F1 celestial nav.

Which celestial body may sometimes be observed in daylight?

Venus

In order for a body to be observed at lower transit ______.

the body must be circumpolar

In the navigational triangle, the angle at the zenith is the _______.

azimuth angle

Which term is used only with reference to bodies whose centers are on the celestial horizon?
Amplitude

Which body must not be applied with parallax correction?

Star

Local apparent time is measured from the ______.

lower branch of the meridian

Local hour circle is measured westward from the upper branch of the celestial meridian to the body along the _____.
celestial equator

What is the point in the ecliptic through which the sun passes in changing from south to north declination?
Vernal equinox

In celestial navigation the angle measured westward from the first point of aries to the hour circle of the body along the celestial equator is known as:
Sidereal hour angle

When the time is based on the movement of the visible sun along the ecliptic, the time is known as ______time.
Apparent

90 deg. minus declination is the _______.

I. co-declination
II. polar distance
Either I or II
Which is the angular distance of a celestial body North or south of the prime vertical?
Amplitude

What is this path that the body appear to take daily?

Diurnal circle

When the sun and the moon are both on the same meridians as the observer, the high tide occuring is called ____ tide.
Spring

The parallel of latitude at 23 deg.27'S is the ______.

Tropic of Capricorn

When taking a compass error by amplitude in the higher latitudes when is the best time to take the bearing?
Calculate the time of the sunset and then take the bearing

The reference point for determination of GMT is the passage of the mean Sun over the ______.
180 deg. Longitude

What is the arc measured from the lower branch of the greenwich to the hour circle of the body in a westerly direction?
GMT

What is the point in the ecliptic when the sun stands still before it continues moving to the opposite direction?
summer solstice

The parallel of latitude at 23 deg.27'N is the ______.

Tropic of cancer

Which is not a side of the navigational triangle?

Altitude

Azimuth angle of a body is measured from the ______.

Celestial meridian

While steering a course of 270 T, you wish to check the ship's course using the sun. Which azimuth of the sun should it be?
180
If the declination is zero, at the meridian ______.
I. the body will be at the equinoctial during upper transit
II. the bears south if the observer is at north latitude
Both I and II

What month is the earth at the perihelion?

January

The Nautical Almanac is the annual publication that provides source of astrological data, such as _______ of celestial bodies at any given instance.
GHA and declination

The optical principle of a sextant that when a ray of light reflected from a plane surface, the angle of reflection is equal to the angle of _______
Incidence

A vertical circle passes through the zenith, nadir, the body and a point on the horizon. The point on the horizon will determine the _____ of the body.
Azimuth

What is the term used when the ecliptic intersect the celestial equator?
Equinox

The difference of latitude between the geographical position (GP) of a celestial body and your position, at the time of upper transit, is represented by the _______.
zenith distance

Which error is non-adjustable?

I. Prismatic error
II. Graduation error
Both I and II

The constellation where Polaris belongs is the ______.

Ursa Minor

A slight variation produced because the period of the earth's precession is not uniform due to the varying positions of the moon relative to the earth's equator and
some small effects of the other celestial bodies is called ______.
Nutation

The precession of the equinoxes occurs in a _______ direction.

Westerly
The interval between the sun's upper limb being in the horizon and it's center being 12 degrees below is called ____.
Nautical twilight

The time diagram is a diagram on the plane of the _____.

celestial equator

The new moon cannot be seen because the moon is ______.

between the earth and the sun

Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant causes side error?
Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame

What is correct UTC in this example? Approx. Pos: N49°51' W35°23', zone +2, Local Time 0900.
11 00

A first magnitude star is _____.

2 times as bright as the 2nd magnitude star

What is the motion of bodies of the solar system relative to the surrounding stars?
Space motion

Which has long warm days and short nights in the southern hemisphere?
Winter solstice

A position obtained by observation of celestial bodies is called ______.

Observed

To check your ship's speed, you must take an observation of a celestial body whose azimuth is _______.
same as your heading

In low altitudes, the new moon will always rise at about ______.
Sunrise

If latitude and declination is equal and have the same name, what is the altitude of the body at meridian transit?
90 degrees
What is the interval of time that elapses between two successive transits of a star over the same meridian and is equal to 23 hrs 56 m 04 secs of mean time?
Sidereal day

The error in the measurement of the altitude of a celestial body, caused by refraction, increases as the _______.
altitude of the body decreases

What is the point of the ecliptic that is 90 degrees distance from the equinoxes?
Solstice

The sun's center is coincident with the principal vertical center when at _____.
I. lower transit
II. meridian transit
Both I or II

While steering a course of 270 T, you wish to check the ship's speed using the sun after the meridian passage. Which azimuth of the sun should it be?
270

The angle at the pole measured 180 degrees from the primary meridian to the meridian of the point is known as _______.
Longitude

Which is equal to the zenith distance of the celestial equator?

Latitude

Augmentation correction is for the ______.

Moon

The error in the sextant altitude caused by refraction is greatest when the body is ______.
near the horizon

Which is the time when the size of the Moon is increasing?

Moon waxing

In low altitudes, the full Moon will always rise at about ______.
Sunset

What is the term used when the geographical longitude of two heavenly bodies differ by 180 degrees to their respective positions?
Opposition
The values of GHA and declination, tabulated in the Almanacs are for the _______.
centers of various celestial bodies

The precession of the equinoxes occurs in/an ______ direction

Westerly

The best heavenly body to observe for longitude is the _____.

Sun

What is the azimuth of the body at meridian passage?

I. 000
II. 180
I and II

When do we commonly say that the sun is at the first point of aries?
Vernal equinox

The radius of alcumantar is equal to the ______.

Co-altitude

When the earth's position is nearest to the sun, it is called _______.

Perihelion

How much is the maximum declination of the sun?

23 degrees 27 minutes N or S

While steering a course of 150 true, you wish to observe the Sun for sped check. What must the azimuth be?
330

When a body is on the prime vertical, which side or angle is 90 degrees?

Zenith distance

Which do you call this period of incomplete darkness following sunset and preceding sunrise?
Twilight

What is the arc of an hour circle between the celestial equator and a point on the celestial sphere, measured northward or southward through 90 degrees.
Declination
The spinning of a body about its axis is known as ______.
Rotation

The sun's center may be coincident with both the celestial equator and the observer's prime vertical ______.
when the declination is zero

What is the correction applied to the visible horizon to obtain the sensible horizon?
Dip

If the Lat is 45 degrees north and the declination is 45 degrees north, which of the following is/are true?
A. The altitude at meridian passage is 90 degrees.
B. The sun will not set.
Both A and B

The center of the circle of equal altitude, plotted on the surface of the earth, is the _______.
GP of the body

When the earth is farthest from the sun, it is called ______.

Aphelion

A great circle which plane passes through the line connecting the observer's zenith and the center of the Earth is called the _______ horizon.
Rational

What is the reference in determining the sidereal time?

First point of aries

The error in the measurement of the altitude of the celestial body, caused by refraction, increases as the ______.
altitude of the body decreases

Motion of a celestial body in its orbit is called _______.

Revolution

At higher latitudes, in which horizon must the sun be observed in determining amplitude?
Visible

The period of the earth's revolution from perihelion to aphelion is the ________ year.
Anomalistic
The sidereal day begins when the ______.
First point of Aries is over the upper branch of the meridian

What is the geographical position of a body whose GHA is 205 degrees?

155 degrees east

What do you call the angular distance measured from the prime meridian to the star in a westward direction?
GHA star

Which term refers to the two points of intersection of the moon's orbit and the ecliptic?
Nodes

The meridian altitude of the body can only be 90 degrees if the ______.
latitude and declination is the same

The navigator is concerned with three system of coordinates. Which sytem is NOT of major concern?
Ecliptic

In order for a body to be observed at lower transit ______.

latitude and declination same name and sum must not be less than 90 degrees

The earth is at perihelion at what month?

January

Which is/are true when a body is on the principal vertical circle?

The body is at it's highest altitude.

Which causes the unequal duration of night and day?

Declination

The difference of latitude between the geographical position of a celestial body and your position, at the time of upper transit is represented by _______.
zenith distance

In the navigational triangle, the angle at the elevated pole is the ______.
meridian angle

An observer at greenwich, if the LHA of the sun is 200 deg., what is it's meridian angle?
160 east
If the declination of the sun is at its maximum, What do you call the position or point on the celestial sphere?
Solstices

Which term refers to the path that the body appears to take daily?
Diurnal circle

A sight taken when the celestial body is either due north or south of the observer, this LOP extends on an east-west direction, what do you call this?
Latitude line

What is the name of the angle by which the visible horizon differs from the horizontal of the observer?
Dip of the horizon

Which is equal to the declination of the elevated pole?

Latitude

What is the angular distance North or South measured from the celestial equator or equinoctial along the hour circle of the body?
Declination

The interval between the sun's upper limb being in the horizon and it's center being 6 degrees below is called _____.
Civil twilight

A sidereal day is shorter than a solar day due to ______.

the use of different reference points

What is the position of the moon farthest away from the sun called?
Apogee

90 degrees minus Ho =
I. zenith distance
II. co-altitude
Both I and II

Equation of time is taken from the Nautical almanac for use in celestial navigation, it is used to determine ______.
Time of local apparent noon

Which constellation contains the pointer stars?

Ursa Major
Which statement/s is/are true about a body having an azimuth of 180 degrees true?
I. It will give an LOP that determines your latitude
II. The body is at your meridian.
Both I and II

A vertex of the navigational triangle is NOT located at the ______.

depressed pole

A latitude line will be obtained by observing a body ______.

I. lower transit
II. at the principal vertical circle
Either I or II

A variable star is one that ______.

exhibits a change in magnitude

Height of eye is measured from______.

I. sea level to the eye of the observer
II. horizon to the eye of the observer
I only

Zenith distance is measured along the ______.

vertical circle

What is the distance measured on the hour circle from the elevated pole to the body?
Polar distance

How would you know if the length of the day is equal to the lenght of night?
If the declination is zero

Which is the correction applied to the visible horizon to obtain the sensible horizon?
Dip

The radius of equal altitude of a body is equal to the _____.

co-altitude of the body

When the phase of the moon is at new and full and the visible portion of the moon is increasing, it is said to be _____.
Waxing
Which is the name of the angle by which the visible horizon differs from the horizontal of the eye of the observer?
Dip of the horizon

"Opposition" occurs when ______

the earth is between a planet and the sun

The length of the year with respect to the vernal equinox is the ______ year.
Tropical

Which is then equivalent of the GHA in the horizon system of coordinates?

Azimuth

What do you call this period of incomplete darkness following sunset and preceding sunrise?
Twilight

A sextant having an index error that is "off the arc" has a _______.
Positive error

What is a small circle of the celestial sphere that is parallel to the celestial equator, w/c is the daily path of a celestial body?
I. Parallel of declination
II. Diurnal circle
Both I and II

Which great circle is always need to form the astronomical triangle?

Celestial meridian

Planets whose orbits are located outside the earth's orbit are classified ______.
superior planets

What is the angle at the pole between the SHA and the hour circle of the body measured eastward?
RA

Which is the great circle that passess through the zenith, nadir, east and west point of the horizon?
Prime vertical

An hour circle passes through the poles, the body and a point on the celestial equator. The point on the celestial equator will determine the _______ of the body.
Azimuth

Where is the body if there is no astronomical triangle?

Principal vertical circle

Superior conjunction occurs when _____.

the sun is between the earth and a planet

If an observer is at 30 deg. S latitude, his zenith is _____.

30 deg. south of the celestial equator

The sun's center may be coincident with both the celestial equator and the observer's prime vertical circle when _____.
it's declination is zero

What is the length of the year with respect to vernal equinox?

Tropical year

What is the point on the terrestrial sphere which is directly below the zenith?
Position of the observer

What is the arc of the vertical circle between the horizon and a point on the celestial sphere measured from the horizon?
Altitude

Which is NOT a side of the navigational triangle?

Declination

When celestial bodies rise vertically above the horizon as it appears to an observer is known as the ______ celestial sphere.
Right

The parallel of latitude at 66 deg 33 mins north is the ______.

Arctic circle

The azimuth angle of the sun is always measured from the ______.
principal vertical circle

The chronometer is gaining if the _____.

Error has gone from slow to less slow

The interval between the sun's upper limb being in the horizon and it's center being 18 degrees below is called ______.
Astronomical twilight

Apparent time is based on ______.

the visible Sun moving along the ecliptic

What is the zenith distance of the sun at theoretical sunrise or sunset?

90 degrees

The meridian altitude of the body can only be 90 degrees if ______.

The latitude and declination is equal

Where is the body when its meridian angle is zero?

Meridian transit

When observing stars, those to the east and west will ____.
change altitude rapidly

What instrument aboardship reflects the time in the Royal Observatory at Greenwich, England?
Chronometer

If the declination of the sun is zero, what do you call the position or point on the celestial sphere?
Equinoxes
Which is the great circle that passess through the zenith, nadir, north and south point of the horizon?
Principal vertical circle
What is the angular distance measured from the first point of aries eastward to the body?
RA
What is the primary use of apparent time in marine navigation?
Determine time of meridian passage
What statement/s is/are true about a body having an azimuth of 090 degrees true?
I. Will give an LOP that determines your longitude
II. The body is at the prime vertical
Both I and II

The best time to observe for longitude is when the sun is on or near the ______.
prime vertical

In the celestial equator system of coordinates, which is the equivalent to the meridians of the Earth system of coordinates?
Hour circles

The azimuth angle of the sun is always measured from the _____.
elevated pole

The center of the circle of equal altitude, plotted on the Earth, is the _______.
geographical position of the body

In the navigational triangle the angle at the elevated pole is the _______.
meridian angle

Height of eye is measured from______.

I. sea level to the eye of the observer.
II. horizon to the eye of the observer.
I only

To check your ship's course you must observe a celestial body whose azimuth is _______.
Neither A nor B

The difference between mean time and apparent time of the sun at any instance is called ______.
equation of time

What is the angular distance between the prime vertical and the sun during rising and setting?
Amplitude

Due to the reflecting properties of a sextant, a sextant altitude reading of 60 degrees will have an actual reading of _______ degrees.
30

During one synodic rotation, a body makes one complete turn relative to the ______.
Sun

The radius of a circle of equal altitude of the body is equal to the ______.
co-altitude of the body
What heavenly body/ies can determine our latitude?
I. Polaries
II. A body whose azimuth is 180
I and II

Which is the angle at the celestial pole between the lower branch of the local celestial meridian and the hour circle of the mean sun?
LMT

In the horizon system of coordinates, which is equivalent to the declination of the equator system?
Altitude

Which is the non-adjustable error of the sextant?

Prismatic error
The best time to observe for longitude is when the sun is on the _______.
Prime vertical
When is an ex-meridian sight of a body taken?
Within 28 minutes of meridian pasage
A time diagram is a diagram on the plane of the ______.
celestial equator
Which is the intercepted arc of a vertical circle between the celestial horizon and the alcumantar?
Altitude
The maximum difference between mean time and apparent time is _____.
16 minutes
Parallax error is caused by ______.
being on the surface of the earth rather than in the center
What is the azimuth of the body at the prime vertical?
I. 090 II. 270 III. 180
I and II
True azimuth of the body is measured from the north along the ______.
horizon
What is the 'equation of time' use forin celestial navigation when taken from the Nautical almanac?
To determine meridian passage
In latitude 45 degrees South, the sun's declination is zero degrees; What will be the approximate azimuth on rising?
090
A latitude line will be obtained when observing a body at ___.
I. upper transit
II. lower transit
Both I and II
What are points in the celestial sphere directly above the poles of the earth?
celestial poles
At uper transit the zenith distance is 34 deg.,the geographical distance from the observer to the body is ______.
2040
In the horizon system of coordinates, which is equivalent to the Longitude on Earth?
Azimuth angle

F1 Magnetic

The purpose of the soft iron spheres mounted on the arms of the binnacle is to compensate for_______.
induce magnetism in the ch

What are these sphere shape soft irons placed near a magnetic compass to correct deviation?
Quadrantal correctors

In a situation when a vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 356 deg. Which action should be taken to removed this
error during compass adjustment?
If the red ends of the magnets are to port, lower the athwartship tray.

What is the term used when a force is applied on a gyro wheel spinning in a direction causing it to tilt?
Precession
Which gyrocompass error is caused by the rolling motion of the vessel?
Quadrantal
What is this semi-circular deviation which is proportional to the sine of the compass heading?
Coefficient B
Which may influence a magnetic compass?
I. Iron pipe
II. Electrical wiring
Either I or II
When taking a compass error by amplitude in the higher latitudes when is the best time to take the bearing?
Calculate the time of the sunset and then take the bearing
The magnetic soft iron of sphere shape located near the magnetic compass used to correct deviation is called _____.
Quadrantal spheres
Magnetic variation changes with the change in _______.
location
When crossing the magnetic equator the ______.
heeling magnet must be inverted
Which may influence a magnetic compass?
I. Radio
II. Putting the binnacle on top of a base made of brass
I only
What is the angle formed when the magnetic meridian is misaligned with the true north meridian?
Variation
The lubber's line on a magnetic copass compass indicates _______.
direction of the vessel's head
Gyro compass error caused by tilting of the gymbal mounting system due to horizontal acceleration of the vessel is called _______.
quadrantal error
Deviation which is maximum on inter-cardinal compass headings may be removed by the ______.
soft iron spheres on the side of the compass
What is the angle of observationIfISOBARSARETROPAN between true north as a reference point measured clockwise to the direction of the object being
measured?
True bearing
Which is a two-axis gyroscope where the gyroscope wheel is mounted in the gimgal at right angle?
Position gyroscope
What curve passess through place of zero dip or inclination on a compass needle?
Magnetic equator
Which is a temporary oscillatory error of the gyrocompass that is introduced when the north-south component of the speed changes causing a surge of mercury?
Ballistic deflection error
Compass error is the difference between the ______.
compass course and true course
When the magnetic compass is Not used for a prolonged period of time _______.
it should be shielded from direct sunlight
A vessel heading SSW is on a course of _______.
202.5

The advantage/s of a magnetic over a gyro compass is ___.

I. it is more accurate when near the equator
II. it does not rely on the ship's power
II only
At the master gyrocompass, the compass card is attached to the _______.
sensitive element
What do you call the condition at which the gyroscope devices should be insensitive to applied acceleration?
Schuller tuned
What should be done if a magnetic compass is NOT used for a prolonged period of time?
Shield from direct sunlight
The property of the gyroscope which cause it to maintain its plane of rotation is the _______.
Rigidity
One of the advantage of gyrocompass over a magnetic compass is _______
its performance is not affected by magnetic fields
What do you call the gyroscope error caused by the earth's rotation that affects the heading system?
Drift error
Which is the effect on the deviation to permanent magnetism of your ship as you approach the magnetic equator?
Decreases
Which compensates for the induced magnetism in the horizontal soft iron of a vessel?
Iron spheres mounted on the binnacle
What is the error caused by horizontal soft irons on board and horizontal force by the earth?
Quadrantal deviation
Before a magnetic compass is adjusted certain correctors must be checked to ensure that they are free of permanent magnetism. Which correctors are these?
Flinders bar and Quadrantal spheres
Which is made of soft unmagnetized iron placed vertically near a magnetic compass to counteract deviation?
Flinders bar
Vertical component of the earth's magnetic field causes induced magnetism in the vertical soft iron. This changes with latitude when you are adjusting the
compass. What is the corrector for this coefficient of deviation?
Flinders bar
The force that will cause the axis of a spinning gyroscope to turn in a 90 degree direction away is called ______.
torque
Which one is the characteristic of the gyroscopoe to resist any force that tends to change its axis of rotation?
Gyroscopic inertia
What is this property of a gyroscope that is exhibited when a force is applied?
Precession
This is a rapidly rotating mass free to move about one or both axis perpendicular to the axis of rotation and to each other. What is this?
Gyroscope
Which is the vertical angle between the horizontal and the magnetic line of force?
Dip
You are about to go to sea and adjust the magnetic compass. To expedite the adjustment at sea, in which order must the following dockside adjustments be
made?
Flinders bar first, then the spheres and heeling magnets
A vessel heading WSW is on a course of ______.
247.5
Error may be introduced into a magnetic compass by _____.
I. making a structural change to the vessel
II. a short circuit near the compass
Either I or II
What is this two axis gyroscope where the gyroscope wheel is mounted in the gymbal at right angle?
Position gyroscope
Compass error is equal to the ______.
Algebraic sum of deviation and variation

Which is the angular distance between the true heading and the heading indicated by the lubber line?
Lubber's line error
A temporary oscillatory error of the gyrocompass introduced when the north-south component of the speed changes causing a surge of mercury?
Ballistic deflection error
Magnets are placed in the horizontal trays in the compass binnacle to compensate for ______.
permanent magnetism of the vessel
What is this flywheel in a universal mounting where the axle is free to point in any direction?
Gyroscope

F1 Met-o

The steepness of a cold front depends on ______.

its velocity

The low, dark, sheet-like clouds which associated with continous precipitation for many hours is a ______ cloud.
Nimbostratus

Which one is the correct weather sequence associated with a "warm front"?
In advance-continous rain; during passage-rain almost or completely stops; in the rear-mainly cloudy and slight rain

To locate your position relative to a hurricane in the northern hemisphere, if the wind direction remains steady, but with diminishing velocity, you are mostly
________.
on the storm track behind the center

A depression is said to be deepening if pressure _____.

falling around the center

What is the instrument used to measure solar radiation?

Pyrheliometer
What is this horizontal area covered by the cyclonic condition of the tropical revolving storm called?
Vortex
Early indications of of the approach of a hurricane may be all of the following EXCEPT ________.
short confused swell
If you are in the southern hemisphere and experience a SW wind, where is the center of the low pressure area situated?
SE
An occluded depression tends to move ______.
slowly and irregularly
The atmosphere in the vicinity of a high pressure area is called a/an ______.
anti-cyclone
What do you call a tornado if it moves over the water from land?
Waterspout
Isotherms are the lone joining places having the same _____.
temperature
Which wind system occupies most of the tropics and blows the sub-tropical highs towards the equatorial trough?
Trade winds
Fog clears when _____.
wind speed increases
Which type of frontal passage is associated with a relatively narrow band of precipitation?
Cold front
If the vessel is between latitudes 5-20 deg. North, the most likely direction of movement of a storm is ______.
west-northeast
Which occurs when the moon is between 2nd quarter and full moon and between 4th quarter and new moon?
Neap tide
Which wind indicates that you are in the dangerous semi-circle?
Veering
Moonsoon winds is strongest at the ______ ocean.
Indian
Which tide occurs when the moon is at the quadrature?
Spring
You are 10-60 n.m. away from the center of a cyclone. What barometric changes should you expect?
Rapid fall
If an observer in the northern hemisphere experiences a NW wind, where is the center of the low pressure situated?NE
NE
The lines on the weather chart that join points having the same pressure tendency are termed ______.
isallobars
Which are low clouds?
Nimbostratus, stratocumulus
A narrow peninsula of ice is called ______.
ice tongue
Which surface wind is also known as drainage or gravity wind?
Katabatic wind
The dew point is reached when the ______.
air becomes saturated with water vapor
Spring tides occur at times of _______.
new and full moon
What is this hypothethical wind that blows parallel to the isobars with no tendency to curve because of balanced horizontal forces?
Geostrophic wind
A low uniform layer of cloud resembling a fog, but Not resting on the ground, is called ______.
Stratus

Oceans average depth is _____ fathoms.

2,075
What is a form of ice that is of land origin?
Bergy bit
In a typhoon the "eye" is a small central region of ______.
comparatively light winds and little clouds
What is this violent revolving storm of small diameter that travels over land and produces great devastation?
Tornado
Which is true about the speed of fronts?
Cold fronts move faster than warm fronts
What is the seasonal wind blowing from a large land mass to the ocean in the winter time and an opposite direction during summer?
Monsoon
The bases of middle clouds are located at altitudes of between ______.
6,500-20,000 feet (1981-6096 m)
Which ice is most hazardous to navigation?
Growlers
Which of these are high clouds?
Cirrus, cirrocumulus,cirrostratus
A sling psychrometer is used to measure _______.
dry and wet bulb temperature
A condition wherein the horizon has disappeared and there is no shadows is called _______.
Whiteout
Which kind of conditions happens when the eye of the storm passes over your vessel's position?
Huge waves approaching from all directions, clearing skies, light winds and an extremely low barometric pressure
As the temperature of the air reaches the dew point, ______.
fog may form
Altostratus clouds are defined as ______ clouds.
vertical development
What are the two effective generating forces of surface ocean currents?
Wind and density differences in the water
Which is NOT a physical property of seawater?
Alkalinity
When crossing a front, isobars tend to _______.
change from smooth curves within the air mass to sharp bends at the front
Which is correct regarding the effect of coriolis force on ocean currents?
The coriolis force is more effective in deep water
The wind circulation around a high pressure center in the Northern Hemisphere is ______.
clockwise and moving outwards from the high
What is this local disturbance with abrupt changes in variation of pressure, temperature and wind?
Thunderstorm
The greater the pressure difference between the high and the low pressure center, the ______.
greater the force of the wind.
One of the causes of the ocean current is density differences in the water. This is true because ______.
in an area of high density, the water surface is lower than in an area of low density.

