Post Test Page 1 of3

Diabetes

685.1 Physiology of Glucose Regulation

Post Test
These questions may be used as a pretest, or if printed out, as a "review" of the main points of
the program. If the test is taken on the computer, the responses are recorded, and when the
test is completed, a score is given along with the correct responses.
1) The primary source of energy for all living organisms is:
@ a) glucose.
o b) fat.
o c) protein.
o d) vitamins.
2) To a large extent, the regulation
o a) stomach.
of the blood glucose level depends on the:
-
o b) large intestine.
@ c) liver.
o d) kidney.
3) Which of the following is the best description of glycogen?
@ a) A storage material
o b) Another name for glucose
o c) A secretion from the pancreas
o d) A secretion from the alpha cells
4) Glycogenolysis is the metabolic conversion of:
@ a) glycogen into glucose.
o b) glucagon into glucose.
o c) glucose into glycogen.
o d) amino acids into giucose.
5) Glycogenolysis occurs when:
o a) food is eaten.
@ b) the blood glucose level drops.
o c) the blood glucose level rises.
o d) the liver cells are saturated with glycogen.
6) Receptors on cell membranes that allow glucose to enter the cells are activated by:
o a) the potassium ion.
o b) the phosphate ion.
o c) giycogen.
@ d) insulin.

r---.. 7) In the liver, insulin:

o a) promotes the stored glycogen to be converted to glucose.
o b) is converted to alpha cells.

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@ c) inhibils lhe conversion of glycogen to glucose.

o d) is converted 10 bela cells.
8) Almost all of the body's tissues and organs require insulin for glucose to be used EXCEPT:
o a) muscles.
o b) the liver.
@ c) the brain.
o d) the heart.
9) Insulin is secreted from the:
o a) alpha cells of the pancreas.
o b) beta cells of the liver.
o c) muscle cells.
@ d) bela cells of the pancreas.

10) Which of the following is NOT an effect of insulin?

o a) Prevenls fals from being used for energy
@ b) Blocks prolein synlhesis
o c) Enhances fal storage
o d) Transports amino acids inlo cells
11) Without insulin:
@ a) glucose does nol enter the cells.
o b) hypoglycemia occurs.
o c) glucose cannot enter the brain.
o d) All the above
12) Counter regulatory hormones are stimulated by:
o a) an elevated blood glucose.
o b) abnormal lipid profiles.
@ c) hypoglycemia.
o d) All the above
13) Which of the following counter-regulatory hormones is produced by the alpha cells of the
pancreas?
@ a) Glucagon
o b) Cortisol
o c) Growth hormone
o d) Epinephrine
14) Glucagon acts by:
o a) converting glucose to glycogen.
@ b) converting glycogen to glucose.
o c) stimulating the beta cells of the pancreas.
o d) stimulating the alpha cells of the pancreas.
15) Glucagon:
o a) stimulates glycogenolysis.

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o b) stimulates gluconeogenesis.
o c) raises blood glucose.
@ d) All the above

16) Which of these counter-regulatory hormones causes the most rapid rise in blood glucose?
o a) Glycogen
o b) Cortisol
o c) Growth homnone
@ d) Epinephrine

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Diabetes

685.2 Pathophysiology of Diabetes

Post Test
These questions may be used as a pretest, or if printed out, as a "review" of the main points of
the program. If the test is taken on the computer, the responses are recorded, and when the
test is completed, a score is given along with the correct responses.
1) Approximately __ of the United States population has diabetes mellitus.
o a) 2%
o b) 4%
@ c) 6%
o d) 10%
2) Of the total number of Americans with diabetes, __ have type 2.
o 10%
a)
o b) 24%
o c) 70%
@ d) 90%

3) An individual with metabolic syndrome has which of these signs and symptoms?
o a) Overweight or obesity
o b) High blood pressure
o c) Abnormal lipid levels
@ d) All of the above

