26/03/2020 CODE-B

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 2
Topics covered :
Physics : Laws of motion, Work, Energy and Power
Chemistry : Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, Chemical Bonding and Molecular
Structure, States of Matter: Gases and Liquids
Botany : Morphology of Flowering Plants, Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Zoology : Structural Organization in Animal, Biomolecules

Instructions :
(i) Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer : 3. The principle of conservation of mechanical

1. An elevator of mass 600 kg (along with
passengers) is moving upwards such that its
velocity versus time graph is as shown in the
figure. The power generated by the cable, pulling
the elevator, at time t = 1.5 s will be (g = 10 ms–2)
4.
energy may be valid even if
(1) There is no external force on the system
(2) There is external force on the system
(3) There is internal force on the system
(4) All of these
The acceleration-time graph of a block of mass
4 kg moving along x-axis is as shown in the
figure. If the initial velocity of block is 2 m/s, then
the power delivered to the block at t = 4 s will be

(1) 21.6 kW (2) 30 kW

(3) 25 kW (4) 34.2 kW
2. The work done by kinetic frictional force may be
(1) Negative (2) Positive
(1) 72 W (2) 36 W
(3) Zero (4) All of these (3) 49 W (4) 16 W

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Test-2 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

5. Variation of potential energy of a particle in space (1) 19 J (2) 4 J

is represent in the following graph. If the particle (3) 28 J (4) 40 J
is released from rest at origin, then it will starts to
move 9. Work done by internal forces on a system may be
(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) Zero
(4) All of these
10. A system consists of two identical blocks, each of
mass m connected by a massless spring of force
(1) Along negative x-axis constant k. Initially the system is in equilibrium as
(2) Along positive x-axis shown in the figure. The further compression that
must be provided to the spring such that the
(3) The particle will stay at origin lower block just lifts off the ground is
(4) Either (2) or (3)
6. A mass of 200 kg is suspended by two ropes
from points A and B on the roof and a wall as
shown in the figure. The tension in rope OA is

mg
(1)
k
3mg
(2)
(1) 400 kg-wt (2) 200 kg-wt k
(3) 100 kg-wt (4) Zero 4mg
(3)
7. A man of mass m is inside a box of same mass. k
The whole system is suspended with ideal strings
and pulleys as shown in the figure. The tension
2mg
(4)
T1 in the string so as to keep the system in k
equilibrium is 11. A small block of mass m is pushed up on a rough
hill of coefficient of friction  , using a tangential
force as shown in the figure. The work done by
the frictional force on the block till it reach top of
hill from the base will be

(1) mg (2) 2 mg
mg mg
(3) (4)
4 2
8. In a famous street sport called ‘Pithu’ one has to
throw a ball towards a pile of stones and make
the pile fall. Ramu throws the ball of mass 200 g (1) mgl
such that it hits the pile with a speed 20 m/s, In
the impact 20% of the energy of ball is lost in (2) mgl
form of sound while 10% of the energy leads to (3) mgl
chipping and breaking of stones. If the ball comes
to rest after impact, then, the kinetic energy with mgl
which the stones fly-off is (4)
2
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-B)

12. Two block A and B of mass 2m and m 17. A bullet, moving horizontally with speed u, strikes
respectively are suspended with help of string a vertically suspended bob of same mass and
and a spring as shown in the figure. The emerges with 80% of initial speed. The maximum
magnitude of acceleration of B, immediately after height attained by the bob is 20 m, then u is
cutting the string is equal to (Assume there is no loss of mass)
(1) 80 m/s (2) 100 m/s
(3) 140 m/s (4) 60 m/s
18. A uniform rope of mass m and length l is placed
on a smooth table such that one-fourth of its
length hangs down. The rope begins to slide
down. The speed of the chain when it completely
slips of the table is
3gl 15gl
(1) (2)
8 16
(1) g (2) 3g
gl
g (3) 15gl (4)
(3) (4) 2 g 15
3
19. The velocity-position graph for a particle of mass
13. A spring of force constant 200 N/m is cut into
2 kg is as shown in the figure. The power
three parts of lengths in ratio 1 : 2 : 3. The
delivered to the particle at x = 2 m will be
smallest spring is further cut into two parts of
equal length. The force constant of the shortest
spring formed will be
(1) 400 N/m (2) 1200 N/m
(3) 600 N/m (4) 2400 N/m
14. A small ball of mass m is attached at one end of
a light rod of length l which is hinged at its centre.
The system is suspended in equilibrium such that (1) – 4W (2) –14 W
the rod is vertical. The bob would complete
vertical circular motion if the horizontal speed (3) 10 W (4) –8 W
imparted to the bob is 20. A particle moves from x = 0 to x = 5 m, under the
influence of a force F (in N) given by
(1) 4gl (2) 5gl F = 3x2 – 2x + 7.
(3) 3gl (4) All of these The work done by this force is
15. A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that (1) 121 J (2) 135 J
delivers a constant power P. If the particle starts (3) 99 J (4) 105 J
from rest, then its velocity as a function of time is 21. Two blocks A and B of masses 2 kg and 1 kg
 2p   2p  3/2 respectively are interconnected by a pulley string
(1)   t (2)   t system as shown in the figure. The system is
 3m   3m  released from rest and after the 1 kg block had
descended through 1 m, it attains a speed 0.4
 2p  2pt m/s. The coefficient of friction between block A
(3)   t (4)
 m m and the table is

16. A small block of mass m is suspended with the

help of a spring from ceiling of an elevator which
is accelerating downwards with acceleration a.
The block is in equilibrium with respect to the
elevator. The work done by the spring, as
observed by a man in the elevator, on the block
in time t will be
1 1
(1) m(g  a) at 2 (2) m(g  a) at 2
2 2 (1) 0.232 (2) 0.461
2 2
(3) mg t (4) Zero (3) 0.48 (4) 0.1

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Test-2 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

