represented by Q.4 If x = a sin ç wt + ÷ and x ' = a cos wt , then what is the

è 6ø

F (t ) = 10sin(20t + 0.5) . The amplitude of the S.H.M. is phase difference between the two waves?

(a) a = 30 cm (b) a = 20 cm (a) p / 3 (b) p / 6

(c) a = 10 cm (d) a = 5 cm

(c) p / 2 (d) p

Q.2 A particle executes a simple harmonic motion of time

period T. Find the time taken by the particle to go directly Q.5 A body is executing S.H.M. when its displacement from

from its mean position to half the amplitude the mean position is 4 cm and 5 cm, the corresponding

velocity of the body is 10 cm/sec and 8 cm/sec. Then the

(a) T / 2 (b) T / 4 (c) T / 8 (d) T /12

Q.3 The periodic time of a body executing simple harmonic time period of the body is

motion is 3 sec. After how much time from time t = 0 , its (a) 2p sec (b) p / 2 sec

displacement will be half of its amplitude (c) p sec (d) 3p / 2sec

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.6 If a simple pendulum oscillates with an amplitude of 50 Q.12 The total energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is

mm and time period of 2 sec, then its maximum velocity proportional to

is (a) Displacement from equilibrium position

(a) 0.10 m/s (b) 0.15 m/s (b) Frequency of oscillation

(c) 0.8 m/s (d) 0.26 m/s (c) Velocity in equilibrium position

Q.7 The maximum velocity and the maximum acceleration of (d) Square of amplitude of motion

a body moving in a simple harmonic oscillator are 2 m/s Q.13 When the displacement is half the amplitude, the ratio of

and 4 m/s2. Then angular velocity will be potential energy to the total energy is

(a) 3 rad/sec (b) 0.5 rad/sec 1 1 1

(a) (b) (c) 1 (d)

(c) 1 rad/sec (d) 2 rad/sec 2 4 8

Q.8 The amplitude of a particle executing SHM is 4 cm. At the Q.14 A particle is executing simple harmonic motion with

mean position the speed of the particle is 16 cm/sec. The frequency f . The frequency at which its kinetic energy

distance of the particle from the mean position at which changes into potential energy is

the speed of the particle becomes 8 3 cm/s, will be (a) f / 2 (b) f (c) 2 f (d) 4 f

(a) 2 3 cm (b) 3 cm

Q.15 A particle executes simple harmonic motion with a

(c) 1cm (d) 2 cm frequency f . The frequency with which its kinetic energy

Q.9 The amplitude of a particle executing S.H.M. with oscillates is

frequency of 60 Hz is 0.01 m. The maximum value of the (a) f / 2 (b) f (c) 2 f (d) 4 f

acceleration of the particle is Q.16 The kinetic energy of a particle executing S.H.M. is 16 J

(a) 144p 2 m/sec 2 (b) 144 m/sec 2 when it is in its mean position. If the amplitude of

oscillations is 25 cm and the mass of the particle is 5.12

144 kg, the time period of its oscillation is

(c) m/sec 2 (d) 288p 2 m/sec 2

p2 p

Q.10 A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an (a) sec (b) 2p sec (c) 20p sec (d) 5p sec

5

angular velocity and maximum acceleration of 3.5rad/sec Q.17 The displacement x (in metres) of a particle performing

and 7.5 m /s 2 respectively. The amplitude of oscillation simple harmonic motion is related to time t (in seconds) as

is æ pö

x = 0.05cos ç 4pt + ÷ . The frequency of the motion will

(a) 0.28 m (b) 0.36 m (c) 0.53 m (d) 0.61 m è 4ø

Q.11 What is the maximum acceleration of the particle doing be

é pt ù (a) 0.5 Hz (b) 1.0 Hz (c) 1.5 Hz (d) 2.0 Hz

the SHM y = 2sin ê + fú where y is in cm? Q.18 A particle executes simple harmonic motion

ë 2 û

[amplitude = A ] between x = - A and x = + A . The time

p p2

(a) cm/s 2 (b) cm/s 2 taken for it to go from 0 to A / 2 is T1 and to go from

2 2

p p A / 2 to A is T2 . Then

(c) cm/s 2 (d) cm/s 2

4 4 (a) T1 < T2 (b) T1 > T2 (c) T1 = T2 (d) T1 = 2T2

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

RESPONSE

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

GRID

16. 17. 18.

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Q.19 A cylindrical piston of mass M slides smoothly inside a DIRECTIONS (Q.23-Q.25) : In the following questions, more than

long cylinder closed at one end, enclosing a certain mass one of the answers given are correct. Select the correct

of gas. The cylinder is kept with its axis horizontal. If the answers and mark it according to the following codes:

piston is disturbed from its equilibrium position, it

Codes : (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

oscillates simple harmonically. The period of oscillation

(b) 1 and 2 are correct

will be

(c) 2 and 4 are correct

h

(d) 1 and 3 are correct

Q.23 A particle constrained to move along the x-axis in a

M potential V = kx2, is subjected to an external time dependent

r

Gas

force f (t) , here k is a constant, x the distance from the

P A

origin, and t the time. At some time T, when the particle

has zero velocity at x = 0, the external force is removed.

(a) T = 2p æç Mh ö÷ (b) T = 2p æç MA ö÷ Choose the incorrect options –

è PA ø è Ph ø (1) Particle executes SHM

(2) Particle moves along +x direction

(c) T = 2p æç

M ö (3) Particle moves along – x direction

÷ (d) T = 2p MPhA

è PAh ø (4) Particle remains at rest

Q.24 Three simple harmonic motions in the same direction

Q.20 A particle is performing simple harmonic motion along having the same amplitude a and same period are

x-axis with amplitude 4 cm and time period 1.2 sec. The superposed. If each differs in phase from the next by 45°,

minimum time taken by the particle to move from x = 2 then –

cm to x = + 4 cm and back again is given by

(a) 0.6 sec (b) 0.4 sec (1) The resultant amplitude is (1 + 2) a

(c) 0.3 sec (d) 0.2 sec (2) The phase of the resultant motion relative to the first is

Q.21 A spring of force constant k is cut into two pieces such 90°

that one piece is double the length of the other. Then the (3) The energy associated with the resulting motion is

long piece will have a force constant of

(3 + 2 2) times the energy associated with any single

(a) (2/3)k (b) (3/2)k

motion

(c) 3k (d) 6k

(4) The resulting motion is not simple harmonic

Q.22 A simple pendulum has time period T 1 . The point of

Q.25 For a particle executing simple harmonic motion, which

suspension is now moved upward according to equation

of the following statements is correct?

y = kt2 where k =1m/sec2. If new time period is T2 then

(1) The total energy of the particle always remains the same

T12 (2) The restoring force always directed towards a fixed

ratio will be point

T22

(3) The restoring force is maximum at the extreme

(a) 2/3 (b) 5/6 positions

(c) 6/5 (d) 3/2 (4) The acceleration of the particle is maximum at the

equilibrium position

GRID 24. 25.

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DIRECTIONS (Q.26-Q.27) : Read the passage given below and DIRECTIONS (Q.28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains two

answer the questions that follows : statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (Reason). Each

of these questions has four alternative choices, only one of which is

The differential equation of a particle undergoing SHM is given the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice.

d2 x (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

by a

2

+ bx = 0 . The particle starts from the extreme position. correct explanation for Statement-1.

dt

Q.26 The ratio of the maximum acceleration to the maximum (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

velocity of the particle is – NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

(c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

b a (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

(a) (b)

a b Q.28 Statement-1 : In S.H.M., the motion is ‘to and fro’ and

periodic.

a b Statement-2 : Velocity of the particle

(c) (d)

b a

Q.27 The equation of motion may be given by : ) w k 2 - x 2 (where x is the displacement and k is

(v=

amplitude)

æ bö

Q.29 Statement-1 : In simple harmonic motion, the velocity is

(a) x = Asin ç a ÷ t

è ø maximum when acceleration is minimum.

Statement-2 : Displacement and velocity of S.H.M. differ

æ bö

in phase by p / 2

(b) x = Acos ç a ÷ t

è ø Q.30 Statement-1 : The graph of total energy of a particle in

SHM w.r.t., position is a straight line with zero slope.

æ b ö

Statement-2 : Total energy of particle in SHM remains

(c) x = A sin ç a t + q÷ where q ¹ p/2

è ø constant throughout its motion.

(d) None of these

Total Questions 30 Total Marks 120

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 30 Qualifying Score 45

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

28

forced and damped oscillations, Resonance)

Max. Marks : 112 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 28 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

2m m m m

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out (a) 2p (b) 2p (c) 2p (d) 2p

k 2k k 3k

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct.

Q.2 Three masses 700g, 500g, and 400g are suspended at the

Q.1 A particle of mass m is end of a spring as shown and are in equilibrium.

C B

attached to three identical When the 700g mass is removed, the system oscillates

springs A, B and C each of 90° with a period of 3 seconds, when the 500 gm mass is also

force constant k as shown removed, it will oscillate with a period of

in figure. m

(a) 1 s

O

If the particle of mass m (b) 2 s

is pushed slightly against (c) 3 s

700gm

the spring A and released

12 500gm

then the time period of (d) s

A 5 400gm

oscillations is

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.3 The bob of a simple pendulum is displaced from its Q.7 The time period of a second’s pendulum is 2 sec. The

equilibrium position O to a position Q which is at height h spherical bob which is empty from inside has a mass of 50

above O and the bob is then released. gm. This is now replaced by another solid bob of same

Assuming the mass of the bob to be m and time period of radius but having different mass of 100 gm. The new time

oscillations to be 2.0 sec, the tension in the string when period will be

the bob passes through O is (a) 4 sec (b) 1 sec (c) 2 sec (d) 8 sec

(a) m( g + p 2 g h) Q.8 The length of a simple pendulum is increased by 1%. Its

time period will

(b) m ( g + p2 g h ) (a) Increase by 1% (b) Increase by 0.5%

æ ö

(c) Decrease by 0.5% (d) Increase by 2%

p2

(c) mç g + g h÷ Q Q.9 The bob of a pendulum of length l is pulled aside from its

ç 2 ÷

è ø equilibrium position through an angle q and then released.

h

æ 2 ö The bob will then pass through its equilibrium position with

(d) m ç g + p g h ÷ O a speed v, where v equals

ç 3 ÷

è ø

(a) 2gl (1- sin q) (b) 2gl (1 + cos q)

Q.4 A spring of force constant k is cut into two pieces such

that one piece is double the length of the other. Then the (c) 2gl (1 - cos q) (d) 2gl (1+ sin q)

long piece will have a force constant of Q.10 A simple pendulum is executing simple harmonic motion

(a) (2 / 3)k (b) (3 / 2)k (c) 3k (d) 6k with a time period T. If the length of the pendulum is

Q.5 A pendulum suspended from the ceiling of a train has a increased by 21%, the percentage increase in the time

period T, when the train is at rest. When the train is period of the pendulum of is

accelerating with a uniform acceleration a, the period of (a) 10% (b) 21% (c) 30% (d) 50%

oscillation will Q.11 A chimpanzee swinging on a swing in a sitting position,

(a) increase (b) decrease stands up suddenly, the time period will

(c) remain unaffected (d) become infinite (a) Become infinite (b) Remain same

Q.6 A simple pendulum is set up in a trolley which moves to the (c) Increase (d) Decrease

right with an acceleration a on a horizontal plane. Then the Q.12 A simple pendulum consisting of a ball of mass m tied to a

thread of the pendulum in the mean position makes an angle thread of length l is made to swing on a circular arc of angle q

q with the vertical is in a vertical plane. At the end of this arc, another ball of mass

a m is placed at rest. The momentum transferred to this ball at

(a) tan -1 in the forward direction rest by the swinging ball is

g

g mq

a

(b) tan -1 in the backward direction (a) Zero (b) mq (c) l

(d) m 2p l

l l g l g

g

Q.13 The time period of a simple pendulum of length L as

g

(c) tan -1 in the backward direction measured in an elevator descending with acceleration g / 3

a is

-1 g

(d) tan in the forward direction æ 3L ö æ 3L ö

a (a) 2p 3L (b) p ç ÷ (c) 2p ç ÷ (d) 2p 2L

g è gø è 2g ø 3g

3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

RESPONSE

8. 9. 10. 11. 12.

GRID

13.