4) All of the following are symptoms of type 1 diabetes EXCEPT:

o a) polyphagia, polydipsia, and polyuria.
@ b) weight gain.
o c) lack of energy.
o d) blurred vision.
5) Which of the following statements is NOT accurate about type 1 diabetes?
o a) Destruction of pancreatic beta cells is due to an autoimmune response.
o b) There is a slight genetic predisposition to type 1 diabetes.
@ c) Signs and symptoms develop gradually oVer a long period of time.
o d) A person with type 1 diabetes must use insulin.
6) Which of the following meet the criteria for a diagnosis of diabetes?
o a) A fasting plasma glucose of 126 mg/dL or higher
o b) A casual plasma glucose unrelated to meals of 200 mg/dL or higher with symptoms of diabetes
o c) A plasma giucose toierance test reading of 200 mg/dL or higher during as oral glucose tolerance test.
@ d) All of the above

" 7) The peak age for development of type 1 diabetes is:

o a) 8 to 10 years.
@ b) 12 to 14 years.

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a c) 20 to 25 years.
a d) over 50 years.
8) When the body burns fat rather than carbohydrates for energy. which of the following symptoms
may occur?
a a) Abdominal pain
a b) Nausea and vomiting
a c) Diarrhea
a d) All of the above
@ e) a and b

9) Ketoacidosis is a common complication of type 2 diabetes.

a a) True
@ b) False

10) Blurred vision in diabetes is due to:

a a) decreased osmotic pressure.
a b) use of fats rather than carbohydrates for energy.
@ c) swelling of the lens.
a d) Polydipsia.
11) Which of the following ethnic groups has the LOWEST incidence of type 2 diabetes?
a a) Native Americans
a b) African-Americans
a c) Latinos
@ d) Caucasians

12) There has been a 30% increase In the incidence of type 2 diabetes. Which age group has seen
the most dramatic rise?
a a) 20 to 30 years of age
@ b) 30 to 40 years of age
a c) 40 to 50 years of age
a d) Over 50 years of age
13) Type 2 diabetes can be caused by:
a a) decreased insulin production by the beta cells of the pancreas.
a b) destruction of the alpha cells of the pancreas.
a c) insulin resistance by the body's tissues.
@ d) a and c
a e) band c
14) Symptoms of metabolic syndrome include:
a a) being overweight or obese, especially around the hips and thighs.
a b) high blood pressure.
a c) high triglycerides.
a d) clotting disorders.
@ e) b, c, and d

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15) People with metabolic syndrome are at high risk for developing:
o a) diabetes.
o b) cardiac disease.
o c) multiple sclerosis.
@ d) a and b
o e) All of the above
16) Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state usually occurs with:
o a) type 1 diabetes.
@ b) type 2 diabetes.
o c) both types of diabetes.
17) If a person has an abnormally high level of plasma glucose, but that level is below that indicating
diabetes, he or she may be diagnosed has having:
o a) metabolic syndrome.
o b) hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state.
o c) ketoacidosis.
@ d) prediabetes.

18) Complications of diabetes include:

o a) increased risk of heart disease or stroke.
o b) retinopathy.
o c) nephropathy.
o d) neuropathy.
@ e) All of the above

19) A common problem in women with type 2 diabetes is:

@ a) yeast infection.
o b) ovarian polyps.
o c) pelvic inflammatory disease.
o d) Endometriosis.
o e) All of the above
20) Prediabetes may develop into:
o a) type 1 diabetes.
@ b) type 2 diabetes.
o c) either type of diabetes.
o d) neither type of diabetes.
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Diabetes

685.3 Nutrition Therapy, Exercise, and Sick Day

Management
Post Test
These questions may be used as a pretest, or if printed out, as a "review" of the main points of
the program. If the test is taken on the computer, the responses are recorded, and when the
test is completed, a score is given along with the correct responses.
1) The goals of medical nutrition therapy for people with type 1 and type 2 diabetes are to:
a a) keep blood glucose levels as close to normal as possible.
a b) preventor reduce the risk of diabetic complications.
a c) achieve a lipid and lipoprotein level that reducesthe risk of cardiovasculardisease.
@ d) All the above

