BIOL 1406 FINAL EXAM Review

These questions are the high frequency errors and thus were the most difficult. Understand them well
as they will be altered on the final. For example, if a question is looking for a definition of a term I may
switch it around and ask you for the term providing you with the definition instead. At the very least I
will change the order of the answers. In essence, you have to understand the material well in order to
get them correct on the final.

Additionally be prepared for questions involving these subjects:

1. Macromolecules (powerpoint 6)
2. Organelles (powerpoint 8)
3. Glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport (powerpoints 13 & 14)
4. Mitosis, meiosis (powerpoints 17 and 18)

Lecture Exam 1
1. What is the first step of the scientific method?
a. Hypothesis
b. Theory
c. Observation
d. Experimentation

2. Binary fission …
a. Involves gametes (sperm and egg)
b. Results in sexual reproduction
c. Results in asexual reproduction
d. Ensures genetically variable offspring

3. Prokaryotes include…
a. Animals
b. Plants
c. Both a and b
d. Bacteria

4. Given a compound H2SO4, with the atomic weight of H being 1.00; S being 32.00; and O being 15.9994;
determine the molecular weight to the nearest whole number. Remember you can write on this test.
a. 49.06
b. 49
c. 98
d. 246
e. 196

5. How do isotopes of the same element differ from each other?

a. Number of protons
b. Number of electrons
c. Valence electron distribution
d. Number of neutrons

6. A covalent bond is likely to be polar when…

a. the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative.
b. the two atoms sharing electrons are of the same element.
c. the two atoms sharing electrons are different elements.
d. one of the atoms sharing electrons is much more electronegative than the other atom.

7. Which of the following results from the transfer of electron(s) between atoms? (Hint: NaCl)
a. Non-polar covalent bonds
b. Polar covalent bonds
c. Ionic bonds
d. Hydrogen bonds.

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8. Which of the following is NOT considered to be a weak (temporary) molecular interaction?
a. Covalent bond
b. A van der Waals interaction
c. A hydrogen bond
d. All of the above

9. In a single molecule of water, the two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by
a. Hydrogen bonds.
b. Nonpolar covalent bonds.
c. Polar covalent bonds.
d. Ionic bonds.
10. ________________ is a dissolved substance.
a. Solution
b. Solvent
c. Solute
d. Both b and c
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11. One liter of a solution of pH 2 has how many more hydrogen ions (H ) than 1 L of a solution of pH 6?
a. 4 times more
b. 4,000 times more
c. 10,000 times more
d. 100,000 times more

12. Organic chemistry is a science based on the study of…

a. functional groups
b. vital forces interacting with matter.
c. carbon compounds
d. water and its interaction with other kinds of molecules.

13. How many electrons does carbon share in order to complete its valence shell?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

14. The two molecules above are best described as…

a. Isomers
b. Enantiomers
c. Polymers
d. Monomers

15. Research suggests that side effects of Ritalin, the drug used to treat attention deficit disorder, may be caused by
contamination of enantiomers. Enantiomers are molecules that…
a. have identical 3-dimensional shapes.
b. are mirror images of one another.
c. have the same chemical formula but different chemical structures
d. differ in their electrical charge.

16. Amino functional groups are…

a. neutral
b. acidic
c. basic

17. What is the chemical mechanism by which disaccharides are made into monosaccharides?
a. Phosphodiester linkages
b. Hydrolysis
c. Dehydration synthesis
d. Ionic bonding.

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18. All of the following statements concerning saturated fats are true EXCEPT:
a. They are more common in animals than in plants.
b. They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.
c. They generally solidify at room temperature.
d. They are one of several factors that contribute to heart disease.

19. Bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a larger molecule requires
a. the release of a water molecule.
b. the release of a carbon dioxide molecule
c. the addition of a nitrogen atom.
d. the addition of a water molecule.

20. The properties of water include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. cohesive behavior c. ability to moderate temperature
b. versatility as a solvent.water d. becomes more dense upon freezing

Lecture Exam 2
1. An electron microscope can be used to view living organisms. A=True B=False

2. Why is it important to compare a cell’s surface area to its volume?

A. If surface area out paces volume, a cell cannot rely solely on diffusion for acquiring nutrients
B. If volume out paces surface area, a cell cannot rely solely on diffusion for acquiring nutrients
C. If volume out paces surface area, a cell can rely solely on diffusion for acquiring nutrients
D. Diffusion occurs similarly regardless of cell size

