HSE Questions and Answers

PREPARED BY :
M.TECH HSE (2015-2017)
UNDER GUIDANCE OF:

Mr. BIKARAM PRASAD YADAV
Asst. Professor(SG)
1
CONTENTS
CHAPTER TOPIC PAGE

NO.
1 Fire prevention and fire protection systems 4
2 Personal protective equipment 13
3. Electrical safety 18
4. Air act, water act & EPA 26
5. Physical Hazard 35
6. Natural calamities, DMP 42
7. Factories act 1948 52
8. Fire safety 61
9. Fire protection in Buildings 70
10. International laws related to safety 78
11. Law related to electrical safety 89
12. Fire extinguishers and firefighting appliances 96
13. Basics of fire, Classes of fire 104
14. Basics of Mechanical engineering I 111
15. NBC part 4 120
16. IS codes related to safety 129
17. Chemical hazards MSDS 138
18. Petroleum act, Gas cylinder rules, Explosive act 147
19. Safety in construction 155
20. NFPA codes related to fire safety 162
21. Health related hazards & risk control 172
22. Electrical safety equipment 179
23. Process safety management 190
24. HIRA 192
25. Safety in process industry 200
26. Disaster management I 209
27. Basics of chemical engineering 217
28. Transportation of hazardous material and vehicle safety 226
29. Disaster management II 233
30. Basics of construction 241
31. Ergonomics 251
32. Solid waste management 256
33. OISD 116 265
34. Basics of environment I 272
35. Basics of electrical 282
36. Sustainable Development 291
37. HIRA & Risk Analysis 299
38. ISO 14001 309
39. Safety in Process Industry 317
2
CONTENTS
CHAPTER TOPIC PAGE

NO.
40. Behaviour Based Safety 326
41. OISD 117& 118 335
42. Musculoskeletal disorders or work related musculoskeletal disorders 344
(wmsds)
43. Industrial Safety 347
44. Guarding, Work Permit System, Audit 352
45. Basics of Hazards & Risks 361
46. Basics of Environment II 370
47. Basics Of Mechanical II 379
48. Basics of Safety 388
49. HOUSE KEEPING 395
50. Basics of Disaster Management 401
51. FIRE EXTINGUISHER 410
52. FIRST AID 417
3
Chapter 1
FIRE PREVENTION AND FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEMS
1. An extinguisher with an A rating is designed for use on which type of fire?
a) A fire involving energized electrical equipment

b) A fire involving flammable liquids
c) A fire involving combustible metals
d) None of the above
2. An extinguisher with a D rating is designed for use on which type of fire?
a) A fire involving flammable liquids

b) A fire involving combustible metals
c) A fire involving energized electrical equipment
d) A fire involving ordinary combustible materials
3. A fire involving flammable liquids is classified as which type of fire?
a) Class A
b) Class D
c) Class B
4. A fire involving ordinary combustible materials is classified as which type of fire?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D
5. An extinguisher with a C rating is designed for use on which type of fire?

6. An extinguisher with an ABC rating is designed for use on which type of fire?
a) Class A
b) Class C
c) Class B
d) All of the above
4
7. What is the most common type of portable extinguisher found on campus?
a) Carbon dioxide extinguisher

b) Halon extinguisher
c) Multipurpose dry chemical extinguisher
8. An extinguisher with a K rating is designed for use on which type of fire?
a) A fire involving ordinary combustibles

b) A fire involving energized electrical equipment
c) A fire involving vegetable oils and fats
d) A fire involving combustible metals
9. Which of the following is true regarding a flammable gas fire?
a) Always extinguish the fire if a portable extinguisher is available

b) Never extinguish the fire regardless of whether a portable extinguisher is available
c) Only extinguish the fire if a spare extinguisher is available
d) Only extinguish the fire if you are capable of promptly turning off the supply of gas
10. When confronted with a fire, what is the most important decision you must make?
a) Whether to call 911or fight the fire

b) Whether to evacuate the building or fight the fire
c) Whether to activate the building alarm or fight the fire
d) Whether to close the room door or fight the fire
11. If you have not received training in the use of portable extinguishers, what action should
you take when confronted with a fire?
a) Determine how to use the extinguisher by reading the instructions on the label
b) Call Fire Prevention Services and ask for instructions on how to use portable extinguishers
c) Ask a coworker for instructions regarding how to use the extinguisher
d) Evacuate the building and let the fire department extinguish the fire
12. If you are using a campus phone, which number would you call to reach the Austin Fire
Department?
a) 911
b) 411 for directory assistance
c) 9911
5
13. Before choosing to fight a fire, which of the following questions should you ask?
a) Am I safe from toxic smoke and gases?

b) Do I have an escape route?
c) Do I have the right extinguisher?
d) All of the above
14. If you choose to fight a fire, what is the first action you should take?
a) Activate the building alarm to notify other occupants

b) Check the extinguisher gauge to ensure it is full
c) Call 911, or 9911, to notify authorities of the fire
15. If you choose to fight a fire, what is the second action you should take?

d) None of the Above
16. If you choose to fight a fire, where should you position yourself?
a) Outside the room to avoid being trapped by the fire

b) Next to a window so you can jump if your efforts to extinguish the fire are unsuccessful
c) Six to eight feet from the fire, between the fire and your escape route
d) As close to the fire as possible to ensure maximum efficiency of the extinguisher
17. How often should an extinguisher receive a visual inspection?
a) Once a day
b) Once a week
c) Once a month
d) Once a year
18. Which of the following extinguisher types will not have a gauge?
a) A Halon extinguisher
b) A carbon dioxide extinguisher
c) A multipurpose dry chemical extinguisher
d) All the extinguishers listed are provided with gauges.
6
19. If you believe there is a problem with an extinguisher, which of the following actions
should you take?
a) Pull the pin and press the handle to see if the extinguisher works
b) Call the university police since it’s possible the extinguisher has been vandalized
c) Dispose of the extinguisher and request a replacement unit
d) Call Fire Prevention Services so corrective action can be initiated Once Fire Prevention
Services performs the annual maintenance inspection,
20. Which of the following items will not be found on the extinguisher?
a) A tamperseal
b) A pullpin
c) A label indicating the type of hazards the extinguisher is designed to protect
d) An inspection tag
21. The four elements that must be present for fire to exist include heat, oxygen, fuel, and a
chemical reaction between the thre
a) True
b) False
22. The concept of fire prevention is to keep these elements separat
a) True
b) False
23. There are four classes of fire, Class A, B, C, and K.
a) True
b) False
24. Class B fires are those fires that occur involving paper and woo
a) True
b) False
25. Multipurpose dry chemical extinguishers are effective on all classes except D and K
fires.
a) True
b) False
26. To remember the rules of fighting fires, just remember the three A's: Activate, Assist,
and Attempt.
a) True
b) False
7
27. The four simple steps for operating a fire extinguisher can be remembered with the
word PASS. Pull, Activate, Squeeze, Sweep.
a) True
b) False
28. After the fire has been extinguished, it is important to watch the site for reignition.
a) True
b) False
29. Fire extinguishers must be inspected or checked every 60 days.
a) True
b) False
30. According to local, state and national codes and regulations, fire extinguishers must be
maintained biannually.
a) True
b) False
31. What type of electrically powered industrial truck can be used in Class 1, Division 1,
Group D locations?
a) TypeEX
b) TypeES
c) TypeEE
d) Type E
32. What is the minimum acceptable flow at the base of a riser including hose streams,
ordinarily acceptable for pipe schedule sprinkler systems required for ordinary hazard
(Group I) classified occupancies?
a) 100GPM
b) 850GPM
c) 700GPM
d) 500 GPM
33. The pressure produced by a column of water 1 foot high is:
a) 0.433psi
b) 2.31psi
c) 14.7psi
d) 29.9 psi
8
34. The total head of a fire pump is:
a) The energy imparted to the liquid as it passes through the pump

b) psi rating as the liquid passes through the pipe
c) The energy imparted to the liquid as it passes through the orifice
d) The static pressure of water at the intake of the pump
35. Proper exit design permits everyone to leave the fire endangered area:
a) Without fear of loss of life

b) Prior to an untenable atmosphere
c) In the shortest travel distance
d) In the shortest possible time
36. The life safety code included the term "Exit" in an overall definition of means of egress.
A means of egress is a continuous path of travel from any point in a building or
structure to the open air outside at ground level. Egress consists of which three separate
and distinct parts?
a) Access to the exit, lighting, signage

b) Access to the exit, floor construction, door swing
c) Access to the exit, the exit, and area outside the building
d) Access to the exit, the exit, and the exit discharge
37. In Type II, (111) construction, columns supporting more than one floor are required to
have a fire resistance rating of:
a) 0hour
b) 3/4hour
c) 1hour
d) 3 hours
38. The intensity of the illumination of means of egress should be not less than?
a) 1 foot candle measured at the floor

b) 1 foot candle measured 3' above the floor
c) 3 foot candles measured at the floor
d) 3 foot candles measured 3' above the floor
39. An oxygen enriched atmosphere is defined as any atmosphere in which the
concentration of oxygen exceeds 21% by volume or the partial pressure of the oxygen
exceeds what pressure?
a) 1.6psi
b) 16KpA
c) 16Atmospheres
d) 160 TORR
9
40. Water is most effective and most commonly used for which of the following type of fire?
a) Class Aordinary combustibles

b) Class Bflammable and combustible liquids
c) Class Celectrical
d) Class Dcombustible metals
41. Which of the following is NOT a basic method for heating gravity tank water?
a) Direct discharge of steam into water

b) Gravity circulation of hot water
c) Steam coils inside tanks
d) Warm air in internal jacket
42. An important limitation to consider when using pressure tanks in automatic sprinkler
protection is the:
a) small volume of water stored

b) dependence upon outside power sources to maintain pressure
c) lack of training of fire department personnel
d) inadequate pipe sizing
43. Which one of the following principles is used to determine the necessary exit width?
a) Design and application

b) Flow and capacity
c) Width and movement
d) Construction and design
44. As a type of automatic fire detection device, heat detectors are the:
a) oldest
b) newest
c) most reliable
d) least reliable
45. The first principle of good storage practice for chemicals is:
a) limiting quantity
b) segregation
c) containment
d) concentration
10
46. When using a CO2 fire extinguisher you should be aware that the nozzle will become?
a) Very Hot
b) Very Cold
c) Warm
d) Slightly Cold
46. Which colour coding does foam fire extinguishers fall under?
a) Red
b) Blue
c) Cream
d) Black
47. The colour coding for a dry powder fire extinguisher is?
a. Blue
b. Cream
c. Red
d. Black
48. Which two types of fire extinguishers should you avoid using in confined spaces?
(Choose 2 answers)
a. Dry powder
b. Water
c. CO2
d. Foam
e. Wet chemical
49. Which of these fire extinguisher is most suitable for electrical fires?
a. CO2
b. Water
c. Wet chemical
d. Foam
50. Which of the following is NOT a class A material?
a. Wood
b. Paper
c. Propane
d. Plastic
11
51. Which category does titanium and aluminium materials fall under?
a. Category C
b. Category A
c. Category F
d. Category D
52. Which types of fire extinguishers were designed specifically for tackling Class F fires?
a) CO2 fire extinguishers

b) Dry powder fire extinguishers
c) Wet chemical fire extinguishers
d) Water fire extinguishers
12
Chapter 2
PERSONAL PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT
1. When working in areas where there is a potential for head injury from falling objects,
you should…
a) Look to the sky every 2 minutes for flying and falling objects.
b) Ask a colleague to give you a heads up when an object is about to fall
c) Wear head protection.
d) Appoint yourself a personal superhero to whisk you away from falling objects.
2. Once your employer has provided you with PPE, you must use it whenever you are at
work, even if your job changes.
a) True
b) Fals
3. Companies are required to:
a) Provide certain types of PPE at no cost to the employe

b) Train employees on the use of PP
c) Monitor and enforce the use of required PP
d) All of the above
4. Eye protection should be:
a) Durable
b) Not interfere with vision.
c) Kept in good repair.
d) All of the abov
5. Bump caps:
a) Have a ratchet suspension system.

b) Are designed to protect employees from falling objects.
c) Are rated at 20,000 volts.
True/False
6. Properly selected hand protection can protect employees from burns, electrical shock,
and chemical absorption. T
7. PPE must be inspected prior to us T
8. The primary objective of PPE is to protect employees by creating a barrier against

workplace hazards. T
13
9. Personal protective equipment can protect employees from all workplace hazards.
F
10. Safety glasses used in conjunction with a face‐shield provide the greatest level of
protection when using grinding equipment. T
11. Cotton gloves provide superior protection against corrosive chemicals. F
12. Foam earplugs provide greater protection than earmuffs. T
13. If you wear prescription lenses, you do not need additional eye protection against
occupational eye hazards. F
14. Who is responsible for maintaining PPE?
a) Your employer
b) Yourself
c) Your coworker
d) A, b and
e) A and b
15. What type of protection is needed when you are exposed to hazards from flying
particles?
a) Eye protection
b) Face protection
c) Head protection
d) Both a and
16. Eye protection is required for which of the following hazards?
a) Flying particles
b) Molten metal
c) Liquid chemicals, acids or caustic liquids
d) Chemical gases or vapours
e) All of the above
17. Welding shields primarily protect against…
a) Dust
b) Metal splatter.
c) Splashes
d) Flying particles
14
18. Which of the classes of hard hats in the list below can save you from high voltage shocks
as well as provide penetration and impact resistance?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Both a and b
19. Which of the following classes of hard hats DO NOT provide any protection against
electric hazards?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class
d) Class D
True or False
20.It is still okay to use a hard hat with a minor crack in its shell.
a) True
b) False
21. Which of the following special purpose footwear should you wear to avoid a buildup of
static electricity?
a) Safety toe shoes

b) Electrically conductive shoes.
c) Foundry shoes
d) Metatarsal guards
22. Below is a list of foot and leg protection types matched with hazards they protect
against. Which pairing is incorrect?
a) Leggings – heat hazards

b) Metatarsal guards – impact and compression
c) Electrically conductive shoes – static electricity build up
d) Foundry shoes – open circuits.
23. When should safety footwear be inspected?
a) Every week
b) Every 15 days
c) Every month
d) Prior to each us
15
24. Which of the following types of gloves should you wear when working with chemicals?
a) Butyl rubber gloves

b) Fabric gloves
c) Leather gloves
d) Both a and
True or False
25. Once you have selected the correct gloves to protect you from the chemicals to which you
will be exposed, you can continue to use them until they wear out or are torn.
a) True
b) False
26. Hearing protection is required when you are exposed to a noise level of 85 decibels or
higher for an 8hour period of time
(A) True
(B) False
27. Respirators are not considered as PP
a) True
b) False
28. Which of the following hearing protection should be fitted by a professional?

a) Single use earplugs
b) Molded earplugs.
c) Earmuffs
29. Which category of eye protection is most suitable to prevent exposure to irritating mists?
(a) Glasses
(b) Goggles.
(c) Face shield
(d) Welding shield
30. To certify electrical protective equipment has been tested, it is recommended that
employer,
(a) Mark the equipment

(b) Record the results of the test
(c) Record the date of the test
(d) All of the above
16
31. A fall protection system is to be worn mandatorily for heights above
(a) 4 feet
(b) 6 feet.
(c) 8 feet
(d) 10 feet
32. Which of the following is a factor for selection of protective gloves?
(a) Size and comfort

(b) Nature of contact
(c) Type of chemicals handled
(d) All of the above
33. Which among these protects the lower leg and feet from heat hazards such as molten
metal or welding sparks?
(a) Safety shoes

(b) Leggings.
(c) Metarsal guards
(d) Toe guards
34. Class E hard hats can provide voltage protection upto
(a) 2200volts
(b) 22000volts.
(c) 20000volts
(d) 10000volts
35. Any new eye and face protective devices must comply with which of these standards
a) ANSI Z87.11989.
b) ANSI Z91.21989
c) ANSI Z89.51991
d) ANSI Z88.11988
36. Hard hats are required to comply with which of these standards?
a) ANSI/ISEA Z88.32011
b) ANSI/ISEA Z89.12009.
c) ANSI/ISEA Z91.52009
d) ANSI/ISEA Z90.22011
37. Which among these is not a type of protective gloves

a) Fabric and fabric coated gloves
b) Insulating rubber gloves
c) chemical and liquid resistant gloves
d) Biological gloves
17
Chapter 3
ELECTRICAL SAFETY
1. The most dangerous place to use electrical equipment is?
a) indoors.
b) outdoors.
c) near water.
d) near other electrical equipment.
2. You discover the electrical cord on a drill has been damaged and some of the cord’s
insulation is missing. You should?
a) wrap tape around the damaged spot to prevent electrical shocks.

b) check to see if the drill still works.
c) tag the drill out of service and notify the department responsible for equipment maintenanc
d) make sure that the cord does not come in contact with the floor.
3. The safest ladder to use around electricity is?
a) woo
b) fiberglass.
c) aluminum.
d) a step stool.
4. The earth, water, concrete and the human body are all conductors of electricity
a) True
b) False
5. The effects of an electrical shock on the body depend upon all of the following
EXCEPT:
a) current.
b) path.
c) duration.
d) body weight.
6. Injuries from electricity can include which of the following?
a) electric shock that may or may not result in electrocution.

b) falls.
c) burns.
d) all of the above
18
7. Open knock outs on outlet boxes:
a) must be reported and repaired as soon as possible

b) are permitted by OSHA
c) are common because replacing knock outs is expensive
d) pose no hazard as the electrical wiring has been reroute
8. Which of the following is acceptable by OSHA standards?
a) an unqualified employee flipping tripped breakers in a breaker box.

b) plugging and extension cord into a second extension cor
c) removing a ground pin if needed to plug into a two prong outlet.
d) a qualified person repairing an extension cor
9. Flexible cords can be used in the workplace:
a) as a substitute for permanent wiring.

b) if they are run behind walls to reduce the chance of abrasion and damag
c) if heavy or extra heavy duty cords are needed for temporary purposes.
d) if any obvious splices are repaired with electrical tap
10. It is the responsibility of all employees to understand and use electrical safety every day.
a) True
b) False
11. On which of the following routine tests are conducted ?
a) Oil circuit breakers

b) Air blast circuit breakers
c) Minimum oil circuit breakers
d) All of the above
12. SF6 gas
a) is yellow in colour
b) is lighter than air
c) is nontoxic
d) has pungent small
e) none of the above
13. Which of the following medium is employed for extinction of arc in air circuit breaker ?
a) Water
b) Oil
c) Air
d) SF6
19
14. With which of the following, a circuit breaker must be equipped for remote operation ?
a) Inverse time trip

b) Time delay trip
c) Shunt trip
e) All of the above
15. Fault diverters are basically
a) fuses
b) relays
c) fast switches
d) circuit breakers
16. A thermal protection switch can protect against
a) shortcircuit
b) temperature
c) overload
d) over voltage
17. Arc in a circuit behaves as
a) a capacitive reactance
b) an inductive reactance
c) a resistance increasing with voltage rise across the arc
d) a resistance decreasing with voltage rise across the arc
18. Thermal circuit breaker has
a) delayed trip action

b) instantaneous trip action
c) both of the above
d) none of the above
20. Overload relays are of…… type
a) induction
b) solid state
c) thermal
d) electromagnetic
e) all above
20
21. Thermal overload relays are used to protect the motor against over current due to
a) short-circuits
b) heavy loads
c) grounds
d) all of the above
22. Magnetic circuit breaker has ______ trip action.
a) delayed
b) instantaneous
c) both of the above
23. shunt relays are made of
a) few turns of thin wire

b) few turns of thick wire
c) many turns of thin wire
d) many turns of thick wire
24. The relay operating speed depends upon
a) the spring tension

b) the rate of flux built up
c) armature core air gap
d) all of the above
25. In order that current should flow without causing excessive heating or voltage drop, the
relay contacts should
a) have low contact resistance

b) be clean and smooth
c) be of sufficient size and proper shape
d) have all above properties
26. Circuit breakers are essentially
a) current carrying contacts called electrodes

b) arc extinguishers
c) circuits to break the system
d) transformers to isolate the two systems
e) any of the above
21
27. The current zero interruption, in oil and air blast circuit breakers, is achieved by
a) lengthening of the gap

b) cooling and blast effect
c) both (a) and
d) deionizing the oil with forced air
28. Air blast circuit breaker is used for
a) over currents
b) short duty
c) intermittent duty
d) repeated duty
29. An efficient and a well-designed protective relaying should have
a) good selectivity and reliability

b) economy and simplicity
c) high speed and selectivity
d) all of the above
30. Burden of a protective relay is the power
a) required to operate the circuit breaker

b) absorbed by the circuit of relay
c) developed by the relay circuit
31. Directional relays are based on flow of
a) power
b) current
c) voltage wave
d) all of the above
32. In a single busbar system there will be complete shut down when
a) fault occurs on the bus itself

b) fault occurs on neutral line
c) two or more faults occur simultaneously
d) fault occurs with respect to earthing
22
33. A balanced 3phase system consists of
a) zero sequence currents only

b) positive sequence currents only
c) negative and zero sequence currents
d) zero, negative and positive sequence currents
34. Series reactors should have
a) low resistance
b) high resistance
c) low impedance
d) high impedance
35. To limit shortcircuit current in a power system are use
a) earth wires
b) isolators
c) H.R. fuses
d) reactors
36. The information to the circuit breaker under fault conditions is provided by
a) relay
b) rewirable fuse
c) H.R. only
d) all of the above
37. A shortcircuit is identified by
a) no current flow
b) heavy current flow
c) voltage drop
d) voltage rise
38. By which of the following methods major portion of the heat generated in a H.R. fuse is
dissipated ?
a) Radiation
b) Convection
c) Conduction
d) All of the above
23
39. A switchgear is device used for
a) interrupting an electrical circuit

b) switching an electrical circuit 111.
c) switching and controlling an electrical circuit
d) switching, controlling and protecting the electrical circuit and equipment
40. Oil switches are employed for
a) low currents circuits

b) low voltages circuits
c) high voltages and large currents circuits
d) all circuits
41. A fuse is never inserted in
a) neutral wire
b) negative of circuit
c) positive of circuit
d) phase dine
42. A fuse in a motor circuit provides protection against
a) overload
b) shortcircuit and overload
c) open circuit, shortcircuit and overload
43. An isolator is installed
a) to operate the relay of circuit breaker

b) as a substitute for circuit breaker
c) always independent of the position of circuit breaker
d) generally on both sides of a circuit breaker
44. The fuse blows off by
a) burning
b) arcing
c) melting
45. The fuse rating is expressed in terms of
a) current
b) voltage
c) VAR
d) Kva
24
46. H.R. fuse, as compared to a rewirable fuse, has
a) no ageing effect
b) high speed of operation
c) high rupturing capacity
d) all of the above
47. The material used for fuse must have
a) low melting point and high specific resistance

b) low melting point and low specific resistance
c) high melting point and low specific resistance
d) low melting point and any specific resistance
48. Admittance relay is _______ relay.
a) impedance
b) directional
c) non directional
49. Series capacitors are used to
a) compensate for line inductive reactance

b) compensate for line capacitive reactance
c) improve line voltage
49.Overfluxing protection is recommended for
a) distribution transformer
b) generator transformer of the power plant
c) autotransformer of the power plant
d) station transformer of the power plant
50. Air blast circuit breakers for 400 kV power system are designed to operate in
a) 100 microsecond
b) 50 millisecond
c) 0.5 sec
d) 0.1 sec
25
Chapter 4
AIR ACT, WATER ACT, ENVIRONMENT PROTECTION ACT
1. The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India was
a) Water act
b) Air act
c) Environmental act
d) Noise pollution Rule
2. The Water (prevention and control of pollution) Act was enacted in the year:
a) 1986
b) 1974
c) 1994
d) 1975
3. The Water Act contains:
a) 4 chapters
b) 5 chapters
c) 7 chapters
d) 8 chapters
4. The Water Act have:
(a) 64 sections
(b) 68 sections
(c) 45 sections
(d) 62 sections
5. The functions of state board are given under:
(a) Section 16
(b) Section 17
(c) Section 21
(d) Section 45
6. In Water Act the entire National capital territory of Delhi has been declared as water
pollution prevention control area under:
a) Section 21
b) Section 23
c) Section 19
d) Section 24
26
7. The Air (prevention and control of pollution ) Act was enacted in the year:
a) 1981
b) 1996
c) 2000
d) 1974
8. The Air act contains
a) 5 chapters
b) 6 chapters
c) 7 chapters
d) 8 chapters
9. The Air act have
(a) 56 section
(b) 54 section
(c) 58 section
(d) 62 section
10. The environment protection act was enacted in the year:
(a) 1986
(b) 1992
(c) 1984
(d) 1974
11. The EPA consists:
a) 2 chapters
b) 4 chapters
c) 8 chapters
d) 7 chapters
12. The EPA contains:
a) 25 sections
b) 12 sections
c) 26 sections
d) 14 sections
27
13. In water act a person who has control over the affairs of the factory or the premises and
includes in relation to any substance is
a) Owner
b) CEO
c) Employer
d) Supervisor
14. According to water act the term stream includes:
a) River
b) Water course
c) Inland water
d) All of the above
15. Environmental impact assessment is mandatory for which act
(a) Indian forest act

(b) Air act
(c) Wildlife protection act
(d) Environment protection act
16. The water act was enacted for
a) Prevention and control of water pollution

b) Restoring wholesomeness of water
c) Either of a or b
d) Both a and b
17. The water cess act was amended in the year
a) 1992
b) 1993
c) 1981
d) 1985
18. According to air act air pollutant can be
a) Solid
b) Liquid
c) Gas
d) All of the above
28
19. Air pollution means the presence of
a) Air pollutant
b) Gaseous pollutant
c) Liquid pollutant
d) Solid pollutant
20. Fuel approved by the state board for the purposes of air act
a) Approved fuel
b) Petrol
c) Diesel
d) Natural gas
21. According to air act automobile means
a) Vehicle powered by internal combustion engine

b) Vehicle powered by any method of generation of power
c) Either a or b
d) Both a and b
22. According to air act board means
a) State board
b) Central board
c) International board
d) Both a and b
23. Central board is constituted under water act
a) Section 3
b) Section 4
c) Section 5
d) Section 7
24. According to air act chimney is
a) Large cylinder
b) Manufacturing unit
c) Recycling unit
d) Structure used for emission of air pollutant
25. Emission can be
a) Solid
b) Liquid
c) Gas
d) All of the above
29
26. An individual who is the member of state board or central board is called
a) Member
b) Occupier
c) Owner
d) Activist
27. According to air act chairman may be provided
a) full time
b) part time
c) as the government sees fit
d) as the chairman sees fit
28. Chapter 2 of air act is about
a) Terms and conditions of service of members

b) Disqualifications
c) Vacation of seats by member
d) All of the above
29. In air act constitution of committee is mentioned in
a) Chapter 2
b) Chapter 3
c) Chapter 6
d) Chapter 9
30. In air act constitution of boards is mentioned in
a) Chapter 2
b) Chapter 1
c) Chapter 3
d) Chapter 5
31. The state government may declare any area within the state as air pollution control area
after consultation with
a) State board
b) Central board
c) Chief minister
30
32. No person operating any industrial plant in air pollution control area shall discharge or
cause to discharge or permit the emission of any pollutant in excess of the standards laid
down by state board under
a) Section 17
b) Section 18
c) Section 16
d) Section 7
33. Chapter 3 of air act consists of
a) Fund of board
b) Borrowing powers of board
c) Annual report
34. Chapter 6 of air act consists of
a) Penalties for certain acts

b) Reports and returns
c) None of the above
d) Both a and b
35. Chapter 8 of water act includes
a) Central water laboratory

b) State water laboratory
c) Analysts
d) All of the above
36. Power of central government to make rules comes under water act
a) Chapter 5
b) Chapter 6
c) Chapter 7
d) Chapter 8
37. Chapter 8 of water act consists of
a) Fund of central board

b) Fund of state board
c) Budget
31
38. Powers and functions of boards is given in water act
a) Chapter 5
b) Chapter 6
c) Chapter 4
d) Chapter 3
39. Environmental pollutant can be
a) Solid
b) Liquid
c) Gas
d) All of the above
40. According to environment protection act any substance which is liable to cause harm to
human beings, plants, animals, microorganisms, property or environment is
a) Hazardous substance
b) Poisonous substance
c) Chemical
d) Radioactive substance
41. According to environment protection act manufacturing, processing, treatment,

package, storage, transportation, etc in relation to any substance is
a) Handling
b) Managing
c) Dealing
42. Chapter 2 of environment protection act consists of
(a) Offences by company

(b) Offences by government
(c) None of the above
(d) Both a and b
43. Environment protection act chapter 8 consists of
a) Cognizance of offences
b) Bar of jurisdiction
c) Powers to delegate
d) All of the above
32
44. Power of central government to take measures to protect and improve environment is
mentioned in environment protection act
a) Chapter 2
b) Chapter 4
c) Chapter 5
d) Chapter 2
45. Appointment of officers and their powers and functions comes under environment
protection act
a) Chapter 2
b) Chapter 3
c) Chapter 4
d) Chapter 5
46. Prevention control and abatement of environmental pollution comes under environment
protection act
a) Chapter 3
b) Chapter 2
c) Chapter 3
d) Chapter 4
47. A person who has control over the affairs of the factory or the premises and includes in
relation to any substance, the person in possession of the substance
a) Manager
b) Supervisor
c) Occupier
48. Penalty for contravention is mentioned in chapter? Of environment protection act
a) Chapter 3
b) Chapter 5
c) Chapter 7
d) Chapter 8
49. Powers of entry and inspection is mentioned in environment protection act
a) Chapter 3
b) Chapter 4
c) Chapter 5
d) Chapter 10
33
50. Powers to delegate is mentioned in environment protection act
a) Chapter 4
b) Chapter 5
c) Chapter 6
d) Chapter1
34
Chapter 5
PHYSICAL HAZARD
1. Probability of the event that might occur X Severity of the event if it occurs
a) Accident
b) Hazard
c) Risk
2. Industrial safety management if that branch of management which is concerned with

______ hazards from the industries.
a) Reducing
b) Controlling
c) Eliminating
d) All of the above
3. The following is indirect cost of accident
a) Money paid for treatment of worker

b) Compensation paid to worker
c) Cost of lost time of injured worker
d) All of the above
4. The following is(are) physical hazard agent(s)
a) Falls
b) Electricity
c) Inhalation
d) All of the above
5. Check list for Job Safety Analysis (JSA) consists of
a) Work area, material, machine, tools

b) Men, machine, material, tools
c) Men, machine, work area, tools
d) Men, work are Material, tools
6. A safety programme consists of
a) Three E’s
b) Four E’s
c) Five E’s
d) Six E’s
35
7. For household wiring and small units, the following should be used for safety measure
a) MCB
b) ACB
c) OCB
d) MCCB
8. Which of the following colour is used for radiation hazard?
a) Red
b) Orange
c) Green
d) Purple
9. Decibel (db) is a unit used to measure
a) Light
b) Sound
c) Frequency
10. The following is (are) are generally provided with limit switch to prevent motion beyond
present limit
a) Hoists
b) Conveyors
c) Machine tables
d) All of the above
11. The following is (are) used as safety device(s) in machines
a) Fail safe
b) Safety interlocks
c) Limit switches
d) All of the above
12. Class A fire consists of fire due to
a) Wood
b) Oil
c) Transformer
d) Chemical
36
13. Water is used to extinguish
a) Class A fires
b) Class B fires
c) Class C fires
d) All of the above
14. The following class of fire occur in electrical equipment
a) Class A fires
b) Class B fires
c) Class C fires
d) All of the above
15. The following extinguisher is suitable for cotton or other textile fire
a) Water
b) Soda acid
c) Foam
d) Dry chemicals
16. _____ is best suited to extinguishing oil or flammable liquid fir
a) Soda acid
b) Vaporizing liquid
c) Foam
d) Dry chemical
17. In recent years the meaning of health and safety has broadened to include:
a) Economics
b) Physical hazards
c) Psychological and psychosocial hazards
d) Unemployment
18. Which of the following is not an emerging issue in health and safety?
a) Stress at work
b) Violence at work
c) Bullying and harassment at work
d) Repetitive strain injury (RSI)
19. WHMIS is a:
a) Workplace transportation guide

b) Environmental system
c) Workplace hazardous materials information system
d) Workplace hazardous waste disposal system
37
20. Products displaying this symbol must be considered:
a) Corrosive
b) Flammable and combustible
c) Biohazardous
d) Oxidizing material
21. The loss of persons ability to hear higher frequency sound is known as
a) Threshold shift
b) Threshold frequency
c) Threshold
22. A threshold shift can be
a) Temporary
b) Permanent
c) Both
23. Audible comfortable range is
a) Between 2060db
b) Between 4060db
c) Above 60db
d) Lower than 20db
24. The normal deep body temperature is
a) 37.6 oC
b) 36.7 oC
c) 36 oC
d) 37 oC
25. The temperature at the mouth
a) 37 oC
b) 36 oC
c) 36.1 oC
38
26. If the deep body temperature falls below …… degrees or rises above …… degrees, body
functions are significantly impaired
a) 39.2,36.4
b) 36.4,39.2
c) 36.2.39.4
27. The body has automatic systems that maintain internal temperature are
a) Sweating
b) Shivering
c) Both
28. The health effects caused by heat stress include
a) Heat exhaustion
b) Heat cramps
c) Heat stroke
d) All of the above
29. ……………….. are caused by loss of fluid and body salts, sometimes in
combination with heavy exertion
a) Heat stress
b) Heat cramps
c) Heat stroke
30. ……………..results from the depletion of body fluid and salts.
a) Heat cramps
b) Heat stress
c) Heat stroke
31. ……....... is the failure of the body's temperature regulating system
a) Heat stroke
b) Heat cramps
c) Heat stress
d) Heat exhaustion
39
32. If you see this symbol it means that the product:
a) Is biohazardous
b) Is corrosive
c) Laser Hazard
d) Toxic Hazard
33. In a health and safety context, a hazard is:
a) Anything that could result in a physical injury

b) Anything that could result in a psychological injury
c) The likelihood of someone being injured in the workplace
d) Anything with the potential to result in an injury or illness
34. Risk management involves:
a) Eliminating all workplace hazards.

b) Identifying risks, assessing risks and eliminating or controlling risks
c) Identifying and monitoring risks
d) Hiring an employee with the job of managing risks.
35. A Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) contains information on the following:
a) Hazardous ingredients
b) Toxicological Information
c) Physical Properties
d) All of the above
36. The WHMIS symbol for compressed gas is:
a) “T” in a circle
b) a cylinder in a circle
c) a flame in a triangle
d) “G” in a circle
37. Personal protective equipment (PPE) that is recommended on a MSDS:
a) Should be ignored
b) Does not have to be maintained
c) Must be available and used by employees when required
d) Does not have to be available on the unit
40
38. Infrared is…
a) Non ionising radiation

b) Ionising radiation
c) Both
39. Forms of non-ionizing radiation is
a) Microwave
b) Radar frequencies
c) UV light
d) All of the above
40. Alpha particles are
a) Negatively charged
b) Positively charged
c) Does not have any charge
41. Negatively charged particles are
a) Alpha particles
b) Beta particles
c) Gamma rays
42. RPA
a) Radiation protection advisor

b) Radiation protecting apparatus
c) Radiation protection agency
d) Radioactive protection assessment
43. RPS
a) Radiation protection supervisor

b) Radioactive protection supervisor
c) Radiation protecting supervisor
44. Which of the following is not a form of ionizing radiation
a) Alpha rays
b) Beta rays
c) UV
d) Gamma rays
41
45. Hand arm vibration leads to a condition known as
a) Reynaud’s phenomenon
b) Frost bite
c) Hypothermia
46. Safety is…
a) The responsibilities of the safety officer

b) The responsibility of management
c) My responsibility
d) All of the above
47. Potentially damaging vibration frequency
a) 4 to 1500 hz
b) 2 to 1500 hz
c) 1 to 1500 hz
d) 5 to 1500 hz
48. Magnitude of energy is measured in

a) m/sec square
b) m/sec
c) m/sec^1
d) none of these
49. which of the following ray is most harmful to human being
a) gamma rays
b) alpha rays
c) beta rays
d) gamma and alpha rays
50. what is the noise reduction rating of an ear muff
a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 80%
42
Chapter 6
NATURAL CALAMITIES, DISASTER MANAGEMENT PLAN.
1. The cyclone 'SIDR' hit Bangladesh in?
a) 2009
b) 2007
c) 2008
d) 2006
2. Disasters can be categorized into various types on the basis of?
a) Its speed
b) Its previous history
c) Loss of property they result
d) Loss of human life they result
3. Disaster Management covers?
a) Maintaining control over disasters

b) Reducing the effects of disasters
c) Briefing the top officials of govt. on the effect of disasters
d) All the above
4. Which of the following is a disaster mitigation strategy?
a) Constructing cyclone shelters

b) Giving loans from banks
c) Providing cheap electricity
d) Providing school uniforms to children
5. The term Tsunami is coined from?
a) Chinese term
b) Indian term
c) German term
d) Japanese term
6. Amateur Radio is also known as?
a) Ham radio
b) Home radio
c) Pocket radio
d) Silent radio
43
7. A series of earthquakes shook the Central American Nation of Nicarague and killed
many people in the year?
a) 1974
b) 1972
c) 1973
d) 1975
8. In which year a cyclone struck the Coastal Andhra in Krishna Godavari delta and
caused havoc?
a) 1976
b) 1979
c) 1978
d) 1977
9. Tsunami can occur only during?
a) Morning
b) Noon
c) Evening
d) Any time of day or nights
10. The National Civil Defence college was founded in 1957 at?
a) Bombay
b) Nagpur
c) Cochin
d) Hyderabad
11. National Institute of Disaster management is located at?
a) Pune
b) Mumbai
c) New Delhi
d) Calcutta
12. Which of the following activities is covered by Disaster Management before, during or
after a disaster?
a) Reconstruction and Rehabilitation

b) Mitigation
c) Emergency response
d) All the above
44
13. The phrase WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION entered widespread usage in?
a) 2003
b) 2001
c) 2002
d) 2004
14. Landslides occur because of?
a) Intensity of rainfall
b) Steep slopes
c) Deforestation leading it soil erosion
d) All the above
15. On November 19, 1977, a cyclone, which had been operated to hit Tamil Nadu, instead
struck the Central Coast of and diverted several villages?
a) Kerala
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Orissa
d) Karnataka
16. For coordinating disaster management activities for all natural hazards, the Nodal
Agency at the Central Govt. is the?
a) Ministry of Home Affairs

b) Ministry of Rural Development
c) Ministry of Communication
d) Ministry of Urban Affairs
17. U.N. Disaster Management Team UNDMT. is responsible for solving problems resulting
from disasters in?
a) India
b) Iran
c) Bangladesh
d) All countries the world
18. National Disaster Management Division of the Govt. of India wherever necessary, sends
to disaster affected areas?
a) Coordination its containing satellite phones

b) Medicines for affected people
c) Provides relief measures
d) All the above
45
19. When a powerful earthquake struck South Eastern Iran and caused enormous loss of
life and property Killing 30,000 people?
a) 26.12.2003
b) 26.11.2003
c) 26.10.2003
d) 26.10.2002
20. Of the following, which is a natural hazard?
a) Earthquake
b) Cyclone
c) Landslide
d) All the above
21. The ground movements caused by earthquakes can have a damaging effects such as?
a) Ground shaking
b) Landslides
c) Surface ruptures
d) All the above
22. International Tsunami Information Centre is in?
a) Honolulu
b) Goa
c) Jakarta
d) Pondicherry
23. The main objectives of First Aid?
a) To preserve life
b) To prevent the victims condition from worsening
c) To promote recovery
d) All the above
24. First Aid it should contain?
a) Cotton Wool, Crepe bandage

b) Sterile dressing, pain reliever
c) Scissors, Gloves, Antacids
d) All the above
46
25. Report on Training on Search and Rescue for the members of the village Disaster
Management Team is prepared by?
a) Govt. of Manipur
b) Govt. of Indonesia
c) Govt. of Uttaranchal
d) Indian Red Cross
26. Tsunamis are waves generated by?
a) Earthquakes
b) Volcanic eruptions
c) Underwater landslides
d) All the above
27. In which year the violent explosion of the famous Volcano, Krakatoa in Indonesia,
produced Tsunamis measuring 40 feet?
a) 1883
b) 1881
c) 1882
d) 1884
28. According to World Disasters Report of 2010, during 200009, 85% of affected people
belonged to the?
a) Asia Pacific Region

b) African region
c) Japan region
d) Australian region
29. Area of Indian coastline which is vulnerable to storm surges, cyclones and tsunamis is?
a) 5700 Km
b) 3700 km
c) 2700 km
d) 4700 km
30. The date when the super cyclone hit the Orissa coast which killed nearly 10,000 people
and affected over 15 million people across 12 districts of Orissa is?
a) 29.08.1999
b) 29.08.1997
c) 29.08.1998
d) 29.08.1996
47
31. The Disaster management Act was enacted in India in the year?
a) 2006
b) 2005
c) 2008
d) 2007
32. According to the World Bank, during the period 1996 to 2000, the approximate
percentage loss of gross domestic production due to disasters was?
a) 2.85%
b) 2.25%
c) 2.50%
d) 1.95%
33. The National Policy on Disaster Management was approved by the Union Cabinet in?
a) 2008
b) 2009
c) 2007
d) 2010
34. The Chairman of the National Disaster management Authority is?
a) Home Minister
b) Vice President
c) Minister of Human Resource Development
d) Prime Minister
35. National Disaster Reserve Fund is the result of?
a) 12th Finance Commission

b) 11thFinance Commission
c) 13th Finance Commission
36. By what measures can we significantly reduce the impact of disasters on our people?
a) Better planning
b) Preparedness awareness
c) Mitigation measures
d) All the above
48
37. Of the total 35 States/Union Territories in India, how many are disaster prone?
a) 22
b) 24
c) 25
d) 23
38. Number of people killed by natural disasters in India from 1980 to 2010?
a) 1,13,039
b) 1,43,039
c) 1,23,039
d) 1,03,039
39. National Institute of Disaster Management is located at?
a) New Delhi
b) Cuttack
c) Baroda
d) Cochin
40. First Indian Disaster Management Congress was inaugurated on?
a) 29112006
b) 26102006
c) 2982006
d) 29102006
41. National Institute of Disaster Management publishes a biannual journal titled?
a) Disaster India
b) Disaster Mitigation
c) Disaster & Development
d) Indian Disaster
42. The term “Cyclone " is derived from?
a) Greek Word
b) French Word
c) Latin Word
d) Chinese Word
43. What percent of earthquakes and tsunamis account for world disasters?
a) 8%
b) 3%
c) 9%
d) 7%
49
44. Mechanisms established under Disaster Management Act, 2005 include?
a) National Disaster Management Authority

b) State Disaster Management Authority
c) District Disaster Management Authority
d) All the above
45. According to World Bank Estimate, direct losses from natural disasters ar upto percent
of GDP?
a) 4%
b) 2%
c) 1%
d) 3%
46. SAARC Disaster Management Centre is at?
a) Dhaka
b) Colombo
c) New Delhi
d) Kathmandu
47. Tsunamis are waves generated by ?
a) Earthquakes
d) All of the above
48. A Certificate course in Disaster Management is offered by?
a) Indira Gandhi National Open University

b) R. Ambedkar National Open University
c) Nalanda Open University
d) Vardhaman Mahavir Open University
49. Which is the nodal agency at the Indian Union Government for coordinating disaster
management activities for all natural hazards?
a) Minister of Home affairs

b) Ministry of social justice and Empowerment
c) Ministry of Science and Technology
d) Ministry of Environment and Forests
50
50. United Nations Disaster Management Team (UNDMT) is responsible for solving
problem resulting from disasters in?
a) Africa
b) Asia
c) Australia
d) In all continents
51
Chapter 7
FACTORIES ACT, 1948
1. Who is an adult as per Factories Act, 1948 ?
a) Who has completed 18 years of age

b) who is less than 18 years
c) who is more than 14 years
d) who is more than 15 years
2. A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of the factory under Factories
Act, 1948 is called as_________
a) Occupier
b) Manager
c) Chairman
d) Managing Director
3. The space for every worker employed in the Factory after the commencement of
Factories Act, 1948 should be ________ Cubic Meters.
a) 9.9
b) 10.2
c) 14.2
d) 13.2
4. The provision for cooling water during hot weather should be made by the
organization if it employees _______ or more employees.
a) 200
b) 250
c) 300
d) 150
5. Who is an Adolescent as per Factories Act, 1948 ?
a) Who has completed 17 years of age

b) who is less than 18 years
c) who has completed 15 years but less than 18 years.
d) None of these
6. First Aid Boxes is to be provided for ______ of persons
a) 125
b) 135
c) 150
d) 160
52
7. Safety Officers are to be appointed if Organization is engaging ______ or more
employees.
a) 1000
b) 2000
c) 500
d) 750
8. Canteen is to be provided if engaging employees more than ______ persons.
a) 250
b) 230
c) 300
d) 275
9. Welfare Officers are to be appointed if Organization is engaging ______ or more

employees.
a) 500
b) 250
c) 600
d) 750
10. The Ambulance Room is to be provided if engaging employees more than______
a) 400
b) 350
c) 500
d) 450
11. Crèches is to be provided if ______ or more lady employees are engage
a) 25
b) 32
c) 30
d) 40
12. An adult worker can up to ____ hrs in a day as per factories Act, 1948
a) 8
b) 9
c) 10
d) 12
53
13. Prevention of back injury resulting from manual handling may be achieved by
a) Use mechanical aids wherever possible

b) Learning the correct methods of lifting and carrying
c) Practicing good housekeeping
d) All of the above
14. When using a fire extinguisher for an electrical fire it would be appropriate to use an
extinguisher containing:
a) Dry powder
b) Water
c) Foam
d) Carbon Monoxide
15. The most suitable fire extinguisher to use on a flammable liquid fire is:
a) A Class Water fire extinguisher

b) B Class Foam fire extinguisher
c) C Class Carbon dioxide
d) Not important, any will do
16. Which of the following would not be classified as a chemical hazard:
a) Gases
b) Vapors
c) OOS
d) Fibers
17. Chemicals may enter the body through:
a) Ingestion through the mouth

b) The eyes and mucous membranes
c) The skin
d) All of the above
18. The workplace hazard excessive noise may be controlled by:
a) Air conditioning
b) Ventilation
c) Shift work
d) PPE
54
19. An emergency that could arise and cause a risk to H&S could include:
a) Fire
b) Explosion
c) Chemical spill
d) All of the above
20. Which of the following is NOT a laboratory safety rule?
a) You should never mix acids with bases

b) You should tie back your long hair
c) You should never add water to acid
d) All of the above are valid safety rules
21. As per factory Rules, What is the area Noise TLV for 8 hours is ?
a) 75 dBA
b) 95 dBA
c) 90 dBA
d) 85 dBA
22. In IMS Which has three system we have integrated ?
a) ISO9002, ISO 14001 & OHSAS – 18001

b) ISO – 14002, ISO – 9001& OHSAS 18002.
c) ISO 9001, ISO14001 & OHSAS 18001.
d) None of these
23. According to Factories Act 1948, after how many time, accident is called reportable
accident?
a) 48 hrs.
b) 72 hrs.
c) Three days
d) None of above
24. Which is one of right Se for Lifting Tools & Tackles as per Factory Act, 1948?
a) Sec 32
b) Sec 43.
c) Sec 28
d) Sec 29
55
25. Under which section of Factory Act, Testing of Pressure Vessels covered ?
a) Sec 30
b) Sec 56
c) Sec 31
d) Sec 29
26. Which section of factory Act has covered Worker Participation in Safety management (
Safety Committee) ?
a) Sec – 42A
b) Sec – 40B
c) Sec – 41G
d) Sec 41B
27. In every factory where is more than five hundred workers employed, there shall be
provided ?
a) First Aid Box

b) Hospital
c) Maintained an ambulance room
d) Doctor.
28. In Which section of factory Act has covered fencing of machinery (machine Guarding) ?
a) Sec 30
b) Sec 21
c) Sec 17
d) Sec 22
29. As per Factory Rules, How much weight(maximum) permissible for adult male ?
a) 50 Kg
b) 55 Kg
c) 30 Kg
d) 40 Kg
30. All of the following are the main causes of accidents EXCEPT:
a) unsafe acts.
b) alcohol or drug abuse
c) weather.
d) poor work habits.
56
31. When lifting heavy objects, keep as much weight as possible over your:
a) chest.
b) legs.
c) shoulders.
d) back.
32. Ball valves are commonly used to:
a) throttle flow.
b) check flow.
c) change flow direction.
d) start/stop flow.
33. In which schedule of Factories Act Hazardous Process is listed ?
a) First
b) Second
c) Third
d) None
34. According to Factories Act 1948, after how many time, accident is called reportable
accident?
a) 48 hrs.
b) 72 hrs.
c) Three days
d) None of above
35. Which is one of right Se for Lifting Tools & Tackles as per Factory Act, 1948?
a) Sec 32
b) Sec 43.
c) Sec 28
d) Sec 29
36. Under which section of Factory Act, Testing of Pressure Vessels covered ?
a) Sec 30
b) Sec 56
c) Sec 31
d) Sec 29
57
37. As per Factory Act/Rules. What should be the testing pressure of Pressure Vessels for
the hydrostatic test from design pressure ?
a) 1.5 Time
b) 1.10 Time
c) 1.25 Times
d) All of above
38. Which section of factory Act has covered Permit to Work system ?
a) Sec 31
b) Sec 34
c) Sec 36
d) Sec – 41
39. Emergency Plan is required due to :
a) Legal compliance
b) Need of Company
c) No legal requirement
d) None of these
40. In which year did factories act come into force?
a) 23rd September, 1948

b) 1st April, 1949
c) 4th April, 1949
d) 12th September, 1948
41. How many days in advance does the occupier of a factory premises gives notice of
occupancy to the chief inspector?
a) 15 days
b) 20 days
c) 10 days
d) 25 days
42. What are the general duties of an Occupier?
a) Maintenance of a plant and system of work in factory are safe, without risks to health.
b) Ensure safety and absence of risks to health in, use, handling, storage and transport of
articles and substances.
c) Specifying the area
d) Defining the local mean time ordinarily deserved therein.
I. D
II. C
III. Only A & B
IV. All of the above
58
43. Which provisions regarding health are mentioned in the sections 11 to 20 in factories
act?
a) Cleanliness
b) Dust and fumes
c) Ventilation and temperature
d) Disposal of wastes
I.Only B & C
II.Only A & D
III. None of the above
IV. All of the above
44. As per the factories act, after how many years should the factory premises be painted
and refurbished?
a) 5 years
b) 2 years
c) 10 years
d) Annually
45. As per section 2 in factories act, who will be called as an adult?
a) A person who has completed 21 years of age

b) A person who is less than 19 years of age
c) A person who has completed 24 years of age
d) A person who has completed 18 years of age
46. Section 2(g) under the act defines _______
a) Factory
b) Manufacturing process
c) Worker
d) Occupants
47. Match the following
1. Approval, licensing and registration of factories ) Section 18

2. Arrangements for drinking water ) Section 35
3. Maintenance of buildings ) Section 6
4. Protection of eyes ) Section 40A
a) 1 c, 2 a, 3 d, 4 – b
b) 1 b, 2 a, 3 d, 4 – c
c) 1 c, 2 d, 3 a, 4 – b
d) 1 a, 2 c, 3 d, 4 – b
59
48. If there are ____ numbers of employees, then the employer has to provide a canteen.
a) 250
b) 510
c) 320
d) 100
49. Which of the following diseases is not mentioned in the section 89 of factories act?
a) Anthrax
b) Asbestosis
c) Phosphorus
d) Pneumonia
60
Chapter 8
FIRE SAFETY
Group D locations?
a) Type EX
b) Type ES
c) Type EE
d) Type E
a) 100 GPM
b) 850 GPM
c) 700 GPM
d) 500 GPM
a) 0.433 psi
b) 2.31 psi
c) 14.7 psi
d) 29.9 psi
a) the energy imparted to the liquid as it passes through the pump

c) the energy imparted to the liquid as it passes through the orifice
d) the static pressure of water at the intake of the pump
a) without fear of loss of life

b) prior to an untenable atmosphere
c) in the shortest travel distance
d) in the shortest possible time
61
and distinct parts?

a) 0 hour
b) 3/4 hour
c) 1 hour
d) 3 hours


a) 1.6 psi
b) 16 KpA
c) 16 Atmospheres
d) 160 TORR
a) Class Aordinary combustibles

b) Class Bflammable and combustible liquids
c) Class Celectrical
d) Class Dcombustible metals
62

protection is the:


a) Oldest
b) Newest
c) most reliable
d) least reliable
b) segregation
c) containment
d) concentration
Use the following table to answer questions 16 & 17.
Category Range
________________________________________________________________________
Aerial ladder 50135 ft
Aerial ladder platform 85110 ft
Telescoping aerial platform 50100 ft
Articulating aerial platform 55102 ft
________________________________________________________________________
63
16. If the articulating aerial platform were extended to 75 ft, what percentage of its range
would be in use?
a) 40%
b) 41.5%
c) 42.5%
d) 45%
17. What piece of apparatus has the shortest range?
a) Aerial ladder platform

b) Aerial ladder
c) Telescoping aerial platform
d) Articulating aerial platform
18. It is generally not considered good practice to use water on electrical fires because:
a) It will cause unnecessary damage to the electrical equipment

b) It is ineffective
c) There is a danger of the water conducting electricity and endangering Firefighters
d) There is a risk of explosion
19. The most common method used to extinguish fires is:
a) Fuel removal
b) Smothering
c) Cooling
d) Changing the chemical composition of the fuel
20. A fire that starts by spontaneous combustion:
a) Is not possible
b) Is usually self-extinguished
c) Is only possible if outside temperatures exceed 100F
d) Is one that starts without any external ignition source
21. It takes more energy to push water through a long hose then through a short hos This is
because of:
a) Friction
b) Gravity
c) Inertia
d) Distance
64
22. Back Pressure, sometimes referred to as Head Pressure, is measured in lbs per square
inch (psi). The back pressure of water is .434 per foot of elevation. If the height of a water
tank is 180 feet, what is the back pressure going to be at the bottom of this tank.
a) 7.8psi
b) 78.1 psi
c) 80.6
d) 88.1
23. Class IB defined by NFPA–II shall include those having flash point below:
a) 27 Degree C
b) 23 Degree C
c) 32 Degree C
d) 26 Degree C
24. Minimum duration of discharge of foam for tank containing CLASS C petroleum
according to OISD:
a) 20min
b) 30min
c) 40min
d) 50min
25. Capacities for internal hydrant pump ranges from:
a) 2747 lit/sec
b) 76114 lit/sec
c) 96171 lit/sec
26. The minimum size of the hydrant mains should not be less than:
a) 100mm
b) 125mm
c) 150mm
d) 175mm
27. The ground mains shall be supported at a regular interval of:
a) 1.5m
b) 2.5m
c) 3.5m
d) 4.5m
65
28. For the Down Comer pump is connected at:
a) Terrace level
b) Ground Level
c) Subsequent Floor
d) None of these
29. At Summers the Alternate type of sprinkler system is charged with:
a) Pressurized Air
b) Pressurized Nitrogen
c) Air
d) Water
30. At low hazard design density of discharge of sprinkler system is:
a) 2.0 lpm/m2
b) 2.25 lpm/m2
c) 2.5 lpm/m2
d) 2.75 lpm/m2
31. At a temperature of 182 Degree C the colour of the sprinkler glass bulb is:
a) Red
b) Yellow
c) Mauve
d) Black
32. The size of the sprinkler orifice for medium hazard areas:
a) 10mm
b) 15mm
c) 20mm
d) 25mm
33. Area covered by a sprinkler head for extra high hazard is:
a) 21 m2
b) 12 m2
c) 9m2
d) 6m2
66
34. Automatic Deluge Installation works on the principle of:
a) Pressure Difference
b) Density Difference
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
35. Inline Inductors are used:
a) To increase the discharge of water

b) To suck the foam by pick up tube
c) To Aerate the foam
d) None of these
36. An example Organic Foam:
a) AFFF
b) SF
c) ARAFFF
d) PF
37. Full Form of HVLR:
a) High Volume long Range

b) High Velocity long Range
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
38. Local Application in any area means:
a) Flooding of all the area of the premises

b) Application onto the fire
c) Application on the material likely to catch fire
d) Confining the fire in a particular area only
39. The DCP chemical normally called as Purple K:
a) Sodium bicarbonate NaHCO3

b) Sodium chloride NaCl
c) Potassium bicarbonate KHCO3
d) Potassium chloride KCl
40. Assumed Maximum Area of Operation for storage hazard of sprinkler system is:
a) 250m2
b) 270m2
c) 320m2
d) 360m2
67
41. Cooling Water flow rate for the tank on fire:
a) 3 lpm/m2
b) 5 lpm/m2
c) 7.1 lpm/m2
d) 8.2 lpm/m2
42. The fire water storage shall be present at the minimum distance of ______ for the
hazardous area:
a) 30m
b) 45m
c) 60m
d) 90m
43. The fire pump house shall be present at the minimum distance of ______ for the
hazardous area:
a) 30m
b) 45m
c) 60m
d) 90m
44. Every fire equipment and machinery shall be painted fire red from:
a) IS: 5 Shade 536

b) IS: 6 Shade 538
c) IS: 5 Shade 636
d) IS: 6 Shade 638
45. For any refinery fire water stream shall be designed for a minimum residual
pressure of:
a) 5 kg/cm2g
b) 7 kg/cm2g
c) 8.1 kg/cm2g
d) 10 kg/cm2g
46. Which detector is mostly suitable in open areas:
a) Smoke
b) Heat
c) Radiation
d) Laser Beam
68
47. What should be the characteristics of hose used?
a) Flexibility D
b) Hot Resistance and high pressure resistance
c) Abrasion and chemical resistance
d) All of the above
48. Which of the following system is based for fire protection in a computer room:
a) Water
b) Co2
c) DCP
d) Foam
49. Deepseated fires mainly occur in Coal due to:
a) Flash Point
b) Fire Point
c) Spontaneous ignition
d) Backdraft
50. Fire/smoke Dampers (for smoke extraction shafts) shall be provided for building more
than .......... meter in height:
a) 55
b) 20
c) 24
d) 15
69
Chapter 9
FIRE PROTECTION IN BUILDING
1.Which one of the following principles is used to determine the necessary exit width?

b) segregation
c) containment
d) concentration

and distinct parts?

a) 0 hour
b) 3/4 hour
c) 1 hour
d) 3 hours
70

Group D locations?
a) Type EX
b) Type ES
c) Type EE
d) Type E
8. Which THREE of the following are elements of structure within a building?

