1.

API 577 is a recommended practice that covers which of the following:

A) Welding inspection for fabrication/repair of Oil & Gas industry pressure equipment
B) Welding inspection for fabrication/repair of refinery/chem. plant equipment and piping
C) Welding inspection for all activities performed on Oil & Gas industry pressure equipment
D) Welding inspection for all activities performed on refinery/chem. plant equipment and piping
Answer: B … Reference: Section 1 Scope
2. Which of the following codes and standards of API are covered in API 577 to aid
inspectors in fulfilling their role of implementing API codes and standard requirements?
A) API 510, API 570, and API STD 653
B) API 510, API 570, API STD 653, and API RP 582
C) API 510, API 570, API STD 653, API RP 582, and API 578
D) API 510, API 570, API STD 653, API RP 582, API 578, and API 580
Answer: B … Reference: Section 1 Scope
3. Who should be consulted on any critical, specialized or complex welding issues?
A) API Authorized Welding Inspector
B) National Board Authorized Inspector
C) Welding Inspector
D) Welding Engineer
Answer: D … Reference: Section 1 Scope
4. Which of the following referenced in API 577 covers the detailed requirements for Hot
Tapping or welding on In-Service Piping?
A) API Publication 2201
B) API Publication 2207
C) API Publication 2217A
D) API 582

Answer: A … Reference: Section 2 … References  MUST KNOW!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

5. Which of the following referenced in API 577 covers the detailed guidelines for work in
inert confined spaces in the Petroleum Industry?
A) API Publication 2201
B) API Publication 2207
C) API Publication 2217A
D) API 582

Answer: C … Reference: Section 2 … References  Know the API Publications

6. Which of the following referenced in API 577 covers Inspection of Pressure Vessels?
A) API 510

1
B) API 572
C) API 574
D) NB 23

Answer: B … Reference: Section 2 … References  Know the API Publications

7. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers Maintenance,

Inspection, Rating, Repair, and Alteration requirements for Pressure Vessels?
A) API 510
B) API 570
C) API 572
D) NB 23

Answer: A … Reference: Section 2 … References  Know the API Publications

8. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers Material Verification
Program for New & Existing Alloy Piping Systems?
A) API 572
B) API 574
C) API 575
D) API 578

Answer: D … Reference: Section 2 … References  Know the API Publications

9. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers Power Piping?
A) ASME B31.1
B) ASME B31.3
C) ASME B31.4
D) API 570

Answer: A … Reference: Section 2 … References  Know the ASME Publications

10. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers Factory-Made
Wrought Steel Butt-welding Fittings?
A) ASME B16.5
B) ASME B16.9
C) ASME B16.34
D) None of these are correct

Answer: B … Reference: Section 2 … References  Know the ASME Publications

11. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers the specifications for
Welding rods, Electrodes, & Filler metals?
A) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part A
B) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part B
C) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part C
2
D) ASME B&PVC Section II, Part D

Answer: C … Reference: Section 2 … References  Know the ASME Publications

12. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers these respective items
(Nondestructive Examination, Rules for Construction of Pressure Vessels, & Qualification
Standard for Welding Procedures, Welders, and Welding Operators)?
A) ASME B&PVC Section V, Section VIII, & Section IX respectively
B) ASME B&PVC Section IX, Section VIII, & Section V respectively
C) ASME B&PVC Section VIII, Section V, & Section IX respectively
D) ASME B&PVC Section II Part B, Section II Part C, and Section II, Part D respectively

Answer: A … Reference: Section 2 … References  Know the ASME Publications

13. Which of the following documents referenced in API 577 covers the standard for
Qualification and Certification of Nondestructive testing personnel?
A) ASNT Central Certification Program
B) SNT-TC-1A
C) CP-189
D) None of these

Answer: C … Reference: Section 2 … References  MUST KNOW THIS!!!!!!!!!

14. A carbon arc cutting process variation that removes molten metal with a jet of air:

A) Air carbon arc cutting B) Carbon arc gouging

C) AC carbon arc cutting D) DC carbon arc cutting

Answer: A … Reference = 3.2 air carbon arc cutting (CAC-A)

15. The distance from tip of the welding electrode to adjacent surface of the weld pool is:

A) Arc fluctuation B) Arc length

C) Arc blow D) Arc short circuiting

Answer: B … Reference = 3.4 Arc length

16. A group of welding processes that produces coalescence of work pieces by heating them
with an arc. The processes are used with or without the application of pressure and with or
without filler metal. This is called:

A) Arc welding B) Arc gouging

C) Arc blow D) Stud welding
Answer: A … Reference = 3.6 Arc Welding

3
17. The removal of weld metal and base metal from the weld root side of a welded joint to
facilitate complete fusion and complete joint penetration upon subsequent welding from
that side is called:
A) Air carbon arc cutting B) Back gouging
C) Carbon arc gouging D) Carbon arc cutting
Answer: B … Reference = 3.8 back gouging
18. The metal or alloy that is welded or cut.
A) Base metal B) Oxidized surface
C) Carburized surface D) None of these are correct
Answer: A … Reference = 3.10 base metal
19. A non-standard term for excessive visible root reinforcement in a joint welded from one
side or a hole through the root bead. Also, a common term used to reflect the act of
penetrating a thin component with the welding arc while hot tap welding or in-service
welding is called:
A) Excessive Penetration B) Burn-Through
C) Excessive Root Reinforcement D) None of these are correct
Answer: B … Reference = 3.12 burn-through
20. An arc welding power source with a volt-ampere relationship yielding a large welding
current change from a small voltage change is called:
A) Constant voltage power supply B) Constant current power supply
C) Direct current electrode negative D) Direct current electrode positive
Answer: A … Reference = 3.14 constant voltage power supply
21. A discontinuity or discontinuities that by nature or accumulated effect render a part or
product unable to meet minimum applicable acceptance standards or specifications, and
the term designates rejectability … This is called a:
A) Rejectable discontinuity B) Defect
C) Recordable indication D) Reportable indication
Answer: B … Reference = 3.16 defect

22. The arrangement of direct current arc welding leads in which the electrode is the
positive pole and the work piece is the negative pole of the welding arc … is called:
A) Direct current electrode positive B) Direct current electrode negative
C) Straight Polarity D) Positive polarity
Answer: A … Reference = 3.18 DCEP  REVERSE POLARITY
23. The change in shape or dimensions, temporary or permanent, of a part as a result of
heating or welding is called:
A) Deflection B) Distortion

4
C) Beyond yield stress (yielded) D) Annealed
Answer: B … Reference = 3.20 distortion
24. For equal leg fillet welds, the leg lengths of the largest isosceles right triangle that can
be inscribed within the fillet weld cross section … is called:
A) Fillet weld size B) Fillet weld throat
C) Fillet weld actual throat D) Filler weld effective throat
Answer: A … Reference = 3.22 fillet weld size

25. The total included angle of the groove between work pieces is called:
A) Bevel angle B) Groove angle
C) Weld joint angle D) Fit up angle
Answer: B … Reference = 3.24 groove angle

26. Energy supplied by the welding arc to the work piece that is calculated using voltage,
amperage, and weld travel speed … The Formula = (V x amperage) ÷ 60 weld travel speed
given in inches/minute … is called:
A) Heat input B) Welding supply
C) Heat output D) None of these are correct
Answer: A … Reference = 3.26 Heat Input & Formula  Expect a question on the formula

27. Entrapped foreign solid material, such as slag, flux, tungsten, or oxide is called:
A) Lamination B) Inclusion
C) Delamination D) None of these are correct
Answer: B … Reference = 3.28 inclusion
28. A joint root condition in a groove weld in which weld metal does not extend through the
joint thickness.
A) Incomplete joint penetration B) Lack of penetration
C) Incomplete joint fusion D) Incomplete fusion
Answer: A … Reference = 3.30 Incomplete joint penetration

29. In a multipass weld, the temperature of the weld area between weld passes is called:
A) Preheat temperature B) Interpass temperature
C) Holding temperature D) None of these are correct
Answer: B … Reference = 3.32 interpass temperature
30. The distance the weld metal extends from the weld face into a joint, exclusive of weld
reinforcement is called:
A) Joint penetration B) Penetration
C) Joint fusion D) Joint complete fusion

5
Answer: A … Reference = 3.34 Joint penetration
31. A non-standard term indicating a weld discontinuity in which fusion did not occur
between weld metal and fusion faces or adjoining weld beads is called:
A) Incomplete joint penetration B) Lack of fusion
C) Incomplete joint fusion D) Incomplete fusion
Answer: B … Reference = 3.36 Lack of Fusion (LOF)