On the Beaufort scale, hurricane force corresponds to wind force ______.

12
Which type of precipitation is a product of the violent convection found in thunderstorm?
Hail
Which results from the differential gravitational forces of the moon and the sun?
Tidal phenomenom
The hurricane season in the North Atlantic ocean reaches its peak during the month of ______.
September
Which term is defined as an atmospheric obscurity due to the presence of solid particle?
Haze
Which fog is normally encountered at sea?
Advection
Which type of cloud formation must be of immediate concern to small craft operators?
cumulonimbus
Which is the primary source of the earth's weather?
Sun
When the current flows in the opposite direction to the waves, the waves ______.
height is increased
Two well developed low pressure areas may be separated by a ______ pressure.
ridge of high
Fog forms when the air _______.
temperature is equal to or below the dew point temperature.
Which is NOT a form of precipitation?
Frost
Which condition suggests that you are in the navigable semi-circle of a tropical storm?
Backing wind
A cold wind blowing down from the slope of a mountain is called a _______.
fall wind
This is the undulation or ridge on the surface on the fluid that is being generated by the friction of the wind. What is it?
Wave
The expression "air is saturated" means ______.
the relative humidity is 100%
Which is a wind laden with snow mostly or entirely picked up from the ground?
Blizzard
Should recommended route information be used in conjunction with weather routing?
Yes
In the northern hemisphere, if an observer experiences a NE wind, where is the center of the low pressure area?
SE
Which controls the climate of the Gulf coast area during late spring and summer?
The Bermuda High
Advection fog may be formed by cold air passing over a ____.
warmer sea surface
What causes the windflow from the horse latitude to the doldrums to deflect?
Coriolis force
From what clouds do tornado or waterspout develop?
Cumulonimbus
The wind velocity is higher in the dangerous semi-circle of a tropical cyclone because of the _______.
wind circulation and the forward motion of the storm
The belt of high pressure extending around 35 degrees North is called ______.
horse latitude
Clouds with the prefix "Nimbo" in their name _____.
are rain clouds
As the temperature for a given mass of air increases, the _______.
relative humidity decreases
What causes a frontal thunderstorm?
Warm air mass rising over a cold air mass
In the storm center, where does the dangerous semi-circle lies?
To the right of the direction of storm's movement
Which is a large mass of sea ice, consisting of various floes, pressure ridges and openings?
Pack ice
If there is large inequality in the high water heights or in low water, it is called _____ tide.
mixed
Your ship is 120-150 n.m. from the center of a tropical revolving storm. What barometric changes should you expect?
A slow fall with diurnal variation still in evidence
What is this light, feathery deposit of ice caused by the sublimation of water vapor into crystalline form?
Frost
Relative humidity is the percentage of water vapor that is in the air as compared to the maximum amount it can hold at _______.
a specific temperature

Which current in the North Pacific ocean corresponds to the Gulf Stream?
Kuro shio
How is the state of the sea at the "eye" of a hurricane?
Very high and confused
Visibility means _____.
the distance at which prominent objects are identifiable
Which is NOT a contributing cause of ocean currents?
Gravitational effects of celestial bodies
What is another term for "wind circulation"?
Wind in the lower troposphere
Your vessel is believed to be in the storm area, if the wind is steady in direction and the velocity is decreasing, you are in the _______.
Storm track, behind center
Cumulonimbus clouds are formed by ______.
vertical air movements
Which type of ice is free to move under the action of wind and sea?
Pack
Which are medium clouds?
Cirrus, cirrucumulus
An air mass is termed "warm" if _____.
the ground over which it moves is cooler than the air
Which is the correct sequence of visibility associated with a "cold front"?
In advance-usually poor; during passage-first bad then good; in the rear-usually very good except in showers
A slow, gradual fall of the barometer indicates approaching ________.
deteriorating or unsettled weather
A typical warm front approaching brings _______.
rising temperatures and falling barometric pressure
The Beaufort scale is the practical means of indicating the wind _______ from the appearance of the sea.
Force
Hot air can hold ______.
more moisture than cold air

In the northern hemisphere, if you happen to be in the direct path of a hurricane, the best course of action is to bring the wind on the ______.
starboard quarter
A warm air mass is characterized by ______.
stability
Swells that have outrun the storm are produced in the _____.
right front quadrant
When there are two high and low water each tidal day, the relatively small inequality in the high and low water heights is termed ______.
semi-diurnal
What is formed when a cold air mass and a warm air mass meets and there is no horizontal motion of either mass?
Stationary front
On the Beaufort scale, storm force correspond to wind force ________.
10
Which measure relative humidity?
Hygrometer
The height of waves depend upon _____.
A. the speed of the wind
B. the duration of the wind
C. the fetch of the wind
all of these
The Humboldt current flows in what direction?
North
Warm air masses must generally have _____.
stratiform clouds
If a depression has a large sector, it has a tendency to ____.
deepen
What do you call the cold ocean current that meets the warm Gulf Stream between the latitudes 0 and 3 N to form the "cold wall"?
Labrador
Which is one of the factors that affects the circulation of ocean currents?
Varying densities of water
What is the process by which temperature and/or moisture characteristics of an air mass changes?
Modification
In which month will the equatorial countercurrent be strongest?
August
The elongated area or longitudinal area of high barometeric pressure is called ______.
ridge
The winds with the greatest effect on the set, drift, and depth of the equatorial currents are the _______.
trade winds
Which is true about advection fog?
Appears during daytime
A relatively permanent wind belt blowing from NE in the northern hemisphere and SE in the southern hemisphere is called _______.
trade wind

The movement of water away from the shore is called _____.

ebb
A thin, whitish, high clouds known as "mare's tail" is _____.
cirrus
Frontal depressions move in families, each depression following its predecessor but in _______.
a slightly lower latitude
Which cloud commonly produces a halo about the Sun or Moon?
Cirrostratus
Which occurs when the moon is between new and first quarter and between full and third quarter?
Priming
If an observer in the southern hemisphere experiences a SE wind, where is the center of the low pressure area?
NE
What does the numeral in the center of the wind rose circle on a pilot chart indicates?
Percentage of calms
What do you call the half of the storm which lies to the left of the path in the southern hemisphere and to the right of the path in the northern hemisphere?
Dangerous semi-circle
Ascending and descending air masses with different temperatures is part of an important heat trnasmitting process in our atmosphere called ______.
convection
Which generally occurs when the land is cooler than the nearby water?
Land breeze
South westerlies and Roaring forties are general surface winds which occur at what latitudes?
40-60 south
An occluded front is represented by a _____ line.
Purple
What may separate two well-develped high pressure areas?
Trough of low pressure
Isobars are the lines joining places having the same ______
pressure
Which occurs when the sea is cooler than the nearby land?
Sea breeze
What is the wind system betwen the latitudes of 30 and 60 North?
Prevailing Westerlies
The inner cloud bands of a hurricane, when viewed from a distance, form a mass of dense, black cumulonimbus clouds called the ______.
bar of the storm
In the eye of the hurricane, the seas are ______.
high and confused in direction
Which strong NE'ly wind has a significance for the mariner at Malta and on the East coast of Sicily?
Gregale
The cause for ice accumulation on the ship is due to freezing of sea spray at the temperature below _____ degrees centigrade.
-5
What is the common name for hurricanes, typhoons or cyclones?
Tropical revolving storms
What is expected during a period of "Whiteout"?
Lack of ability to estimate distance
In what latitude do tropical storms generally originate?
5-25
What is the boundary of air masses on the ground of different characteristics which do not mix with each other?
Front
The equatorial countercurrent in the northern hemisphere generally sets _______.
East
High clouds, composed of small white flakes or globular masses, and often banded together to form a "mackerel sky" are classified as ______.
cirrucumulus
The wind circulation around a high pressure center in the northern hemisphere is _______.
clockwise moving outward from the high
A weather front exists when ______.
air masses of the different temperature meet

What is the narrow belt in the temperate latitudes that separates two convergent masses originating from the two different hemispheres of the earth?
Inter-tropical convergence zone

Clouds that are form as small white flakes or scaly globular mases covering either small or large portions of the sky are _______.
cirrucumulus
Wind force 5 corresponds to wind speed of ______ knots.
17-21
What is the slope of a warm front?
1 mile vertically, 150 miles horizontally
What causes an occluded front?
Cold front overtaking a warm front
When the Gulf stream water encounters cold air evaporation that is so rapid, it causes _____.
frost smoke
Fog forms when the air ______.
temperature is equal to or below the dew point temperature
How does the proximity of ice indicated?
By glare on clouds on the horizon
What is this equatorial belt of calm or light variable winds, lying between the two trade wind belt?
Doldrums
The refraction correction table given in the Nautical Almanac is based on a standard or average atmospheric density of 50 deg. F (10 C) and atmospheric pressure
of ______.
29.83 inches (1010 mb)
Waves caused by storms that continue on without relation to local winds are called _____.
Swell
A cyclone in its final stage of development is called a/an ______.
occluded front
Low atmospheric pressure prevails on the earth's ______
equatorial area
An aneroid barometer reading must be corrected for differences in ______.
elevation
What is the condition of the atmosphere prevailing over a considerable period time in a wide area?
Climate
Which serves as a principal guide to the state of the atmosphere at any given time?
Atmospheric pressure
What is the reason why the doldrum area has light winds and frequent calms?
No steep pressure gradient
The horse latitude are characterized by _______.
weak pressure gradients and light variable winds
At which angle to the isobars do surface winds blow over the open sea?
15 deg
What is this frontal system that is developed when the cold front of an extra tropical cyclone overtakes the warm front?
Occluded front
Cirrus clouds are primary composed of what?
Ice crystals
The dense black cumulonimbus clouds surrounding the eye of a hurricane are called ______.
cloud walls
What is the layer between the troposhere and the stratosphere?
Tropopause
What cloud appears as a grayish or bluish fibrous veil or sheet?
Altostratus
Hurricane season occurs during _______.
June to November
What does an isobars on the weather map predicts?
wind velocity
Which is laden with snow mostly or entirely picked from the ground?
Blizzard
What is this wave motion caused by the meteorological disturbance which persists after the disturbance has calmed down and moved away?
Swell

What causes a "Tsunami"?

Earthquake on th ocean's floor
What is the instrument used to measure the water content of the atmosphere?
Psychrometer
The best time to dock a vessel without tug assistance in a river subject to tidal currents is ______.
at slack water
Which one is the correct pressure sequence associated with a "cold front"?
In advance-fall; during passage-sudden rise; in the rear-rise continues more slowly
What is term used to identify the sudden brief change of wind velocity followed by slackening?
Gust
A phenomenom where the atmospheric pressure is higher than that of other surrounding regions is called ______.
an anticyclone
What is an "ice blink"?
The yellowish-white glare on the underside of a cloud layer.
Which is responsible for the even climate found on the Florida peninsula throughout the year?
The Gulf stream
Cumulus clouds that have undergone vertical development and have become cumulunimbus in form indicate ______.
probable thunderstorm activity
Any fracture or passageway through sea ice which is navigable by surface vessels is termed as _____.
Lead

F1 terr.

What is the most important regarding dates on charts?

Hand correction date
What do you call a position obtained by crossing lines of position taken at different times and advanced it to a common time?
running fix
Departure and distance is the same in what sailing?
parallel
Lines of position may be ______. I. hyperbole
II. straight line
Either I or II
The height of the tide at low water is 0.0 feet. The range is 9.0 feet and the duration is 06h 00m. What will be the height of the tide 02h 12m before high water?
5.7 feet
Which is the equivalent of northeast by east?
56.25
A pilot chart does not contain information about ______.
tidal currents
The heading of the vessel is indicated by what part of the compass?
Lubber's line
What are used to indicate to the mariner an area or feature which are apparent from reference to a chart such as spoil grounds, recreation zones, etc.
Special marks
A line of position is ______.
the line of possible position of the vessel
Which is/are true about a line of position?
I. It is a hyperbole
II. It is a straight line
Both I and II
GMT is 1400H and your zone description is +8. Your zone time is _____.
0600H
What is the main purpose of VTS?
Provide information
Under the IALA cardinal system, a mark with quick white light showing 3 flashes every 10 seconds indicates that the safest water in the area is on the ________ of
the mark.
east
Rigging of the Pilot Ladder and embarkation/disembarkation of a pilot should be supervised by:
A responsible Officer
What purpose has the function "Brilliance/ Intensity/ Brightness" on the radar?
Regulations of the light on the PPI.
For navigational purposes, each great circle on the earth has a length of _______.
21,600 n. mile
The vertical distance between the low and high tide is the _______.
range
Chart legends printed in capital letters show that the associated landmark is _______.
conspicuous
Notice to mariners is issued for correcting _______.

Charts and references

A line of position formed by sighting two objects in line is called a/an _______.
range line
A single LOP combined to a DR position will result to a/an ______.
running fix position
The value of the nautical chart depends upon the ______.
character and the accuracy of the survey on which it is based
What publication contains ocean current information for voyage planning from San Francisco to Tokyo?
Sailing direction
Relative bearing is measured from the ______.
ship's heading
What are the yellow pages of the nautical almanac used for?
Increments and corrections for GHA and declinations
How many points are there in a compass card?
32
Which Cardinal Mark has two cone apexes together on top of the buoy?
West
Under IALA cardinal system, a mark with quick light showing 3 flashes every 10 secs. indicates that the safest water in the area is on the _______ side of the mark
east
Can the OOW be the sole lookout?
Only during day time when visibility, traffic etc make it safe
You are underway at 5 knots and you see on your radar a contact 10 miles directly astern of you. 12 mins later, the contact is 8 miles directly astern of you. Which
is the estimated speed of the contact?
15 knots
What color does a cardinal mark exhibit at night?
White
What are these floating objects, heavily anchored at the bottom that are intended to convey information to a navigator by their shape, color,or characteristics of a
visible or audible signals?
Buoys
What is the difference of longitude when sailing from 95 degrees west to 105 degrees east?
160 degrees west
Your longitude is 124 degrees east, and your local mean time is 0520h on the 5th of the month. The mean time and date at Greenwich is _______.
2104h on the 4th
In calculating a running fix position, what is the minimum number of fixed object needed to take yoiur line of position from?
One
The difference between a DR position and a fix both of which are on the same time is called ______
drift
How many degrees is one point of the compass?
11.25
The standard meridian for time zone +1 is ______.
15 west
Which is ebb current?
Current going out
When you say composite sailing, it is a combination of _____.
two great circles and parallel sailing
Which is a great circle?
I. Equator
II. Meridians
Both I and II
In the IALA sytem region "A" buoyage sytem, a daymark on the starboard side of the channel entering from sea would be indicated on the chart by a ______.
green triangle with the letter "g"
What kind of information can be achieved from a NAVTEX?
Navigational warning.
The transcription "RACON" beside an illustration on a chart should mean a _______.
radar transponder beacon
What do you call the distance between any two meridians along a parallel of latitude?
Departure

The zone time of your LAN is 1154H. Your longitude is 73 deg. 15 mins. east. Which time should you use to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the
declination of the Sun at LAN?
0654H
The shoreline in the charts generally represents the mean _______.
high water line
Who is responsible for the voyage plan?
The navigation officer
The vertical distance from the tidal datum to the level of the water is the ______.
height of tide
Can voyage planning be executed on ECDIS?
No
Which term denote on the surface of the earth the intersection of the line WHEN YOU SAY COM?
Geographical poles
Which part of the magnetic compass indicates the heading of the vessel?
Lubber's line
On march 17, at 0500 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming eastward to west longitude. Which is your local time?
0500H march 16
How many, minimum lines of positions are needed to decide a position using the decca system?
2 lines of position.
Which refers to the period at high or low tide during which there is no change in the height of the water?
Stand of the tide
Which light characteristic should NOT be shown by a buoy used as a port hand mark under the IALA-A buoyage System?
Isophase
Which is the area between a traffic separation scheme and the adjacent coast, usually designated for coastal traffic?
Inshore traffic zone
Which refer to the Spring tides?
The vertical rise or fall of the tide has stopped
A method of determining the equivalent course and distance made good by a vessel following a track consisting of a series of rhumblines is termed ______
sailing.
traverse
What is this is descriptive book for use by the mariners giving detailed informatikon of coastal waters, harbor facolities etc. of an area?
Sailing direction
The value of sixty nautical miles per degree of geodetic latitude is most correct at ________.
latitude 45 degrees
What is this instrument used in measuring the humidity of air consisting of a dry and wet bulb thermometer?
Hygrometer
Variation is NOT constant, it is different with every change in ________.
geographical location
What is the difference between the LAT and the LMT?
equation of time
Yellow lights may appear on what kind of buoy?
Special purpose
A vessel from west longitude going east longitude and crosses the International dateline, the vessel is said to be ______.
west bound vessel
The sounding in charts reads 180 feet. This is equivalent to ________.
30 fathoms
When can you rely on the position of a floating aid to navigation?
When no fixed aid is available
What is the purpose of the function "Anti sea clutter" on the radar?
Reduce the sea echoes.
The description "RACON" beside an illustration on the chart should mean a _______.
radar transponder beacon
What instrument is used to measure the water content of the atmosphere?
Psychrometer
What is the difference of latitude if you are sailing from 30 degrees south to 20 degrees north?
50 degrees north
Which of the positions includes the effects of wind and current?
Estimated
What is the term in ship's routeing used to indicate hazardous areas to be avoided by all vessels?
No go areas
The depth of the water on a chart is indicated as 23 meters. This is equal to ____.
12.6 fathoms
Discounting slip, if your vessel is turning RPM for 10 knots and making good a speed of 10 knots, the current _______.
is slack
A DR point of reference should and most advisable start from _______.
a known position
Daylight saving time is a form of zone time that adopts the time ______.
One zone to the east
The heading of a vessel is indicated by which part of the compass?
Lubber's line
As a vessel changes course to port, the compass card in a magnetic compass _______.
will remain aligned with the compass north
A proper lookout during a navigational watch should be experienced, trained and capable of appraising the situation the ship is in and inform the officer on watch
regarding ____.
dangers of navigation
Compass rose on the nautical chart indicates both variations and ______.
annual rate of variation change
A great circle crosses the equator at 173 degrees east. It will also cross the equator at what longitude?
7 degrees west
The direction of one terrestrial point from another expressed as angular distance from a reference direction usually 000 degrees clockwise through 360 degrees is
called ______.
Bearing
The best objects to use for bearing to obtain a fix are _____.
charted fixed object on shore
Your vessel is making way through the water at a speed of 12 knots. Your vessel travelled 30 n.m. in 2 hrs. and 20 mins. Which current are you experiencing?
A following current of 0.9 knots
Safe water buoys may show ONLY _____.
white lights
Which type of map projection is used in the polar region?
Stereographic
Which publication is needed when entering a foreign port and you require pilot services?
Sailing direction
Wha tis the navigational chart to be used when the vessel is within sight of land, but outside outlying dangers such as shoals and reefs?
General chart
Which is the longitude of the geographical position of the body whose GHA is 310
50 east
Which statement concerning GPS is true?
It may be suspended without warning
The horizontal direction in which a vessel is steered or intended to be steered is the ______
course
Whenever possible, a DR plot should always be started from ________.
a known position
In the philippines at longitude 120 degrees east, what would be the local time wherein the date will be the same all over the world?
2000H
What is an instrument to measure relative humidity?
I. Psychrometer
II. Hydrometer
III. Hygrometer
I and III
What do you call the area wherein the
dredged materials
are dumped?
Spoil ground
If possible a vessel's position should be plotted by bearings of:
Fixed known objects on the shore
What publication would you consult if you want to know the iceberg limits in the north pacific?
I. Coast pilot
II. Pilot chart
II only
On a voyage from Yokohama to San Francisco on march 17, at 0800 zone time, you cross the 180 meridian. Which is your local time?
March 16, 0800
What do you call a line of position formed by sighting two charted objects in line?
range line
What is important to check when transferring a position from GPS to a chart?
Plotting the correct position
The line in the chart connecting soundings of equal depth is called ______
contour
A device which forms part of an echo sounder that converts electrical energy to sound energy or vice versa is called _____.
Transducer
When should operational checks on navigation equipment be done?
Regularly, when preparing for sea and entering port
When using a buoy as an aid to navigation, which of the following should always be considered?
The buoy may not be in its charted position
Indicate three important target data which can be received from radar tracking of other ships?
Course, speed and risk of collision.
In coastal waters GPS positions should be checked by?
Visual and radar observations
In which of the following sources could you find the number of a chart for a certain geographical area?
Catalogue of nautical charts
What is the geographical position of a body whose GHA is 125 degrees?
125 west
The term used to describe the rhumb line courses and distances between two places, which are NOT on the same parallel of latitude is called ______.
traverse sailing
Should recommended route information be used in conjunction with weather routing?
Yes
Where do you write the note that the chart has been corrected?
At the left lower corner
The path the a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart by a line drawn from the point of departure to the point of arrival, is the _______.
track line
Which is a characteristic of the light shown by a preferred channel mark?
I. Interrupted quick flashing
II. Composite group flashing
II only
Chart legends printed in capital letters show that the associated landmark is ______.
conspicous
Which statement is true for an observer at 54 deg. east longitude if your local time is 1200H?
It is midnight at 120 deg west
The shoreline on the charts generally represents the mean ______.
high water line
One nautical mile is equal to ______.

6080 feet
A safe water mark is painted and lighted by ______.
vertical red and white stripes with a Morse(A) light
Which of the following is the most accurate position?
Radar ranges of land features
What chart is to be consulted to avoid icebergs along the way?
Pilot chart
Parallel to the coast you took a running fix using bearings of the same object. If your speed is less than what you used for the running fix, you are ______.
closer to the coast
Which refer to the spring tide?
Tides that have lows lower than normal and highs higher than norma
Variation changes with every change in ______.
I. ship's position
II. geographical position
Both I and II
An alternating light _______.
shows a continous light that changes color
The standard meridian for zone +4 is ______.
60 degrees west
What is a light that shows one or more flashes at regular intervals, the duration of light being less than that of darkness
Flashing
How many years is a nodal period in a lunar cycle?
19

Notice to mariners is the publication advising the mariners of important matters affecting navigation safety and is published ________.
weekly
How many days is a lunar month?
29.5
What is the advantages of a GPS satellite system compared to other navigational aids?
The GPS system gives information about position, speed and time continuously world wide.
The best fix obtained from two known objects ashore is when the angle between the lines of position is ______ degrees.
90
The LMT of LAN is 1215H. Your longitude is 70.5 degrees East Which time should you use to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun
at LAN?
0733H
The wind speed and direction observed from a moving vessel is known as _______.
apparent wind
Buoys in the IALA system "A" which are used as isolated danger marks are painted ______.
red and black bands
What is this body which brings together representatives from the aids to navigation services in order to exchange information & recommend inprovements to
navigational aids?
Int'l Association of Lighthouse Authorities
The date is the same all over the world at ______.
1200 GMT
What is the earth's representation on a surface, either plane or curve according to a definite plan?
Chart projection
Deviation is/are caused by ______.
I. magnetic anomaly of the locality
II. magnetic properties within the vessel
II only
What is the purpose of radar tracking of other ships?
To receive information about ships in the vicinity.
Which mark is used in conjunction with the compass to indicate the safe navigable water?
Cardinal
You are on course 330 T, the relative bearing is 45 degrees. What is the true course?
015
Which publication can give you information on the kind of facilities for repairs of any nearest port?
World port index
Plotting the ship's position on the chart and the calculation of courses and distances to be run in order to reach the port of destination is called ______.
dead reckoning
Lunar day is also known as the ______ day.
tidal
Which is the line of zero variation on an isomagnetic chart?
Agonic
The navigator aboard a ship at Long. 165 E observes the sun at ZT 1425H on 21 september. Which is the GMT and date of observation?
0325H sept. 21
How many fixed object is needed to plot a running fix?
One
What is a routeing measure which separates opposing traffic flow with the traffic lanes?
TSS
Which is the relative bearing of an object broad on the starboard beam?
090 degrees
What does a fathometer records?
Depth of the water below the keel against time base
A great circle crosses then equator at 154 E. It will also cross the equator at what longitude?
26 deg. west
Which Cardinal Mark has two cone apexes pointing upwards on top of the buoy?
North
Charted heights are taken from ______.
Mean high water spring
With a "good" GPS satellite position fix it is possible to achieve an accuracy of:
20 - 100 meters.
The length of the arc of a meridian between the equator and a given parallel on a Mercator chart, expressed in units of 1 minute of longitude at the equator is
called ______.
meridional parts
What is the angle observation between true north as a reference point measured clockwise to the direction of the object being measured ?
True bearing
The OOW is expected to double-check the whole voyage plan?
Yes
In the buoyage system, which color are reserved for lateral marks?
Red and green
A position that is obtained by using two or more LOP's from known fixed objects at about the same time is a/an ______.
fix position

F1 enav
Which RADAR control is used to align the receiver to the exact frequency of the transmitter?
Tune control
Which is NOT a radar system constant?
Band width
How many position lines are required for a 2D fix that takes into account altitude when using GPS?
3
Which device provides alert and prompt of course alteration at the same time allows instant access to photographs and view of notice to mariners that are
displayed on high resolution multi-colored screen?
ECDIS
Which furnishes the AC and DC voltages necessary for the operation of the system components?
Power supply
Currents at the ship's bottom or reverberating noise can cause marine life and particles to produce external sound sources in the form of ______.
Both A and B
Which is the most important information derived from a relative plot?
CPA
Which refers to the bending of radio wave downward due to the overriding of warm air over cool air?
Super-refraction
GPS satellite continually transit their own precise orbital data called ______.
Ephemeris
Which layer of the atmosphere has a constant height and is characterize by maximum ionization by day but becomes weaker by night?
E
Which phenomenom occurs during the extreme case of super-refraction that energy may be trapped in a surface radio duct?
Ducting
Which is a transmitted signal reflected from the F layer then bounces back from the ground back to the F layer, reflecting finally to the receiver?
Multi-hop signal
Which is the operating principle of the satellite navigating system?
Doppler shift
Which is the most probable cause of error in a satellite fix?
Ship's motion
What is the distance along the direction of propagation between successive crest?
Wave length
Two radio waves are considered to be "in phase" when their phase difference is _____.
0
Besides being a point, CPA is also a _______.
Range
Which error in the echo sounder operation is induced by temperature and salinity of water?
Transducer error
Which type of energy is used by a Speed Doppler?
Electromagnetic energy
In an automatic latitude-longitude receiver, hyperbolic lattices are converted into ______.
rectangular coordinates
Which radar component produces the synchrinizing signals to the transmitter and indicator units?
Moderator
A GPS fix position may be expected to be 95% accurate to within ______ meters.
10 to 20
Which is/are used to minimize the effect of rain or snow?
Both A and B
Which is the wavelength of an X-Band RADAR?
3 cm
The Doppler shift of the carrier phase in most GPS receivers is used to compute _______.
Speed
Which type of speed log works on the phenomenom of frequency shift?
Doppler
Which indicates the geometry of the satellites that your receiver is locked into when navigating using GPS?
Horizontal dilution of precision
Which vector would best indicate if a close quarter situation is developing?
Relative
GPS satellites orbits the earth at a distance of _______.
20,813 km
One complete oscillation of wave is called ______.
Cycle
Which increases picture quality?
Gain control
The receiving time from satellite signals are determined in the receiver by ______.
Both A and B
What time of day does radio ducts usually occur over land?
Night time
When more pulses hit the target, RADAR definition is clearer, this can be achieved by having a ______.
slower antenna rotation rate
In a head-up display, what rotates as the ship changes course?
Heading marker
What happens if the gain control is overadjusted?
Unwanted echoes appear
Which refers to the bending of radio waves as it passes through the atmosphere or region of different density?
Refraction
Which layer of the atmosphere has a constant height of about 60 statute miles or 52 n.m.?
F
The orientation of the electric axis to the ground of the transmitted radio wave is called ______.
polarization
The velocity of radar waves is ________ km/sec
300,000
Which phenomenom in the display function could mislead the navigator?
Second trace echoes
A flow of navigational information is transmitted from each satellite at a rate of ______.
50 bit/sec
Which blocks the passage of very weak echoes?
Anti-transmit-receive tube
What is known as relative unstabilized that shows course reading as relative?
Head up display
Which is the number of cycles completed per second?
Frequency
What is meant by RADAR?
Radio detection and ranging
Which control suppresses sea return?
STC
Which wave travels along the earth's surface?
Ground wave

Which results tom the reduction of detection range?

