Even 12 Iii

12- 03- 2020 Batch : EVEN BATCH Version
Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE REPEATERS NEET MODEL EXAM - UNIT III B B1
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA TEST ID
Time: 3 hrs.
Physics + Chemistry + Biology
441
Ph - 04822 206100, 206800
www.brilliantpala.org Max. Mark: 720
PHYSICS 5. The field of view is maximum for
1. A plane mirror reflects a pencil of light 1) plane mirror

to form a real image. Then the pencil 2) concave mirror
of light incident on the mirror is
3) convex mirror
1) Parallel 4) cylindrical mirror
2) Convergent 6. The focal length of a concave mirror is
50cm. Where an object be placed so
3) Divergent that its image is two time s and
inverted
4) None of the above
1) -75 cm 2) 72 cm
2. What should be the angle between two 3) 63 cm 4) 50 cm
plane mirrors so that whatever be the
angle of incidence, the incident ray 7. All of the following statements are
and the reflected ray from the two correct except
plane mi rrors be paral lel to each 1) The magnification produced by a
other. convex mirror is always less than one
1) 60o 2) 90o 2) A virtual, erect, same sized image
can be obtained using a plane mirror
3) 120o 4) 175o
3) A virtual, erect, magnified image can
3. If an observer is walking away from be formed using a concave mirror
the plane mirror with 6m/s. Then the 4) A real, inverted, same sized image
velocity of the image with respect to can be formed using a convex mirror
observer will be
8. Convergence of concave mirror can be
1) 6 m/s 2) -6 m/s decreased by dipping in
1) Water 2) Oil
3) 12 m/s 4) 3 m/s
3) Both 4) None of these
4. A convex mirror of focal length ‘f’ forms 9. How much water should be filled in a
1 container 21 cm in height, so that it
an image which is times the object. appears half filled when viewed from
n
The distance of the object from the the top of the container ( give n
mirror is 4
refractive index  )
3
 n 1 
1)  n  1 f 2)  f 1) 8 cm
 n 
2) 10.5 cm
3) 12 cm
 n 1
3)  f 4)  n  1 f 4) None of the above
 n 
FT20P/TP/MOD/NEET/PCB/[B1] 2 Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
10. A vessel of depth 2d cm is half filled 14. A fish looking from within water sees
wi t h a liqu id of r efr act ive in dex n 1 and the outside world through a circular
upper half with a liquid of refractive
horizon. If the fish 7 cm below the
index n 2. The apparent depth of the
vessel seen perpendicularly is surface of water, what will be the
4
 n 1n 2  1 1 radius of the circular horizon. (nw = )
3
1) d   2) d   
 n1  n 2   n1 n 2 
1) 3 cm 2) 4 cm
1 1   1  3) 4.5 cm 4) 5 cm
3) 2d    4) 2d  
 n1 n 2   n1n 2  15. A convex lens of focal length ‘f’ is
place d some where in betwe en an
11. A beam of light is converging towards object and a screen. The distance
a point I on a screen. A plane glass between the object and the screen is
plate whose thickness in the direction x. If the numerical value of
of the beam = t, refractive index = n, magnification produced by the lens is
is introduced in the path of the beam. m, then the focal length of the lens is
The covergence point is shifted by
 1 mx mx
1) t  1   away from glass plate 1)
 m  1
2 2)
 m  1
2
 n
 1
 m  1  m  1
2 2
2) t  1   away from glass plate 3) x 4) x
 n
m m
 1 16. The minimum distance between an
3) t  1   nearer to the glass plate object and its real image formed by a
 n
convex lens of focal length f is
 1 1) 1.5 f 2) 2 f
4) t  1   nearer to the glass plate
 n
3) 6 f 4) 4 f
12. Light takes 8 min 20 seconds to reach
from sun on earth, if the whole space 17. A combination of two thin lenses with
is filled with water, the light will take focal lengths f 1 and f 2 respectively
the time forms an image of distant object at
distance 60 cm when lenses are in
1) 8 min 20 sec 2) 8 min contact. The position of this image
3) 6 min 11 sec 4) 11 min 6 sec shifts by 30 cm towards the
combination when two lenses are
13. A transparent cube of 15cm edge
separated by 10 cm. The corresponding
contains a small air bubble. Its
values of f1 & f2
apparent depth when viewed through
one face is 6cm and when viewed 1) 30 cm, -60 cm
through the opposite face is 4cm. Then
the refractive index of the material of 2) 20 cm, -30 cm
the cube is
3) 15 cm, -20 cm
1) 2 2) 2.5
4) 12 cm, -15 cm
3) 1.6 4) 1.5
18. A convex lens of focal length 12cm is 22. A parallel beam of monochromatic light
is incide nt at one surface of an
3
made of glass of n  . What will be equilateral prism. Angle of incidence
2 is 55o and angle of emergence is 46o.
its focal length when immersed in a The angle of minimum deviation will
5 be
liquid of n 
4 1) less than 41o 2) equal to 41o
1) 6 cm 2) 12 cm 3) more than 41o 4) none of the above
3) 24 cm 4) 30 cm 23. The light ray is incident at an angle
60o on a prism of angle 45o. When the
19. A point object is moving on the light ray falls on the other surface at
principal axis of a concave mirror of 90 o , the re fractive inde x of the
focal length 24 cm towards the mirror. material of prism and angle of
When it is at a distance of 60 cm from deviation respectively are
the mirror, its velocity is 9 cm/s. What
is the velocity of the image at that 1) 2 and 30o 2) 1.5 and 15o
instant
1) 5 cm/s towards the mirror 3 3
3) and 30o 4) and 15o
2) 4 cm/s towards the mirror 2 2
3) 4 cm/s away from the mirror 24. The separation between the two lenses
4) 9 cm/s away from the mirror of the compound microscope is 14 cm.
The magnifying power for relaxed eye
20. A prism (n = 1.5) has the refracting is 25. If the focal length of the eye lens
angle of 30 o . The deviation of a is 5 cm, then the object distance for
monochromatic ray incident normally objective lens will be
on its one surface will be (sin 48o 36’ =
0.75) 1) 1.8 cm 2) 1.5 cm
3) 2.1 cm 4) 2.4 cm
1) 18o 36
25. The magnifying power of a simple
2) 20 30o microscope can be increased, if we
used eye-piece of
3) 18o 1) higher focal length
4) 22o 1 2) smaller focal length
21. The ratio of angle of minimum 3) higher diameter

deviation of a small angled prism in 4) smaller diameter
air and when dipped in water will be
26. The focal lengths of the lenses of an
4 astronomical telescope are 50 cm and
(nglass = 1.5 and nwater = )
3 5 cm. The length of the telescope
when the image is formed at the least
8 2 distance of distinct vision is
1) 2)
1 1 1) 45 cm 2) 55 cm
4 4 275 325
3) 4) 3) cm 4) cm
3 1 6 6
27. What focal length should the reading 33. Unpolarised light of intensity 32 w/
spectacles have for a person for whom m 2 passes through three polarisers
the least distance of distinct vision is such that transmission axes of the first
75 cm and second polariser makes an angle
1) 25 cm 2) 22.5 cm 30 o with e ach other and the
transmission axis of the last polariser
3) 37.5 cm 4) 40 cm is crossed with that of the first. The
28. The far point of a myopic person is 2m intensity of final emerging light will
in front of the eye. What is the power be
of the lens required to enable him to 1) 32 w/m2 2) 3 w/m2
see very distant objects clearly.
3) 8 w/m2 4) 4 w/m2
1) -0.5 D 2) +0.5 D
3) +2 D 4) -2 D 34. In the spectrum of light of a luminous
heavenly body the wavelength of a
29. A telescope of diameter 2m uses light spectral line is measure d to be
o
of wavelength 5000 A for viewing stars. o
4747 A . While actual wavelength of the
The minimum angular separation o
between two stars whose image is just line is 4700 A . The relative velocity of
resolved by this telescope is the body with respect to earth will be
1) 4 × 10-4 rad 2) 0.25 × 10-6 rad 1) 3 × 10 5 m/s moving towards the
3) 0.31 × 10-6 rad 4) 5 × 10-3 rad earth
30. The ratio of intensities of two waves is 2) 3 × 105 m/s moving away from the
9:1. They are producing interference. earth
The ratio of maximum and minimum
3) 3 × 10 6 m/s moving towards the
intensities will be
earth
1) 10:8 2) 9:1
4) 3 × 106 m/s moving away from the
3) 4:1 4) 2:1 earth
31. If two waves represented by y1  4sin  t 35. A slit of width a is illuminated by white
   o 
and y 2  3sin   t   i nterfere at a light. For red light    6500 A  the
 3  
point, the amplitude of the resulting first minima is obtained at   30o .
wave will be about Then the value of a will be
1) 7 2) 6
o
3) 5 4) 3.5 1) 3250 A 2) 6.5 × 10-9 mm
32. The angle of polarisation for a medium 3) 1.24 m 4) 2.6 × 10-4 cm

