Question Report 580 PDF

Test Pattern
(0999DMD310119003) )/999DMD31/119//3)
DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
MINOR TEST # 03
(Academic Session : 2019 - 2020) 04-08-2019
PRE-MEDICAL : NURTURE TEST SERIES / JOINT PACKAGE COURSE
Test Type : Unit Test # 03
This Booklet contains 40 pages. bl iqfLrdk esa 40 i`"B gaSA
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
bl ijh{kk iqf Lrdk dks tc rd uk [kks y s a tc rd dgk u tk,A
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk ds fiNys vkoj.k ij fn, funs Z ' kks a dks /;ku ls i<+s a A
Important Instructions : egRoiw.kZ funsZ'k :
1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and 1. mÙkj i= ds i` " B-1 ,oa i` " B-2 ij /;kuiwoZd dsoy uhys @ dkys ckWy
Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. ikWbaV isu ls fooj.k HkjsaA
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and this Test Booklet 2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 3 ?ka Vs gS ,oa ijh{kk ifq Lrdk esa 180 iz'u gaSA
contains 180 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For izR;sd iz'u 4 vad dk gAS izR;sd lgh mÙkj ds fy, ijh{kkFkhZ dks
each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For
4 vad fn, tk,axasA izR;sd xyr mÙkj ds fy, dqy ;ksx esa ls ,d
each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from
the total scores. The maximum marks are 720. vad ?kVk;k tk,xkA vf/kdre vad 720 gSA
3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing 3. bl i`"B ij fooj.k va fdr djus ,oa mÙkj i= ij fu'kku yxkus
particulars on this page/marking responses. ds fy, ds o y uhys @ dkys ckW y ikW b aV is u dk iz;ksx djsaA
4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this 4. jQ dk;Z bl ijh{kk iqfLrdk esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ij gh djsaA
purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand 5. ijh{kk lEiék gksus ij] ijh{kkFkhZ d{k@gkWy NksM+us ls iwoZ mÙkj
over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before i= fujh{kd dks vo'; lkSai ns a A ijh{kkFkhZ vius lkFk ds o y
leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are ijh{kk iqf Lrdk dks ys tk ldrs gS aA
allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not 6. ijh{kkFkhZ lqfuf'pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i= dks eksM+k u tk, ,oa ml
folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. ij dksbZ vU; fu'kku u yxk,aA ijh{kkFkhZ viuk QkWeZ uEcj iz'u
Do not write your Form No. anywhere else except in the iqfLrdk@mÙkj i= esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksaA
specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
7. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the 7. mÙkj i= ij fdlh izdkj ds la'kks/ku gsrq OgkbV ¶+yqbM ds iz;ksx
Answer Sheet. dh vuqefr ugha gAS
8. If you want to attempt any question then circle should be 8. ;fn vki fdlh iz'u dks gy djus dk iz;kl djrs gaS rks mfpr xksys dks
properly darkened as shown below, otherwise leave blank. uhps n'kkZ;s x;s vuqlkj xgjk dkyk djsa vU;Fkk mls [kkyh NksM+ nsaA
Correct Method Wrong Method lgh rjhdk xyr rjhdk
In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final.
iz' uks a ds vuqokn es a fdlh vLi"Vrk dh fLFkfr es a] vaxz s th laL dj.k dks gh vaf re ekuk tk,s xkA
Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)
ijh{kkFkhZ dk uke (cM+s v{kjksa esa) :
Form Number : in figures
QkWeZ uEcj : vadksa esa
: in words
: 'kCnksa esa
Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :
ijh{kk dsUæ (cM+s v{kjksa esa) :
Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :
ijh{kkFkhZ ds gLrk{kj : fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj :
Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

FTS / Page 1/40
ALLEN
TOPIC : Laws of Motion and Friction
1. When a force F acts on a body of mass m, the 1. tc cy F, m nzO;eku dh oLrq ij yxrk g]S oLrq esa a Roj.k
acceleration produced in the body is a. If three mRiUUk gksrk gAS ;fn rhu cjkcj cy F1 = F2 = F3 = F mlh
equal forces F1 = F2 = F3 = F act on the same body
oLrq ij fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj yxrs g]S rks mRiUu Roj.k g&S
as shown in figure, then the acceleration produced
is :-
F2
F2
90°
135°
90° m
135° F1
m F1
F3
F3
(1) ( 2 - 1)a (2) ( 2 + 1)a
(1) ( 2 - 1)a (2) ( 2 + 1)a
(3) 2a (4) a (3) 2a (4) a
2. In the shown arrangement mass of A is 1 kg, mass 2. iznf'kZr O;oLFkk esa A dk nzO;eku 1 kg rFkk B dk nzO;eku
of B is 2 kg. Coefficient of friction between A and 2 kg gAS A o B ds chp ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad 0.2 gAS
B is 0.2.
A
A B F = 10 N
B F = 10 N
B rFkk tehu ds chp dksbZ ?k"kZ.k ugha gAS A }kjk B ij yxk;k
There is no friction between B and ground. The
frictional force exerted by A on B equals. tk jgk ?k"kZ.k cy g&S
(1) 2 N (2) 3 N (3) 4 N (4) 5 N (1) 2 N (2) 3 N (3) 4 N (4) 5 N
3. A helicopter of mass 1000 kg rises with a vertical 3. 1000 kg nzO;eku okyk ,d gsfYdkWIVj 15 m/s2 m/oZ Roj.k
acceleration of 15 m/s 2 . The crew and the ds lkFk mij mB jgk gAS pkyd ny ,oa ;kf=;ksa dk Hkkj 300kg
passenger weights 300 kg then the force on the
gS rks vkl ikl dh gok }kjk gsfydkWIVj ij yxk;k tk jgk cy
helicopter due to the surrounding air is
(g = 10 m/s2) :- gS (g = 10 m/s2) :-
(1) 34500 N (2) 32500 N (1) 34500 N (2) 32500 N
(3) 7500 N (4) 6400 N (3) 7500 N (4) 6400 N
4. A 30 kg block rests on a rough horizontal surface. 4. 30 kg nzO;eku okyk ,d CykWd [kqjnjh {ksfrt lrg ij j[kk
A force of 200 N is applied on the block. The gq v k gSA CykWd ij 200 N cy yxk;k tkrk gSa A CykW d
block acquires a speed of 4 m/s, starting from rest fojkekoLFkk ls izkjEHk djds 2s esa 4 m/s pky izkIr dj ysrk
in 2 s. What is the value of coefficient of friction?
gSA ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad dk eku fdruk gS ?
(1) 0.33 (2) 0.17 (3) 0.47 (4) 0.184 (1) 0.33 (2) 0.17 (3) 0.47 (4) 0.184
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2021/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

FTS / Page 2/40 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy, txg 0999DMD310119003
ALLEN
5. A bullet of mass 50 g moving horizontally with a 5. 50 g nzO;eku okyh xksyh 400 m/s osx ds lkFk {kfS rtr% xfr
velocity of 400 m/s strikes to a block of mass 20 kg djrh gbq Z ] fpduh ,oa {kSfrt lrg ij j[ks 20 kg nzO;eku
placed on a smooth horizontal surface and rebounds ds CykWd ls Vdjkrh gS vkSj leku pky ds lkFk okil izfrf{kIr
back with same speed. Then average force acting on
gksrh gSA ;fn izfrfØ;k dk le; 0.05 lsd.M gS rks CykWd
the block if the time of interaction is 0.05 second
is:-
ij yxus okyk vkl S r cy gS :-
(1) 400 N (2) 1600 N (1) 400 N (2) 1600 N
(3) 200 N (4) 800 N (3) 200 N (4) 800 N
6. A weightless rod is acted upon by upward parallel 6. ,d Hkkjghu NM+ ds fljksa A o B ij Øe'k% 4 N rFkk 2 N
forces of 4 N and 2 N magnitudes at ends A and B ifjek.k ds lekukUrj cy mij dh vksj yxk;s tkrs gaAS NM+ dh
respectively. The total length of the rod yEckbZ AB = 3 m gAS NM+ dks lkE;koLFkk esa j[kus ds fy,
AB = 3 m. To keep the rod in equilibrium a force
6 N cy fuEukuqlkj yxk;k tkuk pkfg;s
of 6 N should act in the following manner
(1) A o B ds chp fdlh Hkh fcUnq ij uhps dh vksj
(1) downward at any point between A and B
(2) AB ds e/; fcUnq ij uhps dh vksj
(2) downward at the midpoint of AB
(3) downward at a point C such that AC = 1 m (3) fcUnq C ij bl izdkj dh AC = 1 m
(4) downward at a point C such that BC = 1 m (4) fcUnq C ij bl izdkj dh BC = 1 m
7. A body of mass 10 kg rests on horizontal surface. 7. 10 kg nzO;eku okyh ,d oLrq {ksfrt lrg ij j[kh gqbZ gAS oLrq
The coefficient of friction between the body and the ,oa lrg ds chp ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad dk eku 0.4 gAS ;fn oLrq dks
surface is 0.4. If the body is pulled by a force of 80 fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj 80 N cy ls [khapk tkrk gS] rks oLrq ,oa
N as shown in the figure, the limiting friction between
lrg ds chp lhekUr ?k"kZ.k dk eku gS :-
the body and surface will be :-
80 N
80 N 30°
30° m
m
(1) 12 N (2) 48 N
(1) 12 N (2) 48 N
(3) 24 N (4) 6 N
(3) 24 N (4) 6 N
8. A uniform rope of length 2.4 m lies on a table. If 8. 2.4 m yEckbZ okyh ,d le:i jLlh Vscy ij j[kh gqbZ gaS ;fn
the coefficient of friction is 0.2, then the maximum ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad 0.2 g]S rks fcuk fQlys Vscy ds fdukjs ls uhps yVd
length of the hanging part of the rope which can jgs jLlh ds Hkkx dh vf/kdre yEckbZ gks ldrh gS :-
overhang from the edge of the table without sliding
down is :-
(1) 0.8 m (2) 0.6 m (3) 0.4 m (4) 0.2 m
(1) 0.8 m (2) 0.6 m (3) 0.4 m (4) 0.2 m
9. A constant force acting on a body of mass 3.0 kg 9. 3.0 kg nzO;eku okyh oLrq ij yx jgk ,d fu;r cy] 25s
changes its speed from 2.0 ms–1 to 3.5 ms–1 in 25s. esa bldh pky 2.0 ms–1 ls 3.5 ms–1 rd ifjofrZr dj nsrk
The direction of motion of the body reamins gAS oLrq dh xfr dh fn'kk vifjofrZr jgrh gaAS cy dk ifjek.k
unchanged. What is the magnitude of the force ? D;k gS ?
(1) 0.36 N (2) 0.18 N (1) 0.36 N (2) 0.18 N
(3) 0.54 N (4) 0.09 N (3) 0.54 N (4) 0.09 N
NURTURE TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

0999DMD310119003 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy, txg FTS / Page 3/40
ALLEN
10. A body of mass 2 kg is hung on a spring balance 10. 2 kg nzO;eku okyh ,d oLrq] fy¶V esa yxh gq;h fLizax rqyk
mounted vertically in a lift. If the lift moves up with ls m/okZ/kj yVd jgh gAS ;fn fy¶V mij dh vksj xq:Roh;
an acceleration equal to the acceleration due to Roj.k ds cjkcj Roj.k ls mij tk jgh gks] fLizax rqyk dk ikB~;kad
gravity, the reading on the spring balance will be :- gksxk :-
(1) 2 kg (2) 2 × g kg (1) 2 kg (2) 2 × g kg
(3) 4 × g kg (4) 4 kg (3) 4 × g kg (4) 4 kg
11. A force F is applied to the initially stationary cart. 11. izkjEHk esa fLFkj ,d xkM+h ij F cy yxk;k tkrk gSA le; ds
The variation of force with time is shown in the lkFk cy dk ifjorZu fp= esa iznf'kZr fd;k x;k gAS
figure.
F(N)
F(N)
50N
50N
li c
bo
10 kg F
li c
ra
bo
10 kg F
Pa
t(s)
ra
Pa
t(s) 5s
5s
The speed of cart at t = 5 second is t = 5 lsd.M ij xkM+h dh pky gS :-
(1) 10 m/s (2) 8.33 m/s (1) 10 m/s (2) 8.33 m/s
(3) 2 m/s (4) zero (3) 2 m/s (4) 'kw U;
12. Three forces act on a particle that moves with 12. rhu cy ,d d.k ij yx jgs g Sa ] tks vifjofrZ r os x
r r
unchange velocity v = (3iˆ - 4 ˆj) m/s. If two of the v = (3iˆ - 4 ˆj) m/s ds lkFk xfr'khy g S A nks cy
r r r
forces are F1 = (3iˆ + 2 ˆj - 4k)N
ˆ and F1 = (3iˆ + 2 ˆj - 4k)N
ˆ rFkk F2 = ( -5iˆ + 8ˆj - 3k)N
ˆ
r gS rks rhljk cy gS :-
F2 = ( -5iˆ + 8ˆj - 3k)N
ˆ then the third force is :-
(1) ( -2iˆ + 10 ˆj - 7k)N
ˆ
(1) ( -2iˆ + 10 ˆj - 7k)N
ˆ
(2) (2iˆ – 10ˆj + 7k)N
ˆ
(2) (2iˆ – 10ˆj + 7k)N
ˆ
(3) (7iˆ - 2kˆ + 10 ˆj)N (3) (7iˆ - 2kˆ + 10 ˆj)N
(4) None of these (4) buesas ls dksbZ ugha

13. Two persons are holding a rope of negligible weight 13. nks O;fDr ,d ux.; æO;eku okyh jLlh dks blds fljksa ij
tightly at its ends so that it is horizontal. A 15 kg dl dj idM+ r s gS ftlls ;g {k Sf rt gks tkrh gSA ,d
weight is attached to the rope at the mid point which 15 kg Hkkj jLlh ds e/; fcUnq ij yVdk;k tkrk gS ftlls
now no longer remains horizontal. The minimum ;g vc {kSfrt ugha jgrh gAS jLlh dks ,dne lh/kk djus ds
tension required to completely straighten the rope fy;s vko';d U;wure ruko gS :
is :
15
(1) 15 kg (2) kg
15 2
(1) 15 kg (2) kg
2
(3) 5 kg (4) vuUr :i ls cgqr cM+k
(3) 5 kg (4) Infinitely large
ALLEN
14. Three blocks of mass 1 kg, 4 kg and 2 kg are placed 14. 1 kg, 4 kg o 2 kg nzO;ekuksa okys rhu CykWd fp= esa n'kkZ;s
on a smooth horizontal plane as shown in the figure. vuqlkj ,d fpduh {ksf rt lery lrg ij j[ks gq, gSaA
The contact force between 1 kg block and 4 kg block
1 kg CykWd ,oa 4 kg CykWd ds chp lEidZ cy gS
is
120N 2kg 50N
120N 2kg 50N 1kg 4kg
1kg 4kg
(1) 100 N (2) 120 N (1) 100 N (2) 120 N
(3) 50 N (4) 110 N (3) 50 N (4) 110 N
15. A body of mass 5 kg is acted upon by two 15. 5 kg nzO;eku okyh ,d oLrq ij nks yEcor~ cy 8 N rFkk
perpendicular forces 8 N and 6 N. The magnitude 6N yx jgs gaSA oLrq ds Roj.k dk ifjek.k ,oa fn'kk gS
and direction of the acceleration of the body is :-
(1) 10N, 8N ls 37° ij
(1) 10N, at 37° from 8N
(2) 10N, 6N ls 37° ij
(2) 10N, at 37° from 6N
(3) 20N, 8N ls 53° ij
(3) 20N, at 53° from 8N
(4) 20N, at 53° from 6N (4) 20N, 6N ls 53° ij
16. The pendulum hanging from the ceiling of a railway 16. ,d jsy dk fMCck tc Rofjr gks jgk gS bldh Nr ls yVdk
carriage makes an angle 30° with the vertical when gqvk yksyd m/oZ ls 30° dks.k cukrk gSA fMCcs dk Roj.k
it is accelerating. The acceleration of the carriage is:- gS :-
3 2 3 2
(1) g (2) g (1) g (2) g
2 3 2 3
g g
(3) g 3 (4) (3) g 3 (4)
3 3
17. A block of mass 2 kg is given a push horizontally 17. 2 kg æO;eku okys CykWd dks ,d {kSfrt /kDdk fn;k tkrk
and then the block starts sliding over a horizontal gS vkSj fQj CykWd {kSfrt lery ij fQlyuk izkjEHk dj nsrk
plane. The figure shows the velocity time graph of gAS bl xfr ds fy, osx≤ xzkQ fp= esa iznf'kZr gS lery
the motion. The coefficient of friction between the vkSj CykWd ds chp ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad gS :- (g=10m/s2)
plane and the block is :- (g=10m/s2)
v(m/s)
v(m/s)
8
8
4
4 t(sec.)
t(sec.)
(1) 0.02 (2) 0.2 (3) 0.04 (4) 0.4 (1) 0.02 (2) 0.2 (3) 0.04 (4) 0.4