I. Sub-refraction
II. Super-refraction
I only
Which is the ability of a RADAR to give separate indications of individual targets?
Resolution
The theoretical minimum number of measurements from satellites a GPS receiver needs in order to provide an exact three-dimensional position is ______.
4
Which is the accepted constant velocity of sound in seawater?
4920 ft/sec
Doppler frequency shifts are measured from the ______.
reflected beams
A fathometer will ______.
Both A and B
The type of ARPA that receives and processes data within a single unit is called _______.
stand alone ARPA
Which tend to deflect sound waves?
School of fish
Which condition indicates that the RADAR needs maintenance?
Serrated rings
What is another term for antenna?
Aerial
Which is not a hyperbolic position-fixing system of navigation?
RDF
Which system is used by the NAVSAT to measure the relative velocity between the and the vessel?
Doppler shift
Which does NOT affect the velocity of sound in sea water?
Coloration
The orbital plane of space vehicles used with the Satellite Navigation system is called _______
Inclination
Which produces a visual indication of the echo pulses in a manner that furnishes the desired information?
Indicator
Which may occur when a strong echo is received from another ship at close range?
Multiple echoes
Which is the main cause of error with water reference speed log?
Ocean currents
The relative bearing of "own ship" as observed from the target ship is called ______.
target aspect
Satellites used for navigation transmit at frequencies of ________ MHz.
1227
Spoking would be indicated on the RADAR receiver by ____.
Spiral dots or lines on the PPI
Which RADAR control is used to shorten all echoes on the display and reduces the clutter caused by snow or rain?
Fast time constant
Which type of satellite equipment provides the highest level of commercial navigational accuracy?
DGPS, within a coverage area
A RADAR adjusted to 12 miles should have ______ rings
6
The Doppler log works in two modes, namely ______.
speed track and ground track modes
Which is expressed in terms of direction rate of movement of one moving vessel to another object either stationery or moving in a RADAR display?
Relative motion
Which refers to the bending of radio waves upward causing the waves decreasing due to overriding of cold over warm air?
Sub-refraction
Which are the two principal layers of the atmosphere used in the propagation of radio waves?
E and F
RADAR makes the most accurate determination of ______.
distance of target
Which causes the appearance of dots and dashes on the screen of an echo sounder?
Cross noise
Which is the ability of a radar to distinguish and separate targets on the same bearing but having small difference in range?
Bearing resolution
With a marked temperature inversion, or a sharp decrease in water vapor content with increase height, a horizontal radio duct may be form. Which results to the
refraction of radio waves at phenomenal distance?
Super-refraction
Which generates the radio-frequency energy in the form of short powerful pulse?
Transmitter
Which requirement/s should a civilian GPS receiver meet before achieving the same accuracy as a military receiver?
I. HIgh horizontal dilution of precision
II. Selective availability is Zero
II only
Which term refers to the bending of RADAR wave as it passes an obstruction?
Difraction
What is the maximum displacement of the wave from its mean or zero value?
Amplitude
Which type of GPS receiver has at least four channels to process information from several satellites simultaneously?
Continuous
Which term refers to the scattering and dissipation of the energy in the RADAR beam as it passes through the atmosphere?
Attenuation
How many minutes would a RADAR be warmed up before use?
3
Which is indicated by a fathometer when operated over a muddy bottom?
Two depth readings
Which speed log measures the motion of the vessel by means of the flow of liquid past a sensor?
Electromagnetic
Which electronic switch is utilized to protect the receiver from damage by energy generated by the transmitter?
Transmit-receive tube

In a chart recording echo sounder, the part of the instrument that marks the depth on the recording paper is the _____.
Stylus
Which radiates the radio-frequency energy in a highly directional beam and receives ant returning echo?
Antenna system
How is a ship's position determined by GPS?
By measuring ranges to the ship
Which type of polarization is used in merchant marine RADAR?
Horizontal
A fixed perimeter in the form of a circle about one own's vessel based on her maneuverability and set by the master is called _______ zone.
Safety
Which electrical device produces the sonic or ultrasonic waves in modern fathometers?
Transducer
Which is a measure of the time that the RADAR indicator (PPI scope) retains images of echoes?
Persistence
Which statement is true about GPS?
It may be suspended without warning
When using range rings, either fixed or variable, the correct way of taking distances of targets should be _______.
target just touching the outer ring
Which tend to absorb sound wave?
Muddy bottom
Which is the difference in intensity of the illumination of the RADAR scope between RADAR images and the background of the screen?
Contrast
What is known as relative stabilized, where the heading flasher is indicates the true heading?
North up display
Which is used to increase the sensitivity of the receiver?
Gain control
The amount of gain required to obtain a reading is greatly affected by ______.
type of bottom
Which device used "echo principle" in its system?
Depth sounding device
Which is the wavelength of a S-Band RADAR?
10 cm
What is a movable radial line that can be rotated about its axis coincident with the center of PPI and used for bearing determination?
Cursor
Which component of the RADAR system must a returning echo strike first?
Antenna
Waves that travel from the transmitter to the receiver without being reflected is called ______ wave.
Direct
Which control switch is intended to set parameter with the ship's area wherein if a target is within that parameter an alarm is activated?
Guard ring
Which basic motion display portrays the motion of a contact relative to the motion of the observing ship?
Relative

F2 cargo

Who conducts the periodic testing of the vessel's cargo booms?

American Bureau of Shipping
What pressure shall a cargo hose be marked with?
Maximum allowable working pressure
Which group of refrigarated cargoes requires oxygen and gives off carbon dioxide while in storage?
Living cargoes
At which temperature should refrigerated cargoes be carried?
As stated by shipper?
How would you ventilate your cargo holds when sailing from cold climate to hot climate?
No ventilation should be done?
Which publication gives you the specific guidance on the safe stowage and shipment of certain bulk cargoes?
BC Code
Because of the arrangement of the cell guides, what is the MOST important factor while loading containers?
List of the vessel
The single objective of preventing moisture damage to cargo is through ______.
ventilation
Tonnage tax is levied according to the _______.
net tonnage of the vessel
The percentage moisture content at which flow state develops under the prescribed method of test in a representative test sample of the material is called _____.
'flow moisture point'
Cargoes which by nature contain moisture, are called _____.
Hygroscopic
Which is determined when the load chart of a crane enables the operator to combine the load radius with the boom length?
Allowable load
Which survey is done to establish the exact state of the ship at the start of the charter?
On-hire survey
What is the other term for the Certificatre of Freeboard?
Load Line Certificate
Based on section I of the BC code, the maximum angle of a free flowing granular material is termed as ______.
angle of repose
Which is used to reduced the heeling moment in a filled compartment loaded with grain?
Saucers
Which allows maximum ventilation?
Full bag method
The best way to lift many small articles aboard your vessel is with a ______.
Pallet
What measures should be taken in order to avoid explosive gases to form on top of coal cargoes?
Ventilate the holds as well as possible
Peck and hale gear is commonly used for securing ______.
Automobiles
Which term refers to water that might be present in the hull plating?
Ship sweat
What is the internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the inside of the side shell, the underside of the deck, and the tanktop?
Grain cubic
What do you understand by the term Luffing?
Making the crane jib move up and down.
One long ton is equal to ______ lbs.
2,240
Which is the distance of a container in an athwartship direction when carrying dangerous goods?
Not less than 2.4 meter
Which factor does NOT affect the required freeboard of a cargo vessel?
Condition of trim in normal operation
Hold spaces must be inspected and cargo/ballast system inspected _______.
I. prior to loading
II. after discharging
Both I and II
Which can be prevented only by segregating two lots of cargo into separate holds?
Contamination of a food cargo by an odorous cargo
Which term is defined as the figure that expresses the number of cubic meters which one tonne of a material will occupy?
Stowage factor
What do you understand by the term Hoisting?
Making the grab bucket/hook move up and down.
Where is the topping lift, midship's guy, and outboard guys secured at the top end of the boom?
Spider band
When securing stack of containers with twist locks, lashings are required when the tierexceeds what height?
Lashings are always required
Which cargo stowage uses ventilator?
Bagged cargo
On the cargo manifest, the total weight of an empty box is the ______.
tare weight
If flammable liquids in drums are loaded on deck of your ship, what class do they belong?
Class 3
Under the BC code, which is NOT included in the laboratory test procedures for bulk cargoes?
Angle of repose test for non-granular materials
What is the meaning of "SWL"?
Safe working load
For which purpose is a "twist lock" intended?
To secure/lash containers?
The complete list of cargo is termed as _____.
Manifest
Which is NOT a securing system used on a containership?
Stacking system
Which is indicated on the crane's boom indicator?
Angle of the boom
Which type of cargo is susceptible to breakage?
Fragile
Which is a non-hygroscopic cargo?
I. Agricultural products
II. Fruits
Neither I nor II
Which agency regulates the tonnage measurement of a vessel?
IMO
Are there any restriction on entry into cargo holds at sea?
Permission must be obtained from Chief Officer?
What damage is caused by cargoes that gives off fumes?
Tainting
How would you ventilate your cargo holds when sailing from hot climate to cold climate?
Ventilate excessively?
What is meant by the term "topping the boom"?
Raising the boom
During cargo operation damage occur to the ship's gear or equipment. What to do first?
Report to the chief officer or chief engineer.
Which stow provides the maximum block stability with a quantity of bagged cargo?
Alternate layer direction
Which material is used to cover the drainage of hold bilges to avoid clogging the system especially when loading grain?
Burlap
Which method of stowing bagged cargo results in the smallest percentage of broken stowage?
Half bag
What does the term "strongback" refers to?
Bar securing a cargo port
What should be done when the dew point of the outside air is higher than the dew point of the air in the cargo hold?
Do not ventilate the cargo holds
How often should cargo hoisting equipment be thoroughly examined?
Every 5th year?
A tackle by which the outer end of a boom is raised and lowered is the topping _____.
Lift
Which is known as a cargo that has a stowage factor over 40
Measurement
What is the purpose of brine trap?
Prevent any odor from the bilge reaching the cargo compartment

Which method of securing cargo uses blocking and bracing to prevent lateral mmovement by supporting it below?
Shoring
Which type of cargo consist of materials of solid nature such as steel products, and does not attract, retain, or gives off moisture?
Non-hygroscopic
What is the use of a half-height container?
To carry cargoes such as steel products
Which is the distance of a container space in a 'fore and aft' direction when carrying dangerous goods?
Not less than 6 m
The highest standard of cleanliness for a cargo hold is usually termed as _______.
grain clean
What is the effect of a heated bulkhead on a hygroscopic commodity?
Raises the dew vapor pressure of the commodity
Which cargo is highly susceptible to odorous cargoes?
Delicate cargo
When lashing -people from ashore is engaged, who has the formal responsibility for the lashing of cargo?
The Master?
Which prevents the movement of the cargo in its horizontal direction by installing a wood member extending from a deck bulkhead?
Bracing
Which term signifies leveling of the material within a cargo space either partial or total?
Trimming
What entry on a dangerous cargo manifest concerning the classification of a cargo is correct?
Class 8
What do you understand by the term Grabbing?
Making the grab bucket open and close.
If you as duty officer see any damage done to the cargo by the stevedores, what shall you do?
Inform the stevedore superintendent, the chief officer, and write a damage report?
An example of cargo damage caused by inherent vice is ____.
heating of grain
On the cargo manifest, the gross weight of the box containing cargo is ______.
weight of the cargo and box
A "barrel" is a unit of liquid measure equivalent to ______.
42 U.S. gallons at 50 degrees Farenheit
Which term refers to the process of lowering the boom to a horizontal position and onto its deck suport?
Cradling the boom
Which material are obtained from natural ore by a process of purification by pysical or chemical separation and removal of unwanted constituents?
Concentrates
How would you control cargo hold bilges?
By pumping test of each bilge before loading?
What should be done when the dew point of the outside air is lower than or equal to the dew point of the air in the cargo hold?
Ventilate the cargo holds
The proper procedure is to wash the hold starting from ______.
top to bottom
When would sweat damage occur in a hatch full of canned goods in cartons?
Dew point is higher than the temperature of the cargo
Which cargo is capable of absorbing moisture in the form of gas?
Hygroscopic
Which material is usually used to cover cargo to prevent dripping moisture from touching the cargo?
Tarpaulin
Which part of the bilge system is so constructed as to allow the passage of water but not the passage of solids?
Strum box
Cargo Gear/Cranes should at regular intervals be thoroughly examined and load tested by a recognised company/yard. How often should such examination/load
test take place?
Every 5th year.
Goods having a stowage factor of less than 40 is a ______ cargo.
Deadweight
What is the internal volume of a cargo hold measured from the inside faces of the cargo battens, the lower side of the deck beams, and the top of the tank top
ceiling?
Bale cubic
The Int'l Standard organization(ISO) dimension in length for a container is ______.
I. 20 ft II. 40 ft. III. 30 ft.
Both I and II
Dunnage may be used to protect a cargo from loss or damage by ______.
ship's sweat
A claim for cargo damages may be held against the shipowner if that damage is the result of failure of the ship officers to ______.
ensure the adequate packing of the cargo
Dangerous goods are divided into nine (9) classes. If corrosives are loaded on board your ship, what class do they belong?
Class 8
Which is known as the damage to cargo caused by dust?
Contamination
What do you understand by the initials S.W.L. when applied to a crane?
The load that can be safely lifted during normal working conditions.
For salt and sulfur cargoes,some hold inspectors require the holds to be coated with _______.
lime
The best way to lift many small particles on board is with a _______.
Pallet
Which is NOT considered dangerous cargo?
Ascorbic acid
The most accurate account of cargo on board will be found in the _____.
Bill of Lading
Which is minimum horizontal separation projected vertically when applying the segregation of 'away from' for dangerous goods?
3m
According to regulations how often should cranes and other lifting appliances onboard should, be examined by ship's personnel and the result recorded in Cargo
Gear Book?
Annually.
Which requirements must be considered when loading on weather deck?
All the mentioned alternatives.
Void or broken spaces in the cargo stow is usually avoided by using _______.
filler cargoes
Which is known as the cargo that gives off fumes that may contaminate other cargoes?
Odorous
What is the IMDG-Code?
A code issued by IMO for use onboard vessels carrying packaged dangerous goods?
When using the term 'separated from' for deck stowage, this segregation means a separation by a distance of at least ________ meters.
6
The shipment of bulk cargoes could result to emission of toxic or explosive gas, spontaneous combustion, or severe corrosive effect. What is the cause of these
hazards?
Chemical reaction
Where is the heel block located?
At the base of the boom
Based on the BC code, materials which contain at least some particles and some moisture, usually water, are called _____.
cargoes which may liquefy
What kind of gas does coal emits?
Methane
Which publication contains all regulation concerning stowage, lashing, and securing of timber deck cargoes aboard general cargo vessels?
Loadline Regulations
Certain cargoes must be segregated because of their ______
inherent characteristic

During a ship to ship cargo transfer operation it is required that:

An efficient engine room watch with the main engine on standby be maintained.
One metric tonne is equal to _______ lbs.
2,204
Which statement/s is/are true about the carriage of coal?
I. Should be surface ventilated only
II. Weathered coal is more dangerous than a freshly worked coal.
I only
Which term refers to the stress of the ropes, chain, hook or equipment that it could carry without risk of deformation or damage?
Safe working load

F2 ships construction
How is the size of the chain determine?
Diameter of metal in link
The size of wire rope is determined by their ______.
I. circumference
II. Diameter
II only
What is this horizontal plate that rigidly fasten together the peak frames, the stem, and the outside framing across the forepeak of the vessel?
Breasthook
Which best describes "floors" on boardship?
Frames to which the tanktop and bottom shell are fastened on a double bottomed ship.
Which type of keel is constructed so that pipings from the double bottom tanks can pass through it?
Duct keel
The movement of the waves along a ship causing fluctuations in water pressure to the plating which create the in and out movement of the shell plating is called
_____.
panting
Watertight bulkheads are formed of several horizontal supports welded to the shell, deck and tanktop known as _____.
Stiffeners
Which term is given to the distance the propeller has advanced during one revolution?
Pitch
What term indicates the midship portion of a vessel that has a constant cross section?
Middle body
Which structure gives strength to the bulkheads and forming the end of the tank?
Transverse framing
Which of the following are essential parts of the keel?
I. Middle line keelson
II. Side keelson
Both I and II
What is the purpose of a bilge keel?
To reduce rolling
A shroud is ______.
a heavy wire extending from the mast, athwartship to the deck, to support the mast
What is the transverse curvature of the deck whose main function is to drain the deck of sea water?
Camber
The terms 'ceiling' and margin plate' are associated with the ________.
tanktop
A 6x9 wire rope should be _______.
6 strands with 19 wires in each strand
What term indicates an inward curvature of the ship's hull above the waterline?
Tumble home
Which strake is nearest to the main deck?
Sheer strake
The Tonnage certificate indicates the _______ tons.
net
drsupplieddcat?
It is a deeply grooved drum on the windlass to engaged the links of the anchor chain
Which is a part of the ground tackle?
Devil's claw
What is a "fid"?
Tapered wooden pin used when splicing heavy mooring rope
Stress on the topping lift of a swinging boom can be reduced by ______.
raising the boom
Which gives you the information you need during dry docking?
Ship's docking plan
Which collective term applies to all equipments used in anchoring?
Ground tackle
What do you call the anchors on the forward part?
Bower

Vertical fittings of steel, iron, or wood, securely fixed and adequately strenghtened on board for taking mooring ropes, towing ropes etc. are called _______

Bitts
If the winch should fail while you are hauling the anchor, which prevent the anchor cable from running ouy?
Riding pawl
What is the "PLIMSOL MARK" for?
1. To determine the freeboard
2. To ensure reserve bouyancy
Both I and II
Trnaverse frames are more widely spaced on a ship that is designed with the _______ system of framing.
Longitudinal
Which of the following is the thickness of lines in the loadlines?
25 mm
What do you call the sprocket wheel in a windlass, used for heaving the anchor?
Wildcat
What is the purpose of the bulbous bow?
Increase ship's speed
What is this wooden plank that is used to protect the tank top from cargo loading?
Ceiling
Whipping on a fiber line ______.
keeps the ends from fraying
The type of joint formed when an edge of one plate is laid over the edge of the plate to which it is riveted is a ______
lap joint
Which shipbuilding plan shows the general outline of the ship, deck position and all waterlines?
Profile or sheer plan
The purpose of the devils' claw is _______.
act as a chain stopper
Which is not a part of an anchor?
Devils' claw
What is this tube that leads from the forecastle deck to the chain locker where the anchor chain passes through?
Spurling pipe
Which type of line will stretch most when under strain?
Nylon
Which space is deducted from gross tonnage to derive net tonnage?
Boatswain's store
Which type of rope is made of polypropylene and composed of three right-handed hawser laid rope?
Cable laid
Which is used in securing the ground tackle for sea that consist of a grag attached to a turnbuckle?
Devil's claw
What do you call this angle where the fluke penetrates the soil?
Tripping
The marking on an anchor chain for 60 fathoms is ______.
Four links on each side of the 60 fathom detachable link are painted white
The propulsive device consisting of a boss or hub which has several helicoidal blades is called ______.
Propeller
What do you call the longitudinal curvature of the deck which helps to have drier decks and adds buoyancy to the vessel?
Sheer
Which fitting allows a boom to move freely both vertically and laterally?
Gooseneck
Which contributes to the longitudinal strength, distributes the local loads when docking the ship and runs along the bottom plating of the ship?
Keel
If the weight of the stock anchor is 250 kg., what should be the weight of the stock?
62.5
The angle at which the fluke penetrates the soil is called the _______ angle.
Tripping
When using the 'limber system' one is referring to a _____.
drainage system
The projecting lugs of the rudder post which furnish support to the rudder are called ______.
Gudgeons
Which type of stopper should be used to stop off wire rope?
Chain
The term 'standing rigging' refers to _______.
stays and shrouds
What is the revolving drum of a winch used to haul lines?
Gypsyhead
What are these longitudinals which runs along the ship centerline from fore and aft peak bulkhead?
center girder
Which of the following is a part of the vessel's standing riggings?
Backstay
The vertical partitions dividing the ship into compartments are called?
Bulkhead
How many meters are there in 2 shots of anchor chain?
55

What is/are the function/s of a double bottom tank?

I. To provide storage of fuel oil
II. To lower the vessel's KG
I and II
Which subdivide the ship into independent compartments to limit the extent of flooding?
Bulkheads
The hinge pin on which the rudder turn or swing and support the weight of the rudder in the event the rudder carrier fails is called ______.
pintle
What do you call the metal passage through which the smoke and gasses are lead from the uptakes to the open air?
Funnel
What is/are the function/s of an after peak tank?
I. To alter the vessel's trim
 II. To provide additional stability by lowering the c.g.
I only
The terms "cant frame" and "counter" are associated with the vessel's _______.
Stern
The loadlines are measured from the ______.
I. deckline
II. keel
I only
What is this plates or strakes nearest to the deck edges and form the important joint between the side shell and the deck plating?
Sheer
An example of a ship having a single deck and transporting single commodity such as grain is a _______.
bulk carrier
The highest deck which runs the full length of the ship is called the ______.
Main deck
Which are vertical flat plates running transversely and connecting the vertical keel to the margin plates?
Floors
A deck fitting used to secure line or rope, consisting of a single body with two protruding horns is called a ______.
Cleat
What is this bulkhead near the bow, extending from the ship's bottom to the upper freeboard deck as a protection against the influx of water in the event of
damage to the bow?
Collision bulkhead
What is the term applied to a fore and aft girder running along the side of the ship and also to the outboard strake of plating on any deck?
Stringer
What does the proof test load of an anchor chain demonstrate?
Strength of the chain to a specified limit
What do you call this tank whose main purpose is to alter the vessel's trim down by the head?
Fore peak
The 'inner bottom' is the ______
tanktop
It is possible, and sometimes necessary to strengthen the deck of a vessel for carriage of deck cargo by _______.
erecting vertical pillars under the deck
What is the main function of the core of a wire rope?
Support the strands laid around it
What is type of joining shackle that can be detached by disassembling the shackle?
Lugless shackle
The bilge keel is for the purpose of _____.
reducing rolling
A term applied to the bottom shell plating in a double-bottom ship is called ______.
outer bottom
The 'margin plate' is the _______.
outboard strake of plating on each side of an inner bottom
A vertical partition in a ship arranged transversely and longitudinally in a ship is called _____.
Bulkhead
Which rope has the greatest breaking strength?
Nylon
To reduce the number of strakes at the bow, two strakes are tapered and joined at the ends by a single plate known as _________.
stealer plate
What do you call the upward slope of a ship's bottom from the keel to the bilge?
Deadrise

What is the vertical plate structure around the hatchway that supports the hatchcover?

