INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions. Write the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.

1. The Police seek to prevent crimes by being present in places where

crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from
practices that make them or their property vulnerable.
A. Law enforcement B. Public services
C. Opportunity denial D. Order maintenance
2. The society’s prime instrument for making known what acts are crimes
and what sanctions may be applied to those who commit acts defined as
crimes.
A. Ethics B. Law
C. Conduct D. Justice
3. A person who has violated the penal law and has been found guilty
beyond reasonable doubt by the court.
A. Accused B. Parolee
C. Suspect D. Criminal
4. A body of knowledge regarding crime as a social phenomenon.
A. Criminal psychology B. Criminal sociology
C. Criminal law d. Criminology defined
5. The reduction or elimination of the desire and opportunity to commit a
crime.
A. Law enforcement B. Crime prevention
C. Protection of rights D. Order maintenance
6. Reacting to events with alertness and vigilance and a feeling of
persecution.
A. Dementia praecox B. Hallucination
C. Paranoia D. Depression
7. Science concerned with improving the quality of human offspring.
A. Genetics B. Eugenics
C. Criminology D. Heredity
8. It is the most basic social institution and is the most potentially
effective agency of social control.
A. Church B. Community
C. Family d. School
9. A sub-discipline of criminology which focuses on victims of crime.
A. Penology B. Criminal psychology
C. Criminal profiling D. Victimology
10. An irrational fear which is fixed, intense, uncontrollable and
often has no reasonable foundation.
A. Phobia B. Delusions
C. Regression D. Anxiety
11. The principle which states that man, by nature, always tries to
maximize pleasure and avoid pain.
A. Utopia B. Hedonism
C. Socialism D. Atavism
12. The mental capacity to distinguish right from wrong.
A. Discernment B. Morality
C. Ethics D. Imbecility
13. It has the power to define and punish crimes.
A. Church B. State
C. Judiciary D. Police
14. Which of the following is NOT a victimless crime?
A. Vagrancy B. Illegal gambling
C. Illegal detention D. Illegal possession of
prohibited drugs

15. The purpose of penalty in the Positivist School of Criminology.

A. Retribution B. Reformation
C. Rejection D. Restitution
16. In a hostage situation, this is a non-negotiable item.
A. Firearm B. Media access
C. Telephone D. Food
17. It refers to the conscience of man.
A. Ego B. Id
C. Super ego D. Spirit
18. A type of crime in which the end result is destruction.
A. Acquisitive crime B. Extinctive crime
C. Seasonal crime D. Static crime
19. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound
to answer for the commission of an offense.
A. Search B. Seizure
C. Detention D. Arrest
20. A valid warrant less arrest.
A. Citizen's arrest B. Void arrest
C. Illegal arrest D. Judicial arrest
21. The authority of the court to hear or determine a case.
A. Executive power B. Jurisdiction
C. Hearing D. Decision
22. A component or pillar of the Criminal Justice System which is
involved in the administration of appropriate sanctions in keeping
with the sentence handed down.
A. Correction B. Prosecution
C. Law enforcement D. Court
23. The reading of charges against the accused in the open court and
the declaration of his plea of guilty or not guilty.
A. Charging B. Sentencing
C. Arraignment D. Plea bargaining
24. The major function of the Prosecution as component of the Criminal
Justice System.
A. Enforce the laws of the land
B. Rehabilitate prisoners
C. Represent the government in criminal cases
D. Sentencing of the accused
25. It provides the basis for due process of law.
A. Bible B. Constitution
C. PNP Law as amended D. Code of Kalantiaw
26. The apparatus of the State designed to enforce the law by
arresting, prosecuting and adjudicating those accused of violating it
and by applying the proper sanctions to those found guilty.
A. Court B. Government
C. Criminal Justice System D. Due Process of Law
27. A claim by the accused that he or she was in another place when the
crime occurred and therefore could not have committed it.
A. Defense of instigation B. Defense of alibi
C. Defense of consent D. Defense of duress
28. The informal component of the Criminal Justice System.
A. Community B. Law enforcement
C. Prosecution D. Corrections
29. It refers to the maltreatment of a child.
A. Child misuse B. Child delinquency
C. Child defect D. Childhood
30. PD 603 is known as:
A. Parole Law
B. Probation Law
C. The Child and Youth Welfare Code
D. The Revised Penal Code