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Q.14 A mass m is suspended from the two coupled springs is maximum for w = w2, then (where w0 natural frequency

connected in series. The force constant for springs are k1 of oscillation of particle)

and k2. The time period of the suspended mass will be (a) w1 = w0 and w 2 ¹ w 0 (b) w1 = w0 and w 2 = w 0

(a) æ m ö

(b) æ m ö (c) w1 ¹ w0 and w 2 = w 0 (d) w1 ¹ w0 and w 2 ¹ w 0

T = 2p ç ÷ T = 2p ç ÷

è k1 + k 2 ø è k1 + k 2 ø c

Q.20 Amplitude of a wave is represented by A =

æ mk k ö a +b-c

æ m(k1 + k2 ) ö T = 2p ç 1 2 ÷ Then resonance will occur when

(c) T = 2p ç ÷ (d)

è k1k2 ø è k1 + k 2 ø

(a) b = – c/2 (b) b = 0 & a = c

Q.15 A spring having a spring constant k is loaded with a mass

(c) b = – a/2 (d) None

m. The spring is cut into two equal parts and one of these is

loaded again with the same mass. The new spring constant is DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions,

(a) k / 2 (b) k (c) 2k (d) k2 more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the

Q.16 A mass m = 100 gm is attached at the end of a light spring correct answers and mark it according to the following

which oscillates on a frictionless horizontal table with an codes:

amplitude equal to 0.16 metre and time period equal to 2

sec. Initially the mass is released from rest at t = 0 and Codes :

displacement x = –0.16 metre. The expression for the (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

displacement of mass at any time t is (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

(a) x = 0.16 cos(pt ) (b) x = - 0.16 cos(pt ) Q.21 Two blocks A and B each of mass m are connected by a

massless spring of natural length L and spring constant k.

(c) x = 0.16sin(pt + p) (d) x = - 0.16sin(pt + p ) The blocks are initially resting on a smooth horizontal floor

Q.17 Two masses m1 and m2 are suspended together by a massless with the spring at its natural length. A third identical block

spring of constant k. When the masses are in equilibrium, C also of mass m moves on the floor with a speed v along

m1 is removed without disturbing the system. The amplitude the line joining A and B and collides with A. Then

of oscillations is (1) The kinetic energy of the A – B system at maximum

m1g compression of the spring is mv2/4

(a)

k (2) The maximum compression of the spring is v m / 2k

m2 g

(b) (3) The kinetic energy of the A-B system at maximum

k

compression of the spring is zero

(m1 + m2 ) g

(c) k m1

(4) The maximum compression of the spring is v m / k

(m1 - m2 ) g m2 Q.22 A simple pendulum of length L and mass (bob) M is

(d) k oscillating in a plane about a vertical line between angular

Q.18 The composition of two simple harmonic motions of equal limits – f and + f. For an angular displacement θ ( θ < f) ,

periods at right angle to each other and with a phase the tension in the string and the velocity of the bob are T

difference of p results in the displacement of the particle and v respectively. The following relations hold good under

along the above conditions

(a) Straight line (b) Circle Mv 2

(1) T - Mg cos θ =

(c) Ellipse (d) Figure of 8 L

Q.19 A particle with restoring force proportional to (2) T cosθ = Mg

displacement and resisting force proportional to velocity (3) The magnitude of the tangential acceleration of the bob

is subjected to a force F sin wt. If the amplitude of the a T = g sin θ

particle is maximum for w = w1 and the energy of the particle (4) T = Mg cos q

GRID 19. 20. 21. 22.

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Q.23 Identify wrong statements among the following DIRECTIONS (Q.26-Q.28) : Each of these questions contains

(1) The greater the mass of a pendulum bob, the shorter two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2

is its frequency of oscillation (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,

(2) A simple pendulum with a bob of mass M swings with

only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the

an angular amplitude of 40°. When its angular

correct choice.

amplitude is 20°, the tension in the string is less than

Mgcos20°. (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

(3) The fractional change in the time period of a pendulum correct explanation for Statement-1.

on changing the temperature is independent of the (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

length of the pendulum. NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

(4) As the length of a simple pendulum is increased, the (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

maximum velocity of its bob during its oscillation will (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

also decreases.

Q.26 Statement-1 : Consider motion for a mass spring system

DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.25) : Read the passage given below under gravity, motion of M is not a simple harmonic motion

and answer the questions that follows : unless Mg is negligibly small.

A particle performs linear SHM such that it is placed on plat- Statement-2 : For simple harmonic k = force constant

Ma = kx + Mg

form & platform along with particles oscillate vertically up and motion acceleration must be X

down with amplitude A = 1cm. If the particle does not loose proportional to displacement and is

contact with platform anywhere and mass of particle is 1 kg, directed towards the mean position. M = Mass

Q.24 The minimum, possible time period (Take p = g ) compared to that of a soft spring.

(a) 0.1 sec. (b) 0.2 sec. Statement-2 : The periodic time depends upon the spring

(c) 0.3 sec. (d) 0.4 sec. constant, and spring constant is large for hard spring.

Q.25 For minimum time period condition average potential Q.28 Statement-1 : The percentage change in time period is

energy between t = 0 to t = 0.05 sec (Take g = 10 m/s2) 1.5%, if the length of simple pendulum increases by 3%

(a) 0.025 Joule (b) 0.1 Joule Statement-2:Time period is directly proportional to length of

(c) 0.08 Joule (d) 0.06 Joule pendulum.

GRID 28.

Total Questions 28 Total Marks 112

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 28 Qualifying Score 42

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

Space for Rough Work

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Name : Date :

SYLLABUS : Waves-1 (Wave motion, longitudinal and transverse waves, speed of a wave, displacement relation for a

29

progressive wave, principle of superposition of waves, reflection of waves)

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 29 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.20) : There are 20 multiple choice 3.5s respectively, the distance between the cliffs is

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out (Velocity of sound in air = 340 ms–1)

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (a) 1190 m

(b) 850 m

Q.1 A tuning fork makes 256 vibrations per second in air. When (c) 595 m

the velocity of sound is 330 m/s then wavelength of the tone (d) 510 m

emitted is Q.4 v1 and v2 are the velocities of sound at the same temperature

(a) 0.56 m (b) 0.89 m (c) 1.11 m (d) 1.29 m in two monoatomic gases of densities r 1 and r 2

Q.2 In a sinusoidal wave, the time required for a particular point

1

to move from maximum displacement to zero respectively. If r1 / r 2 = then the ratio of velocities v 1

4

displacement is 0.170 second. The frequency of the wave

and v2 will be

is

(a) 1 : 2 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4

(a) 1.47Hz (b) 0.36 Hz (c) 0.73 Hz (d) 2.94 Hz

Q.5 A wave of frequency 500 Hz has velocity 360 m/sec. The

Q.3 A man is standing between two parallel cliffs and fires a

distance between two nearest points 60° out of phase, is

gun. If he hears first and second echoes after 1.5 s and

(a) 0.6 cm (b) 12 cm (c) 60 cm (d) 120 cm

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

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Q.6 Two waves are given by y1 = a sin(wt - kx) and y2 = a cos Q.12 The equation of a plane progressive wave is given by

(wt – kx). The phase difference between the two waves is y = 0.025sin (100t + 0.25 x ) . The frequency of this wave

p p p would be

(a) (b) p (c) (d)

4 8 2 50 100

Q.7 The relation between time and displacement for two (a) Hz (b) Hz (c) 100Hz (d) 50Hz

p p

particles is given by

Q.13 A wave travelling in positive X-direction with A = 0.2m

y = 0.06sin 2 p(0.04t + f1 ), y2 = 0.03sin 2 p(1.04t + f 2 ) has a velocity of 360 m/sec. If l = 60m, then correct

The ratio of the intensities of the waves produced by the expression for the wave is

vibrations of the two particles will be

é æ x öù é æ x öù

(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 (a) y = 0.2sin ê 2p ç 6t + ÷ ú (b) y = 0.2 sin ê p ç 6t + ÷ ú

Q.8 A tr ansverse wave is descr ibed by the equation ë è 60 ø û ë è 60 ø û

æ xö é æ x öù é æ x öù

Y = Y0 sin2p ç ft - ÷ . The maximum particle velocity is four y = 0.2sin ê 2p ç 6t - ÷ ú (d) y = 0.2 sin ê p ç 6t - ÷ ú

è l ø (c)

ë è 60 ø û ë è 60 ø û

times the wave velocity if

Q.14 The equation of a wave is given as

pY pY

(a) l = 0 (b) l = 0 y= 0.07 sin (12 px - 3000pt ). where x is in metre and t in

4 2

(c) l = pY0 (d) l = 2pY0 sec , then the correct statement is

Q.9 Which one of the following does not represent a travelling (a) l = 1/ 6m, v = 250 m/s (b) a = 0.07m, v = 300m/s

wave? (c) n = 1500, v = 200 m/s (d) None

(a) y = sin( x - vt ) (b) y = ym sin k ( x + vt ) Q.15 The equation of a progressive wave is given by

(c) y = ym log( x - vt ) (d) y = f ( x2 - vt 2 ) y = 0.5sin ( 20 x - 400t ) where x and y are in metre and

Q.10 The path difference between the two waves

t is in second. The velocity of the wave is

æ 2px ö æ 2px ö

y1 = a1 sin ç wt - ÷ and y2 = a2 cos ç wt - + f ÷ is (a) 10 m/s (b) 20 m/s (c) 200 m/s (d) 400 m/s

è l ø è l ø

Q.16 There is a destructive interference between the two waves

l l æ pö

(a) f (b) çf+ ÷ of wavelength l coming from two different paths at a

2p 2p è 2ø

point. To get maximum sound or constructive interference

2p æ pö 2p at that point, the path of one wave is to be increased by

(c) çf - ÷ (d) f

l è 2ø l l l

Q.11 A transverse wave is represented by the equation (a) (b)

4 2

2p 3l

y = y0 sin ( vt - x ) , Here v = wave velocity (c) (d) l

l

4

For what value of l , the maximum particle velocity equal Q.17 If two waves of same frequency and same amplitude on

to two times the wave velocity superimposition produced a resultant disturbance of the

(a) l = 2 py0 (b) l = py0 / 3 same amplitude, the waves differ in phase by

(c) l = py0 / 2 (d) l = py0 (a) p (b) 2p /3 (c) p / 2 (d) zero

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

RESPONSE

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

GRID

16. 17.

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Q.18 Equation of motion in the same direction is given by (1) A wave travelling in the negative X direction with a

y1 = A sin( wt - kx ), y 2 = A sin(wt - kx - q) .The amplitude velocity of 1.5 m/sec

of the medium particle will be (2) A wave travelling in the negative X direction with a

wavelength of 0.2 m

q

(a) 2 A cos (b) 2 A cos q (3) A wave travelling in the positive X direction with a

2

velocity of 1.5 m/sec.

q

(c) 2 A cos (d) 2A cos q (4) A wave travelling in the positive X direction with a

2

Q.19 The amplitude of a wave, represented by displacement wavelength of 0.2 m

Q.23 It is usually more convenient to describe a sound wave in

1 1

equation y = sin wt ± cos wt will be terms of pressure wave as compared to displacement wave

a b because –

a+b a+ b a± b a+b (1) Two waves of same intensity but different frequencies

(a) (b) (c) (d) have different displacement amplitude but same

ab ab ab ab

Q.20 The displacement due to a wave moving in the positive pressure amplitude

1 (2) The human ear responds to the change in pressure and

x -direction is given by y = at time t = 0 and by

(1 + x2 ) not to the displacement wave.

1 (3) The electronic detector (microphone) does respond

y= at t = 2 seconds, where x and y are in to the change in pressure but not to the displacement.

[1 + ( x - 1)2 ]

metres. The velocity of the wave in m/s is (4) None of the above

(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4

DIRECTIONS (Q.24-Q.26) : Read the passage given below

DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : In the following questions, and answer the questions that follows :

more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the

Sound from a point isotropic source spreads equally in all

correct answers and mark it according to the following

directions in homogeneous medium. Therefore its intensity

codes:

decreases with square of distance from the source. When

Codes : (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct distance between observer and the source changes, apart from

(b) 1 and 2 are correct changes in intensity, the observer listens sound of pitch higher

(c) 2 and 4 are correct or lower than actual pitch depending upon the fact that the

(d) 1 and 3 are correct distance between the observer and source is decreasing or

Q.21 P, Q and R are three particles of a medium which lie on the increasing respectively. An observer O is at a distance 2R from

x-axis. A sine wave of wavelength l is travelling through centre of a circle of radius R. A point isotropic sound source S

the medium in the x-direction. P and Q always have the moves on the circle with uniform angular velocity w = p/3 rad/

same speed, while P and R always have the same velocity. s. Initially observer, source and centre of the circle are in same

The minimum distance between – line.