22. The potential energy function of a particle in a 27. Consider the following two statements
region in space is given as U = (2xy + 3xz) J
(a) A body may have momentum without energy.
Here x, y and z are in metre. The force acting on
(b) A body may have energy without momentum
the particles at (1 m, 1 m, 2 m) is
The correct statements, among the following are
(1) 8iˆ  3 ˆj  2kˆ (2) 8iˆ  2 ˆj  3kˆ
(1) (a) only (2) (b) only
(3) 8iˆ  3 jˆ  2kˆ (4) 8iˆ  2 jˆ  3kˆ (3) Both (a) and (b) (4) Neither (a) nor (b)
23. It is observed that on applying a force the kinetic 28. A block of mass m is released from rest at point
energy of a body is increasing continuously. Then A. The compression of spring when the speed of
it can be concluded that block is maximum, is
(1) The resultant force is parallel to the velocity
at all instants
(2) The angle between resultant force and
velocity is acute
(3) The resultant force is antiparallel to the
velocity at all instants
(4) The angle between resultant force and
velocity is obtuse
24. Starting from rest, a body slides down a 45°
mg sin() 2mg sin()
(1) (2)
inclined plane in twice the time it takes to slide k k
down the plane of same angle and equal distance mg cos() mg
in absence of friction. The coefficient of friction (3) (4)
between the body and the inclined plane is
k k
(1) 0.33 (2) 0.75 29. Two springs have their force constant as k1 and
k2 (k1 > k2). When they are stretched by the same
(3) 0.25 (4) 0.80
force
25. The value of mass m for which the 10 kg block
(1) No work is done by this force in case of both
would remain in static equilibrium
the springs
(2) Equal work is done by this force in case of
both the springs
(3) More work is done by this force in case of
second spring
(4) More work is done by this force in case of
first spring
30. In the given string-pulley arrangement, all the
pulleys and strings are massless and smooth.
(1) 6.8 kg The acceleration of block will be
(2) 5.5 kg
(3) 6.4 kg
(4) All of these
26. A block kept on an inclined surface just begins to
slide if angle of inclination is 30°. The block is
replaced by another block B and it is found that it
just begins to slide if angle of inclination is 40°.
Then which among the following is possible?
(1) Mass of A > mass of B
g g
(2) Mass of A < mass of B (1) (2)
4 2
(3) Mass of A = mass of B
g
(4) All of these (3) g (4)
8
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-B)

31. A body of mass 2 kg, moving with a speed of 36. A particle of mass 10 g is thrown vertically
10 m/s hits a wall and rebounds with same upwards with a speed of 10 m/s. The work done
 1 by the force of gravity during the time the particle
speed. If the contact-time is   s, then force
 50  goes up is
applied on the wall is (1) 4 J (2) 0.5 J
(1) 2 kN (2) 4 kN (3) – 0.5 J (4) 2 J
(3) 200 N (4) 80 N
37. There are two blocks of equal masses. If the
32. The maximum tension that can be sustained by a blocks are raised vertically through a height h
th
3
massless rope is   of weight of a fireman.
such that one block is raised in time 10 s and
 4 other block in time 20 s, then the ratio of work
The minimum acceleration with which the fireman done by gravity on the blocks is
can slide down the rope is (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
g g (3) 6 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
(1) (2)
2 4 38. Two bodies of masses 3 m and 4 m have their
3g kinetic energy in the ratio 3 : 1. The ratio of their
(3) (4) g
4 momenta is
33. If acceleration of block A in case 1 is a1, in case 2 (1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 2
is a2 and in case 3 is a3 then a1 : a2 : a3 is (3) 3 : 1 (4) 4 : 3
39. A body of mass m1 collides elastically with
another body of mass m2 at rest. There is
maximum transfer of energy when
(1) m1 = m2 (2) m1 > m2
(3) m2 < m1 (4) m1 = 4m2
40. Starting from rest, a 5 kg block is acted upon by
only one force as indicated in the figure. Find the
work done by the force in first four seconds.

(1) 1 : 3 : 6 (2) 3 : 1 : 6
(3) 4 : 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1 : 1
34. The acceleration of the masses placed over a
fixed inclined plane as shown in the figure is
2
(g = 10 m/s )

(1) 40 J (2) 20 J
(3) 10 J (4) 15 J
41. Work done by the force F  (x jˆ  y iˆ) N in
displacing a body from (0, 0) m to (1, 2) m is
(1) 8 J (2) 1 J
2 2
(1) 2 m/s (2) 1 m/s
(3) 2 J (4) Zero
2 2
(3) 10 m/s (4) 15 m/s 42. Natural length of a spring is 80 cm, and its spring
35. A force of 100 dynes is acted on a body of mass constant is 400 N/m. A mass of 10 kg is hung
10 g which is initially at rest, for a time interval of from it. The extension produced in the spring
3 s. The average impulse that acted on the body 2
is when the mass is in equilibrium, is (g = 10 m/s )
(1) 300 Ns (2) 3 mNs (1) 50 cm (2) 25 cm
(3) 4 Ns (4) 400 mNs (3) 80 cm (4) 10 cm

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Test-2 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

43. A ball is released from the top of a high building (1) 9 W (2) 9 kW
from rest. The average power delivered to the
ball, by the gravity in first, second and third (3) 225 W (4) 9000 H.P.
second of motion is 45. A Diwali rocket is ejecting 0.04 kg of gases per
(1) 1 : 6 : 8 (2) 2 : 4 : 8 second at a velocity of 200 m/s. The accelerating
(3) 1 : 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 3 : 5 force on the rocket is
44. An electric motor creates a tension of 4500 N in (1) 10 N (2) 4 N
hoisting cable and reels it at the rate of 2 m/s.
What is the power of electric motor? (3) 6 N (4) 8 N

CHEMISTRY
46. Among the following gases, the value of van der 55. Correct order of first negative electron gain
Waals constant ‘b’ is maximum for enthalpy is
(1) CO2 (2) He (1) F > Cl > Br > I (2) Cl > Br > I > F

(3) H2 (4) N2 (3) Cl > Br > F > I (4) Cl > F > Br > I
56. Acidic oxide among the following is
47. Which of the following elements is considered as
Eka-aluminium? (1) NO (2) CO
(3) Na2O (4) Cl2O7
(1) V (2) Cr
(3) Ga (4) Ca 57. Formal charge on central oxygen atom in O 3

48. IUPAC name of the element having Z = 108 is molecule is

(1) Unnilhexium (2) Unniloctium

(1) –2 (2) –1
(3) Ununtrium (4) Ununoctium
(3) 0 (4) +1
49. Atomic number of first element of 4d transition
series is 58. Example of a compound containing an element
with expanded octet is
(1) 21 (2) 30
(1) PF5 (2) PF3
(3) 39 (4) 58
(3) NCl3 (4) CCl4
50. Which of the following has the highest second
ionisation enthalpy? 59. Molecule in which all the bond angles are equal
is
(1) Li (2) Na
(1) BeF2 (2) CH4
(3) Al (4) Be
(3) BF3 (4) All of these
51. Which group among the following is known as
chalcogens? 60. Molecule or ion having bond order equal to 2.5 is
(1) Group 2 (2) Group 16 (1) N2 (2) CO
(3) Group 17 (4) Group 14 (3) NO
+
(4) N2
52. Correct order of atomic radii is
61. Select the incorrect statement regarding
(1) Li < Be < Mg (2) Be < Li < Mg canonical structures
(3) Be < Mg < Li (4) Mg < Be < Li (1) They have same positions of nuclei
53. Minimum ionic radii among the following is of (2) They have same number of bonding and
2– – non-bonding pairs of electron
(1) O (2) F
+ 2+ (3) They have similar energies
(3) Na (4) Mg
(4) They are real molecules
54. Dipole-dipole interactions are present in which of
62. Species with zero dipole moment is
the following pairs?
(1) NH3 (2) NF3
(1) HCl and CCl4 (2) H2O and HCl
(3) H2O and Ne (4) He and Ne (3) NH4 (4) NO

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-B)

