PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

JEE Main 2019 Mock Test-4 (Code : 100328.1)

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes s pecifically for this purpose.

Important Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is
strictly prohibited.

2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.

3. The test is of 3 hours duration.

4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having
30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.

6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruc

(one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total
score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will be
treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 6 above.

8. Use Blue / Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on Side-1 and Side-2 of the
Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall / room.

10. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room /
Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

11. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

Atomic No.: H=1, He=2, Li=3, Be=4, B=5, C=6, N=7, O=8, F=9, Na=11, Mg=12, Al = 13, Si = 14,
P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17, Ar =18, K=19, Ca=20,Cr=24, Mn=25, Fe=26, Co=27, Ni=28, Cu=29, Zn=30,
As=33, Br = 35, Ag = 47, Si = 21, Sn = 50, Ti = 22,I = 53, Xe = 54, Ba = 56, Pb = 82, U = 92, V = 50.

Atomic masses: H =1, He=4, Li=7, Be=9, B=11, C=12, N=14, O=16, F=19, Na=23, Mg=24, Al=27,
Si=28, P=31, S=32, Cl=35.5, K=39, Ca=40, Cr=52, Mn=55, Fe=56, Co=59, Ni=58.7, Cu=63.5,
Zn = 65.4, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, Sn = 118.7, I = 127, Xe = 131, Ba = 137, Pb = 207, U = 238.

Name of the Candidate (in Capital Letters) :_____________________________________

Enrolment Number :_________________________________________________________

Batch :________________________ Date of Examination : ________________________

IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 2

(Single Correct Answer Type)

This part contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. In the shown figure the linear mass density of the rod is and
dimension are shown in figure. The moment of inertia about
the dashed axis is
4 3
(A)
3
8 3
(B)
3
10 3
(C)
3
3
(D) 4

2. A screw gauge gives the following reading when used to measure the diameter of a wire.
Main scale reading : 2mm
Circular scale reading : 26 divisions
Given that 1mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions of the circular scale. The diameter of wire
from the above data is
(A) 2.026 mm (B) 2.26 mm
(C) 2.013 mm (D) 1.26 mm

3. A particle moves along an arbitrary path. If v and a are the instantaneous velocity and acceleration
vectors of the particle, then the ratio of magnitude of tangential and centripetal acceleration is
|a v| |a v|
(A) (B)
|a v| |a v|
dv / dt
(C) (D) None of these
dlv / dt

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 3

4. A thin equiconvex lens of focal length f is cut into two

symmetric plano-convex lenses, and the lenses are placed
with their curved faces towards each other, with a common
optic axis. If the refractive index of the material of the lens
is 1.45, the focal length of the combination is (assuming no
reflection at the boundaries) :
(A) f (B) f
(C) 0.9 f (D) +f/0.9

5. Two cells are connected with 2 resistance and a TG (tangent E1 = 3V E2 = 2V

galvanometer). If the deflection in TG is 30 . Then find the resistance 1 2
of the coil. Given that coil has 5 turns and radius = 0.08 and
5
BH = 5 10 T
(A) 1.5 (B) 1.8 TG
2
(C) 5.5 (D) 7.5

6. A parallel beam of light of all wavelengths greater than 3000 falls on a double slit in a Young's
double slit experiment. It is observed that the wavelengths 3600 and 6000 are absent at a
distance of 31.5 mm from the position of the central maximum, and the orders of the interference at
this point for the two wavelengths differ by 7. If the distance between the slits and the screen is 1m,
the separation between the two slits is
(A) 0.08 mm (B) 0.13 mm
(C) 0.2mm (D) 0.1mm

7. A particle A having charge q is placed at a distance d from another particle B having an equal charge
q. An dielectric slab of thickness t is placed midway between the two. Electrostatic force on A due
to B
(A) decreases
(B) increases
(C) remains constant
(D) may increase or decrease depending upon the magnitudes of the charges

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 4

8. Which one of the graphs shown in the option represents the L

variation of potential difference V across the inductor L with time

t, the key K being plugged at t = 0, in the circuit shown in
adjacent figure ? V R

( )
K

(A) (B)

V V

O t O t
(C) (D)