is 60o. What will be critical angle for
this 36. A slit of size 0.15 cm is placed at 2.1m
from a screen. On illuminated by a
1) sin
1
 3 2) tan
1
 3 light of wavelength of 5 × 10-5 cm, the
width of central maxima will be
1) 70 mm 2) 0.14 mm
1  1 
3) cos
1
 3 4) sin 
 3
 3) 1.4 mm 4) 0.14 cm
37. In the diffraction pattern of a single 41. In the YDSE, when a glass plate of
slit under polychromatic illumination, refractive index 1.5 of thickness t is
the first minimum with the wavelength introduced in the path of one of the
1 is found to be coincident with the interfering beams (wavelength  ), the
intensity at the position where the
third maximum at  2 . Then central maximum occurred previously
remains unchanged. The minimum
1) 31  0.3 2 thickness of glass plate is
2) 31   2 2
1) 2  2)
3
3) 1  3.5  2

3) 4) 
3
4) 0.3 1  3  2
42. In YDSE, the slit separation is made 3
38. In two separate set-ups of YDSE, fold. The fringe width becomes
fringes of equal widths are observed
when lights of wavelengths in the ratio 1 1
1:2 are used. If the ratio of the slit 1) times 2) times
3 9
separation in the two cases is 2:1, the
ratio of distance between the plane of 3) 3 times 4) 9 times
slits and screen in the two set-ups is
43. The refractive index of glass is 1.5 for
1) 4:1 2) 1:1 light whose wavelength in vacuum is
o
3) 1:4 4) 2:1 6000 A . The wavelength of this light
when it passes through glass is
39. In YDSE using sodium light
o o
 o 
1) 4000 A 2) 6000 A
   5898 A  , 92 fringes are seen. If
 
o o
o 3) 9000 A 4) 15000 A
  5461A is used, how many fringes
44. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm is
will be seen
in contact with a concave lens of focal
1) 62 2) 67 length 25 cm. The power of the
combination is
3) 85 4) 99
1) -1.5 D 2) +1.5 D
40. In YDSE, the distance between slits
3) +6.5 D 4) -6.67 D
is 0.28 mm and distance between slits
and screen is 1.4 m. Distance between 45. A point object is placed at a distance
central bright fringe and third bright of 30 cm from a convex mirror of focal
fringe is 0.9 cm. What is the length 30 cm. The image will form at
wavelength of used light
1) infinity
o o 2) focus
1) 5000 A 2) 6000 A
3) pole
o o
3) 7000 A 4) 9000 A 4) 15 cm behind the mirror
CHEMISTRY 50. Which one of the following statements
is not correct?
46. A metal has a fcc lattice. The edge
length of the unit cell is 404 pm. The 1) Catalyst does not initi ate any
density of the metal is 2.72 gcm3. The reaction
molar mass of the metal is : 2) The value of equilibrium constant is
changed in the presence of a catalyst
(NA Avogadro’s constant = 6.02 × 1023 mol– in the reaction at equilibrium
1)
3) Enzymes catalyse mainly bio -
1) 30 g mol–1 2) 27 g mol–1 chemical reactions
4) Coenzymes increase the catalytic
3) 20 g mol–1 4) 40 g mol–1
activity of enzyme
47. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room 51. Nucleophilic addition reaction will be
temperature. Abo ut 900 0 C, it most favoured in
transforms to fcc structure. The ratio 1) (CH3)2C=O
of density of iron at room temperature
to that at 9000C (assuming molar mass 2) CH3CH2CHO
and atomic radii of iron re mains 3) CH3CHO
constant with temperature) is :
O
3 4 3
1) 2) 4) CH3 CH2 CH2 C CH3
2 4 2
52. The product of the reaction shown
3 3 1 below is
3) 4)
4 2 2
COOH
48. The addition of a catalyst during a
chemical reaction alters which of the
following quantities? 
NaOH,H2 O

1) Activation energy Cl
2) Entropy
CH2OH
3) Internal energy
COOH COOH
4) Enthalpy
49. Which o ne of the fo llowing
characteristics is associated with 1) 2)
adsorption? Cl Cl
1) G and S are negative but H is
COOH CH2ONa
positive
COOH
2) G is negative but H and S are COONa
positive
3) 4)
3) G, Hand S all are negative
Cl
OH
4) G and H are negative but S is CH2OH
CH2OH
positive
53. m-chlorobenzaldehyde on reaction 57. The coagulating power of electrolytes
with conc.KOH at room temperature having ions Na + , Al 3+ and Ba 2+ for
gives Arsenic Sulphide Sol increases in the
order
1) Potassium m-chlorobenzoate and
m-hydroxybenzaldehyde 1) Al3+ < Ba2+ < Na+
2) Na+ < Ba2+ < Al3+
2) m-Hydrobenzaldehyde and m-chloro
benzyl alcohol 3) Ba2+ < Na+ < Al3+
4) Al3+ < Na+ < Ba2+
3) m-chlorobenzyl alcohol and m-hydroxy
benzyl alcohol 58. The coagulation values in millimoles
per litre of the electrolytes used for
4) Potassium m-chlorobenzoate and the coagulation of As 2 S 3 are given
m-chorobenzyl alcohol below
54. What is the product formed when (I) NaCl = 52 , (II) BaCl 2 = 0.69, (III)
ketones reacts with ethylene glycol in MgSO4 = 0.22. The correct order of
the presence of dry HCl gas? their coagulating power is
1) III > I > II
1) Ethylene glycol ketal
2) I > II > III
2) Ethylene glycol hemiketal
3) II > I > III
3) Cyanohydrin 4) III > II > I
4) Oxalic acid 59. The formation of cyanohydrin from a
ketone is an example of
55. Which one is an example of gel
1) Electrophilic addition
1) Smoke 2) Nucleophilic substitution
2) Cheese 3) Electrophilic substitution

4) Nucleophilic addition
3) Milk
60. Which is the most suitable reagent for
4) Fog the following conversion?
56. On which of the following properties O

does coagulating power of an ion
CH3 CH CH CH2 C CH3
depend
O
1) The magnitude of the charge on the
ion alone CH3 CH CH CH2 C OH
2) Size of the ion alone 1) Tollen’s reagent
3) Both magnitude and sign of the 2) Benzoyl peroxide

charge of the ion 3) I2 and NaOH solution
4) The sign of charge on the ion alone 4) Sn and NaOh solution
61. The major organic product formed from 63. The major product H in the given
the following reaction reaction sequence is
CN
CH 3  CH 2  CO  CH 3 G 
95% H2 SO4
Heat
H
O

(i)CH3NH2
(ii )LiAlH4
 ... is 1) CH3 CH C COOH
(iii)H O
2
CH3
H
2) CH3 CH C CN
NCH3
1)
CH3
OH
OH
2) 3) CH3 CH2 C COOH

NCH3
H CH3
4) CH3 CH C CO NH2
ONHCH3
3) CH3
64. When Grignard reagent reacts with

ketone it yields.
NHCH3
4) 1) 10 alcohol 2) 20 alcohol
OH 3) 30 alcohol 4) Ethanol
65. Which of the following electrolytes will