63. Central atom of a molecule contains 4 bond pairs 70. Total number of  bonds in
and 2 lone pairs. The shape of the molecule is
(1) Trigonal planar (2) Pyramidal
(3) Square planar (4) Tetrahedral is
(1) 1 (2) 2
64. Linear molecule among the following is/are
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) BeCl2 (2) CO2
71. Bond order of H2 ion is
(3) HgCl2 (4) All of these
65. Which of the following transition leads to increase (1) 0 (2) 1
in bond order? (3) 0.5 (4) 1.5
72. Hydrogen bonding is not present in
(1) N2  N2 (2) N2  N2
(1) H2O (2) CH3OH
(3) O2  O2 (4) O2  O2 (3) HF (4) HCl

66. Diamagnetic species among the following is 73. Sigma bond formation can take place between
(1) Two s orbitals
(1) O2 (2) O2
(2) Two p orbitals
(3) O2 (4) O22 (3) One s and one p orbital
(4) All of these
67. Which diagram shows zero overlap?
74. Which pair of elements shows diagonal
(1) relationship?
(1) Li, Al (2) Li, Mg
(2)
(3) Be, Mg (4) Na, Mg
75. 1 Debye is

(3) (1) 3.3 × 10–30 C m

(2) 6.2 × 10–30 C m–1
(3) 6.4 × 10–15 C m
(4) 3.7 × 10–15 C m–1
(4) 76. London dispersion forces is not dominating
intermolecular force between
(1) He atoms (2) O2 molecules
68. In the given compound (3) CH4 molecules (4) HCl molecules
CH2  CH  C  CH 77. The value of proportionality constant for Charle’s
(1) (2) (3) law depends on
hybridisation of carbon atoms 1, 2 and 3 (1) Pressure of the gas
respectively are (2) Mass of the gas
2 2 2 3 2
(1) sp , sp , sp (2) sp , sp , sp (3) Volume of the gas
2 2
(3) sp , sp , sp
3 2 2
(4) sp , sp , sp (4) Both (1) and (2)
78. At 1 bar pressure, a sample of gas occupies
69. Select the incorrect statement regarding PCl5
10 dm3. At constant temperature volume is
3
(1) P is sp d hybridised reduced to 2 dm3. The pressure of the gas
(2) Geometry is trigonal bipyramidal increases by
(3) All P – Cl bonds are equivalent (1) 4 bar (2) 5 bar

(4) P expands its octet (3) 9 bar (4) 10 bar

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Test-2 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

79. A gaseous mixture contain equal masses of CH4, 84. Unit of van der Waal constant b is
O2 and SO2. If the total pressure is 10 atm, then (1) L mol (2) mol L
–1

the partial pressure of CH4 in the mixture is –1 –2

(3) L mol (4) mol L
60 40
(1) atm (2) atm 85. I3 is isostructural with
7 7
30 (1) ClF3 (2) H2O
(3) 5 atm (4) atm
7 (3) XeF2 (4) I3
80. Pyramidal shape is observed in 86. Vapour pressure of liquid depends on
(1) SO3 (2) CO2
(1) Temperature
(3) NH3 (4) XeOF4
(2) Interparticle attraction
81. 200 mL of SO2 diffuse in 100 seconds, then the
(3) Surface area
volume of CH4 which diffuses in 100 seconds
(4) Both (1) and (2)
under identical conditions is
87. Density of gas is maximum at
(1) 50 ml (2) 100 ml
(1) High pressure and low temperature
(3) 200 ml (4) 400 ml
(2) Low pressure and high temperature
82. At same temperature, Urms is maximum for
(3) High pressure and high temperature
(1) CH4 (2) SO2
(4) Low pressure and low temperature
(3) SO3 (4) He
88. S.I. unit of surface tension is
83. van der Waal gas equation for 1 mol of real gas
is (1) Nm–1 (2) Nm
–1
(3) N m (4) N2m
 a2  2
(1) P  2  (V  b)  RT 89. The normal boiling point of water is
 V 
(1) 100°C (2) 99.6°C
 a2  (3) 100.4°C (4) 108.4°C
(2) P   (V  b)  RT
 V 90. Boyles temperature TB is equal to
 a  a
(3) P  V2  (V  b)  RT (1) (2) 3b
  Rb
 a  8a a
(4) P  V2  (V  b)  RT (3) (4)
  27Rb 27Rb

BOTANY
91. Stilt roots are found in 93. Roots are said to be A geotropic and B
(1) Sugarcane and carrot phototropic
(2) Turnip and radish (1) A-Positively, B-Negatively
(3) Rhizophora (2) A-Positively, B-Positively
(4) Sugarcane and maize (3) A-Negatively, B-Positively
92. Find the mismatched pair. (4) A-Negatively, B-Negatively
(1) Root cap - Protects the tender 94. In vexillary aestivation, the largest petal that
apex of the root overlaps the two smaller lateral petals is called
(1) Keel (2) Wings
(2) Region of - Undergo rapid
elongation elongation (3) Standard (4) Pedicel
95. In pitcher plant, ‘pitcher’ is
(3) Region of - Cells differentiate and
maturation mature (1) Modified leaf base
(2) Modified leaf apex
(4) Region of - Covers the root cap
meristematic and protect it (3) Modified lamina
activity
(4) Modified axillary bud

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-B)

96. Find the correctly matched option w.r.t. 104. Read the following statements and select the
inflorescence correct option.
(1) Racemose – Acropetal – Mustard (A) Actinomorphic flowers have radial symmetry.
succession (B) Asymmetric flowers are found in Canna.
(2) Racemose – Basipetal – Radish (1) Both (A) and (B) are correct statements
succession (2) Only (A) is correct statement
(3) Cymose – Acropetal – Teak (3) Only(B) is correct statement
succession (4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect statements
(4) Cymose – Basipetal – Lupin 105. Syncarpous and apocarpous ovary is found
succession respectively in
97. Find the odd one out w.r.t. true fruit. (1) Lotus and rose
(2) Mustard and lotus
(1) Mango (2) Coconut
(3) Mustard and tomato
(3) Cucumber (4) Pear
(4) Rose and tomato
98. Inner layer of seed coat is called
106. In gamosepalous condition
(1) Testa
(1) Corolla has fused petals
(2) Hilum
(2) Corolla has free petals
(3) Tegman
(3) Calyx is fused with petals
(4) Micropyle
(4) Calyx has fused sepals
99. In monocots plumule and radicle are enclosed in
107. Midrib of pinnately compound leaf is called
sheaths which are respectively called
(1) Stipule
(1) Scutellum and hilum
(2) Rachis
(2) Coleoptile and coleorhiza
(3) Lamina
(3) Scutellum and aleurone layer
(4) Mesopodium
(4) Scutellum and pericarp
108. Find the odd one out w.r.t. intercalary meristem
100. Seeds of orchid, are
(1) It is intercalated between mature tissues
(1) Non-endospermic
(2) Separated from apex by mature tissues
(2) Endospermic (3) Adds length as well as girth of stems and
(3) Perispermic with two cotyledons roots
(4) Endospermic with two cotyledons (4) It is primary meristem
101. Which of the following is a parthenocarpic fruit? 109. Collenchyma
(1) Mango (1) May perform photosynthesis
(2) Apple (2) Is mainly found in monocot stems
(3) Banana (3) Has cell wall composed of pectin and lignin
(4) Watermelon (4) Is a non-living mechanical tissue
102. Aleurone layer 110. Xylem parenchyma cells
(1) Is proteinaceous only and found in all dicot (1) Are dead and thin walled
seeds (2) Are living and thin walled
(2) Contain carbohydrates and found in all (3) Do not store food in any form
monocot seeds (4) Are living and thick walled
(3) Is proteinaceous part of endosperm 111. Companion cells
(4) Is proteinaceous and surrounds the plumule (1) Are specialised sclerenchymatous cells
103. Find the incorrect statement. (2) Are closely associated with sieve tube
(1) In silk cotton, leaves are palmately compound elements
(2) In peas, leaf tendrils provide support to the (3) Lack nucleus at maturity
climbing plant (4) Are found in gymnosperms
(3) Reticulate venation is found in banana 112. Cell wall of endodermal cells in roots is
(4) In onion and garlic leaves are modified to (1) Suberized (2) Chitinized
store food (3) Lignified (4) Both (1) and (3)