(1) P and Q is l (2) P and Q is l/2 2R

(3) P and R is l/2 (4) P and R is l R=1m

Q.22 A wave represented by the given equation

æ πö O S C

Y = A sin ç10πx + 15πt + ÷ , where x is in meter and t is

è 3ø 1R R

in second. The expression represents

GRID 23.

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Q.24 Starting from initial moment, the source moves through DIRECTIONS (Q. 27-Q.29) : Each of these questions contains

an angular displacement 180°. Intensity of the sound as two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2

observed by the observer decreases by a factor of – (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,

(a) 2 (b) 3 only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the

(c) 4 (d) 9

correct choice.

Q.25 During a complete round trip of star on the circle, the

observer listens a sound, whose – (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

(a) wavelength first decreases to a maximum value then correct explanation for Statement-1.

increases to the original value (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

(b) wavelength first increases to a maximum value then NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

decreases to the original value (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

(c) During the first half time wavelength increases then (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

decreases to the original value Q.27 Statement-1 : Particle velocity and wave velocity both are

(d) None of the above is correct because in Doppler's independent of time.

effect, it is the pitch of sound which changes and not Statement-2 : For the propagation of wave motion, the

its wavelength, irrespective of motion of source or medium must have the properties of elasticity and inertia.

observer.

Wavelength

Q.26 Sound emitted by the source at two successive instants t1 Q.28 Statement-1 : Speed of wave =

Time period

and t 2 has minimum and maximum observed pitch

respectively, then – Statement-2 : Wavelength is the distance between two

(a) t1 = 1s, t2 = 5s nearest particles vibrating in phase.

(b) t1 = 5s, t2 = 7s Q.29 Statement-1 : Transverse waves are not produced in liquids

(c) t1 = 7s, t2 = 11s and gases.

(d) t1 = 5s, t2 = 11s Statement-2 : Light waves are transverse waves.

GRID 29.

Total Questions 29 Total Marks 116

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 28 Qualifying Score 44

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

Space for Rough Work

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Name : Date :

SYLLABUS : Waves-2 (Standing waves in strings and organ pipes, Fundamental mode and

30

harmonics, Beats, Doppler effect in sound)

Max. Marks : 120 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 30 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.22) : There are 22 multiple choice Q.2 A closed organ pipe of length L and an open organ pipe

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out contain gases of densities r1 and r2 respectively. The

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. compressibility of gases are equal in both the pipes. Both

Q.1 A police car moving at 22 m/s, chases a motorcylist. The the pipes are vibrating in their first overtone with same

police man sounds his horn at 176 Hz, while both of them frequency. The length of the open organ pipe is

move towards a stationary siren of frequency 165 Hz. 4 L r2

L 4L 4 L r1

Calculate the speed of the motorcycle, if it is given that he (a) (b) (c) (d)

3 3 3 r2 3 r1

does not observes any beats

Police Car Motorcycle Q.3 Two whistles A and B produces notes of frequencies 660

Hz and 596 Hz respectively. There is a listener at the mid-

point of the line joining them. Now the whistle B and the

listener start moving with speed 30 m/s away from the

22 m/s Stationary siren whistle A. If speed of sound be 330 m/s, how many beats

(176 Hz) (165 Hz) will be heard by the listener

(a) 33 m/s (b) 22 m/s (c) Zero (d) 11 m/s (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.4 An open organ pipe is in resonance in its 2nd harmonic Q.10 An observer is moving away from source of sound of

with tuning fork of frequency f1. Now, it is closed at one frequency 100 Hz. His speed is 33 m/s. If speed of sound

end. If the frequency of the tuning fork is increased slowly is 330 m/s, then the observed frequency is

from f1 then again a resonance is obtained with a frequency (a) 90 Hz (b) 100 Hz (c) 91 Hz (d) 110 Hz

f2. If in this case the pipe vibrates nth hamonics then Q.11 A whistle giving out 450 Hz approaches a stationary

3 5 observer at a speed of 33 m/s. The frequency heard by the

(a) n = 3, f 2 = f1 (b) n = 3, f 2 = f1

4 4 observer in Hz is

5 3 (a) 409 (b) 429 (c) 517 (d) 500

(c) n = 5, f 2 = f1 (d) n = 5, f 2 = f1

4 4 Q.12 Two sirens situated one kilometre apart are producing sound

Q.5 The source producing sound and an observer both are of frequency 330 Hz. An observer starts moving from one

moving along the direction of propagation of sound waves. siren to the other with a speed of 2 m/s. If the speed of

If the respective velocities of sound, source and an sound be 330 m/s, what will be the beat frequency heard

observer are v, vs and v0, then the apparent frequency heard by the observer

by the observer will be (n = frequency of sound) (a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 1

n (v + v0 ) n(v - v0 ) Q.13 A small source of sound moves on a circle as shown in the

(a) (b)

v - v0 v - vs figure and an observer is standing on O. Let n1, n2 and n3 be

n (v - v0 ) n(v + v0 ) the frequencies heard when the source is at A, B and

(c) (d)

v + vs v + vs

C respectively. Then

Q.6 A whistle sends out 256 waves in a second. If the whistle

approaches the observer with velocity 1/3 of the velocity (a) n1 > n2 > n3

of sound in air, the number of waves per second the (b) n2 > n3 < n1

observer will receive (c) n1 = n2 > n3

(a) 384 (b) 192 (c) 300 (d) 200 (d) n2 > n1 > n3 O

Q.7 A source of sound emitting a note of frequency 200 Hz Q.14 A person carrying a whistle emitting continuously a note

moves towards an observer with a velocity v equal to the of 272 Hz is running towards a reflecting surface with a

velocity of sound. If the observer also moves away from speed of 18 km/hour. The speed of sound in air is 345ms–

the source with the same velocity v, the apparent frequency 1. The number of beats heard by him is

heard by the observer is (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 3

(a) 50 Hz (b) 100 Hz (c) 150 Hz (d) 200 Hz Q.15 A source of sound of frequency 256 Hz is moving rapidly

Q.8 The speed of sound in air at a given temperature is 350 m/ towards a wall with a velocity of 5m/s. The speed of sound

s. An engine blows whistle at a frequency of 1200 cps. It is is 330 m/s. If the observer is between the wall and the

approaching the observer with velocity 50 m/s. The apparent source, then the beats heard per second will be

frequency in cps heard by the observer will be (a) 7.8 Hz (b) 7.7 Hz

(a) 600 (b) 1050 (c) 1400 (d) 2400 (c) 3.9 Hz (d) Zero

Q.9 A source of sound of frequency n is moving towards a Q.16 The harmonics which are present in a pipe open at one end

stationary observer with a speed S. If the speed of sound in are

air is V and the frequency heard by the observer is n1 ,the (a) odd harmonics

value of n1 / n is (b) even harmonics

(c) even as well as odd harmonics

(a) (V + S)/V (b) V/ (V + S)

(d) None of these

(c) (V – S)/V (d) V/ (V – S)

4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

RESPONSE

9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

GRID

14. 15. 16.

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Q.17 A source of sound placed at the open end of a resonance

DIRECTIONS (Q.23-Q.25) : In the following questions,

column sends an acoustic wave of pressure amplitude P0

more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the

inside the tube. If the atmospheric pressure is PA, then the

correct answers and mark it according to the following

ratio of maximum and minimum pressure at the closed end codes:

of the tube will be

( PA + P0 ) ( PA + 2 P0 ) Codes :

(a) ( P - P ) (b) ( P - 2 P ) (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

A 0 A 0 (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

æ 1 ö Q.23 You are given four tuning forks, the lowest frequency of

çè PA + P0 ÷ø the fork is 300Hz. By striking two tuning forks at a time

PA 2

(c) P (d) æ 1 ö any of 1, 2, 3, 5, 7 & 8 Hz beat frequencies are heard. The

A çè PA - P0 ÷ø possible frequencies of the other three forks –

2

(1) 301, 302 & 307 (2) 301, 303 & 308

Q.18 The frequency of fundamental tone in an open organ pipe (3) 300, 304 & 307 (4) 305, 307 & 308

of length 0.48 m is 320 Hz. Speed of sound is 320 m/sec. Q.24 Doppler shift in frequency depends upon

Frequency of fundamental tone in closed organ pipe will (1) the frequency of the wave produced

be (2) the velocity of the source

(a) 153.8 Hz (b) 160.0 Hz (3) the velocity of the observer

(c) 320.0 Hz (d) 143.2 Hz (4) distance from the source to the listener

Q.19 A standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodes is formed Q.25 The ( x, y ) coordinates of the corners of a square plate are

between two atoms having a distance 1.21Å between them. (0, 0), (L, 0), (L, L) and (0, L). The edges of the plate are

The wavelength of the standing wave is clamped and transverse standing waves are set up in it. If

(a) 1.21 Å (b) 2.42 Å (c) 6.05 Å (d) 3.63 Å u ( x, y) denotes the displacement of the plate at the point

Q.20 A string on a musical instrument is 50 cm long and its

( x, y ) at some instant of time, the possible expression(s)

fundamental frequency is 270 Hz. If the desired frequency

of 1000 Hz, is to be produced, the required length of the for u is (are) (a = positive constant)

string is px py px 2 py

(1) a sin sin (2) a sin sin

(a) 13.5 cm (b) 2.7 cm (c) 5.4 cm (d) 10.3 cm L L L L

Q.21 The loudness and the pitch of a sound depends on px py 2px py

(a) intensity and velocity (3) a cos cos (4) a cos cos

2L 2L L L

(b) frequency and velocity

(c) intensity and frequency DIRECTIONS (Q.26-Q.27) : Read the passage given below

(d) frequency and number of harmonics and answer the questions that follows :

Q.22 If in an experiment for determination of velocity of sound

A plate was cut from a quartz crystal and is used to control the

by resonance tube method using a tuning fork of 512 Hz,

frequency of an oscillating electrical circuit. Longitudinal

first resonance was observed at 30.7 cm and second was

standing waves are set up in the plate with displacement antinodes

obtainded at 63.2 cm, then maximum possible error in

at opposite faces. The fundamental frequency of vibration is

velocity of sound is (consider actual speed of sound in air

is 332 m/s) 2.87 ´ 104

given by the equation f0 = . Here s is thickness of

(a) 204 cm/sec (b) 110 cm/sec s

(c) 58 cm/sec (d) 80 cm/sec the plate and density of quartz is 2658.76 kg/m3.

GRID 22. 23. 24. 25.

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Q.26 Young’s modulus of elasticity for quartz is – Q.28 Statement-1 : Beats cannot be produced by light sources.

(a) 7 × 1011 N/m2 (b) 8.76 × 1012 N/m2 Statement-2: Light sources have constant phase

12

(c) 2 × 10 N/m 2 (d) Information insufficient difference.

Q.27 If the quartz plate is vibrating in 3rd harmonic while

Q.29 Statement-1 : In the case of a stationary wave, a person

measuring the frequency of 1.2 × 106 Hz, then the thickness

hear a loud sound at the nodes as compared to the antinodes.

of the plateis

(a) 71.75cm (b) 7.175 cm Statement-2 : In a stationary wave all the particles of the

(c) 6.02 cm (d) 0.07 cm medium vibrate in phase.

Q.30 Statement-1 : Velocity of particles, while crossing mean

DIRECTIONS (Q.28-Q.30) : Each of these questions contains position (in stationary waves) varies from maximum at

two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 antinodes to zero at nodes.

(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,

Statement-2: Amplitude of vibration at antinodes is

only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the

maximum and at nodes, the amplitude is zero, and all

correct choice.

particles between two successive nodes cross the mean

position together.

Total Questions 30 Total Marks 120

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 30 Qualifying Score 48

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

31

Max. Marks : 120 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 30 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.24) : There are 24 multiple choice (a) N (b) N – 1 (c) 1/10 N (d) 1/N – 1

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out Q.4 The figure shows a situation when the jaws of vernier are

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. touching each other. Each main scale division is of 1 mm.

Find zero correction.