32. A type of discontinuity with separation or weakness generally aligned parallel to the
worked surface of a metal is called:
A) Lamination B) Transgranular crack
C) Hydrogen Assisted Cracking D) Lamellar Tear
Answer: A … Reference = 3.38 Lamination

33. A crack with its major axis orientation approximately parallel to the weld axis is called:
A) Transverse Crack B) Longitudinal Crack
C) Transgranular Crack D) Lamellar Tear
Answer: B … Reference = 3.40 Longitudinal Crack
34. The protrusion of weld metal beyond the weld toe or weld root is called:
A) Overlap B) Reinforcement C) Undercut D) Underfill
Answer: A … Reference = 3.42 Overlap
35. Any physical evaluation or test of a material (electrode, wire, flux, weld deposit, base
metal, etc.), which has been or will be placed into service, to demonstrate it is consistent
with the selected or specified alloy material designated by owner/user. These evaluations or
tests may provide either qualitative or quantitative information that is sufficient to verify
the nominal alloy composition … is called:
A) Inspection B) Positive Materials Verification
C) Material Receiving Inspection D) Quality Materials Verification
Answer: B … Reference = 3.44 Positive Materials Identification

36. Old terminology for IQI still in use today but not recognized by codes & standards is:
A) Penetrameter B) Hole-Type IQI
C) Wire-Type IQI D) Prenumbra

Answer: A … Reference = 3.46 Penetrameter

37. Metal temperature value achieved in a base metal or substrate prior to initiating the
thermal operations is called:
A) Interpass temperature B) Preheat temperature
C) Ambient temperature D) None of these are correct

6
Answer: B … Reference = 3.48 Preheat

38. Recording on a data sheet of an indication that exceeds the reject flaw size criteria and
needs not only documentation, but also notification to the appropriate authority to be
corrected … is called:
A) Reportable indication B) Recordable indication
C) Documented discontinuity D) Documented defect

Answer: A … Reference = 3.50 Reportable* indication  All reportable indications are

recordable indications but not vice-versa.

39. A separation at the joint root between the work pieces is called:
A) Root Face B) Root Opening
C) Landing or land D) Groove Face

Answer: B … Reference = 3.52 Root Opening

40. A nonmetallic product resulting from the mutual dissolution of flux and nonmetallic
impurities in some welding and brazing processes is called:
A) Slag B) Slag Inclusion
C) Porosity D) None of these are correct

Answer: A … Reference = 3.54 Slag

41. Metal particles expelled during fusion welding that do not form a part of the weld are
called:
A) Arc Strikes B) Spatter
C) Slag Inclusion D) Slag covering

Answer: B … Reference = 3.56 Spatter

42. The distance from the beginning of the joint root perpendicular to the hypotenuse of the
largest right triangle that can be inscribed within the cross-section of a fillet weld, and this
dimension is based on the assumption that the root opening is equal to zero … is called:
A) Weld theoretical throat B) Weld throat
C) Weld actual throat D) Weld effective throat

Answer: A … Reference = 3.58 Theoretical throat

43. The angle less than 90 degrees between the electrode axis and a line perpendicular to
the weld axis, in a plane determined by the electrode axis and the weld axis is called:
A) Bevel angle B) Travel angle
C) Groove angle D) Deposition angle

Answer: B … Reference = 3.60 Travel angle

7
44. A groove melted into the base metal adjacent to the weld toe or weld root and left
unfilled by weld metal is called:
A) Undercut B) Underfill
C) Lack of fusion (LOF) D) Incomplete fusion

Answer: A … Reference = 3.62 Undercut

45. Written verification that a welder has produced welds meeting a prescribed standard of
welder performance is called:
A) Welder qualification B) Welder certification
C) Welder performance demonstration D) None of these are correct

Answer: B … Reference = 3.64 Welder Certification

46. An individual who holds an engineering degree and is knowledgeable and experienced
in the engineering disciplines associated with welding is called:
A) Welding Engineer B) Welding Specialist
C) Quality Welding Specialist D) None of these are correct

Answer: A … Reference = 3.66 Welding Engineer

47. The junction of members or the edges of members which are to be joined or have been
joined by welding is called:
A) Weldment B) Weld joint
C) Groove weld or fillet weld D) None of these

Answer: B … Reference = 3.68 Weld Joint

48. The junction of the weld face and the base metal is called:
A) Weld toe B) Weld fusion zone
C) Weld root D) Weld fusion line
Answer: A … Reference = 3.70 Weld Toe

49. Welding Inspection includes much more than just the non-destructive examination of
the completed weld. Many other issues are important & they include all of these below
except:

A) Review of specs & welding procedures B) Review of joint design

C) Review of cleaning procedures D) Review of Material Verification Program

Answer: D … Reference: Section 4.1  Welding Inspection (General)

50. What is the most important stage of welding to assure that welding problems are
avoided and changes and corrections necessary are made?

8
A) In the planning and preparation stage before any welding on job begins
B) Just immediately before the planned start of welding on a new job
C) During the welding of initial production joints
D) Either during welding or immediately after

Answer: A … Reference: Section 4.2  Tasks prior to Welding

51. Which of the following are NOT Quality Control items to assess prior to welding?

A) Welding symbols, weld sizes, weld joint designs, & weld dimensions are clearly specified
B) Weld maps identify welding procedure specification (WPS) used for specific weld joints
C) Dimensions are detailed and any potential for distortion has been addressed
D) Welding consumables specified are the ones being used in the welding

Answer: D … Reference: Section 4.2.1.1  QC Items to Assess Prior to Welding

52. Which of the following are NOT Quality Control items to assess prior to welding?

A) Pressure testing requirements, if any, clearly specified

B) Inspection hold-points/NDE requirements met by Contractor
C) Preheat requirements and acceptable preheat methods defined
D) Post-weld heat treatment (PWHT) requirements and acceptable PWHT method defined

Answer: B … Reference: Section 4.2.1.1  QC Items to Assess Prior to Welding

53. Inspectors shall review requirements for the weldment with the personnel involved with
executing the work (prior to work) and this can include all of the following entities except:

A) Design engineer B) Welding engineer

C) Welding organization D) Project Management organization

Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 4.2.2 Welding Inspection – weldment requirements  Insp Org!

54. Inspectors reviewing requirements for the weldments (prior to work) and finding that
Potential Inspector action is required regarding QC items should take action as follows:
A) Make a log entry on the matter and await welding results
B) Document the deficiencies thoroughly and await welding results
C) Highlight deficiencies and concerns with the organizations to appropriate personnel
D) Highlight deficiencies/concerns to the appropriate personnel and demand corrective actions
Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 4.2.2.2 Weldment Requirements  Potential Inspector Action!

9
55. Inspectors reviewing welding procedures & qualification records (prior to work) should
assess all of the following Quality Control items except:
A) Welder performance qualifications (WPQ) meet requirements for the PQR
B) Welder performance qualifications (WPQ) meet requirements for the WPS
C) WPS are properly qualified/meet applicable codes, STDs & specs for work
D) Procedure qualification records (PQR) are properly performed & support WPS
Ans: A … Ref: Sect. 4.2.3.1  Procedures & Qualification Records  QC Items to Assess!

56. Inspectors shall review NDE Information prior to work to assure that:
A) Confirm the NDE procedure(s) from inspection organization are acceptable for the work
B) Confirm the NDE examiner(s) from inspection organization are acceptable for the work
C) Confirm the NDE equipment from inspection organization is acceptable for the work
D) Confirm the NDE examiner(s) are certified to ASNT CP-189 standard

Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 4.2.4 NDE Information!

57. Inspectors reviewing NDE Information (prior to work) and finding that Potential
Inspector action is required regarding QC items should take which of these actions?
A) Identify & correct deficiencies in certifications & procedures & obtain calibrated equipment
B) Identify & correct deficiencies in certifications & procedures
C) Identify & correct deficiencies in certifications
D) None of these are correct

Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 4.2.4.2  NDE Information  Potential Inspector Action!

58. Inspectors checking welding equipment & instruments prior to work should assess all
of the following Quality Control items except:
A) Welding machine calibration is current
B) Instruments (ammeters, voltmeters, contact pyrometers) have current calibrations
C) Welding cabinets for large quantity storage of hermetically sealed containers exists on job
D) Welding consumable storage ovens operate (automatic heat control, visible temp indication)

Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 4.2.5.1  Welding Equip & Instruments  QC Items to Assess!