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Test-2 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

113. Find the odd one out w.r.t. endodermis of root 121. Stele comprises of
(1) Is a single layer of compactly arranged cells (1) Pericycle, vascular bundles and pith
(2) Cell appear barrel-shaped (2) Endodermis, pericycle and pith
(3) Constitutes stele (3) Pericycle, pith and epidermis
(4) Is innermost layer of cortex (4) Pericycle and epidermis
114. Find the mismatched. 122. Secondary cortex is also called
(1) Monocot leaf – Isobilateral (1) Phelloderm
(2) Monocot leaf – Non-differentiated (2) Periderm
mesophyll tissue (3) Phellogen
(3) Dicot leaf – Dorsiventral (4) Duramen
(4) Dicot leaf – More stomata on upper 123. Palisade and spongy parenchyma is a
epidermis than lower characteristic feature of
epidermis (1) Monocot leaf
115. Interfascicular cambium (2) Dicot leaf
(1) Is a primary meristem (3) Both monocot and dicot leaves
(2) Is a differentiated tissue (4) Monocot root and stem
(3) Is a secondary meristem 124. Bulliform cells found in grasses are
(4) Forms primary xylem (1) Small
116. Periderm includes (2) Photosynthetic
(1) Phellogen and phellem only (3) Endodermal cells
(2) Phellogen, phellem and phelloderm (4) Colourless
(3) Phellem and phelloderm only 125. Endarch and exarch xylem found respectively in
(1) Dicot stem and dicot root
(4) Primary cortex and pericycle only
(2) Monocot root and dicot root
117. Lenticel
(3) Dicot root and monocot leaf
(1) Is a part of stomata
(4) Monocot root and dicot stem
(2) Is a part of leaf epidermis
126. Find the odd one out w.r.t. ground tissue
(3) Is produced due to activity of phellogen
(1) Hypodermis
(4) Is found in herbaceous plants
(2) Endodermis
118. Read the statements and select the correct
(3) Medulla
option.
(4) Stomata
(A) Thick walled pericycle gives mechanical
support to plants. 127. Which is not a differentiated tissue?
(B) Pericycle gives rise to the lateral roots. (1) Xylem
(1) Both (A) and (B) are correct (2) Phloem
(2) Only (A) is correct (3) Intrafascicular cambium
(4) Epidermis
(3) Only (B) is correct
128. All tissues given below are lateral meristem,
(4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect
except
119. Radial vascular bundles are (1) Fascicular cambium
(1) Found in stems of dicot plants (2) Intrafascicular cambium
(2) Found in roots of monocot plants only (3) Cork cambium
(3) Found in roots of dicot plants only (4) Intercalary meristem
(4) Found in both (2) and (3) options 129. Find the mismatched pair.
120. Balloon like swellings of xylem parenchyma into (1) Subsidiary cells – Accessory cells
the lumen of xylem vessels is called
(1) Duramen (2) Dumb-bell shaped – Grasses
guard cells
(2) Sapwood
(3) Root hair – Multicellular
(3) Tracheal plugs
(4) Alburnum (4) Trichomes – Stem epidermis

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-B)

130. Phloem parenchyma is 133. _______ is impervious to water molecules

(1) Present in all angiosperms (1) Epidermis of roots
(2) Absent in all angiosperms (2) Endodermis of root
(3) Absent in most of the monocots (3) Cortex cells of roots
(4) Present in all monocots (4) Pericycle of roots
134. Heartwood is the region of ____ which comprises
131. Sclerenchyma tissue
of dead elements with highly lignified walls
(1) Is dead and without protoplast
(1) Primary xylem (2) Secondary xylem
(2) Is absent in most of the monocots (3) Secondary phloem (4) Primary phloem
(3) Compose the endodermis of roots 135. Find the mismatched pair.
(4) Contains cell wall composed of chitin
(1) Monocots – Vascular cambium
132. Vessels differ from tracheids, as absent
(1) Vessel is a single celled structure (2) Roots – Hypodermis absent
(2) Tracheid is composed of fused cells
(3) Leaves – Secondary growth
(3) A vessel is composed of many fused cells absent
(4) Tracheids are living cells (4) Monocot root – Pith absent

ZOOLOGY
136. If the R group in an amino acid is a methyl group, 140. The given reaction can be carried out by
then this amino acid is
X Y
(1) Glycine (2) Serine | |
(3) Alanine (4) Valine C  C 
X  Y  C  C
137. Among the given elements, which one makes up (1) Hydrolases
maximum percentage of weight of human body? (2) Lyases
(1) Oxygen (2) Hydrogen (3) Ligases
(3) Carbon (4) Nitrogen (4) Isomerases
138. Choose the odd one w.r.t. nitrogenous bases 141. Niacin is a component of which co-enzyme?
(1) Uracil (2) Cytosine (1) NAD
(3) Thymine (4) Thiamine (2) FAD
139. Read the given statements. (3) Coenzyme A
(4) ATP
142. A common feature of all compounds present in
the acid soluble pool is that they
(1) Are polymeric compounds
(2) Have approximate molecular weight ranging
from 18-800 Da
(3) Have molecular weight greater than 1000 Da
(a) It is an amphipathic molecule. (4) Are soluble in organic solvents
(b) It is found in cell walls of plants. 143. Uracil when attached with a A forms B . If
(c) It acts as surfactant in lung alveoli. C group is also found attached with B, it forms
(d) It is a glycolipid. D which is a component of E . A, C, B, D
How many statements are true w.r.t. the given and E are respectively
compound? (1) PO4, Ribose, Uridylic acid, Uridine, RNA
(1) One
(2) Ribose, PO4, Uridine, Uridylic acid, RNA
(2) Three
(3) Ribose, PO4, Uridylic acid, Uridine, DNA
(3) Two
(4) PO4, Ribose, RNA, Uridine, Uridylic acid
(4) Four

