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GENERAL SCIENCE
Q.1. Which of the following is not a bone in the human body? Pericardium
Q.2. Rennin and lactase, the enzymes required to digest milk, disappear in the human body by the age of two
Q3. Duodenum is situated at the uppermost part of the small intestine
Q.4. The heart is covered by a membrane called Pericardium
Q.5. About ……..of the total calcium present in the human body is in the blood. (d) 1%
Q.6. Phenylketonuria is an example of an inborn error of metabolism. This ‘error’ refers to
atrophy of endocrine glands
Q.7. As in the arms and legs, blood flows against gravity and is prevented from flowing back by
(b) valves
Q.8. Identical twins arise when two
(a) cells develop independently from the same zygote
Q.9. Element that is not found in blood is
(c) chromium
Q.10. Scratching eases itching because
(d) it stimulates certain nerves which direct the brain to increase the production of antihistaminic chemicals.
Q.11. The gland, which in relation to body size is largest at birth and then gradually shrinks after puberty, is?
(c) Thymus
Q.12. A human sperm may contain ?
1. X-chromosome
2. Y-chromosome
3. XY-chromosome
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c)1 and 2
(d) l,2 and 3
Ans. c
Q.13. Which of the following is not a bone in the legs of human body?
(a) Radius
Q.14. Bleeding from artery is characterized by which of the following?
1. Blood is red.
2. Blood is purple.
3. Bleeding is continuous.
4. Bleeding is intermittent.
(a) 1 and3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Ans. b
Q.16. Which of the following bone articulations forms the gliding joint?
(a) Humenis and radius
(b) Carpals
(c) Hip girdle and femur
(d) Skull & neck verterbrae
Ans. b
Q.20. The hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in mothers, is?
(a) ACTH
(b) Leutinizing hormone
(c) Adrenalin
(d) Lactogenic hormone
Q.28. Which of the following glands controls the development of sex organs in humans?
(a) Paancreas
(b) Thyroid
(c) Adrenal
(d) Pituitary
Ans. d
Q.30. Which of the following components of blood protects human beings from infection?
(a) Plasma
(b) Blood Platelets
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) White Blood Corpuscles
Ans. d
Q.32 .If a person can see an object clearly when it is placed at distance of about 25 cm away from him, he is
suffering from
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) astigmatism
(d) None of these
Ans. d
Q.33. The blood pressure values of four persons are given below:
1. Mrs.X-90/60
2. Mr.X-160/120
3. Mr. Y-120/80
4. Mrs.Y-140/l00
Who among the following has normal blood pressure?
(a) Mrs. Y
(b) Mr. X
(c) Mrs. X
(d) Mr. Y
Ans. d
Q.36. Which of the following organs is used in the purification of blood in human body?
(a) Liver
(b) Kidney
(c) Spleen
(d) Lungs
Ans. d
Q.40. Which of the following when taken by pregnant women, is found to be the cause of deformed children?
(a) Glycerol
(b) Xylidine
(c) Thalidomide
(d) None of these
Ans. c
Q.44. Insects form the largest class of animals living on land and sea. They are grouped into
(a) 22 orders
(b) 26 orders
(c) 29 orders
(d) 32 orders
Ans. c
Q.50. Which of the following activities is suppressed by the presence of auxins in plants?
(a) Growth of lateral buds
(b) Cell division
(c) Root initiation
(d) Development of fleshy fruits
Ans. c
1. The bent-up length of rail used in front of nose of crossing which help in channelising the train wheels in their
proper routes are known as:
(a) lead rail (b) point rail (c) wing rail (d) splice rail
Ans:- C
2.The point up to which the new railway track laid, at any time is called:
Ans:- C
Ans:- C
Ans:- B
5.The gradual or tapered widening of the flangeway which is formed by bending and splaying the end of check
rail or wing rail away from the gauge line is known as:
Ans:- A
6.The minimum height of embankment above the highest flood mark in the area should be:
Ans:- D
7.The recommended depth of ballast cushion on a curved portion of a track is provided under the ........ edge of
the sleeper.