2) Healthy eating and regular exercise can usually prevent all of the following EXCEPT:
@ a) type 1 diabetes.
a b) metabolicsyndrome.
a c) type 2 diabetes.
a d) hypoglycemia.
3) The body's primary energy source is:
@ a) carbohydrate.
a b) protein.
a c) fiber.
a d) fat.
4) Carbohydrates should comprise approximately what percentage of the daily diet for a person with
diabetes?
a a) 20% t030%
a b) 30% to 45%
@ c) 45% to 55%
a d) 50% to 70%
5) Which of the following foods is NOT a source of carbohydrate?
a a) Milk
@ b) Steak
a c) Cereal
a d) Fruit
6) Which of the following foods has the highest glycemic index?
a a) Eggs
@ b) Potatoes
a c) Milk
a d) Asparagus
7) What percentages of people with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes are overweight or obese?

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o a) 20% to 30%
o b) 40% to 50%
o c) 60% to 70%
@ d) 80% to 90%

8) All of the following are accurate statements about protein EXCEPT:

o a) protein is needed for tissue growth and repair.
o b) protein can be used as a secondary energy source.
@ c) protein is primarily responsible for raising the blood glucose level after meals.
o d) protein sources include meat, eggs, and legumes.
9) Protein intake should be limited to 10% of the total daily food intake for people with:
o a) hypoglycemia.
o b) retinopathy.
@ c) nephropathy.
o d) neuropathy.
10) Which of the following nutrients has been shown to help individuals with type 2 diabetes lower
blood glucose and blood fat levels?
o a) Protein
@ b) Fiber
o c) Carbohydrate
o d) Vitamins
11) The preferred method for diabetes meal planning is to:
o a) use food exchanges.
o b) keep a food diary.
o c) count calories.
@ d) count carbohydrates.

12) Exercise that involves major muscle groups and requires oxygen for muscular effort is referred
to as:
o a) strenuous exercise.
@ b) aerobic exercise.
o c) regular exercise.
o d) anaerobic exercise.
13) All of the following statements are accurate regarding exercise and hypoglycemia EXCEPT:
@ a) exercise causes blood glucose levels to rise.
o b) hypoglycemia symptoms can sometimes occur hours after exercise.
o c) exercise increases insulin sensitivity.
o d) individuals who use insulin or drugs that stimulate insulin secretion are at risk for exercise- related
hypoglycemia.

14) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate strategy to prevent and/or treat exercise-induced
hypoglycemia?
@ a) Begin exercise if blood glucose is 80 mg/dL.
o b) Have a carbohydrate snack if the exercise session is over an hour.

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a c) Monitor blood glucose before and during exercise.

a d) Check blood glucose after exercise
15) Which of these statements regarding illness in people with diabetes is NOT accurate?
@ a) There is a decrease in the secretion of counter-regulatory hormones.
a b) The body begins to break down fats for energy.
a c) Insulin resistance is increased.
a d) Muscle uptake of glucose is inhibited.
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Diabetes

685.4 Insulin and Oral Antidiabetic Agents

Post Test
These questions may be used as a pretest, or if printed out, as a "review" of the main points of
the program. If the test is taken on the computer, the responses are recorded, and when the
test is completed, a score is given along with the correct responses.
1) What percentage of those with diabetes need insulin injections, oral antidialietic medications, or
both, to control blood glucose levels?
a a) 25%
a b) 50%
a c) 65%
@ d) 75%

2) Persons with type 1 diabetes need exogenous insulin because they:

@ a) have complete or almost complete absence of endogenous insulin production by the beta cells.
a b) are usually overweight or obese.
a c) often have allergic reactions to oral anti-diabetic agents.
a d) have higher than nonmal amounts of counter-regulatory hormones.