ALLEN
18. A block of mass 5 kg resting on a horizontal surface 18. {ksfrt lrg ij j[kk gqvk 5 kg nzO;eku okyk ,d CykWd] ?k"kZ.k
is connected by a cord, passing over a light frictionless jfgr f?kjuh ls gksdj xqtj jgh jLlh dh lgk;rk ls yVd jgs
pulley to a hanging block of mass 5 kg. The 5 kg nzO;eku okys CykWd ls tM q +k gv
q k gAS CykWd ,oa lrg
coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and ds chp ?k"kZ.k x.q kkad 0.5 gAS Mksjh es ruko gS (g = 10 m/s2)
the surface is 0.5. Tension in the cord is
(g = 10 m/s2) A
A 5 kg
5 kg
B
5 kg
B
5 kg
(1) 49 N (2) zero (1) 49 N (2) 'kw U;

(3) 37.5 N (4) 12.75 (3) 37.5 N (4) 12.75
19. A piece of ice slides down a 45° incline in twice the 19. cQZ dk ,d VqdM+k 45° vkufr okys ur ry ij uhps fQlyus
time it takes to slide down a frictionless 45° incline. esa 45° vkufr okys ?k"kZ.k jfgr ur ry ij uhps fQlyus dh
What is the coefficient of friction between the ice and rqyuk esa nqxuk le; yxkrk gAS cQZ ,oa vkur ry ds chp ?k"kZ.k
incline ?
xq.kkad dk eku fdruk gS ?
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.50 (3) 0.75 (4) 0.40 (1) 0.25 (2) 0.50 (3) 0.75 (4) 0.40
20. A rocket with a lift-off mass 20000 kg is blasted 20. ,d jkdsV 20000 kg nzO;eku ds lkFk 5.0 ms–2 Roj.k ds
upwards with an initial acceleration of 5.0 ms–2. lkFk mij dh vksj nkxk tkrk gaAS nkxus ds izkjfEHkd mRFkkiu
Calculate the initial thrust (force) of the blast (cy) dh x.kuk dhft;s %&
(g = 10 ms–2) (g = 10 ms–2)
5 5
(1) 10 × 10 N (2) 30 × 10 N (1) 10 × 105 N (2) 30 × 105 N
(3) 3.0 × 105 N (4) 105 N (3) 3.0 × 105 N (4) 105 N
21. A stream of water flowing horizontally with a 21. 10–2m2 vuqizLFk dkV {ks=Qy okyh uyh ls fudy jgh ikuh
speed of 15 ms –1 gushes out of a tube of dh {ks f rt /kkjk 15 ms –1 pky ds lkFk] fudV fLFkr
cross-sectional area 10–2 m2, and hits a vertical wall
m/okZ/kj nhokj ij Vdjkrh gAS ;g ekurs gq, fd bldk izfr{ksi
nearby. What is the force exerted on the wall by the
impact of water, assuming it does not rebound? ugha gksrk gS] nhokj ij yxk;k x;k cy gS :-
(1) 1125 N (2) 4500 N (1) 1125 N (2) 4500 N
(3) 2250 N (4) 225 N (3) 2250 N (4) 225 N
22. A 50 kg boy stands on a platform of spring scale in 22. 50 kg nzO;eku okyk yM+dk] fy¶V esa fLizax rqyk ds IysVQkeZ
a lift that is going down with a constant speed ij [kM+k gqvk gS tks 3 m/s pky ds lkFk uhps dh vksj tk jgh
3 m/s. If the lift is brought to rest by a constant gAS ;fn fy¶V dks 9 m nwjh esa fu;r voeUnu }kjk fojkekoLFkk
deceleration in a distance of 9 m what does the scale
esa yk;k tkrk g]S rks bl dky es ry
q k dk ikB~;kad fdruk gS:-
read during this period ? (g = 9.8 m/s2)
(g = 9.8 m/s2)
(1) 500 N (2) 465 N
(1) 500 N (2) 465 N
(3) 515 N (4) zero (3) 515 N (4) 'kw U;
ALLEN
23. The system is pushed by a force F as shown in figure, 23. fudk; dks fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj cy F ls /kdsyk tkrk g]S
All surface are smooth except between B and C. B o C ds chp dh lrg dks NksM+dj leLr lrgsa fpduh gaSA
Friction coefficient between B and C is m. Minimum B o C ds chp ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad m gAS CykWd B dks uhps fQlyus
value of F to prevent block B from downward ls jksd us ds fy, F dk U;wure eku gS :
slipping is : A B C
A B C F m
2m 2m
F m
2m 2m
æ 3 ö æ 5 ö
æ 3 ö æ 5 ö (1) ç ÷ mg (2) ç ÷ mg
(1) ç ÷ mg (2) ç ÷ mg è 2m ø è 2m ø
è 2m ø è 2m ø
æ5ö æ 3ö
æ5ö æ 3ö (3) ç ÷ mmg (4) ç ÷ mmg
(3) ç ÷ mmg (4) ç ÷ mmg è 2ø è 2ø
è ø
2 è 2ø
24. A car starts from rest. It has to drop a passenger a 24. ,d dkj fojkekoLFkk ls xfr izkjEHk djrh gAS bldks 500 m
distance of 500 m. The coefficient of friction between nwjh ij ;k=h dks mrkjuk gAS ;fn lM+d ,oa Vk;j ds chp ?k"kZ.k
the road and tyre is 0.5. The minimum time in which xq.kkad 0.5 gAS dkj bl nwjh dks U;wure fdrus le; esa r;
the car can cover this distance is (g = 10 m/s2) dj ldrh gS :- (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 20 s (2) 10 s (3) 30 s (4) 15 s (1) 20 s (2) 10 s (3) 30 s (4) 15 s
25. In the figure shown, a person wants to raise a block 25. iznf'kZr fp= esa] ,d O;fDr tehu ij iM+s gq, CykWd dks h
lying on the ground to a height h. In both the cases ÅWpkbZ rd mBkuk pkgrk gAS ;fn nksuks fLFkfr;ksa esa yxus okyk
if time required is the same then in which case he
le; leku g]S rks fdl fLFkfr esa mldks vf/kd cy yxkuk
has to exert more force. Assume pulleys and
strings are light :-
gksxkA f?kjfu;k¡ rFkk Mksjh;k¡ gYdh gSa :-
(i) (ii)
(i) (ii)
(1) (i) (2) (ii)
(1) (i) (2) (ii)
(3) nksuksa fLFkfr;ksa es leku (4) Kkr ugha fd;k tk ldrk gS
(3) same in both (4) Cannot be determined
26. A block of mass 2 kg rests on a rough inclined 26. 2 kg nzO;eku okyk ,d CykWd] {ksfrt ls 30° dks.k ij vkur
plane making an angle of 30° with the horizontal. [kqjnjs ur ry ij j[kk gqvk gAS CYkkWd rFkk ry ds chp ?k"kZ.k
The coefficient of static friction between the block
xq.kkad 0.7 gAS CykWd ij ?k"kZ.k cy gS :-
and the plane is 0.7. The frictional force on the
block is :-
(1) 9.8 N (2) 0.7 × 9.8 × 3N
(1) 9.8 N (2) 0.7 × 9.8 × 3N
(3) 9.8 × 3N (4) 0.7 × 9.8 N
(3) 9.8 × 3N (4) 0.7 × 9.8 N

ALLEN
27. Two forces, one with a magnitude of 3N and the other 27. nks cyksa] ,d dk ifjek.k 3N vkSj nwljs dk ifjek.k 5N dks
with a magnitude of 5N, are applied to an object. For ,d oLrq ij yxk;k tkrk gAS fp=ksa esa n'kkZ;s x;s cyksa ds fdl
which orientations of the forces shown in the diagrams
>qdko ds fy;s oLrq dk Roj.k U;wure gksxk ?
the magnitude of the acceleration of the object is least?
3N 5N
3N 5N (1)
(1)
3N 3N
5N 5N
(2) (2)
3N 3N
5N 5N
(3) (3)
3N 3N
(4) (4)
5N 5N
28. Two masses m and M are attached with strings as 28. nzO;eku m rFkk M n'kkZ;s vuqlkj Mksjh;ksa ls tqM+s gq, gAS bl
shown. For the system to be in equilibrium. fudk; dh lkE;koLFkk ds fy;s :-
M q M q
45° 45° 45° 45°
Om Om
2M 2m 2M 2m
(1) tan q = 1 + (2) tan q = 1 + (1) tan q = 1 + (2) tan q = 1 +
m M m M
M m M m
(3) tan q = 1 + (4) tan q = 1 + (3) tan q = 1 + (4) tan q = 1 +
2m 2M 2m 2M
29. For the shown situation; the time interval for which 29. n'kkZ;h xbZ ifjfLFkfr ds fy;s] ?k"kZ.k fdl le;kUrjky rd
friction will act will be :- fØ;k'khy jgsxk :-
m = 0.2 m = 0.2
10 kg u = 12 m/s 10 kg u = 12 m/s
m=0 m=0
20 kg u=0 20 kg u=0
(1) 6 s (2) 4 s (1) 6 s (2) 4 s

(3) 8 s (4) None of these (3) 8 s (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

ALLEN
30. Two blocks A and B each of mass m are placed on 30. nks CykWd A o B, izR;sd dk nzO;eku m] fpduh {ksfrt lrg
a smooth horizontal surface. Two horizontal force F ij j[ks gq, gaAS CykWdksa A o B ij nks {ksfrt cy Øe'k% F
and 2 F are applied on the blocks A and B respectively rFkk 2 F fp= esa n'kkZ;s vuqlkj yxk;s tkrs gaAS CykWd A, CykWd
as shown in figure. The block A does not slide on B ij fQlyrk ugha gAS rks nksuks CykWdksa ds chp vfHkyEcor~
block B. Then the normal reaction acting between
izfrfØ;k gS :-
the two blocks is :-
A B
A B
F m m 2F
F m m 2F
30°
30°
F F F
F (1) F (2) (3) (4) 3 F
(1) F (2) (3) (4) 3 F 2 3
2 3
31. An object of mass 2 kg moving with constant velocity 31. fu;e osx 10iˆ m / s ds lkFk xfr'khy funsZ'k ra= esa ns[kus ij
is seen in a frame moving with constant velocity 2kg nzO;eku okyh oLrq fu;r osx ls xfr'khy izfs {kr gksrh gAS
10iˆ m / s . The value of 'pseudo force' acting on object bl funsZ'k ra= esa oLrq ij 'vkHkklh cy' gS :
in this frame will be : (1) 20 N (2) 'kw U; (3) 10 N (4) 2 N
(1) 20 N (2) zero (3) 10 N (4) 2 N
32. The breaking strength of the cable used to pull a body 32. ,d oLrq dks [khapus ds fy;s iz;qDr dscy dh rksM+u {kerk
is 40 N. A body of mass 8 kg is resting on a table 40 N gAS 0.20 ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad okyh Vscy ij 8kg nzO;eku
of coefficient of friction 0.20. The maximum
okyh oLrq j[kh gqbZ gAS dscy }kjk mRiUu fd;k tk ldus okyk
acceleration which can be produced by the cable is
(Take g = 10 ms–2) vf/kdre Roj.k g:S - (Take g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 6 ms–2 (2) 3 ms–2 (3) 8 ms–2 (4) 5 ms–2 (1) 6 ms–2 (2) 3 ms–2 (3) 8 ms–2 (4) 5 ms–2
33. A man of mass m has fallen into a ditch of width 33. m nzO;eku okyk ,d O;fDr d xgjk;h okys [kM~Ms esa fxj x;k
d. Two of his friends are slowly pulling him out gaS mlds nks fe=] n'kkZ;s vuqlkj nks fLFkj f?kjfu;ksa ls gksdj xqtj
using a light rope and two fixed pulleys as shown jgh Hkkjghu jLlh;ksa dh lgk;rk ls /khjs &/khjs mldks ckgj [khaprs
in figure. Both the friends exert force of equal
gaSA nksuks fe= leku ifjek.k okys cy F yxkrs gaAS
magnitudes F.
d
d
When the man is at a depth h, the value of F is tc O;fDr h xgjk;h ij g]S F dk eku gS :-
mg 2 mg 2
(1) d + 4h 2 (2) hmg (1) d + 4h 2 (2) hmg
4h 4h
mg 2 mg 2
(3) dmg (4) h + d2 (3) dmg (4) h + d2
2h 2h
ALLEN
34. A person 'A' is walking on a trolley with an 34. ,d O;fDr 'A' 'VªkWyh' ij 2iˆ m / s2 Roj.k ds lkFk py jgk
acceleration of 2iˆ m / s2 . The mass of the person is
gAS O;fDr dk nzO;eku 50 kg gAS VªkWyh IysVQkeZ ij -3iˆ m / s
50 kg. The trolley is being moved on a platform with
velocity of -3iˆ m / s and the platform is moving on osx ds lkFk xfr dj jgh gS vkjS IysVQkeZ tehu ij -5iˆ m / s2
ground with an acceleration of -5iˆ m / s2 . Then the Roj.k ds lkFk xfr dj jgk gAS rks VªkWyh] IysVQkeZ rFkk tehu
pseudo forces on person when viewed from trolley, ls ns[kus ij O;fDr ij yx jgs vkHkklh cy gaS Øe'k% :-
platform and ground are respectively :-
(1) -100 î, 150 î rFkk - 250 î