Ans:- C
9.The granular material spread on the formation of a railway track for the sleepers to rest upon is known as:
Ans:- B
Ans:- B
11.The members laid transversely under the rails for supporting and fixing them at the gauge distance apart are
known as:
Ans:- B
Ans:- B
13.The rectangular pits in which wheels of the locomotives are taken out for repairs, are known as:
Ans:- C
14. The wheels are coned to prevent from rubbing the inside face of the rail head and to prevent lateral movement
of the axle with its wheels. The slope of cone is:
Ans:- B
15. Gauge is the distance measured in place of the between which faces of two parallel rails in a track.
16. Most significant which imposes limitations in raising the high speeds is:
Ans:- A
Ans:- A
Ans:- C
19. In India generally the sleeper density of sleepers per rail length used is:
Ans:- A
20. The extra rails provided over bridge to prevent damage and danger in case of derailment on the bridge are
known as:
(a) Stock rails (b) Guard rails (c) Check rails (d) Wing rails
Ans:- B
21. The phenomenon of misalignment of rails due to temperature change is known as:
Ans:- D
Ans:- A
(a) sand (b) Gravel (c) Quartzite (d) All the above
Ans:- C
Ans:- D
25. While preparing sub-grade of a railway line, the grubbing operation means:
Ans:- D
26. The sinuous path taken by an engine as against the alignment of the track is known as:
Ans:- B
27. The mechanical device which transfer chemical energy of fuel into mechanical energy in the form of motion is
called:
Ans:- D
Ans:- A
Ans:- C
30. To reduce the intensity of pressure particularly on soft variety of sleepers, a rectangular plate is introduced
between the rails and the sleepers. This is known as:
Ans:- D
31. Generally the rail sections used in India is:
Ans:- A
32. The arrangement consisting of three tracks used for changing the direction of engine is called:
Ans:- B
33. The length of a wooden sleeper for broad gauge track is:
Ans:- C
34. The technical officer of the rank of sectional officer in the maintenance organisation of Indian Railways is
called:
(b) Gangmate
Ans:- C
35. The depth of ballast section under sleeper for broad gauge track as per Indian standard should be:
Ans:- B
36. The completed and finished railway line on which wheeled vehicles are drawn by locomotive is known as:
(a) steel way (b) rails (c) railway (d) permanent way
Ans:- D
37. The horse power to weight ratio steam engine is generally of the order of:
Ans:- B
Ans:- D
39. The horizontal distance from the material depot to the rail head is called:
Ans:- D
40. On curves, to counteract the effect of centrifugal force, the level of outer rail is raised above the inner rail by a
certain amount. This is called:
Ans:- C
41. The measure of stiffness of track required to produce a unit depression in the track is known as:
Ans:- D
Ans:- C
43. The fixed rail in a railway track against which the tongue rail fits s known as:
(a) wing rail (b) stock rail (c) lead rail (d) point rail
Ans:- B
44. The standard length of rail for Broad Gauge track in India is:
Ans:- D
45. The thickness of fish plate generally used in Indian Railway is:
Ans:- D
46. Thermal efficiency of a diesel engine may be expected to be in the range of:
(a) 50-65% (b) 25-35% (c) 15-20% (d) 10-15%
Ans:- B
Ans:- D
48. Any movement of the locomotive in different planes, e.g., vertical, longitudinal, transversal etc., is known as:
Ans:- A
49. In rainy season the dust in the ballast becomes mud and comes up by suction from below the rail joint. Such
joint is called:
Ans:- C
Ans:- A
1. A single acting reciprocating pump, running at 60 r.p.m, delivers 0.01 m2/sec of water. The area of the piston is 0.05m2 and stroke
length is 40 cm. Then theoretical discharge of the pump will be
(a) 0.015 m3/sec (b) 0.02 m3/sec
(c) 0.025 m3/sec (d) 0.03 m3/sec
Ans:- B
7. The rate of flow of water through a double acting reciprocating pump is equal to
(a) A.L.N /60 (b) 2 AL.N/60 (c) A.L.N./2×60 (d) 3 A.L.N./60
Ans:- B
8. The rate of flow of water through a single acting reciprocating pump is equal to
