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1. A d.c. series motor is accidentally d. Variable - reluctance motor
connected to single- phase a.c. supply. The 6. A 6-pole, 3-phase alternator running at
torque produced will be 1000 rpm supplies to an 8-pole, 3-phase
a. of zero average value induction motor which has a rotor current
b. oscillating of frequency 2 Hz. The speed at which the
c. steady and undirectional motor operates is
d. pulsating and unidirectional a. 1000 rpm
2. The ‘synchronous - impedance method’ of b. 960 rpm
finding the voltage regulation by a c. 750 rpm
cylindrical rotor alternator is generally d. 720 rpm
considered 7. For maximum current during ‘Slip Test’
a. a pessimistic method because on a synchronous machine, the armature
saturation is not considered V and aligns along
b. an optimistic method because a. d-axis
saturation is not considered b. q-axis
c. a fairly accurate method even if power c. 45° to d-axis
factor is not taken into account while d. 45° to q-axis
determining synchronous impedance
8. Match List I with List II and select the
d. a fairly accurate method when power correct answer:
factor is taken into account while
List I (Name of test)
determining synchronous impedance
A. Open circuit and short circuit tests
3. Generally the no-load losses of an
electrical machine is represented in its B. Open circuit and zero power factor
equivalent circuit by a tests
a. parallel resistance with a low value C. Slip test
b. series resistance with a low value D. Maximum lagging current test
c. parallel resistance with a high value List II (Result)
d. series resistance with a high value 1. Leakage reactance
4. The power factor of a synchronous motor 2. Direct axis synchronous reactance
a. improves with increase in excitation 3. Quadrature axis synchronous reactance
and may even become leading at 4. Ratio, of direct axis synchronous
higher excitations reactance to quadrature axis
b. decreases with increase in excitation synchronous reactance
c. is independent of its excitation Codes;
d. increases with loading for a given A B C D
excitation a. 1 2 4 3
5. When the excitation of normally operating b. 1 2 3 4
unloaded salient-pole synchronous motor c. 2 1 4 3
suddenly gets disconnected, it continues to d. 2 1 3 4
run as a 9. A 3-phase 50 MVA 10 kV generator has a
a. Schrage motor reactance of 0.2 ohm per phase. Hence the
b. Spherical motor per-unit value of the reactance on. a base
c. Switched- reluctance motor of 100 MVA 25 kV will be
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a. 1.25 List I (Transformer)
b. 0.625 A. Power transformer
c. 0.032 B. Auto transformer
d. 0.32 C. Welding transformer
10. The results of a ‘Slip Test’ for determining D. Isolation transformer
direct-axis (Xd) and quadrature-axis (Xq) List II (Voltage ratio)
reactance’s of a star-connected salient - 1. 230 V / 230 V
pole alternator are given below
2. 220 V / 240V
phase values: Vmax = 108V ; Vmin = 96V , 3. 400 V / 100V
I max = 12 A, I min = 10 A. Hence the two 4. 132 k V / 11 kV
reactance will be Codes;
a. Xd = 10.8 ohms and Xq = 8 ohms A B C D
b. Xd = 9 ohms and Xq = 9.6 ohms a. 4 2 3 1
c. Xd = 9.6 ohms and Xq = 9 ohms b. 4 2 1 3
d. Xd = 8 ohms and Xq = 10.8 ohms c. 2 4 1 3
11. Stepper motors are widely used because of d. 2 4 3 1
a. wide speed range 16. A two-winding transformer is used as an
b. large rating auto-transformer. The kVA rating of the
c. no need for field control auto-transformer compared to the two-
d. compatibility with digital systems winding transformer will be
12. a. 3 times
b. 2 times
c. 1.5 times
d. same
17. A 20 kVA, 2000/200 V, 1-phase
transformer has nameplate leakage
