MC. Choose the correct statements: MC.

Choose the correct statements:

a!. juxtamedullar nephrons (25-30% from all nephrons) present a long loop of Henle, which reach the renal medulla a! the renal plasmatic flow is measured using PAH clearance
b!.urine has more K+, creatinine, urea and uric acid than plasma b!.the kidneys receive 1/5 part from cardiac output during resting
c!. even the cardiac output increases during physical exercise, renal blood flow doesn’t change c. when cardiac output rises during physical exercise, renal blood flow increases
d. plasma osmolality is lower than urine osmolality since the proteins don’t pass to urine d!.the renal blood flow is almost constant by autoregulation mechanisms
e. PTH influences Ca2+ reabsorption in proximal convoluted tubule and phosphate reabsorption in distal e. increased sympathetic discharge in kidneys increase the renal blood flow
convoluted tubule
MC. Choose the correct statements:
MC. Choose the correct statements: The effect of ADH on the kidneys is: a. glomerular filtrate has the same composition as blood plasma
a!. to increase the water permeability of the distal tubule b!.glomerular filtration rate is measured using inulin clearance
b. to increase the glomerular filtration rate c. a substance with the clearance lower than inulin clearance is always reabsorped in renal tubules
c. to increase Na+ excretion d!.glomerular filtration rate is 125 ml/min in adult man
d. to increase water excretion e!. glomerular filtration rate depends on the pressure from afferent arterioles
e. to increase the renal artery diameter
MC. Choose the correct statements:
SC. Choose the correct statements. The kidney excretes more concentrated urine if: a. reabsorption of small molecules in renal tubules occurs always with the help of specific transporter molecules
a. water permeability in proximal tubule is lower b!.glucosuria occurs when glucose transporters in proximal tubules are saturated
b!. the blood flow thin medulla is lower c!. transport of glucose and aminoacids across epithelial tubular cells is associated with Na transport
c. the flow in loop of Henle is higher d!.the maximum transport for glucose is 260 mg/min
d. the Na-K pump activity in loop of Henle is lower e!. if renal clearance of one substance is higher than inulin clearance, this substance is secreted in tubules
e. water permeability in collector ducts is lower
MC. Choose the correct statements:
SC. Choose the correct statements. The glucose filtered in glomeruli is reabsorbed in: a!. glomerular filtration rate is regulated via tubuloglomerular feed-back mechanism
a!. proximal convoluted tubule b!.in healthy person the filtered glucose is reabsorped completely at the level of proximal tubules
b. descending part of the loop of Henle c. the filtered bicarbonate is reabsorped via anion transport
c. ascending part of the loop of Henle d. the total quantity of filtered bicarbonate is reabsorped usually in first half of the proximal convoluted
d. distal convoluted tubule tubule e!. the proximal tubules free the filtrate from aminoacids
e. collector duct
MC. Choose the correct statements:
MC. Choose the correct statements. The atrial natriuretic peptide has following effects: a. all nephrons have loop of Henle which penetrates deeply the renal medulla
a!. inhibits sodium reabsorption in kidneys b!.the thin descending part of loop of Henle is permeable to water
b!.inhibits renin secretion c!. the interstitial osmolarity near the pelvis can exceeds 1200 mOsm/l
c. increases vasopressin secretion d. the thick ascending part of loop of Henle transports Na+ ions, in the same way as in proximal convoluted tubule
d!.inhibits aldosterone secretion e!. the thick ascending part of loop of Henle is impermeable for water
e. enhances Na+ reabsorption in kidneys
MC. Choose the correct statements:
CS. Choose the correct statements. The inhibition of carbonic anhydrase form tubular epithelium in nephron is a. the reabsorption of Na+ ions occurs in proximal convoluted tubule
followed by: b!.macula densa cells secret renin, if Na+ ions plasma concentration is lower
a!. decrease pH of internal environment c. angiotensin II is formed from renin, with the help of the conversion enzyme, in endothelium of the pulmonary
b. increase serum Na+ concentration blood vessels
c. increase NH3 urinary excretion d. angiotensin II acts on the adrenal medulla
d. increase NaH2PO4 urinary excretion e!. adrenal cortex secrets aldosterone as response to stimulation by angiotensin II
e. decrease HCO3‾ urinary excretion
MC. Choose the correct statements:
MC. Choose the correct statements. The kidneys repel the alkalosis by: a!. in the case of water intake in high quantity, an ordinary person excretes urine with osmolarity below 100 mOsm/kg
a. the bicarbonate synthesis de novo b. renal medulla has an osmotic gradient which lowers from cortical side to renal papilla
b!.the excretion of alkaline urine c!. the medullar osmotic gradient is based on the transport Na+ and CI‾ ions, from thick ascending part of loop of
c. the increase of aminogenesis Henle, to the interstitial fluid
d. the inversion of the phosphate rate d. ADH is secreted by anterior pituitary gland, in response to lowered blood osmolarity
e!. the decrease of bicarbonate e!. ADH acts at the level of collector ducts, increasing their permeability for water
reabsorption
SC. Choose the correct statements. When ADH is absent, the greatest water quantity is reabsorbed in: a!. c. distal tubule
proximal tubule d. cortical collector duct
b. loop of Henle e. medullar collector duct
 MC. Choose the correct statements. The glomerular filtration is influenced by
SC. Choose the correct statements. The amino acids are completely reabsorbed from glomerular filtrate via active a. osmotic value of the kidney
transport in: b!.colloidal-osmotic pressure of the plasma
a. loop of Henle c! CI‾ and Na+ concentration in tubular fluid at the level of macula densa
b!.proximal tubule d!.higher concentration of blood glucose
c. distal tubule e. the inulin clearance
d. collector duct
e. renal pelvis MC. Choose the correct statements. The glucose clearance: a!.
is influenced by glycaemia value
SC. Choose the correct statements. The secretion of H+ ions in proximal tubule is associated with: b!.in healthy person is equal to 0
a. excretion of K+ ions c. is not influenced by glycaemia value
b. excretion of Na+ ions d. represents 60% from inulin clearance
c. excretion of Ca++ ions e!. sometimes is positive in patients with diabetes mellitus
d!.reabsorption HCO3‾ ions
e. reabsorptions of HPO4-- ions MC. Choose the correct statements. The stimulation of sympathetic renal nerves causes following effects: a!.
low diuresis
MC. Choose the correct statements. b!. decreased net filtration pressure
a. %65de Na+ is reabsorbed in proximal tubule c. increased PAH clearance
b. Na+ is reabsorbed via counter-transport with phosphate and lactate d. increased inulin clearance e!.
c. the tubuloglomerular balance is realized by medullar collector duct d!. decreased inulin clearance
%25de Na+ is reabsorbed in ascending part of the loop of Henle
e!. the increased distal secretion of K+ ions may be caused by higher dietary K+ level SC. Choose the correct statements. When ADH is present:
a!. the greatest volume of water is reabsorbed in proximal convoluted tubules
SC. Choose the correct statements. The renin: b. the greatest volume of water is reabsorbed in collecting ducts
a. is secreted in proximal tubule cells c. the excretion of free water increases
b. leads to the loss of Na+ and water from plasma d. osmotic clearance rises
c. its secretion is stimulated by high arterial pressure e. glomerular filtration decreases
d!.converts angiotensinogen in angiotensin I
e. converts angiotensin I in angiotensin II
MC. Choose the correct statements. The excessive water intake: a!.
SC. Choose the correct statements. Which substance is more concentrated at the ending of proximal tubule than at its inhibits vasopressin secretion
beginning ? b. stimulates aldosterone secretion
a. glucose c. increases glomerular filtration
b!.creatinine d!. increases diuresis
c. sodium e!. stimulates secretion of the natriuretic peptide
d. bicarbonate
e. phosphate MC. Choose the correct statements. The substances reabsorbed on thick ascending part of the loop of Henle are: a!.
Na+
MC. Choose the correct statements. ADH increases: b!.Ca2+ Mg2+ şi HC03‾
a. water permeability in initial segment of the early distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct b!.urea c. amino acids d!.K+
recycling e. proteins
c!. water permeability in late distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct
d. isosmotic reabsorption of water in proximal tubule MC. Choose the correct statements. The glucose reabsorption:
e. water reabsorption in terminal region of the nephron by action on V1a receptors a. is unlimited
b!.is limited by transport maximum in tubules
c!. is realized as co-transport with Na+
d. needs insulin
e. occurs at the apical pole of the epithelial cell
3.csWhat substance of those listed is the most painful :
A. serotonin; 4.cs The opiate system of brain :
B. acetylcholine; A. is route of transmission of visceral pain; B!. is analgesic
C! bradykinine; part of the brain;
D. histamine; C. receive acute pain;
E. potassium ions; D. occur appearance reflected pain;
E. receive the phantom pain; SC. Choose the correct statements. The clearance of one freely filtered substance is lower than 125 ml/ min, thus this
substance:
5.cm The taste sensation is transmitted to the central nervous system by following cranial nerves : a!. is reabsorbed in tubules
A! lingual; b. is secreted in tubules
B! facial; c. neither reabsorbed nor secreted in tubules
C! vagus; d. binds the proteins in tubules
D. Hering nerve; e. is secreted more in proximal convoluted tubule than in distal tubule
E. sympathetic nerve;
SC. Choose the correct statements. The glucose is reabsorbed in:
6.cs What surface of the eye optical system has the highest refractive power : a!. proximal convoluted tubule
A!. Top level of the cornea; b. loop of Henle
B. back surface of the cornea; c. distal convoluted tubule
C. surface of anterior lens; d. cortical collecting duct
D. back surface of the lens; e. medullar collecting duct
E. corpus vitreous;
SC. Choose the correct statements. The maximal effect of the aldosterone is shown in:
7.cs The autonomic control of eye accommodation is provided by : a. glomerulus
A. sympathetic system; b. proximal convoluted tubule
B. somatic nervous system; c. thin part of the loop of Henle
C!. parasympathetic nervous system; d. thick part of the loop of
D. hormonal mechanism Henle e!. cortical collecting duct
E. limbic system;
SC. Choose the correct statements. Calculate the clearance of this substance knowing that urinary flow is 3 ml/min, its
8.cs The presbyopia appears in the result of : plasmatic concentration - 20 mg/dl, its urine concentration - 50 mg/dl
A. increasing of length of the eyeball; a!. 7.5 ml/min
B! decreasing of the elasticity of the lens; b. 333 ml/min
C. increasing of intraocular pressure; c. 1.2 ml/min
D. disorders of the ciliary muscle; d. 1.2 l/min
E. clouding of the lens; e. 125 ml/min

9.cs The cataract is shown by: MC. Choose the correct statements. In the case of osmotic diuresis (diabetes mellitus).
A. increasing of the intraocular pressure; a. the vasopressin activity is inhibited in tubules
B. modification of the corneal curvature; b. filtrate osmolarity is higher than plasma osmolarity
C. increasing of length of the eyeball; c!. water reabsorpţion in proximal convoluted tubule is less
D. disorders of the ciliary muscle; d!.there is a huge loss of water and ions with urine
E!.clouding of the lens; e. urine osmolarity is higher and causes hydric intoxication Vica ,

1.csThe modification of membrane potential in the receptor to the action of sensory stimuli is called:
A. action potential;
B. postsynaptic potential of excitation;
C. vestigial potential
D! receptor potential
E. postsynaptic potential of inhibition;

2.cs Choice the type of excitation of sensory mechanical receptors :

A. the electromagnetic radiation;
B! mechanical deformation of the receptor;
C. temperature modification in the membrane of receptor;
D. chemical excitation of receptor of the membrane;
E. action of the sound waves;
17.cs The nervous system interpret different sensations of color depending on: D. flow of light;
A. quantity of pigment melanin; E quantity of rodopsin;
B. speed of the rodopsin disintegration;
C!. power of stimulation of the three types of cones; 18.csThe defect of color vision is due to:
A. insufficient of rodopsin; 10.csFor determining visual acuity of the person examined is placed away from: A.20m;
B. absence of the sticks; B.8m;
C!. lack of different types of cones; C. 5m; D! .5 M; E.2m;
D. insufficient of melanin;
E. decreasing of the elasticity in the lens; 11.cs The correction of astigmatism can be made by:
A. concave lens;
19.cs What type of cell is not part of retina cells : B. surgical removal of the lens; C!. with
A. horizontal cells; cylindrical lenses;
B!. external ciliated cells; D. by pharmacological preparations;
C. amacrin cells; E. with convex lens;
D. bipolar cells;
E. ganglion cells; 12.cs What structures of the eye provide the formation of aqueous humor :
A. ciliary muscle;
20.csDisapearins of visual perception in different areas of the visual field is called: A.presbiopy; B. lens; C .retina;
B.acromazy; C.astigmatism; D.myopia; D. iris;
E!.hemyanopsia; E!. processes (folds) of cilia in the ciliary body;
21.cs The bitemporal hemyanopsia occurs when sensory signals are not transmitted : 13.cs What are the changes of the remote point of clear vision in myopia :
A. by the right optic nerve; A. to move away; B!. to approach;
B. by the left optic nerve; C not change;
C!. through the optical fibers cross the chiasm optic; D. is overlaps with the proximal point clear vision:
D. by uncrossed fibers in optical chiasm optic; E. is overlaps with the distal point clear vision;
E. by the vagus nerve;
14.cs What are the changes of the proximal point of clear vision in presbyopia :
A. not change; B!. to remove;
22.csHemianopsia binasal occurs when visual sensory signals are not transmitted : C. to approach;
A. by the left optic nerve; D. is overlaps with the proximal point clear vision
B. by the right optic nerve; E. is overlaps with the distal point clear vision;
C. by the optic fibers cross in chiasm optic; D!. by uncrossed
fibers of the optic chiasm; 15.cs The chemical substance of rod photoreceptors is called:
E. by the vagus nerve; A. melanin; B iodopsin; C!.
rodopsin;
23.cs What is anisocoria : D. photopsin;
A .anomaly of refraction of the eye; E. bilirubin;
B. disorder of color vision;
C. increasing of the intraocular pressure; D!. different 16.csWhat is causes of hemeralopia (night blindness) :
diameter of the pupil; A. insufficient of retinal-isomers enzyme; B .clouding of
E. disorder of accommodation; the lens;
C. disorders in the retinal vascularisation;
D. absence of pigment melanin; E!. severe lack of
vitamin A;
31.csWhat is most basic function of Broca's area :
A. auditory sensations analyze; 33.csWhat is the major function of Wernicke area :
B. control of voluntary movements of the body; A. visual information analyze;
C. is responsible for emotions and motivations; D!. is B. auditory information analyze
responsible for word formation; C. words formation ;
E. visual sensations analyze; D! language comprehension and make intellectual processes;
E. responsible of behaviour;
32.cs Motor aphasia can be caused by disorders in the following cortical areas : A!.
Broca's area;
B. language association area; 34.csWhat signs characterize auditory aphasia : A.non
C. area Wernicke; possibility to speak;
D. secondary visual area; B. deafness;
E prefrontal association area; C! non ability to understand spoken words;
D. disorders in the auditory receptors; 24.csWhat of the listed items are not part of the middle ear : A!.
E. failure of auditory analyze of information; vestibular membrane;
B. malleus;
35.cs What structures of brain are responsible for passing information from short-term memory in C. stapedius;
long-term memory : D. incus;
A. supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus; E. muscle tensor of the eardrum;
B. pituitary gland;
C. cerebellum; 25.csWhat are the mechanism of noise protection in the ear : A
D. basal ganglia; E!. .relaxation and weakening of the eardrum membrane;
hippocampus; B. inhibition of ciliary cells;
C. relaxation of the stapes muscle;
36.cs What kind of disturbances occur in the hippocampus extirpation : D. extension reflex of basilar membrane;
A. tremor intended; E!. contraction of the stapes and tensor muscle of eardrum;
B. disorder in the color discrimination; C
disartria; 26.csWhat change in the hearing sensitivity when the eardrum be removed from oscillator system :
D!. anterograde amnesia; A. not change;
E. amnesia retrograde; B. is disrupts the transmission of sound by bone; C
.appear total deafness;
37.csThe repetitive route of signals through a neuronal (reverberant circuit) is a mechanism of memory : D!. drops essential;
A. motor; E. increase essential;
B. long term;
C. sensitive; D!. 27.cs What is helicotrema :
short term; A. membrane with many auditory receptors;
E. genetic memory; B!. the orifice that connects the tympanic to the vestibular ramp;
C. the orifice in tympanic ramp that connects to the average;
D. the orifice of average ramp that connects the vestibular;
E. membrane of vestibular ramp that separates the average;

.28 csWhat segment of basilar membrane vibrates t with the highest amplitude in high frequent sounds : A!.
segment of the cochlea;
B. middle segment;
C. distal segment;
D. distal and middle segment;
E. all membrane;

29.cs Young person can hear sounds of high intensity limits the frequency spectrum: G-
360, H-943
A.5000-8000 Hz;
B.500-3000 Hz; C.200-
5000 Hz; D.500-10 000
Hz;
E! .20-20000 Hz;

30.cs From the areas listed do not fit into the classification of areas of association :
A. languages aria;
B. area Wernicke;
C!. somatosensation area;
D. prefrontal area;
E. Broca`s area;
45.cmWhat types of sensations are not transmitted through anterolateral system : E. sexual sensations
A. pain;
B!. sensation of vibration; 46.cmWhat types of sensations are not transmitted through the dorsal lemniscal tract : A!.
C!. sensations of position; tickling sensation;
D. heat sensations; B. sensation of vibration; C!.
sensation of pain; .38 cs What kind of memory occur with modifications in the synapses :
D. sensation of position; A. sensitive;
E!.thermal sensations; B. short term;
C. motor;
47.cmChoice the main types of pain receptors : D! long term;
A!. mechanical; E. genetic memory;
B. electromagnetical;
C!. chemical; 39.cs Retrograde amnesia is characterized by :
D!. thermal; A.non ability to understand spoken words; B.non
E. pressure; ability to understand written words;
C! inability to evoke memories of long-term memory;
48.cm What structures of CNS not participate in pain perception : D. inability to store information as long-term memory;
A. reticular formation; E. inability to speak;
B! cerebellum;
C. thalamus; 40.cs What signs are not characteristic of slow sleep (slow wave) :
D. brain cortex; A. decreasing of muscle tonus;
E!.vestibular nuclei; B. decreasing of metabolism;
C. decreasing of blood pressure;
49.cm Choice the principal neuromediators substances what participate in the analgesia system of the brain : D! rapid eye movements;
A. bradikinin; B!. E. decreasing of heart rate;
enkephalin; C!
serotonin; 41.csWhat signs are not characteristic of paradoxical sleep :
D. histamin; A. dreams;
E! beta-endorphin; B.non regular heart beats;
C. rapid eye movements;
50.cm Thermal sensation is provided by these types of receptors: D!. total brain metabolism decrease;
A. chemoreceptors; B!. E. non regular muscle movements;
receptors for cold; C!.
receptors for pain; D!. 42.csFtom following substances described what is considered a major neurotransmitter involved in slow sleep
receptors for heat; production :
E. mechanoreceptors; A.norepinephrin;
B.acetylcholine;
51.cm Select characteristic features for taste receptors: C.glicin;
A!. are secondary receptors; D.dopamin;
B!. originating from epithelial cells; E!. serotonin;
C. are primary receptors; D!.
contain microvili; 43.cmChoice the types of sensory receptors :
E. receives olfactory sensation; A! mechanic receptors;
B! temperature receptors; C!
nocireceptors;
D α motor receptors; E
β receptors;

44.cmChoice the pathways that transmit sensory information coming from the somatic body segments :
A. rubrospinal tract;
B!. dorsal lemniscal system;
C. pyramidal tract;
D. reticulospinal tract; E!.
anterolateral system;
59.cm Astigmatism is determined by: E. clouding of lens;
A. longer eyeball;
B. intraocular pressure increase; C!. Elongated 60.cm The intraocular liquids includes:
shape of the cornea; D!. Elongated shape of the A. lens;
lens; B!. Aqueous humor;
C. corneea; .52cm Select characteristic features for olfactory cells:
D!. Vitreous humor; A. are secondary receptors; B!. originating from
E. ciliary body; the CNS; C!. are primary receptors;
D. can’t adapt; E!. contain cilia;
61.cm Select the final products of the rhodopsin decomposition:
A. metarhodopsin I; .53 cm Select characteristics of substances that cause smell sensation: A!. form
B. bathorhodopsin; C!. scotopsin; complexes with cell membrane binding proteins;
D!. trans retinal; B. induce biological membrane hyperpolarization; C!. are volatile;
E. metarhodopsin II; D!. are water soluble;
E. are not water soluble;
62.cm Choose correct answers that characterize the receptor potential of rods:
A. is a rod membrane depolarization; 54.cm Choose caracteristics of the object’s image on the retina:
B!. is determined by decreasing the Na + conductance of the cell membrane; A. is virtual; B!. is reduced;
C. is determined by increasing the Na + conductance of the cell membrane; D!. is a membrane C. is increased; D!. is reversed;
hyperpolarization of the rod; E!. is real;
E!. duration from 1 to 1.5 sec;
55.cm When the eye’s ciliary muscle is completely relaxed: A!. the lens
63.cm Select electroencephalographic manifestations of the rapid sleep (REM): capsule ligaments are tense;
A. alpha waves predominate; B. the lens capsule ligaments are relax;
B. delta waves predominate; C!. beta waves C. the lens refractive power increases; D!. the lens
predominate; refractive power decreases; E!. lens flattens;
D!. it is a rhythm de-synchronization;
E. it is a rhythm synchronization; 56.cm Name refractive errors of the eye: A!. myopia;
B. presbyopia;
64.cm Select correct statements that reflect the role of lateral geniculate body: A!. relay C. glaucomul; D!. hyperopia; E!.
information from the optic tract to the visual cortex; astigmatism;
B. relay sensitive information from auditory receptors in the auditory cortex; C!. function of
filtering the signal goes to the visual cortex; 57.cm Choose answers that characterize myopia:
D. it is higher center of pain perception; A!. distant object image focuses in front of the retina;
E. relay sensitive information from thermal receptors; B. eyeball is shorter;
C!. can be corrected with concave lenses;
65.cm Select correct statements that reflect the role of vestibular macules: A!. detects head D. can be correct with convex lens; E!. eyeball is
orientation to the gravitational force; longer;
B. detects head orientation to the body; C!. detects linear
acceleration of the body; 58.cm Choose answers that characterize hyperopia:
D!. participate in static equilibrium maintaining; A. eyeball is longer; B!. eyeball is
E. detects the perception of sensation of slow motion of rotation; shorter;
C!. can be corrected with convex lenses;
D. reduced lens elasticity;
E!. image of distant object are located behind the retina;
73.cm Select correct statements that characterize the delta electrical brain waves: 75.cm Name main features of conditioned reflex:
A. frequency 8-13 Hz; A. is innate; B!. is
B!. frequency less than 3Hz; acquired;
C. are recorded in resting wakefulness; D!. occur in C!. are developed based on unconditioned reflex; D!. can
very deep sleep; be developed to different stimuli;
E!. appear in serious brain diseases; E. are developeds without the participation of the cortex ;