(a) A.L.N /60 (b) 2 AL.N/60 (c) A.L.N./2×60 (d) 3 A.L.N./60
Ans:- A
10. The pump which raises water without any external power for its operation, is known as
(a) centrifugal pump (b) reciprocating pump
(c) hydraulic ram (d) hydraulic intensifier
Ans:- C
11. The power at the shaft of a centrifugal pump is 100 KW, and the power available at the impeller is 900 KW. If water horse power
is 720 KW, then overall efficiency of the centrifugal pump will be
(a) 90% (b) 80% (c) 75% (d) 72%
Ans:- D
14. The term W.Q.Hm / (75 S.H.P) for a centrifugal pump is known as
(a) mechanical efficiency (b) manometric efficiency
(c) overall efficiency (d) none of the above
Ans:- C
15. If a circular chamber is introduced between the casing and the impeller, then casing is known as
(a) vortex casing (b) volute casing
(c) casing with guide blades (d) none of the above
Ans:- A
19.Francis turbine is a
(a) radially inward flow turbine
(b) radially outward flow turbine
(c) axial flow turbine
(d) none of the above
Ans:- A
21. The pressure at the exist of the runner of a reaction turbine is generally
(a) more than atmospheric pressure
(b) equal to atmospheric pressure
(c) less than atmospheric pressure
(d) none of the above
Ans:- C
25. A turbine is having specific speed of 400. Then the turbine would be
(a) Kaplan turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) Pelton turbine (d) None of the above
Ans:- A
26.A turbine is having specific speed as 100. Then the turbine would be
(a) Kaplan turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) Pelton turbine (d) Steam turbine
Ans:- B
27. The axial flow reaction turbine, in which vanes are fixed to the hub and they are not adjustable, is known as
(a) Kaplan turbine (b) Francis turbine
(c) propeller turbine (d) Pelton turbine
Ans:- C
28.In case reaction turbine, the total head at the inlet of a turbine consists of
(a) pressure energy and kinetic energy
(b) kinetic energy only
(c) pressure energy only
(d) none of the above
Ans:- A
29. In case of reaction turbine, the total head at the inlet of a turbine consists of
(a) pressure energy and kinetic energy
(b) kinetic energy only
(c) pressure energy only
(d) none of the above
Ans:- B
30. Kaplan turbine is a
(a) reaction turbine (b) impulse turbine
(c) radial flow turbine (d) none of the above
Ans:- A
33. The relation between overall efficiency. mechanical efficiency and hydraulic efficiency is given by
(a) h0 = hmech / hhyd (b) h0 = hmech / hhyd
(c) h0 = 1.0 / (hmech × hhyd) (d) h0 = hhyd / hmech
Ans:- B
34.The ratio of power at the shaft of a turbine to the power supplied by water at inlet of a turbine is known as
(a) hydraulic efficiency (b) mechanical efficiency
(c) overall efficiency (d) none of the above
Ans:- C
35. The ratio of power available at the shaft of a turbine to the power developed by the runner of the turbine is known as
(a) hydraulic efficiency (b) mechanical efficiency
(c) overall efficiency (d) volumetric efficiency
Ans:- B
36. A jet water of area of cross-section 20 cm2, having a velocity of 20 m/sec strikes a curved plate which is moving with a velocity
of 10 m/sec in the direction of the jet. The jet leaves the vane at an angle of 600 to the direction of motion of vane at outlet as shown
in Fig. Z3. The relative velocity at inlet will be
(a) 20 m/sec (b) 10 m/sec (c) 15 m/sec (d) 16 m/sec
Ans:- B
39. In Fig Z2 shows the velocity triangles triangles at inlet and outlet of a turbine, V1 represents the absolute velocity at inlet and u1
represents vane velocity at inlet. The relative velocity at inlet is represented by
(a) length BD (b) Length AD
(c) length CD (d) length CB
Ans:- D
40. In Fig. Z2 the velocity of whirl at inlet is given by
(a) length DB (b) length AD
(c) length CD (d) length CB
Ans:- B
43. A jet water of area 40 cm2 moving with a velocity of 10 m/sec strikes normally a fixed vertical plate. The force exerted by the jet
on the plate in the direction of jet will be
(a) 500 N (b) 400 N (c) 300 N (d) 200 N
Ans:- B
4.) 2 capacitances are in parallel gives 6 micro farad & in series gives 25 what will be the value of individual
capacitance.