A 3-phase transformer having zero - impedance of 8% Voltage required to be
sequence impedance Z0 has zero-sequence applied on the high - voltage side to
network as represented in the figure. The circulate full - load current with the low-
connections of its windings are voltage winding short-circuited will be
a. star with isolated neutral - delta a. 16 V
b. star with grounded neutral- delta b. 56.56 V
c. delta- star with grounded neutral c. 160 V
d. delta-delta d. 568.68 V
13. A 2-phase servomotor in control system 18. The full-load copper-Loss and iron-loss of
a transformer are 6400 W and 5000 W
a. uses drag - cup rotor
respectively. The copper-loss and iron-loss
b. solid cylindrical rotor without slots or at half load will be, respectively
a. 3200 W and 2500 W
c. ordinary squirrel - cage rotor
b. 3200 W and 5200 W
d. slip - ring rotor with inherent low
c. 16O0 W and 1250 W
rotor resistance
d. 1600 W and 5000 W
14. Capacitor in a single-phase induction
motor is used for 19. In a 100 kVA, 1100/220 V, 50 Hz single -
phase trans former with 2000 turns on the
a. improving the power factor
high -voltage side, the open- circuit test
b. improving the starting torque result gives 220 V, 91 A, 5 kW on low
c. starting the motor voltage side. The core-loss component of
d. reducing the harmonics current is, approximately
15. Match List I with List II and select the a. 9.1 A
correct answer:
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b. 22.7 A d. 3 4 2 1
c. 45.0 A 23. Match List I with list II and select the
d. 91 A correct answer:
20. Match List I with List II and select the List I
correct answer: A. Commutation
List I (Types of electrical loads) B. V-curves
A. Hoist C. Free wheeling diode
B. Fans D. Overlap
C. Machine Tools (Lathe, Milling List II
machine etc.) 1. Inductive load
D. Loads with fluid friction 2. Capacitive load
List II (Torque-speed characteristics) 3. Interpole
1. Torque ∝ (speed)2 4. Source inductance
2. Torque ∝ (speed) 5. Synchronous motor
3. Constant Torque Codes;
4. Torque ∝ 1/ (speed) A B C D
Codes; a. 3 5 1 4
A B C D b. 2 4 3 5
a. 1 3 2 4 c. 3 4 1 5
b. 1 3 4 2 d. 2 5 3 4
c. 3 1 4 2 24. Possible three -to - three phase transformer
d. 3 1 2 4 connection for parallel operation is
21. For a given torque, reducing the diverter- a. Δ - Y to Δ - Y
resistance of a d.c. series motor b. Δ - Δ to Δ - Y
a. increases its speed but armature current c. Y – Y to Δ - Y
remains the same d. Δ - Y to Y - Δ
b. increases its speed demanding more 25. Match list I with list II and select the
armature current correct answer:
c. decreases its speed demanding less List I
armature current
A. Silica Gel
d. decreases its speed but armature
B. Porcelain
current remains the same
C. Mercury
22. Match List I with list II and select the
correct answer: D. Fins
A. List I (Types of motors) List II
B. d.c. series motor 1. Bushing
C. d.c. shunt motor 2. Buccholz relay
D. 3-phase induction motor 3. Tank
E. Synchronous motor 4. Breather
List II (Characteristics) Codes;
1. Constant speed A B C D
2. High starting torque a. 2 1 4 3
3. Low starting torque b. 4 3 2 1
4. Poor stability c. 2 3 4 1
A B C D d. 4 1 2 3
a. 2 4 3 1 26. A 4 kVA, 400/200 V single-phase
transformer has resistance of 0.02 p.u. and
b. 3 1 2 4
reactance of 0.06 p.u. Its actual resistance
c. 2 1 3 4
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and reactance referred to h.v. side, are, b. in the inverse ratio of their ratings
respectively c. in the direct ratio of their ratings
a. 0.2 ohm and 0.6. ohm d. purely reactive
b. 0.8 ohm and 2.4 ohm 32. The per-unit impedance of a circuit
c. 0.08 ohm and 0.24 ohm element is 0.15. lithe base kV and base