Hatch coaming
Which type of line floats?
Polypropylene
Which refers to the immersed part of the vessel forward of the middle body?
Entrance
Holes in the bulwark, which allow deck water to drain into the sea is called _____.
freeing ports
A snatch block is a _______.
hinged block
What is the purpose of ceiling boards?
I. To protect the tanktop from damages.
II. To cover the underside of a tween deck.
I only
What does the term 'broaching' means?
Being turn broadside to the sea
Which term refers to the outward curvature of the side shell at the bow above the waterline?
Flare
Molded dimension is measured from the _______.
inside of the shell
What is a "chock"?
Deck fitting used as a fairlead
What do you call this space at the bottom of the ship which runs from the forward engine room bulkhead to the collision bulkhead where the double bottom pipings
are located?
Duct
Where will you find a "dog" aboardship?
Watertight door
If you were to pass a stopper on a wire rope, what should the stopper be made of?
Chain
Tonnage openings must be closed by means of _____
steel plates
Transverse frames are more widely spaced on a ship that is designed with the ______ system of framing.
Longitudinal
What do you call the plan showing the longitudinal, vertical section passing through the meridian line of a vessel?
Sheer
An example of a 'messenger' is a _______.
heaving line
What is the proper way to correct a mistake in the logbook entry?
Draw one line through the entry, rewrite, and initial the correction.
A tackle is said to be rigged to advantage if ______.
the hauling part leads to the movable block
Where are panting frames located?
fore and aft peaks
Aboardship, vertical flat plates running transversely and connecting the vertical keel to the margin plates are called ______.
Floors
Faking a line means ______.
arrange it on deck in long bights
How many fathoms are there in a shot of anchor cable?
15
The 'lay' of the line refers to _______.
the direction of the twist in the strand
What term indicates the outward curvature of the hull above the waterline?
Flare
The frame of the vessel that runs parallel to the keel is called ______.
longitudinal frame
Which of theses devices secure standing and running riggings that includes cleats, bitts, chocks, fairleads and padeyes?
Deck fittings
The terms "pintle" and "gudgeons" are associated with the ____.
Rudder
The fore and aft run of deck plating which strengthens the connection between the beams and the frames and keeps the beams square to the shell is called the
_____.
stringer strake
A crack in the deck plating of a vessel may be temporarily prevented from increasing in length by _____.
drilling a hole at each end of the crack
What do you call this last link that is attached to the padeye in the chain locker?
Bitter end
The most important element in the longitudinal strength which provides watertight covering for the hull is called _____
shell plating
A block and tackle is 'rove to advantage' means that the ______.
hauling part leads through the movable block
The 'carrick bend' is used to _______.
join two lines together
What do you call this void space between two bulkheads which prevents leakage from one tank to the other?
Cofferdam
Which refers to the immersed part of the vessel aft of the middle body?
Run
Which ship's parts are used primaruly to provide structural strength, shelter, cargo stowage, working spaces and living quarters?
Decks
Metal plates that cover the the top of the hawse pipe are called ______.
buckler plates
Where is the vessel's quarter located?
Either side of the stern
Which knot is suitable for hoisting an unconscious person?
French bowline
Which is the strake nearest to the keel?
I. "A" strake
II. Garboard strake
Both I and II
Where would you refer to determine the weight capacity of a deck in a cargo hold?
Deck capacity plan
In which unit is 'Camber' in a ship usually measured?
Inches per feet of breadth
What is this opening on the upper deck on top of the machinery space used for vent or as an access for machinery parts to be lowered to the engine room?

Skylight
A whipping is _______.
turns of twine around a rope end
What is the purpose of sheer in ship construction?
Allow the ship to ride with drier decks
What is a cofferdam?
Space between two tanks
Which type of anchor do some ships used as stern anchor?
Kedge
In ship construction, frame spacing is ______.
reduced at the bow and stern
What does the beam of the vessel refers to?
width of the vessel
Which cannot be found in a transversely framed vessel?
Web frames
What is a garboard strake?
It is a row of plating nearest to the keel
Bilge soundings indicate:
I. whether the ship is taking on water
II. the amount of condensation in the hold
I and II
The most forward part of the ship constructed into parts usually well rakes providing pleasing lines to the ship is called ________.
Stem
Another name for the garboard strake is the ______.
A strake
Which part of the ship provides considerable margin of safety when the ship is grounded?
Double bottom
What is this deck machinery that is working on a horizontal axis and is used for working aFnchor chain cable?
Windlass
Which prevents anchors from running out when secured?
I. Brake
II. Devil's claw
Both I and II
A term applied to a fore and aft girder running along the side of the ship and also to the outboard strake of plating on any deck is called ______
Stringer
Moulded dimensions refers to _____
the inside of the plating of the ship
Which type of link is generally used to connect shots of anchor chain?
Kenter shackle

F2 stability
The equivalent of a long ton is _______.
2,240 lbs.
Which refers to the actual weight of the ship and all its content at a given draught?
Displacement
When planning the distribution of the cargo, what are the most important forces to take in consideration?
Shear forces and bending moments.
For a vessel inclined by the wind, multiplying the buoyant force by the horizontal distance between the lines of action of the buoyant force gives the ______.
righting moment
The difference between the height of the metacenter and the center of gravity is the ______.
metacentric height
Which is true about the metacenter?
It moves when the angles of inclination is more than 15 degrees
Which may cause a list?
I. Tanks that are one-fourth filled
II. Slack hold loaded with bulk rise
Both I and II
The purpose of the inclining experiment is to determine the vessel's ________.
light KG
Which is the 'trimming moment' of a ship?
Weight multiplied by the distance from LCF
On a vessel, multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline results in a _______ moment.
Vertical
Before counter-flooding a vessel to correct a list, a vessel's officer must be sure the the list is due to _______.
off-center weight
In trim problems, from where do you measure the distance?
I. From the center of flotation.
II. From amidship
I only
The algebraic sum of the initial and final trim is called the _____.
change of trim
The horizontal distance between the vertical forces of gravity and buoyancy is a measure of ______.
I. Initial stability
II. Stability at all angles of inclination
II only
If a vessel takes a sudden, severe list or trim from an unknown cause, you should ________.
determine what is the cause before taking countermeasure
The angle of maximum righting arm corresponds approximately _______.
to the angle of deck edge immersion
A moment is obtained by multiplying _______.
I. the deadweight by the righting arm
II. a weight to a distance
II only
Which is correct regarding the center of buoyancy when a vessel is inclined at a small angle?
Moves to the low side
Additions of weight to a vessel will always ______.
increase reserve buoyancy
Which of the following best describe a stiff vessel?
I. Has long rolling period.
II. Has a large metacentric height.
II only
What is the metacentric height when the height of the metacenter is the same height of the center of gravity?
Zero
Which has the greatest effect on the "free surface" on board a ship?
Width of the tank
Additions of weight above the center of gravity of the vessel will _______.
reduce its initial stability
It is a form of longitudinal deformation under stress by which the middle part of the vessel structure sinks below the extremities. What do you call this?
Sagging
The effect of free surface on a vessel's initial stability do NOT depend upon the ______.
amount of liquid in the tank
Which is indicated with a slow and easy motion of a vessel in a seaway?
Smal GM

The liquid in the tank is dangerous to the stability of the vessel when there is ______.
I. three-fourths liquid in the tank
II.one-fourth liquid in the tank

Both I and II
What is the definition of transverse metacenter?
The point to which G may rise and still permit the vessel to possess positive stability
The vertical distance between G and M is used as a measure of ________.
I. Initial stability
II. Stability at all angles of inclination
I only
The geometric center of the underwater volume of a floating vessel is the center of _______.
Buoyancy
A vessel continually lists to one side and has a normal rolling period. Which statement is true?
The vessel has assymetrical weight distribution
In an OBO, if one hold is slacked this will give rise to "sloshing" which is the movement of liquid when the vessel is rolling or pitching. Sloshing can cause:
All the mentioned alternatives.
If a vessel is sagging, what kind of stress is placed on the sheer strake?
Compression
The vertical shift of weight to a position above the ship's center of gravity will ______.
decrease her righting arm
An upright vessel has a negative GM. GM becomes positive at the angle of loll because the _______.
effective beam is increased causing BM to increase
The trimming arm is the horizontal distance between the ________.
LCG and LCB
Which statement is true about a vessel with a large GM?
Would have more resistance to listing in case of damage
The moment of a force is a measure of the _______.
turning effect of the force about a point
A ship with a small GM will ______.
have a smaller amplitude of roll in heavy weather
Movement of liquid in the tank when the ship inclines causes an increase in ______.
natural rolling period
Ballasting a double bottom tank half-filled will ______.
result in the virtual rise of the center of gravity
The density of a fuel oil whose specific gravity of 0.88 is ______.
880 kilogram per cubic meter
The most impotant figure in calculating the free surface effect of a tank carrying liquid is it's ______.
Breadth
What is the principal danger from the liquid in a half-filled tank onboard a vessel?
Loss of stability from free surface effect
Which is the volume of enclosed spaces above the waterline?
Reserve buoyancy
If the vessel would NOT remain upright in still water and would assume a port or starboard list, it is likely to have _____.
an unstable equilibrium
The angle of the maximum righting arm correspond approximately to the ______.
angle of deck edge immersion

Under which circumstances may a metacentric height be considered an indication of a vessel's stability?

for small angles of inclination

The magnitude of a moment is the product of the force and ________.
lever arm
Which has no effect on the "free surface" of the tank?
Amount of liquid in the tank
The plan and/or sectional elevation of the vessel showing the volume of holds, tanks and other compartments is called _______.
Capacity plan
A continual worsening of the list or trim indicates _______.
Progressive flooding
Which is the difference between the port nad starboard drafts due to wind or seas?
Heel
What happens if you shift a weight from the tanktop to the tween deck?
Righting arm will be shorter
What do you call the center of gravity of the waterplane?
Center of flotation
Vessel's displacement refers to _______.
the weight of the vessel and everything in her.
Which is NOT true regarding a vessel with a large GM?
Less safety in case of flooding
A vessel going from salt water to fresh water would _____.
I. have a higher KB
II. have a higher KG
I only
Which is/sre true about 'free surface effect'?
I. Same effect whether tank is 25% OR 75%
ii. Effect decreases when divided transversely
I only
When a weight on deck is discharged, which condition takes place?
I. Center of gravith goes down
II. Moves directly away from the removed weight
II only
Which will not decrease the stability of the vessel?
I. Ice accretion on deck
II. Ballasting a double bottom tank half full
Neither I nor II
A rectangular bos shape barge measures 10 M x 5 M x 3M and is floating at a draft of 2 meters in fresh water. Calculate its displacement.
100 tonnes
Which term is defined as 'mass per unit volume'?.
Density
What is the effect of deballasting a double bottom?
I. Center of gravity is lowered
II. Increase in GM
Neither I nor II
Your vessel is damaged and listing to port, the rolling period is long and the vessel will occasionally assume a starboard list. Which action should you take first?
Press up a slack centerline double bottom tank
Which indicates the quality of initial stability?
GM
You are planning a heavy lift. When the lift is suspended in the air from the falls of your boom, where is th CG of the lift acting?
The head of jumbo boom
The instrument used to measure the density of water is called ______.
Hydrometer
Which is true about a box-shape vessel?
TPC is constant at any drafts
When a weight on board is shifted transversely a moment is produced. What moment is this?
Listing
A partially full tank causes a virtual rise in the height of the ______.
center of gravity
What is the result of a "high metacentric height"?
The vessel will roll violently?
Which is NOT correct regarding the movement of the center of gravity?
G moves towards the center of gravity of the removed weight.
Which statement/s is/are true when a vessel is inclined ban external force?
Her center of buoyancy will move to the low side
One Gross ton is equal to _______.
100 cubic feet
The percentage of the volume of the compartment available for the entry of water should the compartment be holed is called _____.
Permeability
Which is the point where the vessel heel or trim?
I. Center of floatation
II. Tipping center
Both I and II
Reducing free surfaces has the effect of lowering the _____.
virtual height of the center of gravity
Transverse stability calculation require the use of ______
hydrostatic curves
Which is the interaction of the weight and the buoyant force in producing a couple causing the vessel to return to the upright?
Righting couple
If the vessel is inclined by external forces and the vertical forces of weight and buoyancy returns her to her upright position, in what state is she in?
Stable equilibrium
How will the value of the moment of inertia of the free surface be affected if a rectangular tank is divided into two at the center running fore and aft?
The moment of inertia would be 1/4 it's original value
What is the length measured along the summer loadline from the intersection of the loadline with the foreside of the stem and with the afterside of the rudder post?
length between perpendicular
The volume of the hull and watertight compartments above the load waterline is called _______.
reserve buoyancy
What do you call this intersection of the verticals of the center of buoyancy at the upright and when inclined at a small angles of heel?
Metacenter
What formula can be used to determine the height of the metacenter above the keel?
KB+BM
Which statement/s is/are true about light displacement?
I. Also called lightship
II. Weight of the vessel without any cargo.
I only
When a vessel has positive stability, the distance between the line of force through B and the line of force through G is called the ______.
righting arm
What is the longitudinal equivalent of list?
Trim
If a vessel is loaded in such a manner that she is said to be sagging, what kind of stress is places on the sheer strake?
Tension
Stability is calculated principally by the location of the center of gravity and the ________.
Center of buoyancy
Which is the value of the righting arm at the angle of loll?
Zero
A vessel's KG can be found by ______.
I. inclining experiment
II. Dividing total vertical moment by the displacement
Both I and II
What is the result of multiplying a load's weight by the distance of the load's center of gravity above the baseline on a vessel?
Vertical moment
A disk with the horizontal line through its center, equivalent to the summer loadline, is called the _______.
plimsoll mark
When initial stability applies, what is the sum of the height of the center of gravity and the metacentric height?
Height of the metacenter
What is the value of the righting arm at an angle of list?
Positive
GM cannot be used as an indicator of stability at all angles of inclination because _______.
M is not fixed at large angles
What are bending moments?
Forces which bends the vessel up and down in the fore-aft direction (hogging/sagginging).
How do you manage a vessel with a list due to negative GM?
I. Pump ballast on the high side
II. Shift weights towards the high side to counter list
Neither I nor II
How thick are the loadline markings?
25 mm
If an OBO has most of its holds slack during discharging (or loading) of oil cargo this will:
Likely cause a sudden or violent list due to the very large free surface in the broad beamed holds?
What is this table or graph that shows the displacement,TPC, MTC and the corresponding draft of the vessel?
Deadweight scale
Which is/are true about TPC of a ship?
I. The same at all drafts
II. It is the amount needed to load or discharged to change mean draft by one centimeter
II only
Which is/are true when a vessel is inclined due to external force?
I. Righting arm is produced
II. Center of buoyancy shifts to the center of the low side
Both I and II
Where will you place a weight without causing any change of trim?
Over LCF
The primary purpose of a load line is to establish required _________.
minimum freeboard
Which term is used to describe spaces within the flooded compartment which excludes water?
Intact buoyancy
A stress called is being placed on the sheer strake if the vessel is _____.
Sagging
A stress called compression is being placed on the garboard strake if the vessel is ______.
Hogging
If a vessel is hogging, what kind of stress is placed on the sheer strake?
Tension
What is the length of the horizontal line intersecting the plimsoll mark?
450 mm
Which term refers to the difference between the height of the metacenter and the height of the center of gravity?
Metacentric height
Which statement is/are true about 'freeboard'?
I. The higher the freeboard the greater the range of stability
II. The higher the freeboard the greater the reserve buoyancy
Both I and II
The center of flotation of a vessel is the geometric center of _______.
the waterplane area
What happens when a deck cargo is shifted vertically downwards a distance of 5 meters?
I. Metacentric height decreases
II. C. G. of the vessel shifts vertically down 5 meters
Neither I nor II
During counter flooding to correct a severe list aggrevated by an off-center load, your vessel suddenly takes a list or trim to the opposite side. You should
_______.
immediately stop counter flooding
Which is the metacentric radius?
BM
What happens to the center of buoyancy if the vessel is inclined at a small angle?
It moves to the low side
For a given displacement, the righting arm has its maximum value when _______
KG is minimum
Change of trim can be calculated by ______.
I. dividing the trimming moment by the MCTC
II. dividing the product of the displacement and the trimming lever by the MCTC
Both I and II
When a ship sail from saltwater to freshwater her ______.
I. Center of gravity will move
II. Displacement will increase
Neither I nor II
Which is the metacentric height?
GM
Which two forces act together to bring the vessel back to its original position when incline by external forces?
Gravity and buoyancy
The diameter of the plimsoll mark is ______.
300 mm
Initial stability is affected most detrimentally by loose liquid flowing _____.
from side to side within the vessel
What happens if a vessel's double bottom tank is half filled?
I. GM is reduced.
II. Virtual rise of G.
I and II
Which refers to as the initial indication of the vessel's stability at angles of heel up to 15 degrees?
GM
Where will you load a vessel so that its trim will not change?
Over the LCF
Which is the center of the underwater form and the point through which the resultant of the total forces acts vertically upward?
center of buoyancy
What is intact buoyancy?
An intact space below the surface of a flooded area
What is the enclosed area defined as the intersection of the water and the hull of a vessel?
Waterplane
If your vessel will list with equal readiness to either side, the list is most likely caused by ______.
negative GM
The weight of the ship when she is floating on her designated summer draught is called ______.
I. loaded displacement. II. summer dispacement
Both I and II
The free surface corrections depend upon the dimensions of the free liquids and the ________.
displacement of the vessel

The figure obtained by dividing the total volume of the ship in cubic feet (after omission of exempted spaces) by 100 is the ________.

Gross tonnage
If a vessel list to port, the center of buoyancy will ______.
move to port
Which is the metacentric radius?
BM
Aboard a vessel, dividing the sum of the transverse moments by the total weight yields the vessel's _____.
transverse position of the CG
Stability is determined principally by the location of two points in a vessel: the center of buoyancy and the _______.
center of gravity
What is the difference between the initial trim and the trim after loading?
Change of trim
A cargo of canned foodstuffs is packed in cartons. Each carton is 36 cubic feet and weighs 380 pounds. What is its stowage factor?
212
Which statement is true when a vessel is floating upright?
There is no trimming lever
Which is an indication of reserve buoyancy?
Freeboard
Displacement is equal to _____.
I. Lightship plus deadweight
II. Volume of water displaced multiplied by 1.025 tons per cubic meter
I only
Archimedes principle states that when a body is wholly submerged in water, it will suffer a loss of mass equal to the:
I. weight of the body
II. volume of water displaced multiplied by its density
II only
What can be describe as the light displacement?
I. Difference between the loaded and the deadweight
II. Total carrying capacity of the vessel
I only
What should be observed concerning the vessel's stress?
Distribution and weight of the containers?
Which forces results from ship motion in the sea and the action of the wind and its weight?
Dynamic
Which of the following best describe a tender vessel?
I. The vessel with a small GM
II. The vessel with a long rolling perod
Both I and II
Which factor does not affect the required freeboard of a cargo vessel?
Condition of trim in normal ooperation
One Metric tonne is equal to ______.
I. 2240 pounds
II. 1.016 long tons
Neither I nor II
When the height of the metacenter is less than the height of the center of gravity, the vessel is at _______.
unstable equilibrium
When calculating for the free surface effect of a tank, which has little or no effect?
Volume of liquid in the tank
The most cost-effective way to limit free surface when building a ship would be to increase the number of _____.
I. Longitudinal subdivision
II. Transverse subdivision
I only