62. Which of the following compound does have maximum coagulating value for
not react with concentrated alkali to Ag/Ag+ sol
give corresponding alcohol and salt of
carboxylic acid 1) Na2S 2) Na3PO4
3) Na2SO4 4) NaCl
1) Benzaldehyde
66. Oxalic acid being heated upto 90 0 C
with conc.H2SO4 forms
2) Trichloro acetaldehyde
1) HCOOH + CO2
3) Dimethyl acetaldehyde 2) CO2 + H2O
3) CO2 + CO + H2O
4) Formaldehyde
4) HCOOH + CO
67. CH3COOH 
LiAlH4
 X 
Cu
300 0 C
 Y 
dil. NaOH

 Z. 70. A compound A  C5H10Cl 2 o n
In the above reaction Z is : hydrolysis gives C5H10O which reacts
with NH2OH, forms iodoform but does
1) Aldol 2) Ketol
not give Fehling Test. ‘A’ is
3) Acetol 4) Butanol
Cl
68. The correct order of decreasing acid
1) CH3 C CH2 CH2 CH3
strength of trichloroacetic acid (A),
trifluoroacetic acid (B), acetic acid (C)
and formic acid (D) is : Cl
Cl
1) B > A > D > C
2) CH3CH2 C CH2CH3
2) B > D > C > A
Cl
3) A > B > C > D

Cl
4) A > C > B > D 3) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH
Cl
69. The correct order of acidity for the
following compounds is Cl Cl
4) CH3 CH CH CH2 CH3

CO2H CO2H
71. Purification of colloids is done by the
OH OH OH
process of
I. II.
1) Electrophoresis
2) Electrodispersion
3) Peptization
4) Ultra filtration
CO2H
CO2H 72. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling
points than aldehydes, ketones and
even alcohols of comparable molecular
III. IV. mass. It is due to their
OH 1) Formation of intramolecular H-
OH bonding
2) Formation of carboxylate ion
1) I > II > III > IV 2) III > I > II > IV 3) More exte nsive association of
carboxylic acid via Vander Waal’s
force of attraction
3) III > IV > II > I 4) I > III > IV > II
4) Formation of intermolecular H-
bonding
73. Which can absorb larger volume of 77. Identify the compound A with its
hydrogen gas? correct name formed in the given
reaction
1) Colloidal solution of palladium
CH3 CHO
2) Finely divided Nickel

Cl2 /hv
 A 
H2O

3) Finely divided Platinum 373 K
4) Colloidal Fe(OH)3
CH2Cl
CH3
74. Which one is an incorrect statement?
Cl
1) FeO0.98 has non-stoichiometric metal 1) 2)
deficiency defect
2) Density decreases in case of CCl3 CHCl2

crystals with Schottky’s effect
3) NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon i s 3) 4)

semiconductor, silver is conductor,
quartz is piezo electric crystal
78. Fog is a colloidal solution of :
4) Frenkel defect is favoured in those
ionic compounds in which sizes of 1) Gas in gas 2) Liquid in gas
cations and anions are almost equal 3) Gas in liquid 4) Solid in gas
79. Which one of the following forms
75. In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite micelles in aqueous solution above
structure, the co-ordination numbers certain concentration?
for calcium ion (Ca2+) and fluoride ion
1) Dode cyl trime thyl ammonium
(F–) are :
chloride
1) 4 and 8 2) Glucose
3) Urea
2) 4 and 2
4) Pyridinium chloride
3) 6 and 6 80. Which of the following has the largest
value of dissociation constant Ka?
4) 8 and 4
O O
76. A given metal crystallizes out with a
cubic structure having edge length of
361 pm. If there are four metal atoms 1) 2)
in one unit cell, what is the radius of
O
one atom?
1) 127 pm O
O
2) 80 pm
O
3) 108 pm 3) 4)
4) 40 pm O
81. Identify the major products P, Q and R 82. Of the following, which is the product
in the following sequence of reactions : formed when cyclohexanone
undergoes aldol condensation followed
by heating?
1)
+ CH3CH2CH2Cl 
anhydrous AlCl
P 3
O
(i)O2
(ii)H O /
Q  R
3
2)
P Q R
OH
CH2CH2CH3 CHO
3)
1) , , CH3CH2  OH
O O
CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH 4)
2) , , OH
83. The product formed by the reaction of

an aldehyde with a primary amine is
CH(CH3)2 OH
1) Aromatic acid 2) Schiff’s base
3) , , CH3CH(OH)CH3 3) Ketone 4) Carboxylic acid
84. An organic compound ‘x’ having

molecular formu la C 5 H 10 O yield
phenylhydrazone and gives negative
OH response to the iodoform test and
CH(CH3)2 Tollen’s test. It produces n-pentane on
reduction. ‘X’ could be
4) , , CH3  CO  CH3
1) 3-pentanone 2) n-amyl alcohol
3) Pentanal 4) 2-pentanone
85. Which one is most reactive towards 90. Sodium metal crystallizes as a body
nucleophilic addition reaction? centred cubic lattice with the cell edge
4.29 Å . What is the radius of sodium
CHO COCH3 atom
1) 2) 1) 1.857 × 10–8 cm
2) 2.371 × 10–7 cm
CHO CHO 3) 3.817 × 10–8 cm
4) 9.312 × 10–7 cm
3) 4) BIOLOGY
91. When two individuals, heterozygous for
CH3 NO2 the same genes, are bred together,
they produce :
86. Consider the following reaction : 1) Only dominant phenotypes, all of
them are with same genotypes
COCl
2) Only recessive phenotypes

H2
Pd,BaSO4
 A. The product
3) Only dominant phenotypes of
different genotypes
A is
1) C6H5Cl 2) C6H5OH 4) both recessive and dominant
phenotypes. The latter being of two
3) C6H5COCH3 4) C6H5CHO genotypes
87. CH 3 CHO and C 6 H 5 CH 2 CHO can be 92. Genes A and B are ne ce ssary for
distinguished chemically by, normal hearing. A deaf man marries
1) Tollen’s reagent test a deaf woman and all their children
2) Fehling’s solution test have normal hearing. The genotype of
the parents are :
3) Benedict’s test
1) AA bb and AA bb
4) Iodoform test
88. f-centre is : 2) Aa bb and aa Bb
1) Anion vacancy occupied by unpaired 3) AA bb and aa BB