Q.1 One cm on the main scale of a vernier callipers is divided

(a) – 0.5 mm main

into ten equal parts. If 20 divisions of vernier scale coincide 0 1 2(cm)

(b) + 0.5 mm scale

with 8 small divisions of the main scale. What will be the

least count of callipers ? (c) – 0.4 mm 0 5 10 Vernier

(a) 0.05 cm (b) 0.06 cm (d) + 0.4 mm scale

(c) 0.04 cm (d) 0.01 cm

Q.2 The shape of stress vs strain graph within elastic limit is : Q.5 In an experiment for measurement of young’s modulus,

(a) parabolic (b) curve line following readings are taken. Load = 3.00 kg, length =

(c) straight line (d) ellipse 2.820 m, diameter = 0.041 cm and extension = 0.87.

Q.3 In a vernier calliper N divisions of vernier scale coincides Determine the percentage error in the measurement of Y.

with N – 1 divisions of main scale (in which length of one (a) ± 5% (b) ± 6.5%

division is 1 mm). The least count of the instrument should

be (c) ± 5.5% (d) ± 15%

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.6 When the zero of the circular scale of a screw gauge that the screw gauge has a zero error of – 0.03 mm. While

coincides with the zero of the main scale before A and B measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the

come in contact then the instrument has

main scale reading of 3 mm and the number of circular

(a) positive zero error

scale divisions in line with the main scale as 35. The

(b) negative zero error AB

diameter of the wire is

(c) no zero error

(d) can't be said anything (a) 3.32 mm (b) 3.73 mm

Q.7 If h be the elevation or depression of a spherical surface (c) 3.67 mm (d) 3.38 mm

from the plane glass plate and c be the mean distance Q.12 In an experiment the angles are required to be measured

between two consecutive points corresponding to the using an instrument, 29 divisions of the main scale exactly

impressions made by the three legs of a spherometer then coincide with the 30 divisions of the vernier scale. If the

the radius of curvature is

smallest division of the main scale is half- a degree (=

c2 h c2 h 2 c2 h c2 2 0.5°), then the least count of the instrument is :

(a) - (b) + (c) + (d) +

6h 2 6h 2 6h 2 6h h (a) half minute (b) one degree

Q.8 The least count of a spherometer is given by

(c) half degree (d) one minute

(a) pitch × no. of circular divisions

pitch

Q.13 In a screw gauge, the zero of main scale coincides with

(b) fifth division of circular scale in figure (i). The circular

no. of circular divisions

no. of circular divisions divisions of screw gauge are 50. It moves 0.5 mm on main

(c)

pitch scale in one rotation. The diameter of the ball in figure (ii)

pitch is

(d) mean distance between two consecutive legs of the spherometer

Q.9 The specific heat of a solid is determined by the method 0 10

5

0 30

25

known as 0 20

(b) the method of mixture

(c) the method of vaporisation Figure (i) Figure (ii)

Q.10 Which principle is involved in the experiment to determine (c) 1.20 mm (d) 1.25 mm

the specific heat of a liquid by the method of mixture ?

Q.14 A student performs an experiment for determination of

(a) Heat gained by solid = Heat lost by calorimeter and

liquid. æ 4p 2 l ö

(b) Heat lost by solid = Heat gained by calorimeter and gç= ÷ . The error in length l is Dl and in time T is DT

è T2 ø

liquid.

(c) Heat lost by solid and liquid = Heat gained by and n is number of times the reading is taken. The

calorimeter. measurement of g is most accurate for

(d) Heat gained by solid and calorimeter = Heat lost by Dl DT n

liquid. (a) 5 mm 0.2 sec 10

Q.11 Two full turns of the circular scale of a screw gauge cover (b) 5 mm 0.2 sec 20

a distance of 1mm on its main scale. The total number of (c) 5 mm 0.1 sec 10

divisions on the circular scale is 50. Further, it is found (d) 1 mm 0.1 sec 50

RESPONSE 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

GRID 11. 12. 13. 14.

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Q.15 A student performs an experiment to determine the Young’s Vg (r1 – r2 ) Vgr1

modulus of a wire, exactly 2 m long, by Searle’s method. In (a) (b)

k k

a particular reading, the student measures the extension in Vg r1 Vg (r1 – r2 )

the length of the wire to be 0.8 mm with an uncertainty of ± (c) (d)

k k

0.05 mm at a load of exactly 1.0 kg. The student also Q.19 A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 2 having densities

measures the diameter of the wire to be 0.4 mm with an r1 and, r2 respectively. A solid ball, made of a material of density

uncertainty of ± 0.01 mm. Take g = 9.8 m/s2 (exact). The r3 , is dropped in the jar. It comes to equilibrium in the position

Young’s modulus obtained from the reading is shown in the figure.Which of the following is true for r1, r2and

(a) (2.0±0.3)×1011 N/m2 (b) (2.0 ± 0.2) × 1011 N/m2 r3?

(c) (2.0±0.1)×1011 N/m2 (d) (2.0 ± 0.05) × 1011 N/m2

(a) r3 < r1 < r2

r1

the acceleration due to gravity (g) using a simple pendulum. (b) r1 > r3 > r2 r3

They use different lengths of the pendulum and /or record (c) r1 < r2 < r3

time for different number of oscillations. The observations (d) r1 < r3 < r2

are shown in the table. Q.20 A capillary tube (A) is dipped in water. Another identical

Least count for length = 0.1 cm tube (B) is dipped in a soap-water solution. Which of the

Least count for time = 0.1 s following shows the relative nature of the liquid columns

Student Length of the No. of Total time for Time in the two tubes?

pendulum (cm) oscillations (n) oscillations period (s) A B

(n) (s) A B

II 64.0 4 64.0 16.0 (a) (b)

III 20.0 4 36.0 9.0

If EI, EII and EIII are the percentage errors in g, i.e., A B A B

æ Dg ö

çè g ´ 100÷ø for students I, II and III, respectively, then (c) (d)

(a) EI = 0 (b) EI is minimum

(c) EI = EII (d) EII is maximum Q.21 Two wires are made of the same material and have the same

Q.17 If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density volume. However wire 1 has cross-sectional area A and

wire 2 has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of wire 1

= 19.5 kg/m3) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid (density = 1.5

increases by Dx on applying force F, how much force is

kg/m 3 ), find the terminal speed of a sphere of silver needed to stretch wire 2 by the same amount of energy?

(density = 10.5 kg/m3) of the same size in the same liquid (a) 4 F (b) 6 F (c) 9 F (d) 1 F

(a) 0.4 m/s (b) 0.133 m/s Q.22 The vernier constant of two vernier callipers A and B are

(c) 0.1 m/s (d) 0.2 m/s 0.01 cm and 0.01 mm respectively. Which one can measure

Q.18 A spherical solid ball of volume V is made of a material of the length of an object more accurately?

density r1. It is falling through a liquid of density r2 (r2< (a) Vernier A (b) Vernier B

r1). Assume that the liquid applies a viscous force on the (c) Accuracy in measurement does not depend on vernier

constant

ball that is proportional to the square of its speed v, i.e.,

(d) Both A and B are equally accurate.

Fviscous = –kv2 (k > 0). The terminal speed of the ball is

GRID 20. 21. 22.

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Q.23 The acceleration due to gravity at a place can be determined (2) Distilled water should be avoided.

with the help of a simple pendulum. For this purpose (3) Distilled water should be added.

effective length of the pendulum is considered. If 'l' be (4) Dirty liquid should be used.

the length of the string and 'd' the diameter of the bob then Q.27 The temperature-time variation graphs, as obtained by four

the effective length is equal to students 1, 2, 3 and 4 are as shown. The graphs, likely to be

d d wrong are

(a) l + d (b) l + (c) l - (d) l – d

2 2 80 80

Temperature

Temperature

length of the experimental wire, load applied to the wire (1)

60

(2)

60

50 50

and area of cross-section of the wire respectively then 40 40

Young's modulus of the wire is given by 30 30

xy xp py pq 0 5 10 10 20 25 30 35 0 5 10 10 20 25 30 35

(a) pq

(b) yq (c) xq (d) xy 80 Time 80 Time

70 70

Temperature

Temperature

DIRECTIONS (Q.25-Q.27) : In the following questions, (3)

60

(4)

60

50 50

more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the 40 40

correct answers and mark it according to the following 30 30

codes: 0 5 10 10

Time

20 25 30 35 0 5 10 10 20

Time

25 30 35

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct and answer the questions that follows :

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

Q.25 What is the function of a screw gauge in the experiment of The internal radius of a 1m long resonance tube is measured as

determining Young's modulus of a wire ? 3 cm. A tuning fork of frequency 2000 Hz is used. The first

(1) It measures the extension in the wire. resonating length is measured as 4.6 cm and the second

(2) It measures the load applied. resonating length is measured as 14.0 cm.

(3) It measures the length of the wire. Q.28 Calculate the maximum percentage error in measurement

(4) It measures the diameter of the wire. of e.

Q.26 Consider the following statements regarding the (a) 3.33% (b) 2.23% (c) 4.33% (d) 5.33%

experiment to determine the surface tension of water by Q.29 Calculate the speed of sound at the room temperature.

capillary rise method. Choose the correct statements. (a) 275 m/s (b) 376 m/s (c) 356 m/s (d) 330 m/s

(1) Capillary tube should be clean and liquid should be Q.30 Calculate the end correction.

free from dirt and grease. (a) 0.2 cm (b) 0.3 cm (c) 0.1 cm (d) 0.4 cm

GRID 28. 29. 30.

Total Questions 30 Total Marks 120

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 30 Qualifying Score 48

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

Space for Rough Work

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Name : Date :

SYLLABUS : Electrostatics-1 (Coulomb's law, electric field, field lines, Gauss's law)

32

Max. Marks : 104 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 26 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

(c) 180o , o

(d) 180 , 4p Î 2

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out 4p Î0 2 L2 0 L

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. Q.3 Electric charges of 1mC , -1mC and 2mC are placed in air at

Q.1 A total charge Q is broken in two parts Q1 and Q 2 and they the corners A,B and C respectively of an equilateral triangle

ABC having length of each side 10 cm. The resultant force

are placed at a distance R from each other. The maximum on the charge at C is

force of repulsion between them will occur, when (a) 0.9 N (b) 1.8N (c) 2.7 N (d) 3.6 N

Q Q Q 2Q Q.4 An electron is moving round the nucleus of a hydrogen

(a) Q 2 = , Q1 = Q - (b) Q2 = , Q1 = Q -

R R 4 3 atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The coulomb force

Q 3Q Q Q ur 1

(c) Q 2 = , Q1 = (d) Q1 = , Q2 = F between the two is (here K = )

4 4 2 2 4 p Î0

Q.2 Two small balls each having the charge + Q are suspended e r e2 r

2 2

e e2

by insulating threads of length L from a hook. This (a) - K 3 r$ (b) K 3 r (c) - K 3 r (d) K 2 r$

r r r r

arrangement is taken in space where there is no

gravitational effect, then the angle between the two Q.5 Equal charges q are 2placed at the four corners A2, B, C , D of a

o 1 Q 1 Q

suspensions and the tension in each thread will be (a) 180

square ,

of length a . The

2 magnitude ofothe

(b) 90 , force on the charge

4 p Î0 (2 L ) 4p Î0 L

2

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4.

Space for Rough Work

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at B will be of –3Q, it is

3q 2

q 2 (a) –E (b) E/3 (c) –3E (d) –E/3

(a) (b) Q.12 Charges q, 2q, 3q and 4q are placed at the corners A, B, C

4p Î0 a 2 p Î0 a 2

æ 1+ 2 2 ö q2

and D of a square as shown in the following figure. The

æ 1 ö q2

(c) çè ÷ (d) ç 2 + ÷ø direction of electric field at the centre of the square is

2 ø 4p Î0 a 2 è 2 4 p Î0 a 2 parallel to side.