3) Which of the following individuals may need insulin therapy?

a a) Those with type 2 diabetes whose oral antidiabetic therapy doesn't adequately control blood glucose levels
a b) Pregnant women with gestational diabetes
a c) Individuals with secondary diabetes
@ d) All of the above

4) Insulin lispro and insulin aspart are NOT:

a a) rapid-acting.
a b) given Immediately before or after meals.
@ c) long-acting.
a d) synthetic.
5) All of the following are true statements about insulin preparations EXCEPT:
@ a) intermediate-acting insulin has an onset of action of 15 to 30 minutes.
a b) insulin is supplied in U-50, U-100, and U-500 concentration.
a c) human insulin is the preferred insulin source.
a d) clear insulin that appears cloudy should not be used.
6) All of the following statements regarding insulin are true EXCEPT:
a a) regular insulin has an R on the label.
a b) regular insulin can be given IV.
@ c) insulin is usually injected sub Q at a 45 degree angle.
a d) two nurses need to check the insulin dosage.
7) Which insulin preparation provides basal insulin coverage over a 24-hour period?
a a) Ultralente

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@ b) Insulin glargine
o c) NPH
'" 0 d) Insulin aspart
8) The MOST serious side effect of the sulfynourea oral antidiabetic agents is:
@ a) hypoglycemia.
o b) gastrointestinal distress.
o c) liver damage.
o d) weight gain.
9) Which of these types of insulin can be given intravenously?
o a) Insulin aspart
@ b) Regular insulin
o c) NPH
o d) Insulin glargine
10) All of the following statements are true of oral antidiabetic therapy EXCEPT:
o a) oral agents can be used as single therapy, in combination with each other, or with insulin.
o b) some oral agents can be used to treat diabetes in persons who can produce some endogenous insulin.
@ c) oral agents cannot be used with insulin.
o d) the sulfonylureas were the first oral agents developed.
11) Which of the following oral antidiabetic agents is NOT associated with hypoglycemia?
@ a) metformin
o b) glyburide
o c) glipizide
o d) repaglinide
12) Which oral antidiabetic agent acts in the small intestine?
o a) metformin
o b) nateglinide
@ c) miglitol
o d) glyburide
13) Oral antidiabetic drugs interrupt pathologic processes in type 2 diabetes in all of the following
ways EXCEPT by:
o a) increasing insulin production in the pancreas.
@ b) increasing glycogen production in the pancreas.
o c) decreasing insulin resistance at the tissue level.
o d) inhibiting glucose production by the liver.
14) Which of these drugs is most likely to cause hypoglycemia?
@ a) sulfonylureas
o b) thiazolidinediones
o c) biguanides
o d) alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

Match each drug category with its primary action.

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15) alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

r--- 0 a) stimulates insulin production from pancreas
@ b) inhibits carbohydrate absorption from the intestine
o c) decreases insulin resistance at the tissue level
o d) inhibits glucose production by the liver
16) amino acid derivatives
@ a) stimulates insulin production from pancreas
o b) inhibits carbohydrate absorption from the intestine
o c) decreases insulin resistance at the tissue level
o d) inhibits glucose production by the liver

17) sulfonylureas
@ a) stimulates insulin production from pancreas
o b) inhibits carbohydrate absorption from the intestine
o c) decreases insulin resistance at the tissue level
o d) inhibits glucose production by the liver
18) thiazolidinediones
o a) stimulates insulin production from pancreas
o b) inhibits carbohydrate absorption from the intestine
@ c) decreases insulin resistance at the tissue level
o d) inhibits glucose production by the liver
19) biguanidess
o a) stimulates insulin production from pancreas
o b) inhibits carbohydrate absorption from the intestine
o c) decreases insulin resistance at the tissue level
@ d) inhibits glucose production by the liver

20) If a person needed to mix two different types of insulin, which should he or she draw up first?
@ a) Regular
o b) Intermediate-acting
o c) NPH lente
o d) Ultra lente
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Diabetes