electron 4) aa BB and aa Bb
2) Anion vacancy occupied by electron
93. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant
3) Cation vacancy occupied by electron over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T) is
4) Anion present in interstitial site dominant over shortness (t). If a plant
with RRTt genotype is crossed with a
89. ZnO is white when cold and yellow
plant that is rrtt :
when heated. It is due to the
development of : 1) 25% will be tall with red fruit
1) Frenkel defect 2) 50% will be tall with red fruit
2) Metal excess defect 3) 75% will be tall with red fruit
3) Schottky defect 4) all of the offspring will be tall with
4) Metal deficiency defect red fruit
94. Two crosses between the same pair of 98. The absence of X chromosome in
genotypes or phenotypes in which the human beings causes :
sources of the gametes are reversed
1) Turner’s syndrome
in one cross, is known as :
2) Klinefelter’s syndrome
1) dihybrid cross
3) Down’s syndrome
2) reverse cross
4) No abnormality
3) test cross
99. A man with certain disease marries a
4) reciprocal cross normal woman. They have eight
95. The genes controlling the seven pea children (3 daughters and 5 sons). All
characters studied by Mendel are now the daughte rs suffer from their
known to be located on how many father’s disease but none of the sons
different chromosomes? are affected. Which of the following
mode of inheritance do you suggest for
1) Five 2) Four
this disease?
3) Seven 4) Six 1) Sex limited recessive
96. Given below is a pedigree chart of a 2) Autosomal dominant
family with five children. It shows the
inheritance of attached earlobes as 3) Sex linked dominant
opposed to the free ones. The squares 4) Sex linked recessive
represent the male individuals and
100. Consider the following statements
circles the female individuals. Which
regarding linkage.
one of the following conclusions drawn
is correct? a) The linked genes are located on the
same chromosome
b) Crossing over between linked genes
is rare
c) Completely linked genes are always
inherited together
d) Linkage affects the percentage of
homozygosity following hybridization.
Of these statements :
1) The parents are homozygou s 1) a and c are correct
recessive
2) a and b are correct
2) The trait is Y-linked
3) b, c and d are correct
3) The parents are homozygou s
4) a, c and d are correct
dominant
101. Criss cross inheritance means :
4) The parents are heterozygous
1) X chromosome from female will pass
97. Phenotypic and genotypic ratio are to female of next generation
similar in :
2) X chromosome from a male will pass
1) incomplete dominance to a female of next generation
2) segregation 3) X chromosome from male will pass
3) independent assortment to a male of next generation
4) epistasis 4) None of the above
102. In Drosophila, red e yed colour is 107. Sickle cell anaemia is due to :
dominant to white and is sex linked,
1) change of amino acid in  chain of
what results would you expect from a
haemoglobin
cross between a red eyed male and a
white eyed female? 2) change of amino acid in  chain of
1) All females red eyed and males haemoglobin
white eyed 3) change of amino acid in both  and 
2) All males and female red eyed chains of haemoglobin
3) All females white eyed and males 4) change of amino acid in either  or 
red eyed chain of haemoglobin
4) All offspring white eyed 108. Extranuclear DNA (genes) are located
in :
103. Haemophilia is a X-linked disease. A
haemophilic male marries a normal 1) lysosomes and chloroplasts
woman, whose father is also a 2) Golgi complex and ribosomes
haemophilic. It is expected that :
3) Chloroplasts and mitochondria
1) half their childre n will be
4) ribosomes and mitochondria
haemophilic
109. The daughters born to haemophilic
2) all the children will be haemophilic father and normal mother could be :
3) one fourth of the children will be 1) normal 2) carrier
haemophilic
3) haemophilic 4) none of these
4) none of the children will be 110. In human be ings, polyge ne s are
haemophilic involved in the inheritance of :
104. A normal woman whose father was 1) skin colour
colourblind is married to a normal man.
The sons would be : 2) phenylketonuria
3) colourblindness
1) 75% colourblind
4) sickle cell anaemia
2) 50% colourblind
111. M onosomy and trisomy can be
3) all normal represented as :
4) all colourblind 1) 2n + 1, 2n + 3 2) 2n - 1, 2n - 2
105. HbA HbS is an example of : 3) 2n, 2n + 1 4) 2n - 1, 2n + 1
1) Incomplete dominance 112. Jumping genes are called :
2) Co-dominance 1) cistrons 2) recons

3) transposons 4) none of these
3) Dominant epistasis
113. Law of purity of gametes is also known
4) Recessive epistasis as :
106. Number of Barr bodies in XXXX 1) law of dominance
female:
2) law of segregation
1) 1 2) 2 3) law of independent assortment
3) 3 4) 4 4) law of incomplete dominance
114. Match the items given in Column I 118. Protein synthesis in an animal cell
with those listed in column II. Choose occurs :
the answer with correct combination
of alphabets of the two columns : 1) only on the ribosomes present in
cytosol
Column I Column II 2) on ribosomes present in cytoplasm
(Characters) (Genotypes) as well as in mitochondria
A) Monohybrid cross 1. T and t
3) only one ribosomes attached to the
B) Test cross 2. TT nuclear envelope and endoplasmic
C) Alleles 3. Tt × Tt reticulum
D) Homozygous tall 4. tt 4) on ribosomes pre se nt in the
5. Tt × tt nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm
Choose the correct option : 119. What would happen if in a gene

encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino
A B C D acids, 25th codon (UAU) is mutated to
1) 3 5 4 2 UAA?
2) 5 3 2 4 1) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will
3) 3 5 1 2 be formed
4) 3 1 5 2
2) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25
115. In a certain plant red colour flower aminoacids will be formed
(R) is dominant over white colour
flower (r). When heterozygous Rr plant 3) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will
is selfed 64 offsprings are obtained. be formed
The number of white offsprings are :
4) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will
1) 64 2) 0 be formed
3) 16 4) 32
120. ‘Lac operon’ was given by Jacobs and
116. Find the odd one out in context of Monod and their theory is applicable
Down’s syndrome : to :
1) Palm crease
1) prokaryotes and protists
2) Gynaecomastia
3) Mental retardation 2) eukaryotes as well as prokaryotes
4) Furroowed tongue 3) only prokaryotes
117. E.coli cells with a mutated Z gene of
the lac operon cannot grow in medium 4) none of the above
containing only lactose as the source 121. Gene and cistron show the following
of energy because :
relationship :
1) in the presence of glucose, E.coli
cells do not utilize lactose 1) a gene is a cistron with particular
function
2) they cannot transport lactose from
the medium into the cell 2) one cistron comprises many genes
3) the lac operon is constitutively active
in these cells 3) gene is physical moiety while cistron
is physiological one
4) they can not synthesis functional
  galactosidase 4) one gene can have many cistrons
122. UGA, UAG and UAA are called 125. The following features occur during
termination codons because : protein synthesis :
1) they terminate anticodon (i) M ovement of m-RNA from the
nucleus into the cytoplasm where it
2) they are present at the beginning binds to the ribosomes.
of m-RNA (ii) Formation of t-RNA amino acid
complex
3) they do not specify any amino acid
(iii) Transcription of specific segments
4) they indicate initiation of polypeptide of DNA into m-RNA molecules in the
chain nucleus
123. The sequence of nitrogen bases in a (iv) Binding of N-terminal amino acid,
portion of a coding segment of DNA was methionine t-RNA to the P site of the
AAT GCT TAG GCA. What will be the ribosome. The t-RNA anticodon ‘pairs
sequence of nitrogen bases in the with AUG on m-RNA”.
corresponding region of the (v) Formation of peptide bond between
transcribed m-RNA? first and second amino acids at the A
site
1) UUT CGT TUC CGU
(vi) Rele ase of the comple te d
2) AAT GCT TAG GCA polypeptide chain from m-RNA and the
ribosomes
3) UUA CGA AUC CGU
(vii) Migration of dipeptide to form a
4) TTA CGA ATC CGT tripeptide and then a polypeptide.
124. Match the components of ‘lac operon’ The correct order of events is :
of E. coli given under column I with 1) (iii)-(ii)-(i)-(iv)-(v)-(vi)-(vii)
their functions listed in column II. 2) (i)-(ii)-(iii)-(iv)-(v)-(vi)-(vii)
Choose the answer with correct
combination of alphabets of the two 3) (iii)-(i)-(ii)-(v)-(iv)-(vi)-(vii)
columns. 4) (iii)-(i)-(ii)-(iv)-(v)-(vii)-(vi)
126. A mino acids, polymerises at the
Column I
(Components of 'lac
Column II ribosome in such a way that :
(Functions)
operon') 1) by uniting the amino group of the
1. Binding site for repressor first amino acid (methionine) with the
A) Structural gene
protein
carboxyl group of the second, producing
B) Operator gene 2. Codes for repressor protein a peptide bond and re le asing a
molecule of water.
3. Induces lactose transport
C) Promoter gene
from the medium 2) by uniting the carboxyl group of the
first amino acid (methionine) with that
D) Regulator gene 4. Codes for enzyme proteins
of the second, producing a peptide bond
5. Binding site for RNA and releasing a molecule of water
polymerase
3) by uniting the carboxyl group of the
Codes : first amino acid (methionine) with the
amino group of the second, producing
A B C D a peptide bond and re le asing a
1) 3 4 5 1 molecule of water
2) 2 3 1 4 4) by uniting the amino group of the
3) 5 4 2 1 first amino acid (methionine) with that
of the second, producing a peptide bond
4) 4 1 5 2
and releasing a molecule of water
127. RNA polymerase : 131. Match the list I and list II and select
the answer using the code given below:
1) is the protein responsible for the
production of ribonucleotides
Column I Column II
2) is the enzyme that creates hydrogen (Scientist) (Discovery)
bonds between nucleotides on the
DNA template strand and their A) Fredrick Griffith
1. Phenomenon of
complementary RNA nucleotides transformation
2. A sequence of 3
B) Gamow
3) is the enzyme that transcribes nucleotide
introns, but does not transcribe exons 3. Isolated DNA for
C) F. Miescher
the first time
4) begins transcription at a promoter
sequence and moves along the
template strand of DNA, elongating and Codes :
RNA molecule in a 5 '  3 ' direction. A B C
128. In a codon, Wobble position is generally 1) 1 2 3
restricted to :
2) 2 3 1
1) first N base 3) 3 2 1
2) second N base 4) 2 1 3
3) third N base 132. The term genome is used for :