Q.6 The charges on two spheres are +7mC and –5mC D C

(a) AB 4q 3q

respectively. They experience a force F. If each of them is

given an additional charge of –2mC, the new force of (b) CB

attraction will be O

(c) BD q 2q

(a) F (b) F/2 (c) F / 3 (d) 2F (d) AC A B

Q.7 Electric lines of force about negative point charge are Q.13 Three infinitely long non-conducting charge sheets are

(a) Circular, anticlockwise (b) Circular, clockwise placed as shown in figure. The electric field at point P is

(c) Radial, inward (d) Radial, outward 2s $

Q.8 Figure shows the electric lines of force emerging from a (a) k

e0 Z

charged body. If the electric field at A and B are E A and

2s $

(b) – k Z = 3a

EB respectively and if the distance between A and B is r then e0

P

(a) E A > EB 4s $ -2 s Z=a

(c) k

(b) E A < E B e0 x

E A B 4s $ Z=–a

(c) E A = B

r (d) – k

r e0

EB Q.14 Gauss's law is true only if force due to a charge varies as

(d) E A = 2 (a) r–1 (b) r–2 (c) r–3 (d) r–4

r

Q.9 The magnitude of electric field intensity E is such that, Q.15 The electric intensity due to an infinite cylinder of radius

an electron placed in it would experience an electrical R and having charge q per unit length at a distance r(r > R)

force equal to its weight is given by from its axis is

e e2

(a) Directly proprotional to r2

mg

(a) mge (b) (c) mg (d) 2 g (b) Directly proprotional to r3

e m

(c) Inversely proprotional to r

Q.10 A charge particle is free to move in an electric field. It

(d) Inversely proprotional to r2

will travel

Q.16 A sphere of radius R has a uniform distribution of electric

(a) Always along a line of force

charge in its volume. At a distance x from its centre, for

(b) Along a line of force, if its initial velocity is zero

x < R, the eletric field is directly proportional to

(c) Along a line of force, if it has some initial velocity in

the direction of an acute angle with the line of force 1 1

(d) None of the above (a) (b) (c) x (d) x2

x2 x

Q.11 Two point charges Q and –3Q are placed at some distance apart.

Q.17 A charged ball B hangs from a silk thread S, which makes an

If the electric field at the location of Q is E then at the locality

angle q with a large charged conducting sheet P, as shown

5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

RESPONSE

10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

GRID

15. 16.

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in the figure. The surface charge density s of the sheet is (3) If a uniform downward electric field is switched on, T will

proportional to increase

+ (4) If a uniform downward electric field is switched on,

(a) sin q +

P + T will decrease

(b) tan q + q

+ DIRECTIONS (Q.21-Q.23) : Read the passage given below

(c) cos q + S

+ and answer the questions that follows :

(d) cot q B

Q.18 A charge q is placed at the centre of a cube. Then the flux A sphere of radius R contains charge density r (r ) = A( R - r ),

passing through one face of cube will be for 0 < r < R. The total electric charge inside the sphere is Q.

q q q q

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Î0 2 Î0 4 Î 0 6 Î0 Q.21 The value of A in terms of Q and R is

DIRECTIONS (Q.19-Q.20) : In the following questions, 2Q 2 3Q 3Q 2 3Q

(a) (b) (c) (d)

more than one of the answers given are correct. Select pR 4 pR 4 pR 3 pR

the correct answers and mark it according to the following Q.22 The electric field inside the sphere is

codes:

12Q2 é 1 æ r ö 1 æ r ö ù

2

3Q é 1 æ r ö 1 æ r ö ù

2

Codes : (a) ê ç ÷- ç ÷ ú (b) ê ç ÷- ç ÷ ú

Î0 R 2 êë 3 è R ø 4 è R ø úû R3 êë 3 è R ø 4 è R ø úû

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

120Q é 1 æ r ö 1 æ r ö ù 12 é 1 æ r ö 1 æ r ö ù

2 2

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

(c) ê ç ÷ - ç ÷ ú (d) 2 ê ç ÷ - ç ÷ ú

Q.19 A solid sphere S1 is connected to a charge reservoir through 5 Î0 R 2 êë 4 è R ø 3 è R ø úû R Q êë 3 è R ø 4 è R ø úû

a heater H as shown in figure.

Q.23 The electric field outside the sphere is æç k =

S2 1 ö

S1

H è 4 p Î0 ÷ø

Solid Solid

Heater

sphere sphere kQ kQ kQ kQ 2

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Flux through a closed spherical surface around S1 is given r r2 r3 r2

by f = a t2 where a is a constant and t is time in seconds.

If resistance of heater is R then select correct statements DIRECTIONS (Q. 24-Q.26) : Each of these questions

(1) Power consumed by heater will be 4a2e02 Rt2. contains two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and

(2) Electric flux through a closed spherical surface around Statement-2 (Reason). Each of these questions has four

S2 will be – a t2. alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer.

(3) Rate of change of electric flux through a closed You have to select the correct choice.

spherical surface around S2 will be –2a t (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

(4) All of the above are correct correct explanation for Statement-1.

Q.20 A simple pendulum has a time period T. The bob is now (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

given some positive charge – NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

(1) If some positive charge is placed at the point of (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

suspension, T will increases (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

(2) If some positive charge is placed at the point of

suspension, T will not change Q.24 Statement-1 : Electric lines of force cross each other.

Statement-2 : Electric field at a point superimpose to give

GRID 22. 23.

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one resultant electric field. Q.26 Statement-1 : Direction of electric field at a point signifies

Q.25 Statement-1 : A point charge is brought in an electric field. The direction of force experienced by a point charge placed at

field at a nearby point will increase, whatever be the nature of that point.

the charge. Statement-2 : Electric field is a vector quantity.

Statement-2 : The electric field is dependent on the nature of

charge.

Total Questions 26 Total Marks 104

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 25 Qualifying Score 40

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

33

equipotential surfaces, electric dipole)

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 26 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.19) : There are 19 multiple choice Q2. Four equal charges Q are placed at the four corners of a

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), square of each side ' a ' . Work done in removing a charge

out of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. – Q from its centre to infinity is

Q1. In the electric field of a point charge q , a certain charge is 2Q2 2Q2 Q2

carried from point A to B, C, D and E. Then the work done (a) 0 (b) (c) (d)

4pÎ0 a pÎ0 a 2pÎ0 a

by electric force is Q3. A particle A has charge +q and a particle B has charge +4q

A

(a) least along the path AB with each of them having the same mass m. When allowed

(b) least along the path AD to fall from rest through the same electric potential

(c) zero along all the paths AB, vA

B

+q

E difference, the ratio of their speed will become

AC, AD and AE vB

C D (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2

(d) least along AE

(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3.

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Q4. In the figure the charge Q is at the centre of the circle. Q9. Two electric charges 12µC and – 6µC are placed 20 cm

Work done (by electrostatic force on q) is maximum when apart in air. If there will be a point P on the line joining these

another charge q is taken from point P to (consider both charges and outside the region between them, at which the

the charges to be positive) electric potential is zero, then the distance of P from – 6µC

K

P charge is

(a) 0.10 m (b) 0.15 m (c) 0.20 m (d) 0.25 m

Q10. In the rectangle shown below, the two corners have charges

L

Q q1 = –5 mC and q2 = +2.0 mC. The work done by external

agent in moving a charge q = +3.0 mC slowly from B to A is

q1 A

M

N (Take 1/ 4pe 0 =1010 Nm2 /C2 )

(a) K (b) L (c) M (d) N (a) 2.8 J

5 cm

Q5. How much kinetic energy will be gained by an a- particle (b) 3.5 J

in going from a point at 70V to another point at 50V ? (c) 4.5 J

(a) 40 eV (b) 40 keV (c) 40 MeV (d) 0 eV (d) 5.5 J B 15 cm

q 2

Q6. Ten electrons are equally spaced and fixed around a circle Q11. Electric charges q, q, –2q are placed at the corners of an

of radius R. Relative to V = 0 at infinity, the electrostatic equilateral triangle ABC of side l. The magnitude of electric

potential V and the electric field E at the centre C are dipole moment of the system is

ur ur

(a) V ¹ 0 and E ¹ 0 (b) V ¹ 0 and E = 0 (a) ql (b) 2ql (c) 3ql (d) 4ql

ur ur

(c) V = 0 and E = 0 (d) V = 0 and E ¹ 0 Q12. A charge (–q) and another charge (+Q) are kept at two

Q7. The displacement of a charge Q in the electric field points A and B respectively. Keeping the charge (+Q) fixed

ur r at B, the charge (–q) at A is moved to another point C such

E = e1i$ + e2 $j + e3 k$ is r = ai$ + b $j . The work done is that ABC forms an equilateral triangle of side l . The net

work done by electrostatic field in moving the charge (–q)

(a) Q ( ae1 + be2 ) (b) Q ( ae1 )2 + (be2 )2 is

æ 2 2ö 1 Qq 1 Qq

(c) Q ( e1 + e2 ) a 2 + b 2 (d) Q ç e1 + e2 ÷ ( a + b ) (a) 4pÎ0 l (b) 4pÎ 2

è ø 0 l

Q8. As shown in the figure, charges + q and -q are placed at 1

(c) Qql (d) zero

the vertices B and C of an isosceles triangle. The potential 4p Î0

at the vertex A is Q13. In an hydrogen atom, the electron revolves around the

nucleus in an orbit of radius 0.53 × 10–10m. Then the

1 2q

. A electrical potential produced by the nucleus at the position

(a) 4pe0 a 2 + b2 of the electron is

(b) Zero (a) –13.6V (b) –27.2V (c) 27.2V (d) 13.6V

a

1 q Q14. Point charge q1 = 2mC and q 2 = -1mC are kept at points x =

(c) . b b

4pe0 a 2 + b2 B C 0 and x = 6 respectively. Electrical potential will be zero at

+q –q

points

(d)

1 ( -q ) (a) x = 2 and x = 9 (b) x = 1 and x = 5

.

4pe0 a 2 + b2 (c) x = 4 and x = 12 (d) x = -2 and x = 2

4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

RESPONSE

9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

GRID

14.

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Q15. The distance between H+ and Cl– ions in HCl molecule is 1.28 DIRECTIONS (Q.20-Q.21) : In the following questions,

Å. What will be the potential due to this dipole at a distance of more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the

12 Å on the axis of dipole correct answers and mark it according to the following

(a) 0.13 V (b) 1.3 V (c) 13 V (d) 130 V codes:

Q16. Two identical thin rings each of radius R metres are

coaxially placed at a distance R metres apart. If Q1 coulomb Codes :

and Q2 coulomb are respectively the charges uniformly (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

spread on the two rings, the work done by external agent in (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

moving a charge q slowly from the centre of ring with q q 2q

Q20. Consider a system of three charges , and - placed at

charge Q1 to that of other is 3 3 3

point A, B and C respectively, as shown in the figure. Take

q(Q2 - Q1 )( 2 - 1)

(a) zero (b) O to be the centre of the circle of radius R and angle

2.4 p Î0 R CAB = 60°. Choose the incorrect options

q 2(Q1 + Q2 ) q (Q1 + Q2 )( 2 + 1) q

(c) (d) (1) The electric field at point O is

4p Î0 R 4p Î0 R 8pe 0 R 2 y

Q17. Identical point charges, each having + q charge, are fixed directed along the negative x-axis B

at each of the points x = x0 , x = 3x0 , x = 5 x0 ......... (2) The potential energy of the

C

infinite, on the x-axis and a identical point charges, each system is zero O

x

60°

q

(3) The potential at point O is A

x = 2 x0 , x = 4 x0 , x = 6 x0 ... .... i nfinit e. Her e x0 is a 12pe 0 R

positive constant. Potential at the origin due to the above (4) The magnitude of the force between the charges at C

system of charges is q2

and B is

q 54pe 0 R 2

(a) 0 (b)

8pÎ0 x0 ln 2 Q21. For spherical symmetrical charge distribution, variation

q ln 2 of electric potential with distance from centre is given in

(c) ¥ (d)

4pÎ0 x0 q q

diagram. Given that : V = for r £ R0 and V =

Q18. A uniform electric field pointing in positive x - direction 4pe 0 R 0 4 pe 0r

V

exists in a region. Let A be the origin, B be the point on the for r ³ R0

x - axis at x = +1 cm and C be the point on the y - axis at Then which option (s) are correct :

y = +1 cm. Then the potentials at the points A, B and C (1) Total charge within 2R0 is q

(2) Total electrostatic energy r

satisfy

for r £ R0 is non-zero r = R0

(a) VA < VB (b) VA > VB (c) VA < VC (d) VA > VC (3) At r = R0 electric field is discontinuous

Q19. A point Q lies on the perpendicular bisector of an electrical (4) There will be no charge anywhere except at r < R0.

dipole of dipole moment p . If the distance of Q from the

DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.23) : Read the passage given below

dipole is r (much larger than the size of the dipole), then

and answer the questions that follows :

electric field at Q is proportional to

(a) P–1and r –2 (b) p and r–2 An electric dipole (AB) consisting of two particles of equal and

opposite charge and same mass is released in an electric field.