74.cm Select correct statements that characterize the theta electrical brain waves: .76 cm Name conditions being taken into consideration in the development of conditioned reflexes:
A. frequency of 1-3 Hz; B!. frequency A. the conditional exciting stimulus follows unconditional exciting stimulus;
of 4-7 Hz; B!. the physiological value of conditional exciting stimulus is smaller than the unconditional; C!.
C!. voltage greater than the alpha waves; wakefulness of the organism ;
D!. occur in emotional stress and orthodoxal sleep; D!. no serious cortex damages;
E. appear during paradoxical sleep; E. the physiological value of conditional exciting stimulus is higher than the unconditional;
.77 cm Indicate brain structures responsible for the appearance of motivations and emotions: 66.cm When the receptors of the vestibular apparatus macula are stimulate:?
A. cerebellum; B!. A. to a sudden rotation of the head;
hypothalamus; B!. to a change of the body position against gravity; C!. to an
C. red nucleus; D!. limbic accelerated linear motion of the body;
system; D. to a change of linear movement direction of the body with constant speed maintenance; E!. To a
E!. reticular formation; sudden decrease of speed of the body linear movement;

78.cm Select conditions when the synchronization of electrical waves of the cortex may occur: A!. during 67.cm Select correct statements concerning the role of receptors of the semicircular canals: A!. detect
central nervous system stimulation which is at rest; the onset and cessation of movement of rotation;
B!. transition from orthodoxal to the paradoxical sleep; B. participate in static equilibrium regulation;
C. transition from paradoxical to the orthodoxal sleep; C. participate in maintenance of the equilibrium during linear acceleration;
D. during nervous system transition from mental activity to the rest; D. participate in maintenance of the equilibrium during constant angular acceleration; E!. prevents
E. in narcosis; sudden loss of balance during the change of direction of body movement;

68.cm Name most important association areas of cortex: A!. parieto-

80.cm Select states in which the synchronization of the rate of EEG is going: occipito-temporal area;
A. in the CNS arousal; B!. prefrontal area;
B!. in transition from wakefulness to sleep; C. secondary auditory area;
C!. in transition from paradoxical sleep to the orthodoxal; D!. in transition D. secondary somatic area; E!. limbic
from mental activity to mental relaxation; area;
E. in transition from orthodoxal to the paradoxical sleep;
69.cm Select correct statements that characterize Wernicke aphasia:
A. inability to understand spoken words;
B. inability to understand written words;
C!. inability to interpret the thought expressed by the words spoken; D!. total
dementia;
E. inability to interpret the meaning of words written;

70.cm What are the main electric waves in the waking brain:
A. gama; B!. alpha;
C!. beta;
D. delta;
E. theta;

71.cm Select correct statements that characterize the alpha electrical brain waves:
A. frequency 20-30 Hz;
B. are recorded during sleep;
C!. are recorded in resting wakefulness; D!.
frequency of 8-13 Hz;
E. are recorded in nervous tension;

72.cm Select correct statements that characterize the beta electrical brain waves: A!. the
frequency higher then 14Hz;
B. the frequency less than 14Hz;
C!. occur during stimulation of the central nervous system; D!. appear
during paradoxical sleep;
E. are recorded in resting wakefulness;
DIGESTION
1.cs Choice the correct answer about location of salivatory center: A.in 2.cs Choice the correct answer about salivatory secretion. The most quantity of saliva will secreted in
the mesencephalon; digestion of:
B.in the diencephalon; A. butter;
C.! in the medulla oblongata; B. bread;
D. in the cerebellum; C. !bread crumbs;
E. in the thalamus; D. potatoes;
E. meat; 82.cs What segment of the basilar membrane oscillates with large amplitude at low-frequency sounds :
A. the segment form the base of cochlea;
3.csChoice the correct answer about nervous control of digestive secretion. Only nervous mechanism control digestive B. middle segment; C!.
secretion in: distal segment;
A. stomach; B.! oral D. basilar membrane entirely;
cavity; E. A and B correct;
C. small intestine;
D. large intestine; 83.cm Select correct statements concerning the role of the Eustachian tube: A!.
E .stomach and cavity; provides perfect vibration of the eardrum;
B!. equals the atmospheric pressure on both sides of the eardrum;
4.csWhat type of neurotransmitter realize chord tympani in synapses of submandibular glands: C. decreases the degree of vibration of the eardrum;
A. norepinephrine; D. increases the degree of vibration of the eardrum;
B. epinephrine; C.! E. no influences the degree of oscillation of the eardrum;
acetylcholine;
D. glicin; 84.cm Select correct statements concerning the auditory receptors:
E. dopamine; A. are primary sensitive receptors; B!. are
secondary sensitive receptors;
5.csChoice the correct answer about effect on the submandibular glands on the sympathetic excitation: C. generatory potential occurs in sensitive cells;
A. vasodilatation; B.! D!. generatory potential appears in the auditory nerve terminations;
vasoconstriction; E. receptor potential appears in the auditory nerve terminations;
C. non action;
D. primary vasodilatation, secondary vasoconstriction;
E. primary vasoconstriction; secondary vasodilatation; 86.cm What temperature begins to cause the termoreceptors excitation and the sensation of pain: A!.
the temperature, at which tissues begin to be altered by heat;
6.csWhat type of stomach cells secrete gastric secretion: B!. Over 45 C;
A. oxyntic (parietal); B.! C. at 30 C;
peptic (chief cells); D. at 5 C;
C. mucous cells; E. 39 C;
D.G cells;
E. serous cells; 87.cm Select answers that characterize miosis:
A!. fotomotor reflex to excess of light and to close vision;
7.csWhat type of stomach cells secrete HCl: B. pupil dilatation; C!. pupil
A. peptic cells; constriction;
B. mucous cells; C.! D!. pupillary sphincter muscle contraction by parasympathetic nerve;
oxyntic cells; E. iris radial muscle contraction by sympathetic nerve;
D. serous cells;
E.G cells;
15.cmThe hummoral control of pancreatic secretion is occurred by: A.!acetylcoline; ;
B.!gastrin; C.cholecystokinin; 18cs.In the oral cavity is digested only:
D. adenilatcyclase; A. lipids;
E. myosin; B. glucose;
C. sugar; D.!
16.cmThe pancreatic secretion contains following type of enzymes: A.! proteolytic; starches;
B. lipase; E. proteins;
C.! carboxypolypeptidose;
D. nucleases; 19.cmWhat enzymes from following are secreted in the shape of non active:
E. anhidrases; A.! pepsin;
B.! trypsin;
17.csChoice the correct answer about hunger contractions in the stomach caused by: C.! chymotrypsin;
A. food absence in the stomach; D. lipase;
B.! intense contractions when the stomach has been empty; E. gastrin;
C. pain in the stomach;
D. increasing of gastric secretion; 20.csAfter the food has become mixed with the stomach secretions, the resulting mixture is called:
E. decreasing of gastric secretion A. bolus of food;
B.! chyme of stomach; 8.csWhat type of stomach cells secrete mucus:
C. chyme of intestine; A. oxyntic cells;
D. bolus of intestine; B.! mucous neck cells;
E. semifluid food; C. peptic cells;
D.G cells;
21.cmChoice the correct answers about factors of regulation of stomach empting: A.!the degree of E. serous cells;
acidity of the duodenal and stomachal chyme;
B.!the degree of irritation of the duodenal mucosa; C.!the degree of 9.csWhat type of food need maximal acidity in gastric secretion:
osmololity in the chyme; D.glucose quantity in the chyme; A. sugar;
E.pH of blood; B. milk; C.! meat;
D. bread;
E. plas;

10.csWhere is secreted the hormonal substance gastrin: A.in the oral

cavity;
B.!in the pyloric glands of the stomach; C.in the duodenum;
D.in the pancreas;
E.in the digestive tract;

11.csChoice the correct function of enterokinase: A.!activate

trypsinogen;
B.hydrolise proteins;
C.increase pancreatic secretion; D.hydrolise the
lipids; E.increase gastric motility

12.csChoice the correct pH value of pancreatic secretion: A.7,0-7,8;

B.6,5-7,0;
C.!7,8-8,4;
D.1,8-2,5;
E.8,8-9,0;

13.csChoice the enzyme what not contain pancreatic secretion:

A. amylase; B.trypsin;
C.chymotrypsin;
D.carboxypolypeptidase; E.!pepsin;

14.csRegulation of pancreatic secretion is controlled by:

A. somatic nervous system;
B. sympathetic n.s;
C. parasympathetic n.s;
D.! sympathetic and parasympathetic ns;
E. voluntary;
29.cmWhat kind of transformation has glucose after absorption: A.! E. norepinephrin;
glicogenesis;
B.! lipogenesis; 31.csWhat hind of stimulation cause reflexes of defecation:
C.! oxidation with heath realizing; A. sympathetic excitation;
D. hydrolyses; B. empting of urinary bluder;
E. combine with electrolytes; C.! distention of the rectal wall when feces enter in the rectum;
D. contraction of abdominal muscles;
30.cmChoice the correct answers about inhibitors of pancreatic secretion: A.! E. contraction of diaphragm;
atropin;
B. achetylcolin; 32.cmChoise the correct type of movement in the small intestine: A.! peristaltic;
C. gastrin; B.! mixing;
D.! epinephrin; C.! propulsive;36 +
D. atonic; 22.cmChoice the correct answer about functions of bile salts: A.!
E. extension; detergent action on the fat particles;
B.! activated pancreatic lipases; C.!
33.csFrom following what kind of processus is not present in the large intestine: stimulated bile secretion;
A. water absorption; D. lipids hydrolysing;
B. indoll and skatole formation; E. proteins hydrolysing;
C. carbonate ions secretion;
D.vitamin K and B1 synthesis; 23.csChoice the correct answer about origin of bile pigments. Bile pigments are result from degradation of:
E. ! reabsorption of bile solts; A. platellets;
B. leucocytes; C.!
34.cmChoise the correct answers about function of salive: A.! hemoglobin;
excretion of urea; D. bile solts;
B.! excretion of lead; C.! E. myoglobin;
excretion of virus;
D. drugs inactivation; 24.csMaximum absorption of water in the digestive tubule is in:
E. absorption of NH3; A. stomach;
B. jejun;
35.csWhat kind of effect cause pancreatic secretion concerning intestinal enterokinase: C. ileon;
A.non effects; D. colon;
B.!increase enterokinase quantity; E.! small intestine
C. decrease enterokinase quantity; D.effect
need bile presence; 25.cmBy active mechanism are absorbed: A.!
E.pimary increase, secondary decrease enterokinase quantity; glucose;
B.!aminoacids; C.!
Ca;++
D.water; E.!
OH;-

26.csFrom following, what is not saliva function:

A. digestion;
B. excretion; C.!
respiration;
D. speaking;
E. thermoregulation;

27.csSatiety can be determined by:

A.extracell liquid volume;
B. blood pressure;
C. concentration of proteins in the plasma;
D. concentration of Na+ in the plasma; E.!
intracell glucose concentration;

28.cmChoice the intestinal hormones: A.!

secretin;
B.! pancreozymin;
C.! vasoactiv intestinal peptide (VIP);
D. glucagon;
E. insulin;
43 cm What stages of deglutition are non voluntary:
a. mastication; 44 cm From following, what kind of functions are not of gastric HCL:
b. oral stage; a. HCL is necessary for activation of gastric enzymes;
c.! pharyngeal stage; d.! esophageal b.! HCL hydrolyze the protein;
stages; c. HCL is necessary for pepsinogen activation: d.!
e. formation bolus of food; HCL hydrolyze lipids;
e. HCL is necessary for protein distortion; 36.cmWhat type of vitamins are syntheses in the large intestine: A.! vitamin
K;
45cm From following, what kind of enzymes are not of gastric secretion: a.!ptyalin; B.! vitamin B12;
b.pepsinogen; c.gelatinaza; C. vitamin B1;
d.kimozina; e.!maltaza; D. vitamin C;
E. vitamin A;
46 cm What king of digestive secretion has any digestive enzyme:
a. secretion of submandibular glands; b.! bile; 37.cmPancreatic secretion will be stimulated by:
c. secretion of gastric glands; A.epinephrin;
d. secretion of sublingual glands; B.!gastrin; C.!secretin;
e.! secretion of large intestine glands; D.gastrin E.!serotonin;
47 cm Choice the correct answers about cholecystokinin effects on the bile secretion: a.increase bile 38.csFrom following what kind of enzyme is not pancreatic: A.tripsin;
secretion from the liver; B.!pepsin; C.chymotripsin;
b.close sphincter of Oddi; D.carboxipolipeptidose;
c.!determine contraction of gallbladder; d.!determine relaxation of E. amylase;
sphincter of Oddi; e.increase biliary pigments synthesis;
39.csChoice the factor which cause inhibition in the small intestine: A.gastrin;
48 cm After emulsification, lipids will be hydrolyzed by: a.biliary salts; B.colecistokinin; C.!secretin;
b.!gastric lipase; c.!pancreatic D.insulin; E.serotonin;
lipase; d.!intestinal lipase; e.pepsin;
40.cmChoice the correct answer about segmentation movements of the small intestine: A.!regularly
49 cm Choice the correct answers about conditions of movements from small intestine to large intestine: spaced;
a. the state of pyloric sphincter; b.!state of chyme in the B.!isolated spaced; C.slow
small intestine; contractions; D.!iregulary spaced;
c.!the degree of pressure between small and large intestine; d.!the state of E.fast contractions;
ileocecal sphincter;
e. the state of sphincter of Oddi; 41.cs 20 per cent of gastric secretion are realized in: A.gastric
phase;
B.!cephalic phase; C.intestinal
phase;
D.in the phases of secretion;
E.only in the cephalic and gastric phases.

42 cm What hind of effects in the salivary glands cause parasympathetic stimulation:

a. mucus and enzymes secretion; b.!
vasodilatation;
c. inhibit salivation;
d.! less enzymes secretion;
e. vasoconstriction;
57 cm Choice the correct answers about digestion: 59 cs Choice the non correct answer about pancreatic secretion: a.pH of
a. swallowing is a complicated voluntary mechanism; pancreatic secretion is 8,0;
b. in the esophagus bolus of food is propelled by the segmentation movements; c.! saliva b. pancreatic secretion contain high concentration of bicarbonates;
contain the enzyme for starch hydrolisation; c. pancreatic secretion is 1000mb per day;
d.! the pH of saliva increase in time of secretion; d. pancreatic secretion contain cholesteraze;
e. !the bile not contain digestive enzymes; e.! only nervous control provide pancreatic secretion;

58 cm Choice the correct answers about digestion: 60 cs The gastric secretion is stimulated by following factors, except:
a. the intrinsic factor is secreted by G cells in the stomach; b.! the a. acetylcholine;
cholecystokinin inhibit gastric secretion; b. caffeine;
c. gastric secretion begin when the bolus of food attain stomach; d.!HCl is c. gastrin;
secreted by parietal (oxyntic) cells; d. histamine;
e. the most quantity of HCl and pepsinogen are secreted in the intestinal phase of gastric secretion; e.! norepinephrine;
61cm In the duodenum trypsinogen will be converted in trypsin by: a.! 50 cm Choice the common substances from saliva and gastric secretion: a.!
enterokinase; lisozim;
b. procarboxypepdase; b.!mucine;
c.pancreatic lipase; d.!trypsin; c. lipase and amylase; d.!urea;
e.high pH; e.pepsin;

62cm The protection of pancreatic tissue is provided by: a.! secretion 51 cm Choice the correct answers about functions of saliva for oral hygiene:
of enzymes in non active state; a.regulation of internal pH;
b.! secretion of anti-enzymes; b.!help wash away the pathogenic bacteria and particles of food; c.!saliva
c. pepsin inactivation; contains several factors that destroy bacteria; d.!control of liquid state in
d. high concentration of bicarbonates; oral cavity;
e. slow action of enzymes; e. hydrolyze carbohydrates;

63cm Choice the correct answers about motilyn: a.! motilyn 52 cm In the following parts of digestive tract proteins will be hydrolyzed: a.in the
is tissular hormone; oral cavity;
b. motilyn inhibit gastric movements; b.!in the stomach;
c.! motilyn increase duodenal movements; c.!in the small intestine; d.in the
d. motilyn has the some action than glucagon; e.! increase large intestine;
propellation of food; e. in the esophagus;

53 cm Choice the correct answers about functions of enterogastron ( intestinal hormone or GIP):
a. increase exocrine pancreatic secretion; b.! inhibit
gastric secretion;
c. increase intestinal motor function; d.! inhibit
gastric motor function;
e. increase absorption of lipase;

54 cm Choice the correct factors which increase pancreatic secretion: a.!

gastrin;
b.epinephrin; c.!
pancreozimin; d.!secretin;
e.tiroxyn;

55 cm Cholesterol can be component part of: a.!saliva;

b.gastric secretion; c.!bile;
d.pancreatic secretion;
e.intestinal secretion;

56 cm Increasing saliva secretion take name:

a. hyposalivation; b.!
hypersalivation;
c. xerostomia; d.!
syalorea;
e. bulemia;
71cm Choice the inhibitory gastric and intestinal hormones: d. mastication is controlled by ANS;
a. motylin; e. in mastication deacrease saliva secretion;
b.! cholecystokinin; c.intrinsic factor;
d.! secretin; 73csChoice the factor what cause inhibition of stomach movement:
e.! somatostatin; a. achetylcolin;
b. motilyn;
72cm Choice the correct answers about mastication: a.! mastication is c.
reflex controlled by cortex; g
b.! mastication is much of chewing process controlled by brain stemp; a
c.! in the mastication increase total surface ceria exposed to the digestive secretion; s
trin; d.!secretine; e.histamine; 64cm The components of pancreatic secretion has following functions: a.! decrease
acidity of gastric chym;
74csIn mechanism of HCl formation in the parietal cells, the hydrogen ions are secreted in exchange of (what kind of ions): b.! provide digestion of carbohydrates; c.! provide
a.!K;+ digestion of lipids;
b.Cl;- d. control concentration of glucose in the blood;
c.HCO3;- d.Ca2;+ e. control absorption in the intestine;
e.Na;+
65cm Choice the correct answers about effects of pH decreasing in the duodenum: a.! decrease
75csThe gastric digestion is more important for: a.!proteins; gastric secretion;
b.lipids; c.carbohydrates;; d.vitamins; b. increase gastric secretion; c.! decrease
e.ions; stomach emptying;
d.! increase gallbladder emptying;
76csChoice the correct answer about secretion of intrinsic factor(IF): a.IF is secreted by e. increase contraction of sphincter of Oddi;
chief cells of stomach;
b.!IF is secreted by parietal cells (oxyntic); c.IF is secreted by 66cm Choice the vitamins what is formed as a result of bacterial activity of colon: a.! vit.K;
pyloric glands; b.!vit.B1;
d.IF is secreted by surface epithelium; e.IF is secreted by G c.! riboflavin
cells in stomach; d. acid folic;
e. vit.D;
77csChoice the correct answer about intrinsic factor (IF): a.IF activate vit.B12;
b.IF increase secretion of HCl; c.IF inhibit 67cs In vagotomia what phase of gastric secretion will be eliminated:
secretion of mucus; a. primary;
d.IF increase absorption of iron in the ileum; b. cephalic;
e.!If is essential for absorption of vitB12 in the ileum; c. gastric;
d .intestinal;
e.! all phases of gastric secretion;

68cs Maximum absorption of vitamin B12 is in:

a. stomach;
b. duodenum;
c. jejune; d.! ileon;
e. colon;

69cs The gallbladder contraction is provided by:

a. GIP (enterogastrin); b.!
cholecystokinin;
c. insuluin;
d. glucagon;
e. secretine;

70.csThe gastrin is secreted by:

a. neurons from hypothalamus;
b. parietal cells in stomach;
c.! gastrin (G) cells from pyloric glands;
d. duodenal cells;
e. intestinal cells;
85cm Choice the intestinal enzymes: a.!amynopeptidase; d. caused by mechanical excitation of esophageal wall by bolus of food; e.! help moving of bolus
b.colagenose; c.elastase; d.! of food in the esophagus;
enteropeptidase; e.!peptidase;

86cm Choice the correct answers about peristaltic waves in the small intestine: a.! are
present in the esophageal stage of smallowing;
b. begin in the cephalic phase of smallowing;
c.! begin in the pharyngeal stage of smallowing;
78csChoice the correct answer about hunger contractions: a.hunger 81cm By the active mechanism are absorbet: a.!monocarbohydrates;
contractions begin until 40 hours after the last ingestion; b.hunger b.glicerine; c.watersolvent vitamins;
contractions begin after stomach filling; d. faty acids; e.!aminoacids;
c.hunger contractions not cause hunger pongs;
d.!hunger contractions vanish after glucagons administration; 82cm Choice the common signs between reflex of deglutition and reflex of defecation: a.!begin from
e. hunger contraction vanish after insulin administration; mechanical receptors;
b.!involve the skeletal and smooth muscles;
79cmChoise the correct answers about functions of bile: a.!help c.!involve the voluntary and nonvoluntary nervous mechanisms; d.are controlled
absorption of cholesterol; by brain stemp centers;
b. decrease acidity in the gastric chime; e.are total voluntary processes;
c. provide absorption of metals; d.!
emulsifing function; 83cm Choice the correct answers about mastication:
e.! activate pancreatic lipase; a.!warn the mechanical traumatism in the oral cavity by big pieces of food: b.warn the mixing of
food with saliva;
80cs From the following, choice the mechanism that not present in the colon: c.!facilitate action of digestive enzyme; d.facilitate gastric
a. water absorption; contractions; e.mastication is the last phase of digestion;
b. synthesis of vit B1;
c. formation of NH3; 84cm Choice the correct answers about functions of liver: a.!storage of drugs;
d. secretion of mucine and K;+ e.! b.!storage of Fe2;+ c.storage of blood;
Fe2+ reabsorption; d.storage of albumines; e.!storage of
carbohydrates;
8 .SC. As the intensity of the stimulus in a presynaptic neuron increases, the number of vesicles B. norepinephrine;
undergoing exocytosis , and the number of C. serotonin;
released neurotransmitter molecules: D!. GABA;
A!. increases, increases; E. dopamine;
B. increases, decreases;
13 .SC. The brain neurotransmitters that may have opioid (pain relieving) properties is:
C. decreases, increases;
A. enkephalin peptides;
D. decreases, decreases;
B. dynorphin polypeptides;
E. will be the same;
C. β-endorphins;
9 .SC. The ion that must flow into the presynaptic neuron ending to activate the release of neurotransmitter D!. all of these are correct;
chemicals from synaptic vesicles is: E. none of these are correct;
A. sodium;
B. potassium; 14 .SC. The neurotransmitter that appears to be involved in such clinical problems as Huntington’s chorea, status
C!. calcium; epilepticus (seizures), and severe alterations in mood and emotions, is:
D. iron; A. ACh;
E. hydrogen; B. norepinephrine;
C. serotonin;
10 .SC. Which of the following events is not involved in the release of neurotransmitter chemicals from D!. GABA;
the presynaptic terminal boutons? E. dopamine;
A. opening of voltage-regulated calcium channels;
B!. turning off the Na+/K+ pumps;
C. activation of intracellular enzymes known as protein kinases;
D. exocytosis of membrane-bound vesicles;
E. phosphorylation of synapsin proteins in the membrane of the synaptic vesicles;

11 .SC. Which of the following neurotransmitters is

inhibitory? A!. glycine;
B. aspartic acid;
C. norepinephrine;
D. glutamic acid;
E. acetylcholine;

12 .SC. The most prevalent brain neurotransmitter is:

A. ACh;
 Nervous system. Medicine faculty B. microglia;
C. astrocytes;
1 .SC. Which of the following is not a function of neurons? D!. oligodendrocytes;
A. respond to physical stimuli; E. ependymocytes;
B. conduct electrical impulses;
C. release specific chemical regulators; 5 .SC. The most abundant glial cell in the CNS, which forms perivascular feet associated with the blood-brain
D. respond to chemical barrier, is the:
stimuli; E!. contract; A!. astrocyte;
B. oligodendrocyte;
2 .SC. A grouping of cell bodies located within the CNS is known as a: C. satellite cell;
A. tract; D. microglia;
B. nerve; E. Schwann cell;
C!.
nucleus; 6 .SC. The only synapse that has bidirectional conduction is:
D. ganglion; A. axodendritic;
E. fiber; B. axosomatic;
C. axoaxonic;
3 .SC. The most common type of neuron is: D!. dendrodendritic;
A. bipolar; E. no one;
B. multipolar; 7 .SC. Electrical synapses are characterized by having two adjoining cells that:
C. pseudounipolar; A. are about equal in size;
D. unipolar; B. have contact areas with low electrical resistance;
E. tripolar; C. have gap junctions present between
them; D!. all of these are correct;
4 .SC. Myelin sheaths around axons within the CNS are formed by: E. none of these are correct;
A. Schwann cells;
E. GABA;
22 .MC. The role of Ca2+ ions in the release of
neurotransmitter: A!. cause releasing of neurotransmitter from 26 .MC. Select the inhibitory neurotransmitters: A!. serotonin;
axon terminal; B. acetylcholine; C!. glycine;
B. inhibit release of neurotransmitter; D!. GABA;
C. attach to postsynaptic receptors; E. norepinephrine;
D. open Na+ channels;
E!. increase duration of presynaptic membrane excitation; 27 .MC. Which chemically gated ionic channels can be found on the postsynaptic membrane? A!. Na+ channels ;
B. Ca2+ channels ; C!. K+ channels ; D!. Cl-
23 .SC. EPSPs summation causes AP on: channels ;
A. postsynaptic membrane; E. Fe2+ channels ;
B. soma membrane;
C. dendrite membrane; 28 .SC. The transport of neurotransmitter across presynaptic membrane occurs due to:
D. axon membrane; A. voltage-gated channels;
E!. axon hillock membrane; B. chemically gated channels; C!. exocytose;
D. active transport;
24 .MC. The inhibitory neurotransmitters: E. diffusion;
A. open Na+ channels on the postsynaptic membrane;
B!. open K+ channels on the postsynaptic membrane;
C. depolarize postsynaptic membrane;
D!. hyperpolarize postsynaptic membrane;
E. open Ca2+ channels on the postsynaptic membrane;

25 .MC. Select the excitatory

neurotransmitters: A!. acetylcholine;
B. dopamine;
C!. norepinephrine;
D. glycine;
15 .SC. Which of the following statements about nitric oxide (NO) is false?
A. NO acts locally to relax the smooth
muscles of blood vessels; B!. NO is
occasionally used by dentists as
analgesic;
C. NO acts as a neurotransmitter of certain neurons in both the PNS and CNS;
D. NO stimulates the production of cyclic guanosine monophosphate (cGMP);
E. NO appears to be involved in such processes as erection of the penis, dilation of
respiratory passageways, and learning and memory;
!. spatial summation;
E. synaptic occlusion;
17 .MC. Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs):
A!. result in hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane;
B!. may be caused by opening postsynaptic K+ gates;
C. may be caused by opening postsynaptic Na+ gates;
D!. may be caused by opening postsynaptic Cl- gates;
E. take the membrane potential farther away from threshold;

16 .SC. EPSPs produced by many different presynaptic fibers converging on a single 18 .MC. Which of the following is characteristic of presynaptic inhibition?
postsynaptic neuron, causing summation on the postsynaptic dendrites and cell body, A!. the axon of the first neuron synapses with the axon of the second
best describes: neuron;
A. synaptic plasticity; B. it can result from the opening Cl- gates, producing hyperpolarization and forming IPSPs;
B. temporal summation; C!. the first neuron is partially depolarized by the neurotransmitter from the second neuron;
C. D!. lesser amounts of neurotransmitter is released by the first neuron due to fewer action potential arriving at the axon
s terminal;
y E. the neurotransmitter is norepinephrine;
n
a 19 .MC. The excitatory neurotransmitters:
p A. hyperpolarize postsynaptic membrane;
t B!. depolarize postsynaptic membrane;
i C!. open sodium-potassium channels;
c D. open chloride channels;
E. open calcium channels;
i 20 .MC. The excitatory postsynaptic
n potential: A!. can be summed;
h B. cannot be summed;
i C!. its amplitude depends on quantity of neurotransmitter;
b D. is based on the law “all or none;”
i E!. is not based on the law “all or none:”
t
i 21 .MC. EPSP amplitude depends
o on: A!. number of open Na+
n channels;
; B!. quantity of released neurotransmitter;
C. number of open Ca+ channels ;
D D. number of open Cl- channels;
E!. intensity and duration of excitation;
8 .CM. Choose the correct statements about the PaO2 of blood from the left atrium surfactant A its deficiency increases pulmonary compliance
A. is equal with PaO2 of alveoli B its deficiency reduces surface tension
B! is lower than PaO2 of C.! its deficiency reduces pulmonary compliance D
alveoli C.! Is 95 mm Hg its deficiency reduces pulmonary elastance
D. exceeds the PaO2 of alveoli E! its deficiency increases pulmonary elastance
E is 104 mm Hg
12 .CS. Choose the correct statement about the pulmonary compliance
10 .CS. Choose the correct statement concerning the gradient of pO2 A. is equal to Δ P/ Δ V
A. is 5 to 6 mm Hg between capillaries and alveoli B!. decreases as while the elastic recoil of the lungs increases
B is 5 to 6 mm Hg between capillaries and tissue C. increases in surfactant deficiency
C.! Is 64 mm Hg between alveoli and capillaries D increases as the elastic recoil of the lungs increases
D. between capillaries and tissues it varies accordingly with the Bohr effect E. increases as elastance increases
E. between capillaries and tissues it varies accordingly with the amount of biphosphoglycerate
13 .CM. Choose incorrect statements about the lung compliance
11 .CM. Choose the correct statements about the importance of A. is equal to ΔV / Δ P B!
is 110 ml / cm H2O
C. is 200 ml / cm H2O THE RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
D! is less than the compliance of the lung-thorax complex
E decreases as elastic recoil of the lungs increases 1 .CS. Choose the correct statement concerning the prolonged stimulatory effect of increased PaCO2 on the ventilation
A. it does not vary over time
B!. it is more pronounced the first few hours
14 CM Choose the correct statement about the intraalveolar air volume related to given value of the C. it is increased within first 24 hours
transpulmonary pressure D. it is reduced the first few hours
A. is the same during inspiration and expiration E. it increases within first 24 hours, then decreases
B. is greater during inspiration
C!. is greater during 2 .CS. Choose the correct statement concerning the reducing of the ventilatory effects of prolonged
expiration hipercapnia A it is caused by reduction of bicarbonates in the blood
D. decreases as lung compliance increases B it is caused by reduction of bicarbonates in cerebrospinal fluid
E!. increases as lung compliance increases C. it is due to increased excretion of bicarbonates by urine
D!. it is caused by by the increase of the bicarbonates in cerebrospinal fluid
15 .CM. Choose the incorrect statements about the stimulatory effect of increased PaCO2 on ventilation E. it is caused the decrease of the permeability for CO2 of hematoencephalic barrier
A. is caused by the increased H + in cerebrospinal fluid
B!. is enhanced by increasing of the blood pH 3 .CS. Choose the correct statement concerning the Hering-Breuer reflex
C. is enhanced by hypoxia A pericapillar receptors located in the walls of the alveoli play a major role.
D!. is caused by the increased HCO3- in cerebrospinal fluid B irritating receptors in epithelial and subepitelial layers of the alveoli play a major role.
E. is caused by the action of the H + on central and peripheral receptor C. proprioceptors of the respiratory muscles play a major role.
D!. stretch receptors located in the walls of airways and bronhiols play a major role.
E. pleura receptors play a major role

4 .CS. Choose the incorrect statement concerning the Hering-Breuer reflex

A. participates in the control of breathing in neonates
B. has a protective role against elevated respiratory volumes
C. is triggered by volume exceeding three times the normal tidal volume.
D. is not triggered by the normal tidal volume in adult
E!. assending afferent pathways pass in the glosofaringeal nerve.

5 .CM Choose the incorrect statements about the pneumotaxic

center A!. its stimulation produces the inspiratory apnea
B. its stimulation produces tahipnoe
C.! its stimulation produces bradipnoe
D. its stimulation reduces tidal volumes
E. its stimulation reduces the time of inspiration

6.CM Choose the incorrect statements about the pneumotaxic center

A. its injury produces the inspiratory
apnea B.! its injury produces tahipnoe
C. its injury produces bradipnoe
D.! its injury reduces tidal volumes
E. its injury reduces the duration of inspiration

7 .CS. Choose the correct statement about the Bohr effect

A. promotes the release of O2 in tissues related with the reduced PO2
B!. promotes the release of O2 in tissues related with the reduced affinity of Hb for O2, induced by CO2
C. promotes the release of O2 in tissues related with the increased intracellular ADP
D. promotes the release of O2 in tissues related with the vasodilation prodused by adenosine.
E. promotes the release of O2 in tissues related with the vasodilation prodused by hypoxia
23 .CS. Choose the correct statement concerning the diffusion coefficient of O2 is lower than that of CO2, because O2 is less soluble
A. is greater than that of CO2, because O2 is combined with Hb D. is not different from that of CO2
B is higher than that of CO2, because O2 has a higher pressure gradient C.! E is higher than that of CO2, because O2 is transported by facilitated diffusion
 16 .CS Choose incorrect statement about the stimulatory effect of hypoxia
25 .CS. Choose the correct statement about the CO2 concentration A! Is produced by stimulation of the central chemoreceptorilor
A!. is the lowest in anatomic dead space at the end inspiration B is produced by stimulation of the peripheral chemoreceptorilor
B is the lowest in anatomic dead space at the end of expiration C. it occurs when Pa O2 <60 mm Hg
C. is the lowest in the alveoli at the end of expiration D D. hypoxia causes vasoconstriction in the lung
is the lowest in the alveoli at the end of inspiration E. hypoxia depolarises sensitive cells of aortic and carotid bodies by reducing the permeability of K + channels
E. is the lowest in the arterial blood sensitive to O2
26 .CS. Choose the correct statement about the concentration of O2 17 .CS. Choose the correct statement about the blood capacity for O2
A. is the highest in anatomic dead space at the end of expiration B!. A. is determined more by O2 solubility
is highest in anatomic dead space at the end of inspiration B!. is determined more by the amount of Hb
C. is the highest in the alveoli at the end of expiration D C. is determined more by blood pH
is the highest in the alveoli at the end inspiration D. is determined more by CO2 in erythrocytes
E. is the highest in the arterial blood E. is determined more by blood temperature
27 .CM. Choose the correct statements about the HbO2 dissociation curve 18 .CS. Choose the correct statement about the CO2 transport
A.! shift to the left can be produced by increasing the pH A. CO2 facilitates formation of HbO2
B. shift to the left can be produced by lowering pH B is transported more as carbaminic compound (HbCO2)
C. shift to the left can be produced by increasing temperature, pCO2, 2,3-DPG D! C. is transported more like physically dissolved form D!
shift to the left can be produced by lowering the temperature, pCO2, 2,3-DPG Is transported more like plasmatic bicarbonate
E. shift to the left can be caused by decreased PaO2 E. is not related to the amount of plasmatic bicarbonate
28 .CM. Choose the correct statements about the HbO2 dissociation curve 19 .CM. Choose the correct statements about the effects of hypoventilation
A. shift to the right can be produced by increasing the pH B!. A!. cerebral vasodilation
shift to the right can be produced by lowering pH B. cerebral vasoconstriction
C!. shift to the right can be produced by increasing temperature, pCO2, 2,3-DPG D C!. reduces alveolar pO2
shift to the right can be produced by lowering the temperature, pCO2, 2,3-DPG D reduces alveolar pCO2
E. shift to the right can be caused by decreased PaO2 E. increases alveolar pO2
29 .CM. Choose the correct statements about the ventilation with tidal volume of 200 ml at a frequency of 30 breaths / 20 .CS. Choose the correct statement about the role of surfactant
minute A. providing a higher surface tension than water
A. ensures gas homeostasis B.! changes the surface tension accordingly with the diameter of alveoli
B. may cause hypocapnia with respiratory alkalosis C. hyaline membrane disease in neonates is due to the excess of dipalmitoilfosfatidilcholine
C!. can cause hypoxemia D. surface tension is directly proportionated to the concentration of dipalmitoilfosfatidilcholine
D!. hypercapnia with respiratory acidosis can occur E. is secreted by alveolocite type I
E. increases during voluntary apnea
21 .CM. Choose the correct statements about the peripheral chemoreceptors (involved in regulation of respiration)
30 .CM. Choose the incorrect statements about the spirograph: A are stimulated by PaO2 80-90 mm Hg
A. allows to estimate the tidal volume B!. are stimulated by arterial pH 7.25
B!. allows the estimation of residual volume C. are stimulated by arterial pH 7.4
C. allows the estimation of vital capacity D!. are stimulated by the Pa O2 <60 mm Hg
D!. allows to estimate the functonal residual capacity E. are stimulated directly by CO2
E. allows to estimate the inspiratory capacity
22 .CM. Choose incorrect statements about the gas exchanges in tissues
A. decreasing of the pCO2 increases the pH
B. increasing of the pCO2 produces vasodilation
C.! increasing of the PCO2 increases the pH
D! increasing of the PCO2 increases the affinity of Hb for O2
E. increasing of the PCO2 reduces the affinity of Hb for O2
38 .CS. Choose the correct statement about pulmonary compliance A is higher E. is reduced in deep inspiration
when fibrous tissue in present in the lungs
B. is lowered by surfactant 39 .CM Choose the correct statements
C. its value is 110 ml / cm H2O D!. Is A. breathing is irregular during nonREM sleep B!. breathing is irregular
reduced in deep expiration during REM sleep
C. pulmonary ventilation increases during nonREM sleep D!. pulmonary 31 .CS. Hypoxia stimulates the breathing by:
ventilation is reduced in nonREM sleep A. stimulation of peripheral and central chemoreceptors
E. ventilation during nonREM sleep does not differ from waking state B. cerebral hypoxia
C. pH lowering in cerebrospinal fluid
40 .CM. Choose the correct statements about lung compliance D!. stimulation of the aortic and carotid bodies by low blood PaO2
A! is reduced when fibrous tissue in present in the lungs scar tissue in lungs B is lowered E. stimulation of the aortic and carotid bodies by lower blood pH
by surfactant
C.! It’s value is 200 ml / cm H2O 32 .CM. The reflex Hering-Breuer in adults
D. is higher during deep expiration E! Is higher A. involves pulmonary chemoreceptors
during deep inspiration B!. Stops inspiration wnen inspired volume is higher then tidal volume C!. starts from
pulmonary mechanoreceptors
41 .CM. Wakefulness compared with orthodoxical sleep (NonREM) D. Involves central and peripheral chemoreceptors
A. does not influence the pulmonary ventilation E. Stops inspiration wnen inspired volume is equal to tidal volume
B. reduces pulmonary ventilation
C!. increases suprapontine control on breath 33 .CS. Choose the correct statement about apneustic center
D. Reduces respiratory variability indices E!. increases A. is essential to provide the basic respiratory rhythm
pulmonary ventilation B!. Can produce a prolonged inspiration in some circumstances
C. Causes rapid shallow breathing in animal with vagotomia
42 .CS. The exclusive voluntary control of breathing occurs A .in the D. Causes rapid shallow breathing in animal with vagotomia and middle-pons transection
posture reactions E. Reduces the duration of inspiration
B. in hyperthermia and fever
C!. is done directly via by corticospinal pathways 34 .CM. Choose incorrect statements about the medullar respiratory center
D. in swallowing A. receives impulses from chemoreceptors
E. in reflexes of coughing and sneezing B!. is not modulated by neither stimulatory nor inhibitory suprapontine influences
C. is the main source of respiratory rate
43 .CS. In a patient with a transplant of two lungs it’s observed D. receives impulses from mechanoreceptors E!. its activity is
A cough reflex when receptors in the lower airways are stimulated B.! sneeze increased in “Ondine’s Curse”
reflex is conserved
C. Hering-Breuer reflex in respiration with normal tidal volume 35 .CM. Stretch pulmonary receptors: A!. perceive the
D. Hering-Breuer reflex in respiration with tidal volume higher than normal increasing lung volume
E. bronchi dilation, produced by atropine B. send afferent nerve impulses via glossofaringeal nerve C!. Inhibit the
inspiration phase
44 .CS. In a patient with a transplant of two lungs is not observed: D. Reduce discharge frequency during inspiration
A. respiratory changes in swallowing E. Increase the duration of inspiration
B. sneeze reflex is present
C. ventilatory effects by lowered pH 36 .CS. They are not involved in the reflex regulation of breathing
D!. Hering-Breuer reflex in respiration with tidal volume higher than normal A. alveolar receptors
E. ventilatory effects by lowered PaO2 and increased PaCO2 B. vascular baroreceptors
C!. Visceral receptors in kidneys and liver
D. muscle proprioceptors
E. vascular chemoreceptors

37 .CM. Choose the correct statements about the voluntary hyperventilation

A. the duration of voluntary apnea is reduced
B. vasodilation occurs in the brain vessels
C!. vasoconstriction occurs in the brain vessels D!. affinity of
Hb to O2 increases
E. affinity of Hb to O2 decreases
1 .CS. Choose the correct statement about the lowest values of PaO2:
A. in atmospheric air 2 .CS. Choose the correct statement about the factor that does not affect directly HbO2 formation:
B. in expired air A.pO2
C. the alveolar air D!. venous B.pCO2
blood C!. velocity of circulation
E. in arterial blood D. 2,3-BPG and pH
E. temperature 45 .CM. Choose the correct statements concerning regulation of respiration:
A central chemoreceptors are stimulated by increased H + concentration in the blood
3 .CS Choose the correct statement about the normal breathing rate in adult at rest: A.40-60 resp B!. peripheral chemoreceptors are stimulated by increased H + concentration in the blood
/ min C. central chemoreceptors are affected by PaO2 higher than 60 mm Hg
B.30-40 resp / min C! .12-16 D!. arterial , pulmonary and cardiac pressure receptors affect the respiratory center activity E.CO2
resp / min D.22-26 resp / min stimulates directly the peripheral chemoreceptors
E.20-22 resp / min
46 .CM. Choose the correct statements about the apneustic center: A!. is
4 .CS Choose the correct statement. The volume of air involved in gas exchange at rest is formed from: located in the lower pons
A. inspiratory capacity minus the dead space volume B is located in the upper pons C!.
B.! tidal volume and functional residual capacity minus dead space volume C.tidal and stimulates the inspiration
residual volumes minus dead space volume D. stops the inspiration, controling the inspired volume and the respiratory rate
D. expiratory and inspiratory reserve volumes minus dead space volume E. its destruction produces a deep breath with inspiratory apnoe
E. total pulmonary capacity minus the dead space volume.
47.CM. Choose the correct statements about the pneumotaxic center:
5.CM Choose the correct statements about factors affecting diffusion of O2 in the lungs: A. is located in the lower pons B! Is
A. It is done according to pO2 gradient between air and blood located in the upper pons
B. It is affected by blood pH C. stimulates inspiration
D! it is done according to pO2 gradient between alveolar air and blood C.! it is affected D! stops the inspiration, controling the inspired volume and the respiratory rate
by diffusion area of respiratory membrane E. its excitation produces a deep breath with inspiratory apnoe
E. it is affected by the quantity of biphosphoglycerate (2,3 - BPG)
48.CS. Choose the incorrect statement about the dorsal respiratory group:
6 .CM Choose the correct statements about pleural pressure A. receives afferent impulses by vagal and glossofaringeal nerves B!. Is
A. It is equal to transpulmonary pressure responsible mainly for forced expiration
B!. The difference with intralveolar pressure results in transpulmonary pressure C!. Is more C is involved in generating the main respiratory rhythm
negative during inspiration D. sends efferent inpulses via phrenic motor neurons
D. The difference with atmospheric pressure results in transpulmonary pressure E. its activity is modulated by impulses from chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors
E. The difference with intralveolar pressure results in hysteresis
49 .CS. Choose the incorrect statement about the ventral respiratory group:
7 .CS Choose the incorrect statement about the transport of CO2 in tisular capilaries A. contains inspiratory and expiratory neurons B is
A. HCO3 exits form RBC and Cl- passes into erythrocyte B!. H2O and responsible for active expiration
Cl- pass from the erythrocyte into plasma C!. is responsible for passive expiration
C. Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the formation H2CO3 in tissue capillaries D. is responsible for increased ventilation
D. Hb binds H + dissotiated from H2CO3 and contributes to maintaining of pH E. involves auxiliary respiratory muscles
E. carbaminic compounds transport 23% of CO2
50 .CS. Choose the correct statement about the dorsal respiratory group:
A. consists mainly from expiratory neurons B is
responsible more for forced expiration
C!. is involved in generating the basic respiratory rhythm
D. sends imulses to auxiliary respiratory motoneurons
E. its activity is not modulated by pneumotaxic center

51 .CS. Choose the incorrect statement concerning voluntary hipeventilation: A causes

constriction of cerebral vessels
B. increases the HbO2 association
C!. can induce a loss of consciousness due to brain’s hyperoxia
D. produces cerebral hypoxia
E. decreases chemical stimulation of the respiratory center
13 .CS The lungs follow the chest movements as a result of:
A. surfactant 14 .CM Choose the correct statements about chemoreceptors sensitive to hypoxia:
B!. decrease of pleural pressure A. are located in the respiratory muscles B!. are located in carotid and
C. decrease of pulmonary pressure aortic bodies
D. elastic lung tissue C!. afferent impulses are conducted by vagal and glosofaringeal nerves
E. bronchial tonus D. are located in organs with intense metabolism
E. are located in the medulla oblongata 7 .CS Choose incorrect statement about the transport of CO2
A. HCO3-is transported into erythrocytes and Cl- passes into plasma in lung capilaries
15 CS. Apnea occurs in the case of transection: B!. carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the formation of H2CO3 in lungs, which contributes to the maintenance of blood pH
A. between pons and medulla oblongata C. Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the formation of H2O and CO2 in the lungs
B. below C5 spinal segment D. hemoglobin’s ability to bind H + resulted from dissociation of H2CO3 contributes to the maintenance of pH
C!. at the lower bulbar level (below decussation of pyramids) E. salts of the carbonic acid transport 70% of CO2
D. the mediopontine level
E. between colliculi quadrigemena with vagotomy 8 .CS. Central chemoreceptors (involved in the regulation of respiration) are sensitive to:
A. changes of pH in arterial blood
16.CM Apnea does not occur if the section is B!. changes of H + concentration in cerebrospinal fluid
performed: A!. between pons and medulla oblongata C. changes of CO2 in cerebrospinal fluid
B!. below the C5 spinal segment D. changes of HCO3- in cerebrospinal fluid
C. below decussation of pyramids (the lower bulbar level) E. changes of pO2 in arterial blood
D!. the mediopontine level
E. at the spinal segment C1 9 .CM Choose incorrect
statements: A iron from hem
17.CS Choose the correct statement about gas exchange in lungs and tissues: transports O2
A. by osmosis B!. CO is easily fixed with hemic iron, which shifts HbO2 dissociation curve to the left
B!. by diffusion C!. CO2 binds to the NH2 group what increases the affinity of Hb for O2
C. by filtration D. acidosis ionizes amino radicals and consequently decreases the formation of carbaminohemoglobin
D. by active transport E. biphosphoglycerate (2,3 - BPG) decreases affinity of Hb for O2
E. by facilitated diffusion
10 .CS Choose the incorrect statement about the biphosphoglycerate (2,3 - BPG)
18.CS Choose the correct statement about the most important form of transporting A. 2,3 - BPG decreases Hb affinity to O2 , lowering pH in RBC and binding the β chain of desoxy-Hb
CO2: A . physically dissolved in plasma B. Synthesis of 2,3 - BPG is stimulated by hypoxia, alkalosis and low amount of Hb
B!. sodium bicarbonate in plasma C. 2,3 - BPG is important in addaptation to hypoxia caused by disturbance tissular circulation
C. carbamate (HbCO2) D. increasing of 2,3 - BPG shifts to the right the HbO2 dissociation
D. combined with plasmatic proteins curve E!. increasing of 2,3 - BPG shifts to the left the HbO2 dissociation
E. carbonic acid curve