1) diploid set of chromosomes
4) aromatic amino acids
2) polyploid set of chromosomes
129. The function of a non-sense codon is :
3) triploid set of chromosomes
1) to release polypeptide chain form 4) haploid set of chromosomes
t-RNA
133. Intranuclear ribozyme is :
2) to form an unspecified amino acid
1) 28 s 2) 26s
3) to terminate the message of gene 3) sn RNA 4) sn RNP’s
controlled protein synthesis
134. Find the odd one out :
4) to convert a sense DNA into non-
sense DNA 1) 3' UGA 5 ' 2) 3' AUU 5 '
130. Nobel Prize to A. Kornberg and S. 3) 3' GCU 5' 4) 3' GGG 5 '
Ochoa was given for : 135. Linear RNA can be synthesised without
the aid of another nucleic acid using :
1) artificial synthesis of DNA and RNA
1) Kornberg’s enzyme
2) theory of natural selection
2) Teminase
3) one gene-one enzyme theory 3) Ochoa enzyme
4) mutation theory 4) RNA primase
136. 3.3 × 10 9 bp are distributed in how 142. How many of the given enzymes are
many chromosomes in human cell : proteolytic?
1) 46 2) X and Y Trypsin, Chymotrypsin, Lipases,
Nucleases, Rennin, Pepsin, Maltase,
3) Only X 4) 23 Carboxy peptidase, Amylase
137. Which among the following is smallest 1) 4 2) 5
RNA :
3) 6 4) 3
1) Short lived RNA 2) Insoluble RNA
143. Read the following statements and
3) Soluble RNA 4) Codon RNA choose the incorrect one
138. How many cistron can be seen in one 1) The wall of alimentary canal from
gene? oesophagus to rectum possess 4 lay-
ers
1) 2 2) many
2) Muscularis is formed by smooth
3) 1 4) None muscles usually arranged into an in-
ner longitudinal and outer circular
139. Upon examination of nucleic acid of a
layer
sample cell, it was observed that codon
UGU code for alanine, glycine and 3) The opening of the stomach into the
protein. The property of codon reflects: duodenum is guarded by pyloric sphinc-
ter
1) Unambiguous 2) Ambiguous
4) The salivary glands are situated just
3) Degeneracy 4) Over-lapping outside the buccal cavity
140. Match column I with column II and 144. Match the following :
select the correct option :
Colunm I Column II Column I Column II
A) Parietal cells (i) Succus entericus
(Sex determination type) B) Goblet cells (ii) Enterokinase
(Examples)
C) Peptic cells (iii) Pepsinogen
A) ZO - ZZ i) Grass hopper D) Trypsinogen (iv) Mucus
E) Intestinal juice (v) HCl and intrinsic factor
B) XX - XY ii) Birds
C) ZW - ZZ iii) Butterflies 1) A - (v), B - (iv), C - (iii), D - (ii), E - (i)
D) XX - XO iv) Drosophila 2) A - (v), B - (i), C - (iii), D - (ii), E - (iv)
1) A-(iv) ; B-(ii) ; C-(iii) ; D-(i) 3) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (v), D - (ii), E - (iv)
2) A-(iii) ; B-(iv) ; C-(ii) ; D-(i) 4) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (v), D - (ii), E - (i)

145. Which of the hormone is matched
3) A-(i) ; B-(iv) ; C-(iii) ; D-(ii)
correctly with the source and action?
4) A-(ii) ; B-(iii) ; C-(i) ; D-(iv)
Hormone Source Action
141. Chief cells secrete : 1) Gastrin Stomach Gall bladder contraction
1) HCl 2) Pepsinogen 2) GIP Duodenum Inhibition of gastric secretion

3) CCK Duodenum Secretion of HCl
3) Trypsinogen 4) Mucus 4) Secretin Large intestine -
Secretion of HCO3 , H2O
146. Which component of bile plays role in 150. Identify the following teeth in human
fat digestion? dentition and find the correct match
regarding the characters given below,
1) bile pigments
2) cholesterol
3) phospholipids
4) bile salts
147. The optimum pH required by salivary

amylase is :
1) 7.6 A) Chisel shaped teeth adapted for

cutting and biting
2) 5.6
B) Absent in Herbivores, forming the
3) 6.8 gap called diastema
C) Set to which wisdom teeth belongs
4) 5.8
1) A  II, B  I, C  IV
148. Which of these enzymes are associated
with duodenum?
2) A  I, B  II, C  IV
Bilirubin, Trypsin, Pepsin, Amylase,
Nucleases, Lipases, Bi liverdin, 3) A  I, B  IV, C  III
Chymotrypsin.
4) A  IV, B  II, C  I
1) Trypsin, Amylase, Chymotrypsin,
151. Read carefully the statements.
Nucleases, Lipases
1. Human liver is bilobed and weighs
2) Trypsin, Amylase, Bilirubin, 1.2 to 1.5 kg
Biliverdin, Nucleases
2. pH of gastric juice is 6.8 and pH of
3) Trypsin, Pepsin, Amylase , saliva is 1.8
Nucleases, Lipase
3. Saliva contains amylase, lysozyme,
and electrolytes
4) Bili rubin, Biliverdin, Trypsin,
Chymotrypsin 4. Each lobule of liver is guarded by
sphincter of Oddi
149. Succus entericus is secreted by :
5. Digestion is initiated by ptyalin and
1) Gastric glands it hydrolyses 30% of starch in oral
cavity
2) Goblet cells
1) Statements 2 and 5 are false
3) Crypts of Lieberkuhn 2) Only statement 5 is wrong
3) Statements 2 and 4 are wrong
4) Pancreas 4) Statements 3 and 5 are wrong
152. Select the correct match from the 155. Match the columns and choose the
following correct option
List I List II
1. Medulla oblongata a) Lacteal Column I Column II
2. Chylomicrons b) 3rd molar a) Salivary amylase 1) Proteins
3. Saliva c) Peristalsis b) Bile salts 2) Milk proteins
4. HCl d) Vermiform c) Rennin 3) Starch