7.) Among values 1 to100 Probability of occurance of numbers ending with 9 is?
a:1/10 b:9/10 c:1 d:0
8.) Si, Ge lie in ….. block of periodic table
a: III b: V c: IVA(ANS) d: IV B
9.) Some eqn was given x=20 sin 157t then calculate frequency
13.) If we dig EARTH FROM North to South pole and a stone is dropped in it then efffect on its velocity
a: increase continously
b: First increase and become Zero in center
c. It Will Start Oscillate
24.) RADDISH is a
a: modified root
b: bulb
c; stem
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (a)
13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d)
24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (a & b) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (a)
35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (a)
47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (a)
59. (d) 60. (d) 61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c)
71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (d) 81. (a) 82. (d)
83. (a) 84. (d) 85. (d) 86. (c) 87. (a) 88. (d) 89. (a) 90. (c) 91. (b)
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Labels: GENERAL INTELLIGENCE, GENERAL KNOWLEDGE, MODEL PAPERS
MONDAY, OCTOBER 25, 2010
32. How many IITs will be set up in the 11th Five Year Plan ?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
33. Among the following which country has the highest life expectancy at birth (in years) ?
(A) Japan
(B) Denmark
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Switzerland
34. Match ListI with ListII and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
ListI (Place)
(a) Vishakhapatnam
(b) Muri
(c) Gurgaon
(d) Panki
ListII (Industry)
1. Automobile
2. Shipbuilding
3. Fertiliser
4. Aluminium
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 4 3 1
35. Which among the following is a public sector Commercial Bank ?
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Indian Overseas Bank
(D) UTI Bank
36. Match ListI with ListII and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
ListI (Mineral Production)
(a) Mineral Oil
(b) Gypsum
(c) Gold
(d) Bauxite
ListII (State)
1. Orissa
2. Karnataka
3. Gujarat
4. Rajasthan
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
37. Consider the following statements—
Assertion (A) : Atomic energy in India promises to meet the future energy demand of the
country.
Reason (R) : Atomic minerals are ubiquitous in India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
38. Which of the following states has the longest coast line ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Kerala
(D) Tamil Nadu
39. Which of the following rock systems in India is the main source of coal deposits ?
(A) Dharwar system
(B) Gondwana system
(C) Cudappa system
(D) Vindhyan system
40. Laterite soil is found in—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Maharashtra
41. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kirghiz — Central Asia
(B) Masai — West Africa
(C) Red Indians — North America
(D) Eskimos — Greenland
42. Chilka lake is situated in—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamil Nadu
43. Damodar is a tributary of river—
(A) Ganga
(B) Hugli
(C) Padma
(D) Suvarn Rekha
44. Sangam Yojana is concerned with—
(A) provision for clean drinking water
(B) provision for cleaning rivers
(C) promoting communal harmony
(D) helping the invalids
45. National Dairy Development Board is located in—
(A) Anand
(B) Gandhinagar
(C) Vadodara
(D) Valsad
46. Economic Planning is included in the Constitution of India in—
(A) Union List
(B) State List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) Special List
47. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Kimberley — Diamond
(B) Havana — Meat packing
(C) Milan — Silk
(D) Sheffield — Cutlery
48. Dudhawa National Park is situated in the district of—
(A) Lalitpur
(B) Pilibhit
(C) Lakhimpur Khiri
(D) Sonbhadra
49. The correct descending order of major states of India in terms of density of population (2001)
is—
(A) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala
(B) West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar
(D) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala
50. The major coffee producing state in India is—
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) West Bengal
51. Which one of the following is the most urbanized states of India according to 2001 Census ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Kerala
52. According to 2001 Census the least densely populated states of India in ascending order are—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland and Sikkim
(B) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Sikkim
(C) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim and Nagaland
(D) Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Nagaland
53. Among the following which fruit is a rich source of iron ?
(A) Jamun
(B) Karonda
(C) Loquat
(D) Guava
54. Vitamin which promotes wound healing is—
(A) Vitamin B
(B) Vitamin C
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Vitamin D
55. Bauxite is an ore of—
(A) Aluminium
(B) Boron
(C) Lead
(D) Silver
56. Which of the following methods is used to determine the age of the earth ?
(A) Carbon dating
(B) Germanium dating
(C) Uranium dating
(D) All the above
57. Name the gas which under normal conditions produces pollution in the atmosphere ?
(A) Carbon monoxide (CO)
(B) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
(C) Nitrogen (N2)
(D) Oxygen (O2)