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Test-2 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

144. Choose the odd one w.r.t. aromatic amino acids 150. Read the following statements.
(1) Phenylalanine (a) Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
(2) Tyrosine succinate occurs because the latter
resembles the substrate malonate.
(3) Threonine
(b) Competitive inhibitors are often used in the
(4) Tryptophan control of bacterial pathogens.
145. A fructan used in renal function tests is (c) A continuous lag phase of activity of enzyme
(1) Inulin is maintained throughout with increasing
substrate concentration indefinitely.
(2) Insulin
(3) Cellulose (d) In non competitive inhibition, the inhibitor
inhibits the activity of enzyme by binding at
(4) Collagen the active site.
146. Palmitic acid is a 16C fatty acid with ___ double How many statements are correct?
bonds. Choose the option that fills the blank
correctly. (1) 1 (2) 2

(1) One (3) 3 (4) 4

(2) Two 151. Formation of cholesterol from acetic acid in

(3) Three
(4) Zero
147. Match column I and column II w.r.t. proteins and
their functions and choose the correct option.
Column I
a. GLUT-4
b. Antibody
c. Trypsin
d. Insulin
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(v), d(i)
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(v)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(v)
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(v), d(i)
148. Which structure of B-DNA is exhibited by Watson
and Crick model?
(1) Primary
(3) Tertiary
149. The activity of an enzyme can be affected by
(a) High pH
(b) High temperature
(c) Presence of inhibitor
(d) Concentration of substrate
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a). (b), (c) and (d)
humans is an example of
(1) Anabolism
(2) Catabolism
(3) Uncatalyzed reaction
Column II (4) Exothermic reaction
(i) Enzyme 152. Read the following statements
(ii) Sensory reception A. The living state is a non-equilibrium steady
state to be able to perform work.
(iii) Fights infectious
B. As living organisms work continuously, they
agents
cannot afford to reach equilibrium.
(iv) Enables glucose
Choose the correct option.
transport into cells
(1) Statement A is incorrect
(v) Hormone
(2) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Statement B is incorrect
(4) Both statements are incorrect
153. Starch gives blue colour with iodine because it
(1) Is highly branched
(2) Is osmotically inactive
(2) Secondary (3) Is chemically non reactive
(4) Quaternary (4) Has complex helices
154. The most abundant protein in the whole
biosphere is
(1) Collagen (2) RuBisCO
(3) Keratin (4) Silk fibroin
155. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. secondary
metabolites.
(1) Lectin – Concanavalin A
(2) Alkaloids – Carotenoids
(3) Toxin – Ricin
(4) Drugs – Curcumin

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-B)

156. The structure of protein that is least likely to be (1) The velocity of the reaction
denatured by heat and chemical action is (2) The affinity of substrate for the enzyme
(1) Quaternary (2) Secondary
(3) Saturation of all enzyme molecules with
(3) Tertiary (4) Primary substrate
157. In a DNA strand, a purine base which lies (4) Rate of product formation
perpendicular to the sugar phosphate backbone,
pairs with a pyrimidine base by triple hydrogen 163. A part of holoenzyme can be
bonds. The pyrimidine in question is (1) Inorganic apoenzyme
(1) Guanine (2) Cytosine (2) Organic cofactor
(3) Adenine (4) Thymine (3) Tightly bound co-enzyme
158. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. rate of a (4) Loosely bound prosthetic group
reaction
164. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. amino acid
s and its feature
(1) It is expressed as
t
(1) Glycine – Simplest amino acid
(2) It can be influenced by temperature
(2) Tryptophan – Precursor of melanin
(3) It doubles or decreases by half for every
10°C change in either direction (3) Tyrosine – Precursor of epinephrine
(4) It is higher for catalysed reaction as (4) Glutamic acid – Acidic amino acid
compared to uncatalyzed reactions 165. What is the number of thymine bases in a
159. A protein thread does not exist throughout as an 340 nm strand of B-DNA in which 50% of the total
extended rigid rod because bases are purines, out which 50% are adenine?
(1) It loses its primary structure (1) 500 (2) 1000
(2) It can fold upon itself to form a helix (3) 2000 (4) 700
(3) It lacks amino acids which stabilise its rod like 166. A non proteinaceous enzyme among the
structure following is
(4) All proteins form enzymes which possess (1) Ligase
tertiary structure
(2) Dehydrogenase
160. The bond that links ribose sugar with nitrogenous
base in RNA nucleotide is (3) Ribozyme
(1) Peptide bond (4) Isomerase
(2) Hydrogen bond 167. An incorrect statement w.r.t. steroids is that
(3) Glycosidic bond (1) They are compound lipids
(4) Phosphodiester bond (2) They are multiringed organic compounds
161. Chitin is a (3) A common sterol, cholesterol is synthesised
(1) Homopolymer of N-acetylgalactosamine in liver
(2) Heteropolymer of N-acetylglucosamine (4) They are precursors of sex hormones
(3) Homopolymer of N-acetylglucosamine 168. Skeletal muscle fibres are all except
(4) Heteropolymer of N-acetylgalactosamine (1) Branched
162. (2) Syncytial
(3) Cylindrical
(4) Striated
169. The junctions that perform cementing to keep
neighbouring cells together are
(1) Tight junctions
(2) Adhering junctions

In the above figure representing activity of an (3) Gap junctions

enzyme, ‘Y’ indicates (4) Cytoplasmic connections

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Test-2 (Code-B) Test Series for NEET-2020

170. Read the following statements. 175. Endothelium of blood vessels is composed of
A. Tendons connect bone to bone. (1) Simple squamous epithelium
B. Ligaments consist of loose connective tissue. (2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
Choose the correct option. (3) Simple columnar epithelium
(1) Only statement A is correct (4) Pseudostratified epithelium

(2) Both statements are correct 176. Secretion of mast cells in connective tissue
include all except
(3) Only statement A is incorrect
(1) Heparin (2) Serine
(4) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Histamine (4) Serotonin
171. Compound epithelium is multilayered, thus it can
177. The type of epithelium lining the inner wall of
(1) Play a major role in absorption fallopian tube also lines
(2) Carry out more secretion than simple (1) Stomach
epithelium
(2) Intestine
(3) Be suitable for diffusion of gases (3) Larger bronchioles
(4) Provide protection against mechanical and (4) Oesophagus
chemical stresses
178. Complete the analogy.
172. The presence of collagen and elastin fibres in a
tissue provide all the following except Cluster of cells : Salivary glands : :

(1) Fluidity Unicellular glands : _____

(2) Strength (1) Sebaceous glands

(3) Elasticity (2) Goblet cells

(4) Flexibility (3) Sweat glands

173. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. neuroglia
(1) They protect and support the neurons
(2) When stimulated, they generate
potential which travels through axons
(3) They make up more than half the volume of
neural tissue in our body.
(4) Some of them help in forming blood brain
barrier
174. In human body, cartilage is not present in
(1) Tip of nose
(2) Intervertebral disc
(3) Joints
(4) Tongue
(4) Mammary glands
179. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. areolar
tissue.
action (1) It is the most abundant specialised tissue in
the body
(2) It is present beneath the skin
(3) It serves as support framework for epithelium
(4) Its fibres are loosely arranged in a semi fluid
ground substance
180. All are functions of bones except
(1) Providing structural frame work to the body
(2) Production of blood cells
(3) Help in movement of body parts
(4) Production of vitamin D along with calcium



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 26/03/2020 CODE-B

Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3.00 Hrs.