d. 2 ohm and 6 ohm MVA are halved, then the new value of the
27. A certain R - L series combination is per-unit impedance of the circuit element
connected across a 50 Hz single-phase a.c. will be
supply. If the instantaneous power drawn a. 0.075
was found to be negative for 2 b. 0.15
milliseconds in one cycle, the ‘power c. 0.30
factor angle’ of the current must be d. 0.60
a. 9° 33. The per-unit impedance of an alternator
b. 18° corresponding to base values 13.2 kV and
c. 36° 30 MVA is 0.2 p.u. The p.u. value of the
d. 45° impedance for base values 13.8 kV and 50
28. Stepper motors are mostly used for MVA in p.u. will be
a. high power requirements a. 0.131
b. control system applications b. 0.226
c. very high speed of operation c. 0.305
d. very low speed of operation. d. 0.364
29. A delta/star transformer has a phase-to- 34. Match List I with List II and select the
phase voltage transformation ratio of K correct answer:
⎛ List I (Phenomenon)
delta phase voltage ⎞
⎜K = ⎟ A. Voltage stability
⎝ star phase voltage ⎠
B. Transient stability
The line -to - line voltage ratio of star/delta C. Oscillatory instability
connection is given by
D. Steady-state Dynamics
a. K / 3 List II (Dominant features)
b. K 1. Power system stabilizer
c. K 3 2. Damping power
d. 3 /K 3. ‘Angle’ stability
30. Two 10 kV/440V, 1-phase transformers of 4. Reactive power
ratings 600 kVA and 350 kVA are Codes;
connected in parallel to share a load of 800 A B C D
kVA. The reactances of the transformers, a. 1 3 2 4
referred to the secondary side are 0.0198 b. 4 2 3 1
Ω and 0.0304 Ω respectively (resistances c. 1 2 3 4
negligible). The load shared by the two d. 4 3 2 1
transformers will, be, respectively
35. For transmission line which one of the
a. 484.5 kVA and 315.5 kVA following relations is true?
b. 315.5 kVA and 484.5 kVA a. AD - BC = 1
c. 533 kVA and 267 kVA b. AD - BC = 1
d. 267 kVA and 533 kVA c. AD - BC = - 1
31. Two transformers, with equal voltage ratio d. AD - BC = 0
and negligible excitation current,
connected in parallel, share load in the 36. For a given base voltage and base volt-
ratio of their kVA rating only, if their p.u. amp, the per-unit impedance value of an
impedances (based on their own kVA) are element is X. What will be the per-unit
impedance value of this element when the
a. equal
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voltage and volt-amp bases are both 40. A cable has inductance of 0.22 mH per km
doubled? and capacitance of 0.202 μF per km. The
a. 4X surge impedance of the cable is
b. 2X a. 28 Ω
c. X b. 33 Ω
d. 0.5 X c. 42 Ω
37. d. 50 Ω
41. For some given transmission line the
expression for voltage regulation is given
V − VR
by s ×100% . Hence,

The reflection coefficient for the a. this must be a ‘short’ line

transmission line shown in figure at point b. this may either be a ‘medium line’ or a
P is ‘short line’
a. + 1 c. this expression is true for any line
b. 0.5 d. this may either by a ‘medium line’ or a
c. 0 ‘long line’
d. - 1 42. The capacitance of an overhead
transmission line increases with
38. A 3-phase transmission line has its
conductors at the corners of an equilateral 1. increase in mutual geometrical mean
triangle with side 3 m. The diameter of distance
each conductor is 1.63 cm. The inductance 2. increase in height of conductors above
of the fine per phase per km is ground
a. 1.232 mH Select the correct answer from the
b. 1.182 mH following
c. 1.093 mH a. Both 1 and 2 are true
d. 1.043 mH b. Both 1 and. 2 are false
39. Match List I with List II and select the c. Only 1 is true
correct answer: d. Only 2 is true
List I (Design parameters) 43. Consider the following statements:
A. Number of suspension insulator discs Addition of lumped capacitances in
B. Permissible sag of transmission line parallel to a loss-free transmission line
conductor for a given tower increases
C. Corona discharge 1. characteristic impedance *
D. Inductance of transmission line 2. Propagation constant
conductor 3. system stability
List II (Factor(s) on which they depend) 4. charging current
1. Voltage and Tower footing resistance Which of these statements are correct?
2. Voltage a. 1 and 3
3. Voltage and conductor configuration b. 2 and 4
4. Conductor configuration and Tower c. 2, 3 and 4
configuration d. 1, 2 and 4
Codes; 44. In a certain single-phase a.c. circuit the
A B C D instantaneous voltage is given by
a. 1 2 3 4 v = V sin (ωt + 30°) p.u. and the
b. 4 3 2 1 instantaneous current is given, by i = I sin
c. 1 3 2 4 (ωt — 300) p.u. Hence the per-unit value
of reactive power is
d. 4 2 3 1
a. 1/4
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b. 1/2 c. 900
c. 3 /4 d. 1000
50. Match list I with list II and select the
d. 3 /2
correct answer:
45. In a multimachine interconnected system, List I (Load flow methods)
subsequent to a 3- phase fault, the transient
A. Gauss-Siedel load flow
stability is examined by
B. Newton-Raphson load flow
a. equal -area criterion
C. Fast decoupled load flow
b. solution of wing equation
D. Real time load flow
c. either by equal - area criterion or by
solution of swing equation List II (System environment)
d. combination of equal - area criterion 1. Gauss –Elimination
and solution of swing equation 2. L — U factors
46. The electrical stiffness of a synchronous 3. Contingency studies
generator connected to a very large rid can 4. Off-line solution
be increased by Codes;
a. increasing the excitation or the power A B C D
angle of the machine a. 4 3 2 1
b. reducing the excitation or the b. 2 1 4 3
synchronous reactance of the machine c. 4 1 2 3
c. increasing the synchronous reactance d. 2 3 4 1
of the machine
51. Match List I with list II and select the
d. Operating the generator at a much correct answer:
lower MW level compared to the
List I (Types of relays)
steady -state limit
A. Negative –sequence relay
47. A. surge of 100 kV travels along an
overhead line towards it junction with a B. Harmonic - restraint differential relay
cable. The surge impedance for the C. Over-current relay with time - delay
overhead line and cable are 400 ohms and D. Mho relay
50 ohms respectively. The magnitude of List II (Protective schemes)
the surge transmitted through the cable is 1. Distribution feeder protection
a. 11.11 kV 2. Long h.t. lines protection
b. 22.22 kV 3. Transformer protection
c. 12.50 kV 4. Rotor protection of alternators
d. 82.89 kV Codes;
48. A surge voltage rising at 100 kV/μs travels A B C D
along a Loss-less open-circuited a. 4 3 1 2
transmission line. It takes 10 μs to reach
b. 1 2 4 3
the open end. The reflected wave from the
open end, will be rising at c. 4 2 1 3
d. 1 3 4 2
a. 100 kV/μs
52. The inverse characteristics of an induction
b. 200 kV/μs
– disc relay are shown below
c. 1000 kV/μs
d. 2000 kV/μs
49. The YBUS matrix of a 100-bus
interconnected system is 90% sparse.