58. Electronvolt is the unit for—
(A) energy
(B) charge of electron
(C) potential difference
(D) power
59. An atom bomb is based on the principle of—
(A) nuclear fission
(B) nuclear fusion
(C) nuclear spallation
(D) none of these
60. Titan is the largest moon or satellite of—
(A) Mars
(B) Venus
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn
61. The most toxic metal pollutant of the automobile exhaust is—
(A) Copper
(B) Lead
(C) Cadmium
(D) Mercury
62. Which of the following disease is caused by a virus ?
(A) Diphtheria
(B) Malaria
(C) Cholera
(D) Hepatitis
63. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50%, then the area will be increased by—
(A) 50%
(B) 100%
(C) 125%
(D) 225%
64. The term ‘Siamese Twins’ is used for—
(A) twins in which there is one male and one female
(B) twins in which both are females
(C) twins suffering from a common disease of siam
(D) twins physically attached to each other
65. Every solar eclipse takes place on—
(A) full moon only
(B) new moon only
(C) both (A) and (B)
(D) neither (A) nor (B)
66. The headquarter of which of the following is correctly given ?
(A) UNO — London
(B) WTO — Geneva
(C) ILO — New York
(D) FAO — Chicago
67. White bud of maize is caused due to deficiency of—
(A) N
(B) Zn
(C) Cu
(D) Mn
68. A number is 20 more than its 20%. The number is—
(A) 20
(B) 25
(C) 50
(D) 80
69. The train which was started on April 14, 2008 between Kolkata (India) and Dhaka (Bangladesh)
has been named—
(A) Sadbhavna Express
(B) Shanti Express
(C) Maitri Express
(D) Aman Express
70. Thailand’s Ponsana Boonsak won the men’s singles of the India open Grand Prix Badminton
championship held in Hyderabad in April 2008. In the final he defeated—
(A) Anand Pawar
(B) Arvind Bhat
(C) Chetan Anand
(D) Zhendong Guo
71. Indian Institute of Remote sensing is located at—
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Dehradun
(C) Shriharikota
(D) None of the above
72. The winner of the 62nd Santosh Trophy, held in June 2008, was—
(A) Karnataka
(B) West Bengal
(C) Services
(D) Punjab
73. Who among the following was the Chief Guest on the occasion of Republic Day, 2008 ?
(A) British Prime Minister Gardon Brown
(B) French President Nicolas Sarcozy
(C) Danish Prime Minister Anders Fogh Rasmussen
(D) Russian President Vladimir Putin
74. In April 2008 fourth convention of Nuclear safety was held in—
(A) Vienna
(B) London
(C) Paris
(D) Rome
75. Who among the following received Padma Vibhushan Award of 2008 ?
1. Madhuri Dixit
2. Ratan Tata
3. Sachin Tendulkar
4. Viswanathan Anand
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 3, 4
76. March 24 (2008) was observed as—
(A) World AIDS Day
(B) World Disabled Day
(C) World Environment Day
(D) World Tuberculosis (TB) Day
77. Which one of the following pairs of Harappan sites and their locations is not correctly
matched ?
(A) Alamgirpur — Uttar Pradesh
(B) Banawali — Haryana
(C) Diamabad — Maharashtra
(D) Rakhigarhi — Rajasthan
78. Jivaka, the famous physician of the time of Gautama Buddha, was associated with the court of
(A) Bimbisara
(B) Chanda Pradyota
(C) Prasenajeta
(D) Udayana
79. After President’s signature on the recommendation of Delimitation Commission, Parliamentary
and Assembly Constituencies with certain exemptions, will be redefined. Which of the
following are exempted ?
1. Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur
2. Assam
3. Nagaland
4. Jharkhand
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
80. The winner of French Open, 2008 (Ladies singles) was—
(A) Dinara Safina
(B) Ana Ivanovic
(C) Jelena Jankovic
(D) Svetlana Kuznetsova
81. Who among the following was of the view that the Earth revolves round the Sun ?
(A) Aryabhatta
(B) Brahmagupta
(C) Varahamihira
(D) None of the above
82. What is the difference (in years) between the Vikrama and Saka eras ?
(A) 57 years
(B) 78 years
(C) 135 years
(D) 320 years
83. Who among the following rulers paid attention to the water resource management in Girnar
region some centuries before the Christian era ?
1. Mahapadma Nanda
2. Chandragupta Maurya
3. Ashoka
4. Rudradaman
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 3, 4
84. Ptolemy Philadelphus with whom Ashoka had diplomatic relations was the ruler of—
(A) Cyrene
(B) Egypt
(C) Macedonia
(D) Syria
85. The inscription belonging to which one of the following dynasties confirms the tradition that
Lumbini was the birth place of Sakyamuni Buddha ?