Test - 2

Answer Key
1. (1) 37. (1) 73. (4) 109. (1) 145. (1)
2. (4) 38. (2) 74. (2) 110. (2) 146 (4)
3. (4) 39. (1) 75. (1) 111. (2) 147. (3)
4. (1) 40. (1) 76. (4) 112. (1) 148. (2)
5. (1) 41. (3) 77. (4) 113. (3) 149. (4)
6. (2) 42. (2) 78. (1) 114. (4) 150. (1)
7. (1) 43. (4) 79. (2) 115. (3) 151. (1)
8. (3) 44. (2) 80. (3) 116. (2) 152. (2)
9. (4) 45. (4) 81. (4) 117. (3) 153. (4)
10. (4) 46. (1) 82. (4) 118. (1) 154. (2)
11. (3) 47. (3) 83. (4) 119. (4) 155. (2)
12. (2) 48. (2) 84. (3) 120. (3) 156. (4)
13. (4) 49. (3) 85. (3) 121. (1) 157. (2)
14. (4) 50. (1) 86. (4) 122. (1) 158. (1)
15. (4) 51. (2) 87. (1) 123. (2) 159. (2)
16. (4) 52. (2) 88. (1) 124. (4) 160. (3)
17. (2) 53. (4) 89. (1) 125. (1) 161. (3)
18. (2) 54. (2) 90. (1) 126. (4) 162. (2)
19. (4) 55. (4) 91. (4) 127. (3) 163. (2)
20. (2) 56. (4) 92. (4) 128. (4) 164. (2)
21. (1) 57. (4) 93. (1) 129. (3) 165. (1)
22. (2) 58. (1) 94. (3) 130. (3) 166. (3)
23. (2) 59. (4) 95. (3) 131. (1) 167. (1)
24. (2) 60. (4) 96. (1) 132. (3) 168. (1)
25. (4) 61. (4) 97. (4) 133. (2) 169. (2)
26. (4) 62. (3) 98. (3) 134. (2) 170. (4)
27. (3) 63. (3) 99. (2) 135. (4) 171. (4)
28. (3) 64. (4) 100. (1) 136. (3) 172. (1)
29. (3) 65. (4) 101. (3) 137. (1) 173. (2)
30. (3) 66. (4) 102. (3) 138. (4) 174. (4)
31. (1) 67. (4) 103. (3) 139. (3) 175. (1)
32. (2) 68. (4) 104. (1) 140. (2) 176. (2)
33. (1) 69. (3) 105. (2) 141. (1) 177. (3)
34. (2) 70. (4) 106. (4) 142. (2) 178. (2)
35. (2) 71. (3) 107. (2) 143. (2) 179. (1)
36. (3) 72. (4) 108. (3) 144. (3) 180. (4)

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Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

26/03/2020 CODE-B

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8,Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 TEST SERIES for NEET-2020 Time : 3:00 Hrs.

Test - 2

Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS

1. Answer (1) 7. Answer (1)

Tension (T) = m(g + a) 8. Answer (3)
= 600 (10 + 2) = 12 × 600 = 7200 N 70 1 2
K  mv
P = Tv = 7200 × 3 = 21600 W 100 2
= 21.6 kW 70 1
  (0.2) (20)2  28 J
2. Answer (4) 100 2
Work done by kinetic friction may be positive, 9. Answer (4)
negative or zero.
10. Answer (4)
3. Answer (4)
The lower block would just lift if the extension in
Principle of conservation of mechanical energy is mg
not valid if non-zero work is done on the system the spring becomes .
k
externally.
4. Answer (1) Using conservation of mechanical energy
2
1 1  mg  1  mg 
v   (1)  (2)  (2)  (3)  7 m/s mg(x0 )  k(x0 )2  mg   k 
2 2  k  2  k 
v = (7 + 2) m/s = 9 m/s {x0 : net initial compression}
p = Fv = mav = (4 × 2) (9) = 72 W
1 2 m2g2 m2g2 3 m2g2
5. Answer (1) kx0  mgx0   
2 k 2k 2 k
U
F  0 2mg 3m2g2
x  x02  x0  0
k k2
Hence force is along negative x-axis
3mg mg 3m2g2
6. Answer (2) x02  x0  x0  0
k k k2
TOB cos(45) = TOA
 3mg   mg 
TOB sin(45) = 200 g  x0  k   x0  k   0
  
TOA = 200 g
TOA = 200 kg-wt

(2)
Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

3mg dv
x0  a v  2 m/s2
k dx
3mg mg 2mg v = 2 m/s
Further compression =  
k k k Power = mav = 2 × (– 2) × (2) = – 8W
11. Answer (3)
20. Answer (2)
w  (mg cos)dr
5 5
w  mg(dr cos) w   Fdx   (3x2  2x  7) dx
0 0

w  mgdl 5
w  x3  x2  7x  125  25  35  135 J
0
w  mgl
12. Answer (2) 21. Answer (1)
Spring force = F = 2 mg wall  KE
2mg  mg 1 1
aB   3g mBg(1)  mAg(2)  mB (0.4)2  mA(0.8)2
m 2 2
13. Answer (4)
10 (40)  0.08  0.64
k  6k  6 200  1200N/m
10 (40)  0.72
k  2k  2400N/m
14. Answer (4) 10  0.72
  0.232
40
Minimum speed = 4g(l / 2)  2gl
22. Answer (2)
15. Answer (4)
 U   U   U 
p  F v F     iˆ     jˆ     kˆ
 x   y   z 
dv
m vp
dt F  [2y  3x]iˆ  [2x] jˆ  [3x]kˆ
mvdv = pdt
F  8iˆ  2 jˆ  3kˆ
v2 p 2pt
 t  v 23. Answer (2)
2 m m
16. Answer (4) The power delivered must be positive and hence
Displacement in frame of elevator = zero F v  0
 Work done = zero 24. Answer (2)
17. Answer (2) 1 1
Speed of bob after collision
(g sin )t 2  (g sin   g cos ) (2t )2
2 2
= 2  g  h  2 10  20  20 m/s 1  1 
 4  
20% of u = 20 2  2 2
u = 100 m/s
3
18. Answer (2)  1  4  4     0.75
4
mg l 1 2 mgl 25. Answer (4)
  mv 
4 8 2 2
(10g sin10g cos)  mg  (10g sin10g cos)
1 2 l mgl 15mgl 15gl
mv  mg   v (6  0.8)  m  (6  0.8)
2 2 32 32 16
19. Answer (4)
5.2kg  m  6.8kg