Hence the number of transmission lines in
the system must be
a. 450 Match list I with list II and select the
b. 500 correct answer
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List I (x, y co-ordinates and parameter) d. 1, 3 and 4
A. x — co-ordinate 56. The junction capacitance of a linearly
B. y — co-ordinate graded junction varies with the applied
C. Parameter reverse bias Vr as
List II (Variables) a. Vr−1
1. Plug settling voltage b. Vr−1/2
2. Current as multiplier of plug setting
c. Vr−1/3
3. Operating time
4. Time multiplier setting d. Vr1/2
5. Power factor 57. The diffusion capacitance of a forward
Codes; biased p+ - n junction diode with a steady
A B C current I depends on
a. 5 4 1 a. width of the depletion region
b. 2 3 4 b. mean lifetime of the holes
c. 5 3 4 c. mean lifetime of the electrons
d. 2 4 1 d. junction area
53. Two generators rated 200 MW and 400 58. The modified work function of an n-
MW having governor droop characteristics channel MOSFET is — 0.85 V. If the
of 4% and 5% respectively are operating in interface charge is 3 × 10-4 C/m2 and the
parallel. If the generators operate on no oxide capacitance is 300 μF/m2, the flat
load at 50 Hz, the frequency at which they band voltage .is
would operate with a total load of 600 a. - 1.85 V
MW is b. - 0.15 V
a. 48.50 Hz c. + 0.15 V
b. 47.69 Hz d. + 1.85 V
c. 46.82 Hz 59. In the circuit shown below,
d. 49.04 Hz
54. The bonding forces in c9mpound
semiconductors, such as GaAs, arise from
a. ionic bonding
b. metallic bonding
c. covalent bonding
d. combination of ionic and covalent the average value of vo(t) will be
bonding a. 0
55. Consider the following statements in b. −Vm / π
connection with the biasing of
semiconductor diodes ; c. −Vm / 2
1. LEDs are used. Sunder forward - bias d. −Vm
condition 60. Match list I with List II and select the
2. Photodiodes are used under forward- correct answer:
bias condition List I (Amplifier’s mode of operation)
3. Zener diodes are used under reverse- A. Class A
bias condition
B. Class B
4. Variable capacitance diodes are used
C. Class C
under reverse-bias condition
D. Class D
Which of these statements are correct?
List II (Properties/characteristics)
a. 1, 2 and 3
1. Clips off half. a cycle
b. 1, 2 and 4
2. Leads to most stable biasing circuit
c. 2, 3 and 4
3. Transistor acts as switch
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4. Amplification of the resonant
frequency only
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 1 2 4 3 the resistance Rg is chosen as R1 | | R2 in
d. 2 1 3 4 order to
61. Early effectin BJT refers to a. increase gain
a. avalanche breakdown b. reduce offset voltage
b. thermal runaway c. reduce offset current
c. base narrowing d. increase CMRR
d. Zener breakdown 66. An amplifier of gain A is bridged by a
62. In the circuit shown below, the average capacitance C as shown below.
value of Vo(t) will be

The effective input capacitance is

a. 0 a. C/A
b. −Vm / π b. C(1 - A)
c. C (1.+ A)
c. −Vm / 2
d. CA
d. −Vm 67. The resolution of a 12 bit Analog to
63. The Darlington pair is mainly used for Digital converter in per cent is
a. impedance matching a. 0.01220
b. wideband voltage amplification b. 0.02441
c. power amplification c. 0.04882
d. reducing distortion d. 0.09760
64. In the op-amp circuit shown below, 68.
vi > 0 and i = Io .eαv. The output vo will be
proportiona to
a. vi
The Boolean expression for the output Y
b. vi in the logic circuit in
c. ekvi a. A B C
d. l n ( kvi ) b. A B C
c. ABC
d. A B C
69. To add two M-bit numbers, the required
number of half adders is
a. 2m — 1
65. In the inverting op-amp circuit shown b. 2m — 1
below, c. 2m + 1
d. 2m
70. Consider the following
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Any combinational circuit can be built d. 19
using 76. Consider the execution of the following
1. NAND gates instructions by a 8085 microprocessor
2. NOR gates LXI H, 01FFH
3. DC - OR gates SHLD 2050H
4. Multiplexeis After execution the contents of memory
Which of these are correct? locations 2050H and 2051H and the
a. 1, 2 and 3 registers H and L, will be
b. 1, 3 and 4 a. 2050H → FF ; 2051H → 01; H → FF ; L → 01
c. 2, 3 and 4 b. 2050H → 01; 2051H → FF ; H → FF ; L → 01
d. 1, 2 and 4 c. 2050H → FF ; 2051H → 01; H → 01; L → FF
71. The decimal equivalent of hexadecimal
d. 2050H → FF ; 2051H → 01; H → 00; L → 00
number 2 A OF is
a. 17670 77. Which one of the following functions is
performed by the 8085 instruction MOV
b. 17607
H, C?