685.5 Hypoglecemia, Hyperglycemia, And Monitoring

Post Test
These questions may be used as a pretest, or if printed out, as a "review" of the main points of
the program. If the test is taken on the computer, the responses are recorded, and when the
test is completed, a score is given along with the correct responses.
1) The risk of hypoglycemia:
o a) is negligible for people with type 2 diabetes.
@ b) has increased lately due to an emphasis on strict blood glucose control.
o c) is less of a problem than in prior years due to intensive insulin therapy.
o d) only affects those who use insulin.
2) All of the following are symptoms of neuroglycopenia EXCEPT:
@ a) sweating.
o b) mental confusion and disorientation.
o c) irrational or unusual behavior.
o d) lack of concentration.
3) Autonomic symptoms of hypoglycemia are caused by the effect of:
o a) glucagon.
@ b) epinephrine.
o c) glycogen.
o d) glucose.
4) Prolonged strenuous exercise is a common cause of which diabetes complication?
o a) Diabetic ketoacidosis
o b) Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state
o c) Hyperglycemia
@ d) Hypoglycemia

Match each symptom with its cause.

5) Uncoordination
o a) hypoglycemia
@ b) neuroglycopenia

6) Profuse sweating
@ a) hypoglycemia
o b) neuroglycopenia
7) Drowsiness
o a) hypoglycemia
@ b) neuroglycopenia

8) Fast pulse and respiratory rate

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@ a) hypoglycemia
o b) neuroglycopenia
9) Slurred speech
o a) hypoglycemia
@ b) neuroglycopenia

10) Trembling or shaking

@ a) hypoglycemia
o b) neuroglycopenia
11) Difficulty concentrating
o a) hypoglycemia
@ b) neuroglycopenia

12) Dizziness
o a) hypoglycemia
@ b) neuroglycopenia

13) Prolonged hyperglycemia from uncontrolled diabetes can lead to which of these acute metabolic
crises?
@ a) Ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state
o b) Diabetic retinopathy and hypertension
o c) Cerebral vascular accident and severe dehydration
o d) Diabetic neuropathy and acute dehydration
14) A characteristic respiratory symptom seen in diabetic ketoacidosis is:
o a) shallow breaths.
@ b) deep, rapid respirations.
o c) wheezes and rales.
o d) stridor.
15) Kussmal respirations are a physiologic response to:
o a) alkalosis.
o b) dehydration.
@ c) acidosis.
o d) hypoglycemia.
16) Which of the following features is NOT usually present in hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state
(HHS)?
o a) Severe hyperglycemia
o b) Neurologic symptoms
@ c) Ketosis
o d) Profound dehydration
17) HHS is a life-threatening emergency with a high mortality rate, Which of the following patients is
" at greatest risk?
o a) A middle aged person with type 1 diabetes
o b) A young person with type 2 diabetes

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o c) A woman with gestational diabetes

@ d) An elderly person with type 2 diabetes

18) Which of the following signs and symptoms characterize HHS?

o a) Moderate hyperglycemia, ketosis, dehydration
o b) Kussmaul's breathing, dehydration, ketonuria
o c) Hyperglycemia, ketosis, osmotic diuresis
@ d) Severe hyperglycemia, profound dehydration

19) The sudden onset of confusion associated with HHS may mimic which of the following
conditions?
o a) Diabetic ketoacidosis
o b) Alzheimer's disease
@ c) Cerebral vascuiar accident
o d) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
20) The mortality rate for HHS is approximately:
o 5%a)
o b) 10%
@ 15%
c)
o d) 20%
21) Blood glucose levels in HHS are often very high because:
o a) most individuals with HHS are elderly and consume more fiuids than recommended.
@ b) there is prolonged osmotic diuresis with resulting dehydration.
o c) an osmotic diuresis prevents fluid and electrolyte loss.
o d) individuais seek care as soon as symptoms occur.
22) The reason the outcome of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is frequently less dire than that of HHS is
that:
@ a) a person with DKA frequently receives more timely medical help due to gastrointestinal symptoms.
o b) DKA generally occurs among older adults who are more likely to take better care of themselves.
o c) people with HHS have some insulin reserves that tend to blunt symptoms.
o d) those with DKA are not likely to lose consciousness.
23) All of the following patients should regularly monitor for the presence of urine ketones EXCEPT:
o a) a pregnant woman with pre-existing diabetes.
o b) a person with type 1 diabetes.
o c) a pregnant woman with gestational diabetes
@ d) a person with type 2 diabetes