59. Inspectors shall check Heat Treatment & Pressure Testing procedures/associated
equipment prior to work to in order to:
A) Confirm Heat Treatment & Pressure testing procedures/associated equipment are acceptable
B) Confirm Heat Treatment & Pressure testing associated equipment is acceptable
C) Confirm Heat Treatment & Pressure testing procedures are acceptable
D) None of these are correct
Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 4.2.6  Heat Treatment & Pressure Testing

10
60. Inspectors checking Heat Treatment & Pressure Testing procedures/associated
equipment (prior to work) and finding that Potential Inspector action is required regarding
QC items should ensure which of these actions is taken?
A) Obtain calibrated equipment & identify & correct deficiencies in equipment & procedures
B) Obtain calibrated equipment & identify & correct deficiencies in procedures
C) Obtain calibrated equipment & identify & correct deficiencies in equipment
D) None of these are correct
Answer: B … Ref: Sec. 4.2.6.2  Heat Treat & Press Testing  Potential Inspector Action
61. Inspectors checking Materials prior to work should assess all of the following Quality
Control items except:
A) Material test certifications are available & items properly marked (incl. back-up rings if used)
B) Electrode marking/bare wire flag tags/identification on wire spools as-specified
C) Filler material markings are visible and known to the welding organization
D) Base metal markings are traceable to a material certification
Answer: C … Ref: Sec. 4.2.7.1  Matls  QC Items to Assess  Filler matl to be traceable
62. Inspectors checking Materials (prior to work) and finding that Potential Inspector
action is required regarding QC items should ensure which of these actions is taken?
A) Reject/quarantine non-traceable or improperly marked materials or inappropriate materials
B) Have quarantined non-traceable or improperly marked materials or inappropriate materials
C) Do not approve non-traceable or improperly marked materials or inappropriate materials
D) Reject non-traceable or improperly marked materials and reject inappropriate materials
Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 4.2.7.2  Materials  Potential Inspector Action

63. Final tasks upon completion of the weldment and work should include those that assure
final weld quality before placing the weldment in service & they include all of these except:
A) Document Audit (Perform final audit of Insp dossier to identify inaccuracies/incomplete info)
B) Appearance & finish (Verify post-weld acceptance, appearance & finishing of welded joints)
C) NDE review (Verify NDE is performed at selected locations & review examiner’s findings)
D) Identify non-conformances and defects and take immediate corrective actions
Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 4.4 (all)  TASKS UPON COMPLETION OF WELDING …
Correct is Document Audit, Appearance & finish, NDE review, PWHT, Pressure Testing …
Non-conformances and defects should be addressed AT ANY TIME during welding inspection

64. If defects or non-conformances (Inspector has work issues) to specification are found by
the Inspector, this should be handled when and in what manner (Identify False statement):
A) Inspector takes actions on these issues at any time during the welding inspection
B) Inspector takes actions on these issues after his welding inspections by report issuance
C) Inspector takes steps to ensure correction of the issues before welding proceeds further
D) Inspector brings issues to attention of those responsible before welding proceeds further
Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 4.5  NON-CONFORMANCES AND DEFECTS

65. Which of these statements are false regarding Safety Precautions for Welding?

11
A) The arc is a source of both visible and infrared light, but not ultraviolet light.
B) Eye protection using proper filters and proper clothing to cover the skin should be used
C) Proper ventilation is necessary to remove air-borne particulates that include vaporized metal
D) In areas of inadequate ventilation (confined space), filtered breathing protection may be req’d
Answer: A … Ref: Sec. 4.7  Safety Precaution  Ultraviolet light may cause severe burn

66. Which of these statements regarding SMAW is False?

A) SMAW uses arc heat (coming from tip of consumable covered electrode) to melt base metal
B) SMAW shielding is provided from the decomposition of the electrode covering
C) SMAW is the most widely used of the various arc welding processes
D) SMAW uses an arc between a bare electrode and the weld pool.
Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 5.2  Welding Processes  SMAW

67. Depending on the type of SMAW electrode being used, the covering performs all of the
following functions EXCEPT:
A) Establishes the mechanical properties and characteristics of the electrode
B) Provides slag blanket to protect hot weld metal from air & enhances mechanical properties
C) Provides a means of adding alloying elements to change weld metal mechanical properties
D) Provides gas to shield arc/prevent excessive atmospheric contamination of molten filler metal
Ans: A … Sect. 5.2.1  SMAW Electrode Covering  establishes electrical characteristics

68. Limitations associated with the SMAW process include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Slag must be removed before depositing a weld bead adjacent to a previously deposited bead
B) Slag must be removed before depositing a weld bead onto a previously deposited weld bead
C) Deposition rates are lower than for all other processes (GTAW, GMAW, FCAW, SAW)
D) Slag must be removed at stops and starts
Answer: C … Sec. 5.2.3  Welding Processes  SMAW Limitations … such as GMAW is
correct … not accepted over GTAW Process … Watch out for questions like this on exam!

69. Some commonly accepted advantages of the GTAW process include all of these except:

A) Can be used with or without filler metal, dependent on the application

B) Allows for excellent control of root pass weld penetration
C) Produces high purity welds, generally free from defects
D) No post-weld cleaning is required
Ans: D … Sect. 5.3.1  Welding Processes  Advantages of GTAW … Very little cleaning

70. Which of these statements regarding GMAW is False?

A) GMAW uses shielding from externally supplied gas and without the application of pressure
B) GMAW uses an arc between continuous filler metal electrode and the weld pool
C) GMAW uses CC power supply & either short circuiting/globular/spray method
D) GMAW may be operated in semiautomatic, machine, or automatic modes only

12
Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 5.4  Welding Processes  GMAW  C = CV power supply used

71. Some commonly accepted advantages of the GMAW process include all of these except:

A) Minimal post-weld cleaning is required due to absence of slag

B) Deposition rates are significantly higher than those with SMAW
C) Allows for the excellent control of the root pass weld penetration
D) Only consumable electrode process used to weld most commercial metals/alloys

Answer: C … Sect. 5.4.4  Processes  GMAW Advantages  C = GTAW Advantage

72. Some commonly accepted advantages of the FCAW process include all of these except:

A) Shielding is produced at the weld surface (more tolerant of stronger air currents than GMAW)
B) Only consumable electrode process that can be used to weld most commercial metals/alloys
C) Slag that supports and shapes the weld bead and flux that provides metallurgical benefits
D) High deposition and productivity rates than other processes such as SMAW

Answer: B … Sect. 5.5.1  Processes  FCAW Advantages A = GMAW Advantage

73. As a minimum, welding procedures qualified to ASME Sect IX are required by all of
the following examples where Codes are employed except:

A) Construction codes used in fabrication of new equipment & piping (refinery, chemical plant)
B) Construction codes used in fabrication of new equipment & piping (water treatment plants)
C) API 510 inspection code (repair welding)
D) API 570 inspection code (repair welding)

Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 6.1  Procedures  General  B = Tricky … Scope Section 1

74. The PQR is all of the following except:

A) Record of welding data used to weld a test coupon

B) Record of welding variables used to weld a test coupon
C) Record of test results used to qualify the welding procedure
D) Record of the welding parameters to be used in the production welds

Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 6.1  Procedures  General  D = WPS is this … Not the PQR!

75. The purpose of the WPQ is to:

A) Establish welder is capable of welding

B) Establish welder is capable of making a quality weld
C) Establish welder is capable of making a quality weld using the WPS
D) Establish welder is capable of making a quality weld using the WPS & the PQR

Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 6.1  Procedures  General

13
76. Completed WPS for a welding process addresses:

A) All essential variables in a given WPS for a given process.

B) All essential and nonessential variables in a given WPS for a given process.
C) All essential variables (Including supplemental essential variables if notch toughness is reqd)
D) All essential & nonessential variables (supp. essential variables only if notch toughness reqd)

Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 6.2  Procedures  WPS Section

77. When nonessential variables are changed on the WPS, what must be done?

A) May be used at the Inspector’s discretion

B) Must be re-qualified (new PQR employed)
C) May be changed of the WPS and then used
D) May either be re-qualified (new PQR employed) or used at the Inspector’s discretion

Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 6.2  Procedures  WPS Section

78. The PQR shall record all of the following items except:

A) Manufacturer’s certification of accuracy in the qualification of a WPS

B) The nonessential variables used to weld a test coupon
C) The essential variables used to weld a test coupon
D) Coupon test results

Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 6.3  Procedures  PQR Section

79. Which of these statements is False regarding PQRs?

A) PQR format is not fixed, provided it addresses all essential variables

B) If any test specimen fails, the test coupon fails and a new coupon will be required
C) PQR should accompany WPS and be available for review by Inspector upon request
D) One PQR may support several WPSs but one WPS may be qualified by only one PQR

Ans: D … Sect. 6.3  Procedures  PQRs 1 WPS may be qualified by more than one PQR

80. For ferrous base metals having specified impact test requirements, what types of
numbers are assigned by ASME IX Code?