c. 17067
a. Moves the contents of H register to C
d. 10767 register
72. The binary equivalent of hexadecimal b. Moves the contents of C register to H
number 4 F 2 D is register
a. 0101 1111 0010 1100 c. Moves the contents of C register to H
b. 0100 1111 0010 1100 L pair
c. 0100 1110 0010 1101 d. Moves the contents of HL pair to C
d. 0100 1111 0010 1101 register
73. A 3-to-8 decoder is shown below: 78. For 8085 microprocessor; the instruction
RST.6 restarts subroutine at address
a. 00H
b. 03H
c. 30H
d. 33H
79. Memory-mapped I/O-scheme for the
allocation of address to memories and I/O
devices, is used for
All the output lines of the chip will be
a. small systems
high, when all the inputs 1, 2 and 3
b. large systems
a. are high; and G1, G2 are low
c. both large and small systems
b. are high; and G1 is high, G2 is high
d. very large systems
c. are high; and G1 is low, G2 is high
80. The interfacing device used for the
d. are high; and G1 is high, G2 is low
generator of accurate time delay in a
74. Which logical operation is performed by microcomputer system is
ALU of 8085 to complement a number?
a. Intel — 8251
a. AND
b. Intel — 8257
b. NOT
c. Intel — 8253
c. OR
d. Intel — 8259
81. Let x(t) be a real signal with the Fourier
75. The number of output pins of a 8085 transform X(f). Let X*(f) denote the
microprocessor are complex conjugate of X(f). Then
a. 40 a. X(-f) = X*(f)
b. 27 b. X(-f) = X(f)
c. 21 c. X(-f) = - X(f)
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d. X(-f) = - X*(f) B. FM
82. Let the transfer function of a network be C. PCM
H ( f ) = H ( f ) e ( ) = 2e− j 4π f If a signal
jθ f
D. Delta modulation
x(t) is applied to such a network, the List II (Disadvantages)
output y(t) is given by 1. Threshold effect
a. 2x(t) 2. Granular noise
b. x(t - 2) 3. Image frequency interference
c. 2x(t - 2) 4. Quantization noise
d. 2x(t - 4π) Codes;
83. The maximum number of quantized A B C D
amplitude levels, than a 3-digit ternary a. 1 3 4 2
PCM system can be used to represent is b. 3 1 4 2
a. 8 c. 1 3 2 4
b. 9 d. 3 1 2 4
c. 27 89. Consider a binary Hamming code of block
d. 81 length 31 and rate equal to (26/31). Its
84. The waveform A cos (ω1t + k cos ω2t ) is minimum distance is
a. 3
a. amplitude modulated
b. 5
b. frequency modulated
c. 26
c. phase modulated
d. 31
d. frequency as well as phase modulated
90. A satellite channel can be fairly accurately
85. Let x(t) = 5 cos (50t + sin 5t). Its modelled as a
instantaneous frequency (in rad/s) at t = 0
a. random delay channel
has the value
b. panic button channel
a. 5
c. additive white Gaussian noise channel
b. 50
d. fading channel
c. 55
91. One, disadvantage of adaptive delta
d. 250
modulation over linear delta modulation is
86. The performance of the DPCM - Coder that it
improves as the
a. requires more bandwidth
a. input probability density becomes
b. is more vulnerable to channel errors
more and more Gaussian
c. requires a large number of comparators
b. input power spectral density tends to
in the encoder
be white
d. is not suitable for signals with periodic
c. input dynamic range increases
d. sample-to-sample correlation of the
92. An MTI radar is operating at the
input increases
wavelength of 5 × 10-2 m and the pulse
87. An FM wave uses a 2-5V, 500 Hz repetition frequency (PRF) is 1000. Then
modulating frequency and has a the first blind speed (in m/s) occurs at
modulation index of 50. The deviation is
a. 25
