AGK Systems

Tüm hakları Ayjet 44.dönem'e aittir. İzinsiz kopyalanması, çoğaltılması ve dağıtılması kesinlikle yasaktır.
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AGK - Systems
01 System Design, Loads, Stresses, Maintenance
1. Q(3634) In the hydraulic press schematically shown, what input force would be required on the left hand side to balance the force on the right
hand side? (The diagram is not to scale)
A. 20 N.
B. 100 N.
C. 1 N.
D. 1000 N.
2. Q(3642) In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first:
A. compressed, passed through a secondary heat exchanger, and then across an expansion turbine.
B. passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a secondary heat exchanger.
C. passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.
D. used to increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low.
3. Q(3049) The ice protection system currently used for the most modern jet aeroplanes is the
A. Liquid de-icing system.

B. Hot air system.
C. Pneumatic system with expandable boots.
D. Electrical de-icing system.
4. Q(3631) "Conditioned" air is air that has:
A. been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure.

B. had the oxygen content increased.
C. had the oxygen content reduced.
D. had any moisture removed from it.
5. Q(171) Cabin air for modern aircraft is usually taken from:
A. the low pressure compressor and from the high pressure compressor if necessary.
B. the high pressure compressor.
C. the low pressure compressor.
D. the second fan stage.
6. Q(15214) For safe life designed structural components : 1. there is more than one load carrying component. 2. one load carrying component is
sufficient for a given load, provided it is strong enough. 3. the component is removed at the end of the calculated life time or number of cycles. 4. the
design is based on the principle of redundancy of components. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 1, 4.
B. 1, 3.
C. 2, 4.
D. 2, 3.
7. Q(753) Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually operate with a system pressure of approximately:
A. 4000 psi
B. 1000 psi
C. 3000 psi
D. 2000 psi
8. Q(8003) On the diagram shown below, which numbered image depicts sheer force:
A. 4
B. 3
C. 1
D. 2
9. Q(10735) Flutter results from two deformation modes which are:
A. torsion and shearing

B. shearing and elongation
C. bending and elongation
D. torsion and bending
10. Q(15723) According JAR/CS 25 the allowable average failure probability per flight hour for a minor failure should be on the order of (^ means to
10. Q(15723) According JAR/CS 25 the allowable average failure probability per flight hour for a minor failure should be on the order of (^ means to
the power of):
A. between 10^ -3 and 10^ -5. (probable)

B. less than 10^ -9. (extremely improbable)
C. between 10^ -7 and 10^ -9. (extremely remote)
D. between 10^ -5 and 10^ -7. (remote)
11. Q(2391) When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction factor is equal to:
A. 0
B. 0.1
C. 1
D. 0.5
12. Q(6023) A safe life aircraft structural component:
A. has parallel load paths.

B. should have enough strength during the whole lifetime of an aircraft.
C. is so strong that it will never fail during a declared time period.
D. may be used during a declared number of cycles or flight hours.
13. Q(16620) The principle of damage tolerance in structural design of an aircraft is based on the:
A. replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or hours of use.

B. monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement of parts if a limit value is exceeded.
C. capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic failure.
D. fact that there is no need to inspect the structure.
14. Q(5380) A scissor link is a component found on landing gears. Its function is to :
A. create the wheel pitch on bogie gears.

B. make the body gears pivot when the nosewheel is turned through more than 20°.
C. transform the translational movement of the rudder pedals into the rotational movement of the nosewheel.
D. prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the undercarriage shock absorber.
15. Q(15750) The principle of the safe life design of an aircraft is based on the:
A. capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic failure.
B. redundancy of the structure or equipment.
C. monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement of parts if a limit value is exceeded.
D. replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or hours of use.
16. Q(756) In a modern hydraulic system, "hydraulic fuses" can be found. Their function is:
A. To allow by-passing of a hydraulic pump in case it is subject to excessive pressure, without further damage to the system.
B. To prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic line.
C. To isolate a part of the system and protect it against accidental pollution.
D. To switch to the secondary system in case of a leak in the primary brake system.
17. Q(10736) Generally, for large aeroplanes, electrical heating for ice protection is used on:
A. elevator leading edges.

B. fin leading edges.
C. Pitot tubes.
D. slat leading edges.
18. Q(3047) With regard to an aircraft structure, 'fail safe' is one:
A. that is only used for a limited time.

B. that is easily manufactured.
C. in which the load is carried by other components if a part of the structure fails.
D. used for small aircraft only.
19. Q(10096) Assuming cabin differential pressure has reached the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight altitude and air conditioning
system setting are maintained:
A. the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.

B. the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
C. the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
D. the mass air flow through the cabin is constant.
20. Q(15979) According JAR/CS 25 the worst effect of a hazardous failure on the aeroplane could be:
A. hull loss.
B. large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
C. slight reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
D. significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
21. Q(16570) According JAR/CS 25 the worst effect of a catastrophic failure on the flight crew could be:
A. physical distress or excessive workload, impairs ability to perform tasks.

B. physical discomfort or a significant increase in workload.
C. a slight increase in workload.
D. fatalities or incapacitation.
22. Q(16622) The principle of fail safe design of an aircraft is based on the:
A. redundancy of the structure or equipment.

B. monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement of parts if a limit value is exceeded.
C. replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or hours of use.
D. capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic failure.
23. Q(10532) The accumulator in a hydraulic system works as
A. a fluid storage.
B. a pressure storage.
C. a volume storage.
D. an energy storage.
24. Q(16418) According JAR/CS 25 the allowable quantitative average failure probability per flight hour for a hazardous failure should be on the order
of (^ means to the power of):
A. between 10^ -7 and 10^ -9. (extremely remote)

B. between 10^ -3 and 10^ -5. (probable)
C. less than 10^ -9. (extremely improbable)
25. Q(12304) The vapour lock is:
A. The exhaust gases obstructions caused by an engine overheating.

B. The abnormal mixture enrichment caused by a greater gasoline vaporisation in the carburettor.
C. The effect of the water vapour bubbles in the induction manifold caused by the condensation.
D. A stoppage in a fuel feeding line caused by a fuel vapour bubble.
26. Q(15893) According JAR/CS 25 the worst effect of a hazardous failure on the flight crew could be:

D. fatalities or incapacitation.
27. Q(16180) Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect? I. In structural design, fail safe implies parallel
structural parts. II. In structural design, safe life implies the structure will never fail during a declared time period or number of cycles.
A. I is correct, II is correct.
B. I is correct, II is incorrect.
C. I is incorrect, II is correct.
D. I is incorrect, II is incorrect.
28. Q(16493) According JAR/CS 25 the worst effect of a major failure on the aeroplane could be:
A. large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.

B. no effect on operational capabilities or safety.
D. significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
29. Q(8000) On the diagram shown below, the type of stress indicated by the image labelled 2 is:
A. Compression
B. Torque
C. Sheer
D. Tension
30. Q(16492) According JAR/CS 25 the worst effect of a major failure on the flight crew could be:

B. a slight increase in workload.
C. no effect on flight crew.
D. physical discomfort or a significant increase in workload.
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31. Q(16410) According JAR/CS 25 the worst effect of a catastrophic failure on the aeroplane could be:
A. significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.

B. large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
D. hull loss.
32. Q(8006) On the diagram shown below, which numbered image depicts the effect of more than one force:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 1
D. 2
33. Q(14702) For fail safe designed structural components: 1. there is more than one load carrying component. 2. one load carrying component is
sufficient, provided it is strong enough. 3. the component is removed at the end of the calculated life time or number of cycles. 4. the design is based
on the principle of redundancy of components. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 2, 3.
B. 1, 4.
C. 2, 4.
D. 1, 3.
A. Sheer
B. Compression
C. Tension
D. Torque
35. Q(781) On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are:
A. Piston pumps.
B. Gear type pumps.
C. Diaphragm pumps.
D. Centrifugal pumps.
36. Q(14833) Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect? I. In structural design, fail safe implies redundant
load paths. II. A safe life structure is based on a declared number of cycles or time period.
A. I is incorrect, II is correct.
B. I is correct, II is correct.
C. I is correct, II is incorrect.
37. Q(5372) Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge de-icing devices, one can affirm that: 1 - They prevent ice
formation. 2 - They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has become visible. 3 - A cycle should not last more than ten seconds. 4 - There are
more than ten cycles per second. The combination which regroups all the correct statements is:
A. 2-4
B. 2-3
C. 1-4
D. 1-3
38. Q(12086) Regarding a thermal wing anti-icing system, the correct statement is:
A. Aerodynamic performances of the wings are not maintained and there is a reduction of maximum engine thrust.
B. Aerodynamic performances of the wings are maintained and there is no reduction of maximum engine thrust.
C. Aerodynamic performances of the wings are not maintained and there is no reduction of maximum engine thrust.
D. Aerodynamic performances of the wings are maintained and there is a reduction of maximum engine thrust.
39. Q(10581) The working principle of the anti-skid system is:
A. Reduction of the brake pressure at the faster turning wheels.

B. Increase of the brake pressure at the slower turning wheels.
C. Increase of the brake pressure at the faster turning wheels.
D. Reduction of the brake pressure at the slower turning wheels.
40. Q(16494) According JAR/CS 25 the worst effect of a minor failure on the aeroplane could be:
A. significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.

B. slight reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
C. large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.
D. no effect on operational capabilities or safety.
41. Q(16316) According JAR/CS 25 the worst effect of a major failure on the occupants of an aeroplane excluding flight crew could be:
A. physical discomfort.
B. inconvenience.
C. physical distress, possibly including injuries.
D. serious or fatal injury to a small number of passengers or cabin crew.
42. Q(6021) In the context of airframe load path philosophies a fail safe component is:
A. A component that has a design fatigue life such that the probability of failure in that life is assessed as remote.
B. A component that does not affect the structural strength of the aircraft.
C. A component incorporated in a large aircraft which is designed so that, following its failure, the remaining structure can withstand reasonable
loads without failure until the damage is detected.
D. A component that has two operating conditions, safe and unsafe, and is designed so that following a failure it is in the safe condition.
43. Q(14885) According JAR/CS 25 the worst effect of a hazardous failure on the occupants of an aeroplane excluding flight crew could be:
A. physical distress, possibly including injuries.

B. serious or fatal injury to a small number of passengers or cabin crew.
C. physical discomfort.
D. multiple fatalities.
A. Tension
B. Torque
C. Sheer
D. Compression
45. Q(16060) Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect? I. In structural design, fail safe implies the
structure will never fail. II. In structural design, safe life implies the structure will never fail during a declared time period or number of cycles.
A. I is incorrect, II is incorrect.
D. I is correct, II is correct.
46. Q(16491) According JAR/CS 25 the worst effect of a minor failure on the flight crew could be:

D. no effect on flight crew.
47. Q(16097) Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect? I. The damage tolerance principle takes cracking
of the structure into account. II. The safe life principle is based on the replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or flight hours.
B. I is incorrect, II is incorrect.
48. Q(763) The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the automatic mode, is to perform the following functions: 1. control of cabin altitude, 2.
control of cabin altitude rate-of-change, 3. limitation of differential pressure 4. balancing aircraft altitude with cabin altitude 5. cabin ventilation 6.
keeping a constant differential pressure throughout all the flight phases. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 6, 4
C. 5, 6, 1
D. 4, 5, 3
49. Q(16230) Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect? I. In structural design, fail safe implies the
structure will never fail. II. A safe life structure is based on a declared time period or number of cycles.
D. I is incorrect, II is correct.
50. Q(12090) One of the purposes of the fuel system booster pumps to be submerged in the fuel is:
A. To cool the pumps.

B. To improve their efficiency.
C. To facilitate the priming of the pumps.
D. To shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses.
51. Q(757) In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in order to:
A. prevent pump cavitation

B. reduce fluid combustibility
C. seal the system
D. keep the hydraulic fluid at optimum temperature
52. Q(10500) In flight, the cabin air for large jet transport aeroplanes is usually supplied by:
A. piston compressors.
B. single radial compressors.
C. ram air intakes.
D. engine compressors.
53. Q(12091) One of the functions of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is:
A. to store pressure.
B. to damp pressure surges in the system.
C. to act as a pressure relief valve.
D. to store fluid.
54. Q(15724) According JAR/CS 25 the allowable quantitative average failure probability per flight hour for a catastrophic failure should be on the
order of (^ means to the power of):
A. less than 10^ -9. (extremely improbable)

B. between 10^ -3 and 10^ -5. (probable)
C. between 10^ -7 and 10^ -9. (extremely remote)
55. Q(3052) The de-icing system which is mostly used for the wings of modern turboprop aeroplanes is:
A. Electrical heating.
B. Thermal anti-icing.
C. Pneumatic boots.
D. Fluid de-icing.
56. Q(5364) On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:
A. trailing edge flaps close to the wing root

B. leading edge flaps close to the wing tip
C. trailing edge flaps close to the wing tip
D. leading edge flaps close to the wing root
A. Diaphragm pumps.
B. Centrifugal pumps.
C. Piston pumps.
D. Gear type pumps.
58. Q(8005) On the diagram shown below, which numbered image depicts compression:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
59. Q(5408) The cross-feed fuel system enables:
A. only the transfer of fuel from the centre tank to the wing tanks.
B. the supply of the jet engines mounted on a wing from any fuel tank within that wing.
C. the supply of any jet engine from any fuel tank.
D. the supply of the outboard jet engines from any outboard fuel tank.
60. Q(2453) An aircraft with a pressurized cabin is settled at its cruise level. During the flight, a malfunction of the pressure controller is detected by
the crew and the cabin rate indicator reads -200ft/min. Given that: DELTA P: Differential pressure Zc: Cabin altitude
A. DELTA P will rise up to its maximum value, thus causing the safety relief valves to open.
B. The crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in order to maintain a zero Zc.
C. A descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks dropping when Zc reaches 14000ft.
D. The aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to reduce Zc to its initial value.
61. Q(16126) Which of these statements about structural design principles are correct or incorrect? I. The damage tolerance principle assumes cracks
in the structure will never occur. II. The safe life principle is based on the replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or time period.
C. I is incorrect, II is incorrect.
D. I is correct, II is incorrect.
62. Q(16315) According JAR/CS 25 the worst effect of a minor failure on the occupants of an aeroplane excluding flight crew could be:
B. inconvenience.
C. physical distress, possibly including injuries.
63. Q(2875) The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce:
A. high pressure and small flow.

B. small pressure and small flow.
C. small pressure and large flow.
D. high pressure and large flow.
64. Q(8004) On the diagram shown below, which numbered image depicts tension:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 1
65. Q(10588) VLE is the maximum:
A. speed with flaps extended in a given position

B. speed authorized in flight
C. speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety
D. flight speed with landing gear down
66. Q(6024) A fail safe airframe construction design is:
A. a construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight.

B. a type of construction for small aircraft only.
C. a simple and cheap type of construction.
D. a type of construction in which the load is carried by other components if a part of the structure fails.
67. Q(158) Cabin pressurization is controlled by the:
A. engine's bleed valves.

B. cabin outflow valve.
C. engine's RPM.
D. cabin inlet airflow.
68. Q(12106) A cabin rate of descent:
A. is always the same as the aeroplane's rate of descent.

B. is not possible at constant aeroplane altitudes.
C. results in a cabin pressure increase.
D. results in a cabin pressure decrease.
69. Q(423) In an air cycle machine:
A. the turbine drives the compressor which provides pressurisation.

B. the turbine drives the compressor of the machine which causes a higher temperature, and so increases the second heat exchanger efficiency.
C. the turbine increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin.
D. the temperature drop across the turbine is the main contributor to the cooling effect of the air cycle machine.
70. Q(16621) The principle of on condition maintenance is based on the:
A. replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or hours of use.

B. capability to withstand a certain amount of weakening of the structure without catastrophic failure.
C. redundancy of the structure or equipment.
D. monitoring of critical parameters and the replacement of parts if a limit value is exceeded.
A. Compression
B. Tension
C. Torque
D. Sheer
72. Q(16660) According JAR/CS 25 the worst effect of a catastrophic failure on the occupants of an aeroplane excluding flight crew could be:
B. physical distress, possibly including injuries.
C. multiple fatalities.
73. Q(12014) Cabin pressurisation is regulated by the:
A. cabin inlet valve(s).

B. engines' RPM.
C. engines' bleed valves.
D. cabin outflow valve(s).
74. Q(12135) For a JAR25 aeroplane, spoilers are:
A. upper wing surface devices, their deflection can be symmetrical or asymmetrical.

B. lower wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.
C. lower wing surface devices, their deflection can be symmetrical or asymmetrical.
D. upper wing surface devices, their deflection is always asymmetrical.
75. Q(725) In flight, a cantilever wing of an aeroplane containing fuel is subjected to vertical loads that produce a bending moment, which is:
A. equal to the zero-fuel weight multiplied by the span.

B. highest at the wing root.
C. lowest at the wing root.
D. equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi-span.
76. Q(15722) According JAR/CS 25 the allowable average failure probability per flight hour probability for a major failure should be on the order of (^
means to the power of):
A. between 10^ -7 and 10^ -9. (extremely remote)

B. between 10^ -5 and 10^ -7. (remote)
C. less than 10^ -9. (extremely improbable)
D. between 10^ -3 and 10^ -5. (probable)
02 Airframe
1. Q(10584) Torsion in a wing can be caused by
A. Wing tip vortex

B. Propwash
C. Dihedral
D. Positive sweep
2. Q(16105) Which of these statements about composite and metal structures are correct or incorrect? I. For a structural component with given
dimensions composite materials enable a structural component's strength to be tailored to the direction of the load. II. Composite materials enable
structures with higher strength/weight ratio than metal structures.
3. Q(15324) Control surface flutter can be avoided by: 1. a high torsional stiffness of the structure. 2. a low torsional stiffness of the structure. 3.
locating a balancing mass in front of the control hinge. 4. locating a balancing mass behind the control hinge. The combination that regroups all of
the correct statements is:
A. 2, 3.
B. 1, 4.
C. 1, 3.
D. 2, 4.
4. Q(15630) A sandwich structural part:
A. is unsuitable for fuel tanks.

B. consists of two thin sheets separated by a light core material.
C. is a so-called integral construction.
D. always uses honeycomb as core material.
5. Q(16628) A semi-monocoque aircraft fuselage structure usually consists of:
A. frames, fittings, stringers.

B. ribs, front spar, rear spar.
C. skin, frames ,stringers.
D. ribs, spars, skin.
6. Q(16104) Which of these statements regarding cockpit windows are correct or incorrect? I. On some aeroplanes the cockpit windows have an
additional speed restriction, related to bird impact, when window heating is inoperative. II. Cockpit side windows are usually defogged only.
7. Q(12012) The purpose of stringers, used in fuselage construction, is to:
A. provide sound and thermal isolation.

B. carry the loads due to pressurisation and convert them into tensile stress.
C. withstand shear stresses.
D. assist the skin withstand longitudinal compressive loads.
8. Q(10589) VLO is the maximum:
A. speed with flaps extended in a given position.

B. speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full safety.
C. cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with caution.
D. flight speed with landing gear down.
9. Q(15172) At Reference. Consider the fuselage cross sections shown in the annex. Place these cross sections in order of increasing structural
suitability for a pressurised cabin.
A. 1, 4, 3, 2.
B. 2, 3, 4, 1.
C. 1, 3, 4, 2.
D. 4, 2, 3, 1.
10. Q(15024) A composite structural component consists of:
A. two metal sheets bonded together.

B. a matrix and fibres.
C. aluminium alloy with a covering layer of pure aluminium.
D. two thin metal sheets and a light core material.
11. Q(12268) The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is subjected to a bending moment due to thrust and drag.
The loading on the front spar of the torsion box from the wing root to the wing tip is:
A. compression.
B. compression, and then tension.
C. tension, and then compression.
D. tension.
12. Q(14835) Which of these statements concerning a sandwich structural part are correct or incorrect? I. The main function of the core material is to
stabilise the covering sheets. II. A sandwich structural part is unsuitable for absorbing concentrated loads.
B. I is incorrect, II is correct.
13. Q(12107) Significant torsion effects in a wing during flight can be caused by:
A. wing tip vortices.

B. aileron deflection.
C. wing dihedral.
D. propwash.
14. Q(15999) Which of these statements concerning a sandwich structural part are correct or incorrect? I. The main function of the core material is to
stabilise the covering sheets. II. A sandwich structural part is well suited for absorbing concentrated loads.
15. Q(16062) Which of these statements about sandwich structural parts are correct or incorrect? I. A sandwich structural part consists of fibres and a
resin. II. A sandwich structural part is suitable for absorbing concentrated loads.
A. I is correct, II is incorrect.
C. I is correct, II is correct.
16. Q(1757) Among the different types of aircraft structures, monocoque construction efficiently transmits the: 1. Normal bending stresses 2.
Compression stresses 3. Torsional moment 4. Tension stresses. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
A. 1, 2, 4
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 3
D. 2, 3, 4
17. Q(15189) At reference. Consider the fuselage cross sections shown in the annex. Place these cross sections in order of decreasing structural
suitability for a pressurised cabin.
A. 4, 2, 3, 1.
B. 1, 4, 3, 2.
C. 1, 3, 4, 2.
D. 2, 3, 4, 1.
18. Q(15085) The function of ribs in a wing is to:
A. withstand all the structural loads.

B. allow installation of fuel cells in the wing.
C. withstand the torsional loads.
D. give the wing the desired aerodynamic shape.
19. Q(1758) On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure elements which take up the vertical bending moments are:
A. the skin
B. the spars
C. the webs
D. the ribs
20. Q(15515) A structure in which the skin takes all of the load is:
A. a semi-monocoque structure.
B. a monocoque structure.
C. a semi-braced structure.
D. a box structure.
21. Q(16027) Which of these statements regarding cockpit windows are correct or incorrect? I. Cockpit windows never have an additional speed
restriction, related to bird impact, when window heating is inoperative. II. Cockpit side windows are usually defogged only.
22. Q(14966) One design method to avoid control surface flutter is:
A. providing the wing structure with sufficient flexibility.

B. through the correct use of balance tabs.
C. through the correct use of trim tabs.
D. ensuring correct mass distribution within the control surface.
23. Q(14711) The bending loads on a cantilever wing due to lift are carried by the: 1. upper skin surface. 2. lower skin surface. 3. wing root fairing. 4.
spar or spars. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 2, 3.
B. 1, 3, 4.
C. 3, 4
D. 1, 2, 4.
24. Q(16627) A wing spar typically consists of:
A. a web and girders.

B. ribs and frames.
C. ribs and stiffeners.
D. frames and webs.
25. Q(16046) Which of these statements concerning a sandwich structural part are correct or incorrect? I. The main function of the core material is
sound insulation. II. A sandwich structural part is well suited for absorbing concentrated loads.
26. Q(14993) One function of a rib is:
A. to stabilise the fuselage skin against buckling.

B. to carry tensile load of the fuselage pressure hull.
C. to be the primary structural member to carry wings loads.
D. to maintain the aerodynamic shape of the wing.
27. Q(16455) A sandwich type structure is often used in aircraft because of its:
A. ease of deformation under load.

B. high temperature resistance.
C. low mass and high stiffness.
D. low mass and low stiffness.
28. Q(15061) A sandwich structural part is:
A. composed of two thin sheets and a light core material.

B. composed of resin and fibres.
C. a so-called integral construction.
D. well suited for absorbing point concentrated loads.
29. Q(16061) Which of these statements regarding cockpit windows are correct or incorrect? I. Cockpit windows never have an additional speed
restriction, related to bird impact, when window heating is inoperative. II. Cockpit side windows are always provided with a de-icing system.
30. Q(15010) The fuselage structure of a pressurised transport aeroplane is an example of a:
A. truss type structure.

B. sandwich structure.
C. pure monocoque structure.
D. semi-monocoque structure.
31. Q(10550) The inner surface of a heated windscreen is made of:
A. Glass
B. Hard perspex
C. Soft polycarbonate
D. Triplex
32. Q(14834) Which of these statements about sandwich structural parts are correct or incorrect? I. A sandwich structural part consists of two thin
sheets enclosing a light core material. II. A sandwich structural part is not suitable for absorbing concentrated loads.
33. Q(15029) When a wing bends downwards, aileron flutter might occur if the aileron deflects:
A. downwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies in front of the hinge line.
B. downwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies behind the hinge line.
C. upwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies in front of the hinge line.
D. upwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies behind the hinge line.
34. Q(14707) Windshield heating of a transport aeroplane is
A. essential to improve the strength of the cockpit windows.

B. only used when hot-air demisting is insufficient.
C. used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation.
D. not affecting the strength of a cockpit windows.
35. Q(3833) The highest load on the torsion link in a bogie gear is:
A. when braking with an inoperative anti-skid system.

B. whilst turning on the ground with a small radius.
C. when gear is selected down.
D. on touch down with a strong crosswind
36. Q(12099) Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered diagrams:
A. 1- cantilever 2- fork 3- half fork 4- dual wheels
B. 1- half-fork 2- single trace 3- cantilever 4- dual wheels
C. 1- cantilever 2- dual wheels 3- half fork 4- fork
D. 1- half fork 2- fork 3- cantilever 4- tandem
37. Q(16028) Which of these statements concerning a sandwich structural part are correct or incorrect? I. The main function of the core material is
sound insulation. II. A sandwich structural part is unsuitable for absorbing concentrated loads.
38. Q(1324) The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines located under the wing, is subjected to a bending moment which causes its leading
edge, from the wing root to the wing tip, to operate in:
A. compression, and then tension.

B. tension.
C. compression.
D. tension, and then compression.
39. Q(3658) The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for long distances cannot simply be used for short haul flights at higher frequencies
is that
A. in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole flight, which stresses the aeroplane's structure in an unacceptable way
B. these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul flights.
C. the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will take too much time
D. the lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on a determined load spectrum
40. Q(15851) When a wing bends upwards, aileron flutter might occur if the aileron deflects:
A. downwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies behind the hinge line.
B. upwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies in front of the hinge line.
C. upwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies behind the hinge line.
D. downwards, because the location of the aileron centre of gravity lies in front of the hinge line.
41. Q(15583) A non-cantilever wing is:

A. a wing planform other than rectangular.
B. a low wing configuration.
C. a high wing configuration.
D. a wing supported by braces or a strut connected to the fuselage.
42. Q(14710) Loads on the cylindrical part of the fuselage during pressurisation are carried by the:
A. ribs.
B. spars.
C. stringers.
D. skin.
43. Q(16182) Which of these statements about composite and metal structures are correct or incorrect? I. For a structural component with given
dimensions composite materials enable a structural component's strength to be tailored to the direction of the load. II. Composite materials enable
structures with lower strength/weight ratio than metal structures.
44. Q(10443) An electrically heated windscreen is manufactured from:
A. A perspex and polycarbonate laminate with gold heating element.

B. A glass and polycarbonate laminate.
C. A boron aluminide and glass laminate.
D. Triple glass sheets with the grain laid at 60° to each other.
45. Q(16231) Which of these statements about sandwich structural parts are correct or incorrect? I. A sandwich structural part consists of fibres and a
resin. II. A sandwich structural part is not suitable for absorbing concentrated loads.
46. Q(16156) Which of these statements about composite and metal structures are correct or incorrect? I. In a structural component with given
dimensions constructed of composite materials, the strength is the same in all directions. II. Composite materials enable structures with lower
strength/weight ratio than metal structures.
47. Q(16232) Which of these statements about composite and metal structures are correct or incorrect? I. In a structural component with given
dimensions constructed of composite materials, the strength is the same in all directions. II. Composite materials enable structures with higher
strength/weight ratio than metal structures.
48. Q(16743) In straight and level flight the most important loads on a cantilever wing are:
A. tension in both the upper and the lower surfaces.

B. compression in both the upper and the lower surfaces.
C. tension in the upper surface, compression in the lower surface.
D. compression in the upper surface, tension in the lower surface.
49. Q(15582) A cantilever wing is:

A. a wing planform other than rectangular.
B. a low wing configuration.
C. a high wing configuration.
D. a wing attached to the fuselage at the wing root only.
50. Q(14999) The pressurisation load on the skin of a fuselage is:
A. bending.
B. compression.
C. tension.
D. torsion.
51. Q(4788) When the door of a transport aeroplane, equipped with evacuation slides in the armed position, is opened from the outside the slide it:
A. unfolds and becomes inflated.

B. is disarmed automatically.
C. becomes inflated in its container thus preventing its unfolding.
D. unfolds but does not become inflated.
52. Q(16678) What are the three elements of the fuselage structure of a large transport aeroplane?
A. skin, frames, stringers.

B. skin, ribs, formers.
C. skin, girders, webs.
D. skin, spars, ribs.
53. Q(16181) Which of these statements about sandwich structural parts are correct or incorrect? I. A sandwich structural part consists of two thin
sheets enclosing a light core material. II. A sandwich structural part is suitable for absorbing concentrated loads.
54. Q(16741) Whilst stationary on the ground in a hangar the most important loads on a cantilever wing are:
A. tension in the upper surface, compression in the lower surface.

B. compression in both the upper and the lower surfaces.
C. compression in the upper surface, tension in the lower surface.
D. tension in both the upper and the lower surfaces.
55. Q(15581) Which of these statements about the wing structure is correct?
A. The slats are a part of the torsion box.

B. A semi-monocoque structure consists of the skin and frames.
C. A wing main spar consists of a web with stringers.
D. A torsion box is formed by wing spars, ribs and wing skin reinforced by stringers.
56. Q(15719) To achieve control flutter damping the balance mass must be located:
A. directly above the control surface hinge.

B. directly below the control surface hinge.
C. behind the control surface hinge.
D. in front of the control surface hinge.
57. Q(15989) Which of these statements regarding cockpit windows are correct or incorrect? I. On some aeroplanes the cockpit windows have an
additional speed restriction, related to bird impact, when window heating is inoperative. II. Cockpit side windows are always provided with a de-icing
system.
58. Q(15720) A sandwich structural part is unsuitable for absorbing:
A. torsional loads.
B. shear loads.
C. concentrated loads.
D. bending loads.
59. Q(16742) What is the load in the upper respectively lower girder of a spar of a cantilever wing during straight and level flight?
A. Torsion in the lower- and upper girder.

B. Tension in lower- and upper girder.
C. Compression in the upper girder and tension in the lower girder.
D. Tension in the upper girder and compression in the lower girder.
03 Hydraulics
1. Q(3699) To protect against excessive system pressure, a hydraulic system usually incorporates:
A. a standby hydraulic pump.

B. an accumulator.
C. auxiliary hydraulic motors.
D. a high pressure relief valve.
2. Q(10511) Maximum power output and low mass of aeroplane hydraulic systems can be achieved with
A. low system pressure and high volume flow.

B. medium system pressure and high volume flow.
C. high system pressure and low volume flow.
D. medium system pressure and low volume flow.
3. Q(6504) Hydraulic fluids should have the following characteristics: 1. thermal stability 2. anti-corrosive 3. high flash-point 4. high compressibility 5.
high volatility The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 1,2,5
B. 1,2,3
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,4,5
4. Q(748) In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is pre-charged to 1200 psi. If an electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and provides a
system pressure of 3000 psi, the pressure gauge, which is connected to the gas section of the accumulator, will read:
A. 4200 psi
B. 3000 psi
C. 1200 psi
D. 1800 psi
5. Q(759) Shuttle valves will automatically:
A. reduce pump loads.