(1) -100 î, 150 î & - 250 î
(2) 250 î, 250 î rFkk 'kwU;
(2) 250 î, 250 î & zero
(3) -100 î, zero & - 250 î (3) -100 î , 'kwU; rFkk - 250 î
(4) -250 î, - 250 î & zero (4) -250 î, - 250 î rFkk 'kwU;
35. A block is placed on a rough horizontal plane attached 35. fp= esa n'kkZ;s vul
q kj izR;kLFk fLIkzax ls tM
q +k gqvk ,d CykWd
an elastic spring as shown in the figure. [kqjnjs {ksfrt ry ij j[kk gqvk gAS
(a) (b) (a) (b)

q q
Initially, spring is unstretched. If the plane is now iz k jEHk es a ] fLiz a x fcuk f[ka p h gqbZ g SA vc ;fn ry dks
gradually lifted from q = 0° to q = 90°, then the
/khjs &/khjs q = 0° ls q = 90° rd mij mBk;k tkrk g]S dks.k
graph showing expansion in the spring (x) versus
angle (q) is (q) ds lkFk fLizax ds foLRkkj dks n'kkZus okyk xzkQ gAS
x x x
x
(1) (2) (1) (2)

q q q
q
x x x x
(3) (4) (3) (4)

q q q q

ALLEN
36. If the elevator in the shown figure is moving upwards 36. ;fn fp= esa iznf'kZr fy¶V 1 m/s2 fu;r Roj.k ds lkFk mij
with constant acceleration 1 m/s2, the tension in the dh vksj tk jgh gks] 6 kg nzO;eku okys CykWd A ls tM
q +h gbq Z
string connected to block A of mass 6 kg would be 2
Mksjh esa ruko gksxs k (g = 10 m/s )
(g = 10 m/s2)
2 2
1 m/s 1 m/s
A A
(1) 60 N (2) 66 N (3) 54 N (4) 42 N (1) 60 N (2) 66 N (3) 54 N (4) 42 N

37. A flat car is given an acceleration a0 = 2m/s2 starting 37. ,d lery dkj dks fojkekoLFkk ls iz k jEHk djds
from rest. A cable is connected to a crate of weight a0 = 2m/s2 Roj.k iznku fd;k tkrk gSA fp= esa n'kkZ;s x;s
50 kg as shown whose other end is attached to a fixed 50kg ds ØsV ls ,d dscy tqM+h gqbZ gS ftldk nwljk fljk
support on ground. Neglect friction between the floor
tehu ij ,d n`<+ vk/kkj ls tqM+k gqvk gAS Q'kZ ,oa dkj ds
ifg;ksa ds chp ?k"kZ.k] vkSj lkFk gh f?kjuh dk nzO;eku Hkh ux.;
and the car wheels and also the mass of the pulley.
eku yhft;sA ;fn ØsV vkSj dkj ds Q'kZ ds chp m = 0.30
calculate corresponding tension in the cable if gS rks dscy esa ruko dh x.kuk dhft;s :-
m = 0.30 between the crate and the floor of the car.
a0
a0
(1) 350 N (2) 250 N (1) 350 N (2) 250 N

(3) 300 N (4) Zero (3) 300 N (4) 'kw U;
38. The value of mass m for which 100 kg block remains 38. æO;eku m dk og eku ftlds fy;s 100 kg dk CykWd LFkfS rd
in static equilibrium is :- lkE;koLFkk esa jgs :-
m m
0
0
10
10
m =0.3 37° m =0.3 37°
(1) 35 kg (2) 37 kg (1) 35 kg (2) 37 kg

(3) 88 kg (4) 85 kg (3) 88 kg (4) 85 kg
39. Block B moves to the right with a constant velocity 39. CykWd B, fu;r osx v0 ds lkFk nk;ha vksj xfr dj jgk gAS B
v0. The velocity of body A relative to B is :- ds lkis{k A dk osx gksxk :-
v0 v0
A B A B
v0 v0 v0 v0
(1) , towards left (2) , towards right (1) , ck;ha vksj (2) , nk;ha vksj
2 2 2 2
3v 0 3v 0 3v 0 3v 0
(3) , towards left (4) , towards right (3) , ck;ha vksj (4) , nk;ha vksj
2 2 2 2
ALLEN
40. In the given diagram, floor is frictionless while friction 40. fn;s x;s fp= esa] Q'kZ ?k"kZ.k jfgr g]S tcfd CykWdksa ds chp
is present between blocks. If mA : mB : mC is 1 : 2 : ?k"kZ.k fo|eku gAS ;fn mA : mB : mC dk eku 1 : 2 : 3 g]S
3, minimum value of m for which block A does not slip m dk og U;wure eku ftlds fy, CykWd A, CykWd B ds lkis{k
relative to block B is :- fQlys ugha :-
A A
B B
C C
1 1 1 2 1 1 1 2
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2) (3) (4)
6 3 2 3 6 3 2 3
41. A rope of length L and mass M is hanging from a 41. L yEckbZ ,oa M nzO;eku okyh ,d jLlh n`<+ vk/kkj ls yVd
rigid support. The tension in the rope at a distance jgh gAS n`<+ vk/kkj ls x nwjh ij jLlh esa ruko gS :-
x from the rigid support is :-
æ L-xö
æ L-xö (1) Mg (2) ç ÷ Mg
(1) Mg (2) ç ÷ Mg è L ø
è L ø
æ L ö x æ L ö x
(3) ç ÷ Mg (4) Mg (3) ç ÷ Mg (4) Mg
è L-xø L è L-xø L
42. Two blocks masses of 1 kg and 5 kg are attached 42. 1 kg rFkk 5 kg nzO;ekuksa okys nks CykWd] ux.; Hkkj okyh f?kjuh
to the ends of a massless string passing over a pulley ls gksdj xqtj jgh nzO;ekughu Mksjh ds fljksa ij tM q +s gq , gaAS
of negligible weight. The pulley itself is attached to f?kjuh Loa; fp= esa n'kkZ;s vulq kj ,d fLiazx rqyk ls tqM+h gbq Z
a spring balance as shown in figure. The blocks start gAS CykWd xfr izkjEHk djrs gaS] bl vUrjky esa fLizax ry q k dk
moving, during this interval; the reading to spring ikB~;kad gS :-
balance will be :-
1 kg
1 kg 5 kg
5 kg
(1) 6 kg ls vf/kd
(1) More than 6 kg (2) 6 kg ls de
(2) Less than 6 kg
(3) Equal to 6 kg (3) 6 kg ds cjkcj
(4) None of the above (4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

ALLEN
43. The acceleration of the 2 kg block if the free end of 43. ;fn Mksjh dk eqä fljk] n'kkZ;s vuqlkj 20N cy ds lkFk [khapk
string is pulled with a force of 20 N as shown is :- tkrk g]S 2 kg CykWd esa Roj.k gS :-
F = 20 N F = 20 N
2 kg 2 kg
(1) zero (1) zero

(2) 10 m/s2 (2) 10 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2 upward (3) 5 m/s2 mij dh vksj
(4) 5 m/s2 downward (4) 5 m/s2 uhps dh vksj
44. The graph below shows momentum p, versus time 44. ,d vUrfj{k ;ku tc varfj{k esa blds batu nkxrk g]S le;
t, for a spacecraft while it is firing its rocket engines ds lkis{k blds laoxs dk xzkQ uhps fp= esa n'kkZ;k x;k gAS
in space.
p
p
t
t
bl xzkQ dk >qdko D;k O;Dr djrk gS ?
What does the slope of this graph represent ?
(1) varfj{k ;ku dk nzO;eku
(1) the mass of the spacecraft
(2) varfj{k ;ku dk osx
(2) the velocity of the spacecraft
(3) the net force on the spacecraft (3) varfj{k ;ku ij dqy cy
(4) the work done on the spacecraft (4) varfj{k ;ku ij fd;k x;k dk;Z
45. In the arrangement shown in the figure, the pulley 45. fp= esa iznf'kZr O;oLFkk esa] f?kjuh dk nzO;eku 9 kg gAS lEidZ
has a mass 9 kg. Neglecting friction on the contact lrg ij ?k"kZ.k ux.; ekurs gq,] vk/kkj iznku djus okyh jLlh
surface, the force exerted by the supporting rope
AB }kjk Nr ij yxk;k tk jgk cy gS :- (g = 10 ms–2)
AB on the ceiling is (g = 10 ms–2)
A
A
B
B
3kg
3kg 6kg
6kg
(1) 170 N (2) 85 N
(1) 170 N (2) 85 N
(3) 340 N (4) 80 N
(3) 340 N (4) 80 N

ALLEN
TOPIC : Classification of Elements And Periodicity In Properties
46. "Lother Meyer" Curve was plotted against :- 46. "yksFkj es;j oØ fduds e/; [khapk x;kA
(1) atomic number v/s melting point (1) ijek.kq Øekad Hkkj v/s xyukad
(2) atomic volume v/s boiling point (2) ijekf.od vk;ru v/s DoFkukad
(3) atomic weight v/s atomic volume (3) ijek.kq Hkkj v/s ijek.kq vk;ru
(4) atomic number v/s atomic weight (4) ijek.kq Øekad v/s ijek.kq Hkkj
47. Which of the following is correct statement :- 47. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk dFku lR; gS :-
(1) Li is a bridge element (1) Li ,d lsrq rRo gS
(2) Z = 95 is a transuranic element (2) Z = 95 ,d ijk;wjsfud rRp gS
(3) Hg is a liquid element (3) Hg ,d æoh; rRo gS
(4) All of the above (4) mijksDr lHkh
48. Correct increasing order of energy of subshell for 5th 48. 5 osa vkorZ ds fy, midks'kksa dh ÅtkZ ds eku esa c<+rk Øe
period :- gS :-
(1) 5s, 4f, 4d, 5p (2) 5s, 5p, 5d, 5f (1) 5s, 4f, 4d, 5p (2) 5s, 5p, 5d, 5f
(3) 5s, 4d, 5p (4) 5s, 4p, 5p (3) 5s, 4d, 5p (4) 5s, 4p, 5p
49. Correct electronic configuration of atomic number 49. ijek.kq Øeka d 115 okys rRo dk bysD Vª k W f ud foU;kl
115 :- gS:-
(1) [Rn] 4f14 5d10 7s2 7p3 (1) [Rn] 4f14 5d10 7s2 7p3
(2) [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p3 (2) [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p3
(3) [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p6 (3) [Rn] 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p6
(4) [Rn] 5f14 6d10 6s2 6p3 (4) [Rn] 5f14 6d10 6s2 6p3
50. Select the correct statement :- 50. lR; dFku dks pqfu;s :-
(1) p-block consists of seven group (1) p-CykWd esa lkr oxZ gksrs gS
(2) All Noble gas are of p-block elements (2) lHkh vfØ; xl
S p-CykWd ds rRo gS
(3) Outermost shell configuration for p-block is ns2
(3) p-CykWd ds rRo dk ckáre dks"k dk foU;kl ns2 ls ns2
to ns2 np6
(4) General configuration for chalcogen family is np6 gksrk gS
ns2np4 (4) pkYdkstu ifjokj dk lkekU; foU;kl ns2np4 gS
51. Which of the following is incorrect match for the 51. fuEufyf[kr esa ls vkorZ lkj.kh esa rRoksa dh fLFkfr dk lgh feyku
position of element in periodic table :- ugha gS :-
(1) [Ar] 3d5 4s1 ® 4th period, 6th group (1) [Ar] 3d5 4s1 ® 4th vkorZ, 6th oxZ
(2) [Kr] 4d10 5s1 ® 5th period, 12th group (2) [Kr] 4d10 5s1 ® 5th vkorZ, 12th oxZ
(3) [Rn] 5f4 6d1 7s2 ® 7th period, 3rd group (3) [Rn] 5f4 6d1 7s2 ® 7th vkorZ, 3rd oxZ
(4) [Xe] 4f14 5d2 6s2® 6th period, 4th group (4) [Xe] 4f14 5d2 6s2® 6th vkorZ, 4th oxZ
52. Number of electrons in penultimate shell of 52. d-CykWd rFkk f-CykWd ds rRoksa esa mikUR; dks"k esa bysDVªkWu dh
d-block element & f-block elements are respectively:- la[;k Øe'k% gS :-
(1) 1-10 & 1-14 (2) 9-18 & 19-32 (1) 1-10 & 1-14 (2) 9-18 & 19-32
(3) 1-18 & 9-32 (4) 9-18 & 8-9 (3) 1-18 & 9-32 (4) 9-18 & 8-9
53. Among Cr, Cu,Br, Ag, Fe & S total number of 53. Cr, Cu,Br, Ag, Fe rFkk S esa fdrus rRo gSA ftuds bysDVªkWuh;
element for which configuration does not violates foU;kl esa vkQckÅ fl¼kUr dh vogsyuk dh x;h gS :-
aufbau principle are :-
(1) 5 (2) 4
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 2 (3) 3 (4) 2
ALLEN
54. Maximum number of electrons in outermost shell of 54. s, p, d rFkk f CykW d rRoks a ds ckáre dks " k esa Øe'k%
s, p, d, f block elements respectively :- vf/kdre bysDVªkWuksa dh la[;k gksxh :-
(1) 2,8,2,2 (2) 2,6,10,14 (1) 2,8,2,2 (2) 2,6,10,14
(3) 2,8,18,32 (4) 2,8,10,8 (3) 2,8,18,32 (4) 2,8,10,8
55. If the value of Zeff for boron is x. Then the value of 55. ;fn cks j ks u dk Z eff x gS rks vkW D lhtu dk Z ef f
Zeff for oxygen will be :- gksxk :-
(1) x + 0.65 (2) x + 1.30 (1) x + 0.65(2) x + 1.30
(3) x + 1.95 (4) x + 1.05 (3) x + 1.95(4) x + 1.05
56. The radii of F, F–, O, O–2 are in the order of :- 56. F, F–, O, O–2 dh f=T;k dk Øe gS :-
(1) O–2 > F– > F > O (2) F– > O–2 > O > F (1) O–2 > F– > F > O (2) F– > O–2 > O > F
(3) O–2 > F– > O > F (4) O > F > F– > O–2 (3) O–2 > F– > O > F (4) O > F > F– > O–2
57. Electron addition would be easiest in :- 57. bysDVªkWu dk tqM+uk fdlesa ljyre gS :-
(1) O (2) O+ (3) O–2 (4) O+2 (1) O (2) O+ (3) O–2 (4) O+2
58. Which of the following order of ionization energy 58. fuEufyf[kr esa ls vk;uu ÅtkZ dk lgh Øe gS :-
is correct :- (1) K+ > Cu+ > Cu > K
(1) K+ > Cu+ > Cu > K
(2) Cu+ > K+ > Cu > K
(2) Cu+ > K+ > Cu > K
(3) K+ > Cu+ > K > Cu (3) K+ > Cu+ > K > Cu
(4) Cu+ > K+ > K > Cu (4) Cu+ > K+ > K > Cu
59. Which of the following process involve maximum 59. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl izØe esa lokZf/kd ÅtkZ dk vo'kks"k.k
adsorption of energy :- gksrk gS :-
(1) O+ ® O+2 (2) O– ® O (1) O+ ® O+2 (2) O– ® O
(3) O ® O
–2 –
(4) O+2 ® O+3 (3) O–2 ® O– (4) O+2 ® O+3
60. In the formation of a fluoride ion, from an isolated 60. foyfxr xSl h ; ¶yks j hu ijek.kq ls ¶yks j kbM vk;u ds
gaseous fluorine atom, 328 KJ/mol energy is released, fuekZ.k esa 328 KJ/mol ÅtkZ mRlftZr gksrh gS tks cjkcj
which would be equal to :- gksrk gS:-
(1) EA of F– (1) F– ds EA ds
(2) Ionisation potential of F– (2) F– ds vk;uu foHko ds
(3) EN of F– (3) EN dh F –
(4) Ionisation potential of F (4) F ds vk;uu foHko ds
61. The electronic configuration of four elements are 61. pkj rRoksa ds bysDVªk Wf ud foU;kl uhps fn;s x;s gSA rRoksa
given below. Arrange these elements in the correct dks mudh bys D Vª k W u ca / kq r k ds lgh Øe es a O;ofLFkr
order of their electron affinity :- dhft;s :-
(i) 1s2, 2s2, 2p4 (i) 1s2, 2s2, 2p4
(ii) 1s2, 2s2, 2p5 (ii) 1s2, 2s2, 2p5
(iii) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2, 3p4 (iii) 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2, 3p4
(iv) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s23p5 (iv) 1s2,2s22p6, 3s23p5
(1) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i) (1) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(2) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) (2) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)
(3) (iv) > (ii) > (iii) > (i) (3) (iv) > (ii) > (iii) > (i)
(4) (ii) > (i) > (iv) > (iii) (4) (ii) > (i) > (iv) > (iii)
62. Compare IE3 of Mn, Cr :- 62. Mn rFkk Cr ds fy, IE3 dh rqyuk djsa %&
(1) Mn > Cr (2) Mn < Cr (1) Mn > Cr (2) Mn < Cr
(3) Mn = Cr (4) None (3) Mn = Cr (4) dksbZ ugha