a. 500 Hz
b. 50
b. 1000 Hz
c. 500
c. 1250 Hz
d. 1000
d. 25000 Hz
93. Consider the following statements:
88. Match List I with List II and select the
If the maximum range of a radar has to be
correct answer:
List I (Modulation / reception techniques)
1. the peak transmitted power may be
A. Super heterodyne receiver increased 16 fold
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2. the antenna diameter may be doubled a. reduce dv/dt across it
3. the sensitivity of the receiver may be b. reduce di/dt through it
doubled c. limit current through the thyristor
4. the transmitted pulse width may be d. ensure its conduction after gate signal
doubled is removed
Which of these statements are correct? 98. For a step up d.c. - d.c. chopper with an
a. 1 and 2 input d.c. voltage of 220 volts, if the
b. 2 and 3 output voltage required is 330 volts and
c. 3 and 4 the non-conducting time of thyristor is 100
μs the ON time of thyristor would be
d. 1 and 4
a. 66.6 μs
94. With reference to a pulsed radar match
List I (Problem) with List II (Causes) and b. 100 μs
select the correct answer: c. 150 μs
List I (Problem) d. 200 μs
A. Second time around echo 99. A thyristor controlled reactor is used to get
B. Blind speeds a. variable resistance
C. Inadequate range resolution b. variable capacitance
D. False –alarms c. variable inductance
List II (Causes) d. improved reactor power factor
1. Broad transmitted pulse 100. A single-phase full-bridge converter with a
2. Inadequate detection threshold free-wheeling diode feeds an inductive
3. MTI filter load. The load resistance is 15.53Ω and it
has a large inductance providing constant
4. Inadequate Inter Pulse period
and ripple free d.c. current. Input to
Codes; converter is from an ideal 230 V, 50 Hz
A B C D single phase source. For a firing delay
a. 4 3 1 2 angle of 60°, the average value of diode
b. 1 2 4 3 current is
c. 4 2 1 3 a. 10 A
d. 1 3 4 2 b. 8.165 A
95. When cathode of a thyristor is made more c. 5.774 A
positive than its anode d. 3.33 A
a. all the junctions are reverse biased 101. The operation of an inverter fed induction
b. outer junctions are reverse biased and motor can be shifted from motoring to
central one is forward biased regenerative braking by
c. outer junctions are forward biased and a. reversing phase sequence
central one is reverse biased b. reducing inverter voltage
d. all the junctions are forward biased c. decreasing inverter frequency
96. The sharing of the voltages between d. increasing inverter frequency
thyristors operating in series is influenced 102. In a three-phase full wave a.c. to d.c.
by the converter, the ratio of output ripple-
a. di/dt capabilities frequency to the supply-voltage frequency
b. dv/dt capabilities is
c. junction temperatures a. 2
d. static v - i characteristics and leakage b. 3
currents c. 6
97. R - C snubber is used in parallel with the d. 12
thyristor to
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103. A’6-phase bridge-converter feeds a purely 108. How many switches are used to construct a
resistive load. The delay angle α is three-phase cycloconverter?
measured from the point of natural- a. 3
commutation. The effective control of b. 6
voltage can be obtained when a lies in the
range c. 12
d. 18
a. 0 ≤ α ≤ 105°
109. A 3-phase cycloconverter is used to obtain
b. 0 ≤ α ≤ 120°
a variable- frequency single-phase a.c.
c. 0 ≤ α ≤ 150° output. The single phase a.c. load is 220 V.