(c) P2 and r–3 (d) p and r–3

In the figure field lines are without considering effect of field

of dipole.

GRID 20. 21.

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DIRECTIONS (Q. 24-Q.26) : Each of these questions contains

B +q two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2

y

(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,

–q only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the

A correct choice.

x

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

correct explanation for Statement-1.

Q22. The centre of mass of the dipole (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

(a) Has no acceleration NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

(b) Has acceleration with positive x and y components (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

(c) Has acceleration with positive x component and nega- (d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

tive y component Q24. Statement -1 : A bird perches on a high power line and

(d) Has acceleration with negative x component and posi- nothing happens to the bird.

tive y component Statement -2 : The level of bird is very high from the

Q23. Angular acceleration of the dipole, immediately after it is ground.

released Q25. Statement -1 : Electrons move away from a low potential

(a) is zero to high potential region.

(b) is clockwise Statement- 2 : Because electrons have negative charge

(c) is anticlockwise Q26. Statement -1 : Surface of a symmetrical conductor can

(d) cannot be determined from the given information. be treated as equipotential surface.

Statement -2 : Charges can easily flow in a conductor.

Total Questions 26 Total Marks 104

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 26 Qualifying Score 42

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

34

Max. Marks : 96 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 24 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out (a) (b)

4pÎ0 l 4pÎ0 l

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct.

1 3q 2 1 4q 2

Q.1 Three charges Q, + q and + q are placed at the vertices of (c) 4pÎ0 l

(d) 4pÎ0 l

right-angled isosceles triangle as shown in the figure. The

Q.3 If identical charges (-q) are placed at each corner of a cube

net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero if Q is

equal to Q of side b , then electric potential energy of charge

(+q) which is placed at centre of the cube will be

-q -2q

(a) (b) 8 2q2 -8 2q 2

1+ 2 2+ 2 (a) (b)

(c) –2q (d) + q

+q +q 4pÎ0 b p Î0 b

a

Q.2 Three charges of equal value ‘q’ are placed at the vertices -4 2q 2 -4q2

of an equilateral triangle. What is the net potential energy, (c) (d)

pÎ0 b 3pÎ0 b

if the side of equilateral Dis l ?

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.4 Two charges q1 and q2 are placed 30 cm apart, shown in (a) decreases (b) increases

(c) remains unchanged (d) becomes zero

the figure. A third charge q3 is moved along the arc of a Q.9 Two identical charges are placed at the two corners of an

circle of radius 40 cm from C to D. The change in the equilateral triangle. The potential energy of the system is

U. The work done in bringing an identical charge from

q3

potential energy of the system is k , here k is infinity to the third vertex is

4pÎ0 (a) U (b) 2U (c) 3U (d) zero

(a) 8q2 q3

Q.10 Potential energy of two equal negative point charges 2mC

C held 1 m apart in air is

(b) 8q1 (a) 2 J (b) 2eV (c) 4 J (d) 0.036 J

(c) 6q2 40 cm

Q.11 Four charges + q, –q, + q and –q are put together on four

q2

corners of a square as shown in figure. The work done by

(d) 6q1 q1

D

external agent in slowly assembling this configuration is

A 30 cm B

+q –q

at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side 10 cm. The

electrostatic potential energy of the system is (Given

–q +q

1

= 9 ´109 N m 2 /C2 ) (a) zero (b) –2.59kq2/a

4p Î0

(c) +2.59kq2/a (d) none of these

(a) Zero (b) Infinite (c) 27 J (d) 100 J Q.12 As shown in figure a dust particle with mass m = 5.0 × 10 –9

Q.6 Two equal charges q are placed at a distance of 2a and a kg and charge q0 = 2.0 nC starts from rest at point a and

third charge -2q is placed at the midpoint. The potential moves in a straight line to point b . What is its speed v at

point b?

energy of the system is

3.0 nC a b –3.0 nC

q2 6q 2 –

(a) (b) 1.0 cm 1.0 cm 1.0 cm

8p Î0 a 8p Î0 a

(c) – (d)

8p Î0 a 8p Î0 a Q.13 Charges –q, Q and –q are placed at equal distance on a

Q.7 An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charge is q and straight line. If the total potential energy of the system of

its dipole moment is p . It is placed in a uniform electric three charges is zero, then find the ratio Q/q.

–q –q

field E. If its dipole moment is along the direction of the Q

r r

field, the force on it and its potential energy are

2r

respectively

(a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 (c) 2/3 (d) 3/4

(a) 2q.E and minimum (b) q.E and p.E Q.14 When the separation between two charges is increased,

(c) Zero and minimum (d) q.E and maximum the electric potential energy of the charges

Q8 In bringing an electron towards another electron, (a) increases (b) decreases

electrostatic potential energy of the system: (c) remains the same (d) may increase or decrease

4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

RESPONSE

9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

GRID

14.

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DPP/ P 34 3

Q.15 A positive charge is moved from a low potential point A to Q.18 A proton moves a distance d in a uniform electric field

high potential point B. Then the electric potential energy ®

E as shown in the figure. Then which of the following

of the system statements are correct ?

(a) increases ®

(b) decreases E

(c) will remain the same

(d) nothing definite can be predicted +

Q.16 If V and u are electric potential and energy density, p

respectively, at a distance r from a positive point charge, d

then which of the following graph is correct ? (1) Electric field do a negative work on the proton

4 4

V V (2) Electric potential energy of the proton increases

(3) Electric field do a positive work on the proton

(a) (b)

(4) Electric potential energy of the proton decreases

u u

V

4

V

4 DIRECTIONS (Q.19-Q.21) : Read the passage given below

and answer the questions that follows :

(c) (d) Three concentric spherical conductors A, B and C of radii R, 2R

u u

and 4R respectively. A and C is shorted and B is uniformly

DIRECTIONS (Q.17-Q.18) : In the following questions, charged.

more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the C

B +

correct answers and mark it according to the following +

+ +

+

A

codes: + +

+ +

Codes : 4R +

+

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct R +

+

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct +

2R +

+

+

Q.17 S is a solid neutral conducting sphere. A point charge q of + +

and AB is a tangent. BC = 3m and AB = 4m. (a) Q/3 (b) – Q/3

A B (c) 2Q/3 (d) None of these

Q.20 Potential at A is

Q Q

(a) (b)

4pe 0 R 16 pe0 R

S Q

(c) (d) None of these

20pe0 R

(1) The electric potential of the conductor is 1.8 kV

Q.21 Potential at B is

(2) The electric potential of the conductor is 2.25 kV

Q Q

(3) The electric potential at B due to induced charges on (a) (b)

the sphere is – 0.45 kV 4 pe 0 R 16 pe0 R

(4) The electric potential at B due to induced charges on 5Q

(c) (d) None of these

the sphere is 0.45 kV 48pe0 R

GRID 20. 21.

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EBD_7156

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DIRECTIONS (Q. 22-Q.24) : Each of these questions contains Statement-2 : Inside the sphere electric potential is same

two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 at each point, but outside it is different for different points.

(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices, Q.23 Statement-1 : Electric potential of earth is taken to be

only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the zero as a reference.

correct choice. Statement-2 : The electric field produced by earth in

surrounding space is zero.

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

Q.24 Statement - 1 : The electric potential and the electric field

correct explanation for Statement-1.

intensity at the centre of a square having four fixed point

(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

charges at their vertices as shown in figure are zero.

NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

(c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True. +q –q

(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

Q.22 Statement-1 : No work is done in taking a small positive

charge from one point to other inside a positively charged

metallic sphere while outside the sphere work is done in

taking the charge towards the sphere. Neglect induction

–q +q

due to small charge.

Statement - 2 : If electric potential at a point is zero then

the magnitude of electric field at that point must be zero.

Total Questions 24 Total Marks 96

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 22 Qualifying Score 39

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

35

Max. Marks : 96 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 24 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

(a) , (b) ,

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out 2d 2d 2d 2d

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. e 0 AV -2e0 AV

(c) ,

Q.1 A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a potential d d –

1 2 3 4 5

difference of 50V. It is discharged through a resistance. -e 0 AV -2e0 AV +

V

d d

becomes 40V. Then Q.3 Figure given below shows two identical parallel plate capacitors

(a) Fraction of stored energy after 1 second is 16/25 connected to a battery with switch S closed. The switch is now opened

(b) Potential difference between the plates after 2 and the free space between the plates of capacitors is filled with a

seconds will be 30V dielectric of dielectric constant 3. What will be the ratio of total

(c) Potential difference between the plates after 2 electrostatic energy stored in both capacitors before and after the

seconds will be 20V introduction of the dielectric?

(d) Fraction of stored energy after 1 second is 4/5 (a) 3:1

Q.2 Five identical plates each of area A are joined as shown in

(b) 5:1 V A B

the figure. The distance between the plates is d. The plates

are connected to a potential difference of V volts. The (c) 3:5

charge on plates 1 and 4 will be respectively (d) 5:3

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.4 All six capacitors shown are identical, Each can withstand 2e 0 A

(a) ( K1 + K2 )

maximum 200 volts between its terminals. The maximum d

voltage that can be safely applied between A and B is 2e0 A æ K1 + K 2 ö

(a) 1200 V (b) ç ÷

d è K1 ´ K2 ø K1

(b) 400 V A B

d

(c) 800 V 4e0 A æ K1 ´ K 2 ö K2

(c) ç ÷

(d) 200 V d è K1 + K 2 ø

Q.5 A capacitor of capacity C1 is charged upto V volt and then 2e0 A æ K1 ´ K 2 ö

connected to an uncharged capacitor of capacity C2. Then (d) ç ÷

d è K1 + K 2 ø

final potential difference across each will be Q.10 Eight drops of mercury of equal radii possessing equal

C2V æ C2 ö C1V æ C2 ö charges combine to form a big drop. Then the capacitance

(a) C1 + C2

(b) çè 1 + C ÷ø V (c) C + C (d) çè 1 - C ÷ø V of bigger drop compared to each individual small drop is

1 1 2 1

Q.6 Two capacitors of capacitances 3mFand 6mFare charged to a (a) 8 times (b) 4 times

potential of 12V each. They are now connected to each other, (c) 2 times (d) 32 times

with the positive plate of each joined to the negative plate Q.11 Separation between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor

of the other. The potential difference across each will be is d and the area of each plate is A. When a slab of material

(a) 6 volt (b) 4 volt of dielectric constant k and thickness t(t < d) is introduced

(c) 3 volt (d) zero between the plates, its capacitance becomes

Q.7 In the figure a capacitor is filled with dielectrics K1, K2 e0 A e0 A

(a) (b) æ 1ö

and K3. The resultant capacitance is æ 1ö

d + t ç1 - ÷ d + t ç1 + ÷

è kø è kø

2e 0 A é 1 1 1 ù A/2 A/2

(a) ê + + ú (c)

e0 A

(d)

e0 A

d ë K1 K 2 K3 û d/2 K1 æ 1ö æ 1ö

d d - t ç1 - ÷ d - t ç1 + ÷

e0 A é 1 1 1 ù K3

è kø è kø

(b) ê + + ú K2

Q.12 There is an air filled 1pF parallel plate capacitor. When

d ë K1 K 2 K3 û

the plate separation is doubled and the space is filled with

2e 0 A

(c) [ K1 + K2 + K3 ] wax, the capacitance increases to 2pF. The dielectric

d

(d) None of these constant of wax is

Q.8 The resultant capacitance of given circut is (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

Q.13 Between the plates of a parallel plate condenser, a plate of

(a) 3C P

2C

thickness t1 and dielectric constant k1 is placed. In the rest

(b) 2C 2C

of the space, there is another plate of thickness t 2 and

(c) C 2C

dielectric constant k2 . The potential difference across the

C

C C C condenser will be

(d)

3 Q

Q æ t1 t ö e 0Q æ t1 t ö

Q.9 Two dielectric slabs of constant K1 and K2 have been filled (a) ç + 2 ÷ (b) ç + 2 ÷

Ae0 è K1 K 2 ø A è K1 K 2 ø

in between the plates of a capacitor as shown below. What

will be the capacitance of the capacitor Q æ K1 K 2 ö e0 Q

(c) ç + ÷ (d) ( K1t1 + K 2 t2 )

Ae0 è t1 t2 ø A

RESPONSE 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

GRID 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

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DPP/ P 35 3

Q.14 A parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging battery Q.18 The capacitance of a parallel plate condenser depends on

is then disconnected. If the plates of the capacitor are moved (1) Area of the plates

further apart by means of insulating handles, then (2) Medium between the plates

(a) The charge on the capacitor increases (3) Distance between the plates

(b) The voltage across the plates decreases (4) Metal of the plates

(c) The capacitance increases

(d) The electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor DIRECTIONS (Q.19-Q.21) : Read the passage given below and

increases answer the questions that follows :

Q.15 A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and plates separation Capacitor C3 in the circuit is variable capacitor (its capacitance

distance d is charged by applying a potential V0 between the can be varied). Graph is plotted between potential difference V1

plates. The dielectric constant of the medium between the (across capacitor C1) versus C3.

plates is K. What is the uniform electric field E between the Electric potential V1 approaches on asymptote of 10 volts as

plates of the capacitor ? C3 ® ¥.