A) P-numbers are assigned only

B) S-Numbers are assigned as a subgroup of the P-Numbers
C) Group numbers within P-numbers are assigned (P-No 1, Group 1, 2, 3, etc)
D) Group numbers within P-numbers are assigned (P-No 1, Group A, B, C, etc)

Answer: C … Ref: Section 7.2  Materials  P-Numbers

81. Electrodes and welding rods are assigned F-numbers to:

A) Reduce only the number of welder performance qualifications required

14
B) Reduce number of welding procedure and performance qualifications
C) Reduce the number of welding procedure qualifications required
D) Reduce the number of welding procedure specifications required

Answer: B … Ref: Section 7.3  Materials  F-Numbers

82. Regarding F-Numbers, those welders qualified using a single filler metal (assume an E-
7018 Electrode having F-4 designation without backing) are qualified to weld with:
A) All electrodes having any F-number designation
B) All electrodes having the same F-4 designation only
C) All electrodes having F-4 designation and all F-1, F-2, & F-3 electrodes
D) All electrodes having F-4 designation and all F-1, F-2, & F-3 electrodes (with backing limits)

Answer: D … Ref: Section 7.3  Materials  F-Numbers

83. Steel & Steel alloy filler metals are grouped in ASME IX according to A-numbers to:

A) Reduce the number of welding procedure qualifications required

B) Reduce the number of welding procedure specifications required
C) Reduce the number of welder performance qualifications required
D) Reduce number of welding procedure and performance qualifications

Answer: A … Ref: Section 7.5  Materials  A-Numbers

84. Which of these statements are false regarding consumable storage and handling?
A) Covered electrodes exposed to moisture become unstable due to moisture pickup by coatings
B) Moisture is a hydrogen source & open consumables should be stored in warm holding ovens
C) Low-hydrogen electrodes should be stored together with other types of electrodes in ovens
D) Low-hydrogen & stainless steel electrodes are particularly susceptible to moisture pickup

Answer: C … Ref: Section 7.7  Materials  Consumable Storage & Handling

85. The welder qualification is limited by the:

A) Process variables
B) Welding position and diameter
C) Essential variables given for each process
D) None of these are correct

Answer: C … Ref: Section 8.1  Welder Qualification  General

86. The performance qualification test coupon is to be welded according to the qualified
WPS, and the welding is to be supervised and controlled by:
A) Owner/user of the facility
B) The employer of the welder
C) The manufacturer or fabricator
D) None of these are correct per API 577

15
Answer: B … Ref: Section 8.2  Welder Qualification  WPQ

87. If radiographic exam is used for qualification of a welder or welding operator, the
minimum length of coupon to be examined is any of the following items EXCEPT:
A) 3 feet (0.91 meters) for welding operators (ASME IX Rule)
B) 6 inches (152.4 mm) minimum in any case (ASME IX Rule)
C) The entire circumference for their first three production joints (ASME B31.3 Case)
D) The entire weld circumference for pipe coupons (Typically Size 2 NPS & Size 8 NPS used)

Answer: C … Ref: Section 8.2  Welder Qualification  WPQ

88. Welder’s qualification can be revoked if:

A) There is reason to question their ability to make welds (NDE results indicate repairs, etc)
B) They violate their WPS more than once (includes high repair rates)
C) They violate their WPS repeatedly (includes high repair rates)
D) None of the above is correct per API 577

Answer: A … Ref: Section 8.2  Welder Qualification  WPQ

89. Prior to any welding, inspectors should review the welders’ WPQ to:

A) Verify they are qualified to perform welding given its position & process
B) Verify they are qualified to perform welding given its position, thickness and process
C) Verify they are qualified to perform welding given its position, diameter and thickness
D) Verify they are qualified to perform welding given its position/diam./thickness/process

Answer: A … Ref: Section 8.3.1  Welder Qualification  Reviewing a WPQ

90. Undercut (Per API 577, Table 6) can be corrected by (Practical Solution Column):

A) Proper heat input & proper welding technique

B) Reduce travel speed and control arc length
C) Proper heat input & proper joint design
D) Reduce travel speed

Answer: D … Ref: Section 9.1  NDE  Discontinuities (Table 6)

91. During welding inspection, the inspector may need to verify the conformance of the
base material and filler metal chemistries with the selected or specified alloyed materials.
This may include reviewing all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Reviewing stamps or markings on the components

B) Performing visual material checks
C) The certified mill test report
D) Requiring PMI testing

16
Answer: B … Ref: Section 9.2  NDE  Materials Identification

92. Standards (ASME Section V Article 9) specify lighting levels of (how much) foot
candles (lux) at the examination surface?
A) 1000 foot candles (10000 lux) B) 100 foot candles (1000 lux)
C) 10 foot candles (100 lux) D) None of these is correct
Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 9.3.2.1  NDE  VT  Optical Aids

93. In the illustration above, what is the weld size?

A) Just below ½ inch (12.7mm) B) Right at ½ inch (12.7 mm)
C) Slightly above ½ inch (12.7mm) D) None of these is correct
Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 9.3.2.3.C & Fig 17/18  NDE  VT  Weld exam Devices

94. In the illustration above, what is the actual throat measurement (throat size)?
A) 12.7 mm B) 12.7 mm x .707 = 9 mm
C) Cannot be determined by the above D) None of these is correct
Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 9.3.2.3.C & Fig 17/18  NDE  VT  Weld exam Devices
95. Which of the following statements is false regarding proper MT practice?
A) Particles used during the exam can be either dry or wet
B) Best results are achieved when the lines of flux are perpendicular to the discontinuity
C) If exam is performed with black light, color of particles should contrast with exam surface
D) Two inspections are performed, one parallel to weld & one across (perpendicular to the weld)
Answer: C … Ref: Sec. 9.4.1  NDE  MT  General  If performed in normal lighting

17
 FIGURE 25 FIGURE 26
96. Figure 25 above (left) will detect which of these following discontinuities listed below?
A) Discontinuities transverse to the weld and located on the surface or slightly sub-surface only
B) Discontinuities parallel to the weld and located on the surface or slightly sub-surface only
C) Discontinuities transverse to the weld and located on the surface only
D) Discontinuities parallel to the weld and located on the surface only
Answer: A … Ref: Sec. 9.4.1 & Fig. 25  NDE  MT  General
97. Figure 26 above (right) will detect which of these following discontinuities listed below?
A) Discontinuities transverse to the weld and located on the surface or slightly sub-surface only
B) Discontinuities parallel to the weld and located on the surface or slightly sub-surface only
C) Discontinuities transverse to the weld and located on the surface only
D) Discontinuities parallel to the weld and located on the surface only
Answer: B … Ref: Sec. 9.4.1 & Fig. 25  NDE  MT  General

API 577 EXAM B (140 Questions)

FIGURE 21 FIGURE 22
98. Which of the statements below is FALSE regarding Figure 21 above (left)?

18
A) Ferromagnetic particles applied to magnetized surface are attracted to magnetic field breaks
B) Figure 21 shows the disruption to the magnetic field caused by a defect open to the surface
C) Ferromagnetic particles will be drawn to the break in the flux field shown in Figure 21
D) Pattern of particles attracted in Fig. 21 will be less sharp & less distinct than Fig. 22
Answer: D … Ref: Sec. 9.4.1 & Fig. 21  NDE  MT  General
99. Which of the statements below is FALSE regarding Figure 22 above (right)?
A) Ferromagnetic particles applied to magnetized surface are attracted to magnetic field breaks
B) Ferromagnetic particles will be drawn to the break in the flux field shown in Figure 22
C) Pattern of particles attracted in Fig. 22 will be more sharp and distinct than Fig. 21
D) Figure 22 shows disruption to a magnetic field caused by a sub-surface defect
Answer: C … Ref: Sec. 9.4.1 & Fig. 21  NDE  MT  General

100. Which of these statements is false regarding the PT technique?

A) It is commonly employed on austenitic SS where MT exams are not possible

B) It is capable of detecting surface-connecting discontinuities in nonferrous alloys only
C) It can be used to examine weld joint surfaces/individual weld pass checks/completed welds
D) Material certs on amounts of contaminants (chlorine, sulfur, and halogens) are to be checked
Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 9.6  NDE  PT

101. Which of these statements are NOT true regarding techniques used in PT exam?

A) Liquid in any discontinuity bleeds out to stain the powder coating

B) Test surface is cleaned & coated with a liquid that seeks surface-connected discontinuities
C) After excess surface liquid is removed, a solvent-based developer is normally crush applied
D) The greater the bleed out to surface opening ratio, the greater the volume of the discontinuity

Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 9.6  NDE  PT  Normally spray applied