3. Membrane-bound organelles include…

A. Endoplasmic reticulum
B. Nucleoid
C. DNA
D. Both B & C

4. What do plant cells have that animal cells do not?

A. Golgi apparatus
B. Central vacuole
C. Cell walls
D. Both B & C

5. The site of ribosome synthesis

A. Chromatin
B. Nucleolus
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Smooth ER (endoplasmic reticulum)

6. DNA + proteins (that help organize DNA)

A. Chromatin
B. Nucleolus
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Smooth ER (endoplasmic reticulum)

7. Maintains the plasma membrane (lipid synthesis)

A. Chromatin
B. Nucleolus
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Smooth ER (endoplasmic reticulum)

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8. Ribosomes…
A. Perform photosynthesis
B. Perform translation
C. Perform transcription
D. Beak down toxins

9. Phagocytosis is performed by…

A. All animal cells
B. All plant cells
C. Immune cells
D. Organelles

10. The above reaction is performed by which organelle?

A. Lysosomes
B. Mitochondria
C. Chloroplast
D. Peroxisomes

11. An animal cell’s extra cellular matrix allows for cell communication. A=True B=False

12. Form continuous seals around cells (prevent leakage)

A. Plasmodesmata
B. Desmosomes
C. Tight junctions
D. Gap junctions

13. Which of these molecules can readily cross the plasma membrane (unaided)?
A. Proteins
B. Carbohydrates
C. Fatty hormones
D. Large polar molecules

14. Which term(s) below are associated with aquaporins?

A. Carrier
B. Channel
C. Water
D. Both B & C
E. Both A & C

15. If red blood cells were placed in a hypotonic solution…

A. Water would enter and leave the cells at the same rate
B. More water would leave the cells than enter
C. More water would enter the cells than leave
D. Water would neither enter or leave the cells

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16. Based on the above figure:
+
A. Sending Na outside the cell requires ATP
+
B. Sending K inside the cell requires ATP
C. Both A and B are correct
D. Both A and B do not require ATP

17. All the chemical reactions in cells that use or release energy.
A. Bioenergetics
B. Metabolism
C. Glycolysis
D. Endergonic

18. Catalysts _____________ the activation energy required for biochemical reactions.
A. Stabilize
B. Increase
C. Lower
D. Do not affect

19. The above reaction is…

A. A condensation reaction
B. A hydrolysis reaction
C. Endergonic
D. Both A and C

20. Allosteric inhibition is the same as…

A. Competitive inhibition
B. Non-competitive inhibition
C. Normal enzyme function
D. Coenzyme help

Lecture Exam 3
1. Cellular respiration…
A. Is performed by plants that have access to sunlight.
B. Is performed by animals
C. Is only performed by some bacteria and fungi
D. Both A & B are correct

2. ATP must be ________________ in order for energy to be released.

A. Oxidized
B. Phosphorylated
C. Dephosphorylated
D. Decarboxylated

3. Which of the following is an exergonic process?

A. Photosynthesis
B. Cellular respiration
C. Anabolism
D. Both A & B are exergonic

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4. ATP is synthesized via oxidative phosphorylation during the Krebs cycle. A=True B=False

5. How many coenzymes are reduced for each molecule represented by “A” in the figure?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

6. During oxidative phosphorylation, what is being oxidized?

A. Oxygen
B. Glucose
C. Coenzymes
D. CO2

7. During oxidative phosphorylation, oxygen is reduced to form carbon dioxide. A=Trues B=False

8. What product from oxidative phosphorylation does glycolysis require?

A. Pyruvate
B. CO2
C. NAD
D. NADH

9. Lactic acid fermentation occurs in…

A. Animal cells that have oxygen
B. Animal cells that have no oxygen
C. Fungal cells that have oxygen
D. Fungal cells that have no oxygen

10. ______________ could not exist without autotrophic organisms.

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Water
C. Protein
D. Carbohydrates

11. Photosynthesis takes place in the membrane of these structures

A. Mesophyll
B. Stomata
C. Stroma
D. Chloroplast
E. Thylakoid

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12. Organelles where photosynthesis takes place
A. Mesophyll
B. Stomata
C. Stroma
D. Chloroplast
E. Thylakoid

13. Carbon fixation…

A. Occurs in the light-dependent reactions
B. Occurs inside thylakoids
C. As a result creates CO2
D. As a result creates organic molecules

