CRIME DETECTION, INVESTIGATION & PREVENTION – PART ONE

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only
the answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice
on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.

PRUDENCE RESEARCH & REVIEW CENTER: MOCK EXAM IN CDIP Subjects Part One Page 1
1. It is an act providing for the constitutional rights of persons under custodial
investigation.
A. RA 5487
B. RA 9262
C. RA 7438
D. RA 7610
2. These are the three fold aims of the criminal investigator, EXCEPT:
A. to identify the guilty party
B. to provide evidence of his guilt
C. to locate the guilty party
D. to file charges at the proper court
3. It is a type of search wherein one searcher is assigned to each subdivision of a
quadrant.
A. zone method
B. spiral method
C. wheel method
D. strip method
4. It is made by the investigator on the scene, it need not be drawn to scale, but the
proportions should be the approximate measurements of dimensions draw.
A. crime scene sketch
B. rough sketch
C. finished drawing
D. projection sketch
5. It is the normal sketch that shows the scene in two dimensions of one plane.
A. crime scene sketch
B. rough sketch
C. finished drawing
D. projection sketch
6. It is the simplest way to locate points on sketch to give the distances from two
mutually perpendicular lines.
A. surveying methods
B. cross projection
C. rectangular coordinates
D. polar coordinate
7. This consists of objects or substances which are an essential part of the body of the
crime.
A. corpus delicti
B. tracing evidence
C. associative evidence
D. evidence
8. It is refers to the number of persons who handle evidence between the time of
commission and disposition of the case.
A. disposition
B. preservation
C. chain of custody
D. evaluation
9. It is the questioning of person who is believed to possess knowledge that is of
official interest to the investigator.
A. Interrogation
B. Investigation
C. interview
D. instrumentation
10. It is existing between the investigator and the subject, and it is usually
determines, the success of the investigation.
A. rapport
B. personality
C. breadth of interest
D. the approach
11. It is a questioning of a person who is reluctant to make a full disclosure of
information in his possession.
A. Interrogation
B. Investigation
C. interview
D. Instrumentation
12. It is a person other than the suspect, who is requested to give information
concerning an incident or person.
A. witness
B. victim
C. subject
D. suspect