ALLEN
63. Which is correct order of ionisation energy :- 63. vk;uu ÅtkZ dk lgh Øe gS %&
(1) O– > O > S– > S (2) O > S > S– > O– (1) O– > O > S– > S (2) O > S > S– > O–
(3) O > S > O– > S– (4) O– > S– > O > S (3) O > S > O– > S– (4) O– > S– > O > S
64. Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the order of 64. Ca, Mg, P rFkk Cl, rRoksa esa ijek.kq f=T;k dk c<+rk gqvk
increasing atomic radii is :- Øe gS :-
(1) Cl < P < Mg < Ca (1) Cl < P < Mg < Ca
(2) P < Cl < Ca < Mg (2) P < Cl < Ca < Mg
(3) Ca < Mg < P < Cl (3) Ca < Mg < P < Cl
(4) Mg < Ca < Cl < P (4) Mg < Ca < Cl < P
65. IE values of an element : 284, 412, 656, 3210, the number 65. ,d rRo ds IE ds eku 284, 412, 656, 3210 gaSA rRo esa
of valence electron in element will be : la;ksth bysDVªkWuksa dh la[;k gksxh &
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
66. The increasing order of the first ionization enthalpies 66. Li, P, S ,oa F dh izFke vk;uu ÅtkZ dk c<+rk gqvk Øe
of the elements Li, P, S and F (lowest first) is :- D;k gksxk :-
(1) F < S < P < Li (2) P < S < Li < F (1) F < S < P < Li (2) P < S < Li < F
(3) Li < P < S < F (4) Li < S < P < F (3) Li < P < S < F (4) Li < S < P < F
67. Select the correct statement 67. lgh dFku dks pqfu,
(1) EA of 'N' is much higher than that of its (1) 'N' dh EA mlds iM+ k s l h rRoks a C rFkk O ls
neighboring element C and O. vR;f/kd vf/kd gS
(2) EA of F is higher than that of Cl. (2) Cl dh vis{kk F dh EA vf/kd gksrh gS
(3) Second EA is an endothermic process. (3) f}rh; EA m"ek'kks"kh izØe gS
(4) EN of half filled stable configuration is more than (4) v¼Z Hkjs LFkk;h foU;kl okys rRo dh EN mlds iM+kl
s h
its neighbouring element. rRo dh vis{kk vf/kd gksrh gAS
68. Which of following is amphoteric :- 68. fuEu esa dkSu mHk;/kehZ gS :-
(1) MnO (2) Mn2O7 (3) Al2O3 (4) FeO (1) MnO (2) Mn2O7 (3) Al2O3 (4) FeO
69. Which of the following process is endothermic ? 69. buesa ls dkuS lk izØe mG"ek'kks"kh gS ?
(1) Ne(g) + e1 ® Ne– (2) N(g) + e1 ® N– (1) Ne(g) + e1 ® Ne– (2) N(g) + e1 ® N–
(3) Be(g) + e1 ® Be– (4) All are endothermic (3) Be(g) + e1 ® Be– (4) lHkh izØe mG"ek'kks"kh gS
70. What is ionic percentage of XY, where E.N. value 70. XY dk vk;fud izfr'kr D;k gS] tgk¡ X dh E.N. dk eku
of X = 2.1 and Y = 3.0 :- = 2.1 rFkk Y dh E.N. dk eku = 3.0 gS :-
(1) 20 (2) 30 (3) 17 (4) 23 (1) 20 (2) 30 (3) 17 (4) 23
71. Which of following species are isoelectronic but the 71. fuEu esa dkuS lebysDVªkWfud gS rFkk igyh Lih'kht vkdkj esa
first one is large in size :- cM+h gS :-
(1) S –2, O–2 (2) Cl –, S–2 (1) S –2, O–2 (2) Cl –, S–2
(3) N–3, P –3 (4) Cl–, K+ (3) N–3, P –3 (4) Cl–, K+
72. 2nd I.P. would be :- 72. f}rh; vk;uu foHko gksxk :-
(1) Equal to 1st I.P. but greater than 3rd I.P. (1) izFke vk;uu foHko ds rqY; ysfdu > r`rh; vk;uu foHko
(2) Less than 1st I.P. but greater than 3rd I.P. (2) < izFke vk;uu foHko ysfdu > r`rh; vk;uu foHko
(3) Greater than 1st I.P. but less than 3rd I.P. (3) > izFke vk;uu foHko ysfdu < r`rh; vk;uu foHko
(4) Equal to 1st and 2nd I.P. (4) izFke o r`rh; vk;uu foHko ds rqY;

ALLEN
73. Correct trend of first ionisation energy in 73. oxZ–13 ds izFke vk;uu ÅtkZ dk Øe gS :
group-13 is : (1) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl
(1) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl
(2) B > Al > Ga > Tl > In
(2) B > Al > Ga > Tl > In
(3) B > Tl > Ga > Al > In
(3) B > Tl > Ga > Al > In
(4) B > Ga > Al > In > Tl (4) B > Ga > Al > In > Tl
74. O(g) + 2e ® O2–(g), E = + 744.4 kJ/mole. The positive 74. O(g) + 2e ® O2–(g), E = + 744.4 kJ/mole.
value of E is due to :- E.A. ds /kukRed eku dk dkj.k gS :-
(1) Energy is needed to add on 1 electron to O (1) O ij ,d 'e' tksM+us ds fy, ÅtkZ dh vko';drk gksxh
(2) Energy is needed to add on 1 electron to O–1 (2) O–1 ij 'e' tksM+us ds fy, ÅtkZ dh vko';drk gksxh
(3) Energy is released to add on 1 electron to O–1 (3) O–1 ij ,d 'e' tksM+us lss ÅtkZ eqDr gksxh
(4) None of the above are correct (4) mijksDr esa ls dksbZ ugha
75. If bond length of Cl 2 and H 2 respectively 75. ;fn Cl2 rFkk H2 dh ca/k yEckbZ Øe'k% 2.0 Å rFkk 1.0 Å
2.0 Å and 1.0 Å then calculate bond length of HCl. gSa rc HCl dh ca / k yEckbZ Kkr dhft,A
(E.N. of Cl = 3.0, EN of H = 2.1) (Cl dh fo|qr½.krk = 3.0, H dh fo|qr½.krk = 2.1)
(1) 1.4 (2) 2.4 (3) 1.6 (4) 1.8 (1) 1.4 (2) 2.4 (3) 1.6 (4) 1.8
76. Incorrect match ? 76. xyr feyku gS &
I.P. Reason I.P. dkj.k
Half filled v¼Ziwfjr foU;kl
(A) N>O (A) N>O
configuration
(B) Zr < Hf ysUFksukbM+ ladqpu
(B) Zr < Hf Lanthanoid contraction
(C) Na > K Zeff (C) Na > K Zeff
(D) Al < Ga Transition contraction (D) Al < Ga laØe.k ladqpu

(1) only A (2) A, B, D (1) dsoy A (2) A, B, D
(3) Only C (4) Only C, D (3) dsoy C (4) dsoy C, D
– +
77. (A) M (g) ¾® M (g) (B) M (g) ¾® M (g) 77. –
(A) M (g) ¾® M (g) +
(B) M (g) ¾® M (g)
(C) M +(g) ¾® M(g)

2+
(D) M2(g)+ ¾® M3(g)
+
(C) M +(g) ¾® M(g)
2+
(D) M2(g)+ ¾® M3(g)
+
Minimum and maximum I.P. would be : U;wure rFkk vf/kdre IP Øe'k% gksxsa &
(1) A, B (2) B, C (3) C, D (4) A, D (1) A, B (2) B, C (3) C, D (4) A, D
78. If electronegativity of element A,B,C & D are 1.2, 78. ;fn rRo A,B,C rFkk D rRoks a dh oS| q r ½.krk
3, 1.8 & 2.8 respectively then which of the following 1.2, 3, 1.8 rFkk 2.8 Øe'k% gSA rks fuEu esa ls dkSulk gkbMªkDW lkbM
hydroxide is most basic in nature in aqueous
solution:- tyh; foy;u esa vf/kdre {kkjh; izd`fr dk gksxk :-
(1) A-O-H (2) B-O-H (1) A-O-H (2) B-O-H
(3) C-O-H (4) D-O-H (3) C-O-H (4) D-O-H
79. Among Al2O3, SiO2, P2O5 & SO3, the correct order 79. Al2O3, SiO2, P2O5 rFkk SO3 esa vEyh; lkeF;Zrk dk lgh
of acidic strength is :- Øe gS :-
(1) Al2O3 < SiO2 < SO3 < P2O5 (1) Al2O3 < SiO2 < SO3 < P2O5
(2) SiO2 < SO3 < Al2O3 < P2O5 (2) SiO2 < SO3 < Al2O3 < P2O5
(3) SO3 < P2O5 < SiO2 < Al2O3 (3) SO3 < P2O5 < SiO2 < Al2O3
(4) Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O5 < SO3 (4) Al2O3 < SiO2 < P2O5 < SO3
ALLEN
80. Which of the following pairs; generally show reverse 80. vkorhZ xq . kks a dk ;q X e tks vkorZ esa ck¡ ; s ls nk¡ ; s rFkk oxZ
properties on moving along a period from left to right es a mGij ls uhps tkus ij lkekU;r;k foifjr Øe ,d nwljs
& from top to bottom in a group from each other? ls iz n f'kZ r djrk gS ?
(1) Zeff & E.A. (2) A.R. & E.A. (1) Zeff o E.A. (2) A.R. o E.A.
(3) I.E. & E.A. (4) None (3) I.E. o E.A. (4) dksbZ ugha
81. Which of the following have different value of EN 81. fdl RkRo dh ikWfyax Ldssay ij EN dk eku fHkUu gS :-
on Pauling scale :- (1) P (2) H
(1) P (2) H (3) S (4) Te (3) S (4) Te
82. Which of the following will not expect to react with 82. fuEufyf[kr eaas ls dkuS lk vkWDlkbM lksfM;e gkbMªkWDlkbM ls
Sodium hydroxide :- vfHkfØ;k ugh djsxk :-
(1) CaO (2) SiO2 (3) Al2O3 (4) CO2 (1) CaO (2) SiO2 (3) Al2O3 (4) CO2
83. Which of the following is not concerned to effective 83. fuEu fyf[kr esa ls dkuS lk izHkkoh ukfHkdh; vkos'k ds lUnHkZ
nuclear charge? esa lR; ugha gS ?
(1) Higher ionization potential of carbon than boron.
(1) dkcZu dk cksjksu ls mPp vk;uu foHko
(2) Higher ionization potential of magnesium than
Aluminium. (2) eXS uhf'k;e dk ,Y;wehfu;e ls mPp vk;uu foHko
(3) Higher values of successive ionization energy. (3) Øekxr vk;uu ÅtkZ ds mPp eku
(4) Higher electronegativity of higher oxidation state. (4) mPp vkDlhdj.k voLFkk dh mPp oS/kqr ½.krk
84. First electron affinity of an element is : 84. fdlh rRo dh izFke bysDVªkWu ca/kqrk gksrh gS :
(1) Generally exothermic (1) lkekU;r;k m"ek{ksih
(2) Endothermic for few elements (2) dqN rRoksa ds fy, m"ek'kks"kh
(3) Exothermic for insert gas elements (3) vfØ; xl S rRoksa ds fy, m"ek{ksih
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) (1) ,oa (2) nksuksa
85. Which of the following diagrams shows correct 85. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk ca/k dh /kzqoh;rk dks lgh ls fu#fir
change in the polarity of bond ? djrk gS ?
Decrease
O—H Cl—H Decrease
O—H Cl—H
(1) Decrease Increase (1) Decrease Increase
Decrease
S—H F—H Decrease
S—H F—H
Decrease
O—H Cl—H
(2) Increase Decrease (2) Increase Decrease
Decrease
S—H F—H
Increase
O—H Cl—H Increase
O—H Cl—H
(3) Decrease Increase (3) Decrease Increase
Decrease
S—H F—H
Decrease
O—H Cl—H
(4) Increase Increase (4) Increase Increase
Decrease
S—H F—H

ALLEN
86. Total number of elements of 5th period which have 86. 5th vkorZ esa ,d ;k ,d ls vf/kd 5d bysDVªkWu j[kus okys
one or more than one 5d electrons :- rRo gksaxs :-
(1) 10 (2) 16 (1) 10 (2) 16
(3) 30 (4) zero (3) 30 (4) 'kw U;
87. Which of the following statements is/are wrong :- 87. fuEu esa dkSu lk dFku xyr gAS
(1) Vander waal's radius of iodine is more than its (1) vk;ksMhu dh oka Mj oky f=T;k lg la;kstd f=T;k ls
covalent radius. vf/kd gSA
(2) All iso–electronic ions belongs to the same period (2) lHkh lebysDVªkWfud vk;u vkoZr lkfj.kh ds leku vkoZr
of periodic table. ls lEc/k j[krk gAS
(3) IE1 of N > O but IE2 of O > N. (3) N dk IE1 > O tcfd O dk IE2 > N.
(4) Electron gain enthalpy of N is +ve while that of s u dh e– xzg.k ,sUFksyih yxHkx +ve gksrh g]S tcfd
(4) ukbVªkt
P is –ve P dh –ve gksrh gAS
88. 88.
Column-I Column-II Column-I Column-II
(Type of elements) (Outer electronic confi.) (rRo ds iz dkj) (ckg~ ; bysD VkWf ud foU;kl )
(A) Inert gas (P) ns1–2 np0–5
(A) vfØ; xSl rRo (P) ns1–2 np0–5
elements
(B) Representative (Q) 1s2 and ns2 np6 (B) çfrfuf/k rRo (Q) 1s2 and ns2 np6
elements
(C) laØe.k rRo (R) (n–2)f1–14 (n–1)d0–1 ns2
(C) Transition (R) (n–2)f1–14 (n–1)d0–1 ns2
elements (D) vkUrfjd laØe.k (S) (n–1)d1–10 ns0–2
(D) Inner transition (S) (n–1)d1–10 ns0–2 rRo
elements
lgh feyku g&S
Correct match is :-
(1) (A) ® (P); (B) ® (Q); (C) ® (R); (D) ® (S)
(1) (A) ® (P); (B) ® (Q); (C) ® (R); (D) ® (S)
(2) (A) ® (Q); (B) ® (P); (C) ® (R); (D) ® (S)
(2) (A) ® (Q); (B) ® (P); (C) ® (R); (D) ® (S)
(3) (A) ® (Q); (B) ® (P); (C) ® (S); (D) ® (R) (3) (A) ® (Q); (B) ® (P); (C) ® (S); (D) ® (R)
(4) (A) ® (Q); (B) ® (S); (C) ® (Q); (D) ® (R) (4) (A) ® (Q); (B) ® (S); (C) ® (Q); (D) ® (R)
89. Pair for which electron addition in both the atom are 89. ;qXe ftlesa nksuksa ijek.kqvksa esa bysDVªkWu dk tqM+uk m"ek'kks"kh
endothermic :- izØe gS :-
(1) N, O (2) Be, F (1) N, O (2) Be, F
(3) N, Ne (4) B, C (3) N, Ne (4) B, C
– –
90. 'N' after gaining 3e to achieve inert gas configuration 90. 'N' 3e xzg.k dj vfØ; xl
S foU;kl izkIr dj ysrk gAS vr%
I.P. of N–3 will be. 3–
N dk I.P. gksxk
(1) Slightely less than N (1) N ls FkksM+k de
(2) Slightely more than N (2) N ls FkksM+k T;knk
(3) Much less than N (3) N ls cgqr de
(4) Much more than N (4) N ls cgqr T;knk
ALLEN
TOPIC : STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS : Animal tissues; Epithelial tissues, Connective Tissues,
Muscle Tissue, Neural Tissue, Organs and Organ System, Respiratory, Nervous and Reproductive of an insect Earthworm
Cockroach, (Brief account only)
91. See the diagram carefully and select the correct 91. fp= dks /;ku ls nsf[k;s o lgh feyku dks pqfu;s &
match :
A
A
B
B
C
C
(1) (A) vxzegk/keuh mRltZu esa enn djrh gSA