B. guard systems against overpressure.
C. shut down systems which are overloaded.
D. Switch hydraulically operated units to the most appropriate pressure supply.
6. Q(3694) When powering up a hydraulic system, the level in the reservoir will:
A. increase as ambient temperature decreases.

B. decrease slightly.
C. initially increase with system pressurisation.
D. always remain the same.
7. Q(3635) Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi and the hydraulic system is pressurised to 1500 psi, the accumulator gauge
will read:
A. 1500 psi.
B. 500 psi.
C. 2500 psi.
D. 1000 psi.
8. Q(12280) The lubricating system of an air cooled piston engine is used to:
A. to operate the fuel control unit.

B. keep the engine warm.
C. operate constant speed propellers.
D. reduce internal friction and provide cooling.
9. Q(751) Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern airliners are:
A. Mineral base fluids.

B. Water base fluids.
C. Phosphate ester base fluids.
D. Vegetable base fluids.
10. Q(10724) The hydraulic systems which works correctly is shown in the figure:
A. c
B. a
C. d
D. b
11. Q(752) Hydraulic power is a function of:
A. System pressure and volume flow.

B. System pressure and tank capacity.
C. Pump size and volume flow.
D. Pump RPM only.
12. Q(3048) The type of hydraulic fluid which has the greatest resistance to cavitation is:
A. Water and glycol based fluid.

B. Mineral oil based fluid.
C. Vegetable oil based fluid (caster oil).
D. Synthetic fluid.
13. Q(5406) The reservoirs of a hydraulic system can be pressurized:
A. by bleed air from the engine.

B. by an auxiliary system.
C. in flight only.
D. by the air conditioning system.
14. Q(14510) The level in a hydraulic reservoir will:
A. fluctuate with accumulator pressure.

B. always remain the same.
C. increase as ambient temperature decreases.
D. initially increase with system pressurisation.
15. Q(6506) The purpose of a hydraulic fuse is to:
A. Prevent loss of system fluid if the pipeline to a brake unit should rupture.
B. Prevent over-pressurising the reservoir as altitude increases.
C. Allow the parking brake to remain on overnight if required.
D. Allow a reduced pressure to the wheel brake system to avoid locking the wheels.
16. Q(12157) In a hydraulic system overheat detectors are mostly installed:
A. at the pumps.
B. in the reservoirs.
C. at the coolers.
D. at the actuators.
17. Q(3698) A hydraulic shuttle valve:
A. is a non-return valve.
B. regulates pump delivery pressure.
C. allows two units to be operated by one pressure source.
D. enables an alternate supply to operate an actuator.
18. Q(750) Hydraulic fluids:
A. Are irritating to eyes and skin and cause high fire risk.
B. Cause high fire risk.
C. Do not require special care.
D. Are irritating to eyes and skin.
19. Q(2407) The colour of a fresh synthetic hydraulic fluids is:
A. pink.
B. red.
C. blue.
D. purple.
20. Q(10580) The viscosity of a hydraulic fluid should be:
A. The lowest to minimize power consumption and resistance to flow.

B. The highest to provide excellent lubrication properties.
C. The highest to minimize power consumption and resistance to flow.
D. The lowest to provide excellent lubrication properties.
21. Q(10434) A single action actuator:
A. Cannot be used for variable position operations as it is designed to lock in the extremities of travel.
B. Travels one direction under one application of hydraulic power and in the opposite direction under a second application of hydraulic power.
C. Is a one shot actuator used for emergency systems only.
D. Is powered in one direction only by hydraulic power, the return movement being under spring force.
22. Q(2885) The hydraulic device, which functionality is comparable to an electronic diode, is a:
A. shutoff valve.
B. check valve.
C. flow control valve.
D. distribution valve.
23. Q(3697) In the typical hydraulic system represented in the graphic, assuming hydraulic pressure throughout and no internal leakage:
A. the piston moves to the left due to pressure acting on differential areas.
B. a condition of hydraulic lock exists and no movement of the piston will take place.
C. the piston moves to the right due to equal pressure acting on differential areas.
D. the piston is free to move in response to external forces since pressures are equal.
24. Q(10521) Parameters to monitor a hydraulic system in the cockpit can be:
A. pressure and RPM of the hydraulic pump.

B. pressure and fluid viscosity.
C. Pressure, fluid temperature and quantity.
D. pressure and hydraulic pump output.
25. Q(755) The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic systems is:
A. mineral oil
B. mixture of mineral oil and alcohol
C. synthetic oil
D. vegetable oil
26. Q(2873) The function of a hydraulic selector valve is to:
A. select the system to which the hydraulic pump should supply pressure.
B. direct system pressure to either side of the piston of an actuator.
C. discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too high.
D. automatically activate the hydraulic system.
D. automatically activate the hydraulic system.
27. Q(10488) Hydraulic fluid, entering the hydraulic pump, is slightly pressurised to:
A. prevent overheating of the pump.

B. prevent cavitation in the pump.
C. prevent vapour locking.
D. ensure sufficient pump output.
28. Q(15005) A single acting actuator:
A. is a one shot actuator used for emergency systems only.

B. travels one direction under one application of hydraulic power and in the opposite direction under a second application of hydraulic power.
C. is powered in one direction only by hydraulic power, the return movement being under another force.
D. cannot be used for variable position operations as it is designed to lock in the extremities of travel.
29. Q(3696) Assuming a hydraulic accumulator is pre-charged with air to 1000 psi. If the hydraulic system is then pressurised to its operating pressure
of 3000 psi, the indicated pressure on the air side of the accumulator should be:
A. 2000 psi.
B. 4000 psi.
C. 3000 psi.
D. 1000 psi.
30. Q(3695) An accumulator in a hydraulic system will:
A. reduce fluid temperature only.

B. increase pressure surges within the system.
C. reduce fluid temperature and pressure.
D. store fluid under pressure.
31. Q(5371) A hydraulic low pressure alert is the first indication of:
A. a leak in the reservoir return line.

B. the pump output pressure being insufficient.
C. the hydraulic system accumulator becoming deflated.
D. the reservoir level being at a minimum acceptable level.
32. Q(6505) In the diagram (not to scale), the balancing force required on the right hand side (B) is: Force A: 10 N Area A: 0.05m² Area B: 0.5 m²
A. 20 N
B. 1000 N
C. 1 N
D. 100 N
33. Q(16888) Which of these statements about an aeroplane's hydraulic system is correct?
A. The pumps are always electrically driven because they need to deliver a high pressure of 3000 psi.
B. The filters, the pressure relief valve(s), the by-pass valve(s), and the fire shut-off valve are safety features installed in the system.
C. The hydraulic reservoir contains a membrane and is pressurised by nitrogen on one side of this membrane.
D. A hydraulic leak in a return line does not affect the functioning of the hydraulic system.
34. Q(3469) Hydraulic fluid, entering the hydraulic pump, is slightly pressurised to:
A. prevent cavitation in the pump

B. prevent vapour locking.
C. ensure sufficient pump output
D. prevent overheating of the pump.
35. Q(5381) For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct statement is:
A. the pumps are always electric due to the high pressures which they must deliver (140 to 210 kg/cm²).
B. the reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid maintained under pressure by a pneumatic back pressure (air or nitrogen) and destined to
serve as a fluid or pressure reserve.
C. the regulation system deals only with emergency operation and is not applied to all hydraulic services but only those considered as essential.
D. the security components comprise the filters, the pressure relief valves, the by-passes, and the fire shut-off valve.
36. Q(2874) The component that converts hydraulic pressure into linear motion is called:
A. A hydraulic pump.
B. A pressure regulator.
C. An accumulator.
D. An actuator or jack.
37. Q(754) In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category aircraft the fluids used are:
A. Synthetic oil.
B. Water and glycol.
C. Mineral oil.
D. Vegetable oil.
38. Q(15325) Purposes of an accumulator in an hydraulic system are: 1. to damp pressure fluctuations. 2. to cool the hydraulic fluid. 3. to serve as a
limited alternate source of pressure. 4. to serve as a main pressure source for normal operation. The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:
A. 1, 4.
B. 2, 3.
C. 2, 4.
D. 1, 3.
39. Q(3700) The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency hydraulic power for:
A. flap extension only.

B. flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic power.
C. undercarriage selection and automatic brake system.
D. nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed.
40. Q(14427) The cylinder head and oil temperature gauges are to exceed the normal operating ranges if a pilot
A. operating with higher-than-normal oil pressure

B. uses fuel that has a rating lower-than-specified for the engine
C. uses fuel that has a rating higher-than-specified for the engine
D. operates with the mixture control set too rich
41. Q(10562) The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is:
A. to bypass the pumps in the hydraulic system.

B. to enable the starting of hydraulic devices.
C. to damp the fluid pressure variations.
D. to eliminate the fluid flow variations.
42. Q(12418) To maintain a constant mixture at low and high power settings in a piston engine, a carburettor is fitted with:
A. an accelerator pump.
B. a power jet.
C. a mixture control.
D. a diffuser (compensating jet).
43. Q(3636) Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause:
A. an increased fluid pressure.

B. an increased fluid temperature.
C. fluid loss.
D. a decreased fluid temperature.
44. Q(747) Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics: 1. thermal stability 2. low emulsifying characteristics 3. corrosion resistance 4. good
resistance to combustion 5. high compressibility 6. high volatility 7. high viscosity The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 2, 5, 7
C. 1, 3, 4, 6
D. 2, 3, 4, 5
04 Landing Gear, Wheels, Tyres, Brakes

1. Q(3659) The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being disconnected after landing ..
A. automatically
B. at a certain low speed
C. the system is always armed
D. by pilot action
2. Q(15167) Emergency extension of landing gear systems can be performed:: 1. with compressed C0². 2. with compressed nitrogen. 3. with
compressed oxygen. 4. by mechanical/manual means. 5. by freefall. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 1, 3, 4.
B. 1, 2, 5.
C. 2, 4, 5.
D. 2, 3, 4.
3. Q(7995) The number in the annex that shows the torsion link is:
A. number 3
B. number 1
C. number 4
D. number 2
4. Q(7990) Which part of the nose landing gear is shown by the number 1?
A. Shock absorber
B. Retraction actuator
C. Steering actuator
D. Torsion link
5. Q(7988) An anti-retract latch blocks the landing gear lever when:
A. the gear is in an improper configuration for extension

B. The IAS is too high for gear retraction
C. The IAS is too low for gear retraction
D. an aircraft is on the ground
6. Q(10517) On a 13653 a fire detection system includes:
A. both a warning light and an alarm bell unique to each engine

B. a single warning light but a separate alarm bell for each engine
C. a single warning light and a single alarm bell
D. a warning light for each engine and a single alarm bell common to all engines
7. Q(3639) "Nose wheel shimmy" may be described as:
A. a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when moving on the ground.
B. aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension of the gear.
C. the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before steering takes effect.
D. the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended prior to landing.
8. Q(7997) Which part of the main landing gear is shown by number 5?

A. Retraction actuator
B. Main leg oleo strut
C. side stay/strut
D. axle
9. Q(2447) Landing gear torque links are used to:
A. maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and take-off.

B. prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut.
C. take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected.
D. prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod.
10. Q(3702) Tyre "creep" may be described as the:
A. the increase in inflation pressure due to decrease in ambient temperature.

B. gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear.
C. circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel flange.
D. the decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient temperature.
11. Q(2433) In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit is stored in the following state:
A. liquid.
B. chemical.
C. chemical or gaseous.
D. Gaseous.
12. Q(3637) On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the main source of power is derived from:
A. pressure to the rudder pedals.

B. the brake actuators.
C. the master cylinders.
D. the aeroplane's hydraulic system.
13. Q(4773) On the lower image on the diagram shown below, the landing gear element indicated by the number 6 is:
A. torque links
B. bogie pitch trimmer
C. bogie beam
D. retraction actuator
14. Q(4777) On the diagram shown below, the landing gear element indicated by the number 3 is:
A. shock absorber
B. retraction actuator
C. torque links
D. bogie beam
15. Q(12081) Shimmy occurs on the nose wheel landing gear during taxiing when: 1. the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on the ground
2. the wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actions. This effect is overcome by means of: 3. the torque link 4. an accumulator associated with the
steering cylinder. The combination of correct statements is:
A. 2, 4.
B. 1, 4.
C. 2, 3.
D. 1, 3.
16. Q(2409) A tubeless tyre is a tyre: 1. which requires solid or branched wheels 2. whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations 3. whose
mounting rim must be flawless 4. which requires no rim protection between rim flange and tire removing device 5. which does not burst in the event of
a tire puncture 6. which eliminates internal friction between the tube and the tire The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A. 2, 3, 6.
B. 1, 5, 6.
C. 1, 2, 5.
D. 3, 4, 5.
17. Q(3064) The purpose of a diluter demand regulator in an oxygen system is to :
A. deliver oxygen flow when inhaling.

B. is only recommended with smoke in the cockpit.
C. deliver oxygen flow only above FL 100.
D. mix air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.
18. Q(3055) A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested by
A. checking the wiring harness for faults but not the sensor.
B. checking the sensor with pressurized gas.
B. checking the sensor with pressurized gas.
C. heating up the sensor with test power connection.
D. checking the continuity of the system with a test switch.
19. Q(5377) An under-inflated tyre will:
A. be more subject to viscous aquaplaning.

B. experience reduced wear at the shoulders
C. experience increased wear at the shoulders.
D. have an increased hydroplaning speed.
20. Q(3661) A pressurized aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It undergoes a rapid decompression so that the pressure in the cabin goes quickly down
to the outside pressure value. What happens concerning the oxygen system ?
A. the oxygen masks are automatically presented to cabin crew members and passengers
B. manual override of the automatic presentation of passenger oxygen masks is, generally speaking, not possible
C. if the automatic mask presentation has been activated, the oxygen will flow within the first 3 minutes
D. the oxygen masks are automatically presented to flight crew members
21. Q(12028) An oxygen supply system must be kept absolutely free of oil or grease as:
A. the breathing oxygen would be contaminated by these substances.

B. these substances could block the oxygen masks filters.
C. these substances catch fire spontaneously in the presence of oxygen.
D. these substances mixed with oxygen could catch fire in the presence of a spark.
22. Q(2871) The damping element in a landing gear shock absorber used on large aircrafts is:
A. Oxygen.
B. Springs.
C. Nitrogen.
D. Oil.
23. Q(5367) Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless tyre presents the following characteristics: 1 - high heating 2 - valve fragility 3 -
lower risk of bursting 4 - better adjustment to wheels The combination containing all the correct statements is:
A. 2-3
B. 3-4
C. 2-4
D. 1-2-3-4
24. Q(12279) To avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating there is:
A. the "Emergency Burst" function of the anti-skid system that adapts braking to the tyre temperature.
B. a thermal plug that deflates the tyre at a specific temperature.
C. water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature.
D. a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve.
25. Q(7992) The number in the annex that shows the torsion link is:
A. number 2
B. number 4
C. number 3
D. number 1
26. Q(742) The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aeroplane wheels is that they:
A. release air from the tyre in the event of overheating.

B. prevent tyre burst after excessive brake application.
C. prevent the brakes from overheating.
D. prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.
27. Q(12283) The function of a scissor (torsion link) in a landing gear is to:
A. create the wheel pitch on bogie gears.

B. make the body gears pivot when the nose wheel is turned through more than 20°.
C. transfer the rudder pedal deflection into nose wheel steering commands.
D. prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the landing gear shock absorber.
28. Q(12083) Regarding the oxygen system of a JAR 25 aeroplane:
A. with the setting on "NORMAL", the crew breathes a mixture of oxygen and cabin air.
B. the seals must be carefully greased to avoid sparks.
C. the passenger source of supply never uses chemically generated oxygen.
D. the same source of supply is used by the crew and passengers.
29. Q(10502) In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid the landing gear being inadvertently retracted on the ground. It consists of:
A. A latch located in the landing gear lever.

B. An aural warning horn.
C. A bolt.
D. A warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On Wheels) sensor system.
30. Q(7989) For aircraft equipped with a landing gear anti retract latch, which of these statments is correct?
A. This system may never be overridden since an uncentred nose wheel can damage the wheel well structure
B. This system blocks gear retaction at too low IAS
C. This system blocks gear retaction at too high IAS
C. This system blocks gear retaction at too high IAS
D. This system can be overridden under specific conditions
31. Q(3890) The function of a fusible plug is to
A. protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic system.

B. protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive temperature.
C. function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system
D. protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive temperature.
32. Q(743) Thermal plugs are installed in:
A. cabin windows.
B. cargo compartments.
C. wheel rims.
D. fire warning systems.
33. Q(737) In a commercial transport aeroplane the landing gear normal operating system is usually:
A. electrically driven.
B. mechanically driven.
C. hydraulically driven.
D. pneumatically driven.
34. Q(7993) Which part of the main landing gear is shown by the number 3?
A. Main leg oleo strut
B. Side stay/strut
C. Retraction actuator
D. Torsion link
35. Q(12036) The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal mode, operates when the:
A. pressure in the oxygen reservoir is more than 500 psi.

B. user breathes in.
C. user requires 100% oxygen.
D. user breathes out.
36. Q(3660) The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-pneumatic strut are:
A. the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the heat-dissipation function.
B. the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen supplies the spring function
C. the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies the damping function.
D. the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the nitrogen supplies the damping function.
37. Q(7991) The number in the annex that shows the retraction actuator is:
A. number 4
B. number 3
C. number 2
D. number 1
38. Q(1759) The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of a computer whose input data is: 1. idle wheel speed (measured) 2. braked
wheel speed (measured) 3. brake temperature (measured) 4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate 5. tire pressure The combination regrouping all the
correct statements is :
A. 1, 3.
B. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
C. 2, 4.
D. 1, 2, 4.
39. Q(741) The type of brake unit found on most transport aeroplanes is a:
A. single disk brake.

B. belt brake.
C. drum type brake.
D. Multiple disk brake.
40. Q(1978) An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certicated to CS-25, across an area in which search and rescue would be especially difficult,
without survival equipment if it flies away from an area suitable for making an emergency landing at a distance greater than :
A. 120 minutes at cruising speed.

B. 60 minutes at cruising speed.
C. 90 minutes at cruising speed.
D. 30 minutes at cruising speed.
41. Q(4779) Oxygen systems on pressurized airplanes are used to provide oxygen: 1. In an emergency in the case of depressurization. 2. In an
emergency in the case of the indisposition of a passenger. 3. During a normal flight. 4. In an emergency in case of smoke or toxic gases in the
cockpit. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A. 1,4
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 2, 3
D. 3
42. Q(2450) The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates that the landing gear is:
A. not in the required position.

B. locked-down and its door is locked.
C. in the required position.
D. locked-down.
43. Q(736) A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear to:
A. avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut.
B. absorb the spring tension.
C. lock the landing gear.
D. control the wheels.
44. Q(7996) The number in the annex that shows the main leg oleo strut is:
A. number 4
B. number 2
C. number 1
D. number 3
45. Q(10095) The function of an accumulator in a hydraulic brake system is:
A. to damp pressure fluctuations of the auto brake system.

B. to function as a buffer to assist the hydraulic system during heavy braking.
C. to supply a limited amount of brake energy in the event of failure of the hydraulic system normally supplying the brakes.
D. to store the hydraulic energy recovered by the anti-skid system preventing wheel locking.
46. Q(7957) The maximum permitted creep is:
A. 1.5 inches for tyres of 24 or less inches in diameter and 1 inch for wheels over 24 inches in diameter.
B. Indicated when the edge of the tyre mark aligns with the opposite edge of the wheel mark.
C. As specified on the manufacturer's markings on the tyre wall.
D. Reached after 5 landings.
47. Q(738) Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the landing gear be extended if there is a complete hydraulic system failure.
A. Electrically.
B. Mechanically
C. By hydraulic accumulators.
D. Pneumatically.
48. Q(15607) The auto-brake system is disconnected during landing:
A. below a specific speed.

B. by pilot action.
C. when selecting the reverse thrust.
D. after a preset elapsed time.
49. Q(12005) The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aeroplane wheels is that they:
A. prevent the brakes from overheating.

B. release air from the tyre in the event of overheating.
C. release air from the tyre in the event of overpressure due to over-inflation.
D. prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.
50. Q(12022) During hydroplaning, the friction coefficient between tyre and runway surface is approximately:
A. 1
B. 0.5
C. 0.25
D. 0
51. Q(5368) On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst from overheating, due for example to prolonged braking during an aborted take-off,
there is:
A. the "Emergency Burst" function of the anti-skid system which adapts braking to the tyre temperature.
B. a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve.
C. water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to lower tyre temperature.
D. a hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given temperature (thermal fuse) and deflates the tyre.
05 Flight Controls
1. Q(16057) Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? I. A gust lock can be used in flight to reduce the effects of
turbulence. II. There is no need for a gust lock on reversible flight controls.
2. Q(10429) A pressure regulator is used in a hydraulic system:
A. As an interface between the system and the cockpit indicators.

B. To ensure that an equal pressure flow is delivered to critical components such as servo actuators.
C. In conjunction with a variable delivery type pump.
D. In conjunction with a constant delivery type pump.
3. Q(14831) Which of these statements about trimming in a irreversible flight control system of a conventional aeroplane are correct or incorrect? I.
The zero force position of the control column does not change when using the elevator trim. II. The zero force position of the control wheel changes
when using the aileron trim.
4. Q(15916) The expression "secondary flight control" applies to the: 1: stabiliser 2: rudder 3: speed brake 4: aileron The combination that regroups
all of the correct statements is:
A. 1, 2, 3, 4.
B. 1, 3.
C. 2, 3.
D. 2, 4.
The zero force position of the control column changes when using the elevator trim. II. The zero force position of the control wheel does not change
when using the aileron trim.
6. Q(12101) A Krueger flap is normally located at the:
A. trailing edge.
B. trailing edge close to the wing tip .
C. trailing edge close to the wing root.
D. leading edge.
7. Q(10527) Should a hydraulic pump seize during operation:
A. A red light will illuminate in the cockpit to warn the pilot of the failure.
B. The freewheel unit will disengage the pump from the gearbox.
C. The inner barrel of the pump will rotate thus offloading and protecting the gearbox.
D. The quill drive will shear to offload and protect the gearbox.
8. Q(10525) Rotor brake discs are manufactured from:
A. Boron aluminide or titanium.

B. Aluminium or steel.
C. Steel or titanium.
D. Steel or carbon fibre.
9. Q(10448) Axial piston pumps are often used in hydraulic systems due to:
A. Their low cost, simplicity and durability.

B. Their ability to produce high pressure combined with constant high flow rate.
C. The safety feature of the quill drive shearing due to pump seizure and the ease of repair by replacement of pump and shaft only.
D. Their ability to produce high pressure when required but can be off loaded to reduce power consumption.
10. Q(14913) Given a conventional transport aeroplane with irreversible flight controls on the ground with engines running. Which of these statements
about rudder trim actuation is correct?
A. The rudder moves, the rudder pedals do not move.

B. The "zero force point" of the artificial feel system changes, the rudder does not move.
C. The rudder trim tab moves and the rudder pedals do not move.
D. The rudder moves, the rudder pedals move in the corresponding direction.
11. Q(14832) Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect? I. A rudder ratio changer system reduces the rudder deflection
for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases. II. A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS
increases.
12. Q(10431) A red or an amber light on an undercarriage position indicator signifies:
A. All wheels are up and locked.

B. All wheels are down and locked.
C. The landing has been selected down using the emergency extension system.
D. At least one wheel is in the travelling or unlocked condition.
13. Q(14984) The function of the rudder limiter system is:
A. to reduce pilot's workload during engine failure.

B. to limit pedal movement in heavy turbulence.
C. to restrict the rudder deflection during flight with at Mach numbers.
D. to restrict rudder deflection during flight at high IAS.
14. Q(15847) An aeroplane equipped with fully powered flight controls (irreversible type):
A. remains normally controllable in case of total loss of power to the flight control system.
B. must be equipped with control locks.
C. does not require the use of an artificial feel system.
D. requires the use of an artificial feel system.
15. Q(3840) The reason for the trim switch on a control column to consist of two separate switches is
A. To be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed and high trim rate at low speed
B. Because there are two trim motors.
C. To reduce the probability of a trim-runaway
D. To prevent that both pilots perform opposite trim inputs.
16. Q(5362) For most large aeroplanes, spoilers are:
A. upper wing surface devices and their deflection is always asymmetrical.

B. lower wing surface devices and their deflection is always asymmetrical.
C. lower wing surface devices and their deflection can be symmetrical or asymmetrical.
D. upper wing surface devices and their deflection can be symmetrical or asymmetrical.
17. Q(16720) Given an aeroplane with irreversible primary flight controls, how is control maintained if one hydraulic system is lost due to a hydraulic
leak?
A. By switching the flight control system to the reversible mode.

B. By switching to manual back-up mode.
C. The remaining systems will take over control.
D. Sufficient reserve hydraulic fluid is available to compensate the effects of the leak.
18. Q(11503) Which of the following statements is UNTRUE?

A. In a power assisted flight control system there is a physical link between the pilot and the control surfaces
B. In a powered flight control system there is no physical link between the pilot and the control surfaces
C. Power assisted flight control systems require a Q-feel system
D. Powered flight control systems require an artifical feel system
19. Q(15640) Ruddertrim adjustment in an aeroplane with irreversible flight controls is:
A. an adjustment of the rudder trim tab.

B. an adjustment of the rudder ratio changer.
C. unnecessary because this aeroplane does not need rudder trim.
D. an adjustment of the zero force rudder position.
20. Q(16227) Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? I. A gust lock can be used in flight to reduce the effects of
turbulence. II. Reversible flight controls should have a gust lock.
21. Q(16752) Most transport aeroplanes are provided with protection against control jamming. This means that:
A. the aeroplane is protected against the adverse effects of strong electromagnetic radiation.
B. in case of seizure, engine control is taken over automatically by an alternate electric circuit.
C. seized brakes can be released from the cockpit.
D. the flight control system has provisions to disconnect the part of the control system that becomes blocked.
22. Q(16877) A flight control surface actuator is said to be "irreversible" when:
A. the flight control system has an alternate means of control in case of a control jam.
B. there is a need to lock the flight controls on the ground.
C. the pilot does not feel any force when moving that control surface in flight.
D. there is no feedback to the pilot's controls of the aerodynamic forces acting on the control surface.
23. Q(11502) Which of the following statements is UNTRUE? The dissadvantages of manual flying control systems include:
A. Manual flying control systems are rarely duplicated

B. Jammed controls may cause an accident
C. Aerodynamic forces mean that the control loads increase with airspeed
D. Manual flying control systems are complex
24. Q(10520) Overcentre mechanisms in landing gear systems are used to:
A. Lock the landing gear in the up position only.

B. Ensure the nose-wheel is positioned fore and aft prior to retraction.
C. Ensure that the nose-wheel does not exceed the maximum steering arc.
D. Lock the landing gear in the up and/or down positions.
25. Q(15961) The automatic ground spoiler extension system is normally activated during landing by:
A. main wheel spin up.

B. idle thrust selection.
C. brake pressure application.
D. ground spoiler handle.
for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS decreases. II. A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS
increases.
27. Q(10744) The most common material used in the construction of gearbox casings is:
A. Titanium alloy.
B. Magnesium alloy.
C. Steel alloy.
D. Aluminium alloy.
28. Q(16177) Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? I. There should be suitable design precautions to prevent
flight with the gust lock engaged. II. There is no need for a gust lock on reversible flight controls.
29. Q(10458) Engine compartment decking and firewalls are manufactured from:
A. Composite materials such as carbon, kevlar and fibre glass.

B. Asbestos blankets.
C. Aluminium alloy sheet.
D. Stainless steel or titanium sheet.
30. Q(745) An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel when:
A. the elevators are actuated by irreversible servo-control units.

B. the elevators are actuated by reversible servo-control units.
C. the elevators are fitted with servo-tabs or trim tabs.
D. there is a trimmable stabilizer.
31. Q(16594) On a large transport aeroplane, the auto-slat system:
A. assist the ailerons.

B. extends (part of) the slats automatically when a certain value of angle of attack is exceeded.
C. ensures that the (part of) slats are always extended when the ground/flight system is in the "ground" position.
D. provides for automatic slat retraction after take-off.
32. Q(16056) Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? I. Irreversible flight controls should have a gust lock. II.
There is no need for a gust lock on manual flight controls.
33. Q(16059) Which of these statements about rudder limiting are correct or incorrect? I. A rudder ratio changer system limits both rudder and rudder
pedal deflection as the IAS increases. II. A variable stop system reduces the rudder deflection for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS
increases.
for a given rudder pedal deflection as the IAS increases. II. A variable stop system limits both rudder and rudder pedal deflection as the IAS
decreases.
35. Q(14749) The expression "primary flight control" applies to the: 1: stabiliser 2: rudder 3: speed brake 4: aileron The combination that regroups all
of the correct statements is:
A. 1, 4.
B. 2, 3.
C. 2, 4.
D. 1, 2, 3, 4.
36. Q(10461) Filters in hydraulic systems often incorporate pop out indicators to:
A. Indicate that the filter is due maintenance.

B. Warn of a hydraulic system overheat.
C. Indicate that the filter is clogged and unfiltered oil is passing around the system.
D. Warn of an impending by-pass situation.
37. Q(16176) Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? I. There is no need for a gust lock on irreversible flight
controls. II. There is no need for a gust lock on manual flight controls.
38. Q(10573) The systems used for emergency extension of landing systems may comprise: 1. Compressed C0². 2. Compressed nitrogen. 3.
Compressed oxygen. 4. Auxiliary hydraulic system. 5. Freefall. The combination containing all of the correct statements is:
A. 2, 3, 4.
B. 2, 4, 5.
C. 1, 3, 4.
D. 1, 2, 5.
39. Q(729) The trim tab:
A. increases hinge moment and reduces control surface efficiency.

B. reduces hinge moment and increases control surface efficiency.
C. reduces hinge moment and control surface efficiency.
D. increases hinge moment and control surface efficiency.
40. Q(744) The advantages of fly-by-wire control are: 1. reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required to operate the control surfaces 2. lesser
sensitivity to lightning strike 3. direct and indirect weight saving through simplification of systems 4. immunity to different interfering signals 5.
improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight envelope The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A. 1 and 5
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 5
41. Q(14712) A flight control surface actuator is said to be "reversible" when:
A. there is a need to have an artificial feel system.

B. the flight control system has an alternate means of control in case of a control jam.
C. the pilot does not feel any force when moving that flight control surface in flight.
D. there is feedback to the pilot''s controls of the aerodynamic forces acting on the control surface.
42. Q(16503) Most large conventional aeroplanes are not provided with aileron and rudder trim tabs. Is it still possible to trim these control surfaces?
A. No, because without trim tabs trimming is not possible.