20 .CS Choose the correct statement about pleural pressure during normal inspiration: 11 .CS Choose the respiratory change which occurs transection of spinal cord at C1
A.-20 mm Hg segment: A!. apnea
B!.-9 mm B. tachypnea
Hg C.+5 mm C. bradypnea
Hg D.-3 mm D. breathing doesn’t change
Hg E.+2 mm E. the duration of expiration increases
Hg
12 .CS Choose respiratory changes during
swallowing: A!. short apnea
B. tachypnea
C. bradypnea
D. respiration does not change
E. prolonged expiration

13 .CS Choose the correct statement about the mechanism of breathing at

rest: A!. only inspiration is active
B. only expiration is active
C. two phases are active
D. two phases are passive
E. expiration is active in orthostatic position
28 .CM Choose the correct statements about the mechanism of quiet expiration: elasticity
A. is due to thoracic and abdominal muscle contraction B!. involves E. expiration is passive only in laying position
elasticity of rib cage ligaments and cartilages
C. is due to contraction of internal intercostal and diaphragmal muscles D!. is due to lung 29.CS Choose the correct statement about the changes produced by hypoventilation: A.hypercapnia,
hypocapnia and respiratory acidosis 21 .CS Choose the correct statement about the dead space volume: A.1200 ml
B. normocapnia and hypoxia C.hypocapnia and respiratory B.350 ml C!.150 ml D.750
alkalosis ml
D!. Hypoxia, hypercapnia and respiratory acidosis E.hyperoxia and E.500 ml
metabolic acidosis
22 .CS Choose the correct statement about the total pulmonal capacity: A.3000-3500
30 .CM Choose normal values of partial pressures pO2 and pCO2: ml
A. alveolar pO2 110 mm Hg - venous blood pO2 70 mm Hg B!. alveolar pCO2 B.1000-1500 ml C!.5000 - 6000 ml
40 mm Hg - venous blood pCO2 46 mm Hg D.2000-2500 ml E.4000-4500 ml
C. alveolar pCO2 46 mm Hg - venous blood pCO2 40 mm Hg D!. alveolar PO2
104 mm Hg - venous blood pO2 40 mm Hg 23.CS Choose the correct statement about the pneumotaxic center:
E. Arterial blood pO2 95 mm Hg - tissular pO2 46 mm Hg A. is located in the anterior hypothalamus
B!. parabrochial nucleus is located in the upper part of pons
31 .CM Choose normal values of partial pressures pO2 and pCO2: A!. arterial pO2 C. is located in the inferior part of the pons
95 mm Hg – tissular pO2 40 mm Hg D. is located in the ventrolateral region of the medulla oblongata
B. alveolar pCO2 40 mm Hg - venous blood pCO2 20 mm Hg E. is located in the dorsal region of the medulla oblongata
C. alveolar pCO2 46 mm Hg - venous blood pCO2 40 mm Hg
D. Arterial blood pO2 95 mm Hg - tissular pO2 46 mm Hg 24 .CS Choose incorrect statement about pneumothorax:
E!. arterial blood in pulmonare capillaries pO2 104 mmHg - left atrial blood pO2 95 mm Hg A. is produced artificially in order to treat tuberculous caverns
B. pleural pressure is equal to atmosferic pressure in open pneumothorax
32.CM Choose incorrect statements about the effects produced by increased amount of CO2: C. pleural pressure is higher than atmospheric in valvular pneumothorax
A. decreasing of hemoglobin affinity for O2 B!. increasing of D. can move mediastinal organs
pH E!. pleural pressure is greater than atmosheric in opened pneumothorax
C. lowering of pH
D!. increasing of hemoglobin affinity for O2 25 .CS Choose the correct statement about the intraalveolar pressure:
E. vasodilation in tissues A. is lower than atmospheric pressure during inspiration and expiration
B. is lower than atmospheric pressure during expiration
33 .CM The increase of temperature in tissues does not lead to: C. este equal to atmospheric pressure during expiration D!. is lower than
A. HbO2 dissociation B!. Bohr effect atmospheric pressure during inspiration
C. vasodilatation D!. vasoconstriction E. is higher than atmospheric pressure during expiration and inspiration
E!. increased affinity of Hb for O2
26.CS Choose the correct statement about the mechanism of forced breathing:
34 .CS Vital lung capacity does not include: A. only inspiration is active
A. tidal volume B. only expiration is active
B. expiratory reserve volume C!. residual C. both phases are passive D!. both phases are
volume are active
D. inspiratory reserve volume E. expiration is passive position in lying position
E. dead space volume
27.CS A gram of hemoglobin can bind the following amount (in ml) of O2: A.14
B!.1,34 C.2,58
D.3,14
E.0,54
43 .CM Choose the correct statements about the sympathetic effect on the lung: E. does not include residual volume
A. it increases resistance to air flow through bronchoconstriction B!. it
reduces resistance to air flow through bronchodilation 45.CS What is spirometry:
C. it dilates pulmonary vessels A. measurement of the airway pressure
D. it reduces the volume of dead space, thereby increasing alveolar ventilation E!. it B. measurement of the resistance opposing airflow in the respiratory pathways
constricts the pulmonary vessels C. measurement ot the amplitude of respiratory movements of rib cage and
abdomen D!. measurement of the lung volumes
44 .CM Choose the correct statements about total lung capacity: A! . E. measurement of the airflow in the respiratory pathways
includes expiratory reserve volume
B!. includes current volume 46 .Choose the correct statements about the airways and
C. does not include the volume of dead space volume D!. alveoli: A!. cartilaginous structures of airways prevent its
includes residual volume collapse
B!. airways play an important role in protecting the lungs against dust particles 35 .CM Spirometry can not determine directly: A!.
C. bronchioles causes maximum air resistance inspiratory reserve volume
D. alveoli serve only for gas exchange B!. residual functional capacity
E!. presence of surfactant is required in the alveoli C. tidal volume
D. vital capacity
47.CM Choose the correct statements about lung volumes and capacities for total lung capacity of 6.0 L: E. expiratory reserve volume
A. tidal volume at rest is about 1.0 L
B. vital capacitaty is equal to total lung capacity C!. 36 .CM Choose factors that shift oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to right: A!.
functional residual capacity is about 2.0 L increased amount of biphosphoglycerate
D!. expiratory reserve volume at rest is about 1.0 L B. reduced amount of biphosphoglycerate C!.
E!. maximal respiratory volume per second can be about 3.5 L increase of pCO2
D. decrease of pCO2
48 .CM. Choose the correct statements about ventilation and gas exchange: E. lower temperatures
A. the maximal resistance to airflow is made in terminal bronchioles B!.
physiological dead space is greater than anatomic dead space; 36.CM Choose the correct statements about the role of surfactant:
C. anatomical dead space is independent from total lung capacity; A. decreases pulmonary compliance
D. in laying position alveolar ventilation is always higher in the lung; B. increases the alveolar surface tension C!.
E!. CO2 diffusion capacity in lungs is about 20 times greater than O2 because its solubility quotient is 24 times greater than ensures stability of the alveoli
that of O2 D. produces atelectasis
E!. decreases the alveolar surface tension
49 .CM. Choose the correct statements about respiratory rhythm:
A. breathing muscles have intrinsic autorhythmic activity 37.CS Choose that factor does not affect directly the gas diffusion rate across the respiratory membrane:
B!. respiratory centers for respiratory rhythm generation are located in the medula oblongata C!. A. membrane thickness
breathing continues even all nerve afferents are interrupted B. membrane area
D!. the main respiratory muscles is diaphragm D!. anatomic dead space volume
E. external intercostal muscles are involved in expiration C. alveolo-capillary diffusion coefficient
E. partial pressure gradients of respiratory gases between alveoli and capillary blood

38.CM Choose incorect statements about residual volume:

A. it’s the air remaining in the alveoli after maximal expiration
b. forms residual functional capacity together with expiratory reserve volume
C!. consists of air from non-perfused alveoli that do not participate in gas exchange D!. can
be measured by the spirometer at maximum expiration
E. alveolar air is expelled partially from the lungs only if the chest is opened

39 .CM Choose the correct statements concerning the breathing mechanism:

A. abdominal muscles are involved in normal expiration
B!. external intercostal muscles are involved in normal inspiration
C. diaphragm is involved only in forceful expiration
D. internal intercostal muscles are involved in normal and forceful inspiration E!.
internal intercostal muscles are involved in forceful expiration

40.CM Choose factors that increase pulmonary ventilation: A!.

epinephrine in small doses
B increased partial pressure of O2 in the blood; C!.
High partial pressure of CO2 in the blood;
D!. increased concentration of H + ions in cerebrospinal fluid
E. low concentration of H + ions in the blood;
60.CS Choose the correct statement about basic respiratory rhythm:
A. is generated by pneumotaxic center 61 .CM Choose the muscles providing forced
B!. is generated by the dorsal group of medullar respiratory neurons C is expiration: A!. internal intercostal muscles
generated by apneustic center B. diaphragm
D is generated by the hypothalamus and limbic system E is C!. abdominal muscles
generated by the motor cortex D. sternocleidomasteus muscles
E. scalene muscles 51.CS Choose the correct statement about amount of air remaining in lungs after normal expiration:
A. it is inspiratory capacity
62.CM The sSpirograph can be used to estimate: B. it is expiratory reserve volume and volume current
A. functional residual capacity C. it is the inspiratory reserve volume
B!. Forced expiratory volume per second D!. it is the residual volume and expiratory reserve volume
C. residual volume D total E. it is total lung capacity
lung capacity
E!. expiratory reserve volume 52 .HbO2 percentage increases in:
A. increase of arterial pCO2 B!.
64.CS Increasing ventilation can not be produced by stimulating: increase of arterial pO2
A. peripheral chemoreceptors C. increase of the concentration of Hb
B I-receptors(rapidly adapting receptors) C!. D. increase of the temperature
pulmonary pressure receptors E. lower arterial pH
D. peripheral nociceptors
E. J-receptors (juxtacapillar) 54 .CS Choose the correct statement about basic respiratory rhythm:
A. is generated by apneustic center
66.CM During normal inspiration it occurs: A!. B is generated by pneumotaxic center
decrease of pleural pressure C!. is generated by medullar respiratory center D is
B.increase of alveolar pressure C.the chest generated by the parabrochial nucleus
returns to the initial size E is generated by the cerebellum
D. relaxation of diaphragm
E!. decrease of alveolar pressure 55.CS Choose incorrect statement about tidal volume:
A. it is ventilation at rest, during just one respiratory cycle B is
68 .CM Choose the correct statement about the anatomical dead space: included in inspiratory capacity
A. residual functional capacity is the same; C. it is about 500 ml
B!. represents 5% of functional residual capacity (150 ml), D!. is included in the reserve inspiratory volume
C. is 5% of total lung capacity; E. its value depends on the height of the subject
D. 15% of functional residual capacity
E!. physiological dead space can be greater considerably than anatomical dead space in some pathological conditions 57.CS Choose the correct statement about effect of Haldane – blood PO2 determines:
A. the ability of Hb to bind O2
69 CS. Choose the correct statement about the respiratory quotient: B. the transport capacity for CO
A. decreases during intense exercise, C. HbO2 dissociation ability
B. decreases during metabolic acidosis D. CO2 partial pressure gradient E!. the
C. decreases in both intence exercise and metabolic acidosis D!. transport capacity for CO2
Increases during hyperventilation
E. increases in person that changes a diet rich in carbohydrates to a diet rich in fats fluido-coagulant 58 .CS Choose the correct statement about the intrapleural pressure during inspiration: A.is
equal to transpulmonary pressure
B.!. becomes more negative
C. becomes more positive
D. is equal to alveolar pressure
E. is equal to atmospheric pressure

59 .CM Choose the correct statements about the shift to left of the HbO2 dissociation curve:
A. is produced by increased amount of biphosphoglycerate
B. HbO2 affinity is reduced
C!. shows the changes in binding O2 in lungs
D. is produced by lowering pH
E!. indicates increased Hb affinity for O2
D. contain 40-45 g/l state red blood cells:
of albumins; A. contain 2 g of Hb per cell;
1.cmThe plasma of adult person: E. albumins form 8% B!. has not nucleus (hasn`t nucleus);
A. form 10% from body weight; from body weight;
B!. the osmotic pressure is 290 mOsm; C!.
contain 140 mmol/l of Na;+ 2.cmIn the normal
BLOOD m.g. 70 CS.Chose the vents the passage of emboli to the aorta B.fibrinolysis
incorrect statement C. conversion of angiotensin II
about lung function D!. release of epinephrine, vasopressin and oxytocin into circulation
A E. maintenance of the fluid-clot equilibrium
.
71 .Which of the following factors affects mostly the ability of blood to carry O2 : A decrease of O2
p solubility
r B!. decrease of the amount of hemoglobin
e C. decrease of plasmatic pH
D. quantity of CO2 in erythrocytes
C!. are synthesed in the red morrow from erythroblasts; D!. in the E. increase of blood temperature
circulatory blood are formed from reticulocytes;
E. his life is 10 days long; 72 CM. Choose the correct statements about contraction of the diaphragm: A!. provides the
decrease of pleural pressure
3.cmIn the healthy adult person: A!. total blood B. provides the increase of pleural pressure
volume is 5l; C!. provides the increase of anteroposterior diameter of abdomen
B. blood pH is 7,0; D. decreas lungs recoil capacity
C!. number of red blood cells is 5x1012l; E. decreases intra-abdominal pressure
D. number of whit blood cells is 1x109l;
E. blood contain 30% of total iron from body; 73 CM. Choose the correct statements about normal inspiration: A!. alveolar
pressure is greater than the intrapleural
4.cmThe (plathellets) trombocytes: B. alveolar pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure C!. intrapleural
A!. are synthesed in the red morrow, from megakaryocytes; pressure is less than the atmospheric
B. trombocytes number it`s more than erythrocytes; C!. participate in D. intrapleural pressure is greater than the lung elastic recoil pressure
the addition to wall of vessel; E. alveolar surface tension increases
D. realize most part of factors of coagulation;
E! .from agglutination in presence of tromboxan A2; 74CS. Choose the correct statement about the CO2 transport:
A. facilitates binding of O2 to hemoglobin
5.cmChoice the correct answers: B. is transported mainly in molecular form, dissolved
A!. intrinsic and extrinsic pathways activate factor X; B!. the citrate of C. if it’s added to blood, it does not modify the bicarbonate ion concentration D!. pasess in
Na stop coagulation of blood; tissular capilaries from tissues by diffusion
C!. in the homeostasis participate factors what was sinthesed in the liver; E. is transported mainly as carbaminic compound
D. increasing the number of trombocytes disturbed the homeostasis;
E. the factor from tissue can stop homeostasis; 76 .CM Choose the incorect statements about pulmonary circulation:
A. is a low pressure circuit
6 cm Choice the correct answers: B. has an increased capacity to adapt, by increasing the flow
A!. the microphages from tissue are parcels for blood monocytes; C!. the main regulating mechanisms are autonomic nervous mechanisms
B. the neutrophyst can phagocyte the bartas only in the blood flood; C.the macrophages D. arteries have a reduced smooth muscle layer
use the NO for killing the bacterium’s; E!. is the unique circuit that receives full cardiac output
D!.the compliment – system facilitate the phagocytosis of bacterium’s; E.the neuthrophyls
kille the virus; 77 .CM Choose the correct statements about the surfactant: A!. it is a thin
surface lipoprotein
7 .cm Choice the non correct answers: B. does not ensures the stability of alveoli
A!.in the I phase of inflammation appear the tumefaction; C!. opposes the filtration from capillary to to lung alveoli D!. it is secreted
B.in te inflammation, trough the capillary wall passé the plasma; by alveolar epithelial cells type II
C.in the mastocytes realize the substances that attract the lymphocytes; D!.in the E it is secreted by alveolar epithelial cells type I
inflammation the macrophages realize the vasoactive substances;
E.the inflammation can begin after reaction between compliment factor and bacterium;
15.csThe most protein concentration is in:
A!.in the intracell liquid; 16.cmChoice the correct answers about FNA (Na+ uretic factor of atrials): A!.FNA inhibit the
B.in the extracell liquid; Na+ reabsorption in the kidney;
C.in the transell liquid; D.in B.FNA increase secretion of rennin; C!.FNA inhibit vasopressin
the plasma; realizing; D!.FNA inhibit the aldosteron realizing;
E.in the cephalic liquid; E.FNA increase Na+ reabsorption in the kidney;
 8 .cm Choice the correct answers:
17.cmChoice the now correct answers about FNA (Na+ uretic factor of atrials): A.the lymphocytes quantity is the most from the all whit cells; B.in
A.FNA inhibit the Na+ reabsorption in the kidney; the thopic of inflammation the lymphocytes feeld from blood; C!.the
B!.FNA increase secretion of rennin; C.FNA lymphocytes B are maturisated in the bon morrow;
inhibit vasopressin realizing; D.FNA inhibit D!.the lymphocytes B can answer to antigens from extracell liquid;
the aldosteron realizing; E.after antigen stimulation all the lymphocytes are transformed in the plasmocytes;
E!.FNA increase Na+ reabsorption in the kidney;
9.cm Choice the non correct answers:
18.cmFrom the following what substance activate the trombocytes: A.inthe activation the lymphocytes B realize IgG;
A.trombin; B.the lymphocytes T hydrolise the virus;
B!.tromboxan A2; C!.the lymphocytes are maturisated in the thyroid gland; D!.the
C!.ADP; lymphocytes T realize citotoxins;
D.plasminogen; E.the lymphocytes T hydrolyze the proteins in the cell;
E.Ca2;+
10.cm Choice the correct answers:
19.csChoice the correct answer about citrate function: A!.the antigenic receptor of lymphocytes has the same specificity like the antibodies realized by lymphocytes;
A.activate factor XII; B!.the antibodies has two places for antigen fixation;
B.stop activation of factor XII; C!.the lymphocytes after activation realize the limphokinines;
C.stop activity of Ca2;+ D!.stop D.IgM passé through the placenta;
activity of Ca2;+ E.it`s hydrolysis E.the mastocytes realize norepinephrine and heparin;
very slowly;
11.cm Choice the correct answers:
20.cmChoice the correct answers about plasminogen activation: A!.the heparin increase the antycoagulatory ability of antitrombin III; B!.
A.activation of plasminogen is possible in the blood and in the urine; the cloth is formed in the blood vessel;
B!.the activator factor of plasminogen is realized in the stress; C.the bleeding is sine for hemophilia and for thrombocytopenia;
C!.the activator factor of plasminogen is realized in the physical exercises; D.the hypercoagulation is sine for hemophilia; E.trombocytopenia it
D!.the hemostasis ca be inhibit by the factors realized by plasmin after fibrin degradation; E.the is hipercoagulation in the bigger vessels;
hemostasis can be stimulated by the factors realized by plasmin after fibrin degradation;
12.cm Choice the correct answers:
21.cmDiapedesis is processes dependent on: A!.the fibrinogen can posse-through the vascular wall in the interstitial liquid;
A.coagulation; B!.in the increasing of vascular wall permeability the fibrinogen pass in the interstitial liquid; C!.in
B.fibrinolisis; blood vessel lesion are activated the bath pathways of coagulation;
C!.presence of positives chematoxical factors; D.hemolisis; D.the both pathways of coagulation are spontaneous;
E!.cytodiabasis; E.the both pathways of coagulation very slow speed;

13.cmChoice the correct answers:

A.the plasminogen is converted in the plasmin in time of cloth formation;
B!.the plasminogen is attracted in the cloth with the plasma proteins; C!.the
heparin decrease the activity for factor X and II;
D!.the vascular activator of plasminogen can active the plasminogen 24 hours after cloth formation; E.the
Ca2+ is necessary for all the fases of coagulation;

14.csFrom the following, what processus are not for local hemostasis:
A.the connection of trombocytes with collagen;
B.the protrombin activation;
C!.the plasminogen activation;
D.the fibrinogen transformation in the fibrin; E.the
tromboxan A2 realizing;
29cmThe agglutinins : (antibodies): a.are Ig M; 30.csThe most quantity of nonproteic Na is result from: a.! urea;
b.!are Ig G; b. acid uric;
c.has the maximal concentration in BIII blood group; d.has special activity c. creatinin; d.NH3;
to aglutinogen AII; e. catecholamine;
e.! appear after the burning in the 3-6 month;
31.cmThe leucocytes increase in /after: a.! menstruation and
pregnancy; 22.cmThe time of coagulation increase in:
b.! bacterial diseases; c.! n food A. absence of factor VIII;
ingestion; B!. absence of factor XIV (willebrand); C!. disease of
d. proteic starvation; liver;
e. irradiation by X waves; D. decreasing of n.of trombocytes;
E!. decreasing of trombocytes aggregation;
32.cmThe thrombin formation has following sinstics:
a. long 25 cm; 23csThe factor XII of coagulation can be activated by:
b.! participation of Xa, V, Ca2+, PL; c.! activate F XIII; a. thrombin;
d. activate PL; b. factor XIII;
e.! activate thrombocytes aggregation; c. factor V and Cu 2;+
d. thrombin and Cu2;+
33csThe principal osmotic component from extravascular space is: e.! calicreind and kininogen;
a. urea;
b. albumin; 24csChoice the factors what not participate in the HbO2 formation: a.pO2;
c. glucose; d.! Na;+ b.pCO2; c.2,3 DPb;
e. K;+ d.! the speed of bloat flood; e.pH of blood;

34cs The acceleration of ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) is determine by: 25cmChoice the correct answers about osmotic pressure of plasma:
a. special form of erythrocytes; a. depend on erythrocyte concentration;
b. increasing of negative electrical charge in the erythrocyte membrane; b. depend on number of solvent particles;
c. decreasing of globulins and increasing of albumins in the plasma; c. depend on water volume of plasma;
d. increasing of erythrocytes number in the blood; e.! decreasing of d.! it is different from osmotic blood pressure; e.! decrease in the
erythrocytes number in the blood; starvation;

35cm Choice the function of trombocytes in the hemostasis: 26cmThe active XII factor determine activation of: a.! factor XI;
a. montaine the vascular endothelium; b.! aglutatination b. blood coagulation by extrinsic mechanism;
and adhesion; c. pathay of complement;
c.! realizing of serotonin and norepinephrine; d.! realizing the d.! plasminogen in the plasmin;
factors of clothing; e.! formation of kinins in the plasma;
e. fibrinolisis;
27csThe normocells hypovolemia appear in:
a. the height;
b.! immediately after bleeding;
c. after transfusion of blood;
d. in the pregnancy;
e.in the physical exercises;