(1) (A) Anterior Aorta Help in excretion
(2) (B) i{kkdkj is'kh jDr lajpj.k esa enn djrh gSA
(2) (B) Alary muscles Help in blood circulation
(3) (C) i{kkdkj is'kh mRltZu esa enn djrh gSA
(3) (C) Alary muscles Help in excretion
daEiu djus okyk
(4) (B) jDr ds fuekZ.k esa enn djrh gSA
rqfEcdk
(4) (B) Pulsatile Ampulla Help in blood formation
92. Given below the diagram of alimentary canal of 92. uhps fn;k x;k fp= dkWdjksp dh vkgkjuky dk gS a ls e dks
Cockroach. identify a to e :- igpkfu;s \
(a) (a)
(b) (b)
(c) (c)
(e) (e)
(d) (d)
(1) (a) Pharynx, (b) Oesophagus, (c) Crop, (1) (a) xzluh, (b) xzfldk, (c) Øki ,
(d) Rectum, (e) Colon (d) eyk'k;, (e) o`gna=
(2) (a) Pharynx, (b) Oesophagus, (c) Mid-gut (2) (a) xzluh, (b) xzfldk, (c) e/;ka=
(d) Colon, (e) Rectum (d) o`gna=, (e) eyk'k;
(3) (a) Buccal cavity, (b) Colon, (c) Mid-gut, (3) (a) eq[ k xq gk, (b) o`gna= , (c) ea /;k=,
(d) Crop, (e) Rectum (d) Øki, (e) eyk'k;
(4) (a) Pharynx, (b) Oesophagus, (c) Gizzard, (4) (a) xzluh, (b) xzfldk, (c) is"k.kh,
(d) Colon, (e) Rectum (d) o`gna=, (e) eyk'k;
ALLEN
A A
93. 93.
B B
C C
E E
D D
The above figure is related with mouth part of mijksä fn;k x;k fp= dkWdjksp ds eq[k Hkkx ls lEcfUèkr gS
cockroach. Identify A to E A ls E dks igpkfu;s %&
(1) A = Maxillae B = Hypopharynx (1) A = efS Dlyk B = gkbiksQsfjUl
C = Labium D = Mandible C = ysfc;e D = esafMcy
E = Labrum E = yc S ze
(2) A = Mandible B = Labium (2) A = eaSfMcy B = ysfc;e
C = Maxilla D = Labrum C = efS Dlyk D = yscze
E = Hypopharynx E = gkbiksQSfjUl
(3) A = Labrum B = Mandible (3) A = yscze B = eaSfMcy
C = Hypopharynx D = Maxilla C = gkbiksQfS jUl D = efS Dlyk
E = Labium E = ysfc;e
(4) A = Labium B = Hypopharynx (4) A = ysfc;e B = gkbiksQsfjUl
C = Labrum D = Maxilla C = yscze D = esfDlyk
E = Mandible E = eaSfMcy
94. Given below the diagram of male reproductive 94. uhps fn;k x;k fp= dkWdjksp ds uj tuu rU= dk gS ftlesa
system of cockroach in which various parts are fofHkUu Hkkxksa dks A, B, C o D ls ukekafdr fd;k x;k gAS
labelled by A, B, C and D. Select the option in lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft;s ftlesa ukekafdr Hkkx dks mlds
which labelled part is correctly identified along xq.k ;k dk;Z ds lkFk lgh igpkuk x;k gks\
with their property or function ?
B
B
A
A
D
D C
C
(1) A = Ejaculatory duct and it secretes the inner (1) A = L[kyu okfguh rFkk ;g LiesZVksQksj dh nhokj dk
layer of wall of spermatophore. vkUrfjd Lrj L=kfor djrh gAS
(2) B = Phallic gland and it secretes the outer most (2) B = Qsfyd xzfUFk (f'k'uh;xzUFkh) rFkk ;g LiesZVksQksj dh
layer of the wall of spermatophore. nhokj dk ckg~; Lrj L=kfor djrh gAS
(3) C = Right phallomere and ejaculatory duct
(3) C = nk¡;k QSykseh;j rFkk L[kyu okfguh blh ij [kqyrh gAS
opens on it.
(4) D = Anal style and are helps in receiving the (4) D = xqn'kwd rFkk ;s /ouh rajxksa dks xzg.k djus esa enn djrh
sound waves. gSA
ALLEN
95. Structure of cockroach that may be help in 95. dkWdjksp dh lajpuk tks mRltZu esa lgk;rk djrh gS ?
excretion ? (1) eSYih?kh ufydk,a
(1) Malpighian tubules
(2) yscze
(2) Labrum
(3) Spermatheca (3) LiesZfFkdk
(4) 8-16 oviducts (4) 8-16 v.Mokfguh
96. Consider the following four statements (A-D) with 96. fuEu pkj dFkuksa (A-D) ij fopkj dhft;s tks dkWdjksp ds
regards to cockroach and select the option which lUnHkZ esa fn;s x;s gS rFkk fodYi dk p;u dhft;s ftlesa lHkh
includes all the correct ones only. lgh dFku lfEefyr gS \
(A) Single spermethica is found which is opened into (A) ,d 'kqØxzkfgdk ik;h tkrh gS tks tud{k esa [kqyrh
genital chamber. gS A
(B) Female forms average 9-10 oothecae, (B) eknk vkl S ru 9-10 ÅFkhdk cukrh gS rFkk çR;sd ÅFkhdk
each containing 14-16 eggs esa 14-16 v.Ms gksrs gAS
(C) Ootheca is a capsule formed around the (C) ÅFkhdk vfu"ksfpr v.Mksa ds pkjksa vksj cuus okyk lEiqV
unfertilized egg. gksrk gSA
(D) Nymph undergoes metamorphosis and changed
(D) fuEQ dk;kUrj.k }kjk o;Ld esa cnyrk gAS
into adult
fodYi :
Option :
(1) dFku A o B
(1) Statements A & B
(2) Statements B & C (2) dFku B o C
(3) Statements B & D (3) dFku B o D
(4) Statements A & C (4) dFku A o C
97. Mashroom gland is also known as ? 97. e'k:e xzafFk tkuh tkrh gS ?
(1) Utricular gland (1) ;wVhª dqyj xzafFk
(2) Phallic gland (2) Qsfyd xzafFk
(3) Uricose gland (3) ;wjhdkst xzafFk
(4) Seminal vescicle (4) lsehuy osfldy
98. Arthrodial membrane in cockroach is associated 98. dkWdjksp esa laf/kdkjh&f>Yyh&lEcaf /kr gksrh gS&
with :
(1) dBd ls (Sclerities)
(1) Sclerites
(2) wall of gizzard (2) is"k.kh dh nhokj ls
(3) ventral septum and connect the septum with heart
(3) v/kj iV ij vkSj iV dks ân; o ijS ks ls tksM+rh gSA
and legs.
(4) tracheal chamber (4) Vªsfd;y d{k ls
99. Find out incorrect match with respect to cockroach : 99. dkWdjksp ds lEcU/k esa xyr feyku igpkuks :
(1) Ovary – 2-6 abdominal segments
th
(1) v.Mk'k; - 2-6th mnjh; [k.M
(2) Spermatheca – 6 abdominal segments
th
(2) 'kqØxzkfgdk,sa - 6th mnjh; [k.M
(3) Mushroom gland – 7-8th abdominal segments
(3) e'k:e xzfUFk@ N=d xzfUFk - 7-8th mnjh; [k.M
(4) Outer most layer of spermatophore - Phallic gland
(4) LiesZVksQksj dh lcls ckgjh ijr - QfS yd xzfUFk
ALLEN
100. Similarity in between cockroach and earth worm 100. dkWd jksp rFkk dsapq,s ds chp lekurk g\
S
is :-
(1) raf=dk jTtq (2) fu"kspu
(1) Nerve cord (2) Fertilization
(3) Bisexual (4) Circulation (3) mHk;fyaxh (4) ifjlapj.k
101. If an earthworm release cocoon from posterior end 101. ;fn dsapqvk vius dksdwu dks vxz fljs ds LFkku ij i'p fljs
instead of anterior end then ? ls fu"dkflr djs rks\
(1) Digestion will be effected (1) ikpu fØ;k çHkkfor gksxhA
(2) Only one zygote will be formed in cocoon.
(2) dksduw esa ,d gh ;qXeut cusxk
(3) Many zygotes will be formed in cocoon.
(4) Sperms will not reach the cocoon and (3) dksduw esa dbZ ;qXeut cusxas
fertilization will not take place. (4) dksduw esa 'kqØk.kq ugha vk ik;saxs vkSj fu"kspu ugha gksxk
102. The function of typhlosole found in the 102. dsapq,sa esa vk¡=Hkat dk dk;Z gS\
earthworm is to :- (1) ikpd jlksa dk L=o.k
(1) Secrete digestive juice
(2) Regulate the blood flow (2) :f/kj laogu dk fu;eu
(3) Emulsify the fat (3) olk dk ik;lhdj.k
(4) Increase the absorptive surface area for
digested food (4) ips Hkkstu ds fy, vo'kks"k.k {ks=Qy c<+kuk
103. The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below, 103. uhps fn;s x;s pkj fp=ksa (A, B, C rFkk D) esa pkj çdkj ds çk.kh
represent four different types of animal tissues. Ård fn[kk, x;s gAS buesa ls ,d dks uhps fn,s x, fodYiksa esa
Which one of these is correctly identified in the
option given along with its correct location and lgh igpkuk x;k ,oa mlds ik;s tkus dk LFkku rFkk dk;Z Hkh lgh
function :- fn;s x;s gS %-
(A) (B) (A) (B)
(C) (D) (C) (D)
Tissue Location Function Ård ik;s tkus dk LFkku dk;Z

(1) (B) ljy 'kYdh vaMokfguh ;qXed dk
(1) (B) Simple Fallopian tube Transport of
squamous gamete midyk ifjogu
epithelium (2) (C) ljy ?kukdkj jDr okfgdkvksa dh folj.k f>Yyh
(2) (C) Simple Wall of blood Diffusion midyk fHkfÙk rFkk QsQMs+ ds
cuboidal vessels and boundary ok;qdks"k
epithelium airsac of lungs (3) (D) la;qDr Ropk j{kk djuk
(3) (D) Compound Skin Protection midyk
epithelium (4) (A) ljy oDdksa ds ufydkdkj mRltZu
(4) (A) Simple Tubular part of excretion LrEHkkdkj Hkkx
columnar nephron midyk
epithelium
ALLEN
104. Read the following (A – D) statements :- 104. fuEufyf[kr (A – D) dFkuksa dks if<+;s :-
(A) Tight junction help to stop substances from (A) n`<+ laf/k inkFkks± dks Ård ls ckgj fudyus ls jksdrh gAS
leaking across a tissue. (B) vkalth laf/k;k¡ iM+kl s h dksf'kdkvksa dks ,d&nwljs ls tksM+us
(B) Adhering junctions perform cementing to keep dk dke djrh gSaA
neighbouring cells together. (C) ljy midyk dksf'kdkvksa dh nks ;k nks ls vf/kd Lrjksa dh
(C) The simple epithelium consists of two or more
cuh gksrh gS vkSj bldk dk;Z j{kkRed gAS
cell layers and has protective function.
(D) LraHkkdkj midyk ,d piVh dksf'kdkvksa ds irys Lrj ls
(D) The columnar epithelium is made of a single layer
of flattened cells with irregular boundries.
curk gS ftlds fdukjs vfu;fer gksrs gaSA
How many of the above statements are correct? mijksDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gAS
(1) four (2) three (3) two (4) one (1) pkj (2) rhu (3) nks (4) ,d
105. The epithelium found in the inner lining of stomach and 105. og midyk tks vkek'k; vkSj vka= ds vkarfjd vkLrj esa ikbZ
intestine and help in secretion and absorption is:- tkrh gS rFkk vo'kks"k.k ,oa òko.k esa lgk;d gksrh gSA
(1) Cuboidal epithelium (1) ?kukdkj midyk
(2) Columnar epithelium (2) LraHkkdkj midyk
(3) Squamous epithelium (3) ljy 'kYdh midyk
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) mijksDr (1) ,oa (2)
106. The epithelium whose main function is to provide 106. midyk ftldk eq [; dk;Z jlk;fud o ;kaf=d izfrcyksa ls
protection against chemical and mechanical stresses. j{kk djuk gS %&
(1) Ciliated epithelium (1) i{ekHkh midyk
(2) Simple squamous epithelium (2) ljy 'kYdh midyk
(3) Compound epithelium (3) la;qDr midyk
(4) Cuboidal epithelium (4) ?kukdkj midyk
107. Find out the incorrect option :- 107. xyr dFku dk irk yxkb;s :-
(1) Microvilli – increase surface area for better (1) lw{ekadqj – vo'kks"k.k ds fy;s lrg ds {ks=Qy dks c<+kukA
absorption
(2) i{ekHk – d.kksa vFkok 'ys"e dks midyk dh lrg ij ,d
(2) Cilia – Move particles or mucus in a specific
direction over the epithelium fuf'pr fn'kk esa ys tkuk gAS
(3) Gap junctions – facilitate the cells to communicate (3) varjkyh laf/k – layXu dksf'kdkvksa ds dksf'kdknzo dks
with each other by connecting the
vkil esa tksM+rh gAS
cytoplasm of adjoining cells.
(4) lw{ekadqj – d.kksa vFkok 'ys"e dks midyk dh lrg ij
(4) Microvilli – Move particles or mucus in a specific
direction over the epithelium ,d fuf'pr fn'kk esa ys tkuk gAS
108. In epithelium tissue, the cells are compactly packed 108. midyk ÅÙkd es]a dksf'kdk,a fdlds }kjk n`<+rkiwoZd tqM+h jgrh
with :- gS :-
(1) Little intercellular space (1) vYi varjdksf'kdh; vodk'k ls
(2) Large intercellular space (2) vf/kd varjdksf'kdh; vodk'k ls
(3) Little intercellular matrix (3) vYi varjdksf'kdh; vk/kk=h ls
(4) Large intercellular matrix (4) vf/kd varjdksf'kdh; vk/kk=h ls

ALLEN
109. Which of the following is absent in P.C.T. of 109. fuEu esa ls dkuS o`Ddd ds P.C.T. esa vuqifLFkr gksrk gS ?
nephron?
(1) lw{ekdqaj
(1) Microvilli
(2) ?kukdkj dksf'kdk;sa
(2) Cuboidal cells
(3) Both (1) and (2) (3) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa
(4) Simple columnar epithelium (4) ljy LraHkkdkj midyk