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13. It is a self-incriminatory statement made by the subject falling short of an
acknowledgement of guilt.
A. admission
B. confession
C. acknowledgment
D. acceptance
14. It is the direct acknowledgment of the truth of the guilty fact as charged or of
some essential part of the commission of the criminal act itself.
A. admission
B. confession
C. acknowledgment
D. acceptance
15. It is a file of photograph of arrested individuals which usually includes full-face
and mug shots along with detailed physical description of subject persons.
A. roques gallery
B. modus-operandi file
C. fingerprint file
D. index card file
16. Usually, the conduct of investigation must start with this, purposely to develop
rapport with the subject, either the victim or suspect.
A. opening statement
B. inquiry of subject
C. narration
D. sympathetetic approach
17. It is the questioning of person who are suspected to have committed and/or has been
involved in the commission of an offense.
A. interview
B. interrogation
C. tactical interrogations
D. custodial investigation
18. It is the purpose why the subject of the investigation was being asked of the
question, “do you know why you are here.”
A. to place the subject in the vulnerable position
B. to know the purpose the reason why he is investigated
C. to solicit other vital information
D. it usually observed during interrogation
19. Any person under investigation for the commission of an offense shall have the
following rights, EXCEPT.
A. right to inform of his right to remain silent
B. right to have a competent and independent counsel
C. right to be provided with a counsel
D. right not to answer all the questions
20. It is must be made in every page of the sworn statement of suspects and witnesses
intentionally committed by the investigator or typist.
A. page number
B. name of investigator
C. intentional errors
D. name of affiant
21. It is the collection of information and evidence for identifying, apprehending, and
convicting suspected offenders.
A. tactical interrogation
B. custodial investigation
C. criminal investigation
D. criminal interrogation
22. It is a device which is designed to ignite combustible material sometimes after
initiating action.
A. trailer
B. plant
C. devices
D. accelerants
23. The fundamental responsibility of the officer in charge of protecting the crime
scene is:
A. interrogating the witness, the victims and the suspects
B. engaging in the search for traces left by the criminals
C. removal of evidence which may be important to the case investigated.
D. preserving the site of the crime in the same physical conditions as it was left by
the perpetrator.
24. What kind of personal property can be subject of search or seizure?
A. fruits of the offense or those used or intended to be used as the means of
committing an offense
B. subject of the offense
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 C. stolen or embezzled property
D. all of the above
25. It is the official inquiry made by the police on the facts and circumstances
surrounding the death of the person which is expected to be criminal or unlawful.
A. homicide investigation
B. criminal investigation
C. murder investigation
D. criminal interrogation
26. Any person under investigation shall have the right to ______________.
A. be informed of such rights
B. remain silent
C. all of these
D. counsel
27. It is a law that makes the crime of rape as a crime against persons.
A. RA 8353
B. RA 8535
C. RA 8553
D. RA 8335
28. It is a statement made by a person in an impending death, and it is also known as
“ante-mortem statement.”
A. dying declaration
B. declaration of interest
C. affidavit
D. sworn statement
29. It is an investigative practice of placing the suspect within a group of people for
the purpose of being viewed by eyewitnesses.
A. police line-up
B. identification parade
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
30. It is where the essential ingredients of the criminal act took place, and it
includes the entry and exit of both the offenders and victims.
A. place of occurrence
B. setting of the crime
C. physical objectives
D. crime scene
31. It is the ascertaining of information by systematically interviewing all people in
certain vicinity or area.
A. neighborhood canvassing
B. intensive inquiry
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
32. It is an anticipatory or proactive approach to solving crimes, focusing on the small
group of career criminals responsible for a large amount of crime in the area.
A. proactive investigation
B. anticipatory investigation
C. targeted investigation
D. all of the above
33. These are the elements of the crime of robbery, EXCEPT:
A. unlawful taking of property
B. with intent to gain
C. with violent or intimidation
D. without the owner’s consent
34. It is an act that prescribes the violation against women and their children.
A. RA 9262
B. RA 9622
C. RA 6692
D. RA 9266
35. It is an investigative aid which provided information with regards offenders’
pattern of operations.
A. roques gallery
B. modus-operandi file
C. fingerprint file
D. index card file
36. This is the most prevalent factor that prompted pushers and abusers alike to indulge
in dangerous drugs.
A. poverty
B. ignorance
C. loss of family values
D. other various factors
37. It is regarded by many experts as the most commonly abused drug in our society.
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 A. Tobacco
B. Alcohol
C. marijuana
D. cough preparations
38. These are the motivating factors of drug use, EXCEPT:
A. to attain some degree of euphoria
B. peer pressure and curiosity
C. increased enjoyment of activities
D. as social lubricants
39. It is state of psychic or physical dependence or both on drug arising in a person
following administration.
A. drug dependence
B. physical dependence
C. psychological dependence
D. drug addiction
40. It is the penalty to be imposed to drug users during first offense.
A. 6 yrs. & 1 day-12 yrs
B. 1 yr. & 1 day-6 yrs.
C. 12 yrs. & 1 day-20 yrs.
D. 6 months rehabilitation
41. It presupposes an understanding of the motivation behind the behavior of motorists,