102. General penetrant TECHNIQUES approved for use include which of the following?

A) Color contrast penetrant technique and the fluorescent penetrant technique

B) Solvent removable technique, Water washable technique, & Post emulsifiable technique
C) Solvent removable technique, Water washable technique, & Solvent emulsifiable technique
D) Solvent removable technique, Water emulsifiable technique & Solvent emulsifiable technique

Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 9.6.1  NDE  Liquid PT Techniques

103. For added sensitivity, which of the following PT techniques may be used to detect fine
linear type indications?
A) Fluorescent penetrant (Used in exams in darkened areas with filtered black light)
B) Color Contrast Solvent Removable Visible Dye Penetrant (Technique)
C) Color Contrast Post emulsifiable Visible Dye Penetrant (Technique)
D) Color Contrast Water washable Visible Dye Penetrant (Technique)

19
Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 9.6.1  NDE  Liquid PT Techniques

104. Which of these statements are NOT true regarding Radiographic Testing (RT)
method?
A) It uses the change in absorption of radiation by solid metal and in areas of a discontinuity
B) It is a volumetric exam method capable of examining entire specimen, not just the surface
C) Radiation sent reacts with film & permanent image is captured & processed into latent image
D) Some methods are available that use electronics to create a digital image & are called filmless

Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 9.8.1  NDE  RT General … Latent image is first captured 
then it is processed into a permanent image

105. The exposure and processing of a radiograph is considered acceptable when it meets
the required quality features in terms of:
A) Density
B) Sensitivity
C) Sensitivity and density
D) Sensitivity, density and film quality

Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 9.8.1  NDE  RT General

106. Which of these statements is NOT true regarding Wire-Type IQIs?

A) Wire to be visible (standard specified) on an acceptable radiograph is called a sensitive wire
B) Diameter of smallest visible wire (lighter-white image) indicates sensitivity of radiograph
C) They are placed on and perpendicular to the weld prior to the exposure of a radiograph
D) They are constructed of an array of six paralleled wires of specified diameters

Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 9.8.2  NDE  RT … The “essential” wire must always be visible

… Figure 29
107. Diameter of holes in hole-type IQIs are a multiple of the thickness of a sheet. Common
hole diameters are HOW MANY times the thickness of the IQI shown in Fig. 29?
A) 2% and 4% holes in sheet metal strip having an actual thickness of 15 mm
B) 1%, 2% & 4% holes in sheet metal strip having an actual thickness of 15 mm
C) 2% and 4% holes in sheet metal strip having an actual thickness of 15 mils (.015 inches)
D) 1%, 2% & 4% holes in sheet metal strip having an actual thickness of 15 mils (.015 inches)

Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 9.8.2  NDE  RT  IQIs Projected as dark or gray spots

20
108. Which of the following statements are NOT true regarding IQIs & their placement?

A) Wire-type IQIs are most often placed perpendicular to weld center line
B) Hole-type IQIs are placed next to weld always on a shim where T = the weld build-up
C) Hole that is required to be visible on an acceptable radiograph is called the essential hole
D) Hole-type IQIs are placed next to weld on a base metal or on a shim (with T = weld build-up)

Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 9.8.2  NDE  RT  IQIs

109. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding RT film source selection?

A) X-ray machines must also be used in addition to sources with decaying radioisotopes
B) For weld inspection, radioactive isotopes of Iridium 192 or Cobalt 60 are typically used
C) Iridium 192 is normally used for RT on steel (thickness = 1.5 – 7.0 in. or 38 mm – 178 mm)
D) Cobalt 60 is normally used for RT on steel (thickness = 0.25 – 3.0 in. or 6.3 mm – 76.2 mm)

Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 9.8.4  NDE  RT  Film Source selection

110. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding RT surface preparation?

A) Surface conditions (visual) that can mask a defect should be remedied after the exposure
B) Weld ripples shall be removed so that RT images are not confused with any discontinuities
C) Weld ripples should be removed so that RT images are not confused with any discontinuities
D) Weld ripples should be removed to an extent so RT images are not confused with any defects

Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 9.8.6  NDE  RT  Surface Preparation

&

Figure 31 Figure 32
111. Which of these statements is FALSE regarding the most effective RT Technique that
can be used?
A) Most effective technique = double-wall exposure (film contacts surface opposite source)
B) Most effective technique = single-wall exposure (film contacts surface opposite source)
21
C) Most effective technique = double-wall exposure (film contacts surface nearest source)
D) Most effective technique = single-wall exposure (film contacts surface nearest source)

Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 9.8.8  NDE  RT Techniques  Single wall exposure (Fig 31)

112. Which of these RT Techniques should be used whenever practical?

A) Double-wall exposure where radiation passes through two walls of the material or weld
B) Single-wall exposure where the radiation passes through only one wall of material or weld
C) Single-wall viewing where radiation passes through 2 walls (weld & film sidewall viewed)
D) Double-wall viewing where radiation passes through 2 walls (weld & film sidewall viewed)

Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 9.8.8.1  NDE  RT Techniques  Single wall exposure (Fig 31)

113. Which of these statements is FALSE regarding the RT double-wall techniques?

A) When not practical to use a single wall technique, double-wall techniques should be used
B) Double-wall technique is OK for material/welds in components 4 in. or less (nominal OD)
C) Double-wall elliptical shot (complete weld coverage required) = 2 exposures 90° apart OK
D) Double-wall superimposed shot (complete weld coverage reqd) = 3 exposures 120° apart OK

Ans: B … Ref: Sect. 9.8.8.3  NDE Double wall techniques  3.5 inch NPS & Less Rule

114. Which of these statements is FALSE regarding viewing facilities for reviewing
Radiographs?
A) Background lighting intensity will not cause troublesome reflection/shadow/glare on film
B) Viewing equip light source must allow essential IQI hole/wire visibility (in density range)
C) Viewing conditions do not interfere with interpretation (light from leaks or low-density areas)
D) Low power magnification devices (5 – 10X) may be used to aid film interpretation/evaluation

Ans: D … Ref: 9.8.9.1  NDE  RT  Facilities for reviewing radiographs  1.5  3X

and using a 5 – 10 X will cause graininess

115. Transmitted film density through the radiographic image through the body of the hole
type IQI in the area of interest should be within what range?
A) 1.8 to 4.0 for x-ray and Gamma Radiography
B) 2.0 to 4.0 for x-ray and Gamma Radiography
C) 1.8 to 4.0 for x-ray and 2.0 to 4.0 for Gamma Radiography
D) 2.0 to 4.0 for x-ray and 1.8 to 4.0 for Gamma Radiography

Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 9.8.9.3  NDE  RT  Density of radiographs

116. Which of the following statements is correct regarding backscatter radiation?

A) If a dark image letter B appears on a radiograph, it shall be considered unacceptable
B) If a light image letter B appears on a radiograph, it shall be considered unacceptable
C) If a dark image letter B on a lighter background appears on a film, consider it unacceptable
D) If a light image letter B on a darker background appears on a film, consider it unacceptable

22
Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 9.8.9.4  NDE  RT  Density of radiographs

117. An irregularly shaped darker density spot, usually slightly elongated and randomly
spaced is:

A) Incomplete fusion
B) Interpass slag inclusions
C) Wagon Tracks best describe this
D) None of these are correct

Ans: B … Ref: Sect. 9.8.9.5  NDE  RT  Interpretation  Interpass Slag Inclusions

118. A localized darker density with fuzzy edges in the center of the width of the weld
image that may be wider than the width of the root pass image is:

A) Burn Through
B) Incomplete fusion
C) Interpass slag inclusions
D) None of these are correct

Ans: A … Ref: Sect. 9.8.9.5  NDE  RT  Interpretation  Burn Through

119. An irregular darker density near the center of the width of the weld image along the
edge of the root pass image is:

A) Incomplete fusion B) Incomplete penetration

C) Elongated slag D) Internal (Root) Undercut

Ans: D … Ref: Sect. 9.8.9.5  NDE  RT  Interpretation

120. Which of these statements is false regarding Ultrasonic calibration system checks?

A) Calibration system checks are usually performed every 4 hours (as a minimum) during exams
B) Calibration system checks should always be performed prior to & at completion of all exams
C) Calibration system checks are required with any change in search unit, cables, and examiner
D) Calibration system checks are required whenever a UT examiner changes scanning technique

Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 9.9.1  NDE  UT

121. If calibration system checks determine UT equipment is improperly functioning, all

areas tested since the last successful calibration:

A) Shall be reexamined
B) Should be reexamined
C) Can be reexamined at examiners discretion
D) Shall be reexamined if the UT procedure says to do so

Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 9.9.1  NDE  UT 

23
122. The physical properties of metallic materials including strength, ductility and
toughness can be attributed to:
A) Solid metals crystalline nature
B) Solid metals unique geometric structure
C) Chemical make-up and orderly arrangement of atoms within a crystalline structure
D) None of these are correct

Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 10.2  Metallurgy  Structure of Metals & Alloys

123. As a melt cools, a temperature is reached where clusters of atoms bond with each
other and start to solidify and develop into:
A) A chain of atoms in a structured and identical orientation that are called metallic crystals
B) Solid individual crystals of pure metal (grains) identical except for orientation
C) A mixed grouping of atoms in random orientation to each other
D) None of these are correct
Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 10.2  Metallurgy  Structure of Metals & Alloys
124. As an entire melt solidifies, the grains interlock into a solid metallic structure called a:
A) Casting B) Grain boundary
C) Metallic Crystal (Grain) D) None of these statements are correct
Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 10.2  Metallurgy  Structure of Metals & Alloys
125. Microstructure is a significant area that inspectors should understand because it is
largely responsible for:
A) Casting grain boundary orientation
B) The physical and mechanical properties of the metal
C) The ability of a metal to be welded along a grain boundary
D) None of these statements are correct
Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 10.2.1  Metallurgy  Structure of Castings
126. To improve casting strength and toughness, what can be done to achieve this?
A) Maximize the rate of cooling or minimize the heat input (when welding)
C) Maximize the rate of cooling or maximize the heat input (when welding)
B) Minimize the rate of cooling or minimize the heat input (when welding)
D) Minimize the rate of cooling or maximize the heat input (when welding)
Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 10.2.1  Metallurgy  Structure of Castings
127. In castings, weldments are particularly prone to cracking due to:
A) Solidified alloys B) Trapped trace elements
C) Trapped tramp elements D) Trapped hydrogen gases
Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 10.2.1  Metallurgy  Structure of Castings
128. Wrought materials may be any of the following except:
A) Cast B) Rolled C) Forged D) Extruded

24
Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 10.2.2  Metallurgy  Structure of Wrought Materials

129. Austenitic SS is composed of a microstructural phase called:

A) Ferrite B) Martensite C) Ferrite-Pearlite D) Austenite
Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 10.2.2  Metallurgy  Structure of Wrought Materials
130. Which statement about wrought carbon steel is true?
A) Plain carbon steel is a single-phase alloy composed primarily of ferrite
B) Plain carbon steel is a single-phase alloy composed primarily of pure iron
C) Plain carbon steel is a two-phase alloy composed primarily of ferrite and bainite
D) None of these are true
Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 10.2.2  Metallurgy  Structure of Wrought Materials
Correct is ferrite (relatively pure iron form) and pearlite (adds strength to the steel)
131. Welding metallurgy is concerned with:
A) Melting, solidification, gas/slag-metal reactions, surface phenomena and base metal reactions
B) Melting, solidification, surface phenomena and base metal reactions only
C) Melting, solidification, and base metal reactions only
D) None of these is correct
Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 10.2.3  Metallurgy  Welding Metallurgy
132. Most typical weld metals are rapidly solidified and have a:
A) Fine grain ferritic microstructure B) Fine grain dendritic microstructure
C) Course grain ferritic microstructure D) Course grain dendritic microstructure
Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 10.2.3  Metallurgy  Welding Metallurgy
133. The HAZ is adjacent to the weld and is that portion of the base metal that:
A) Has been melted and whose mechanical properties or microstructure have not been altered by
the preheating temperature and the heat of welding.
B) Has been melted and whose mechanical properties or microstructure have been altered by the
preheating temperature and the heat of welding.
C) Has not been melted and whose mechanical properties or microstructure have been altered by
the preheating temperature and the heat of welding
D) None of these is correct
Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 10.2.3  Metallurgy  Welding Metallurgy

134. The size or width of the HAZ is determined by the:

A) Grain size and grain structure are the only factors
B) Grain size or grain structure and hardness
C) Grain size and hardness only
D) None of these is correct

25
Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 10.2.3  Welding Metallurgy  HEAT INPUT USED

135. The primary factor affecting the weldability of a base metal is:
A) Carbon equivalent content of the welded steel
B) Grain size or grain structure & hardness
C) Grain size and hardness only
D) None of these is correct

Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 10.2.3  Welding Metallurgy  CHEMICAL COMPOSITION

136. During welding, sources of Oxygen include any of these except:

A) It can be drawn in from the atmosphere
B) It can occur from the dissociation of water vapor
C) It can occur from the dissociation of metal oxides
D) It can occur from the dissociation of nitrogen in the air

Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 10.2.3  Metallurgy  Welding Metallurgy  Carbon Dioxide!!!

137. Examples of PHYSICAL PROPERTIES of a metal include all of these except:

A) Tensile and yield strength, ductility, hardness, toughness
B) Thermal & electrical conductivity
C) Coefficient of thermal expansion
D) Melting temperature

Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 10.3  PHYSICAL PROPERTIES  DENSITY = CORRECT …

THIS TRICKY QUESTION WAS ON AN EXAM … A = MECHANICAL PROPERTIES

138. Which statement is false regarding THERMAL CONDUCTIVITY OF A

MATERIAL?
A) Equals rate that heat is transmitted through material by conduction or thermal transmittance
B) Steel is a poor heat conductor & it takes more heat to melt steel than aluminum or copper
C) In general, metals with high electrical conductivity also have high thermal conductivity
D) Materials having higher thermal conductivity require higher heat inputs to weld

Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 10.3.2  PHYSICAL PROPS  THERMAL CONDUCTIVITY

… TAKES LESS HEAT TO MELT STEEL THAN COPPER OR ALUMINUM

139. Which statement best describes a material’s coefficient of thermal expansion?

A) As metals are heated there is an increase in volume
B) Increases are measured in linear dimensions as the metal temperature is increased
C) Linear increase with increased temps (per degree) = the coefficient of thermal expansion
D) None of these are correct

Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 10.3.4  PHYS PROPS  Coefficient of Thermal Expansion …

26
140. Joining Metals with greatly differing coefficients of thermal expansion can cause:
A) Thermal shock B) Environmental cracking
C) Thermal fatigue D) All of the above conditions

Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 10.3.4  PHYS PROPS  Coefficient of Thermal Expansion …

141. Which statement is false regarding DENSITY?

A) The density of a material is defined as its mass per unit volume
B) Castings (and welds) are usually less dense than wrought material of similar composition
C) Castings and welds contain porosity and inclusions that produce a metal of lower density
D) Density is not an important factor employed during RT exams of welded joints

Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 10.3.5  PHYS PROPS  DENSITY …

142. A gas with a higher density is more efficient for shielding than one of a lower density:
A) Because it is less likely to cause welding technique errors
B) Because it help to maintain the welds compositional requirements
C) Because it protects the weld environment longer before dispersion
D) None of these are correct

Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 10.3.5  PHYS PROPS  DENSITY …

143. Tensile testing is used to determine all these mechanical properties of a metal except:
A) Ultimate tensile strength & Yield strength B) Reduction in Area
C) Stress and Strain D) Elongation
Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 10.4.1  Mechanical Properties  Tensile & Yield Strength
144. Stress is defined as the:
A) The force applied before a material reaches its yield point
B) Amount of deformation, change in shape, a specimen has experienced
C) Force acting in a given region of the metal when an external load is applied
D) Length of elongation divided by the original length of the specimen prior to being stressed
Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 10.4.1  Mechanical Properties  Tensile & Yield Strength

145. Strain is expressed as the:

A) The force applied before a material reaches its yield point
B) Amount of deformation, change in shape, a specimen has experienced
C) Force acting in a given region of the metal when an external load is applied
D) Length of elongation divided by the original length of the specimen prior to being stressed

Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 10.4.1  Mechanical Properties  Tensile & Yield Strength

146. If the stress (during a tensile test) were applied above the yield point of the metal, the
specimen would:

27
A) Return to its original length and this would be considered plastic deformation
B) Return to its original length and this would be considered elastic deformation
C) Not return to its original length and this would be considered plastic deformation
D) Not return to its original length and this would be considered elastic deformation

Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 10.4.1  Mechanical Properties  Tensile & Yield Strength

147. If the stress (during a tensile test) was continued to be applied and this resulted in
UNIFORM ELONGATION concentrated in a localized region, the specimen will then:
A) Show no reduction in diameter and begin to NECK DOWN
B) Show a reduction in diameter and begin to NECK DOWN
C) Show no reduction in diameter and begin to FRACTURE
D) Show a reduction in diameter and begin to FRACTURE

Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 10.4.1  Mechanical Properties  Tensile & Yield Strength

148. In tensile testing, DUCTILITY is defined as:

A) The ability of a material to deform plastically without fracturing
B) The total measure of the material Plasticity
C) The total measure of the material Elasticity
D) The total measure of Elongation

Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 10.4.2  Mechanical Properties  Ductility