Columns/Staircase/Staircase/Beams
a) i, ii, iii
b) i, ii, iv
c) i, iii, iv
d) ii, iii, iv
9. Which of the following materials used for flashings and roofs melts at 327C and
therefore presents a danger of molten metal to firefighters working beneath the roof?
a) Copper
b) Zinc
c) Lead
d) Bronze
10. Which one of the following is not the key element of a fire safety management system?
a) Maintenance Plan
b) Staff Training Plan
c) Fire Action Plan
d) Fire Access Plan
a) Class A
b) Class D
c) Class B
d) None of these
71
12. Once Fire Prevention Services performs the annual maintenance inspection, which of
the following items will not be found on the extinguisher?
a) A tamper seal
b) A pull pin
d) An inspection tag.
a) Activate the building fire alarm to notify other occupants

c) Call emergency authorities.
14. The responsibility for Fire Prevention belongs to?
a) Managers
b) Supervisors
c) Everyone
d) Fire Department.
15. In the event of a fire alarm I should ?
a) Leave the building immediately.

b) Move to the back of the building
c) Keep working and not worry about it
d) Report it within a week
16. Hot work such as welding is controlled by?
a) Authorized hot work areas

b) Cold water sprays
c) Hot work permits
d) Both A and
17. If you see a fire hazard you should?
a) Report it as a safety hazard

b) Discuss it at the next safety meeting
c) Tell a co-worker
18. The State Fire Marshal is authorized at all reasonable times to enter and examine _____
for the purpose of making fire safety inspections.
a) any building.
b) any marine vessel or vehicle
c) any building, marine vessel, vehicle, or premises.
72
19. Before entering a private building or dwelling, the State Fire Marshal shall obtain
a) the consent of the occupant.

b) a search warrant authorizing his entry for the purpose of inspection except in those instances
where an emergency exists.
c) a or b are correct.
20. The State Fire Marshal, before entering a private building or dwelling, shall obtain the
consent of the occupant thereof or obtain a search warrant authorizing his entry for the
purpose of inspection except
a) when no consent of the occupant can be obtained and no search warrant can be issued
immediately.
b) in those instances where an emergency exists, circumstances which the State Fire Marshal
knows or has reason to believe immediate and grave danger to life or property may exist.
21. An area of refuge for a floor area is that space which is sufficiently protected from the
heat and toxic gases produced by a developing fire in the floor area and which provides a
direct access to an exit. An area of refuge is intended to facilitate a safe delay in egress from
the story containing the floor area, thus constitution a safe space for the handicapped or
otherwise disabled persons to await assistance for their safe evacuation. According to this
definition, an area of refuge is?
a) is a floor space sufficiently protected from the heat and toxic gases produced by a
developing fire in the ceiling area only.
b) is intended to provide a safe space for a handicapped or disabled person to wait for
assistance in the safe evacuation from a building.
c) is intended to be used as an immediate egress for the handicapped or otherwise disable
persons.
22. Which word is misspelled?
a) suppression.
b) prevention.
c) commission.
23. Which pair of words correctly complete the sentence? Fire Protection Specialists _____
_____ for providing support in fire protection technology to analyze and evaluate plans of
all new construction, additions, and renovations.
a) is responsibly
b) is – responsible
c) are – responsibly
d) are – responsible
73
24. Clear and detailed incident reports are important in prosecuting offenders. The
following sentences give you more information on report writing. All incidents, especially if
they may lead to prosecution, need to be documented in a report. The reports should be
written at the time of the event, while memory of the incident is still fresh. The report must
contain information on “who, what, where, when, why and how.” What is the most logical
order for the above sentences?
a) C, B,
b) A, B,
c) B, A,
25. Rescuers include trained personnel and ___________.
a) Managers
b) Volunteers
c) School boys
d) Fire fighters
e) College students
26. Which one of the following is NOT a component of rescue operations?
a) Tools
b) Rescuers
c) Courage
d) Time
e) Victim
27. The primary purpose of fire safety efforts is to ___________.
a) Protect property
b) Protect building occupants from injury
c) Protect the operation
d) Take into custody the most important documents
e) Save the wild animals
28. The basic strategy of fire prevention is to control and isolate _____.
a) Mob gathered on the scene

b) The building
c) The patients
d) Sources of fuel and heat
e) The roads leading to the scene
74
29. ___________hazard can be controlled to prevent injury or damage.
a) Negligible
b) Marginal
c) Critical
d) Catastrophic
e) Normal
30. The fire triangle includes oxygen, fuel and ____________.
a) Fire wood
b) Energy
c) Fire extinguishers
d) Chemicals
e) Extinguishing foams
31. _____________ is an emergency assessment element which is related to disaster

recovery.
a) Control assessment
b) Population monitoring and assessment
c) Hazard and environmental monitoring
d) Damage assessment
32. Mitigation of emergency management is the responsibility of ______.
a) Worker
b) Emergency manager
c) Labor
d) Top seat executive
e) Foreman
33. Emergency managers must lay strong emphasis on ___________ as part of the strategy
for the management of safety
a) Timely distribution of pay

b) Hazard identification
c) Recovery of hazard
d) Recruitment of right personnel
e) Efforts on building up a cooperative team
34. The safety policy should actively encourage effective _________.
a) Quality control
b) Tool management
c) Safety reporting
d) Safety of life
e) Safety precautions
75
35. The primary purpose of employee safety programme is to preserve the employees’?
a) Mental Health
b) Physical Health
c) Emotional Health
d) All of the above
36. Definition of fire?
a) A chemical reaction emitting light and heat.

b) Hot orange stuff
c) A South cast Radio Station
d) A Jimi Hendrix song.
37. How should a final exit door be marked?
a) White writing on Blue background

b) In bright red writing.
c) In Purple writing
d) Blue writing on yellow background
38. If there is a fire in the laboratory what are the right steps that should be taken?
a) Use fire extinguishers to put out the fire

b) Wait for someone to come
c) Shut off the gas and electricity only if you know how to; close the doors; exit the building;
pull fire alarm (located by each exit) on the way out; call Public Safety and tell them about the
fire
39. What does the unit W /m²K in respect of the performance of building materials refer to?
a) Shading coefficient
b) Energy efficiency ratio
c) Thermal transmittance
d) Life cycle assessment analysis
40. Automatic fire detection and alarm systems:
a) Automatically extinguish a fire

b) Always notify the municipal fire department
c) Provide employees with early warning of a fire situation or other emergency.
d) Must be tested daily
76
41. Sprinkler systems, fire doors, and fire alarms are all examples of:
a) Evacuation equipment
b) Fire extinguishing systems
c) Fire protection equipment.
d) All of the above
42. Poor housekeeping and piles of debris can be a fire hazard because:
a) Clutter can block the path during an emergency escape

b) Debris may contain oilsoaked rags or other combustible items
c) Fire extinguishers usually won’t work on trash fires
d) Both A and B)
77
Chapter 10
INTERNATIONAL LAWS RELATED TO SAFETY
1.Criteria for Accepted Practices in Safety, Health and Environmental Training
a) ANSI/ASSE Z490.12016
b) ANSI/ASSE A10.12011
c) ANSI/ASSE A10.32013
d) ANSI/ASSE A10.52013
2.PreProject & PreTask Safety and Health Planning
a) A,ANSI/ASSE A10.32013
3.Safety Requirements for PowderActuated Fastening Systems
a) ANSI/ASSE A10.22013
4.Safety Requirements for Personnel Hoists and Employee Elevators on Construction and
Demolition Sites
5.Safety Requirements for Material Hoists
6.Safety and Health Program Requirements for Demolition Operations
78
7.Safety Requirements for Transportation, Storage, Handling and Use of Commercial
Explosives and Blasting Agents
8.Package Safety Requirements for Transportation, Storage, Handling and Use of

Commercial Explosives and Blasting Agents with Comparison document
d) ANSI/ASSE A10.72011/with comparison document
9.Scaffolding Safety Requirements
10.Safety Requirements for Concrete and Masonry Work
11.Safety Requirements for Temporary and Portable Space Heating Devices
12.Safety Requirements for Personnel and Debris Nets
79
13.Safety Requirements for Excavation
a) ANSI/ASSE A10.121998 (R2010)

14.Safety Requirements for Steel Erection
a) ANSI/ASSE A10.121998 (R2010)

15.Safety Requirements for Dredging
a) ANSI/ASSE A10.151995 (R2011)

16.Safety Requirements for Tunnels, Shafts, and Caissons American National Standard for
Construction Demolition Operations
a) ANSI/ASSE A10.151995 (R2011)

17.Safety Requirements for Tunnels, Shafts, and Caissons American National Standard for
Construction and Demolition Operations with Comparison document for versions 1995 and
2009
a) ANSI/ASSE A10.151995 (R2011)

c) ANSI/ASSE A10.162009 Package
18.Safe Operating Practices for Hot Mix Asphalt (HMA) Construction
a) ANSI/ASSE A10.172006 (R2011)

80
19.Temporary Roof & Floor Holes, Wall Openings, Stairways Safety Requirements for, &
Other Unprotected Edges in Construction & Demolition Operations
a) ANSI/ASSE A10.172006 (R2011)

d) ANSI/ASSE A10.182007 (R2012)
20.Safety Requirements for Pile Installation and Extraction Operations
a) ANSI/ASSE A10.172006 (R2011)

d) ANSI/ASSE A10.182007 (R2012)
21.Safe Operating Practices for Tile, Terrazzo, and Marble Work
a) ANSI/ASSE A10.202006 (R2011)

d) ANSI/ASSE A10.182007 (R2012)
22.Safety Requirements for Rope Guided & Non Guided Workers' Hoists
a) ANSI/ASSE A10.202006 (R2011)

c) ANSI/ASSE A10.222007 (R2012)
d) ANSI/ASSE A10.182007 (R2012)
23.Roofing Safety Requirements for Low Sloped Roofs
a) ANSI/ASSE A10.202006 (R2011)

c) ANSI/ASSE A10.222007 (R2012)
24.Construction and Demolition Operations Sanitation in Construction
c) ANSI/ASSE A10.222007 (R2012)
81
25.Emergency Procedures for Construction and Demolition Sites
26.Hot Mix Asphalt Facilities
d) ANSI/ASSE A10.271998 (R2011)
27.Safety Requirements for Work Platforms Suspended from Cranes or Derricks
d) ANSI/ASSE A10.271998 (R2011)
28.Safety Requirements, Definitions and Specifications for Digger Derricks
29.Personal Fall Protection Used in Construction and Demolition Operations
30.Safety and Health Program Requirements for Multiemployer Program American

National Standard for Construction and Demolition Operations
82
31. Protection of the Public on or Adjacent to Construction Sites
d) ANSI/ASSE A10.342001 (R2012)
32. Debris Net Systems Used During Construction and Demolition Operations
d) ANSI/ASSE A10.342001 (R2012)
33. Basic Elements of an Employer Program to Provide a Safe and Healthful Work
Environment
c) ANSI/ASSE A10.382013.
34. Construction Safety and Health Audit Program
a) ANSI/ASSE A10.391996 (R2011)

c) ANSI/ASSE A10.382013.
35. Reduction of Musculoskeletal Problems in Construction
a) ANSI/ASSE A10.391996 (R2011)

d) ANSI/ASSE A10.402007 (R2013)
36. Safety Requirements for Rigging Qualifications and Responsibilities
a) ANSI/ASSE A10.391996 (R2011)

b) ANSI/ASSE A10.422000 (R2010)
d) ANSI/ASSE A10.402007 (R2013)
83
37. Control of Energy Sources (Lockout/Tag out) for Construction and Demolition
Operations
b) ANSI/ASSE A10.422000 (R2010)
d) ANSI/ASSE A10.402007 (R2013)
38. Hearing Loss Prevention for Construction and Demolition Workers
b) ANSI/ASSE A10.422000 (R2010)
39. Work Zone Safety for Highway Construction
b) ANSI/ASSE A10.422000 (R2010)
40.American National Standards for Ladders Wood Safety Requirements
b) ANSI ASC A14.12007
41. American National Standards for Ladders Portable Metal Safety Requirements
a) ANSI ASC A14.22007

42. American National Standards for Ladders Fixed Safety Requirements

d) ANSI ASC A14.32008
84
43. American National Standard Safety Requirements for Job Made Wooden Ladders

44. American National Standards for Ladders Portable Reinforced Plastic Safety
Requirements

c) ANSI ASC A14.52007
45. Safety Requirements for Mobile Ladder Stands and Mobile Ladder Stand Platforms

46. Safety Requirements for Disappearing Attic Stairways

d) ANSIASC A14.92010
47. Definitions and Nomenclature Used For Fall Protection and Fall Arrest
48. Safety Requirements for Personal Fall Arrest Systems, Subsystems and Components
d) ANSI/ASSE Z359.12007
49. Minimum Requirements for a Comprehensive Managed Fall Protection Program
c) ANSI/ASSE Z359.22007
85
50. Safety Requirements for Positioning and Travel Restraint Systems
51. Safety Requirements for Assisted Rescue and Self Rescue Systems, Subsystems and
Components
d) ANSI/ASSE Z359.42013
1. ANSI/ASSE Z359.62009
Specifications and Design Requirements for Active Fall Protection Systems
2. ANSI/ASSE Z359.72011
Qualification and Verification Testing of Fall Protection Products
3. ANSI/ASSE Z359.122009
Connecting Components for Personal Fall Arrest Systems
4. ANSI/ASSE Z359.132013
Personal Energy Absorbers and Energy Absorbing Lanyards
5. ANSI/ASSE Z359.142014
Safety Requirements for SelfRetracting Devices for Personal Fall Arrest and Rescue Systems
6. ANSI/ISEA 1012014
American National Standard for LimitedUse and Disposable Coveralls Size and Labeling
Requirements
7. ANSI/ISEA 1021990 (R2009)

American National Standard For Gas Detector Tube Units Short Term Type for Toxic Gases and
Vapors in Working Environments
8. ANSI/ISEA 1041998 (R2009)

American National Standard for Air Sampling Devices Diffusive Type for Gases and Vapors in
Working Environments
9. ANSI/ISEA 1052016
American National Standard for Hand Protection Classification
10. ANSI/ISEA 1072015

American National Standard for HighVisibility Safety Apparel and Accessories
86
11. ANSI/ISEA 1102009
American National Standard for AirPurifying Respiratory Protective Smoke Escape Devices
12. ANSI/ISEA 1132013

Fixed and Portable Decontamination Shower Units
13. ANSI/ISEA 2072011

American National Standard for HighVisibility Public Safety Vests
14. ANSI/ISEA Z308.12015

American National Standard û Minimum Requirements for Workplace First Aid Kits and
Supplies
15. ANSI/ISEA Z358.12014

American National Standard for Emergency Eyewash and Shower Equipment
16. ANSI/ISEA Z87.12015

American National Standard for Occupational and Educational Personal Eye and Face Protection
Devices
17. ANSI/ISEA Z89.12014

American National Standard for Industrial Head Protection
18. ANSI/ASSE A1264. Safety for Workplace Surfaces Package

ANSI/ASSE A1264.1 and ANSI/ASSE A1264.2 Workplace Safety Requirements for
Walking/Workplace Surfaces
19. ANSI/ASSE A1264.12007

Safety Requirements for Workplace Walking/Working Surfaces and Their Access; Workplace,
Floor, Wall and Roof Openings; Stairs and Guardrails Systems
20. ANSI/ASSE A126422012

Provision of Slip Resistance on Walking/Working Surfaces
21. ANSI/ASSE TRA1264.32007

Technical Report: Using Variable Angle Tribometers (VAT) for Measurement of the Slip
Resistance of Walkway Surfaces
22. 23. ANSI/AIHA/ASSE Z102012

Occupational Health and Safety Management Systems
24. BS OHSAS 18001 / BS OHSAS 18002 Occupational Health and Safety Package
BS OHSAS 18001 / BS OHSAS 18002 Occupational Health and Safety Package (British
Standard)
87
25. BS OHSAS 18001 / BS OHSAS 18002 / ISO 14001 Occupational Health and
Environmental Management Package
BS OHSAS 18001 / BS OHSAS 18002 / ISO 14001 Occupational Health and Environmental
Management Package (British Standard)
26. BS OHSAS 18001 / ISO 14001 Environmental and Occupational Health Management
Systems Package
BS OHSAS 18001 / ISO 14001 Environmental and Occupational Health Management Systems
Package (British Standard)
27. BS OHSAS 18001 / ISO 9001 / ISO 14001 Occupational Health and Safety Requirements
Package
Requirements Package for Occupational Health and Safety, Environmental Management and
Quality Management System (British Standard)
88
Chapter 11
Laws(national/International) related to electrical safety
1. Year Of establishment of Law for Electricity at work regulation?
a) 1989
b) 1986
c) 1987
d) 1979
2. Year Of establishment of Law for Electrical Equipment safety?
a) 1992
b) 1994
c) 1986
d) 1999
3. What does IEC Stands for?
a) International Electro technical Commission

b) International Electro Commission
c) International Electrical Commission
d) International Electro technology Commission
4. What does NEC STANDS FOR?
a) National Electric Code

b) Nation’s Electrical Code
c) Nation Electricity Code
d) National Electronic Code
5. Code of practice for earthing
a) BS 7430
b) BS 7671
c) BS 7909
d) BS 7478
6. Code for Operation of electrical installations?
a) BS EN 50110 Parts 6 and 2

a) BS EN 50110 Parts 1 and 4
b) BS EN 50120 Parts 1 and 2
c) BS EN 50110 Parts 1 and 2
89
7. Code for Standard Voltages?
a) IEC 60032
b) IEC 60038
c) IEC 60089
d) IEC 62278
8. What does BIS STANDS FOR?
a) Bureau of Indian Standards

b) Brewery of Indian Standards
c) Bureau of International Standards
d) Bureau of Indian Stature
9. Which Of the Following defines Ohm’s Law?
a) I=V/R
b) R=I/V
c) R=VI
d) P=IR
10. What is the speed of Light?
a) 5*10^9m/s
b) 3*10^8m/s
c) 6*10^7m/s
d) 10^10m/s
11. What does RCCB Stands for?
a) Residual current circuit breaker

b) Residue Current Circuit Breaker
c) Residual Circuit Current Breaker
d) Residue Current circuit Breakage
12 Standard for Electrical PPEs.?
a) OSHA 1910.137
b) OSHA 1910.231
c) OSHA 1912.587
d) OSHA 1912.303
13. Safety code for use , care and protection of hand operated tools?
a) IS 53
b) B IS 302
c) IS 56
d) IS 55
90
14. Code for accident prevention tags?
a) IS 8095
b) IS 8654
c) IS 8060
d) IS 8071
15. Resistance of wet skin?
a) 100000 ohm
b) 1000 ohm
c) 10 ohm
d) 400 ohm
16. Code for practice of earthing?
a) IS 3014
b) IS 3043
c) IS 3046
d) IS 3132
17. Code for safety of electrical equipment?
a) BS 60204
b) BS 60208
c) BS 60231
d) BS 60214
18. Classification for hazardous areas code?
a) IS 5572
b) IS 5578
c) IS 5564
d) IS 7879
19. Code for electrical equipment for use in explosive atmosphere?
a) IS 7724
b) IS 7789
c) IS 7785
d) IS7721
20. Code for electrical layout in residential buildings?
a) IS 4589
b) IS 4572
c) IS 4648
d) IS 7894
91
21.Code for electrical generating and distributing stations?
a) IS 3034
b) IS 3012
c) IS 3014
d) IS 8794
22.Code for transformer safety?
a) IS 1416
b) IS 4568
c) IS 4145
d) IS 1418
23.Unit electrical resistance ?
a) mho
b) ohm
c) volt
d) watt
24. Unit of Electric Conductance?
a) Siemens
b) seimer
c) Tesla
d) Weber
25. Unit of Electric Capacitance?
a) Colon
b) Coloumb
c) Coulomb
d) Farad
26. Unit of Electric Current?
a) Ampere
b) Ambience
c) Luminar
d) Farad
27. Unit of Quantity of Electricity?
a) Coulomb
b) Colombs
c) Cans
d) Caster
92
Q28. Standard dc distribution voltage?
a) 220/440V
b) 440/600V
c) 11KV/56V
d) 55KV/44
29. Standard system frequency?
a) 50HZ
b) 60HZ
c) 78HZ
d) 54HZ
30. Standard voltages for three phase system shall under?
a) 200V
b) 100V
c) 300V
d) 415V
31. Code of practice for the protection of buildings and allied structures against lightning?
a) IS 2309
b) IS 2314
c) IS 7894
d) IS 1236
32. Code of practice for electrical wiring installations?
a) IS 732
b) IS 799
c) IS 007
d) IS 047
33. Specification for danger notice plates?
a) IS 2551
b) IS 2550
c) IS 7894
d) IS4521
34. Recommendations on safety 1982 procedures and practices in electrical work CODE?
a) IS 5216
b) IS 5201
c) IS 5456
d) IS 2400
93
35. Recommended current ratings for cables CODE?
a) IS 3961
b) IS 3546
c) IS 4517
d) IS 7845
36. Guide for the control of undesirable static electricity CODE?
a) IS 7689
b) IS 7894
c) IS 6789
d) IS 1234
37. Testing, evaluation, installation and maintenance of ac electricity meters CODE?
a) IS 15707
b) IS 15647
c) IS 78546
d) IS 12345
38. Code of practice for design, installation and maintenance of service lines upto and
including 650 V?
a) IS 8654
b) IS 8061
c) IS 7894
d) IS 1249
39. Lighting fittings shall be at a height of not less than?
a) 2.25M
b) 5M
c) 4.3M
d) 1.56M
40. Which code gives a reference list of symbols and subscripts used in electrotechnology?
a) IS 3456
b) IS 3722
c) IS 345
d) IS 7846
94
41. Unit of Electric Inductance?
a) OHM
b) Tesla
c) HENRY
d) WEBER
42. Unit of Magnetic Flux?
a) WEBER
b) TESLA
c) COULOMB
d) MHO
43.Safety code for power industrial trucks?
a) IS 6325
b) IS 7846
c) IS 6305
d) IS 7416
95
Chapter 12
FIRE EXTINGUISHERS AND FIRE FIGHTING APPLIANCES
1. An extinguisher with an A rating is designed for use on which type of fire?
a) A fire involving energized electrical equipment

b) A fire involving flammable liquids
c) A fire involving combustible metals
2. An extinguisher with a D rating is designed for use on which type of fire?

a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class D
d) Class C
4. A fire involving ordinary combustible materials is classified as which type of fire?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class D
5. An extinguisher with a C rating is designed for use on which type of fire?

6. An extinguisher with an ABC rating is designed for use on which type of fire?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) All the Above
96

a) Once in a day
b) Once in a Week
c) Once in a month
d) Once in a year
should you take?
d) Call Fire Prevention Services so corrective action can be initiated
a) A tamper seal
b) A pull pin
12. An APW (Water Extinguisher) is safe to use on an electrical fire
a) True
b) False
13. Carbon Dioxide extinguishers are designed for which types Fire?
a) Class B and C
b) Class A B and C
c) Class D
d) Class A and D
97
14. ABC fire extinguishers extinguish fire by cooling it down.
a) True
b) False
15. The three elements of the fire triangle are
a) Water, a heat source, and fuel

b) Oxygen, water, and fuel
c) Oxygen, fuel, and a heat source
d) Fuel, oxygen, and earth
16. Water will not extinguish most flammable liquid fires.
a) True
b) False
17. What do you mix with sand to make a dry fire extinguisher?
a) salt
b) baking soda
c) Oil
d) foam
18. At least how many times per year should you check your smoke alarm batteries?
a) Once
b) Twice
c) Thrice
a) 100 GPM
b) 850 GPM
c) 700 GPM
d) 500 GPM
a) 0.433 psi
b) 2.31 psi
c) 14.7 psi
d) 29.9 psi
98

protection is the:

a) oldest
b) newest
c) most reliable
d) least reliable
24. A _________ is used to increase water pressure in sprinkler and standpipe systems and
to deliver the required amount of water
a) Fire hydrant
b) Fire pump
c) Fire motor
d) Fire jet
25. The pipes that run the height of the building and provide water outlets at each floor for
firefighters to connect hoses
a) Fire hydrant
b) Stand pipes
c) Jets
d) Pumps
26. What temperature will the vial in sprinkler system break at?
a) 180
b) 181
c) 182
d) 193
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27. When should a fire pump be inspected?
a) In a day
b) In a week
c) In a month
d) In an year
28. Maximum pressure allowed in a dry pipe system?
a) 200 KVA
b) 250 KVA
c) 275 KVA
d) 300 KVA
29. Ionization Detector detects _______ stage of fire
a) Incipient
b) Smoldering
c) Flame
d) Heat
30. Photoelectric Detector detects _______ stage of fire
a) Incipient
b) Smoldering
c) Flame
d) Heat
31. Flame stage of the fire is detected by ______ type of fire detector
a) Ionization Detector
b) Photoelectric Detector
c) Infrared Detector
d) Thermal Detector
32. Heat stage of fire is detected by _______ type of detector
a) Ionization Detector
b) Photoelectric Detector
c) Infrared Detector
d) Thermal Detector
33. A ___________ prevents sudden pressure surges which could cause a false alarm
a) Surge Tank
b) Retard Chamber
c) Retard Tank
d) Surge Chamber
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34. A __________ prevents water from reentering the water supply
a) Oneway clapper Valve

b) Oneway deluge Valve
c) Oneway backlash Valve
d) Oneway flow valve
35. The __________ detects decrease in air pressure and pipes air pressure below the
clapper valve, to speed up it’s opening in a dry pipe sprinkler system
a) Exhauster
b) Booster
c) Accelerator
d) Fast flow switch
36. If two or more sprinkler system are there in a residency, each sprinkler should have a
flow rate or water supply rate of _______
a) 11 Gallons per min

b) 13 Gallons per min
c) 15 Gallons per min
d) 20 Gallons per min
37. Standard for the Installation of Sprinkler Systems
a) NFPA 11
b) NFPA 13
c) NFPA 14
d) NFPA 15
38. Standard for the Installation of Standpipes and Hose Systems
a) NFPA 11
b) NFPA 13
c) NFPA 14
d) NFPA 15
39. A device designed for the purpose of reducing, regulating, controlling, or restricting
water pressure, static and residual.
a) Pressure Regulating Valve

b) Pressure Restricting Valve
c) Pressure Controlling Valve
d) Pressure Reducing Valve
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40. A valve or device designed for the purpose of reducing the downstream water pressure
under flowing (residual) conditions only.
a) Pressure Regulating Valve

b) Pressure Restricting Valve
c) Pressure Controlling Valve
d) Pressure Reducing Valve
41. What is the minimum start pressure for a standard sprinkler?
a) 7 psi
b) 8 psi
c) 9 psi
d) 10 psi
42. Min. pressure on suction side of fire pump?
a) 20 psi
b) 25 psi
c) 22 psi
d) 23 psi
43. A ______________ is a gate valve installed on the hydrant outlet for use by contractors.
It permits repeated opening and closing of the hydrant without using the regular valve
a) Deluge Valve
b) Jockey Valve
c) Eddy valve
d) Main Valve
44. A ______________ is a gate valve installed on the hydrant outlet for use by contractors.
It permits repeated opening and closing of the hydrant without using the regular
valve(GPM)
a) 800 GPM in each riser

b) 900 GPM in each riser
c) 1000 GPM in each riser
d) 1200 GPM in each riser
45. Full form of FD
a) Fire Direction Connection

b) Fire Departmental Committee
c) Fire Department Connection
d) Fire Deportment Connection
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46. Fire hose couplings are made of?
a) hard plastic
b) polyvinyl chloride
c) plastic and aluminium.
d) durable, rustproof materials.
47. Which fitting is used to connect a smaller diameter hose to the end of a larger one?
a) Reducer
b) Adapter
c) Strainer
d) Decreaser
48. Which hose tool can be installed when a hose line ruptures but must remain charged to
continue the fire attack?
a) Hose roller
b) Hose clamp
c) Hose jacket
d) Rubber mallet
49. Which hose lay is used when the pumper must first go to the fire location before laying
the supply line?
a) Reverse lay
b) Forward lay
c) Apparatus lay
d) Combination lay
50.Describe what the acronym PASS means
a) Pull, aim, squirt, squeeze

b) Pull, arm, squeeze, sweep
c) Pull, aim, squeeze, sweep
d) Pull, arm, sweep, swoosh
103
Chapter 13
BASICS OF FIRE, CLASS OF FIRE ETC…
1. Probability of the event that might occur X Severity of the event if it occurs
a) Accident
b) Hazard
c) Risk

_______ hazards from the industries
a) Reducing
b) Controlling
c) Elimination
d) All of the above

c) Cost of lost time of injured workers
d) All of the above
4. The following is(are) physical hazards agents
a) Falls
b) Electricity
c) Inhalation
d) All of the above
5. Check list for JSA(Job Safety Analysis) consist of
a) Work area, Material, Machine, Tools

b) Men, Machine, Material, Tools
c) Men, Machine, Work Area, Tools
d) Men, Work Area, Material, Tools
6. A Safety programme consists of
a) Three E’s
b) Four E’s
c) Five E’s
d) Six E’s
104
7. For Industrial wiring and small units, the following should for safety measure
a) MCB
b) Earthing
c) Grounding
d) ELCB
8. Which of the following color is used for radiation hazard
a) Red
b) Orange
c) Green
d) Purple
9. Decibel (dB) is a unit to measure
a) Light
b) Sound
c) Frequency
the present limit
a) Hoists
b) Conveyors
c) Machine Tables
d) All of the above
11. The following is (are) used as safely devices in machine
a) Fail Safe
c) Limit switches
d) All of the above
a) Wood
b) Oil
c) Transformer
d) Chemical
105
a) Class A fire
b) Class B fire
c) Class C fire
d) Class D Fire
a) Class A fire
b) Class B fire
c) Class C fire
d) Class D fire
a) Water
b) Soda Acid
c) Foam
d) Dry Chemical
16. ______ is best suited to extinguishing oil or flammable liquid fire
a) Soda Acid
c) Foam
d) Dry Chemical
17. What is the purpose of the environmental legislation?
a) To regulate the production of hazardous substances.

b) To specify the methods that must be used for storing hazardous substances.
c) To protect humans and the environment against hazardous substances.
18. What is the task of the government’s Health and Safety Inspection Service (formerly
the Labour Inspectorate?
a) Conduct consultations with employers concerning highrisk activities and provide advice
concerning the measures to be implemented)
b) Audit compliance with H&S legislation and the Working Hours Act.
c) Audit compliance with the CLA and arrangements specified in the Action Plan.
19. Which factor has a direct impact on the risks associated with work?
a) The Health and Safety Plan (H&S Plan).

b) The workplace
c) The supervision exercised by the client.
106
20. What is the objective of a task risk analysis?
a) To prepare for the proper execution of the work.

b) To control the risks associated with the work.
c) To eliminate all risks.
21. To whom should nearaccidents be reported?
a) To the Safety Officer.

b) To the Personnel Department.
c) To the immediate supervisor.
22. What is an example of safe behavior at the workplace?
a) Never use hazardous substances.

b) Always wear hearing protection.
c) Speak to others when they perform an unsafe action.
23. What is an important measure to avoid tripping?
a) partition must have a CE marking.

b) The workplace must be orderly and tidy.
c) Do not clean the work floor too often.
24. What is one of the employee’s obligations?
a) Supervise high risk activities.

b) Do not change protective devices and use them in the correct way.
c) Maintain an accident register.
25. What colours are used on signs for firefighting equipment?
a) Black pictogram on a yellow background

b) White pictogram on a red background
c) White pictogram on a green background
26. You are working on electrical installations. What is the best way to avoid accidents?
a) Inform a colleague where you will be working.

b) Disconnect the electrical power supply.
c) Carry out activities in twos.
107
27. What is one of the purposes of a work permit?
a) It allows the Occupational Health & Safety Service (Arbodienst) to determine whether the
involved employees need to undergo an examination.
b) All those involved in the work must consult about the safe execution of the work.
c) The government’s Health and Safety Inspection Service (formerly the Labour Inspectorate
) can check which activities are performed
28. What must be included in a company emergency plan?
a) The substances and processes on the site that can cause emergency situations.
b) The phases of coping with emergency situations.
c) When evacuation exercises are to be held)
29. Hazardous substances are classified by category. What are some of these categories?
(a) Harmful carcinogenic suffocating.

(b) Flammable corrosive harmless.
(c) Explosive highly/extremely flammable harmful.
30. What is the best way of limiting exposure to toxic substances?
a) By using another, nontoxic substance

b) By always having the same person work with the toxic substances.
c) By training employees in working with toxic substances.
31. What is an explosionhazardous environment?
a) An environment with too much gas and too little air.

b) An environment in which an explosive mixture can occur.
c) An environment where explosions are a frequent occurrenc
32. What is a risk associated with the use of a forklift truck?
a) The load may become dirty.

b) Collision with persons.
c) Hearing loss for nearby persons.
33. How should an acetylene bottle be positioned during welding?
a) The bottle must be positioned at an angle of at least 30° with the floor.
b) The bottle may be laid down on the floor.
c) The bottle must always be in an upright position.
108
34. Asbestos is encountered during demolition work. You may only remove the asbestos
yourself if simple actions suffice to do this. No dust or fibres may be released during
this process. Which specific safety measure, among others, must then be implemented?
a) The use of a P1 dust filter mask.

b) Wear disposable overalls.
c) Use a chute
35. What is the best safety provision for a floor opening?
a) Sufficient warning signs must be placed around the floor opening.

b) The floor opening must be covered with materials capable of carrying heavy loads.
c) The floor opening must be properly lit.
36. Hazards can arise during excavations due to the fact that there are many cables and
pipelines buried in the ground This is why ‘rules for careful excavation’ have been
established What is one of these rules?
a) Never dig in areas where cables or pipelines are known to be buried in the ground
b) B First manually dig trial trenches close to the specified location of the cables or
pipelines.
c) When using an excavator always use a toothed excavator bucket.
37. Skin has a specific electrical resistance What causes this electric resistance to decrease?
a) Perspiration.
b) Skin colour.
c) Ageing.
38. Why is insulation used for electrical conductors?
a) To limit the consequences of a short circuit.

b) To prevent contact with live parts.
c) To prevent damage
39. What is a risk associated with static electricity?
a) Static electricity can result in a spark which can cause an explosion.

b) Static electricity can cause nonconductive materials to catch fir
c) Static electricity carries virtually no risk.
40. What is important for manually lifting an object standing on the ground?
a) That your feet are spread out as far as possible

b) That after you have lifted the object you can turn it sideways.
c) That you lift with a straight back and bent knees.
109
41. What should you do with your personal protective equipment (PPE)?
a) Have an expert inspect it after every us

b) Take proper care of it.
c) Have your name put on it.
42. What is impossible for gloves to protect against?
a) Cold or heat.
b) Turning parts.
c) Hazardous substances.
43. What rule applies to the use of protective clothing?
a) Replace your clothing once a year.

b) Immediately replace torn/worn clothing at your own cost.
c) Immediately repair or replace torn/worn clothing.
110
Chapter 14
BASICS OF MECHANICAL (MECHANICAL ENGINEERING)
1. Rapping allowance is provided on a pattern to take care of
a) Distortion
b) Machining
c) easy withdrawal
d) Shrinkage
2. Brasses and bronzes are welded using
a) Carburising flame
b) Oxidizing flames
c) Reducing flame
d) Neutral flame
3. Reducing flame is obtained in oxyacetylene welding with
a) Excess of acetylene
b) Excess oxygen
c) Equal parts of both gases
d) Reduced acetylene
4. The output of a gas turbine is 300 KW and its efficiency is 20 percent, the heat supplied
is
a) 600 KW
b) 6000 KW
c) 150 KW
d) 15 KW
5. In up cut milling the work piece is fed
a) at angle of 60 deg to the cutter

b) against the rotating cutter
c) at the right angle to the cutter
d) in the direction of the cutter
6. Mandrels are used to hold
a) cutting tools
b) hollow work pieces
c) face plate
d) drill bits
111
7. In Industry of the developed nations the type of production most often occurring is
a) Mass production
b) Create lot production
c) Batch production
d) Single lot production
8. Draft on a pattern is provided for
a) facilitating withdrawal of the pattern from the mould

b) facilitating pattern making
c) easy lifting of the casting
d) providing for strinkage of the casting
9. A flat surface can be produced by a lathe machine, if the cutting tool moves _____
a) parallel to the axis of rotation of workpiece

b) perpendicular to the axis of rotation of workpiece
c) at an angle of 450
10. What is the function of cone pulley drive in lathe machines?
a) Drive the lead screw

b) Change the spindle speed
c) Drive the tailstock
d) All of the above
11. Which of the following is a mechanism for mechanized movements of the carriage along
longitudinal axis?
a) Crossslide
b) Compound rest
c) Apron
d) Saddle
12. The function of taper turning process is to ____
a) reduce the diameter of a workpiece along its length

b) reduce the diameter by removing material about an axis offset from the axis of workpiece
c) remove the material from end surface of a workpiece
d) all of the above
112
13. The process of bevelling sharp ends of a workpiece is called as ________
a) knurling
b) grooving
c) facing
d) chamfering
14. Which process squeezes metals into peaks and troughs with plastic deformation?
a) Grooving
b) Knurling
c) Reaming
15. Which of the following operations is/are performed on a lathe machine?
a) Spotfacing
b) Parting
c) Reaming
d) All of the above
16. The process of chamfering the entrance of a drilled hole is known as_____
a) counterboring
b) countersinking
c) counterfillet
d) trepanning
17. On drilling machine, which process is known as reaming?
a) Enlargement of existing hole

b) Hole made by removal of metal along the hole circumference
c) Smoothly finishing and accurately sizing a drilled hole
d) All of the above
18. Which of the following statements is/are false for machine tools?
1. Pillar drilling machine drills holes up to 75 mm

2. Regulating wheel is a component of surface grinding machine
3. Sensitive drilling machine is also known as bench drilling machine
4. The chuck of an internal grinding machine placed in tailstock is driven by an electric motor
a) Only 1
b) 2 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) All of the above
113
19. Which of the following energy conversion devices convert heat into work?
a) Electrical generators
b) C engines
c) Condensers
d) All of the above
20. Lancashire boilers are ______
a) externally fired boilers

b) internally fired boilers
c) both and
21. Smoke tube boilers have large water to steam ratio, hence _____
a) have high evaporation rates

b) are slow in operations
c) temperature stresses inducing failure of feed water arrangement are maximum
d) all of the above
22. Which of the following statements are false for reaction turbines?
1. Flow of water can be regulated without any losses

2. It works on the principle of impulse and reaction
3. They are suitable for low heads
4. Water flows at constant atmospheric pressure over the runner
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 1 and 4
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
23. In four stroke cycle engine, cycle is completed in ______
a) two strokes of the piston

b) two revolutions of the crankshaft
c) three strokes of the piston
d) four revolutions of the crankshaft
24. Thermal efficiency of S.I. engines is low, due to ____
a) low compression ratio

b) high compression ratio
114
25. Pump transfers input mechanical energy of an engine, into ______
a) pressure energy of a fluid

b) kinetic energy of a fluid
c) both and
26. Which of the following protects penstock due to sudden variation of flow or velocity of
water?
a) Anchors
b) Forebays
c) Trash rack
d) Surge tank
27. One ton of refrigeration is equal to ______
a) 120 B Th U/hr
b) 200 B Th U/hr
c) 1200 B Th U/hr
d) 12000 B Th U/hr
28. What is the function of a moderator?
a) Increases the speed of neutrons

b) Increases the speed of electrons
c) Reduces the speed of neutrons
d) Reduces the speed of electrons
29. In an isolated system, ________ can be transferred between the system and its
surrounding.
a) only energy
b) only mass
c) both energy and mass
d) neither energy nor mass
30. Which of the following is an extensive property?
a) Volume
b) Pressure
c) Viscosity
d) All of the above
115
31. How is absolute pressure measured?
a) Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure

b) Gauge pressure – Atmospheric pressure
c) Gauge pressure / Atmospheric pressure
32. The extensive properties of a system, _______
a) are independent of the mass of the system

b) depend upon temperature of the system
c) depend upon the mass of the system
33. An isobaric process, has constant _____
a) density
b) pressure
c) temperature
d) volume
34. The radiation pyrometers work on the principle of ______
a) Newton's law
b) Stefan Boltzmann's law
c) Zeroth law
35. Which of the following relations depict relation between Celsius and Fahrenheit scale?
a) (oC / 5) = (oF – 32) / 9

b) (oC / 9) = (oF – 32) / 5
c) (oC / 32) = (oF – 9) / 5
36. According to Joule's law, the internal energy of a perfect gas is the function of absolute
______
a) density
b) pressure
c) temperature
d) volume
116
37. According to KelvinPlanck statement, it is impossible to construct a device operating on
a cycle which transfers heat from ____
a) low pressure heat reservoir to high pressure reservoir

b) low temperature heat reservoir to high temperature reservoir
c) high pressure heat reservoir to low pressure reservoir
d) high temperature heat reservoir to low temperature reservoir
38. Which of the following relations is true, for coefficient of performance (O.P)?
a) (O.P)heat pump – (O.P)refrigerator = 1

b) (O.P)heat pump – (O.P)refrigerator > 1
c) (O.P)heat pump – (O.P)refrigerator < 1
d) (O.P)heat pump – ( O.P)refrigerator = 0
39. What are the minimum number of kinematic pairs required in a kinematic chain?
a) 2 kinematic pairs
b) 3 kinematic pairs
c) 4 kinematic pairs
40. According to Grashof's law in a four bar chain, one link can complete a rotation only if
________
a) (sum of longest and shortest link length) ≥ (sum of the remaining two link lengths)
b) (sum of longest and shortest link length) ≤ (sum of the remaining two link lengths)
c) (sum of longest and shortest link length) = (sum of the remaining two link lengths)
41. Beam engine mechanism is an example of
a) double crank mechanism

b) double lever mechanism
c) crank and lever mechanism
42. Which of the following inversions of four bar chain, convert oscillatory motion from one
lever to another lever?
a) Ackermann steering gear mechanism

b) Beam engine mechanism
c) Coupled wheels of locomotive
d) All of the above
117
43. Which of the following statements is/are true for mechanisms?
a) A slider crank mechanism is formed, if one link in slider crank chain is fixed
b) Three kinematic links joined together forms a mechanism
c) Kinematic chain is a part of kinematic pair
d) All of the above
44. Which body transmits force with negligible deformation?
a) Elastic body
b) Resistant body
c) Deforming body
d) All of the above
45. What is the primary function of mechanism?
a) Power transmission
b) Power absorption
c) Force transmission
d) Motion transmission
46. Which of the following is an inversion of four bar chain?
a) Coupled wheels of locomotive

b) Whitworth quick return mechanism
c) Reciprocating air compressor
d) Hand pump
47. What are the number of sliding and turning pairs in a slider crank mechanism?
a) 1 sliding pair and 3 turning pairs

b) 2 sliding pairs and 2 turning pairs
c) 3 sliding pairs and 1 turning pair
48. Which of the following is a not a surface finishing process?
a) Honing
b) Buffing
c) Lapping
d) Turning
118
49. Match the following Manufacturing processes with their Types and select the correct
option.
1. Metal forming Grinding

2. Surface finish Rivetting
3. Sheet metal working Extrusion
4. Metal joining Blanking
a) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B
b) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B
c) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
d) 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – C
50. Which of the following factors reduce strength of casted components?
a) Blow holes
b) Gas cavities
c) Nonmetallic incursions
d) All of the above
119
Chapter 15
NBC Part/4
1. The minimum width of tread without nosing shall be_______
a) 250
b) 300
c) 350
d) 200
2. As per the NBC, all buildings are classified according to the use or the character of
occupancy into ________ type
a) 7
b) 5
c) 9
d) 10
3. The maximum height of riser shall be _______ for residential buildings
a) 250
b) 220
c) 190
d) 180
4. The height of a store room shall be not less than _______m
a) 1m
b) 2m
c) 3m
d) 2.2m
5. The height of a garage shall be not less than _________m
a) 2.4
b) 3.0
c) 2.5
d) 2.7
6. The size of a store room, where provided in a residential building, shall be not less
than________m2
a) 4
b) 3
c) 2.5
d) 2
120
7. Building in which separate sleeping accommodation for a total of not more than 40
persons is called as____________ building
a) Dormitories
b) storage
c) lodging or rooming house
d) Apartments
8. Building or group of buildings under single management which is used for students not
less than 100 in numbers is called___________ Building
a) Secondary level building

b) Hazardous
c) All Other / Training Institutions
d) Business
9. Group C buildings are subdivided in to __________ types
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 2
10. Building or group of buildings under single management, which is used for housing
persons suffering from physical limitations is called as ____________building
a) Hazardous
b) Assembly
c) Hospital
d) Custodial
11. Group D buildings are subdivided in to__________
a) 7
b) 6
c) 4
d) 8
12. The building which does not have height restriction is _______
a) B1
b) E3
c) G2
d) A6
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13. Any building with a height of 15 m or more is called as__________ buildings
a) High rise
b) low medium
c) medium
d) Tall
14. The fire resistance of a building or its structural and nonstructural elements is expressed
in_________
a) Days
b) Hours
c) Minutes
d) Seconds
15. Color of exit sign is________
a) Red
b) Green
c) yellow
d) Orange
16. Auditorium / theatre, etc – illumination during the period of performance not less than
_________lux
a) 3
b) 4
c) 2
d) 7
17. Exit door way shall not be less than _________mm
a) 1200
b) 1500
c) 1000
d) 800
18. Minimum separate means of exit for A1 building is_________
a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5
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19. Minimum number of Basement exit for A5 is _________
a) 3
b) 5
c) 2
d) 1
20. For assembly building, minimum width of stair is_________m
a) 2
b) 4
c) 10
d) 8
21. No external stairs used as fire escape shall be inclined at an angle greater than ______
degrees from the horizontal
a) 60
b) 45
c) 30
d) 50
22. _____ leads people from a floor area to another floor at or near the same level in an
adjoin building
a) Ramps
b) Fire tower
c) Horizontal exits
d) Lifts
23. The area (refuge area) should have direct connectivity to the fire escape staircase if
height of building greater than ________m
a) 20
b) 24
c) 26
d) 25
24. Fire Towers are normally recommended for building of height more than ________m
a) 15
b) 20
c) 24
d) 25
123
25. Slope of ramps shall not be more than________
a) 1 in 6
b) 1 in 10
c) 1 in 8
d) 1 in 1
26. Minimum capacity for lifts is_________ passengers
a) 5
b) 10
c) 4
d) 8
27. A spiral fire escape shall be not less than ________mm in diameter
a) 1000
b) 1800
c) 1500
d) 1200
28. External ladders are not provided for buildings of height less than ________m
a) 10
b) 12
c) 18
d) 20
29. Generally, up to ________m height, vertical ladders are provided
a) 25
b) 20
c) 30
d) 32
30. Buildings used primarily for storage or sheltering of goods, wares or merchandise,
vehicles or animals is called as __________buildings
a) Storage
b) Hazardous
c) Business
d) Assembly
124
31. Aircraft hangar is an example of ________ building
a) Industrial
b) Storage
c) Assembly
d) Business
32. Mercantile buildings are further subdivided in to _______types
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
33. Liable to give rise to a fire which will burn with moderate rapidity and give off a
considerable volume of smoke are called as _______buildings
a) G1
b) G2
c) G3
d) G4
34. Multiplexes is an example of _______ building
a) Assembly
b) Storage
c) Business
d) Entertainment
35. Whenever more than one exit is required, exits shall be placed _______ from each other
as possible
a) Near
b) Remote
c) Far
d) Very far
36. The minimum size of the site for group housing multistoreyed apartment shall be
__________m2
a) 2200
b) 3000
c) 2500
d) 3200
125
37. Every occupied room shall have at least _____means of exit
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 2
38. Group A buildings are subdivided in to__________
a) 7
b) 6
c) 4
d) 8
39. Building primarily meant for use as described for subdivision D3, but for less than 300
persons, and with no permanent seating arrangements are _______buildings
a) D2
b) D5
c) D4
d) D6
40. Maximum number of riser is _______per flight
a) 12
b) 14
c) 15
d) 18
41. Gap between verticals should not be more than _______mm
a) 300
b) 250
c) 400
d) 320
42. The unit of the exit width used to measure the capacity of any exit shall be
_________mm
a) 400
b) 1000
c) 500
d) 600
126
43. Building in which group sleeping accommodation is provided, with or without dining
facilities for persons who are not members of the same family, in one room or a series of
closely associated rooms is called as _________
a) Apartment
b) Dormitory
c) Hotels
d) Family Dwelling
44. Fire Towers are normally recommended for building of height more than ________m
a) 15
b) 20
c) 24
d) 25
45. Generally, up to ________m height, vertical ladders are provided
a) 25
b) 20
c) 30
d) 32
46. The height of all rooms for human habitation shall not be less than _______m
a) 2.5
b) 2.2
c) 2.75
d) 3.0
47. The minimum clear head room under a beam, folded plates or eaves shall be _______m
a) 2.4
b) 2.5
c) 2.3
d) 2.6
48. The area of a kitchen where separate dining area is provided, shall be not less
than _______m2
a) 6.0
b) 4.0
c) 5.0
d) 7.5
127
49. Every bathroom have a window or ventilator, opening to a shaft or open space, of area
not less than______m2
a) 1
b) 0.3
c) 0.75
d) 0.50
50. The height of a garage shall be not less than _________m
a) 2.4
b) 3m
c) 2.5
d) 2.7
128
Chapter 16
IS CODES RELATED TO FIRE AND SAFETY
1. Which of the following should not be considered as exit?
a) Doorway
b) Corridor
c) Passageway
d) Lifts and escalators.
2. What should be provided at appropriate places along the escape routes to prevent spread
of fire and smoke and particularly at the entrance to lifts and stairs where a ‘funnel or flue
effect’ may be created, including an upward spread of fire?
a) Fire resistant blanket

b) Fire check doors
c) Ventillation
d) Horizontal exits
3. Occupant load in dormitory portions of homes for the aged, orphanages, insane asylums
etc, where sleeping accommodation is provided, should be calculated at not less than _____
gross floor area/person.
a) 8 m2
b) 12 m2
c) 7.5 m2
d) 10 m2
4. The unit of exit width, used to measure the capacity of any exit, should be _______.
a) 50 cm
b) 90 cm
c) 45 cm
d) 60 cm
5. The travel distance to an exit from the dead end of a corridor should not exceed________
in educational, assembly and institutional occupancies.
a) 4m
b) 5m
c) 6m
d) 3m
129
6. What is the maximum travel distance for residential, educational and institutional
occupancies for both type I and II construction?
a) 30 m
b) 45 m
c) 50 m
d) 22.5 m
7. How many staircases are to be provided in all buildings which are more than 15 m in
height and all buildings used as educational ( B ), assembly ( D ), institutional ( F ),
industrial ( G ), Storage ( H ), and hazardous ( J ) occupancies and mixed occupancies with
any of the aforesaid occupancies, having area more than 500 m2 on each floor?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
8. What is the fire resistant rating of the enclosure of fire tower?
a) 3 hr
b) 4 hr
c) 2 hr
d) 1 hr
9. What is the maximum height of riser for residential buildings?
a) 10 cm
b) 12 cm
c) 15 cm
d) 19 cm
10. What is the maximum height of buildings other than residential building?
a) 10 cm
b) 12 cm
c) 15 cm
d) 19 cm
130
11. A temporary structure consisting of standards, putlogs, ledgers, generally of bamboo,
ballies, timber or metal to provide a working platforms for workmen and materials in the
course of construction, maintenance, repairs and demolition, and also to support or allow
hoisting and lowering of workmen, their tools and materials is known as____.
a) Standard or Upright
b) Scaffold
c) Transom
d) Brace
12. A vertical or near vertical member used in the construction of scaffold for transmitting
the load to the foundation is known as ______.
a) Standard or Upright
b) Scaffold
c) Transom
d) Brace
13. A barrier placed along the edge of the scaffold platform and secured there to guard
against the falling of material and equipment is known as________
a) Guard Rail
b) brace
c) Transom
d) ToeBoard
14. A horizontal rail secured to uprights and erected along the exposed edges of scaffolds to
prevent workmen from falling is known as________
a) Guard Rail
b) brace
c) Transom
d) ToeBoard
15. An inclined member fixed to a scaffold to ensure its stability is known as_______
a) Jhula
b) Tie
c) Raker
d) Trestle
16. A member used to tie a scaffold for a structure to prevent horizontal movement of the
scaffold is known as ______
a) Jhula
b) Tie
c) Raker
d) Trestle
131
17. What is the maximum distance between braced bays in any lift of scaffold?
a) 9m
b) 20 m
c) 10 m
d) 12 m
18. What is the maximum vertical spacing of ties?
a) 2m
b) 4m
c) 9m
d) 5m
19. Which of the following shall be provided at each end of the scaffold and if the length of
the scaffold exceeds 15 metres
a) Longitudinal Bracing
b) Tying
c) Heel and Toe braces
d) Transom
20. Which of the following is used when horizontal distance between ties is excessive?
a) Plan bracing
b) Longitudinal bracing
c) Transverse bracing
21. Which of the following is the use of reef knot?
a) To prevent ropes running through blocks

b) To secure a rope to a spar
c) For extending or joining of rages.
22. Which of the following is the use of thumb or overhand knot?