F2 tanker
Which system is designed to lower the oxygen level inside the cargo tanks thereby making explosion impossible?
Inert gas system
Introducing inert gas in a tank is a process known as _____.
Dilution
Which tank is suitable for dry and liquid cargo?
Deep tank
Which tank is specifically designated for collection of tank drainings,washing and oily mixture?
Slop tank
Which cargo pump is ideal for stripping purposes that consist of a piston and usually powered by steam?
Reciprocating
What is the purpose of the "small diameter line" on a crude oil tanker?
Make it possible to drain to shore the remaining cargo in the ship's lines and pumps, after the discharging is completed
Which is true about the vapor pressure of a substance?
Increases with the temperature
What does wet washing mean?
The bottom washing starts whilst there is still a small amount of cargo in the tank.
Which is the purpose of a relief valve on the cargo pump?
Permits the return of cargo to the suction side of the tank
The decision to abort a proposed or ongoing ship to ship mooring or cargo transfer operation rests solely with:
Either of the Sen.Off.Deck if he feels the situation is heading out of control due to bad weather, bad manoeuvring, or for any other reason.
Which tank is completely separated from the cargo oil and fuel system of a ship and is permanently allocated for the carriage of ballast?
Segregated ballast tank
What is the standard unit of liquid volume in the petroleum industry?
Barrel
Which of the following items DO NOT have to be noted in the Oil Record Book ?
Quantity of ballast discharged from segregated ballast tanks
Which is considered the simpliest VLCC piping system consisting of three bottom lines and pumps?
Direct piping
What is the Oil Transfer Procedure NOT required to contain?
The name of the person in charge of the transfer operation
Which is the minimum oxygen content below which flaming combustion will no longer occur?
15%
Which type of pump uses a driving fluid to pump down the main line through a constriction and past a relatively smaller opening thus creating a vacuum?
Eductor
Which type of valve is fitted with a swinging gate that remains in contact with the cargo even when the valve is fully open?
Butterfly
Which is determined with the use of litmus paste?
Thievage
What advantage(s) has the use of Inert Gas System on a oil tanker?
Lowers oxygen content in the tank
When oil is loaded into an empty tank, it displaces the air inside causing a build up of pressure. Similarly, when a full tank is discharged, oil leaving the tank pulls a
vacuum behind it. Which device is needed to equalize these pressures?
Vent system
Which allows the vessel to hook up of fire fighting water from shore facilities?
International shore connection
You are the officer in charge during the loading of a tanker in Ras Tannurah. The deck watchman reports ... a lot of oil on the water.... What should be your FIRST
action?
Tell the jettyman to stop loading immediately.
Which type of tankers has tonnage of 120,000 deadweight
Supertanker
Which valve design is used to prevent oil from flowing back into the tanks and is normally installed on the discharge side of each centrifugal pump?
Check
During cargo handling in rainy weather, which action have to be taken for drainage of water from the deck area?
The water to be drained periodically and scuppers to be closed in between. Oily water to be transferred to slop tanks or other suitable
When we are taking "ullages", what are we really doing?
Measuring distance from cargo level to ullage point
Which device on board liquid bulk tankers allows suction to be taken close to the bottom of the tank?
Bell mouth
What do you understand by the term Slewing?
Making the crane jib move from side to side.
What is the correct position/working area for the deck watchman during cargo operation?
On the cargo tank area all time?
Inert gas should be supplied with an oxygen content of less than:
5%
What is the purpose of introducing inert gas into each cargo tank.
To control the tank atmosphere by introducing the required inert gas.
Which alarm is NOT found on an inert gas system?
Low oxygen
UFL and LFL are commonly used expressions. What do they signify?
Upper Flammable Level / Lower Flammable Level of explosive atmosphere?
One of the principal dangers inherent in liquified petroleum gas is ______.
it causes frostbite
What is the safest way to complete loading ( topping off )?
Have one slack tank as last tank
What pressure shall a cargo hose be marked with?
Maximum allowable working pressure
Transportation of oil at sea can be divided in two groups, which?
Crude oil and refined products.
Which is NOT a function of the scrubber in the inert gas system?
Maintains gas pressure in the tank
When does oil pollution generally occur?
During topping off
You have observed a small leak of oil at the manifold during discharging. What is you first action?
Call immediately the person in charge.
During a ship to ship cargo transfer operation it is required that:
An efficient engine room watch with the main engine on standby be maintained.
Sufficient ullge is needed in the tank to give allowance for _______.
cargo expansion
Why is it important to have good list during final draining?
To bring the remaininig oil to the stripping suction
Which fitting either blanks off or allows full flow passage of liquid in a pipeline?
Spectacle flange
During loading of crude oil, what steps should be taken if flow of gas exceeds either the capacity of the shore vapour tanks (return line ship/shore) or the vessels
IG lines.
Request lower loading rate?
What should be done to insure proper seating when closing a valve on a tank?
Close, open a half turn then close again
What is the purpose of a Pressure-vacuum relief valve?
Maintain tank at atmospheric pressure
Which legislation mandates that new buildings for tankers be fitted with double hulls?
OPA 90
Who is responsible for securing of derricks, cranes and other equipment?
The Master?
LNG principal content is ______.
Butane
Which is true about auto-ignition temperature?
No spark or flame is required to ignite the gas or vapor
Are there any differences between "Clean Ballast Tanks" (CBT) and "Segregated Ballast Tanks"(SBT)?
CBTs cargo tanks are also used for ballast, SBTs are not.
Which tanker operation term refers to the pumping out of the remaining cargo with the use of reciprocating/rotary pumps or eductors?
Stripping
How often should cargo hoisting equipment be thoroughly examined?
Every 5th year?
Which gives off vapors flammable vapors at temperatures above 80 deg F
Combustible
Which minimum percent of oxygen, by volume is required to be achieved by the IGS before commencement of COW?
8
What is a measurement of the amount of flammable vapors given off by a liquid at a certain temperature?
Reid vapor pressure
What is meant by settling in slop handling?
Separation of water and oil.
What is the purpose of bonding cables?
Prevent accidental discharge of static electricity
Which of these factors will NOT affect the necessary time needed to settle oil on top of the water in the sloptank?
The quality of the Crude Oil Washing performed during the last discharging
Flame screens are used to ______.
prevent flames from entering tanks
What is the pipe used to connect two separate piping system on a tank vessel?
Crossover
What do you understand by the term Luffing?
Making the crane jib move up and down.
Before the transfer of oil, the person in charge on the vessel and the person in charge on the facility must hold a pre transfer conference. Who must decide to start
the transfer?
Both persons in charge
Which cargo pump provides continous flow, is gravity fed and consist of one or more spinning impellers?
Centrifugal
The depth of a petroleum product in the tank is known as _______.
Innage
One popular design of tank is the spherical cargo tank made from aluminum alloy that are insulated with ______.
Polyurethane
You are ready to start crude oil washing of a cargo tank. What measurement(s) must be performed before you start?
All the measurements mentioned must be performed.
Which serves as the 'central station' of a tanker's piping system?
Pump room
What does it mean "to take the ullage"?
To measure the distance from the deck or tank cover measuring point to the liquid level in a tank.
Which process involves converting cargo boil-off vapor back into liquid by refrigeration?
Reliquifaction
What is the minimum number of bolts required in a 12 inch bolted flange cargo hose coupling?
A bolt in every hole
During a ship to ship cargo transfer operation, if an electrical storm enters the area, it is recommended to:
Suspend all cargo transfer operations and close vents valves from the cargo system.
Corrosive liquids and acids must have what kind of label?
White and black
Which is the lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off sufficient vapors to form a flammable mixture with air?
Flash point
Which is an advantage of a gate valve to a butterfly valve?
Less maintenance
During crude oil washing of No: 1C tank the duty deck officer reports that the oxygen reading in the tank is 9% . What should you do ?
Stop the washing process and not resume until the oxygen content in the tank is below 8%.
Which is a characteristic of a centrifugal pump?
Decreasing the speed will decrease the discharge pressure
Which part of the re-liquifaction unit is the component that used seawater for cooling?
Condenser
When loading cargo, once it has been established that cargo is entering the correct tank and line integrity is OK, loading rates should be increased to:
Match the size and capacity of the ship's loading line, venting system and static generation hazard limitation, if any?
Prior to commence loading, in what way would you best ensure a smooth technical operation?
All the mentioned alternatives?
You are the officer in charge of discharging an oil tanker of 15000 DWT in Corpus Christi, USA. Where shall the Oil Transfer Procedure be located?
Posted or available where it can be easily seen and used by crew-members engaged in the discharge operation.
Before commencing ballasting for departure, the cargo tanks are surveyed. The small amounts of cargo left in the cargo tanks are called ROB. What does this
mean?
Remaining on board.
What is the denomination for API?
An abbreviation of American Petroleum Institute.
In handling liquid cargo in bulk, it is being loaded to filling lines called _______.
Drops
Not all crude oils can be used for crude oil washing. What is the common recommendation to use a crude oil for washing.
The temperature must at all times be 10 degrees Centigrade above the oil’s pour point temperature.
Where is the cargo pump relief valve generally installed?
Between pump and discharge valve
What is Inert gas ?
It is a gas containing insufficient oxygen to support combustion of hydrocarbons
What is the requirement for bolting/securing of the blind flanges on the cargo manifold during cargo operation?
All bolts to be in position and tightened?
What does 'thieving' means?
Determine the amount of water in the tank
Which gives off flammable vapors at or below 80 deg. F?
Flammable liquids
Which statement is true about centrifugal pumps aboard tankers?
They are gravity fed
Why is it necessary to drain all cargo lines to shore after discharge?
To comply with MARPOL requirements
Where can you find the requirements regarding the number of persons required on duty during oil transfer ?
Oil Transfer Procedure manual
What is meant by "Load On Top"?
Loading cargo "on top" of the oil and cargo residues in the sloptanks
What is meant by that the tank atmosphere is "too rich" and "too lean"?
Atmosphere is not combustible in either situation.
Which void space separates adjacent tanks in order to prevent contamination of cargoes?
Cofferdam
After discharging, what is done on board LNG carriers to keep the tanks cold for the next voyage?
Retained small amount of LNG
While testing a cargo tank, your oxygen indicator reads 25% oxygen in the tank. You would then _____
Check the accuracy of the reading
F3 annexes
All-round light(except anchor light) shall be located as not to be obscured by masts, topmasts or structures within angular sectors of more than ______ degrees.
6
What is the fundamental frequency of the whistle signal for vessels 75 meters but less than 200 meters in length?
130-350 Hz
What is the minimum sound pressure level of a bell or gong or other similar device?
110 db
What additional light/s should a vessel engaged in trawling exhibit when hauling their nets?
One white light over one red light in a vertical line
What is the minimum vertical height above the masthead light of a maneuvering light?
2 meter
What is the minimum size of the ball shape?
.6 meter
What additional signal should a trawler exhibit when its nets has come fast upon an obstruction during the day?
International flag "P"
Which is/are true about combined whistle?
The combined system must be regarded as a single whistle
What additional light/s should a vessel engaged in trawling exhibit when shooting their nets?
Two white lights in a vertical line
In a vessel with one masthead light, what is its minimum height above the hull?
6 meters
What lights should a vessel engaged in fishing with purse seine gear exhibit?
Two yellow lights in a vertical line
What is the fundamental frequency of the whistle signal for vessel 200 meters or more in length?
70-200 Khz
What is the fundamental frquency of the whistle signal for vessels less than 75 meters in length?
250-700 hz
What is the color of the inborn screen fitted in vessels of 20 meters or more?
Matt black
What additional lights should a vessel engaged in trawling exhibit when the net has come fast upon an obstruction?
Two red lights in a vertical line
If a vessel carries only one masthead light, what should be its height above the hull if it's breadth is 12 meters?
12 meters
The fundamental frequency of the whistle signal shall be within what range?
70-700 Hz
What would be the vertical spacing of the prescribed two or three lights to be carried in a vertical line on a vessel 20 meters or more in length?
2 meters apart
What is the vertical distance between shapes of vessels 20 meters or more in length?
Not less than 1.5 meter
What would be the height of the masthead light of a vessel that is 12 meters but less than 20 meters in length above the gunwale?
2.5 meters
If two masthead lights are carried on board, what would be the vertical distance between the forward and the after masthead lights?
4-5 meters

F3 bridge teamwork
Which of the statement should be done by the officer of the watch while on duty?
Should be particular concerned with avoiding collision or stranding
The shallow water will be felt when ______.
under keel clearance is less than twice the draft
In case of conflict of command, between the Master and the Pilot, during docking or entering a port, the helmsman should:
obey the Master
Which of the statement(s) is/are CORRECT regarding that the Master can relieve a Pilot due to:
I. Little knowledge of the english language
II. Gross incompetence to perform the task at hand
II only
You are on board a container vessel approaching the pilot station at maneuvering speed and slowing down. When will the wind start to affect your vessel?
When the wind velocity is thrice the vessel's speed
It is the ratio of ship's maximum underwater cross sectional area and the cross sectional area of the waterway through which she is passing is known as ______.
blockage factor
A VLCC naigating in One Fathom Bank TSS via the deep water route's draft is 16.0m even keel and the depth of the water is 22.0m. What will be your ship's squat
in open water if you are running 12 knots with a block coeeficient of 0.790?
1.14m
Which is the main factor of ship's squat?
Speed
The intended voyage shall be planned in advance taking into consideration ______ and any course laid down shall be checked before the voyage commences.
all pertinent information
Bulwark ladder shall have two stanchions provided, which are at least 40 mm in dia, between 70 and 80 cms apart, and at least 1.2 mtrs higher than the bulwark.
Such stanchions shall be rigidly secured:
At the deck level and near the bulwark top level
What advantages does the eye have over the radar?
Can identify small targets
Which of the following procedures does NOT constitute a sound and efficient bridge operations?
All choices are correct
Efficient bridge organization procedure must include that:
I. the pilot is a valuable addition to a bridge team.
II. all instruments must be working properly even if errors are not known.
I only
During restricted visibility you are posted, as lookout, on the bridge and you hear 1 prolonged blast at intervals of no more than 2 minutes on your port bow. What
will you report to the OOW (officer on watch)?
Power-driven vessel making way on port bow
How many feet per minute will a ship move with 1 knot current?
100
If you are to use a newly installed mechanical pilot hoist arrangement to pick up a pilot:
It is necessary to have a pilot ladder rigged and reaching from deck to the waterline, next to the pilot hoist.
Which are the two major stages of the voyage plan?
Preparation and execution
You are on board a VLCC fully loaded and bound for Japan. On what part of the vessel will squat occur?
Bow
How will you act if you are helmsman and after making a turn to port you receive the order: “Steady as she goes”
Read off the compass and keep her steady on the course
What advantages does the radar have over the eye?
Simplifies the overview
Which signs indicate that your vessel has entered shallow waters?
B. There will be a drop in speed.
What is a proper look out?
A balanced assessment between keeping a visual lookout and monitoring the radar
Your vessel is going to anchor off Corregidor and the depth of the water is 35.0m. Which statement(s) is/are correct?
The cable should be walked back until about 10.0m from the bottom.
What are the quickest and most certain way of keeping a look out in clear weather?
Take a visual search of the sea around the ship
In order to avoid dangerous situations, the OOW must always be _____.
competent and vigilant
Which of the statement(s) should be the action of the OOW when suddenly restricted visibility sets in?
I. Start plotting all targets forward of the beam
II. Inform the Master and the Chief Engineer
Both I & II
When relieving the helm, the new helmsman should know the ______.
course as per magnetic compass
If in doubt of the pilot's actions or intentions, the OOW should inform the Master and take necessary action before the Master arrives on the bridge, however, the
OOW should first:
seek clarification
How should you, as helmsman, give feedback to the OOW (officer on watch) that his orders are understood?
By repeating the order
The distance traveled by the vessel in the direction of the original course from the start up to the completion of the turn is termed as _________.
advance
Which of these is NOT necessarily included in th estanding instructions?
Navigating officer
Composition of the watch on the bridge may include appropriate deck ratings, the following factors, inter alia, shall be taken into account:
All choices are correct
Which provides good holding ground for anchoring?
Sand
How to increase the effectiveness of the lookout?
To be briefed about what to expect and when ships and lights should be detected
Your ship making headway creates a positive pressure forward whilst aft pivot point, the flow of water down the ship's side creates a low-pressure area, and this is
known as _____.
pressure zones
How will you act if you are helmsman and the OOW (officer on watch) gives you the order: ”Nothing to port”
Don’t let the ship turn to port
Which of these need NOT be shown in a passage planning?
ETA at the port of destinations
You are on board a large twin-screw ship and dead in the water. How should you use the engines and rudder to turn the ship fastest in the least amount of space?
Full ahead on one engine, full astern on the other
Which statement is TRUE when anchoring in an area with a water depth of 65.0m?
Windlass should be kept in gear and the cable to be worked out until the bottom
Which statement(s) is/are TRUE about interaction?
I. The faster the ship moves, interaction effect becomes less.
II. The greater the lateral separation between ships, the better.
II only
A vessel has a draft of 40 feet, a full shallow water effect would be felt at a depth of _______.
48 feet
Which statement(s) is/are TRUE about ship's squat?
I. Trim by the head, if her block coefficient is greater than 0.700
II. Trim by the head for a fine line vessel
I only
You are entering shallow water, which of the following changes in ships maneuverability would likely to occur?
The trim of the ship changes, depending primarily on the hull form.
Aside from the maneuvering characteristics and the present details of the vessel, what else must be advised by the Master to the Pilot?
The passage plan
What is a helmsman's duty?
He is steering the ship.
What is a steering wheel?
A wheel with which the ship is steered.
A track especially examined to ensure so far as practicable that it is free of dangers along which ships are intended to navigate is called _______.
recommended track
A VLCC is navigating in One Fathom Bank TSS via the deep water route, draft is 16.0m even keel and the depth of the water is 22.0m. What is her underkeel
clearance if she will make 15 knots with a block coefficient of 0.790?
4.2m
The distance, which the vessel will move perpendicular to the fore and aft line at the commencement of the turn is called ________.
transfer
Your vessel is navigating in a narrow channel and you have started to overtake the other vessel. Interaction between vessels will be present, which statement(s)
is/are correct?
Ship's bow moves towards the other vessel's stern.
On a single screw vessel with a right handed propeller when going ahead with the rudder amidship the ________.
bow cants to port
Which of the folowing describes the accurate position that is not based on any prior position?
Fix
Apart from steering the helmsman should also:
Regularly check the gyro against the magnetic compass
What is a look-out's duty?
He is looking for navigational dangers.
Which statements are true about the usefulness of the turning maneuver of a vessel?
I. It stops a ship after losing the engine
II. It slows down a ship before arrival at a pilot station
Both I & II
It is the downward dispalcement of a vessel or increased in draft vessel moving trough the water is known as _______.
Squat
A VLCC navigating in One Fathom Bank TSS via the deep water route's draft is 16.0m even keel and the depth of the water is 22.0 m. Where will she squat in
open water if you are running 12 knots with a block coefficient of 0.790?
Forward
What is the main requirement of a lookout posted on the bridge?
Good eyesight and able to communicate with the OOW (officer on watch)
What is the meaning of "Steady so"?
Keep steady course.
Which of these is NOT an advantage in employing a pilot on board?
Can coordinate with the vessel's agent
F3 watchkeeping

Which of these is NOT a duty of the Officer of the Watch?

Observation of incoming telex or fax messages
What action should you take when you notice that the vessel's course is slowly turning to starboard while you are steaming during nighttime on autopilot?
Switch to hand steering
In restricted visibility, the first responsibility of the OOW is to comply with Master's standing orders and _______.
STCW Convention
What do you call a routing measure comprising of an area within defined limits in which either navigation is particularly hazardous or it is exceptionally important
for all ships or certain classes of ships to refrain from navigating?
Area to be avoided
What is meant by the helm order, "STEADY AS YOU GO"?
Steer the course you are on now
Buoyant lifelines must have a diameter of not less than ______.
8mm
What is the correct response to a Pilot's request "how's your head"?
Passing 100 degree
What do you call the routing measure comprising of circular separation zone and a circular traffic lane with defined limits?
Roundabout
Where should the OOW record the results of the computed deviation of the standard magnetic compass?
In the compass deviation log
Which of these is not to be filled-up by the Officer of the Watch?
Official log book
What is meant by the term "EASE THE RUDDER"?
Decrease the rudder angle
Two strokes on the bell by a lookout on the bow signifies an object sighted on ______.
port side
The OOW must see to it that the lookout leaves his post when _______.
properly relieved
You are on a vessel that carries liquefied gasses in bulk. The person on watch is required to have what information about the cargo easily accessible?
Firefighting procedures
An officer in charge of a navigational watch shall not be less than _____ years of age as required by regulations.
18
Where should the OOW record of the engine speed when entering/leaving a port?
In the bell book
In stopping distance between vessels, "head reach" can be best described as the:
distance the vessel will run between taking action to stop her and being stationary in the water
What do you call a traffic flow pattern indicating a suggested directional movement of traffic where it is impractical or unnecessary to adopt a mandatory direction
of traffic flow?
Recommended direction of traffic flow
When vessel is underway, the standard magnetic compass error should be determined:
at least once every watch
How to navigate the vessel when rounding a bend in a river for the deepest water?
Toward the outside of the bend
Aside from ensuring that members of his watch are well rested, the incoming OOW should ensure that they are:
adjusted to night vision
While underway in thick fog you are on watch and hear the cry "man overboard". Which type of maneuver should you make?
Williamson turn
The traffic lane that separates ships proceeding in opposite directions is called ______.
separation zone
Which of these statement(s) requires that a vessel must necessarily have a pilot?
They can easily liaise with shore authorities
Why should the cargo be trimmed sufficiently to cover all tank tops when loading and carrying solid bulk cargoes having angle of repose greater than 35 degrees
in a general cargo vessel?
Reduce pile height
A man was sighted as he fell overboard. After completing a Williamson turn, the man is not sighted. Which type of search pattern should be conducted?
Sector search
You are on a power driven vessel when you suddenly run into a fog bank. What action would you take?
Commence sounding the fog signal, engines on standby, call for lookout, call Master
When there is a doubt concerning the ship's position after a few days of steaming, you should ________.
use all availabale means to get a ship's fix
What is the bolt diameter of the International shore connection?
132 mm
Which statement(s) that the OOW should bear in mind the necessity to comply at all times with the requirement of Regulation 19 Chapter V of the International
Convention for SOLAS 1974?
I. The use of automatic pilot
II. The use of manual steering
III. The use of engine telegraph
I only
If it is expected that the weather may worsen, the OOW should keep the radar on or ______.
at standby
What does the helm command "CHECK HER" mean?
Slow the swing using moderate rudder
If the Master considers it necessary, a continuous navigational watch should be maintained at anchor. In all circumstances, while at anchor, the OOW should:
Ensure that an efficient lookout is maintained and ensure that inspection rounds of the ship are made periodically.
Which vessel will sound the same fog signal when underway or when at anchor?
I. A vessel engaged in fishing
II. A vessel restricted in her ability to maneuver
Both I & II
Which of the statement(s) is TRUE when navigating at route junctions?
It is advised that crossing of traffic be done as much as possible at right angles
A vessel engaged in trawling, in addition to its identify light, is exhibiting two white lights in vertical line. What is this trawler doing?
Shooting her nets
Gyro and magnetic compasses are to be compared frequentlywhen navigating at sea. How often should azimuth bearing be taken?
Once in every watch is enough
How many degrees does a wind is deflected to an isobar as depicted in the synoptic charts?
15 degrees
Ship's routing is adopted in ordser to improve the safety of navigation in _______.
converging areas
The change-over from automatic to manual steering and vice versa should be made under the supervision of a ______.
I. Responsible officer
II. Master
I only
Which are the main hazards associated with shipment of bulk solids?
I. Chemical reactions
II. Loss of reduction of stability during a voyage
Both I & II
Which of the statements that the OOW may leave the bridge?
I. Only when properly relieved
II. In any emergency
III. Not before informing the lookout
I only
It is normal that the OOW may be the sole lookout during the day. What must be the absolute condition?
If without any doubt, safety is not compromised
Which of these statement(s) that a lookout should NOT do?
Supervise any kind of deck work
What do you call a route within defined limits, which has been accurately surveyed for clearance of sea bottom and submerged obstacles as iondicated on the
chart?
Deep water route
You are on a single screw vessel with a left-handed propeller making no way in the water. How would your vessel react when you apply right rudder?
Rudder has no effect on the vessel
A lookout shall be posted by day if _____.
the visibility is restricted
What is meant by the helm command, "NOTHING TO PORT"?
Do not steer left of the ordered course
You are the OOW, the best estimate of the wind direction at sea level can be obtained from observing the direction of the _____.
Waves
what do you call the routing measure comprising a designated area between the landward boundary of traffic separation schemeand the adjacent coast?
Inshore traffic zone
The OOW must maintain anti-piracy precautions in accordance with the ______.
Master's standing orders
What MUST a new helmsman know when relieving the helm?
Course per magnetic steering compass
Your vessel is aground in fog. In addition to the regularanchor signals, you will be sounding _______.
three strokes of the bell before and after the rapid ringing of the bell
When vessel is underway, the automatic pilot should be tested in the manual possition:
at least once every watch
You are underway in a narrow channel are being overtaken by a vessel astern. The overtaking vessel sound a signal indicating her intention to pass on your
starboard side. If such action appears dangerous, you should sound which signal?
Five short and rapid blasts

F3 lights/shapes
When shall a pilot vessel on pilotage duty show sidelights and stern light?
At any time when underway
What must be shown by a single vessel being towed alongside?
Sidelights and stern light
What is the frequency of a flashing light?
120/minute
What should a vessel aground exhibit aside from the anchor lights?
Two red lights in a vertical line where it can best be seen
Sidelights of a vessel less than 12 meters in length should be visible at ______ .
1 mile
What light has the same characteristics as the towing light?
Stern light
Which statement is true concerning a 75 meter power driven vessel underway at night?
She must exhibit forward and after masthead light
What dayshape should be dislpayed by a vessel 30 meters in length and aground?
Three black balls
Which vessel must show a towing light above the stern light?
A vessel with a 150 meter tow
What would the vessel being towed exhibit if its length exceeds 200 during the day?
1 diamond shape
A vessel of 50 meter or > in length, forward anchor light shall be placed at a height of not less than _____ above the hull and shall not be less than _____ above
the after anchor light.
6/4.5 meter
What should a fishing vessel engaged in fishing, other than trawling exhibit?
Two all-round lights in a vertical line, the upper being red and the lower white
What is the visibility of the masthead light of a vessel 50 meters or more in length?
6 miles
What should a 45 meter vessel pulling a 210 meter tow exhibit?
Three masthead light forward and aft
You see an approaching vessel at night, both red and green sidelights are visible, and above the level of the sidelights are three white lights in vertical line, what is
this vessel?
Towing vesel, length of tow is more than 200 meters
A vessel 100 meters in length at anchor is beset by dense fog. What statement is true with regards to her fog signal?
Rapid ringing of the bell forward, followed by the rapid sound of the gong aft
What is the minimum length of a power driven vessel that must show forward and after masthead lights?
50 meters
What would a dredger not engaged in dredging but proceeding to a dredging location at night show?
Show the light of a power driven vessel
Which vessel would be required to show a white light from a lantern or an electric torch which shall be exhibited in sufficient time to prevent collision?
A rowboat
What does it mean if a vessel use the sound signal consisting of five or more short blast on the ship's whistle?
Indicates doubt as to the other vessel's action
A fog signal of one short, one prolonged and one short blast may be sounded by a ______.
Vessel at anchor
What does three short blast of a whistle mean?
I am operating astern propulsion
You are proceeding under sail with auxillary engine running and the propeller turning. Which statement is true?
In fog you must sound one prolonged blast at intervals of not more than two minutes
Which sound signal appliance may any power driven vessel use at anchor and underway in fog?
Whistle
What prescribed light must a vessel less than 50 meters show?
Unbroken white light for an arc of the horizon of 360 degrees
The arc of visibility for sidelights is from right ahead to ____.
22.5 degrees abaft the beam
In daytime, a 19 meter vessel underway and fishing with nets shall indicate her occupation by displaying what dayshape?
Two cones apexes together
During the day, what should a dredger display to indicate which is the safe side to pass?
Two diamond shapes in a vertical line
What is the day signal of a vessel not under command?
Two black balls
When underway in fog but making no way through the water, what is the interval between fog signals?
Two minutes
What sound appliances should a vessel of more than 100 meters in length use at anchor in fog?
Whistle, bell and gong
What is the visibility of the sidelights of a vessel that is 50 meters or more in length?
3 miles
You see a yellow light showing above the stern light of the vessel you are overtaking. The vessel you are overtaking is _______.
towing astern
You are underway in fog and you hear another vessel sounding two prolonged blasts every two minutes. Which of the following vessel's situation is indicated by
the signal?
Drifting
A towing vessel in fog shall sound at specific intervals _____.
One prolonged and two short blasts in succession
Which vessel may exhibit identifying lights when NOT actually engaged in her occupation
None of the choices is correct
The fog signals by a vessel at anchor or aground shall be sounded at intervals of not more than ______.
1 minute
A vessel will not show sidelights when ______.
Not under command, not making way
A tug is towing three manned barges in line in fog. What should the first vessel of the tow sound?
None
Barges being towed at night must exhibit navigation lights ________.
At all times
What daylight shape should a vessel aground display?
Three black balls in a vertical line
When should a pilot on pilotage duty show her identity lights?
All choices are correct
What would you do if you are approaching another vessel and uncertain whether you are in a crossing or overtaking situation?
assume that you are overtaking
What shall a vessel exhibit when she is unable to maneuver due to special circumstance?
When making way at night, two all round red lights, sidelights and a stern light
In fog, your vessel is on a collision course with a crossing vessel on your port side. Which vessel may sound the danger signal?
Neither vessel
How many masthead light should a towing vessel 30 minutes in length pushing barges ahead display?
Two
What light should a sailing vessel of less than 20 meters in lenght exhibit?
Combination of sidelights and stern light in one lantern at or near the top mast where it can best be seen
What additional dayshape/s is/are required when there is outlying gear extending more than 150 meters horizontally from the vessel?
A cone apex upwards in the direction of the gear
What is the visibility of the masthead light of vessels 12 meters or more in length but less than 50 meters in length?
5 miles
Which day shape would indicate that a vessel is conducting mine clearance operation?
Three black balls
What day shape should a 30 meter aground vessel display?
Three black balls
What is the visibility of the sidelights of a vessel that is less than 12 meters in length?
1 mile
What is the visibility of the stern light of a vessel that is less than 12 meters in length?
2 miles
At what distance should the side lights of a power driven vessel of 50 meters or more visible?
three miles
What is the visibility of the sidelights of vessels 12 meters in length but less than 50 meters in length?
2 miles
A white masthead light must show an unbroken light over an arc of the horizon of how many degrees?
225
What would a vessel being towed show at night?
Sidelight and stern light
What vessel with three all round green lights should not be approached at a distance of not less than 1,000 meters?
Mine clearance
Which statement is true concerning a towing vessel which is unable to deviate from her course?
By night, she should display three lights in vertical line. The upper and lower lights being red and the middle being white
What shall a vessel dredging exhibit to indicate the side on which other may pass safely?
Two all around green light in a vertical line/ two black diamond shapes in a vertical line
Which vessel should illuminate her decks?
Vessel more than 100 meter in length at anchor

What is the visibility of the masthead light of vessels less than 12 meters in length?