149. Increase in gage length, measured after fracture of a tensile test specimen within the
gage length is called:
A) Plasticity B) Elasticity
C) Ductility D) Elongation

Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 10.4.2  Mechanical Properties  Ductility

150. A material subjected to loads beyond its elastic limit may become strain hardened, or
work hardened resulting in:
A) Higher effective yield strength with higher overall hardness
B) Higher effective yield strength with higher overall ductility
C) Higher effective yield strength with lower overall hardness
D) Higher effective yield strength with lower overall ductility

Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 10.4.2  Mechanical Properties  Ductility

151. Hardness of a material is defined as the:

A) Resistance to plastic deformation by indentation
B) Ability of a material to resist yielding by indentation
C) Load applied relative to both tensile and yield strength

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D) None of these

Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 10.4.3  Mechanical Properties  HARDNESS

152. Which of these statements is false regarding hardness measurements?

A) They can provide information about the metallurgical changes caused by welding
B) In alloy steels, a high hardness measurement could indicate presence of untempered
martensite in the weld or heat-affected zone
C) In alloy steels, a low hardness measurement may indicate an over-tempered condition
D) A relationship exists among different hardness test results and tensile strengths for all metals

Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 10.4.3  Mechanical Properties  HARDNESS  Some metals

153. Which of these statements is false regarding Rockwell Hardness Testing?

A) Rockwell hardness testing is not simple and quick (and used primarily in Labs)
B) Type of indenters and applied loads depends on the type of material to be tested
C) Indenters are diamond cone type (Brales) or hardened steel ball type (various diameters) only
D) Scale is indicated by a suffix combination of H for Hardness, R for Rockwell and then a letter
indicating scale employed. For example, a value of 55 on the C scale is expressed as 55 HRC

Ans: A … Ref: Sect. 10.4.3  Mech Properties  HARDNESS  Rockwell Method =

simple and quick …

154. Which of these hardness test methods must NEVER be used in Saudi Aramco?
A) Rockwell hardness testing B) Vickers hardness testing
C) Brinell hardness testing D) Equotip hardness testing

Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 10.4.3  Mech Properties  Rebound methods are prohibited

155. Toughness is the ability of a metal to:

A) Withstand stress and exhibit ductility before fracturing
B) Withstand stress and deform plastically before yielding
C) Absorb energy and deform plastically before fracturing
D) Resist fracture or crack propagation under stress

Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 10.4.4  Mech Properties  Toughness

156. Which of these statements is false regarding Charpy Impact Testing?

A) It is one of the most common fracture toughness tests using a notched bar
B) It is a pendulum-type single-blow impact test where specimens break by a falling pendulum
C) It measures impact strength or notch toughness and tests results are recorded in foot-pounds
D) Tests use a standard size specimen approximately 12.5 mm x 12.5 mm

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Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 10.4.4  Mech Properties  Notch Toughness Charpy = 10mm

157. The primary purpose for preheating carbon and low-alloy steels is to:

A) Prevent welding defects such as porosity, lack of fusion and cracking

B) Increase the cooling rate to prevent the formation of martensite
C) Reduce the tendency for hydrogen induced delayed cracking
D) None of these are correct

Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 10.5  PREHEATING

158. If preheat is specified in the WPS, it is IMPORTANT that the Inspector:

A) Witnesses preheat temperatures in the WPS are maintained (using a Hold Point)
B) Confirms that the required temperature specified in the WPS is maintained
C) Performs surveillance on preheating during the welding process
D) None of these are correct

Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 10.5  PREHEATING  CONFIRMS TEMP IS MAINTAINED

159. Preheat that is required during welding is the same preheat to be applied for:

A) Tack welding only, but is not necessary for arc gouging and thermal cutting
B) Tack welding and arc gouging only, but is not necessary for thermal cutting
C) Arc gouging and thermal cutting, but is not necessary for tack welding
D) Tack welding and arc gouging and during thermal cutting

Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 10.5  PREHEATING  MUST ALWAYS BE DONE

160. Which of these statements regarding preheat practices is false?

A) Good practice is uniform heat applied on either side of a weld joint (three times weld width)
B) Preheat should be applied and extend to at least 2 in. (50.8 mm) on either side of the weld
C) Inspectors shall exercise caution when welding metals of different chemistries
D) Typically, the metal with the lowest preheat requirement governs.

Ans: D … Ref: Sect. 10.5  PREHEATING  Highest preheat governs in dissimilar welds

161. NEED for Post-weld heat treatment is NOT dependent on this factor:
A) Thickness of parts joined & joint design B) Service or process conditions
C) Chemistry of the metal D) Fabrication methods

Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 10.6  PWHT  Welding Processes

162. Post-weld heat treatment releases stresses by:

A) Metallurgically changing the grains

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B) Mechanically changing the grain boundaries
C) Allowing metal to creep slightly at elevated temps
D) None of these is correct
Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 10.6  PWHT
163. What special precaution should be taken regarding Post-weld heat treatment?
A) Threaded connections need to be oiled
B) Flange facings need to be protected and covered
C) Adequate support needs to be provided to prevent sagging
D) None of these is correct
Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 10.6  PWHT  Several exist at SAUDI ARAMCO … Discuss
164. Which statement is correct regarding a relationship between Hardening & hardness?
A) There is a close relationship between hardening & hardness in ferrous and non-ferrous alloys
B) There is a close relationship between hardening & hardness in ferrous alloys only
C) There is a no close relationship between hardening & hardness
D) None of these is correct
Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 10.7  HARDENING  Not Hardness … Discuss
165. The simplest way to determine hardenability is to:
A) Measure depth that a piece of steel hardens during quenching from an elevated temperature
B) Measure the hardness at various zones of the weld, Heat-affected Zone and base metal
C) Measure the hardness at one zone each in the weld, Heat-affected Zone & base metal
D) None of these is correct because there is no simple way to determine hardenability
Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 10.7  HARDENING  Determine Hardenability
166. Which statement is false regarding a hardenability test using a Jominy Bar?
A) Bar is heated to a pre-determined elevated temperature (heated evenly through cross section)
B) Bar is subjected to rapid quenching by spraying water against the bottom end of a round bar
C) Bar hardness is measured as a function of distance away from the surface being quenched
D) None of these are correct
Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 10.7  HARDENING  Jominy Bar & Hardenability
167. It may be IMPORTANT for the welding engineer and inspector to understand the
hardenability of the steel as it can be an indirect indicator of:
A) Overall steel strength and hardness B) Overall steel hardness only
C) Overall steel strength only D) None of these is correct
Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 10.7  HARDENING  Hardenability & WELDABILITY
168. Significant amounts of Martensite formation in the HAZ can lead to:
A) Underbead cracking or a loss in overall tensile strength and hardness
B) Delayed hydrogen cracking or a loss in ductility and toughness
C) Stress cracking or a loss in overall toughness
D) None of these is correct

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Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 10.7  HARDENING  Hardenability  Martensite formation
169. Which statement is false regarding Hardness limits for CS in refinery process
services?
A) Hardness values in excess of 200 usually indicate that post-weld heat treatment is necessary
B) Whenever PWHT is needed, an alternate welding procedure qualified with PWHT is needed
C) High hardnesses can result in stress corrosion cracking in service due to sulfides in a process
D) None of these is correct
Ans: D … Ref: Sect. 10.7  HARDENING  Hardenability  All statements are correct

170. Which statement is false regarding typical Material Test Reports?

A) There are two types of reports, a heat analysis and a product analysis
B) Material Test Reports are notarized statements (legally binding)
C) Heat analysis (statement) is also called a chemical analysis
D) Heat analysis is a statement regarding the ingot or billet

Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 10.8  MATL TEST REPORTS  Heat analysis = Mill certificate

171. Product Analysis Reports are a statement of:

A) Chemical analysis of the end product and is supplied by the material manufacturer
B) Chemical analysis of chemical elements in an ingot or billet and is supplied by the mill
C) Weight percentage of chemical elements in an ingot or billet and is supplied by the mill
D) None of these is correct
Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 10.8  MATL TEST REPORTS  Product analysis

172. Material test report documents may include any of these EXCEPT:

A) Manufacturer of the heat of material, date of manufacture, and heat number of the material
B) Applicable National Standard to which the heat conforms (ASTM, ASME, etc)
C) Physical properties required by applicable National Standards
D) Heat treatment, if applicable and chemistry of the heat

Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 10.8  MTRs  Reports list Mechanical properties not physical

173. Which of these is not a reason for welding engineers to use materials test report
information?

A) To recommend proper pre-heat and/or PWHT (Using the Carbon equivalent or CE value)
B) To determine the weldability of the materials to be used
C) To recommend proper welding procedures
D) To recommend proper welding techniques

Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 10.8  MATL TEST REPORTS  Welding Engineer duties

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174. AWS defines weldability as as the capacity of a metal to be welded under fabrication
conditions imposed into a specific suitably designed structure and to:

A) Perform satisfactorily in service

B) Meet all requirements intended by the end user
C) Meet all requirements of the Welding Procedure Specification
D) They are not supplied to the purchaser and must be purchased separately

Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 10.9  WELDABILITY

175. A primary factor affecting Weldability of metals and alloys is:

A) Physical properties of a metal (such as tensile & yield strength, ductility, hardness, toughness)
B) Mechanical properties of a metal (such as strength, ductility and toughness)
C) Specific welding processes being employed
D) Chemical composition

Ans: D … Ref: Sect. 10.9.1  WELDABILITY  Chemical composition  P-Nos/A-Nos

176. The addition of carbon generally makes the metal:

A) More difficult to weld B) Less difficult to weld

C) Has no effect on weldability D) None of these is correct (Depends on alloy)

Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 10.9.1  WELDABILITY  Density is not a mech property!