23. Which of the following is the use of clove hitch knot?

132
24. Which of the following are not the Means of access?
a) ladder,
b) ramp
c) stairway.
d) Scaffolds
25. Portable ladders should be placed at an angle of ______ from the horizontal.
a) 45 degree
b) 50 degree
c) 75 degree
d) 60 degree
26. What is the maximum slope of the ramp?
a) 2 in 3
b) 1 in 4
c) 1 in8
d) 1 in 10
27. What is the use of fibre rope?
(a) used for construction of ballies / bamboos scaffolds and staging, and also for hoisting and
tying the scaffolds.
(b) To prevent ropes running through blocks
(c) To secure a rope to a spar
(d) For extending or joining of rages.
28. Metal scaffolds shall conform to ______
(a) IS: 33371978

(b) IS: 36291966
(c) IS: 27501964
(d) IS: 2 I960
29. How often Metal ladders shall be inspected?
(a) weekly
(b) once in two month
(c) once in a year
(d) once in three month
133
30. How often wooden ladders shall be inspected?
(a) weekly
(b) once in two month
(c) once in a year
(d) once in three month
31. When step ladders shall be used?
(a) Where strenuous action on the part of the workman is called for.
(b) Fully open position and fixed with a safety locking Devic
(c) only up to 18 m in length.
32. When extension ladders shall be used?
(a) Where strenuous action on the part of the workman is called for.
(b) Fully open position and fixed with a safety locking Devic
(c) only up to 18 m in length.
33. A structure consisting of putlogs or bearers, the cutor ends of which are supported on
standards or ledgers secured to a single row of standards and the inner ends resting on a
wall is known as______
a) Single Pole Scaffold

b) Double Pole Scaffold
c) Outrigger Scaffold
d) Raker
34. A scaffold supported by two rows of standards connected together longitudinally by

ledgers and transversally by transoms or bearers and suitably braced is known as________
a) Single Pole Scaffold

b) Double Pole Scaffold
c) Outrigger Scaffold
d) Raker
35. What is outrigger scaffold?
a) A self-supporting framework of timber or metal on which a working platform is laid

b) An inclined member fixed to a scaffold to ensure its stability.
c) A member used to tie a scaffold for a structure to prevent
d) A scaffold, the platform of which is supported by outriggers or thrust outs projecting from
the building, the inner ends of which are secured inside the building.
134
36. A short member of shoring and timbering which directly resists the downward
movement of strut or wale is known as________
a) Sheathing
b) Cleat
c) Strut
d) Trench
37. Any excavation in the ground where the depth of the excavation exceeds the width is
known as______
a) Sheathing
b) Cleat
c) Strut
d) Trench
38. What is Sheathing?
a) A short member of shoring and timbering which directly resists the downward movement of
strut or wall.
b) The vertical members of shoring and timbering which directly resist pressure from the side
of a trench.
c) A transverse member of shoring and timbering which directly resists pressure from
sheathing or Wales.
d) A longitudinal member of shoring and timbering which directly resists pressure from
sheathing
39. What is Strut?
a) A short member of shoring and timbering which directly resists the downward movement of
strut or wall
b) The vertical members of shoring and timbering which directly resist pressure from the side
of a trench.
c) A transverse member of shoring and timbering which directly resists pressure from
sheathing or Wales.
d) A longitudinal member of shoring and timbering which directly resists pressure from
sheathing
40. A longitudinal member of shoring and timbering which directly resists pressure from
sheathing is known as______
a) Sheathing
b) Cleat
c) Strut
d) Wale
135
41. A line of piles driven in the soil to create a barrier or retaining wall is known as______
a) Sheathing
b) Cleat
c) Sheet Pilling
d) Wale
42. What is the volume of oxygen considered to be unfit for workmen working in trenches?
a) less than 19 %
b) more than 19%
c) less than 18%
d) more than 18%
43. Which of the following is not a hazard in excavation?
a) Quicksand
b) Effect of freezing and thawing
c) Caving
d) Water content or degree of saturation
44. Which of the following material shall be used for shoring and timbering?
a) Sal wood
b) Timber
c) Concrete steel
d) Composite material
45. What is the maximum travel distance for high hazard industries?
a) 20 m
b) 22.5 m
c) 30 m
d) 25.5 m
46. A horizontal member which ties the standard at right angles and which may support
putlogs and transoms is known as_______
a) Putlog
b) Transom
c) Ledger
d) Brace
136
47. What is putlog or boarer?
a) A member spanning across ledgers/standards to tie a scaffold transversely and which may
also support a working platform.
b) A member fixed diagonally across two or more members in a scaffold to afford stability.
c) A vertical or near vertical member used in the construction of scaffold for transmitting the
load to the foundation.
d) A scaffold member spanning from ledger to ledger or from ledger/standard to a building and
upon which the platform rests.
48. A member spanning across ledgers/standards to tie a scaffold transversely and which
may also support a working platform is known as_______
a) Putlog
b) Transom
c) Ledger
d) Brace
49. A member fixed diagonally across two or more members in a scaffold to afford stability
is known as______
a) Putlog
b) Transom
c) Ledger
d) Brace
50. It is a self-supporting framework of timber or metal on which a working platform is lai

What is it?
a) Trestle
b) Raker
c) Toe board
d) Guard rail
137
Chapter 17
CHEMICAL HAZARDS ( MSDS)
1. The Acronym “MSDS” stands for
a) Mass Safety Data Sheet

b) Material Security Data Sheet
c) Material Safety Data Sheet
d) Master Security Data Sheet
e) Miscellaneous Safety Detail Summary
2. In India, MSDS has been mandated under which law?
a) The Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemicals Rules, 1989

b) The Chemical Accidents (Emergency Planning, Preparedness and Response) Rules, 1996
c) The Factories Act, 1948
d) The Central Motor Vehicle Rules, 1989
e) None of the above
3. Which one of the following statements is not correct about MSDS?
a) It provides single reference for all information about hazardous Chemicals.

b) It is based on the recommendation of the United Nation’s Committee of Experts on Globally
Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemical;
c) Material Safety Data sheet forms the important elements of effective Chemical Hazards
Communication System.
d) It is a document prepared by the manufacturers/suppliers of the Chemical.
e) It does not contain information on physical and chemical properties of the material, potential
hazards of the material and how to work safely with these materials.
4. Which one of the following statements is not correct about GHS?
a) The Acronym “GHS” stands for Globally Harmonized System of classification and labelling
of Chemicals.
b) The recommendations by the GHS Committee are contained in purple Book.
c) As per latest recommendations on GHS, the Safety Data Sheet should have information
presented under 16 headings.
d) The recommendations of GHS Committee are binding on all Countries of the World
e) UN GHS provides for the content and format of Safety Data Sheets.
5. After how many years/period MSDS sheets are normally required to be updated?
a) Every year
b) Every 3 years
c) Every 5 years
d) No periodicity prescribe
e) Every six months
138
6. Which of the following information cannot be found in MSDS?
a) First Aid Measures

b) Accidental Release measures
c) Composition /information on ingredients
d) Handling and Storage information
e) Medicine to be taken by the effected person if exposed to the Chemical
7. Which of the following information is not provided in the Section of an MSDS dealing
with Chemical Identification?
a) Name of the Chemical

b) Name of the manufacturer and it’s address
c) Emergency contact number
d) CAS No. of the Chemical
e) Toxicity of the Ingredients of the Chemical
8. The term “CHEMTREC” stands for
a) Chemical Transportation Emergency Centre

b) Chemical Training Centre
c) Chemical Treatment Centre
d) Chemical Toxicity Recovery Centre
e) Chemical Toxicity Research Centre
9. Which of the following information is contained in the Section of the MSDS dealing
with Hazards Identification?
a) Toxicology of the chemical

b) The acute ( short term) health effect
c) The chronic ( long term) health effect
d) The signs and symptoms of exposure
e) (a), and above
10. Which of the following statement is not correct about the term Oral LD50 Acute:
___mg/kg (Rat) expressed in MSDS sheet?
a) The term “LD 50” means Lethal Dose 50 and it specifies doses of chemical substance
expressed in milligram per kg body weight of the test animal.
b) Test animal is rat and chemical has been given through oral route in short time frame
c) 50% of the test animals are likely to die when exposed to the dose and given through route
specified
d) It indicates potential toxic effect of the Chemical on health.
e) The same doses of the Chemical if given to another test animal will have the same result.
139
11. Which of the following information about the chemical substance is not provided in the
section of the MSDS dealing with stability and reactivity?
a) Flash Point
b) Flammable limits
c) Fire Hazards and Explosion Hazards
d) Fire Fighting media and instruction
e) Packaging of the Chemical
12. Which of the following is not correct about “Flammable limit” of the Chemical
Substance?
a) It indicate the concentration range of vapours of the Chemical Substance in which a

flammable substance can produce a fire or explosion when an ignition source ( such as spark
or open flame) is present
b) Below the lower flammable limit, the concentration of vapour in air is too low to burn.
c) Above the upper flammable limit, the concentration of vapour in air is too rich in fuel but
deficient in oxygen to burn.
d) (a), and above
13. Which of the following option reflect the correct position with regard to flash point,
flame point and autoignition point.
a) Flash point > Flame point > Autoignition point

b) Flash point< Flame point < Autoignition point
c) Flash point > Flame point < Autoignition point
d) Flash point < Flame point > Autoignition point
e) Flash point = Flame point < Autoignition point
14. Which of the following statements is correct about Flash point?
a) It is the lowest temperature at which vapours of the substance will have unsustained fire in
presence of ignition source
b) It is the lowest temperature at which vapours of the substance will have sustained fire in the
c) It is the lowest temperature at which vapours of the substance will automatic start burning
even without presence of ignition source
d) It is the lowest concentration at which vapours of the substance will have sustained fire if
once ignited with ignition source
e) It is the lowest concentration at which vapours of the substance will automatic start burning
even without ignition source
140
15. Which one of the following statements is correct about the term Threshold Limit Value
(TLV)?
a) A concentration level expressed in ppm (part of the vapour per million partof contaminated
air) up to which it is believed a worker can be exposed day after day for working without any
adverse health effect.
b) A concentration level in ppm (part of the vapour per million part of contaminated air) upto
which a worker can be exposed for a day (24 hrs) for working without any adverse health
effect.
c) A concentration level in ppm (part of the vapour per million part of contaminated air) upto
which a worker can be exposed for 12 hours without any adverse health effect.
d) A concentration level in ppm (part of the vapour per million part of contaminated air) to
which it is believed a worker can be exposed for 4 hours without any adverse health effect.
16. The term “Teratogenic Effect” with reference to exposure to the Hazardous Chemical,
means,
a) Effect on Genes
b) Effect on the unborn child
c) Effect on rate of Cell mutation in the body
d) Effect of development of the Children
e) Effect on individual organ in the body
.
17. The term “Mutagenic Effect” with reference to exposure to the Hazardous Chemical,
means,
a) Effect on Genes
18. The hazardous chemical can enter the human body through which of the following
routes:
a) Ingestion
b) Inhalation
c) Eye contact
d) Skin Contact
e) All the above
19. Halogenoarenes are banned due to its
a) degradation
b) unreactiveness
c) nontoxicity
d) all of them
141
20. Examples of airreactive include
a) metallic potassium, metallic sodium

b) ethanol, nhexane
c) NaCN, phenol
21. Cryogenic liquids are materials with boiling points of less than −73 oC (−100 oF).
Liquid nitrogen, helium, and argon, and slush mixtures of dry ice with isopropanol are
the materials most commonly used in cold traps to condense volatile vapors from a
system. In addition, oxygen, hydrogen, and helium are often used in the liquid stat The
primary hazards of cryogenic liquids include:
a) fire or explosion
b) pressure buildup
c) embrittlement of structural materials
d) asphyxiation
e) frostbite
f) all of the above
22. The label DANGER on a chemical container most accurately signifies
a) that the hazards can cause less than serious injury

b) that users should be careful when using, handling, or storing the chemical
c) that the hazards can cause serious injury
23. The CAS registry number is
a) a rating of toxicity
b) a unique identifying number for each chemical
c) a rating of flammability
24. Major factors in toxicity include
a) dose
b) personal factors such as age and gender
c) the route of exposure
d) all of the above
25. Exposure to dilute aqueous hydrofluoric acid is indicated by
a) rapid reddening of the affected area

b) an immediate burning sensation
c) no immediate pain, but then, after several hours, excruciating pain
142
26. FLAMMABLE means
a) easily ignited and capable of burning rapidly

b) capable of autoignition at or only slightly above room temperatur
c) the opposite of "inflammable"
27. The label CORROSIVE on a chemical container indicates
a) that the material can degrade rapidly upon exposure to air

b) that contact destroys living tissue as well as equipment
c) that the material is an oxidant
28. An LD50 of 20 in mice indicates that
a) 50% of a test population of 100kg mice would be expected to die within a certain time
period if exposed to 20 g
b) 50% of a test population of 100kg mice would be expected to die within a certain time
period if exposed to 20 ppm of the vapor
c) 50% of a test population of 100g mice would be expected to die within a certain time period
if exposed to 2 mg
29. Chronic poisoning
a) is characterized by repeated exposure over months or years

b) is characterized by rapid assimilation of the substance
c) always has a sudden effect
d) is usually fatal
30. Spilled mercury
a) is dangerous in liquid form, because it absorbs directly through the skin

b) is an acute poison
c) is dangerous because its vapor can be inhaled, and it is a cumulative poison
31. Organic solvents are potential hazards because
a) most organic solvents absorb directly through the skin

b) most organic solvents are volatile and flammable
c) most organic liquids burn
d) all of the above
143
32. A PEL of 10 ppm indicates that
a) 10 parts per million of this substance in the water is safe for the average adult
b) 10 parts per million of this substance in the air is enough to kill you
c) the maximum allowable workplace air exposure to this substance for an average healthy
adult worker for 8 hours a day, 40 hours a week, for a working lifetime is 10 ppm
d) the maximum allowable workplace air exposure to this substance for an adult worker for 8
hours a day, 40 hours a week, for a year is 10 ppm
33. Chemicals being transported outside the laboratory or between stockrooms and
laboratories should be in breakresistant secondary containers. Secondary containers with
carrying handle(s) are commercially available in a variety of sizes. These containers may be
made from which of the following?
a) rubber
b) metal
c) plastic
d) any of the above
34. All containers or laboratory glassware having chemicals in them should be properly
labele When should you place a label on a container?
a) after adding a chemical to the container

b) prior to adding a chemical to the container
c) after the container has been emptied
d) during use of the chemical in the container
35. Fatal if swallowed" indicates
a) that the substance will cause death if a sufficient amount is ingested

b) that the substance will cause death if ingested
c) that 50% of a population of test animals that ingested this substance died
d) all of the above
36. A "ClassB" fire extinguisher can be used to treat fires involving _____ as fuel sources.
a) flammable or combustible liquids

b) ordinary combustibles (woods, plastics, et)
c) combustible metals
d) electrical equipment
e) all of the above
37. Clothing worn in the laboratory should:
a) be easily removable in case of accident

b) offer protection from spashes and spills
c) be at least fireresistant
d) all of the above
144
38. Which of the following types of shoes are recommended by the American Chemical
Society for general laboratory work?
a) clothtopped "tennis" or "running" shoes

b) woven leather shoes
c) sandals
d) high heels
e) steeltoed shoes
f) none of the above
39. What is the TLV value for ammonia
a) 25ppm
b) 30 ppm
c) 10 ppm
d) 20 ppm
40. Pneumoconiosis is caused by
a) Tin oxide
b) Beryllium
c) Iron oxide
d) All of these
41. Time Weighted Average Limit of asbestos is
a) 0.2 fiber/cubic centimeter as an 8hour TWA

b) 0.1 fiber/cubic centimeter as an 8hour TWA
c) 0.15 fiber/cubic centimeter as an 8hour TWA
d) 0.25 fiber/cubic centimeter as an 8hour TWA
42. MSDS sheets must be written in:
a) OSHA Form 174 format

b) ANSI format
c) EPA format
d) Any format, but must contain the information found in OSHA Form 174.
e) Any format; there are no specific requirements for content
43. MSDS's should be consulted:
a) In case of fire or explosion

b) Before working with a chemical
c) In the event of a spill
d) To prepare risk assessments
e) All of the above
145
a) Reducing
b) Controlling
c) Eliminating
d) All of the above

a) ClassA fires
b) ClassB fires
c) ClassC fires
d) All of the above
a) Red
b) Orange
c) Green
d) Purple
a) MCB
b) ACB
c) OCB
d) MCCB
a) Three E’s
b) Four E’s
c) Five E’s
d) Six E’s
146
Chapter 18
PETEROLUEM ACT,GAS CYLINDER RULES,EXLOSION ACT
1. How many chapters does petroleum act contains
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
2. Petroluem class A has flash point below
a) 26
b) 21
c) 23
d) 65
3. Petroleum class B has flash point
a) 2365
b) 2369
c) 2368
d) 2393
4. Petroleum class C has flash point between
a) 6578
b) 6591
c) 6593
d) 6532
5. No license is required for storage and transportation of class B petroleum if possession

of total quantity(liters) is less than
a) 1500
b) 2300
c) 2400
d) 2500
6. No license is required for storage and transportation of class C petroleum if possession

a) 45000
b) 40000
c) 48000
d) 47000
147
7. No license is required for storage and transportation of class A petroleum if possession
a) 40
b) 30
c) 100
d) 50
8. Petroleum act,1934 governed by the
a) ministry of forest and environment

b) Ministry of Chemicals & Fertilizers
c) Ministry of New & Renewable Energy
d) Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas
9. Petroleum rules came into operation in
a) 1954
b) 1934
c) 1976
d) 1977
10. Who will appoint gazette officer by notification
a) state government
b) local municipality
c) ruling government
d) federal government.
11. The explosive act came into operation in the year
a) 1884
b) 1974
c) 1934
d) 1886
12. In which year did the industrial disputes act come into operation?
a) 1947
b) 1949
c) 1953
d) 1963
148
13. To which settlement machinery can the central government refer the disputes under rule
81A?
a) Conciliation
b) Arbitration
c) Adjudicator
d) Supreme Court
14. Before the industrial disputes act was implemented in the year 1947, which act took care
of the industrial disputes?
a) Trade Disputes Act, 1929

b) Royal Commission on Labour, 1934
c) Labour Management Relations Act, 1947
15. Choose the correct option that correctly states out the defect in the Trade Disputes Act,
1929.
a) Restraints imposed on the rights of strike

b) To render the proceedings unstatutable under the Act for the settlement of an industrial
dispute
c) Solution to industrial unrest
d) All of the above
16. Choose the correct objective of the Industrial Disputes Act.
a) To prevent illegal strikes

b) To promote measures for securing and preserving good relations between the employers and
the employees
c) To provide relief to workmen in matters of layoffs, retrenchment, wrongful dismissals
d) All of the above
17. Industrial disputes act can be described as the milestone in the historical development of
industrial law in India
a) True
b) False
18. The industries disputes act was first amended in the year ______
a) 1929
b) 1946
c) 1947
d) 1949
149
19. Power has been given to _______________ to require Works Committee to be
constituted in every industrial establishment employing 100 workmen or more.
a) Appropriate Government
b) State Government
c) High Court
d) Board of Conciliation
20. gas cylinder rules came into operation in
a) 1988
b) 1984
c) 1983
d) 2004
21. “Chief Controller” means the Chief Controller of Explosives, Government of India
a) true
b) false
22. The provisions of these rules pertain to the filling. Storage, handling and transportation
of gas cylinders exceeding
a) 1.8kg/m2
b) 1.8kg/cm2
c) 1.5kg/cm2
d) 1.5g/cm2
23. Compressed Natural Gas (CNG)” means mixtures of hydrocarbon gases and vapours,
consisting mainly of butane and propane in gaseous form
a) true
b) false
24. Apply _______% Teepol solution in water with a brush or an approved leak detection
a) 0.8
b) 0.6
c) 0.7
d) 0.5
25. Colour marking for acetylene cylinder is
a) signal red
b) maroon
c) signal red, band golden yellow
d) black
150
26. Color marking for methane cylinder is
a) signal red
b) maroon
d) black
27. Colour marking for carbon monoxide cylinder is
a) signal red
b) maroon
d) black
28. Color marking for oxygen cylinder is
a) signal red
b) maroon
d) black
29. Color marking for carbon di oxide cylinder is
a) black ,band –white

b) maroon
d) black
30. For Acetylene cylinder, The safety relief devices fitted, shall operate at a pressure of
a) 57kgf/cm2
b) 69kgf/cm2
c) 53kgf/m2
d) 53kgf/cm2
31. The working or internal pressure in any cylinder charged with a permanent gas shall
not exceed ______of the test pressure
a) 3/4
b) 1/2
c) 2/3
d) 3/2
32. The provisions for environmental protection in the constitution were made in:
a) 1976
b) 1950
c) 1982
d) 1960
151
33. The provisions of environmental protection in the constitution were made under:
a) Article 5A
b) Article 21B
c) Article 27B (h)
d) Article 48A and Article 51A (g)
34. The first of the major environmental protection act to be promulgated in India was:
a) Water Act
b) Air Act
c) Environmental Act
d) Noise Pollution Rule
35. The Forest (Conservation) Act was enacted in the year:
a) 1986
b) 1974
c) 1980
d) 1972
36. The Forest (Conservation) Act extends to the whole of India except:
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Karnataka
c) Jammu and Kashmir
d) Haryana
37. Penalty for conservation of the provisions of the Forest Act is under:
a) Section 3A
b) Section 4A
c) Section 12A
d) Section 8A
38. The Wildlife (Protection) Act was enacted in the year:
a) 1986
b) 1974
c) 1994
d) 1972
39. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year:
a) 1986
b) 1974
c) 1994
d) 1975
152
40. The Wildlife (Protection) Act contains:
a) 7 Chapters
b) 6 Chapters
c) 5 Chapters
d) 8 Chapters
41. The Water Act contains:
a) 4 Chapters
b) 5 Chapters
c) 7 Chapters
d) 8 Chapters
42. In the Water Act the entire National Capital Territory of Delhi has been declared as
water pollution prevention control area under:
a) Section 21
b) Section 23
c) Section 19
d) Section 24
43. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in the year:
a) 1981
b) 1996
c) 2000
d) 1974
44. Noise pollution has been inserted as pollution in the Air Act in:
a) 1981
b) 1987
c) 1982
d) 2000
45. The Environmental (Protection) Act was enacted in the year:
a) 1986
b) 1992
c) 1984
d) 1974
153
46. NGOs stands for:
a) Non-Governmental Organization
b) Nine Governmental Organization
c) Non Gained Organizations
d) National Grade Organization
47. The Air Act contains:
a) 5 Chapters
b) 6 Chapters
c) 7 Chapters
d) 8 Chapters
48. The National Green tribunal (NGT) hears matters relating to
1. biodiversity
2. climate change
3. forests
4. water
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 ,3 and 4 only
c) 2 ,3 and 4 only
d) 1 ,2, 3 and 4
49. The power to declare an area as a sanctuary or national park of central Government is
Wildlife (Protection) Act is under:
a) Section 38
b) Section 39
c) Section 18
d) Section 27
50. Complete ban has been placed on the use of which material from Gomukhi to Haridwar
along the Ganga river w.f February 1st by NGT?
a) Rubber
b) Plastic
c) PUC
d) Both b and c
154
Chapter 19
SAFETY IN CONSTRUCTION
1. A safety sign which tells you that you must NOT do something is which colour?
a) red
b) yellow
c) blue
d) green
2. What does a yellow sign with a skull and crossbones mean?
a) There is a risk of toxic hazard

b) There is a risk from pirates.
c) There is a risk from motorcyclists.
3. If you have an accident at work because of an electrical fault, who is responsible?
a) you
b) your employer
c) no one
4. What does a yellow sign with a fire symbol mean?
a) You must start a fire

b) Do not start a fire
c) There is a risk of fire
5. Why should you follow health and safety rules on a building site?
a) Health and safety rules don't really matter.

b) Because it is the law.
c) Because over 100 people die each year on building sites.
6. Which of these often causes injuries on construction sites?
a) not knowing people's names

b) taking too long at a tea break
c) cars, lorries and trucks
7. What colour is a safety sign which tells you that there is a risk of danger ahead?
a) red
b) yellow
c) blue
d) green
155
8. Which of these is the most important to do to help prevent accidents?
a) check the weather forecast

b) have breakfast
c) understand the warning signs
9. If you have an accident at work because you are not wearing the correct clothes, who is
responsible?
a) you
b) your employer
c) noone
10. What does a green sign with a cross mean?
a) first aid help

b) you are entering a church
c) you must use some first aid
11. A 'help' sign is which colour?
a) red
b) yellow
c) blue
d) green
a) being late for work

b) falling
c) not having your correct ID
13. What colour is a safety sign which tells you that you must do something?
a) red
b) yellow
c) blue
d) green
14. How many people die each year on construction sites?
a) none
b) 100
c) 100000
156
15. If you have an accident at work because there is not enough supervision, who is
responsible for that?
a) you
b) your employer
c) no one
16. What does a blue sign showing a face wearing glasses mean?
a) There is a risk if you do not wear eye protection.

b) Eye protection must be worn.
c) You must not wear eye protection
.
17. A red circle with a line through it hangs from a piece of equipment. What does it mean?
a) You must use this piece of equipment.

b) There is a risk if you use this piece of equipment.
c) You must not use this piece of equipment
a) getting trapped by machinery

b) slipping in mud
c) having your laces untied
19. OSHA safety and health rules for construction activities are found in CFR 1926.
a) Don’t Know
b) False
c) True
20. Hard hats are required to be worn whenever construction workers are exposed to falling
object hazards.
a) Don’t Know
b) False
c) True
21. You must have a driver’s license in order to operate a forklift or aeria l lift on a
construction site.
a) Don’t Know
b) False
c) True
157
22. Falls are the leading cause of death to construction workers.
a) Don’t Know
b) False
c) True
23. Multiple Choice: In Oregon, __________ are the leading source of elevation workers fall
from…(check one below)
a) Stairs
b) Ladders
c) Non-moving vehicles
d) Roofs
24. Oregon construction companies must either have a safety committee or hold regular
safety meetings.
a) Don’t Know
b) False
c) True
25. An Oregon construction company is not required to investigate injuries to any of their
workers.
a) Don’t Know
b) False
c) True
26. A high visibility vest does not need to be worn if you think a mobile equipment operator
will see you.
a) Don’t Know
b) False
c) True
27. What is the best way to determine how a delivery of hazardous material should be
stored on site?
a) Check the delivery docket.

b) Check the chemical register.
c) Check if it is a liquid, solid or gas.
d) Refer to the Material Safety Data Sheet.
158
28. What type of insurance would an employer require on a building site?
a) Income Protection and Public Liability

b) Public Liability and Third Party Property
c) Occupational Health and Safety and Income Protection
d) Third Party Property and Occupational Health and Safety
29. A person working on their own is using a levelling device over a distance of 30 m.
Which level would give the most accurate reading?
a) Laser level
b) Water level
c) Spirit level
d) Automatic level
30. How should plywood and particle board be stacked?
a) On edge
b) In pyramid stacks
c) Separated by packers
d) Flat on top of each board
31. What is the best method to minimize the potential hazards of noise and dust on a work
site?
a) Erect screens and covers

b) Use water suppression
c) Utilise good housekeeping procedures
d) Use Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
32. Who is responsible for ensuring that first aid is available on site?
a) Worksite managers
b) Worksite employees
c) Trained first aid support personnel
d) The Occupational Health and Safety Officer
33. What is an employer legally obliged to provide for their employees?
a) Safe movement around the site

b) A safe and healthy work environment
c) A voluntary training and supervision scheme
d) Safety and research information on an annual basis
159
34. A first year apprentice is concerned about a safety issu Who should they speak to first?
a) Site manager
b) Project manager
c) First Aid Officer
d) Supervising tradesperson
35. What does a good industrial relations process help to facilitate?
a) Employees’ access to trade unions

b) Employers’ access to trade unions
c) Employers meeting building costs
d) Employer and employee negotiations
36. What is the main purpose of planning and organising work?
a) To work efficiently and safely

b) To make important decisions later
c) To create a less stressful workplace
d) To order materials only when required
37. What best describes a safe work method statement?
a) Instructions for contractors

b) A sequence of first aid and safe work instructions
c) The procedures, hazards and controls of construction tasks
d) The construction of an entire project broken down into stages
a) not knowing people's names

b) taking too long at a tea break
c) cars, lorries and trucks
39. Which of these is the most important to do to help prevent accidents?
a) check the weather forecast

b) have breakfast
c) understand the warning signs
40. What does a green sign with a cross mean?
a) first aid help

b) you are entering a church
c) you must use some first aid
160
41. How many people die each year on construction sites?
a) none
b) 100
c) 100000
42. A 'help' sign is which colour?
a) red
b) yellow
c) blue
d) green
161
Chapter 20
NFPA CODES RELATED TO FIRE SAFETY
1. A high rise building refers to a building greater than ……….m height where the
building height is measured from the lowest level of fire department vehicle access to the
floor of the highest occupiable storey.
a) 15
b) 17
c) 20
d) 23
2. A highly volatile liquid refers to a liquid with a boiling point less than ……. °C
a) 18
b) 19
c) 20
d) 21
3. Where portions of the system are subjected to freezing and temperature cannot be
reliably maintained at or above 4°C the sprinkler system type to be used is
a) Wet pipe
b) dry pipe
c) deluge type
d) pre action type
4. Storage ,handling and use of flammable and combustible liquids including waste liquid
shall comply with
a) NFPA 1 and NFPA 13

b) NFPA 1 and NFPA 30
c) NFPA 13 and NFPA 101
d) NFPA 13 and NFPA 30
5. NFPA refers to
a) standard for installation of sprinkler system

b) standard for installation of standpipe system
c) standard for installation of dry chemical extinguishing system
d) standard for installation on type of building construction
162
6. The premixed agent in liquid charge type AFFF and FFFP fire extinguishers shall be
replaced at least once in every
a) 1 year
b) 2 year
c) 3 year
d) 4 year
7. AFFF and FFFP fire extinguishers are rated for use on
a) Class A fire
b) Class B fire
c) Class C fire
d) Class A and Class B fire
a) Oldest
b) Newest
c) most reliable
d) least reliable
a) Limiting quantity
b) Segregation
c) Containment
d) Concentration
protection is the:

b) dependence upon outside power sources to maintain pressure.

163
12. What is the minimum requirement for the routine inspections of the fire sprinkler
system alarm devices?
a) quarterly
b) monthly
c) semi annually
d) annually
system main drain?
a) quarterly
b) monthly
c) semi annually
d) annually
system fire department connection?
a) quarterly
b) monthly
c) semi annually
d) annually
15. The sprinkler system equipped with sprinkler heads of open type is
a) Dry type
b) Wet type
c) Deluge type
d) Pre action type
16. The system consisting fixed foam generating apparatus complete with a piped supply of
foam concrete and water arranged to discharge into an enclosed space is
a) portable foam generating system

b) local application system
c) total flooding system
d) none of these
17. The system used for extinguishment or control of fires in flammable or combustible
liquids, LNG and ordinary class A combustibles where hazard is totally not enclosed is
a) portable foam generating system

b) local application system
d) none of these
164
18. The extinguishing system that has predetermined flow rates, nozzle placement, and
quantities of carbon dioxide and that incorporates specific nozzles and methods of
application are listed by a testing laboratory are
a) local application system

b) hand hose line system
d) pre-engineered system
19. Water spray protection system is acceptable for the protection of hazards involving
gaseous and liquid flammable materials
a) Electrical hazards
b) ordinary combustibles
c) all of the above
20. Ultra-high speed water spray system is used in
a) extinguishment or control of detention

b) suppression of deflagrations in enclosed or confined vessels
c) extinguishment or control of deflagration in open, unconfined areas
d) for limiti ng over pressurization
21. A sprinkler designed to be installed in such a way that the water stream is directed
downward against the deflector is
a) flush sprinkler
b) recessed sprinkler
c) sidewall sprinkler
d) pendent sprinkler
22. NFPA 14 refers to.
a) standard for installation of standpipe and hose system

b) standard for water spray fixed system for fire protection
c) standard on wetting agents
d) standard for portable fire extinguishers
23. A valve designed for the purpose of reducing the downstream water pressure under
both flowing (residual) and nonflowing (static) conditions is
a) pressure control valve

b) pressure reducing valve
c) relief valve
d) dump valve
165
24. A combustible liquid is
a) A liquid that has a closed cup flash point at or above 36.8°C

b) A liquid that has a closed cup flash point at or above 37.8°C
c) A liquid that has a closed cup flash point at or above 36.7°C
d) A liquid that has a closed cup flash point at or above 37.6°C
25. A flammable liquid is
a) A liquid that has a closed cup flash point that is below 36.8°C and a maximum vapor
pressure of 2068 mm Hg (40 psia) at 36.8°C
b) A liquid that has a closed cup flash point that is below 37.8°C and a maximum vapor
c) A liquid that has a closed cup flash point that is below 37.6°C and a maximum vapor
d) A liquid that has a closed cup flash point that is below 36.7°C and a maximum vapor
26. Which of the following statements regarding wetting agent is false
a) Wetting agent solutions shall not be mixed with other wetting agent solutions or
additive solutions.
b) Wetting agents shall not be mixed with other wetting agents or additives
c) Wetting agent solutions generated separately shall not be permitted to be applied to a fire in
sequence or simultaneously.
d) Wetting agent solutions generated separately shall be permitted to be applied to a fire in
sequence or simultaneously.
27. Which standard is not following fixed systems utilizing wetting agent solution
be permitted to be installed
a) NFPA 12
b) NFPA 13
c) NFPA 14
d) NFPA 15
a) 100 GPM
b) 850 GPM
c) 700 GPM
d) 500 GPM
166
a) 0.433 psi
b) 2.31 psi
c) 14.7 psi
d) 29.9 psi

and distinct parts?

a) 0 hour
b) 3/4 hour
c) 1 hour
d) 3 hours

167
a) 1.6 psi
b) 16 KpA
c) 16 Atmospheres
d) 160 TORR
a) Class A ordinary combustibles

b) Class B flammable and combustible liquids
c) Class C electrical
d) Class D combustible metals


38. What is the occupant load factor used for determining the required means of egress for
an existing business occupancy?
a) 20 sq ft (1.9 sq m)
b) 50 sq ft (4.6 sq m)
c) 100 sq ft (9.3 sq m)
d) 200 sq ft (18.6 sq m)
168
39. The wall that separates a legitimate stage from the auditorium seating area is called:
a) A curtain wall
b) A parapet wall
c) A proscenium wall
d) A panel wall
40. A non-sprinkle red boiler room in an existing business occupancy must be separated
from the rest of the building by a 3/4hourrated self-closing door and fire barriers having
a minimum fire resistance rating of:
a) 3/4 hour
b) 1 hour
c) 11/2 hours
d) 2 hours
41. The applicant for a plan review is relieved of responsibility of compliance with NFPA 1:
a) Under no circumstances.
b) When the project has been reviewed by an architect.
c) When the project has been approved by the AHJ.
d) When the project has been reviewed by an engineer.
42. The ground enclosed by any tents or temporary membrane structures shall be:
a) Not more than 5,000 sq ft (464 sq m).

b) Designed to support fire apparatus.
c) Cleared of all flammable or combustible material.
d) Not more than 80 percent of the premises.
43. All of the following devices are required to activate the smokecontrol system in a new
atrium:
(I) Automatic sprinkler systems

(II) Smoke detectors
(III) Manual controls for fire departments use
(IV) A manual fire protective signaling system
a) I + II
b) I + III
c) II + III
d) II + IV
169
44. In a fire resistance rated assembly what is the minimum fire resistive rating a door in an
exit access corridor?
a) 20 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 45 minutes
d) 60 minutes
45. Class B interior wall or ceiling finish has which of the following flame spread ratings?
a) 201400
b) 76200
c) 2675
d) 025
46. The maximum allowable smoke developed rating of an interior wall or ceiling finish
material is:
a) 25
b) 75
c) 200
d) 450
47. When columns are required to have a fire resistance rating, the fire resistance protection
shall include connections to beams.
a) extend from the floor to the ceiling.

b) extend from the floor to the floor abov
c) include girders supported by the column.
48. The installation standards for a wet chemical system require the building fire alarm
system be
a) 12
b) 17.
c) 17
d) 750.
170
49. Fire doors in horizontal exits shall have an opening protective of
a) 1/2.
b) 1.
c) 11/2.
d) 2.
50. The standard for removal of greaseladen vapors and smoke from commercial cooking
equipment is NFPA
a) 72.
b) 90
c) 96.
d) 99.
171
Chapter 21
HEALTH RELATED HAZARDS AND RISK CONTROL
1. Which one of the following is not a source of heat exchange in body?
a) Conduction convection
b) Evaporation –convection
c) Radiation
2. Heat stroke symptoms include
a) Red dry skin

b) Confusion
c) Loss of consciousness
d) All of the above
3. Heat exhaustion results from
a) Insufficient blood supply to brain

b) Body temperature raise
c) Low salt level in blood
4. Which one of the following is mildest of the heat problems?
a) Heat cramp
b) Heat rash
c) Dehydration
d) All of the above
5. Body water loss should not exceed ____ % total body weight in a work day
a) 1.5
b) 15
c) 10
6. Type of noise
a) Wide band
b) Narrow band
c) Impulse
d) All of the above
172
7. The normal pain threshold for human
a) 80 dB
b) 120 dB
c) 95 dB
8. Normal adults can hear from
a) 20Hz
b) 20,000Hz
c) Between 20 and 20,000 Hz
9. According to OSHAS, employees’ with an ___ hr TWA exposure of 85dB
a) 85
b) 95
c) 120
d) 140
10. Probability of the event that might occur X Severity of the event if it occurs =
a) Accident
b) Hazard
c) Risk
11. The following is (are) physical hazard agent(s)
a) Falls
b) Electricity
c) Inhalation
d) All of the above
12. Check list for job safety analysis consists of

d) Men, work area, material, tools
173
13. Which of the following personal protective clothing should be removed first to reduce
the potential for personal contamination?
a) Tape from pant legs and sleeves

b) Coverall/lab coats
c) Rubber boots
d) Outer layer of double gloves
14. Some organs exhibit a threshold response to radiation effects, which is called a(n)
a) stochastic effect
b) nonstochastic effect
c) genetic effect
d) acute effect
15. Containers of radioactive material must be labeled with which of the following
information?
a) Radionuclide(s) present, quantity, or radiation levels

b) Instructions for handling the radioactive material
c) Personnel authorized to use the material
d) Instructions for decontamination procedures to follow if spilled
16. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?
a) Mitigate
b) Contingency
c) Transfer
d) All of the above
17. What is risk?
a. Negative consequence that could occur

b. Negative consequence that will occur
c. Negative consequence that must occur
d.Negative consequence that shall occur
18. Need Hierarchy theory of motivation is propounded by:
a. Maslow
b. Mc Gregor
c. Herzberg
d.None of the above
174
19. When should you wash your hands?
a. When you remove your gloves

b.Before you leave the lab
c. Immediately after any obvious contamination
d.All of the above
20. Heat stroke cause
a) Failure of thermoregulatory system

b) Circulatory instability
c) Water depletion
d) Salt depletion
21. Heat cramps cause

c) Water depletion
d) Salt depletion
22. Heat collapse cause

c) Water depletion
d) Salt depletion
23. Heat exhaustion symptom(s)
a) Sweaty skin
b) Diminished mental capacity
c) Giddiness
d) All of the above
24. Heat collapse symptom(s)
a) Sweaty skin
c) Giddiness
d) All of the above
25. Heat cramp symptom(s)
a) Sweaty skin
c) Giddiness
d) All of the above
175
26. General contents of first aid box
a) HSE leaflet
b) Individually wrapped sterile adhesive dressings
c) Two sterile eye pads
d) All of the above
27. In first aid box generally how many wrapped sterile adhesive dressings should be there?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 15
28. In first aid box generally how many wrapped triangular bandages should be there?
a) 3
b) 2
c) 4
29. Do’s of first aid
a) Stop severe bleeding

b) Treat for shock
c) Boost up morals of victim
d) All of the above
30. Don’t of first aid
a) Soak victim to wake

b) Avoid crowding
c) Boost up morals of victim
31. FIRST AID treatment for shock
a) Keep patient warm

b) Keep head lower than feet
c) Cover with blankets or coat
d) All of the above
176
32. Treatment for wounds
a) Prevent Touching the wound

b) Apply ordinary water
c) Use strong antiseptic
d) All of the above
33. Treatment for gas poisoning
a) Provide fresh air

b) Call the doctor
c) Both A and B
34. First aid for poisons
a) Drink emetic
b) Drink water
c) Induce vomiting
d) All of the above
35. Which type of situation we shouldn’t perform CPR?
a) Poisoning
b) Epilepsy
c) Drowning
d) Vomiting
36. What is the ratio of compressions and breaths
a) 2 : 30
b) 30 : 2
c) 30 : 20
37. How many compressions per minute?
a) 30
b) 50
c) 100
d) 20
38. Steps of risk assessment
a) Hazard identification
b) Consequences of risk
c) Record the findings
d) All of the above
177
39. Which one of the following is hazard identification technique
a) Bowties
b) Human reliability
c) Index
40. Which one of the following is hazard analysis technique
a) Task analysis
b) What if analysis
c) Reliability data
d) All of the above
41. Reactive approach
a) Accident investigation
b) Plant inspection
c) Accident recall technique
d) All of the above
42. Proactive approach
a) Accident investigation
b) Plant inspection
c) Accident recall technique
43. HIRA is a
a) Reactive approach
b) Proactive approach
c) Both A and B
44. When we will do HAZOP
a) While preparing concept

b) While designing the plant
c) Both
d) None of above
45. JHA team includes
a) Line manager
b) All employees
c) Employer
d) All of the above
178
46. HIRAC will be performed for
a) Routine activity
b) Non routine activity
c) Both
d) None
47. People who should participate in HIRAC process
a) Project manager
b) Workmen
c) Supervisor
d) All of the above
48. What are all needed to do HAZOP
a) P&ID’s
b) PFD’s
c) Both
d) None
49. Which one is not a guide word of HAZOP process?
a) All
b) Part of
c) Reverse
d) Where else
50. Primary scenario example(s)
a) Fire of fuel
b) Leakage of gas
c) Environmental damage
d) All of the above
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Chapter 22
ELECTRICAL SAFETY EQUIPMENT
1. MCB Stands for
a) miniature circuit breaker

b) miniature circuit breaker
c) mini circuit breaker
d) minimum current breaker
2. RCCB Stands for
a) Reduced Current Circuit Breaker

b) Real Value Current Circuit Breaker
c) Residual Current Circuit Breaker
d) Real Time Current Circuit Breaker
3. Name the device which can sense the fault and send the instructions to associated circuit
breakers
a) Fuse
b) Neutral link
c) Protective Relay
d) Switch gear
4. MCCB Stands for
a) Miniature Current Circuit Breaker

b) Minimature Current Circuit Breaker
c) Moulded Case Circuit Breaker
d) Minimum Current Circuit Breaker
5. Purpose of Fuse in electrical circuits
a) To protect the wiring and the equipment.