B. Yes, but trimming is only possible when the autopilot is engaged.
C. Yes, but trimming is only possible when before the flight, the respective auxiliary surfaces are correctly adjusted for cruising conditions by the
maintenance department.
D. Yes, trimming is possible by adjusting the neutral point of the artificial feel mechanism by means of a trim switch.
43. Q(14830) Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? I. There should be suitable design precautions to prevent
flight with the gust lock engaged. II. Reversible flight controls should have a gust lock.
44. Q(16378) Trimming of aileron and rudder in an irreversible flight control system:
A. is achieved by adjusting the neutral point of the flight control actuator.

B. is achieved by adjusting the "zero force point" of the feel system.
C. is not necessary.
D. is not possible.
45. Q(12006) The reason for a double switch on the elevator trim is:
A. to prevent both pilots from performing opposite trim inputs.

B. because there are two trim motors.
C. to be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at high speed and high trim rate at low speed.
D. to reduce the probability of a trim runaway.
46. Q(15542) Which of these statements regarding most gust lock systems is correct?
A. When the gust lock is ON there is protection to prevent take-off.

B. A gust lock is only fitted on the elevator and the rudder.
C. On reversible flight controls, there is no need for a gust lock.
D. A gust lock can be used in flight to reduce the effect of turbulence.
47. Q(16483) An aeroplane equipped with reversible flight controls:
A. is equipped with simple spring type feel units.

B. does not have mechanical back-up.
C. need not be equipped with a separate gust lock system.
D. does not require an artificial feel system.
48. Q(10462) Filtration in a hydraulic system is usually ensured by:
A. Filters in both the pressure and return lines.

B. The use of sealed containers only during replenishment.
C. A filter on the return line only.
D. A filter in the pressure line only.
49. Q(15787) Primary flight controls are:
A. control wheel or stick, rudder pedals, flap lever and throttle.

B. ailerons, elevators, rudder and flaps.
C. control wheel or stick, rudder pedals and speed brake.
D. ailerons, elevators and rudder.
50. Q(746) An artificial feel system:
A. functions in series to an irreversible servo-control unit.

B. is mounted in parallel on a spring tab.
C. functions in parallel to an irreversible servo-control unit.
D. is necessary in a reversible flight control actuator unit.
51. Q(14708) The expression "primary flight control" applies to the: 1: elevator. 2: speed brake. 3: lift-augmentation devices. 4: roll spoiler. The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 2, 3.
B. 1, 2, 3, 4.
C. 2, 4.
D. 1, 4.
52. Q(15845) An aeroplane equipped with irreversible flight controls:
A. may be equipped with simple spring type feel units on all flight controls.
B. does not require an artificial feel system.
C. must have a mechanical back-up control system.
D. need not be equipped with a separate gust lock system.
53. Q(2870) In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers ...
A. The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will extend and the left one will retract.
B. The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will extend and the left one will retract.
C. The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the right spoiler will retract and the left one will extend.
D. The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the right spoiler will retract and the left one will extend.
54. Q(15006) The expression "secondary flight control" applies to the: 1: elevator 2: speed brake 3: lift-augmentation devices 4: roll spoiler The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 1, 2, 3, 4.
B. 1, 4.
C. 2, 3.
D. 2, 4.
55. Q(15846) An aeroplane equipped with irreversible flight controls:
A. may be equipped with simple spring type feel units on all flight controls.
B. must be equipped with control locks.
C. requires an artificial feel system.
D. does not require an artificial feel system.
56. Q(16226) Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? I. Irreversible flight controls should have a gust lock. II.
Manual flight controls should have a gust lock.
The zero force position of the control column does not change when using the elevator trim. II. The zero force position of the control wheel does not
change when using the aileron trim.
58. Q(14829) Which of these statements about a gust lock system are correct or incorrect? I. There is no need for a gust lock on irreversible flight
controls. II. Manual flight controls should have a gust lock.
59. Q(730) The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to:
A. trim the aeroplane during normal flight.

B. lower manoeuvring control forces.
C. reduce or to cancel control forces.
D. trim the aeroplane at low airspeed.
The zero force position of the control column changes when using the elevator trim. II. The zero force position of the control wheel changes when
using the aileron trim.
06 Pneumatics – Pressurisation And Air Conditioning

1. Q(3641) The term "Bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air conditioning and pressurisation system, refers to the:
A. charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.

B. means by which pressurisation is controlled.
C. source of the charge air.
D. cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.
2. Q(3692) Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the required value in normal flight conditions, if flight altitude is maintained:
A. the pressurisation system must be controlled manually.

B. the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage reduces the pressure.
C. a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.
D. the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
3. Q(12015) Cabin air for large aeroplanes is usually taken from:
A. the high pressure compressor.

B. the low pressure compressor.
C. the high pressure compressor and from the low pressure compressor if necessary.
D. the second fan stage.
4. Q(428) The pack cooling fan provides:
A. cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during cruise.
B. cooling air to the pre-cooler.
C. air to the eyeball outlets at the Passenger Service Unit (PSU).
D. cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger during slow flight and ground operation.
5. Q(3632) A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by regulating the:
A. position of the duct relief valve(s).

B. position of the inward relief valve.
C. position of the outflow valve(s).
D. mass air flow into the cabin.
6. Q(766) Main cabin temperature is:
A. controlled automatically, or by flight crew selection.

B. Only controllable at maximum cabin differential pressure.
C. controlled by individual passenger.
D. not controllable at the maximum cabin differential pressure.
7. Q(764) During a normal pressurised climb after take-off:
A. the pressurisation system is inoperative until an altitude of 10 000 feet is reached

B. the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant
C. absolute cabin pressure increases to compensate for the fall in pressure outside the aircraft
D. cabin pressure decreases more slowly than atmospheric pressure
8. Q(169) The purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air conditioning system is to:
A. supply the heat exchangers with cooling air during slow flights and ground operation.
B. supply the Passenger Service Unit (PSU) with fresh air.
C. supply the heat exchangers with cooling air during cruise flight.
D. cool the APU compartment.
9. Q(14703) An air cycle machine (air conditioning pack) :
A. increases outlet pressure whilst causing the temperature to drop in the heat exchanger.
B. does not affect the bleed air.
C. decreases bleed air pressure whilst causing the temperature to rise in the heat exchanger.
D. causes a pressure and temperaure drop in the bleed air.
10. Q(172) In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be treated for:
A. pressure.
B. temperature.
C. humidity.
D. purity.
11. Q(783) In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system), the purpose of the heat exchangers is to:
A. cool bleed air before entering the complete pneumatic system.

B. cool the bleed air in front and behind the compressor of the air cycle machine.
C. allow a steady compressor outlet temperature.
D. allow a homogeneous temperature by mixing air flows from various air conditioning groups in operation.
12. Q(424) In large modern aircraft, in the air conditioning system, reduction of air temperature and pressure is achieved by:
A. a condenser.
B. a compressor.
C. an evaporator.
D. an expansion turbine.
13. Q(164) If the maximum operating altitude of an aeroplane is limited by the pressurized cabin, this limitation is due to the maximum:
A. Negative differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.

B. Negative cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.
C. Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
D. Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum operating ceiling.
14. Q(786) A turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system) includes two heat exchangers; the primary exchanger (P) and the secondary
exchanger (S). The functions of these heat exchangers are as follows:
A. P: warms up engine bleed air S: increases the temperature of air originating from the compressor of the pack.
B. P: pre-cools the engine bleed air S: increases the temperature of the air used for air-conditioning of cargo compartment (animals).
C. P: precools the engine bleed air S: cools air behind the pack's compressor.
D. P: warms up engine bleed air S: recirculates the cabin air, reducing its temperature.
15. Q(6509) In a large transport aeroplane the main temperature reduction of the conditioned air is achieved in:
A. An expansion turbine.
B. The heat exchangers.
C. A condenser.
D. An evaporator.
16. Q(421) In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a bootstrap, the mass air flow is routed via the:
A. turbine outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.
B. secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet of the cold air unit.
C. compressor outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat exchanger inlet.
D. secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet of the cold air unit.
17. Q(155) During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude (which could be decreased, even at this flight level), the cabin outflow valves are:
A. fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude.

B. Partially open.
C. at the pre-set position for take-off.
D. fully closed until the cabin climbs to a selected altitude.
18. Q(159) Cabin differential pressure means the pressure difference between:
A. cockpit and passenger cabin.

B. actual cabin pressure and selected pressure.
C. cabin pressure and ambient air pressure.
D. cabin pressure and ambient air pressure at MSL.
19. Q(762) If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:
A. decreases
B. remains constant
C. may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is taken.
D. increases
20. Q(11504) Which of the following statements is UNTRUE?
A. Bleed air may be taken from the HP compressor of a gas turbine engine
B. Use of engine bleed air reduces thrust
C. Bleed air may be supplied by an APU
D. Engine bleed air is considered to be high presssure
21. Q(170) In flight, the cabin air for modern airplanes with jet engines is usually supplied by:
A. ram air intakes.

B. piston compressors.
C. single radial compressors.
D. engine compressors.
22. Q(10723) Automatic temperature control of the system as shown, would be accomplished by:
A. the cabin sensors only modulating the mix valve.
B. the temperature selector only modulating the mix valve.
C. the temperature selector in conjunction with cabin sensors and the temperature regulator, modulating the mix valve.
D. automatic control of the ram air.
23. Q(160) Under normal conditions (CS 25) the cabin pressure altitude is not allowed to exceed:
A. 6000 ft
B. 10000 ft
C. 8000 ft
D. 4000 ft
24. Q(10419) "Conditioned" air is air that has:
A. oxygen content reduced.

B. been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure.
C. oxygen content regulated to a preset value.
D. oxygen content increased.
25. Q(6508) In an air cycle machine (bootstrap system) the:
A. Turbine drives the compressor, which makes the second heat exchanger more effective.
B. Turbine increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin.
C. Temperature drop across the turbine is the main contributor to the cooling effect of the air cycle machine.
D. Turbine drives the compressor, which provides pressurisation.
26. Q(154) Cabin pressure is controlled by:
A. controlling the flow of air into the cabin with a constant outflow.
B. delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin and controlling the outflow.
C. the cabin air mass flow control inlet valve(s).
D. the cabin air re-circulation system.
27. Q(6507) The purpose of an air conditioning pack inlet flow valve (pack valve) is to:
A. Regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure differential.

B. Discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises above the selected altitude.
C. Regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude.
D. Maintain a constant and sufficient air mass flow to ventilate the cabin.
28. Q(767) The purpose of cabin air flow control valves in a pressurization system is to:
A. regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure differential.

B. regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude.
C. Maintain a constant and sufficient mass air flow to ventilate the cabin and minimise cabin pressure surges.
D. discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises above the selected altitude.
29. Q(3468) The main function of an air cycle machine is to:
A. pump the conditioned air into the cabin.

B. remove the water from the bleed air.
C. cool the bleed air.
D. decrease the pressure of the bleed air.
30. Q(161) Cabin altitude is the:
A. flight level at which the aeroplane is flying.

B. altitude at maximum differential pressure.
C. cabin pressure expressed as altitude.
D. difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling.
31. Q(422) Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and pressurization in turbo-jet aeroplanes is usually taken from the:
A. turbine section.
B. fan section.
C. by-pass ducting.
D. compressor section.
32. Q(163) On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is controlled by regulating the:
A. Bleed air valve.

B. RPM of the engine.
C. Airflow entering the cabin.
D. Airflow leaving the cabin.
33. Q(426) A turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system) will:
A. cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature drop in the charge air.
B. increase charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to drop in the heat exchanger.
C. decrease charge air pressure whilst causing the temperature to rise in the heat exchanger.
D. not affect the charge air pressure.
34. Q(10450) Cabin air for a large aeroplane during flight:
A. has an increased oxygen ratio.

B. has a reduced oxygen ratio.
C. has a constant oxygen ratio regulated to a preset value.
D. is temperature controlled.
35. Q(425) In a "bootstrap" cooling system, the charge air is first compressed in the cold air unit to:
A. maintain a constant cabin mass air flow.

B. increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge pressure is too low.
C. ensure an adequate charge air flow across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
D. ensure an adequate pressure and temperature drop across the cooling turbine.
36. Q(6511) The maximum cabin differential pressure of an aeroplane with a maximum certified altitude of 41,000 ft is approximately:
A. 3.5 psi
B. 9.0 psi
C. 13.5 psi
D. 15.5 psi
37. Q(427) Cabin heating in a large jet transport aeroplane is obtained from:
A. hot air bled from the compressors.

B. a fuel heater system.
C. an electrical heater system.
D. hot air bled from the turbines.
38. Q(3690) The term "pressure cabin" applies when an aeroplane:
A. is only pressurised in the area of the control cabin.

B. has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all flight altitudes.
C. has the means to maintain cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure.
D. has the ability to maintain a constant cabin differential pressure at all flight altitudes.
39. Q(14115) At Reference. In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin altitude is 8000 ft, a crack in a cabin window makes it necessary to reduce the
differential pressure to 5 psi. The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the same cabin altidue is:
A. FL 280
B. FL 180
C. FL 340
D. FL 230
40. Q(162) On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the maximum cabin differential pressure is approximately:
A. 3 - 5 psi
B. 7 - 9 psi
C. 22 psi
D. 13 - 15 psi
41. Q(157) The cabin pressure is regulated by the:
A. Outflow valve.
B. Air cycle machine.
C. Cabin inlet airflow valve.
D. Air conditioning pack.
42. Q(1753) An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at FL 310 and, following a malfunction of the pressure controller, the outflow valve runs to the
open position. Given : CAB V/S : Cabin rate of climb indication CAB ALT: Cabin pressure altitude DELTA P: Differential pressure This will result in a:
A. CAB V/S decrease CAB ALT increase DELTA P decrease

B. CAB V/S increase CAB ALT increase DELTA P decrease
C. CAB V/S decrease CAB ALT decrease DELTA P increase
D. CAB V/S increase CAB ALT increase DELTA P increase
43. Q(167) The maximum cabin differential pressure of a pressurised aeroplane operating at FL370 is approximately:
A. 9.0 psi
B. 13.5 psi
C. 15.5 psi
D. 3.5 psi
44. Q(3841) Assume that during cruise flight with airconditioning packs ON, the outflow valve(s) would close. The result would be that:
A. the pressure differential would go to the maximum value

B. the skin of the cabin would be overstressed
C. the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient outside air pressure
D. the air supply would automatically be stopped
45. Q(165) The "cabin differential pressure" is:
A. approximately 5 psi at maximum.

B. the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving the cabin.
C. approximately 15 psi at maximum.
D. cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.
46. Q(3891) If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than the outside ambient air pressure the:
A. outflow valve open completely.

B. negative pressure relief valve will open.
C. air cycle machine will stop.
D. negative pressure relief valve will close
47. Q(785) In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system), the main water separation unit is:
A. before the cooling turbine.

B. just after the heat exchangers.
C. before the heat exchangers.
D. after the cooling turbine.
48. Q(11505) Pressurisation systems are required because:
A. At altitudes above approximately 10 000 ft there is insufficient air pressure to force the oxygen required into our lungs to allow us to breathe
normally
B. There is insuffieint oxygen present at altitudes above approximately 10 000 ft
C. The percentage of oxygen in the air at altitudes above approximately 10 000 ft is too low
D. At altitudes above approximately 10 000 ft the air density is insufficient to force the oxygen required into our lungs to allow us to breathe
normally
49. Q(3691) Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is controlled by:
A. inward relief valve(s).

B. regulating the discharge of air through the outflow valve(s).
C. engine rpm.
D. pressurisation duct relief valve(s).
50. Q(12151) In a typical bootstrap cooling system the supply air is:
A. compressed, passed through a secondary heat exchanger, and then across an expansion turbine.
B. passed across an expansion turbine, then through a secondary heat exchanger and then across a compressor.
C. passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.
D. passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a secondary heat exchanger.
51. Q(3693) Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of climb indicator should indicate:
A. a rate of descent of approximately 300 feet per minutes.

B. a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential pressure.
C. a rate of climb.
D. zero.
52. Q(12522) Whilst in level cruising flight, an aeroplane with a pressurised cabin experiences a malfunction of the pressure controller. If the cabin
rate of climb indicator reads -200ft/min:
A. a descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks dropping when the cabin altitude reaches 14000ft.
B. the aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to reduce the cabin altitude to its initial value.
C. the crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in order to maintain a zero cabin altitude.
D. the differential pressure will rise to its maximum value, thus causing the safety relief valves to open.
53. Q(789) When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, the percentage oxygen content is:
A. increased.
B. dependent on the degree of pressurisation.
C. unaffected.
D. decreased.
54. Q(16539) The pressurisation system of an aeroplane:
A. has the capability to maintain a cabin pressure higher than ambient pressure.
B. will maintain a zero cabin differential pressure at all altitudes.
C. will maintain a sea level cabin altitude at all altitudes.
D. only pressurises the flight deck area.
55. Q(12153) In a turbo compressor air conditioning system (bootstrap system) the supply of air behind the primary heat exchanger is:
A. compressed, passed through a heat exchanger, and then across an expansion turbine.
B. compressed, then passed across an expansion turbine and finally across a heat exchanger.
C. passed across an expansion turbine, compressed and then passed through a heat exchanger.
D. passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the heat exchanger.
07 Anti And De-Icing Systems

1. Q(769) Usually, electric heating for ice protection is used on:
A. Fin leading edges.

B. Elevator leading edges.
C. Slat leading edges.
D. Pitot tubes.
2. Q(14706) Electrically powered ice protection devices on aircraft are:
A. used as de-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static ports and windshield.

B. used as anti-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static ports and windshield.
C. used primarily because they are very efficient.
D. used for large surfaces only.
3. Q(14704) The anti-icing method for the wings of large jet transport aeroplanes most commonly used in flight is:
A. electrical (electrical resistance).

B. thermal (use of hot air).
C. mechanical (pneumatic boots)
D. chemical (glycol-based liquid).
4. Q(3053) The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop aeroplanes works
A. with anti-icing fluid.

B. electrically.
C. with hot air.
D. pneumatically.
5. Q(14705) Pneumatic mechanical devices that provide ice protection:
A. require large quantities of bleed air.

B. are usually used as de-icing devices.
C. are usually used on aeroplanes equipped with turbo-fan engines.
D. can only be used as anti-icing devices.
6. Q(12299) The wing ice protection system currently used for most large turboprop transport aeroplanes is a(n):
A. liquid de-icing system.

B. electrical de-icing system.
C. hot air system.
D. pneumatic system with inflatable boots.
7. Q(793) The elements specifically protected against icing on transport aircraft are: 1) engine air intake and pod. 2) front glass shield. 3) radome. 4)
pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts. 5) leading edge of wing. 6) cabin windows. 7) trailing edge of wings. 8) electronic equipment
compartment. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
A. 1, 2, 3, 8
B. 1, 2, 5, 6
C. 1, 4, 5, 7
D. 1, 2, 4, 5
8. Q(790) In flight, the most commonly used anti-icing method for the wings of modern commercial aircraft fitted with turbo-jet units is:
A. Electrical (electrical resistances).

B. Mechanical (pneumatic source which acts by deforming the profiles of the leading edge).
C. Physical/chemical (glycol-based liquid).
D. Thermal (use of hot air).
9. Q(168) Pneumatic mechanical ice protection systems are mainly used for:
A. propellers.
B. windscreens.
C. pitot tubes.
D. wings.
10. Q(794) The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is:
A. Used on a continual basis as it reduces the thermal gradients which adversely affect the useful life of the components.
B. Used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice formation.
C. Harmful to the integrity of the windows in the event of a bird strike.
D. Only used when hot-air demisting is insufficient.
11. Q(792) Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices, the only true statement is:
A. on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are very efficient, therefore they only need little energy.
B. on modern aeroplanes, electrical power supply being available in excess, this system is very often used for large surfaces de-icing.
C. on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used as de-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static ports and windshield.
D. on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices are used to prevent icing on small surfaces (pitot-static, windshield...).
12. Q(15842) The use of a hot air wing anti-icing system:
A. does not affect aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes no reduction in maximum thrust.
B. reduces aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes a reduction in maximum thrust.
C. reduces aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes no reduction in maximum thrust.
D. does not affect aerodynamic performance of the wing and causes a reduction in maximum thrust.
13. Q(791) With regard to pneumatic mechanical devices that afford ice protection the only correct statement is:
A. They can be used as both de-icing and anti-icing devices.

B. They can only be used as anti-icing devices.
C. They can only be used as de-icing devices.
D. They are used extensively on modern aircraft as they are inexpensive and easy to maintain.
14. Q(3051) In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primarily supplied by
A. turbo compressors.
B. the APU.
C. bleed air from the engines.
D. ram air, heated via a heat exchanger.
15. Q(15326) The sequential pneumatic impulses used in certain leading edge de-icing devices: 1 - prevent ice formation. 2 - can be triggered from
the flight deck after icing has become visible. 3 - will inflate each pneumatic boot for a few seconds. 4 - will repeat more than ten times per second.
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 2, 4.
B. 1, 4.
C. 1, 3.
D. 2, 3.
16. Q(5319) The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit windshields is that:
A. the alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection.
B. rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield unless the rainfall is very heavy.
C. the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also suitable for rain protection.
D. wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide adequate view through the cockpit windows.
17. Q(173) On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are protected against icing by:
A. Anti-icing fluid.
B. Vinyl coating.
C. Rain repellent system.
D. Electric heating.
18. Q(3050) The wing anti-ice system has to protect:
A. the whole leading edge except the slats because they cannot be de-iced when extended.
B. the leading edge or the slats, either partially or completely.
C. the whole leading edge and the whole under wing surface.
D. the whole upper wing surface and the flaps.
19. Q(12023) During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect
A. the whole upper wing surface and the flaps.

B. the whole leading edge and the whole upper wing surface.
C. a part of the whole leading edge.
D. slats and the leading edge flaps only.
20. Q(12300) The wing ice protection system currently used for most large jet transport aeroplanes is a(n):
A. pneumatic system with inflatable boots.

B. electrical de-icing system.
C. hot air system.
D. liquid de-icing system.
08 Fuel System
1. Q(2888) The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the fuel quantity by measuring the:
A. density variation of the fuel.

B. dielectric change between fuel and air.
C. electrical resistance change.
D. resistivity variation of the fuel.
2. Q(16115) Which statement is correct? I. The freezing point for Jet A is at a lower temperature than that for Jet B. II. The flash point for Jet A is at a
higher temperature than that for Jet B.
3. Q(16098) Which statement is correct? I. The freezing point for Jet A is at a higher temperature than that for Jet B. II. The flash point for Jet A is at a
higher temperature than that for Jet B.
4. Q(2209) The fuel temperature, at which, under standard conditions, the vapour ignites in contact with a flame and extinguishes immediately, is the:
A. combustion point
B. fire point
C. self ignition point
D. flash point
5. Q(828) The automatic fuelling shut off valve:
A. stops fuelling as soon as a certain pressure is reached.

B. stops fuelling as soon as the fuel spills into the vent line.
C. stops fuelling as soon as a certain fuel level is reached inside the tank.
D. cuts off the fuel in case of engine fire.
6. Q(782) The pressurization of fuel tanks is maintained by:
A. the fuel dump system.

B. the fuel top off unit.
C. the fuel tank drains.
D. the fuel vent system.
7. Q(14180) The correct order of decreasing freezing points of the three mentioned fuels is :
A. Jet B, Jet A-1, Jet A.

B. Jet B, Jet A, Jet A-1.
C. Jet A-1 Jet A, Jet B
D. Jet A, Jet A-1, Jet B
8. Q(6514) The type of fuel tank used to most large aeroplanes is a(n):
A. metal drum tank

B. combined bladder/metal drum tank
C. bladder tank
D. Integral tank
9. Q(2886) The cross-feed fuel system can be used to: 1. feed any engine from any fuel tank. 2. dump the unusable fuel. 3. adjust fuel distribution 4.
to transfer fuel from one tank to another located in the same wing The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 1, 3.
B. 2, 4.
C. 2, 3.
D. 1, 4.
10. Q(775) The fuel cross-feed system:
A. is only used to feed an engine from the tank of the opposite wing.
B. is only used in flight for fuel transfer from one tank to another.
C. allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank.
D. is only used on the ground for fuel transfer from one tank to another.
11. Q(2887) One of the purposes of the fuel system booster pumps being submerged in fuel is to:
A. improve their efficiency.

B. to facilitate the priming of the pumps and to cool the pumps.
C. to improve the accuracy of the fuel quantity measurement.
D. shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses.
12. Q(827) On a jet aircraft fuel heaters are:
A. not necessary at all.

B. Installed only in the centre tank.
C. Located on the engines.
D. Installed in each tank.
13. Q(3701) In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the contents gauge of a half-full fuel tank indicates a fuel mass of 8000
kg. If a temperature rise increased the volume of fuel by 5%, the indicated fuel mass would:
A. increase by 5%.
B. increase by 10%.
C. remain the same.
D. decrease by 5%.
14. Q(830) The diagram shown in annex represents a jet fuel system. The fuel-flow measurement is carried out :
A. after high pressure valve (item 4).

B. after low pressure valve (item 1).
C. in the fuel control unit (item 3).
D. after high pressure pump first stage (item 2).
15. Q(14425) The fuel tanks of aircrafts must be checked for water
A. before the first flight of the day or after a long turnaround time
B. before each flight.
C. immediately after every refuelling.
D. during refuelling.
16. Q(3832) The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to
A. trap fuel sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank

B. distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuelling
C. ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure
D. increase the fuel level at the boost pump location
17. Q(16143) Which statement is correct? I. The freezing point for Jet A is at a lower temperature than that for Jet B. II. The flash point for Jet A is at
about the same temperature as that for Jet B.
18. Q(777) On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is vented through:
A. Bleed air from the engines.

B. A pressure regulator in the wing tip.
C. The return lines of the fuel pumps.
D. Ram air scoops on the underside of the wing.
19. Q(778) The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport aircraft are:
A. Integral tanks.
B. Fixed built-in tanks.
C. Cell tanks.
D. Combined fuel tanks.
20. Q(772) On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps of the fuel system are supplied with electric power of the following type:
A. 28 V AC
B. 115 V AC
C. 115 V DC
D. 28 V DC
21. Q(779) The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel tanks is to:
A. prevent positive pressure build up inside the tank.

B. close the vent lines in case of turbulence.
C. damp out movement of the fuel in the tank.
D. prevent fuel movement to the wing tip.
22. Q(6512) The operating pressure of a booster pump in the fuel supply system of a gas turbine aircraft is within the following range:
A. 300 to 500 psi

B. 20 to 100 psi
C. 3000 to 5000 psi
D. 5 to 10 psi
23. Q(16168) Which statement is correct? I. The freezing point for Jet A is at a higher temperature than that for Jet B. II. The flash point for Jet A is at
a lower temperature than that for Jet B.
24. Q(7277) Fuel tank air pressure is maintained at ambient by:

A. The fuel top off unit.
B. The fuel vent system.
C. The fuel tank drains.
D. The fuel dump system.
25. Q(776) The purpose of baffles in an aeroplane's integral fuel tank is to:
A. prevent mixture of the fuel and hydraulic fluid.

B. prevent the fuel from flowing in the vent lines.
C. restrict the fuel movements in the tank.
D. prevent overpressure in the tank.
26. Q(16047) Which statement is correct? I. The freezing point for Jet A is at a lower temperature than that for Jet B. II. The flash point for Jet A is at a
lower temperature than that for Jet B.
27. Q(2891) The functions of an LP booster pump in a gas turbine fuel system are to:
A. avoid vapour locking and increase the pressure during refuelling.

B. increase the pressure during refuelling and prevent cavitation of the HP fuel pump.
C. pressurise the fuel dump system and increase the pressure during refuelling.
D. avoid vapour locking and prevent cavitation of the HP fuel pump.
28. Q(3638) Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are:
A. Ground Power Units (GPU) are not to be operated.

B. Passengers may be boarded (traversing the refuelling zone) providing suitable fire extinguishers are readily available.
C. Aircraft must be more than 10 metres from radar or HF radio equipment under test.
D. All bonding and connections to the earth terminal between ground equipment and the aircraft should be made before filler caps are removed.
29. Q(829) During re-fuelling the automatic shut-off valves will switch off the fuel supply system when:
A. there is fire.
B. the fuel has reached a predetermined volume or mass.
C. the surge vent tank is filled.
D. fuelling system has reached a certain pressure.
30. Q(771) The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel heating device, upstream of the main fuel filter so as to:
A. maintain and improve fuel heating power.

B. prevent, at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation from water contained in the fuel.
C. prevent fuel from freezing in fuel pipes due to low temperatures at high altitude.
D. ease low pressure pumps work by increasing fuel fluidity.
31. Q(10578) The ventilation system in a fuel tank:
A. prevents vapour locking in the fuel lines.

B. prevents low pressure or excessive overpressure in the tank.
C. can be used to drain the tanks, for daily checks.
D. prevents fuel freezing during flight in icing conditions
32. Q(16116) Which statement is correct? I. The freezing point for Jet A is at about the same temperature as that for Jet B. II. The flash point for Jet A
is at a higher temperature than that for Jet B.
33. Q(6513) On most large aeroplanes, the type of low pressure fuel pump is:
A. piston
B. gear
C. diaphragm
D. centrifugal
09 Electrics
1. Q(3462) A "trip-free" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection device which :
A. will not allow the contacts to be held closed while a current fault exists in the circuit.
B. is free from the normal CB tripping characteristic.
C. will allow the contacts to be held closed in order to clear a fault in the circuit.
D. can be reset at any time.
2. Q(12104) A constant speed drive (CSD) that has been disconnected in flight
A. can be reset in flight using the reset mechanism.

B. can be reset only on the ground after engine shut-down.
C. automatically resets on engine shut-down.
D. automatically resets in flight providing engine rpm is below a given value.
3. Q(10733) Direct current generators are connected:
A. in series to provide maximum voltage.

B. in series to provide maximum power.
C. in parallel to provide maximum voltage.
D. in parallel to provide maximum power.
4. Q(3461) Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be:
A. used only in DC circuits.

B. reset at any time.
C. used only in AC circuits.
D. used in AC and DC circuits.
5. Q(2439) When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC generator connected to the mains with another AC generator, the overexcitation
protection device opens:
A. the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.

B. the generator breaker.
C. the tie breaker.
D. the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.
6. Q(3442) The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the output voltage of the:
A. generator at varying loads and speeds.

B. TRU.
C. batteries at varying loads.
D. generators at varying speeds and the batteries at varying loads.
7. Q(5390) The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when the voltage of the:
A. generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true
B. battery is greater than the alternator voltage and to open when the opposite is true
C. battery is greater than the generator voltage and to open when the opposite is true
D. alternator is greater than the battery voltage and to open when the opposite is true
8. Q(4204) On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type: 1. AC generator over-voltage 2. AC generator under-voltage
3. over-current 4. over-speed 5. under-frequency 6. undue vibration of AC generators The combination of correct statements is :
A. 1,3,5,6
B. 1,2,3,4,5
C. 2,3,4,5,6
D. 1,2,4,6
9. Q(2882) The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is ..
A. To change the DC voltage.