commuters and pedestrians.
A. traffic management
B. traffic education
C. traffic enforcement
D. traffic engineering
42. It is an action taken by the traffic law enforcers, and the count to compel
obedience to traffic laws and ordinances.
A. traffic management
B. traffic education
C. traffic enforcement
D. traffic engineering
43. This is wholly a traffic law enforcer’s responsibility, and entails in looking for
the behavior of the traffic units.
A. detection
B. adjudication
C. apprehension
D. prosecution
44. These are the important goals of traffic law enforcement activities, EXCEPT.
A. to increase safety level
B. to ensure harmonious & comfortable environment
C. to observe the 3Es of traffic
D. to increase traffic efficiency
45. It includes pedestrians, pedal cyclist, drivers, passengers, and others.
A. enforcement system
B. road user system
C. traffic system
D. road and traffic user
46. It is defined as keeping informed on the streets, highways within existing
regulations to make their use safe and expeditious.
A. traffic enforcement
B. traffic control
C. traffic supervision
D. traffic education
47. This is otherwise known as the Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the
Philippines.
A. RA 7610
B. RA 6975
C. RA 7160
D. RA 4136
48. It is the science of measuring traffic and travel, study of basic laws relative to
traffic, and to achieve safe and efficient transportation.
A. traffic management
B. traffic enforcement
C. traffic education
D. traffic engineering
49. It is any inherent characteristics of a traffic way, a vehicle or a person making a
trip on a traffic way.
A. accident
B. attribute
C. violations
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 D. crucial events
50. It is the place and time after or beyond which the accident cannot be prevented by
the traffic unit under consideration.
A. point of impact
B. point of no escape
C. perception of impending hazard
D. point of possible perception
51. It is every device which is self-propelled, and propelled by electric power obtained
from overhead trolley wires, but not operated upon rails.
A. Vehicle
B. Motor
C. motor vehicle
D. means of transportation
52. It characterized the manner of occurrence of a motor- vehicle traffic accident.
A. key events
B. traffic accident
C. crucial events
D. chain of events
53. It is any motor vehicle accident that results in injuries to one or more persons.
A. fatal accident
B. non-fatal accident
C. property damage
D. traffic accident
54. It is a kind of traffic accident where a person does thing that he or she should not
have done.
A. errors of commission
B. negligence
C. errors of omission
D. reckless imprudence
55. Are marks left on the road by tires that are not moving because the brakes are
applied strongly enough to lock the wheels.
A. skid marks
B. scuffmarks
C. gaps mark
D. gaps kid
56. A vehicle downhill with a slope of 0.15 and a drag factor of 0.70 leaves a skid
marks of 20.6 meters, what is the approximate speed of the said vehicle when involved
in accident.
A. 64 kms./hour
B. 54 kms./hour
C. 46 km.s/hour
D. 45 kms./hour
57. The following are the good ways of searching the scene of the hit-and-run accident,
EXCEPT:
A. look over the ground to locate the point of collision
B. follow the path of vehicle in leaving the scene
C. study the objects the vehicle has struck
D. established the identity of the driver and vehicle
58. It is a method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from two of more
reference points.
A. measurements
B. determining skidmarks
C. triangulation
D. accident investigation
59. These are the types of international road signs, it may be oval, triangular, and
rectangular in shapes, EXCEPT.
A. regulatory signs
B. informative signs
C. danger warning signs
D. roads and pavement signs
60. These are the basic steps in traffic accident investigation, EXCEPT.
A. go to scene as quickly as possible
B. assess the situation and call for assistance
C. care to injured and protect their property
D. inter-agency coordination and linkages
61. It is the willful and intentional setting of fire to destroy property and/or the
preparation of building for burning.
A. arson
B. fire
C. intentional fire
D. incendiary fire
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62. These are the corpus delicti of the crime of arson, EXCEPT:
A. fire occurred in the premises protected by the law
B. the fire was intentional
C. someone set the fire or furthered the act
D. violation of laws on arson
63. Only when it is known can possible causes be searched for and eliminated, and it is
the first purpose of examining the fire scene.
A. fire started
B. point of origin
C. intentional setting
D. presence of arsonist
64. It is a kind of burn pattern that results from splashing an accelerant unto the
floor.
A. Alligatoring
B. Charring
C. pour pattern
D. “V” pattern
65. It is employed by the arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow them to
establish an interim alibi.
A. timing device
B. matches & candles
C. trailers
D. accelerants
66. It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors.
A. timing device
B. accelerants
C. trailers
D. matches & candles
67. These fires results from the burning of wood, paper, textiles and other carbonaceous
materials.
A. Type “A”
B. Type “B”
C. Type “C”
D. Type “D”
68. It is one way of extinguishing fire wherein the oxygen content of air is reduced
below 15%-from normal of 21% in volume.
A. smothering
B. cooling
C. starving
D. use of extinguishers
69. A passage hall or ante-chamber between the outer doors and interior parts of a house
or a building.
A. vestibule
B. vertical shaft
C. self-closing door
D. lobby
70. Any condition or act which increase or may cause an increase in the probability of
the occurrence of fire.
A. fire hazard
B. overloading
C. illegal connection
D. jumper
71. These are the detection method use at the fire scene to determine presence of
accelerants, EXCEPT.
A. visual observations
B. detection by scent
C. dye color test
D. interview of witnesses
72. An integrated network of hydraulically designed piping installed in a building
structure or area which automatically discharges water when activated by heat.