2 miles
At anchor in fog, you hear a signal of another vessel underway and there could be a risk of collision. What signal should you sound to indicate your presence?
One prolonged, one short, and one prolonbged blast on the ship's whistle
Why is a combined whistle system fitted if the sound of the single whistle is obstructed?
To overcome the sound reduction
What light should a vessel engaged in fishing and at anchor exhibit?
None of the choices is correct
What should a vessel trawling display?
Green over a white light
What dayshapes will a 25 meter vessel trawling display?
Two cones, apexes together
What is the color of the towing light?
Yellow
What should a seaplane exhibit if it is anchor during the day?
Black ball
What is the duration of each of the whistle signal used in meeting and crossing situation?
About 1 second

F3 marlaw

What do you call this term when important conditions were broken or not fulfilled thus ending the written agreement by a party to the contract?
Frustration
Delivery of a vesel to a Chartereris called ______.
tendering
What are the function/s of the Bill of lading?
I. Evidence of the contract of carriage.
II. Document of the title of goods.
Both I and II
What do you call this term when important conditions were broken or not fulfilled thus ending the written agreement by a party to the contract?
Frustration
Which type of Charter Party is used when the ship loads and unloads at ports nominated by the Charterer?
Voyage Charter Party
What is this 1978 UN Convention on the carriage of goods by sea that deals primarily to rules that applies to maritime carriage and carrier liability?
Hamburg Rules
What is this type of Bill of Lading that provides for the carrige of cargo to be partly performed by someone other than the carrier?
Through bill of lading
Which document attest to the truth of the manifest of the cargo?
Oath of Entry
Which are the implied terms in the Bill of lading?
I. Ship is seaworthy
II. Ship shall proceed with reasonable dispatch
Both I and II
What is this contract agreement between the parties who directly executed the contract?
Privity of a contract
What are the function/s of the bill of lading?
I. Evidence of the receipt of goods.
II. Evidence that the goods are accepted in good condition.
I only
An implied warrnaty of the seaworthiness on the part of the vessel's owner lies in the ______.
Contract of Carriage, i.e. Bill of Lading
What is a written contract which the shipowner binds himself to transport merchandise of the charterer fron a port to another for a fixed price?
Charter party
Which class of Bill of Lading refers to goods already received on board?
Spent B/L
Payment of penalty for a ship's delay after the expiration of lay days due to some fault of the Charterer or his agent is known as _______.
demurrage
Which type of common carrier accepts without descrimination all legal cargoes os a shipper?
Common
What is a written contract which the shipowner binds himself to transport merchandise of the charterer from a port to another for a fixed price?
Charter party
What do you call a document stating an exception on the Bill of Lading due to defects on the cargo?
Unclean Bill of Lading
What is this important terms that are added in the contract because they are not included in the regular contents of the form?
Riders
Which of these is considererd an innocent passage?
Transit passage
What is this type of Bill of lading that provides for the carriage of cargo to be partly performed by someone other than the carrier?
Through of bill of lading
Which may not extend beyond miles from the baseline where the breadth of the territorial sea is measured?
Contiguous zone
What do you call this charter party when the possession of the vessel is transfered from the owner to the charter?
Bareboat charter
What is considered a new ship?
When its keel was laid on or after the effectivity of the Rules and Regulation
What registry of ships is open only to shipowners who are nationals of the country?
Closed registry
What is this bill of lading where the carrier does not agree with the statements on the Bill of lading and thus putting some notations in it?
Clean
What is term that means any casualty in an accident involving any ship other than a naval ship which occurs within the navigable waters of the philippines?

Maritime casualty
What do you call a person or company that advertises services involving the carriage of goods to and from ports on a particular route?
Common carrier
In what certificate can you find the standard requirements of documents and certificates for Filipino seafarers based on international regulations?
STCW'95
Which are implied in the bill of lading?
I. Ship shall proceed with justifiable deviation
II. Ship shall proceed with reasonable dispatch
II only
What is an area adjacent to the territorial sea which extends to the limit of 200 N. M. from the baseline?
Economic zone
What term is a termination of contract due to circumstances that are outside or beyond the control of the parties who executed the contract?
Frustration
A vessel has been damage by fire. The survey shows the cost of repairs will exceed the value of the repaired vessel. This is an example of a/an ______.
constructive total loss
A document signed by the shipowner/Master acknowledging the goods have been received for shipment bound for a particular destination is called ______.
Bill of lading
The Charterer has completed loading the vesel in 3 days instead of 5 days agreed to in the charter party. As a result of this, the ______.
Charterer may receive dispatch money
Which type of Charter Party is used when the ship load and unload specified quantities of cargoes at ports nominated by the Charterer/owner within a specified
time?
Contract of affreightment
On what condition is a Deratting certificate issued?
Vessel is free of ridents or their number is negligible
On a voyage charter, when the vessel is ready to load, the Master should render to the Charterer ________.
Notice of readiness
When can a common carrier be exempted from damaged cargo?
Perils of the sea
What term means any casualty in an accident involving any ship other than a naval ship which occurs within the navigable waters of the Philippines?
Maritime Casualty
Which shows the vessel's Nationality, ownership, and tonnage?
Certificate of Documentation
What do you call this charter party when the possession of the vessel is transferred from the owner to the charterer?
Bareboat charter
Which of Bill of Lading describes the goods with defects?
Foul B/L
The time allowed forloading and discharging cargo in a charter party is referred to as _______.
laydays
When it is certain that the count, description and apparent condition of cargo as stated in the Mate's receipt, who will sign the bill of lading?
Master
Which of these is considered an innocent passage?
Transit passasge
Which are implied in the bill of lading?
I. Ship is seaworthy.
II. Ship shall proceed with justifiable deviation
I only
A shipper of cargo aboard your vessel offers a letter of indemnity in order to obtain a ______.
Clean B/L
The document that establishes the facts of a casualty and is the prima facie relief from liability for the damage is the ______.
Master's protest
Which class of Bill of lading can be transferred to another person?
Negotiable B/L
Which requires that the Master, officers and ratings performing the watchkeeping duties aboard Philippine registered vessels shall meet the requirements?
STCW Convention 78 as amended
A contract of affreightment is a _______.
Bill of Lading
A document which has list of names, birthplaces, and residences of persons employed on a merchant vessel bound from a U.S. port on a foreign voyage and is
required at every port is called the ______.
Certified Crew List
What is this 1978 UN Convention on the carriage of goods by sea that deals primarily to rules that applies to maritime carriage and carrier liability?
Hamburg Rules
When can a common carrier be exempted from damaged cargo?
Perils of the sea
What are the function/s of the bill of lading?
D.All choices are correct
Which type of Charter Party is used when the bare-ship is delivered to the Charterer?
Demise Charter Party
What are the functions of a Bill of Lading?
I. Evidence of the contract of carriage.
II. Evidence of receipt of goods
Both I and II
If the charter or consignee detains a ship beyond the agreed number of laydays and detains her for unreasonable time, the shipowner will be entitled to ______.
Demurrage
______ means all parts of the sea that are not included in the territorial sea or in the internal waters of the state.
High sea
Which of the following is more convenient to register because the country is "OPEN" and flexible to many requirements?
FOC
What is the term for the number of days allowed by the charter party for loading and discharging of cargo?
Laydays
A 'dangerous cargo manifest' is needed to carry a combustible cargo. You should obtain the shipping papers to make the manifest from the ______
shipper
What do you call the person or company who hires the ship for a period of time or reserves the cargo space of a ship for the carriage of goods from loading to the
discharge port?
Charterer
What relates to commerce and navigation, to business transacted at sea, exploitation of resources and protection of the environment?
Maritime Law

F3 Marpol
MARPOL
What is the disadvantage of using chemicals on an oil-spill on the water?
The chemicals make it difficult to remove the oil from the water
What is the most probable place that any oil will flow over the ship's side in case of an overflow during loading/discharging?
Aft part of the tank-deck
One of the following areas is NOT a Special Area as mentioned in MARPOL regulations regarding pollution by oil. Which area?
The Gulf of Mexico
Any ship of 10.000 tons gross tonnage and above shall be fitted with oily-water separating equipment for the control of machinery space bilges.What kind of
equipment is required in this connection?
Either Oil fitting equipment , or Oily-water separating equipment , or combination of both.
What is the most significant pollutant resulting from shipping operations?
Oil
You are on a vessel 60 nautical miles off the coast of the nearest land, Algeria, in the Mediterranean Sea. Are you allowed to dump empty glass bottles
overboard ?
No, glass bottles can not be dumped overboard
Which PPM is allowed for discharging of "Bilge Water" overboard?
15 PPM
How is ullage measured on board tankers?
From an above-deck datum such as the top of the ullage pipe
MARPOL 73/78 - Annex V. Disposal of garbage outside "Special Areas". After unpacking spares, you are left with a limited amount of packing materials. What will
be the nearest distance to land for disposal into the sea of this materials?
25 miles
Which of the following is NOT required to be in the oil transfer procedures?
The location and capacity of all fuel and cargo tanks on the vessel
You are Sen.Off.Deck on a laden tanker. You have just been in a collision, and have a big leakage under waterline. What should you do to reduce the pollution as
much as possible?
Level in the tank to be reduced as much as possible to reduce/stop any further oil spill.
What does it mean to say, "Thieving" a petroleum cargo?
Determining the volume of water, if any, in each cargo tank
You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Algeria, in the Mediterranean Sea. Are you allowed to dump food waste overboard?
No, food waste can not be dumped overboard
A separate garbage logbook has to be kept onboard, which item(s) is not required to be filled in?
Person in charge
What is the term used onboard a tankship for the depth of a petroleum product in a tank?
Innage
New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the previous instantaneous rate of discharge of oil content (60 litters per nautical mile) was
changed to:
30 litters per nautical mile
In which areas is plastic material accepted for overboard disposal?
Not permissible any where.
Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by doing what?
Plugging the scuppers
You are on a vessel 10 nautical miles off the coast of Nigeria, West Africa. Are you allowed to dump empty glass bottles overboard ?
Yes, the bottles can be dumped if they are ground so that the resulting particles can pass through a screen with 25 mm openings
Why are you only allowed to load maximum 98% of the tank capacity?
Due to temperature expansion.
Which of the connections you are shown, are the dedicated shore connection (MARPOL-connection) for discharging of sewage ?
Figure 4
Your vessel is moored alongside in Houston, discharging oil to the terminal. During discharging your vessel is hit by an other vessel and your vessel is leaking oil
into the Houston Channel. What will you as Senior deck officer do?
Stop discharge, inform USCG and Qualified Individual.
Most minor oilspills are caused by:
Human error
What do you call the distance between the surface of the liquid and the tank top in a cargo tank?
Ullage
Which method of oil cleanup is NOT usually allowed?
Using sinking agents
How many annexes do we find in MARPOL 73/78 and what is the content of annex 1?
We find 5 annexes in MARPOL 73/78 and annex 1 is the regulations for the prevention of pollution by oil
The IMO Code requires protection against spillage of the most dangerous products (ethyl ether, antiknock lead compounds such as TML and TEL etc) by
prescribing that:
They shall be carried in cargo tanks independent of the ships hull structure?
Which of the connections you are shown, are the dedicated shore connection (MARPOL-connection) for discharging of sewage ?
Figure 4
If pollution takes place, what would you do immediately?
Report to relevant authorities.
Ships of 10.000 tons gross tons and more, may be fitted with oil fitting equipment for the control of machinery space bilges. What would be the maximum "PPM" of
oily-water mixture to pass through the filter?
15 ppm
What is the best way to avoid pollution from small oil-spills aboard a ship?
Contain any oil-spill onboard the ship
Which of the statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding a hazardous materials that is allowed to be stowed on deck?
A. Provided they are laid with at least 3 inches of dunnage on deck
You are in a position as illustrated. What is the instantaneous oil discharge limit according to MARPOL ?
30 L/nm
The lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off sufficient vapors to form a flammable mixture with air is called ________.
flash point
How often do you have to certify cargo hoses?
Every 12 month
Why should water ballast not in general be carried in tanks intended for oil fuel in passenger ships?
Risk for pollution
Why shall a duly qualified officer supervise any potential polluting operation?
To avoid pollution.
One of the following arguments is not valid regarding discharge of oil/oily mix into sea:
The lower speed the higher ratio of oil/oily water can be discharged?
Which label is used for corrosive liquid and acids according to IMDG Code?
White and Black
Hoses carried on board are normally checked and tested annually. Amongst other tests and checks, a pressure test is done up to the working pressure of the hose
plus _____.
25 %
You are onboard a vessel enroute off the West African coast. How far off the coast canyou be, to be able to dump a food waste, glass bottles and floating packing
materials ?
25 nautical miles off the coast
Your vessel has been involved in a collision, which has resulted in a heavy oil leakage. Who should be called to handle pollution claims and damages?
The P & I Club's nearest representative.
A method NOT usually allowed in cleaning up oil spills in the US waters is:
Dispersant
What is the purpose of the O.D.M.E. (Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment) printer ?
To prove that oil has been pumped overboard according to regulations
Your vessel is in the Red Sea with no incinerator, you decide to have the waste ground in the Grinder (Lump size max. 25 mm) and disposed off into the sea. Is
this prohibited, if not, how far from nearest land is this legal?
12 miles
What is definition on clean water?
Water with less than 15 ppm vitiation of oil
Pollution Regulations require that each scupper in an enclosed deck area have a:
None of the other alternatives
Most cases of oil pollution are caused by human errors. What has proved to be the essential mistake executed by the shore people regarding environment
damages?
Dispersement of chemicals?
In MARPOL 73/78 Reg. 10, the wording "Special Areas" is mentioned in connection with conventional oil tankers. What do you understand by this term?
Special area is certain areas like Red Sea, Black Sea, Baltic Sea, Mediterranean, Gulf area, Antartic area.
During loading of oil, you notice oil on the water near your vessel. What should you do first?
Stop loading
Your ship has in operation an approved sewage treatment plant certified by the Administration. During discharge, while vessel is awaiting pilot off Cape Henry,
USA, there is discoloration in the surrounding water. Which is true?
discoloured. What kind of action would be appropriate to take?
Stop discharge.
You are on a vessel 15 nautical miles off the coast of Nigeria, West Africa. Are you allowed to dump food waste overboard?
Yes, all kind of food waste can be dumped overboard
When there is a subsequent increase in temperature, the volume of liquid petroleum products tends to ______.
expands
How is "argon" classified as per IMDG Code?
Non-flammable gas
Which type of cargo damage due to fumes or vapors ffrom other cargo?
Tainting
Which statement(s) is/are the causes of an odorous cargoes?
I. Damage by tainting
II. Gives off fumes that may damage other cargoes
I only
New MARPOL regulations came into effect from July 93 stating that the oily water separator which was previously certified for 100 ppm be changed to:
15 ppm

F3 seam5
You are performing an overtaking manoeuvre in confined waters. What should you watch out for?
Bow may be sucked against, and the stern may be pushed away from the other ship as you pass
The distance that a vessel travels from the time the engines were ordered and placed on full astern until the vessel is dead in the water is called ______.
head reach
The distance the vessel will run between taking action to stop her and being stationary in the water is called _______.
wake fraction
Consider the situation sketched below. How will you distribute the power of the tugs when you want to move the ship sideways without any yaw?
Equal power on both tugs while checking the gyro
The maximum rudder angle on your ship is 35 degrees. Do you think this is the angle that the rudder is most effective?
No, most effective is about 25 to 30 deg., because the rudder is "stalling" at 35 degrees angle
The distance a vessel moves parallel to the original course from the point where the rudder is put over to any point on the turning circle is called ______.
advance
You are steaming off a coast when they call from the bridge and tell you that the engine has stopped. They need a couple of hours to fix it, what will you do?
As soon as possible determine how the ship is drifting to establish if there is any danger
You are drifting with a loaded VLCC in open sea and have observed the direction and rate of drift. Can you do anything to change the direction and rate of drift?
We can trim the ship by stern as much as possible. This will most likely change the direction and rate of drift
Your ship is going full ahead as you start to slow down. Where is the position of the "pivot point" now? No wind, current.
It will move aft as the ship slows down
What can be used to reduce the effect of the state of sea-waves?
Vegetable / Fish Oil
Consider the situation sketched below. What can happen if the tugmaster is not careful?
The tug may be turned across your bow with the danger of being turned over
The vessel has weighed the anchor and is heading for sea. The anchor is to be stowed in position. How?
The anchor to be all way in the hawsepipe and secured by brake on winch and wire/chain stopper
What is most pronounced about a ship with good course stability?
When you put rudder amidships, she will continue on a straight course
If due to strong winds your vessel's bow line part and begins to fall away from the dock. What should you do if you are dock port side?
Drop the starboard anchor
You are duty officer on the bridge. An eye-witness has reported a man-overboard. Which of the following actions is the correct manoeuvre in this situation?
Williamson Turn
With the ladder on the leeward side, how should you maneuver when picking up the pilot in a seaway?
Put the sea on the weather bow and ship slowly moving ahead
You are sailing in shallow water with 15% Under Keel Clearance. Coming full astern from full ahead, how will your changed course compare to deep water?
The heading will most likely change by a large amount
You are in confined waters. Is there any danger in the situation sketched below if you should lose engine power?
Your ship will sheer to starboard rather quickly with the possible consequence of grounding
Where is the rudder axis located on an unbalanced rudder?
Just in forepart of the rudder square (figure 3)
How is bank effect felt in a vessel?
The vessel's bow is pushed away from the nearest bank
Your diagram shows that you will need 2000m to stop your ship from full ahead in deep water. What will the stopping distance be in shallow water?
Longer
You are sailing in shallow water with a 15% Under Keel Clearance. Turning the ship around, what space do you need compared to deep water?
Need more space than normal
Please name the most common rudders as shown below? UNBALANCED, BALANCED, SEMI-BALANCED, UNDERHUNG BALANCED
NO. 1,2,3 and 4
To which does the holding capacity of the anchor depends?
Its ability to dig in
How will you define squat?
Increase in draft to the point on your ship which is closest to the bottom
A tug is connected in a line at your bow. Will the bollard pull be the same at any speed?
No, when the speed exceeds 5 knots we have not much help in a tug
Your ship is going astern right-handed propeller as sketched below. How is the ship most likely to react?
The stern will "back" into the wind
For which type of vessel is squatting most pronounced?
Vessel with a high block coefficient
You are in a 360 degrees turn with engine full ahead. If you reduce speed during the turn, do you think there will be a change in turning diameter?
Yes, the turning diameter will increase if I reduce speed
What is the reason for the effect we call squat?
Increased velocity and decreased water pressure around the ship's hull
Who is responsible for the number and use of tugs during mooring?
The Master
How will the ship behave if you have a "black out" in the situation sketched below?
She will turn to port and the speed will drop gradually
If a nylon mooring rope is immersed in water it undergoes:
A decrease in strength of 20 %
Where do you think the "pivot point" is located when your ship is going full speed ahead? No wind, current.
At about 1/6 of the ship's length from the bow
You have made a turning test on full speed in deep water. You are now going to make a test in shallow water. Do you think the turning diameter will be the same?
No, the turning diameter will be increased in shallow water
If you decide to heave to when you are steaming in a heavy gale, you have to reduce the speed to the minimum to hold that position and take the sea _______.
fine on the bow
What will the stopping distance of your ship be when proceeding with 8 knots and reversing to full astern?
I can find out from sea trials or test on my own
You have released the tug. To whom do you report when tugs are cleared?
To the Master
For which type of vessel is sinkage most pronounced?
High block coefficient vessel
In stopping distance of vessels, HEAD REACH can best be described as the ______.
distance the vessel has actually run between taking action to stop her and being stationary in the water
Where is the pivot point of the vessel located when backing down with sternway?
About one quarter of the vessel's length from the stern
When will we notice the effect of shallow water?
When Under Keel Clearance is 50% or less
In the situation shown, the bow of your ship is pushed away from the bank. How can you handle this?
Give starboard rudder in order to balance the force of the bank effect and rudder effect
When ship to ship operations are being carried out at anchor, anchor watch duties are as follows, irrespective of which ships anchor is down:
Anchor watch responsibility rests with both vessels, each with its own watch
What is the advantage of a twin screw vessel over a single screw vessel when underway?
Side forces will be eliminated
You are sailing in shallow water, with 15% Under Keel Clearance. How will the stopping distance be, compared to deep water?
Longer
You are transiting a narrow channel. What can happen in this situation?
The bow will be pushed away from the bank
The vessel is to leave anchorage. You will heave up the anchor but how and to whom will you report the status of the anchor?
To the master according to his instructions
In taking over the helm, the new helmsman should also be told of the ________.
magnetic compass heading
Your ship's initial speed is half ahead and your engine is put full astern. How will the stopping distance be compared to full speed?
It will be much shorter
Your ship is drifting in open sea with temporary engine malfunction. You are equipped with precise navigation equipment. What should you do in this situation?
Use the opportunity to plot direction and rate of drift for later use
If you are the OOW, how you will know that your anchor is dragging?
In observing the changes in bearings of fixed objects ashore
Your ship is going astern right-handed propeller as sketched below. How is the ship most likely to react?
The stern will "back" into the wind
The rudder is in hard over position and the propeller has stopped. The ship is turning slowly. What can we do to make her turn faster without increasing forward
speed?
Give a kick ahead
You want to stop your ship as quickly as possible without too much change in the heading. What can you do to achieve this?
Use the rudder hard over both sides while reducing engine power, so-called "high frequency rudder cycling"
What is the most dangerous overtaking situation shown on the sketches?
A large vessel overtaking a small vessel with little difference in speed between the two vessels
A balanced rudder has some of the rudder area forward of the rudder axis. About how much area should this be to call it a balanced rudder?
It should be about 20%
Which of the statement(s) is/are TRUE regarding a twin screw vessel going ahead with rudder amidships have her port screws stop turning?
A. The bow will cant to port
In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term "kick" means the distance or throw of a vessel's stern from her line of advance upon putting the helm to ______.
hard over
How can you minimize the squat effect?
Decrease the speed as much as practicable
A ship is turning around a point called the "pivot point". What is the position of this invisible point when the ship is "dead" in the water?
About same position as the center of gravity
When fastening synthetic fibre ropes such as polypropylene on bitts, for safety and better rope control it is recommended to:
Make two round turns fast on the leading bitt and then figure of eight on both bitts, fig. 4
What should be observed in an area where two currents at the downstream end of a middle bar?
V-shaped ripple with the point of the V pointing downsteam
Consider the situation sketched below. What can happen if the tugmaster is not careful?
The tug may be sucked into your stern with danger of striking the propeller
Why is it important to determine how your ship is drifting in various conditions?
To determine if there is any danger of grounding or colliding with objects during drifting
You are performing an overtaking manoeuvre in confined waters. What should you watch out for?
The bow may be sucked against, and the stern may be pushed away from the other ship as you pass
You are in confined waters. Is there any danger in the situation sketched below if you should lose engine power?
Your ship will sheer to starboard rather quickly with the possible consequence of grounding
You are about to pass another ship in a close situation. What can happen in this situation?
Due to suction, the two ships will be sucked together
What is the most favorable anchoring ground?
A mixture of mud and clay
In taking over the helm, it will be of an advantagefor the new helmsman to know the ______.
degree of helm needed for a steady course
A person is reported missing, which action is considered as the correct manoeuvre in this situation?
Scharnow Turn
You are meeting with another ship in confined waters. What can happen as the ships approach each other?
The bows of the ships will be pushed away from each other
A ship is not turning around the center of gravity, but another point. What is the point called?
Pivot point
The force generated by the propeller which cause the stern to throw right or left is called _______.
sidewise force
What is a common occurence when a vessel is running into shallow water?
Squat will cause a decrease in bottom clearance and an increase in draft
The vessel will anchor with Pilot onboard. You are the duty officer on bridge. What is your main duty?
Check the position only
Which of the alternative methods of using a tug when escorting your ship through narrow waters do you think is the most effective if you lose steering power?
The tug's bow against my stern, made fast with lines. By moving the tug to either side of my stern, this will help to steer the ship (figure 4).
You are sailing in shallow water, with 15% Under Keel Clearance. With full RPM, what will your speed be compared to deep water?
Slower
A tunnel bow thruster provides lateral control without affecting the _______.
headway
Do you think a ship's trim has any influence on steering abilities?
Yes, the ship usually steers better if trimmed by the stern
Your engine is going astern and you pick up sternway. The rudder is midships, and you are operating on a single, right-handed fixed screw. How will your ship
react?
She will most likely change heading to starboard
You are drifting in open sea with a loaded VLCC, and you observe that the drift is SSE. Will the drift direction be the same for ballast condition?
No, drifting in ballast condition may be quite different
Your ship is operating with a right handed propeller. Which angle of approach is most favourable? No wind or current.
No. 2
You have made a turning circle at full speed in deep water. Make one turn with initial speed at slow ahead. Would the diameter differ from that of initial full ahead?
The diameter will be the same whatever initial speed we have when starting the turn
A vessel whose superstructure located forward, when drifting with no headway will have the wind ________
from abaft the beam
How do we define the location of the "pivot point"?
The point where the sideways motion of the ship`s centreline is zero
What will the stopping distance of your ship be when proceeding with 5 knots and reversing to full astern?
The sea-trial tests may tell me, or else I can do a test myself to find out
You are approaching shallow water with an Under Keel Clearance of 15%. What speed should you have when entering, and when should you slow down?
Reduce to slow or less in due time before entering
How is shallow water effect felt in a vessel?
The vessel becomes sluggish in responding to the rudder
What is the meaning of steady so?
Keep steady course