B. To avoid a short circuit.
C. To change DC into AC.
D. To change AC into DC.
10. Q(5415) The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/40 amp hours batteries, will create a unit with the following characteristics;
A. 12 volt/ 80 amp hours

B. 12 volt/ 40 amp hours
C. 24 volt/ 40 amp hours
D. 24 volt/ 80 amp hours
11. Q(3446) A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings spaced at:
A. 60°.
B. 90°.
C. 120°.
D. 45°.
12. Q(3454) When the AC voltage across a capacitor is kept constant and the frequency is increased, the current through the capacitor will:
A. be zero.
B. remain the same.
C. increase.
D. decrease.
13. Q(2408) A magnetic circuit-breaker is:
A. permits an overcurrent limited in time.

B. can be reset without any danger even when fault remains.
C. is a system with a slow response time.
D. a protection system that has a quick tripping response.
14. Q(2884) In an alternator rotor coil you can find :
A. DC.
B. Three-phase AC.
C. AC.
D. Only induced current.
15. Q(11413) The power required for field excitation of the main rotor in modern constant-frequency alternators is directly controlled by:
A. an excitation alternator with a permanent magnet generator.

B. a battery.
C. an AC generator.
D. the voltage regulator.
16. Q(2375) The speed of an asynchronous four-pole motor fed at a frequency of 400 Hertz is:
A. 12000 revolutions per minute.

B. 800 revolutions per minute.
C. 1600 revolutions per minute.
D. 6000 revolutions per minute.
17. Q(3435) Because of the input/output relationship of an OR gate, it is often referred to as the:
A. "state indicator" gate.

B. "all or nothing" gate.
C. "any or all" gate.
D. "inhibited" or "negated" gate.
18. Q(3626) In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system, AC for instrument operation may be obtained from:
A. a contactor.
B. a TRU.
C. an inverter.
D. a rectifier.
19. Q(3432) A CSD of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight. The primary reason(s) for disconnection are :
A. slight variation about the normal operating frequency.

B. excessive variation of voltage and kVAR.
C. illumination of the CSD disconnect warning light.
D. low oil pressure and/or high oil temperature of the generator drive.
20. Q(3656) A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuring:
A. that the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM not withstanding the acceleration of the engine.
B. equal AC voltage from all generators.
C. that the electric generator produces a constant frequency.
D. that the CSD remains at a constant RPM not withstanding the generator RPM.
21. Q(3447) A CSD unit is normally provided with means of monitoring during flight the:
A. oil temperature and synchronous speed.

B. oil temperature and pressure.
C. oil temperature and quantity only.
D. output voltage and oil pressure.
22. Q(3460) Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other electrical services switched on, an ammeter showing a high charge rate to the battery:
A. indicates a faulty reverse current relay.

B. indicates a battery failure since there should be no immediate charge.
C. indicates a generator failure, thus requiring the engine to be shut down immediately.
D. would be normal and is only cause for concern if the high charge rate persists.
23. Q(7560) On ground, APU GEN can be used to feed the AC BUS 1, when: (NB: all contactors not mentioned are assumed to remain open)
A. C1.3 and C2.1 are closed.
B. C2.1 and C2.2 are closed.
C. C1.1 and C2.1 are closed.
D. C1.3 and C2.2 are closed.
24. Q(10097) The alternators, when connected, are usually connected:
A. In parallel mode
B. Dependant on the type of engine
C. In series mode
D. Dependant on the type of generator
25. Q(7575) In case of failure of the TRU 2: (NB: all contactors not mentioned are assumed to remain open)
A. DC BUS 2 can be fed via DC ESS BUS if C5.3, C3.2 and C5.2 are closed.
B. DC BUS 2 can be fed by TRU 1 if C3.1 and C3.2 are closed.
C. DC BUS 2 cannot be fed via DC BAT BUS.
D. DC BUS 2 can be fed by TRU 1 via DC BUS 1 and DC BAT BUS is C5.1, C7.1 and C7.4 are closed.
26. Q(2883) The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators and DC generators (dynamos) is that the:
A. The alternators generate much less power than DC generators.

B. induced (output) windings of the alternators are fixed (stator), and the dynamos have a fixed inductor (field) coil.
C. induced windings of the alternators are rotating (rotor), and the dynamos have a rotary inductor coil.
D. alternators supply all of the output current through the commutators and brush assemblies.
27. Q(3620) The capacity of a battery is the:
A. no-load voltage of the battery multiplied by its rated output current.

B. number of cycles (charging and discharging) that a battery can withstand without deterioration of its cells.
C. intensity withstood by the battery during charging.
D. amount of Ampere hours that a fully charged battery can supply.
28. Q(3431) A bus-bar is:
A. the stator of a moving coil instrument.

B. a device which may only be used in DC circuits.
C. a distribution point for electrical power.
D. a device permitting operation of two or more switches together.
29. Q(2879) The so-called "hot buses" or "direct buses" are:
A. automatically connected to the battery if generators have failed.

B. providing an alternative current.
C. directly connected to the battery.
D. kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistance in the case of energy failure.
30. Q(3449) Assuming a CSD fault is indicated, the CSD should be disconnected :
A. at flight idle engine rpm.

B. on the ground only.
C. provided the engine is running.
C. provided the engine is running.
D. when the AC generator voltage is outside limits.
31. Q(7563) GEN 1 can be used to feed the DC BUS 2, when: (NB: all contactors not mentioned are assumed to remain open)
A. C1.1, C3.1, C3.2 and C5.3 are closed.

C. C1.4, C3.2, C3.1 and C5.1 are closed.
32. Q(7558) On ground, external power (EXT PWR) can be used to feed the AC BUS 2, when: (NB: all contactors not mentioned are assumed to
remain open)
33. Q(3648) A condenser in parallel with breaker points will
A. assist in negative feedback to secondary coil

B. intensify current in secondary winding
C. assist in collapse of secondary winding.
D. permit arcing across points
34. Q(10739) The capacity of an accumulator is:
A. The intensity withstood by the battery during charging.

B. The number of cycles (charging and discharging) that a battery can withstand without deterioration of its cells.
C. The no-load voltage of the battery multiplied by its rated output current.
D. The quantity of electricity that the battery can supply during discharge.
35. Q(7567) GEN 2 can be used to feed the DC ESS BUS 1: (NB: all contactors not mentioned are assumed to remain open)
A. via AC BUS 2, when C1.1, C3.1 and C5.2 are closed.
B. via AC BUS 2, when C1.4, C3.2 and C5.2 are closed
C. via AC BUS 2 and AC ESS BUS, when C1.4, C3.2 and C5.2 are closed.
D. via AC BUS 2 and AC ESS BUS, when C1.1, C1.4, C3.1, C3.2 and C5.2 are closed.
36. Q(3464) The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the:
A. number of individual poles only.

B. field strength and the speed of the moving part.
C. number of pairs of poles and the speed of the moving part.
D. number of individual poles and the field strength.
37. Q(2462) The capacity of a battery is given in:
A. Ohms.
B. Watts.
C. Ampere hours.
D. Amperes/volts.
38. Q(12105) A capacitor in parallel with breaker points:
A. induces a very high voltage across the secondary windings.

B. induces a very high current across the primary windings.
C. induces a very high current across the secondary windings.
D. permits arcing across the points
39. Q(3448) An AC generator driven by a CSD unit:
A. does not need a voltage controller since the CSD will ensure constant voltage.
B. requires a voltage controller to maintain constant voltage under load.
C. requires a voltage controller to maintain constant frequency.
D. does not need a voltage controller since an AC generator voltage cannot alter under load.
40. Q(7572) When all AC generators are lost in flight and the EMER GEN is not available, the AC ESS BUS can be fed by the batteries when: (NB: all
contactors not mentioned are assumed to remain open)
B. C6.1, C6.2 and C5.2 are closed.
C. C7.2, C7.1, C5.1 and C3.1 are closed via the static inverter.
D. C6.1 and C6.2 are closed and the bus is switched to the static inverter
41. Q(2372) In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are not paralleled mounted, the changeover relay allows:
A. connection of the ground power truck to its distribution busbar.

B. connection of the AC generator to its distribution busbar.
C. connection of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) to its main busbar.
D. power supply to the faulty AC generators busbar.
42. Q(14125) Static dischargers: 1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the same electrical potential. 2. are placed on wing and tail tips to
facilitate electrical discharge. 3. are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a value approximating 0 volts. 4. are located on wing and
tail tips to reduce intererence with the on-board radiocommunication systems to a minimum. 5. limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between
the aircraft and the electrified clouds. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
A. 1,3,4.
B. 1,2,5.
C. 3,4,5.
D. 2,4,5.
43. Q(7569) GEN 1 can be used to feed the DC BAT BUS: (NB: all contactors not mentioned are assumed to remain open)
A. via AC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2 when C1.1, C3.1, C3.2, C5.1 and C7.1 are closed.
B. via AC BUS 2 and DC ESS BUS when C1.1, C3.1, C5.2 and C7.3 are closed.
C. via AC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2 when C1.1, C3.1, C3.2, C5.3 and C7.4 are closed.
D. via AC BUS 2 and DC BUS 1 when C1.1, C3.1, C3.2, C5.3 abd C7.4 are closed.
44. Q(1761) The purpose of static wick dischargers is to:
A. be able to fly higher because of less electrical friction.

B. provide a path to ground for static charges when refuelling.
C. dissipate static charge from the aircraft skin after landing.
D. dissipate static charge of the aircraft in flight thus avoiding radio interference as a result of static electricity.
45. Q(3430) To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators operating in parallel:
A. only reactive loads need to be matched.

B. both real and reactive loads must be matched.
C. only real loads need to be matched.
D. the matching of loads is unimportant.
46. Q(15215) The purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to: 1 - prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar
metals. 2 - ensure zero voltage difference between aircraft components. 3 - isolate all components electrically. 4 - provide a single earth for electrical
devices. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 1, 3.
B. 2, 4.
C. 2, 3.
D. 1, 4.
47. Q(2463) One indication of inadequate bonding of aircraft components may be:
A. static noises can be heard on the radio.

B. there is heavy corrosion on the fuselage skin mountings.
C. there is interference on the VOR receiver.
D. a circuit breaker pops out.
48. Q(6517) When a conductor cuts the field lines of a magnetic field:
A. There will be no effect on the conductor.

A. There will be no effect on the conductor.
B. An lorentz force is induced in the conductor.
C. The field will collapse.
D. The current will stop.
49. Q(3628) The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred to as the:
A. stator.
B. slip ring.
C. rotor.
D. oscillator.
50. Q(14709) On detection of a persistent phase imbalance between an AC generator connected to the main bus bars and other AC generators, the
protection device that opens is/are the:
A. generator breaker and the tie breaker(s).

B. exciter control relay and the generator breaker.
C. generator breaker.
D. tie breaker(s).
51. Q(12112) The capacity of a battery is the:
A. amount of Ampere hours that a fully charged battery can supply.

B. no-load voltage of the battery multiplied by its rated output current.
C. intensity withstood by the battery during charging.
D. number of cycles (charging and discharging) that a battery can withstand without deterioration of its cells.
52. Q(3466) Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, it is often referred to as the:
A. "inhibited" or "negated" gate.

B. "all or nothing" gate.
C. "any or all" gate.
D. "state indicator" gate.
53. Q(10752) When a persistent underexcitation fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft mains with another AC generator, the
protection device opens:
A. the tie breaker.

B. the exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.
C. the generator control relay and the generator breaker.
D. the generator breaker and the tie breaker.
54. Q(3438) When carrying out a battery condition check using the aircraft's voltmeter:
A. the load condition is unimportant.

B. the battery should be isolated.
C. no load should be applied to the battery because it would reduce the voltage.
D. a load should be applied to the battery in order to give a better indication of condition.
55. Q(2880) In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature indicator is in the red arc the:
A. pilot must disconnect it and manually control the alternator.

B. pilot must disconnect it, and the generator is not available for the rest of flight.
C. pilot has to throttle back.
D. pilot can disconnect it to allow it to cool and use it again.
56. Q(3428) The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) is to ensure:
A. that the generator produces a constant frequency.

B. that the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM irrespective of engine acceleration/deceleration.
C. an equal AC voltage output from all generators.
D. that the CSD output remains at a constant RPM irrespective of generator RPM.
57. Q(10730) Alternating current can be derived from direct current by:
A. a series wound motor.

B. an alternating current motor.
C. the use of relays.
D. an inverter.
58. Q(2404) A thermal circuit breaker:
A. can be re-engaged without any danger even if the fault remains.

B. uses electromagnetic trip system to prevent over heating.
C. protects the system in the event of overload/overheating.
D. limits any overcurrent.
59. Q(1245) The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to:
A. maintain a constant frequency.

B. mechanically protect the alternator drive shaft during coupling.
C. take part in the voltage regulation.
D. take part in the balancing of reactive loads.
60. Q(14790) Assuming the initiating cause is removed, which of these statements about resetting are correct or incorrect? I. A fuse is resettable II. A
circuit breaker is not resettable.
61. Q(3459) When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a tendency for the:
A. electrolyte to "boil".
B. voltage to increase due to the current available.
C. current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage.
D. voltage to decrease under load.
62. Q(5361) The purpose of a battery control unit is generally to isolate the battery: 1 - from the bus when the battery charge has been completed 2 -
when there is a battery overheat condition 3 - in case of an internal short circuit 4 - in case of a fault on the ground power unit The combination which
regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 1 - 2 -3
B. 1 - 2 - 3 -4
C. 1
D. 1-2
63. Q(2434) The advantages of alternating current on board an aircraft are: 1. simple connection 2. high starting torque 3. flexibility in use 4. lighter
weight of equipment 5. easy to convert into direct current 6. easy maintenance of machines The combination of correct statements is:
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
B. 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
C. 1, 4, 6
D. 3, 4, 5, 6
64. Q(3627) If a current is passed through a conductor which is positioned in a magnetic field:
A. the intensity of the magnetic field will decrease.

B. there will be no effect unless the conductor is moved.
C. a force will be exerted on the conductor.
D. the current will increase.
65. Q(15153) The reasons for disconnecting a constant speed drive (CSD) of an AC generator in flight are: 1 - low oil pressure in the CSD. 2 - slight
variation about the normal operating frequency. 3 - high oil temperature in the CSD. 4 - excessive variation of voltage and kVAR. The combination that
A. 1, 3.
B. 1, 4.
C. 2, 3.
D. 2, 4.
66. Q(3440) When a conductor cuts the flux of a magnetic field:
A. current will flow in accordance with Flemings left hand rule.

B. there will be no effect on the conductor.
C. the field will collapse.
D. an electromotive force (EMF) is induced in the conductor.
67. Q(2878) If the electrical load of an AC generator providing a constant output voltage increases, the voltage regulator will:
A. decrease the intensity of the excitation current.

B. change the direction of the excitation current.
C. maintain the intensity of the excitation current constant.
D. increase the intensity of the excitation current.
68. Q(2444) During start of an engine fitted with a brushless AC generator with no commutator rings, the generator is activated by:
A. the auxiliary winding.

B. the stabiliser winding jointly with the voltage regulator.
C. a set of permanent magnets.
D. the main field winding.
69. Q(2877) The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is:
A. 400 Hz.
B. 60 Hz.
C. 200 Hz.
D. 50 Hz.
70. Q(3439) Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity batteries in series will result in a total voltage and capacity respectively of:
A. 12 volts, 80 ampere-hours.
B. 24 volts, 40 ampere-hours.
C. 12 volts, 40 ampere-hours.
D. 24 volts, 80 ampere-hours.
71. Q(2437) A feeder fault on a direct current circuit results from a flux unbalance between the:
A. voltage coil and the series winding turn.

B. generator and the series winding turn.
C. shunt exciter and the series winding turn.
D. voltage coil and the series winding.
72. Q(7561) On ground, APU GEN can be used to feed the AC BUS 2, when: (NB: all contactors not mentioned are assumed to remain open)
73. Q(7550) On ground, external power (EXT PWR) can be used to feed both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2, when: (NB: all contactors not mentioned are
assumed to remain open)
A. C1.2, C2.1 and C2.2 are closed.

B. C1.2 is closed.
D. C1.1, C2.1 and C2.2 are closed.
74. Q(3444) A current limiter fuse in a DC generation system is used to:
A. allow no overload before rupturing.

B. allow a short term overload before rupturing.
C. limit the current in the armature.
D. limit the current in the field circuit.

D. C1.1, C3.1, C3.2 and C5.3 are closed.
76. Q(14127) The advantages of Nickel -Cadmium compared with lead-acid batteries are: 1. lower risk of thermal runaway 2. higher internal
resistance, hence higher power 3. reduced charging time 4. constant output voltage The combination which regroups all the correct statements is:
A. 1, 2.
B. 1, 3.
C. 2, 4.
D. 3, 4.
77. Q(3623) When two DC generators are operating in parallel, control of load sharing is achieved by:
A. an equalising circuit which, in conjunction with the voltage regulators, varies the field excitation current of the generators.
B. the synchronous bus-bar.
C. carrying out systematic load-shedding procedures.
D. an equalising circuit which, in turn, controls the speed of the generators.
78. Q(1242) In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the number of pairs of poles required in an AC generator running at 6000 rpm is:
A. 24
B. 4
C. 8
D. 12
79. Q(1237) If one of the 12 cells of a lead-acid battery is dead, the battery:
A. has 1/12 less voltage and less capacity, but can still be used.
B. has 1/12 less voltage, but can still be used.
C. has 1/12 less capacity, but can still be used.
D. is unserviceable.
80. Q(7576) In case of failure of the static inverter: (NB: all contactors not mentioned are assumed to remain open)
A. AC can be generated by the batteries using the ESS TRU, provided the appropriate contactors are closed.
B. AC ESS BUS can be fed by DC ESS BUS.
C. DC ESS BUS will not be provided, even if GEN 1 and 2 are supplying AC and the appropriate contactors are closed.
D. AC ESS BUS can be powered, if required, by the EMER GEN if C4.1 is closed.
81. Q(2876) A relay is:
A. An electrical energy conversion unit.

B. An electrical security switch.
C. A switch specially designed for AC circuits.
D. An electromagnetically operated switch.
82. Q(7574) In case of failure of the TRU 1: (NB: all contactors not mentioned are assumed to remain open)
A. DC BUS 1 cannot be fed via DC BAT BUS.
B. DC BUS 1 can be fed by TRU 2 via DC BUS 2 and DC BAT BUS if C5.3, C7.4 and C7.1 are closed.
C. DC BUS 1 can be fed by TRU 2 if C3.1 and C3.2 are closed.
D. DC BUS 1 can be fed via DC ESS BUS if C5.1, C3.1 and C5.2 are closed.
83. Q(2435) On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly Cadmium-Nickel. Their advantages are: 1. low risk of thermal runaway 2. high
internal resistance, hence higher power 3. good charging and discharging capability at high rating 4. wider permissible temperature range 5. good
storage capability 6. sturdiness owing to its metal casing 7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during charging. The combination of correct
statement is:
A. 3, 4, 5, 6
B. 1, 2, 5, 6, 7
C. 3, 4, 6, 7
D. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
A. via AC BUS 1 and DC ESS BUS when C1.4, C3.2, C5.2 and C7.3 are closed.
B. via AC BUS 2 and DC BUS 1 when C1.4, C3.2, C3.1, C5.3 and C7.4 are closed.
C. via AC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2 when C1.4, C3.2, C3.1, C5.1 and C7.1 are closed.
D. via AC BUS 2 and DC BUS 1 when C1.4, C3.2, C3.1, C5.1 and C7.1 are closed.
85. Q(12098) Regarding (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit breaker:
A. (1) is not suitable for high currents, (2) is suitable for high currents.
B. (1) is not resettable, (2) is resettable.
C. (1) and (2) are not resettable.
D. (1) is suitable for high currents, (2) is not suitable for high currents.
86. Q(10726) A "Zener" diode is used for:
A. digital displays.
B. rectification.
C. voltage stabilisation.
D. reverse current protection.
87. Q(10749) The type of gate which requires all conditions with logic 1 for engagement is:
A. AND.
B. NOR.
C. NAND.
D. OR.
88. Q(7540) GEN 2 can be used to feed the AC BUS 1, when: (NB: all contactors not mentioned are assumed to remain open)
A. C1.1 is closed.
B. C1.4, C5.3, C7.4, C7.1 and C5.1 are closed.
89. Q(10729) The input and output of a static inverter are respectively:
A. AC and AC.
B. DC and DC.
C. AC and DC.
D. DC and AC.
90. Q(2373) Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of devices to disconnect. In respect of the AC generator it can be said that the:
A. exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie breaker open.
B. generator breaker opens.
C. exciter control relay opens.
D. exciter control relay and the generator breaker open.
92. Q(14422) A static converter is powered by:
A. direct current on input, alternating current output

B. direct current on input, direct current on output
C. alternating current on input, direct current on output
D. alternating current on input, alternating current on output
A. via AC BUS 2 and DC BUS 2 when C1.4, C5.3 and C7.4 are closed.
B. via AC BUS 2 and DC BUS 1 when C1.4, C5.3 and C7.4 are closed.
C. via AC BUS 1 and DC BUS 1 when C1.1, C5.1 and C7.1 are closed.
D. via AC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2 when C1.4, C5.3 and C7.4 are closed.
94. Q(14765) Assuming the initiating cause is removed, which of these statements about resetting are correct or incorrect? I. A fuse is not resettable
II. A circuit breaker is not resettable.
95. Q(2460) A relay is:
A. a device that is used to increase electrical power.

B. a unit that is used to convert electrical energy to heat energy.
C. a magnetically operated switch.
D. another name for a solenoid valve.
96. Q(10740) The conditions to be met to activate a shunt generator are: 1. presence of a permanent field 2. closed electrical circuit 3. generator
terminals short-circuited 4. minimum rotation speed The combination of correct statements is:
A. 1, 2
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 4
D. 1, 3
97. Q(3467) The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to:
A. ensure the input signal is AC only.

B. ensure the output signal is of the same state as the input signal.
C. invert the input signal such that the output is always of the opposite state.
D. ensure the input signal is DC only.
98. Q(3451) AC generators operated in parallel must have the same:
A. frequency and amperage.

A. frequency and amperage.
B. voltage and amperage.
C. amperage and kVAR.
D. voltage and phase.

C. C1.1 is closed.
D. C1.1, C5.1, C7.1, C7.4 and C5.3 are closed.
100. Q(16233) Assuming the initiating cause is removed, which of these statements about resetting are correct or incorrect? I. A fuse is resettable II.
A circuit breaker is resettable.
101. Q(3622) When an "open circuit" occurs in an electrical supply system, the :
A. component will operate normally, but will not switch off.

B. loss of continuity will prevent its working components from functioning.
C. fuse or CB should isolate the circuit due to excess current drawn.
D. load as indicated by the ammeter will increase.
102. Q(3441) In order that DC generators will achieve equal load sharing when operating in parallel, it is necessary to ensure that:
A. their voltages are almost equal.

B. adequate voltage differences exist.
C. equal loads are connected to each generator busbar before paralleling.
D. the synchronising bus-bar is disconnected from the busbar system.
103. Q(2443) The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in:
A. parallel with the armature.

B. parallel with the shunt field coil.
C. series with the shunt field coil.
D. series with the armature.
104. Q(2457) The type of windings commonly used in DC starter motors are:
A. compound wound.
B. shunt wound.
C. series wound.
D. series shunt wound.

C. C1.4, C3.2 and C3.1 are closed.
D. C1.1 is closed.
106. Q(12040) Because of the connection in parallel of electrical equipments on an AC bus bar, isolation of individual equipments:
A. increases the bus bar current consumption.

B. increases the bus bar voltage.
C. decreases the bus bar voltage.
D. decreases the bus bar current consumption.
107. Q(12085) Regarding Ohm's law:
A. The current in a circuit is inversely proportional to voltage.

B. The current in a circuit is directly proportional to voltage.
C. The current in a circuit is directly proportional to the resistance of the circuit.
D. The power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of the current.
108. Q(3453) "Frequency wild" in relation to a AC generation system means the generator:
A. output frequency is too low.

B. output frequency is too high.
C. output frequency varies with engine speed.
D. voltage regulator is out of adjustment.
109. Q(3450) The phase relationship between two unparalleled AC generators:
A. is unimportant.
B. must be in opposition.
C. must be 90° out of synchronisation.
D. must be synchronous.
110. Q(1243) In an AC power generation system, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD): 1- can be disconnected from the engine shaft. 2- can be
disconnected from the generator. 3- is a hydro-mechanical system. 4- is an electronic system. 5- can not be disconnected in flight. 6- can be
disconnected in flight. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
A. 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 4, 5
C. 1, 3, 6
D. 1, 2, 5
111. Q(3621) A test to assess the state of charge of a lead-acid battery would involve:
A. checking the battery voltage "off-load".

B. comparing the "on-load" and "off-load" battery voltages.
C. checking the discharge current of the battery "on-load".
D. checking the level of the electrolyte.
112. Q(2458) The power output of a generator is controlled by:
A. the reverse current relay circuit breaker.

B. varying the field strength.
C. varying the length of wire in the armature windings.
D. varying the speed of the engine.

D. C1.1, C3.1, C3.2 and C5.3 are closed.
114. Q(3463) The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to:
A. drive the generator at a constant speed.

B. vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.
C. directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of engine and generator.
D. vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.
115. Q(12119) Generators, when connected to the same bus bar, are usually connected:
A. dependent on the type of generator.

B. dependent on the type of engine.
C. in series mode.
D. in parallel mode.
116. Q(7559) On ground, APU GEN can be used to feed both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2, when: (NB: all contactors not mentioned are assumed to
remain open)

117. Q(7557) On ground, external power (EXT PWR) can be used to feed the AC BUS 1 , when: (NB: all contactors not mentioned are assumed to
remain open)
118. Q(5387) The frequency of the current provided by an alternator depends on...
A. its rotation speed

B. its load
C. its phase balance
D. the strength of the excitation current
119. Q(12142) In the event of an AC generator fault, on a twin engine aeroplane, the protection device will open:
A. the exciter control relay and the generator breaker.

B. the generator breaker and the bus tie breaker.
C. the exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the bus tie breaker
D. the bus tie breaker.
120. Q(3434) The logic symbol shown represents (assuming positive logic) :
A. a NAND gate.
B. an INVERT or NOT gate.
C. an EXCLUSIVE gate.
D. a NOR gate.
A. via AC BUS 1 and DC BUS 1 when C1.4, C5.3 and C7.4 are closed
B. via AC BUS 2 and DC BUS 2 when C1.4, C5.3, and C7.4 are closed.
C. via AC BUS 2 and DC BUS 1 when C1.4, C5.3 and C7.4 are closed.
D. via AC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2 when C1.4, C5.3 and C7.4 are closed.
122. Q(6518) The diagram shown in annex represents a twin engine aeroplane electrical system. Batteries are located at positions:
A. 5 and 6
B. 3 and 4
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 2
123. Q(7566) GEN 1 can be used to feed the DC ESS BUS: (NB: all contactors not mentioned are assumed to remain open)
A. via AC BUS 1 and AC ESS BUS, when C1.1, C1.4, C3.1, C3.2 and C5.2 are closed.
B. via AC BUS 1, when C1.4, C3.2 and C5.2 are closed.
C. via AC BUS 1, when C1.1, C3.1 and C5.2 are closed.
D. via AC BUS 1 and AC ESS BUS, when C1.1, C3.1 and C5.2 are closed.
124. Q(2461) The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is:
A. 1.8 volts.
B. 1.4 volts.
C. 1.2 volts.
D. 2.2 volts.
125. Q(3445) The purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an aircraft is to :
A. isolate all components electrically and thus make the static potential constant.
B. provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents.
C. prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of similar metals.
D. provide a single earth for electrical devices.
126. Q(1238) When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by means of the:
A. torque of the constant speed drive (CSD).

B. frequency.
C. voltage.
D. energizing current.
127. Q(3452) The measured output power components of a constant frequency AC system are:
A. volts and amperes.

B. kVA and kVAR.
C. amperes and kilowatts.
D. volts and kilowatts.
128. Q(12526) When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the reactive loads are balanced by means of the:
A. torque of the constant speed drive (CSD).

B. excitation current.
C. frequency or load controller.
C. frequency or load controller.
D. voltage controller.
129. Q(2380) Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to: 1. protect the aircraft against lightning effects. 2. reset the electrostatic potential of the
aircraft to a value approximating 0 volt 3. reduce radio interference on radio communication systems 4. set the aircraft to a single potential The
combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A. 2, 4
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 3, 4
130. Q(5389) The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The value of the equivalent resistance (Req) so obtained is given by the following
formula:
A. 1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2

B. 1/Req = 1/(R1 + R2)
C. Req = R1 + R2
D. Req = R1 x R2
131. Q(10567) The rating of electrical fuses is expressed in:
A. amperes.
B. ohms.
C. volts.
D. watts.
132. Q(3429) If two constant frequency AC generators are operating independently, then the phase relation between both generators:
A. must be 240° out of phase.

B. must be synchronised.
C. is unimportant.
D. must be 120° out of phase.
133. Q(3456) In an aeroplane fitted with a constant frequency AC power supply, DC power is obtained from a:
A. static inverter.
B. rotary converter.
C. transformer rectifier unit (TRU).
D. 3 phase current transformer unit.
134. Q(2436) On detection of a persistent overvoltage fault on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC busbars, the on-board protection device
opens:
A. The generator breaker and tie breaker.

B. the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and tie breaker.
C. The generator breaker.
D. the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.
C. C1.4 is closed.
136. Q(10751) To reverse the direction of rotation of a shunt-type (parallel field) DC electric motor, it is necessary to:
A. change the connections from shunt to series.

B. connect a phase-shift capacitor to the field circuit.
C. reverse the polarity of the motor connections.
D. reverse the polarity of either the stator or the rotor.
137. Q(7573) In flight, the AC ESS BUS can be fed by the EMER GEN, when: (NB: all contactors not mentioned are assumed to remain open)
A. C4.1 is closed.
B. C4.1 and C5.2 are closed via the DC BAT BUS and the static inverter.
C. C4.1 and C5.2 are closed via the DC ESS BUS and the static inverter.
D. C4.1 is closed via the static inverter.
138. Q(3457) On an aeroplane using AC as primary power supply, the batteries are charged in flight from:
A. a Transformer Rectifier Unit.

B. the AC bus via current limiters.
C. a static inverter.
D. a DC transformer and rectifier.
139. Q(3433) A CSD unit which has been disconnected in flight :
A. automatically resets in flight providing engine rpm is below a given value.

B. may be reset in flight using the reset mechanism.
C. automatically resets at engine shut-down.
D. may be reset on the ground only, after engine shut-down.
140. Q(2441) When an underspeed fault is detected on an AC generator connected to the aircraft AC busbar, the protection device opens the:
A. generator breaker.
B. exciter breaker and generator breaker.
C. exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
D. exciter breaker.
141. Q(14750) Assuming the initiating cause is removed, which of these statements about resetting are correct or incorrect? I. A fuse is not resettable
II. A circuit breaker is resettable.
142. Q(6515) The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to:
A. Drive the generator at a constant speed.

B. Vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.
B. Vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.
C. Directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of an engine and a generator.
D. Vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.
143. Q(2374) The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the aircraft structure are: 1. Weight saving 2. Easy fault detection 3. Increase of short-
circuit risk 4. Reduction of short-circuit risk 5. Circuits are not single-wired lines The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
A. 2, 3, 5
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 3, 5
D. 1, 2, 4
144. Q(3655) A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is:
A. an inverter.
B. a thermistor.
C. an AC generator.
D. a transformer rectifier unit.
145. Q(1244) An inverter is a:
A. static discharger.
B. unit used to convert DC into AC.
C. filter against radio interference.
D. device for reversing the polarity of the static charge.
146. Q(6516) When AC generators are operated in parallel, they must be of the same:
A. Voltage and phase.

B. Amperage and kVAR.
C. Frequency and amperage.
D. Voltage and amperage.
10 Piston Engines
1. Q(3525) An excessively rich mixture can be detected by:
A. high cylinder head temperatures

B. a long purple flame from exhaust.
C. white smoke from exhaust.
D. black smoke from exhaust.
2. Q(2026) As altitude increases, the mixture ratio of a piston engine should be adjusted to :
A. reduce the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air density.
B. increase the fuel flow in order to compensate for the decreasing air pressure and density.
C. reduce the fuel flow in order to compensate for the increasing air density.
D. increase the mixture ratio.
3. Q(10546) Aircraft fuel tanks should be checked for water:
A. immediately after every refuelling.

B. during refuelling.
C. before each flight.
D. before the first flight of the day.
4. Q(3652) An impulse coupling is installed on a magneto of a piston engine to:
A. facilitate quick removal and installation.

B. absorb starting loads.
C. advance the ignition timing.
D. provide a stronger spark on top dead centre for engine starting.
5. Q(12114) The blade angle of a propeller is the angle between the:
A. reference chord line and the propeller plane of rotation.

B. reference chord line and the propeller axis of rotation.
C. plane of rotation and the relative airflow.
D. reference chord line and the relative airflow.
6. Q(12288) The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its control by:
A. varying the fuel supply to the main discharge tube.

B. varying the air supply to the main discharge tube.
C. moves the butterfly valve through a separate linkage to the main throttle control.
D. altering the depression on the main discharge tube.
7. Q(3072) The power of a piston engine decreases during a climb with a constant power lever setting because of the decreasing:
A. humidity.
B. engine temperature.
C. temperature.
D. air density.
8. Q(5404) Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if:
A. the aircraft descends continuously at idle power.

B. the aircraft cruises at low speed with the correct mixture.
C. the engine runs at maximum continuous power for too long.
D. power is increased too abruptly.
9. Q(5383) Excessive pressure in the cylinders of an engine equipped with a constant speed propeller, can be caused by the combination of:
A. high manifold pressure and low RPM.

B. high manifold pressure and high RPM.
C. low manifold pressure and low RPM.
D. low manifold pressure and high RPM.
10. Q(3517) In an engine equipped with a float-type carburettor, the low temperature that causes carburettor ice is normally the result of:
A. vaporization of fuel and expansion of the air in the carburettor

B. low volatility of aviation fuel
C. compression of air at the carburettor venturi
D. freezing temperature of the air entering the carburettor
11. Q(10552) The lubricating system of an air cooled piston engine is used to:
A. operate constant speed propellers.

B. to operate the fuel control unit.
C. keep the engine warm.
D. reduce internal friction and provide cooling.
12. Q(2015) The blade angle of a constant-speed propeller
A. increases with increasing true air speed.

B. is independent of the true air speed.
C. decreases with increasing true air speed.
D. only varies with engine RPM.
13. Q(3516) The operating principle of float-type carburettors is based on the:
A. increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure
B. measurement of the fuel flow into the induction system
C. automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude
D. difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet
14. Q(12314) The operating principle of magnetos in a piston engine ignition system consists of:
A. creating a brief high intensity magnetic field that will be sent through the distributor at the appropriate time.
B. breaking the primary circuit in order to induce a low amperage, high voltage current, which is distributed to the spark plugs.
C. accumulating in a capacitor a low voltage current from the battery and inducing it as a high voltage current at the moment the spark is
generated.
D. obtaining a high amperage, low voltage current in order to generate the spark.
15. Q(3146) On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and ignition settings are readjusted in order to increase the:
A. engine RPM
B. piston displacement
C. compression ratio
D. overall efficiency
16. Q(3520) The relationship between compression ratio of a piston engine and the required fuel octane rating is that the:
A. required octane rating is independent of the compression ratio.

B. higher the compression ratio, the lower the octane rating required.
C. higher the compression ratio, the higher the octane rating required.
D. lower the compression ratio, the higher the octane rating required.
17. Q(12528) When starting the engine, or when the engine is running at idle rpm on the ground, the mixture is:
A. weak, to prevent the engine consuming too much fuel.

B. rich, to make starting possible and to cool the engine sufficiently when idling.
C. rich, because the choke valve is closed.
D. rich, because carburettor heat is switched on.
18. Q(7448) The power output of a piston engine is directly proportional to:
A. Force and distance

B. Exhast back pressure and RPM
C. Torque and RPM
D. Work and velocity
19. Q(3602) The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of the:
A. diameter of the bore to the piston stroke.

B. weight of the air induced to its weight after compression.
C. volume of the cylinder with the piston at bottom dead centre to that with the piston at top dead centre.
D. area of the piston to the cylinder volume.
20. Q(3708) In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel is approximately 9:1 the mixture is:
A. rich.
B. too weak to support combustion.
C. chemically correct.
D. weak.
21. Q(16222) Both gas turbine and piston engines use a cycle made up of induction, compression, combustion and exhaust phases. Which of these
statements about a piston engine are correct or incorrect? I. The process in a piston engine is continuous. II. Theoretically the combustion occurs at
constant volume.
22. Q(3610) A turbocharger in a reciprocating engine consists of a:

A. turbine driving a compressor via a reduction gear.
B. compressor and turbine mounted on a common shaft.
C. compressor and turbine on individual shafts.
D. compressor driving a turbine via a reduction gear.
23. Q(2965) A piston engine compression ratio is the ratio of the:
A. total volume to the clearance volume.

B. swept volume to the clearance volume.
C. clearance volume to the swept volume.
D. total volume to the swept volume.
24. Q(12073) A mixture setting richer than best power has to be used during climb segments. This results in a
A. lower cylinder head temperature.

B. increase of power.
C. higher torque.
D. higher efficiency.
25. Q(2970) The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is:
A. induction, compression, power, exhaust.

B. compression induction, power, exhaust.
C. induction, compression, expansion, power.
D. induction, power, compression, exhaust.
26. Q(7296) An intercooler is sometimes fitted between supercharger and inlet manifold to:
A. Reduce the mass flow through the engine.

B. Reduce pre-ignition.
C. Minimise the risk of detonation.
D. Increase the combustion temperature.
27. Q(3130) An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a piston engine is used to:
A. control the cylinder head temperature.

B. control the carburettor inlet air flow.
C. control the fuel temperature.
D. assist the pilot to set the correct mixture.
28. Q(16578) On the diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of mixture ratio, theoretical best economy is shown at:
A. point 4.
B. point 1.
C. point 3.
D. point 2.
29. Q(2027) When applying carburettor heating:
A. no change occurs in the mixture ratio.

B. a decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.
C. the mixture becomes leaner.
D. the mixture becomes richer.
30. Q(5405) "Vapour lock" is the phenomenon by which:
A. water vapour plugs are formed in the intake fuel line following the condensation of water in fuel tanks which have not been drained for
sometime.
B. burnt gas plugs forming and remaining in the exhaust manifold following an overheat and thereby disturbing the exhaust.
C. heat produces vapour bubbles in the fuel line.
D. abrupt and abnormal enrichment of the fuel/air mixture following an inappropriate use of carburettor heat.
statements about a piston engine are correct or incorrect? I. The process in a piston engine is intermittent. II. Theoretically the combustion occurs at
constant pressure.
32. Q(7291) When applying precautionary carburettor heating on a reciprocating engine with a constant speed propeller:
A. The mixture becomes richer.

B. The RPM increases.
C. The mixture becomes leaner.
D. The RPM decreases.
33. Q(16484) Apart from flight into known icing conditions, the intake system of a diesel engine:
A. is never heated because a diesel engine is a injection engine.

B. needs to be heated at low power settings, due to vaporisation heat.
C. is never heated because diesel engines operate at very high temperatures.
D. needs to be heated to prevent ice on the air filter.
34. Q(2977) In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure may be monitored by:
A. a cylinder head temperature gauge (CHT), a manifold pressure gauge, and engine rpm readings.
B. both a CHT gauge and manifold pressure gauge.
C. both engine rpm readings and a manifold pressure gauge.
D. a manifold pressure gauge only.
35. Q(2019) When TAS increases, the blade angle of a constant speed propeller will (RPM and throttle levers are not moved):
A. remain constant.
B. first decrease and after a short time increase to its previous value.
C. increase.
D. decrease.
36. Q(2025) Variations in mixture ratios for carburettors are achieved by the adjustment of:
A. air flow.
B. fuel flow, air flow and temperature.
C. fuel flow.
D. fuel flow and air flow.
37. Q(3647) Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that the:
A. faster the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced

B. faster the engine functions, the more retarded the spark is.
C. slower the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced
D. faster the engine functions, the further past TDC the spark occurs
38. Q(3073) The conditions most likely to produce the highest engine power are:
A. warm and dry air at high pressure.

B. cold and dry air at high pressure.
C. cold air at high pressure with high relative humidity.
D. warm air at low pressure with high relative humidity.
39. Q(3607) The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux changes) in the primary coil of a magneto are accomplished by the:
A. rotor turning past the position of maximum flux in the armature.

B. contact breaker points closing.
C. distributor arm aligning with one of the high voltage segments.
D. contact breaker points opening.
40. Q(6520) When altitude increases, in a normally aspirated piston engine, mixture must be adjusted because there is:
A. A decrease of air density resulting in too lean a mixture.

B. An increase of air density resulting in too rich a mixture.
C. A decrease in air density resulting in too rich a mixture.
D. An increase of air density resulting in too lean a mixture.
41. Q(10445) As the flight altitude increases, if no leaning is made with the mixture control:
A. the volume of air entering the carburettor remains constant and the amount of fuel decreases
B. the volume of air entering the carburettor decreases and the amount of fuel decreases
C. the density of air entering the carburettor decreases and the amount of fuel increases.
D. the density of air entering the carburettor decreases and the amount of fuel remains constant
42. Q(3147) In a reciprocating four-stroke engine, the only "driving" stroke is the:
A. induction stroke.
B. compression stroke.
C. exhaust stroke.
D. power stroke.
43. Q(7279) During the compression stroke of a piston engine during the practicle cycle, valves are open as follows:
A. Both valves are closed during the complete stroke.

B. The intake valve is open in the first part of the stroke, then both valves are closed.
C. Both valves are open in the last part of the stroke.
D. The intake valve is open in last part of the stroke, the exhaust valve is open in the first part of the stroke.
44. Q(16548) Assuming the same swept volume and no turbo charger, diesel engines compared to petrol engines:
A. show a higher fuel flow at the same power output.

B. produce a higher maximum power output.
C. operate at higher exhaust gas temperatures.
D. produce less maximum power output.
45. Q(15713) The ignition system of a running piston engine receives electrical energy from:
A. generators.
B. capacitors.
C. rotating permanent magnets.
D. batteries.
46. Q(3518) For a reciprocating engine fuel/air ratio or mixture is the ratio between the:
A. mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.

B. volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.
C. mass of fuel and mass of air entering the carburettor
D. volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.
47. Q(12126) If an engine detonates during climb-out, the normal corrective action would be to:
A. apply carburettor heat.

B. lean the mixture.
C. increase the rate of climb.
D. retard the throttle.
48. Q(3137) An asymmetric loading (p-factor) on the propeller exists ..
A. Only if the 'constant speed propeller' mechanism is broken.

B. If the aeroplane has a large angle of attack.
C. Only for counterrotating propeller
D. If there is an unbalanced propeller.
statements about a piston engine are correct or incorrect? I. The process in a piston engine is intermittent. II. Theoretically the combustion occurs at
constant volume.
50. Q(3707) Which one of the following factors would be most likely to increase the possibility of detonation occurring within a piston engine?
A. The use of a fuel with a high octane rating as compared to the use of one with a low octane rating.
B. Using an engine with a low compression ratio.
C. Slightly retarding the ignition timing.
D. High cylinder head temperature.
51. Q(3070) The power of a piston engine, which will be measured by a friction brake, is:
A. heat loss power.

B. frictional horse power.
C. indicated horse power.
D. brake horse power.
52. Q(3603) Prolonged running at low rpm can have an adverse effect on the functioning of the:
A. oil pump.
B. spark plugs.
C. fuel filter.
D. carburettor.
53. Q(14424) The ignition system generally used for small aircrafts is a:
A. High tension system.

B. Battery ignition system.
C. Low tension system.
D. High intensity system.
54. Q(12529) When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise fuel flow, excessive leaning will cause:
A. high cylinder head temperature

B. high manifold pressure
C. low cylinder head temperature
D. high engine RPM
55. Q(1755) Consider the variable-pitch propeller of a turbo-prop. During deceleration:
A. when braking, the propeller supplies negative thrust and absorbs engine power.
B. with propeller windmilling, the thrust is zero and the propeller supplies engine power.
C. when feathered, the propeller produces thrust and absorbs no engine power.
D. at zero power, the propeller thrust is zero and the engine power absorbed is nil.
56. Q(10544) The first indication of carburettor icing, in aeroplanes equipped with constant speed propellers, during cruise would most likely be a:
A. decrease in rpm.
B. rough running engine followed by loss in rpm.
C. decrease in manifold pressure.
D. rough running engine followed by an increase in manifold pressure.
57. Q(3125) During a climb in a standard atmosphere with constant Manifold Absolute Pressure (MAP) and RPM indications and at a constant mixture
setting, the power output of a piston engine:
A. increases.
B. stays constant.
C. decreases.
D. only stays constant if the propeller lever is pushed.
58. Q(16852) Given the following statements about diesel engines. 1 power is regulated by the throttle valve. 2 there is no throttle valve. 3 power is
set by the fuel flow. 4 thermal efficiency is lower than that for a petrol engine. 5 diesel fuel is less inflammable than petrol. The combination that
A. 1, 3, 5.
B. 2, 4, 5.
C. 2, 3, 5.
D. 1, 2, 3.
59. Q(3519) Which statement is correct concerning the effect of the application of carburettor heat?
A. The volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus enriching the fuel/air mixture.
B. The density of the air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture.
C. The density of the air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus enriching the fuel/air mixture.
D. The volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced, thus leaning the fuel/air mixture.
60. Q(7295) On a four stroke reciprocating engine, the ignition in one cylinder will occur:
A. Four times each crankshaft revolution.

B. Once every two crankshaft revolutions.
C. Twice each crankshaft revolution.
D. Once each crankshaft revolution.
61. Q(3131) During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever setting (mixture being constant) the:
A. RPM increases.
B. Manifold Absolute Pressure (MAP) increases.
C. Manifold Absolute Pressure (MAP) decreases.
D. RPM decreases.
62. Q(12080) On design purpose, the relationship between the fuel octane rating and the maximum compression ratio of a piston engine is:
A. the lower the octane rating is, the higher the maximum compression ratio is
B. the maximum compression ratio is independent of the octane rating.
C. the higher the octane rating is, the lower the maximum compression ratio is.
D. the higher the octane rating is, the higher the maximum compression ratio is
63. Q(3069) The power output of a piston engine can be calculated by:
A. Torque times RPM.

B. Pressure times arm.
C. Work times velocity.
D. Force times distance.
64. Q(6521) The primary purpose of a supercharger is to:
A. Provide leaner mixtures at altitudes below 5000 ft.

B. Maintain power at altitude.
C. Increase quantity of fuel at metering jet.
D. Provide a richer mixture at high altitudes.
65. Q(2014) When changing power on engines equipped with constant-speed propeller, engine overload is avoided by:
A. increasing the manifold pressure before increasing the RPM.

B. adjusting Fuel Flow before the manifold pressure.
C. increasing the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure.
D. reducing the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure.
66. Q(14327) Vapour locking is caused by:
A. the formation of water vapour in a fuel system.

B. vaporizing of fuel prior to the engine.
C. vaporizing of fuel in the nozzles.
D. the inability of fuel to vaporize in the nozzles.
67. Q(2029) When altitude increases without adjustment of the mixture ratio, the piston engine performance is affected because of a :
A. an increase of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too high.
B. an increase of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too low.
C. a decrease of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too low.
D. a decrease of air density with a fuel flow which becomes too high.
68. Q(2023) For take-off, the correct combination of propeller pitch (1), and propeller lever position (2) at brake release is:
A. (1) low (2) forward.

B. (1) high (2) aft.
C. (1) high (2) forward.
D. (1) low (2) aft.
69. Q(3132) The conditions which can cause detonation are:
A. Low manifold pressure and high fuel flow.

B. Low manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.
C. High manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.
D. High manifold pressure and low revolutions per minute.
70. Q(10454) Cooling air for a reciprocating engine can be obtained by means of:
A. a pneumatic system.
B. ram air
C. a supercharger
D. a turbocharger
71. Q(3703) With respect to a piston engine aircraft, ice in the carburettor:
A. will only form at OAT's below +10°C.

B. may form at OAT's higher than +10°C.
C. will only form at OAT's below the freezing point of fuel.
D. will only form at outside air temperatures (OAT's) below the freezing point of water.
72. Q(7283) The safest method of priming a piston engine for starting is:
A. Injection of fuel through spark plug holes.

B. By turning the propeller sever times with the throttle wide open.
C. Injection of fuel in the cylinder intake ports.
D. Pumping the throttle.
73. Q(10491) If the engine, with a fixed pitch propeller, is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the normal corrective action would be to:
A. apply carburettor heat.

B. increase the rate of climb
C. lean the mixture
D. reduce the throttle
74. Q(15220) Given the following statements about diesel engines: 1 power is set by the mixture control. 2 there is no mixture control. 3 the amount of
power is determined by the fuel flow only. 4 thermal efficiency is higher than that for a petrol engine. 5 diesel fuel is more inflammable than petrol.
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 2,4,5.
B. 2,3,4.
C. 1,3,5.
D. 1,2,3.
75. Q(2973) The purpose of the contact breaker is to:

A. connect the secondary coil to the distributor
B. control the primary circuit of the magneto
C. connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with the primary coil
D. connect the battery to the magneto
76. Q(2966) Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when:
A. the mixture is ignited before the piston has reached top dead centre.
B. the sparking plug ignites the mixture too early.
C. the mixture is ignited by abnormal conditions within the cylinder before the spark occurs at the plug
D. a rich mixture is ignited by the sparking plugs.
77. Q(12315) The octane rating of a fuel characterises the:
A. resistance to detonation.
B. fuel electrical conductivity.
C. fuel volatility.
D. quantity of heat generated by its combustion.
78. Q(7292) Which of these statements is correct regarding piston engine induction system icing?
A. Ice accretion affects both fuel systems and engines equipped with carburettors.
B. Fuel ice is normally formed in the induction system of fuel injection systems.
C. Induction system icing affects only engines equipped with carburettors.
D. Ice on the throttle valve is usually formed in the induction system of fuel injection systems.
79. Q(3710) The oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil cooler that is fitted :
A. in the return line to the oil tank after the oil has passed through the scavenge pump
B. after the oil has passed through the engine and before it enters the sump
C. between the oil tank and the pressure pump
D. after the pressure pump but before the oil passes through the engine
80. Q(3511) If the ground wire between the magnetos and the ignition switch becomes disconnected the most noticeable result will be that:
A. the engine cannot be shut down by turning the ignition switch to the "OFF" position.
B. the engine cannot be started with the ignition switch in the "ON" position.
C. the power developed by the engine will be greatly reduced.
D. a still operating engine will run down.
81. Q(7294) What is the best method to stop a running engine if the magneto switch ground wire becomes disconnected?
A. No special method is required, if the wire becomes disconnected the engine will stop.
B. Feather the propeller.
C. Lean out mixture until engine backfires and stops.
D. Shut off fuel.
82. Q(7288) When applying precautionary carburettor heating on a reciprocating engine with a fixed pitch propeller:
A. The RPM decreases.

B. The mixture does not change.
D. The RPM increases.
83. Q(15547) Diesel engines, compared to petrol engines have:
A. a lower compression ratio.

B. a variable compression ratio.
C. a higher compression ratio.
D. the same compression ratio.
84. Q(12521) With an aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch propeller, during flight at normal cruising speed, one magneto fails completely. This will first
cause:
A. loss of approximately 100 rpm.

B. the engine to overheat.
C. an additional load on the other magneto.
D. excessive vibration.
85. Q(3513) In order to get the optimum efficiency of a piston engine, the positions of the intake and exhaust valve at the end of the power stroke
are:
A. intake valve closed and exhaust valve open.

B. both valves open.
C. exhaust valve closed and intake valve open.
D. both valves closed.
86. Q(3606) The purpose of a distributor in an ignition system is to distribute:
A. primary current to the sparking plugs.

B. secondary current to the condenser.
C. secondary current to the sparking plugs.
D. primary current to the condenser.
87. Q(3604) The purpose of the venturi in a carburettor is to:
A. create a rise in pressure at the throat before the mixture enters the induction system.
B. ensure complete atomisation of the fuel before entering the injection system.
C. create the suction necessary to cause fuel to flow through the carburettor main jets.
D. prevent enrichment of the mixture due to high air velocity through the carburettor.
A. removable only after the associated tank has been emptied.

B. electro-mechanical swash plate pumps, with self-regulated pressure.
C. mechanically driven by the engine's accessory gearbox.
D. electrically driven centrifugal pumps.
89. Q(12093) Once the engine has started, ignition systems of piston engines are:
A. dependent on the DC-Generator.

B. dependent on the battery.
C. dependent on the AC-Generator.
D. independent of the electrical system of the aircraft.
90. Q(2032) For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the:
A. quantity of oil.
B. oil pressure.
C. outside pressure.
D. oil temperature.
91. Q(16887) Excessive priming of a piston engine should be avoided because: 1. it drains the carburettor float chamber 2. the risk of engine fire. 3.
the risk of flooding the engine. 4. it fouls the spark plugs. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 2, 3, 4.
B. 1, 3, 4.
C. 1, 2, 3.
D. 1, 2, 4.
92. Q(2969) A fuel strainer when fitted to a carburettor will be positioned:
A. between the metering jet and the discharge nozzle.

B. downstream of the discharge nozzle.
C. upstream of the needle valve.
D. between the needle valve and the metering jet.
93. Q(10492) If, when the magneto selector switch is set to the OFF position, a piston engine continues to run normally, the most probable cause is
that:
A. There are local hot points in the engine (probably due to overheating of the cylinder heads).
B. A wire from the magneto is in contact with a metallic part of the engine.
C. There is a carbon deposit on the spark plugs electrodes.
D. On a magneto, the grounding wire is broken.
94. Q(6519) In which sections of the carburettor would icing most likely occur?
A. Accelerator pump and main metering jet.

B. Float chamber and fuel inlet filter.
C. Main air bleed and main discharge nozzle.
D. Venturi and the throttle valve.
95. Q(2020) The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as compared to a fixed pitch propeller is a:
A. higher efficiency in cruising range.

B. lower propeller blade stress.
C. high efficiency in a much wider speed range of the aeroplane.
D. constant efficiency in the whole speed range of the aeroplane.
96. Q(7290) When applying precautionary carburettor heating on a reciprocating engine with a constant speed propeller:
A. The RPM remains constant.

B. The RPM decreases.
C. The RPM increases.
D. The mixture becomes leaner.
97. Q(10575) The function of the primer pump in a reciprocating engine is to:
A. inject additional fuel during engine acceleration.

B. to serve as main supply pump in a fuel injection system.
C. provide additional fuel for an engine start.
D. serve as an alternate pump in case of an engine driven pump failure.
98. Q(16773) The thermal efficiency of a diesel engine is higher than that of a petrol engine because:
A. the compression ratio is much higher.

B. the air mass flow through the engine is higher.
C. the EGT is higher.
D. the calorific value of the fuel is higher.
99. Q(3515) In which sections of the carburettor would icing most likely occur?
A. venturi and the throttle valve

B. main air bleed and main discharge nozzle
C. float chamber and fuel inlet filter
D. accelerator pump and main metering jet
100. Q(3523) In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive priming should be avoided because:
A. it washes the lubricant of cylinder walls

B. the gasoline dilutes the oil and necessitates changing oil
C. it drains the carburettor float chamber
D. it fouls the spark plugs
101. Q(10604) Which one of the following factors would be most likely to increase the possibility of detonation occurring within a piston engine?
A. slightly retarding the ignition timing
B. using an engine with a low compression ratio
C. using too lean a fuel/air mixture
D. the use of a fuel with a high octane rating as compared to the use of one with a low octane rating
102. Q(5416) On the attached diagram showing the power output of a piston engine as a function of mixture richness, best economy is at the point
marked:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 1
D. 2
103. Q(12062) Assume an initial condition at a high cruise altitude with a constant speed propeller. What will happen if the altitude is decreased while
the throttle remains fully open and the waste gate is seized in the cruise position:
A. The manifold absolute pressure (MAP) value will stay constant.

B. The power of the engine will decrease.
C. The blade angle may reach the full fine limit.
D. The manifold absolute pressure (MAP) value may exceed the maximum allowed value.
104. Q(7287) The function of a diffuser (compensation jet) is to:
A. Enable engine idling.

B. Enable engine starting.
C. Maintain a constant mixture in a pison engine at low and high power settings.
D. Enable proper functioning of a piston engine during throttle advance.
105. Q(3514) The main purpose of the mixture control is to:
A. adjust the fuel flow to obtain the correct fuel/air ratio.

B. decrease the oxygen supplied to the engine.
C. increase the oxygen supplied to the engine.
D. decrease the air supplied to the engine.
106. Q(5409) Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-engine aircraft are:
A. centrifugal high pressure pumps.
B. centrifugal low pressure type pumps.
C. high pressure variable swash plate pumps.
D. low pressure variable swash plate pumps.
107. Q(3524) The main purpose of a turbocharger is to:
A. provide a leaner mixture at sea level.

B. provide a richer mixture at high altitudes
C. reduce the fuel flow.
D. maintain power with increasing altitude.
108. Q(5393) With a piston engine, when detonation is recognised, you:
A. Increase manifold pressure and lean the mixture

B. Reduce manifold pressure and enrich the mixture
C. Increase manifold pressure and enrich the mixture
D. Reduce manifold pressure and lean the mixture
109. Q(12109) On a normally aspirated engine, the manifold pressure gauge always indicates:
A. a lower value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.

B. a value equal to the atmospheric pressure when the engine is at full power on the ground.
C. zero on the ground when the engine is stopped.
D. a greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.
110. Q(2012) The correct formula to calculate the total displacement of a multi-cylinder piston engine is the:
A. piston area x piston stroke

B. cylinder length x cylinder diameter
C. cylinder volume x number of cylinders
D. piston area x piston stroke x number of cylinders
111. Q(2208) The octane rating of a fuel characterises the :
A. fuel volatility
B. fuel electrical conductivity
C. the anti-knock capability
D. quantity of heat generated by its combustion
112. Q(3512) For internal cooling, reciprocating engines are especially dependent on:
A. a properly functioning thermostat

B. a lean fuel/air mixture
C. the circulation of lubricating oil
D. a rich fuel/air mixture
113. Q(7282) If the manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine shows an increase shortly after carburettor heater is turned on, it indicates:
A. Mixture was too lean.

B. Excessive heat is being used.
C. Ice was forming in carburettor.
D. Overheating of cylinder walls.
114. Q(10587) Viscosity is
A. the tendency of a liquid or gas to resist flow.

B. the pressure resistance of an oil.
C. the flow velocity inside the oil lines.
D. the temperature dependence of an oil.
115. Q(12144) Concerning a constant speed propeller of a twin engine aeroplane controlled by a single-acting pitch control unit:
A. aerodynamic force turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.
B. spring force turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.
C. oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards higher pitch angle.
D. oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards smaller pitch angle.
116. Q(5385) On a a normally aspirated engine (non turbo-charged), the manifold pressure gauge always indicates...
A. a greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.

B. zero on the ground when the engine is stopped.
C. a value equal to the QFE when the engine is at full power on the ground.
D. a lower value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is running.
117. Q(10540) The cylinder head and oil temperatures may exceed their normal operating ranges if:
A. the engine is operated at a too rich mixture.

B. a higher octane rating than specified for the engine is used.
C. the engine is operated at a higher than normal oil pressure.
D. a lower octane rating than specified for the engine is used.
118. Q(2022) In case of engine failure during flight the blades of a constant speed propeller in a single engine aeroplane, not fitted with feathering
system
A. move in low pitch position by oil pressure created by the windmilling propeller.
B. move in the highest pitch position by the aerodynamic force.
C. move in the lowest pitch position by the centrifugal force and/or the spring force.
D. move in a certain pitch position depending on windmilling RPM.
119. Q(2975) On a normally aspirated aero-engine fitted with a fixed pitch propeller:
A. the propeller setting is constant at all indicated airspeeds.

B. manifold pressure decreases as the aircraft climbs at a fixed throttle setting.
C. in a descent at a fixed throttle setting manifold pressure will always remain constant.
D. in level flight, manifold pressure will remain constant when the rpm is increased by opening the throttle.
120. Q(2017) A pilot can actuate the feathering system by:
A. pushing the propeller control lever forwards.

B. pulling the propeller control lever rearwards.
C. pulling the power levers rearwards.
D. pushing the power lever forwards.
121. Q(10554) The mechanism to change the propeller blade angle of a small piston engine aeroplane in flight is operated:
A. hydraulically by hydraulic fluid.

B. hydraulically by engine oil.
C. manually by the pilot.
D. by aerodynamic forces.
122. Q(10099) One of the advantages of a turbocharger is:
A. that there is no torsion at the crankshaft.

B. an increased propulsive efficiency.
C. that there is no danger of detonation.
D. to make the power available less affected by altitude.
123. Q(3141) The crank assembly of a piston engine comprises the:
A. crankshaft, camshaft, valves, valve springs and push rods.

B. crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
C. Crankcase, crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons.
D. propeller, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods.
124. Q(7281) Carburettor heating is generally not used with take-off and climb-power settings, because of the:
A. Loss of power and possible detonation.

B. Fire hazard involved.
C. Impossibility of engine supplying enough heat.
D. Increased drag.
125. Q(12100) A magnetic plug in an engine oil system can be used to:
A. collect carbon found in the oil.

B. collect static electricity.
C. prevent metallic particles from entering the oil system.
D. collect ferrous particles.
126. Q(5382) When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the propeller blade angle is near 90°, the propeller is said to be:
A. at zero drag.
B. transparent.
C. windmilling.
D. feathered.
127. Q(3709) To maintain a constant mixture at low and high power settings in a piston engine, a carburettor is fitted with:
A. a diffuser (compensating jet).