V V

O t O t

9. Wire segments CO and OA are straight current carrying y

conductors where ABC is a semi circular segment placed
symmetrically in x y plane form a closed loop as shown in B
the figure. The loop carries a current I. Find the magnitude C(0, a, 0)
of magnetic moment of the loop. I
2 2
a a
(A) I
2 2

a2 a2 O A(a, 0, 0) x
(B) I
4 2
(C) I a2 a2

a2
(D) I a2 .
2

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 5

10. A surface irradiated with light of wavelength 480 nm gives out electrons with maximum velocity m/s,
the cut off wavelength being 600 nm. The same surface would release electrons with maximum
velocity 2 m/s if it irradiated by light of wavelength
(A) 300 nm (B) 360 nm
(C) 384 nm (D) 400 nm

11. When two moles of monoatomic gas expands isobarically, the ratio of the increase in the internal
energy of the gas and work done in the expansion is
(A) (B) 0
(C) 3/2 (D) 2/3

12. In the LCR circuit, the voltmeter and ammeter readings are 400V 400V
(A) 200 volt, 20A (B) 200 volt, 50A V
(C) 1000 volt, 20A (D) 1000 volt, 20A
C
50 L
A 1000V, 50 Hz
~

13. A wave y1 A sin 2x 4t is superposed with a second waveform producing a standing wave
3
with a node at x = 0. In the equation of the waveform, x is in metre and t is in second. The equation of
the second waveform is
(A) y2 Asin 4t 2x /3 (B) y 2 A sin(2x 4t 5 / 3)
(C) y2 A sin(2x 4t 5 / 3) (D) y 2 Asin( 2x 4t / 3) .

14. Two identical vessels A and B contains one mole of O 2 each. The pressure in the vessel A is P 0 and
that in B is P. The root mean square velocity of the molecules in both the vessels are equal. The
vessel A is at rest whereas vessel B is moving with constant speed v 0
1 mole of O 2 at v0 1 mole of O2 at
pressure P0 pressure P

Vessel A Vessel B
Which of the following is correct?
(A) P > P0 (B) P < P0
2
Vrms v 02
(C) P = P0 (D) P = P0 2
v rms

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 6

15. In the combination of the following gates the A

output Y can be written in term in inputs A B
and B as
Y
(A) AB
(B) AB AB
(C) AB AB
(D) A B

16. The object lens of a compound microscope produces magnification of 10. In order to get an overall
magnification of 100 when image is formed at 25 cm from the eye, the focal length of the eye lens
should be
(A) 4 cm (B) 10 cm
25
(C) cm (D) 9 cm
9

17. A sphere of mass m is kept between to inclined walls, as shown in the (2)
figure, If the coefficient of friction between each wall and the sphere is B
zero then the ratio of normal reaction (N 1 / N2) offered by the walls 1 and
2 on the sphere will be : A (1)
(A) tan (B) tan 2
(C) 2 cos (D) cos 2

18. A block M slide down on a curved frictionless vertical track, starting from rest. x
2
x
the curve obeys the equation y . the tangential acceleration of block as track
2
a function of x is :
gx
(A) g (B)
y
x2 4
g gx
(C) (D)
2 x2 1

19. The net power of all the forces acting on a particle versus time curve is shown. P
Work done upon the particle from A to B: A B
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) firs increases then decreases (D) firs decreases then increases

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 7

x4 x2
20. The potential energy of a 1 kg particle free to move along the x axis is given by : V x J
4 2
The total mechanical energy of the particle is 2 J. Then, the maximum speed (in m/s) is :
3
(A) (B) 3 2
2
9
(C) (D) 2
2

21. A massive disc of radius R is moving with a constant velocity u on an v0

frictionless table, Another small disc collides with it elastically with a speed of R/2
u
v0 = 0.3 m/s, the velocities of the discs are parallel. The distance d shown in
R
the figure is equal to R/2, friction between the discs is negligible.
For which u (in m/s) will the small disc move perpendicularly to its original
motion after the collision ?
(A) 1 (B) 0.1
(C) 2 (D) 0.2

22. A rigid equilateral triangular plate ABC of slide 2m, is motion in the x y Y
plane. At the instant shown in the figure, the point B has velocity
vB 3i 8i m / s and the plate has angular velocity 2k r/s. Find the X

speed of point A. A B
(A) 5 m/s (B) 4 m/s 2m
(C) 3 m/s (D) None of these

23. In a certain oscillatory system the amplitude of motion is 5 m and the time period is 4 sec. the time
taken by the particle for passing between points, which are at distances of 4 m, and 3 m from the
centre and on the same side of it will be
(A) 0.2 sec (B) 0.51 sec
(C) 0.17 sec (D) None of these.