b) To Reduce the voltage in equipment
c) To make current constant
d) To reduce the voltage and current.
180
6. HRC fuse stands for
a) Heavy Relative Current

b) Highly Ruptured current
c) High Rupturing Capacity
d) Heavy Rupturing Current
7. Which one of the following relays has the capability of anticipating the possible major
fault in a transformer?
a) Over current Relay

b) Differential Relay
c) Bucholz Relay
d) Over fluxing Relay
8. Which device is used for protection of equipment from from damage caused by overload
or short circuit?
a) Current Transformer
b) Circuit Breaker
c) CVT
d) Lightning Arrestor
9. Switchgear equipment include
a) Fuse
b) Relay
c) Switches
d) All of these.
10. What factor does the performance of a circuit breaker depend?
a) Breaking Speed
b) Critical length of Breaking
c) Both A & B
d) None of these
11. ELCB Stands for
a) Earth leakage circuit breaker

b) Earth low value current breaker
c) Earth low value Circuit Breaker
d) Earth leaked current breaker
181
12. Arcing contacts in circuit breaker is made up of
a) Porcelain
b) Electrolytic Copper
c) Aluminium alloy
d) Copper Tungsten alloy
13. Circuit breakers are essentially
a) Arc extinguishers
b) Circuit to break the system
c) Current carrying contacts called electrodes
d) Transformers to isolate the system
14. HRC Fuses provide protection against
a) Overload
b) Reverse current
c) Open circuits
d) Short circuits
15. To protect most of the electrical equipment handling low power, the types of relay used
are
a) Thermocouple
b) Electronic & Bimetallic
c) Both A & B
d) None of these
16. Overvoltage Protection is recommended for
a) Hydro electric generator

b) Steam turbine generators
c) Gas turbine generators
d) All of the above
182
17. The material used for fuse must have
a) Low melting point and high specific resistance

b) Low melting point and low specific resistance
c) High melting point and low specific resistance
d) High melting point and high specific resistance
18. HRC fuse compared to rewirable fuse has
a) No ageing effect
b) High speed of operation
c) High rupturing capacity
d) All of above
19. The fuse rating is expressed in
a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Var
d) Kva
20. An isolator is installed
a) To operate the relay of circuit breaker

b) As a substitute for circuit breaker
c) Always independent of position of circuit breaker
d) Generally on both sides of circuit breaker
21. Protection by fuses not used beyond
a) 20 A
b) 50 A
c) 100 A
d) 200 A
22. A fuse is never inserted in
a) Positive of dc circuit
b) Negative of dc circuit
c) Neutral wire
d) None of these
183
23. Which of the following methods major portion of the heat generated in a HRC Fuse
dissipated?
a) Radiation
b) Convection
c) Conduction
d) All of above
24. A switch gear is a device used for
a) Interrupting an electrical circuit

b) Switching an electrical circuit
c) Switching and controlling electrical circuit
d) Switching, Controlling and protecting the electrical circuit & Equipment
25. Which of the circuit breaker has high reliability and minimum maintenance?
a) Air blast circuit breakers

b) Vacuum circuit breaker
c) Circuit breaker with sf6 gas
d) Oil circuit breaker
26. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) Lightning arrestors are used before switch gear

b) Shunt reactors are used as compensation reactor
c) The mva at fault is equal to base mva divided by per unit equivalent fault reactance
d) None of the statement is correct
27. Which of the following is the least expensive protection for overcurrent in low voltage
system?
a) Fuse
b) Isolator
c) Switchgear
d) Mcb
184
28. A thermal protection switch can operate against
a) Short circuit
b) Open circuit
c) Overload
d) Temperature
29. In a circuit breaker the current which exists at the instant of contact separation is
known as
a) re striking current
b) surge current
c) breaking current
d) Recovery current.
30. An automatic device that operates at present values is known as
a) Mercury switch
b) Relay
c) Fuse
d) Contactor
31. In a circuit breaker the time duration from the instant of fault to the instant of
energizing of the trip coil is known as
a) Lag time
b) Lead time
c) Protection time
d) Operating time
32. In a circuit breaker the lime duration from the instant of fault to the instant of closing
of contact is known as
a) Recycle time
b) Total time
c) Gross time
d) Re closing time
185
33. Which of the following is not a part of the circuit breaker ?
a) Explosion pot
b) Fixed and moving contact
c) Conservator
d) Operating mechanism
Relay Operation
a) Static relay (i) Responds to vector difference between two electrical quantities
b)Over current relay (ii) Quick operation
c)Differential relay (iii) Responds to increase in current
d) Instantaneous (iv) No moving parts relay
a) a (i), b (ii), c (iii), d (iv)

b) a (iv), b (iii), c (i), d (iv)
c) a (ii), b (i) c (iii), d (iv)
d) a (iii), b (ii), c (i), d (iv).
a) a (i), b (ii), c (iii), d (iv)

b) a (ii). b (iii), c (i), d (iv)
c) a (iii), b (i), c (iv), d (ii)
d) a (iv), b (iii), c (ii), d (i).
186
36. Overload relays are of …….. type.
a) Induction
b) Solid state
c) Thermal
d) All above
37. The time of closing the cycle, in modern circuit breaker is
a) 0.003 sec
b) 0.001 sec
c) 0.01 sec
d) None of these
38. Low voltage circuit breakers have rated voltage of less than
a) 220 v
b) 400 v
c) 1000v
d) 10000v
39. The fault clearing time of a circuit breaker is usually
a) Few minutes
b) Few seconds
c) One second
d) Few cycles of supply voltage
40 The contact resistance of a circuit breaker is of the order of
a) 20 micro ohms +/ 10
b) 20 milli ohms +/ 10
c) 20 ohms +/ 10
d) None of these
41. Overcurrent protection for motor is provided by
a) Cartridge fuses
b) High resistance fuses
c) Overcurrent relay
d) All of above
187
42. Fuse in motor circuit provides
a) Overcurrent protection
b) Short circuit protection
c) Open circuit protection
43. Fault diverters
a) Divert the current to earth in the event of short circuits

b) Neutralizes the surges by resistors
c) Modify the surge wave shape
d) None of these
44. Bucholz relay is operated by
a) Eddy currents
b) Gas pressure
c) Electromagnetic induction
d) Electro static induction
45. In a circuit breaker a bimetallic strip of two metal strips have different
a) Thermal diffusivity
b) Thermal conductivity
c) Specific heat
d) Coefficient of expansion
46. Trip circuit is normally a part of ……….
a) Fuse
b) Circuit breaker
c) Switch gear
d) Transformer
47. Name the equipment which does not have any current making or current breaking
capacity.
a) Circuit breaker
b) Isolator
c) Transformer
d) Switch gear
188
48. Use of elcb is advisable for
a) Easy to rest when trips

b) Protecting from short circuit
c) Human safety
d) None of these
49. HRC fuse is
a) a wire of platinum
b) a heavy cross section of copper or aluminium
c) a ceramic tube having carbon rod inside it
d) a ceramic body having metal end caps
50. On what basis is the selection of fuse done?
a) Steady load
b) Fluctuating load
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
189
Chapter 23
PROCESS SAFETY MANAGEMENT
1. What is a RPN in a FMEA?
2. Is FMEA done by a single Engineer?
3. What is PFMEA &DFMEA?
4. Which is a deductive analysis approach for resolving an undesired event into its causes?
5. Logic gates are used in?
6. Which logic gate is used when “the above output event occurs if either of the input lower level
events occur”?
7. A retrospective set of metrics that are based on incidents that meet the threshold of severity
that should be reported as part of the industrywide process safety metric, Is called?
8. The most important step in process risk management is ?
9. Which is an approach that eliminates or greatly reduces hazards by design of the process?
10. For airborne exposures, the maximum average concentration of a chemical in air for a normal
8hour working day and 40hour week?
11. For airborne exposures, the maximum average concentration to which workers can be exposed
for a short period (usually 15 minutes)?
12. For airborne exposures, the concentration that should not be exceeded at any tim?
13. OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard (HCS) are?
14. OSHA sets enforceable permissible exposure limits (PELs) to protect workers against the
health effects of exposure to hazardous substances in which standard?
15. Which is a simple method of rating the relative acute health hazard potential to people in
neighboring plants or communities from possible chemical release incidents?
16. Which is the maximum airborne concentration below which it is believed that nearly all
individuals could be exposed for up to one hour without experiencing or developing
lifethreatening health effects.?
17. The quantity of Flammable, Toxic, Explosive or reactive material that should be present to
consider, DOW FEI Analysis?
18. Which is the measure of the intrinsic potential energy released by the combustion, explosion
or chemical reaction of the substances restrained in the equipment under study?
19. Fire & Explosion Index = x (Material Factor)
20. If FEI INDEX is in the range of 97 127 then the degree of hazard is?
21. Which is based on binary logic?
22. An event tree begins with?
23. Which technique starts with the undesired (top) event?
24. A multidisciplinary team methodically “brainstorms” the plant design in?
25. The locations (on piping and instrumentation drawings and procedures) at which the process
parameters are investigated for deviations in hazop?
26. How the plant is expected to operate in the absence of deviations at the study nodes in hazop?
27. The simple words which are used to qualify or quantify the intention in order to guide and
stimulate the brainstorming process and so discover deviations is called?
28. Guide word for Logical Opposite of the Intent?
29. LOPA means?
30. Guide word +parameter in hazop gives ?
31. The links between the potential causes, preventative and mitigative controls and consequences
of a major accident is analysed in which method?
32. The main purpose of Event Tree Analysis is ?
190
33. Which is called the cumulative act effect.?
34. Heinrich’s Triangle is also called ?
35. How many near misses are there for every major injury as per Heinrich’s pyramid ?
36. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air (or other oxidant) below which propagation of
flamedoes not occur on contact with an ignition source?
37. Liquids which have flash point of 65 oC and above but below 93 oC ?
38. The application of numerical methods to obtain an understanding of hazards in terms of: How
often a hazard will manifest itself & With what consequences for people, process and plant.?
39. The area where inflammable gas or vapours are expected to be continuously present ?
40. Aggregate capacity (Combined safe capacity) of tanks located in one dyked enclosure shall
not exceed_____ for a group of floating roof tanks?
41. The storage tank height shall not exceed________________ or________ whichever is less.?
42. Breather valves shall be provided in the blanketed tanks, designed as per?
43. Emergency Vents shall be provided for the tanks as per ?
44. “ASME B 31.3 ?
45. ASME B 31.4 ?
46. Which joint is more suitable in hydrocarbon pipelines?
47. The maximum loading rate at the delivery end of the filling pipe, when the filling pipe is
completely submerged in petroleum?
48. The voltage which normally exceeds 250 volts but does not exceed 650 volts.?
49. Sick wagons are those which are declared defective because of leaky bottom valve, missing
safety valve, leaking body or any other mechanical failur?
50. The minimum distance between a tank shell and the inside toe of the dyke wall ?
191
Chapter 24
HIRA (Different techniques)
1. What is the meaning of the CE marking on a machine?
a) The product does not require any regular maintenance in Europe.

b) The product may only be used in European countries.
c) The product meets the minimum European safety requirements.
2. Which body has the authority to order work to be halted?
a) The government’s Health and Safety Inspection Servic

b) The trade union.
c) The Arbodienst (Occupational Health and Safety Service)
3. Several employers are working on a single site at the same tim What must be laid
down in the H&S Project Plan?
a) The approach to supervision.

b) The construction drawing.
c) The supplier selection.
4. An employer is responsible for which of the following persons?
a) Only for the employer’s own personnel.

b) For everyone at the construction site and for the local residents.
c) Only for the employer’s own and hired in personnel.
5. Which elements must be taken into consideration in establishing the working hours?
a) The weather conditions.

b) The magnitude of the risk to which the employee will be expose
c) The employee’s personal situation.
6. For which actions is the risk of accident the highest?
a) Fashioning steel with an angle grinder.

b) Fashioning steel with a fil
c) Fashioning steel with a hammer.
7. What is a Task Risk Analysis (TRA)?
a) An overview of the tasks within a company that entail potential risks.

b) An evaluation of the tasks identified in the Risk Assessment and Evaluation (RA&E).
c) An analysis of the risks associated with the execution of highrisk activities.
192
8. You come across an unsafe situation at your work. What is the first thing you must do?
a) Remain near the unsafe situation.

b) Try to remove its cause
c) Inform the government’s Health and Safety Inspection Service.
9. What is meant by the evaluation of risks?
a) The preparation of a Task Risk Analysis (TRA).

b) The determination of the severity of the risks.
c) The preparation of a plan of approach.
10. How do you communicate with employees about the risks and control measures on the
work floor?
a) Through discussion among all employees in a department.

b) Through discussion among the immediate supervisor and his/her operational employees.
c) Through discussion among all of the immediate supervisors in all departments.
11. An accident without serious injury has occurred What should be done in this case?
a) Steps must be taken to prevent the accident’s recurrencE

b) The accident must be reported to the Emergency Services by dialling 112.
c) This must be reported to the government’s Health and Safety Inspection Service within 24
hours.
12. What is an example of a personal factor that can lead to an accident?
a) Inadequate preparation.
b) An incorrect working metho
c) Insufficient stressresistanc
13. What technical measure prevents accidents involving grinders within a company?
a) Appointing an experienced technical director.

b) Establishing clear procedures.
c) Selecting a sound ergonomic design.
14. What is important in an accident investigation?
a) Only to interview the victim.

b) To clear up the site of the accident as quickly as possible in order to prevent new accidents.
c) To collect all facts and information at the location of the accident.
193
15. What is an important area for attention if an onsite investigation is conducted after an
accident?
a) That the documents present at the site are retrieve

b) That this investigation be conducted before the government’s Health and Safety Inspection
Service is informed
c) That the areas for improvement are discussed with the site’s owner.
16. What is the best safety rule?
a) Immediately sort the waste generated during the work by type

b) Keep the workplace tidy and keep passages clear.
c) Mark all hazards at the workplace with redwhite tap
17. What is a frequent cause of stumbling, slipping or tripping?
a) Failure to wear safety footwear.

b) The lack of barrier tape along a footpath.
c) The presence of cables and pipes lying across a footpath.
18. What increases the probability of unsafe behaviour on the part of an employee?
a) The work order is incomplete

b) There is discord between the employer and the works council.
c) Arrangements concerning the execution of the work have been made.
19. Why is the use of propane in pits and cellars dangerous?
a) Propane is heavier than air, as a result of which it collects at the lowest point.
b) The use of propane is associated with very high temperatures and fire can erupt in pits and
cellars.
c) The use of propane consumes very high amounts of oxygen.
20. How can you prevent falling hazards at the edge of a work floor?
a) By placing warning signs at the edge of the work floor.

b) By giving the workers proper instruction at the start of the work.
c) By putting proper barriers at the edge of the work floor.
21. You come across a spread out tarpaulin on a work floor. What is the one thing you must
be sure to take into consideration?
a) That the wind has caused the tarpaulin to become loos

b) That there might be an opening below the tarpaulin.
c) You may only put junk on this tarpaulin.
194
22. Working with gas cylinders/bottles in an excavation can create added danger. What
safety measure do you need to take?
a) Never work with gas in or near an excavation.

b) Do not place any gas cylinders/bottles in the excavation.
c) Only position the gas cylinders/bottles against the wall of the excavation.
23. What do you need to pay attention to when moving a mobile scaffold tower?
a) That the wheels do not get damage

b) That the stabilizers cannot shift during moving.
c) That this is done with more than person.
24. What increases the risk of fire or explosion in a confined space?
a) There is little ventilation, as a result of which the grenswaarde (threshold limit value) (MAC
value) can be reached quickly.
b) There is little ventilation, as a result of which the LEL (Lower Explosion Limit) can be
reached quickly.
c) There is little ventilation, as a result of which the air pressure can increase quickly.
25. What is the essence of the Earth Movers’ Regulations?
a) These regulations impose limits on the maximum depth of an excavation.

b) These regulations oblige everyone who starts digging with mechanical means, to first
request information from the Land Registry.
c) These regulations prohibit the mixing of contaminated soil from an excavation with clean
soil.
26. How can you reduce the risk of electrocution?
a) By working with wet hands.

b) You cannot reduce the risk of electrocution.
c) By standing on a rubber mat.
27. What increases the risk of accidents involving electricity at your workplace?
a) The use of chargeable tools.

b) The use of spark free tools.
c) The use of uninsulated tools.
28. What is a hazard in the use of extension cables and multiple sockets?
a) Overloading of the cable, which can lead to fir

b) Leakage currents with the attendant danger of electrocution.
c) Short-circuit when too many power cables and electrical plugs are use
195
29. What influences the injury resulting from an electric current passing through the
human body?
a) The route that the electrical current takes through the victim’s body.
b) Whether the tools used to carry out the work had been approve
c) The type of tools that the victim was using.
30. What are the hazards of exposure to noise?
a) Heart rhythm disorders.

b) Muscle ach
c) Reduced concentration.
31. Two noise sources of 80 dB(A) each are placed together. How high is the total noise
(pressure) level?
a) 160 dB(A).
b) 83 dB(A).
c) 120 dB(A).
32. Who is responsible for making suitable resources available for use during lifting?
a) The Occupational Health and Safety doctor.

b) The employer.
c) The safety officer.
33. What is the requirement that PBM’s (personal protective equipment) are expected to
meet?
a) They must have a KEMA quality mark.

b) They must have a CE mark
c) They must be approved by the Arbodienst (Occupational Health and Safety Service).
34. What is the maximum attenuation value of hearing protection plugs?
a) 45 dB(A).
b) 30 dB(A).
c) 10 dB(A).
35. How are the different protection classes of dust filters designated?
a) S1, S2 and S3.

b) Blue, brown and black.
c) P1, P2 and P3.
196
36. What requirement is a safety harness expected to meet?
a) A safety harness must fit well and be adjusted to the wearer.

b) A safety harness must be equipped with leather seat straps.
c) A safety harness must have double stitched shoulder belts.
37. Which of the following criteria is NOT used by OSHA to demonstrate that a hazard is
or should have been "recognized" by the employer?
a) industry recognition
b) employer recognition
c) employee recognition
d) common sense recognition
38. The question of foreseeability should be addressed by the safety manager during the
phase of an accident investigation
a) Fact gathering
b) Interviewing
c) Event tree analysis
d) Root cause analysis
39. According to SAIF Corporation, ____________ are the cause of about 3% of all
accidents in the workplace
a) lack of common sense

b) hazardous conditions
c) unsafe behaviors
d) absence of safety rules
40. Which of the following could result in the employee being a "hazardous condition"?
a) inadequate training
b) mental deficiency
c) physical deficiency
d) all of the above
41. The identification process determines
a) who is liable
b) what hazards are present
c) what a hazard looks like
d) where a hazard can be found
197
42. An analysis process examines ______________:
a) where hazards can be found and how to find it

b) each part to determine its impact on the whole
c) performance to judge its effectiveness
d) culture to evaluate how well it supports
43. ______________ are considered one of the most effective proactive methods to collect
useful data about the hazards and unsafe behaviors in your workplace
a) Employee interviews
b) Surveys
c) Formal observations
d) Accident investigations
44. Comprehensive surveys ideally should be performed by people ___________________:
a) with fresh vision and extensive knowledge

b) from unrelated functional are as
c) with little interest in the outcome
45. What is a major weakness of the walk around safety inspection?
a) Does not adequately identify unsafe behaviors

b) Does not adequately identify hazardous conditions
c) Requires both employee and management participation
d) Takes too much time
46. Comprehensive safety surveys are best conducted by in house experts.
a) True
b) False
47. The frequency of a safety inspection should depend on __________________.
a) the nature of the work and workplace

b) OSHA requirements
c) best practices
d) stated employer policy
48. Which of the following is the most basic and widely used tool for routine hazard
analysis; it is sometimes called job safety analysis?
a) Phase Analysis
b) Process Hazard Analysis
c) Job Hazard Analysis
d) Change Analysis
198
49. Conduct this type of analysis any time you bring something new into your worksite,
whether it be a piece of equipment, different materials, a new process, or an entirely new
building.
a) Phase Analysis
b) Process Hazard Analysis
c) Job Hazard Analysis
d) Change Analysis
50. A __process__________ is defined as an operation involving a type of work that presents

hazards not experienced in previous operations, or an operation where a new
subcontractor or work crew is to perform work.
a) process
b) task
c) job
d) phase
199
Chapter 25
SAFETY IN PROCESS INDUSTRY
1. If original equipment design information is not available, the information need to
establish a process safety management program may be reconstructed from inspection
records.
a) true
b) false
2. One of the factors in process safety management accountability is management and

supervisory accessibility and communications.
a) true
b) false
3. ManagementofChange programs do not need to consider temporary changes and

variances in a process.
a) true
b) false
4. Employers need verification that contractor employees have been trained even though
they are only temporary employees.
a) true
b) false
5. Which of the following organizations was created by an amendment to the U.S. Clean Air
Act?
a) the Center for Chemical Process Safety

b) the Chemical Safety and Hazard Investigation Board
c) the Organizations Resource Counselors
d) the Synthetic Organic Chemical Manufacturers Association
6. Which of the following are not exempt from OSHA’s PSM standard?
a) a company that stores 12,000 pounds of flammable liquid

b) hydrocarbons used only for fuel in the workplace
c) retail facilities
d) oil well drilling operations
200
7. SARA Title III required companies to develop emergency preparedness plans;
recognition, knowledge, and inventories of hazardous chemicals; and to report toxic
releases.
a) true
b) false
8. Which of the following methods of hazard analysis works by asking a series of questions
to review potential scenarios and possible consequences?
a) HAZOP Study
b) Checklist
c) “What If...?”
d) Failure Mode and Effect Analysis
9. Which of the following may be considered for a permit program?
a) hot work
b) confinedspace entry
c) opening process equipment
d) all of the above
10. To comply with the OSHA PSM standard, employers must audit all process operations at
least every ___________
a) two years
b) three years
c) four years
d) five years
11. According to OSHA, process safety management is the proactive identification,

evaluation, mitigation, or prevention of chemical releases that could occur as a result of
an equipment failure.
a) true
b) false
12. Risk management plans required by the Clean Air Act need not be registered with the
EPA, although they must be registered with state and local agencies.
a) true
b) false
13. The longterm goals of process risk management should be based on the degree of risk
that management is willing to accept.
a) true
b) false
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14. An event tree analysis works backward from a defined incident to identify the
combination of errors or failures involved in an incident.
a) true
b) false
15. When implementing a training program for employees who work with hazardous
chemicals, management needs to consider the design of process maintenance procedures.
a) true
b) false
16. When did the CMA initiate its Responsible Care Program?
a) 1983
b) 1985
c) 1988
d) 1990
17. Which of the following focused on preventing releases of hazardous chemicals that
could expose employees and others to danger?
a) 29 CFR 1910.119, Process Safety Management of Highly Hazardous Chemicals

b) Petrochemical (PETROSEP) Industries Compliance Directive
c) Instruction CPL 22.45, Systems Safety Evaluation of Operations with Catastrophic Potential
d) 40 CFR 68 Section 112 (r), Risk Management Programs for Chemical Accidental Release
Prevention
18. Which of the follow methods of hazard analysis uses specific guide words, which are
systematically applied to parameters to identify the consequences of changes in the
design of a process?
a) Fault Tree Analysis

b) Failure Mode and Effect Analysis
c) “What If...?”/Checklist
d) HAZOP Study
19. A good process safety management practice is to review process hazard analyses at least
every _____, even if the processes, equipment, or materials have not change
a) two years
b) three years
c) five years
d) seven years
202
20. Mechanical integrity requirements apply to ____________.
a) vent devices
b) pumps and piping systems
c) materials of construction
d) all of the above
21. To comply with OSHA regulations, how many compliance audit reports does an
employer need to keep on file?
a) the most recent report

b) the last two reports
c) the last three reports
d) none (OSHA does not require employers to keep reports.)
22. A successful safety program requires several ingredients. These ingredients are,
a) System, Attitude
b) Fundamentals, Experience
c) Time, You
d) All of the above
23. A process has a reported FAR of 2. If an employee works a standard 8hr shift 300 days
per year, the deaths per person per year will be?
a) 6 × 105
b) 4.8 × 105
c) 1.5 × 1010
d) 5.4 × 106
24. If twice as many people used motorcycles for the same average amount of time each,
what will happen to (a) the OSHA incidence rate, the FAR, the fatality rate, and (d) the
total number of fatalities? Identify the correct sequence of answers,
a) The OSHA incidence rate will remain the same The number of injuries and deaths will
double, but the total number of hours exposed will double as well.
b) The FAR will remain unchanged for the same reason as in part
c) The fatality rate, or deaths per person per year, will double The fatality rate does not depend
on exposed hours.
d) The total number of fatalities will double
e) All of the above is correct.
203
25. Match the following:
Year of happening
Disaster
Flixborough, England June 1974
Bhopal, India December 3, 1984
Seveso, Italy July 10, 1976
Pasadena,Texas October 23, 1989
Texas City,Texas March 23, 2005
Jacksonville, Florida December 19, 2007
Port Wentworth, Georgia February 7, 2008
26. Which of the following data are useful for hazard identification?
A. TLV
B. Physical state of chemicals
C. Sensitivity of chemicals to temperature or impact
D. Type and degree of radiation
a) A, B, C
b) B, C, D
c) A, C, D
d) A, B, C, D
27. Fresh water carrying pipelines in chemical industries are coloured with __________
color.
a) Sea green
b) Brown
c) Red
d) Yellow
28. Liquid/petroleum fuel storage tanks are built underground (as in case of petrol pumps),
when the storage capacity is less than __________ kilolitres.
a) 45
b) 20
c) 80
d) 30
204
a) It allows the Occupational Health & Safety Service to determine whether the involved
employees need to undergo an examination.
can check which activities are performed
30. Before performing a Process Hazard Analysis, such as a HAZOP, the participants in the
study will need to have all of the following safety information, except:
a) A block flow diagram or simplified process flow diagram.

b) SIS internal wiring diagrams
c) Area electrical classification
d) Design codes and standards employed
31. Which of the following statements about the documentation required for functional
safety planning are true:
1. Safety planning documentation can be included as a section in the quality plan entitled
“safety plan”
2. Safety Planning can be documented in a series of documents that may include other
company procedures or working practices, such as corporate standards.
3. Safety planning must be documented in a separate document entitled “safety plan”.
a) 1 and 2 are true, 3 is false

b) 1 and 3 are true, 2 is false
c) 1 is true, 2 and 3 are false
d) 1, 2, and 3 are true
33. You are spray painting in a confined space Why do you have to ventilate this space?
a) In order to remain below the lower explosion limit (LEL).

b) In order to remain below 10% of the lower explosion limit (LEL).
c) In order to remain below 50% of the lower explosion limit (LEL).
34. Check list for Job Safety Analysis (JSA) consists of:

205
35. Match the following:
Values Organization
ERPG AIHA
IDLH NIOSH
TLV ACGIH
PEL OSHA
36. What is the role of the workplace’s health and safety representative?
a) To represent the workers’ views and concerns on the workplace’s OH&S practices to the
employer
b) To document the workplace’s OH&S policies and practices
c) To check on whether all workers are complying with the workplace’s OH&S policies and
practices
d) To train and assess all workers in their knowledge of the workplace’s OH&S policies and
practices
37. To reduce injury, a risk control process accompanied by hazardmanagement procedures

needs to be established
a) True
b) False
38. Which of the following guideword used during HAZOP analysis means complete
opposite of the intended parameter?
a) Other than
b) Reverse
c) Part of
d) As well as
39. Which of the following is an example of an intangible loss?
a) Mental illness
b) Income loss
c) Response cost
40. Depth of analysis does not typically depend upon which of the following?
a) Time and money available

b) Risk seriousness
c) Risk complexity
d) Direct experience
206
41. Which of the following is defined as: “Communication intended to supply laypeople with
the information they need to make informed, independent judgments about risks to
health, safety, and the environment?”
a) Risk communication
b) Crisis communication
c) Public consultation
d) All of the above
42. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Mechanical lifting devices reduce manual handling hazards

b) Reorganising work tasks can reduce manual handling hazards
c) If you are fit and healthy, working long hours does not increase the risk of manual task
injury
43. Do you need an observer when working in a confined space?
a) Yes, you need an observer that always has sight of you when in a confined space
b) No, an observer is not always needed when in a confined space
c) Yes, an observer is needed that can maintain continuous communication with you
d) No, as long as someone can contact you on a radio or mobile phone, you don't need an
observer
44. Employers should give instructions to workers on how to deal with emergencies, and
where to find:
a) emergency services such as the ambulance

b) first aid items, emergency exits and fire extinguishers
c) personal protective overalls
d) all of the above
45. Isolating and locking out machinery means:
a) switching off the machine while it is not in use

b) fitting a padlock or locking device so the machine cannot be accidently turned on
c) locating the machine away from busy work areas
d) switching the machine off during maintenance, cleaning and repair
46. When mechanical equipment hazards cannot be eliminated, you should:
a) not use the equipment

b) work close to other workers in case there is an emergency
c) wear personal protective equipment such as safety glasses, hearing protection, protective
gloves and safety shoes
d) all of the above
207
47. Noise levels are measured in:
a) decimals or dB
b) decibels or dB
c) millimetres per second
d) dB per second
48. The risk of manual task injuries are increased by:
a) the length of time spent handling the load

b) twisting sideways, bending and stretching
c) using trolleys and hoists
d) wearing a back brace
49. Power tools such as routers, planers, cutting and sanding tools:
a) are not noisy enough to cause permanent hearing loss

b) are noisy, but wearing earphones from your MP3 player provides hearing protection
c) may generate noise levels that can cause permanent hearing loss
d) generate less noise when you stand on a rubber mat
50. Which of the following is a consequence based analysis that begins by considering an
initiating event and follows the consequences through a series of possible paths?
a) Eventtree analysis
b) Faulttree
c) Failure Modes and Effects Analysis
d) Historical Analysis
208
Chapter 26
DISASTER MANAGEMENT I
1. Which of the following locations is a supervolcano?
a) Yellowstone National Park

b) Mt Rainier
c) Iceland
d) Mt Kilimanjaro
2. The last major supervolcano eruption 75,000 years ago killed about which % of the
world's humans?
a) 0%
b) 1%
c) 5%
d) 60%
3. Which was the deadliest hurricane in US History?
a) Katrina
b) Galveston Hurricane of 1900
c) Andrew
d) Camille
4. Which European city was almost entirely destroyed by a combination

earthquake/fire/tsunami in 1755?
a) Lisbon
b) Rome
c) Barcelona
d) Athens
5. About how many people died in the December 26, 2004 tsunami?
a) 30,000
b) 300,000
c) 3,000,000
d) 30,000,000
6. The Great Chilean earthquake of 1960 was the largest earthquake ever recorde What
did it score on the Richter scale?
a) 8.9
b) 9.5
c) 10.1
d) 11.0
209
7. In 1908 an asteroid exploded near the Earth's surface with the force of a 15 megaton
nuclear weapon. Where did it strike?
a) New Mexico
b) Siberia
c) South Pacific
d) Pakistan
8. Not counting pandemics, the two deadliest natural disasters on record were both:
a) Flooding of the Yellow River in China

b) Monsoons in India
c) Hurricanes in Bangladesh
d) Earthquakes in Pakistan
9. In 1974, the socalled "Super Outbreak" struck the United States. What was it?
a) Legionnaires' disease
b) An outbreak of tornados
c) Flooding caused by broken levees
d) A dance craze
10. A place where an earthquake originates is called the __________.

a) Focus
b) Tsunami
c) Fault Line
d) Epicentre
11. As the magnitude of natural disasters increases their frequency of occurrence

_________.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) remains the same
d) varies over time
12. Which natural hazard has resulted in the greatest monetary losses in a single event for
the period of time listed?
a) Earthquake
b) Hurricane
c) fire
d) flood
210
13. The largest wave during a tsunami event is __________________.
a) the first
b) the third
c) the fifth
d) unpredictable, it could be any of them
14. The destructive powers of tsunami result mainly from their ___________________.
a) incredible height
b) unpredictablility
c) cold water
d) momentum and long wavelength
15. In the open ocean, tsunami can travel ________ miles per hour with periods up to
_________ minutes.
a) 50; 20
b) 50; 60
c) 485; 20
d) 485; 60
16. Which event produces the biggest tsunami?
a) Earthquake
b) Underwater landslides
c) Hurricanes
d) Impacts of asteroids and comets
17. Powerful tsunami are most frequently produced by _________.
a) Volcanoes
b) Underwater landslides
c) Earthquakes
d) impacts of asteroids
18. All of the following are TRUE about disasters EXCEPT
a) A disaster may be domestic or international

b) A disaster may be caused by nature or have human origins
c) A disaster always receives widespread media coverag
d) A disaster may have a known and gradual onset
211
19. Disasters frequently result in all of the following EXCEPT
a) Damage to the ecological environment

b) Displacement of populations
c) Destruction of a population"s homeland
d) Sustained public attention during the recovery phase
20. Social workers skilled in crisis management work:
a) tornado or flood
b) violent events such as child abuse, domestic abuse, crime
c) psychopathology that triggers a crisis i. suicide attempt, drug overdose
d) car accident, lifethreatening illness
e) With all of the above
21. According to the United Nations between 1992 and 2000 there were approximately ____
disasters per year throughout the world
a) 100
b) 300
c) 500
d) 800
22. According to Reza et al, the number of people who have lost their lives in the 25 largest
violent events of the 20th century number:
a) Almost 1 million
b) Almost 10 million
c) Almost 100 million
d) Almost 200 million
23. Responsibility for securing the scene, preserving life and treating the wounded is the
responsibility of:
a) First responders
b) Mental health professionals
c) Social workers who specialize in crisis management
d) All citizens
24. There are nine tasks in the of disaster management. All of the following are tasks of this
model EXCEPT:
a) Assess secondary social problems such as health epidemics, displaced persons

b) Counsel those who have suffered trauma and bereavement
c) Control rumors, provide accurate information
d) Provide security; prevent looting, protect person and property
212
25. Which one of the following theories of disaster management informs organizational
readiness and response in a disaster?
a) Hobfoll"s theory of Conservation of Resources

b) The problem solving task model
c) Structure functional theory
d) Theory of traumatogenic forces
26. The decision to offer humanitarian aid is determined by:
a) Theories of social justice

b) Deontological reasoning
c) Teleological reasoning
d) Socio-political factors
e) All of the above
27. Conditions for the delivery of concrete goods and services at a disaster site include all of
the following EXCEPT:
a) Extreme climates; hot cold, wet, et

b) Crowded and cramped conditions for living and working
c) Lack of privacy, threat to safety
d) A clear demarcation of being on or off duty.
28. The play all of the following roles in covering a disaster EXCEPT:
a) Shapes public sympathy by the amount and type of coverage

b) Problem solves obstacles encountered in the delivery of relief
c) Identifies heroes
d) Attempts to assign blame related to the cause of the disaster or for failures in response
29. Who is at the top of the Incident Command System (ICS)?
a) Safety Officer
b) Planning Section
c) Incident Commander
d) Information Officer
31.Which of the following is not part of the preparedness cycle?
a) Develop the emergency plan

b) Test the plan
c) Develop and provide training
d) Determine a plan leader
213
32.What does FEMA stand for?
a) Federal Emergency Maintenance Association

b) Federal Emergency Management Agency
c) Fundamental Energy Management Act
d) Foundation of Entertainment Materials Association
33. What are the three steps to being prepared for a disaster?
a) Get a kit, make a plan, be informed

b) Choose a leader, set evacuation route, follow directions
c) Stock up on items, stay indoors, wait for direction
d) Make a plan, follow through, check damages
34. The Red Cross allows pets as long as they are fully vaccinate
a) True
b) False
35. Which of the following is NOT an emergency responder?
a) Nurses
b) Police
c) Firefighters
d) Ambulances
36. Which is defined as "an emergency that requires resources beyond those available
locally"?
a) Emergency
b) Disaster
37. Where did the alleged "deadliest earthquake in the history of mankind" occur?
a) California
b) New York
c) China
d) Florida
38. Which of the following is the simplest form of disaster training?
a) Table top Exercises

b) Pre and post tests
c) Full Scale Drill
d) Limited Functional Exercises
214
39. Which of the following NOT a type of training needs assessment?
a) Formal Survey
b) Multiple Choice Tests
c) Interviews
d) Focus Groups
40. The cyclone SIDR hits Bangladesh in?.
a) 2007
b) 2008
c) 2006
d) 2005
41. Disaster can be classified in different on the basis of ?
a) its speed
b) previous history
c) loss of property they results
d) loss of human life they results
42. Disaster management covers ?

d) All the above
43. Which of the following is the Disaster management strategy ?

44. Amateur radio is also known as ?
a) Ham radio
b) Home radio
c) Pocket radio
d) Silent radio
45. Tsunami occurs only during?
a) Morning
b) Noon
c) Evening
215
46. Landscape occurs because of ?
b) Steep slopes
d) All the above
47. the main objective of first aid is?
a) To preserve life
d) All the above
48. The Disaster Management Act is encountered in ?
a) 2006
b) 2005
c) 2008
d) 2007
49. What is the percentage of occurrence of earthquake and tsunami ?
a) 8%
b) 3%
c) 9%
d) 7%
216
Chapter 27
BASICS OF CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
1. Friction factor for fluid flow in pipe does not depend upon the
a) pipe length.
b) pipe roughness.
c) fluid density & viscosity.
d) mass flow rate of fluid
2. The average heat transfer coefficient for laminar film condensation on vertical surface is
inversely proportional to (where, ΔT = Temperature drop across condensate film )
a) (ΔT)2
b) ΔT
c) (ΔT)1/4
d) (ΔT)3/2
3. At minimum reflux ratio for a given separation
a) number of plates is zero.

b) number of plates is infinity.
c) minimum number of the theoretical plates is require
d) separation is most efficient.
4. Kopp's rule is concerned with the calculation of
a) thermal conductivity.
b) heat capacity.
c) viscosity.
d) surface tension.
5. Which of the following is not an intensive property
a) Chemical potential
b) Surface tension
c) Heat capacity
d) None of these
6. Pensky Marten apparatus is used for those oils, whose flash points are __________ °F.
a) <120
b) >120
c) <90
d) 90110
217
7. 25 per cent cut segmental baffle means that the baffle
a) height is 75% of the I. of the shell.

b) height is 25% of the I. of the shell.
c) spacing is 75% of its height.
d) width is 25% of its height.
8. Which of the following may be used to measure the rate of nuclear disintegration?
a) Geiger Muller Counter

b) Cyclotron
c) Cold chamber
d) Mass spectrograph
9. Capacity of a refractory brick to withstand sudden changes in temperature is denoted

by the property called
a) spalling resistance.
b) refractoriness.
c) refractoriness under load (RUL).
d) none of these.
10. Nylon6 is manufactured from
a) caprolactum.
b) adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine
c) maleic anhydride and hexamethylene diamine
d) sebasic acid and hexamethylene diamine
11. For Laminar flow through a packed bed, the pressure drop is proportional to (Vs is the
superficial liquid velocity and Dp is the particle diameter)
a) Vs/Dp2
b) Vs2/Dp2
c) Vs2/Dp3
d) Vs/Dp3
12. If dp is the equivalent diameter of a nonspherical particle, Vp its volume and sp its
surface area, then its sphericity is Φs is defined by
a) Φs = 6 Vp/dp sp
b) Φs = Vp/dp sp
c) Φs = 6 dp Sp/Vp
d) Φs = dp Sp/Vp
218
13. True boiling point apparatus is used for the
a) determination of characterisation factor.

b) evaluation of oil stocks.
c) determination of true vapour pressure
d) none of these
14. Fusion of bauxite and __________ produces high alumina cement.
a) Alum
b) limestone
c) Coke
d) Quartz
15. Which of the following is an undesirable dynamic characteristic of an instrument ?
a) Reproducibility
b) Dead zone
c) Time lag
d) Static error
16. The dimensions of rate constant for reaction 3A B are (l/gm mole)/min. Therefore
the reaction order is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
17. 18/8 steel is a/an __________ stainless steel.
a) Austenitic
b) Ferritic
c) Martensitic
d) none of these
18. Pick out the wrong statement.
a) Net worth means paid up share capital and reserve & surplus (i. shareholders equity).
b) Return on equity = profit after tax/net worth.
c) Working capital turnover ratio = sales/net working capital.
d) Total cost of production is more than net sales realisation (NSR) at breakeven point.
219
19. Regenerators are installed in
a) coke ovens
b) open hearth furnace
c) both (a) &
d) neither (a) nor
20. Particulates (< 1μm size) remaining suspended in air indefinitely and transported by
wind currents are called
a) fumes
b) mists
c) smoke
d) aerosols
21. Nusselt number is related to Grashoff number (Gr) in turbulent & laminar flow
respectively, in respect of free convection over a vertical flat plate as
a) Gr0.25, Gr
b) Gr0.25, Gr0.33
c) Gr, Gr0.25
d) Gr0.33, Gr0.25
22. The heat flux (from outside to inside) across an insulating wall with thermal
conductivity, K= 0.04 W/m.°K and thickness 0.16m is 10 W/m2. The temperature of the
inside wall is 5° The outside wall temperature is
a) 25°C
b) 30°C
c) 35°C
d) 40°C
23. Which of the following unit operations makes use of ThieleGeddes equation ?
a) Liquidliquid extraction
b) Solidliquid extraction
c) Multicomponent absorption with chemical reaction
d) Multicomponent distillation.
24. Out of the following refrigration cycles, which one has the minimum COP (Coefficient
of performance)?
a) Air cycle
b) Carnot cycle
c) Ordinary vapour compression cycle
d) Vapour compression with a reversible expansion engine
220
25. The main purpose of providing stepping on the trays is to
a) increase the residence tim

b) decrease the pressure drop.
c) facilitate handling of large flow rate of liqui
d) improve the flow condition.
26. Thiokol is nothing but
a) polysulphide rubber
b) polyamide fibre
c) engineering plastic
d) exponded polystyrene
27. At high Reynolds number
a) inertial forces control and viscous forces are unimportant.

b) viscous forces predominate
c) inertial forces are unimportant and viscous forces control.
d) none of these
28. Froth floatation is the most suitable for treating
a) iron ores
b) sulphide ores
c) Quartzite
d) none of these
29. Visbreaking process is used mainly for making
a) High cetane diesel

b) high octane gasoline
c) fuel oil
d) smoke free kerosene
30. Pick out the first order system from among the following.
a) Damped vibrator.
b) Mercury in glass thermometer kept in boiling water.
c) Interacting system of two tanks in series.
d) Non interacting system of two tanks in series.
31. Which of the following will give maximum gas conversion ?
a) Fixed bed reactor.

b) Fluidised bed reactor.
c) Semifluidised bed reactor.
d) Plugflow catalytic reactor.
221
32. 'Sixtenth factor' rule is used for estimating the
a) equipment installation cost.

b) equipment cost by scaling.
c) cost of piping.
d) utilities cost.
33. Ostwald charts are meant for
a) computing the excess/deficiency of combustion air.

b) calculation of flue gas temperature
c) computation of flue gas analysis.
d) none of these
34. Turbidity of water is an indication of the presence of
a) suspended inorganic matter

b) dissolved solids
c) floating solids
d) dissolved gases
35. Which of the following polymers is obtained by copolymerisation of three monomers ?
a) SAN
b) ABS
c) SBR
d) PTFE
36. The critical radius 'r' of insulation on a pipe is given by
a) r = 2k/h
b) r = k/h
c) r = k/2h
d) r = h/k
37. The minimum number of theoretical plates is required for achieving a given separation
in distillation column with
a) no reflux
b) total reflux
c) zero reflux ratio
d) minimum reflux ratio
222
38. At equilibrium condition, the chemical potential of a material in different phases in
contact with each other is equal. The chemical potential for a real gas (μ) is given
by(where, μ = standard chemical potential at unit fugacity (f° = 1 atm.) and the gas
behaves ideally.)
a) μ° + RT ln f
b) μ°+ R lnf
c) μ° + T lnf
d) μ° + R/T lnf
39. Hole diameter of the seive trays in the distillation column ranges from __________ mm.
a) lto3
b) 4 to 8
c) 3 to 12.5
d) 12.5 to 18.5
40. The ratio of average fluid velocity to the maximum velocity in case of laminar flow of a
Newtonion fluid in a circular pipe is
a) 0.5
b) 1
c) 2
d) 0.66
41. Trommels separate a mixture of particles depending on their
a) Size
b) Density
c) Wettability
d) electrical & magnetic properties
42. The response of two tanks of same size and resistance in series is
a) under damped
b) critically damped
c) over damped
43. For a homogeneous reaction of nth order, the dimension of the rate constant is given by
a) l/(time)n
b) (concentration)1 n/(time)
c) (concentration)n 1/(time)
d) none of these
223
44. __________ of depreciation calculation does not take into account the interest on
investments.
a) Present worth method

b) Sinking fund method
c) Sum of the years digits method
d) all (a), and (c)
45. A sphere of radius 'R1' is enclosed in a sphere of radius 'R2'. The view (or shape) factor
for radiative heat transfer of the outer sphere with respect to the inner sphere is
a) 0
b) R2/(R1+R2)
c) 1
d) (R1/R2)2
46. Which of the following mixtures does not form an azeotrope at atmosheric pressure?
a) Water alcohol
b) Methyl alcohol acetone
c) Butyl acetate water
d) None of these
47. Which of the following identities can be most easily used to verify steam table data for
superheated steam.
a) (∂T/∂V)S = (∂p/∂S)V
b) (∂T/∂P)S = (∂V/∂S)P
c) (∂P/∂T)V = (∂S/∂V)T
d) (∂V/∂T)P = (∂S/∂P)T
48. Pressure drop in a packed bed for laminar flow is given by the __________ equation.
a) Kozney Karman
b) Blake Plummer
c) Leva's
d) Fanning friction factor
49. __________ conveyor is the most suitable for short distance transportation of
nonabrasive loose materials like garbage, grain, food wastes et
a) Flight
b) Screw
c) Drag
d) Belt
224
50. Hot wire anemometer is used for the measurement of
a) flow rates of fluids.

b) flow rates of granular solids.
c) very high temperatur
d) thermal conductivity of gases.
225
Chapter 28
TRANSPORTATION OF HAZARDOUS CHEMICAL AND VEHICULAR

SAFETY
1. Shape of the label while Transportation of hazardous chemical
a) square
b) diamond
c) circle
d) triangle
2. Size of the label while Transportation of hazardous chemical
a) 500mm
b) more than 500 mm
c) 200mm
d) not less than 250 mm
3. Responsibility of the transporter or owner of goods carriage
Justify the statement yes/no

 The Vehicle is equipped with necessary FirstAid, Safety equipment, tool box and antidotes as
may be necessity to contain any accident.
4. Term card means
a) transport cad
b) transport data card
c) transportation card
d) transport emergency card
5. United class letter number in label size of letters in the label
a) 200mm
b) less than 200mm
c) 100mm
d) not less than 100
6. The correct technical name of the dangerous or hazardous goods in letters
a) greater than 100mm

b) not less than 50 mm
c) 50 mm
d) 100 mm
226
7. The term “CHEMTREC” stands for
a) Chemical Transportation Emergency Centre

b) Chemical Training Centre
c) Chemical Treatment Centre
d) Chemical Toxicity Recovery Centre
8. The Acronym “MSDS” stands for
a) Mass Safety Data Sheet

b) Material Security Data Sheet
c) Material Safety Data Sheet
d) Master Security Data Sheet
9. In India, MSDS has been mandated under which law?
a) The Manufacture, Storage and Import of Hazardous Chemicals Rules, 1989

b) The Chemical Accidents (Emergency Planning, Preparedness and Response) Rules, 1996
c) The Factories Act, 1948
d) The Central Motor Vehicle Rules, 1989
10. Which of the following statements is correct about Flash point?
a) It is the lowest temperature at which vapours of the substance will have unsustained fire in
b) It is the lowest temperature at which vapours of the substance will have sustained fire in the
c) It is the lowest temperature at which vapours of the substance will automatic start burning
even without presence of ignition source
d) It is the lowest concentration at which vapours of the substance will have sustained fire if
once ignited with ignition source
11. Which one of the following statements is correct about the term „Threshold Limit Value
(TLV)‟?
a) A concentration level expressed in ppm (part of the vapour per million part of contaminated
air) upto which it is believed a worker can be exposed day after day for working without any
adverse health effect.
b) A concentration level in ppm (part of the vapour per million part of contaminated air) upto
which a worker can be exposed for a day (24 hrs) for working without any adverse health
effect.
c) A concentration level in ppm (part of the vapour per million part of contaminated air) upto
which a worker can be exposed for 12 hours without any adverse health effect.
d) A concentration level in ppm (part of the vapour per million part of contaminated air) to
which it is believed a worker can be exposed for 4 hours without any adverse health effect.
227
12. As a Customs officer, before taking sample from any imported hazardous chemical
consignment, what document he must first refer to?
a) Bill of Entry.
b) Bill of Lading.
c) MSDS
d) Invoice
13. The term “Teratogenic Effect” with reference to exposure to the Hazardous Chemical,
means,
a) Effect on Genes
14. The term “Mutagenic Effect” with reference to exposure to the Hazardous Chemical,
means
a) Effect on Genes
15. The hazardous chemical can enter the human body through which of the following
routes
a) Ingestion
b) Inhalation
c) Eye contact
d) Skin Contact
e) All the above
16. What elected group's laws and regulations make laboratory safety a legal requirement
in the United States of America?
a) State
b) country
c) local
d) federal
17. liquified petroleum gas when the total quantity of gas does not exceed
a) a)100 kg at a time
b) b)200 kg
c) 400kg
d) d )100kg
228
18. Any other flammable but nontoxic gas when the total number of cylinders containing
such gas does
a) not exceed 25 or the total weight of gas does not exceed 200 kg
b) not exceed 50 or the total weight of gas does not exceed 200 kg
c) not exceed 100 or the total weight of gas does not exceed 300 kg
d) not exceed 60 or the total weight of gas does not exceed 500 kg
19. Any non-flammable nontoxic gas when the total number of such cylinders does not
exceed
a) 200 at a time
b) 400 at a time
c) 600 at a time
d) 150 at a time
20. Any toxic gas when the total quantity of such cylinders does not exceed
a) 5 at a time;
b) 7 at a time;
c) 9 at a time;
d) 8 at a time;
21. Acetylene gas contained in cylinders in dissolved state when the total quantity of such
cylinder does not exceed
a) 70 at a time
b) 30 at a time
c) 50 at a time
d) 40 at a time
22. THE MOTOR VEHICLES ACT,
a) 1988
b) 1989
c) 1990
d) 1974
23. HAZCHEM code of petrol
a) 3YE
b) 4ZE
c) 2YE
d) 4YE
229
24. HAZCHEM code of L.P.G
a) 2 WE
b) 3WE
c) 4WE
d) 5WE
25. HAZCHEM code of SULPHUR
a) 2z
b) 4z
c) 5z
d) 6z
26. for explosive materials
a) symbol exploding bomb ,colour –black, background orange

b) symbol exploding bomb ,colour –red, background orange
c) symbol exploding bomb ,colour –yellow, background orange
d) symbol exploding bomb ,colour –green, background orange
27. for non-flammable gas
a) symbol gas cylinder ,colour –black, background orange

b) symbol gas cylinder ,colour –black or white, background green
c) symbol gas cylinder ,colour –black, background orange
d) symbol gas cylinder ,colour –black, background orange
28. for flammable gases
a) symbol flame ,colour –black or white, background orange

b) symbol flame, colour –black or white, background orange
c) symbol flame ,colour –black or white, background red
d) symbol flame ,colour –black or white, background orange
29. for flammable solids
a) symbol flame ,colour –black, background white with vertical red strip
b) symbol flame ,colour –black, background yellow with vertical red strip
c) symbol flame ,colour –black, background orange
d) symbol flame ,colour –black, background orange
30. poison toxic gas
a) symbol skull cross bones ,colour –black, background white

b) symbol exploding bomb ,colour –black, background orange
c) symbol exploding bomb ,colour –black, background orange
d) symbol exploding bomb ,colour –black, background orange
230
31. Trained driver or employee required for transporting hazardous chemicals (yes/no)
32. Tanker carrying hazardous chemical should require emergency information panel
(yes/no)
33. Vehicle carry Explosive material should bear word
a) E
b) O
c) z
d) w
34. The safety fitting, emergency vents, shut off values ,spark arrestor should maintain as
per codes (yes /no)
35. Vehicle carrying hazardous materials it can be parked in public areas *(yes/no)
36. Vehicle carrying flammable materials it can be fitted with ......... arrestor
a) flashback arrestor
b) spark arrestor
37. Vehicle carrying hazardous chemical should mention distinct mark labels
a) both vehicle and package

b) only on vehicle
c) only on package
38. If the package represent two hazards such package shall display
a) two hazards
b) only one
c) or not even one hazard
39. Every carriage shall be fitted with safety equipments shall be fitted with ............
a) technograph
b) techograph
40. The driver is trained in handling the danger posed during the transportation ofsuch
goods (yes/no)
41. The vehicle is equipped with necessary first aid, safety equipments and antidotes
(yes/no)
231
42. emergency information panel is label in how may sides of vehicle
a) one side
b) three sides
c) four sides
d) two sides
43. Tanker carrying petroleum products should be marked on each side and rare which
word
a) toxic
b) explosive
c) flammable
44. Tanker should carry fire extinguisher ,ppe ,emergency kit (yes/no)
45. Tanker should not be parked on public road ,in any congested areas with how much distance
of any source of ignition
a) 8m
b) 5m
c) 3m
d) 9m
232
Chapter 29
DISASTER MANAGEMENT II
1. Disaster Management covers

d) All the above
2. Disaster can be categorized on the basis of various types
a) Its speed
c) Loss of property
d) Loss of human life

4. Amateur radio is known as?
a) Ham radio
b) Home radio
c) Pocket radio
d) Silent radio
5. National institute of disaster management is located at?
a) Poona
b) Midnapur
c) New Delhi
d) Calcutta

after a disaster?