B. a power jet
C. a mixture control
D. an accelerator pump
128. Q(2024) For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the:
A. mass of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.

B. mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.
C. volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.
D. volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.
129. Q(5392) A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than the recommended:
A. provided that it is an aeronautical petrol

B. provided that the grade is lower
C. never
D. provided that the grade is higher
130. Q(7278) The camshaft of a piston engine rotates at:
A. Twice the speed of the crankshaft.

B. Half the speed of the crankshaft.
C. The same speed as the crankshaft.
D. Four times the speed of the crankshaft.
131. Q(12530) When detonation is recognised in a piston engine, the correct procedure is to:
A. reduce manifold pressure and lean the mixture.

B. reduce manifold pressure and fully enrich the mixture.
C. increase manifold pressure and lean the mixture.
D. increase manifold pressure and fully enrich the mixture.
132. Q(15790) The fuel-oil heat exchanger:
A. cools the oil and heats the fuel.

B. heats the fuel only.
C. cools the oil only.
D. cools both the oil and the fuel.
133. Q(3649) An impulse magneto coupling
A. gives an automatic spark increase during high speed operation.

B. advances ignition timing and gives a hotter spark at starting
C. gives a retarded spark at starting
D. reduces magneto speed during engine warm-up
134. Q(16859) Diesel engines always produce a certain amount of soot, because:
A. the mixture is always too rich.

B. the intake air is too cold.
C. the fuel droplets are too small.
D. the fuel droplets coming from the atomiser do not burn completely.
135. Q(3608) The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the:
A. pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump.

B. pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump.
C. difference between the pressure pump pressure and the scavenge pump pressure.
D. pressure in the oil tank reservoir.
136. Q(3609) A turbocharger system in a reciprocating engine is normally driven by:
A. the exhaust system.

B. an electrically activated hydraulically powered clutch.
C. an electric motor.
D. an hydraulic motor.
137. Q(14328) The relationship between compression ratio of a piston engine and the required fuel octane rating is that the:
A. required octane rating is independent of the compression ratio.

B. higher the compression ratio, the lower the octane rating required.
C. higher the compression ratio, the higher the octane rating required.
D. lower the compression ratio, the higher the octane rating required.
138. Q(3706) The part of a piston engine that transforms reciprocating movement into rotary motion is termed the:
A. piston
B. camshaft
C. reduction gear
D. crankshaft
139. Q(2972) In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture control is to:
A. correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air density at altitude.
B. weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust back pressure at altitude.
C. enrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at altitude.
D. prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at altitude.
140. Q(7280) The crankshaft of a piston engine rotates at:
A. The same speed as the camshaft.

B. Four times the speed of the cam shaft.
C. Half the speed of the camshaft.
D. Twice the speed of the camshaft.
141. Q(3135) If the manifold pressure is increased, the blade angle of a constant speed propeller :
A. will remain the same

B. will increase and after a short time will reduce.
C. It will increase
D. will reduce so that the engine RPM can increase
142. Q(3067) The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator diagram is enclosed by the following gas state change lines
A. 2 adiabatic, 1 isochoric and 1 isobaric lines.

B. 2 adiabatic and 2 isochoric lines.
C. 2 adiabatic and 2 isobaric lines.
D. 2 adiabatic and 1 isothermic lines.
143. Q(5394) From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if the altitude is reduced, to maintain the same mixture the fuel flow should:
A. increase or decrease, depending on the engine type

B. remain the same
C. decrease
D. increase
144. Q(12002) The thermal efficiency of a piston engine is about:
A. 80%
B. 50%
C. 70%
D. 30%
145. Q(3646) An aircraft magneto is switched off by: 1. grounding the primary circuit. 2. opening the primary circuit. 3. opening the secondary circuit. 4.
grounding the secondary circuit. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 2, 3.
B. 1, 3.
C. 2, 4.
D. 1, 4.
146. Q(12019) An impulse coupling is installed on a magneto of a piston engine to:
A. facilitate quick removal and installation.

B. advance the ignition timing.
C. absorb starting loads.
D. provide a stronger spark on top dead centre for engine starting.
147. Q(3074) The power output of a piston engine without supercharging increases with increasing altitude in standard atmosphere at constant
Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM because of the:
A. leaner mixture at higher altitudes.

B. lower losses during the gas change.
C. increase of the air density behind the throttle valve.
D. lower friction losses.
148. Q(3126) The kind of compressor normally used as a supercharger is:
A. a piston compressor.
B. a radial compressor.
C. an axial compressor.
D. a hybrid compressor.
149. Q(12533) What may happen during a continuous climb with a mixture setting fully rich?
A. The engine will operate smoother even though fuel consumption is increased.
B. Increase of the power available.
C. The engine will overheat.
D. Fouling of spark plugs.
150. Q(10493) Ignition occurs in each cylinder of a four stroke engine (TDC = Top Dead Centre):
A. behind TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.

B. behind TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
C. before TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
D. before TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.
151. Q(3129) With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power output of an aeroplane fitted with a fixed pitch propeller?
A. RPM and MAP indicator.

B. RPM indicator.
C. Cylinder head temperature indicator.
D. Fuel Flow indicator.
152. Q(3651) If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the most noticeable result will be that the
engine
A. will not operate at the right magneto

B. cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.
C. cannot be started with the switch in the ON position
D. will not operate at the left magneto
153. Q(7293) The lubrication system of an aircraft engine is used to:
A. Keep the engine warm.

B. Prevent intercrystalline corrosion.
C. Aid in dissipation of heat.
D. Operate ground adjustable propellers.
154. Q(7289) When applying precautionary carburettor heating on a reciprocating engine with a fixed pitch propeller:
A. The mixture becomes richer.

B. The mixture does not change.
D. The RPM increases.
155. Q(5413) For a piston engine, the chemically correct fuel/air ratio is:
A. 1:15
B. 1:10
C. 1:12
D. 1:9
156. Q(7284) The main function of a carburettor in a piston engine is to:
A. Control the amount of air entering the airscoop.

B. Prevent vapour lock.
C. Prevent detonation.
D. Supply a correct fuel-air mixture at all speeds.
157. Q(3521) Vapour lock is:
A. the formation of water vapour in a fuel system

B. the inability of a fuel to vaporize in the carburettor
C. vaporizing of fuel in the carburettor
D. vaporizing of fuel prior to reaching the carburettor
158. Q(2028) When the pilot moves the mixture lever of a piston engine towards a lean position the:
A. amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is reduced.

B. volume of air entering the carburettor is increased.
C. amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is increased.
D. volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced.
159. Q(10743) The main reason for opening the cowl flaps is to control the:
A. E.G.T (exhaust gas temperature)

B. C.H.T. (cylinder head temperature)
C. cabin temperature
D. oil temperature
160. Q(2971) Specific fuel consumption is defined as the:
A. quantity of fuel required to run the engine for one minute at maximum operating conditions.
B. maximum fuel consumption of the aircraft.
C. designed fuel consumption for a given rpm.
D. mass of fuel required to produce unit power for unit time.
161. Q(16050) Both gas turbine and piston engines use a cycle made up of induction, compression, combustion and exhaust phases. Which of
these statements about a piston engine are correct or incorrect? I. The process in a piston engine is continuous. II. Theoretically the combustion
occurs at constant pressure.
162. Q(12021) During take-off, the angle of attack of the blades of a fixed pitch propeller, optimised for cruise condition is:
A. negative.
B. zero.
C. relatively high.
D. relatively small.
163. Q(6503) In the diagram (not to scale), the balancing force required on the right hand side is:
A. 20 N
B. 4N
C. 1N
D. 100 N
164. Q(3650) If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF position, the cause may be:
A. switch wire grounded

B. fouled spark plugs
C. defective condenser
D. excessive carbon formation in cylinder head.
165. Q(14428) The lubricating system of an aircraft engine is used to
A. prevent inter-crystalline corrosion

B. aid in dissipation of heat
C. operate ground adjustable propellers.
D. keep the engine warm
166. Q(2974) Under normal running conditions a magneto draws primary current:
A. from the aircraft batteries via an inverter.

B. from a self-contained electro-magnetic induction system.
C. directly from the aircraft batteries.
D. from the booster coil.
167. Q(5386) The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the :
A. mass of fuel relative to the volume of air.

B. actual mixture ratio relative to the theoretical ratio.
C. volume of fuel relative to the mass of the volume of air.
D. volume of fuel relative to the volume of air.
168. Q(15876) When excessively leaning the mixture for a better fuel economy, but still on the rich side of the peak EGT, the following engine
parameter(s) may exceed their normal operating ranges:
A. cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature.

B. oil temperature.
C. manifold pressure.
D. engine RPM.
169. Q(2976) The air in a piston engine turbo-supercharger centrifugal compressor :
A. enters at a tangent to the rotor and leaves via the stator.

B. enters the eye of the impeller and leaves at a tangent to the periphery.
C. enters at the periphery and leaves via the eye of the impeller.
D. enters via the diffuser and is fed to the impeller at the optimum angle of attack.
170. Q(7285) To enable proper functioning of a piston engine during throttle advance a carburettor fitted with:
A. An accelerator pump.
B. A power jet.
C. A mixture control.
D. A diffuser (compensating jet).
171. Q(831) The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel controller is to:
A. reduce the fuel to air mass ratio when the altitude increases.
B. maintain a constant fuel flow whatever the altitude is.
C. increase the fuel to air mass ratio when the altitude increases.
D. maintain the correct fuel to air mass ratio when the altitude increases.
172. Q(2967) Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an excessively:
A. low barometric pressure.

B. high barometric pressure.
C. rich mixture.
D. weak mixture.
173. Q(10577) The use of too low an octane fuel may cause:
A. detonation.
B. a cooling effect on cylinders.
C. vapour locking.
D. higher manifold pressure.
174. Q(3071) The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at the:
A. camshaft.
B. gear box which is located between the engine and the propeller.
C. propeller blades.
D. accessory gear box.
175. Q(2031) Maximum exhaust gas temperature (EGT) of a piston engine is theoretically associated with a:
A. full rich setting.

B. cruising mixture setting.
C. mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out.
D. fuel to air ratio of 1:15.
176. Q(10455) Dual ignition provides a factor of reliability and:
A. aids in starting
B. provides more voltage
C. saves wear caused by using one magneto constantly.
D. improves combustion efficiency.
11 Turbine Engines
1. Q(2417) The compressor surge effect during acceleration is prevented by the:
A. inlet guide vanes.

B. variable setting type nozzle guide vanes.
C. Fuel Control Unit (F.C.U.).
D. surge bleed valves.
2. Q(2981) A "fan" stage of a ducted-fan turbine engine is driven by:
A. airflow drawn across it by the high pressure compressor.

B. the high pressure compressor through reduction gearing.
C. the low pressure turbine.
D. the high pressure turbine.
statements about a gas turbine are correct or incorrect? I. The process in a gas turbine engine is intermittent. II. Theoretically the combustion occurs
at constant pressure.
4. Q(12254) About a twin spool compressor:
A. The low pressure spool runs at a lower rpm than the high pressure spool.
B. The low pressure spool runs at a very high rpm, thus preventing the onset of compressor stall.
C. When operating at very high rpm's, the later stages within the high pressure spool will have a large negative angle of attack.
D. Both spools run at the same rpm.
5. Q(16370) After a successful start of a high bypass turbofan engine, the air starter:
A. is disengaged by the coupling between engine N1 spool and starter by the use of centrifugal forces.
B. is disengaged by using a clutch that is controlled by the main engine control.
C. remains engaged and rotates continuously with the N2 spool.
D. is disengaged by the coupling between engine N2 spool and starter by the use of centrifugal forces.
statements about a gas turbine are correct or incorrect? I. The process in a gas turbine engine is continuous. II. Theoretically the combustion occurs
at constant pressure.
7. Q(16122) The bypass ratio: I. is the ratio of inlet airflow to HP compressor flow. II. can be determined from the inlet air mass flow and the HP
compressor mass flow.
8. Q(16280) The most unfavourable conditions for adequate inlet air flow of a turbofan engine are:
A. idle thrust, zero forward speed with no wind.

B. maximum thrust at rotation speed on the ground during take-off.
C. maximum take-off thrust, zero forward speed and strong crosswind conditions.
D. maximum thrust during climb out with strong crosswind.
9. Q(15133) A twin-spool engine with an inlet air mass flow of 220 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 220 kg/s has a bypass ratio of:
A. 0
B. 10
C. 1.1
D. 1
10. Q(2452) At Reference. In flight, with centre tank empty and APU operating, a fuel unbalance is detected (quantity in tank 1 < quantity in tank 2).
Rebalancing of the two tanks is:
A. possible with "CROSSFEED" open and tank 1 pumps "OFF" and tank 2 pumps "ON".
B. impossible because there is no fuel in center tank.
C. impossible without causing the APU stop.
D. possible with "CROSSFEED" open and tank 2 pumps "OFF".
11. Q(16587) Most high-bypass (unmixed) turbofan engines are equipped with a cold exhaust reverser (fan reverser) only in order to:
A. reduce the risk of exhaust gas re-ingestion.

B. save costs and mass at the expense of a reduction in available reverse thrust.
C. prevent extra fuel consumption due to operation of the hot exhaust reverser (turbine reverser).
D. prevent disturbance of cold exhaust reversed airflow by the hot exhaust reversed gas flow.
12. Q(14177) The function of the drain valve in a gas turbine combustion chamber is to :
A. remove unburned fuel from the combustion chamber

B. prevent a wet start
C. vent the combustion chamber after engine shutdown
D. check whether the fuel nozzles leak fuel after engine shutdown.
13. Q(16592) When a turbo-prop aeroplane decelerates during the intial part of the landing roll, a constant speed propeller within the beta range:
A. produces zero thrust.

B. produces positive thrust.
C. is feathered.
D. produces negative thrust.
14. Q(16328) The primary function of the diffuser, located between the compressor and the combustion chamber, of a gas turbine engine is to:
A. increase the temperature of the compressed air.

B. increase total pressure.
C. convert kinetic energy into mechanical energy.
D. decrease the flow velocity.
15. Q(14331) One of the advantages of an annular combustion chamber is:
A. a reduced thermal stress on the turbine.

B. that fewer igniters are required.
C. a simpler assembly.
D. a higher structural strength.
16. Q(16745) Vibration sensors are used in a gas turbine engine to indicate:
A. imbalance of one or both of the spools.

B. that tip clearance of turbine blades has decreased below a minimum value.
C. bearing problems only.
D. that there is too much free movement of the engine strut (pylon).
17. Q(16123) The bypass ratio: I. is the ratio of inlet air mass flow to exhaust air mass flow. II. can be determined from the bypass air mass flow and
the HP compressor mass flow.
18. Q(10064) A gas turbine engine turbine section may employ active clearance control:
A. to provide enhanced clearances between the blade tips and the casing.
B. in order to reduce "creep" in the blades.
C. as a method of attaching the stators and rotors to the hub of the disc.
D. in order to cool the disc.
19. Q(10066) On most high by-pass ratio (fan) engine,reverse thrust is achieved by reversing
A. the direction of both the exhaust gas flow (hot stream) and the fan airflow (cold stream).
B. the direction of rotation of the fan.
C. only the direction of the exhaust gas flow.
D. only the direction of the fan airflow.
20. Q(14828) Which of these statements about an reaction turbine are correct or incorrect? I. The pressure drops across the nozzle guide vanes. II.
The pressure drops across the rotor blades.
21. Q(6522) The By-pass ratio of an engine is the ratio of:
A. Primary to secondary air.

B. Exhaust gas pressure to air intake pressure.
C. Cold stream air to that flowing through the hot core of the engine.
D. Primary to tertiary air.
22. Q(15026) One of the causes of high oil temperature in a gas turbine engine at constant power setting is:
A. high oil pressure.

B. unusually high scavenge pump oil flow.
C. high outside air temperature.
D. malfunction of the heat exchanger.
23. Q(3613) For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the lowest rpm range at which the engine:
A. operates most efficiently in the cruise..

B. is designed to idle after starting.
C. will enable the generators to supply bus bar voltage.
D. will continue to run without any further starter assistance.
24. Q(16021) Regarding a jet engine: I. The maximum thrust increases slightly as the pressure altitude increases. II. The specific fuel consumption
decreases slightly as the pressure altitude increases at constant TAS.
25. Q(15890) An abortive (hung) start is the term used to describe an attempt to start in which the engine:
A. commences initial rotation, but fails to receive any fuel.

B. lights up, but fails to accelerate sufficiently.
C. will not rotate.
D. fails to light up.
26. Q(10495) In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are not rigidly fixed in position when the engine is stationary, take up a rigid position
when the engine is running due to:
A. oil pressure.
B. blade creep.
C. thermal expansion.
D. the resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces.
27. Q(7430) What is the correct sequence during the in-flight windmilling start of a turbine engine?
A. Starter, rotation, fuel, ignition.

B. Rotation, ignition, fuel.
C. Ignition, rotation, fuel.
D. Starter, rotation, ignition, fuel.
28. Q(16356) A FADEC on a gas turbine engine:
A. is a three channel system.

B. consists of two identical channels cross linked through an non engine related aircraft computer.
C. is a single channel system.
D. is single fault tolerant.
29. Q(1239) In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is:
A. rotor - rotor - stator

B. rotor - stator
C. stator - stator - rotor
D. stator - rotor
30. Q(16099) Which statement is correct for a gas turbine engine with a constant speed propeller and free power turbine, when the power setting is
increased? I. The HP spool speed increases. II. The EGT increases.
increased? I. The gas generator speed increases. II. The EGT decreases.
32. Q(2983) In a free turbine engine:
A. the compressor and power output shaft are mechanically connected.

B. the air enters the compressor via the input turbine.
C. its shaft may be connected to either a compressor or another turbine.
D. there is no mechanical connection between the compressor and the power output shaft.
33. Q(15895) A turbine stage is represented by:
A. figure 4.
B. figure 1.
C. figure 3.
D. figure 2.
34. Q(16283) Concerning the starting procedure of a gas turbine engine:
A. the higher the starter air pressure, the higher the EGT during starting.
B. the selected igniters are activated after fuel is delivered to the fuel nozzles.
C. If the air starter seizes, the engine can still be started by means of another air bleed source.
D. If the HP fuel valve is opened at a relatively high compressor rpm, this may result in a hot start.
35. Q(5402) The static thrust of a turbo-jet, at the selection of full power: 1 - equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and the exhaust gas
velocity 2 - is obtained by pressure of the exhaust gas on the ambient air 3 - is equivalent to zero mechanical power since the aeroplane is not
moving 4 - is independant of the outside air temperature The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is :
A. 4
B. 2-3
C. 1-3
D. 1-2
36. Q(16385) In very cold weather, a slightly higher than normal engine oil pressure during startup:
A. is unacceptable and requires the engine to be shut down.

B. requires an oil change.
C. is unacceptable but does not require the engine to be shut down.
D. is acceptable, if it decreases after startup.
37. Q(15995) The bypass ratio: I. is the ratio of bypass air mass flow to HP compressor mass flow. II. can be determined from the inlet air volume flow
and the HP compressor volume flow.
38. Q(3617) One of the purposes of the bleed valves fitted to axial flow compressors is to:
A. enable an external air supply to spin up the compressor for engine starting.
B. spill compressor air should the engine overspeed thus controlling the speed.
C. control the acceleration time of the engine.
D. reduce the tendency to compressor stall.
39. Q(15241) A turbofan engine with an inlet air mass flow of 220 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 20 kg/s has a bypass ratio of:
A. 1.1
B. 10
C. 12
D. 11
40. Q(12082) Severe compressor stall can be observed amongst others by:
A. a rise in turbine gas temperature (TGT) and a change in vibration level.

B. an increase in engine pressure ratio (EPR) and a decrease in TGT and fuel flow.
C. a rise in TGT and an increase in fuel flow.
D. a decrease in TGT and a change in vibration level.
41. Q(12102) A gas turbine engine turbine section may employ active clearance control:
A. as a method of attaching the stators and rotors to the hub of the disc.
B. in order to reduce "creep" in the blades.
C. in order to cool the disc.
D. to provide enhanced clearances between the blade tips and the casing.
42. Q(5363) The disadvantages of axial flow compressors compared to centrifugal flow compressors are: 1 - more expensive to manufacture 2 - lower
airflow 3 - greater vulnerability to foreign object damage 4 - lower pressure ratio The combination which regroups all of the correct answers is:
A. 1-3
B. 2-3
C. 1-2
D. 2-4
43. Q(16175) Which of these statements about compressor stall are correct or incorrect? I. A compressor stall is most likely to occur in a compressor
designed for a high pressure ratio operating at low RPM. II. A compressor stall is most likely to occur when the air flow stagnates in the front stages of
the compressor.
44. Q(16566) Specific fuel consumption for a turbo-prop engine can be expressed in kg per:
A. per unit of shaft power.

B. hour per km.
C. hour per unit of shaft power.
D. hour per nm.
increased? I. The gas generator speed decreases. II. The EGT remains constant.
46. Q(14982) Some gas turbine engines have multiple stages in the HP and LP turbines:
A. to reduce noise in the propelling nozzle.

B. because one stage does not generate sufficient shaft power.
C. to facilitate balancing of the turbine assembly.
D. to help stabilise the pressure between the compressor and the turbine.
47. Q(15439) Given the following information about an aeroplane with a turbojet engine: - mass air flow 50 kg/s - TAS 90 m/s - exhaust nozzle gas
velocity 150 m/s - exhaust nozzle static pressure 1050 hPa - ambiant static pressure 1000 hPa - cross-sectional area of the nozzle 0.10 m2 Net
engine thrust equals:
A. 3000 N.
B. 2500 N.
C. 4000 N.
D. 3500 N.
48. Q(2381) EPR can be defined as the ratio of:
A. the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.
B. the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor outlet pressure.
C. the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.
D. the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor inlet pressure.
49. Q(15648) Compressor stall is due to:
A. an excessively high angle of attack of the rotor blades.

B. an excessively high axial velocity.
C. an inadequate fuel flow.
D. an excessively low angle of attack of the rotor blades.
The pressure remains constant across the rotor blades.
51. Q(16023) Which of the following statements is correct about the flow in a divergent (subsonic) gas turbine engine intake? I. The speed remains
constant in flow direction. II. The total pressure remains constant in flow direction.
52. Q(16854) Derated or reduced thrust take-offs save engine life primarily due to:
A. reduced low cycle fatigue damage.

B. the maximum oil temperature not being exceeded.
C. reduced creep damage due to higher EGT levels during take-off.
D. reduced corrosion of the HP turbine blades.
53. Q(3612) When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the:
A. temperature increases.
B. pressure drops.
C. pressure rises.
D. axial velocity of the flow decreases.
54. Q(1754) Consider a jet engine whose control is based on the Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR): 1. with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the
altitude increases 2. with a constant EPR, the thrust is independent of the Mach number 3. At same environmental conditions, a given EPR setting
maintains the thrust irrespective of engine wear due to ageing. 4. the EPR is determined by the impact pressure difference between the turbine outlet
and the compressor inlet 5. on take-off, in the event of icing not detected by the crew, the indicated EPR is lower than the real EPR The combination
regrouping all the correct statements is:
A. 1, 5.
B. 1, 3.
C. 3, 4, 5.
D. 2, 3, 4.
55. Q(14967) Consider a flat rated twin-spool turbofan with conventional hydro-mechanical fuel control. When using maximum take-off thrust at an
outside air temperature OAT that is below the flat rated temperature:
A. thrust depends on OAT.

B. thrust depends on fuel density.
C. the thrust lever is always positioned at the maximum stop for take-off.
D. the thrust lever is not positioned at the maximum stop.
56. Q(15784) Engine temperature limitations of a gas turbine engine are usually imposed due to temperature limitations on the:
A. casing of the combustion chamber.

B. turbine section.
C. jet pipe.
D. compressor section.
57. Q(14330) A diffuser in a gas turbine engine is a device in which the:
A. pressure rises and velocity falls.

B. pressure rises at a constant velocity.
C. velocity rises and pressure falls.
D. velocity, pressure and temperature rise.
58. Q(16430) The rotor blades of an axial compressor of a gas turbine engine are often mounted on a disk or drum using a 'loose fit' because this:
A. limits damage to the blades due to vibration.

B. limits damage due to creep.
C. facilitates easy assembly and removal.
D. limits FOD damage.
59. Q(14762) Regarding a jet engine: I. The maximum thrust decreases as the pressure altitude increases. II. The specific fuel consumption is
inversely proportional to pressure altitude, at constant TAS.
designed for a high pressure ratio operating at high RPM. II. A compressor stall is most likely to occur when the air flow stagnates in the front stages
of the compressor.
61. Q(16843) In which part of a gas turbine engine are high temperature requirements most critical for the materials used?
A. The combustion chamber and front part of the HP turbine.

B. The last part of the HP compressor and front part of the HP turbine.
C. The combustion chamber and exhaust nozzle.
D. The turbine and exhaust nozzle.
62. Q(16101) The bypass ratio: I. is the ratio of bypass air mass flow to HP compressor mass flow. II. can be determined from the inlet air mass flow
and the HP compressor mass flow.
63. Q(16729) Given: p0 = static ambient pressure t0 = static ambient temperature m = air mass flow Vv = True Air Speed Vj = jet efflux (exhaust)
velocity pj = jet efflux (exhaust) static pressure tj = jet efflux (exhaust) static temperature A = exhaust cross-sectional area The thrust T of a jet engine
is:
A. T = m(Vj -Vv ) + A(pj - p0).

B. T = m(Vv -Vj ) + A(pj - p0).
C. T = m(Vj - Vv ) + A(tj - t0).
D. T = m(Vv -Vj ) + A(t j- t0).
64. Q(16282) One of the advantages of multiple-spool jet engine designs is that:
A. if one spool seizes, the remaining spool(s) will continue to operate normally.
B. a smaller air starter driving only a single spool can be used.
C. engine length can be reduced.
D. a compressor stall cannot occur under any condition.
65. Q(15470) A turbofan engine with a bypass mass flow of 250 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 50 kg/s has a bypass ratio of:
A. 6
B. 1.2
C. 4
D. 5
66. Q(5370) For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the:
A. internal airflow mass divided by the fuel flow mass

B. fuel flow mass divided by the internal airflow mass
C. internal airflow mass divided by the external airflow mass
D. external airflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass
67. Q(16292) Fuel for gas turbine engines is usually heated in order to:
A. improve thermal efficiency.

B. improve the specific fuel consumption.
C. improve atomisation at low temperature.
D. prevent icing-up of the LP filter.
68. Q(10537) The characteristics of a centrifugal compressor are: 1 - a high pressure ratio by stage. 2 - a large diameter. 3 - a low pressure ratio by
stage. 4 - a small diameter. The combination containing all of the correct statements is:
A. 3 and 4 only.
B. 2 and 3 only.
C. 1 and 2 only.
D. 1 and 4 only.
69. Q(15590) The electronic engine control of a FADEC gas turbine engine checks:
A. output data only.

B. ACTIVE CHANNEL input and output data only.
C. all input and output data.
D. input data only.
70. Q(16728) Assuming the jet pipe is not choked, the equation to calculate jet engine thrust T (with mass flow m, airspeed Vv and jet velocity Vj ) is:
A. T = m(Vv + Vj)
B. T = m(Vv - Vj)
C. T = mVj
D. T = m(Vj - Vv)
71. Q(14780) Regarding a jet engine: I. The maximum thrust remains constant as the pressure altitude increases. II. The specific fuel consumption
remains constant as the pressure altitude increases at constant TAS.
72. Q(14751) Regarding a jet engine: I. The maximum thrust decreases as the pressure altitude increases. II. The specific fuel consumption
decreases slightly as the pressure altitude increases at constant TAS.
A. 9.01
B. 1.12
C. 10.01
D. 8.01
74. Q(14788) Which of the following statements is correct about the flow in a divergent (subsonic) gas turbine engine intake? I. The static pressure
decreases in flow direction. II. The total temperature increases in flow direction.
75. Q(16367) For a turbine engine, the self-sustaining speed relates to the minimum RPM at which the engine:
A. will continue to operate without any starter motor assistance.

B. will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage.
C. operates most efficiently in the cruise.
D. is designed to idle after starting.
76. Q(12032) An axial compressor, when operating below its design speed, has:
A. a tendency to stall in the front stages.

B. a tendency to stall in the centre stages.
C. no tendency to stall.
D. a tendency to stall in the rear stages.
77. Q(15877) If air is tapped from a gas turbine HP compressor, the effect on the engine pressure ratio (EPR) and the exhaust gas temperature (EGT)
is that:
A. EPR decreases and EGT increases.

B. both EPR and EGT decrease.
C. EPR remains constant and EGT increases.
D. EPR decreases and EGT remains constant.
The pressure rises across the rotor blades.
79. Q(16753) On a FADEC gas turbine engine during normal flight, the power for the FADEC's sensors comes from:
A. the APU generator.

B. the aircraft generator.
C. the aircraft battery.
D. the FADEC power source(s) on the engine.
increased? I. The gas generator speed decreases. II. The EGT increases.
increased? I. The gas generator speed remains constant. II. The EGT decreases.
82. Q(14784) Which of the following statements is correct about the flow in a divergent (subsonic) gas turbine engine intake? I. The speed remains
constant in flow direction. II. The total pressure decreases in flow direction.
83. Q(16052) Which of these statements about an impulse turbine are correct or incorrect? I. The pressure rises across the nozzle guide vanes. II.
84. Q(3616) If air is tapped from a gas turbine HP compressor (engine N2 controlled), the effect on the engine pressure ratio (EPR) and the exhaust
gas temperature (EGT) is that:
A. EPR remains constant and EGT increases.

B. EPR decreases and EGT increases.
C. both EPR and EGT decrease.
D. EPR decreases and EGT remains constant.
85. Q(15015) The engine type represented in the annex is:
A. twin spool turbofan.

B. single spool turbofan.
C. twin spool turbojet.
D. triple spool turbofan.
86. Q(15727) The heat for the anti-icing system of a turbofan engine intake is provided by:
A. a dedicated generator on the gearbox of that engine.

B. the electrical system of the aircraft.
C. bleed air from the LP compressor.
D. bleed air from the HP compressor.
87. Q(15767) Jet engine total efficiency indicates the efficiency at which:
A. chemical power in the fuel is transformed into propulsive power (T x V).

B. potential energy in the jet is transformed into propulsive energy.
C. the increase of jet kinetic energy is transformed into propulsive energy.
D. chemical power in the fuel is transformed into an increase of jet kinetic energy per second.
88. Q(12004) The selection of bleed air to "ON" will cause:
A. a decrease in gas generator RPM with no change in power or exhaust temperatures.

B. a reduction of torque and gas generator RPM with an increase of exhaust temperature.
C. a decrease in power and an increase in exhaust temperature.
D. an increase in exhaust temperature, gas generator speed and power.
89. Q(5378) In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ...
A. drive the compressor by using part of the energy from the exhaust gases
B. drive devices like pumps, regulator, generator.
C. compress the air in order to provide a better charge of the combustion chamber
D. clear the burnt gases, the expansion of which provide the thrust
90. Q(14973) The purpose of gas turbine engine trending is:
A. to obtain a timely indication when an engine requires to be shut down due to problems.
B. to assess engine condition using non-destructive inspection.
C. to collect metal particles from the oil system.
D. to enhance maintenance planning and detect anomalies.
91. Q(16024) Which statement is correct about the flow in a divergent jet engine inlet? I. The static pressure remains constant in flow direction. II. The
total temperature remains constant in flow direction.
92. Q(16651) If an abortive start (hung start) occurs when starting a gas turbine engine, the correct action is to:
A. shut down the engine.