appendix
d) Pepsin 4) Lipids
5. Vestigial organ e) pH - 6.8
e) Steapsin 5) Emulsification of fats
f) Stomach
12345 12345 1) a - 5, b - 4, c -1, d - 2, e - 3
1) 2) 2) a - 2, b - 3, c -4, d - 5, e - 1
acefd ceafb
3) a - 2, b - 4, c -3, d - 1, e - 5
12345 12345 4) a - 3, b - 5, c -2, d - 1, e - 4
3) 4) 156. Proteolytic enzymes do not corrode
caefb ecfad
lining of alimentary canal as :
153. Complete the reactions :
1) they are secreted in inactive form
Pr oteins  2) lining layer of alimentary canal does
 Tryp sin/Chymotrypsin not contain protein
I) Peptones  
Carboxy peptidase
 a
Pr oteoses  3) the enzymes are not capable of
digesting fat
II) Polysa c cha rides b
 4) the lining contains anti-enzymes
Disachharides. 157. Enzyme maltase of human gut acts on
III) Fats  c Diglycerides,  food at :
Monoglycerides. 1) pH less than 7, changes maltose to
1) a - Aminoacid, b - Amylase, fructose
2) pH more than 7, changes maltose
c - Dipeptidases
to glucose
2) a - Dipeptides, b - Amylase,
3) pH less than 7, changes starch to
c - Lipases maltose
3) a - Aminoacid, b - Sucrase, 4) pH more than 7, changes starch to
c - Lipases maltose
4) a - Dipeptides, b - Maltase,
158. Column I Column II
c - Amylase
154. Which of the following statement is a) Nuclease i) Saliva
correct regarding enterokinase? b) Ptyalin ii) Gastric juice
1) It is a hormone that prevents the c) Nucleosidase iii) Intestinal juice
secretion of gastric juice
d) Rennin iv) Pancreatic juice
2) It is an enzyme that activates the
enzyme of pancreatic juice a b c d
3) It is an enzyme that activates the 1) iv i iii ii
proteolytic enzymes of succus
2) iv iii i ii
entericus.
3) ii i iii iv
4) It is a hormone that prevents the
secretion of pancreatic juice. 4) ii iii i iv
159. Which of the following pairs of the kind 162. Match column I with column II and
of cell s and their secretion are choose the correct combination from
correctly matched? the options given below.
Column I Column II
1) Oxyntic cells A secretion with pH below 3
i) Between ileum and
A) Pyloric sphincter
Secretion of Langerhans that caecum
2) Alpha cells of islets
decreases blood sugar level ii) Between oesophagus
B) Sphincter of Oddi
and stomach
A digestive enzyme that hydrolysis
3) Kupffer cells iii) Between stomach and
nucleic acids C) Ileo-caecal valve
duodenum
A secretion that evaporates for iv) Hepato-pancreatic
4) Sebaceous glands D) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter
cooling duct
160. Which of the following option correctly A B C D

identifies the path taken by the bile
1) iv iii ii i
in human body?
2) iv iii i ii
1) Liver  Hepatic ducts  Cystic duct 3) iii iv ii i
 Gall bladder  Bile duct  4) iii iv i ii
Duodenum
2) Liver  Cystic duct  Hepatic duct 163.

Column I Column II
 Gall bladder  Bile duct 
Duodenum A Numbat
3) Liver  Hepatic duct  Gall Flying squirrel B

bladder  Bile duct  Cystic duct  Bobcat C
Duodenum
D Bandicoot
4) Liver  Hepatic duct  Gall
E Marsupial mole
bladder  Cystic duct 
Hepatopancreatic ampulla 
Duodenum
Above column represent convergent
161. Which is true about digestion and evolution in Euthe ri ans and
absorption of food? Metatherians, A,B, C, D, E represents:
1) 60% of starch is hydrolysed by 1) A - Banded ant eater, B - Sugar

salivary amylase. glider, C - Wolf, D - Mouse, E- Bobcat
2) Oxyntic cell secrete pepsinogen. 2) A - Pangolin, B - Sugar glider, C -

Tasmanian wolf, D - Anteater, E -
3) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein Bobcat
particles passed in intestine into blood 3) A- Pangolin, B - Marsupial mole, C -
capillaries. Tasmanian wolf, D - Mouse, E - Bobcat
4) Glucose and aminoacids are 4) A - Pangolin, B - Sugar glider, C -

absorbed in intestine with the help of Tasmanian tiger cat, D - Mouse, E -
carrier proteins. Mole
164. Select the correct statement about 167. Resemblance between widely different
genetic drift. groups due to a common adaptation is:
1) It favours only large sized population 1) convergent evolution
2) It is responsible for eliminating
certain genes 2) divergent evolution
3) It supports Hardy Weinberg 3) parallel evolution
equilibrium
4) It helps for the movement of all 4) retrogressive evolution
alleles among population 168. In a population of Hardy Weinberg
165. Read the following statements carefully equilibrium the dominant allele for fur
and select the correct ones. colour is ‘B’ for black and the recessive
i) Alfred Wallace, a naturalist who allele is ‘b’ for white. If 16% of the
worked in Malay Archipelago had population is homozygous recessive,
also come to similar conclusions what will be the percent alle li c
as Darwin around the same time. frequency of BB and Bb?
ii) S. L. M iller by careful
experimentation demonstrated 1) 16 and 38 2) 48 and 36
that life comes only from pre- 3) 84 and 16 4) 36 and 48
existing life
iii) The organs which have the same 169. Following are the two state me nts
fundamental structure but are regarding the origin of life :
different in functions are called a) The earlier organisms that appeared
homologous organs
on the earth we re non-gree n and
iv) Sweet potato and potato are presumably anaerobes.
examples of homology.
1) (i) and (iii) 2) (i) and (ii) b) The first autotrophic organisms were
the che moautotrophs that ne ve r
3) (ii) and (iv) 4) (iii) and (iv)
released oxygen.
166. Match the column I and choose the
correct combination from the options Of the above statements, which one of
given : the following options is correct.
1) ‘a’ is correct but ‘b’ is false
Column I Column II
2) ‘b’ is correct but ‘a’ is false
a) Invertebrates evolved 1) 65 mya 3) both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are correct
b) Sea weeds and few 4) both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are false
2) 200 mya
plants evolved
170. Light coloured Peppered moth Biston
c) Jawless fishes betularia gets changed to its darker
3) 320 mya
evolved carbonaria variety due to :
d) Fish like reptiles 1) Industrial carbon deposited on wings
4) 350 mya
evolved
2) Mutation of single Mendelian gene
e) Extinction of
5) 500 mya for survival in smoke laden industrial
Dinosaurs
environment
1) a - 3, b - 5, c - 4, d - 1, e - 2 3) Deletion of gene segment due to
2) a - 5, b - 3, c - 4, d - 2, e - 1 industrial pollution
3) a - 4, b - 3, c - 5, d - 2, e - 1 4) Translocation of block of genes in
4) a - 5, b - 4, c - 3, d - 1, e - 2 response to heavy carbons
171. Consider the statements. 173. Match column -I with column - II and
select the correct option from the codes
given below
I. The atmosphere of primitive - earth
contains water vapour, methane, CO2
and ammonia released from molten Column - I Column - II
mass covered the surface
A. Mesozoic i) First amphibians
II. The essence of Darwinian theory

B. Devonian ii) Divergence
about evolution is natural selection.
of reptiles
III. Ramapithecus was more ape - like
and Dryopithecus was more man-like C. Palaeocene iii) Raise of modern
IV. Among the dinosaurs Tyrannosaurus mammals

was the biggest one having 20 feet
height. D. Permian iv) Adaptive radiation
1) All statements are true of mammals
v) 160 million years

2) Statement I and II are true but III
and IV are false
A B C D A B C D
1) 2)
3) Statement I, II and IV are true, but i iv iii ii iv i iii ii
III is false
4) Statement I, III and IV are true but A B C D A B C D

II is false 3) 4)
v iii i ii iii v ii i
172. The eye of octopus and eye of whale

show different patterns of structure, yet 174. Five basic process affect the Hardy-
they perform similar function. This is Weinberg equilli briu m and cause
an example of ; variation are :
1) Mutation, migration, e volution,

1) Homologus organs that have evolved genetic drift and natural selection
due to divergent evolution
2) Mutation, recombination, gene
2) Analogus organs that have evolved migration, genetic drift, natural
due to convergent evolution selection
3) Analogous organs that have evolve 3) Migration, recombination, evolution,

due to divergent evolution genetic drift, natural selection
4) Mutation, microe volution,

4) Homologous organs that have evolved macroevolution, genetic drift and
due to convergent evolution natural selection
175. Correct ascending order of eras in the 178. Cranial capacity of Neanderthal man
geological time scale is was :
1) Coenozoic - Mesozoic - Paleozoic - 1) 1400 cc 2) 900 cc