F3 steering and sailing rules

Why should a vessel slacken, stop or reverse her engines?
I. To allow more time to assess the situation
II. To be stopped in an appropriate distance
I only
A sailing vessel is not required to keep out of the way of what vessel?
Fishing vessel engaged in trolling
When can a vessel continue to sound an identity signal during restricted visibility?
When at anchor
How should a vessel approaching a bend indicate her presence?
Sound one prolong blast on her whistle.
A vessel transferring cargo while underway is classified under the rules as a vessel ______.
restricted in her ability to maneuver
Under what circumstances would an overtaking vessel sound a whistle signal of two prolonged followed by one short blast?
When overtaking in narrow channel
What vessel is exempted from prudential rules?
Not under command
Which vessel is NOT regardewd as "restricted in her ability to maneuver"?
A pushing vessel and a vessel being pushed connected in a composite unit.
When a vessel is fishing and underway, she shall keep out of the way of a _____.
Vessel not under command
What is the length of vessels that are required by the rules Not to impede the safe passage of vessels, that can only navigate inside the channel?
20 meters
What is the fog signal of a towing vessel?
One prolonged and two short blasts in succession
A vessel shall be deemed to be overtaking when coming up with another vessel from the direction more than ______.
22.5 degrees abaft her beam
As a stand-on vesel in a crossing situation, until when will you hold your course and speed?
When the action alone of the give-way vessel cannot prevent a collision
You are underway in fog and hear a whistle signal of two prolonged blast on your starboard quarter. What should be your appropriate action?
Holds your course and speed
Which vessel, as defined in the rules, is NOT "restricted in her ability to maneuver"?
A sailing vessel
What does the term "In extrimis" mean?
Priviledge vessel required to take action
The word "vessel" in the rules includes ______.
I. A barge permanently affixed to the shore.
II. Non-displacement craft.
II only
In accordace to the rules, which vessel is directed NOT to impede the passage of a vessel , which can only navigate inside a narrow channel?
A vessel of less than 20 meters in length
Which procedure/s shall be used to determine if risk of collision exists?
All the choices are correct (Watch the compass bearing of the other vessel, Use long range radar scanning, Systematic observation of objects detected by radar
Vessel "X" is overtaking vessel "Y". What should vessel "Y" do?
Should hold her course and speed
When may a vessel depart from the rules?
When you are in immediate danger
When shall the stand-on vessel change course and speed?
When the action of the give way vessel alone cannot prevent collision
What should you do if you are steaming at half speed and approaching a fog bank with visibility of 100 yards.
Set a safe speed based upon the prevailing condition
When shall the rule regarding posting a lookout during navigational watch applies?
All the choices are correct
You are underway in restricted visibility when you hear a fog signal forward of your beam and in doubt whether risk of collision exists. What is the best action in
this situation?
Reduce speed to bare steerageway
A sailing vessel is NOT required to keep out of the way of a ______.
Power driven vessel
What should you do when navigating in thick fog?
Station a lookout as low down as possible and as far as possible
What fact that is listed in the rules must be taken into account when determining safe speed?
The maneuverability of the vessel
Which statement is correct concerning two sailing vessels?
A sailing vessel with the wind forward of the beam on her port side shall keep out of the way of a sailing vessel with the wind forward of the beam
What rule/s is required in a traffic separation scheme?
I. A vessel crossing a TSS shall do so at a small angle.
II. A vessel not using the TSS shall avoid it by a wide margin.
II only
Which of the follwing is applicable under rule 7?
The compass bearings of an approaching vesel does not appreciably change
Which statement is true regarding a seaplane?
In general, should keep well clear of all vessels
Choose the correct statement that applies in a situation where a sailing vessel is overtaking a power driven vessel.
The sailing vessel must keep out of the way of the power driven vessel
Which of the following is NOT a vessel "restricted in her ability to maneuver"?
A deep draft vessel that can only navigate in a dredged channel.
The term "restricted visibility" as used in the rules refers _____.
to any condition where visibility is restricted
There are two classes of vessels which, to the extent necessary to carry out their work do not have to comply with the rules regarding TSS. One of these is a
vessel ______.
servicing a submarine cable
Which rule does NOT relieve the overtaking vessel of her obligation?
Rule 9
What is the light signal authorized by the Secretary of the Navy as an additional navigational light for a warship?
Flashing amber beacon for submarine
While on watch, you observed a red light bearing NW(315 degrees). What could be the approximate course of the other vessel?
South
Which statement is true when navigating in restricted visibility?
Engines should be ready for immediate maneuver
Choose the correct statement concerning two sailing vessels approaching each other.
A sailing vessel overtaking is the give-way vessel
There are two vessels in an overtaking situation. What light/s would the overtaking vessel see from the vessel being overtaken?
Sternlight only
What would a vessel show if it is in a situation of exceptional circumstance?
When underway, two red lights in a vertical line
Your vessel is not making way, but is not in any way disabled. Another vessel is approaching on your starboard beam. Which statement is true?
Your vessel is the give-way vessel in a crossing situation
Which of the following is prohibited for a stand on vessel?
Turn to port if the other vessel is on her port side
When is a risk of collision deemed to exist?
If there is any doubt that risk of collision exist
Which is FALSE when maneuvering in restricted visibility?
A vessel which hears a fog signal forward of her beam shall stop her engines
What statement is true when navigating through a channel?
Keep as near to the outer limit if the channel is lying on the starboard side.
Under the rules, which vessel is "restricted in her ability to maneuver"?
A vessel mineclearing
Which craft would NOT be considered a power driven vessel?
All of the choicesw are power driven vessel
Which statement is true concerning seaplanes on the water?
A seaplane on the water shall in general, keep well clear of all vessels
What will you do if your navigational light malfunction?
Engage the back up light and instruct somebody to replace the bulb
In a crossing situation, a vessel fishing is considered a "burden" vessel when meeting a vessel ______.
constrained by her draft
A vessel must proceed at a safe speed ______.
at all times
Which statement is true?
"Vessel" include seaplanes
Which vessel must not impede the safe passage of a power driven vessel?
A seaplane
Underway at night you see a red side light of a vessel well off your starboard bow. Which statement is true?
You may maintain your course and speed
When may a vessel need Not show her sidelights?
Not under command and not making way
What is this system of inbound and outbound lanes to promote the safe flow of traffic in certain areas of the world?
Traffic separation scheme
What should vessels do in a "head-on situation"?
Alter course to starboard and pass port to port
A crossing situation exists between a fishing vessel and a sailing vessel. The sailing vessel is located on the fishing vessel's starboard side. Who is the stand-on
vessel?
The fishing vessel because it is fishing
When is a deviation from the rules acceptable?
If it is necessary to avoid immediate danger
When is a vessel engaged in fishing?
When she is using fishing apparatus which restricts her maneuverability
A vessel approaching from 235 degrees relative, puts you in what type of situation?
Overtaking
What is the requirement to be met in order for a stand-on vessel to take action to avoid collision?
Risk of collision must exist
A power driven vessel has on her port side a sailing vessel that was observed to be on a collision course. What must the power driven vessel do?
Keep clear, passing at a safe distance
When underway in a channel you should keep to the ______.
starboard side of the channel
According to the rules, when should day shapes be displayed?
By day
In the strictest sense of the word, which vessel is "underway" according to the rules?
A vessel drifting with the engine off
The term "Height above the hull" means ______. This height shall be measured from the position vertically beneath the location of the light.
Height above the upper continous deck.

F4 emergency pro.
How long is it normally possible to survive without water
8-14 days
After the start of a man overboard manoeuvre, whom shall be informed?
Engine Room
Which should NOT be done during "abandonship"?
Jump directly into the liferaft
When must control of flooding be addressed?
Following the control of fire
A person who sees someone fall overboard should _____.
call for help and keep the person in sight
A vessel ran aground and is subject to heavy wave. After failing to free her by backing full astern, what should be the action of the master?
Flood empty tanks to increase bottom pressure and prevent inshore creep
When is it necessary to extend ventilators to the bilges?
To remove fuel vapors which are heavier than air
Which best protect a seafarer from the cold sea?
Immersion suit
What is advisable for a person entering a padlocked refrigerated room?
He should take the padlock inside the room.
You are the Duty officer on vessel "A" in US Fairway waters. According to your radar observation you will pass tug "B" at which time you will be close to vessel
"D". How will you make this situation safe?
By reducing your speed until vessel "D" is cleared
Your vessel is a laden tanker and has collided with another tanker causing them to interlock. What action/judgement should be taken first of all?
Take separation of the two vessels into immediate consideration, but consider that a separation may create a larger oil spill
Which action is best to take if a vessel ran aground and the tide is falling?
Set out the kedge anchor
What is most important when preparing for emergencies?
That people are well trained.
If a man fell overboard at the portside, the officer must immediately ______.
put the helm to hard to port
While at your lifeboat station, you hear a signal consisting of two short blasts of the whistle, what is the signal indicates?
Stop lowering lifeboats
Why shall you never pour water into hot fat?
The water will explode into steam causing hot fat to be thrown far away thus possibly causing severe burns or fire.
The breaking strength of the service lines of the rockets used with an impulse-projected, rocket type line throwing appliance is _______.
500 lbs.
When is a vessel shall have its steering gear tested by the Master or Mate?(small passenger vessel regulations)
Prior to getting to underway for the day's operation
Who is responsible that all hands are familiar with their duties as specified in the muster list?
Master
There exists an unqualified obligation to assist persons in distress, but does the Master have an obligation to assist in towing a vessel?
The Master has no obligations to assist in towing a vessel
Which of the following duties shall be included in the "muster list" as being assigned to crewmembers in relation to passengers ?
seeing that passengers are suitably clad and have donned their lifejackets correctly
In accordance with SOLAS, which serves as a guide to each crewmember in knowing what to do in case of emergency?
Muster list/station bill
What is the most favorable heading of own vessel when launching a lifeboat / MOB?
Vessel steering a few degrees off weather / sea (approx 30 degree)
On a cargo vessel, fire and boat drills must be held within 24 hours of leaving port if the percentage of the crew replaced was more than how many percent?
25%

Which signage used to caution persons approaching the gangway of a tank barge during cargo transfer?
Warning, No Smoking, No Open Lights, No Visitors
Which of the statements is the abandon ship signal on board?
More than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast of the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells
What should be done to assist a survival craft in keeping alongside own vessel?
Stretch a painter from fore to aft
You are Sen.Off.Deck on vessel "A" and your cargo is iron ore. The vessel is in narrow waters and you have been in a collision with vessel "B" causing your vessel
to take in water. How will you act to save the vessel and the cargo?
Navigate the vessel on ground as soon as possible
Each emergency light must be marked with ______.
the letter "E"
Which indicates progressive flooding?
Continual worsening of list or trim

Which action must be taken when the underwater hull is severely damaged?

Establish and maintain flooding bounderies

You are on duty on vessel "A", to avoid collision in the described situation, how will you act?
By giving the vessel a starboard turn
The "man overboard" emergency signal consists of ______.
three long blast
How should the master ensure that the officer in charge of the watch knows the location and operation of all navigational and safety equipment and can take
account of the operating limitations of such equipment?
By have him demonstrate his ability
Which is found on the station bill?
I. Schedule of drills
II. Emergency signals
II only
Which of the following information shall be specified by the muster list ?
details of the general emergency alarm signal consisting of seven or more short blasts, followed by one long blast.
A master of a vessel must ensure that every crew member participates in at least one fire drill every ______.
month
In a CO2 system, how many seconds should pass after the alarm is sounded before the CO2 is released?
30
What should not be found on the muster list ?
the name of each inoccupants (passengers included, if any)
Oxygen is depleted in a tank due to ______.
oxidation
Which method is used to make a physical connection between a rescue vessel and a wreck?
Rocket line
You are the duty officer on board in open sea alone on the bridge checking the position in the chartroom. Suddenly you have collided with a fishing vessel. You are
held responsible for the collision, because:
You did not maintain a proper lookout by all available means
Which of the following information shall be specified by the muster list ?
action to be taken by crew and passengers
Which factor makes an underwater hull repair difficult?
Accessibility
When shoring a damaged bulkhead the pressure must be spread over the _______.
maximum possible area
Which prepares crewmembers on shipboard emergencies?
Drills
Which device is used when entering an enclosed space without ventilating it first?
Breathing apparatus
Which should be done when a boat alarm signal is sounded?
All to attend to their stations wearing lifejackets
Which a safety device for the respiratory protective system
Dust mask
*Which of the following duties shall be included in the "muster list" as being assigned to members of the crew ?
use of communication equipment
Which is found on board?
red hand flare
Which of the following duties shall be included in the "muster list" as being assigned to crewmembers in relation to passengers?
ensuring that a supply of blankets is taken to the survival craft
During rescue involving several rafts, these must be interconnected when possible. The distance between rafts must be at least _______ meters.
12
In an "abandonship" emergency, you avoid jumping into the sea higher than _______ meters.
5
Which of the following duties shall be included in the "muster list" as being assigned to crewmembers in relation to passengers ?
controlling the movements of passengers.
Which is term used when strnghtening damaged bulkhead using wood or steel?
Shoring
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning work vests on board a vessel?
They must be stowed separately from approved life preservers
Which is the signal for "abandonship" drill?
7 short and one long blast
Which is the objective of shoring a damage bulkhead?
To support and hold the area in the damage position
Your vessel "A" is bound for the Pilot station. Vessel "B" will be picking up the pilot before you. According to your observations you are getting too close to vessel
"B" and Pilot boat "C". What would you do to avoid a collision?
Full astern and drop the anchor
What should a seafarer do if he sees a crew fell oveboard?
Throw a life ring
Which should be the oxygen content in the tank or void space before going in?
21%
What does three short blast on the whistle and three short rings on the general alarm bell means?
Dismissal from fire and emergency stations
Which of the following duties shall be included in the "muster list" as being assigned to crewmembers in relation to passengers ?
warning the passenger
When you join a new ship, how are you informed about safety rules, alarm instructions and your own duties in case of an emergency ?
by muster lists exhibited in conspicuous places
Which flag is hoisted during "man overboard"?
Oscar
The station bill show's each person's lifeboat station, duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and ______.
all emergency signals
A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. What is your first action?
You should shut off the fuel supply
It is late night and a tanker has just been involved in a collision. Should the tanker, prior to the collision, carry a red light in addition to the normal navigation lights.
Is this correct?
No, the tanker should show the normal navigation lights only
Which of the following information shall be specified by the muster list ?
how the order to abandon ship will be given
The center of pressure of the shores on the triangular bulkhead must be located _______.
at approximately 1/2 the height of the bulkhead
*Which of the following information shall be specified by the muster list ?
which officers are assigned to ensure that life-saving and fire-fighting appliances are maintained in good condition
Which is found on the station bill?
I. Lifeboat stations
II. Duties during abandonment
Both I and II
Which must be repaired first?
Damage at or just above the waterline
Each emergency outfit and its spare equipment on a tankship must be stowed in a(n) _________.
separate and accesible location
Fire and abandonship stations and duties may be found on the ______.
muster list
The wooden plug fitted tightly in the vent of a damaged tank may prevent the tank from _______.
filling completely
How often must abandonship and fire drills conducted on board for training purposes?
Twice a month
Which of the following information shall be specified by the muster list ?
substitutes for key persons who may become disabled
An alarm signal consisting of seven short blast followed by one prolonged blast is sounded by the ship's whistle and alarm bells. What are you to do ?
go to your muster station

f4 Fire Prevention

Each fire hydrant on board ship must have at least on e spanner and at least one _______.
hose rack or reel
Paints and solvents on a vessel should be:
Returned to the paint locker after use.
The sign used to caution persons approaching the gangway of a tank barge during cargo transfer reads:
Warning, No Smoking, No Open Lights, No Visitors
Controls for a fixed carbon dioxide system shall be mounted:
directly outside the space protected by the system
If you are fighting a fire below the main deck of your vessel, which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?
Pumping fire-fighting water overboard
Stopping all fans, closing all ventilation openings and closing all tight fitting fire doors are good examples to prevent the spread of fire through ______.
convection currect
There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a total-flooding firefighting agent, one is the limited quantity available and the other is ________.
the lack of cooling effect on heated materials
Which of the statement is the usage of a flame screen?
It permits the passage of vapor but not of flame
A squeeze-grip type carbon-dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be ______.
labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible
The fire triangle consists of _______.
heat, fuel and oxygen
A method of extinguishing class "D" fires by disrupting the chemical process that sustain the fire is _______.
inhibiting
You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then _______.
use a portable CO2 extinguisher
Which plan indicates the different fire-fighting equipments, fire stations, fire pumps, extinguishers, fire hydrants,about fire protection and fire fighting?
Fire control plan
Fire hose should be washed with ______.
fresh water and mild soap
Which is the concentration of a flammable gas in air above which there is sufficient air to support and propagate combustion?
Upper flammable limit
Which is the percentage of oxygen content in the atmosphere?
Which is the percentage of oxygen content in the atmosphere?
The use of fire dampers fitted on board is to prevent the spread of fire by ______.
convection
Dry powder is used for ______.
liquid spill fires
Which term is defined as direct heat transfer through a material?
Conduction
When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pulled
all the way back, it will _________.
produce a straight stream
To prevent the spread of fire by conduction:
cool the bulkheads around the fire
Which statement is correct to prevent the spread of fire by conduction?
Cool the bulkheads around the fire
Foam is a very effective smothering agent and:
I. it provides cooling as a secondary effect
II. it works well on extinguishing metal fires
I only
When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should ______.
not attack the fire from opposite sides
Which is a special tool for tightening couplings in a fire hose line?
Spanner
The danger of a charged hose left unattended on deck with the nozzle open is ______.
the nozzle end will whip about causing damage or injury

Which of the following portable electrical equipment is permitted in a compartment which is not gas free?
I. Battery fed II. Approved explosion proof
III. Self-contained

I, II, & III are correct

Which instrument is used to determine the atmosphere of a particular space is flammable?
Explosimeter
Which is a good house keeping practice on board ship that prevents fire?
ewliminating potential fuel sources
Which is most suitable for combating electrical fires?
CO2
The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is called the ______.
lower explosive limit(LEL)
Which type of heat transfer that can transfer through steel bulkhead and ignite a tank of fuel without the aid of an open flame?
conduction
Which procedure in fire-fighting involves elimination or removal of combustible materials?
Starvation
Which will cool down a heated bulkhead in the least amount of time?
Water stream
Which type of firefighting method wherein the supply of combustible material is stopped?
Starving
Fires that involve energized electrical equipment is Class ______
C
Which is the recommended for wood fire?
Water
Which requires heating it will ignite?
Non-flammable
An inert gast system installed on a tanker is designed to :
lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making explosion nearly impossible
When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the forward position, the nozzle will ______.
shut off the water
In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST ______.
remove the locking pin
Which is temperature at which self-sustaining combustion occurs?
Auto-ignition
Under the phases of fire development, "incipient" is a term which means ______.
ignition
Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by ______.
removing the fuel
Which of the following is the generally accepted method of determining whether the atmosphere within a cargo tank is too rich, explosive, or too lean to support
combustion?
Use an MSA, Davis or equivalent explosimeter
A squeze-grip type carbon dioxide portable fire extinguisher has been partially discharged. It should be ________.
labeled empty and recharged as soon as possible
When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is pulled all the way back, it will ______.
produce a straight stream
The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 bottle in a fixed CO2 system is 220 lbs. When the bottle is empty it weighs 110 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable
gross weight of the CO2 bottle before it should be recharged by the manufacturer?
210 lbs.
Foam is effective in combating which class(es) of fire?
A and B
Which of the following is NOT contained on the metallic name plate required to be attached to hand portable fire extinguishers?
The hydrostatic test date of the cylinder
Which is the recomended extinguishing system for fires on flowable gases or flowable liquids?
CO2
Which is the concentration of flammable gas in air below which there is insufficient gas to support and propagate combustion?
lower flammable limit
According to "fire tetrahedron" the increase of vapor and heat production ina continuously burning fire is called ______.
chain reaction
Which kind of extinguishing agent is one-and-a-half timesheavier than air and will tend to settle at lower level thereby displacing the oxygen?
CO2
What is the minimum number of people required to safely handle a 2-1/2 inch fire hose?
3
Which of the following is NOT contained on the metallic name plate required to be attached to hand portable fire extinguishers?
The hydrostatic test date of the cylinder
In fire-fighting, the term "blanketing" is the same as ____.
smothering
Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion, and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?
Carbon monoxide
All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT _____.
electricity
After extinguishing a fire with CO2, it is advisable to:
Stand by with water or other agents.
Which is the range of oxygen percentage that supports combustion?
16-21%
When a fire is sounded followed by one short blast, where is the fire?
Forward
A fusible-link fire dampers are operated by _______.
the heat of a fire melting the link
Fixed CO2 systems should NOT be used on crew's quarters or _______.
spaces open to the atmosphere
Why is it necessary to extend ventilators to the bilges?
To remove fuel vapors which are heavier than air
You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then ______.
use a portable CO2 extinguisher
When fighting a fire in a space containing an IMO class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective fire fighting procedure is to:
use water from fire hoses or a sprinkler system
You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed _______.
at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge
Fusible-link fire dampers are separated by:
The heat of a fire melting the link.
Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by _________.
removing the fuel
A heated grill transfer heat by means of ______.
radiation
There are two disadvantages to CO2 as a total-flooding firefighting agen. One of these is the limited quantity available and the other is:
the lack of cooling effect on heated materials
When fighting an oil or gasoline fire in the bilge, which should NOT used?
Solid stream water nozzle
Which class of fire is uniquely described as "deep seated"?
A
Accumulations of oily rags should be:
Discarded as soon as possible.
Which statement is FALSE regarding Halon as a fire extinguishing agent?
It is always non-toxic
Which completes the fire tetrahedron that forms the energy generated by transformation?
Chain reaction
A fifteen pound CO2 extinguisher _______.
contains 15 lbs. of CO2
Which is a special pipe or nozzle attachment that fits into the all-purpose nozzle high velocity outlet?
Applicator
What equipment is included in the fireman's outfit?
Self-contained breathing apparatus
When a substance enters into a chemical reaction with oxygen, there is _______.
oxidation
In order to discharge a CO2 portable fire extinguisher, the operator must FIRST ________.
remove the locking pin
The function of the emergency life support apparatus (ELSA) is for ______.
emergency escape from suffocation
Which depends on the quantities ratio of the reacting substances, the temperature and the oxygen supply?
Burning speed
When do you consider that the atmosphere in a tank might be too rich?
It is incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the atmosphere above the UFL (Upper Flammable Unit
Normally, the percentage of oxygen in air is ______.
21%
The supply of carbon dioxide used in the fixed extinguishing system aboard a cargo vessel MUST be at least sufficient for ______.
the space requiring the largest amount
A CO2 portable extinguisher is annually checked by _____.
weighing
You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should ______.
put the vessel's stern into the wind
Which equipment is included in the fireman's outfit?
Self-contained breathing apparatus
Which classes of fire involves flammable or combustible liquids?
B
Which is the signal for fire drill by whistle?
Prolonged blast about 10 secs.
Fires in combustible metals such as sodium or magnesium, are classified as Class _____.
D
Which is the meeting of the three elements in an exact ratio to create chain reaction?
Fire
You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed ______.
at the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge
A chemical reaction, giving off heat and light, which is the result of a rapid union of oxygen with other substances is called ______.
combustion
Which of the statement is NOT included in a fire and boat drill on a tank vessel according to the Regulations?
Demonstration and firing of the line throwing apparatus
When the handle of an all-purpose nozzle is in the vertical position, the nozzle will ______.
produce high velocity fog
The supply of carbon dioxide used in the fixed extinguishing system aboard a cargo vessel MUST be at least sufficient for ________.
the space requiring the largest amount
In the operation os a portable fire extinguisher, what does the acronym "PASS" mean?
Pull, Aim, Squeeze and Sweep
One of the limitation of foam as an extinguishing agent is that foam ______.
conducts electricity
In a fire organization, who is responsible for internal and external command?
Command center
Which conducts electricity?
Foam
Any person who discovers a fire must immediately _____.
raise the alarm
When using a high-velocity fog stream in a passageway, the possibility of ablow back must be guarded against. Blow back is most likely to occur when ______.
the only opening in a passageway is the one from which the nozzle is being advanced
Multiple fire pumps may be used for other purposes provided that one pump is:
kept available for use on the fire main at all times
What is the correct distance to put out a fire using dry chemical?
6-8 ft
Fire dampers prevent the spread of fire by:
convection
You are in a tank wearing the self-contained breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean to take up the slack?
Three
Which represents a continously burning fire?
Fire tetrahedron
What is the main cause of fire in the engine room?
Oil leak
What is the purpose of fuses in electrical wiring?
To prevent overloading of circuit
A chemical reaction that takes place between fuel, oxygen and heat is called ______.
fire
Which means to burn and smoke without flame, and exist in a state of suppresed activity?
Smoldering
The volatility of a flammable liquid is indicated by its _____.
flammable range
The gross weight of a fully charged CO2 bottle in a fixed CO2 system is 220 lbs. when the bottle is empty it weighs 110 lbs. What is the minimum acceptable gross
weight of the CO2?
210 lbs.
A CO2 extinguisher which has lost 10% of its charge should be ________.
recharged
The deck water seal of the inert gas system:
prevents the backflow of hydrocarbon gasses into nonhazardous areas
How many fireman's outfit with extra bottle is required on board?
2 sets
Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?
CO2
If you are fighting a fire below the main deck of your vessel, which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?
Pumping fire-fighting water overboard
Which is the temperature at which liquid gives off vapor to form an ignitable mixture near its surface?
Flash point
Which is most suitable for extinguishing metallic fires?
Special dry powder
CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system must be pressure tested at least every _____ year/s.
12
All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT ______.
electricity
Fire extinguishing agents used for Class "C" fires must be ____.
non-conducting
Each fire hydrant must have at least one spanner and at least one:
hose rack or reel
Which Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) permits personnel to enter the fire areas wearing breathing apparatus?
Fire suit
Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?
CO2
Given a person's average breathing consumption of 40 liters/min, how long would a 200 bar air cylinder in a CABA unit last?
30 mins
Which is the ability of a substance to give off vapor rapidly at the lowest temperature?
Volatility
Which statement is CORRECT pertaining to the paints and solvents being used on board ship?
It should be returned to the paint locker after use
Which kind of dry chemical is most effective on liquid fuel fires and has a good reputation for eliminating feedback?
Potassium bicabonate
In the event of a fire, the doors to a stairtower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by:
Convection
Spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because:
ventilation avoids flammable gas accumulation
A fuel line breaks, sprays fuel on the hot exhaust manifold, and catches fire. Your FIRST action should be to:
shut off the fuel supply
All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being:
carried by hand to a fire
When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should ________.
not attack the fire from opposite sides
Foam is a good extinguishing agent for ____.
I. Class B fires
II. Class C fires
I only
The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is called ________.
lower explosive limit
Which is the ignition of combustibles in an area heated by convection, radiation or a combination of the two?
Flashover
What is the minimum concentration of oxygen in air that is needed to support flaming combustion?
16%
A fire of escaping liquified flammable gas from a cylinder is best extinguished by ______.
stopping the flow of gas
The prefered agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire is ________.
foam
When using a high-velocity fog stream in a passageway, Blow back is most likely to occur when ______.
if the only opening in a passageway is the one from which the nozzle is being advanced
Which is the function of flame screens?
To prevent flames from entering tanks
The chemical decomposition of a solid into vapor state by the initial aplication of heat is known as ______.
pyrolysis
The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. Which would fulfill the requirements for fire protection
One B-II extinguisher
Heated liquids or gases rising and carrying the heat from one area to another is an example of ______.
convection
What signal must you display at the night on a docked tank barge to show that it is loading or discharging bulk liquid cargo?
Red light
What fire extinguisher requires personnel to leave the affected compartment before use?
CO2
In addition to the minimum requirement of any firefighting equipment that is carried on board, which of the statement(s) is/are correct?
It must meet the applicable standards
Coling the structure by sprinkler system is a good example of preventing the spread of fire through ______.
conduction
Which is the most effective cooling agent when extinguishing fire?
Water
Which do you call the heat that travels back to the fuel from the flames? It releases vapor from the fuel then ignites it.
Radiation feedback
Foam is a very effective smothering agent and ______.
it provides cooling as a secondary effect
The remote control for a fixed fire extinguishing system on board ship should be _______.
painted red and labeled
Which of the statement(s) is CORRECT about the accumulations of oily rags on board ship?
It should be discarded as soon as possible
You are tending the lifeline of a man who entered a tank using a breathing apparatus. How many tugs on the lifeline indicate that the man should come out
immediately?
4