177. Alloying elements (manganese, chromium, nickel and molybdenum) are added to

A) Provide beneficial effects on strength, toughness, and corrosion resistance

B) Provide beneficial effects on toughness and corrosion resistance only
C) Provide beneficial effects on corrosion resistance only
D) None of these are correct

Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 10.9.1  Metallurgy & Weldability

178. One tool developed to help evaluate the weldability of CS & LA steel is the:

A) Carbon equivalent (CE) & tramp element calc B) Theoretical Carbon content equation
C) Carbon equivalent (CE) equation D) None of these are correct
Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 10.9.1  Metallurgy & Weldability

179. Which statement is true regarding weldability testing?

A) No single test can be expected to measure all aspects of weldability (many tests are needed)
B) The only way to determine weldability of a metal is to perform direct weldability tests
C) Direct tests for weldability specify strength as an essential feature of the test specimen
D) None of these are correct

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Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 10.9.2  Weldability Testing

180. Weldability Tests that evaluate strength include:

A) Weld tension tests, shear strength, hardness and toughness

B) Weld tension tests, shear strength, and hardness tests only
C) Weld tension tests and shear strength tests only
D) None of these are correct

Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 10.9.2  Weldability Testing

181. The four classifications of fabrication weldability tests are broadly classified as:

A) Restraint cracking, lamellar tearing, externally loaded cracking, and underbead cracking
B) Restraint cracking, lamellar cracking, externally loaded cracking, and HAZ cracking
C) Restraint cracking, lamellar tearing, externally loaded cracking, and HAZ cracking
D) None of these is correct

Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 10.9.2  Weldability Testing

182. Which statement is false regarding Austenitic Stainless Steel?

A) They are considered to have poor weldability & are limited to few welding processes
B) They are used for their corrosion resistance & resistance to high temperature degradation
C) They are iron-based alloys that typically contain low carbon & nickel between 8% – 37%
D) They are iron-based alloys that typically contain low carbon & chromium between 15% –32%

Answer: A … Ref: Sect. 10.10.1  Weldability of SS  SS has good weldability

183. Which of these are NOT IMPORTANT considerations for welding austenitic SS?

A) Solidification cracking (fusion zone) & hot cracking (hot shortness) in partially melted zone
B) Maintaining corrosion resistance
C) Sluggishness during welding
D) Distortion during welding

Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 10.10.1  Weldability of SS  Sluggishness = Nickel steels issue

184. The most common measure of weldability & susceptibility to hot cracking is the:

A) Hardness of the weld metal and HAZ

B) Ferrite number of the weld metal
C) Hardenability of the weld metal
D) None of these is correct

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Answer: B … Ref: Sect. 10.10.1  Weldability of SS  Ferrite Number & Hot cracking
Austenitic welds require a minimum amount of delta ferrite to resist cracking. A number of
resources recommend a minimum of 5% – 20% ferrite to prevent cracking.

185. Which statement about weldability of austenitic SS (when compared to CS) is false?

A) Distortion is more often a problem with welding of austenitic SS than CS or low-alloy steels
B) Coefficient of thermal expansion of Austenitic SS is about 30% greater than carbon steel
C) Thermal conductivity of austenitic SS is about one third that of carbon steel
D) Less frequent tack welds are needed for Austenitic SS than carbon steel

Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 10.10.1  SS Weldability  Distortion & Coeff. of Therm. Exp.

186. Which statement about weldability of Nickel alloys (when compared to SS) is false?

A) Alloys such as C276 or Alloy 625 suffer from similar problems as austenitic SS
B) Most nickel alloy materials are considered to have less weldability than austenitic SS
C) Alloy 200 and 400 has very similar welding characteristics when compared to austenitic SS
D) Alloy 825, 600 and 625 have similar welding characteristic when compared to austenitic SS
Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 10.10.2  Nickel alloy Weldability  Compare to SS weldability

187. Which statement about weldability of Nickel alloys is false?

A) Bevel angle for nickel alloys must be wide enough to allow for welding torch oscillation
B) The wider weld bevel and thinner root face will be beneficial with respect to weld penetration
C) Susceptibility to hot cracking can be prevented by minimizing the restraint & good preheating
D) The faster a nickel alloy weld solidifies, the less time it stays in a temp range where it can tear

Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 10.10.2  Nickel alloy Weldability  Always Minimize preheat
with Nickel alloys as preheating slows down the cooling rate of the weld causing hot tearing

188. Weld cracking results during Hot taps and In-service welding when:

A) Welders fail to use low-hydrogen electrodes

B) Welders fail to properly preheat the weld joint (remove moisture)
C) Fast weld-cooling rates (caused by flowing contents) produce a hard weld microstructure
D) None of these are correct
Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 11.2  Hot Taps & In-Service Welding  Two primary concerns

189. What statement is FALSE regarding the adverse effect of using cellulosic electrodes
(when compared to low-hydrogen electrodes) for welding ops on Hot taps & In-service?

A) Cellulosic electrodes (6010, etc) have a higher risk of HAC than low-hydrogen electrodes
B) Cellulosic electrodes exhibit much deeper penetration with a higher risk of burn-through
C) Cellulosic electrodes high diffusible hydrogen has high risk of underbead cracks (HAC)

35
D) Cellulosic electrodes provide less control over the welding arc and greater risks

Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 11.2  Hot Taps & In-Service Welding  Two primary concerns

190. What is a problem with a high gas flow rates during Hot taps & In-service welding?

A) Faster flow rates may cool weld area too quickly causing hard zones susceptible to cracking
B) There is no problem if preheated to at least 70°F (20°C) & this temperature is maintained
C) If the flow cools the metal to below dew point, it can cause cracking
D) High flow rates are not a problem when the pipe contains gases
Ans: D … Ref: Sect. 11.2  Hot Taps/In-Service Welding  Liquid flow rates (not gas)

191. Which of the statements below regarding Hot Taps and In-service welding is false?

A) Avoid weaving beads (use stringer beads only) to minimize heat input
B) Adverse effects can also occur from the heat transferred to process fluid
C) Welds in ethylene and propylene service can easily crack due to high heat input
D) Welds cannot be stress relieved in Wet H2S service (suffer Hydrogen embrittlement, SCC)
Answer: C … Ref: Sect. 11.2  Hot Taps/In-Service Welding  EXPLOSION  Class 1

192. Inspection tasks associated with hot taps or welding on in-service equip include all of
these EXCEPT:

A) Verify adequate wall thickness & WPS qualified specifically for hot taps/in-service welding
B) Verify fit-up of hot tap fitting, specify sequence of welding full encirclement sleeves/fittings
C) Auditing welding to assure WPS is followed & perform NDE (VT, etc) of completed welds
D) Witness leak testing of fitting, if specified and verifying no flow conditions
Answer: D … Ref: Sect. 11.2  Hot Taps/In-Service Welding  Verify Flow conditions

A.1 Weld Joint Types

Figure A-1 illustrates the various weld joint types that are typically encountered by the inspector.
The type of joint can affect the type of weld process that can be used and on choice of NDE
method.
A.2 Weld Symbols
Engineering and construction drawings often use standard symbols to represent weld details.
Figure A-2 shows the corresponding symbols for several weld joint types. Figure A-3 shows
some supplementary symbols that provide specific detail about the weld. Figure A-4 explains the
conventions used in a weld symbol.
A.3 Weld Joint Nomenclature

36
Standard terminology applies to the various components of a weld joint. Figure A-5 illustrates
and describes the joint terminology.
A.4 Electrode Identification
The AWS specification and classification system allows selection of an electrode, which will
provide a weld metal with specific mechanical properties and alloy composition. The following
welding processes use an electrode identification system to designate characteristics of the
electrode: SMAW, GMAW, GTAW, FCAW, and SAW.

37