24. A U-tube of base length and uniform cross sectional area is filled with
two liquids of equal volume and densities & 2 respectively. It is
moving with an acceleration a on the horizontal plane. If the height
difference between the two surfaces (open to atmosphere) becomes h a
zero, then the height h is
a 3a
(A) (B)
2g 2g
a 2a
(C) (D)
g 3g

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 8

25. A non-conducting wire is bent into a semi-circle of radius R and a charge

+ +
+ Q is uniformly distributed over it as shown in the figure. Find the ratio +
+Q +
VA +
of the potential (VA) to the magnitude of the electric field (EA), A
EA + O
B EA, VA
both evaluated at the other end A of diameter AB that bisects the wire +
(as shown in the figure) +
+
(A) R (B) 2R +
++
(C) R ln (1+ 2 ) (D) 2R ln (1+ 2 )

26. A metal wire PQ slides on parallel metallic rails having separation 0.25 P
m, each having negligible resistance. There is a 2 resistor and 10 V 10 V
battery as shown in figure. There is a uniform magnetic field directed into 0.25 m
2
the plane of the paper of magnitude 0.5T. A force of 0.5 N to the left is
required to keep the slide wire PQ moving with constant speed to the
right. With what speed is the wire PQ moving? Q
(A) 14 m/s (B) 16 m/s
(C) 18 m/s (D) 20 m/s

27 If A is the areal velocity of planet of mass M, its angular momentum is

(A) M (B) 2MA
2 2
(C) A M (D) AM

28. Two seconds after projection a particle is traveling in a direction inclined at 30 to the horizontal, after
2
one more second it is traveling horizontally. (Take g = 10 m/s ), then
(A) speed of projection is 25 m/s (B) angle of projection is = 60
(C) speed after 2 sec is 10 m/s (D) maximum height reached is 10 m

29. A meteor of mass M breaks up into two parts. The mass of one part is m. For a given separation r the
mutual gravitational force between the two parts will be maximum if
(A) m = (M/2) (B) m = (M/3)
M M
(C) m = (D) m
2 2 2

30. The minimum and maximum magnitude which is possible by adding four forces of magnitudes 1N,
3N, 9N and 10N is
(A) 0 and 23 N (B) 1N and 23 N
(C) 2N and 23 N (D) 3N and 23 N

Space for rough work

IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 9

(Single Correct Answer Type)

This part contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of
which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Examine the following resonating structures of formic acid and arrange them in decreasing order of
stability :
O O O O
H C OH H C O H H C OH H C OH
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) II > I > III > IV (B) I > II > IV > III
(C) III > II > IV > I (D) IV > III > I > II

2. Molecular shapes of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are

(A) the same, with 2, 0 and 1 lone pair of electron respectively
(B) the same, with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively
(C) different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pair of electrons respectively
(D) different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pair of electrons respectively

3. 3 3 2

The reaction is faster when X is

(A) OH (B) F
O O
|| ||
(C) 3 (D) 3

4. The correct order of magnetic moments (spin only values in BM) among the following is
(A) [MnCl4 ]2 [CoCl4 ]2 [Fe(CN)6 ]4 (B) [Fe(CN)6 ]4 [CoCl4 ]2 [MnCl4 ]2
(C) [Fe(CN)6 ]4 [MnCl4 ]2 [CoCl4 ]2 (D) [MnCl4 ]2 [Fe(CN)6 ]4 [CoCl4 ]2

5. In the clathrates xenon with water, the nature of bonding between xenon and water molecule is
(A) covalent (B) hydrogen bonding
(C) coordinate (D) dipole-induced dipole interaction

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 10

6. The decreasing order of basic characters of the following:

NH 2
NH2
NH

N N
H
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) III > IV > I > II (B) II > I > IV > III
(C) IV > III > II > I (D) III > I > IV > II
12
7. Solubility product constant of a sparingly soluble salt MCl2 is 4 10
8
of MCl2 in an aqueous solution of CaCl2 is 4 10 times less compared to its solubility in pure water.
Hence, concentration (molarity) of CaCl2 solution is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