24) The American Diabetes Association (ADA) recommends that the A1C hemoglobin goal for
persons with diabetes is:
o a) less than 4%.
o b) between 4% and 6%.
@ c) less than 7%.
o d) between 7% and 10%.

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25) The American College of Endocrinology recommends that the H1C be:
@ a) below 6.5%.
o b) above 7%.
o c) below 4%.
o d) the same as the ADA's recommendation.
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Diabetes

685.6 Neuropathy, Nephropathy, and Retinopathy

Post Test
These questions may be used as a pretest, or if printed out, as a "review" of the main points of
the program. If the test is taken on the computer, the responses are recorded, and when the
test is completed, a score is given along with the correct responses.
1) Which of the following statements best describes neuropathy, nephropathy and retinopathy?
o a) They are an inevitableconsequenceof diabetes and ultimatelylead to extreme disability.
o b) They affect everyonewith type 1 diabetes.
o c) They affect everyonewith type 2 diabetes.
@ d) Measuressuch as tight control of blood glucose can reduce occurrenceand severity.

2) The most common chronic complication of diabetes is:

o a) retinopathy.
o b) diabetic ketoacidosis.
@ c) neuropathy.
o d) nephropathy.
3) Approximately what percentage of individuals with type 1 and type 2 diabetes develop
neuropathy?
o a) 10% to 20%
o b) 35% to 40%
@ c) 50% t070%
o d) 75% to 85%
4) Symptoms of peripheral neuropathy include:
o a) numbnessand tingling.
o b) pain.
o c) burning sensations.
@ d) All the above

5) The most important strategy to prevent peripheral neuropathy is:

o a) physicaltherapy.
o b) anti-inflammatorydrugs.
@ c) strict control of blood glucose levels.
o d) muscle relaxants.
6) Approximately what percentage of people with diabetes develop cardiovascular autonomic
neuropathy?
o a) 10%
o b) 25%
@ c) 40%
r--... 0 d) 70%

7) Which of the following actions should be avoided by a person with a fixed heart rate due to

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cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy?

a a) Sudden changes in activity or position
I" a b) Straining
a c) Exercising in temperature extremes
@ d) All the above

8) Hypoglycemia unawareness is caused by damage to the nerves that innervate the:

a a) peripheral nervous system.
a b) cardiovascular system.
a c) central nervous system.
@ d) adrenal glands.

9) Which of the following are symptoms of bladder dysfunction in a person with diabetic
neuropathy?
a a) Decreased urinary frequency
a b) Incomplete or difficult bladder emptying
a c) Frequent urinary tract infections due to urinary retention
@ d) All the above

10) The most serious consequence of genitourinary autonomic neuropathy is:

@ a) ascending urinary tract infections.
a b) urinary incontinence.
a c) vaginal dryness.
a d) erectile dysfunction.
11) The leading cause of death for people with type 1 diabetes is:
a a) cardiovascular disease.
@ b) nephropathy.
a c) autonomic neuropathy.
a d) diabetic ketoacidosis.
12) The first sign of diabetic nephropathy is:
@ a) microalbuminuria.
a b) ketonuria.
a c hypertension.
a d) nausea and vomiting.
13) All of the following statements are true regarding diabetes and eye disease EXCEPT:
a a) diabetes is the leading cause of blindness in people between 20 and 74 years of age.
a b) diabetic retinopathy is the most common type of visual impairment affecting those with diabetes.
@ c) only individuals with type 1 diabetes are at risk for retinopathy and other eye conditions.
a d) diabetic retinopathy is often detectable within five years after diabetes is diagnosed.