110. Sweat glands are :- 110. Losn xazfFk;k¡ gksrh gS :-
(1) Exocrine (2) Multicellular (1) cfg% L=koh (2) cgqdksf'kdh;
(3) Ectodermal in origin (4) All (3) mRifÙk esa ,DVksMeZ (4) lHkh
111. Match the following :- 111. lgh feyku djsa %&
(i) Areolar tissue (a) Ligament (i) varjkyh mÙkd (a) Luk;q
(ii) Dense regular (b) Erythropoiesis l?ku fu;fer (b)
(ii) bfjFkzksi k,fll
tissue
ÅÙkd
(iii) Bones (c) Stored fat
(iii) vfLFk (c) olk lap;
(iv) Adipose tissue (d) Support frame
work for (iv) olk Ård (d) midyk ds fy, vk/kkjh;
epithelium <kaps dk dk;Z djrk gAS
(1) i-(d), ii-(a), iii-(b), iv-(c) (1) i-(d), ii-(a), iii-(b), iv-(c)
(2) i-(d), ii-(a), iii-(c), iv-(b) (2) i-(d), ii-(a), iii-(c), iv-(b)
(3) i-(a), ii-(d), iii-(b), iv-(c) (3) i-(a), ii-(d), iii-(b), iv-(c)
(4) i-(a), ii-(b), iii-(c), iv-(d) (4) i-(a), ii-(b), iii-(c), iv-(d)
112. An examples of specialised connective tissues 112. fof'k"V la;ksth ÅÙkd ds mnkgj.k g&
S
are :-
(a) mikfLFk (b) vfLFk (c) jDr
(a) Cartilages (b) Bones (c) Blood
(1) Only c (2) Only a, and b (1) dsoy c (2) dsoy a rFkk b
(3) Only b (4) All a, b and c (3) dsoy b (4) a, b rFkk c lHkh
113. The inter cellular material (matrix) of cartilage is:- 113. mikfLFk dk varjdksf'kdh; inkFkZ (efS VªDl) gksrk g&
S
(1) Solid and non pliable (1) Bksl rFkk vukuE; (non-pliable)
(2) Semi-solid and non pliable (2) v¼ZBksl rFkk vukuE; (non-pliable)
(3) Solid and pliable
(3) Bksl rFkk vkuE; (pliable)
(4) Semi-solid and pliable
(4) v¼Bksl rFkk vkuE; (pliable)
114. Mucoid connective is found in :-
114. E;wdks,M la;ksth ÅÙkd ik;k tkrk gS&
(1) Umblical cord (2) Viterous humour
(1) ukfHk jTtq esa (2) dkpkHk æo esa
(3) Comb of cock (4) All of these (3) eqxZs ds dafyxk esa (4) mijksä lHkh esa
ALLEN
115. Identify the given below tissue diagram with 115. uhps fn;s x;s ÅÙkd ds fp= es mlds izdkj ds lkFk igpkfu;s
it's type and select the right option for the two rFkk bu nksuksa dks ,d lkFk fdl ,d fodYi esa lgh fn;k x;k
together :-
gS&
Tissue Type ÅÙkd iz d kj
(1) Cartilage Dense regular connective tissue (1) mikfLFk la?ku fu;fer la;ksth ÅÙkd
(2) Tendon Dense irregular connective tissue (2) daMjk la?ku vfu;fer la;ksth ÅÙkd
(3) Bone Specialised connective type (3) vfLFk fof'k"VhÏr la;ksth Ård
(4) Ligament Dense irregular connective type (4) Luk;q la?ku vfu;fer la;ksth ÅÙkd
116. What is incorrect for Areolar Tissue and Adipose 116. ,sfj;ksyj ÅÙkd rFkk olk ÅÙkd ds fy;s D;k xyr g&
S
Tissue :- (1) yphys la;ksth ÅÙkd
(1) Loose connective tissue
(2) Ropk ds uhps ik;s tkrs gaS
(2) Present beneath the skin
(3) Both 1 and 2 (3) 1 rFkk 2 nksuksa
(4) Dense connective tissue (4) la?ku la;ksth ÅÙkd
117. The bone cells (osteocytes) are present in the 117. vfLFk dksf'kdk,sa (osteocytes) ftl txg esa mifLFkr gksrh gS
spaces called:- mls dgrs gaS&
(1) Lamellae (2) Lacunae (1) ijrsa (lamellae) (2) fjfDrdk esa (lacunae)
(3) Matrix (4) Bone marrow cavity (3) efS VªDl (4) vfLFk eTTkk xqgk
118. Fibreless and glass like cartilage is :- 118. rUrqjfgr rFkk dkap ds leku mikfLFk gS&
(1) Fibro cartilage (2) Hyaline cartilage (1) rarqe; mikfLFk (2) dkpkHk mikfLFk
(3) Calcified cartilage (4) Elastic cartilage (3) dsYlhHkwr mikfLFk (4) bykfLVd mikfLFk
119. Identify the given below figure of animal tissue 119. uhps fn;s x;s fp= esa tUrq Ård dks mlds lgh ik;s tkus okys
along with it's correct location. LFkku ds lkFk igpkfu;sA
Tissue Location
(1) Dense regular Heart Ård ik;s tkus dk LFkku
connective tissue (1) ?kuk fu;fer la;ksth Ård ân;
(2) Dense irregular At bone joints
(2) ?kuk vfu;fer la;ksth Ård vfLFk tksM+ks ij
connective tissue
(3) Adipose tissue Beneath skin (3) olk Ård Ropk ds uhps
(4) Areolar connective Beneath skin (4) ok;oh; la;kst h Ård Ropk ds uhps
tissue

ALLEN
120. Identify the following simple epithelial tissues and 120. uhps fn, x;s ljy midyk Årdksa dks igpku dj lgh fodYi
select the correct option. pqusaA
A B C D A B C D
A B C D A B C D
(1) Cuboidal Squamous Columnar Ciliated columnar (1) ?kukdkj 'kYdh LraHkkdkj i{ekHkh LraH kkdkj
(2) Squamous Cuboidal Columnar Ciliated columnar (2) 'kYdh ?kukdkj LraHkkdkj i{ekHkh LraHkkdkj
Pseudo-stratified 'kYdh
(3) Columnar Cuboidal Ciliated columnar
squamous (3) LraHkkdkj ?kukdkj i{ekHkh LraHkkdkj
dwVLrjhd`r
Pseudo-stratified
(4) Squamous Columnar Cuboidal (4) 'kYdh LraHkkdkj ?kukdkj 'kYdh dwVLrjhd`r(i{ekHkh)
squamous (Ciliated)
121. Which of the following statements is/are not 121. la; ksth Årdksa ds fy;s fuEu esa ls dkSu lk@ls dFku lgh ugha
correct regarding connective tissues? gS@ g Sa \
(i) Connective tissues are most abundant and
(i) la;ksth Ård tfVy tUrqvksa ds 'kjhj esa cgqrk;r esa ik,
widely distributed in the body of complex
animals. tkrs gSa rFkk vf/kd QSys gksrs gSA
(ii) They connect and support other tissues. (ii) ;g nwljs Årdksa dks tksM+rs gaS o vk/kkj iznku djrs gAS
(iii) They include such diverse tissues as bone, (iii) buesa vfLFk] mikfLFk] daMjk] olk vkjS yphys la;ksth Ård
cartilage, tendons, adipose and loose connective tlS s fofHkUu Ård 'kkfey gaAS
tissues.
(iv) ;g cgqr ls vaxksa ds vkarfjd o ckg~; vkLrj cukrs gaSA
(iv) They form the internal and external lining of
many organs. (v) lHkh la;ksth Årdksa esa (jDr dks NksM+ dj) dksf'kdk,a
(v) In all connective tissues except blood, the cells lajpukRed izksVhu ds rarqvksa dk lzko.k djrh gS ] ftUgsa
secrete fibres of structural proteins called dksystu ;k bykfLVu dgrs gSaA
collagen or elastin. (1) dsoy (iv) (2) dsoy (v)
(1) (iv) only (2) (v) only
(3) (i) o (ii) (4) (iii) o (v)
(3) (i) and (ii) (4) (iii) and (v)
122. Given figures (I and II) show two specialised 122. fn;s x;s fp=ksa esa (I o II) nks fo'ks"k la;ksth Ård gaAS fp=
connective tissues. Identify the figures I, II and the I o II rFkk A o B ukekafdr Hkkxks a dks igpkfu,A
parts labelled as A and B.
A
A Lamella
Lamella B
B
I II
I II
I II A B
I II A B (1) mikfLFk vfLFk dksystu rarq mikLF ;.kq
(1) Cartilage Bone Collagen fibres Chondrocyte
(2) mikfLFk vfLFk dksystu rarq mikfLFk'kks"kd
(2) Cartilage Bone Collagen fibres Chondroclast
(3) vfLFk mikfLFk lw{eufydk vfLFkdksjd
(3) Bone Cartilage Microtubules Osteoblast
(4) Bone Cartilage Collagen fibres Osteoblast (4) vfLFk mikfLFk dksystu rarq vfLFkdksjd

ALLEN
123. Which of the following is a transparent tissue? 123. fuEu esa ls dkSu ,d ikjn'khZ Ård gaS ?
(1) Tendon (2) Fibrous cartilage (1) daMjk (2) rarq;h mikfLFk
(3) Hyaline cartilage (4) All of these (3) dkpkHk mikfLFk (4) mijksDr lHkh
124. The type of epithelial cells which line the inner 124. fMacokfguh] 'olfudk o NksVh 'oluh ds vkarfjd vkLrj esa fdl
surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small
izdkj dh midyk dksf'kdk gksrh g\ S
bronchi are known as
(1) Squamous epithelium (2) Compound epithelium (1) 'kYdh midyk (2) la;qDr midyk
(3) Ciliated epithelium (4) Cubical epithelium. (3) i{ekHkh midyk (4) ?kukdkj midyk
125. Which of the following option is correct for 125. QsjsfVek ds fy, dkSulk fodYi lgh g\ S
Pheretima ?
(1) Fertilization of eggs occurs inside the body (1) v.Mksa dk fu"kspu 'kjhj ds vUnj gksrk gAS
(2) The typhlosole greatly increases the effective (2) vka=oyu vkWar dh lrg ls izHkko'kkyh vo'kks"k.k dks c<+k
absorption area of intestine
nsrk gSA
(3) The S-shaped setae embedded in the integument
are the defensive weapons used against the (3) dop esa /kals gq, 'S' vkdkj ds 'kwd 'k=qvksa ls cpus dk
enemies j{kkRed vL= gaAS
(4) It has a long dorsal tubular heart. (4) buesa ,d yEck i`"Bh; ufydh; ân; gksrk gAS
126. Which one of the following structures in Pheretima 126. fuEu esa ls Qsjfs Vek dh dkSu lh lajpuk dk mlds dk;Z ls lgh
is correctly matched with its function?
esy g\ S
(1) Clitellum - Secretes cocoon
(2) Gizzard - Absorbs digested food (1) i;kZf .kdk - dksdwu lzko.k
(3) Setae - Provides defence against (2) is"k.kh - ifpr Hkkstu dk vo'kks"k.k
perdators (3) 'kwd - 'k=qvksa ds fo:¼ j{kk djuk
(4) Typhlosole - Storage of extra nutrients (4) vka=oyu - vfrfjDr iks"kdksa dk laxzg.k
127. In the given diagram of the reproductive system of 127. fn;s x;s dsapq, ds tuu ra= ds fp= esa A,B,C,D o E ukekafdr
earthworm, identify parts labelled A, B, C, D, E and
Hkkxksa dks igpku dj lgh fodYi pquasA
select the correct option.
A A
B B
C C
D D
E E
A B C D E
A B C D E
(1) Seminal Sperma- Prostate Ovary Accessory (1) 'kqØk'k; 'kqØxzkfgdk i zksLVsV v.Mk'k; lgk;d
Vesicle thecae gland gland xzfUFk xzfUFk
(2) Seminal Ovary Accessory Sprma- Prostate (2) 'kqØk'k; v.Mk'k; lgk;d 'kqØxzkfgdk izkLs VsV
vesicle gland thecae gland xzfUFk xzafFk
(3) Sperma- Seminal Accessory Ovary Prostate (3) 'kqØxzkfgdk 'kqØk'k; lgk;d v.Mk'k; izkLs VsV
thecae vesicle gland gland xzfUFk xzfUFk
(4) Sperm- Seminal Ovary Accessory Prostate (4) 'kqØxzkfgdk 'kqØk'k; v.Mk'k; lgk;d izkLs VsV
athecae vesicle gland gland xzfUFk xzfUFk

ALLEN
128. Which of the following is absent in the blood of 128. dsapq, ds jDr esa fuEu esa ls D;k vuqifLFkr gksrk g\
S
earthworm? (1) yo.k
(1) Salts
(2) fgeksXyksfcu
(2) Haemoglobin
(3) RBC (3) RBC
(4) Proteins (4) izksVhUl
129. Which of the following structures is correctly 129. fuEu esa ls dkSuls vax dk o.kZu lgh esy [kkrk g\
S
matched with its description? (1) iVh; o`Ddd o – nksuksa cfgo`ZDdh; gaAS
(1) septal nephridia and –Both are exonephric
pharyngeal nephridia
xzluh; o`Ddd
(2) Typhlosole – Helps in grinding (2) vka=oyu – lM+h ifÙk;ksa vkjS e`nk d.kksa
the soil particles and dks ihlu esa enn djrk gAS
decaying leaves.
(3) Hepatic caeca – Blind tubules present (3) ;d`rh; va/kuky – dkWd jksp dh vkgkjuky
at the junction of dh vxzka= vkSj e/;ka= ds
foregut and mid-gut
laf/k Hkkx esa vaa/k ufydk,Wa
in the alimentary
canal of the cockroach. ikbZ tkrh gaAS
(4) Gizzard – Internal median fold (4) is"k.kh – dsapq, dh vkWar dh i`"B
present in the dorsal
wall of the intestine
nhokj esa vkarfjd e/;e
of earthworm. oy; ik;k tkrk gAS
130. Which of the following layers you will find in the 130. fuEu esa ls dkuS lh ijrsa dsapq, dh nsg fHkfÙk (ckgj ls vanj
body wall of earthworm (from outside to inside)? dh vksj) esa ikbZ tkrh gaS?
(1) Noncellular cuticle, epidermis, circular muscles, (1) vdksf'kdh; D;qfVdy] ckg~;Ropk] orqZy isf'k;ka] yEcor~
longitudinal muscles, coelomic epithelium isf'k;ka] izxqfgd midyk
(2) Cuticle, epidermis, longitudinal muscles, circular
(2) D;q fVdy] ckg~ ; Ropk] yEcor isf 'k;ka] orqZ y isf 'k;ka ]
muscles, coelomic epithelium
izxqfgd midyk
(3) Noncellular cuticle, epidermis, coelomic
(3) vdksf'kdh; D;qfVdy] ckg~;Ropk] izxqfgd midyk] orqZy
epithelium, circular muscles, longitudinal
muscles isf'k;ka] yEcor~ isf'k;ka
(4) Cuticle, epidermis, peritoneal muscles (4) D;qfVdy] ckg~;Ropk] iSjhVksfu;y isf'k;ka
131. Function of spermatheca in earthworm is :- 131. dsapq, esa 'kqØxzkfgdk dk dk;Z gS :-
(1) Fertilization (1) fu"kspu
(2) Sperm maturation (2) 'kqØk.kq ifjiDou
(3) Collection of sperms from the same animal. (3) Lo;a ds 'kqØk.kq dks laxzg djuk
(4) Collection of sperms from the other animal. (4) nwljs ds 'kqØk.kq dks laxzg djuk
132. Testes of earthworm is found in :- 132. dsapq, ds o`"k.k dgk¡ ik;s tkrs ga\
S
(1) 11th & 12th segment (1) 11osa o 12osa [k.M esa
(2) 6th to 9th segments (2) 6osa ls 9osa [k.M esa
(3) 10th & 11th segment (3) 10osa o 11osa [k.M esa
(4) 12th & 13th segments (4) 12osa o 13osa [k.M esa
ALLEN
133. 133.
D B D B
C C
A A
Which structure in the figure release excretory

fp= esa dkuS lh lajpuk mRlthZ inkFkksZ dks Ropk ij NksM+rh gS\
substances on skin ?
(1) A & B (2) Only C (1) A o B (2) dsoy C
(3) B & C (4) A & D (3) B o C (4) A o D
134. Find out incorrect match with regarding to earthworm:- 134. dsapq, ds lUnHkZ esa xyr esy Nk¡fV, :-
(1) Prostate gland – 17th to 20th segments (1) çksLVsV xzfUFk – 17osa ls 20osa [k.M
(2) Spermatheca – 6th to 9th segements (2) LijesfFkdk – 6osa ls 9osa [k.M
(3) Ovaries – 13th segment (3) v.Mk'k; – 13osa [k.M
(4) Female gonopore – 18th segment (4) eknk tuu fNæ – 18 osa [k.M
135. Lateral hearts in earthworm are found in :- 135. dsapq, esa ik'oZ ân; dgk¡ ik;s tkrs ga\S
(1) 7th & 9th segments (1) 7 osa o 9 osa [k.M+kas esa
(2) 11th & 12th segments (2) 11 osa o 12 osa [k.M+kas eas
136. Pharynx have which type of epithelium? 136. xzluh esa mifLFkr midyk Ård g\ S
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