8. At STP the volume of nitrogen gas required to cover a sample of silica gel, assuming Langmuir
3 1
monolayer adsorption, is found to be 1.30 cm g of the gel. The area occupied by a nitrogen
2 23
molecule is 0.16 nm . What is the surface area per gram of silica gel ? [Given NA = 6 10 ]
2 1 2 1
(A) 3.48 m g (B) 5.568 m g
2 1
(C) 1.6 m g (D) none of these
2 1
9. Molar conductivity of a 0.05 M aqueous solution of MgCl2 is 195 S cm mol
2
electrodes that are 1.5 cm in surface area and 0.5 cm apart is filled with 0.05 M MgCl2 solution. How
much current will flow when a potential difference across the electrodes is 5.00 V.
(A) 0.15 A (B) 0.3 A
(C) 0.45 A (D) 0.60 A

10. Which of the following methods is not correct for the synthesis of benzaldehyde ?
H Pd BaSO LiAlH(OCMe )
(A) PhCOCl 2 4
(B) PhCOCl 3 3

Me
H /KMnO4 /
(C) Me 2
AlH
(D) PhCH2OH
PhC N

11. Which statement is wrong ?

(A) In polar aprotic solvents such as DMSO, DMF and DMA the nucleophilicity order is
F Cl Br I
(B) Strong bases are good leaving groups
(C) The leaving group order of the following is : OH RO CH C NH2
(D) Charged species are good leaving groups than neutral species.

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 11

12. Yellow coloured solution of FeCl3 changes to light green when

(A) SnCl2 is added (B) Zn is added
(C) H2S gas is passed (D) all true

13. In a H like species, an electron jumps from an orbital having two radial and two angular nodes to the
orbital having same sign of wave function in all direction, at any distance, if energy of the emitted
photon is 326.4 eV, the species is
+
(A) H (B) He
+2 +4
(C) Li (D) B

MnO2
(a)
14. OH jones reagent
(b)
OH
The compounds (a) and (b) respectively are

O O O O
(A) (B)

O OH OH O

OH O Both O
(C) (D)

O OH O

15. Which statement about the composition of vapour over an ideal 1 : 1 molar mixture of benzene and
toluene is correct ? Assume the temperature is constant

(A) The vapour will contain higher percentage of benzene

(B) The vapour will contain higher percentage of toluene
(C) The vapour will contain equal amount of benzene and toluene
(D) Not enough information is given to make a prediction

16. Extraction of zinc from zinc blende is achieved by

(A) electrolytic reduction
(B) roasting followed by reduction with carbon
(C) roasting followed by oxidation with another metal
(D) roasting followed by self reduction

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 12

Ph
17. O Mg/Hg
(B)
HCl
Me
The compound (B) is
O O
(A) Ph Ph (B) Ph
Ph
O O
OH OH OH OH
Ph Ph Me
(C) (D)
Me Ph Me
Me Ph

18. Silicones are

(A) Synthetic polymers containing repeated R2SiO units
(B) Silicates with common SiO4 unit.
(C) Ketones with silyl group (SiH3) similar to alkyl, (SiH3)2CO.
(D) Zircon (meso silicates).

19. Bond dissociation enthalpy of E H (E = element) bonds is given below. Which of the compounds will
act as strongest reducing agent ?
Compound NH3 PH3 AsH3 SbH3
1
Ddiss (E H)/kJ mol 389 322 297 255
(A) NH3 (B) PH3
(C) AsH3 (D) SbH3

20. The correct structure of the drug paracetamole is

(A) HO CONH 2 (B) HO NHCOCH 3

(C) Cl CONH 2 (D) Br CONH 2

21. Consider the following standard reduction potentials:

Ca2 2e Ca ; E 2.76 V
Pb2 2e Pb ; E 0.13 V
Cu2 2e Cu ; E 0.34 V
Hg22 2e Hg ; E 0.80 V
2
Pt 2e Pt ; E 1.20 V
Which of the following metals is the strongest reducing agent ?
(A) Ca (B) Pb
(C) Cu (D) Hg

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 13

22. Which of the following is true of this reaction ?

2N2O5 (g) 4NO2 (g) O2 (g), H 110 kJ
(A) Both
(B) Both
(C)
(D)

19
23. For the reaction, Ag(CN)2 Ag (2CN) , the Kc 10 . Calculate [Ag ] in solution
which was originally 0.1 M in KCN and 0.03 M in AgNO3.
14 10
(A) 7.5 10 (B) 7.5 10
18 28
(C) 7.5 10 (D) 7.5 10