28cmThe macrophages:
a. are type of monocytes;
b. realize IgM;
c.! participate in the specific immunity answer; d.! realize
interpheron;
e.! realize IL-1, IL-8, IL-10, IL-12;
43 cs The hepatic insufficiency determine the increasing in the blood concentration of: c. dissolved in the plasma; d.! Na+ and HCO3-
a.creatinin; e.Na2CO3;
b.! ammonia;
c. albumin; 45 cm Choice the enzymes from erythrocytes:
d. uric acid; a. enzymes of cycle Krebs;
e. urea; b! enzymes of anaerobe glicolisis; c.! methemoglobin
reductaze;
44 cs The most quantity of CO2 is transported by: d. hexozophosphate shunt; e.! carbonic anhidrase;
a. carbo-Hb;
b.Carboxy-Hb; 46 csThe most quantity of proteins is located in:
a. chilomicrons; 36cs The health subject with AII Rh (+) group can give the 500 ml of blood to person with: a.AIIRh-
b.VLDL (very low density of lipoproteins); c.LDL b.BIIIRh+
(low density of lipoproteins); c.ABIVRh- d.!
d.! HDL (high density of lipoproteins); ABIVRh+ e.OIRh-
e. β 3- lipoproteins;(
37cs The following substances can be intracell, except:
47 cm Choice the combination of following parameters in the diabetical come: a!. pH a. hemoglobin;
=7,29; alkaline buffer = 48 mEq/l; pC02= 50 mmHg (6,66 kPa) b. protein;
b. pH = 7,38; alkaline buffer = 48 mEq/l; pC02= 41,5 mmHg (5,53 kPa) c. organic phosphates;
c. pH =7,30; alkaline buffer = 52 mEq/l; pC02= 55 mmHg (7,73 kPa) d!. pH d. HCO3;- e.!
=7,25; alkaline buffer = 30 mEq/l; pC02= 55 mmHg (7,73 kPa) oxalate;
e. pH =7,26 alkaline buffer = 30 mEq/l; pC02= 23 mmHg (3,06 kPa)
38cm Choice the correct answers:
48 cmThe hipoproteinhemia can be determined by: a.! a.! the osmotic hypotonie of plasma can be caused by excess of water; b.! the
hepatic insufficiency; osmotic hypertonie of plasma can be caused by excess of salts;
b.! the stimulation secretion of cortizol; c.! c. the excess of water and salts change the oncotic pressure;
kidneys insufficiency; d. the osmotic hypotonie of plasma can be caused by excess of salts;
d. bulimia; e. the osmotic hypertonie of plasma can be caused by excess of water;
e. fever;
39cs The increasing of bicarbonate in the plasma with disorders of acid- alkaline balance are since of:
49 csThe metabolical alkalosis can be determined by: a. kethoacidose in diabetes;
a. pulmonary hypoventilation; b.! b. respiratory alkalosis;
dehydratation after vomiting; c. metabolic acidosis; d.!
c. dehydratation after diaree; metabolic alkalosis ;
d. kidney insufficience; e. respiratory acidosis;
e. cardiac insufficiency;
40cs The buffer system of HCO3- is more important for: a.transcell
liquids;
b. all cells; c.!
plasma;
d. erythrocytes;
e. intracells medium;

41cm The increasing of ESR is determined by:

a. decreasing of globulins and increasing of albumins in the plasma; b.!
decreasing of albumins and increasing of globulins in the plasma; c
.increasing of negative charge of erythrocytes;
d. increasing of hemathocryt; e.!
decreasing of hemathocryt;

42cs Decreasing of erythrocytes in the blood flood cause: a.stimulation of

physiological hemolisis;
b.! decreasing of hemathocryt;
c. decreasing of blood viscosity;
d. increasing of blood viscosity;
e. decreasing of osmotic pressure of blood;
57 cm The participation of erythrocytes in the control of acid- alkaline equilibrium thanks to: a.! erytropoetines of stimulation;
a.carbonic anhydrase; b. the interleukins of inhibition;
b.Na/K pump; c. the lactopherine;
c.!antiport system of Cl-/HCO3- d.Fe2+ d. the prostoglandine E;
from hem; e.the erytropoetins of inhibition;
e.! property’s of Hb;
59 cmChoice the humoral signs of metabolical acidosis:
58 csIn regulation of eritropoesis participate: a. increasing of pH;
b. increasing of pCO2; 50 csThe adult men 70 kg weight, 2000 ml plasmatic volume, 4000 blood volume. What you can speak about his
c.! decreasing of pHCO3;- d.!decreasing volemia:
of pH below normal level; e.! elimination a.oligocytemic normovolemia;
of acid urine; b. oligocytemic hypervolemia;
60 cmThe kidneys participate in the fighting of acidosis with: c. oligocytemic hypovolemia;
a.! elimination of acid urine; d. normocytemic hypovolemia;
b.! reabsorption of HCO3;- e.! polycytemic hypovolemia;
c. paradoxal aciduria
d.increasing of Na2PO4- 51 csThe eritropoesis depend of pO2 in the:
e.! ammonia genesisş a. liver;
b. red marrow;
65 cm Choice the followings of metabolic alkalosis; c. spleen; d.!
a.!hypoventilation; kidneys;
b.decrease pCO2 in the blood; e. glomerulus Caroticus;
c.! increase HCO3;-
d.! decrease reabsorption of HCO3;- e.increase 52 cs The life duration for erythrocyte is:
concentration of K+ in the blood’ a.4 days;
b.4 weeks; c.!4
66 cm What factors of coagulation need vit. K for synthesis: months;
a. fibrinogen; b.! d.4 years;
protrombin; e.7 years;
c. accelerin;
d.! proconvertin; 53 cmThe oxygenation determine:
e. antihemophilic A; a. increasing of power of buffer system of blood; b.!
decomposition of oxidabil carbonate;
67 cm What factors of only coagulation from following need vit. K for synthesis: c. addition of H+ to Hb molecule; d.!
a.!protein C; decomposition of bicarbonate;
b.heparin; e. composition of bicarbonate;
c.antitrombin III;
d.!protein S; 54 cs The first step of erytropoesis in the embrio-phoethal period begin in the:
e. antitrombin I; a.!vessels;
b.spleen; c.red
marrow; d.liver;
e.placenta;

55 cm Choice the correct answers about macrophages:

a. don’t realize interpheron;
b.! participle in synthesis of antigen; c.!
to proceed from monocytes;
d.! to form the first line of protection; e.to
phagocyte only opsonisate particles;

56 cs Choice the blood cells with most duration of life:

a. erythrocytes;
b.! T lymphocytes-memory;
c. monocytes;
d. platelets;
e. polymorphonucleatic cells;
75 csThe trombocytes has following functions except: a.! keep the
integrity of vessel; 76 choicepplt.þ the physiological modification of pH of blood: c.!
b.adition and agglutination; metabolic acidosis in the physical exercise;
c. realising of norepinephrin; d.realising of respiratory acidosis in time of digestion; c.!metabolic
serotonin; alkalosis in the time of digestion; d.! respiratory alkalosis
e. clot retraction; in the physical exercise; e.! respiratory alkalosis in the cold
environment; 68 cm The antitrombin III inhibits a.!factors XIIa
and XIa;
77 cm The health subject with AII Rh(-) group can give the 500 ml blood to person group: a.! AII Rh;(-) b.! .factors Xa and IXa; c.plasminogen;
b. BIII Rh;(+) c.! AB IV Rh;(-) d.!plasmin;
d.! AB IV Rh;(+) e.factor Willebrand;
e. OI Rh;(-)
69 cm The disorders in the platelets addition can be caused by: a.absence of Ca
78.cm Sex-related hereditary blood clotting disorders are: a.antifibrinogenanemia; 2;+
b.!hemophlia A; c.!hemophilia B; b.! absence of receptors for factor Willebrand;
d.dificiency of factors V, VII, X, XI, XII, XIII; c. absence of receptors for trombin;
e.disfibrinogenemia; d. absence of plasminogen;
e. ! absence of factor Willebrand;
79 cm Hypocoagulation appear in the:
a. !hemophlia A and B; b.! Willebrand 70 cm Choice the correct answers about fibrinolisis:
disease; a. !cleon the vascular space of clot;
c. excess of vit.K; d.!insuficience of vit b. realize procoagulatory substances; c.realise
K; e.trombosis; antiheparin;
d.! realize antitrombin;
80 cs Insuficience of vit. K cause absence of factor: a.I; e.! can be actived by factors XIIa, XIa, kalikrein;
b.!II; c.III;
d. V; 71 cm Choice the normal values of leucocytes (WBC): a.! 1%
e.V. eozinophyls;
b.65% lymphocytes; c.!8%
81.csChoise the effects of Na+/K+ citrate in the blood: monocytes;
A. inhibition of thrombin;p B.! fixed Ca2;+ d.! 60% neutrophiles; e.10%
C. agglutination of trombocytes; basophiles;
D. inhibition of fibrinogen;
E. inhibition of tromboplastin; 72 cm The cells what form antigens are:
a.! the cells from lymphatic ganglions and splin; b.! the
Langerhans cells from skin;
c.! the macrophages; d.the
cardiomyocytes;
e. the astroytes;

73 cmFrom following, what substances has chemotaxic rol:

a. B part of compliment; b.protein S; c.!
bradikinin and Ca2;+ d.!ATP and ADP;
e.!the antigens from microbs;

74 cm The increasing of ESR is determined by: a.disc form of

RBC;
b.increasing of negative charge of RBC membrane; c.decreasing of
globulins in the plasma; d.!increasing of globulins in the plasma;
e.! anemia;
89.cmThe intrinsic activation of f.XII begin in: Rh;(+) D.AB Rh;(-)
A. contact with positive electrical charges; E. OI Rh(-)
B. without prokalekrein;
C. with kininogen;
D.! in contact with platelets of addition;
E.! contact with negative electrical charges;

90.cmThe health subject with OI Rh(+) group can give the 500 ml of blood to person with:
A.! AB Rh;(+)
B.A Rh;(-) C.!B
82 .csThe activation of protein C in presence of Ca2+ need action of: B. permeability; C.!
A. protrombin; stability;
B. tromboplastin; D. pH;
C. plasmin; E .transport of gases;
D. fibrinogen
E.! thrombin and trombomoduline; 86.cmThe Cl- concentration in the venous blood in comparation with Cl- concentration in the arterial blood is:
A. more less, caused by capillary change;
83.csThe ESR value increase in: b. more high , caused by RBC volume;
A. anemia; C. not change;
B. normocytemic hipervolemia; D.! more high , caused by change of HCO3;-
C. disproteinemie; E.! more high, caused by diffusion Cl- in the RBC;
D. polycyte
mic 87.csThe factor XIII can be actived by:
hypovolemi A. thrombin;
a; E.! B. f.V +Ca2+
infection; C. f.XII;
D .thrombin + Xa E.!
84.csWhat from following nitrogenic substances form 2-4 g/l in the plasma: thrombin +Ca2;+
A. urea and uric acid;
B. creatinin; 88.cmChoice the correct answers about form of Ca2+ in the plasma:
C. ! γ -globuline; A.!Ca2+ ionic;
D. polipeptides; B.!Ca2+ soluble;
E. ammonia; C. solt;
D.! non soluble;
85.csWhat properties of RBC can be recorded in the clinical laboratory: E. acid solt;
A. elasticity;
8 .mc What regions of brain participate in emotional reactions : A! B! control of cardiovascular system; C! control of muscle tone;
hypothalamus; D. control of emotions;
B! cortex of large hemispheres; E. control of micturition;
C. thalamus;
D! limbic system; 13.mc Choice the spinal bulb centers : A! breathing;
E. basal ganglions; B! hemodynamic; C! digestion
D. hunger sensation;
9 .mc Choice the function of the thalamus : A! association; E. drink sensation;
B!. sensation;
C! activation of the cerebral cortex;. 14.mc What kind of reflexes has centers located in the spinal bulb: A! motor and tonic (Deuters
D. coordination of movements; nuclei, Behterev, Schwalbe);
E. food behavior; B! reflex of protection (coughing, sneezing, vomiting); C! mastication;
D. static;
10 .mc Choice the ascending pathways of the spinal cord : A! bundle of E. stato -kinetic;
Golly and Burdock;
B! bundle Gower’s and Fletching; C! spinotalamic
ventral pathway;
D. Monakow bundle;
E. Rubrospinal pathway;

11 .mc Choice the descending pathways to the spinal cord : A!

Corticospinal;
B. cerebello-spinal; C! Rubrospinal;
D. bundle of Golly and Burdock; E!.
Vestibulospinal;

12 .mc Choice the basic functions of the bulb: A! control of

breath;
 Central nervous system B! the internal ear receptors;
C. the skin receptors;
d. the proprioreceptors of the muscles; E the temperature
1 .sc At the what level of spinal cord cutting it causes momentary death :
receptors;
A. chest segment;
B!. I-II cervical segment;
5.sc Where are ended the nervous fibers of pyramidal tract : A! in the motor
C. lumbar IV segment;
cells of the previous horns;
D. chest VIII segment;
B. in the motor neurons of the posterior horns;
E. lumbar I segment;
C. in the peripheral ganglia;
D. in the intermedial neurons;
2.sc What kind of receptors transmit impulses to the lateral geniculate corpus : A!
E. in the lateral horns;
retinal photoreceptors;
B. internal ear
6 .sc The rigidity appear in the cutting brainstem at the level of :
C. skin;
A. above the optical thalamus; B!. below the red
D. muscles;
nuclei;
E. tendons;
C. below the spinal bulb;
D. above the hypothalamus;
3 sc From where start bundle Monakov :
E. above the basal ganglia;
A. cortex of large hemispheres;
B. brain stem;
7 .sc The damage of which nucleus cause the disappearance of rigidity :
C!. red nuclei of the mesencephallon;
A. phrenic nerve nucleus;
D. cerebellum;
B. facial nerve nucleus;
E. thalamus;
C. trigeminal nerve nucleus;
D! Deiters nucleus of the spinal bulb;
4.sc What kind of receptors transmit impulses to the medial geniculation corpus :
E. vague nerve nucleus;
A. the retinal receptors;
22 .sc What are the clinical symptoms of damage to the cerebellum: A! ataxia; C! Interrupting of connection with superjacent centers;
B. flexion; C! atonia; D! D. spinal cord excitation;
astenia; E. spinal cord inhibition;
E. extension;
27.mc After the disappearance of spinal shock the hyper reflexes is caused by:
23 .mc Choice the functions of hypothalamus : A. increasing of afferent excitation;
A! Is a major efferent pathway of the limbic system; B! autonomic and B! insufficiency of inhibitory influences of the brain;
endocrine control; C. excitation of reticular formation;
C! ensure vegetative changes of emotions; D!. Increasing of excitability of spinal centers;
D. control of voluntary movements; E. inhibition of excitability of spinal centers;
E. control of muscle tone;
28 .mc Role of brainstem centers in maintaining posture and locomotion consists in : A!. Maintain
24 .mc Choice the specific manifestations of spinal shock: A! decreasing of postural tone and body support against gravity;
the blood pressure; B!. Control the movements necessary to maintain balance; C!. Control most
B! completely block of reflex activity of the skeletal muscle; C! suppression of stereotypical movements of the body;
urination and defecation reflexes; D. control of voluntary movements;
D. constant blood pressure; E. control only hard voluntary movements;
E. constant tonus of skeletal muscle;

25 .mc The postural and locomotors reflexes of spinal cord are: A! the postural
tonic reflex;
B! the reflex of rhythmic overhand; C! the gallop
reflex;
D. the reflex of urination;
E. the stato-kinetic reflex;

26 .sc Choice the cause of spinal shock :

A. bloc of centers caused by spinal trauma;
B. mutual inhibition of centers in the spinal cord;
15.mc Choice the nuclei groups of thalamus optics : A! specific nuclei; blood pressure;
B. supraoptic nuclei; C! associative E! Inhibition of motility in the digestive tract;
nuclei; D!. nonspecific nuclei;
E. nucleus caudatus; 19 .mc Choice the basic functions of the cerebellum:
A! regulation of smooth voluntary movements making them precise; B! participation in
16 .mc What parts form the mid-brain: the regulation of posture and balance;
A. thalamus; C! influence on the cortex;
B. hypothalamus; C! black substance; D. influence on the hypothalamus;
D. cortex; E. directly influence on the reticular formation;
E! red nuclei;
20.mc Choice the basic functions of the reticular formation : A! Stimulation of
17 .mc Activation of anterior hypothalamus nuclei cause : the cerebral cortex;
A. increasing of blood pressure; B. inhibition of the cerebral cortex;
B. sensation of fullness; C! Inhibition of the spinal motor reflexes;
C! releasing of oxytocin and vasopressin; D!. decreasing of D. stimulation of the smooth muscle; E! stimulation of
heart rate; spinal motor reflexes;
E! decreasing of body temperature;
21 .mc Choice the basic functions of the limbic system : A!. participate in
18 .mc Activation of posterior hypothalamus nuclei cause : the mechanisms of memory;
A. oxytocin realizing; B! control the emotional behavior; C! control of
B. decreasing of heart rate; motivation;
C! Increasing of body temperature; D! Increasing of D. regulation of the stato-kinetic reflexes;
E. control of static reflexes;
36 .mc Which of the following associations is noncorrect : C. cerebellar;
A. Golgi tendon reflex - bisynaptic; D. hypothalamic, limbic and cortical; E!
B. miotatic reflex - monosynaptic; pituitary;
C. simple extension - polysynaptic, D!. circuit
Renshaw - adrenaline; E!. Rotulian reflex - 41 .sc Pyramid thick fibers from the Betz cells : A! are Aα
polysynaptic; fibers;
B. are Aβ fibers; C are C
37 .sc The flexion reflex of a member under the action of a painful stimulus is possible after : fibers;
A. inhibition of pain receptors; D. B are fibers;
B. post action in the pain center; C! E. are sympathetic fibers;
excitation of pain receptors;
D. control of cortex; 42 .mc The segmental spinal reflexes are :
E. inhibition of cortex; A. the stato –kinetic reflex;
B. the static reflex; C!. the
38 .sc The primary function of the basal ganglia : flexion reflex;
A. sensory integration; D!. the crossing extension reflex; E!. the
B. formation of short time memory; C!. planning extension reflex;
voluntary movement;
D. control of endocrine secretion;
E. control of slow sleep;

39 .mc The A α motoneurons:

A. control the intrafusals and extrafusals muscle fibers;
B. control a single muscle fiber;
C!. is part of the final common pathway;
D!. innervates the extrafusals muscle fibers;
E. innervates the intrafusals muscle fibers;

40 .sc The reticular afferents are the following, except one :

A. corticale;
B. bulbo-Ponto-mid-brain;
29.scThe maximum level of spinal cord section, which can ensure the survive of animal is: C!. Control fine movements;
A. below the spinal bulb; D. participation in the long-term memory formation;
B. between the cervical segments I-II; C!. below the E. participation in the hearing;
cervical segment III - V;
D. between the last cervical and first thoracic segment; E .between the 33 .mc Choice the clinical manifestations caused by damage in the basal ganglia: A!. atetoz;
thoracic segment II - V; B!. Parkinson's disease; C!. Korea
Huntington;
30 .mc The cerebellum provides: D. regidity;
A! supervision and correction of motor functions; B!. help the E. agnozia;
cerebral cortex in coordination;
C. thermoregulation; 34 .sc The muscle hyper tonicity in rigidity can be overcome by :
D. control of salt and water metabolism; A. stimulation of Aα fibers; of the neuromuscular spindle; B!.
E. voluntary control of motor functions; destruction of vestibular nuclei (especially Deuters);
C. section of cerebellar connections with the vestibular nucleus lateral;
31 .sc Clinical symptoms of cerebella disorders are: A! dysarthria; D. stimulation of α motor neurons;
B! dysdiadochokinesia; C! intentional E. stimulation of γ motor neurons;
tremor;
D. hard swallowing; 35 .scThe basal nuclei :
E. bad hearing; A! form the highest level of integration involuntary movements;
B. cannot control the muscle tone and posture;
32 .mc Choice the functions of the basal ganglia: C. not participate in regulating automatic movements, initiated voluntarily by the cortex;
A!. Participate in the regulation of complex motor activities; B!. Involvement D. not participate in the development of voluntary movements overall command;
in the execution of learned movements; E. cannot control the balance;
50 .mc The spinal α motor neurons : D. is cranial nerves origin;
A!. receive impulses from vestibular nuclei; E. vital centers origin;
B!. receive impulses from the contra lateral cortex; C!. neurons can be
inhibited by inhibitors interlacing; 55 .mc The specific neuromediation in the basal
D. control a single muscle fiber; ganglia system is : A!. Dopaminergic;
E. receive impulses from internal organs; B
!
51.sc A patient presents abnormal athetoze movement. Assume that is , .
A. cerebellar disorder; B!. lesion of basal G
nuclei; A
C. thalamic lesion; B
D. hypothalamic lesion; A
E. the cerebral cortex lesion; -
e
52 .sc What of substances, present in high concentrations in the putamen, caudate nucleus and the black substance, decrease in r
concentration in Parkinson's disease : g
A. acetylcholine; B!. dopamine; i
C. histamine; D.GABA; c
E. melatonin; ;
C
53 .mc Choice the incorrect pairings : !
A. polysynaptic reflex - autonomic reflex; B!. bineuronal reflex - .
flexion reflex; C
C. monosynaptic reflex - miotatic reflex; h
D. unconditionally reflex - innate reflex; E!. autonomic o
reflex - blink reflex; l
i
54 .mc The brainstem involved in posture control, because at this level : A! pass the n
pyramidal tracts (corticospinal and corticobulbate); e
B! is rrubrospinal tract origin; r
C! is reticculospinal, Pontin and bulbar tract origin; g
ic; 43 .sc The spinal shock is produced by spinal cord section : A in the
D. serotoninergic; below punt region;
E. enkefalinergic and by substance P; B. below brainstem at C1 level; C!. below the
level C4;
56 .sc The limbic system involved in these processes except : D. below thalamus;
A. memory formation; E. above spinal cord;
B. emotion formation;
C!. motor control of position; 44 .Mc What kind of sins has animal in rigidity: A!. presents
D. control of behavior; decerebrate stiffness;
E. olfaction; B. is spinal animal;
C. has the section above the red nucleus;
D. is the mid-brain animal;
E!. to get the section below the red nucleus;

45 .Mc The limbic system control : A!

organization of behavior;
B! control of autonomic functions; C! control of
learning;
D. inhibition of biological rhythms;
E. inhibition of smailing;

46 .mc What kind of signs occur in basal ganglia lesions : A! tremor in

the rest;
B! hypertonic type of muscle tone; C! involuntary
movements;
D. astigmatism;
E. hyperexcitability;

47 .mc The neuromuscular bundle Kuhne contain : A! the

proprioreceptors;
B! the intrafusals fibers;
C. the sympathetic fibers
D! the sensitive nerve endings and motor;
E. the parasympathetic fibers;

48 .mc The cerebellum is important in controlling : A! successive

movement coordination;
B. emotions;
C! rapid preprogrammed movements;
D!. maintain tone, posture, balance and body recovery;
E. olfaction;

49 .Sc The hypothalamus not participate in control of :