ALLEN
137. Which of the following junction help to provide 137. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh laf/k midyk dks izR;kLFkk iznku djrh
strenhibility to epithelium ? gS \
(1) Gap junctions (1) varjkyh laf/k;k¡
(2) Adhering junctions (2) vklath laf/k;k¡
(3) Tight junctions (3) n`<+ laf/k;k¡
(4) Interdigitations (4) b.VjfMftVslu
138. Ligament is :- 138. Luk;q gS :-
(1) (2) (1) (2)
(3) (4) (3) (4)
139. Which tissue serve as a support framework for 139. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulk Ård midyk ds fy, vk/kkjh; <k¡psa
epithelium? dk dk;Z djrk g\ S
(1) Areolar tissue (1) ok;oh; Ård
(2) Dense irregular tissue (2) l?ku vfu;fer Ård
(3) Dense regular tissue (3) l?ku fu;fer Ård
(4) Adipose tissue (4) olk Ård
140. Malpighian tubules in cockroach release excretory 140. dkWdjksp esa eyS ih?kh ufydk,a mRlthZ inkFkZ dgk¡ NksM+rh
substances in :- gS\
(1) Alimentary canal (2) Haemolymph (1) vkgkj uky esa (2) gheksfyEQ esa
(3) Both (4) On skin (3) nksuksa (4) Ropk ij
141. Mouth parts of cockroach are :- 141. dkWdjksp ds eq[kkax gksrs gaS :-
(1) Piercing and sucking type (1) Hksnd o pw"kd çdkj ds
(2) Biting and sucking type (2) dkVus o pw"kd çdkj ds
(3) Sponging type (3) LikWftax çdkj ds
(4) Biting and chewing type (4) dkVus o pckus çdkj ds
142. Cells of body of Cockroach release nitrogenous waste 142. dkWdjksp ds 'kjhj dh dksf'kdk,¡ ukbVªkstuh vif'k"V dks
in haemolymph in which form ? gheksfyEQ esa fdl :i esa Mkyrh g\ S
(1) Ammonia (1) veksfu;k
(2) Urea (2) ;wfj;k
(3) Potassium urate (3) iksVsf'k;e ;wjsV
(4) Sodium carbonate (4) lksfM;e dkcksZuVs
ALLEN
143. In the given diagrame of cockroach which one of 143. dkWdjksp ds fn;s x;s fp= esa ] fdl ,d dks uhps fn;s x,
these is correctly identified in the options given fodYiksa esa A, B, C rFkk D dks muds dk;ks± ds lkFk lgh igpkuk
for A, B, C and D with their functions ? x;k gS ?
A
A
B
B
C
C
D
D
Organ Function vax dk;Z

(1) A Stomach Secrete digestive juice (1) A vkek'k; ikpd jl dk L=ko.k
(2) B Gizzard Grinding the food particles (2) B is"k.kh Hkkstu ds eksVs d.kksa dks ihluk
(3) C Malpighian tubules Digestion (3) C eSyihxh uyh ikpu
(4) D Hepatic caeca Absorption (4) D ;Ïrh; va/kuky vo'kks"k.k
144. The blood of cockroach is haemolymph which is 144. dkWdjksp dk jDr gheksfyaQ gS tks cuk gksrk gS :-
composed of :- (1) jaxghu IykTek ls (2) :f/kjk.kqvksa ls
(1) Colourless plasma (2) Hematocytes
(3) Haemocyanin (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) ghekslkbfuu ls (4) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa ls
145. The respiratory system of cockroach consists of a 145. dkWdjksp dk 'olu ra= 'kkf[kr 'okl ukyksa (trachea) fd tky
network of trachea, that open through ....A.... of small dk cuk gksrk gAS 'okl uky 'okl fNæksa }kjk [kqyrh gAS gok
holes called spiracles present on the ....B.... side of ....A.... 'okl fNæksa }kjk va nj izos'k djrh gS tks fd 'kjhj
the body :- dh ....B.... lrg ij O;ofLFkr gksrs gSa :-
(1) A - 12 pairs, B - lateral (1) A - 12 tksM+ h, B - ik'oZ
(2) A - 10 pairs, B - Dorsal (2) A - 10 tksM+h, B - i` "B
146. Which structures are help in excretion in cockroach 146. dkW djksp esa dkuS lh lajpuk;sa mRltZu esa enn djrh gS
(A) Fat body (B) Nephrocytes (A) olk fiaM (B) usÝkslkbVl
(C) Uricose glands (C) ;wjds ksl xzafFk;k¡
(1) Only A (2) Only A and C (1) dsoy A (2) dsoy A rFkk C
(3) Only A and B (4) All A, B and C (3) dsoy A rFkk B (4) A, B, rFkk C
147. How many of the following reproductive structures 147. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSulh tuu lajpuk;sa dsoy uj dkWdjksp
are found only in male cockroach. Phallic gland, esa ik;h tkrh gaSA
Titillator, Psuedopenis, Anal style, Spermatheca, and f'k'uh; xza fFk] fyaxkfxzdkar] dwV f'k'u] ,suy LVkby] 'kqØ
Collaterial gland xzkfgdk rFkk 'ys"kd xzafFk
(1) Five (2) Four (1) ik¡p (2) pkj
(3) Three (4) Two (3) rhu (4) nks
148. The number of ganglia in thorax and abdomen of 148. dkWdjksp ds o{k rFkk mnj esa xqf PNdkvksa dh Øe'k% la[;k
cockroach are respectively. gS %&
(1) Three and Six (2) Six and Three (1) rhu o N% (2) N% o rhu
(3) Two and Eight (4) Three and Seven (3) nks rFkk vkB (4) rhu rFkk lkr

ALLEN
149. Read the following (A-D) statements :- 149. fuEufyf[kr (A-D) dFkuksa dks if<+;s :-
A. Connective tissue are most abundant and widely A. tfVy izkf.k;ksa ds 'kjhj esa la;ksth Ård cgqrk;r ,oa foLr`r
distributed in the body of complex animals
:i ls QSyk gqvk ik;k tkrk gAS
B. They are named connective tissues because of
B. la;ksth Ård uke 'kjhj ds vU; Årdksa ,oa vax dks ,d
their special function of linking and supporting
other tissues/organs of the body nwljs ls tksM+us rFkk vkyacu ds vk/kkj ij fn;k x;k gAS
C. They range from soft connective tissues to C. la;ksth Ård esa dksey Ård ls ysdj fo'ks"k izdkj ds
specialised types, which include cartilage, bone, Ård tSls & mikfLFk ] vfLFk] olh; Ård rFkk jDr
adipose and blood lfEefyr gAS
D. The cells of connective tissue secrete modified D. la;ksth Ård dh dksf'kdk;sa :ikarfjr ikWfylsdsjkbM Hkh
polysaccharides, which accumulate between cells L=kfor djrh g]S tks dksf'kdk vkSj rarq ds chp esa tek
and fibres and act as matrix gksdj vk/kk=h dk dk;Z djrk gSA
How many of the following statements are
mijksDr esa ls fdrus dFku lgh gS :-
correct :-
(1) Four (2) Three (1) pkj (2) rhu
(3) Two (4) One (3) nks (4) ,d
150. In bone, layers of matrix are known as :- 150. vfLFk eas efS VªDl dh ijrksa dks dgk tkrk gS &
(1) Lacuna (2) Canaliculi (1) fjfDrdk (2) dsukyhdqykbZ
(3) Haversian canal (4) Lamellae (3) gosZfl;u dsuky (4) yfS eyh
151. Which of the following is incorrect statement for the 151. fuEu esa ls dkuS lk dFku ljy LraHkkdj midyk ds fy;s vlR; g&S
simple columnar epithelium :- (1) ;g yach ,oa iryh dksf'kdkvksa ds ,d Lrj dk cuk gksrk
(1) It is composed of a single layer of tall and slender gS A
cells
(2) dsanzd iz k ;% dksf'kdk ds vk/kkjh Hkkx esa gksrk gAS
(2) Their nuclei are located at the base
(3) eqDr lrg ij izk ;% lw{ekdaqj ik, tk ldrs gaAS
(3) Free surface may have microvilli
(4) They are found in the walls of blood vessels and (4) ;g ÅÙkd jDr okfgdkvksa dh fHkfÙk esa rFkk QsQM+s ds ok;q
air sac of lungs dks"k esa ik;k tkrk gS A
152. Connective tissues includes :- 152. la;ksth ÅÙkd esa lfEefyr g&S
(a) Cartilage (b) Bone (a) mikfLFk (b) vfLFk
(c) Adipose tissue (d) Blood (c) olh; ÅÙkd (d) jDr
(1) a, b, and d (2) a, b and c (1) a, b, rFkk d (2) a, b rFkk c
(3) b and d (4) All a,b,c and d (3) b rFkk d (4) lHkh a,b,c rFkk d
153. Unicellular gland is ? 153. ,ddksf'kdh; xza fFk gS&
(1) Goblet cell (2) Paneth cell (1) xkscysV dksf'kdk (2) isfuFk dksf'kdk
(3) Pancreas (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) vXuk'k; (4) nksuksa (1) o (2)
154. Chief matrix producing cells are ? 154. eq[; :i ls vk/kk=h L=kfor djus okyh dksf'kdk,sa gS :-
(1) Fibroblast cells (2) Mast cells (1) rUrq dksjd dksf'kdk,sa (2) ekLV dksf'kdk,sa
(3) Plasma cells (4) Adipose cells (3) IykTek dksf'kdk,sa (4) olk dksf'kdk,sa
155. Match the column I, II and III :- 155. LraHk I, II rFkk III dks lqesfyr dhft;s :-
Column-I Column-II Column-III Lra H k-I Lra H k-II Lra Hk -III
(i) Fibroblast (a) Seratonin (1) Scavanger cells (i) rUrq dksjd dksf'kdk (a) fljsVksfuu (1) lQkbZ dksf'kdk
(ii) Plasma cell (b) Largest cell (2) Clone of lymphocyte (ii) IykTek dksf'kdk (b) lcls cMh dksf'kdk (2) fyEQkslkbV dk Dyksu
(iii) Mast cell (c) Cart wheel cell (3) Vaso constrictor (iii) ekLV dksf'kdk (c) dkVZ Oghy dksf'kdk (3) okfguh ladkspd
(iv) Macrophages (d) Kidney shaped (4) Matrix producing cells (iv) eØ
S ksQst (d) o`Dd dh vkd`fr (4) vk/kk=h L=kfor djus
nucleus dk dsUæd okyh dksf'kdk
(1) (i)–b–4, (ii)–c–2, (iii)–a–3, (iv)–d–1 (1) (i)–b–4, (ii)–c–2, (iii)–a–3, (iv)–d–1
(2) (i)–b–4, (ii)–a–3, (iii)–c–2, (iv)–d–1 (2) (i)–b–4, (ii)–a–3, (iii)–c–2, (iv)–d–1
(3) (i)–a–2, (ii)–b–1, (iii)–d–4, (iv)–c–3 (3) (i)–a–2, (ii)–b–1, (iii)–d–4, (iv)–c–3
(4) (i)–a–2, (ii)–c–3, (iii)–d–4, (iv)–b–1 (4) (i)–a–2, (ii)–c–3, (iii)–d–4, (iv)–b–1
ALLEN
156. Match the column I to column II :- 156. LraHk I dks LraHk II ls lq efs yr dhft;s :-
Column-I Column-II Lra H k-I Lra H k-II
(i) Areolar connective (a) Panniculus (i) varjkyh ;ksth ÅRrd (a) Panniculus
tissue adiposus adiposus
(ii) White fat (b) Umblical cord (ii) 'osr olk (b) xHkZuky
(iii) Reticular fibrous (c) Tela (iii) (c) Vsyk
tkfydk rarqe; ;ksth
connective tissue subcutanea
ÅRrd lcD;wVfs u;k
(iv) Mucoid connective (d) Endosteum
tissue (iv) 'ys"e ;ksth ÅRrd (d) ,sUMksfLV;e
(1) (i) – a, (ii) – b, (iii) – c, (iv) – d. (1) (i) – a, (ii) – b, (iii) – c, (iv) – d.
(2) (i) – c, (ii) – a, (iii) – d, (iv) – b. (2) (i) – c, (ii) – a, (iii) – d, (iv) – b.
(3) (i) – b, (ii) – a, (iii) – c, (iv) – d. (3) (i) – b, (ii) – a, (iii) – c, (iv) – d.
(4) (i) – a, (ii) – c, (iii) – d, (iv) – b. (4) (i) – a, (ii) – c, (iii) – d, (iv) – b.
157. A connective tissue in which cells and fibres are 157. la;ksth mÙkd ftlesa dksf'kdk ,oa rarq ,d nwljs ls v/kZrjy
loosely arranged in a semi fluid grounds substance, vk/kkjh; inkFkZ esa f'kfFkyrk ls tqM+s jgrs gS] Ropk ds uhps mifLFkr
present below the skin, serve as a support framework gksrk gS] midyk ds fy , vk/kkjh; <kaps dk dk;Z djrk gSA
for epithelium is called :- dgykrk gS :-
(1) Areolar tissue (2) Spongy tissue (1) varjkyh mÙkd (2) Liath mÙkd
(3) Dense regular tissue (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) l?ku fu;fer mÙkd (4) (1) rFkk (2) nksuksa
158. Which one is unrelated ? 158. dkSu lk lqefs yr ugh gS ?
(1) Keratin (2) Elastin (1) fdjsfVu (2) bykfLVu
(3) Dextrin (4) Collagen (3) MsDlVªhu (4) dksy t s u
159. Consider the following figure & choose the 159. uhps fn, x, fp= ij fopkj dhft, vk Sj lgh fodYi
correct option :- pqus :-
Regular dense connective Join muscle is'kh dks Ropk ls