F4 Mersar
In radiotelegraphy, the safety signal is _________.
TTT
You see an iceberg that has not been reported. Which kind of radio message do you transmit to warn others?
Safety mesage
At sea, you are approaching a small vessel and see that it has the signal flag "P" hoisted. What should you do?
Approach with caution because the vessel is a fishing vessel and its nets are fouled on an obstruction
Which radiotelephone signal indicates receipt of a distress message?
Romeo, Romeo, Romeo
After you activate your emergency position indicating radiobeacon, you should:
leave it on continuously
What must be carried out in order to launch and inflate an inflatable liferaft?
Push on the hydrostatic release, pull on the sea painter
According to the SOLAS regulations for lifeboat falls, what action must be taken with the falls at 5-year intervals?
Renewed
For each person it is certified to carry, a lifeboat on an oceangoing passenger vessel must be provided with all of the following EXCEPT ______.
1 life preserver
A rigid lifesaving device only designed for survivors to hold on to while in the water is a ______.
buoyant apparatus
When a sea anchor is used in landing in a heavy surf, headway is checked by:
slacking the tripping line and towing the mouth forward by the holding line
When using the rainwater collection tubes on a liferaft, the FIRST collection should be ________.
poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy
You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is ______.
hypothermia caused by cold temperature
The vessel's Emergency Position Indicating Radiobeacon (EPIRB) must be tested:
monthly
If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is important that the crew members should _______.
remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the vessel's last known position
Limit switches are used on which davits?
Gravity davits
When retrieving the survival craft, the helmsman should instruct the crewman to ________.
check that hooks are fully locked in place
Which vessel greater than 100-GT is NOT required to have an EPIRB.
a non self-propelled vessel
The emergency Position Indicating Radiobeacon on a cargo vessel must be stowed:
so that it will float free if the vessel sinks
A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a rescue boat. If the person appears in danger of drowning, the rescue boat should be maneuvered to
make______.
the most direct approach
The purpose of the tricing pendants is to ______.
hold a lifeboat next to the embarkation deck while loading
Life jackets should be marked with the _______.
vessel's name
While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message PRU-DONCE over the radiotelephone. Which action should you take?
Use that frequency only for restricted working communications
An airplane wants a vessel to change course and proceed towards a vessel in distress. The actions of the aircraft to convey this message will NOT include
________.
flashing the navigation lights on and off
Which single-letter sound signal may be made only in compliance with the International Rules of the Road?
D
You wish to communicate information that the sea in your area is 8-10 feet in height and from the northeast. This sea, as defined in the code, would be described
as______.
rough
According to the regulations, the capacity of a liferaft is required to be marked ______.
at the liferaft stowage location
The groups "AA" and "AB" are used in conjunction with what other group in signaling by flashing light?
RPT
The unit of duration of a dash in Morse Code is _______.
three times the length of a dot
When can a work vest be substituted for a life jacket in the total count of the required lifesaving gear?
a work vest may never be counted as a life jacket
You have just tried calling another vessel on the VHF and they have not replied. How long should you wait before calling that station again?
Two minutes
While proceeding towards a distress site you hear the message "Seelonce Feenee" over the radiotelephone. What action should you take?
Resume normal communications on the guarded frequency.
The lifeboat releasing gear level should be marked with the words ______.
"DANGER, LEVER DROPS BOAT"
A vessel in distress should send by radio telephone the two tone alarm signal followed immediately by the _______.
spoken words "Mayday, Mayday, Mayday"
How should latitude 51 48.7 S be written when preparing an AMVER report?
5149S
On a rigid liferaft which is equipped with all of the required equipment, you may NOT find a ______.
fishing kit
The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried voluntarily, must hold at least a ______.
restricted radiotelephone operator permit
Which radiotelephone signal indicates receipt of a distress message?
Romeo, romeo, romeo
A class C EPIRB ______.
transmits an alerting signal on channel 16 followed by a homing signal on channel 15
If you desired to communicate with another station that your navigation lights were not functioning, you would send:
PBI
When will the float-free emergency position indicating radio beacon be activated after abandoning ship?
Immediately after floating free
What precaution should be taken when testing a line throwing gun?
Never remove the line from the rocket.
If your passenger vessel is fitted with a loudspeaker system, it must be tested at least:
once every week
In the first 24 hours after abandoning a vessel, water should be given only to personnel who are:
sick or injured
What does "EPIRB" stand for?
Emergency Position Indicating Radiobeacon
You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You should:
not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time
To turn over an iflatable life raft that is upside down, you should pull on the ______.
righting strap
Which statement is TRUE concerning life preservers (Type I personal flotation devices)?
Life preservers are design to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water
Which item is of the most use in getting a lifeboat away from a moving ship?
Sea painter

You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a life raft. How much water per day should you permit each occupant to drink after the first 24 hours?
1 pint
Class "B" EPIRBs transmit on frequencies that are monitored by ______.
private, commercial and military aircraft
In radiotelegraphy, what group is used to relay a distress message from another vessel?
DDD
The light on a personal flotation device must be replaced:
when it is no longer serviceable
If you log a distress message, it must include the:
Time of its occurence
An aircraft has indicated that he wants you to change course and follow him. You cannot comply because of an emergency on board, what signal should you
make?
Send the Morse signal "N" by flashing light at night and raise the flag "N" by day
What is the correct interpretation of the flag hoist G, 4, 2, 1, first substitute?
G4214
If you wanted to ask a nearby vessel if he had a doctor on board, you would hoist the flag signal:
AM
The master shall insure that each deck from which lifeboats are launched is:
kept clear of any obstructions that would interfere with launching
Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by ______.
pushing the switch lever arm while the winch is running
Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only
Hand-held orange smoke distress flare
An immersion suit must be equipped with a(n) ______.
whistle, light, and reflective tape
A class A EPIRB is NOT ______.
operated manually
The number 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be ______.
forwardmost on the port side
Which type EPIRB must each ocean-going ship carry?
Category I
The tricing pendants should be released ______.
after loading the passengers
What is the report identifier code for the first AMVER report sent at the start of a voyage?
SP
All lifeboats, rescue boats, and rigid-type liferafts shall be stripped, cleaned, and thoroughly overhauled at least once every _______.
12 months
How should the letter"D" be pronounced when spoken on the radiotelephone?
DELL TAH
While in port, what signal flag would inform the vessel's crew to report on board because the vessel was about to proceed to sea?
"P"
Radiotelegraph alarm signal may be used to announce which statements?
All choices are correct
When transfering survivors from a survival craft to a rescue vessel, personnel on board the craft should:
remain seated inside the survival craft and make the transfer one person at a tim
When you are firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed _______?
at greater than 60 degrees above the horizon
The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the _______.
governor brake
The purpose of air tanks in a lifeboat is to ________.
keep the boat afloat if flooded
A rigid lifesaving device designed to support survivors partially in the water is a _______.
life float
In a message sent by flashing light, what group of letters will direct the receiver of a message to repeat the transmission back to the sender?
RPT
In order to benefit from the use of storm oil In heavy seas, the storm oil should be spread:
to windward of the vessel

To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you must pull the safety pin and ______.

pull the hook release handle and use the ratchet bar
You are in a lifeboat broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?
Your position by latitude and longitude
The required portable radio shall be stored in the proper location and be:
readily accessible for transfer to a lifeboat
Which of the folloiwing statement(s) is/are the purpose of the limit switch on gravity davits?
To cut off the power when the davits are about 12 inches or more from the track safety stops.
If you wished to transmit a message by voice concerning the safety of navigation, you would preface it by the word _____.
Securite
Who is normally appointed as the Safety Officer on board?
Chief Officer
When sending and receiving messages on the marine radio, confusion over unusual words can be avoided by using the ________
standard phonetic alphabet
What important component of the radio telex system, takes care of the adjustment of signals from the text editing equipment to the radio transmitter and vice-
versa?
modem
What should you do with your emergency position indicating radiobeacon if you are in a life raft in a storm?
Bring it inside the life raft and leave it on.
What is NOT a funcktion of the air supply of a covered lifeboat?
Pressurizes water spray system
The master or person in charge of a vessel shall insure that line throwing equipment is not operated.
in an explosive atmospher
Medical advice should be sought and given in plane language whenever it is possible, but if language difficulties arises, the ______ whould be used.
Medical advice code
The distress message of a ship should include considerable information which might facilitate the rescue. This information should ______.
FIRST be transmitted as a series of short messages, if time allows
In radiotelegraphy, the urgency signal is ________.
XXX
According to regualtions for life boat falls, what action must be taken at 30-month intervals?
End-for-ended
Generally, what is used to inflate liferaft?
non-toxic inert gas
If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you send?
BR
Storage batteries should be charged in a well ventilated area because ______.
they emit hydrogen
If you have to abondon a ship, the EPIRB can be used to ______.
send radio homing signals to searching aircraft
The grab rail of a metal lifeboat is normally located ______.
along the turn of the bilge
If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, which of the following statement/s is/are applicable?
Tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should______.
tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
Generally, which of the following is used to inflate life raft?
CO2
The capacity of any liferaft on board a vessel can be determined by ______.
examining the plate on the outside of the raft container
When a helicopter is lifting personnel from a survival craft, the other individuals in the craft should:
remain seated inside the craft to provide body weight for stability
Under normal conditions a liferaft is released from its cradle by ______.
pushing the plunger on the center of the hydrostatic release
Most enclosed lifeboats will right themselves after capsizing IF the ______
the passengers are strapped to their seats
What is the expected range of a VHF radio transmission from a vessel to a shore station?
about 20 miles
Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should
you take?
Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open the container.
Frapping lines are fitted to lifeboat davits to ______.
reduce the swinging of the lifeboat as it is being lowered from the embarkation level
You can indicate that your vessel is in distress by ________.
continuously sounding the fog whistle
Due to the shape of the sea anchor, the best way to haul it back aboard is by:
its trip line
You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times. This indicates that:
a message about the safety of navigation will follow
What is the International Code signal for a decimal point between figures using flashing light?
AAA
Which of the following choices listed are the reason why liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their?
I. shallow draft
II. large sail area
Both I and II
In rescue operations, what does the expression "search in spiral square" means?
forming a square search area increasing concentrically
The external flotation bladder on an immersion suit should be inflated ______.
after you enter the water
A message warning of a tropical storm should be sent as a(n) _______.
safety message
You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflated. You hear a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the
cause of this?
Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop
You have sent a visual signal to an aircraft. The aircraft then flies over your position on a straight course and level altitude, what should you do?
Repeat your signal
If you hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflated, you should:
not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to escap
A rigid lifesaving device designated to support survivors in the water is a ______.
life boat
When are the best times to send the radiotelegraph auto-alarm distress signa
From 15 to 18 minutes past the hour and 45 to 48 minutes past the hour
The signal to guide vessel in distress, which indicates, "This is the best place to land" is the ______.
letter K in Morse code given by light
According to the SOLAS regulations, lifeboat falls must be renewed at intervals of how many years?
5
You are the first vessel to arrive at the scene of a distress but due to the volume of traffic on the radio, you are unable to communicate with the vessel in distress.
Which action should you take?
Broadcast "Seelonce Distress"
Most totally enclosed lifeboats are equipped with which of the following?
A hydraulic start diesel engine
Most lifeboats are equipped with _________.
unbalanced rudders
In the International Code of Signals, the code signal meaning "I require immediate assistance" is :
CB

F4 Med First aid

The type of head injury in which the skull has received a heavy blow and characterized by momentary loss of consciousness is called ______?
concussion of the brain
In case a patient has to be moved after basic life support has been started, interruption time should not exceed ______?
15 seconds
Which is the most serious type of fracture?
Compound
Which forms the basic principle and practices in assisting a person in providing emergency aid?
First Aid
The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus is to ______
allow the wearer to manually give himself oxygen
When applying chest compression to an adult victim during CPR, the sternum must be depressed about ______ .
3.8-5 cm
When administering artificial respiration to an adult, the breathing cycle should be repeated about.
12 to 15 times per minute
In reviving a person who has been overcome by gas fumes, which of the following would you AVOID doing?
Giving stimulants
Morphine should not be dispensed to children under ______?
10 years old
The sorting of accident victims according to the severity of their injuries is called ______.
triage
The "B" in the "ABC" steps of Basic life Support stands for _______.
breathing
Treatment of sunstroke consists principally of _____.
I. cooling, removing to a shaded area, and lying down.
II. drinking ice water
Both I and II
An immediate measure to be taken first in case of emergency to a patient is to _______.
control bleeding
Which method is effective for lifting and carrying patients with spinal injuries?
Four man log roll
Which is the major organ of respiration?
Lungs
One of the most prevalent of seaman is sexually transmitted diseases. The most common medicine in the vessel's medicine chest for this is ______.
Penicillin
To reduce mild fever the MOST useful drug is:
Aspirin
A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must ______.
check his pulse and start CPR
Which part of the victim's body must the pressure be applied during CPR?
Lower half of the sternum
Treatment of frostbite includes ______
warming exposed parts rapidly
An emergency life-saving procedure that consist of recognizing and correcting failure of the respiratory or cardiovascular systems is called ______?
basic life support
Blood flowing from a cut artery appears ____.
bright red and spurting
The brain starts to die if deprived of oxygen for as little as ________ minutes.
4
A stimulant is given to a person who is _______.
fainting
Which is NOT an acceptable first aid for a person who suffered frostbite to the toes on the right foot?
Give aspirin or other medication for pain
Universal antidote is used to neutralize a sick person with ______?
poison
Which method of controlling bleeding which involves lowering the blood pressure and flow of blood to the affected area?
Elevation
After an accident, the victim may go into shock and die. What should be done to help prevent shock?
Keep the person lying down and at a comfortable temperature
What do you call of a skin injury caused by heat ?
Burns
What is NOT generally a characteristics of inhaling light naphtha?
Vomiting
Expiration of packed disposable syringe is ______?
5 years or on expiry date on package, whichever comes first
Which is used to treat water to ensure its safety for drink
Chlorine
The "A" in the "ABC" steps of Basic life Support stands for _______.
Airway
What are the symptoms of sun stroke?
Temperature is high, pulse is strong and rapid, skin is hot and dry
What is the primary purpose of a splint applied in first aid?
Immobilize a fracture
When a person is in shock, their skin will be _____.
cold and damp

What precaution should be taken when treating burns caused by contact with dry lime?

Before washing, the lime should be brushed away gently

When the heart stops beating, the eye pupils will begin to dilate within ______ seconds.
45-60
You need to seek medical advise first before giving medication to children of what age?
16 years and below
Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done ______.
without losing the rhythm of respiration
The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is _____.
ammonia inhalant
Which statement is the basic emergency care for an electrical burn?
Cover the burned area with a clean cloth and transport the patients to a medical facility
If a person is NOT breathing and the heart have stopped, first aid must begin with _____.
heart compression
The FIRST concern in treating a person with extensive burns is ______.
treating for shock
When administering mouth to mouth resuscitation to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?
12
Chemical burns are caused by the skin coming in contact with ______.
acids of alkalies
When a patient has an electrical burn, it is important to ______.
look for a second burn, which may have been caused by the current passing through the body
The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is:
Ammonia and inhalant
Which is the most reliable artery to check for the pulse of an unconscious victim?
Carotid
a compound fracture is a fracture in which ______.
the bone may be visible
A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?
Arms above their Head
How many times per minute must the chest be compressed if two people are administering the CPR?
60
Which is the principal organ for conscious life?
Brain
Narcotics is given to a patient when ______.
in great pain
A patient is given cathartics in order to _______.
relieve constipation
The type of forceps to be used when a drain or ribbon gauze is to be inserted into an abscess cavity is the:
Sinus forceps
When giving first aid, you should understand how to conduct primary and secondary surveys and know ______.
the limits of your capabilities
Which should be the resort to control bleeding when all other measures have failed?
Torniquet
When treating a chemical burn, you should flood the burned area for at least how many minutes?
ten minutes
In all but the most severe cases, bleeding from a wound should be controlled by ______.
applying direct pressure to the wound
How much loss of blood can be life threatening?
More than 1/2 liter
Universal antidote is used to neutralize a sick person with ______.
poison
Antiseptics are used principally to _______.
prevent infection
A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is a reddening of the skin but no other apparent damage. Using standard MEDICAL terminology, this is a _______.
First-degree burn
What is the primary purpose of a splint in first aid?
Immobilize the fracture
Basic emergency care for an electrical burn is to:
Cover the burned area with a clean cloth and transport the patient to medical facility
If a person is unconscious from electric shock, you should first remove him from the elctrical source then ______.
determine if he is breathing
Which emergency life saving procedure consists of recognizing and correcting failure of the respiratory and cardiovascular system?
basic life support
Antiseptics are used principally to:
Prevent infection
The MOST important element in administering CPR is ______.
starting the treatment quickly

The fundamental treatment for preventing traumatic shock following an accident is to:

Keep warm and dry while lying down

Which is the most effective pressure point located midway between the elbow anf the atmpit on the inner arm between the large muscles?
Brachial artery
An unconscious person should NOT be _____
given something to drink
You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?
15 compressions then 2 inflations
The "C" in the "ABC" steps of Basic life Support stands for _______.
circulation
Which is the process of causing air to flow into and out of a person's lungs?
Artificial respiration
Seasickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect fluids in the ______.
inner ear
This type of burn involves the whole thickness of skin and may extend to underlying fat muscles and bones:
Third degree burn
Sign(s) of respiratory arrest requiring artificial respiration is(are) ______.
blue color and lack of breathing
The type of forceps to be used when a drain or ribbon gauze is to inserted into an abscess cavity is the:
Sinus forceps
A person suffering from possible broken bones and internal injuries should ______.
not be moved but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives
How many milligrams of morphine may be given to a patient who is in severe pain?
10
An average man at rest will breath every ______?
5 seconds
Before CPR is started, you should ______.
establish an open airway
Unless there is danger of further injury, a person with a compound fracture should not be moved until bleeding is controlled and ______.
the fracture is immobilized
When a person is lying unconscious you must first ______.
listen to breathing
A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding ONLY _____?
when all other means have failed
Since electrical burn victims are subjected to shock, what is the first medical response to check?
Breathing and heartbeat
While eating in a restaurant you see somebody choking, what is the procedure to use?
Heimlich maneuver
Bleeding from a vein is ______.
dark red and steady flowing
A seaman has a small gaping laceration of the arm that is not bleeding excessively, what can be done as an alternative to suturing to close the wound?
Apply butterfly strips, then a sterile dressing
You are attempting to administer CPR to a victim. When you blow into his mouth it is apparent that no air is getting into the lungs. What should you do?
Re-tip the head and try again.
Which should NOT be a treatment for a person who has received a head injury and is groggy or unconscious?
Give a stimulant.
A useful means of moving casually if a ladder or stairway has to be climbed is:
Fireman's lift
Any sterile cloth material to cover a wound is called _____.
dressing
The human body contains approximately _______ liters of blood.
5
The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation by pinching victim's nostrils and ______.
applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth
Which is the normal temperature of a man?
37 C
The FIRST treatment for a surface burn is to ______.
flood, bathe, or immerse the burned area in cold water
Which of the following medicaments are not to be labeled as POISON?
Chloroquine sulfate tablets
Your are administering chest compressions during CPR. Where on the victim's body should the pressure be applied?
Lower half of the sternum
Why is a person who swallowed non-petrolium based poison given large quantities of warm soapy water or warm salt-water?
To induce vomiting
When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum should be depressed about ________.
1-1/2 to 2 inches

Which procedure should be followed when individuals are rescued in cold climates and suffer from hypothermia?

Blue color and lack of breathing

Crew member suffering from hyporthermia must be given _______.
treatment for shock
What should be tested for , on patients before administration of penicillin?
allergy
What is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock?
Massage the arms and legs to restore circulation.
Which type of burn do hot liquids usually cause?
Scalds
A shipmate chokes suddenly, cannot speak, and starts to turn blue. You should ______.
perform the Heimlich maneuver
A rescuer can most easily determine whether or not an adult victim has a pulse by checking the pulse at the ______.
carotid artery in the neck
The freezing of human tissues due to extreme cold is called ________.
frostbite
The simplest and most prefered method of controlling bleeding is ______.
direct pressure
A shock is a condition of collapse because a person _____.
losses blood
Two people are administering CPR to a victim. How many times per minute should the chest be compressed?
60