24. An atomic solid crystallizes in a body centre of cubic lattice and the inner surface of the atoms at the
adjacent corner are separated by 60.3 pm. If the atomic weight of A is 48, then density of the solid, is
nearly
(A) 5.07 g/cc (B) 2.7 g/cc
(C) 3.5 g/cc (D) 1.75 g/cc

25. Which of the following is the correct order for increasing bond angle ?
(A) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 (B) H2O < OF2 < Cl2O
+ + + +
(C) H3Te < H3Se < H3S < H3O (D) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 < BI3

26. Which of the following compounds will show faster aromatic nucleophilic substitution reaction ?
F Cl

(A) (B)

NO 2 NO 2
Br I

(C) (D)

NO 2 NO 2

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 14

27. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding physisorption ?

(A) It occurs because of Vander Waals force
(B) More easily liquefiable gases are adsorbed readily
(C) Under high pressure it results into multimolecular layer on adsorbent surface
(D) Enthalpy of adsorption ( Hadsorption) is low and positive

28. Identify the correct statement

(A) Gypsum contains a lower percentage of calcium than plaster of Paris.
(B) Gypsum is obtained by heating plaster of Paris.
(C) Plaster of Paris can be obtained by hydration of gypsum.
(D) Plaster of Paris is obtained partial oxidation of gypsum.

29. Which of the following compounds show optical isomerism ?

+ + + 3+
I. cis-[Co(NH3)4Cl2] II. trans-[Co(en)2Cl2] III. cis-[Co(en)2Cl2] IV. [Co(en)3]
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) I and II (B) II and III
(C) III and IV (D) I, III and IV

30. Given that k is the rate constant for some order of a reaction at temperature T, the value of lim log k
T

(A) A/2.303 (B) A

(C) 2.303 A (D) log A : where A is pre-exponential factor

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 15

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 30 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which only ONE option is correct

x z
1. The equation of plane containing line x y = 3, z = 5 and parallel to 1 , y = 3 is
1 3
(A) 3x + y 2z = 2 (B) 3x 3y z = 4
(C) 3x + 3y + 2z = 1 (D) 3x + y + 2z = 1

1
t ln t
2. I= dt is equal to
0 1 t2
(A) ln 2 (B) 1
(C) 1 ln 2 (D) ln 2 1

4a 2b c
3. Let f(x) is ax2 + bx + c (3a + b > 0) and f(x) 0 R, then minimum value of is
3a b
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1

4. Suppose that z is a complex number that satisfies |z 2 2i| 1. Then the maximum value
of |3iz + 6| is equal to
(A) 4 (B) 5
(C) 9 (D) none of these

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 16

5. The equation of locus of foot of perpendicular drawn from (5, 6) on the family of lines
(x 2) + (y 3) = 0 (where R) is
(A) (x 1)(x 3) + (y 2) = 0 (B) (x 1)(x 2) + (y 2)(y 3) = 0
(C) (x 2)(x 5) + (y 3)(y 6) = 0 (D) (x 1) + (y 3)(x 2) = 0

6. Pair of straight lines through A(2, 7) are drawn to intersect the line x + y = 5 at C and D. If
angle between the pair of straight lines is , then the locus of incentre of ACD is
2
(A) xy 3x + 2y = 14 (B) xy 6x + 4y = 29
(C) x2 + y2 6x + 4y = 29 (D) none of these

2x 5
7. The integral dx is equal to
x 1 x 2 x 3 x 4
1 3x 4 1 x2 3x 4
(A) ln c (B) ln c
2 5x 6 2 x2 5x 6
1 x2 5x 4
(C) ln c (D) none of these
2 x2 5x 6

40 40 40 40 40 40 40
8. The value C0 C1 C2 C3 ..... C10 C11 ..... C20 is _____
39 39
(A) C10 (B) C20
40 40
(C) C10 (D) C2

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 17

x2 y2 2 2
9. The positive slope of tangent to 1 which is normal to (x + 2) + (y + 2) = 1 is
9 1
8 74 4 31
(A) (B)
10 5
7 50
(C) (D) none of these
5

n
4r 2 2
10. The value of lim 4
is
1 4r 1
n
r

(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) none of these

11. From a point on the ground, the angles of elevation of a bird flying with a constant speed in a
2 2
horizontal direction at equal intervals of time are , , and . Then cot cot is equal to
2 2 2 2
(A) 3(cot cot ) (B) 3(cot cot )
2 2 2 2
(C) cot cot (D) cot cot