(3)
Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

26. Answer (4) 1

  (10  103 )  (10)2
Angle of repose is different for the blocks of 2
different material and it doesn’t depend on mass 1
of the block.   102 102  0.5 J
2
27. Answer (3)
37. Answer (1)
28. Answer (3) w = mgh (independent of time)
Speed is maximum when acceleration of block is 38. Answer (2)
zero.
p  2mk
mg cos 
mg cos   kx  x  p1 2m1k1
k 
29. Answer (3) p2 2m2k2

1 F.x F2 p1 3
W  kx2   
2 2 2k p2 2
1 39. Answer (1)
If force is same W 
k Maximum transfer of energy is takes place in
elastic collision when m1 = m2.
30. Answer (3)
40. Answer (1)
Tension in the string in this case = 0.
Change in momentum = P = area under (F-t)
31. Answer (1) graph
2mv 2  2 10 = 20 × 2 – 2 × 10 = 20 kg m/s
I   50 10  4  2 kN
t 1/ 50 P2 202 400
Final kinetic energy =    40 J
32. Answer (2) 2m 2  5 10
mg – T = ma  Work done = 40 J
3mg g 41. Answer (3)
mg   ma  a 
4 4 w
(1, 2)
(x dy  y dx)
(0, 0)
33. Answer (1)
(1, 2) 1, 2
2m  m g  d(xy )  xy 0, 0  2J
a1  g (0, 0)
2m  m 3
42. Answer (2)
2mg  mg In equilibrium
a2  g
m mg = kx
2mg 10 × 10 = 400 x
a3   2g
m 1
 x  0.25 m
Hence a1 : a2 : a3  1: 3: 6 4
43. Answer (4)
34. Answer (2)
Ratio of displacements
g sin(53)  g sin(37) g  4 3 
a      1m/s2 d1 : d2 : d3 = 1 : 3 : 5
2 25 5
 Ratio of works = 1 : 3 : 5
35. Answer (2)
44. Answer (2)
F  100105  103 N P  F v
3
Impulse = FT  10  3  3 mNs = 4500 . 2 = 9000 = 9 kW
45. Answer (4)
36. Answer (3)
dm
1 F u  200  0.04  8 N
wg  KE  0  mv 2 dt
2
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions)

CHEMISTRY
46. Answer (1) 58. Answer (1)
b depends upon size of particle. In PF5, P has 10 electrons.
47. Answer (3)
59. Answer (4)
Eka- aluminium means similar to aluminium.
In BeF2 only one bond angle = 180°.
48. Answer (2)
In CH4, all angles are 109.5°.
IUPAC name
In BF3 all bond angles are 120°.
Un nil oct ium
60. Answer (4)
1 0 8
Ions or molecules Bond order
49. Answer (3)
CO 3
4d series starts with yttrium (Z = 39)
N2 3
50. Answer (1) NO+ 3
After loosing first electron, Li acquires He
configuration.
N2 2.5

51. Answer (2) 61. Answer (4)

Oxygen family is known as chalcogens. Canonical structures are hypothetical.
52. Answer (2) 62. Answer (3)
Element Li Be Mg
NH4 is tetrahedral ion in which all the dipoles
Radius(pm) 152 111 160
cancel each other.
53. Answer (4) 63. Answer (3)
The cation with greater positive charge has small
4 bonds pairs + 2 lone pairs
ionic radius among isoelectronic species.
54. Answer (2)  sp3d 2
H2O and HCl both are polar molecules, so dipole-
dipole interaction takes place.
55. Answer (4)

Element F Cl Br I
Square planar
Heg 64. Answer (4)
328 349 325 295
(kJ mol1) All of given molecules have two sigma bond pairs
only.
56. Answer (4)
65. Answer (4)
Na2O; Basic oxide

CO and NO; Neutral oxides Bond order O2 is 2 and O2 is 2.5.
Cl2O7; Acidic oxide 66. Answer (4)
57. Answer (4)
O22 has no unpaired electrons therefore
1 diamagnetic.
Formal charge = V – L – S
2
67. Answer (4)
1 Lateral overlap of p orbital with s orbital is not
= 6  2  (6)  1
2 possible.

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Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

68. Answer (4) w

16 4
CH2  CH  C  CH  
w w w 7
    
sp2 sp2 sp 16 32 64
4 40
69. Answer (3) PCH  PTotal xCH  10   atm
4 4 7 7
In PCl5, 3 bonds are equatorial and 2 bonds are
80. Answer (3)
axial bonds, and axis bonds are longer than
equatorial bonds.
70. Answer (4)


 NH3 has pyramidal shape.
81. Answer (4)

There are four  bonds. rSO MCH V1 / t1 200 / 100

2
 4
 
71. Answer (3) rCH MSO V2 / t2 V2 / 100
4 2

H2 (1e) : 1s1 200 16


72. Answer (4) V2 64
H-bonding takes place usually in molecules V2 = 400 mL
having O–H, N–H and H–F bonds. 82. Answer (4)
73. Answer (4) 3RT
Urms 
s orbital always forms sigma bonds with M
p-orbital along internuclear axis.
83. Answer (4)
74. Answer (2)
van der Waal equation for n moles.
Li is diagonally related with Mg.
 an2 
75. Answer (1) P  2  (V  nb)  nRT
 V 
1D = 3.3 × 10–30 C. m
84. Answer (3)
76. Answer (4)
V
 b (for units)
HCl is a polar molecule. n
77. Answer (4) 85. Answer (3)
V nR
k 
T P
78. Answer (1)
PV
1 1  P2V2 10 1 2 P2  P2  5 bar 86. Answer (4)

Increase in pressure  5 – 1 = 4 bar Vapour pressure does not depend on surface

area
79. Answer (2)
87. Answer (1)
w w w PM
nCH  , n  ,n  d
4 16 O2 32 SO2 64 RT
nCH 88. Answer (1)
xCH  4
4 nCH  nO  nSO Surface tension is force per unit length.
4 2 2

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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

89. Answer (1) 90. Answer (1)

In normal boiling point atmospheric pressure is a
1 atm. TB 
Rb

BOTANY
91. Answer (4) 110. Answer (2)
92. Answer (4) 111. Answer (2)
Root cap covers the meristematic zone and Companion cells control the activities of sieve
protects it. elements as sieve elements lack nucleus.
93. Answer (1) 112. Answer (1)
94. Answer (3) 113. Answer (3)
95. Answer (3) 114. Answer (4)
Pitcher or ‘pot shaped’ structure is modified Lower epidermis has more stomata.
lamina.
115. Answer (3)
96. Answer (1)
116. Answer (2)
97. Answer (4)
117. Answer (3)
In pear, edible part is thalamus, hence it is a false
118. Answer (1)
fruit.
119. Answer (4)
98. Answer (3)
Radial vascular bundles are found in
Outer layer of seed coat is called testa and inner
angiospermic roots.
layer is called tegmen.
120. Answer (3)
99. Answer (2)
Tracheal plugs are also called tyloses.
100. Answer (1)
121. Answer (1)
101. Answer (3)
122. Answer (1)
102. Answer (3)
123. Answer (2)
Aleurone layer is proteinaceous endosperm in
monocot seeds. Dicot leaf has differentiated mesophyll tissue.
103. Answer (3) 124. Answer (4)
Banana is a monocot. 125. Answer (1)
104. Answer (1) 126. Answer (4)
105. Answer (2) Stomata are the part of epidermal tissue system.
Lotus and rose } Apocarpous 127. Answer (3)
Mustard and tomato} Syncarpous Intrafascicular cambium is a primary meristem.
106. Answer (4) 128. Answer (4)
107. Answer (2) Intercalary meristem is primary meristem which
adds the length to stem.
108. Answer (3)
129. Answer (3)
Intercalary meristem is a primary meristem, so it
does not add the girth of stems. Root hairs are unicellular elongations
109. Answer (1) 130. Answer (3)
Collenchyma is living mechanical tissue. 131. Answer (1)