A. sprinkler system
B. hose box
C. standpipe system
D. hose reel
73. A system of vertical pipes in a building to which the fire hoses can be attached,
including a system by which water is made available to the outlets as needed.
A. sprinkler system
B. hose box
C. standpipe system
D. hose reel
74. It is any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.
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 A. fire suppression
B. fire safety
C. fire prevention
D. abatement
75. It is one of the motives of the crime of arson, wherein the purpose is to distract
police from other felony being committed.
A. concealment of crime
B. emotional reasons
C. intimidation
D. financial gain
76. It is the most common accelerant, and is readily identified by their distinctive
odor.
A. gasoline
B. kerosene
C. thinner
D. lighter fluid
77. It is otherwise known as the Comprehensive Fire Code of the Philippines of 2008.
A. PD 1185
B. RA 9514
C. Art. 322 – 326, RPC
D. PD 1714
78. It is the transfer of heat from solid materials.
A. convection
B. conduction
C. combustion
D. radiation
79. These are the elements of fire, EXCEPT:
A. fuel
B. oxygen
C. gas
D. heat
80. It is the actual process or the active principle of burning, and it is characterized
by the heat and light combustion.
A. fire
B. conflagration
C. arson
D. destruction
81. It is otherwise known as the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.
A. RA 6425
B. RA 9262
C. RA 7610
D. RA 9165
82. It is the common street name of methamphetamine hydrochloride.
A. shabu
B. bato
C. poor man’s cocaine
D. kakusaesai
83. Two or more persons forming or joining together with the intention of committing any
offense prescribed by the drugs act.
A. drug syndicate
B. syndicated crime group
C. drug traffickers
D. organized crime group
84. Are drugs which increases alertness, reduce hunger and provide a feeling of well
being.
A. hallucinogens
B. stimulants
C. narcotics
D. depressants
85. It is a form of entrapment employed by law enforcement officers as an effective way
of apprehending criminals in the act of violating drug law.
A. search and seizure
B. mobile checkpoint
C. marijuana eradication
D. buy-bust operation
86. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity,
wickedness or corruption.
A. vice
B. drug addiction
C. gambling
D. alcoholism
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87. It is the illegal cultivation, administration, manufacture, sale, trading,
distribution, importation, exportation and possession of any dangerous drug.
A. drug pushing
B. illegal trafficking
C. cultivate or culture
D. dispense
88. It is willful act by any person of maliciously and surreptitiously inserting
dangerous drug for the purpose of implicating the commission of violation of drug law.
A. illegal trafficking
B. trading
C. planting evidence
D. use
89. It is an analytical test conducted to validate of confirm the results of initial
test.
A. screening test
B. drug test
C. drug clearance test
D. confirmatory test
90. It is also known as the golden triangle, and it is considered as the main source of
dangerous drugs throughout the world.
A. Japan-Taiwan-China
B. Burma-Thailand-Laos
C. Cambodia-Mexico-Africa
D. Arabia-Malaysia-Singapore
91. It is the chronological and step-by-step account of an incident that transpired in a
given place and at a given time.
A. report
B. police report
C. patrol report
D. investigation report
92. It is primarily aimed at transmitting papers from office to office within a police
unit and/or station, or from branch to branch, within an office.
A. routine slip
B. memorandum
C. endorsement
D. business letter
93. It is a letter that sends, and it identifies what is being sent and what is being
intended for.
A. transmittal letter
B. application letter
C. information letter
D. referral letter
94. It is a record of daily events occurring within the territories/jurisdiction of a
given police unit or command.
A. police blotter
B. police journal
C. police report
D. police files
95. It is complete in substance that answers the six interrogatives of police report
writing—the 5Ws and IH, it also provides in brief, the sworn statement executed by the
individuals that was investigated.
A. special report
B. investigation report
C. administrative report
D. operational report
96. It is a reply or a forwarding statement usually added to a letter, it can be a
message; it can be a memorandum from higher police office, and it is communication
within a communication.
A. routine slip
B. memorandum
C. endorsement
D. business letter
97. It is the widely-practiced written communications, and it is routine in nature, as
it is submitted daily by the duty beat supervisor.
A. beat inspection report
B. after patrol report
C. Daily accomplishment
D. Initial report
98. It is commonly practice in the police service, and which are inter-office
communications dealing with official matters.
A. routine slip
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 B. memorandum
C. endorsement
D. business letter
99. It is that one done after an important incident took place in a certain area at a
given time, and it must be acted done or acted upon within twenty four hours.
A. special report
B. progress report
C. spot report
D. situation report
100. Among the techniques in composition writing, it is effective in police report, this
is because it concern events.
A. narration
B. clarity
C. specificity
D. accuracy

END OF PART ONE

KEY NASWERS

1. It is an act providing for the constitutional rights of persons under custodial

investigation.

1.C 51.C
2.D 52.D
3.A 53.B
4.B 54.A
5.D 55.A
6.D 56.B
7.A 57.D
8.C 58.C
9.B 59.D
10.A 60.D
11.A 61.A
12.A 62.D
13.A 63.B
14.B 64.C
15.A 65.A
16.D 66.B
17.D 67.A
18.A 68.A
19D 69.A
20.C 70.A
21.C 71.D
22.A 72.A
23.D 73.C
24.D 74.D
25.A 75.A
26.C 76.A
27.A 77.B
28.A 78.B
29.C 79.C
30.D 80.A
31.C 81.D
32.C 82.A
33.D 83.A
34.A 84.B
35.B 85.D
36.A 86.A
37.B 87.B
38.B 88.C
39.A 89.D
40.D 90.B
41.A 91.B
42.C 92.A
43.A 93.A
44.C 94.A

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 45.B 95.B
46.D 96.C
47.D 97.C
48.D 98.B
49.B 99.C
50.B 100.A

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