b) Mitigation
d) All the above
233
7. Landslides occur because of.
b) Steep slopes
d) All the above
8. The phrase “WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION” entered widespread usage in?
a) 2003
b) 2001
c) 2002
d) 2004
9. U.N. Disaster Management Team UNDMT is responsible for solving problems resulting
from disasters in?
a) India
b) Iran
c) Bangladesh
10. National Disaster Management Division of the Govt. of India wherever necessary sends
a) Coordination it’s containing satellite phones

d) All the above
11. Which of the following is natural hazard?
a) Earthquake
b) Cyclone
c) Landslide
d) All the above
12. The ground movements caused by earthquakes can have a damaging effect such as?
a) Ground shaking
b) Landslide
c) Surface rupture
d) All the above
234
a) Honolulu
b) Goa
c) Jakarta
d) Pondicherry
a) To preserve life
d) All the above
15. What is the strongest rating a tornado can receive?
a) EF2
b) EF5
c) EF3
d) EF6
16. When forests are cut or burned down?
a) water stands in fields and cannot flow away

b) nutrients are washed deep into the soil
c) water can flow away very quickly and cause mudslides
d) rainfall can get into the ground more quickly
17. Flash floods are often caused?
a) by rainfall over many days

b) by river beds that are too high
c) by thunderstorms
d) dikes and dams that are too high
18. A flash flood is a flood that:
a) is caused by heavy rain rather than from the flooding of a river

b) occurs in urban areas
c) occurs suddenly and unexpectedly and for a short duration
d) Is caused by the blocking of drains.
19. A flood can vary in:
a) size
b) speed of water flow
c) duration
d) All of the above
235
20. When a river’s water level reaches 10 meters, this means that:
a) the water level is 10 meters above an arbitrary ‘zero’ level

b) the water level is 10 meters above mean sea level
c) the water level is 10 meters above mean sea level or an arbitrary 'zero' level
d) It will flood
21. The size of a flood is measured by:
a) the rate of flow of water in a waterway or river

b) the level of water in a waterway or river
c) a river gauging station
d) all of the above
22. Which of the following is an environmental consequence of floods?
a) dispersal of weed species

b) erosion of soil
c) release of pollutants into waterways
d) All of the above
23. Which of the following can reduce the risk of flooding?
a) zonings and building regulations for new developments

b) dams, detention basins and levees
c) flood awareness and education programs
d) All of the above
24. Which of the following describes the build-up and release of stress during an
earthquake?
a) the Modified Mercalli Scale
b) the elastic rebound theory
c) the principle of superposition
d) the travel time difference
25. The amount of ground displacement in an earthquake is called the _________ .
a) epicenter
b) dip
c) slip
d) focus
26. The point where movement occurred which triggered the earthquake is the _______ .
a) dip
b) epicenter
c) focus
d) strike
236
27. Which of the following sequences correctly lists the different arrivals from first to last?
a) P waves ... S waves.... Surface waves

b) Surface waves ... P waves.... S waves
c) P waves ... Surface waves... S waves
d) S waves ... P waves.... Surface waves
28. How do rock particles move during the passage of a P wave through the rock?
a) back and forth parallel to the direction of wave travel

b) back and forth perpendicular to the direction of wave travel
c) in a rolling circular motion
d) the particles do not move
29. How many seismograph stations are needed to locate the epicenter of an earthquake?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
30. Earthquakes can occur with _________ faulting.
a) normal
b) reverse
c) thrust
d) All of these
31. Which of the following statements best describes the state of earthquake prediction?
a) scientists can accurately predict the time and location of almost all earthquakes
b) scientists can accurately predict the time and location of about 50% of all earthquakes
c) scientists can accurately predict when an earthquake will occur, but not where
d) scientists can characterize the seismic risk of an area, but cannot yet accurately predict most
earthquakes
32. What can cause a tsunami?
a) Landslide
b) Underwater earthquake
c) Volcanic eruption
d) All of the above
237
33. Do all the undersea trigger the earthquakes?
a) No
b) Yes
34. What does the word "tsunami" mean in Japanese?
a) Tidal wave
b) Harbor wave
c) Killer wave
d) Century wave
35. Witnesses have said that an approaching tsunami sounds like what?
a) Firecrackers exploding
b) A freight train
c) Ice cracking
d) Nothing—there is absolute site
36. What is the most active tsunami area?
a) Pacific Ocean
b) Caribbean Sea
c) Indian Ocean
d) North Atlantic Ocean
37. Where was the largest tsunami in history recorded?
a) India
b) Philippines
c) Chile
d) Japan
38. What is frequently a warning sign of an impending tsunami?
a) Winds suddenly change direction

b) The sky suddenly clears
c) Seawater suddenly retreats from the shore
d) All of the above
39. A typical tropical cyclone (or hurricane) is formed ________.
a) Over land
b) Over the ocean
c) Either A or B
238
40. In Asia, the equivalent of a hurricane is known by what name?
a) Tropical depression
b) Monsoon
c) Tsunami
d) Typhoon
41. Which of these weather conditions is conducive to hurricane development?
a) Low wind shear

b) Cool ocean temperature
c) Dry air
d) All of these
42. According to the Saffir Simpson Scale, a tropical storm has to achieve a sustained wind
speed of at least how many miles per hour to become a minimal hurricane (category 1)?
a) 64
b) 74
c) 84
d) 999.
43. When a tropical storm loses all its tropical characteristics, it becomes ________.
a) Extra tropical
b) Subtropical
c) Ant tropical
d) Tropical depression
44. What is the informal (humorous) term used to describe tropical storms or hurricanes
that are not expected to make landfall?
a) Fish storm
b) Nowhere storm
c) Nor'easter
d) No particular name
45. The most destructive hurricane to hit America in the last 80 years was ________.
a) Andrew
b) Ike
c) Katrina
d) Camille
239
46. What is widely accepted as the leading cause of hurricane deaths?
a) Strong wind
b) Storm surge
c) Tornadoes
d) Flooding
47. Seveso Chemical Plant in Italy: in 1976 a safety valve in a chemical plant ruptured,
releasing a toxic vapors cloud, all the ''what'', livestock and soil had to be removed?
a) Furniture
b) Machines
c) Houses
d) Food
48. The Dust Bowl in United States of America: in the 1930's a mass agricultural expansion
and decade of droughts led to what?
a) Floods
b) Dust Storms
c) Earthquakes
d) Huge Lightning
49. Bhopal Disaster in India: 500,000 people were exposed to Methyl Iso cyanate Gas,
which is a highly toxic ''what'', with over 30,000 deaths?
a) Herbicide
b) Pesticide
c) Atom Bomb
d) Nuclear Plant
50. Huang He Flood in China: in 1938 Chinese Nationalists destroyed dikes to stop ''what''
forces which were at war with Sino, as a result 700,000 people have died there?
a) Japanese
b) French
c) Vietnamese
d) Russian
240
Chapter 30
BASICS OF CONSTRUCTION
1. Degree of saturation of a natural soil deposit having water content 15%, specific gravity
2.50 and void ratio 0.5, is
a) 60%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 80%
2. When drainage is permitted under initially applied normal stress only and full primarily
consolidation is allowed to take place, the test is known as
a) quick test
b) drained test
c) consolidated undrained test
d) none of these
3. The minimum water content at which the soil just begins to crumble when rolled into
threads 3 mm in diameter, is known
a) permeability limit.
b) liquid limit
c) shrinkage limit
d) plastic limit
4. The coefficient of compressibility of soil, is the ratio of
a) strain to stress
b) stress to settlement
c) rate of loading to that of settlement.
d) stress to strain
5. Which one of the following statements is true ?
a) All of these
b) Clays are more porous than sands
c) Pressure of organic matter in a soil decreases the bearing capacity of the soil
d) Aluminous cement is used for foundations in soils with chemical deposits
6. If the failure of a finite slope occurs through the toe, it is known as
a) toe failure
b) base failure
c) face failure
d) slope failure
241
7. Rankine’s theory of active earth pressure assumes
a) ground surface is a plane which may be horizontal or inclined

b) soil mass is homogeneous, dry and cohesion less
c) all the above
d) back of the wall is vertical and smooth
8. The water content of soil is defined as the ratio of
a) volume of water to volume of voids in soil

b) volume of water to volume of given soil
c) weight of water to weight of air in voids
d) weight of water to weight of solids of given mass of soil.
9. According to Coulomb’s wedge theory, the active earth pressure slides the wedge
a) horizontal upward and parallel to base

b) down and outwards on a slip surface
c) up and inwards on a slip surface
d) horizontal inward and parallel to bas
10. Construction joints are provided
a) where the member is supported by other member

b) at 18 m apart in huge structures
c) all
d) in concrete wall at sill level of windows
11. The following proportion of the ingredients of concrete mix, is not in conformation to
arbitrary method of proportioning
a) 1 : 4 : 10
b) 1:2:8
c) 1:2:4
d) 1:3:6
12. The standard sand now a days used in India, is obtained from
a) Jullundur (Punjab)
b) Jaipur (Rajasthan)
c) Ennore (Madras)
d) Hyderabad (Andhra Pradesh)
242
13. To obtain cement dry powder, lime stones and shales or their slurry, is burnt in a rotary
kiln at a temperature between
a) 1100° and 1200°C

b) 1300° and 1400°C
c) 1400° and 1500°C
d) 1200° and 1300°C
14. While compacting the concrete by a mechanical vibrator, the slump should not exceed
a) 10 cm
b) 7.5 cm
c) 2.5 cm
d) 5.0 cm
15. An aggregate is said to be flaky if its least dimension is less than
a) 2/5th of mean dimension

b) 1/5th of mean dimension
c) 4/5th of mean dimension
d) 3/5th of mean dimension
16. For given water content, workability decreases if the concrete aggregates contain an
excess of
a) all
b) flaky paticles
c) flat particles
d) elongated particles
17. If the ratio of effective span to overall depth of a simply supported beam is equal or
greater than 1 but less than or equal to 2, the lever arm, is
a) 0.3 (l + 3D)
b) 0.3 (l + 2D)
c) 0.2 (l + 2D)
d) 0.2 (l + 3D)
18. The outstand of stiffeners should be (where t is the thickness of flat).
a) 10 t
b) 6t
c) 12 t
d) 8t
243
19. The cover to the main reinforced may be reduced up to one third of the specified cover
but not less than
a) 7 mm
b) 10 mm
c) 5 mm
d) 15 mm
20. Columns are designed for a minimum eccentricity equal to 1/30 (unsupported length of
the column), subject to a minimum of
a) 5 mm
b) 10 mm
c) 15 mm
d) 20 mm
21. The ratio of the effective length to the least radius of gyration of a tie member of a roof
truss, which gets subjected to reversal of stress shall not exceed
a) 180
b) 200
c) 240
d) 350
22. The structure which is subjected to an imposed load after 72 hours for a period of 24
hours, is deemed to be unacceptable if it fails to recover the net deflection less than
a) 85%
b) 90%
c) 75%
d) 80%
23. The slenderness ratio of a tie in a roof truss if subjected to action of wind and seismic
forces, should not be greater than
a) 210
b) 180
c) 350
d) 250
24. The flat slab is a reinforced concrete slab with or without drops and is supported
a) on beams
b) None of these
c) on columns with column head
d) on columns without column head
244
25. As per IS : 8001982, the coefficient of expansion for steel per degree centigrade per unit
length, is
a) 0.000014
b) 0.000013
c) 0.000012
d) 0.000011
26. Minimum thickness of steel work directly exposed to weather and accessible for cleaning
and repainting, the thickness should be not less than
a) 4 mm
b) 8 mm
c) 7 mm
d) 6 mm
27. If the main reinforcement of the slab is parallel to a T beam, the transverse
reinforcement at mid span of the slab is provided at least ……of main reinforcement
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 40%
d) 70%
28. For concreting of shallow sections with vibration, the work ability of concrete should be
a) low
b) medium
c) very low
d) high.
29. Generally acceptable nominal size of aggregates for reinforced concrete, is
a) 10 mm
b) 40 mm
c) 15 mm
d) 20 mm
30. The advantages of providing a pair of tunnels as compared to only one large highway
tunnel is :
a) provision of separate exit and entrance of two traffic streams

b) avoidance of head on collisions
c) all
d) facility in carrying out repairs
245
31. For G. single track, the section of the tunnel must have a width
a) 4.2 m to 4.5 m
b) 5.5 m to 5.8 m
c) 4.5 m to 4.8 m
d) 4.9 m to 5.5 m
32. Which one of the following methods is generally adopted for aluminium in firm ground
a) Full face method

b) Drift method
c) all
d) Top heading and benching method
33. In plastic analysis, the shape factor for rectangular section, is
a) 1.5
b) 1.7
c) 1.4
d) 1.6
34. If Q is load factor, S is shape factor and F is factor of safety in elastic design, the
following:
a) Q=F–S
b) Q=SxF
c) Q=S–F
d) Q=S+F
35. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
a) For I sections, the shear center coincides with the centroid of the cross section of the beam
b) For channels, the shear center does not concide its centroid
c) All
d) Bending loads should pass through the shear center to avoid twisting
36. The ratio of total elongation of a bar of uniform crosssection produced under its own
weight to the elongation produced by an external load equal to the weight of the bar is
a) 2
b) ¼
c) ½
d) 1
246
37. Consider the following statements : Collision diagram is used to 1. Study accident
pattern 2. Eliminate accidents 3. Determine remedial measures 4. Make statistical
analysis of accidents Of these statements :
a) 3 and 4 are correct

b) 2 and 4 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) 1 and 2 are correct
38. The distance between g. of compression and g. of tension flanges of a plate girder, is
known as
a) none of these
b) clear depth
c) overall depth
d) effective depth
39. The rolled steel sections are most commonly used as beams because these provide
a) greater lateral stability

b) large moment of resistance as compared to other section
c) All
d) large moment of inertia with less cross sectional area
40. A beam is defined as a structural member subjected to
a) transverse loading
b) axial and transverse loading
c) axial loading
d) none of these
41. If the depth of two column sections are equal, then the column splice is provided
a) with filler and hearing plates

b) with filler plates
c) with bearing plates
d) none of these
42. The effective length of a compression member of length L held in position and restrained
in direction at one end and effectively restrained in direction but not held in position at
the other end, is
a) 8L
b) 2L
c) 1L
d) 0.85 L
247
43. A fillet weld may be termed as
a) mitre weld
b) all
c) convex weld
d) concave weld
44. The most economical section for a column, is
a) rectangular
b) flat strip
c) tubular section
d) solid round
45. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
a) Dead loads are known in the beginning of the design

b) Dead loads change their positions and vary in magnitude
c) Dead load includes self-weight of the structure and superimposed loads permanently
attached to the structure
d) None of these
46. The minimum edge distance of a rivet line connecting two or more plates, is kept equal
to 37 mm plus (where t is the thickness in mm of the thinner outside plate).
a) 6t
b) 2t
c) 4t
d) 8t
47. If d is the distance between the flange angles, the vertical stiffeners in plate girders are
spaced not greater than
a) 1.75 d
b) 1.5 d
c) 1d
d) 1.25 d
48. If you used 600 W of power for 60 h, you have used
a) 1. 36 kWh
b) 2. 1 kWh
c) 3. 10 kWh
d) 3.6 kWh
248
49. The radius of curvature of the arc of the bubble tube is generally kept
a) 10m
b) 25m
c) 100m
d) 50m
50. The limiting length of an offset does not depend upon
a) scale of plotting
b) indefinite features to be surveyed
c) method of setting out perpendiculars
d) accuracy of the work
51. In chain surveying field work is limited to
a) angular measurements only

b) both linear and angular measurements
c) all the above
d) linear measurements only field work is limited to
249
250
Chapter 31
ERGONOMICS
1. ‘Ergonomics’ is related to human
a) Comfort
b) Safety
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
2. The following subject(s) is (are) related to ‘Ergonomics’
a) Anthropology
b) Physiology
c) Psychology
d) All of the above
3. The qualitative information is one which concerns the
a) value of some variable

b) Rate of change
c) Condition or status of a system
d) Presence or absence of some specific object
4. The quantitative information is one which concerns the

b) Rate of change
5. Ergonomics principle suggests that
a) Monitoring displays should be placed outside peripheral limitations

b) Glow in the dark dials made of reflective substances are good for viewing in the nights
c) Visual systems should be preferred over auditory systems in noisy locations
d) All of the above
6. The following is (are) basic type(s) of dynamic quantitative display(s)
a) Fixed scale with moving pointer

b) Fixed pointer with moving scale
c) Counters displays
d) All of the above
251
7. For controlling the rotation through more than 360 degree, we use
a) Knob
b) Selector
c) Crank
d) Wheel
8. If natural light is used as the principal means of illumination at workspace, windows

area needs to be equal to ___ percent of floor are
a) 20
b) 30
c) 40
d) 50
9. When employees use their own PPE, the employer is responsible for assuring its
adequacy, including proper maintenance, and sanitation of such equipment.
a) True
b) False
10. In addition to impact and penetration resistance which helmet provides electrical
protection from highvoltage conductors
a) Class A helmets
b) Class B helmets
c) Class C helmets
d) Class D helmets
11. Which of the following is responsible to assess the workplace to determine if hazards are
present, or are likely to be present, which necessitate the use of personal protective
equipment (PPE).
a) Employer
b) Employee
c) Safety Manager
d) Assessing the workplace is optional
12. Which of the following items is not required on the employee’s written training
certification?
a) Name of employee
b) Date(s) of training
c) Subject matter covered
d) Employees test score
252
13. Protective eye and face devices purchased after July 5, 1994 shall comply with:
a) Your current company standards

b) NFPA 101
c) ANSI Z87.11989
d) NEC 143.5
14. Protective helmets purchased after July 5, 1994 shall comply with ANSI Z89.1 1986, Is
this statement True or False?
a) True
b) False
15. Which of the following helmets are usually made of aluminum which conducts
electricity, and should not be used around electrical hazards.
a) Class A helmets
b) Class B helmets
c) Class C helmets
d) Class D helmets
16. Rubber insulating gloves shall be tested:
a) Before first issue

b) Every six months
c) Every year
d) Both a and b
17. Protective footwear purchased after July 5, 1994 shall comply with:
a) ANSI Z411991
b) Red Wing manufacturer standards
c) Your current company standards
d) Whatever the boss says is OK
18. PPE related training must cover the following items except:
a) When and what kind of PPE is necessary

b) How to properly don, doff, adjust, wear, maintain and dispose of PPE
c) The limitations of the PPE
d) The brand name of the PPE
19. A flat surface can be produced by a lathe machine, if the cutting tool moves _____
a) parallel to the axis of rotation of workpiece

b) perpendicular to the axis of rotation of workpiece
c) at an angle of 450
253
20. What is the function of cone pulley drive in lathe machines?’
a) Drive the lead screw

b) Change the spindle speed
c) Drive the tailstock
d) All of the above
21. Which of the following is a mechanism for mechanized movements of the carriage along
longitudinal axis?
a) Cross slide
b) Compound rest
c) Apron
d) Saddle
22. The function of taper turning process is to ____
a) reduce the diameter of a workpiece along its length

b) reduce the diameter by removing material about an axis offset from the axis of workpiece
c) remove the material from end surface of a workpiece
d) all of the above
23. The process of luminous sharp ends of a workpiece is called as ________
a) knurling
b) grooving
c) facing
d) chamfering
24. Which process squeezes metals into peaks and troughs with plastic deformation?
a) Grooving
b) Knurling
c) Reaming
25. Which of the following operations is/are performed on a lathe machine?
a) Spot facing
b) Parting
c) Reaming
d) All of the above
254
26. The process of chamfering the entrance of a drilled hole is known as_____
a) Counter boring
b) countersinking
c) counter fillet
d) trepanning
27. On drilling machine, which process is known as reaming?
a) Enlargement of existing hole

b) Hole made by removal of metal along the hole circumference
c) Smoothly finishing and accurately sizing a drilled hole
d) All of the above
255
Chapter 32
Solid Waste Management
1. Problem of solid waste disposal can be reduced through
a) recycling
b) lesser pollution
c) more timber
d) population control A
2. Metal is a/an
a) renewable resource
b) nonrenewable resource
c) artificial resource
d) element
3. Central heating systems can be run through
a) more deforestation
b) burning of garbage
c) lesser incinerators
d) cooling water pipelines B
4. Metals is produced as waste in industries like
a) skiing
b) mining
c) electroplating
d) digging C
5. Making new containers from crushed glass helps to
a) save materials
b) save fuel
c) increase pollution
d) both A and B
6. Which of the following statements does not describe a problem associated with modern
landfills?
a) Chemicals leaking out of the waste stored there may pollute wells or groundwater supplies.
b) Materials buried in landfills decompose in three years.
c) Explosive gases can be produced by landfills and may build up in the basements of nearby
buildings.
d) All of the above
256
7. According to the text, what is the most helpful thing that a consumer can do to make
sure that more materials are recycled?
a) Encourage friends and neighbors to recycle their newspapers.

b) Carefully wash and sort all materials put out for recycling.
c) Write letters to legislators asking that recycling be made mandatory.
d) Make an effort to buy products made from recycled materials whenever possibl
8. Which of the following produces the most solid waste?
a) Manufacturing
b) agriculture
c) plastic packaging
d) nuclear power plants
9. Which items make up the largest percentage of waste produced by households and
businesses?
a) 257luminium cans
b) plastic bottles and packaging
c) paper products
d) yard waste, such as grass clippings and tree limbs
10. What percentage of the energy needed to make 257luminium cans from ore is needed to
make recycled 257luminium cans from used 257luminium cans?
a) 95 percent
b) 5 percent
c) 60 percent
11. Which of the following correctly describes the disposal of waste by composting?
a) Composting is a good way for individuals to reduce the amount of garbage they send to
landfills, but largescale composting is impractical.
b) Composting could reduce the amount of waste that restaurants, foodprocessing plants, and
animal feedlots send to landfills.
c) Compost made from glass and plastics can be recycled and used as building materials.
d) Yard wastes, such as grass clippings, are not suitable for composting because they contain
low levels of nutrients.
12. Which of the following correctly describes biodegradable plastics?
a) Some plastics are designed to deteriorate when exposed to sunlight.

b) Plastic that contains sugars can be broken down by soil bacteri
c) Degradable plastics usually break down into smaller pieces of plasti
d) All of the above
257
13. Which of the following is not considered hazardous waste?
a) Dead batteries such as those used in flashlights and radios

b) rotting meat and other food waste
c) metals such as lead and mercury
d) Both (a) and (c)
14. Which material accounts for the greatest percentage of the weight of solid waste?
a) Food waste
b) plastic
c) paper
d) yard waste
15. Typical modern municipal landfills contain which of the following?
a) Monitoring wells
b) methane retrieval systems
c) leachate treatment facilities.
d) All of the above
16. Which is not true about incineration of solid waste?
a) There are drastic reductions in the volume and weight of wastes

b) the ash can contain heavy metals and other toxic substances
c) the incinerators are relatively cheap to build
d) the incinerators can be built to generate electricity
17. Which of the following is not a method of source reduction?
a) Making packages that weigh less.

b) Recycling
c) municipal composting.
d) Incineration
18. The methane found in landfills is a gas that
a) is produced when wastes react with oxygen.

b) Must be pumped to the surface in leachate pipes.
c) Is a major contaminant of groundwater supplies.
d) May be captured and used to produce energy.
19. Which of the following is a true statement about recycling?
a) It takes more energy to make steel from scrap than from newly mined or
b) Cities have never had trouble finding buyers for their recycled materials.
c) After they are collected, recyclable materials are cleaned and processed
d) All of the above
258
20. The main problem with socalled biodegradable plastic is that
a) only its organic portion actually decomposes.

b) Animals often choke on the plastic litter that forms.
c) It releases toxic compounds as it breaks apart.
d) It includes a chemical made by a rare bacterium.
21. Leachate is:
a) a byproduct of waste incineration

b) a type of waste storage container used in “clean coal” plants
c) a nonrecyclable type of plastic
d) liquid that results when garbage substances in a landfill dissolve in water
22. Which of the following is a practice used to reduce and manage MSW?
a) Waste combustion
b) source reduction
c) recycling of materials
d) all of the above
23. Which of the following is not a material in MSW?
a) Agricultural wastes
b) food wastes
c) glass and plastics
d) wood wastes
24. The process of composting
a) uses synthetic materials.

b) Has little potential to conserve landfill space
c) is always carried out in cityrun facilities.
d) Could effectively handle a variety of wastes.
25. The main problem with socalled biodegradable plastic is that
a) only its organic portion actually decomposes.

b) Animals often choke on the plastic litter that forms.
c) It releases toxic compounds as it breaks apart.
d) It includes a chemical made by a rare bacterium.
259
26. Which of the following is not a method of reducing hazardous waste?
a) Allowing fungi to break down petroleum sludge

b) burning toxic substances in specially designed incinerators
c) using nontoxic beads instead of solvents to clean metal parts
d) All of the above
27. A common characteristic of all hazardouswaste landdisposal facilities is that they
a) are longterm storage sites.

b) Make use of deepwell injection.
c) Pose no threat to the environment.
d) Are not regulated by state or federal laws.
28. An example of source reduction is
a) composting.
b) Using canvas shopping bags.
c) Recycling.
d) All of the above
29. Making products from recycled materials
a) is limited to metals.
b) Often saves energy and other resources during the manufacturing process.
c) Uses so much energy that it is not economically workable.
30. An example of something that is biodegradable is
a) a leaf in a compost pile

b) a plastic milk jug in a landfill.
c) A polystyrene burger container in a trash can.
d) All of the above
31. Which of the following is not a requirement for a landfill built today?
a) It must be lined with clay and plastic

b) It must be a specified distance from a city or other populated are
c) It must have systems for collecting and treating leachate
d) Vent pipes must be installed for removing methane
32. Which of the following are problems associated with landfills?
a) Source reduction and composting

b) surface impoundment and leachate
c) leachate and methane production
d) All of the above
260
33. A material is biodegradable if
a) it is made of synthetic material.

b) It is made from petroleum or natural gas.
c) It can be broken down by biological processes.
d) If can be disposed of in a landfill.
34. Incineration of waste:
a) Can be used to generate electricity

b) Reduces the volume of waste by 10%
c) Eliminates the need for landfills
d) All of the above
35. The major proportion of generated waste products is categorized as containers and
packaging representing _______percent of the total.
a) 13%
b) 26.5%
c) 33%
d) 52%
36. Facilities that perform the function of preparing recyclables for marketing are referred
to as __________________.
a) WTE’s
b) RDF’s
c) TSD’s
d) MRF’s
37. Most of the recovery of materials from municipal solid wastes is in paper and
paperboard, accounting for almost _______ of all material recovered
a) 19.7%
b) 27%
c) 57%
d) 68%
38. Which of the following is not a method for the disposal of hazardous wastes?
a) ISV
b) Landfills
c) Deep will injection
d) Surface impoundments
261
39. Which of the following is NOT a major option for managing hazardous waste?
a) Reducing the production of waste while increasing the amount generate

b) Reducing the volume and/or hazard of the wast
c) Longterm storage or disposal.
d) Dumping at sea
40. Secure landfills require all but one of the following:
a) single liners
b) groundwater monitoring
c) financial guarantees for post closure activities
d) a leachate collection system
41. One of the most effective forms of hazardous waste disposal may be:
a) landfills
b) deep well injection
c) incineration
d) surface impoundments
42. Landfills have historically been sources of all but one of the following:
a) breeding grounds for insects and rodents

b) producers of propane gas
c) pollution to groundwater
d) odour
43. Which federal law was promulgated to reduce contamination by hazardous wastes
a) PPA
b) WMNA
c) RCRA
d) CERCLA
44. Compost is being used for all of the following except:
a) landfill cover
b) landscaping
c) low grade fertilizers
d) agricultural feed
262
45. All of the following statements about hazardous waste containers are true, except for the
following:
a) Containers must be closed except when removing or adding waste

b) Containers must be clean on the outside
c) Contents must be compatible with the type of waste containers.
d) Any type of container, including food containers, can be used to contain hazardous waste
46. The three primary soil macronutrients are
a) carbon, oxygen, and water.

b) Copper, cadmium, and carbon.
c) Potassium, phosphorus, and nitrogen.
d) Boron, zinc, and manganese
47. What does the Basel Convention control?
a) Export of hazardous wastes.

b) Operation of landfill sites.
c) Production of excess packaging.
d) Trade in recycled materials.
48. What is e-waste?
a) Environmentally friendly waste

b) Obsolete electronic equipment.
c) Hazardous chemical waste
d) Waste from nuclear power generation.
49. What type of tree is used to make paper?
a) She oak
b) Willow
c) Pine
d) River red gum
50. What is the least preferable waste management option?
a) Reuse
b) Treatment
c) Recovery
d) Disposal
263
264
Chapter 33
OISD116
1. Which of the following activities is not included in the oil and gas processing plant?
.
a) Drilling
b) Fractional distillation
c) Gas processing activity
d) Gas filling system
2. According to the design criteria given in oisd116 what is correct in the following
statement?
a) The fire protection supply must be present away from the drinking water supply of the city
b) The fire protection system must not be and away from the city water supply
c) The emergency water supply must be taken from ground water supply during emergenc
d) Facilities should be designed on the basis that city fire water supply is not available close to
the installation
3. What is the distance between hydrants in hydro carbon storage area?
a) 20 metres
b) 18 metres
c) 30 metres
d) 50 metres
4. what is the distance between hydrants in other areas stated in oisd116?
a) 20 metres
b) 80 metres
c) 45 metres
d) 15 metres
5. What colour the Water monitor and hose box shall be painted ?
a) Burning red
b) Fire red
c) Red and yellow combination
d) Flame red
6. What type of conveying system is not used in oisd116 standards?
a) hoses
b) Semi fixed
c) mobile
d) fixed
265
7. Where the CO2 extinguisher is not used?
a) Record room
b) Gear switch room
c) Dry type oil filled transformers
d) kitchen
8. In what areas the hydro carbon gas detector is needed ?
a) furnace
b) Meeting area
c) Pavement area
d) Gas pump area
9. Which area need alarm system and a smoke detector in it?
a) Fuel gas knocking put of drum

b) Lpg filling sheds
c) Gas compressor area
d) Lpg Horton sphere
10. The fire siren must be tested?
a) Every day
b) Once in every week
c) Once in two weeks
d) Once in a month
11. For how many minutes the siren must be tested?
a) 3
b) 1
c) 2
d) 5
12. When no siren is given?
a) Small fire
b) Paper fire
c) Little fire
d) Forest fire
13. How much time the water pump must be tested?
a) 5 times a week
b) 2 times a week
c) 3 times a week
d) 1 times a week
266
14. For how much time the pump must run for a test?
a) Half an hour
b) Three hours
c) One hour
d) Two and half hours
15. Within what interval the fire water main must be tested?
a) Once in an year
b) Once in two years
c) Once in six months
d) Once in three months
16. The following cannot be used as a fire protection in the design criteria?
a) Sprinkler system
b) Flooding system
c) Water buckets
d) Deluge system
17. What type of extinguishers recommended for electrical hazard?
a) foam
b) Dry chemical powder
c) Co2
d) water
18. What is the maximum discharge time of a Co2 extinguisher system ?
a) 20 seconds
b) 30 seconds
c) 10 seconds
b) 15 seconds
19. Which of the effective fire extinguishing substance is prevented from use ?
a) halatron
b) oxygen
c) halon
d) ozone
267
20. How much distance the candle must be kept from flammable substance?
a) 12”
b) 17”
c) 14”
d) 20”
21. The most common type of fire in the home is caused by:
a) electrical equipment
b) cooking equipment
c) smokers’ articles
d) candles
22. A good home escape plan should include:
a) knowing two ways out of every room, if possible; designating someone to retrieve
valuables; identifying a safe meeting place away from the home
b) knowing two ways out of the home; having an emergency supply kit; calling 911 from a
neighbour’s home
c) knowing all possible exits from the home; designating someone to retrieve valuables;
calling 911 from a neighbour’s home
d) knowing two ways out of every room, if possible; designating someone to help people who
may require assistance; identifying a safe meeting place
23. If a fire occurs in the microwave oven, the correct action is to:
a) call 112
b) turn off the microwave and leave the door closed
c) turn off the microwave and open the door to let the smoke clear
d) open the door of the microwave and throw water on the fire
24. Smoke alarms should be tested:
a) every week
b) every month
c) twice a year
d) whenever the low battery warning sounds
25. According to the Ontario Fire Code, smoke alarms are required to be installed:
a) in every sleeping room

b) on every storey
c) on every storey and outside all sleeping areas
d) outside every bedroom
268
26. If you burn or scald yourself , you should:
a) run cool water over the burn for 35 minutes

b) immediately wrap the burned area tightly with a clean cloth
c) immediately rub butter over the burned skin
d) run warm water over the burn and gradually decrease the temperature to allow the skin to
cool slowly
27. If your clothing catches fire, the best thing to do is:
a) stop, drop to the ground and roll into a ball to protect your face
b) stop, drop your clothes on the floor and run to the shower
c) stop, drop to the ground, and roll back and forth to smother the flames
d) stop, drop what you are doing and roll a towel or blanket over the flames
28. If a fire occurred in your home, the time you have to escape could be as little as:
a) 3 minutes
b) 12 minutes
c) 1 minute
d) 30 minutes
29. Which of the following activities are considered "hot work"?
a) Welding
b) Cutting
c) Grinding Ferrous Metals
d) All of the Above
30. The acronym for proper use of a fire extinguisher is:
a) PAST
b) PASS
c) PALS
31. What is the best defence against fire?
a) Fire extinguishers
b) Evacuation plans
c) Fire alarms
d) Prevention
269
32. Which of the following shouldn't be done when escaping a fire:
a) Use a cloth or handkerchief to cover your mouth

b) Get on your hands and knees and crawl to an exit, if possible
c) Use a blanket or tarp to fan the fire away
33. Sprinkler systems, fire doors, and fire alarms are all examples of:
a) Evacuation equipment
b) Fire extinguishing systems
c) Fire protection equipment
d) All of the above
34. Flammable liquids:
a) May only be transferred into approved containers

b) May not be transferred from their original containers
c) May be transferred into any type of container
d) may be stored in a locked closet
35. When using a fire extinguisher, which of the following is incorrect?
a) Pull the pin and stand back 8 to 10 feet

b) Aim at the upper part of the flames
c) Squeeze the handle
36. While working on a ladder, it is important that employees wear proper footwear, such
as: 
a) flip flops 
b) moccasins  
c) cowboy boots 
d) slip resistant work boots
37. Workplaces with a minimum of ____ employees need to have a written fire prevention
program in place
a) 5
b) 11
c) 20
d) 25
270
38. When you discover a fire, you should…
a) Pull the fire alarm and call the fire department

b) Use a fire extinguisher to put out the fire, even if you’ve never used a fire extinguisher
before
c) Stay in the building until you figure out a way to extinguish the fire
d) Run out of the building without warning others of the fire
39. Which of the following should you do if you are unable to evacuate a burning building?
a) Open the doors and windows to let the smoke out

b) Break windows
c) Breathe through your mouth
d) Stay low under the smoke
40. Where should you aim a fire extinguisher nozzle when putting out a fire?
a) At the top of the fire

b) At the base of the fire
c) At the centre of the fire
d) Away from the fire
41. The whole area of the refineries are covered by
a) hydrants
b) sprinklers
c) stand pipes
d) water pumps
271
Chapter 34
BASICS OF ENVIRONMENT I
1. In a stable atmosphere the pollutants are dispersed slowly and the concentration of
pollutants is:
a) Not reduced rapidly

b) Reduced Rapidly
c) Increased rapidly
2. The _______ is defined as the rate at which atmospheric temperature decreases with an
increase in altitude
a) Lapse rate
b) Inverse rate
c) Temperature rate
3. What is the harm from the depletion of Earth's ozone layer

a) The average temperature of earth's surface will increase gradually
b) The oxygen content of the atmosphere will decrease
c) Increased amount of Ultra violet radiation will reach earth's surface
d) Sea levels will rise as the polar ice caps will gradually melt
4. Acid rain is formed due to contribution from the following pair of gases
a) Methane and ozone

b) Oxygen and nitrous oxide
c) methane and sulpher dioxide
d) Carbon dioxide and sulpher dioxide
5. The most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes is
a) air pollution.
b) contamination of groundwater.
c) increased use of land for landfills.
d) destruction of habitat.
6. Which of the following is not as a consequence of global warming?
a) rising sea level

b) increased agricultural productivity worldwide
c) worsening health effects
d) increased storm frequency and intensity
e) all of the above are likely results of global warming
272
7. Which of the following is not a primary contributor to the greenhouse effect?
a) carbon dioxide
b) carbon monoxide
c) chlorofluorocarbons
d) methane gas
e) nitrous oxide
8. The increase in the concentration of CO2 in our environment in last fifty years; since
1960 is about
a) 20%
b) 10%
c) 14%
d) 6%
9. The depletion in the Ozone layer is caused by
a) nitrous oxide
b) carbon dioxide
c) Chlorofluorocarbons.
d) methane
e) all of the above
10. A major instream use of water is for
a) Producing hydroelectric power.

b) Dissolving industrial wastes.
c) Agricultural irrigation.
d) domestic us
11. Which of the following are the example of Municipal and industrial discharge pipes
a) Nonpoint sources of pollution.

b) Violations of the Clean Water Act.
c) Point sources of pollution.
d) Irrigation.
12. The presence of high coliform counts in water indicate
a) Contamination by human wastes.

b) Phosphorus contamination.
c) decreased biological oxygen demand
d) Hydrocarbon contamination.
273
13. How the biological oxygen demand gets affected with the increased presence of organic
matter in water?
a) The oxygen demand increases

b) The oxygen demand decreases
c) The oxygen demand remains unchanged
14. Which of the following is not a major source of groundwater contamination?
a) agricultural products
b) landfills
c) septic tanks
d) underground storage tanks
e) all of the above are major sources of groundwater contamination
15. Which of the following is not considered as part of water use planning?
a) Waste water treatment

b) Water diversion projects
c) Storm sewer drainage
d) Salinization
e) Water use planning considers all of the above issues
16. The stage in which the biological processes is used to purify water in a wastewater
treatment plants is called
a) secondary sewage treatment

b) primary sewage treatment
c) wastewater reduction
d) biochemical reduction
17. Groundwater mining in coastal areas can result into
a) increase in the salinity of groundwater.

b) decrease in the toxicity of groundwater.
c) decrease in the salinity of groundwater.
d) increase in the water table
18. The three primary soil macronutrients are
a) carbon, oxygen, and water.

b) copper, cadmium, and carbon.
c) potassium, phosphorus, and nitrogen.
d) boron, zinc, and manganese
274
19. Which of the following is negative effects on the soil and water due to conventional,
mechanized farming practices?
a) soil compaction
b) reduction in soil organic matter
c) soil erosion
d) leaching of pesticides and fertilizers into the groundwater
e) all of the above
20. The waste from pulp and paper industry is
a) Press mud
b) lime mud
c) calcite
d) none
21. The hazardous waste management rules was adopted in the year
a) 1998
b) 2003
c) 1989
d) 1986
22. MSW generation through some empirical relationship containing data such as
population, family etc are referred as
a) input analysis
b) secondary data analysis
c) output analysis
d) none
23. Methane composition in landfill gas ranges from
a) 020% by volume
b) 4560% by volume
c) 2030%
d) none
24. General biomedical waste marked in
a) Yellow
b) Black
c) Blue
d) Brown
275
25. The most rapid composting occurs with the ideal carbon:nitrogen ratio of
a) 25~30: 1 by dry chemical weight

b) 110:1 by dry chemical weight
c) 1015:1 by dry chemical weight
d) none
26. The gas production rates under rapid degradation ranges from
a) 03 years
b) 47 years
c) 710 years
d) 1020 years
27. Chemical used in production of biological, chemicals used in disinfections, as

insecticides, etc fall under the category of Bio medical waste management.
a) Category 1
b) Category 5
c) Category 9
d) Category 10
28. Sterilization Efficacy is high in
a) Autoclave
b) Microwave
c) Incinerator
d) Hydroclave
29. The landfill is built up in units called
a) cells
b) pockets
c) shells
d) none
30. The waste generated from schools, hospitals, prisons, government centers is
a) Industrial waste
b) commercial waste
c) institutional waste
d) residential waste
276
31. The most expensive element in the solid waste system is
a) Collection
b) Transportation
c) Disposal
d) processing
32. The most unsanitary method of disposal, that creates public health hazards, nuisance,
and severe pollution of the environment is
a) open dumping
b) ocean disposal
c) incineration
d) landfill
33. The moisture and density of solid waste play a crucial role in selection of waste
processing techniques
a) True
b) False
34. In an agricultural society the waste is readily absorbed in the natural cycle
a) True
b) False
35. It is preferable to have a landfill downwind from any nearby community
a) True
b) False
36. According to WHO report, around 85 % of the Biomedical Wastes are hazardous
wastes
a) True
b) False
37. As per Biomedical waste management rules, no untreated bio medical waste shall be
kept stored beyond a period of 48 hours
a) True
b) False
38. Solid Wastes also contain night soil
a) True
b) False
277
39. Carbon rich organic wastes are known as “greens”
a) True
b) False
40. The density of municipal solid waste in Indian cities vary from 350550 kg/cum
a) True
b) False
41. The pollutants spread from a source is called
a) Plume
b) Slime
c) Claim
42. High concentration will prevail, in the plum
a) move upper
b) same line
c) move Lower
d) Can’t determine
43. In the upper part of the atmosphere Aeroplane fuel produces
a) H2O
b) Acid Rain
c) SOx
44. When the Altitude above the earth surface increase the Atmospheric pressure will
a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) Neutral
45. ‘Soot’ is atmospheric contaminants from
a) Diesel burning
b) Oil burning
c) Coal burning
278
46. Dispersion is the movement of solute species due to Turbulence
a) True
b) False
47. Kraft pulp manufacturing units release
a) H2S
b) methyl mercaptane.
c) other volatile compounds
d) All the above
48. Sulphur dioxide combine with air and produced Acid rain
a) True
b) False
49. “Dust pollution” is a major problem in
a) Welding work
b) Brick Kiln work
c) Tar melting work
50. Workers at compostable materials handling operations must be trained in
a) Waste screening
b) Odour management
c) Facility operations and maintenance
d) All of the above
51. State regulations require that the covered surface of the landfill be graded in order to:
a. Prevent ponding
b.Allow the site to be used for soccer, softball or other community activities
c. Account for future settlement
d.Both a and b
52. What does the high Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) indicates?
a) High level of Microbial Pollution

b) Low level of Microbial Pollution
c) Absence of Microbial Pollution
d) Water is fully pure
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53. Which of following can be used for controlling Gaseous Pollutant?
a) Arrestor
b) Incineration
c) Absorption
d) None of above
54. Relative contributions of CO2, CH4, CFCs and N2O towards global warming are:
a) 50 %, 30 %, 10 % , and 10 % respectively
b) 60%, 20%, 14%, and 6% respectively
c) 40 %, 30%, 20% and 10% respectively
55. What is the carbon credit?
a) It is the difference between the carbon emission allowed and actually emitted carbon
b) It is the loan amount by IMF for reducing pollution
c) It is loan given to poor people for buying Modern Stoves
d) All of the above
56. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Pollutant Disease
1. Arsenic Skin Cancer

2. Lead Itai – Itai
3. Cadmium displexia
Select the correct answer from the following codes
a) Only 1
b) Only 1 and 2
c) Only 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3
280
57. With reference to the sewage water treatment, tertiary treatment does which of the
following?
1. removes nutrients
2. removes pathogenic bacteria
3. reduces the amount of carbon dioxide
a) Only 1
b) Only 1 and 2
c) Only 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3
58. Which of the following constitutes to soil pollution?
1. Mixture of plastics
2. Sewage sludge
3. Fly ash
4. Medical and industrial wastes disposed on land
a) Only 1
b) Only 1 and 2
c) Only 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3
59. Which of the following gases are released by burring of plastics?
1. Carbon monoxide
2. Carbon dioxide
3. Chlorinated compounds
a) Only 1
b) Only 1 and 2
c) Only 2 and 3
d) 1,2 and 3
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Chapter 35
BASICS OF ELECTRICAL
1. Electrostatic is as branch of electricity concerned with:
a) Energy flowing across a gap between conductors

b) Charges at rest
c) Charges in motion
d) Energy in the form of charges
2. Four 2 μF capacitors are connected in series. The equivalent capacitance is
a) 8 μF
b) 0.5 μF
c) 2 μF
d) 6 μF
3. State which of the following is false The capacitance of a capacitor
a) Is proportional to the cross sectional area of the plates

b) Is proportional to the distance between the plates
c) Depends on the number of plates
d) Is proportional to the relative permittivity of the dielectric
4. The capacitance of a capacitor is the ratio
a) Charge to potential difference between plates

b) Potential difference between plates to plate spacing
c) Potential difference between plates to thickness of dielectric
d) Potential difference between plates to charge
5. Which of the following statement is false?
a) An air capacitor is normally a variable type

b) A paper capacitor generally has a shorter service life than most other types of
capacitor
c) An electrolytic capacitor must be used only on supplies
d) Plastic capacitors generally operate satisfactorily under conditions of high temperature
6. The potential difference across a 10 μF capacitor to charge it with 10mC is
a) 10V
b) 1 kV
c) 1V
d) 10V
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7. The unit of magnetic flux density is the
a) Weber
b) Weber per metre
c) Ampere per metre
d) Tesla
8. Inductive reactance results in a current that
a) Leads the voltage by 90deg

b) Is in phase with the voltage
c) Leads the voltage by π rad
d) Lags the voltage by π/2 rad
9. A 10Ω resistor is connected in parallel with a 15 Ω resistor and the combination in series
with a 12 Ω resistor. The equivalent resistance of the circuit is:
a) 37Ω
b) 18 Ω
c) 27 Ω
d) 4Ω
10. The equivalent resistance when a resistor of (1/3)Ω is connected in parallel with a (1/4)Ω
resistance is:
a) 1/7 Ω
b) 7Ω
c) 1/12 Ω
d) 3/4 Ω
11. What kVA rating is required for a transformer that must handle a maximum load
current of 8 A with a secondary voltage of 2 kV?
a) 4 kVA
b) 0.25 kVA
c) 16 kVA
d) 8 kVA
12. The turns ratio required to match an 80Ω source to a 320Ω load is
a) 80
b) 20
c) 4
d) 2
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13. When the turns ratio of a transformer is 20 and the primary ac voltage is 12 V, the
secondary voltage is
a) 12 V
b) 120V
c) 240V
d) 2400V
14. If 25 W of power are applied to the primary of an ideal transformer with a turns ratio of
10, the power delivered to the secondary load is
a) 25 W
b) 0W
c) 250 W
d) 2.5 W
15. In a certain loaded transformer, the secondary voltage is onefourth the primary voltag
The secondary current is
a) One fourth the primary current

b) four times the primary current
c) equal to the primary current
d) one fourth the primary current and equal to the primary current
16. The primary winding of a power transformer should always be
a) open
b) shorted
c) switched
d) fused
17. When a 6 V battery is connected across the primary of a transformer with a turns ratio
of 8, the secondary voltage is
a) 0V
b) 6V
c) 48V
d) 0.75 V
18. Which of the following is not an electrical quantity?
a) Voltage
b) Current
c) Distance
d) Power
284
19. An electric heater draws 3.5 A from a 110 V source The resistance of the heating element
is approximately
a) 385 Ω
b) 38.5 Ω
c) 3.1 Ω
d) 31 Ω
20. Approximately how many milli amperes of current flow through a circuit with a 40 V
source and 6.8 kΩ of resistance?
a) 27.2 mA
b) 59 mA
c) 5.9 mA
d) 590 mA
21. When the speed at which a conductor is moved through a magnetic field is increased, the
induced voltage
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) remains constant
d) reaches zero
22. The induced voltage across a coil with 250 turns that is located in a magnetic field that is
changing at a rate of 8 Wb/s is
a) 1,000 V
b) 2,000 V
c) 31.25 V
d) 3,125 V
23. For a given wire wound core, an increase in current through the coil
a) reverses the flux lines

b) decreases the flux density
c) increases the flux density
d) causes no change in flux density
24. If the cross sectional area of a magnetic field increases, but the flux remains the same,
the flux density
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains the same
d) doubles
285
25. When the current through the coil of an electromagnet reverses, the
a) direction of the magnetic field reverses

b) direction of the magnetic field remains unchanged
c) magnetic field expands
d) magnetic field collapses
26. A coil of wire is placed in a changing magnetic fiel If the number of turns in the coil is
decreased, the voltage induced across the coil will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remains the same
d) doubles
27. The unit for reluctance is
a) tesla
b) At/Wb
c) At/m
d) Wb
28. If the steel disk in a crankshaft position sensor has stopped with the tab in the magnet's
air gap, the induced voltage
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Zero
d) Will remain constant
29. The unit for permeability is
a) Wb/At × m
b) At/m
c) At/Wb
d) Wb
30. The direction of a magnetic field within a magnet is
a) from south to north

b) from north to south
c) back to front
d) front to back
286
31. When the pointer of an analog ohmmeter reads close to zero, the resistor being
measured is
a) overheated
b) shorted
c) open
d) reversed
32. A certain appliance uses 350 W. If it is allowed to run continuously for 24 days, how
many kilowatthours of energy does it consume?
a) 20.16 kWh
b) 201.6 kWh
c) 2.01 kWh
d) 8.4 kWh
33. A power supply produces a 0.6 W output with an input of 0.7 W. Its percentage of
efficiency is
a) 8.57%
b) 42.85%
c) 4.28%
d) 85.7%
34. A given power supply is capable of providing 6 A for 3.5 h. Its amperehour rating is
a) 0.58 Ah
b) 2.1 Ah
c) 21 Ah
d) 58 Ah
35. At the end of a 14 day period, your utility bill shows that you have used 18 kWh. What is
your average daily power?
a) 1.286 kWh
b) 12.85 kWh
c) 535 kWh
d) 252 kWh
36. If you used 400 W of power for 30 h, you have used
a) 1.3 kWh
b) 1.3 kWh
c) 1.2 kWh
d) 12 kWh
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37. If it takes 400 ms to use 12,000 J of energy, the power is
a) 30 kW
b) 30 W
c) 3W
d) 300 kW
38. A 75 Ω load uses 2 W of power. The output voltage of the power supply is approximately
a) 120 V
b) 1.2 V
c) 12 V
d) 6V
39. A 68 Ω resistor is connected across the terminals of a 3 V battery. The power dissipation
of the resistor is
a) 132 mW
b) 13.2 mW
c) 22.6 mW
d) 226 mW
40. A 10 Ω resistor, a 90 mH coil, and a 0.015 F capacitor are in series across an ac sourc
The impedance magnitude at 1,200 Hz below fr is
a) 1,616 Ω
b) 161Ω
c) 3,387Ω
d) 1,771 Ω
41. In a series RLC circuit that is operating above the resonant frequency, the current
a) lags the applied voltage