(1) Tendon (1) fu;fer l?ku la;ksth mÙkd daMjk
tissue to skin tksM+uk
Regular dense connective Join bone fu;fer l?ku la;ksth vfLFk dks vfLFk
(2) Ligament (2) Luk;q
tissue to bone mÙkd ls tksM+uk
Irregular dense connective Join muscle vfu;fer l?ku la;ksth is'kh dks vfLFk ls
(3) Tendon (3) daMjk
tissue to bone mÙkd tksM+uk
Irregular dense connective Join muscle is'kh dks vfLFk ls

(4) Ligament (4) vfu;fer l?ku la;ksth mÙkd Luk;q
tissue to bone tksM+uk
160. Bones formed by ossification of a tendon is 160. daMjk }kjk fufeZr vfLFk dgykrh gS :-
called :-
(1) dyktkr vfLFk (2) daMjktkr vfLFk
(1) Membranous bone (2) Sesamoid bone
(3) Dermal bone (4) Cartilage (3) MeZy vfLFk (4) mikfLFk
ALLEN
161. Mark the incorrect match with respect to cartilage 161. mikfLFk vkjS vfLFk eas blds laxr lajpuk ds fy, xyr feyku
and its corresponding structure in bone :- dk p;u dhft, :-
Cartilage Bone mi kfLFk vfLFk
(1) Chondroblast Osteoclast (1) dksUMªksCykLV vksfLVvksDykLV
(2) Ossein Chondrin (2) Åflu dkaSfMªu
(3) Chondroblast Osteoblast (3) dksUMªksCykLV vksfLVvksCykLV
(4) Chondrocyte Osteocyte (4) dksUMªkslkbV vksfLVvkslkbV
162. Podocytes of Bowman's capsule is made up of 162. ckseus laiqV dh iksMkslkbV~l cuh gksrh g\ S
(1) Simple columnar epithelium (1) ljy LrEHkkdkj midyk
(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium (2) ljy ?kukdkj midkyk
(3) Citiated epithelium (3) i{ekHk midyk
(4) Simple squamous epithelium (4) ljy 'kYdh midyk
163. Which of the following is set of connective tissue 163. fuEu esa ls fdl fodYi esa dsoy la;ksth ÅÙkd fn;s x;s
only ? gaS\
(1) Blood, bone, skin (1) :f/kj] vfLFk] Ropk
(2) Blood, bone, muscle (2) :f/kj] vfLFk] is'kh
(3) Bone, tendon, muscle (3) vfLFk] d.Mjk] is'kh
(4) Cartilage, bone, blood (4) mikfLFk] vfLFk] :f/kj
164. What happen if bone of frog is kept in dilute 164. ;fn esa<d dh vfLFk dks ruq gkbMªkDs yksfjd vEy esa j[k fn;k
hydrochloric acid ? tk, rks D;k gksxk\
(1) Bone will becomes flexible (1) vfLFk yphyh cu tk,xh
(2) Bone will turn black (2) vfLFk dkyh iM+ tk,xh
(3) Bone will break into pieces (3) vfLFk [k.Mksa esa foHkkftr gks tk,xh
(4) Bone will shrink (4) vfLFk fldqM+ tk,xh
165. The nature of articular cartilage present between 165. py vfLFk;ksa dh laf/k;ksa ds chp mifLFkr lU/kk;d mikfLFk dh
joints of movable bones is :- izÏ fr gksrh gS :-
(1) Calcified cartilage (1) dSfYlQkbM mikfLFk
(2) Hyaline cartilage (2) gk,ykbu mikfLFk
(3) White fibrous cartilage (3) 'osr rarqe; mikfLFk
(4) Yellow elastic fibro cartilage (4) ihyh yphyh rarqe ; mikfLFk
166. In cockroach, which one of the following helps to 166. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu frypês esa 'kqØk.kqvksa ds iks"k.k esa lgk;rk
nourish the sperms ? djrk gS ?
(1) Utriculi brevivores (2) Utriculi majoris (1) ;wVªhdqykbZ czsohoksfjl (2) ;qVªhdqykbZ estkWfjl
(3) Vasa deferentia (4) Ejaculatory duct (3) 'kqØ okfgdk (4) L[kyu okfguh
167. How many are correct statements about cockroach? 167. frypês ds lanHkZ esa fdrus dFku lgh gaS ?
(A) The abdomen in both males and females (A) uj o eknk nksuksa esa mnj nl [kaMh; gksrk gAS
consists of 10 segments
(B) Cockroach is nocturnal and omnivores animal (B) frypêk jkf=pj vkjS lokZgkjh tUrq gAS
(C) Anal cerci present in both males and females (C) xqnh; ywe uj vkjS eknk nksuksa esa gksrs gaAS
(D) Hepatic caecae are the excretory organs of
(D) ;Ïrh; va/kuky dkWdjksp ds mRlthZ vax gaS
cockroach
(E) Anal styles are present in both males and (E) uj o eknk nksuksa esa xqnh; 'kwd mifLFkr gksrs gaAS
females
(1) A, B, C vkjS D (2) B, C, D vkjS E
(1) A, B, C and D (2) B, C, D and E
(3) A, B and C (4) A, B and D (3) A, B vkSj C (4) A, B vkSj D

ALLEN
168. Consider the following four statements (i-iv) and 168. fuEufyf[kr pkj dFkuksa (i-iv) ij fopkj dhft, vkjS dsoy
select the option which includes all the correct ml fodYi dk p;u dhft, ftlds vUrxZr lHkh lgh dFkuksa
ones only :- dks lfEefyr fd;k x;k gS :-
(i) In cockroach forewings arises from prothorax (i) frypês esa vxzia[k vxzo{k ls mRiUu gksrs gaSA
(ii) In cockroach hind wings arises from (ii) frypês esa i'p ia[k i'p o{k ls mRiUu gksrs gaSA
metathorax
(iii) frypês ds i'p ia[k ikjn'khZ vkjS f>Yyhuqek gksrs gaS rFkk
(iii)The hind wings of cockroach are transparent,
membranous and used in flight mM+us esa iz;ksx fd;s tkrs gaSA
(iv) Fore wings of cockroach are long, narrow and (iv) frypês ds vxz ia[k yEcs] ldjs vkjS pfeZy gksrs gaS vkjS
leathery and used in flight mM+us esa iz;ksx fd;s tkrs gaSA
Options fodYi
(1) (i), (ii) and (iv) (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (1) (i), (ii) vkSj (iv) (2) (ii), (iii) vkjS (iv)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iii) (3) (i), (iii) vkSj (iv) (4) (ii) vkjS (iii)
169. Match column-I with column-II and select the 169. dkWye-I dk dkWye-II ds lkFk feyku dhft, vkSj muds fo"k;
correct option about them :- esa lgh fodYi dk p;u dhft, :-
Column-I Column-II dkWye-I dkWye -II
(A) Labrum (i) Lower lip (A)yscez (i) fupyk vks"B
(B) Labium (ii) Jaw (B) ySfc;e (ii) tcM+k
(C) Mandible (iii) Tongue (C) eSfa Mcy (iii) tafHkdk
(D) Hypopharynx (iv) Upper lip (D) gkbiksQSfjUl (iv) Å/oZ vks"B
(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv (1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(2) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i (2) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
(3) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii (3) A - iv, B - i, C - ii, D - iii
(4) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv (4) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv
170. Mushroom gland is a part of :- 170. e'k:e xzfUFk fdldk Hkkx gS :-
(1) Male reproductive system of cockroach (1) frypês ds uj tuu ra= dk
(2) Female reproductive system of cockroach (2) frypês ds eknk tuu ra= dk
(3) Digestive system of cockroach (3) frypês ds ikpu ra = dk
(4) Circulatory system of cockroach (4) frypês ds ifjlapj.k ra = dk
171. Number of alary muscles in cockroach is :- 171. frypês esa i{kkdkj isf'k;ksa dh la [;k gksrh gS :-
(1) 10 pair (2) 12 pair (1) 10 tksM+h (2) 12 tksM+h
(3) 8 pair (4) 13 pair (3) 8 tksM+h (4) 13 tksM+h
172. Which of the following tegmata of cockroach 172. dkWdjksp dh O;Ld voLFkk esa dkuS lk [k.M la;Dq r gks tkrk gS ?
fused in adult stage ? (1) o{k (2) mnj
(1) Thorax (2) Abdomen
(3) Head (4) (1) and (2) both (3) flj (4) (1) vkjS (2) nksuksa
173. Cockroach moves on the smooth surface by :- 173. dkWdjksp fpduh lrg ij fdlds }kjk pyrk gS :-
(1) Claw (2) Arolium (1) u[kj (2) ,sjksfy;e
(3) Plantuli (4) Antennae (3) IysUVwyh (4) Jàfxdk,a
174. Each compound eye of cockroach consists of 174. dkWdjksp dh izR;sd la;Dq r u=S esa yxHkx ....... "kVdks.kh; us=k'kad
about ....... hexagonal ommatidia. gksrs gAS
(1) 2000 (2) 1500 (3) 1000 (4) 500 (1) 2000 (2) 1500 (3) 1000 (4) 500

ALLEN
175. In cockroach which structure help in monitoring 175. dkWdjksp esa dkSulh lajpuk okrkoj.kh; n'kkvksa dks ekius dk
the environment ? dke djrs gSa\
(1) Legs (2) Antenne (1) Vka xs (2) ¥ Ükà fxdk
(3) Maxilla (4) Occelli (3) efS Dlyk (4) us=d
176. Chitnous structure associated with phallic aparture 176. Qsfyd fNnz ls tqM+h dkbfVu dh lajpuk gS :-
is ? (1) Qsyksfe;j (2) 'kqØxzkfgdk
(1) Phallomeres (2) Spermatheca
(3) Vasa deferentia (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) oklk MsQjsUlh;k (4) nksuksa (1) o (2)
177. Transitional epithelium is present in ? 177. laØe.k midyk mifLFkr gksrk gS ?
(1) Renal pelvis (2) Hairs (1) o`fDd; isfYol (2) cky
(3) Featheres (4) Scales (3) ia[k (4) 'kYd
178. Identify the names A, B, C & D in the given figure 178. uhps fn;s fp=ksa esa ls A, B, C rFkk D dh igpku dhft;s :-
B B
C C
A A
D D
A B C D A B C D
(1) Mandible Ocellus Maxilla Labrum (1) efS UMfcy vksflyl efS Dlyk yscze
(2) Mandible Compound eye Maxilla Labium (2) efS UMfcy la;qDr us= efS Dlyk ysfc;e
(3) Mandible Maxilla Ocellus Labrum (3) efS UMfcy efS Dlyk vksflyl yscze
(4) Mandible Labrum Maxilla Ocellus (4) efS UMfcy yscze efS Dlyk vksflyl
179. Stink gland is found in :- 179. fLVad xzafFk mifLFkr gksrh gS :-
(1) 4th & 5 th terga of cockroach (1) dkWdjksp ds 4 vkjS 5 Vjxk ij
(2) 5th & 6 th terga of cockroach (2) dkWdjksp ds 5 vkjS 6 Vjxk ij
(3) 5th & 6 th sterna of cockroach (3) dkWdjksp ds 5 vkjS 6 LVZuk ij
(4) 4th & 5 th sterna of cockroach (4) dkWdjksp ds 4 vkjS 5 LVZuk ij
180. The development of periplaneta is :
180. isfjIysuVS k esa ifjorZu gksrk gS&
(1) Holometabolous
(2) Hemi metabolous (1) gksykseVs kcksyl
(3) Ametabolous (2) gseh esVkcksyl
(4) Paurometabolous (3) vesVkcksyl
(4) ikjS kseVs kcksyl

ALLEN
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy, txg
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in within 2 days along with Paper code and Your Form No.
uksV% ;fn bl iz'u i= esa dksbZ Correction gks rks Ïi;k Paper code ,oa vkids Form No. ds lkFk 2 fnu ds vUnj dlpcorrections@allen.ac.in ij mail djsaA
ALLEN

Read carefully the following instructions : fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;ku ls i<+ sa :
1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her 1. iwNs tkus ij izR;sd ijh{kkFkhZ] fujh{kd dks viuk ,yu igpku
Allen ID Card to the Invigilator. i= fn[kk,A
2. No candidate, without special permission of 2. fujh{kd dh fo'ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk dksbZ ijh{kkFkhZ viuk
the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat. LFkku u NksM+As
3. The candidates should not leave the 3. dk;Zjr fujh{kd dks viuk mÙkj&i= fn, fcuk dksbZ ijh{kkFkhZ
Examination Hall without handing over their ijh{kk gkWy ugha NksM+sA
Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Ca lculator is 4. bys D Vª k W f ud@gLrpfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ks x oftZ r
prohibited. gSA
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and 5. ijh{kk gkWy esa vkpj.k ds fy, ijh{kkFkhZ ijh{kk ds lHkh
Regulations of the examination with regard to fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa }kjk fu;fer gAS vuqfpr lk/ku ds lHkh
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All
cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per
ekeyksa dk Ql S yk ijh{kk ds fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa ds vuqlkj
Rules and Regulations of this examination. gksxkA
6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet 6. fdlh gkyr esa ijh{kk iqfLrdk vkjS mÙkj&i= dk dksbZ Hkkx
shall be detached under any circumstances. vyx u djs aA
7. The candidates will write the Correct Name 7. ijh{kk iqfLrdk@mÙkj&i= esa ijh{kkFkhZ viuk lgh uke o QkWeZ
and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer uEcj fy[ksaA
Sheet.
Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2757575 dlp@allen.ac.in www.dlp.allen.ac.in, dsat.allen.ac.in
FTS / Page 40/40 0999DMD310119003

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Test Pattern

Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation

(3) 2a (4) a (3) 2a (4) a

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2021/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

NURTURE TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

(3) (7iˆ - 2kˆ + 10 ˆj)N (3) (7iˆ - 2kˆ + 10 ˆj)N

(4) None of these (4) buesas ls dksbZ ugha

(1) 100 N (2) 120 N (1) 100 N (2) 120 N

(3) 50 N (4) 110 N (3) 50 N (4) 110 N

NURTURE TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

(1) 49 N (2) zero (1) 49 N (2) 'kw U;

NURTURE TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

45° 45° 45° 45°

(1) 6 s (2) 4 s (1) 6 s (2) 4 s

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2021/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

(1) -100 î, 150 î rFkk - 250 î

(a) (b) (a) (b)

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2021/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

(1) 60 N (2) 66 N (3) 54 N (4) 42 N (1) 60 N (2) 66 N (3) 54 N (4) 42 N

(1) 350 N (2) 250 N (1) 350 N (2) 250 N

m =0.3 37° m =0.3 37°

(1) 35 kg (2) 37 kg (1) 35 kg (2) 37 kg

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2021/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

(1) zero (1) zero

NURTURE TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

NURTURE TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2021/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

(D) Al < Ga Transition contraction (D) Al < Ga laØe.k ladqpu

(C) M +(g) ¾® M(g)

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2021/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

(1) (A) vxzegk/keuh mRltZu esa enn djrh gSA

(A) (B) (A) (B)

(C) (D) (C) (D)

Tissue Location Function Ård ik;s tkus dk LFkku dk;Z

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2021/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

(4) Simple columnar epithelium (4) ljy LraHkkdkj midyk

Tissue Type ÅÙkd iz d kj

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2021/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

NURTURE TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2021/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

Which structure in the figure release excretory

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2021/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

Organ Function vax dk;Z

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2021/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

Regular dense connective Join muscle is'kh dks Ropk ls

Irregular dense connective Join muscle is'kh dks vfLFk ls

NURTURE TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2021/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

NURTURE TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

NURTURE TEST SERIES/JOINT PACKAGE COURSE/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2021/NEET-UG/04-08-2019

FTS / Page 40/40 0999DMD310119003

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