Precambrian
3) 1450 cc 4) 650 - 800 cc
2) Precambrian - Palaeozoic - Mesozoic
- Coenozoic 179. Read the following statements and find
out the incorrect statements.
3) Coenozoic - Mesozoic - Precambrian
- palaeozoic a) Big bang theory attempts to explain
the origin of universe
4) Palaeozoic - Precambrian - Mesozoic
- Coenozoic b) The universe is almost 20 million
years old
176. The correct sequence fo r the
manufacture of the compounds on the c) Huge clusters of galaxies comprise
primitive earth is: the universe
1) NH 3 , nucleic acid, protein and d) Galaxies contain stars and clouds
carbohydrates of gas and dust
2) protein, carbohydrate, water and e) Considering the size of e arth,
nucleic acid universe is indeed a speck
3) NH 3 , protein, carbohydrate and
1) a, b and c 2) a and d
nucleic acid
3) b and c 4) b and e
4) NH3, water, nucleic acid and protein
177. Stabilising selection favours : 180. Founder’s effect is an example of :
1) both extreme forms of a trait 1) natural selection
2) intermediate forms of a trait 2) mutation
3) environmental differences 3) genetic drift

4) one extreme form over the other 4) genetic recombination
extreme form and over intermediate
forms of a trait
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PHYSICS
1. 2 Convergent
Real image O
I
virtual
2. 2 Incident ray and finally reflected ray are parallel to each other means, angle
of deviation = 180o.
  360  2Q  180  360  2  2  180o
 = 90o
3. 3 Vio = vi - v0 = 6 - - 6 = 12m/s
1 v
4. 1 m 
n u
u
v
n
1 1 1
 
f  u  u
 
 n 
5. 3 Convex mirror
f 50
6. 1 m = -2, m  , 2  , u = -75 cm
f u 50  u
7. 4
8. 4 Convergence (power) is independent of medium for mirror.
9. 3 To see the container half filled from the top, water should be filled upto height
x so that bottom of the container should appear to be raised upto height 21 - x
Real depth, h = x
Apparent depth, h’ = 21 - x
h 4 x
n   x = 12 cm
h  3 21  x
d1 d 2
10. 2 h  
n1 n 2
11. 1
Vair t v 4
12. 4 n  w ; t w  a  t a   500
Vwater t a vw 3
x 15  x
13. 4 n  on solving x = 9
6 4
n = 1.5
1 3
14. 1 sin i C  
n 4
4
3
iC r = 3cm
7
15. 1
16. 4
1 1 1
17. 2   ....(1)
60 f1 f 2
1 1 1 10
   ....(2)
30 f1 f 2 f1f 2
On solving f1 = 20 f2 = -30
1  1 1  f m  n l  1 n m
18. 4   n  1    ; 
f  R1 R 2  fa  n1  n m 
Vi    m  V0
2
19. 3
90o 30o
20. 1 90o
o
e
30

1 sin 30o 1
 ; sin e  n sin 30  1.5   0.75
o
n sin e 2
e  sin 1  0.75   48o 36 ;   e  30  48o 36  30
 18o 36
9
1
Dw n1  1 8 1
  
21. 4 Da n 2  1 3  1 4
2
22. 1 i1  i 2  A    55o  46o  60o      41o
m   , so  m  41o
45o
o
60 90o
23. 4
e  r2  0o ; A  r1  r2
r1  A  45o
sin i sin 60 3
n  
sin r1 sin 45 2
i  e  A    60  0  45  
  15o
24. 1 L  v0  f e  14  v 0  5  v0  9
v0 D 9 25 9
m ; 25  u   1.8 cm
u 0 fe u0 5 ; 0 5
D
25. 2 m  1 ; smaller focal length
f
fe D
26. 4 L  f0  u e  f0   50  5  25  325 cm
fe  D 5  25 6
1 1 1 1 1 1
27. 3   ;   ; f = 37.5 cm
v u f 75 25 f
28. 1
1 1.22 
29. 3   
R.P. d
30. 3
31. 2 A  32  4 2  2  3  4  cos 60  6
32. 4 n = tan ip
1  1 
n  3 ; c  sin  
n
2
I  3
I1  0  16 ; I 2  I1 cos 30  16     12
2
33. 2
2  2 
2
1
I3  I 2 cos 60  12     3
2
2
V
34. 4   
C
Since wavelength increases body moving away from earth.
  6500 1010  6
35. 3  ; a   1.24 m
a  
2 D
36. 3  1.4 mm
d
37. 3 Position of first minima = position of 3rd maxima
1 1D  2  3  1  2 D
    3.5  2
d 2 d
D
38. 1 
d
39. 4 n11  n 2  2
3D   x 3d o
40. 2 x3    6000 A
d 3D
41. 1    1 t  n , for minimum t, n = 1

 
   1 t min   ; t min    2
  1 1.5  1
1
42. 1 
d
a 6000 o
43. 1 m    4000A
n 1.5
1 1 1
44. 1   ; P 1
F f1 f 2 F
1 1 1
45. 4  
f v u
v = +15 cm, behind the mirror.
CHEMISTRY
n  atomic mass 4  atomic mass

46. 2 For fcc lattice   Av. no  a 3
; 2.72 
6.02 1023  (404 1010 )3
 atomic mass = 27 g mol–1
4r
47. 3 For bcc lattice : n = 2, a  ; For fcc lattice : n = 4, a  2 2 r
3
 nM   
3
 3 
d 250 C  NA a bcc 2  2 2 r   3 3 
      
d9000 C  nM  4  4r  4 2 
 3   3 
 NA a fcc
48. 1 Catalyst lowers the activation energy and thereby increases the rate of the
chemical reaction. It does not influence any other thermodynamic parameters,
i.e, H, G, S
49. 3 Adsorption being spontaneous process so G is negative
Adsorption involves attraction between adsorbent and adsorbate and thus H 

negative. Also randomness of adsorbate molecules decreases during adsorption,
thus S is negative
50. 2 Catalyst does not affect the value of equilibrium constant
51. 3 Aldehydes are more reactive than ketones due to +I effect of –CH3 group. There
are 2 –CH3 group in acetone which reduces +ve charge density, on carbon atom
of carbonyl group. More hindered carbonyl group too becomes less reactive
52. 3 Only acids form sodium salt with NaOH and not alcohols. Nuclear Cl is not
replaced by OH under ordinary conditions
COO K+ CH2OH
53. 4 +
Cl Cl
Pot-m-chlorobenzoate m-chlorobenzyl alcohol
54. 1 Ketones react with ethylene glycol under similar conditions to form cyclic
products known as ethylene glycols ketals
O OH
+ 
HCl

OH O O
ethylene glycol
ketal
55. 2 Gels are a dispersion of molecules of a liquid within a solid in which the solid
is the continuous phase and the liquid is the discontinuous phase.
56. 3
57. 2 According to Hardy Schulze rule, greater the charge on cation, greater is its
coagulating power for negatively charged solution, so order of coagulating power.
Na+ < Ba2+ < Al3+

1
58. 4 Coagulation Power  Coagulation Value
Higher the coagulation power, lower is coagulation values in millimoles per

litre.
MgSO4 > BaCl2 > NaCl
 O OH

59. 4 C O + CN C 
 H C
from H2 O/HCN
CN CN
Cyanohydrin
Nucleophilic addition reaction
60. 3 H3C CH CH CH2 COCH3 

I2  NaOH Solution
 CH3–CH=CH–CH2–COOH
O N CH3 NHCH3
61. 2 
H2 NCH3
 H2 O
 
LiAlH4

62. 2 Cannizzaro’s reaction is given by aldehyde and ketones having no   H atoms
CN
CN
63. 2 95 % H2SO4

HCN OH Heat
CN
OMgX OH
O
OH
+RMgX C 
H2 O/H


C
64. 3 R R + Mg
C R R
R R R X
R
65. 4 According to Hardy Schulze law, greater the charge on anion greater will be its
coagulating power
Ele ctrolyte s Anionic Part Charge on anion

Na 2S S 2 2
Na 3PO 4 PO34 3
Na 2SO 4 SO 24  2
NaCl Cl  1
Here, PO34 have highest charge. Hence PO34 have highest coagulating power
0
COOH + H2SO4  CO + CO2 + H2O
95 C
66. 3
COOH
67. 1 CH3COOH 