A. water balance;
B. temperature;
C. urine osmotic pressure;
D! skeletal muscle contraction;
E. emotional behavior;
E! the motor neurons form the final common pathway for all reflections.
3 .mc. Which of the following statements is correct about spinal reflexes?
A. the monosynaptic reflex contain one or more interneuron. 4.mc. Which of the following statements is correct about spinal pathways?
B. defense reflexes are lost after cervical spinal section. A. the axons of corticospinale tract directly synapse with spinal motor neurons;
C! spinal shock is characterized by flaccid paralysis of all muscles, distal to the section. B! the pyramidal tract lesions produced by sections, can lead to loss of control of fine movements of the hand and
D! the excitation of spiraled receptors in the spindle cause the myotatic dynamic reflex; fingers;
C! the rubrospinal tract control the tonus of extremities muscles; 57 .sc Which of follow cells form efferent pathways from the cerebellar cortex :
D! the leg extensor muscles are controlled by vestibulospinal fascicle; A!. Purkinje cells;
E. the reticulospinal beams are crossed, for the most part. B. granular cells;
C. basket cells;
5 .cm. Which of the following statements is correct about cortical areas? D. external veins cells;
A! the motor cortical areas are located in the frontal lobe. E. spinothalamic cells;
B. in the brain hemorrhage with affection of precentral gyrus in the right hemisphere, the patient experiences a loss
of sensitivity in the left half of the body. 58 .mc The Golgi tendon organ activation occurs :
C. the corticospinal tract provides only link between the central motor areas and spinal cord; A. facilitation of α motoneurons innervating the same muscle;
D! Receive the cortical motor areas receive somatic and sensitive afferents related from thalamus; B. contraction in the antagonistic muscles;
E. the extra pyramidal tracts connect the sub cortical structures of the spinal cord only. C!. Golgi tendon reflex;
D!. Inhibition of α motoneurons innervating corresponding muscles;
6.mc. Which of the following statements is correct about muscle tonus? E. mutual inhibition;
A! in joint receptors in the neuromuscular spindles and neck region indicates changes posture.
B! the axial region skeletal muscles participate in maintaining the vertical position. 59 .sc The Golgi tendon organ is located in :
C. the normal vision is necessary for recovery reflex; A. intrafusals muscle fibers;
D! the cerebellum is the main center for balance and posture control. B!. tendon;
E! the tonic neck reflexes and labyrinthine reflexes are sufficient to maintain the vertical position. C. articulation;
D. tegument;
7 .mc. Which of the following statements is correct about cerebellum? E. extrafusals muscle fibers;
A. the cerebellum receives direct efferent fibers from the motor cortex.
B. the Purkinje cells form synapse with cerebellar 60 .sc The flexion reflexes characterized by these elements except that :
nuclei. C! the Purkinje cell axons synapses are all A!. are monosynaptic reflexes;
inhibitory. B. the reflex arc is polyneuronal;
D! Intentional tremor is a characteristic sign of cerebellar lesions. C. contain 6-10 neurons in the chain intercalation;
E. Hemibalismul is a sign of cerebellar lesions. D. are reflexes initiated by the coetaneous, tactile, thermal and painful;
Interleaving
8.mc. Which of the following statements is correct about basal nuclei? E. form the synapse with motor neurons in the contra lateral part;
a! the cerebral hemispheres control and receive information from the ipsilateral muscles.
B. the acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter predominantly from black substance. 61.mc Choice the non correct affirmation about muscular bundle :
C! Globus palidus projects to cerebral cortex via the thalamus. A! the motor neurons γ form synapses with extrafusals muscle fibers;
D! The main neurotransmitter from the black substance is dopamine. B!. are activated by the contraction of muscle extrafusals fibers , which is associated;
E! Parkinsonism is caused by degeneration of neurons in the black substance. C. attached at one end of tendon;
D. reaccept the muscle length changes;
9.mc Which of the following statements is correct about E. reaccept the muscle elongation rate changes;
hypothalamus? A! The hypothalamus is involved in maintaining the
temperature; 1 .mc. Which of the following statements is correct about spinal cord?
B! The hypothalamus is involved in control of urine osmotic pressure; A white substance is composed of a large neuronal body;
C! The hypothalamus is involved in satiety; B! the anterior spinal horns contain the somatic motor neurons ;
D. The hypothalamus is involved in regulating motility; C! the ascending spinal pathways conduct the sensory impulses ;
E! The hypothalamus is involved in water intake D! the ventral and dorsal spinal roots join at the spinal nerve
trunk
E. the destruction of medullar anterior horn cause the loss of sensitivity in underserved zone;

2.mc. Which of the following statements is correct about neuromuscular spindle?

A! the neuromuscular spindles participate in regulating posture and movements.
B. the neuromuscular spindle respond primary to muscle tension and Golgi tendon organs respond primary to changes
in long of muscle;
C! the neuromuscular spindles contain afferent and efferent nerve fibers;
D. the dynamic sensitivity of nerve endings in the secondary zone of neuromuscular spindle is greater than that of
the primary endings.
E! the efferent gamma- fibers of the spindle control the sensitivity of the spindle during muscle contraction
17.mc.In the reticular formation is present following neurotransmission : A! dopaminergic C! cholinergic and
B! GABA-ergic epinephrine -ergic D!
serotonin - ergic 10.sc. The thick pyramid fibers which starts from Betz cells: A! are fiber-
E. by ATP and ADP type Aα
B. are fiber- type Aβ
18mc.The endocrine control of the hypothalamus is achieved by: A! the parvocells C. are C fibers
neurons from hypophisotrop area; D. are fiber type B
B. the magnocells neurons of the nucleus nucleus of middle group; E. represents 55-60% of pyramidal fibers
C. the supraoptic nucleus and parvocells neurons of the paraventricular nucleus; D! the liberins and
statins secretion in the hypophisotrop area; 11.sc. From the tendon Golgi receptors are initiated:
E! secretion of anti diuretic hormone and oxytocin by magnocells neurons; A. the miotatic reflexes;
B.the positive miotatic reflexes; C.the negative
19.cm Select correct statements about decerebrat animal: A! has a miotatic reflexes; D! the reversed miotatic
decerebrare stiffness; reflexes;
B. is the spinal animal; E. the flexion reflexes;
C. is obtained by section of super optic pathway ;
D. is the mid-brain animal 12 .mc.The inhibitory synapses of cerebellar cortex arise appear between:
E! is obtained by section of rubro –spinal pathway ; A. Purkinje cells and star cells;
B! external or internal star cells and Purkinje cells;
20.mc.The control of sequential movements in the cerebellum refer to: C. granular cells and star cells; D! Golgi II
A. feedback information from peripheral segments of the body B! planning cells and star cells;
movements E! Purkinje cells and neurons in the cerebellar nuclei;
C. control of learned movements
D! ensuring an orderly and smooth movements E! very precise 13 .mc. The descending reticular activating system patricipate in:
movements ( played the piano); A. formation a rhythmic pulse, facilities for maintenance of waking state;
B. modulation of sensory impulses;
21.mc. The limbic system involved in: A! the type of C! exaggeration of spinal reflexes and trunk; D!
organization behavior maintaining muscle tone;
B! the control of vegetative functions / endocrine C! pain, learning, E! rhythmic pulse discharge, the facility for spinal γ motor neurons;
olfaction;
D maintenance of muscle ton; 14.mc. The spinal segmentation reflexes are:
E. speaking; A. blink reflex
B. removal reflex C! flexion
22.mc. The miotatic reflex itself may be a reflection: reflex
A. positive tension D! flexion and extension cross reflex; E! extension
B. positive tension if opposes shortening C! positive tension reflex;
if opposes elongation D! negative tension if opposes
shortening 15.sc. The spinal choc is produced by section of spinal cord in :
E. negative tension if opposes elongation A. intercoliculară pre –pontin region;
B. in the brainstem level C1; C! below the
C4-C7 level;
23.cs During a voluntary movement, body (corpuscles) Golgi tendon central nervous system transmits information about: D. subthalamic;
A length of muscle E. upper spinal cord;
B intensity movements C irrigation muscle
D! muscle tension developed in the early movement
E. changes in joint angle motion 16.mc. In space orientation reflexes, posture and balance occur:
A. all extrinsic cerebellar circuits;
B! the circuit vestibulo- cerebelo –vestibular; C! the olivo-
cerebelo – nuclei rubror circuit;
D. the cerebelo -cortico-cerebellar circuit;
E. only arhicerebellor circuit;
31.mc The cerebellum is important in E! maintaining tone, posture, balance and body recovery
controlling: A! successive movement
coordination 32.cs Select the correct statements about spinal reflexes:
B stereognozy A! during rotulian reflex increases in pulse discharge rate of Ia afferents Golgi tendon organs;
.D! rapid preprogrammed movements B. during rotulian reflex discharge pulse rate increases in Ia afferents from neuromuscular spindles
C. during rotulian reflex decreases discharge pulse rate in motor neurons γ, which innervates spindles 24.mc. Select the correct answers about nervous control of neuromuscular bundle:
D. during rotulian reflex discharge pulse rate increases in γ which innervates spindles motor neurons A. the Aα nerve fiber for the nuclear chain
E. during rotulian reflex increases in pulse discharge rate of muscle α antagonists motor neurons B. the A β nerve fibers in the nuclear
bag C! the γ1 nerve fibers in the nuclear
33.mc. Select true statements that refer to miotatic bag
reflex: A! is initiated by stimulating α-motor neurons D. C nerve fibers to the nuclear chain
B. depends on the voltage sensitivity of neuromuscular spindles E. B n nerve fibers in the nuclear bag;
C! is associated with mutual inhibition of antagonist muscles
D. involves driving slowly through the sensory fibers associated 25 .Receptor stimulation of spiraled and effloresces neurons is provide by:
E. each miotatic reflex has more centers in the marrow, well-defined A! by stretching the central part of the neuromuscular spindles
B! passive by contraction ends of intrafusal fibers
34.mc Select true statements referring to spinal motor neurons: C! pulse arriving at the ends, the motor neurons A γ
. receive direct impulses from vestibular nuclei D. indirectly by motor neurons A β
B! receive impulses from the contra lateral cortex E. indirectly by sensitive neurons
C! intercalary neurons can be inhibited by inhibitors
D. innervates a single muscle fiber 26.cs most important role of γ motor neurons is:
E! determine the stimulation of muscle fibers in excite the spiraled extrafusal receptors; A. stimulation of skeletal muscle fibers to contraction
B! maintenance activities related to type Ia fibers during muscle contractions
35.sc. Select false statements that refer to the cerebellum: C. generation activity related type Ib fibers
A! send impulses to the spinal motor neurons thru the spinocerebellar tract; D. detection of skeletal muscle resting length
B. receives impulses from motor neo - cortex E. protect muscles increase muscle strength
C. sends motor impulses from the neo - cortex for motor error correction
D. determines atonia, asthenia, progressive disorders that disappear after about one month 27.sc. Middle cerebellar peduncle contains fiber tracts related to connection:
E. contribute to the integration of visual motor and auditory motor afferent pathway A. direct spinocerebellar
B. spinocerebellar cross
36.sc. The unilateral destruction of extra pyramidal fibers C. tectocerebellar
causes: A! lesion contra lateral spastic paralysis D! portocerebellar
B. muscle fasciculation E. vestibulocerebellar
C. hyporeflexia
D. hypo tonicity ipsy - lateral 28 .sc. Precentral gyrus and cortico - spinal tract are essential for:
E. tics (stereotyped contractions, repetitive, uncontrolled) A. vision
B olfaction
37 .sc. Select the false statements that refer to hemi section of spinal cord: C. hear
A. Brown Sequard syndrome; D. kinesthetisy
B! causes muscle paralysis contra- lateral under the lesion; E! voluntary movements
C. causes ipsy - lateral muscle paralysis, as the lesion
D. determined the abolition of deep conscious awareness (epicritic), below the lesion 29.cs A patient with intentional shaking, rattling speech, written irregularly and trembling, went embryos, is
E. determined tactile sensitivity abolition discriminated (protopatic), thermal and painful hetero suspected of an injury:
lateral A! cerebellar
B. bulbar
C bone marrow
D of basal ganglia
E cranial nerve
VIII

30.cs Hypothalamus is the least involved in the regulation:

A. water intake
B. temperature control
C. control of urine osmotic pressure
; D! normal breathing
E. emotional behavior
5 .SC. The peripheral parasympathetic co-transmitter c. neuropeptide Y
is: a!. vasointestinal polypeptide d. dopamine
b. ATP e. GnRH
 38.sc. A patient has abnormal movements, atetozic. It is assumed that:
6 .MC. The peripheral sympathetic co-transmitter is: A. cerebellar lesion
a. vasointestinal polypeptide B! basal nucleus lesion
b!. ATP C. thalamic lesion
c!. neuropeptide Y D hypothalamic lesion
d. dopamine E lesion of the cerebral cortex
e. GnRH
39 .mc. Select true statements that refer Babinski's sign:
7 .SC. The beta receptors activate proteins G, and they activate in their A! is a coetaneous plantar reflex inverted
turn: a!. adenylyl cyclase B! occurs three weeks after section of spinal cord in humans
b. protein kinase A C! is the characteristic in damage of pyramidal fascicle
c. protein kinase C D. persists in adult body
d. calmodulin E disappears in the sleeping;
e. phospholipase C
40.cs Which of the following substances, present in high concentrations in the putamen, caudate nucleus and the
8 .SC. The norepinephrine contracts the smooth muscles from: black substance, decrease in concentration in Parkinson's disease:
a. bronchioles A. acetylcholine
b. iris B! dopamine
c. intestine C. histamine
d!. arterioles D. GABA
e. ciliary body E. melatonin
9 .MC. The sympathetic neurons: 1 .MC. Which of the following statements is correct:
a. those which innervate adrenal medulla are postganglionic a!. the sympathetic preganglionic neurons are located in the spinal segments T1-L2
b. those which secret norepinephrine are b!. the sympathetic paravertebral chain lies from the cervical region to the sacral region of the spinal cord
preganglionic c!. the postganglionic neurons release c. the preganglionic sympathetic fibers secret norepinephrine
norepinephrine d!. the preganglionic neurons secret d!. the acetylcholine is secreted also by some postganglionic sympathetic fibers
acetylcholine e. the veins diameter is determined exclusively by the sympathetic nervous system
e!. innervate the heart via beta-1 receptors, and cause an increase in heart rate and contraction strength
2 .MC. Which of the following statements is correct:
10 .MC. Which are the common traits in the structure of both sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous a!. the preganglionic parasympathetic fibers are present in the third cranial nerve
system: b!. the vagus nerves supply parasympathetic fibers to the heart
a. the length if the preganglionic fibers c. the vasoconstrictor parasympathetic fibers are present also in the salivary glands
b!. neurotransmitters in the ganglia d. the postganglionic parasympathetic fibers secret norepinephrine to the target
c!. nicotinic receptors in the ganglia organs e!. the preganglionic parasympathetic fibers secret acetylcholine
d!. effector organs
e. the origin of the preganglionic fibers 3 .MC. Which of the following statements is correct:
a. the pupil constriction is caused by sympathetic nerves stimulation
11 .SC. Which are the common traits in the structure of both somatic and parasympathetic nervous system: b!. the glycogenolysis in liver can be stimulated by the epinephrine, secreted from adrenal medulla
a. neurotransmitters in the ganglia c!. the gastrointestinal motility rises in the case of vagal stimulation
b. receptor in the effector organs d!. the sympathetic discharge produces vascular dilation in skeletal muscles and vasoconstriction in viscera and skin
c!. neurotransmitters in the effector organs e. the vagal stimulation causes tachycardia
d. receptors in the ganglia
e. the place of the neurons in the spinal cord 4 .MC. Which of the following statements is correct:
a!. the epinephrine stimulates beta-2-adrenoreceptors from skeletal muscles vessels and causes vasodilation
b!. the norepinephrine stimulates preferentially the alpha-adrenoreceptors
c. the major metabolic effect of the catecholamines is the decrease of glycogenolysis
d. the cholinergic receptors from autonomic ganglia are muscarinic receptors
e!. the acetylcholine released by postganglionic parasympathetic fibers stimulates the muscarinic receptors
19 .MC. Which type of receptors is activated by acetylcholine: e!. muscarinic receptors
a. alfa-1 and alfa-2 adrenergic receptors
b. beta-1 adrenergic receptors 20 .SC. Which type of receptors is more sensitive to epinephrine than norepinephrine:
c. beta-2 adrenergic receptors d!. nicotinic a. alfa-1 adrenergic receptors
receptors b. alfa-2 adrenergic receptors
c. beta-1 adrenergic receptors d!. beta-2 12 .MC. Nicotinic receptors are located: a!. in the
adrenergic receptors sympathetic autonomic ganglia
e. beta-3 adrenergic receptors b!. in the parasympathetic autonomic ganglia
c!. in the effector organs of the somatic nervous system
21 .SC. Which type of receptors is more sensitive to epinephrine than alpha receptors: d. in the effector organs of the sympathetic nervous system
a. beta-1 adrenergic receptors b!. beta-2 e. in the effector organs of the parasympathetic nervous system
adrenergic receptors
c. beta-3 adrenergic receptors 13 .MC. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter in following synapses: a!.
d. nicotinic receptors neuroneuronal synapses, in sympathetic ganglia
e. muscarinic receptors b!. neuroneuronal synapses, in parasympathetic ganglia
c. terminal synapses, sympathetic neuroeffector synapses from small intestine
22 .SC. The stimulation of these receptors increases heart rate d!. terminal synapses, parasympathetic neuroeffector synapses from small intestine
a. alpha-1 adrenergic e. terminal synapses, somatic neuroeffector synapses from small intestine
b. alpha-2 adrenergic c!. beta-1
adrenergic 14 .SC. The enteric nervous system is considered as a part of:
d. beta-2 adrenergic a. sympathetic nervous system
e. muscarinic cholinergic b. parasympathetic nervous system c!. autonomic
nervous system
23 .SC. The stimulation of these receptors causes adrenal medullae secretion d. somatic nervous system
a. alpha-2 adrenergic e. vagus nerve
b. beta-1 adrenergic
c. beta-2 adrenergic 15 .MC. The adrenal medulla has following peculiarities:
d. muscarinic cholinergic e!. nicotinic a!. the preganglionic sympathetic fibers synapse directly the chromaphine cells b!. cholinergic
cholinergic synaptic transmission
c!. nicotinic receptors on the cromafine cells
24 .SC. The stimulation of these receptors opens ionic channels for Na+ and K+, in neuromuscular junction d. secrets 20% of epinephrine and 80% of norepinephrine into the bloodstream
a. alpha-1 adrenergic e. secrets 50% of epinephrine and 50% of norepinephrine into the bloodstream
b. alpha-2 adrenergic
c. beta-2 adrenergic 16 .SC. The common action mechanism for beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic receptors is:
d. muscarinic cholinergic e!. nicotinic a. IP3-Ca2+
cholinergic b. DAG c!. cAMP
d. cGMP
25 .SC. The blocking of these receptors by atropine decreases gastrointestinal motility e. they don’t use second messengers
a. alpha-1 adrenergic
b. alpha-2 adrenergic 17 .MC. The synaptic transmission in sympathetic ganglia:
c. beta-1 adrenergic a. is electric
d!. muscarinic cholinergic b!. involves the release of acetylcholine
e. nicotinici colinergic c. is mediated by the adrenergic receptors only
d. involves either adrenergic receptors, or nicotinic receptors, or both e!. involves
nicotinic receptors

18 .SC. Which type of receptors is ionic channel for Na+ şi K+ ions:

a. alfa-1-receptors
b. alfa-2-receptors
c. beta-1-receptors d!. nicotinic
receptors
e. muscarinic receptors
33 .SC. The structure responsible of both sympathetic and parasympathetic control of the heart rate is 34 .MC. These fibers are not present in intrinsic digestive plexus
: a!. central nervous system a!. preganglionic sympathetic fibers
b. paravertebral ganglia chain b. postganglionic sympathetic adrenergic fibers
c. terminal ganglion in the heart c. preganglionic parasympathetic fibers
d. sacral spinal chord d. postganglionic parasympathetic fibers
e. thoracic spinal chord e!. postganglionic sympathetic cholinergic fibers
35 .SC. During flight or fight response, the epinephrine secretion determines almost all sympathetic effects, with 26 .SC. These receptors are blocked by hexamethonium in ganglia, but not in neuromuscular junction
one exception : a. alpha-1 adrenergic
a. vasoconstriction in viscera b. beta-1 adrenergic
b!. sweating c. beta-2 adrenergic
c. hypertension d. muscarinic
d. bronchia dilation cholinergic e!. nicotinic
e. tachycardia cholinergic

36 .SC. The drugs which increase the neurotransmission via acetylcholine enhance both sympathetic 27 .SC. The low concentration of epinephrine from adrenal medullae causes vasodilation by stimulating
and parasympathetic effects because: these receptors
a!. acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter in all autonomic ganglia a. alpha-1 adrenergic
b. acetylcholine is involved in neurotransmission in postganglionic synapses b. alpha-2 adrenergic
c. cholinergic receptors are present in all autonomic effector organs c. beta-1 adrenergic
d. acetylcholine is the single neurotransmitter in peripheral nervous system d!. beta-2 adrenergic
e. acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter in both parasympathetic and sympathetic cholinergic fibers e. muscarinic cholinergic

37 .SC. To stimulate the bronchia dilation but without tachycardia in a patient with asthma, it’s recommended: 28 .SC. The stimulation of these receptors increase heart contraction strength
a. a selective alpha-1 stimulator a. alpha-1 adrenergic
b. a selective alpha-2 stimulator b. alpha-2 adrenergic
c. a selective beta-1 stimulator c!. beta-1 adrenergic
d!. a selective beta-2 d. beta-2 adrenergic
stimulator e. nicotinic cholinergic
e. a selective beta-3 stimulator
29 .MC. The stimulation of these receptors decreases gastrointestinal motility
38 .SC. The complete denervation of the small intestine causes: a. alpha-1 adrenergic
a. enhanced resting peristalsis b!. alpha-2 adrenergic
b. decreased resting peristalsis c!. beta-2 adrenergic
c!. very little effect on the peristalsis d. muscarinic cholinergic
d. intestinal obstruction e. nicotinic cholinergic
e. unregulated peristalsis
30 .SC. The stimulation of these receptors causes digestive sphincters
39 .MC. Which of the following statements is correct: constriction a!. alpha-1 adrenergic
a. physostigmine, acetylcholine esterase inhibitor, decreases glucagon secretion b. alpha-2 adrenergic
b. nicotine, in low doses, decreases acetylcholine synthesis in sympathetic ganglia c. beta-2 adrenergic
c!. the axons of preganglionic parasympathetic neurons are longer than d. muscarinic colinergic
sympathetic e. nicotinic cholinergic
d!. a drug which blocks the conversion of L-DOPA in dopamine, decreases the blood level of norepinephrine
e!. a drug which blocks beta-adrenergic receptors, decreases heart rate and heart contraction strength 31 .SC. Which process is influenced more by parasympathetic system than sympathetic system:
a. vasodilation
b!. gastrointestinal motility and secretion
c. pupil dilation
d. flight of fight reaction
e. arteriole constriction