V1

CV0 V0

(a) E = Î0 (b) E= 10

KA Kd C1 8

6

V0 Kv 0 d V 4

C2 C3

(c) E= (d) E = 2

KA Î0 A C3

2 4 6 8

DIRECTIONS (Q.16-Q.18) : In the following questions, more

C1

than one of the answers given are correct. Select the correct Q.19 The ratio of the capacitance will be

answers and mark it according to the following codes: C2

(a) 2 / 3 (b) 4 / 3 (c) 3 / 4 (d) 3 / 2

Codes : Q.20 The value of C3 for which potential difference across C1

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct will become 8V, is

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct (a) 1.5C1 (b) 2.5C1 (c) 3.5 C1 (d) 4.5 C1

Q.16 A parallel plate air condenser is connected with a battery. Q.21 The ratio of energy stored in capacitor C1 to that of total

Its charge, potenital difference, electric field and energy are energy when C3 ® ¥ is

Q0 , V0 , E0 , and U0 , respectively. In order to fill the complete (a) zero (b) 1/3

space between the plates a dielectric slab is inserted, the (c) 1 (d) Data insufficient

battery is still connected. Now the corresponding values Q,

V, E and U are in relation with the initially stated as DIRECTIONS (Q. 22-Q.24) : Each of these questions contains

(1) V > V0 (2) Q > Q0 (3) E > E0 (4) U > U0 two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2

Q.17 The false statement are, on increasing the distance between (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,

the plates of a parallel plate condenser, only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the

(1) The electric field intensity between the plates will correct choice.

decrease

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

(2) The electric field intensity between the plates will

correct explanation for Statement-1.

increase

(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

(3) The P. D. between the plates will decrease

(4) The electric field intensity between the plates will NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

remain unchanged (c) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

(d) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

GRID 19. 20. 21.

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EBD_7156

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Q.22 Statement-1 : The force with which one plate of a parallel Statement-2 : The capacitors are very delicate and so quickly

plate capacitor is attracted towards the other plate is equal break down.

to square of surface density per 2 Î0 per unit area. Q.24 Statement-1 : If the distance between parallel plates of a

Statement-2 : The electric field due to one charged plate capacitor is halved and dielectric constant is made three

of the capacitor at the location of the other is equal to times, then the capacitance becomes 6 times.

surface density per 2 Î0. Statement-1 : Capacitance of the capacitor does not

Q.23 Statement-1 : Circuit containing capacitors should be depend upon the nature of the material of plates.

handled cautiously even when there is no current.

Total Questions 24 Total Marks 96

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 22 Qualifying Score 40

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

SYLLABUS : CURRENT ELECTRICITY – 1 (Electric Current, drift velocity, Ohm's law, Electrical resistance,

36

Resistances of different materials, V-I characteristics of Ohm and non-ohmic conductors, electrical energy and power,

Electrical resistivity, Colour code of resistors, Temperature dependance of resistance)

Max. Marks : 92 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 23 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

1W 1W 1W 1W

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.14) : There are 14 multiple choice (a) 4 W A

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out (b) 8 W

2W 1W

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. (c) 6 W 2W 2W

resistances is– Q.3 How will reading in the ammeter Switch

3W A be affected if an other

(a) 1/3 identical bulb Q is connected in Mains

3A 1W P Q

(b) 2/3 parallel to P as shown in the fig.

X Y Z

(c) 1 The voltage in the mains is

6W maintained at constant value A

(d) 2 (a) the reading will be reduced to one half.

Q.2 The resultant resistance between the points A and B in the (b) the reading will be double of previous one.

following fig. will be – (c) the reading will not be affected.

(d) the reading will increase four fold.

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.4 In the circuit shown, the galvanometer G reads zero. If Q.10 In the fig. shown, Calculate the current through 3 ohm

batteries have negligible internal resistances, the value of resistor. The emf of battery is 2 volt and its internal

resistance X wil be – resistance is 2/3 ohm.

(a) 10 W

(b) 100 W

(c) 200 W

(d) 500 W

Q.5 A cylindrical wire is stretched to increase its length by

10%. The percentage increase in the resistance of the wire (a) 0.33 amp. (b) 0.44 amp.

will be– (c) 1.22 amp. (d) 0.88 amp.

(a) 20% (b) 21% (c) 22% (d) 24% Q.11 The current in the given circuit will be

Q.6 In the figure, the equivalent resistance between A and B is–

1

(a) 2R/3 (a) A

45 i

(b) R/3 1

(c) R (b) A 30 W

15 2V 30 W

(d) 3R 1

(c) A

Q.7 In the adjoining network of resistors, each is of resistance 10 30 W

r ohm, the equivalent resistance between points A and B is–

(a) 5r 1

(d) A

5

(b) 2r/3 Q.12 The equivalent resistance of the following infinite network

(c) r of resistance is

(d) r/2. 2W 2W 2W

Q.8 In the figure a carbon resistor has bands of different

2W 2W 2W

colours on its body as mentioned in the figure. The value

of the resistance is Silver

(a) 2.2 k W 2W 2W 2W

(b) 3.3 k W (a) Less than 4 W

(c) 5.6 k W (b) 4W

White

(d) 9.1 k W Brown Red (c) More than 4W but less than 12W

Q.9 Two wires of same material have length L and 2L and cross- (d) 12 W

sectional areas 4A and A respectively. The ratio of their Q.13 A heater coil connected to a supply of a 220 V is dissipating

specific resistance would be some power P1. The coil is cut into half and the two halves

(a) 1 : 2 (b) 8 : 1 (c) 1 : 8 (d) 1 : 1 are connected in parallel. The heater now dissipates a power

P2. The ratio of power P1 : P2 is

(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1

RESPONSE 4. 5. 6. 7. 8.

GRID 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

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DPP/ P 36 3

Q.14 An electric lamp is marked 60 W, 230 V. The cost of a 1 (1) The potential difference across RL is 18 V

kWh of energy is ` 1.25. The cost of using this lamp 8 hrs (2) The current I through the battery is 7.5 mA

a day for 30 days is (approximately) (3) Ratio of powers dissipated in R1 and R2 is 3

(a) ` 10 (b) ` 16 (c) ` 18 (d) ` 20 (4) If R1 and R2 are interchanged magnitude of the power

dissipated in RL will decrease by a factor of 9

DIRECTIONS (Q.15-Q.17) : In the following questions,

more than one .of the answers given are correct. Select the DIRECTIONS (Q.18-Q.20) : Read the passage given below

correct answers and mark it according to the following and answer the questions that follows :

codes: In the circuit shown in the figure,

Codes : 1W 12 V

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

Q.15 In the fig below the bulbs are identical, The bulbs, light

most brightly are

5W

E F Q.18 Rate of conversion of chemical energy within the battery

is

(a) 24 W (b) 20 W (c) 4 W (d) 14 W

A

B C Q.19 Rate of dissipation of electrical energy in battery is

(a) 24 W (b) 20 W (c) 4 W (d) 14 W

Q.20 Rate of dissipation of electrical energy in external resistor

P D Q

is

(a) 4 W (b) 20 W (c) 14 W (d) 24 W

(1) A (2) B (3) F (4) D DIRECTIONS (Q. 21-Q.23) : Each of these questions contains

Q.16 An electric kettle has two heating coils. When one of the two statements': Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2

coils is switched on, the water begins to boil in 6 minutes. (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,

When the other is switched on, the boiling begins in 8 only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the

minutes. The time when the boiling begin if both coils are correct choice.

switched on simultaneously is (i) in series (ii) in

parallel (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

(1) 14 min in series (2) 3.43 min in parallel correct explanation for Statement-1.

(3) 3.43 min in series (4) 14 min in parallel (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

Q.17 For the circuit shown in the figure NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

(c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

Q.21 Statement-1 : The resistivity of a semiconductor decreases

with temperature.

Statement-2 : The atoms of a semiconductor vibrate with

larger amplitude at higher temperatures thereby increasing

its resistivity.

GRID 19. 20. 21.

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Q.22 Statement-1 : In a simple battery circuit the point of lowest Q.23 Statement-1 : The temperature coefficient of resistance is

potential is negative terminal of the battery. positive for metals and negative for p-type semiconductor.

Statement-2 : The current flows towards the point of the Statement-2 : The effective charge carriers in metals are

higher potential as it flows in such a circuit from the negatively charged whereas in p-type semiconductor they

negative to the positive terminal. are positively charged.

Total Questions 23 Total Marks 92

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 24 Qualifying Score 40

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

37

SYLLABUS : CURRENT ELECTRICITY – 2 Electrical cell and its internal resistance, Potential difference and E.M.F

of a cell, Combination of cells in series and in parallel, Kirchoff's laws and their applications, RC transient circuit,

Galvanometer, Ammeter, Voltmeter]

Max. Marks : 104 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 26 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.18) : There are 18 multiple choice (a) G/10 (b) G/100 (c) G/99 (d) G/999

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out Q.3 The shunt required for 10% of main current to be sent

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct. through the moving coil galvanometer of resistance 99W

will be-

Q.1 The voltmeter shown in fig, reads 6V across the 60 W

(a) 0.9 W (b) 11 W (c) 90 W (d) 9.9 W

resistor. Then the resistance of the voltmeter is-

Q.4 The reading of voltmeter in the following circuit will be-

(a) 0 W

(b) ¥ W 20 W 80 W

(c) 200 W

V

(d) 300 W

®

80 W

Q.2 If only one hundredth part of total current flowing in the

+ –

circuit is to be passed through a galvanometer of resistance 2V

GW, Then the value of shunt resistance required will be- (a) 2 volt (b) 0.80 volt (c) 1.33 volt (d) 1.60 volt

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.5 The figure below shows currents in a part of electric circuit. Q.11 To get the maximum current from a parallel combination

The current i is 2 amp 1 amp of n identical cells each of internal resistance r in an

(a) 1.7 amp external resistance R,

(b) 3.7 amp 1.3 amp (a) R >> r (b) R << r (c) R > r (d) R = r

(c) 1.3 amp 2 amp Q.12 In the circuit shown below, if the value of R is increased

(d) 1 amp then what will be the effect on the reading of ammeter if

i

the internal resistance of cell is negligible-

Q.6 A voltmeter can measure upto 25 volt and its resistance is

1000 W. The resistance required to add with voltmeter to

measure upto 250 volt will be-

(a) 9000 W (b) 1000 W (c) 2500 W (d) 900 W

Q.7 When a Laclanche cell is connected to a 10W resistance

then a current of 0.25 ampere flows in the circuit. If the (a) The reading of ammeter will decrease

resistance is reduced to 4W then current becomes (b) The reading of ammeter will increase

0.5ampere. The internal resistance of galvanometer will be- (c) The reading of ammeter will remain unchanged

(a) 1.5 W (b) 0.5 W (c) 1 W (d) 2 W (d) The reading of ammeter will become zero.

Q.8 Consider the circuit shown in the figure. The value of Q.13 Twelve wires of equal length and same cross-section are

current I3 is connected in the form of a cube. If the resistance of each

28 W 54 W

(a) 5 A B of the wires is R, then the effective resistance between

the two diagonal ends would be

(b) 3 A (a) 2 R

6V

(c) – 3 A I3 (b) 12 R

(d) – 5/6 A 5

8V 12 V (c) R

6

Q.9 If VB – VA = 4 V in the given figure, then resistance X will

(d) 8 R

be

Q.14 The arrangement as shown in figure is called as

10 W 5V

(a) 5 W

(a) Potential divider ( )

(b) 10 W A B (b) Potential adder

Total P.D.