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Test-2 (Code-B)_(Hints & Solutions) Test Series for NEET-2020

132. Answer (3) Endodermis has casparian strips.

Many cells fused to form the vessel component. 134. Answer (2)
133. Answer (2) 135. Answer (4)

ZOOLOGY
136. Answer (3) 147. Answer (3)
Serine contains hydroxy methyl group. Valine is a Receptors of smell, taste etc. are cellular.
neutral amino acid. 148. Answer (2)
137. Answer (1) The Watson and Crick model suggests that DNA
Oxygen makes up about 65% weight of human exists as a double helix and the two strands of
body whereas carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen polynucleotides are anti-parallel.
make up 18.5, 0.5 and 3.3 % respectively. 149. Answer (4)
138. Answer (4) The activity of an enzyme can be affected by a
Thiamine is vitamin B1 and is not a nitrogenous change in the conditions which can alter the
base. tertiary structure of protein like temperature, pH,
change in substrate concentration or binding of
139. Answer (3) specific chemicals that regulate its activity.
Lecithin is a phospholipid found in cell 150. Answer (1)
membranes.
Succinate is the substrate of succinic
140. Answer (2) dehydrogenase. The enzyme molecules get
Lyases are the enzymes that catalyse the saturated with substrate and a plateau is formed.
removal of groups from substrates by In non competitive inhibition, the inhibitor binds to
mechanisms other than hydrolysis leaving double a site, other than the active site.
bonds. 151. Answer (1)
141. Answer (1) Formation of more complex structure from
Vitamins are essential components of many simpler structure is an example of anabolic
enzymes. e.g. NAD and NADP contain the pathway or biosynthetic pathway.
vitamin niacin. 152. Answer (2)
142. Answer (2) Living process is a constant effort to prevent
The acid soluble pool roughly represents the falling in equilibrium.
cytoplasmic composition. They are monomeric 153. Answer (4)
compounds soluble in polar solvents.
Starch forms helical secondary structures and
143. Answer (2) can hold I2 molecules in the helical portion.
Uracil + Ribose  Uridine (B) 154. Answer (2)
(nitrogenous (Sugar) (Nucleoside) The most abundant protein in animal world is
base) (A) collagen whereas that of biosphere is Ribulose
bisphosphate Carboxylase - Oxygenase
Uridine + PO4  Uridylic acid
(D) 155. Answer (2)
(C)
(Nucleotide) Carotenoids are pigments. Morphine and codeine
are alkaloids.
Uridylic acid is a component of RNA(E). 156. Answer (4)
144. Answer (3) The primary structure represents the sequence of
Aromatic amino acids possess an aromatic ring. amino acids which are joined by peptide bonds.
Threonine is an alcoholic amino acid. Peptide bonds are covalent bonds which are not
145. Answer (1) disrupted by heat or chemical action in general.
Inulin is a polymer of fructose and is used to 157. Answer (2)
determine the glomerular filtration rate. Guanine (Purine) compulsorily base pairs with
146 Answer (4) cytosine (Pyrimidine) with triple hydrogen bonds
whereas adenine pairs with thymine with double
Palmitic acid is a saturated fatty acid. hydrogen bonds.
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Test Series for NEET-2020 Test-2 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

158. Answer (1) 168. Answer (1)

Rate of a physical or chemical process refers to Multinucleate condition (structural syncytium) is a
the amount of product formed per unit time. It can feature of skeletal muscle fibres. Cardiac muscle
P fibres are branched.
be expressed as rate =
t 169. Answer (2)
159. Answer (2) Gap junctions facilitate cell communication and
A protein does not lose its primary structure tight junctions stop leakage across a tissue.
which is the sequence of amino acids generally. 170. Answer (4)
The primary structure folds further to form Tendons and ligaments consist of dense regular
secondary and then tertiary structure. connective tissue. Tendons connect muscles to
160. Answer (3) bone and ligaments connect bone to bone.
Ribose sugar is linked with the nitrogenous base 171. Answer (4)
with glycosidic bond which involves loss of a
water moiety. Secretion and absorption is mainly the function of
columnar epithelium. Squamous epithelium
161. Answer (3) permits diffusion of gases.
Chitin is a complex polysaccharide made up of
172. Answer (1)
N-acetylglucosamine and is found in exoskeleton
of arthropods. Fluidity is a characteristic feature of matrix of
162. Answer (2) blood which lacks fibres.
‘Y’ in the above graphic representation represents 173. Answer (2)
Km (Michaelis constant) which indicates the Neuroglial cells are not excitable, they are
substrate concentration at which the chemical supporting cells.
reaction catalysed by an enzyme attains half its 174. Answer (4)
maximum velocity. Km is inversely proportional to
Tongue is a muscular organ covered by
affinity of an enzyme. epithelium.
163. Answer (2) 175. Answer (1)
Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Cofactor
The tunica intima of blood vessels is constituted
Cofactors can be prosthetic groups, coenzymes by simple squamous epithelium called
and metal ions. Prosthetic groups are tightly endothelium.
bound to apoenzyme whereas coenzymes are
loosely bound. 176. Answer (2)
164. Answer (2) Serine is synthesized to form proteins but not
secreted.
Tryptophan is the precursor of melatonin.
Precursor of melanin is tyrosine. 177. Answer (3)
165. Answer (1) Fallopian tubes and most of the bronchioles are
340 nm = 3400 Å lined by ciliated epithelium.
3400 Å = 100 helices 178. Answer (2)
100 helices = 2000 bases Unicellular glands consist of isolated glandular
50% of total bases = Purines cells e.g. goblet cells of alimentary canal whereas
multicellular glands consist of cluster of cells e.g.
2000 salivary glands.
Purines =  1000
2 179. Answer (1)
50% adenine = 500
Areolar tissue is loose connective tissue and is
[A] = [T] = 500 the most abundant of all connective tissues. It is
166. Answer (3) not a specialised connective tissue.
Ribozyme and ribonuclease P are nucleic acid 180. Answer (4)
based enzymes. Vitamin D is synthesised in skin and is essential
167. Answer (1) for the maintenance of bone mineralisation
Steroids are derived lipids. through calcium and phosphorus homeostasis.

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