B. move the thrust lever forward to increase fuel flow.
C. activate both igniter systems.
D. select the other igniter system.
93. Q(16739) In a theoretical gas turbine cycle, combustion takes place at constant:
A. pressure.
B. energy.
C. volume.
D. temperature.
94. Q(15844) Compressor stall in a gas turbine engine:
A. is unlikely to occur in a compressor with many stages.

B. only occurs during engine start-up.
C. does not occur with well-designed compressor blades.
D. can be caused by an axial airflow velocity that is low relative to the rotor speed.
95. Q(5369) A stage in an axial compressor:
A. consists of a rotor disc followed by a ring of stator blades.

B. has a compression ratio in the order of 2.1 .
C. has a compression ration in the order of 0.8 .
D. consists of a ring of stator blades followed by a rotor disc.
96. Q(16501) The following problems may occur when starting a twin-spool turbofan engine:
A. no N1 rotation, although N2 may accelerate normally.

B. a hung (abortive) start with fuel flow indication zero after 'fuel-on' selection.
C. a hung (abortive) start with no light-up indication after 'fuel-on' selection.
D. no N2 rotation, although N1 may accelerate normally.
97. Q(15789) The internal geometry of a turbofan intake for a subsonic commercial aeroplane is:
A. convergent in order to reduce airflow velocity in front of the fan.

B. divergent in order to increase both airflow velocity and static pressure in front of the fan.
C. convergent in order to increase airflow velocity and reduce static pressure in front of the fan.
D. divergent in order to reduce airflow velocity and increase static pressure in front of the fan.
98. Q(16153) Which of these statements about an reaction turbine are correct or incorrect? I. The pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide
vanes. II. The pressure remains constant across the rotor blades.
99. Q(15042) Which of the following statements regarding variable inlet guide vanes (VIGVs) and variable stator vanes (VSVs) on a high-bypass
engines is correct?
A. VIGVs are located at the front of the HP compressor and, together with the VSVs, control compressor airflow.
B. If VIGVs move towards the open position, VSVs move towards the closed position.
C. VIGVs are located in the front of the fan and control both fan and compressor air flow. VSVs are used in the compressor only and are used to
increase pressure ratio.
D. VIGVs prevent LP compressor stall and VSVs prevent HP compressor stall.
100. Q(12156) In a jet engine the propelling nozzle:
A. directs the hot gas stream onto the turbine at the optimum angle of attack.
B. must be designed to obtain the correct balance of pressure and velocity to prevent flow separation.
C. decreases the velocity and increases the pressure in the jet pipe to provide greater thrust.
D. reduces noise.
101. Q(10045) If engine compressor air is bled off for engine anti-icing or a similar system, the turbine temperature:
A. will be unchanged.
B. will fall.
C. will rise.
D. may rise or fall depending on which stage of the compressor is used for the bleed and the rpm of the engine at the moment of selection.
increased? I. The HP spool speed remains constant. II. The EGT increases.
103. Q(16665) In an ignition system during a normal start of a gas turbine engine, igniter activation:
A. should commence prior to starter motor engagement to prevent a hot start.

B. should commence after fuel has entered the combustion chamber.
C. commences upon starter motor engagement, and is deactivated at a rotor speed of approximately 15% below idle rpm.
D. should commence prior to fuel entering the combustion chamber.
104. Q(2984) During take-off, the fan in a high by-pass ratio turbofan engine produces:
A. all the thrust.

B. half the thrust.
C. the lesser part of the thrust.
D. the greater part of the thrust.
105. Q(15888) Creep in a gas turbine engine is:
A. crack formation in metal parts due to cyclic mechanical loads and high temperatures.
B. expansion of metal parts due to temperature increase.
C. the permanent increase in length of metal parts due to a combination of tensile stress and high temperatures over a prolonged period.
D. the elastic increase in length of metal parts due to tensile stress and high temperatures.
106. Q(14329) Compressor surge may be controlled by means of:
A. bleed valves.
B. fixed inlet guide vanes.
C. a variable metering orifice.
D. a pressure drop control orifice.
107. Q(14994) The Throttle Lever Angle (TLA) information of a FADEC controlled gas turbine engine is provided:
A. to a single dedicated channel of the FADEC.

B. to the electronic engine control unit by a direct electrical wiring connection.
C. via cables and pulleys.
D. to the hydro mechanical main engine control.
108. Q(15313) The electronic engine control unit of a gas turbine engine FADEC uses data from: 1. aircraft systems. 2. cockpit display units. 3. its own
engine sensors. 4. electronic engine control units of the other engines(s) The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 1, 4.
B. 2, 3.
C. 2, 4.
D. 1, 3.
109. Q(16704) During the ram recovery process in a gas turbine engine subsonic intake, the:
A. total pressure increases.

B. static temperature decreases.
C. flow velocity decreases.
D. total temperature increases.
110. Q(16463) A twin spool gas turbine engine is one in which the:
A. LP turbine drives the LP compressor and the HP turbine drives the HP compressor.
B. LP compressor drives the HP compressor.
C. LP turbine drives both the LP compressor and the HP compressor.
D. turbines are free to rotate at speeds that differ from their associated compressors.
111. Q(774) In a gas turbine engine lubrication system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger provides:
A. oil cooling through thermal exchange with the fuel.

B. fuel cooling to prevent vapour locking interrupting the fuel supply to the nozzles.
C. automatic controlled fuel heating by engine oil to prevent icing in the fuel filter.
D. fuel heating as required whenever fuel filter clogging is detected.
112. Q(12132) For a subsonic airflow, in a divergent duct the:
A. pressure decreases, velocity increases and temperature decreases.

B. pressure increases, velocity decreases and temperature decreases.
C. pressure increases, velocity decreases and temperature increases.
D. pressure decreases, velocity increases and temperature increases.
designed for a high pressure ratio operating at low RPM. II. A compressor stall is most likely to occur when the air flow stagnates in the rear stages of
the compressor.
114. Q(14178) The function of a vibrator in some gas turbine ignition systems is to provide:
A. A pulsating AC voltage in order to generate a more powerful spark.

B. A DC current to the transformer to facilate the generation of a higher voltage to the ignition
C. An AC voltage in order to facilate transformation to a higher voltage.
D. DC current if the ignition system is fed by AC voltage.
115. Q(16835) The fan of a turbo-fan engine is driven by:
A. airflow drawn across it by the HP compressor.

B. the HP compressor through reduction gearing.
C. the HP turbine.
D. the LP turbine.
116. Q(14787) Which statement is correct about the flow in a divergent jet engine inlet? I. The speed increases in flow direction. II. The total pressure
increases in flow direction.
117. Q(16151) Which of these statements about an reaction turbine are correct or incorrect? I. The pressure remains constant across the nozzle
guide vanes. II. The pressure rises across the rotor blades.
118. Q(16634) A booster or LP compressor in a twin spool turbofan:
A. rotates at a rotor speed different from both fan, HP compressor and HP turbine.
B. rotates at the same rotor speed as the HP compressor.
C. rotates at the same rotor speed as the HP turbine.
D. rotates at the same rotor speed as the fan.
remains constant in flow direction. II. The total temperature decreases in flow direction.
120. Q(15345) The station numbers before and after the HP compressor are:
A. 5 and 6.
B. 3 and 4.
C. 2 and 2.5.
D. 2.5 and 3.
121. Q(14752) Regarding a jet engine: I. The maximum thrust increases as the pressure altitude decreases. II. The specific fuel consumption
increases slightly as the pressure altitude decreases at constant TAS.
increased? I. The gas generator speed remains constant. II. The EGT increases.
123. Q(15242) A turbofan engine with a bypass air mass flow of 200 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 20 kg/s has a bypass ratio of:
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 1.1
124. Q(14781) Regarding a jet engine: I. The maximum thrust remains constant as the pressure altitude increases. II. The specific fuel consumption
increases slightly as the pressure altitude increases at constant TAS.
125. Q(16152) Which of these statements about an reaction turbine are correct or incorrect? I. The pressure rises across the nozzle guide vanes. II.
126. Q(14755) Which of the following statements is correct about the flow in a divergent (subsonic) gas turbine engine intake? I. The dynamic
pressure decreases in flow direction. II. The static temperature increases in flow direction.
pressure increases in flow direction. II. The static temperature increases in flow direction.
128. Q(15973) The blades in an axial flow compressor decrease in size from the:
A. root to the tip in order to maintain a constant angle of attack.

B. low pressure to the high pressure stages in an attempt to sustain axial velocity.
C. high pressure to the low pressure stages in order to allow for expansion at increased velocity.
D. root to the tip in order to increase tip clearance.
129. Q(15695) In addition to providing 'customer' bleed for aeroplane systems, air may be bled from compressors of a turbofan engine to increase
stall margin:
A. and prevent stall at high rotor speed.

B. at low rotor speed.
C. and recover from stall at high rotor speed.
D. at high rotor speed.
130. Q(16695) When a gas turbine engine accelerates from idle to take-off thrust and the compressor rpm is too high in comparison with the air inlet
velocity, this may result in:
A. supersonic airflow at the compressor blade trailing edges.

B. a compressor blade airflow angle of attack that is too small.
C. stagnation.
D. a compressor stall.
increased? I. The gas generator speed decreases. II. The EGT decreases.
132. Q(16149) The bypass ratio: I. is the ratio of inlet air mass flow to HP compressor mass flow. II. can be determined from the inlet air volume flow
and the HP compressor volume flow.
133. Q(15871) The primary performance indicator (cockpit instrument) for the thrust of a turbofan engine is:
A. either torque or RPM.

B. either N1 or fuel flow.
C. either N1 or N2.
D. either EPR or N1.
134. Q(16712) The term used to describe a permanent and cumulative deformation of the turbine blades in a gas turbine engine is:
A. twist.
B. creep.
C. distortion.
D. stretch.
135. Q(12149) Exhaust gas temperature sensing is usually taken:
A. between the stages of the gas generator turbine.

B. after the free power turbine.
C. at the outlet from the combustion chamber.
D. between the gas generator turbine and the free power turbine.
136. Q(15978) Increasing the power setting of a gas turbine engine with a constant speed propeller and free power turbine causes:
A. both HP spool speed and EGT to increase.

B. HP spool speed to remain constant and EGT to increase.
C. HP spool speed to decrease and EGT to increase.
D. HP spool speed to increase and EGT to remain constant.
137. Q(16250) If a twin spool gas turbine engine is controlled by a conventional N2 control system, rupture of the LP shaft may result in:
A. N1 decrease and EPR increase.

B. N2 and EPR increase.
C. overspeed of the LP turbine.
D. N1 and N2 increase.
138. Q(10044) The by-pass air in a turbo fan engine has the effect of a lower specific fuel consumption by causing an overall:
A. decrease in combustion chamber temperature and higher thermal efficiency.

B. increase in the mean jet temperature and increase in thermal efficiency.
C. decrease in average exhaust gas flow velocity and a higher mass flow.
D. increase in average exhaust gas flow velocity thus increasing engine pressure ratio.
139. Q(12026) Creep of turbine blades is caused by:
A. static imbalance of the blades.

B. high blade temperature whilst under centrifugal loading.
C. prolonged idling at low rpm.
D. bending stresses set up by gas pressure.
140. Q(12143) In the airflow through a single-spool axial flow turbo-jet engine, the axial velocity of the air is greatest:
A. within the combustion chamber.

B. as it leaves the compressor.
C. as it leaves the turbine.
D. on exit from the propelling nozzle.
pressure decreases in flow direction. II. The static temperature decreases in flow direction.
142. Q(16055) Which of these statements about an impulse turbine are correct or incorrect? I. The pressure remains constant across the nozzle
guide vanes. II. The pressure drops across the rotor blades.
143. Q(16808) Increasing the frequency of variations in thrust setting during normal operation is detrimental to the life of HP turbine blades because:
A. creep will be more severe.

B. fatigue due to vibration is more severe.
C. the EGT limit would be exceeded more often.
D. low cycle fatigue damage is more severe.
144. Q(14176) A turbofan engine with an inlet air mass flow of 1000 kg/s and a bypass mass flow of 889 kg/s has a bypass ratio of:
A. 17.02
B. 2.12
C. 1.12
D. 8.01
145. Q(10070) Severe compressor stall can be indicated amongst others by:
A. a rise in turbine gas temperature (TGT) and a change in vibration level.

B. a rise in TGT and an increase in fuel flow.
C. an increase in engine pressure ratio (EPR) and a decrease in TGT and fuel flow.
D. a decrease in TGT and a change in vibration level.
146. Q(14333) Labyrinth seals in the lubrication system of a gas turbine engine are designed to provide a seal that is:
A. not completely tight, allowing some movement between rotating and static parts.
B. completely tight, allowing no movement between rotating and static parts.
C. completely tight, allowing some axial movement between rotating and static parts.
D. not completely tight, allowing only some radial movement between rotating and static parts.
147. Q(12253) After air has passed through the compressor of a gas turbine engine the:
A. velocity will be higher than the inlet velocity.

B. velocity will be the same as the inlet velocity.
C. pressure will be the same as the inlet pressure.
D. temperature will be higher than the inlet temperature.
148. Q(15287) A twin-spool engine with a bypass mass flow of 250 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 250 kg/s has a bypass ratio of:
A. 0.5
B. 2
C. 0
D. 1
increased? I. The HP spool speed decreases. II. The EGT increases.
150. Q(12070) A pressure relief valve in an oil system that does not seat correctly could result in:
A. low oil pressure.

B. high oil pressure.
C. low oil temperature.
D. excessive oil consumption.
151. Q(16525) The function of the swirl vanes round the fuel nozzles is to: 1. increase air pressure at the fuel nozzles. 2. reduce the average axial
flow speed in order to stabilise the flame front. 3. generate a swirl of incoming air to enhance mixing of the fuel with air. The combination that
A. 2, 3.
B. 1, 3.
C. 1, 2.
D. 1, 2, 3.
152. Q(16124) The bypass ratio: I. is the ratio of the volume of air passing through the inlet to that through the HP compressor. II. can be determined
from the inlet air mass flow and the bypass mass flow.
153. Q(7429) What is the correct sequence during the start of a turbine engine on the ground?
A. Rotation, ignition, fuel.

B. Rotation, fuel, ignition.
C. Starter, ignition, rotation, fuel.
D. Starter, rotation, ignition, fuel.
154. Q(15634) Static gas temperature decrease when flowing at a subsonic speed through a jet engine exhaust nozzle because the:
A. velocity of the gas stream decreases.

B. ambient air cools the exhaust casing.
C. static pressure increases when passing the nozzle.
D. exhaust nozzle is convergent.
155. Q(5401) The control of free turbine engines on turboprops, is accomplished by: - a propeller control lever used to select: 1 - propeller RPM 2 -
turbine temperature 3 - turbine RPM - a fuel control lever used to select: 4 - propeller RPM 5 - torque 6 - turbine temperature The combination which
regroups all of the correct statements is :
A. 1-3-5
B. 2-4-5
C. 3-4-6
D. 1-5-6
A. 10
B. 11
C. 9
D. 5
157. Q(12096) On landing and prior to shut down, a gas turbine engine should be run at "GROUND IDLE" for a short period. This allows:
A. the turbine blade temperature to reduce only.

B. cool oil flushing of bearings, particularly those in the turbines.
C. the engine to be compressor washed.
D. the core temperature to diminish.
158. Q(15647) The FADEC of a gas turbine engine consists of:
A. all electronic engine control units installed on the aircraft.

B. an electronic engine control unit and the engine display units in the cockpit.
C. an electronic engine control unit and its peripherals (fuel metering, actuators, electrical wiring, sensors…).
D. an electronic engine control unit only.
159. Q(10732) By-pass turbine engines are mainly used in commercial aviation, because:
A. at high subsonic airspeeds they have a better propulsive efficiency than propeller or straight jet engines.
B. they produce less noise.
C. they are lighter than straight jet engines.
D. twin spool or triple spool jet engines require a high by pass ratio.
160. Q(14334) The oil supply to gas turbine engine bearings is maintained in the event of the main oil filter becoming clogged by:
A. a back-up oil system.

B. the scavenge pumps.
C. the HP fuel pump.
D. differential pressure opening the bypass valve of the main oil filter.
161. Q(12133) For a subsonic airflow, air passing through a divergent duct:
A. decreases in pressure and velocity.

B. increases in pressure and velocity.
C. increases in velocity and decreases in pressure.
D. decreases in velocity and increases in pressure.
162. Q(16631) If a gas turbine engine fuel/oil heat exchanger is located downstream of the HP fuel pump, internal leakage of the heat exchanger will
cause the oil level to:
A. fall.
B. rise.
C. fall and the oil jets eventually to become clogged.
D. rise and the fuel nozzles eventually to become clogged.
163. Q(15288) A twin-spool engine with an inlet air mass flow of 500 kg/s and a bypass mass flow of 250 kg/s has a bypass ratio (BPR) of:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 0
164. Q(15993) Which of the following statements is correct about the flow in a divergent (subsonic) gas turbine engine intake? I. The speed
decreases in flow direction. II. The total pressure decreases in flow direction.
165. Q(16022) Regarding a jet engine: I. The maximum thrust decreases slightly as the pressure altitude decreases. II. The specific fuel consumption
increases slightly as the pressure altitude decreases at constant TAS.
pressure remains constant in flow direction. II. The static temperature remains constant in flow direction.
167. Q(16326) One of the functions of a gas turbine engine subsonic intake is to:
A. increase total pressure.

B. increase airflow velocity.
C. decrease static temperature.
D. decrease airflow velocity.
168. Q(12239) To achieve reverse thrust on a turbine engine with a high by-pass ratio, generally:
A. the direction of rotation of the fan is reversed.

B. the fan is stopped.
C. the flow of hot stream air is reversed.
D. the fan flow is deflected.
guide vanes. II. The pressure rises across the rotor blades.
170. Q(12252) An aircraft flying in conditions of continuous heavy rain and high ambient temperatures may require the precautionary use of:
A. engine intake anti-icing only.

B. both engine intake anti-icing and airframe de-icing.
C. engine igniters.
D. airframe de-icing only.
171. Q(5398) The gas turbine illustrated is of the following type:

A. free turbine and axial compressor
B. single shaft turbine and axial compressor
C. free turbine and centrifugal compressor
D. single shaft turbine and centrifugal compressor
172. Q(2377) In the axial flow compressor of a turbo-jet engine, the flow duct is tapered. Its shape is calculated so as to:
A. reduce the axial speed in cruising flight.

B. reduce the axial speed, whatever the engine rating.
C. maintain a constant axial speed in cruising flight.
D. maintain a constant axial speed whatever the engine rating.
173. Q(15635) A flat rated turbofan will be temperature limited if:
A. ambient pressure is lower than standard sea level ambient pressure.

B. ambient pressure is higher than standard sea level ambient pressure.
C. OAT is lower than flat rated temperature.
D. OAT is higher than flat rated temperature.
174. Q(15898) In the annex, an axial compressor stage is represented by:

A. figure 4.
B. figure 1.
C. figure 3.
D. figure 2.
175. Q(12003) The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine engine will increase with a:
A. decrease in ambient air pressure.

B. increase in humidity.
C. decrease in ambient air temperature.
D. increase in ambient air temperature.
176. Q(15894) One advantage of having three instead of two spools in some high-bypass turbofan engine is that:
A. fewer variable stator vanes and variable inlet guide vanes are required to prevent compressor stall at low rotor speeds.
B. there is a lower fuel consumption due to a higher overall pressure ratio.
C. there is a lower fuel consumption and more thrust due to higher overall pressure ratio.
D. fewer variable stator vanes and variable inlet guide vanes are required to prevent compressor stall at high rotor speeds.
177. Q(12001) The thrust reversers of jet engines may use clamshell doors in order to:
A. absorb any surge in engine thrust.

B. stop the flow of the exhaust gas stream.
C. change the direction of the exhaust gas stream.
D. reduce the pressure of the exhaust gas stream by diffusing it to atmosphere.
178. Q(15716) If the main oil filter of a gas turbine engine becomes clogged, oil to the main bearings is still assured:
A. because fuel upstream of the oil filter will be mixed with oil to allow easier passage through the filter.
B. because the oil filter bypass valve opens.
C. if breather pressure in the main compartments is increased to ensure positive lubrication of the bearings.
D. if a higher engine rpm is selected to increase oil pressure.
179. Q(3611) In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is:
A. the same as turbine rpm.

B. greater than turbine rpm.
C. less than turbine rpm.
D. independent of turbine rpm.
designed for a high pressure ratio operating at high RPM. II. A compressor stall is most likely to occur when the air flow stagnates in the rear stages of
the compressor.
182. Q(2978) An engine pressure ratio (EPR) gauge reading normally shows the ratio of:
A. compressor outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure.

B. jet pipe pressure to combustion chamber pressure.
C. jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure.
D. combustion chamber pressure to compressor inlet pressure.
183. Q(14827) Which of these statements about an impulse turbine are correct or incorrect? I. The pressure drops across the nozzle guide vanes. II.
184. Q(15027) A flat rated turbofan engine has a constant maximum rated thrust level:
A. up to a specific OAT.
B. above a specific pressure altitude.
C. above a specific OAT.
D. up to a specific pressure altitude.
increased? I. The gas generator speed increases.II. The EGT decreases.
A. I is incorrect, II is incorrect
C. I is correct, II is correct
D. I is correct , II is incorrect
186. Q(15497) A turbofan engine with a bypass mass flow of 888 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 111 kg/s has a bypass ratio of:
A. 9
B. 8
C. 7
D. 1.12
187. Q(16645) The take off of a jet aeroplane may be performed with "reduced thrust" in order to:
A. save fuel.
B. reduce the risk of engine failure during take-off.
C. reduce take-off noise.
D. reduce maintenance costs.
188. Q(16584) In a subsonic convergent duct the:
A. pressure increases, velocity decreases and temperature decreases

B. pressure increases, velocity decreases and temperature increases
C. temperature increases, velocity increases and pressure decreases
D. velocity increases, pressure decreases and temperature decreases
189. Q(5391) Using compressor bleed air to power systems:
A. decreases aircraft performance

B. increases aircraft performance
C. is limited to the phases of take-off and landing
D. has no influence on aircraft performance
190. Q(15782) The turbine in a gas turbine engine generates shaft power using:
A. expansion of hot gas followed by conversion of potential energy (pressure) into (mechanical) work.
B. compression of hot gas followed by conversion of potential energy (pressure) into kinetic energy (velocity).
C. expansion of hot gas followed by conversion of kinetic energy (velocity) into (mechanical) work.
D. compression of hot gas followed by conversion of kinetic energy into (mechanical) work.
191. Q(12535) Turbine blade stages may be classed as either "impulse" or "reaction". In an impulse blade section the pressure (i)... across the
nozzle guide vanes and (ii)..... across the rotor blades:
A. (i) remains constant (ii) rises

B. (i) rises (ii) remains constant
C. (i) drops (ii) remains constant
D. (i) remains constant (ii) drops
192. Q(15892) On a FADEC jet engine, the meaning of F.A.D.E.C. on a gas turbine engine is:
A. FOOL ADAPTER DUAL ELECTRONIC COMPUTER.

B. FAILURE ANALYSIS / DISPATCH EVALUATION COMPUTER.
C. FAILSAFE ADAPTER DIRECT EFFECT COMPUTATION.
D. FULL AUTHORITY DIGITAL ENGINE CONTROL.
193. Q(16593) The purpose of variable by-pass valves in a high bypass turbofan engine between the LP compressor and the HP compressor (HPC) is
to:
A. prevent HPC stall during engine start.

B. prevent fan surge at high rotor speeds (high rpm).
C. provide sufficient air to the HPC during engine start.
D. prevent fan stall and LP compressor stall during engine start and low rotor speeds.
194. Q(3601) A reverse thrust alert on the flight deck occurs when: 1. the reverser doors are unlocked with the reverse lever in the stowed position. 2.
the reverser doors are locked with the reverse lever in the stowed position. 3. the reverser doors remain stowed with the reverse lever in the deployed
position. 4. the reverser doors have moved to the reverse thrust position with the reverse lever in the deployed position. The combination that
A. 2, 3
B. 2, 4
C. 1, 4
D. 1, 3
195. Q(12079) One of the purposes of compressor bleed valves is to:
A. decrease the airflow across the rear compressor stages, whilst that across the early stages is increased.
B. decrease the load on the compressor when the engine is approaching maximum rpm.
C. limit the acceleration period of the engine.
D. increase the airflow across the rear compressor stages, whilst that across the early stages is decreased.
196. Q(3645) An impulse coupling is inhibited at higher than normal rotational starting speeds by:
A. centrifugal force
B. engine oil pressure
C. electro-magnetic action of operating magneto.
D. a coil spring
197. Q(15783) In a gas turbine engine the creep phenomenon is the most severe in the:
A. turbine rotors.
B. combustor casing.
C. compressor blades.
D. combustor liner.
198. Q(1313) The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of a turbo-jet engine are the: 1. thrust reverser pneumatic motors 2. AC generator
through its constant speed drive (CSD) 3. oil pumps 4. hydraulic pumps 5. high pressure fuel pumps The combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
B. 2, 3, 4.
C. 1, 2, 3, 4.
D. 2, 3, 4, 5.
199. Q(14782) Regarding a jet engine: I. The maximum thrust remains constant as the pressure altitude decreases. II. The specific fuel consumption
remains constant as the pressure altitude decreases at constant TAS.
200. Q(12532) When a gas turbine engine is fitted with can-type combustion chambers:
A. each chamber has its own igniter.

B. a total of only two igniters are usually fitted since the chambers are inter-connected.
C. each chamber is fitted with two igniters.
D. each chamber is fitted with one igniter and one glow plug.
201. Q(15636) Flat rated jet engines are designed to provide constant maximum take-off thrust up to a certain level of:
A. pressure altitude.
B. engine pressure ratio.
C. ambient pressure.
D. ambient temperature.
increased? I. The HP spool speed increases. II. The EGT remains constant.
203. Q(12088) One reason to fit a tip shroud to a turbine blade is to:
A. increase turbine efficiency.

B. provide a seal for the cooling airflow.
C. reduce turbine temperatures.
D. prevent blade creep.
204. Q(16225) Which of these statements about an reaction turbine are correct or incorrect? I. The pressure remains constant across the nozzle
guide vanes. II. The pressure drops across the rotor blades.
205. Q(2982) In a gas turbine engine, the power changes are normally made by controlling the amount of:
A. air leaving the compressor by the opening or closing of bleed valves.

B. air entering the compressor and fuel entering the combustion chambers.
C. fuel supplied.
D. air entering the compressor.
206. Q(12140) On most high by-pass ratio (fan) engine, reverse thrust is achieved by reversing:
A. the direction of both the exhaust gas flow (hot stream) and the fan airflow (cold stream).
B. only the direction of the exhaust gas flow.
C. the direction of rotation of the fan.
D. only the direction of the fan airflow.
pressure increases in flow direction. II. The static temperature decreases in flow direction.
208. Q(15650) Severe compressor stall can be observed amongst others by:
A. a decrease in TGT and a increase in vibration level.

B. a rise in turbine gas temperature (TGT) and a increase in vibration level.
C. a rise in TGT and an increase in fuel flow.
D. an increase in engine pressure ratio (EPR) and a decrease in TGT and fuel flow.
209. Q(3599) A hung (abortive) start of a gas turbine engine may be caused by:
A. compressor surging.
B. a too low pneumatic starter pressure.
C. failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the engine has been accelerated to the required rpm by the starter.
D. the starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before the engine has accelerated to the required rpm for ignition.
210. Q(3598) The reason for having a low pressure fuel-cooled oil cooler in a recirculatory type oil system is to:
A. cool the oil and heat the fuel.

B. cool both the oil and the fuel.
C. heat the fuel only.
D. cool the oil only.
211. Q(12030) An engine pressure ratio (EPR) can be defined as the ratio of:
A. compressor outlet pressure to compressor inlet total pressure.

B. jet pipe total pressure to combustion chamber pressure.
C. jet pipe total pressure to compressor inlet total pressure.
D. combustion chamber pressure to compressor inlet total pressure.
212. Q(16702) Which of the following parameters remains constant in a divergent (subsonic) gas turbine engine intake?
A. Total temperature.
B. Static pressure.
C. Static temperature.
D. Dynamic pressure.
213. Q(16589) The primary reason for venting an engine oil tank is to:
A. cool the oil.

B. prevent overflow.
C. allow for expansion of hot oil.
D. prevent excessive pressure in the tank.
214. Q(14763) Regarding a jet engine: I. The maximum thrust increases as the pressure altitude decreases. II. The specific fuel consumption is
proportional to pressure altitude, at constant TAS.
215. Q(12298) The purpose of a variable bypass valve, fitted between the LP and HP compressor of an axial flow compressor, is to:
A. enable to start the engine with an external air supply.

B. prevent the engine from an overspeed.
C. prevent stall in the LP compressor.
D. control the acceleration of the engine.
increased? I. The gas generator speed increases. II. The EGT remains constant.
217. Q(15657) The FADEC of a gas turbine engine normally includes:
A. an excessive fuel flow detection function.

B. the engine fire loops.
C. an overheat protection for the electronic engine control unit.
D. an engine overspeed and/or an EGT protection function.
218. Q(16812) If there is a single input data failure on a FADEC gas turbine engine:
A. the engine continues to operate normally.

B. the engine is set at a fail-safe thrust.
C. the electronic engine control unit uses a constant data value for computation.
D. the engine stops.
219. Q(2979) In a gas turbine engine, the maximum gas temperature is attained:
A. at the entry to the exhaust unit.

B. within the combustion chamber.
C. in the cooling airflow around the flame tube.
D. at the turbine entrance.
increases in flow direction. II. The total temperature increases in flow direction.
221. Q(14988) The pressurising function of the pressurising and dump valve in a gas turbine engine fuel system is:
A. to prevent overpressure at the fuel nozzles.

B. to admit fuel to the nozzles only if the fuel pressure is high enough for sufficient atomisation.
C. to admit oil to the fuel-oil heat exchanger preventing ice crystals blocking the fuel lines.
D. to prevent fuel leakage in the combustion chamber after engine shutdown.
222. Q(15567) One stage of an axial compressor comprises:
A. a row of rotor blades followed by a row of inlet guide vanes.