b) leads the applied voltage
c) is in phase with the applied voltage
d) is zero
42. A resistor of 3 k , a 0.05 F capacitor, and a 120 mH coil are in series across a 5 kHz,
20 V ac source What is the impedance, expressed in polar form?
a) 636Ω
b) 3,769 Ω
c) 433 Ω
d) 4,337 Ω
288
43. The impedance at the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit with L = 20 mH, C =
0.02 F, and RW = 90 is
a) 0Ω
b) 90 Ω
c) 20 kΩ
d) 40 kΩ
44. If the resistance in parallel with a parallel resonant circuit is reduced, the bandwidth
a) Disappears
b) becomes sharper
c) increases
d) decreases
45. A resonant circuit has a lower critical frequency of 7 kHz and an upper critical
frequency of 13 kHz. The bandwidth of the circuit is
a) 7 kHz
b) 13 kHz
c) 20 kHz
d) 4 kHz
46. If the value of C in a series RLC circuit is decreased, the resonant frequency
a) is not affected
b) increases
c) is reduced to zero
d) decreases
47. A 24 Ω resistor, an inductor with a reactance of 120 Ω, and a capacitor with a reactance
of 120 Ω are in series across a 60 V sourc The circuit is at resonanc The voltage across
the inductor is
a) 60 V
b) 660 V
c) 30 V
d) 300 V
48. To tune a parallel resonant circuit to a higher frequency, the capacitance should be
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) left alone
d) replaced with inductance
289
49. In a certain series resonant circuit, VC = 125 V, VL = 125 V, and VR = 40 V. The value of
the source voltage is
a) 125 V
b) 250V
c) 290 V
d) 40 V
50. A certain series resonant circuit has a bandwidth of 2 kHz. If the existing coil is replaced
with one having a higher value of Q, the bandwidth will
a) Increase
b) Increase
c) Decrease
d) be less selective
290
Chapter 36
SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT
1. Agricultural activity such as tilling, harvesting, heating and ventilation are direct
consumes of:
a) Energy
b) Air
c) Sun
d) Heat
2. Which of the following is not the effect of modern agriculture?
a) Nitrate pollution
b) Eutrophication
c) Bio magnification
d) Ozone depletion
3. Housing affects:
a) Neighbourhood
b) Energy consumption
c) Water consumption
d) All of the above
4. The human activity, among the following, which causes maximum environmental
pollution having regional and global impacts, is:
a) Urbanization
b) Industrialisation
c) Agriculture
d) Mining
5. Production, transformation and use of energy are the major problems of:
a) Industrial activity
b) Sustainable development
c) Global warming
d) Acid rain
6. A chemical industry is not a cause of:
a) Air pollution
b) Noise pollution
c) Water pollution
d) Nuclear pollution
291
7. Electronic waste is the adverse effect of:
a) Industry
b) Agriculture
c) Housing
d) Mining
8. Extraction of mineral and metal form the earth is:
a) Agriculture
b) Transportation
c) Mining
d) Sustainable development
9. Underground and open caste is the methods of:
a) Agriculture
b) Mining
c) Housing
d) Transportation
10. This is not the effect of transportation:
a) Air emission
b) Material consumption
c) Solid waste generation
d) Acid mine drainage
11. In EIA the decision to hold hearing has to made within:
a) 5 days
b) 10 days
c) 20 days
d) 30 days
12. SPCB’s are required to give notice in how many newspapers mentioning the date, time
and place of public hearing:
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
292
13. ‘Meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generation
to meet their own need’ is given by:
a) Brundtland
b) Mahatma Gandhi
c) Maathai
d) Sunderlal Bahugana
14. The idea of sustainable development was conceived in early:
a) 1950
b) 1960
c) 1970
d) 1980
15. How many agreements are there in Agenda – 21?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
16. Sustainable development will not aim at:
a) Social economic development which optimise the economic and societal benefits available
in the present, without spoiling the likely potential for similar benefits in the future
b) Reasonable and equitable distributed level of economic well being that can be perpetuated
continually
c) Development that meets the need of the present without compromising the ability of future
generation to meet their own needs
d) Maximising the present day benefits through increased resource consumption
17. Which of the following statements in relation to sustainable development is not true?
a) Sustainable development is defined as the development that meets the needs of present
without compromising the ability of our future generations to meet their own needs
b) Sustainability has the main objective of purely focussing on the natural environment
c) Sustainable development of various countries and the entire world is the only solution left
with mankind to survive for a longer period on Earth
d) Sustainable development not only considers the protection of the environment but also the
maintenance of economic viability as well as the social and ethical considerations
293
18. The maximum number of individuals that can be supported by a given environment is
called
a. Biotic potential
b.Carrying capacity
c. Environmental resistance
d.Population size
19. Supporting capacity and assimilative capacity are the components of
a) Carrying capacity
b) Holding capacity
c) Containing capacity
d) Capturing capacity
20. Social, economic and ecological equity is the necessary condition for achieving
a. Social development
b.Economical development
c. Sustainable development
d.Ecological development
21. The following is (are) the non-renewable resources
a) Coal
b) Petroleum
c) Natural gas
d) All of the above
22. Balancing the need to use resources and also conserve them for the future is
called
a) sustainable development
b) resource conservation
c) resource development
d) human resource development
23. The resources can be conserved by
a) reducing consumption
b) recycling
c) reusing
d) All of the above
294
24. Land covers only about ____ percent of the total area of the earth’s surface
a) 20
b) 25
c) 30
d) 35
25. The total percent of land of world under forest is
a) 26
b) 31
c) 36
d) 41
26. The thin layer of grainy substance covering the surface of the earth is called
a) soil
b) sand
c) mineral
d) organic matter
27. The following is (are) not a factor(s) of soil formation
a) Organic matter
b) Time
c) Soil texture
d) All of the above
28. The major factor(s) of soil formation is (are)
a) the nature of the parent rock

b) climatic factors
c) time taken for the composition of soil formation
d) All of the above
29. The following factor(s) is (are) responsible for degradation of soil
a) Chemical fertilizers
b) Landslides
c) Floods
d) All of the above
30. The process in which bare ground between plants is covered with a layer of organic
matter like straw, is called
a) Mulching
b) Contour carriers
c) Shelter belts
d) Intercropping
295
31. The process in which different crops are grown in alternate rows and are sown at
different times to protect the soil from rain wash, is known as
a) Crop rotation
b) Intercropping
c) Terrace farming
d) Contour cropping
32. Deciduous forests shed their leaves in a particular season to conserve loss of moisture
through
a) transpiration
b) evaporation
c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’
33. A natural area designated to protect the ecological integrity of one or more ecosystems
for present and future generations, is called
a) Biosphere reserve
b) National park
c) Bird sanctuaries
d) Wildlife sanctuaries
34. Series of protected areas linked through a global network, intended to demonstrate the
relationship between conservation and development, is called
a) Biosphere reserve
b) National park
c) Bird sanctuaries
d) Wildlife sanctuaries
35. A naturally occurring substance that has a definite chemical composition is a
a) mineral
b) compound
c) metal
d) rock
36. The following is (are) non-metallic mineral(s)
a) Limestone
b) Mica
c) Gypsum
d) All of the above
296
37. Minerals can be extracted by
a) Mining
b) Drilling
c) Quarrying
d) All of the above
38. Minerals that lie at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer; this is
known as
a) opencast mining
b) Shaft mining
c) Drilling
d) All of the above
39. Non-metallic minerals are found in
a) Igneous rocks
b) Metamorphic rocks
c) Sedimentary rocks
d) All of the above
40. China also leads in production of
a) lead
b) antimony
c) tungsten
d) All of the above
41. The following is the world’s leading tin producer
a) China
b) Malaysia
c) Indonesia
d) India
42. The following is the world’s leading ironore producer
a) China
b) Russia
c) France
d) India
297
43. _____ is leading producer of copper.
a) Chile
b) Peru
c) Argentina
d) Brazil
44. The largest producer of bauxite in the world is
a) China
b) USA
c) Russia
d) Australia
45. The largest producer of mica in the world is
a) Australia
b) India
c) China
d) Canada
46. Kolar in ________ has deposits of gold in India
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Kerala
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Karnataka
47. Silicon, used in the computer industry is obtained from
a) quartz
b) bauxite
c) cuprite
d) Magnetite
48. Which of the following is referred to as ‘Buried sunshine’?
a) Petroleum
b) Gold
c) Diamond
d) Coal
49. The first country in the world to develop hydroelectricity is

a) China
b) Norway
c) England
d) US
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Chapter 37
HIRA AND RISK ANALYSIS
1. The cost of replacing lost business inventory is an example of a(n):
a) Direct Cost
b) Indirect Cost
c) Public Cost
d) Irreplaceable Cost
2. The loss of a community’s population due to outmigration following a disaster is an

example of a(n):
a) Direct Cost
b) Indirect Cost
c) Public Cost
d) Irreplaceable Cost
3. The three stakeholder categories described in this session include Government, the
Business Community, Academia, and which of the following?
a) The legal community

b) Volunteer organizations
c) First responders
d) Community groups
4. There are two principal reasons for involving the public in the Hazards Risk
Management process. The first is to identify and learn the full spectrum of the needs of
the community. Which of the following is the second?
a) To educate the public and generate their support

b) To tell the public what will be conducted in their community
c) To achieve FEMA certification
5. Which of the following is not one of the steps for engaging the public identified in the
FEMA State and Local Mitigation Planning Guide?
a) Identify the public

b) Organize public participation activities
c) Develop a public education campaign
299
6. Which of the following is part of the community’s geographic profile?
a) Land Use
b) Lakes
c) Fire Stations
d) Pipelines
7. EMAC is an example of which of the following?
a) Mutual aid program

b) Assessment program
c) Communication program
d) All of the above
8. The cost of repairing or replacing damaged or destroyed business facilities is an example

of which of the following?
a) Tangible loss
b) Intangible loss
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above
9. Severe repetitive loss properties represented what percentage of National Flood

Insurance Program claims in 2005?
a) 8
b) 38
c) 58
d) 98
10. Naturally occurring human epidemics are an example of which of the following hazard
categories?
a) Natural hazards
b) Technological hazards
c) Intentional Hazards
11. Which of the following hazards are associated with the movement of Earth’s plates?
a) Tectonic hazards
b) Hydrologic hazards
c) Mass movement hazards
d) Meteorological hazards
12. Expansive soil is an example of a ____________________ (mass movement) hazard
300
13. Which of the following is defined as the unlawful use or threatened use of force or
violence against people or property to coerce or intimidate governments or societies,
often to achieve political, religious, or ideological objectives?
a) War
b) Terrorism
c) Assault
d) Civil disobedience
14. The E in CBRNE stands for which of the following?
a) Expansive
b) Ebola
c) Energy
d) Explosive
15. The three components of a community’s vulnerability are the four vulnerability factors,
the capacity of their emergency management structures, and which of the following?
a) Their annual budget allotted to disaster risk management

b) Their hazard profile
c) Their leadership buyin
d) Their disaster history
16. A community’s physical vulnerability profile is formed by which of the following?
a) Geography
b) Infrastructure
c) Climate
d) All of the above
17. Which of the following measures the individual, societal, political, and cultural factors
that increase or decrease a population’s propensity to incur harm or damage as result of
a specific hazard?
a) Economic vulnerability
b) Social vulnerability
c) Physical vulnerability
18. The two risk perception factors into which the 17 risk factors are grouped as proposed
by Paul Slovic include Factors Related to Dread, and which of the following?
a) Factors related to how much is known about the risk

b) Factors related to how much people care about the risk
c) Factors related to what can be perceived
d) Factors related to age
301
19. What kind of analysis uses words representing a range of values to characterize risk
likelihood and consequence?
a) Quantitative analysis
b) Qualitative analysis
c) Oral analysis
d) Subjective analysis
20. The statement “3 times per year” is an example of risk likelihood represented as which
of the following?
a) A numerator
b) A probability
c) A frequency
21. Which of the following factors is typically examined when considering disaster
consequence risk values?
a) Deaths
b) Injuries
c) Damages
d) All of the above
22. Which of the following is an example of an intangible loss?
a) Mental illness
b) Income loss
c) Response cost
23. Depth of analysis does not typically depend upon which of the following?
a) Time and money available

b) Risk seriousness
c) Risk complexity
d) Direct experience
24. Natural hazards are generally considered in which of the following ways in relation to
technological hazards?
a) More acceptable
b) Less acceptable
c) Equally acceptable
d) Equally unacceptable
302
25. The G in FSMAUGO stands for which of the following?
a) Growth
b) Genesis
c) Government
d) Gaps
26. Which of the following is not a factor that typically determines the acceptability of risk?
a) Personal factors
b) Political/social factors
c) Economic factors
d) Environmental factors
27. Another common name for risk elimination is which of the following?
a) Zero Risk
b) Risk BGone
c) The No Go Alternative
d) Safe
28. Elevation is an example of which of the following mitigation categories?
a) Prevention
b) Property protection
c) Public education and awareness
d) Emergency services
29. Stream corridor restoration is an example of which of the following mitigation

categories?
a) Natural resources protection

b) Structural projects
c) Emergency services
d) Public education and awareness
30. Insurance functions through the use of which of the following?
a) Interest rates
b) Grants
c) Premiums
d) All of the above
303
31. The L in STAPLEE stands for which of the following?
a) Legal
b) Likelihood
c) Loans
d) Local
32. Which of the following is typically excluded from basic insurance policies?
a) Fire damage
b) Wind damage
c) Flood damage
d) Theft
33. The majority of insurance company profits come from which of the following?
a) Investment of premiums
b) Collection of deductibles
c) Coverage of disaster losses
d) Overcharging lowrisk customers
34. Insurance companies are themselves insured by which of the following?
a) Bonds
b) Reinsurance
c) Government subsidies
35. Participation in insurance has been known to encourage people to act in which of the
following ways in relation to how they might have acted without such coverage?
a) Responsibly
b) Irresponsibly
c) Frugally
d) Extravagantly
36. The Hazards Risk Management Implementation Strategy identifies which of the
following?
a) Who is responsible for what actions

b) What funding mechanisms will be pursued
c) When mitigation actions are to be completed
d) All of the above
304
37. Which of the following is defined as: “Communication intended to supply laypeople with
the information they need to make informed, independent judgments about risks to
health, safety, and the environment?”
a) Risk communication
b) Crisis communication
c) Public consultation
d) All of the above
38. Which of the following describes the goals of risk communication recipients?
a) Advice and answers

b) Numbers
c) Process and framing
d) All of the above
39. What concept utilizes the communication methods of the commercial private sector to
communicate risk to the public?
a) Advertising
b) Social marketing
c) Crisis communication
d) Pandering
40. Which of the following help communicators to maintain the focus of the communication
process on the stated goals and objectives and ensure that all information and data is
complete and timely?
a) Focus groups
b) Auditing
c) Monitoring and review
Fill in the Blank Questions
Answer each of the following fill in the blank questions.
1. The primary _______ (goal) of an effective community based Hazards Risk Management plan
is to reduce the impacts of future disaster events on the community’s residents, built
environment, economy, critical infrastructure, and natural environment.
2. A report on future development and land use in the community are an example of a
_____________ (nontraditional) source for identifying potential community issues.
3. _____________ and ____________ (Communication and consultation) are two related and
important considerations that are required at each step of the emergency Risk Management
process, and which involve a two way dialogue between stakeholders.
305
4. Risk _____________ (perceptions) can vary due to difference in assumptions and conceptions
and the needs, issues, and concerns of stakeholders as they relate to the risk or the issues
under discussion.
5. The FEMA website claims that communities are better able to help to serve their neighbors,
fellow citizens, and the Nation’s disaster survivors in particular, when _______ (public) sector
and _______ (private) sector representatives are both active members of the same team.
6. Hospitals and schools are examples of a community’s critical _____________ (facilities,

infrastructure).
7. The ___________ (social) environment of the community is represented by its demographic

profil
8. Lost business opportunities are an example of a(n) ______________ (indirect, intangible)

loss.
9. The US Economic Development Administration defines community _______ (resiliency) to

be “a community’s or region’s ability to reduce the probability of system failure and other
negative consequences resulting from a disaster or incident.”
10. __________________ (Buyouts, Property buyouts) have proven to be the most effective
means of reducing repetitive flood losses.
11. Hazards are events or physical conditions that have the __________ (potential) to cause
fatalities, injuries, property damage, infrastructure damage, agricultural loss, damage to the
environment, interruption of business, or other types of harm or loss
12. Disasters grow in intensity as they _____________ (overwhelm) progressively larger

response units.
13. It can be said that no disaster is __________ (natural), because a disaster event by definition
requires interaction either with man, his built environment, or both.
14. ________________ (Technological) hazards are the negative consequences of human

innovation that can result in the harm or destruction of life, property, or the environment.
15. ____________ (Biological) weapons are difficult to detect because their effects are often
delayed by up to two weeks.
16. Risk ____________ (analysis) is the process through which a risk manager or risk
management team determines a risk value, or a measure of risk, for one or more hazards.
17. ________________ (Quantitative) analyses use mathematical or statistical data to derive

numerical descriptions of risk.
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18. The _____________ (likelihood) component of risk, as previously explained, is what
describes the chance of hazard risk being realize
19. The ______________(consequence) component of risk describes the effects of the risk on
humans, built structures, and the environment.
20. _____________ (Tangible) losses are those for which a dollar value can be assigne
21. ______________________ (Community Risk Assessment or Risk Evaluation) is a process

through which a hazards risk management planning team in a community compares each of
the hazard risks faced by the community, and determines the relative threat of each to the
community.
22. The risk matrix allows the _____________ (comparison or ranking) of different hazard risks.
23. In addition to likelihood and consequence, _____________ (vulnerability) is the factor most
commonly scored in numerical risk assessment methodologies.
24. The term Outrage in the FSMAUGO methodology is also referred to as ___________
(accessibility), and this alternate term is what was used in the original SMAUG methodology.
25. Derby and Keeney wrote that, “The key aspect of acceptable risk problems is that the solution
is found by a decision among ______________ (alternatives).”
26. Insurance is a form of risk ____________ (transfer).
27. The STAPLEE method investigates whether a proposed action is __________ (technically)
feasible; in other words, it looks at whether it will be effective, and whether it solves the
problem or just a symptom of the problem.
28. _________________ (Structural) mitigation projects involve the construction of structures to

reduce the impact of a hazar
29. Government administrative or regulatory actions or processes that influence the way land and
buildings are developed and built are considered _______________ (prevention).
30. Most local governments operate under ______________(enabling) legislation that gives them
the power to engage in certain activities.
31. In the mitigation implementation plan, each mitigation action listed must have at least one
________ (goal) and one __________ (objective), though more complex projects may have
several of each defined in the plan.
32. Most experts advise that it is important to develop a ___________________ (communication

strategy) that will engage stakeholders and communities at the earliest stag
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33. In risk communication, it is important to have an authoritative and trustworthy _________
(source or communicator).
34. A risk communication effort that provides _________________ (process and framing)
information tells recipients how risk is created and how it can be controlled It allows them to
monitor their surroundings, to identify risky situations, and devise appropriate solutions.
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Chapter 38
ISO 14001
1. The “Specified way to carry out an activity or a process” is called a:
a) Process
b) Work instruction
c) Procedure
2. An audit in which an organization evaluates the activities of itself is called a:
a) Registration audit
b) Second party audit
c) Certification audit
d) First party audit
3. In a documented procedure for document control, which of the following is not required
to be included?
a) The name or position of the person responsible for approving the documents
b) The method used for identification of documents of external origin
c) The method used for protecting electronic data, if applicable
d) The method used for identification of changes in documents
4. Internal communication activities may include:
a) Audio visual and electronic means such as emails and websites

b) Working groups
c) Organization's newsletter and announcement boards
d) All of the above
5. In the process approach, inputs are mainly determined by the:
a) Inputs other competitive companies have established

b) Organization's operations and customers
c) Requirements of the least demanding customer
6. Resources are provided by:
a) Top management
b) The management representative
c) The production manager
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7. ISO 14001 requires a documented procedure for:
a) Monitoring and measurement

b) Emergency preparedness and response
c) Control of documents
d) All of the above
8. Emergency plans can include:
a) Internal communication plans

b) Information on hazardous materials
c) Training plans and testing for effectiveness
d) All of the above
9. Which of the following can be considered a good example of setting environmental

Objectives and targets?
a) Reduce the release of pollutants into the environment

b) Promote environmental awareness among employees and the community
c) Reduce the energy required in manufacturing operations by ten percent by measuring the
quantity of fuels and electricity per unit of production
d) All of the above
10. Environmental system audits are used to:
a) Verify that environmental activities comply with planned arrangements

b) Verify that environment related results comply with planned arrangements
c) Determine the effectiveness of the environmental system
d) All of the above
11. ISO 14001 is:
a) A particularly harmful global warming gas

b) A European Union regulation on pollution abatement
c) A water quality regulation set out under the UK 1996 Environment Act
d) An international standard setting out best practice for carrying out audits by companies of
their environmental management systems and policies
OHSAS 18001
12. IRCA Stands For
a) Internal risks and corrective actions

b) Internal Records for Conducted Audits
c) Information Register & Computer Archives
d) International Register of Certified Auditors
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13. According to BS OHSAS 18001 the definition for document is
a) Document stating results achieved or providing evidence or activities performed

b) Information and its supporting medium
c) Specified way to carry out an activity or a process
14. According to BS OHSAS 18001 the definition for preventive action is
a) Source, situation or act with a potential for harm in terms of human injury or ill health, or a
combination of these
b) Action to eliminate the cause of a detected nonconformity or other undesirable situation
c) Action to eliminate the cause of a potential nonconformity or other undesirable potential
situation.
d) Measurable results of an organizations management of Its OH&S risks
15. According to OHSAS 18001 Minimum documentation requirement “Documenting

relevant communications from external interested parties” covered in OHSR __?
a) 13
b) 17
c) 19
d) 15
16. According to OHSAS 18001 Minimum documentation requirement : Records of result of

the periodic evaluations (with applicable legal requirements)” is provided in OHSR __?
a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
17. Which among the audit is considered to be most formal?
a) first party audit

c) Third party audit
18. Who is often viewed as ‘Management Instrument’ in developing procedures and systems
a) Worker
b) Internal auditor
c) Human Resource Manager
d) General Manager
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19. Which Party auditor has the limitation that they have limitations for giving help or
advice to an auditee?
a) Third party auditor

b) First party auditor
c) Second party auditor
d) Lead auditor
20. For accreditation certification to OHSAS 18001 it is expected that for the defined
certification scope, an organization with a certified occupational health and safety
management system will be appropriately managing its OH&S risks and commitment to
i. Prevention of injury and ill health

ii. Meeting applicable legal and other requirements
iii. Continually enhancing its OH&S management system and its OH&S performance
a) i only Follows
b) ii and iii only follows
c) i and iii only follows
d) All of the above follows
21. What Accredited certification to OHSAS 18001 does not mean?
a) Has Defined an OH&S policy appropriate to the nature and scale of its OH&S risks
b) The accredited certificate exclude a full regulatory compliance audit and cannot ensure the
violations of legal requirements will never occur, though full legal compliance should always
be the organizations goal
c) the procedures for ongoing hazard identification, risk assessment and determination of
necessary controls
d) Ensure the people working under its control are aware of the requirements of its OH&S
management system and are competent to perform tasks that have the potential to cause
OH&S consequences
22. Preparation of Audit Activities
1. Assigning work to the audit team

2. Preparing work documents
3. Performing document review in preparation of the audit
4. Preparing the audit plan
a) 2314
b) 1423
c) 4213
d) 3412
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23. ‘Controls relating to purchased goods, equipment and services come under which clause
of BS OHSAS 18001?
a) 4.4.6 A
b) 4.4.6 C
c) 4.4.6.D
d) 4.2.A
24. Another word that can be used for ‘Scope’ during audit.
a) Limit
b) Confine
c) Zero in
d) Boundary
25. Risk assessment, determining controls and risk communication should be based on the
a) Layout of the Process Plant

b) Processes that are employed in the plant
c) Hierarchy of Controls
26. Among the given what are the roles and responsibility of an Auditee Management
a) Organize and direct audit teams

b) Maintain Confidentiality
c) to reach agreement of the audit plan
d) prevent and resolve conflicts
27. Among the given what are the roles and responsibility of an Guide/observer
a) Document all findings

b) Assist team leader with reports
c) Safeguard all documents
d) Safety/ Security rules are known and respected
28. Some auditors favour starting in an organization where client enquiries or raw materials
are received then follow the process through all preproduction stages, production
process and storage/distribution etc, taking in specialized areas along the way. This may
be termed as
a) horizontal auditing
b) top down auditing
c) upstream auditing
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29. As BS OHSAS 18001 is a _____ Management system
a) Process Based
b) Vulnerability based
c) Quality Based
d) Risk Based
30. During an opening meeting, the meeting should not last for more than about __
minutes?
a) 30
b) 45
c) 60
d) 25
31. Interview + Documented information + Observations forms the
a) Audit Evidence Triangle

b) Audit Evidence Circle
c) Audit Evidence Histogram
d) Fibonacci Audit Evidence curve
32. ‘If it doesn’t meet the criteria then it’s got to be a nonconformity, hasn’t it’ this question
belongs to which category?
a) Rhetorical
b) Reflective
c) Probing
d) Hypothetical
33. Arrange them in correct sequence for getting the funnel approach
1. Gathering, 2.verifying, 3.Probing, 4. Finding, 5.Parroting
a) 12345
b) 12453
c) 13254
d) 13245
34. What does R stands for?
a) Corrective Action Request

b) Corrective Action Required
c) Corrected Action for Risks
d) Corrected Audit Report
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35. NC stands for
a) No clearance
b) No certificate
c) No cleanliness
d) Non Conformity
36. Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment falls under which clause of OHSAS 18001?
a) 4.3.1
b) 4.3.2
c) 4.3.3
d) 4.3.4
37. Emergency, Preparedness and response falls under which clause of OHSAS 18001?
a) 4.4.3
b) 4.4.5
c) 4.4.9
d) 4.4.7
38. Competence, Training and awareness falls under which clause of OSHAS 18001?
a) 4.4.5
b) 4.4.1
c) 4.4.2
d) 4.4.3
39. General information, update and review of previous Nonconformities fall under which
clause of OSHAS 18001?
a) 4.1
b) 4.2
c) 4.3
d) 4.4
40. Accidents, Incidents, Near miss and Corrective and preventive action fall under which
clause of OSHAS 18001?
a) 4.5.1
b) 4.5.2
c) 4.5.3
d) 4.5.4
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41. How can we describe this in one word, The auditor asks to see a particular sample, but
the auditee provides a different on The auditor accepts this and moves on!
a) Samphire
b) Girandole
c) Decisive
d) Tenacious
42. Who has the key responsibility for ensuring the ‘Tone’ and ‘Conduct’ of the audit is
appropriate in the team?
a) Auditee
b) Auditee Management
c) Lead Auditor
d) Security of the organization
43. In a 1st Party Internal Audit, any unauthorized disclosure of sensitive information may
result in _______
a) Financial Proceedings
b) Legal Proceedings
c) Disciplinary Proceedings
d) All of the above
44. Accredited third party audits for BS OHSAS 18001 must be a __ stage process
a) 2
b) 1
c) 3
d) 4
45. An ____ approach may be more beneficial for experienced auditors; who are then able
to follow audit trails and use their own experience to verify conformity.
a) Aide quoite
b) Aide Memorie
c) Aide Memoritta
d) Aide Mezmoria
46. Pick the odd one out from the following
1. Requires research and thought 2.Historical reference as an audit record 3.Stifles initiative
and analysis of the processes 4.formality defines the audit procedure
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
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47. What does OFI stand for?
a) Opportunities for Improvement

b) Opportunities of Interest
c) Opportunities of involvement
d) Opportunities of investment
48. In PDCA D stands for
a) Develop
b) Do
c) Design
d) Derive
49. As per BS OSHAS 18001, “Combination of the likelihood of an occurrence of a

hazardous event or exposure and the severity of injury or ill health that can be caused
by the event or exposure” is known as
a) Unsafe Act
b) Incident
c) Accident
50. What does IAF stand for relating to BS OHSAS 18001 3rd party Audits
a) International Accreditation Forum

b) Indian Accreditation Forum
c) Internal Asset Findings
d) Internal Audit Findings
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Chapter 39
a) Accident
b) Hazard
c) Risk

a) Reducing
b) Controlling
c) Eliminating
d) All of the above

d) All of the above
4. The following is (are) physical hazard agent(s)
a) Falls
b) Electricity
c) Inhalation
d) (D) All of the above

6. A safety program consists of
a) Three E’s
b) Four E’s
c) Five E’s
d) Six E’s
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a) MCB
b) ACB
c) OCB
d) MCCB
a) Red
b) Orange
c) Green
d) Purple
a) Light
b) Sound
c) Frequency
preset limit
a) Hoists
b) Conveyors
c) Machine tables
d) All of the above
a) Fail safe
c) Limit switches
d) All of the above
a) Wood
b) Oil
c) Transformer
d) Chemical
a) Class A fires
b) Class B fires
c) Class C fires
d) All of the above
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14. The following class of fire occurs in electrical equipment
a) Class A fires
b) Class B fires
c) Class C fires
d) All of the above
a) Water
b) Soda acid
c) Foam
d) Dry chemicals
16. _____ is best suited to extinguishing oil or flammable liquid fire.
a) Soda acid
c) Foam
d) Dry chemical.
17. What are the two main components of risk?
a) Frequency of occurrence & Magnitude of consequences

b) Magnitude of consequences & Duration of harm
c) Frequency of occurrence & Safe distance from harm
d) Magnitude of consequences & Safe distance from harm
18. How does a Safety Instrumented System most typically reduce risk?
a) Satisfies managerial requirements

b) Reduces the magnitude of harm
c) Satisfies legal requirements
d) Reduces the likelihood of harm
19. Markov models are an analysis technique used to:
a) Calculate probability of systems behaviour

b) Estimate SIL level of a hazard
c) Calculate availability
d) Calculate Safe Failure Fraction of an instrument
20. What is the purpose of documentation?
a) To effectively perform the phases of the safety lifecycle

b) To satisfy the standards
c) Both, the 1st and the 4th answer are true
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d) To support the functional safety assessment tasks
21. Which of the following items is the least likely to be a consideration for functional
safety?
a) A worker becoming injured slipping on a wet floor

b) A worker getting hurt operating a sheet metal stamp press
c) A worker getting killed in a chemical reactor explosion
d) A local resident becoming ill from a process plant environmental release
22. Process Safety incidents can cause
a) Multiple injuries and/or fatalities

b) Massive asset damage
c) Environmental consequence
d) Reputation impact
e) All of the above
23. Process Safety Incidents generally are a result of an unplanned or uncontrolled release
of hazardous material.
a) True
b) False
c) Sometimes, but not always
d) True, unless it disperses to atmosphere
24. Permit to work
a) Addresses personnel safety hazards only

b) Addresses process safety hazards only
c) Addresses components of both personnel safety and process safety hazards
d) All of the above
25. Continuous improvement in tackling personnel safety issues automatically ensures that
process safety issues are addressed
a) Yes
b) No
c) Sometimes
26. Process Safety incidents are generally caused by failure of
a) A single barrier
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b) Multiple barriers
c) Sometimes single but sometimes multiple barriers
27. A safe plant is the one in which
a) Integrity is established at the design stage

b) Technical integrity is maintained throughout the life cycle of the asset
c) Operating integrity is maintained all the time
d) All of the above
28. At PDO the risk profile of our operations has
a) Increased over time

b) Remained the same
c) Declined over time
29. Who is responsible for managing process safety and asset integrity?
a) Operations and Maintenance Staff

b) Projects and Engineering Staff
c) Contracts and Procurement Staff
d) All of us either directly or indirectly
30. If you bypass an ESD function for preventive maintenance but have not properly
defined mitigations you have
a) Removed a hardware barrier

b) Weakened the hardware barrier
c) Removed a human barrier
31. If you see any leaks or spills what should you do
a) Walk past as it is not your job to report it.

b) Report the leak immediately
c) Report only if the leak seems to be getting worse
d) Report only if the leak is big
32. Which of the following methods of hazard analysis works by asking a series of questions
to review potential scenarios and possible consequences?
322
a) HAZOP Study
b) Checklist
c) “What If...?”
d) Failure Mode and Effect Analysis
33. Which of the following may be considered for a permit program?
a) hot work
b) confined space entry
c) opening process equipment
d) all of the above
34. One of the factors in process safety management accountability is management and
supervisory accessibility and communications.
a) true
b) false
35. If original equipment design information is not available, the information need to
establish a process safety management program may be reconstructed from inspection
records.
a) true
b) false
36. Management of Change programs do not need to consider temporary changes and
variances in a process.
a) true
b) false
37. Employers need verification that contractor employees have been trained even though
they are only temporary employees.
a) true
b) false
38. Among other factors, the short term goals of a process risk management program
should be based on __________.
a) the regulatory requirements for program development

b) the timeliness and economic feasibility of instituting necessary changes
c) management’s desired level of compliance
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d) the requirements for implementing a program
39. Which of the following are not exempt from OSHA’s PSM standard?
a) a company that stores 12,000 pounds of flammable liquid

b) hydrocarbons used only for fuel in the workplace
c) retail facilities
d) oil well drilling operations
40. A good process safety management practice is to review process hazard analyses at least
every _____, even if the processes, equipment, or materials have not change
a) two years
b) three years
c) five years
d) seven years
41. Mechanical integrity requirements apply to ____________.
a) vent devices
b) pumps and piping systems
c) materials of construction
d) all of the above
42. Which of the follow methods of hazard analysis uses specific guide words, which are
systematically applied to parameters to identify the consequences of changes in the
design of a process?
a) Fault Tree Analysis

b) Failure Mode and Effect Analysis
c) “What If...?”/Checklist
d) HAZOP Study.
43. To comply with OSHA regulations, how many compliance audit reports does an
employer need to keep on file?
a) the most recent report

b) the last two reports
c) the last three reports
d) none (OSHA does not require employers to keep reports.)
44. Employee training in PSM must include
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a) emphasis on the specific safety and health hazards of the process
b) emergency operations including shutdown
c) other safe work practices that apply to the employee's job tasks
e) all of the above
45. Refresher training must be provided at least every ____ years.
a) 3
b) 5
c) 10
46. The key provision of PSM is
a) process hazard analysis

b) hot work permitting
c) Incident investigations
47. A crucial part of the process safety management program is a thorough investigation of
incidents to identify the chain of events and causes so that
a) Someone can be blamed for the incident.

b) Disciplinary action may be taken.
c) corrective measures can be developed and implemented
48. The PHA _____________ is a thorough, orderly, systematic approach for identifying,
evaluating, and controlling the hazards of processes involving highly hazardous
chemicals.
a) (petroleum health assessment)

b) (process hazard analysis)
c) (process health assessment)
49. PSM requires that each employee presently involved in operating a process or a newly
assigned process must be trained in an overview of the process and in its operating
procedures.
a) True
b) False
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Chapter 40
BEHAVIOUR BASED SAFETY
1. ________means any activity involving a highly hazardous chemical including any use,
storage, manufacturing, handling, or the onsite movement of such chemicals, or
combination of these activities.
a) Process
b) Procedure
c) Project
d) Operation
2. Facility which is operated, maintained or serviced by employees who visit the facility
only periodically to check its operation and to perform necessary operating or
maintenance tasks is called as
a) Normally unoccupied remote facility

b) Normally occupied remote facility
c) Periodically unoccupied remote facility
d) Periodically occupied remote facility
3. Information on the hazards of the highly hazardous chemicals can be obtained by
a) Toxicity, (LC50 and LD50)

b) Permissible exposure limits
c) Reactivity data
d) All of the above
4. Information on the technology of the process does not includes
a) Block flow diagram

b) Process chemistry
c) Safe upper and lower limit
d) Material of construction
5. SMP
a) Standard management procedure

b) Standard maintenance procedure
c) Standard management program
d) Standard maintenance program
6. Safe Work Practices address ______ operations and often require special authorisations
a) Non routine
b) Routine
c) Both
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d) None
7. Any confidential formula, pattern, process ,device, information or compilation of

information that is used in an employer’s business, and that gives the employer an
opportunity to obtain advantage over competitors who do not know or use it is known as
a) Trade Secret
b) Advantage
c) Competition
d) Blackmail
8. Training given to each employee before being involved in operating a newly assigned
process is
a) Initial training
b) Refresher training
c) Job specific training
d) None
9. Refresher training shall be provided at least every
a) 3 years
b) 2 years
c) 5 years
d) 1 year
10. After the completion of the initial process hazard analysis, the process hazard analysis
shall be updated and revalidated at least every
a) 1 year
b) 3 years
c) 5 years
d) 10 years
11. Following methodologies are used to determine and evaluate the hazards of the process
being analysed
a) What if/checklist
b) Hazard and Operability Study (HAZOP)
c) Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)
d) All of the above
12. Requirement of compliance audit
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a) The compliance audit shall be conducted by at least one person knowledgeable in the
process.
b) A report of the findings of the audit shall be developed
c) Promptly determine and document an appropriate response to each of the findings of the
compliance audit, and document that deficiencies have been corrected
d) Retain the two (2) most recent compliance audit reports
e) All of the above
13. Audit performed by the company upon itself is known as
a) First party audit

d) All of the above
14. Audits done by outside or third parties approved by statutory authorities to meet the
requirements under various statuary rules and regulations
a) Internal audit
b) External audit
c) Both
d) None
15. Audit usually performed by the customer upon its suppliers (or potential suppliers) to
ascertain whether or not the supplier can meet existing or proposed contractual
requirements

d) All of the above
16. Assessment of a quality system conducted by an independent, outside auditor or team of

auditors

d) All of the above
17. Periodic detailed audits of one or more plants/facilities of an installation conducted by a

multidisciplinary team drawn from various departments of the installation
328
a) Internal audit
b) External audit
c) Both
d) None
18. Organization (or part of an organization) that is being audited
a) Auditee
b) Auditor
c) Management representative
d) Lead Auditor
19. Person who carries out audits
a) Auditee
b) Auditor
d) Client
20. Official of the auditee organization authorized to deal with the audit team
a) Auditee
b) Auditor
d) Client
21. Audits conducted to verify the corrective actions initiated on previous nonconformities
and its effectiveness
a) Third party audit

b) Follow up audit
c) External audit
d) Internal audit
22. Action taken to eliminate the cause of an existing nonconformity or other undesirable
situation in order to prevent recurrence
a) Corrective action
b) Preventive action
c) Recommendation
d) Prevention
23. Action taken to eliminate the cause of potential nonconformity, defect or other
potentially undesirable situation in order to prevent occurrence
329
c) Recommendation
d) Prevention
24. Suggestion made by the audit team in the course of audit for improvement in the OS&H
system
c) Recommendation
d) Prevention
25. Guards that are attached permanently to equipment and can only be removed with
considerable effort
a) Fixed guards
b) Interlocked guards
c) Adjustable guards
d) Self – adjustable guards
26. Guards that are designed to be removed or opened to allow access to the hazard zone
a) Fixed guards
27. Guards that allow a machine to handle a wide variety of material sizes while still
protecting the unused portion of the blade or the point of operation
a) Fixed guards
28. Guards, that are pushed away from the point of operation when material is fed into the
machine
a) Fixed guards
29. Why do we use guards
a) Prevent contact
330
b) Protect from falling objects
c) Create no new hazards
d) Create no interference
e) Allow safe lubrication
f) All of the above
30. The hazards associated with improper material handling are associated
a) Struck by a load
b) Losing control of a load,
c) Physically overexerting oneself,
d) Exceeding equipment capacity
e) All of the above
31. Low back stress occurs at
a) L5/S1 Disk
b) L1/S5 Disk
c) L3/S5 Disk
d) L5/S3 Disk
32. Maximum compressive force on L5/S1 disk causing 4 times the injury is
a) 550 lbs
b) 500 lbs
c) 525 lbs
d) 575 lbs
33. The belt conveyor is used to transfer the material the density of which is less than
a) 2.5 t/m3
b) 2 t/m3
c) 1.5 t/m3
d) 3 t/m3
34. Work surface height is designed to according to
a) Taller members
b) Shorter members
c) Average of both
d) As per designers wish
35. Height of platform for fixed work surface for standing workstations from the floor is
a) 1075 mm
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b) 1750 mm
c) 1570mm
d) 1500 mm
36. Height of platform for fixed work surface for seating workstations from the floor is
a) 780 mm
b) 870 mm
c) 790 mm
d) 970 mm
37. Minimum leg height clearance under the conveyor for fixed work surface for seating
workstations from the floor is
a) 720 mm
b) 750 mm
c) 780 mm
d) 740 mm
38. Zones of repetitive reaching on the conveyor should lie within _____ of the front of the
operator’s body.
a) 350 mm
b) 400 mm
c) 450 mm
d) 500 mm
39. Chemicals, which will cause damage to the living tissue and/or chemically attack metallic
containers and structures are
a) Corrosive chemicals
b) Oxidising chemicals
c) Pyrophoric chemicals
d) Incompatible chemicals
40. chemical that initiates or promote combustion in other materials, thereby causing fire
either of itself or through release of oxygen or other gases.
41. Chemicals which are so reactive that on contact with air and its moisture, oxidation/
hydrolysis occurs at such a rate so as to cause ignition
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42. chemical substances which in contact with each other cause hazardous reactions which
may be violent or produce toxic materials
43. Minimum interval between two successive exposure at STEL is
a) 30 min
b) 45 min
c) 60 min
d) 90 min
44. Cold work permit is to be given to
a) Receiver
b) Fire Section
c) Safety section
d) All of the above
45. Confined Space Entry and Work at Height Permit time is generally restricted up to
a) 5 PM
b) 6 PM
c) 7 PM
d) 8 PM
46. Which of the following should satisfy to issue a confined space permit
a) oxygen level should be at least 19.5 %

b) Explosimeter reading is zero
c) oxygen and acetylene cylinders are kept outside
d) combustible gases are upto 5% of lower explosive limit (LEL)
e) All of the above
47. Employee Compensation Act 1923 does not apply to
a) Members of armed forces of union

b) Employees covered by ESI Act, 1948. (Dependent’s benefits available)
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c) Casual Workers & workers employed otherwise than for employer’s trade or business
d) All of the above
48. Wages given to an employee does not includes
a) Night out allowance

b) Dearness allowance
c) Employers contribution to a pension or PF
d) Gratuity overtime
49. Employer shall not be liable of any injury not resulting in death, caused by an accident
which is directly attributable to
a) Workmen having been at the time thereof under the influence of drugs, or
b) Willful disobedience of the workman to an order expressly given, or to a rule expressly
framed, for the purpose of securing the safety of workmen, or
c) Willful removal or disregard by the workmen of any safeguard or other device which he
knew to have been provided for the purpose of securing the safety of workmen.
d) When the employee has contacted a disease which is not directly attributable to a specific
injury caused by the accident or to the occupation; or
e) When the employee has filed a suit for damages against the employer or any other person, in
a Civil Court.
f) All of the above
50. Maximum penalty on employer in case of not paying the compensation within one
month from date it fell due is
a) Compensation only
b) Compensation + Simple interest at rate of 12% or higher
c) Compensation + penalty of not greater than 50% of the compensation
d) Compensation + penalty of not greater than 50% of the compensation + Simple interest at
rate of 12% or higher
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Chapter 41
OISD 117 & OISD118
1. Which THREE of the following are elements of structure within a building?
i) Columns
ii) Staircase
iii) Sandwich panels
iv) Beams
a) i, ii, iii
b) i, ii, iv
c) i, iii, iv
d) ii, iii, iv
2. Which of the following materials used for flashings and roofs melts at 327oC and
therefore presents a danger of molten metal to fire fighters working beneath the roof?
a) Copper
b) Zinc
c) Lead
d) Bronze
3. Which one of the following extinguishing properties is NOT consistent with the methods
in which a water spray protection system extinguishes an oil fire?
a) Cooling.
b) Reduction of the amount of fuel available
c) Dilution of oxygen supplies.
d) Dilution of liquid
4. Which THREE of the following are features of Open Circuit Alarm Systems?
i) Detectors are wired in parallel

ii) There is no current flow when on standby
iii) A broken circuit will raise an alarm
iv) The operation of a detector activates the alarm
a) i, ii, iii
b) i, ii, iv
c) i, iii, iv
d) ii, iii, iv
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5. Which THREE of the following are key elements of a fire safety management system?
i) Maintenance Plan
ii) Staff Training Plan
iii) Fire Action Plan
iv) Fire Access Plan
a) i, ii, iii
b) i, ii, iv
c) i, iii, iv
d) ii, iii, iv
6. Which of the following activities are considered “hot work”?
a) Welding
b) Cutting
c) Grinding Ferrous Metals
d) All of the Above
7. The three elements needed for a fire include:
a) Fuel
b) Oxygen
c) Heat
d) All of the Above
8. The acronym for proper use of a fire extinguisher is:
a) PAST
b) PASS
c) PALS

10. What is the task of the government’s Health and Safety Inspection Service (formerly the
Labour Inspectorate (Arbeidsinspectie)?
a) Conduct consultations with employers concerning highrisk activities and provide advice
concerning the measures to be implemented
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b) The workplac

13. To whom should nearaccidents be reported?

14. What is an example of safe behaviour at the workplace?

a) A partition must have a CE marking.

a) Supervise highrisk activities.

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17. What colours are used on signs for firefighting equipment?


a) It allows the Occupational Health & Safety Service (Arbodienst) to determine whether the
(Arbeidsinspectie)) can check which activities are performed
20. What does this sign (white symbol on a blue background) mean?
a) The use of fall protection equipment is mandatory.

b) Watch out for falling objects.
c) Keep fall protection equipment ready for us
a) The substances and processes on the site that can cause emergency situations.
c) When evacuation exercises are to be held
a) Harmful carcinogenic suffocating.

b) Flammable corrosive harmless.
c) Explosive highly/extremely flammable harmful.
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24. The packaging displays this pictogram (black on orange). What does this tell you about
its contents?
a) Oxidising.
b) Corrosive
c) Highly flammable
25. A pipeline is leaking. What is the consequence if a substance with this pictogram is
released?
a) Danger of suffocation.
b) Fire hazard
c) Hazard to the environment.
26. What is the LEL of a gas?
a) The lowest concentration of the gas at which an explosion can occur.

b) The highest concentration of the gas at which an explosion can occur.
c) The lowest measurable concentration of the gas.
27. What is a key drawback of using gaseous extinguishing agents, such as carbon dioxide,
to extinguish a fire?
a) The displacement of oxygen can also have a suffocating effect on the people in the
immediate vicinity.
b) The unused gaseous extinguishing agents are harmful to the environment.
c) The fire extinguishing process sharply cools the ambient air.
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28. What is an explosionhazardous environment?

c) An environment where explosions are a frequent occurrence
29. which of the following is a risk associated with permanently installed grinders?
a) Due to the low rpm, the grinding stone can come off its axis.
b) The grinding stone can bite into the material.
c) The grinding stone can disintegrate
30. Is the earthing of double insulated electric hand tools permitted?
a) No, this is not permitted

b) This only permitted with the employer’s approval.
c) Yes, this is permitted
31. Which rule, among others, applies to a crane?
a) A crane must carry an SSC (VCA) quality mark.

b) A crane must not be higher than 23 metres.
c) A crane must carry a CE marking.
32. Which weather condition can have a major impact on the operation of a crane?
a) High humidity.
b) High wind velocity.
c) High temperature
33. Which rule applies to the use of a manual hoist?
a) A manual hoist must never be overloaded

b) You must always load the hook at its point.
c) A manual hoist may only be loaded in a vertical position.
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34. . What is a risk associated with the use of a forklift truck?

yourself if simple actions suffice to do this. No dust or fibres may be released during this
process. Which specific safety measure, among others, must then be implemented?

c) Use a chute

pipelines buried in the ground This is why ‘rules for careful excavation’ have been
b) First manually dig trial trenches close to the specified location of the cables or pipelines.
39. Which of the following is mandatory when a safety cage is used?
a) Everyone in the safety cage must have a walkietalki

b) The safety cage must be suspended from a chain or a steel cabl
c) Everyone in the safety cage must wear a safety harness attached to the safety cage
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a) Perspiration.
b) Skin colour.
c) Ageing.


b) Static electricity can cause nonconductive materials to catch fir


46. When should you wear Cyclops glasses?
a) During grinding, hacking and drilling.

b) When you connect/disconnect product hoses.
c) During gas welding.
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a) Cold or heat.
b) Turning parts.