32 .SC. The drug which dilates the pupil and blocks the lens accommodation in the same time has the following
action mechanism:
a. stimulates the adrenergic receptors
b. blocks the adrenergic receptors
c. stimulates the cholinergic muscarinic
receptors d!. blocks the cholinergic muscarinic
receptors
e. stimulates the cholinergic nicotinic receptors
4 .mc Choice the non correct answers. Mono carbohydrates it’s transported thru membrane by: B. facilitated diffusion; C! active transport;
A ! simple diffusion; D passive transport by special proteins; E! active co-transport(
simport); 40 .(1)MC. Which of the following statements is not correct:
a. the sympathetic preganglionic neurons are located in the spinal segments T1-L2
5 .sc Choice the correct answer. Decreasing blood glucose quantity it’s named: b. the sympathetic paravertebral chain lies from the cervical region to the sacral region of the spinal cord
A. hyperglycemia; c!. the preganglionic sympathetic fibers secret norepinephrine
B. anemia; d. the acetylcholine is secreted also by some postganglionic sympathetic fibers
C. hypotonya; e!. the veins diameter is determined exclusively by the sympathetic nervous system
D ! hypoglycemia;
E. hypertermya; 41 .(2)MC. Which of the following statements is not correct:
a. the preganglionic parasympathetic fibers are present in the third cranial nerve
6 .Choice the correct answer. Carbohydrate metabolism not is controlled by: b. the vagus nerves supply parasympathetic fibers to the heart
A. epinephrine; c!. the vasoconstrictor parasympathetic fibers are present also in the salivary glands
B. glucagons; d!. the postganglionic parasympathetic fibers secret norepinephrine to the target organs
C. insulin; e. the preganglionic parasympathetic fibers secret acetylcholine
D ! intermedine;
E. thyroxin; 42 .(3)MC. Which of the following statements is not correct:
a!. the pupil constriction is caused by sympathetic nerves stimulation
7 .mcChoice the correct answers. Carbohydrate metabolism is controlled by following hormones: b. the glycogenolysis in liver can be stimulated by the epinephrine, secreted from adrenal medulla
A! epinephrine; c. the gastrointestinal motility rises in the case of vagal stimulation
B! cortisol; d. the sympathetic discharge produces vascular dilation in skeletal muscles and vasoconstriction in viscera and skin
C.intermedine; e!. the vagal stimulation causes tachycardia
D. oxytocine;
E. vasopresine; 43 .(4)MC. Which of the following statements is correct:
a. the epinephrine stimulates beta-2-adrenoreceptors from skeletal muscles vessels and causes vasodilation
8 .mc. Choice the non correct answers. Carbohydrate metabolism is controlled by following b. the norepinephrine stimulates preferentially the alpha-adrenoreceptors
hormones: c!. the major metabolic effect of the catecholamines is the decrease of glycogenolysis d!.
A. epinephrine; the cholinergic receptors from autonomic ganglia are muscarinic receptors
B. cortisol; e. the acetylcholine released by postganglionic parasympathetic fibers stimulates the muscarinic receptors Metabolism
C! intermedine; :
D! oxytocine; E!
vasopressin; 1 .mc Choice the correct answers about ATP function:
A! ATP it‘s intermediary component witch form energy after reaction with nutritive substances;
9.mc Choice the correct answers about glucose phosphorilation : B. ATP it‘s combination between adenine, calcium and reobazis; C.ATP
A. glucose phosphorilation it’s non reversible in the all human cells ; it’s very stable chemical component;
B! glucose phosphorilation it’s reversible in the liver cells; D. ATP not contains macroergic connections;
C! glucose phosphorilation it’s reversible in the epithelial cells of kidney tubules; E! ATP contains macroergic connections;
D! glucose phosphorilation it’s reversible in the epithelial interstitial cells;
E. glucose phosphorilation it’s reversible in the myocardial cells; 2 .mc Choice the non correct answers about ATP function:
A.ATP it‘s intermediary component witch form energy after reaction with nutritive substances; B!.ATP
10 .mc Choice the non correct answers about glucose phosphorilation : it‘s combination between adenine, calcium and reobazis;
A! glucose phosphorilation it’s non reversible in the all human cells ; C!.ATP it’s very stable chemical component;
B. glucose phosphorilation it’s reversible in the liver cells; D!.ATP not contains macroergic connections;
C. glucose phosphorilation it’s reversible in the epithelial cells of kidney tubules; E.ATP contains macroergic connections;
D. glucose phosphorilation it’s reversible in the epithelial interstitial cells;
E! glucose phosphorilation it’s reversible in the myocardial cells; 3 .mc Choice the correct answers. Mono carbohydrates it’s transported thru membrane by:
A. simple diffusion;
B! facilitated diffusion;
C. active transport;
D! passive transport by special proteins;
E. active co-transport( simport);
18 .mc Choice the non correct answers about gluconeogenesis: E! gluconeogenesis not is controlled by pituitary corticotrophin;
A. gluconeogenesis – formation of carbohydrates from proteins and fats;
B. gluconeogenesis – formation of glucose from amino acids and the glycerol; C! 19 .sc Choice the correct answer. Normal glucose concentration in the blood: A! 3,3 – 5,5
gluconeogenesis – formation of glucose from amino acids and faty acids; D! mmol/l;
gluconeogenesis begin in the carbohydrates increasing in the blood; B. 2,9 – 7,9 mmol/l;
C. 200 mg/100ml; 11 .mc Choice the correct answers about glucose phosphorilation :
D. 200 mg/l; E. 2 g/100 A!. in the cells glucose add to phosphate radical in presence of glucokinase or hexokinase; B!. in the
ml; hepatic cells glucokinase begin the glucose phosphorilation;
C. in the cells glucose phosphorilation occur the glucose diffusion; D!. in the
20 .mc Choice the correct answers. Witch chemical compounds are classified as lipids: A.! cells glucose phosphorilation occur the glucose storage ;
neutral fat (triglycerides); E. in the hepatic cells glucose phosphorilation it’s non reversible;
B.! phospholipids;
C. amino acids; D.! 12 .mc Choice the non correct answers about glucose phosphorilation :
cholesterol; A. in the cells glucose add to phosphate radical in presence of glucokinase or hexokinase;
E. lipoprotein–lipase; B. in the hepatic cells glucokinase begin the glucose phosphorilation; C! in the
cells glucose phosphorilation occur the glucose diffusion;
21 .mc Choice the non correct answers. Witch chemical compounds are classified as lipids: D. in the cells glucose phosphorilation occur the glucose storage ; E! in the
A. neutral fat (triglycerides); hepatic cells glucose phosphorilation it’s non reversible;
B. phospholipids; C.! amino
acids; 13 .mc. Choice the correct answers about glycogenilysis: A!
D. cholestero; glycogenolysis – removal of stored glycogen;
E.! lipoprotein–lipase; B! glycogenolysis – the breakdown of the cell’s stored glycogen to re-form glucose in the cells;
C. glycogenolysis – the storage of glucose in the liver;
22 .mc Choice the correct answers about lipoproteins characteristics: A.! D. glycogenolysis – the physical process;
lipoproteins are much smaller particles even than chylomicrons; E. glycogenolysis not is catalyzed by the phosphorylase;
B. lipoproteins are much bigger particles even than chylomicrons;
C.! lipoproteins contain triglycerides, cholesterol, phospholipids and protein; D.lipoproteins contain 14 .mc Choice the non correct answers about glycogenilysis:
protein and carbohydrates; A. glycogenolysis – removal of stored glycogen;
E. ! lipoproteins are formed almost in the liver; B. glycogenolysis – the breakdown of the cell’s stored glycogen to re-form glucose in the cells; C!
glycogenolysis – the storage of glucose in the liver;
23 .mc Choice the non correct answers about lipoproteins characteristics: D! glycogenolysis – the physical process ;
A. lipoproteins are much smaller particles even than chylomicrons; B.! E! glycogenolysis not is catalyzed by the phosphorylase;
lipoproteins are much bigger particles even than chylomicrons;
C. lipoproteins contain triglycerides, cholesterol, phospholipids and protein; D.!lipoproteins contain 15 .mc Choice the correct answers about glycolysis:
protein and carbohydrates; A! anaerobic glycolysis it’s energy realizing without oxygen participation; B! anaerobic
E. lipoproteins are formed almost in the liver; glycolysis it’s followed by formation of lactic acid;
C. anaerobic glycolysis it’s energy realizing with oxygen participation;
24 .mc Choice the correct answers about lipoproteins functions: A.! D. anaerobic glycolysis it’s not followed by formation of lactic acid; E! anaerobic
lipoproteins transport special lipids in all the body; glycolysis it’s reconversion of lactic acid to pyruvic acid;
B. lipoproteins increase cholesterol accumulation in the peripheral tissue; C.!
lipoproteins decrease cholesterol accumulation in the peripheral tissue; D.! 16 .mc. Choice the non correct answers about glycolysis:
lipoproteins prevent atherosclerosis development; A. anaerobic glycolysis it’s energy realizing without oxygen participation;
E. lipoproteins transport special proteins in all the body; B. anaerobic glycolysis it’s followed by formation of lactic acid;
C! anaerobic glycolysis it’s energy realizing with oxygen participation; D! anaerobic
glycolysis it’s not followed by formation of lactic acid;
E. anaerobic glycolysis it’s reconversion of lactic acid to pyruvic acid;

17 .mc Choice the correct answers about gluconeogenesis:

A.! gluconeogenesis – formation of carbohydrates from proteins and fats;
B.! gluconeogenesis – formation of glucose from amino acids and the glycerol;
C. gluconeogenesis – formation of glucose from amino acids and faty acids;
D. gluconeogenesis begin in the carbohydrates increasing in the blood;
E. gluconeogenesis not is controlled by pituitary corticotrophin;
32.sc Choice the correct answer. Principal function of plasmatic globulins:
A. occur colloid –osmotic pressure; B.! 33.sc Choice the correct answer. Principal function of plasmatic fibrinogen:
participate in immune formation; A. occur colloid –osmotic pressure; B
C. participate in blood coagulation; participate in immune formation; C.!
D. occur vitamins absorption; participate in blood coagulation;
E. occur electrolytes diffusion; D. occur vitamins absorption;
E. occur electrolytes diffusion;
34 .mc Choice the correct answers about gluconeogenesis and ketogenesis:
A.! the conversion of amino acids into glucose or glycogen - gluconeogenesis; B.! the
conversion of amino acids into keto acids – ketogenesis;
C. the conversion of the ketone bodies into glycogen - gluconeogenesis;
D. the conversion of the carnitine into the urea – ketogenesis;
E. the conversion of the cholesterol into keto acids - ketogenesis;
35 .mc Choice the non correct answers about gluconeogenesis and ketogenesis:
A. the conversion of amino acids into glucose or glycogen - gluconeogenesis;
B. the conversion of amino acids into keto acids – ketogenesis;
C.! the conversion of the ketone bodies into glycogen - gluconeogenesis; D.! the
conversion of the carnitine into the urea – ketogenesis;
E.! the conversion of the cholesterol into keto acids - ketogenesis;
36 .sc Choice the correct answer about nitrogen equilibrium. The positive nitrogen equilibrium it’s:
A. the quantity nitrogen eliminated by urine more then quantity nitrogen introduced by food; B.! the
quantity nitrogen introduced by food more then quantity nitrogen eliminated by urine;
C. the quantity nitrogen introduced by food it’s equal with quantity nitrogen eliminated by urine;
D. the nitrogen in the blood it’s more then nitrogen in the tissue;
E. nitrogen deficiency in the body;
37.sc Choice the correct answer about negative nitrogen equilibrium:
A.! the quantity nitrogen eliminated by urine more then quantity nitrogen introduced by food;
B. the quantity nitrogen introduced by food more then quantity nitrogen eliminated by urine;
C. the quantity nitrogen introduced by food it’s equal with quantity nitrogen eliminated by urine;
D. the nitrogen in the blood it’s more then nitrogen in the tissue;
E. nitrogen deficiency in the body;
38.sc Choice the correct answer about nitrogen equilibrium:
A. the quantity nitrogen eliminated by urine more then quantity nitrogen introduced by food;
B. the quantity nitrogen introduced by food more then quantity nitrogen eliminated by urine;
C.! the quantity nitrogen introduced by food it’s equal with quantity nitrogen eliminated by urine;
D. the nitrogen in the blood it’s more then nitrogen in the tissue;
E. nitrogen deficiency in the body ;
46 .mc Choice the correct answers about basal metabolism rate (BMR): A.!
BMR it’s unite of energy realized after deferent nutritive process;
B. BMR it’s energy realized after deferent nutritive process;
C. BMR it’s energy utilized by deferent nutritive process;
D.! BMR it’s unite of energy utilized by deferent nutritive process;
E. BMR it’s total energy utilized in the body;
25 .mc Choice the non correct answers about lipoproteins functions:
A. lipoproteins transport special lipids in all the body;
B.! lipoproteins increase cholesterol accumulation in the peripheral tissue;
C. lipoproteins decrease cholesterol accumulation in the peripheral tissue;
D. lipoproteins prevent atherosclerosis development;
E.! lipoproteins transport special proteins in all the body;
26 .mc Choice the correct answers about functions of the liver in lipid metabolism:
A. to synthesize of fatty acids;
B.! to degrade fatty acids into the small compounds that can be used for energy; C.! to
synthesize triglycerides from carbohydrate;
D.! to synthesize cholesterol and phospholipids from fatty acids;
E. triglycerides saturation;
27 .mc Choice the non correct answers about functions of the liver in lipid metabolism: A.! to
synthesize of fatty acids;
B. to degrade fatty acids into the small compounds that can be used for energy;
C. to synthesize triglycerides from carbohydrate;
D. to synthesize cholesterol and phospholipids from fatty acids; E.!
triglycerides saturation;
28 .mc Choice the correct answers. Use of fats in the body is controlled by:
A.! epinephrine and norepinephrine witch directly activate hormone-sensitive triglyceride lipase; B.!
corticotrophin witch activate the adrenal cortex to secrete extra quantities of glucocorticoids; C.! insulin
lack (dificience);
D. insulin excess;
E. vasopressin excess;
29 .mc Choice the non correct answers. Use of fats in the body is controlled by:
A. epinephrine and norepinephrine witch directly activate hormone-sensitive triglyceride lipase;
B. corticotrophin witch activate the adrenal cortex to secrete extra quantities of glucocorticoids;
C. insulin lack (deficiency); D.!
insulin excess;
E.! vasopressin excess;
30 .sc Choice the correct answer. In the regulation of lipid metabolism not participate:
A. pituitary gland;
B. pancreas;
C.! parathyroid gland;
D. sexual glands;
E. thyroid gland;
31 .sc Choice the correct answer. Principal function of plasmatic albumins : A.! occur
colloid –osmotic pressure;
B. participate in immune formation;
C. participate in blood coagulation;
D. occur vitamins absorption;
E. occur electrolytes diffusion;
47 .mc Choice the non correct answers about basal metabolism rate (BMR):
A. BMR it’s unite of energy realized after deferent nutritive process; B.! BMR it’s
energy realized after deferent nutritive process;
C.! BMR it’s energy utilized by deferent nutritive process;
D. BMR it’s unite of energy utilized by deferent nutritive process; E.! BMR it’s
total energy utilized in the body;
48 .mc Choice the correct answers about thyroxin control of metabolism:
A.! in the grate quantity thyroxin increase metabolism by 60 -100% over normal; B.!
complete absence of thyroxin decrease metabolism by 60 -100% over normal;
C. in the grate quantity thyroxin don’t change metabolism;
D .in the grate quantity thyroxin decrease metabolism by 10% than normal;
E. total absence of thyroxin don’t change metabolism;
49 mc Choice the non correct answers about thyroxin control of metabolism:
A. in the grate quantity thyroxin increase metabolism by 60 -100% over normal;
B. complete absence of thyroxin decrease metabolism by 60 -100% over normal; C.! in
the grate quantity thyroxin don’t change metabolism ;
D.! in the grate quantity thyroxin decrease metabolism by 10% than normal; E.! total
absence of thyroxin don’t change metabolism;
50 .sc Choice the correct answer about effect of sympathetic stimulation to basal metabolism rate: A!
sympathetic stimulation increase BMR in the tissue till 15%;
B. sympathetic stimulation increase BMR in the tissue till 50%;
C. sympathetic stimulation decrease BMR in the tissue till 15%;
D. sympathetic stimulation decrease BMR in the tissue till 50%;
E. sympathetic stimulation not change BMR;
51 .mc Choice the correct answer about heat losing pathways: A.! by
irradiation heat losing is 60% from total;
B.! by convection heat losing is 15% from total;
C. by conduction heat losing is 25% from total;
D. by conduction and convection heat losing is 50% from total;
E. by convection heat losing is 50% from total;
52 .mc Choice the non correct answer about heat losing pathways:
A. by irradiation heat losing is 60% from total ;
B. by convection heat losing is 15% from total; C.! by
conduction heat losing is 25% from total;
D.! by conduction and convection heat losing is 50% from total; E.! by
convection heat losing is 50% from total;
60 .mc Choice the correct answers about mechanisms of heat conservation when the body is too cold: A!.
vascular constriction in the skin;
B!. piloerection and stop of sweating;
C. chemical sympathetic excitation;
D. high secretion of thyroxin;
E. stimulation of hypothalamus;
39 .sc Choice the correct answer. The nitrogen retention it’s possible in:
A. in the pregnancy;
B. in the body growing;
C.! in the proteins insufficiency;
D. in the rehabilitation period;
E. in increasing muscular weigh;
40 .mc Choice the correct answer about nitrogen equilibrium:
A.! it’s dynamic equilibrium between proteins ingestion and proteins utilization; B.! show
the difference between proteins ingested and proteins eliminated;
C.! it’s equilibrated to healthy adult person;
D. it’s positive in the increasing proteins in the food;
E. it’s negative in the pregnancy;
41 .mc Choice the non correct answer about nitrogen equilibrium:
A. it’s dynamic equilibrium between proteins ingestion and proteins utilization;
B. show the difference between proteins ingested and proteins eliminated;
C. it’s equilibrated to healthy adult person;
D.! it’s positive in the increasing proteins in the food; E.! it’s
negative in the pregnancy;
42 mc Choice the correct answers about oxygen caloric equivalent (CEO2): A.!
CEO2 it’s energy realized by 1 liter oxygen utilized in the body;
B.! CEO2 it’s 4,825 kcal;
C. CEO2 it’s energy realized by 100 milliliter oxygen utilized in the body;
D. CEO2 it’s energy realized by1 liter oxygen utilized in the body per 1hour;
E. CEO2 it’s 6,25 kcal;
43 .mc Choice the non correct answers about oxygen caloric equivalent (CEO2):
A. CEO2 it’s energy realized by 1 liter oxygen utilized in the body;
B. CEO2 it’s 4,825 kcal;
C.! CEO2 it’s energy realized by 100 milliliter oxygen utilized in the body; D.! CEO2
it’s energy realized by1 liter oxygen utilized in the body per 1hour; E.! CEO2 it’s
6,25 kcal;
44 .mc Choice the correct answers about basal metabolism (BM):
A.! BM its energy realized by tissues non depended from physical exercises or anther external factors; B.! BM
can be recorded just in standard conditions;
C. BM its energy realized by body in the physical exercises;
D. BM non depended by physical or emotional excitation; E! BM
for adult person it’s 70 kcal/hour;
45 .mc Choice the non correct answers about basal metabolism (BM):
A. BM its energy realized by tissues non depended from physical exercises or anther external factors;
B. BM can be recorded just in standard conditions;
C.! BM its energy realized by body in the physical exercises; D.! BM
non depended by physical or emotional excitation;
E. BM for adult person it’s 70 kcal/hour;
61 .mc Choice the non correct answers about mechanisms of heat conservation when the body is too cold :
A. vascular constriction in the skin;
B. piloerection and stop of sweating;
C.! chemical sympathetic excitation;
D.! high secretion of thyroxin;
E.! stimulation of hypothalamus; 53 .mc Choice the correct answer about heat losing by evaporation:
A.! by evaporation with each gram of water body loss 0,5 kcal or 12-16 kcal/hour; B.!
62 .mc Choice the correct answers about mechanisms of heat production when the body is too cold: A!. evaporation it’s continuo process, non dependent of body temperature;
chemical sympathetic excitation; C. heat losing by evaporation can’t be controlled by intensity of swatting;
B!. high secretion of thyroxin; D. by evaporation it’s loosed most part of heat;
C. vascular constriction in the skin; E. evaporation it’s not essential mechanism of body temperature decreasing;
D. piloerection ;
E. stop of sweating; 54 .mc Choice the non correct answer about heat losing by evaporation:
A. by evaporation with each gram of water body loss 0,5 kcal or 12-16 kcal/hour;
63 .mc Choice the non correct answers about mechanisms of heat production when the body is too cold: B. evaporation it’s continuo process, non dependent of body temperature; C.! heat
A. chemical sympathetic excitation; losing by evaporation can’t be controlled by intensity of swatting; D.! by
B. high secretion of thyroxin; C.! skin evaporation it’s loosed most part of heat;
vasoconstriction; E.! evaporation it’s not essential mechanism of body temperature decreasing;
D.! piloerection;
E.! stop of sweating; 55 .mc Choice the correct answer about control of swatting by aldosteron: A.!
aldosteron increase active reabsorption of sodium in the swatting tubules; B.!
64 .sc Choice the correct answer about chills: aldosterone decrease NaCl loosing by swatting;
A. the primary motor center of chills is located in the brain stem; C. aldosteron decrease active reabsorption of sodium in the swatting tubules;
B!. the primary motor center of chills is stimulated by “cold” signals from skin and from spinal cord; D. aldosteron decrease active reabsorption of Cl in the swatting tubules;
C. the primary motor center of chills is stimulated by “hot” signals from hypothalamus; E. aldosterone increase NaCl loosing by swatting;
D. in the chills decrease muscular tonus in the body;
E. in the chills decrease muscular extension; 56 .mc Choice the non correct answer about control of swatting by aldosteron:
A. aldosteron increase active reabsorption of sodium in the swatting tubules;
65 .sc Choice the correct answer about chills: B. aldosterone decrease NaCl loosing by swatting;
A!. the primary motor center of chills is located in the hypothalamus; C.! aldosteron decrease active reabsorption of sodium in the swatting tubules; D.!
B. the primary motor center of chills is inhibit by “cold” signals from skin and from spinal cord; aldosteron decrease active reabsorption of Cl in the swatting tubules;
C. the primary motor center of chills is stimulated by “hot” signals from hypothalamus; E.! aldosterone increase NaCl loosing by swatting;
D. in the chills decrease muscular tonus in the body;
E. in the chills decrease muscular extension; 57 .sc Choice the correct answer about center of thermoregulation: A!.
center of thermoregulation it’s localized in the hypothalamus;
66 .sc Choice the correct answer about chills: B. center of thermoregulation it’s localized in the brain stem;
A. the primary motor center of chills is located in the brain stem; C. termo- receptors from spinal cord not transmitted excitation to the center of thermoregulation;
B. the primary motor center of chills is inhibit by “cold” signals from skin and from spinal cord; C! the D. termo- receptors from abdomen not transmitted excitation to the center of thermoregulation;
primary motor center of chills is inhibed by “hoth” signals from hypothalamus; E. center of thermoregulation control body temperature just in the fever;
D. in the chills decrease muscular tonus in the body;
E. in the chills decrease muscular extension; 58 .mc Choice the correct answers about mechanisms of heat loosing in the over heating: A!. by
swatting glands stimulation;
B. by swatting glands inhibition;
C. by excitation of sympathetic centers in the posterior hypothalamus;
D. by vascular constriction in the skin;
E! by inhibition of sympathetic centers in the posterior hypothalamus;