(c) 15 W

(c) Potential substracter

2V X

(d) 20 W

(d) Potential multiplier Variable P.D.

Q.10 In the given circuit the current I1 is

Q.15 When a cell of emf E and internal resistance r, is connected

(a) 0.4 A to the ends of a resistance R, then current through

30 W

I1 resistance is I. If the same cell is connected to the ends of

(b) – 0.4 A a resistance R/2 then the current would be-

I2

40 W 40 V I3 (a) less than I

(c) 0.8 A (b) I

40 W

(c) greater then I but less than 2I

(d) – 0.8 A 80 V

(d) greater than 2I

5. 6. 7. 8. 9.

RESPONSE

10. 11. 12. 13. 14.

GRID

15.

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Q.16 The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is Q.21 A microammeter has a resistance of 100W and a full scale

(a) Zero (b) Very low range of 50 µA. It can be used as a voltmeter or a higher

(c) Very large (d) Infinite range ammeter provided a resistance is added to it. Pick

Q.17 An ammeter with internal resistance 90 W reads 1.85 A the correct range and resistance combination(s).

when connected in a circuit containing a battery and two (1) 10V range with 200 kW resistance in series.

resistors 700 W and 410 W in series. Actual current will (2) 50V range with 10 kW resistance in series.

be (3) 5 mA range with 1W resistance in parallel.

(a) 1.85 A (b) Greater than 1.85 A (4) 10 mA range with 1 kW resistance in parallel.

(c) Less than 1.85 A (d) None of these

Q.18 The figure shows a network of currents. The magnitude of DIRECTIONS (Q.22-Q.23) : Read the passage given below

currents is shown here. The current I will be and answer the questions that follows :

1A A 6V battery of negligible internal resistance is connected across

a uniform wire AB of length 100cm. The positive terminal of

another battery of emf 4V and internal resistance 1W is joined

10 A I to the point A as shown in figure. Take the potential at B to be

zero.

6A 6V

2A

A B

(a) 3 A (b) 9 A D C

(c) 13 A (d) 19 A

4V 1

DIRECTIONS (Q.19-Q.21) : In the following questions, Q.22 What are the potentials at points A and C ?

more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the (a) 6V, 2V (b) 8V, 4V

correct answers and mark it according to the following (c) 6V, 4V (d) 8V, 3V

codes: Q.23 If the points C and D are connected by a wire, what will be

Codes : the current through it ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct (a) zero (b) 1A

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct (c) 2A (d) 3A

Q.19 In the figure,

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 24-Q.26) : Each of these questions contains

X E r Y two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2

15 V 6V (Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,

(1) current may flow from X to Y only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the

(2) current may flow from Y to X correct choice.

(3) current’s direction depends on E (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

(4) current’s direction depends on r correct explanation for Statement-1.

Q.20 Kirchoff’s laws are based on conservation of (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

(1) charge (2) potential NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

(3) energy (4) mass (c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

GRID 21. 22. 23.

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Q.24 Statement -1 : Voltameter measures current more Q.26 Statement - 1 : In the circuit shown, Vab or Va – Vb = 0,

accurately than ammeter. if

I = 2A.

Statement -2 : Relative error will be small if measured

from voltameter.

a 4V 2 b

Q.25 Statement - 1 : A larger dry cell has higher emf.

Statement - 2 : Potential difference across the

Statement - 2 : The emf of a dry cell is independent of its size. terminals of a non ideal battery is less than its emf when a

current flows through it.

Total Questions 26 Total Marks 104

Attem pted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 26 Qualifying Score 42

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

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Name : Date :

SYLLABUS : CURRENT ELECTRICITY-3 : Wheatstone bridge, Meter bridge, Potentiometer-principle and its

38

applications.

Max. Marks : 100 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 25 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.16) : There are 16 multiple choice Q.3 In a potentiometer experiment the balancing with a cell is

questions. Each question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d), out at length 240 cm. On shunting the cell with a resistance of

2 W, the balancing length becomes 120 cm. The internal

of which ONLY ONE choice is correct.

resistance of the cell is

Q.1 A Potentiometer wire of length 1 m is connected in series (a) 4 W (b) 2 W (c) 1 W (d) 0.5 W

with 490 W resistance and 2V battery. If 0.2 mV/cm is the Q.4 A potentiometer consists of a wire of length 4 m and

potential gradient, then resistance of the potentiometer resistance 10 W . It is connected to cell of emf 2 V. The

wire is potential difference per unit length of the wire will be

(a) 4.9 W (b) 7.9 W (c) 5.9 W (d) 6.9 W (a) 0.5 V/m (b) 10 V/m (c) 2 V/m (d) 5 V/m

Q.2 Two resistances are connected in two gaps of a metre Q.5 In given figure, the potentiometer wire AB has a resistance

bridge. The balance point is 20 cm from the zero end. A of 5 W and length 10 m. The balancing length AM for the

resistance of 15 ohms is connected in series with the emf of 0.4 V is

smaller of the two. The null point shifts to 40 cm. The (a) 0.4 m

(b) 4 m

value of the smaller resistance in ohm is

(c) 0.8 m

(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 12 (d) 8 m

RESPONSE GRID 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Space for Rough Work

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Q.6 In the circuit shown in the figure, the current flowing in (a) 33.3 cm (b) 66.67 cm (c) 25 cm (d) 50 cm

2W resistance Q.12 A potentiometer has uniform potential gradient across it.

10 W 2W

(a) 1.4 A Two cells connected in series (i) to support each other

1.4 A and (ii) to oppose each other are blanced over 6m and 2m

(b) 1.2 A G

respectively on the potentiometer wire. The e.m.f’s of the

(c) 0.4 A cells are in the ratio of

25 W 5W

(d) 1.0 A (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 2 : 1

Q.7 For the post office box arrangement to determine the value Q.13 In a potentiometer experiment two cells of e.m.f E1 and E2

of unknown resistance the unknown resistance should be are used in series and in conjunction and the balancing

connected between length is found to be 58 cm of the wire. If the polarity of

E2 is reversed, then the balancing length becomes 29 cm.

E1

The ratio E of the e.m.f. of the two cells is

2

(a) 1:1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 4 : 1

Q.14 The resistance of a 10 meter long potentiometer wire is

1 ohm/metre. A cell of e.m.f. 2.2 volts and a high resistance

box are connected in series with this wire. The value of

(a) B and C (b) C and D (c) A and D (d) B1and C1 resistance taken from resistance box for getting potential

Q.8 The e.m.f. of a standard cell balances across 150 cm length gradient of 2.2 millivolt/metre will be

of a wire of potentiometer. When a resistance of 2W is (a) 790 W (b) 810 W (c) 990 W (d) 1000 W

connected as a shunt with the cell, the balance point is Q.15 In the shown arrangement of the experiment of the meter

obtained at 100 cm. The internal resistance of the cell is bridge if AC correspondin g to null deflection of

(a) 0.1 W (b) 1W (c) 2W (d) 0.5W galvanometer is x, what would be its value if the radius of

Q.9 Five resistors are connected as shown in the diagram. The the wire AB is doubled

equivalent resistance between A and B is C

(a) 6 W 5W 4W

(b) 9 W 9W R1 R2

A B

(c) 12 W 10 W 8W

(d) 15 W D G

Q.10 A potentiometer has uniform potential gradient. The B

A x C

specific resistance of the material of the potentiometer

wire is 10–7 ohm-meter and the current passing through it (a) x (b) x / 4 (c) 4x (d) 2x

is 0.1 ampere; cross-section of the wire is 10–6m2. The Q.16 In meter bridge or Wheatstone bridge for measurement of

potential gradient along the potentiometer wire is resistance, the known and the unknown resistances are

(a) 10–4 V/m (b) 10–6 V/m interchanged. The error so removed is

–2

(c) 10 V/m (d) 10–8 V/m (a) End correction

Q.11 Resistance in the two gaps of a meter bridge are 10 ohm (b) Index error

and 30 ohm respectively. If the resistances are interchanged (c) Due to temperature effect

the balance point shifts by (d) Random error

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

RESPONSE

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

GRID

16.

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DIRECTIONS (Q.17-Q.19) : In the following questions, DIRECTIONS (Q.20-Q.22) : Read the passage given below

more than one of the answers given are correct. Select the and answer the questions that follows :

correct answ]ers and mark it according to the following

codes: A battery is connected to a potentiometer and a balance point is

obtained at 84 cm along the wire. When its terminals are

Codes :

connected by a 5W resistor, the balance point changes to 70 cm

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct

Q.20 Calculate the internal resistance of the cell.

(c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct

Q.17 Which of the following statements are correct? (a) 4 W (b) 2 W (c) 5 W (d) 1 W

(1) Voltmeter should have high resistance. Q.21 Find the new position of the balance point when 5W

(2) Ammeter should have low resistance. resistance is replaced by 4W resistor.

(3) Voltmeter is placed in parallel across the conductor (a) 26.5 cm (b) 52 cm (c) 67.2 cm (d) 83.3 cm

in a circuit. Q.22 How can we change a galvanometer with Re = 20.0W and

(4) Ammeter is placed in parallel across the conductor Ifs = 0.00100 A into a voltmeter with a maximum range of

in a circuit. 10.0 V?

Q.18 Which are correct statements? (a) By adding a resistance 9980 W in parallel with the

(1) The Wheatstone bridge is most sensitive when all the galvanometer

four resistances are of the same order (b) By adding a resistance 9980 W in series with the

(2) Kirchhoff’s first law (for currents meeting at a junction in galvanometer

an electric circuit) expresses the conservtion of charge. (c) By adding a resistance 8890 W in parallel with the

(3) The rheostat can be used as a potential divider. galvanometer

(4) In a balanced Wheatstone bridge, interchanging the (d) By adding a resistance 8890 W in series with the

positions of galvanometer and cell affects the balance galvanometer

of the bridge.

Q.19 Figure shows a balanced Wheatstone's bridge DIRECTIONS (Q. 23-Q.25) : Each of these questions contains

R = 5W Q = 50W two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2

(Reason). Each of these questions has four alternative choices,

A C only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the

S = 10W P = 100W correct choice.

(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a

correct explanation for Statement-1.

G (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is

NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1.

(1) If P is slightly increased, the current in the

(c) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.

galvanometer flows from A to C.

(d) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.

(2) If P is slightly increased, the current in the

galvanometer flows from C to A. Q.23 Statement -1 : In meter bridge experiment, a high

(3) If Q is slightly increased, the current in the resistance is always connected in series with a

galvanometer flows from C to A. galvanometer.

(4) If Q is slightly increased, the current in the Statement -2 : As resistance increases current through the

galvanometer flows from A to C. circuit increases.

GRID 22. 23.

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Q.24 Statement -1: A potentiometer of longer length is used Q.25 Statement -1: The e.m.f. of the driver cell in the

for accurate measurement. potentiometer experiment should be greater than the e.m.f.

Statement -2: The potential gradient for a potentiometer of the cell to be determined.

of longer length with a given source of e.m.f. becomes Statement -2: The fall of potential across the

small. potentiometer wire should not be less than the e.m.f. of

the cell to be determined.

Total Questions 25 Total Marks 100

Attempted Correct

Incorrect N et Score

Cut-off Score 26 Qualifying Score 44

Success Gap = Net Score – Qualifying Score

Net Score = (Correct × 4) – (Incorrect × 1)

t.me/Ebooks_Encyclopedia27. t.me/Magazines4all

Name : Date :

SYLLABUS : MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT-1 (Magnetic field due to current carrying wires, Biot savart law)

39

Max. Marks : 108 Time : 60 min.

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

• The Daily Practice Problem Sheet contains 27 MCQ's. For each question only one option is correct. Darken the correct

circle/ bubble in the Response Grid provided on each page.

• You have to evaluate your Response Grids yourself with the help of solution booklet.

• Each correct answer will get you 4 marks and 1 mark shall be deduced for each incorrect answer. No mark will be given/

deducted if no bubble is filled. Keep a timer in front of you and stop immediately at the end of 60 min.

• The sheet follows a particular syllabus. Do not attempt the sheet before you have completed your preparation for that

syllabus. Refer syllabus sheet in the starting of the book for the syllabus of all the DPP sheets.

• After completing the sheet check your answers with the solution booklet and complete the Result Grid. Finally spend time

to analyse your performance and revise the areas which emerge out as weak in your evaluation.

DIRECTIONS (Q.1-Q.19) : T

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