(A) Maurya
(B) Sunga
(C) Satavahana
(D) Kushana
86. Which literature had its classical age under Krishnadeva Raya, the famous Vijayanagara king ?
(A) Konkani
(B) Malayalam
(C) Tamil
(D) Telugu
87. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—
(A) MohammadbinTughlaq
(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi
(D) Sikandar Lodi
88. The department of Public Works was established for the first time by—
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Balban
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Iltutmish
89. . Who were the ‘Nayanars’ ?
(A) Saivites
(B) Saktas
(C) Vaishnavites
(D) Sun worshippers
90. Who among the following kings had strong leaning towards Jainism ?
(A) Dasratha
(B) Brihadratha
(C) Kharavela
(D) Huvishka
91. Which one of the following rulers had granted Diwani to the East India Company ?
(A) Farrukhsiyar
(B) Shah AlamI
(C) Shah AlamII
(D) Shujaud Daula
92. The transfer of capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of
(A) Lord Minto
(B) Lord Hardinge
(C) Lord Chelmsford
(D) Lord Reading
93. The Durand line demarcated India’s border with—
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Burma
(C) Nepal
(D) Tibet
94. What was the rate of exchange between the Copper Dam and Silver Rupaya under Sher Shah ?
(A) 16 : 1
(B) 32 : 1
(C) 40 : 1
(D) 64 : 1
95. Arrange the following events of Akbar’s reign in a chronological order :
1. Abolition of Jazia
2. Construction of Ibadatkhana
3. Signing of Mahzar
4. Foundation of DiniIlahi
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4
(D) 3, 4, 1, 2
96. After the arrest of Gandhiji during the Salt Satyagraha, who took his place as leader of the
movement ?
(A) Abbas Tyabji
(B) Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Vallabhbhai Patel
97. Which one of the following revolutionaries involved in Kakori case had escaped the trial ?
(A) Sachindra Nath Bakshi
(B) Mukundi Lal
(C) Chandra Shekhar Azad
(D) Manmath Nath Gupta
98. Who changed the name of Hindustan Republic Association founded by Sachindra Sanyal to
‘Hindustan Socialist Republic Association’ ?
(A) Ras Behari Bose
(B) Batukeshwar Datt
(C) Sardar Bhagat Singh
(D) Chandra Shekhar Azad
99. Which one of the following revolutionaries was executed in the Gorakhpur Jail ?
(A) Ramprasad Bismil
(B) Rajendra Lahiri
(C) Roshan Singh
(D) Ashfaqullah Khan
100.Whose sustained efforts led to the establishment of the first women’s university in Bombay ?
(A) Dayaram Gidumal
(B) D. K. Karve
(C) Ramabai
(D) Mahadev Govind Ranade
ANSWERS:
1. (A) 41. (B) 81. (A)
2. (C) 42. (C) 82. (C)
3. (D) 43. (B) 83. (D)
4. (A) 44. (D) 84. (B)
5. (C) 45. (A) 85. (A)
6. (A) 46. (C) 86. (D)
7. (D) 47. (C) 87. (B)
8. (D) 48. (C) 88. (C)
9. (D) 49. (B) 89. (A)
10. (C) 50. (B) 90. (C)
11. (D) 51. (C) 91. (C)
12. (C) 52. (C) 92. (B)
13. (C) 53. (A) 93. (A)
14. (C) 54. (C) 94. (C)
15. (C) 55. (A) 95. (A)
16. (D) 56. (C) 96. (A)
17. (B) 57. (A) 97. (A)
18. (B) 58. (A) 98. (C)
19. (B) 59. (A) 99. (A)
20. (C) 60. (D) 100.(B)
21. (A) 61. (B)
22. (B) 62. (D)
23. (C) 63. (D)
24. (C) 64. (D)
25. (C) 65. (B)
26. (B) 66. (B)
27. (D) 67. (B)
28. (C) 68. (B)
29. (D) 69. (C)
30. (D) 70. (C)
31. (B) 71. (D)
32. (C) 72. (D)
33. (A) 73. (B)
34. (B) 74. (A)
35. (C) 75. (B)
36. (D) 76. (D)
37. (C) 77. (D)
38. (A) 78. (A)
39. (B) 79. (D)
40. (D) 80. (B)
Posted by RRB EXAM PAPERS at 11:57 PM