73 .sc Choice the correct answer about fever:
A!. in the fever mechanisms for heat conservation and heat production are activated;
B. the crisis or “flush” is generated by vasoconstriction;
C. fever can’t be caused by pyrogens released from degenerating tissues;
D. in the fever the set-point of the hypothalamic temperature-regulating center becomes decreased to low level than
normal;
59 .mc Choice the non correct answers about mechanisms of heat loosing in the over heating:
A. by swatting glands stimulation; B.! by
swatting glands inhibition;
C.! by excitation of sympathetic centers in the posterior hypothalamus; D.! by
vascular constriction in the skin;
E. by inhibition of sympathetic centers in the posterior hypothalamus;
E. in the fever mechanisms for heat conservation is inhibiting;
.74 sc Choice the correct answer about fever:
A!. the cold feeling in the fever can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center from normal to
higher;
B.in the fever vasoconstriction, piloerection can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center
from normal to lower; 67 .sc Choice the correct answer about chills:
C.in the fever epinephrine secretion and chills can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center from A. the primary motor center of chills is located in the brain stem;
normal to lower ; B. the primary motor center of chills is inhibed by “cold” signals from skin and from spinal cord;
D.in the fever vasodilatation and sweating can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center from C. the primary motor center of chills is stimulated by “hot” signals from hypothalamus;
normal to higher ; D.! in the chills increase muscular tonus in the body;
E. the crisis or “flush” in the fever is generated by vasoconstriction; E. in the chills decrease muscular extension;
75.sc. Choice the correct answer about fever: 68 .sc Choice the correct answer about chills:
A. the cold feeling in the fever can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center from normal to A. the primary motor center of chills is located in the brain stem;
lower ; B. the primary motor center of chills is inhibit by “cold” signals from skin and from spinal cord;
B! .in the fever vasoconstriction, piloerection can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center from C. the primary motor center of chills is stimulated by “hot” signals from hypothalamus;
normal to higher ; D. in the chills decrease muscular tonus in the body;
C. in the fever epinephrine secretion and chills can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center from E.! in the chills increase muscular extension;
normal to lower ;
D.in the fever vasodilatation and sweating can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center from 69 .sc Choice the correct answer about fever:
normal to higher; A.! fever which means a body temperature above the usual range of normal;
E. the crisis or “flush” in the fever is generated by vasoconstriction; B. fever can’t be caused by pyrogens released from bacterial cell membranes;
C. fever can’t be caused by pyrogens released from degenerating tissues;
76 .sc Choice the correct answer about fever:
D. in the fever the set-point of the hypothalamic temperature-regulating center becomes decreased to low level than
A. the cold feeling in the fever can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center from normal to
normal;
lower ;
E. in the fever mechanisms for heat conservation is inhibit;
B.in the fever vasoconstriction, piloerection can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center from
normal to lower;
70 .sc Choice the correct answer about fever:
C. in the fever epinephrine secretion and chills can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center from
A! fever can be caused by pyrogens released from bacterial cell membranes ;
normal to lower;
B. . fever can’t be caused by pyrogens released from degenerating tissues;
D!. in the fever vasodilatation and sweating can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center from
C. in the fever the set-point of the hypothalamic temperature-regulating center becomes decreased to low level than
normal to lower;
normal;
E. the crisis or “flush” in the fever is generated by vasoconstriction;
D. in the fever mechanisms for heat conservation is inhibit;
77 .sc. Choice the correct answer about fever: E. the crisis or “flush” is generated by vasoconstriction;
A. the cold feeling in the fever can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center from normal to
lower ; 71 .sc Choice the correct answer about fever:
B. .in the fever vasoconstriction, piloerection can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center from A.! fever can be caused by dehydratation;
normal to lower; B fever can’t be caused by pyrogens released from bacterial cell membranes;
C!. in the fever epinephrine secretion and chills can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center C. fever can’t be caused by pyrogens released from degenerating tissues;
from normal to higher ; D. in the fever the set-point of the hypothalamic temperature-regulating center becomes decreased to low level than
D. in the fever vasodilatation and sweating can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center from normal;
normal to higher ; E. the crisis or “flush” is generated by vasoconstriction;
E. the crisis or “flush” in the fever is generated by vasoconstriction;
72 .sc Choice the correct answer about fever:
A! in the fever the set-point of the hypothalamic temperature-regulating center becomes increased to a higher level
than normal;
B fever can’t be caused by pyrogens released from bacterial cell membranes ;
C. fever can’t be caused by pyrogens released from degenerating tissues;
D. in the fever the set-point of the hypothalamic temperature-regulating center becomes decreased to low level than
normal;
E. the crisis or “flush” is generated by vasoconstriction;
85 .mc Choice the non correct answers about respiratory coefficient (RC): A! the lateral nuclei of hypothalamus serve as a feeding (hunger) center; B! the
A. RC it’s rate of CO2 realised to O2 used in oxidation; ventromedial nuclei of the hypothalamus serve as the satiety center;
B.! RC it’s rate of O2 used to CO2 realised in oxidation; C. the ventromedial nuclei of the hypothalamus serve as the feeding center;
C.! RC it’s rate of O2 realized to CO2 used in oxidation; D. the lateral nuclei of hypothalamus serve as a satiety center;
D. RC for carbohydrate is 1, fat – 0,71, protein – 0,83; E. the lateral hypothalamic feeding center don’t excite the motor drivers of the animal to search for food;
E.! RC for carbohydrates, fats, protein is 1;
87 mc Choice the not correct answers about regulation of food intake:
86 .mc Choice the correct answers about regulation of food intake: A. the lateral nuclei of hypothalamus serve as a feeding (hunger) center;
B. the ventromedial nuclei of the hypothalamus serve as the satiety center; 78 .sc. Choice the correct answer about fever:
C! the ventromedial nuclei of the hypothalamus serve as the feeding center; A. the cold feeling in the fever can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center from normal to
D! the lateral nuclei of hypothalamus serve as a satiety center; lower ;
E!the lateral hypothalamic feeding center don’t excite the motor drivers of the animal to search for food; B.in the fever vasoconstriction, piloerection can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center from
normal to lower;
88 .mc Choice the correct answers about neural centers that influence feeding: C!. in the fever epinephrine secretion and chills can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center
A!. the actual mechanics of feeding (mastication, swallowing) are controlled by centers in the brain stem; from normal to higher ;
B. the actual mechanics of feeding (mastication, swallowing) are controlled by centers in the limbic system; D. in the fever vasodilatation and sweating can be caused by change of set-point of temperature control center from
C!. amygdale and the prefrontal cortex play important roles in the control of feeding, particularly in the control of normal to higher ;
appetite; E!. the crisis or “flush” in the fever is generated by vasodilatation;
D. excitation of prefrontal cortex determines only decreasing of feeding;
E. excitation of hypocampus determine only increasing of feeding; 79.sc Choice the correct answer about regulation of food intake:
A!.the sensation of hunger is associated with objective sensation, rhythmical contractions of the stomach and
89 .mc Choice the non correct answers about neural centers that influence feeding: restlessness, that cause the person to search for an food supply;
A. the actual mechanics of feeding (mastication, swallowing) are controlled by centers in the brain stem; B. the sensation of hunger is associated just by rhythmical contractions of the stomach;
B!. the actual mechanics of feeding (mastication, swallowing) are controlled by centers in the limbic system; C. appetite is a desire for all type of food;
C. amygdale and the prefrontal cortex play important roles in the control of feeding, particularly in the control of D. satiety is a desire for all type of food;
appetite; E. satiety not depend by increasing glycogen in the tissue;
D!. excitation of prefrontal cortex determines only decreasing of feeding; 80 .sc Choice the correct answer about regulation of food intake:
E!. excitation of hypocampus determine only increasing of feeding; A. the sensation of hunger is associate just by rhythmical contractions of the stomach;
B. appetite is a desire for all type of food ;
90 .sc Choice the correct answer about factors that regulate quantity of food intake: C. satiety is a desire for all type of food;
A!. decreasing glucose in the blood determine increasing of food intake; D. satiety not depend by increasing glycogen in the tissue;
B. increasing glucose in the blood determine increasing of food intake; E! appetite is useful in helping to choose the quality of the food to be eaten ;
C. increasing amino acids concentration in the blood determines increasing of food intake;
D. decreasing amino acids concentration in the blood determines decreasing of food intake; 81 .sc Choice the correct answer about regulation of food intake:
E. increasing fatty acids concentration in the blood determines increasing of food intake; A. appetite is a desire for all type of food ;
B. satiety is a desire for all type of food;
91 .sc Choice the correct answer about factors that regulate quantity of food intake: C. satiety not depend by increasing glycogen in the tissue;
A. increasing glucose in the blood determine increasing of food intake; D. appetite don’t help person to choose the quality of the food to be eaten ;
B!. increasing glucose in the blood determine decreasing of food intake; E!. appetite is a desire for a particular type of food;
C. increasing amino acids concentration in the blood determines increasing of food intake;
D. decreasing amino acids concentration in the blood determines decreasing of food intake; 82 .sc Choice the correct answer about regulation of food intake:
A! the feeling of satiety appear by increasing glycogen in the tissue;
E. increasing fatty acids concentration in the blood determines increasing of food intake;
B. the sensation of hunger is associate just by rhythmical contractions of the stomach;
C. satiety is a desire for all type of food;
D. appetite is a desire for all type of food ;
E. satiety not depend by increasing glycogen in the tissue;
83 .sc Choice the correct answer about energy liberated from each gram of carbohydrate, fat, protein:
A.! carbohydrate 4,0 kcal, fat 9,0, protein 4,0 ;
B. carbohydrate 5,0 kcal, fat 12,0, protein 5,0;
C. carbohydrate 4,0 kcal, fat 4,0, protein 4,0 ;
D. carbohydrate 9,0 kcal, fat 9,0, protein 9,0 ;
E. carbohydrate 18,0 kcal, fat 10,0, protein 12,0;
84 .mc. Choice the correct answers about respiratory coefficient (RC):
A! RC it’s rate of CO2 realised to O2 used in oxidation;
B. RC it’s rate of O2 used to CO2 realised in oxidation;
C. RC it’s rate of O2 realized to CO2 used in oxidation;
D!. RC for carbohydrate is 1, fat – 0,71, protein – 0,83;
E. RC for carbohydrates, fats, protein is 1;
99 .sc Choice the correct answer about obesity: C. once a person to remain obese is that the energy output more than energy intake;
A. excess energy output occurs not only during the developing phase of obesity; D. in obesity installed the food intake more than to normal people;
B. obesity is installed when the energy intake equal the energy output; E!. obesity is installed when the energy intake more the energy output;

100 .sc Choice the correct answer about inanition:
A! in inanition death ensues when the proteins of the body have been depleted to one half their normal level;
B. in severe inanition only source of energy remain carbohydrates;
C. major effects of inanition can’t be progressive depletion of fats and proteins;
D. during early phase of starvation the rate of gluconeogenesis increase to one third to one fifth ;
E. during early phase of starvation the rate of depletion of protein becomes greatly increase;
101 .sc Choice the correct answer about inanition:
A!. in severe inanition only source of energy remain proteins;
B. in inanition death ensues when the lipids of the body have been depleted to one half their normal level;
C. major effects of inanition can’t be progressive depletion of fats and proteins;
D. during early phase of starvation the rate of gluconeogenesis increase to one third to one fifth;
E. during early phase of starvation the rate of depletion of protein becomes greatly increase;
102 .sc Choice the correct answer about inanition:
A. in severe inanition only source of energy remain carbohydrate;
B. in inanition death ensues when the lipids of the body have been depleted to one half their normal level; C!.
major effects of inanition are progressive depletion of fats and proteins;
D. during early phase of starvation the rate of gluconeogenesis increase to one third to one fifth;
E. during early phase of starvation the rate of depletion of protein becomes greatly increase;
103 .sc Choice the correct answer about inanition:
A. in severe inanition only source of energy remain carbohydrate;
B. in inanition death ensues when the lipids of the body have been depleted to one half their normal level;
C. major effects of inanition can’t be progressive depletion of fats and proteins;
D!. during early phase of starvation the rate of gluconeogenesis decrease to one third to one fifth;
E. during early phase of starvation the rate of depletion of protein becomes greatly increase;
104 .sc Choice the correct answer about inanition:
A. in severe inanition only source of energy remain carbohydrate;
B. in inanition death ensues when the lipids of the body have been depleted to one half their normal level;
C. major effects of inanition can’t be progressive depletion of fats and proteins;
D. during early phase of starvation the rate of gluconeogenesis increase to one third to one fifth; E!.
during early phase of starvation the rate of depletion of protein becomes greatly decrease;
105 .sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of vitamin A: A!.
vitamin A occurs in animal tissues as retinol;
B. vitamin A excess cause scariness of the skin and acne;
C. the visual pigments formation not needs vitamin A;
D. in the vitamin A excess the epithelial structures of the body tend to become stratified and keratinized;
E. vitamin A is not necessary for normal growth and proliferation of the body ;
112 .sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of vitamin B:
A. the thiamine excess can cause degeneration of myelin sheaths of nerve fibres in the peripheral nerves and in
the SNC;
B. the riboflavin excess can cause severe dermatitis, digestive disturbances, cracking at the corners of the
mouth; C!. the thiamine deficiency cause arteriolar vasodilatation, peripheral edema and ascites;
D. cobolamin (B12) excess cause pernicious anemia;
92 .sc Choice the correct answer about factors that regulate quantity of food intake:
A. increasing glucose in the blood determine increasing of food intake;
B. decreasing glucose in the blood determine decreasing of food intake;
C!. increasing amino acids concentration in the blood determines decreasing of food intake;
D. decreasing amino acids concentration in the blood determines decreasing of food intake;
E. increasing fatty acids concentration in the blood determines increasing of food intake;
93.sc Choice the correct answer about factors that regulate quantity of food intake:
A. increasing glucose in the blood determine increasing of food intake;
B. decreasing glucose in the blood determine decreasing of food intake;
C. increasing amino acids concentration in the blood determines increasing of food intake; D!
decreasing amino acids concentration in the blood determines increasing of food intake;
E. increasing fatty acids concentration in the blood determines increasing of food intake;
94 .sc Choice the correct answer about factors that regulate quantity of food intake:
A. increasing glucose in the blood determine increasing of food intake;
B. decreasing glucose in the blood determine decreasing of food intake;
C. increasing amino acids concentration in the blood determines increasing of food intake;
D. decreasing amino acids concentration in the blood determines decreasing of food intake;
E!. increasing fatty acids concentration in the blood determines decreasing of food intake for long time;
95 .sc Choice the correct answer about obesity:
A!. obesity results from greater energy intake than energy expenditure;
B. excess energy output occurs not only during the developing phase of obesity;
C. once a person to remain obese is that the energy output more than energy intake;
D. obesity is installed when the energy intake equal the energy output;
E. in obesity installed the food intake is more than to normal people;
96 .sc Choice the correct answer about obesity:
A. obesity results from less energy intake than energy expenditure;
B. excess energy output occurs not only during the developing phase of obesity;
C. once a person to remain obese is that the energy output more than energy intake;
D. obesity is installed when the energy intake equal the energy output; E! . in
obesity installed the food intake equal than to normal people;
97 .sc Choice the correct answer about obesity:
A. excess energy output occurs not only during the developing phase of obesity;
B. once a person to remain obese is that the energy output more than energy intake;
C. obesity is installed when the energy intake equal the energy output;
D. in obesity installed the food intake more than to normal people;
E! obesity can’t results from less energy intake than energy expenditure;
98 .sc Choice the correct answer about obesity:
A. excess energy output occurs not only during the developing phase of obesity;
B. once a person to remain obese is that the energy output more than energy intake;
C. obesity is installed when the energy intake equal the energy output;
D. in obesity installed the food intake more than to normal people;
E! excess energy output occurs only during the developing phase of obesity;
E. cobolamin can`t be coenzyme for reducing ribonucleotides to deoxyribonucleotides, a step that is necessary in the
replication of genes;
113 .sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of vitamin B:
A. the thiamine excess can cause degeneration of myelin sheaths of nerve fibres in the peripheral nerves and in the
SNC;
B. the riboflavin excess can cause severe dermatitis, digestive disturbances, cracking at the corners of the mouth;
C. the thiamine excess cause arteriolar vasodilatation, peripheral edema and
ascites; D!. cobolamin (B12) deficiency cause pernicious anemia;
E. cobolamin can`t be coenzyme for reducing ribonucleotides to deoxyribonucleotides, a step that is necessary in
the replication of genes;
114 .sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of vitamin B:
A. the thiamine excess can cause degeneration of myelin sheaths of nerve fibres in the peripheral nerves and in
the SNC;
B. the riboflavin excess can cause severe dermatitis, digestive disturbances, cracking at the corners of the mouth;
C. the thiamine excess cause arteriolar vasodilatation, peripheral edema and ascites;
D. cobolamin (B12) excess cause pernicious anemia;
E!.cobolamin is coenzyme for reducing ribonucleotides to deoxyribonucleotides, a step that is necessary in the
replication of genes;
115 .sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of ascorbinic acid (vitamin C) and colecalcipherol ( vitamin
D): A!. ascorbic acid (vitamin C) is essential for activating the enzyme prolyl hydroxylase, which promotes the
constitutiation of collagen;
B. excess of vitamin C for 20 to 30 weeks cause scurvy;
C. vitamin D deficiency the blood vessels walls become extremely fragile;
D. vitamin C promote active transport of calcium through the epithelium of the ileum;
E. vitamin D deficiency can be prevented by the food intake rich in vitamin D;
116 .sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of ascorbinic acid (vitamin C) and colecalcipherol ( vitamin
D):
A. activation of enzyme prolyl hydroxylase, which promotes the constitutiation of collagen, don’t need vitamin C
participation;
B!. deficiency of vitamin C for 20 to 30 weeks cause scurvy;
C. vitamin D deficiency the blood vessels walls become extremely fragile;
D. vitamin C promote active transport of calcium through the epithelium of the ileum;
E. vitamin D deficiency can be prevented by the food intake rich in vitamin D;
117 .sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of ascorbinic acid (vitamin C) and colecalcipherol ( vitamin
D):
A. activation of enzyme prolyl hydroxylase, which promotes the constitutiation of collagen, don’t need vitamin
C participation;
B. excess of vitamin C for 20 to 30 weeks cause scurvy;
C!. vitamin C deficiency the blood vessels walls become extremely fragile;
D. vitamin C promote active transport of calcium through the epithelium of the ileum;
E. vitamin D deficiency can be prevented by the food intake rich in vitamin D;
106 .sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of vitamin A:
A. vitamin A occurs in animal tissues as carotene;
B!. vitamin A deficiency cause scariness of the skin and acne;
C. the visual pigments formation not needs vitamin A;
D. in the vitamin A excess the epithelial structures of the body tend to become stratified and keratinized;
E. vitamin A is not necessary for normal growth and proliferation of the body ;
107 .sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of vitamin A:
A. vitamin A occurs in animal tissues as carotene;
B. vitamin A excess cause scariness of the skin and
acne; C! the visual pigment formation need vitamin A;
D. in the vitamin A excess the epithelial structures of the body tend to become stratified and keratinized;
E. vitamin A is not necessary for normal growth and proliferation of the body ;
108.sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of vitamin A:
A. vitamin A occurs in animal tissues as carotene;
B. vitamin A excess cause scariness of the skin and acne;
C. the visual pigment formation not need vitamin A;
D! in the vitamin A deficiency the epithelial structures of the body tend to become stratified and keratinized;
E. vitamin A is not necessary for normal growth and proliferation of the body;
109 .sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of vitamin A:
A. vitamin A occurs in animal tissues as carotene;
B. vitamin A excess cause scariness of the skin and acne;
C. the visual pigment formation not needs vitamin A;
D. in the vitamin A excess the epithelial structures of the body tend to become stratified and keratinized;
E! vitamin A is necessary for normal growth and proliferation of the body ;
110 .sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of vitamin B:
A!. the thiamine deficiency can cause degeneration of myelin sheaths of nerve fibres in the peripheral nerves and in
the SNC;
B. the riboflavin excess can cause severe dermatitis, digestive disturbances, cracking at the corners of the mouth;
C. the thiamine excess cause arteriolar vasodilatation, peripheral edema and ascites;
D. cobolamin (B12) excess cause pernicious anemia;
E. cobolamin can`t be coenzyme for reducing ribonucleotides to deoxyribonucleotides, a step that is necessary in
the replication of genes;
111 .sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of vitamin B:
A. the thiamine excess can cause degeneration of myelin sheaths of nerve fibres in the peripheral nerves and in the
SNC;
B!. the riboflavin deficiency can cause severe dermatitis, digestive disturbances, cracking at the corners of the mouth;
C. the thiamine excess cause arteriolar vasodilatation, peripheral edema and ascites;
D. cobolamin (B12) excess cause pernicious anemia;
E. cobolamin can`t be coenzyme for reducing ribonucleotides to deoxyribonucleotides, a step that is necessary in
the replication of genes;
118 .sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of ascorbinic acid (vitamin C) and colecalcipherol ( vitamin D):
A. activation of enzyme prolyl hydroxylase, which promotes the constitutiation of collagen, don’t need vitamin
C participation;
B. excess of vitamin C for 20 to 30 weeks cause scurvy;
C. vitamin D deficiency the blood vessels walls become extremely fragile;
D!. vitamin D promote active transport of calcium through the epithelium of the ileum;
E. vitamin D deficiency can be prevented by the food intake rich in vitamin D;

119 .sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of ascorbinic acid (vitamin C) and colecalcipherol ( vitamin D):
A. activation of enzyme prolyl hydroxylase, which promotes the constitutiation of collagen, don’t need vitamin
C participation;
B. excess of vitamin C for 20 to 30 weeks cause scurvy;
C. vitamin D deficiency the blood vessels walls become extremely fragile;
D. vitamin C promote active transport of calcium through the epithelium of the
ileum; E!. vitamin D deficiency can’t be prevented by the food intake rich in vitamin
D;

120 .sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of vitamin E and vitamin
K: A! vitamin E is called the “antisterility vitamin;”
B. vitamin K deficiency cause the decreasing of unsaturated fatty acids in the cell;
C. vitamin K excess cause abnormal structure and function of mitochondria, lysosomes and cell membrane;
D. vitamin E is necessary for formation by the liver of prothrombin, VII, IX and X factors of coagulation;
E. bacteria of the colon distraction by administration of large quantities of antibiotic cause vitamin E deficiency;

121 .sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of vitamin E and vitamin K:
A. vitamin K is called the “antisterility vitamin;”
B!. vitamin E deficiency cause the decreasing of unsaturated fatty acids in the cell;
C. vitamin K excess cause abnormal structure and function of mitochondria, lysosomes and cell membrane;
D. vitamin E is necessary for formation by the liver of prothrombin, VII, IX and X factors of coagulation;
E. bacteria of the colon destraction by administration of large quantities of antibiotic cause vitamin E deficiency;

122 .sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of vitamin E and vitamin K:
A. vitamin K is called the “antisterility vitamin;”
B. vitamin K deficiency cause the decreasing of unsaturated fatty acids in the cell;
C! vitamin E deficiency cause abnormal structure and function of mitochondria, lysosomes and cell membrane;
D. vitamin E is necessary for formation by the liver of prothrombin, VII, IX and X factors of coagulation;
E.bacteria of the colon distraction by administration of large quantities of antibiotic cause vitamin E deficiency;

123 .sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of vitamin E and vitamin K:
A. vitamin K is called the “antisterility vitamin;”
B. vitamin K deficiency cause the decreasing of unsaturated fatty acids in the cell;
C. vitamin K excess cause abnormal structure and function of mitochondria, lysosomes and cell
membrane; D! vitamin K is necessary for formation by the liver of prothrombin, VII, IX and X factors of
coagulation;
E. bacteria of the colon distraction by administration of large quantities of antibiotic cause vitamin E deficiency;

124 .sc Choice the correct answer about metabolism of vitamin E and vitamin K:
A. vitamin K is called the “antisterility vitamin;”
B. vitamin K deficiency cause the decreasing of unsaturated fatty acids in the cell;
C. vitamin K excess cause abnormal structure and function of mitochondria, lysosomes and cell membrane;
D. vitamin E is necessary for formation by the liver of prothrombin, VII, IX and X factors of coagulation;
E! bacteria of the colon distraction by administration of large quantities of antibiotic cause vitamin K deficiency