d. 0 ≤ α ≤ 180° 60 A at a power factor of 0.6 lagging. The
104. a.c. voltage regulators are widely used in rms value of input voltage per phase
required is
a. traction drives
a. 376.2 V
b. fan drives
b. 311.12 V
c. synchronous motor drives
c. 266 V
d. slip power recovery scheme of slip-
ring induction motor d. 220 V
105. When fed from a fully controlled rectifier, 110. Assertion (A): Even at no load a large
a d.c. motor, driving an active load, can three - phase squirrel- cage. Induction
operate in motor is started at reduced voltage.
a. forward motoring and reverse braking Reason (R): If a large three – phase
mode squirrel -cage induction motor with no
load is started at full voltage, it is
b. forward motoring and forward braking
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
c. reverse motoring and reverse braking
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
d. reverse motoring and forward braking
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
106. Compared to a single - phase half-bridge
inverter, the output power of a single- d. A is false but R is true
phase full-bridge inverter is higher by a 111. Assertion (A): A single-phase induction
factor of motor is not self-starting.
a. 12 Reason (R): A three-phase induction motor
b. 8 is self-starting.
c. 4 a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
d. 2
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
107. In a switched-mode power supply (SMPS),
the correct explanation of A
after conversion of a.c. supply to a highly
filtered d.c. voltage, a switching transistor c. A is true but R is false
is switched ON and OFF at a very high d. A is false but R is true
speed by a pulse width modulator (PWM) 112. Assertion (A): The distribution
which generates very-high frequency transformers are designed for minimum
square pulses. The frequency of the pulses core losses.
is typically in the range of Reason (R): Primary windings of
a. 100 Hz - 200 Hz distribution transformers are energized
b. 500 Hz – 1 kHz throughout the day.
c. 2 kHz – 5 kHz a. Both A and R are true and R is the
d. 20 kHz - 50 kHz correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
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c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
d. A is false but R is true the correct explanation of A
113. Assertion (A): The maximum operating c. A is true but R is false
temperature of overhead Line conductors d. A is false but R is true
made of aluminum or copper is restricted 117. Assertion (A): A tunnel diode can be used
to 75°C. as an oscillator.
Reason (R): Conductor temperature Reason (R): Voltage controlled negative
beyond 75°C may shatter porcelain resistance is exhibited by a tunnel diode.
insulators. a. Both A and R are true and R is the
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false
c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true
d. A is false but R is true 118. Assertion (A): The intrinsic carrier
114. Assertion (A): In the modeling of medium concentration of Si at room temperature is
and long transmission lines the nominal-it more than that of GaAs.
and T circuits are not equivalent to each Reason (R): Si is an indirect bandgap
other. semiconductor while GaAs is a direct
Reason (R): A star-delta transformation bandgap semiconductor.
can be used to derive the one circuit from a. Both A and R are true and R is the
the other. correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT c. A is true but R is false
the correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true
c. A is true but R is false
119. Assertion (A): Slope overload is a problem
d. A is false but R is true in D.P.C.M.
115. Assertion (A): When a Line -to-Line (L - Reason (R): D. P.C. M. makes use of
L) faults takes place at the terminals of an adjacent sample correlations.
open-circuited generator, phase voltages
are sometimes ‘indeterminate’, though line a. Both A and R are true and R is the
-to- line voltages are always determinable. correct explanation of A
Reason (R): During a line-to-line fault, b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
zero-sequence voltage is always the correct explanation of A
indeterminate. c. A is true but R is false
a. Both A and R are true and R is the d. A is false but R is true
correct explanation of A 120. Assertion (A): Thermal noise in metallic
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT resistors can be characterized by Gaussian
the correct explanation of A probability density function.
c. A is true but R is false Reason (R) Power spectral density of
d. A is false but R is true thermal noise is essentially constant for a
very large frequency range.
116. Assertion (A): In L. P. S. (Longitudinal
Power Supply) system, the voltage a. Both A and R are true and R is the
regulation is generally poor? correct explanation of A
Reason (R): L. P. S. system has low level b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
of short-circuit M. V.A. the correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are true and R is the c. A is true but R is false
correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is true