LiAlH4
 CH3CH2OH 
Cu
 CH3CHO 
dil NaOH
CH3 CH CH2CHO
3000 C
Y
OH
68. 1 CF3  COOH  CCl3  COOH  HCOOH  CH3COOH

(Ka order )
COOH COOH COOH

COOH
HO OH OH
69. 1 > > >

OH
Orthoeffect Orthoeffect I
OH
+R
70. 1 As A reacts with hydroxylamine it means A may be aldehyde or ketone, but it

does not react with Fehling solution hence A must be a ketone. Secondly, it
forms iodoform which is a characteristic reaction of methyl ketone
O NOH
NH2OH
CH3 C CH2CH2CH3 CH3C CH2CH2CH3
H2O I2/NaOH
CHI3
OH Cl
H2O
CH3 C CH2 CH2 CH3 CH3 C CH2CH2CH3
OH Cl
71. 4 In purification, separation of colloids from crystalloids is done by the process of

ultra filtration
72. 4 Carboxylic acids from strong intermolecular hydrogen bonding
O H O
R C C R
O H O
intermolecular
H-bonding
O O O
R C OH >R CH 2 OH > R C H and R C R'

Carboxylic acids alcohols aldehydes ketones
73. 1 Due to maximum surface area in colloidal state
74. 1 FeO0.98 has a non-stoichiometric molecule having metal excess defect and not
metal deficiency defect. Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic compounds if
there is a large difference between sizes of cation and anions.
75. 4 In CaF2, the coordination number of Ca2+ is 8 and for F– is 4.
Ca2+ is surrounded by 8F–
F– is surrounded by 4 Ca2+
a 361
76. 1 For fcc structure, r  
2 1.4141
 127 pm
2 2
77. 4 Side chain chlorination of toluene followed by hydrolysis gives benzaldehyde.

This is a commercial method for manufacturing of benzaldehyde
CH3 CHCl2 CHO

Cl2 /hv
 
H2O
373 K

Benzal
chloride
78. 2 Fog is a colloidal system having water (dispersed phase) dispersed in air
(dispersion medium)
79. 1 DTAC is cationic surfactant and forms positively charged micelles

O
*
80. 2
O
It contains the most reactive methylene group (*) and resulting anion is
stabilised by resonance.
O O O
..
O O O
AlCl3
+ CH3 CH2 CH2 Cl CH3 CH2 + CH2
81. 4
Friedel craft alkylation
carbocation rearrangement to 20
CH3 CH CH3 +
H3C CH3
C O O H
CH3
OH
+
H 3O
+ CH3 C O O2
(R) (Q)
Isopropyl benzene
(P)
82. 1 O +O
O
Mechanism :
O O
H
OH
H OH O
O
O


 H2 O
OH
83. 2
84. 1
85. 4 Any substituent in the carbonyl compound that increases the positive charge
on the carbonyl carbon will increase reactively towards nucleophilic addition.
–NO2 shows –M effect hence;
CHO
is most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction.
NO2
4>1>3>2
O
COCl
C H
86. 4 
H2
Pd.BaSO4

It is Rosenmunds’ reaction (reduction)
87. 4 CH3CHO will give positive iodoform test as it has CH3 C unit attached to
O
H (or C)
88. 1
89. 2
3a 3  4.29
90. 1 Radius of Na (if bcc lattice) =  = 1.8574 Å = 1.8574 × 10–8 pm
4 4
BIOLOGY
91. 4 114. 3 137. 3 158. 1

92. 3 115. 3 138. 3 159. 1
93. 2 116. 2 139. 2 160. 4
94. 4 117. 4 140. 2 161. 4
95. 2 118. 2 141. 2 162. 4
96. 4 119. 1 142. 2 Trypsin, Chymotripsin, 163. 4
97. 1 Carboxypeptidase, Rennin and
120. 2 164. 2
Pepsin are the proteolytic
98. 1 121. 1 enzymes. 165. 1
99. 3 122. 3 143. 2 166. 2
100. 1 123. 3 144. 1 167. 1
101. 2 124. 4 145. 2 168. 4
102. 1 125. 4 146. 4 169. 3
103. 1 126. 3 147. 3 170. 2
104. 2 127. 4 148. 1 171. 3
105. 2 128. 3 149. 3 172. 2
106. 3 129. 3 150. 2 173. 2
107. 2 130. 1 151. 3 174. 2
108. 3 131. 1 152. 3 175. 2
109. 2 132. 4 153. 2 176. 4
110. 1 133. 3 154. 2 177. 2
111. 4 134. 1 155. 4 178. 1
112. 3 135. 3 156. 1 179. 4
113. 2 136. 4 157. 2 180. 3

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12- 03- 2020 Batch : EVEN BATCH Version

PHYSICS 5. The field of view is maximum for

1. A plane mirror reflects a pencil of light 1) plane mirror

21. The ratio of angle of minimum 3) higher diameter

32. The angle of polarisation for a medium 3) 1.24 m 4) 2.6 × 10-4 cm

2) Cheese 3) Electrophilic substitution

56. On which of the following properties O

2) Size of the ion alone 1) Tollen’s reagent

3) Both magnitude and sign of the 2) Benzoyl peroxide

2) 3) CH3 CH2 C COOH

64. When Grignard reagent reacts with

65. Which of the following electrolytes will

3) A > B > C > D

4) A > C > B > D 3) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH

4) CH3 CH CH CH2 CH3

2) Density decreases in case of CCl3 CHCl2

3) NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon i s 3) 4)

CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH 4)

83. The product formed by the reaction of

3) , , CH3CH(OH)CH3 3) Ketone 4) Carboxylic acid

84. An organic compound ‘x’ having

1) Anion vacancy occupied by unpaired 3) AA bb and aa BB

2) Co-dominance 1) cistrons 2) recons

Choose the correct option : 119. What would happen if in a gene

3) third N base 132. The term genome is used for :

D) XX - XO iv) Drosophila 2) A - (v), B - (i), C - (iii), D - (ii), E - (iv)

1) A-(iv) ; B-(ii) ; C-(iii) ; D-(i) 3) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (v), D - (ii), E - (iv)

2) A-(iii) ; B-(iv) ; C-(ii) ; D-(i) 4) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (v), D - (ii), E - (i)

1) HCl 2) Pepsinogen 2) GIP Duodenum Inhibition of gastric secretion

147. The optimum pH required by salivary

1) 7.6 A) Chisel shaped teeth adapted for

2. Chylomicrons b) 3rd molar a) Salivary amylase 1) Proteins

3. Saliva c) Peristalsis b) Bile salts 2) Milk proteins

4. HCl d) Vermiform c) Rennin 3) Starch

160. Which of the following option correctly A B C D

2) Liver  Cystic duct  Hepatic duct 163.

3) Liver  Hepatic duct  Gall Flying squirrel B

1) 60% of starch is hydrolysed by 1) A - Banded ant eater, B - Sugar

2) Oxyntic cell secrete pepsinogen. 2) A - Pangolin, B - Sugar glider, C -

4) Glucose and aminoacids are 4) A - Pangolin, B - Sugar glider, C -

II. The essence of Darwinian theory

IV. Among the dinosaurs Tyrannosaurus mammals

1) All statements are true of mammals

v) 160 million years

4) Statement I, III and IV are true but A B C D A B C D

172. The eye of octopus and eye of whale

1) Mutation, migration, e volution,

3) Analogous organs that have evolve 3) Migration, recombination, evolution,

4) Mutation, microe volution,

1) Coenozoic - Mesozoic - Paleozoic - 1) 1400 cc 2) 900 cc

1) both extreme forms of a trait 1) natural selection

2) intermediate forms of a trait 2) mutation

3) environmental differences 3) genetic drift

  360  2Q  180  360  2  2  180o

e  sin 1  0.75   48o 36 ;   e  30  48o 36  30

22. 1 i1  i 2  A    55o  46o  60o      41o

41. 1    1 t  n , for minimum t, n = 1

n  atomic mass 4  atomic mass

 atomic mass = 27 g mol–1

49. 3 Adsorption being spontaneous process so G is negative

Adsorption involves attraction between adsorbent and adsorbate and thus H 

50. 2 Catalyst does not affect the value of equilibrium constant