14) Which of the following statements about diabetic retinopathy is correct?

@ a) Diabetic retinopathy can worsen during pregnancy.
a b) Diabetic retinopathy improves during pregnancy.
a c) Very few persons with diabetes develop retinopathy
a d) Proliferative retinopathy precedes non-proliferative retinopathy.

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Diabetes

685.7 Cardiovascular Disease and The Diabetic Foot

Post Test
These questions may be used as a pretest, or if printed out, as a "review" of the main points of
the program. If the test is taken on the computer, the responses are recorded, and when the
test is completed, a score is given along with the correct responses.
1) The primary cause of death for people with both type 1 and type 2 diabetes is:
o a) autonomic neuropathy.
@ b) cardiovascular disease.
o c) nephropathy.
o d) peripheral vascular disease.
2) Which of the following statements regarding atherosclerosis is accurate?
o a) Atherosclerosis occurs when the walls of blood vessels become thick, hard, and non-elastic.
@ b) Atherosclerosis produces deposits of lipids and calcium that eventually decrease blood vessel diameter.
o c) Atherosclerosis occurs late in the course of diabetes.
o d) There is no relationship between diabetes control and the development of atherosclerosis.

3) Which of the following risk factors for cardiovascular disease is NOT controllable?
o a} Smoking
o b) Diet
@ c) Genetic makeup
o d) Dyslipidemia
4) In persons with diabetes, cardiovascular disease is:
o a) more severe than in non-diabetics.
o b) often present when diabetes is diagnosed.
o c) seen at an earlier age.
@ d) All the above

5) Which type or category of medication should be used with caution in patients with diabetes?
o a) Low-dose aspirin
o b) Diuretics
o c) ACE inhibitors
@ d) Beta blockers

6) The best indicator of peripheral sensory neuropathy is:

o a) palpable pedal pulses.
@ b) inability to feel a monofilament on the feet.
o c) calluses developing over the metatarsal heads.
7) The two most effective strategies for preventing complications in the feet are to: LP'O
o a) walk daily and avoid 'breaking in" shoes. e1eo6ulsslW
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o b) wear well-filting shoes and cut toenails carefully. :wa:j.s,(sqnS

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@ c) control blood glucose and stop smoking. JOJJa lX l:ld

file ://R:\CM Diabetes\SelfGradedTests\quiz\685 _7 quiz2.htm 9/20/2010

 Post Test Page 20f2

B) Most diabetic foot ulcers:

--, a a) require parenteral antibiotics.
a b) involve joint spaces and bone.
@ c) are caused by minor, repetitive trauma.
a d) cause pain and are recognized quickly by the person.

9) All of the following areas of the feet are prone to foot ulcers EXCEPT:
a a) the plantar surfaces of the great toe and the 5th toe.
@ b) the dorsal surface of the 1st and 5th toes.
a c) the 1st and 5th plantar metatarsal heads.
a d) the heel.
10) Peripheral sensory neuropathy can result in:
a a) decreased foot sensation.
a b) Charcot foot.
a c) damage to nerves that control blood flow, perspiration and skin moisture.
~) d) All the above

Match the type of injury with the appropriate risk factors

11) Foreign objects in the shoe

@ a) mechanical
a b) chemical
a c) thermal
12) Walking barefoot
@ a) mechanical
a b) chemical
a c) thermal
13) Using a heating pad
a a) mechanical
a b) chemical
@ c) thermal

14) Using a topical over-the-counter corn or callus treatment

a a) mechanical
@ b) chemical
a c) thermal
15) Wearing shoes with poor cushioning
@ a) mechanical
a b) chemical
a c) thermal
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