49. PreIncident plans are _____, while SOPs are _____.
a) building specific; general

b) general; specific C
c) determined well in advance; onscene
d) determined by committee; negotiated
50. When performing CPR on an adult, how deep should the chest compressions be?
a) 1½ inches.
b) 2 inches
c) 2½ inches
d) 3 inches
51. A first aid responder should move a victim when….
a) it would make it easier to administer first aid

b) The victim is in a dangerous position.
c) Never
d) Both a & b
52. There are three basic steps you can take in an emergency:
a) Call, Check, Care

b) Check, Call, Care
c) Recognize, Decide, Call
d) Decide, Execute, Call
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Chapter 42
MUSCULOSKELETAL DISORDERS OR WORK RELATED MUSCULOSKELETAL
DISORDERS (WMSDS)
1. Which of the following explains WMSD?
a) Acronym for work related musculoskeletal disorders

b) Occupational injuries resulting in musculoskeletal disorders
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Occupational requirements stemming from OSHA
2. Which of the following is not among WMSD activities?
a) Outdoor exposure
b) Working in cramped spaces
c) Awkward positions
d) Standing for extending periods
3. Which of the following is NOT one of the most common WMSD activities?
a) Sitting for prolonged periods

b) Force concentrated on the hands, wrists, feet or ankles
c) Insufficient recovery time between movements
d) Protected knees with periodic breaks allowing for recovery
4. Which of the following is the most common workplace Repetitive Stress Injury (RSI)?
a) Tendonitis
b) Tenosynovitis
c) Carpel tunnel syndrome
d) Bursitis
5. Which of the following is the LEAST likely to be a cause of WMSD (workrelated

musculoskeletal disorders)?
a) Fixed or constrained body positions

b) Continual repetition of movements
c) Force concentrated on small parts of the body, such as the hand or wrist
d) A pace of work that supports sufficient recovery between movements
For each of the following 22 questions, please circle true or false

Questions are on both the front and back of the page
1) The goal of ergonomics is to create jobs, tools, equipment TRUE FALSE

and workplaces that fit people, rather than making people
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adapt to fit them.
2) A broken bone is an example of a WMSD (Work Related TRUE FALSE

Musculoskeletal Disorder.
3) A severe WMSD can be a pretty serious, and some even TRUE FALSE
require surgery.
4) Tingling or burning sensations may be symptoms of a WMS TRUE FALSE
5) You definitely won’t get a WMSD if you are exposed to risk TRUE FALSE
factors for 15 minutes, even if it adds up to hours of
exposure over the day.
6) A good posture is one that places the most amount of stress TRUE FALSE
on your joints and muscles.
7) Repetitively lifting your arms up overhead can lead to a TRUE FALSE

shoulder or elbow WMS
8) Working with your neck bent forward too far can place TRUE FALSE
strain on the neck muscles, especially if you hold this
position for a long period of time
9) Working while bent over places very little strain on the TRUE FALSE
muscles in your back.
10) Bent wrists are not a risk for injury when combined with TRUE FALSE
high hand forces or repetitive motions.
11) Raising the height of a workstation or display can help TRUE FALSE
eliminate the risk of awkward postures.
12) Gripping or squeezing using high hand force can strain the TRUE FALSE
muscles in your hands and arms as well as the tendons that
attach the muscles to bones.
13) One of the best ways to reduce grip forces is to use pinch TRUE FALSE
grips instead of power grips wherever possible
14) Using two hands instead of one does nothing to reduce the TRUE FALSE
grip force you need to use to handle objects.
15) Making the same motion repeatedly can cause a lot of wear TRUE FALSE
and tear on the joints being used, and if you don’t rest to
allow time for them to heal, the damage can just keep
building up.
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16) Improving your posture won’t help to reduce the risk of TRUE FALSE
injury from intensive keying.
17) The load on the low back when lifting something heavy can TRUE FALSE
strain the muscles and eventually damage the disks in your
spin
18) Repetitive lifting is not as hazardous as heavy lifting. TRUE FALSE
19) Try to store heavy items above your shoulders or on the TRUE FALSE
floor.
20) You shouldn’t report symptoms if your symptoms include TRUE FALSE
numbness or tingling.
21) Make sure you don’t tell your supervisor about your TRUE FALSE
symptoms.
22) Early treatment for WMSDs is often very simple and TRUE FALSE
successful.
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Chapter 43
INDUSTRIAL SAFETY
a) Accident
b) Hazard
c) Risk

a) Reducing
b) Controlling
c) Eliminating
d) All of the above

d) All of the above
a) Falls
b) Electricity
c) Inhalation
d) All of the above
5. Check list for Job Safet y Analysis (JSA) consists of

a) Three E’s
b) Four E’s
c) Five E’s
d) Six E’s
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a) MCB
b) ACB
c) OCB
d) MCCB
a) Red
b) Orange
c) Green
d) Purple
a) Light
b) Sound
c) Frequency
preset limit
a) Hoists
b) Conveyors
c) Machine tables
d) All of the above
a) Fail safe
c) Limit switches
d) All of the above
12. ClassA fire consists of fire due to
a) Wood
b) Oil
c) Transformer
d) Chemical
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a) ClassA fires
b) ClassB fires
c) ClassC fires
d) All of the above
a) ClassA fires
b) ClassB fires
c) ClassC fires
d) All of the above
a) Water
b) Soda acid
c) Foam
d) Dry chemicals
16. _____ is best suited to extinguishing oil or flammable liquid fire
a) Soda acid
c) Foam
d) Dry chemical
MCQ on Mechanical Hazards :
1. When a body part comes in contact with a sharp edge, which of the following occurs?
a) Crushing
b) Puncturing
c) Shearing
d) Cutting
2. Which type of guard shuts down the machine when the guard is not securely in place?
a) Fixed
b) Interlock
c) Adjustable
d) Point
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3. An optical device that shuts down the machine any time the light field is broken is a(n):
a) Photoelectric device
b) Electromechanical device
c) Pullback device
d) Radiofrequency device
4. The best guard used in a robot's work envelope is a(n):
a) Photoelectric device
b) Pullback device
c) Electromechanical device
d) Physical barrier
5. When a machine is being operated without the safeguard, which of the following actions
should be taken?
a) Stop the machine immediately.

b) Report to management the next day.
c) Show caution while the machine is operating.
d) Discuss at the next safety meeting.
6. In an industrial setting, people interact with machines that are designed to drill, cut,
stamp, punch, and shape such materials as metals, plastics, and elastomers.
a) True
b) False
7. The most common mechanical injuries are cutting, tearing, shearing, crushing,
breaking, straining, spraining, and puncturing.
a) True
b) False
8. The National Safety Council defines safeguarding as minimizing the risk of accidents.
a) True
b) False
9. Guards are not effective when used at the point of operation.
a) True
b) False
10. Fixed guards provide a temporary barrier between workers and the point of operation.
a) True
b) False
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11. Three types of point of operation guards are fixed, interlocked, and adjustable
a) True
b) False
12. The best robot safeguard is roping the work area off.
a) True
b) False
13. OSHA’s standard for the control of hazardous energy is often referred to as the
“Lockout/Tagout standard”
a) True
b) False
14. Regardless of the type of problem, the key in responding is immediacy.
a) True
b) False
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Chapter 44
GUARDING, WORK PERMIT SYSTEM, SAFETY AUDIT
1. Why do we use the Work Permit System?
a) To renew certificates
b) To log accidents
c) To prevent accidents
d) To monitor contractor working hours
2. How long is a work permit issuer or receiver certificate valid?
a) 90 days
b) 6 months
c) 2 years
d) a year
3. Who must sign a work permit issuer or receiver’s certificate?
a) The designated representative

b) The foreman of issuer or receiver
c) The issuer or receiver
d) The superintendent of the issuer or receiver
4. What is listed on the Work Permit?
a) Maximum safety precautions

b) OSHA safety precautions
c) Minimum safety precautions
d) Government safety precautions
5. When can work permit issuer decide that a work permit is not needed in a restricted
area?
a) When the work is cold work

b) When a site joint inspection is not needed
c) When he decides the work is low risk
d) Never! They are always on a restricted area
6. A fire watch is assigned?
a) For any hot work

b) For high risk jobs
c) Whenever a fire can occur
d) When gas test results are over 0.0% LEL
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7. Who goes on a Site Joint Inspection?
a) Designated craftsmen and receiver

b) Issuer and designated representative
c) Receiver and senior craftsmen
d) Issuer and receiver
8. Check the receiver’s certificate and get countersignatures
a) Close work permit and check the receiver’s certificate

b) Provide first aid and assign a fire watch
c) Renew certificates and get countersignatures
9. Why is it important for the issuer to tell the receiver about the safety hazards he may
find at the job site?
a) The receiver must take gas tests

b) The receiver does not read the work permit
c) The receiver may not have worked in the area before
d) The receiver must respond to emergencies
10. What joint inspection do issuer and receiver share?
a) Safety at the work site

b) Taking gas tests
c) Doing the work
d) Naming the designated representative
11. What do you call an area where work permits are required?
a) A controlled area
b) A sensitive area
c) A restricted area
d) A dangerous area
12. What is the purpose of the work permit system?
a) To ensure that hot work is not done in restricted area

b) To authorize specific construction or maintenance work
c) To authorize all work activity during T&I on one form
d) To document when receivers start work for timekeeping
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13. What type of work does the work permit system authorize?\
a) All work done by maintenance or contractor

b) Nonhazardous work where safety is important
c) Specific construction, maintenance or repair work
d) All work conducted by Client.
14. The safety of the work site is the sole responsibility of an issuer?
a) True
b) False
c) Maybe
15. Restricted areas include which locations?
a) Pump stations, tank farms and gas wells

b) Welding shops, pump stations and assembly areas
c) Gas plants, tank farms and assembly areas
d) Dining halls, housing units and operating areas
16. Who can decide that the work is a low risk and that a work permit is not needed?
a) The issuer
b) The Department Manager
c) The receiver
d) The Superintendent
17. Which of the following is NOT a restricted area?
a) Gasoline station
b) Loading pier
c) Dump site
d) Tank farm
18. Who is a permit receiver?
a) A person nominated by his supervisor

b) A qualified Saudi Aramco employee
c) A person certified to receive permits
d) A maintenance or contract worker
19. What is a work permit issuer responsible for?
a) Equipment or a work area

b) Extending certificates
c) The receiver’s actions
d) Nothing once he issues a permit
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20. A specific area is not normally categorized as restricted Who makes the final decision
whether this area should be categorized as restricted?
a) Department Manager
b) Loss Prevention
c) GI 2.100
d) Area Superintendent
21. Example of low risk work are:
a) Sweeping, visual inspection and minor cleaning

b) Spray painting, waterwashing and turbine work
c) Cold work, light work and nondestructive testing
d) Brush painting, abrasive blasting and sweeping
22. What does a restricted area require?
a) That certificates are issued

b) That extensions are short term
c) That receivers respond to emergencies
d) That work permits are issued
23. What can a designated representative do?
a) Inspect the work site

b) Accept the receiver’s responsibilities
c) Authorize the receiver to leave
d) Sign the work permit
24. A receiver must be what?
a) A designated representative
b) A senior craftsman
c) A senior contractor manager
d) A qualified engineer
25. What are the receiver’s main responsibilities?
a) Being the designated representative

b) Responding to operational emergencies
c) Comply with safety precautions and signing the permit
d) Filling in for the issuer when the issuer must leave
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Principles of Auditing
26. Which of the following is not a basic element common to most audit program manuals:
a) Objectives
b) Scope
c) Subjects to be audited
d) Names of qualified auditors
27. The staff assigned to conduct an audit should:
a) Be comprised of members with a master’s level or equivalent educational backgroun

b) Demonstrate overall aptitude in a multitude of industries.
c) Have qualifications commensurate with the scope and complexities of the audit assigned
d) Be comprised only of members with QEP, CIH or CSP professional certification.
28. An auditor finds evidence in the facility files that directly contradicts a statement made
by the EHS coordinator. The EHS coordinator refuses to admit his error and comes to
the audit team leader and states that the audit team is free to review files, but no more
interviews will be granted to that auditor. The best first course of action for the audit
team leader in this situation is:
a) Contact the audit program director for assistance in resolving the conflict.
b) Work with the EHS coordinator to try to resolve the conflict.
c) Replace the auditor.
d) End the audit.
29. A generator of a land disposal restricted hazardous waste may conclude that his/her
waste stream requires no further treatment. If so, paperwork that this generator must
include with shipments of the waste include:
a) EPA hazardous waste number

b) Applicable treatment standard
c) Manifest number of the waste shipment
d) Waste analysis data, if available
e) All of the above
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30. The senior management of ABC Co. requested an audit of the XYZ plant to determine
compliance with the Clean Air Act provisions requiring continuous emissions
monitoring of boiler emissions. A number of regulatory deficiencies were identified
including the failure to update and keep current the plant's required emissions
monitoring plan. During a briefing, the plant manager said that the monitoring plan was
scheduled to be updated in the following month and that accordingly the audit report
should not contain this finding. As lead auditor you should:
a) Politely refuse the request as you are required to report all material facts
b) Grant the request as a courtesy as the problem will soon be corrected
c) Grant the request as the deficiency was not material in that it did not directly contribute to
emissions
d) Do nothing at the time but conduct a followup investigation in two months
e) Refer the request to the Vice President of Operations
31. When operating any machinery and equipment you should:
a) wear ear phones for hearing protection

b) keep all guards in place
c) operate it correctly and safely and concentrate on the job
d) b) and c) only
32. Guards on machinery and mechanical equipment can be taken off:
a) if it is awkward to use the machinery with the guard on

b) if the machine has a "deadman" switch
c) during cleaning and maintenance
d) all of the above
33. What happens if work must continue past the time the original permit was to expire?
a) Work can continue until the job is complete

b) Keep working, but tell the issuer
c) Stop work and come back next day
d) Renew the permit
34. Who is the responsible for safety at the work after permit has been extended?
a) The original issuer and receiver

b) The old issuer, because he did the joint site inspection
c) The issuer and the receiver who sign the extension
d) No one after permit has been extended
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35. Work permits can be issued up to 30 days if:
a) Is highly unlikely that conditions will change

b) Only cold work will be done
c) The work site is far away
d) The receiver cannot close the work permit
36. Who must sign the work permit issued for up to 30 days?
a) Receiver and designated representative

b) The designated representative
c) Operations and maintenance division head
d) Operation foreman, issuer and recover
37. If the work permit is not issued during the emergency, what must be done to do the
work?
a) Superintendent must approve

b) Wear Scott air packs
c) Joint site inspection
d) All safety precaution must be taken
38. The issuer must stop work if:
a) More men working than stated on the permit

b) The issuer lost his copy of the permit
c) The issuer left the jobsite
d) The job site was found to be unsafe
39. What must the issuer do with the permit after he stops work?
a) Close, then extend the permit

b) Give his copy to the receiver
c) Get a countersignature
d) Write the reason on the permit
40. A pipe fitter cannot work on the same piece of equipment using a welder’s
work permit because:
a) Each type of work involves different hazard

b) Joint site inspection are not needed for pipe fitters
c) Welders are usually contractor.
d) Gas tests are not needed for pipe fitter
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41. Work permit can be issued up to
a) To receiver shift
b) One operational shift
c) 24 consecutive hours
d) Two ten hour shift
42. Who must sign a work permit to extend it?
a) Then new area foreman and new issuer

b) Superintendent's countersignature is required
c) The new issuer and receiver
d) The new issuer, receiver and gas tester
43. When must be work permit closed?
a) Before another permit is issued

b) When the work is finished or crew leaves
c) After gas test taken
d) When the issuer leaves the jobsite
44. Who must sign the work permit to close it?
a) Competent person
b) Gas tester, issuer and receiver
c) Designated representative
d) Issuer and receiver
45. Why must work permit be closed?
a) To allow gas test to be taken

b) To allow the permit to be extended
c) To communicate the status of the work
d) To stop all hot work
46. What is one hazard with doing hot work?
a) Vapor pressure
b) Ignition source
c) Flash point
d) Cold work
47. The use of air compressor in an operatingarea requires which work permit?
a) Release
b) Entry
c) Hot
d) Cold
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48. Why do we install tags as well as locks?
a) To record a gas test

b) To explain why the lock is installed
c) To lists safety precaution
d) To record purging cycle
49. Who from the work crew, install lock?
a) One member from each work crew

b) Every member of the crew
c) The foreman and the receiver
d) The issuer and the gas tester
50. The issuer must try to start up equipment at the field switch after it has been
isolated and before work starts to make sure:
a) It has been purged and cleaned

b) There is no gas in the area
c) The receiver's tag in installed
d) It cannot accidentally start
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Chapter 45
BASICS OF HAZARD AND RISK
a) Accident
b) Hazard
c) Risk

a) Reducing
b) Controlling
c) Eliminating
d) All of the above

d) All of the above
a) Falls
b) Electricity
c) Inhalation
d) All of the above

a) Three E’s
b) Four E’s
c) Five E’s
d) Six E’s
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a) MCB
b) ACB
c) OCB
d) MCCB
a) Red
b) Orange
c) Green
d) Purple
a) Light
b) Sound
c) Frequency
preset limit
a) Hoists
b) Conveyors
c) Machine tables
d) All of the above
a) Fail safe
c) Limit switches
d) All of the above
a) Wood
b) Oil
c) Transformer
d) Chemical
a) Class A fires
b) Class B fires
c) Class C fires
d) All of the above
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a) Class A fires
b) Class B fires
c) Class C fires
d) All of the above
a) Water
b) Soda acid
c) Foam
d) Dry chemicals
16. _____ is best suited to extinguishing oil or flammable liquid fir
a) Soda acid
c) Foam
d) Dry chemical
17. Material handling consists of movement of material from
a) one machine to another

b) one shop to another shop
c) stores to shop
d) all of the above
18. Economy in material handling can be achieved by
a) employing gravity feed movements

b) minimizing distance of travel
c) by carrying material to destination without using manual labour
d) all of the above
19. Principle of ‘Unit load’ states that
a) materials should be moved in lots

b) one unit should be moved at a time
20. Fork lift truck is used for
a) lifting and lowering

b) vertical transportation
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21. Wheel barrows is used for

22. Cranes are used for

23. Overbridge crane has
a) transverse movement
b) longitudinal movement
24. The following is used to transport materials having flat bottoms
a) Belt conveyor
b) Roller conveyor
c) Chain conveyor
25. The following is supported from the ceilings
a) Roller conveyor
b) Belt conveyor
c) Chain conveyor
d) All of the above
26. Special purpose material handling equipment are used in
a) Process layout
b) Line layout
364
27. ‘Ergonomics’ is related to human
a) Comfort
b) Safety
c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
28. The following subject(s) is (are) related to ‘Ergonomics’
a) Anthropology
b) Physiology
c) Psychology
d) All of the above
29. The qualitative information is one which concerns the

b) Rate of change
30. The quantitative information is one which concerns the

b) Rate of change
31. Ergonomics principle suggests that
a) Monitoring displays should be placed outside peripheral limitations

b) Glow in the dark dials made of reflective substances are good for viewing in the nights
c) Visual systems should be preferred over auditory systems in noisy locations
d) All of the above
32. The following is (are) basic type(s) of dynamic quantitative display(s)
a) Fixed scale with moving pointer

b) Fixed pointer with moving scale
c) Counters displays
d) All of the above
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33. In designing an efficient workspace, the left hand will cover
a) Maximum working area

b) Normal working area
c) Minimal working area
d) Any of the above
34. The most frequently used components are arranged in

a) Left side
b) Right side
c) Central location
d) Any of the above
35. The priorities, when large number of controls and displays are to be arranged, are
a) First priority: Primary visual task

b) Second priority: Primary controls (interacting with primary visual task)
c) Third priority: Better controls display relationships
d) Fourth priority: Location of frequently used items with easy use
36. Which of the above is nor correctly matched
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
37. The height of the top of the work bench should be __ the height of the elbow of the
workmen.
a) at
b) Above
c) Below
d) Any of the above
38. For controlling the rotation through more than 360 degree, we use
a) Knob
b) Selector
c) Crank
d) Wheel
366
39. If natural light is used as the principal means of illumination at workspace, windows
area needs to be equal to ___ percent of floor are
a) 20
b) 30
c) 40
d) 50
40. The working area should be illuminated _______ their surroundings.
a) More than
b) Less than
c) Equal to
d) Depends upon type of job performed
41. The safe exposure limits for noise levels for 08 hours of working/day is
a) 90 dBA
b) 110 dBA
c) 130 dBA
d) 150 dBA
42. The international limits for chemical substances in air is known as
a) Maximum limit value

b) Minimum limit value
c) Optimum limit value
d) Threshold limit value
43. The following are the principles in the application of Anthropometric data except
a) Design for extreme individuals

b) Design for the average
c) Design for adjustable range
d) Design for the optimum
44. The correct sequence of development of Anthropometric considerations in design step by

step, is
a) Decide the user population – Decide the relevant body measurement – Determine the
applicable principle – Decide the percentage of population
b) Decide the relevant body measurement – Decide the user population –Determine the
applicable principle – Decide the percentage of population
c) Decide the user population – Decide the relevant body measurement – Decide the
percentage of population – Determine the applicable principle
d) Decide the user population – Determine the applicable principle – Decide the relevant body
measurement – Decide the percentage of population
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45. The following is (are) the Biomechanical principle(s) in ergonomics
a) The joints should be kept as far as possible in a neutral position

b) Keep the work close to the body
c) The lifting must occur gradually in an even matter
d) All of the above
46. The people can carry out continuous task without fatigue if the energy requirement for
the task is less than ______ .
a) 250Watt
b) 500 Watt
c) 750Watt
d) 1000Watt
47. For longer seating, the most comfort position for the leg is when knee is bent at about
____ degree
a) 25
b) 35
c) 45
d) 55
48. The state of the worker by which the capacity and willingness for doing work is reduced
is called
a) Stress
b) Fatigue
c) Creep
49. Which of the following industries should be located near the vicinity of raw materials?
a) Cycles
b) Televisions
c) Sewing machines
d) Steel mills
50. For which of the following industry humid climate is helpful
a) Cotton
b) Steel
c) Light Bulb
d) Automobile
368
51. Buildings for foundries and steel mills are often of the
a) Flat roof
b) Saw tooth
c) High bay
d) Bow string
369
Chapter 46
BASICS OF ENVIRONMENT
1. The principle of cyclone separator is .
a) centrifugal force
b) inertial force
c) both and
d) NOTA
2. The detention time on an average for primary sedimentation take is
a) 3040 mins
b) 1.53 hours
c) 45 hours
d) 1020 mins
3. The BOD removal percentage after aeration in an waste water treatment plant is
a) 50%
b) 75%
c) 99%
d) 85%
4. Using a rapid sand filter is one of the tertiary processes in waste water treatment
a) primary
b) secondary
c) tertiary
d) NOTA
5. Of the following which is not used for disinfection of waste water
a) UV rays
b) Ozone
c) Activated Carbon
d) Chlorine
6. The World Health Organization (WHO) estimates how many people on earth do not
have access to clean drinking water?
a) 1 out of 100
b) 1 out of 50
c) 1 out of 20
d) 1 out of 6
370
7. A body of water can be depleted of its oxygen by
viruses and parasitic worms

organic wastes
sediments and suspended matter
inorganic wastes
Which of the following is a point source of water pollution?
offshore oil wells

livestock feedlots
urban lands
croplands
To determine the presence and concentration of water pollutants, scientists are least likely
to use
chemical analysis of water samples

satellite photographs
analysis of indicator species
genetically engineered bacteria and yeasts
The water temperature should preferably be less than __ degree Celsius.
10
15
25
30
The following unit is not used to measure turbidity of water?
NTU
ATU
JTU
FTU
A technique used to determine the concentration of odour compounds in a sample is known

as
Stripping
Settling
Flushing
Chlorination
371
In filtration, the amount of dissolved solids passing through the filters is
Difference between total solids and suspended solids

Sum of total solids and suspended solids
Independent of suspended solids
None of the above
The Total dissolved solids (TDS) can be reduced by the following method
Distillation
Reverse osmosis
Ion exchange
All of the above
According to The United States Geological Survey, water having less than 1000 ml/litre of
total dissolved solids is
Fresh water
Slightly saline
Moderately saline
Brine water
The following cause alkalinity in natural water.
Potassium carbonate
Potassium bicarbonate
Sodium carbonate
All of the above
The following cause alkalinity as well hardness in natural water.
Calcium carbonate
Calcium bicarbonate
Magnesium carbonate
All of the above
Temporary hardness is caused due to
Magnesium carbonate
Calcium sulphate
Magnesium sulphate
Magnesium chloride
372
According to WHO, the soft water has 0 to _____ milligram per litre as CaCO3.
30
60
90
120
The excess presence of which of the following cause the teeth of children mottled and
discoloured?
Fluorides
Chlorides
Hardness
All of the above
Fluorides from waste water can be removed by
Reverse osmosis
Lime softening
Ion exchange
All of the above
The source of Arsenic in water is
Industrial waste
Fertilizers
Phosphate rocks
All of the above
The process of nutrient enrichment is termed as
Eutrophication
Limiting nutrients
Enrichment
Schistosomiasis
Freshwater lakes are most often limited by
Nitrogen
Phosphorus
Carbon
None of the above
373
Which of the following is not a water borne disease?
Typhoid
Scabies
Cholera
Hepatitis
Which of the following is not a water hygiene disease?
Diarrhoea
Leprosy
Conjunctivitis
Trachoma
According to EPA of USA, the following is not one of the six major pollutants?
Ozone
Carbon monoxide
Nitrogen oxides
Carbon dioxide
The Pollution Standard Index (PSI) scale has span from
0200
0300
0500
0400
Which of the following is an organic gas?
Hydrocarbons
Ammonia
Aldehydes
Ketones
Which of the following is/are inorganic gas (es)?
Carbon monoxide
Hydrogen sulphide
Chlorine
All of the above
The major contributor of Carbon monoxide is
Motor vehicle
Industrial processes
Stationary fuel combustion
None of the above
374
Fugitive emissions consist of
Street dust
Dust from construction activities
Dust from farm cultivation
All of the above
Ozone of found in
Mesosphere
Ionosphere
Stratosphere
Exosphere
Ozone is formed in the upper atmosphere by a photochemical reaction with
Ultra violet solar radiation

Infra red radiation
Visible light
All of the above
The principal source of volatile organics (Hydrocarbons) is
Transportation
Industrial processes
Stationary fuel combustion
Volcanoes
The function of automobile catalytic converter is to control emissions of
carbon dioxide and hydrogen

carbon monoxide and hydrogen
carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
carbon monoxide and nitrogen dioxide
375
The list of industrial sources of air pollution and their emissions are given. Match the
following.
Ammonia 1. Carbon monoxide

Plating 2. Particulates
Fertilizers 3. Metal fumes
The correct order is
A1, B2, C3
A3, B2, C1
A1, B3, C2
A3, B1, C2
The threshold concentration of sulphur dioxide in any industrial activity should not be
permitted beyond
2ppm
3ppm
4ppm
5ppm
The threshold limit of benzene is
15ppm
20ppm
25ppm
30ppm
Which of the following is used as antiknock compound in gasoline?
tetramethyl lead
tetraethyl lead
trimethyl lead
triethyl lead
Which of the following is a fermentation product of molasses?
Methanol
Formaldeyde
Ammonia
Acetone
376
The boiler flue gas is source of
HCl
NO
HF
Volatile organic compounds
Sound which has Jarring effect on ears is
Noise
Music
pleasant sound
soul music
Acid rain is formed due to contribution from the following pair of gases
Methane and ozone

Oxygen and nitrous oxide
methane and sulpher dioxide
Carbon dioxide and sulpher dioxide
The most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes is
air pollution
contamination of groundwater
increased use of land for landfills
destruction of habitat
Which of the following are the example of Municipal and industrial discharge pipes
nonpoint sources of pollution

violations of the Clean Water Act
point sources of pollution
irrigation
The presence of high coliform counts in water indicate
contamination by human wastes

phosphorus contamination
decreased biological oxygen demand
hydrocarbon contamination
377
Groundwater mining in coastal areas can result into
increase in the salinity of groundwater

decrease in the toxicity of groundwater
decrease in the salinity of groundwater
increase in the water table
378
Chapter 47
BASICS OF MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
1. The working cycle in case of four stroke engine is completed in following number of
revolutions of crankshaft
a) ½
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4
e) 8
2. In a diesel engine, fuel is ignited by
a) Spark
b) Injected fuel
c) Heat resulting from compressing air that is supplied for combustion
d) Ignition
e) Combustion chamber
3. Compression ratio of i. Engine is
a) The ratio of volume of air in cylinder before compression stroke and after compression
stroke
b) Volume displaced by piston per stroke and clearance volume in cylinder
c) Ratio of pressure after compression and before compression
d) Swept volume/cylinder volume
e) Cylinder volume/swept volume
4. If the intake air temperature of i. Engine increases, its efficiency will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain same
d) Unpredictable
e) Depend on other factor
5. The maximum temperature in the i. Engine cylinder is of the order of
a) 500 – 1000 °c
b) 1000 – 1500 °c
c) 1500 – 2000 °c
d) 2000 – 2500 °c
e) 2500 – 3000 °c
379
6. Combustion in compression ignition engine is
a) Homogeneous
b) Heterogeneous
c) Both and
d) Laminar
e) Turbulent
7. Which of the following is not an internal combustion engine
a) 2stroke petrol engine

b) 4stroke petrol engine
c) Diesel engine
d) Gas turbine
e) Steam turbine
8. The airfuel ratio of the petrol engine is controlled by
a) Fuel pump
b) Governor
c) Injector
d) Carburettor
e) Scavenging
9. Diesel fuel, compared to petrol fuel is
a) Less difficult to ignite

b) Just about the same difficult to ignite
c) More difficult to ignite
d) Highly ignitable
10. when crude oil is heated, then which of the following hydrocarbon is given off first
a) Kerosene
b) Gasoline
c) Paraffin
d) Diesel
e) Natural gas
11. engine pistons are usually made of aluminium alloy because it
a) Is lighter
b) Wears less
c) Absorbs shock
d) Is stronger
e) Does not react with fuel and lub oil
380
12. General gas equation is
a) Pv=nrt
b) Pv=mrt
c) Pv=c
d) Pv=kirt
e) Cpcv=wj
13. According to dalton’s law, the total pressure of the mixture of gases is equal to
a) Greater of the partial pressures of all

b) Average of the partial pressures of all
c) Sum of the partial pressures of all
d) Sum of the partial pressures of all divided by the average molecular weight
e) Atmospheric pressure
14. No liquid can exist as liquid at
a) 273 °k
b) Vaccum
c) Zero pressure
d) Centre of earth
e) In space
15. Boyle’s law i. Pv=constant is applicable to gases under
a) All ranges of pressure

b) Only small ranges of pressure
c) High range of pressure
d) Steady change of pressures
e) Atmospheric conditions
16. An open system is one in which
a) Mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
b) Neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
c) Both mass and energy cross the boundaries of the system
d) Mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
e) Thermodynamic reaction does not occur
17. an isolated system is one in which
a) Mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
b) Neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
c) Both mass and energy cross the boundaries of the system
d) Mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
e) Thermodynamic reaction does not occur
381
18. a perpetual motion machine is
a) A thermodynamic machine
b) A nonthermodynamic machine
c) A hypothetical machine
d) A hypothetical machine whose operation would violate the laws of thermodynamics
e) An inefficient machine
19. The first law of thermodynamics is the law of
a) Conservation of mass
b) Conservation of energy
c) Conservation of momentum
d) Conservation of heat
e) Conservation of temperature
20. Addition of heat at constant pressure to a gas results in
a) Raising its temperature

b) Raising its pressure
c) Raising its volume
d) Raising its temperature and doing external work
e) Doing external work
21. First law of thermodynamics
a) Enables to determine change in internal energy of system

b) Does not help to predict whether the system will or not undergo a change
c) Does not enable to determine change in entropy
d) Provides relationship between heat, work and internal energy
e) All of the above
22. According to first law of thermodynamics
a) Work done by a system is equal to heat transferred by the system

b) Total internal energy of a system during a process remains constant
c) Internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remain constant
d) Total energy of a system remains constant
e) Entropy of a system remains constant
23. Theoretically, a four stroke cycle engine should develop _____ power as that of a two
stroke cycle engine
a) Half
b) Same
c) Double
d) Four times
382
24. Strain is defined as the ratio of
a) Change in volume to original volume

b) Change in length to original length
c) Change in crosssectional area to original crosssectional area
d) Any one of the above
25. Young’s modulus is defined as the ratio of
a) Volumetric stress and volumetric strain

b) Lateral stress and lateral strain
c) Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
d) Shear stress to shear strain
e) Longitudinal stress and lateral strain
26. The unit of young’s modulus is
a) Kg/cm
b) Kg
c) Kg/cm2
d) Kgcm2
27. Which of the following materials is most elastic
a) Rubber
b) Plastic
c) Brass
d) Steel
e) Glass
28. The property of a material by virtue of which a body returns to its original shape after
removal of the load is called
a) Plasticity
b) Elasticity
c) Ductility
d) Malleability
e) Resilience
29. The property of a material which allows it to be drawn into a smaller section is called
a) Plasticity
b) Ductility
c) Elasticity
d) Malleability
e) Drawability
383
30. The property of a material by virtue which it can be beaten or rolled into plates is
called
a) Malleability
b) Ductility
c) Plasticity
d) Elasticity
e) Reliability
31. If a material expands freely due to heating it will develop
a) Thermal stress
b) Tensile stress
c) Bending
d) Compressive stress
e) No stress
32. The stress developed in a material at breaking point in extension is called
a) Breaking stress
b) Fracture stress
c) Yield point stress
d) Ultimate tensile stress
e) Proof stress
33. Rupture stress is
a) Breaking stress
b) Maximum load/original cross sectional area
c) Load at breaking point/a
d) Load at breaking point/neck area
e) Maximum stress
34. Fluid is a substance that
a) Cannot be subjected to shear forces

b) Always expands until it fills any container
c) Has the same shear stress at a point regardless of its motion
d) Cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force
e) Flows
35. Fluid is a substance which offers no resistance to change of
a) Pressure
b) Flow
c) Shape
d) Volume
e) Temperature
384
36. Property of a fluid by which its own molecules are attracted is called
a) Adhesion
b) Cohesion
c) Viscosity
d) Compressibility
e) Surface tension
37. Mercury does not wet glass. This is due to property of liquid known as
a) Adhesion
b) Cohesion
c) Surface tension
d) Viscosity
e) Compressibility
38. Which of the following is dimensionless
a) Specific weight
b) Specific volume
c) Specific speed
d) Specific gravity
e) Specific viscosity
39. Viscosity of water in comparison to mercury is
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Same
d) Higher/lower depending on temperature
e) Unpredictable
40. A balloon lifting in air follows the following principle
a) Law of gravitation
b) Archimedes principle
c) Principle of buoyancy
d) All of the above
e) Continuity equation
41. The increase of temperature results in
a) Increase in viscosity of gas

b) Increase in viscosity of liquid
c) Decrease in viscosity of gas
d) Decrease in viscosity of liquid
385
42. The property of a material which enables it to resist fracture due to high impact loads is
known as
a) Elasticity
b) Endurance
c) Strength
d) Toughness
e) Resilience
43. Ductility of a material can be defined as
a) Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression

b) Ability to recover its original form
c) Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension
d) All of the above
44. Malleability of a material can be defined as
a) Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression

b) Ability to recover its original form
c) Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension
d) All of the above
45. Mild steel belongs to the following category
a) Low carbon steel

b) Medium carbon steel
c) High carbon steel
d) Alloy steel
e) Special steel
46. Sulphur in pig iron tends to make it
a) Hard
b) Soft
c) Ductile
d) Tough
e) Malleable
386
47. Iron is
a) Paramagnetic
b) Ferromagnetic
c) Ferroelectric
d) Dielectric
48. Carbon steel is
a) Made by adding carbon in steel

b) Refined from cast iron
c) An alloy of iron and carbon with varying quantities of phosphorous and sulphur
d) Extensively used for making cutting tools
e) Extremely brittle
49. Hardness of steel depends on
a) Amount of carbon it contains

b) The shape and distribution of the carbides in iron
c) Method of fabrication
d) Contents of alloying elements
e) The quality of ore from which it is made
50. Corrosion resistant of steel is increased by addition of
a) Chromium and nickel

b) Sulphur, phosphorous and lead
c) Vanadium, aluminium
d) Tungsten, molybdenum, vanadium, chromium
e) Zinc
387
Chapter 48
BASICS OF SAFETY IE; HAZARD, RISK, ACCIDENTS, RISK ANALYSIS ETC…

2. What is the task of the government’s Health and Safety Inspection Service (formerly the
Labour Inspectorate (Arbeidsinspectie)?
a) Conduct consultations with employers concerning high-risk activities and provide advice
concerning the measures to be implemented

b) The workplace

5. To whom should near accidents be reported?

6. What is an example of safe behavior at the workplace?

a) A partition must have a CE marking.

388
a) Supervise high risk activities.

9. What colors are used on signs for firefighting equipment?


a) It allows the Occupational Health & Safety Service ( Arbodienst) to determine whether the
(Arbeidsinspectie)) can check which activities are performed
a) Fail safe
c) Limit switches
d) All of the above
a) The substances and processes on the site that can cause emergency situations
c) When evacuation exercises are to be help
a) Harmful carcinogenic suffocating.

b) Flammable corrosive harmless.
c) Explosive highly/extremely flammable harmful.
389

a) Wood
b) Oil
c) Transformer
d) Chemical
a) Class A fires
b) Class B fires
c) Class C fires
d) All of the above
18. What is the LEL of a gas?
a) The lowest concentration of the gas at which an explosion can occur.

b) The highest concentration of the gas at which an explosion can occur.
c) The lowest measurable concentration of the gas.
19. What is a key drawback of using gaseous extinguishing agents, such as carbon dioxide,
to extinguish a fire?
a) The displacement of oxygen can also have a suffocating effect on the people in the
immediate vicinity.
b) The unused gaseous extinguishing agents are harmful to the environment.
c) The fire extinguishing process sharply cools the ambient air.
20. What is an explosion hazardous environment?

c) An environment where explosions are a frequent occurrence
21. Which of the following is a risk associated with permanently installed grinders?
a) Due to the low rpm, the grinding stone can come off its axis.
b) The grinding stone can bite into the material.
c) The grinding stone can disintegrate
390
22. Is the earthing of double insulated electric hand tools permitted?
a) No, this is not permitted

b) This only permitted with the employer’s approval.
c) Yes, this is permitted
23. Which rule, among others, applies to a crane
a) A crane must carry an SSC (VCA) quality mark.

b) A crane must not be higher than 23 metres.
c) A crane must carry a CE marking.
24. Which weather condition can have a major impact on the operation of a crane?
a) High humidity.
b) High wind velocity.
c) High temperature
25. Which rule applies to the use of a manual hoist?
a) A manual hoist must never be overloaded

b) You must always load the hook at its point.
c) A manual hoist may only be loaded in a vertical position.
26. What is a risk associated with the use of a forklift truck?

yourself if simple actions suffice to do this. No dust or fibres may be released during this
process. Which specific safety measure, among others, must then be implemented?

c) Use a chute

391
pipelines buried in the ground) This is why ‘rules for careful excavation’ have been
b) First manually dig trial trenches close to the specified location of the cables or pipelines.
31. Which of the following is mandatory when a safety cage is used?
a) Everyone in the safety cage must have a walkietalkie

b) The safety cage must be suspended from a chain or a steel cable
c) Everyone in the safety cage must wear a safety harness attached to the safety cag

a) Perspiration.
b) Skin colour.
c) Ageing.


b) Static electricity can cause nonconductive materials to catch fire

392

38. When should you wear Cyclops glasses?
a) During grinding, hacking and drilling.

b) When you connect/disconnect product hoses.
c) During gas welding.
a) Cold or heat.
b) Turning parts.

a) Accident
b) Hazard
c) Risk
a) Reducing
b) Controlling
c) Eliminating
d) All of the above

d) All of the above
393
a) Falls
b) Electricity
c) Inhalation
d) All of the above

a) Three E’s
b) Four E’s
c) Five E’s
d) Six E’s
a) MCB
b) ACB
c) OCB
d) MCCB
a) Red
b) Orange
c) Green
d) Purple
a) Light
b) Sound
c) Frequency
preset limit
a) Hoists
b) Conveyors
c) Machine tables
d) All of the above
394
Chapter 49
HOUSEKEEPING, 5E'S, CAUSES OF ACCIDENT ETC…
1. Housekeeping means:
a) Room Cleaning Only

b) Floor Cleaning
c) Cleaning only
d) Keeping entire premises clean, attractive, and comfortable
2. Advantages of 5S.
a) Work place becomes clean and better organized

b) Shop floor and office operations become easier and safer
c) Higher productivity
d) All the above
3. Features of an unorganized workplace
a) Bad interpersonal relations.

b) People look worn-out.
c) High absenteeism
d) All the above
4. How to improve work place
a) Keep work areas clean.

b) Keep aisles clear.
c) Keep exits and entrances clear.
d) Keep floors clean, dry and in good condition.
e) All the above
5. Results of poor housekeeping.
a) Slips
b) trips.
c) Falls
d) all the above
6. 5S technique is used for
a) Both b & c
b) Housekeeping
c) Transportation
395
7. 5S technique was developed by
a) India
b) America
c) Pakistan
d) Japan
e) North Korea
8. OSHA 29 CFR 1910.22 is for
a) Occupational noise exposure

b) Housekeeping in industry
c) Both a & b
d) None
9. OSHA 29 CFR 1926.25 is for
a) Shipyard employment
b) Housekeeping in construction
c) both
d) None
10. 5E’s are used for
a) Workplace safety
b) emergency management.
c) Organization security
d) None
11. The primary aim of the employee safety program is to preserve the employees
a) mental health
b) physical health
c) emotional health.
d) all the above
12. The responsibility of the employee safety and health is with
a) employers
b) employees
c) government
d) all the above
13. Causes of accidents
a) over confident
b) shortcuts
c) ignoring safety
396
d) all the above
14. Causes of accidents
a) initiation with incomplete instruction

b) poor housekeeping
c) a&b
d) none
15. Fatigue and stress can cause industrial injuries. Yes/No.
16. Toppling objects causes industrial injuries. Yes/No.
17. Accidents are caused due to
a) Unsafe acts
b) unsafe condition
c) safe condition
d) both a & b
18. Safety measures include
a) training
b) periodic inspection
c) safety week awards.
d) all the above
19. Factors affecting workers health
a) Physical hazard
b) chemical hazard
c) biological hazard
d) all the above
20. Workplace related injuries, illnesses and deaths impose costs upon?
a) employers
b) employees
c) community
d) all the above
21. Most common injuries in industries are
a) sprains and strains

b) hit by falling objects
c) falls
d) all the above
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22. What does the provision of security of people’s assets while at the workplace entail?
a) Having all assets under lock and key

b) Preventing theft, pilferage and damage of assets
c) Being vigilant with the security of the assets
d) Issuing security badges and identity cards to all people at the workplace
23. Emergency contact number in India
a) 102
b) 101
c) 104
d) 108
24. Emergency procedures have been devised to keep everyone safe True/False
25. A hazard is any situation that has the potential to cause injury, illness, or death.
True/False
26. If no notification is made of an injury sustained compensation can be obtained for that
injury. True/False
27. To reduce injury, a risk control process accompanied by hazard management

procedures needs to be established True/False
28. Safety signs can prevent accidents. True/False
29. A duty of care in the workplace is the responsibility of the employer only. True/False
30. The direct costs of workplace related injuries are workers’ compensation premiums paid
and workers’ compensation payments. True/False
31. When providing a safe working environment for staff, employers must eliminate all
risks to health and safety. True/False
32. The safety and wellbeing of people in the workplace also includes guests and customers
of the workplace True/False
33. If you have to evacuate the workplace during an emergency, ensure that you take all of
your personal belongings before evacuating the building. True/False
34. What is the role of the workplace’s health and safety representative?
a) To represent the workers’ views and concerns on the workplace’s OH&S practices to the
employer
b) To document the workplace’s OH&S policies and practices
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c) To check on whether all workers are complying with the workplace’s OH&S policies and
practices
d) To train and assess all workers in their knowledge of the workplace’s OH&S policies and
practices
35. Accident is an unexpected or unplanned event which may or may not result in injury or
damage or property loss or death. True/False
36. Ergonomically designed workplace reduces injuries. True/False
37. Work permit system reduces accidents. True/False
38. Improper manual handling results in Musculoskeletal Injuries. True/False
39. Housekeeping means not only cleanness but also orderly arrangement of operations,
tools, equipment’s storage facilities and suppliers. True/False
40. Duties of Safety Officer.
a) prepare Toolbox talks

b) accident reports
c) prepare checklists
d) all the above
41. Causes of accidents in manual handling.
a) improper lifting
b) improper gripping
c) carrying too heavy loads.
d) all the above
42. Causes of accidents in mechanical handling
a) The sudden failure of wire rope or a chain slipping of the load from the sling.
b) Swinging of the load at the time of lifting.
c) The load sometimes hits the man.
d) all the above
43. What are the causes of accidents of “hard tools”?
a) Due to wrong way using of tools.

b) Due to defective condition of tools
c) Due to failure of using right tools for right job
d) Due to wrong way of carrying tools
e) all the above
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44. What are causes of accident of working at height (Personal)?
a) Lack of knowledge and skill

b) over work
c) Feeling of dizziness
d) Non usage of PPEs like safety belt cygnet
e) all the above
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Chapter 50
BASICS OF DISASTER MANAGEMENT
1. Which of the following is not a natural disaster?
a) Tsunami
b) Terrorism
c) Hurricane
d) Earthquake
2. Which of the following destinations has experienced a major tourism crisis?
a) Bulgaria
b) Belize
c) Bali
d) Belgium
3. What was the year of the Madrid train bombings?
a) 2005
b) 2001
c) 2006
d) 2004
4. The events of 9/11 changed the way in which we travel by:
a) changing the security systems at airports

b) changing the security systems in flight
c) Changing hotel booking systems
d) None of these
5.What are the three phases of disaster management planning?
a) Evacuating, Rebuilding and Rebranding

b) Preparation, Response and Recovery
c) Preparation, Planning and Perception
d) Planning, Evacuating and Recovery
6. Which of the following regions is perceived as a high risk destination?
a) Europe
b) The South Pacific
c) The Middle East
d) The Americas
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7. Dark tourism relates to which of the following?
a) Visits to areas where people suffered or died

b) Visits to the North Pole during the winter
c) Thano tourism
d) Tourism in highrisk areas
8. The Arab Spring refers to:
a) an oasis
b) political uprising, demonstrations and wars in the Middle East
c) the recent growth in Middle East tourism
d) flooding
9. What makes tourism different from the purchase of other goods and services?
a) It is a purchase made in good faith

b) It is labour intensive
c) Simultaneity of production and consumption
d) It is hedonic
10. What does the acronym ISDR stand for?
a) Intergovernmental Strategy for Developing Recreation

b) International Significant Disaster Resources
c) International Strategy for Disaster Reduction
d) International Sustainable Development Report
11. Consider the following pairs:
1. Earth Summit, 1993 : Rio de Janeiro

2. World Conference on Disaster Management, 1994 : Yokohama
3. National Institute of Disaster Management, 1995 : Hyderabad
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
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12. Consider the following statements:
1. Natural Hazards are elements of circumstances in the Natural environment that have the
potential to cause harm to people or property or both.
2. Natural disasters are relatively sudden and cause large scale, widespread death, loss of
property and disturbance to social systems and life over which people have a little or no control.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of these
13. Choose the false statement among the following statements:
1. World Conference on Disaster Management in May 1994 was subsequently called the
Yokohama Strategy and Plan of Action for a Safer World
2. The issue of Natural Disaster was raised at the U.N. General Assembly in 1992 and was
finally formalized at the world conference on Disaster management in 1994.
3. The Tropical cyclone of 1971 in India is the deadliest one till date
4. Unscientific land use and construction activities in fragile areas are some of the disasters that
are the results of indirect human actions.
14. With reference to the Classification of Natural Disasters, Consider the following
statements:
1. Broadly, natural disasters can be classified under four categories: Atmospheric, Terrestrial,
Aquatic and Biological.
2. Bird flu, dengue are example of Aquatic Disaster.
3. India has experienced all the four kind of natural disaster.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3 only
15. Tropical Cyclones are intense low pressure areas confined to the area lying between
a) 30 degree north and 30 degree south.

b) 50 degree north and 50 degree south.
c) 50 degree north and 30 degree south.
d) 5 degree north and 5 degree south.
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16. Which one among these is not an essential condition for emergence of Tropical Cyclone?
a) Peninsular landmass
b) Strong coriolis force that can prevent filling of low pressure at the centr
c) Large and continuous supply of warm and moist air that can release enormous latent heat.
d) Absence of strong vertical wind wedge, which disturbs the vertical transport of latent heat.
17. The Indian Tsunami Early Warning Centre (ITEWC) established at Indian National
Centre for Ocean Information Sciences is located in
a) Chennai
b) Goa
c) Kochi
d) Hyderabad
18. Rashtriya Barh Ayog (National Flood Commission) identified ______ million hectares
of land as floodprone in India
a) 40
b) 80
c) 100
d) 120
19. Which of these is/are flood prevention and mitigation strategy?
1. Construction of flood protection embankments

2. Depopulating the flood plains
3. Afforestation
4. Decongesting river channels
Select the correct option using the codes given below

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
20. The cyclone 'SIDR' hit Bangladesh in?
a) 2009
b) 2007
c) 2008
d) 2006
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21. Disasters can be categorized into various types on the basis of?
a) Its speed
c) Loss of property they result
d) Loss of human life they result
22. Disaster Management covers ?

d) All the above

24. The term Tsunami is coined from?
a) Chinese term
b) Indian term
c) German term
d) Japanase term
25. Amateur Radio is also known as?
a) Ham radio
b) Home radio
c) Pocket radio
d) Silent radio
26. A series of earthquakes shook the Central American Nation Of Nicarague and killed
many people in the year?
a) 1974
b) 1972
c) 1973
d) 1975
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27. In which year a cyclone struck the Coastal Andhra in Krishna Godavari delt and caused
havoc?
a) 1976
b) 1979
c) 1978
d) 1977
28. Tsunami can occur only during?
a) Morning
b) Noon
c) Evening
29. The National Civil Defense college was founded in 1957 at?
a) Bombay
b) Nagpur
c) Cochin
d) Hyderabad
30. National Institute of Disaster management is located at?
a) Poona
b) Midnapur
c) New Delhi
d) Calcutta
after a disaster?

b) Mitigation
d) All the above
32. The phrase WEAPONS OF MASS DESTRUCTION entered widespread usage in?
a) 2003
b) 2001
c) 2002
d) 2004
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33. Landslides occur because of?
b) Steep slopes
d) All the above
34. On November 19,1977, a cyclone, which had been operated to hit Tamil Nadu, instead
struck the Central Coast of and diverted several villages?
a) Kerala
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Orissa
d) Karnataka
35. For coordinating disaster management activities for all natural hazards, the Nodal
Agency at the Central Govt is the?
a) Ministry of Home Affairs

b) Ministry of Rural Development
c) Ministry of Communication
d) Ministry of Urban affairs
36. U.N. Disaster Management Team UNDMT. responsible for solving problems resulting
from disasters in?
a) India
b) Iran
c) Bangladesh
37. National Disaster Management Division of the Govt. of India wherever necessary, sends
a) Coordination its containing satellite phones

d) All the above
38. When a powerful earthquake struck South Eastern Iran and caused enormous loss of
life and property Killing 30,000 people?
a) 26.12.2003
b) 26.11.2003
c) 26.10.2003
d) 26.10.2002
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39. Of the following, which is a natural hazard?
a) Earthquake
b) Cyclone
c) Landslide
d) All the above
40. The ground movements caused by earthquakes can have a damaging effects such as?
a) Ground shaking
b) Landslides
c) Surface ruptures
d) All the above
a) Honolulu
b) Goa
c) Jakarta
d) Pondicherry
a) To preserve life
d) All the above
43. First Aid it should contain?
a) Cotton Wool, Crap bandage

b) Sterile dressing, pain reliever
c) Scissors, Gloves, Antacids
d) All the above
44. Report on Training on Search and Rescue for the members of the village Disaster
Management Team is prepared by?
a) Govt. of Manipur
b) Govt. of Indonesia
c) Govt. of Uttaranchal
d) Indian Red Cross
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45. Tsunamis are waves generated by?
a) Earthquakes
d) All the above
46. In which year the violent explosion of the famous Volcano, Krakatoa in Indonesia,
produced Tsunamis measuring 40 feet?
a) 1883
b) 1881
c) 1882
d) 1884
47. According to World Disasters Report of 2010, during 200009, 85% of affected people
belonged to the?
a) Asia Pacific Region

b) African region
c) Japan region
d) Australian region
48. Area of Indian coastline which is vulnerable to storm surges, cyclones and tsunamis is?
a) 5700 Km
b) 3700km
c) 2700km
d) 4700km
49. The date when the super cyclone hit the Orissa coast which killed nearly 10,000 people
and affected over 15 million people across 12 districts of Orissa is?
a) 29.08.1999
b) 29.08.1997
c) 29.08.1998
d) 29.08.1996
50. The Disaster management Act was enacted in India in the year?
a) 2006
b) 2005
c) 2008
d) 2007
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Chapter 51
FIRE EXTINGUISHER, FIRE FIGHTING EQUIPMENTS
1. What is the most common type of portable extinguisher found on campus?
a) Carbon dioxide extinguisher

b) Halon extinguisher
c) Multipurpose dry chemical extinguisher

3. Which of the following is true regarding a flammable gas fire?
a) Always extinguish the fire if a portable extinguisher is available

b) Never extinguish the fire regardless of whether a portable extinguisher is available
c) Only extinguish the fire if a spare extinguisher is available
d) Only extinguish the fire if you are capable of promptly turning off the supply of gas
4. When confronted with a fire, what is the most important decision you must make?
a) Whether to call help to fight the fire

b) Whether to evacuate the building or fight the fire
c) Whether to activate the building alarm or fight the fire
d) Whether to close the room door or fight the fire
5. If you have not received training in the use of portable extinguishers, what action should
you take when confronted with a fire?
a) Determine how to use the extinguisher by reading the instructions on the label
b) Call Fire Prevention Services and ask for instructions on how to use portable extinguishers
c) Ask a co-worker for instructions regarding how to use the extinguisher
d) Evacuate the building and let the fire department extinguish the fire
6. If you are using a campus phone, whom would you call first?
a) Police department
b) Fire department
c) Ambulance
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7. Before choosing to fight a fire, which of the following questions should you ask?
a) Am I safe from toxic smoke and gases?

b) Do I have an escape route?
c) Do I have the right extinguisher?
d) All of the above
8. If you choose to fight a fire, what is the first action you should take?


c) Call for help
10. If you choose to fight a fire, where should you position yourself?
a) Outside the room to avoid being trapped by the fire

b) Next to a window so you can jump if your efforts to extinguish the fire are unsuccessful
c) Six to eight feet from the fire, between the fire and your escape route
d) As close to the fire as possible to ensure maximum efficiency of the extinguisher
a) Once a day
b) Once a week
c) Once a month
d) Once a year
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should you take?
d) Call Fire Prevention Services so corrective action can be initiated
a) A tamperseal
b) A pullpin
15. The four elements that must be present for fire to exist include heat, oxygen, fuel, and a
chemical reaction between the three
a) True
b) False
16. The concept of fire prevention is to keep these elements separate
a) True
b) False
17. There are four classes of fire, Class A, B, C, and K.
a) True
b) False
18. Class B fires are those fires that occur involving paper and woo
a) True
b) False
19. Multipurpose dry chemical extinguishers are effective on all classes except D and K
fires.
a) True
b) False
20. To remember the rules of fighting fires, just remember the three A's: Activate, Assist,
and Attempt.
a) True
b) False
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21. The four simple steps for operating a fire extinguisher can be remembered with the
word PASS. Pull, Activate, Squeeze, Sweep.
a) True
b) False
22. After the fire has been extinguished, it is important to watch the site for reignition.
a) True
b) False
23. Fire extinguishers must be inspected or checked every 60 days.
a) True
b) False
24.What type of electrically powered industrial truck can be used in Class 1, Division 1,
Group D locations?
a) Type EX
b) Type ES
c) Type EE
d) Type E
a) 100 GPM
b) 850 GPM
c) 700 GPM
d) 500 GPM
a) 0.433 psi
b) 2.31 psi
c) 4.7 psi
d) 29.9 psi
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A means of egress is a continuous path of travel from any point in a building or structure to
the open air outside at ground level. Egress consists of which three separate and distinct
parts?

a) 0 hour
b) 3/4 hour
c) 1 hour
d) 3 hours
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a) 1.6 psi
b) 16 KpA
c) 16 Atmospheres
d) 160 TORR
a) Class A ordinary combustibles

b) Class B flammable and combustible liquids
c) Class C electrical
d) Class D combustible metals

protection is the:


415
a) oldest
b) newest
c) most reliable
d) least reliable
b) segregation
c) containment
d) concentration
416
Chapter 52
FIRSTAID
1. Your check of the scene suggests that a victim has suffered an electrical shock. The
first thing to do is….
a) Cover all burns with a dry loose dressing.