B. inlet guide vanes followed by a row of rotor blades and a row of stator vanes.
C. a row of rotor blades followed by a row of stator vanes.
D. a row of inlet guide vanes followed by a row of rotor blades.
increased? I. The gas generator speed decreases. II. The EGT remains constant.
decreased? I. The HP spool speed decreases. II. The EGT decreases.
these statements about a gas turbine are correct or incorrect? I. The process in a gas turbine engine is intermittent. II. Theoretically the combustion
occurs at constant volume..
guide vanes. II. The pressure remains constant across the rotor blades.
A. 1.2
B. 5
C. 2.2
D. 6
229. Q(10046) The purpose of a compressor bleed valve is to prevent surging:

A. at low compressor rpm.
B. with altitude.
C. generated by foreign object ingestion.
D. of the first compressor stages.
231. Q(14349) The characteristics of an axial compressor are: 1 - a low pressure ratio by stage. 2 - a high pressure ratio by stage. 3 - the possibility of
compressing a large mass airflow. 4 - the inability of compressing a large mass airflow. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 2 and 4 only.
B. 1 and 3 only.
C. 1 and 4 only.
D. 2 and 3 only.
232. Q(12155) In a multi-spool turbofan engine, the fan is driven by:
A. all three turbines since they are on a common shaft with the compressor.
B. the foremost turbine.
C. the intermediate turbine.
D. the rearmost turbine.
A. 1.2
B. 5
C. 7
D. 6
234. Q(16395) The air flow passages between adjacent axial compressor rotor blades are divergent, but the absolute exit velocity is higher than the
absolute entry velocity of the rotor. This is because:
A. part of the compressor work delivered to the air is converted into kinetic energy.
B. the gas expands between the blades.
C. the compressor rotational velocity slows down the air flow.
D. it is a constant temperature process.
235. Q(15887) In a gas turbine engine, the propelling jet is generated by:
A. compression of hot gases resulting in a conversion of potential energy (pressure) into kinetic energy (velocity).
B. expansion of hot gases resulting in a conversion of potential energy (pressure) into (mechanical) work.
C. expansion of hot gases resulting in a conversion of potential energy (pressure) into kinetic energy (velocity).
D. compression of hot gases resulting in a conversion of kinetic energy (velocity) into (mechanical) work.
236. Q(14753) Which of the following statements is correct about the flow in a divergent (subsonic) gas turbine engine intake? I. The speed
decreases in flow direction. II. The total pressure remains constant in flow direction.
237. Q(5403) The use of igniters in a gas turbine engine is required: 1. throughout the operating range of the engine 2. during engine acceleration 3.
for in-flight relights The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 1, 3.
B. 2.
C. 3
D. 1, 2.
238. Q(16619) Ice formation on turbofan engine intakes is usually:
A. prevented by using turbine bleed air.

B. prevented by using compressor bleed air.
C. removed by using electrical heating.
D. removed by using pneumatic boots.
239. Q(12060) For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the:
A. hot air mass flow divided by the fuel flow.

B. fuel flow divided by hot air mass flow.
C. hot air mass flow divided by the cold air mass flow.
D. cold air mass flow divided by the hot air mass flow.
240. Q(3615) The compressor blades in a rotating gas turbine engine are held in position by:
A. the mountings and the resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces.

B. the mountings and thermal expansion only.
C. abradable seals and aerodynamic forces.
D. a centrifugal latch.
241. Q(14179) An abortive (hung) start is the term used to describle an attempt to start in which the engine:
A. Will not rotate.

B. Commences initial rotation, but fails to receive any fuel.
C. Lights up, but fails to accelerate sufficiently.
D. Fails to light up.
242. Q(16523) Fuel flow information for gas turbine engines is:
A. measured in the line between the booster pump and the engine.
B. measured at the outlet of the high pressure fuel pump.
C. not used on aircraft.
D. measured in the line between the fuel control unit and the engine burners.
243. Q(12309) The purpose of a chip detector in the oil system of an engine/gearbox is to indicate that:
A. there are metal particles in the oil.

B. the piston rings are worn.
C. the oil temperature is too high.
D. the seals are worn.
244. Q(16249) The primary input signals for a hydro-mechanical gas turbine engine fuel control system include:
A. N2, compressor discharge pressure, compressor inlet temperature, fuel shut-off, thrust lever angle.
B. N2, turbine inlet temperature, fuel shut-off, generator, thrust lever angle.
C. N2, bypass ratio, EPR, fuel shut-off, thrust lever angle.
D. N1, N2, bypass ratio, fuel shut-off, thrust lever angle.
245. Q(15977) Bleeding air from the HP compressor of a turbofan, whilst maintaining thrust, increases:
A. EGT and fuel flow.

B. N2 and fuel flow.
C. EGT and N1.
D. HP compressor discharge pressure and N2.
increased? I. The gas generator speed increases. II. The EGT increases.
247. Q(16696) In a compressor stage, if the axial air velocity increases more than the rotor blade velocity the:
A. relative air velocity becomes supersonic.

B. stall margin increases.
C. pressure ratio will be too high.
D. stall margin decreases.
increases in flow direction. II. The total temperature remains constant in flow direction.
249. Q(10549) The greatest risk created by a free turbine overspeed is:
A. an engine overtemperature.
B. bursting of the free turbine disk.
C. creep of the turbine blades.
D. a surge of the gas generator.
250. Q(2405) The auxiliary power unit (APU) has its own AC generator that:
A. is excited by its generator control unit (GCU) as soon as the APU starts up.
B. is driven at constant speed through a constant speed drive (CSD), in the same way as the main AC generator.
C. must have the same characteristics as the main AC generator so that it can be easily coupled with the latter.
D. supplies the aircraft with three-phase 115-200 V, 400 Hz AC.
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 1.1
253. Q(16635) The compressor pressure ratio of an axial flow compressor is primarily determined by the:
A. number of stages.
B. compressor inlet pressure design value.
C. compressor inlet temperature design value.
D. rotor diameter.
increased? I. The gas generator speed remains constant. II. The EGT decreases.
255. Q(16836) Concerning the fuel system high-pressure shut-off valve (HPSOV) of a gas turbine engine:
A. the HPSOV is mounted in the wing front spar near the pylon.
B. the HPSOV is located between the HP fuel pump and the fuel control unit.
C. manual HPSOVcontrol from the cockpit is not possible with FADEC equipped engines.
D. ignition is activated before fuel is delivered by the HPSOV to the fuel nozzles.
256. Q(16528) The most important oil system instrument indication during gas turbine engine start is:
A. oil temperature.
B. oil filter clogged warning signal.
C. oil pressure.
D. oil quantity.
257. Q(16823) In a gas turbine combustion chamber:
A. the gas pressure increases in an axial (downstream) direction.

B. the axial velocity of the gas stream is greatest behind the swirl vanes.
C. the gas temperature is highest at the chamber outlet.
D. secondary air is required for cooling of the inner casing.
258. Q(15952) The principle of aeroplane propulsion is to generate a propelling force by:
A. accelerating air or gas in order to obtain a reaction force.

B. generating a high velocity jet pushing against the outside air.
C. heating up air in order to obtain a reaction force.
D. pressurising air or gas in order to obtain a reaction force.
259. Q(3143) The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to:
A. provide the engine with additional air at high power settings at cruising speed.
B. feed cooling air to the engine cowling.
C. serve to increase the relative velocity at the first compressor stage.
D. provide the engine with additional air at high power settings and low air speeds.
260. Q(16782) The axial compressor of a gas turbine engine usually has more stages than its driving turbine because:
A. bleed air is taken from the compressor.

B. turbine speed is much higher than compressor speed.
C. the power output of a turbine stage is higher than the power consumption of a compressor stage.
D. the compressor consumes much more power than the turbine.
261. Q(15653) The effect of ram air on the operation of a gas turbine engine is:
A. a lower efficiency of the engine with an increase in aeroplane speed.

B. an increase in the efficiency of the engine.
C. an increase in the indicated airspeed (IAS) at which the aeroplane should be flown for optimum range.
D. an increase in the engine rpm for take-off.
262. Q(10541) The diffuser in a centrifugal compressor is a device in which the:
A. velocity rises and pressure falls.

B. velocity, pressure and temperature rise.
C. pressure rises at a constant velocity.
D. pressure rises and velocity falls.
263. Q(3640) A modern Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is designed to provide power for ground starting of an engine. It also supplies both in the air
(subject to certification limitations) and on the ground:
A. air conditioning and electrical services.
B. either air conditioning or electrical services, but never both at the same time.
C. air conditioning and electrical services (on the ground) electrical and hydraulic back-up services (in the air).
D. air conditioning and thrust in the event of engine failure.
264. Q(2378) In the stator of a turbine, the gas velocity V and static pressure Ps vary as follows:
A. V increases, Ps decreases.
B. V increases, Ps increases.
C. V decreases, Ps decreases.
D. V decreases, Ps increases.
265. Q(12097) Engine temperature limitations of a gas turbine engine are usually imposed due to temperature limitations on the:
A. casing of the combustion chamber.

B. jet pipe.
C. compressor section.
D. turbine section.
266. Q(15834) The oil system of a gas turbine engine may be fitted with magnetic plugs, or chip detectors, that:
A. are fitted in the pressure line upstream of the oil filter.

B. provide warning of impending failure without having to remove the filters for inspection.
C. monitor oil pressure and oil temperature.
D. dispense with the requirement to fit an oil filter.
these statements about a gas turbine are correct or incorrect? I. The process in a gas turbine engine is continuous. II. Theoretically the combustion
occurs at constant volume.
270. Q(15286) A twin-spool engine with an inlet air mass flow of 500 kg/s and a HP compressor mass flow of 250 kg/s has a bypass ratio of:
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 0
271. Q(15016) The engine type represented in the drawing is a:

A. twin-spool turbojet.
B. twin-spool turbofan.
C. single spool turbofan.
D. triple-spool turbofan.
272. Q(16590) A gas turbine engine is run at ground idle for a period of time prior to shutdown to:
A. prevent vapour lock in the fuel control and/or fuel lines.

B. allow the engine oil to cool.
C. prevent seizure of the rotor blades in their seals.
D. prevent seizure of the engine bearings.
273. Q(2390) On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can provide: 1. electricity 2. air for starting system 3. hydraulic pressure 4. air for air
conditioning The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 2, 3, 4.
B. 1.
C. 1, 2, 3, 4.
D. 1, 2, 4.
274. Q(16251) With regard to a twin spool turbofan, an abortive start (hung start) will result in:
A. N2 speed stabilising at a higher than normal rpm and a subsequent decrease in EGT.
B. N2 speed stabilising at a lower than normal rpm and a subsequent decrease in EGT.
C. N2 speed stabilising at a higher than normal rpm and a subsequent increase in EGT.
D. N2 speed stabilising at a lower than normal rpm and a subsequent increase in EGT.
275. Q(14783) Regarding a jet engine: I. The maximum thrust remains constant as the pressure altitude decreases. II. The specific fuel consumption
decreases slightly as the pressure altitude decreases at constant TAS.
276. Q(14332) One of the advantages of annular combustion chamber over a multiple can is that:
A. only one igniter is required.

B. engine length is shorter because no diffuser is required.
C. assembly and disassembly is easier.
D. the thermal load distribution on the HP turbine is more favourable.
277. Q(12311) The primary reason for a limitation being imposed on the temperature of gas flow in a gas turbine is to:
A. ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature at the turbine blades is not exceeded.
B. prevent overheating and subsequent creep of the nozzle guide vanes.
C. ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature within the combustion chamber is not exceeded.
D. prevent damage to the jet pipe from overheating.
12 Protection And Detection Systems

1. Q(14114) At Reference. The smoke detection in the aircraft cargo compartments is carried out by four sensors: C1, C2, C3 and C4. They are
associated with the logic circuit as described in the annex. The repeating bell is activated when:
A. the C2 and C4 sensors detect smoke.

B. only one sensor detects smoke.
C. the C1 and C2 sensors detect smoke.
D. the C1 and C3 sensors detect smoke.
2. Q(7960) Which statements about halon gas are correct/incorrect? 1 - Halon gas suppresses the chemical reaction of fire. 2 - Halon gas is more
effective than any other type of fire extinguisher.
A. 1- incorrect 2- correct
B. 1 incorrect 2-incorrect
C. 1-correct 2-incorrect
D. 1- correct 2- correct
3. Q(1971) A fault protection circuit in a fire detection system will:
A. automatically initiate APU shutdown and fire extinguisher striker activation in the event of fire.
B. inhibit the fire detector when the detection line is connected to ground.
C. activate an alarm in the cockpit and in the landing gear bay for ground crew.
D. activate the fire detection system when the detection line is connected to ground.
4. Q(5396) The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they:
A. are highly corrosive particularly for aluminium alloys.

B. use the cooling effect created by the venturi during discharge.
C. act as flame inhibitors by absorbing the air's oxygen.
D. are electrical conductors.
5. Q(4230) A continuous loop detector system is a:
A. smoke detection system.

B. fire fighting system.
C. carbon dioxide warning system.
D. overheat detection system.
6. Q(1973) When a continuous loop wire type fire detection system is tested:
A. a part of the wire is totally heated.

B. the wire is totally heated.
C. Only the warning function is tested.
D. the wiring and the warning are tested.
7. Q(3713) On a multi-engined aircraft a fire detection system includes :
A. a warning light for each engine and a single alarm bell common to all engines
B. a single warning light and a single alarm bell
C. a single warning light but a separate alarm bell for each engine
D. both a warning light and an alarm bell unique to each engine
8. Q(10538) The bimetal strip detectors of an engine fire detection system: 1 - are arranged in series. 2 - are arranged in parallel. 3 - open during a
fire. 4 - close during a fire. The combination containing all of the correct statements is:
A. 1 and 3 only.
B. 2 and 3 only.
C. 2 and 4 only.
D. 1 and 4 only.
9. Q(4285) Generally, when the fire handle of the engine fire-extinguishing system on an aeroplane is pulled, the effects are: 1. opening of the bleed
air valves and HP valves on the engine concerned. 2. arming of the extinguishing system. 3. immediate discharge of extinguishing agent. 4.
deactivation of the electric generators. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 2, 3.
B. 1, 4.
C. 1, 3.
D. 2, 4.
10. Q(3056) Smoke detector systems are installed in the
A. upper cargo compartments (class E).

B. engine nacelles.
C. fuel tanks.
D. wheel wells.
11. Q(2379) Regarding fire detection, ion detectors are used to detect:
A. overtemperature.
B. smoke.
C. fire.
D. overtemperature and fire.
12. Q(4389) Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the following type:
A. chemical
B. magnetic
C. electrical
D. optical or ionization
13. Q(1246) When a part of a continuous loop fire detection system is heated: 1. its resistance decreases. 2. its resistance increases. 3. the leakage
current increases. 4. the leakage current decreases. The combination regrouping all the correct statements
A. 2, 3
B. 1, 3
C. 2, 4
D. 1, 4
14. Q(3060) An engine fire in a large transport aeroplane is indicated by a(n):
A. bell.
B. visual warning and an aural alert.
C. aural alert only.
D. visual warning only.
15. Q(16478) Power plant fire extinguishers are operated by:
A. a mechanical link withdrawing a safety pin and allowing a spring operated plunger to rupture the bottle seal.
B. an electrically fired cartridge rupturing a seal in the head of the bottle.
C. manual remote control opening a discharge valve.
D. an electrically heated capsule rupturing a seal in the pipeline at the engine.
16. Q(3705) Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the principle that an increase in temperature produces:
A. a decrease in pressure
B. a decrease in the reference current
C. an increase in resistance
D. a decrease in resistance
17. Q(15031) Halon is used as a fire extinguishing agent because it:
A. is highly volatile.
B. acts as a very effective flame inhibitor.
C. uses the cooling effect created by the venturi during discharge.
D. is an electrical conductor.
18. Q(4286) On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance variation type fire detection loops, a fire alarm is initiated by a temperature
increase detected:
A. on at least one loop

B. at any isolated point of the loops or else generally on all the loops
C. only at an isolated point of the loops
D. only in a uniform way along the loops
19. Q(5365) When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire detection loop, a fire alarm is triggered after a delay. The purpose of this delay is to:
A. allow temperatures to equalise

B. wait for the triggering of the second fire detection loop in order to confirm the fire
C. avoid false alarms in case of vibrations
D. delay the triggering of the fire extinguishers and increase their efficiency
20. Q(15766) A gaseous fire loop system is tested by:
A. checking the sensor with external pressurised gas.

B. heating up the sensor.
C. checking the wiring harness for faults but not the sensor.
D. checking the continuity of the system.
21. Q(1972) In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous components (with no fault protection), if the line is accidentally grounded:
A. there will be no effect on the system

B. the engine fire extinguisher striker is automatically activated.
C. the fire alarm is triggered.
D. the power supply is cut off automatically.
13 Oxygen Systems
1. Q(4783) Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen to the: 1. cockpit 2. cabin 3. toilets 4. smoke hood The combination that regroups
all of the correct statements is:
A. 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 4.
C. 1, 3.
D. 1, 2.
2. Q(5374) When the oxygen system of a large aeroplane is used, :
A. with the setting on "NORMAL", the cockpit crew is supplied with a mixture of oxygen and cabin air .
B. with the setting on "NORMAL", the passengers are supplied with a mixture of oxygen and cabin air.
C. the same source of supply is used by the cockpit crew and passengers.
D. the same source of supply is used by the cockpit crew and cabin crew.
3. Q(16172) Which of these statements about chemical oxygen generators are correct or incorrect? I. Chemical oxygen generators are often used to
supply passenger oxygen. II. The oxygen supply of chemical oxygen generators, once activated, can be switched off.
4. Q(16424) A pilot can determine the amount of oxygen in a bottle by observing its:
A. pressure.
B. temperature.
C. volume.
D. level.
5. Q(5400) The installation and use of on-board oxygen generators is such that: 1 - the smoking ban is imperative when used 2 - in case of accidental
drop of the "continuous flow" passenger masks, no crew action is required 3 - no trace of grease must be found in the system assembly 4 - the
system's filling adaptors must be greased with non-freezing or graphite grease The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 2-4
B. 1-4
C. 1-3
D. 2-3
6. Q(4787) The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the passenger cabin are : 1. a greater autonomy, 2. no risk of explosion, 3. reversible
functioning, 4. easy storage and maintenance, 5. possibility to regulate flow. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :
A. 2, 4, 5
B. 2, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D. 1, 3, 5
7. Q(4231) The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen regulator in normal mode, operates when the:
A. pressure in the oxygen reservoir is more than 500 psi.

B. user requires 100 percent oxygen
C. user breathes in.
D. diluter control is in normal position
8. Q(11501) The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source compared with a gaseous one for the passenger cabin are: 1. A flow which cannot be
modulated. 2. Less capacity. 3. Risk of fire and/or explosion. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 3
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 3
D. 1, 2
9. Q(4785) The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are : 1. reduced weight and volume, 2. easy storage and
maintenance, 3. greater autonomy, 4. no risk of explosion, 5. reversible functioning, 6. no maintenance. The combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
B. 1, 3, 4, 5
C. 1, 2, 4, 6
D. 2, 3, 5
10. Q(4781) When selected to normal, the oxygen/air ratio of the mixture supplied by the cockpit oxygen system regulator:
A. is 100%.
B. decreases when the altitude increases.
C. is constant whatever the altitude.
D. increases when the altitude increases.
11. Q(1969) When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is:
A. not able to do any radio communication.

B. only able to receive.
C. only able to transmit.
D. able to radiotelephone.
12. Q(3831) A substance which may never be used in the vicinity or on parts of an oxygen installation is:
A. Nitrogen
B. Halon
C. Grease
D. Water
13. Q(14826) Which of these statements about chemical oxygen generators are correct or incorrect? I. Chemical oxygen generators are often used to
supply passenger oxygen. II. The oxygen supply of chemical oxygen generators, once activated, cannot be switched off.
14. Q(12084) Regarding the chemical oxygen generator, to enable the oxygen to flow, the passenger must:
A. firmly pull the door compartment of the oxygen mask storage.

B. operate the relevant switch in his armrest.
C. turn the oxygen valve to open.
D. firmly pull the mask towards his face.
15. Q(14122) Fixed oxygen systems in pressurised aeroplanes are used to provide oxygen: 1. in the event of depressurisation. 2. in the event of any
passenger indisposition. 3. during a normal flight. 4. in the event of smoke or toxic fumes in the cockpit. The combination of corrects statements is:
A. 2, 3
B. 1,4
C. 3
D. 1, 2, 4
16. Q(10569) The contents of an oxygen bottle can be ensure by the: 1 - weight. 2 - pressure. 3 - level. 4 - volume. The combination containing all of
the correct statements is:
A. 1 and 4 only.
B. 2 and 3 only.
C. 1 and 2 only.
D. 1 and 3 only.
17. Q(2430) A diluter demand oxygen regulator selected to "100%":
A. mixes air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.

B. is only recommended for use with smoke in the cockpit.
C. delivers oxygen flow only above FL100.
D. delivers oxygen flow when inhaling.
18. Q(1977) What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen mask?

A. Cabin air and oxygen or 100% oxygen.
B. Cabin air and oxygen.
C. A mixture of oxygen and freon gas.
D. 100% oxygen.
19. Q(16025) Which of these statements about chemical oxygen generators are correct or incorrect? I. Chemical oxygen generators are used to
supply the cockpit oxygen system. II. The oxygen supply of chemical oxygen generators, once activated, cannot be switched off.
20. Q(4862) The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen masks for the passengers is: 1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system, 2.
electrical for the chemical oxygen system, 3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system, 4. electrical for the gaseous oxygen system. The combination
regrouping all the correct statements is:
A. 1, 2
B. 2, 4
C. 2, 3
D. 1, 3
21. Q(16051) Which of these statements about chemical oxygen generators are correct or incorrect? I. Chemical oxygen generators are used to
supply the cockpit oxygen system. II. The oxygen supply of chemical oxygen generators, once activated, can be switched off.
22. Q(16869) A pressurised aeroplane is flying at FL 370 and experiences a rapid decompression. Which of the following statements is correct about
the oxygen system?
A. Manual override of the automatic presentation of passenger oxygen masks is, generally speaking, not possible
B. The oxygen masks are automatically presented to flight crew members
C. If the automatic mask presentation has been activated, the oxygen will flow within the first 3 minutes
D. The oxygen masks are automatically presented to cabin crew members and passengers
23. Q(3062) In what state is the breathing oxygen for the cockpit of jet transport aeroplanes stored:
A. A gaseous or chemical compound.

B. Liquid.
C. Chemical compound.
D. Gaseous.
24. Q(4817) The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be kept absolutely free of oil or grease traces as:
A. these substances mixed with oxygen could catch fire in the presence of a spark.
B. these substances could plug the oxygen masks filters.
C. these substances catch fire spontaneously in the presence of oxygen under pressure.
D. the oxygen system would be contaminated.
25. Q(14511) A smoke mask is a:
A. continuous flow mask and covers the whole face.

B. mask with flow on request and covers only the nose and the mouth.
C. continuous flow mask and covers only the nose and the mouth.
D. mask with flow on request and covers the whole face.
26. Q(3066) The passenger oxygen mask will supply:
A. a mixture of oxygen and freon gas.

B. a mixture of compressed air and oxygen or 100 % oxygen.
C. 100 % oxygen.
D. a mixture of cabin air and oxygen.
27. Q(12072) A passenger oxygen mask is:
A. a continuous flow mask and must be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
B. an on demand type mask and in principle should not be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
C. an on demand type mask and must be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
D. a continuous flow mask and in principle should not be used if there is smoke in the cabin.
28. Q(4782) When a cabin oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the passenger breathes:
A. pure oxygen under pressure.

B. cabin air under pressure.
C. a mixture of oxygen and cabin air.
D. pure oxygen at the ambient pressure.
29. Q(11500) The advantages of a chemical oxygen source compared with a gaseous one for the passenger cabin are: 1. Easier maintenance. 2.
Greater capacity. 3. Reduced risk of explosion. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 1, 3.
B. 2, 3.
C. 1, 2.
D. 1, 2, 3.
30. Q(4229) The type of a aircraft oxygen system intended for use by passengers, is mostly:
A. a pressure demand system

B. an air recycle system
C. portable equipment only
D. a continuous flow system
31. Q(5399) In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen regulator must be set to:
A. 100%
B. on demand.
C. emergency.
D. normal.
32. Q(10568) The replenishment of an onboard oxygen bottle must be done:
A. with a ground power unit connected, electrical power supplied.

B. with the engine(s) off.
C. with the engine(s) at idle.
D. with the engine(s) on.
33. Q(4953) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, when an airplane flies at over 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing units and supply terminals
must be at least greater than the number of:
A. seats by 30 %.
B. passengers by 30%.
C. passengers by 10 %.
D. seats by 10 %.
34. Q(15226) The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source compared with a chemical source for the passenger cabin are: 1. no risk of fire and/or
explosion. 2. possibility to regulate flow. 3. more capacity. The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
A. 1, 2.
B. 2, 3.
C. 2.
D. 1.
35. Q(1968) In a pressurized transport aircraft, the protective breathing equipment:
A. protects all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurization.

B. protects the members of the crew against fumes and noxious gases.
C. protects the members of the crew against the effects of accidental depressurization.
D. gives medical assistance to certain passengers with respiratory disorders.
36. Q(2426) The purpose of the regulator of a flight deck oxygen system is to: 1. decrease oxygen pressure from 1800 PSI (in the bottles) down to
about 50-75 PSI (low pressure system) 2. supply 100% oxygen 3. supply diluted oxygen 4. supply oxygen on demand 5. supply oxygen at
emergency/positive pressure 6. trigger the continuous cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft cabin altitude The combination regrouping all the correct
statements is:
A. 2, 3, 4, 5
B. 1, 2, 3, 4
C. 1, 3, 4, 6
D. 3, 4, 5, 6
37. Q(12078) A smoke hood is a device covering:
A. only the nose and the mouth and with an oxygen/air mix.
B. the whole head and with an oxygen flow only on demand.
C. only the nose and the mouth and with a continuous oxygen flow.
D. the whole head and with a continuous oxygen flow.
38. Q(4786) The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the passenger cabin are : 1. a flow which cannot be modulated, 2. a heavy and bulky
system, 3. non reversible functioning, 4. risks of explosion, 5. poor autonomy. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:
A. 1, 3, 5
B. 1, 2, 3, 5
C. 2, 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
39. Q(3063) If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen system is exceeded the:
A. oxygen is discharged overboard via a safety plug.

B. passenger oxygen masks will drop down.
C. oxygen bottles will explode.
D. oxygen becomes unusable for the passengers.
40. Q(16445) In jet transport aeroplanes, oxygen for the flight deck oxygen system is stored as a:
A. chemical compound or a gas.

B. chemical compound.
C. gas.
D. liquid.
41. Q(4780) Modern pressurised transport aeroplanes are equipped with:
A. two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the cockpit, the other the cabin.
B. only portable oxygen bottles.
C. only one oxygen system supplying the whole aeroplane.
D. two oxygen systems both supplying the cockpit and the cabin.
42. Q(5376) An oxygen regulator has 3 controls : - a power lever : ON/OFF - an "O2" lever : NORMAL/100% - an emergency lever : ON/OFF Among the
following statements, the correct proposition is :
A. the power lever on ON, and, the "O2" lever on NORMAL allows the oxygen to enter the regulator and enables breathing of a mixture of
air/oxygen according to altitude.
B. the EMERGENCY lever on ON enables breathing of pure oxygen at ambient pressure.
C. with the EMERGENCY lever on OFF, in an emergency situation, one cannot use the oxygen mask to breathe.
D. the "O2" lever on ON enables breathing of the over-pressure oxygen at a constant flow rate.
43. Q(4784) The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for about:
A. 5 minutes.
B. 2 hours.
C. 30 minutes.
D. 15 minutes.
44. Q(4232) The purpose of the "Pressure Relief Valve" in a high pressure oxygen system is to:
A. act as a manual shut-off valve

B. maximize the charging pressure of the system
C. reduce pressure in the oxygen reservoir to a suitable manifold pressure for the regulator
D. relieve overpressure if the pressure reducing valve malfunctions
45. Q(4870) A smoke hood is a device covering:
A. only the nose and the mouth and with a continuous oxygen flow.
B. the whole head and with a continuous oxygen flow.
C. only the nose and the mouth and with an oxygen/air mix.
D. the whole head and with an oxygen flow only on demand.
46. Q(3065) The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by:
A. switching the passenger oxygen ON.

B. switching the diluter demand regulator ON.
C. switching the diluter demand regulator and the passenger oxygen ON.
D. opening the oxygen-bottle valves.
14 Helicopter: Miscellaneous Systems
15 Helicopter: Rotor Heads
16 Helicopter: Transmission
17 Helicopter: Blades
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Tüm hakları Ayjet 44.dönem'e aittir. İzinsiz kopyalanması, çoğaltılması ve dağıtılması kesinlikle yasaktır.

take it easy champ

2. Q(3642) In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first:

A. Liquid de-icing system.

4. Q(3631) "Conditioned" air is air that has:

A. been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure.

9. Q(10735) Flutter results from two deformation modes which are:

A. torsion and shearing

A. between 10^ -3 and 10^ -5. (probable)

12. Q(6023) A safe life aircraft structural component:

A. has parallel load paths.

A. replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or hours of use.

A. create the wheel pitch on bogie gears.

A. elevator leading edges.

18. Q(3047) With regard to an aircraft structure, 'fail safe' is one:

A. that is only used for a limited time.

A. the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.

A. physical distress or excessive workload, impairs ability to perform tasks.

A. redundancy of the structure or equipment.

23. Q(10532) The accumulator in a hydraulic system works as

A. between 10^ -7 and 10^ -9. (extremely remote)

25. Q(12304) The vapour lock is:

A. The exhaust gases obstructions caused by an engine overheating.

A. physical distress or excessive workload, impairs ability to perform tasks.

A. large reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.

A. physical distress or excessive workload, impairs ability to perform tasks.

A. significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.

39. Q(10581) The working principle of the anti-skid system is:

A. Reduction of the brake pressure at the faster turning wheels.

A. significant reduction in functional capabilities or safety margins.

A. physical distress, possibly including injuries.

A. physical distress or excessive workload, impairs ability to perform tasks.

A. To cool the pumps.

51. Q(757) In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in order to:

A. prevent pump cavitation

53. Q(12091) One of the functions of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is:

A. less than 10^ -9. (extremely improbable)

56. Q(5364) On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:

A. trailing edge flaps close to the wing root

59. Q(5408) The cross-feed fuel system enables:

63. Q(2875) The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce:

A. high pressure and small flow.

65. Q(10588) VLE is the maximum:

A. speed with flaps extended in a given position

66. Q(6024) A fail safe airframe construction design is:

A. a construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight.

67. Q(158) Cabin pressurization is controlled by the:

A. engine's bleed valves.

68. Q(12106) A cabin rate of descent:

A. is always the same as the aeroplane's rate of descent.

69. Q(423) In an air cycle machine:

A. the turbine drives the compressor which provides pressurisation.

70. Q(16621) The principle of on condition maintenance is based on the:

A. replacement of parts after a given number of cycles or hours of use.

73. Q(12014) Cabin pressurisation is regulated by the:

A. cabin inlet valve(s).

74. Q(12135) For a JAR25 aeroplane, spoilers are:

A. upper wing surface devices, their deflection can be symmetrical or asymmetrical.

A. equal to the zero-fuel weight multiplied by the span.

A. between 10^ -7 and 10^ -9. (extremely remote)

A. Wing tip vortex

4. Q(15630) A sandwich structural part:

A. is unsuitable for fuel tanks.