14. Photosystems I and II are found within…

A. Chloroplast stroma
B. Chloroplast membranes
C. Thylakoid membranes
D. Thylakoid space (lumen)

15. Within photosystems, the majority of chlorophyll is found in the…

A. Reaction center
B. Antenna proteins
C. Thylakoid lumen
D. Chloroplast stroma

16. Hydrolysis of water directly replaces the electrons for…

A. Electron transport chain
B. Calvin cycle
C. Reaction center of photosystem I
D. Reaction center of photosystem II

17. The electrons in the reaction center of photosystem I are replaced by…
A. Hydrolysis of water
B. Electrons from photosystem II
C. NADP
D. NADPH

18. At the end of the light reactions, electrons _________________ which is/are sent to the Calvin cycle.
A. Oxidize coenzymes
B. Reduce coenzymes
C. Are added to oxygen to reform water
D. Are added to CO2 to form glucose

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19. Adding hydrogens from NADPH to the growing sugar molecule is called… (stage of Calvin cycle)
A. Fixation
B. Reduction
C. Regeneration
D. Rehabilitation

20. The conversion of CO2  C6H12O6 is…

A. Endergonic
B. Exergonic
C. A hydrolysis reaction
D. Catabolic reaction

Lecture Exam 4
1. Plasmids are important to…
A. Animals because they do not gain genetic variability during reproduction
B. Animals because plasmids are part of their genome.
C. Bacteria because they do not gain genetic variability during reproduction
D. Bacteria because plasmids are part of their genome.

2. Homologous chromosomes (autosomes)…

A. Share genes located at different locations
B. Share genes located at the same locations
C. Do not share genes but are located together within nuclei
D. Share genes but are of different length

3. Cyclins…
A. Inhibit the cell cycle
B. Are pieces of DNA combined with proteins
C. Are positive cell cycle regulators
D. Are negative cell cycle regulators

4. A ______________ is the first diploid structure in the human life cycle (formed from the union of 2 haploid
structures).
A. Gamete
B. Zygote
C. Sperm cell
D. Egg cell (ovum)

5. ___________ hold sister chromatids together at the centromere.

A. Cyclins
B. Cohesins
C. Centrosomes
D. Centrioles

6. Name the phase seen in the figure.

A. Metaphase I
B. Metaphase II
C. Prophase I
D. Prophase II

7. Name the phase seen in the figure.

hint: sister chromatids are still attached
A. Telophase I
B. Telophase II
C. Anaphase I
D. Anaphase II
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8. Which of the following is unique to meiosis vs. mitosis?
A. Separation of sister chromatids
B. Separation of homologous chromosomes
C. The formation of the spindle apparatus
D. The replication of DNA and centrosomes during S phase

9. A second interphase occurs directly after meiosis I. A = TRUE B = FALSE

10. Mutations can occur by…

A. Crossing over
B. Random fertilization
C. Exposure to UV radiation in sunlight
D. Independent assortment

11. Trait based on a single gene (2 alleles). Can be represented by a few (2) categories.
A. Allele
B. Continuous variation
C. Discontinuous variation
D. True-breeding
E. Hybridization

12. Trait based on many genes (human height). Cannot be represented by a few (2) categories.
A. Allele
B. Continuous variation
C. Discontinuous variation
D. True-breeding
E. Hybridization

13. The phenotypic ratio of the F2 generation.

A. 1:1
B. 1:2:1
C. 2:1
D. 3:1

14. If the first generation female expresses a dominant phenotype…

A. She must be heterozygous for the trait
B. She must be homozygous for the trait
C. She is not a carrier of the recessive trait
D. The next generation must all express the trait

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15. If a father is homozygous for blood type B, what percentage of his children can have type O blood if the
mother has type O blood?
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 100%

16. For a recessive lethal gene (achondroplasia), if both parents are afflicted by the same recessively lethal gene
and they have children, what percentage of the children will get the lethal combination of alleles.
A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 100%

17. This type of allele must cause late onset symptoms or the allele could never be passed on (Huntington’s).
A. X-linked
B. Multiple alleles
C. Recessive lethal
D. Dominant lethal

18. If a dihybrid cross was performed on 2 true breeding parents (RRYY & rryy)…
A. The resulting offspring would all be heterozygous
B. 50 % of the resulting offspring would be heterozygous
C. 25% of the resulting offspring would be heterozygous
D. None of the resulting offspring would be heterozygous

19. The microscopic observation of _________________ supports the exchange of genetic information.
A. Haploid cells
B. Sister chromatids attached at the centromere
C. DNA replication
D. Chiasmata

20. In a karyotype DNA is organized by all of the following features except…

A. Length
B. Banding pattern
C. Histone composition
D. Centromere location

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