b) Ask a bystander to help you move the victim.
c) Place the victim on one side with the head down.
d) Make sure the power is turned off.
2. A victim of a car accident has just vomited and now appears to be coughing up bloo He
is breathing very quickly and his pulse is weak and fast. What is most likely wrong?
a) He is having a seizure
b) He has internal bleeding.
c) He is having a heart attack.
d) He is having a diabetic emergency.
3. You are caring for a victim with a burned hand Put the hand in cool water if….
a) The burns are very deep

b) There are burns with open blisters.
c) The burns are minor with no open blisters.
d) You should put the hand in cool water for
e) all of the above
4. In general a splint should be….
a) Loose, so that the victim can still move the injured lim
b) Snug, but not so tight that it slows circulation.
c) Tied with cravats over the injured are
5. A victim has lost a lot of blood through a deep cut in his leg. He is breathing fast and
seems pail and restless. He is probably….
a) Having a stroke
b) Having a heart attack.
c) In shock.
d) Choking.
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6. You suspect that a person has been poisoned She is conscious. Your first call should be
to….
a) The Poison Control Center or your local emergency phone number.

b) The victim’s physician.
c) The hospital emergency department.
d) The local pharmacy.
7. Which would you do when caring for a seizure victim?
a) Remove nearby objects that might cause injury.

b) Place a small object, such as a rolled up piece of cloth, between the Victim’s teeth.
c) Try to hold the person still.
d) All of the above
8. Splint an injury to a muscle, bone, or joint only when….
a) You have to move or transport the victim.

b) You can do so without hurting the victim.
c) You have splinting materials available
d) Both a and b
9. For which of the following burn victims should you immediately call your local
emergency phone number?
a) A 40 year old man who has burned his hand with hot coffee
b) A 68yearold woman who has a blistered grease burn on her hands and arms.
c) A 26yearold woman who has a sunburn on her shoulders.
d) All of the above
10. A 15 year old boy has just splashed a chemical on his face After sending someone to call
for an ambulance, you would….
a) Cover the burned are

b) Have the victim stay calm until ambulance arrives.
c) Flush the burned area with large amounts of water until the ambulance arrives.
d) Immediately drive the victim to the hospital.
11. Why should you cover burns with a clean or sterile dressing?
a) To prevent infection.
b) To cool burned area
c) To keep the burned area warm.
d) Both a and c
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12. You find a person at the bottom of the stairs. He appears to have fallen and seems
badly hurt. After sending someone for help, you would….
a) Roll the victim onto his stomach keeping the head and back in a straight lin
b) Roll the victim onto one side
c) Position victim onto one side
d) Attempt to keep the victim from moving.
13. A victim has a large piece of glass sticking out of her leg. You should….
a) Leave the glass in her leg and control the bleeding.

b) Call your local emergency phone number.
c) Remove the glass and then control the bleeding.
d) Both a and b
14. What should be your first concern at the scene where a person has been seriously
burned?
a) Checking the scene for safety.

b) Checking the victims breathing and pulse
c) Calling your local emergency phone number.
d) Cooling the burned area
15. A woman has fallen and burned her ankle She says she heard something snap. She
looks pale and is sweating. What should you do?
a) Have the victim walk on the injured ankle

b) Care for the injury as if it were serious.
c) Apply heat and elevate the injury.
d) Apply a dressing and loosely bandage
16. Which of the following should be done for a person experiencing a heat related illness.
a) Keep the victim warm.

b) Force the victim to drink fluids.
c) Apply cool wet cloths.
d) Place the victim in warm water.
17. You feel a sudden sharp pain in the bottom of your left foot. You look at the bottom of
your left shoe and see a tack sticking in your shoe What type of wound do you probably
have?
a) Avulsion
b) Bruise
c) Scrape
d) Puncture
18. Which should be part of your care for a severely bleeding open wound?
a) Allow the wound to bleed in order to minimize infection.
419
b) Apply direct pressure and elevate the injured are (If no broken bones)
c) Use a tourniquet to stop all blood flow.
d) Both b and c
19. What should you do if you think a victim has serious internal bleeding?
a) Apply heat to the injured are

b) Call your local emergency phone number for help.
c) Place the victim in a sitting position.
d) Give fluids to replace blood loss.
20. Which of the following behaviors reduces your risk for injury?
a) Always wearing a safety belt when riding in automobiles.

b) Limiting intake of alcohol.
c) Limiting intake of foods high in cholesterol.
d) Both a and b
21. Which is the first step when caring for bleeding wounds.
a) Apply direct pressure with a clean or sterile dressing.

b) Apply pressure at the pressure point.
c) Add bulky dressings to reinforce blood soaked bandages.
d) Elevate the wound
22. How can you reduce the risk of disease transmission when caring for open, bleeding
wounds?
a) Wash your hands immediately after giving car

b) Avoid direct contact with blood
c) Use protective barriers such as gloves or plastic wrap.
d) All of the above
23. You have tried to control a victim's bleeding with direct pressure and elevation, but the
bleeding doesn’t stop. Where would you apply pressure to slow the flow of blood to a
wound on the forearm?
a) Outside the arm midway between the shoulder and the elbow.
b) On the inside of the elbow.
c) Inside the arm between the shoulder and the elbow.
d) Any of the above will slow the flow of blood
24. Dressing and bandages are used to….
a) Reduce the victim's pain.

b) Reduce internal bleeding.
c) Help control bleeding and prevent infection.
d) Make it easier to take the victim to the hospital.
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25. Most injuries are due to situations that….
a) You have no control over or could not have been prevented

b) You have some control over or could have been prevented
c) Involve five or more people
d) Involve water sports.
26. Where is the carotid artery located?
a) Inside the wrist just above the hand

b) On the neck to the right or left of the windpipe
c) Behind the kneecap.
d) Inside the arm between the elbow and shoulder.
27. On an infant, where would you check the pulse?
a) Inside the wrist just above the hand

b) On the neck to the right or left side of the windpipe
c) Behind the kneecap.
d) Inside the arm between the elbow and shoulder.
28. For an infant who is choking, you would perform….
a) The Heimlich maneuver.

b) CPR
c) Back blows and chest thrusts.
d) Hold the infant upside down and strike between the shoulder blades.
29. Breathing emergencies may be caused from….
a) Asthma or Allergic reaction

b) Hyperventilation
c) Injury to a muscle or bone in the chest
d) All of the above
30. A person, who is unconscious, not breathing, has a weak pulse, needs….
a) CPR
b) Hiemlick maneuver.
c) Rescue breathing.
d) Back blows and chest thrusts.
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31. When helping an unconscious choking victim, you would give an adult____ chest
thrusts. For an infant you would give____ back blows and____ chest thrusts.
a) 3,3,3
b) 5,3,3
c) 5,5,5
d)3,5,5
32. Which is not a symptom of heart attack.
a) Chest pain.
b) Red, hot or dry skin.
c)Pale or bluish in color.
d) Profuse sweating.
33. When performing adult CPR you give….
a) 2 slow breaths & 15 chest compressions.

b) 1 slow breath & 10 chest compressions.
c) 5 slow breaths & 10 chest compressions.
d) 3 slow breaths & 15 chest compressions.
34. When performing CPR on a child you give….
a) 4 slow breaths & 20 chest compressions.

b) 1 slow breath & 5 chest compressions.
c) 2 slow breaths & 10 chest compressions.
d) 2 slow breaths & 15 chest compressions.
35. A wound where there is damage to the soft tissue and blood vessels under the skin is
called…..
a) A scrape
b) A cut
c) A bruise
d) An avulsion
36. When giving care for external bleeding, what should you do first?
a) Elevate the injury.

b) Apply direct pressure
c) Apply a loose dressing
d) Apply a tourniquet.
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37. Bandages are used for….
a)Applying directly to a wound to soak up blood

b) To hold dressings in place, apply pressure and control bleeding.
c)Ease pain.
d) Small cuts only.
38. Dressings and pads….
a) Should be removed when blood soaked New ones should be applied

b) Are used to help control bleeding and keep germs out.
c) Are not included in a first aid kit.
d) Should be applied to a sucking chest wound
39. Elastic bandages are used….
a) To control bleeding
b) Control swelling and support injuries such as sprains or strains.
c) To allow circulation to a severed lime
d) When applying a splint.
40. When caring for a victim who has an object impaled in their hand, you should….
a) Remove the object, flush with cool water, and transport to hospital.
b) Immobilize the object by placing several dressings around it.
c) Break object off where it sticks out, and bandage injury.
41. When caring for a victim with a bloody nose you would not……
a) Apply an ice pack to the bridge of the nose

b) Apply pressure to upper lip just beneath nose
c) Have the victim sit with head tilted slightly backward while pinching the nostrils together.
d) Have the victim sit with head tilted slightly forward while pinching the nostrils together.
42. A student on your bus has been hit in the mouth and a tooth was knocked out you
should….
a) Control the bleeding and have student bite down on a rolled sterile dressing in the space left
by the tooth.
b) Save the tooth by placing it in milk or water.
c) Wrap the tooth in a dry tissue and give to student to take to dentist.
d) Both a and b
43. Which symptoms would indicate internal bleeding?
a) Rapid weak pulse, Excessive thirst.

b) Skin that feels cool or moist, or looks pale or bluish.
c) Tender, swollen, bruised, or hard areas of his body, such as the abdomen.
d) All of the above
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44. Wounds that would require stitches are….
a) Over an inch long.

b) Bleeding from an artery or uncontrolled bleeding.
c) Human or animal bites.
d) All of the above
45. Which is not a symptom of shock….
a) Strong thirst, nausea, or vomiting.

b) Chest or abdominal pain, breathing difficulty.
c) Restless or irritability.
d) Rapid breathing or rapid pulse
46. A first degree burn….
a) Involves only the top layer of skin.

b) Is red and blistered
c) Destroys all layers of skin.
d) Is the most serious of burns.
47. When caring for a victim who has a large burn on their forearm, you….
a) Use large amounts of cool water to cool the burn.

b) Use ice or ice water to cool the burn.
c) Remove any cloth that has stuck to the burn and apply burn cream.
d) All of the above
48. When caring for someone who has suffered an electrical burn, you would not….
a) Check breathing and pulse

b) Check for possible fractures.
c) Cool the burned are
d) Treat for shock.
49. You should suspect that a victim has head and spine injuries for….
a) An incident involving a lightning strike

b) A person found unconscious for unknown reasons.
c) A fall from the height greater than the victim’s height.
d) All of the above
50. You may suspect that a student has been poisoned if they….
a) Are experiencing nausea, vomiting or diarrhea

b) Have chest or abdominal pain, breathing difficulty.
c) Burns around the lips, tongue, or on the skin.
d) All of the above.
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51. When caring for a student who is allergic to bees and has just been stung, you should….
a) Give them an injection with their Epicene.

b) Apply a heat pack to ease pain.
c) Apply a cold pack.
d) Both a and c
52. Signals of an allergic reaction to a bee sting are….
a) Feeling of tightness in the chest and throat.

b) Swelling of the face neck and tongue
c) Rash, dizziness, or confusion
d) All of the above
53. When caring for a student who is suffering from heat cramps.
a) Apply cold packs.

b) Give cool water or sports drink.
c) Have student keep walking slowly to work the cramp out.
d) Massage the muscle vigorously to increase circulation.
54. What symptoms are associated with heat exhaustion….
a) Cool, moist, pale, or flushed skin.

b) Rapid weak pulse
c) Rapid, shallow breathing.
d) All of the above
55. Heat stroke….
a) Hot red or dry skin.

b) Rapid weak pulse,
c) shallow breathing.
d) All of the above
56. When caring for someone who is suffering from frostbite, you should not….
a) Soak effected part in warm water 100 to 105 degrees.

b) Rub vigorously until skin appears red and feels warm.
c) Handle area gently.
d) Avoid breaking blisters.
57. Hypothermia….
a) Is not life threatening.

b) Victims must be heated up as fast as possible
c) Is caused by exposure to temperatures below freezing.
d) Can be caused by swimming in waters below 70 degrees.
425
58. Snakebites can be very serious. When caring for a snakebite victim, which should you
not do?
a) Wash wounds.
b) Apply ice
c) Keep bitten part still and below the heart.
d) Get professional medical care within 30 minutes.
59. When performing infant CPR or rescue breathing, what kind of breaths should you
give to avoid forcing air into the infant’s stomach?
a) Hard and fast.

b) Smooth and fast.
c) Slowly and gently.
d) Long and hard
61. Your role in making the EMS system work effectively includes four steps.
a) Elevate, Identify, decide, execute

b) Check, call, care, protect.
c) Recognize, decide, call, provide
62. When should you give rescue breathing?
a) Conscious choking victim.

b) Unconscious choking victim.
c) Unconscious, no pulse, not breathing.
d) Unconscious, not breathing, but has a pulse
63. What would you do if a victim had a body part torn or cut off?
a) Wrap severed body part in sterile gauze

b) Place in a plastic bag.
c) Put the plastic bag on ice and take it to the hospital with victim.
d) All of the above
64. What would you do for a victim who has internal bleeding?
a) Keep the victim quiet and lying down.

b) Bend knees to make them comfortable
c) Both a and b
65. To care for a victim with a sucking chest wound, you would?
a) Cover the wound completely with a sterile gauze pa

b) Cover the wound with a dressing that doesn’t allow air to pass through.
c) Apply ice pack to the wound
d) Both a and c
426
66. Internal bleeding can be caused by:
a) Injury
b) Illness
c) Medication
d) All of the above
67. When caring for a choking infant, what position is the infant held in?
a) Upside down by the ankles and shoulders.

b) Face up on a flat surface
c) Face down on your forearm with head lower than the body.
d) Face down on your knee, with head lower than the body.
68. Soft tissue wounds should be cared for by:
a) Heat and elastic bandages.

b) Ice and elevation.
c) Apply direct pressure on the area to cut down on bleeding under skin.
d) Both b and c
69. What do you do for a chemical burn?
a) Flush with water, dry, and cover.

b) Flush with large amounts of water and cover.
c) Flush with large amounts of warm water until help arrives.
d) Flush with large amounts of cool water until help arrives
70. What is the most common reason an infant’s heart stops?
a) Allergies
b) Injury
c) Breathing problems.
d) SIDS (sudden infant death syndrome)
71. When can you move a victim?
a) When you need to care for another victim.

b) When the victim is in danger.
c) When it would be easier to care for the victim.
d) All of the above
72. What do you do for a victim who has a bleeding injury to the mouth and you are sure
that there is no head, neck, or spine injury.
a) Keep victim seated with head tilted slightly forward

b) Keep victim seated with head tilted slightly backward
c) Have the victim lie down on their side
427
d) Either a or c
71. What is more serious?
a) Heat Stroke
b) Heat Exhaustion
c) Heat Cramps
d) Heat Rash
72. To encourage people to help others in emergency situations, most states have
enacted laws, which protect you, as a rescuer, from being sue This is calle
a) The Good Will Law

b) The First Aid No Fault Law
c) The Good Samaritan Law
d) There is no such law
73. Signals of head and spine injuries are:
a) Blood or other fluids in the ears or nose

b) Unusual bumps or depressions on the head or over the spin
c) Has seizures, severe headaches, or slurred speech.
d) Both a and b
74. Shock is a condition where:
a) The respiratory system fails to deliver air to the lungs.

b) The cardiovascular system fails to deliver blood to the heart.
c) The circulatory system fails to deliver blood to all parts of the body.
d) All of the above
75. A boy on the bus goes into diabetic shock, what do you do?
a) Drive the bus straight to the hospital

b) Ask him where his insulin is and give him a shot
c) Do not give him food or drink
d) Make him comfortable; give him a non-diet drink, candy, or something with sugar in it.
76. A student on your bus has a severe cut in the groin area, what do you do?
a) Cover the wound with a sterile dressing applying direct pressure

b) Elevate the student’s feet and apply a sterile dressing to the wound, apply pressure to groin
area
c) Drive the bus to the nearest hospital or fire station
d) Cover wound with sterile dressing & apply pressure to femoral artery pressure
428
77. A boy on your bus has been coughing for over a minute, what should you do?
a) Begin rescue breathing and call 911

b) Get medical attention as quickly as possible
c) Encourage the boy to cough and get medical attention s.p.
d) Encourage the boy to cough and begin giving abdominal thrusts
78. You have a person who is conscious and refuses help, they laps into an unconscious
state, what should you do?
a) Permission is “Implied” if the victim is unconscious.

b) Call 911 and begin to give car
c) Call 911 and wait until professional help arrives.
d) Both a & b
79. A girl at one of your bus stops indicates that she was bitten by a snake, What do you
do?
a) Apply ice to the wound and take to the nearest fire station or hospital
b) Wash the wound, keeping injured area lower than the heart; get professional medical care
within 30 minutes.
c) Cut a 1” cross at the site if injury and suck the poison out, apply ice
d) Elevate injured area, apply ice, and get professional medical care within 30 minutes.
80. A boy with frostbite on his feet, what should you do?
a) Rub his feet vigorously until feeling and color return.

b) Apply hot moist towels to feet and message gently.
c) Soak feet in warm water not more than 105 degrees, bandage with dry sterile dressing.
d) Soak feet in warm water not more than 90 degrees; rub feet gently until feeling and color
return, then wrap with sterile dressing.
81. A man is having a heart attack, he has medication with him, what should You do?
a) Give the medicine to him placing it under the tongue, Call 911.
b) Assist him with the medicine, Call 911, reassure him until help arrives.
c) Call 911, place medicine in mouth and begin CPR.
d) Have the victim lay down, Call 911.
82. A boy enters your bus, you smell alcohol, he passes out before you get to His bus stop,
what should you do?
a) Take the boy back to school

b) Stop the bus, check for breathing and pulse, Call 911.
c) Allow the boy to sleep it off and take him home
d) Drive the boy to the nearest fire station or hospital.
429
83. A girl has her tooth knocked out and she has found the tooth, which is the best action to
take:
a) Place the tooth under her armpit and take her to the dentist.
b) Wrap the tooth in sterile gauze and take her to the dentist.
c) Place the tooth in a closed container of cool milk or water, until she reaches the dentist
d) Have her place the tooth under her tongue until she reaches the dentist.
84. A girl is not breathing but has a pulse, what would be the best course of action?
a) Call 911, and begin CPR immediately.

b) Call 911, and begin rescue breathing.
c) Call 911, check for blocked airway, begin CPR.
d) Call 911, and wait for professional medical help to arriv
85. Where would you check the pulse on a 12 year old boy?
a) On the inside of the arm between the elbow and shoulder.

b) At the side of the neck
c) On the inside of the wrist.
d) Both b & c
86. A boy has his finger severed off, what action would be the best?
a) Put the severed end of the finger back in place, wrap entire finger in Sterile gauze and
transport to hospital immediately
b) Wrap the severed finger in sterile gauze, place it in a plastic bag, put the bag on ice
transport both finger and the victim to the hospital.
c) Place the severed finger in a plastic bag, have the boy place the bag under his armpit,
transport immediately to the hospital.
d) Place a tourniquet at the stub where the finger was severed to control bleeding transport to
hospital immediately.
87. What is the CPR procedure for a six year old boy?
a) 15 compressions, 1 breath, 5 cycles in 1 minute

b) 15 compressions, 2 breaths, 4 cycles in 1 minute
c) 5 compressions, 1 breath, 12 cycles in 1 minute
d) 3 compressions, 1 breath, 20 cycles in 1 minute
88. What is the first thing you should do for someone you suspect has an electrical burn?
a) Check for breathing and a pulse

b) Check to see if electricity is turned off
c) Check for severe bleeding
d) Check for shock
430
89. A boy is shot with an arrow through the chest and out the back, what would be the
best course of action?
a) Remove the arrow and apply sterile gauze to the wound

b) Do not remove the arrow, place several dressing around the arrow to keep it from
moving, bandage the dressings in place around the arrow.
c) Do not remove the arrow; break off the part out the back, bandage with dressing around
the arrow to hold it in place
d) Remove the arrow, wash the area, and bandage with sterile gauze
90. A girl is unconscious, she is heavily dressed and her skin is reddish, dry and hot, what
should you do?
a) Call 911, begin CPR.

b) Call for an ambulance; loosen tight clothing, check for breathing and pulse
c) Check for breathing and pulse, Call 911, get the girl out of the heat, loosen tight clothing,
and cool her off any way you can.
91. A boy has a sliver in his eye, you should….
a) attempt to remove the splinter with tweezers.

b) flush the eye with cool water or milk.
c) Leave the sliver in, Call for help.
d) Wrap sterile gauze around the head covering both eyes.
92. You’re driving your route and you come across a victim lying in the middle of the
road that appears to be unconscious, you should….
a) pull the bus safely to the side of the road place your reflectors around the injured person
and call 911.
b) Position your bus to protect the victim, turn on your flashing red lights, call 911.
c)Pull the bus safely to the side of the road, drag the victim out of the roadway, call 911.
d) Continue driving to the nearest phone, Call 911.
93. When performing CPR on a child, how deep should the chest compressions be?
a) 1½ inches.
b) 2 inches
c) 2½ inches
d) 3 inches
95. When performing CPR on an adult, how deep should the chest compressions be?
a) 1½ inches.
b) 2 inches
c) 2½ inches
d) 3 inches
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96. A first aid responder should move a victim when….
a) it would make it easier to administer first aid

b) The victim is in a dangerous position.
c) Never
d) Both a & b
97. There are three basic steps you can take in an emergency:
a) Call, Check, Care

b) Check, Call, Care
c) Recognize, Decide, Call
d) Decide, Execute, Call
98. You approach a victim that is unconscious and wearing a medical alert tag
indicating a diabetic condition. You would:
a) Begin Rescue Breathing

b) Begin CPR
c) Administer the victims insulin
d) Check victim for breathing & pulse
99. An eight year old child is unconscious and the airway is blocked You should:
a) Give abdominal thrusts

b) Begin CPR
c) Begin Rescue Breathing
d) All of the above
100. A victim is coughing up blood with bleeding from the mouth and is tender in the
abdomen. Pulse is weak and rapid The victim is having signs of
a) Massive head injuries

b) Internal Bleeding
c) Drug Overdose
d) Possible Poisonin
432
ANSWER KEY
FIRE PREVENTION AND FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEM
1. c 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. c 6. d 7. c 8. c 9. d 10. b
11. d 12. c 13. d 14. a 15. c 16. c 17. c 18. b 19. d 20. d
21. T 22. T 23. T 24. F 25. T 26. T 27. F 28. T 29. F 30. F
31. a 32. b 33. a 34. a 35. d 36. d 37. c 38. a 39. d 40. a
41. d 42. a 43. b 44. a 45. b 46. b 47. c 48. a 49. a, c 50. a
51. c 52. d 52. c
PERSONAL PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT
1. c 2. F 3. d 4. d 5. T 6. T 7. T 8. T 9. F 10. T
11. F 12. T 13. F 14. d 15. d 16. e 17. b 18. d 19. c 20. b
21. b 22. d 23. d 24. d 25. a 26. a 27. b 28. b 29. b 30. d
31. b 32. d 33. b 34. b 35. a 36. b 37. d
ELECTRICAL SAFETY
1. c 2. c 3. b 4. a 5. d 6. d 7. a 8. d 9. c 10. a
11. d 12. c 13. c 14. c 15. c 16. c 17. d 18. a 19. c 20. b
21. b 22. c 23. d 24. d 25. a 26. c 27. d 28. d 29. b 30. a
31. a 32. b 33. a 34. d 35. a 36. b 37. c 38. d 39. c 40. a
41. b 42. d 43. c 44. a 45. d 46. a 47. b 48. a 49. b 50. b
AIR ACT, WATER ACT, ENVIRONMENT PROTECTION ACT
1. a 2. b 3. d 4. a 5. b 6. c 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. a
11. b 12. c 13. a 14. d 15. d 16. d 17. a 18. d 19. a 20. a
21. d 22. d 23. a 24. d 25. d 26. a 27. c 28. d 29. a 30. b
31. a 32. a 33. d 34. d 35. d 36. d 37. d 38. c 39. d 40. a
41. a 42. c 43. d 44. d 45. a 46. a 47. c 48. a 49. a 50. a
433
PHYSICAL HAZARD
1. c 2. d 3. c 4. d 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. d 9. b 10. d
11. d 12. a 13. c 14. c 15. c 16. c 17. d 18. a 19. c 20. b
21. b 22. c 23. a 24. a 25. a 26. b 27. c 28. d 29. b 30. d
31. a 32. d 33. a 34. b 35. d 36. b 37. c 38. a 39. d 40. b
41. b 42. a 43. a 44. c 45. a 46. d 47. d 48. a 49. a 50. a
NATURAL CALAMITIES, DISASTER MANAGEMENT PLAN
1. d 2. d 3. c 4. a 5. d 6. a 7. b 8. d 9. d 10. b
11. c 12. d 13. a 14. d 15. b 16. a 17. d 18. d 19. a 20. d
21. d 22. a 23. d 24. d 25. c 26. d 27. a 28. a 29. a 30. a
31. b 32. b 33. b 34. a 35. b 36. d 37. c 38. b 39. a 40. a
41. c 42. a 43. a 44. d 45. b 46. c 47. c 48. d 49. a 50. a
FACTORIES ACT,1948
1. a 2. a 3. c 4. d 5. c 6. c 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. c
11. c 12. b 13. d 14. a 15. b 16. d 17. d 18. d 19. d 20. d
21. c 22. c 23. a 24. a 25. c 26. c 27. c 28. b 29. b 30. c
31. a 32. d 33. a 34. a 35. c 36. c 37. a 38. c 39. a, b 40. b
41. a 42. c 43. d 44. a 45. d 46. b 47. a 48. a 49. d 50. a
FIRE PREVENTION AND PROTECTION SYSTEMS
1. a 2. b 3. a 4. a 5. d 6. d 7. c 8. a 9. d 10. a
11. d 12. a 13. b 14. a 15. b 16. c 17. 18. 19. c 20. b
21. b 22. c 23. d 24. d 25. a 26. c 27. d 28. d 29. b 30. a
31. a 32. b 33. a 34. d 35. a 36. b 37. c 38. d 39. c 40. a
41. b 42. d 43. c 44. a 45. d 46. a 47. b 48. a 49. b 50. b
FIRE PROTECTION IN BUILDING
1. b 2. b 3. a 4. d 5. c 6. d 7. a 8. b 9. c 10. d
11. c 12. d 13. c 14. c 15. a 16. d 17. d 18. c 19. c 20. b
21. b 22. a 23. d 24. b 25. b 26. c 27. b 28. d 29. c 30. b
31. d 32. b 33. b 34. c 35. d 36. a 37. b 38. c 39. b 40. c
41. c 42. d 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
434
INTERNATIONAL LAWS RELATED TO SAFETY
1. a 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. d 7. a 8. d 9. b 10. a
11. c 12. b 13. a 14. d 15. a 16. b 17. c 18. a 19. d 20. c
21. a 22. c 23. d 24. a 25. c 26. d 27. b 28. d 29. c 30. a
31. d 32. b 33. c 34. d 35. b 36. a 37. d 38. c 39. b 40. a
41. d 42. a 43. c 44. b 45. d 46. a 47. d 48. c 49. a 50. d
LAWS(NATIONAL/INTERNATIONAL) RELATED TO ELECTRICAL SAFETY
1. a 2. b 3. a 4. a 5. a 6. c 7. b 8. a 9. a 10. b
11. a 12. a 13. d 14. c 15. d 16. b 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. c
21. a 22. a 23. b 24. a 25. d 26. a 27. a 28. a 29. a 30. d
31. a 32. a 33. a 34. b 35. c 36. b 37. a 38. a 39. a 40. d
41. b 42. c 43. a 44. a
1. d 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. c 6. d 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. d
11. d 12. b 13. a 14. b 15. c 16. a 17. b 18. c 19. b 20. a
21. a 22. a 23. a 24. b 25. b 26. c 27. c 28. c 29. a 30. b
31. c 32. d 33. b 34. a 35. c 36. b 37. b 38. c 39. a 40. b
41. a 42. c 43. c 44. c 45. c 46. d 47. a 48. c 49. a 50. c
BASICS OF FIRE, CLASS OF FIRE ETC…
1. c 2. d 3. c 4. d 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. d 9. b 10. d
11. d 12. a 13. a 14. c 15. d 16. c 17. c 18. b 19. b 20. b
21. c 22. c 23. b 24. b 25. b 26. b 27. b 28. c 29. a 30. b
31. b 32. a 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. b 38. a 39. c 40. b
41. b 42. c 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
BASICS OF MECHANICAL (MECHANICAL ENGINEERING)
1. c 2. d 3. a 4. d 5. b 6. b 7. c 8. d 9. b 10. c
11. a 12. d 13. b 14. b 15. b 16. c 17. b 18. b 19. b 20. b
21. c 22. b 23. a 24. c 25. d 26. d 27. a 28. d 29. a 30. a
31. c 32. b 33. b 34. a 35. c 36. b 37. a 38. c 39. b 40. c
41. a 42. a 43. b 44. d 45. a 46. a 47. d 48. b 49. d 50. d
435
NBCPART/4
1. c 2. c 3. c 4. d 5. c 6. b 7. c 8. c 9. a 10. c
11. a 12. d 13. a 14. b 15. b 16. c 17. c 18. b 19. c 20. a
21. b 22. c 23. b 24. c 25. c 26. d 27. c 28. a 29. c 30. a
31. b 32. b 33. b 34. d 35. b 36. b 37. a 38. b 39. c 40. c
41. a 42. c 43. c 44. c 45. c 46. d 47. a 48. c 49. a 50. c
IS CODES RELATED TO FIRE AND SAFETY
1. d 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. c 6. d 7. b 8. b 9. d 10. c
11. b 12. a 13. d 14. a 15. c 16. b 17. c 18. b 19. c 20. a
21. c 22. a 23. c 24. d 25. c 26. a 27. a 28. c 29. d 30. a
31. b 32. c 33. a 34. b 35. d 36. b 37. d 38. b 39. c 40. d
41. c 42. d 43. 44. 45. 46. 47. 48. 49. 50.
CHEMICAL HAZARD (INCLUDING MSDS OF IMP CHEMICALS)
1. c 2. a 3. e 4. d 5. 6. e 7. b 8. b 9. d 10. c
11. b 12. a 13. d 14. a 15. c 16. b 17. c 18. e 19. a 20. a
21. f 22. c 23. 24. d 25. c 26. a 27. 28. c 29. a 30. c
31. 32. c 33. d 34. 35. d 36. e 37. d 38. f 39. a 40. d
41. 42. d 43. e 44. d 45. a 46. c 47. d 48. a 49. 50. a
PETEROLUEM ACT,GAS CYLINDER RULES,EXLOSION ACT
1. d 2. c 3. d 4. c 5. d 6. a 7. b 8. d 9. c 10. d
11. a 12. a 13. c 14. a 15. b 16. d 17. a 18. d 19. a 20. b
21. a 22. c 23. b 24. d 25. b 26. a 27. c 28. d 29. a 30. d
31. c 32. a 33. d 34. a 35. c 36. c 37. a 38. d 39. b 40. a
41. d 42. c 43. a 44. b 45. a 46. a 47. c 48. b 49. a 50. d
SAFETY IN CONSTRUCTION
1.a 6.c 11.a 16. 21.a 26.t 31.f 36.d 41.d 46.c
2.a 7.b 12.d 17.b 22.t 27.b 32.d 37.a 42.b 47.c
3.b 8. 13. 18.b 23. 28.t 33.d 38.d 43.a 48.a
4.c 9.c 14.b 19.b 24.t 29.f 34. 39.b 44. 49.b
5.c 10.a 15.c 20.c 25.t 30. 35.b 40. 45.c 50.d
436
NFPA CODES RELATED TO FIRE SAFETY
1. d 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. a 6. c 7. d 8. a 9. b 10. a
11. a 12. a 13. d 14. a 15. c 16. c 17. b 18. d 19. d 20. c
21. d 22. a 23. b 24. b 25. b 26. c 27. a 28. b 29. a 30. b
31. d 32. c 33. a 34. d 35. a 36. d 37. b 38. c 39. c 40. b
41. a 42. c 43. b 44. a 45. c 46. d 47. a 48. c 49. c 50. c
HEALTH RELATED HAZARDS AND RISK CONTROL
1. d 2. d` 3. a 4. c 5. a 6. d 7. b 8. c 9. c 10. c
11. d 12. a 13. d 14. b 15. a 16. d 17. a 18. a 19. d 20. a
21. d 22. b 23. b 24. a 25. c 26. d 27. b 28. c 29. d 30. a
31. d 32. a 33. c 34. a 35. d 36. b 37. c 38. d 39. d 40. c
41. d 42. d 43. a 44. b 45. a 46. c 47. d 48. c 49. a 50. b
ELECTRICAL SAFETY EQUIPMENT
1. b 2. c 3. c 4. c 5. a 6. c 7. c 8. b 9. d 10. c
11. a 12. d 13. c 14. d 15. c 16. d 17. a 18. d 19. a 20. d
21. c 22. c 23. c 24. d 25. c 26. a 27. a 28. c 29. c 30. b
31. c 32. d 33. c 34. b 35. d 36. d 37. a 38. c 39. d 40. a
41. c 42. b 43. a 44. b 45. d 46. b 47. b 48. c 49. d 50. c
Process safety management

1. Risk priority number
2. Fmea is a cross functional, team work.
3. Process fmea &design fmea
4. Fault tree analysis
6. Or gate
7. “lagging” metrics
8. Hazard identification
9. Inherent safety approach
10. Timeweighted average (twa) exposure limit
11. Shortterm exposure limit (stel)
12. ceiling value
13. 29 cfr 1910.1200, 1915.1200, 1917.28, 1918.90, and 1926.59
14. 29 cfr 1910 subpart z, 1915 subpart z, 1926 subparts d and z
15. The chemical exposure index (cei)
16. Erpg3
17. 5000 lb or about 600 gal of flammable, toxic, explosive or reactive material
18. The material factor.
19. Process unit factor
437
20. Intermediate
21. Event tree
22. Initiating event
24. Hazop
25. Study node
26. Intention
27. Guide words
28. Reverse
29. Level of protection analysis
30. Deviation
31. Bowtie diagrams
32. To investigate the possible sequences of events and possible outcomes following an
initiating event.
33. The swiss cheese model
34. The loss control triangle
35. 300
36. Lower explosive limit (lel)
37. Class c petroleum
38. Hazan
39. Zone “o”
40. 120,000 cum.
41. One and half times the diameter of the tank or 20 m
42. Api std 650/2000
43. Api std 2000
44. Process piping
45. For cross country pipelines only entering the terminal.
46. Welded joints
47. Six meters per second
48. Medium voltage (mv)
49. Sick wagon.
50. Shall not be less than half the height of the tank
HIRA (Different techniques)
1. c 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. c 8. b 9. b 10. b
11. a 12. c 13. c 14. c 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. b 19. a 20. c
21. b 22. b 23. b 24. b 25. b 26. c 27. c 28. a 29. a 30. c
31. b 32. b 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. a 37. d 38. a 39. b 40. d
41. b 42. b 43. b 44. a 45. b 46. a 47. c 48. c 49. b 50. a
438
1. a 2. a 3. b 4. a 5. b 6. c 7. a 8. c 9. d 10. a
11. a 12. b 13. a 14. b 15. a 16. b 17. a 18. d 19. c 20. d
21. a 22. d 23. b 24. e 25. 26. d 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. d
31. d 32. c 33. b 34. a 35. 36. d 37. a 38. b 39. a 40. d
41. a 42. c 43. b 44. c 45. c 46. b 47. b 48. c 49. b 50. a
Basics of Disaster management
Safety in Process Indusry
1 D
2 B
3 C
4 A
5 C
6 D
7 B
8 B
9 D
10 C
11 B
12 A
13 D
14 A
15 C
16 B
17 C
18 B
19 C
20 A
21 C
22 A
23 C
24 D
25 C
26 A
27 A
28 C
29 D
30 A
439
31 B
32 C
33 A
34 B
35 D
36 B
37 D
38 B
39 C
40 D
41 C
42 A
43 C
44 A
45 B
46 C
47 D
48 B
49 D
50 A
1. a 2. d 3. b 4. a 5. b 6. b 7. b 8. a 9. b 10. a
11. b 12. b 13. d 14. d 15. d 16. c 17. a 18. d 19. e 20. c
21. d 22. a 23. b 24. 25. c 26. e 27. d 28. b 29. a 30. b
31. a 32. 33. 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
41. a 42. d 43. a 44. a 45. a 46. d 47. d 48. d 49. b 50. a
BASICS OF CHEMICAL (CHEMICAL ENGINEERING)
1. a 2. c 3. b 4. d 5. c 6. b 7. a 8. a 9. a 10. a
11. a 12. a 13. d 14. b 15. c 16. c 17. a 18. d 19. c 20. d
21. a 22. c 23. d 24. a 25. c 26. a 27. a 28. b 29. c 30. b
31. c 32. b 33. a 34. a 35. b 36. b 37. b 38. a 39. c 40. a
41. d 42. b 43. b 44. c 45. b 46. d 47. d 48. a 49. a 50. a
440
TRANSPORTATION OF HAZARDOUS CHEMICAL AND VEHICULAR SAFETY
1. b 2. d 3. yes 4. d 5. d 6. b 7. a 8. c 9. a 10. a
11. a 12. c 13. b 14. a 15. e 16. d 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. a
21. 22. a 23. c 24. a 25. a 26. a 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. b
31. c 32. a 33. a 34. yes 35. 36. a 37. yes 38. 39. yes 40. b
41. a 42. a 43. b 44. 45. yes 46. yes 47. b 48. c 49. yes 50. d
DISASTER MANAGEMENT
1. d 2. d 3. a 4. a 5. c 6. d 7. d 8. a 9. d 10. d
11. d 12. d 13. a 14. d 15. b 16. c 17. a 18. d 19. d 20. c
21. d 22. d 23. d 24. b 25. c 26. c 27. a 28. a 29. c 30. d
31. d 32. d 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. a 37. d 38. c 39. b 40. d
41. a 42. b 43. a 44. a 45. c 46. d 47. d 48. b 49. b 50. a
BASICS OF CONSTRUCTION
1. c 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. a 6. a 7. c 8. d 9. b 10. c
11. a 12. c 13. c 14. d 15. d 16. a 17. c 18. c 19. c 20. d
21. d 22. d 23. c 24. a 25. c 26. d 27. b 28. c 29. d 30. c
31. d 32. c 33. a 34. b 35. c 36. c 37. b 38. d 39. c 40. a
41. d 42. c 43. b 44. c 45. c 46. c 47. b 48. a 49. c 50. b
ERGONOMICS
1. c 2. d 3. b 4. a 5. c 6. d 7. c 8. b 9. a 10. b
11. a 12. d 13. c 14. a 15. c 16. d 17. a 18. d 19. b 20. b
21. c 22. a 23. d 24. b 25. b 26. b 27. c 28. b 29. a 30. d
31. b 32. c 33. a 34. a 35. d 36. b 37. c 38. a 39. d 40. b
41. a 42. b 43. c 44. d 45. b 46. b 47. d 48. a 49. d 50. c
SOLID WASTE MANAGEMENT
1. a 6.b 11.b 16.c 21.d 26.a 31.b 36.d 41.c 46.c

2.b 7.d 12.d 17.d 22.d 27.a 32.c 37.c 42.b 47.a
3.b 8.a 13.b 18.d 23.a 28.b 33.c 38.a 43.c 48.b
4.c 9.c 14.c 19.c 24.d 29.b 34.d 39.a 44.d 49.c
5.d 10.b 15.b 20.a 25.a 30.a 35.c 40.a 45.d 50.d
441
OISD116
1. A 6.A 11.C 16.C 21.B 26.A 31.D 36.D 41.A 46.

2.B 7.D 12.A 17.B 22.D 27.A 32.C 37.B 42. 47.
3.C 8.D 13.B 18.B 23.C 28.C 33.C 38.A 43. 48.
4.C 9.B 14.A 19.C 24.B 29.D 34.A 39.D 44. 49.
5.B 10.B 15.A 20.A 25.C 30.B 35.B 40.C 45. 50.
1. A 6. 11.C 16.A 21.B 26.A 31.C 36.A 41.A 46.C

2.A 7.C 12.A 17.A 22.C 27.A 32.A 37.B 42.A 47.A
3.C 8.C 13.A 18. 23.B 28.D 33.A 38.A 43.D 48.
4.B 9.C 14.E 19.C 24.B 29.C 34.A 39.B 44.C 49.A
5. 10.A 15.E 20.E 25.B 30.A 35.A 40.B 45.A 50.B
51.D 52.D 53.A 54.C 55.B 56.A 57.D 58.D 59.D 60.D
BASICS OF ELECTRICAL
1. b 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. a 6. b 7. d 8. d 9. b 10. a
11. c 12. d 13. c 14. a 15. b 16. d 17. a 18. c 19. d 20. c
21. a 22. b 23. c 24. b 25. a 26. b 27. b 28. c 29. a 30. a
31. b 32. b 33. d 34. c 35. a 36. d 37. a 38. c 39. a 40. a
41. a 42. d 43. b 44. d 45. d 46. b 47. d 48. b 49. d 50. c
SUSTAINABLE DEVELOPMENT
1. a 2. d 3. d 4. 5. a 6. d 7. a 8. c 9. 10. d
11. 12. a 13. a 14. d 15. 16. d 17. 18. 19. a 20. c
21. d 22. a 23. d 24. c 25. b 26. a 27. c 28. d 29. d 30. a
31. b 32. a 33. b 34. a 35. a 36. d 37. d 38. a 39. c 40. d
41. a 42. a 43. d 44. b 45. d 46. a 47. d 48. a 49. c 50. b
HIRA AND RISK ANALYSIS
1. A 6.B 11.A 16.B 21.D 26.D 31.A 36.D 41. 46.

2.B 7.A 12. 17.B 22.A 27.C 32.C 37.A 42. 47.
3.D 8.A 13.B 18.A 23.D 28.B 33.A 38.D 43. 48.
4.A 9.B 14.D 19.B 24.B 29.A 34.B 39.B 44. 49.
5.D 10.A 15.B 20.C 25.A 30.C 35.B 40.C 45. 50.
442
ISO14001
1. c 6.a 11.d 16.c 21.b 26.c 31.a 36.a 41.d 46.c

2.d 7.d 12.d 17.c 22.d 27.d 32.a 37.d 42.c 47.a
3.c 8.d 13.b 18.b 23.b 28.b 33.d 38.c 43.c 48.b
4.d 9.c 14.c 19.a 24.d 29.d 34.a 39.a 44.a 49.b
5.d 10.d 15.b 20.d 25.c 30.a 35.d 40.c 45.b 50.a
BASICS OF MECHANICAL
1. b 6.b 11.a 16.d 21.a 26.a 31.a 36.d 41.d 46.a

2.a 7.c 12.d 17.c 22.b 27.b 32.a 37.c 42.c 47.d
3.b 8.d 13.a 18.b 23.b 28.b 33.b 38.a 43.c 48.a
4.c 9.c 14.d 19.b 24.d 29.a 34.a 39.d 44.c 49.b
5.a 10.c 15.b 20.d 25.c 30.c 35.b 40.b 45.d 50.a
1. c 6.b 11.d 16.c 21.a 26.b 31.b 36. 41.d 46.a

2.d 7.a 12.a 17.a 22.e 27.d 32.c 37. 42. 47.c
3.c 8.d 13.a 18.d 23.a 28.a 33. 38.b 43.c 48.b
4.d 9.b 14.c 19.a 24.c 29.d 34. 39.a 44.e 49.a
5.a 10.d 15.d 20.c 25.b 30.a 35. 40.b 45.a 50.a
BEHAVIOUR BASED SAFETY
1. a 6.a 11.d 16.c 21.b 26.b 31.a 36.a 41.c 46.e

2.a 7.a 12.e 17.a 22.a 27.c 32.a 37.a 42.d 47.d
3.d 8.a 13.a 18.a 23.b 28.d 33.a 38.c 43.c 48.c
4.d 9.a 14.b 19.b 24.c 29.f 34.a 39.a 44.a 49.f
5.b 10.c 15.b 20.c 25.a 30.e 35.a 40.b 45.b 50.d
OISD 117 & OISD118
1. b 6.d 11.b 16.b 21.c 26.a 31.b 36.b 41.a 46.c

2.c 7.d 12.b 17.b 22.a 27.b 32.b 37.c 42.c 47.a
3.b 8.b 13.c 18.b 23.a 28.c 33.a 38.b 43.b 48.b
4.b 9.c 14.c 19.b 24.c 29.a 34.b 39.a 44.a 49.b
5.a 10.b 15.b 20.b 25.a 30.c 35.b 40.b 45.b 50.b
443
GUARDING, WORK PERMIT SYSTEM, SAFETY AUDIT
1. c 6.c 11.c 16.a 21.a 26.d 31.d 36.3 41.2 46.2

2.c 7.d 12.b 17.c 22.d 27.c 32.b 37.4 42.3 47.3
3.d 8.a 13.c 18.c 23.a 28.b 33.d 38.4 43.2 48.2
4.c 9.c 14.b 19.a 24.b 29.e 34.c 39.4 44.4 49.1
5.c 10.a 15.a 20.a 25.c 30.a 35.1 40.1 45.3 50.4
BASICS OF HAZARD AND RISK
1. c 2. d 3. c 4. d 5. a 6. b 7. a 8. d 9. b 10. d
11. d 12. a 13. a 14. c 15. d 16. c 17. d 18. d 19. a 20. c
21. a 22. c 23. c 24. b 25. c 26. b 27. c 28. d 29. b 30. a
31. c 32. d 33. a 34. c 35. d 36. a 37. a 38. b 39. a 40. a
41. d 42. d 43. a 44. d 45. a 46. c 47. b 48. d 49. a 50. c
1. C 6.D 11.B 16.D 21.D 26.B 31.B 36.A 41.C 46.B

2.B 7.C 12.A 17.D 22. 27.B 32.D 37.B 42.B 47.B
3.C 8.A 13.A 18.A 23. 28.A 33.A 38.B 43.D 48.C
4.C 9.C 14.D 19.B 24.D 29.D 34.D 39.C 44.B 49.A
5.C 10.C 15.A 20.A 25.A 30.C 35.C 40.D 45.A 50.A
BASICS OF MECHANICAL
1. c 2. c 3. a 4. b 5. d 6. b 7. e 8. d 9. c 10. e`
11. a 12. b 13. c 14. c 15. b 16. c 17. b 18. d 19. b 20. d
21. e 22. d 23. a 24. d 25. c 26. c 27. d 28. b 29. b 30. a
31. e 32. a 33. d 34. d 35. c 36. b 37. c 38. d 39. a 40. d
41. d 42. d 43. c 44. a 45. a 46. a 47. b 48. c 49. b 50. a
BASICS OF SAFETY IE; HAZARD, RISK, ACCIDENTS, RISK ANALYSIS ETC…
1. c 2. b 3. b 4. b 5. c 6. c 7. b 8. b 9. b 10. b
11. b 12. d 13. b 14. c 15. a 16. d 17. a 18. a 19. a 20. b
21. c 22. a 23. c 24. b 25. a 26. b 27. a 28. b 29. b 30. b
31. c 32. b 33. a 34. b 35. a 36. c 37. b 38. a 39. b 40. c
41. c 42. d 43. c 44. d 45. a 46. b 47. a 48. d 49. b 50. d
444
HOUSEKEEPING, 5E'S, CAUSES OF ACCIDENT ETC…
1. d 2. d 3. d 4. e 5. d 6. b 7. d 8. b 9. d 10. a
11. d 12. d 13. d 14. c 15. yes 16. yes 17. d 18. d 19. d 20. d
21. d 22. b,c 23. d 24. true 25. true 26. F 27. T 28. T 29. F 30. T
31. F 32. T 33. F 34. a 35. T 36. T 37. T 38. T 39. T 40. D
41. d 42. e 43. e 44. e
1. B 6.B 11.B 16.A 21.D 26.B 31.D 36.D 41.A 46.A

2.C 7.D 12.C 17.D 22.D 27.D 32.A 37.D 42.D 47.A
3.D 8. 13.B 18.A 23.A 28.D 33.D 38.A 43.D 48.A
4.B 9.A 14.D 19.D 24.A 29.B 34.B 39.D 44.C 49.A
5.B 10.A 15.A 20.B 25.A 30.C 35.A 40. 45.D 50.B
1. C 6.D 11.D 16.C 21. 26. 31. 36.D 41.D 46.D

2.B 7.C 12.B 17.C 22. 27. 32.B 37. 42. 47.
3.C 8.C 13.C 18.B 23. 28. 33. 38.D 43.D 48.A
4.A 9.D 14.A 19.D 24. 29. 34.A 39.C 44. 49.B
5.C 10.B 15.C 20.D 25. 30.A 35.A 40.A 45.A 50.A
FIRST AID
1. d 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. a 8. d 9. b 10. c
11. a 12. d 13. d 14. a 15. b 16. c 17. d 18. b 19. b 20. d
21. a 22. d 23. c 24. c 25. b 26. b 27. d 28. c 29. d 30. c
31. c 32. b 33. a 34. b 35. c 36. b 37. b 38. b 39. b 40. b
41. c 42. d 43. d 44. d 45. b 46. a 47. a 48. c 49. d 50. d
51. c 52. d 53. b 54. a 55. d 56. b 57. d 58. b 59. c 60. c
61. d 62. d 63. c 64. b 65. d 66. c 67. d 68. d 69. c 70. b
71. d 72. a 73. c 74. d 75. c 76. d 77. a 78.c 79. d 80. b
81. c 82. b 83. b 84. c 85. b 86. b 87. b 88. c 89. b 90. b
91. c 92. c 93. c 94. a 95. b 96. d 97. b 98. d 99. a 100. b
445

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PREPARED BY :

M.TECH HSE (2015-2017)

UNDER GUIDANCE OF:

CHAPTER TOPIC PAGE

CHAPTER TOPIC PAGE

a) A fire involving energized electrical equipment

2. An extinguisher with a D rating is designed for use on which type of fire?

a) A fire involving flammable liquids

3. A fire involving flammable liquids is classified as which type of fire?

4. A fire involving ordinary combustible materials is classified as which type of fire?

5. An extinguisher with a C rating is designed for use on which type of fire?

a) A fire involving flammable liquids

a) Carbon dioxide extinguisher

8. An extinguisher with a K rating is designed for use on which type of fire?

a) A fire involving ordinary combustibles

9. Which of the following is true regarding a flammable gas fire?

a) Always extinguish the fire if a portable extinguisher is available

a) Whether to call 911or fight the fire

a) Am I safe from toxic smoke and gases?

a) Activate the building alarm to notify other occupants

a) Activate the building alarm to notify other occupants

a) Outside the room to avoid being trapped by the fire

17. How often should an extinguisher receive a visual inspection?

22. The concept of fire prevention is to keep these elements separat

23. There are four classes of fire, Class A, B, C, and K.

29. Fire extinguishers must be inspected or checked every 60 days.

33. The pressure produced by a column of water 1 foot high is:

a) The energy imparted to the liquid as it passes through the pump

a) Without fear of loss of life

a) Access to the exit, lighting, signage

a) 1 foot candle measured at the floor

a) Class Aordinary combustibles

a) Direct discharge of steam into water

a) small volume of water stored

a) Design and application

50. Which of the following is NOT a class A material?

a) CO2 fire extinguishers

3. Companies are required to:

a) Provide certain types of PPE at no cost to the employe

4. Eye protection should be:

a) Have a ratchet suspension system.

7. PPE must be inspected prior to us T

8. The primary objective of PPE is to protect employees by creating a barrier against

11. Cotton gloves provide superior protection against corrosive chemicals. F

12. Foam earplugs provide greater protection than earmuffs. T

14. Who is responsible for maintaining PPE?

16. Eye protection is required for which of the following hazards?

17. Welding shields primarily protect against…

a) Safety toe shoes

a) Leggings – heat hazards

23. When should safety footwear be inspected?

a) Butyl rubber gloves

28. Which of the following hearing protection should be fitted by a professional?

(a) Mark the equipment

32. Which of the following is a factor for selection of protective gloves?

(a) Size and comfort

(a) Safety shoes

34. Class E hard hats can provide voltage protection upto

37. Which among these is not a type of protective gloves

a) wrap tape around the damaged spot to prevent electrical shocks.

3. The safest ladder to use around electricity is?

6. Injuries from electricity can include which of the following?

a) electric shock that may or may not result in electrocution.

a) must be reported and repaired as soon as possible