12. The circle S = 0 touches the circle zz 2 3i z 2 3i z 7 0 at the point z = i on argand

plane. If S = 0 also passes through origin, equation of the circle is
(A) zz 1 2i z 1 2i z 0 (B) 8zz 2 4i z 2 4i z 0
(C) 7zz 2 4i z 2 4i z 0 (D) 8zz 2 4i z 2 4i z = 0

13. If equation of a curve passing through (1, 1) which satisfies the equation
dy ex y3
xy3 y3 x2ex + 3xy2 0 is f x , then f(1) belongs to
dx x
(A) (0, 2) (B) (2, 4)
(C) (4, 6) (D) (6, 8)

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IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 18

14. A function f: N R is defined as f(1) = t and f(n + 1) = cos(f(n)) n. lim f n is

n

(A) greater than (B) less than

4 6
1
(C) independent of t (D) is equal to
2

15. A focal chord of hyperbola 3x2 4y2 = 12 intersects the hyperbola at A, B and the hyperbola
8y2 6x2 = 12 at C and D. Number of integers in the range of |AC BD| is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) infinite

16. The mean of n items is x . If the first term is increased by 1, second by 2 and so on, then
new mean is
n
(A) x n (B) x
2
n 1
(C) x (D) none of these
2

17. Which of the following is not a tautology?

(A) (p q) (q p) (B) (p q) (p q)
(C) ~ (p q) [(~ p) q] p (D) (q p) p

10 10 11
C4 C5 Cm
11 11 12
18. If the value of C6 C7 Cm 2 is zero, then m is
12 12 13
C8 C9 Cm 4

(A) 6 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 3

Space for rough work

IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 19

19. [3(sin(cos 1) + cos(cos 1))] is equal to (where [.] is denotes the greatest integer function)
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6

3 1
20. For x , sin 1 4 1 x2 2x3 x is equal to
2 2

(A) 4 sin 1 x (B) 4sin 1 x

2
(C) 4sin 1 x (D) 4cos 1 x

a
21. ln cot a tan x dx where a 0, is
0
2
(A) a ln sin a (B) a ln (sin a)
(C) a ln cos a (D) none of these

22. If the vector OA 2i j 2k turns by a right angle about origin (O) so that it passes through
j k , then vector in new position is
3
(A) 2i j 2k (B) 2j k
5
3 i j
(C) 2i 2j k (D)
2

Space for rough work

IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 20

x 1
23. Let x > 0, then lim tan x sec x x is equal to
x 0
1
(A) (B) 1
e
1
(C) (D) 2
e2

24. Let A and B be two distinct points on the parabola y2 = 4x. If the axis of the parabola touches
a circle of radius r with AB as its diameter, then the slope of the line AB can be
1 1
(A) (B)
r r
2 3
(C) (D)
r r

x2 x2
25. If f x ; g x where x 0, , then
x sin x 1 cos x 2
(A) both f and g are increasing (B) f is increasing and g is decreasing
(C) f is decreasing and g is increasing (D) both f and g are decreasing

26. If the position vectors of points A and B with respect to origin O are a i j k and
b i j k respectively, then the projection of the vector 2a 3b 4 a b on a line
perpendicular to the plane OAB is
(A) 2 2 (B) 4 2
(C) 8 2 (D) 16 2

Space for rough work

IT 2019 JEE Main 2019 Mock Test (Code-100328.1)-PCM 21

27. Two diagonals of a regular hexagon are selected at random. The probability that these
diagonals intersect inside the hexagon is
2 5
(A) (B)
3 9
4 5
(C) (D)
9 12

x tan x
28. Number of points in [0, ], where f x is non-differentiable is/are (where [.]
sin x cos x
denotes the greatest integer function)
(A) 0 (B) 4
(C) 9 (D) none of these

29. The area (in square units) enclosed by the curve C : y x 9 x 2 (x 0) and the x-axis is
3
(A) (B) 3
2
9
(C) (D) 9
2

30.
(A) 45 (B) 46
(C) 47 (D) 48

Space for rough work