31. Refers to a child whose basic needs have been deliberately

unattended.
A. Neglected child B. Abandoned child
C. Dependent child D. Abused child
32. Refers to a local government together with society of individuals
or institutions.
A. Family B. Community
C. Religion D. Prison
33. The following are guidelines for police negotiators except one.
A. Don’t raise the aspirations or expectations of the hostage
takers
B. Give in to all the terrorists’ demands
C. Conserve your concession
D. Make sure you get something in return for a concession
34. Which among the following is not a source of Philippine Criminal
Law?
A. Act. No. 3815 and its amendments
B. Special penal laws passed by the Phil. Commission, Phil.
Legislature, National Assembly, Batasang Pambansa, Phil.
Assembly and the Congress of the Philippines.
C. Penal Presidential Decrees issued during Martial Law.
D. Republic acts issued during the Marcos regime.
35. This deprives the accused of a crime some lawful protection to
which he has become entitled.
A. Common law
B. Special law
C. Ex post facto law
D. Bill of attainder
36. They are not considered as a source of criminal law due to the fact
that they merely explain the meaning of law and apply the law as
enacted by the legislature.
A. Revised Penal Code
B. Special Penal laws
C. Court decisions
D. Executive Orders
37. It cannot be recovered as a matter of right; and is discretionary
upon the court to be part of the civil liability when a crime was
committed with one or more aggravating circumstances.
A. Actual damages
B. Nominal damages
C. Moral damages
D. Exemplary damages
38. When rape is committed and the victim was killed, the mandatory
civil indemnification shall be.
A. 30,000
B. 50,000
C. 100,000
D. 500,000
39. In case of physical injuries it would consist in the payment of
hospital bills and doctor’s fee of the offended party.
A. Restitution
B. Reparation
C. Indemnification
D. Civil liability
40. Which among the following may totally extinguish criminal
liability?
A. Absolute pardon
B. Service of sentence
C. Amnesty
D. Probation
41. It consists in the successive execution by the same individual of
different criminal acts upon any of which no conviction has yet been
made.
A. Plurality of crimes
B. Formal crimes
C. Complex crimes
D. Informal crimes
42. Jemma who induced Eric a friend to kill her husband’s mistress is
criminally liable as:
A. Principal
 B. Accessory
C. Accomplice
D. Look out
43. In crimes involving adultery and concubinage, who may file the
complaint?
A. The prosecutor
B. Any peace officer charge with enforcement of the law violated
C. The offended spouse
D. All of the foregoing
44. The information or complaint should state the following except:
A. Name of the accused
B. Name of the offended party
C. Name of the court
D. Designation of the offense by statute
45. When may the offended party be allowed to interview in criminal
cases?
A. When he has not waived the civil action
B. When he has waived the civil action
C. When he has filed the civil action before filing the criminal
case
D. When he has expressly reserved the right to institute a separate
civil action.
46. When may bail be considered as a matter of discretion?
A. In capital offenses
B. In cases involving graft and corrupt practices of government
officials.
C. In cases punishable by penalties which are not afflictive
D. In capital offenses when the evidence of guilt is strong
47. In fixing the amount of bail, which among the following is not
essential?
A. Age and health of the accused
B. Character and reputation of the accused
C. Probability that the accused will appear in the trial
D. None of the foregoing
48. If the crime charged is unclear, what motion may be filed before
the arraignment?
A. Bill of particular
B. Motion for new trial
C. Motion to quash
D. Motion to dismiss
49. In cases punishable by destierro, how many days or preventive
detention is prescribed for by law?
A. 5 days
B. 15 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
50. Where may the application for bail be filed?
A. Office of the prosecutor
B. Office of the Ombudsman
C. Court where the case is pending
D. Regional Trial Court
51. Ground for demurrer to evidence:
A. Insufficiency of evidence
B. Irrelevant evidence
C. Motion to quash
D. Prejudicial question
52. Refers to an undertaking constituted in lieu of real property given
as a security for the amount of bail.
A. Surety bond
B. Property bond
C. Recognizance
D. Bail
53. A counsel de officio is generally given how many days to prepare
for trial?
A. 2 days
B. 3 days
C. 5 days
D. 15 days
54. What determines the jurisdiction in criminal cases?
A. Subject matter
B. Territory
C. Person accused
D. Extent of the penalty
55. Defined as a method fixed by law for the apprehension and
prosecution of persons alleged to have committed a crime, and for
their punishment in case of conviction.
A. Criminal justice system
B. Rules of court
C. Criminal procedure
D. Rules of procedure
56. Refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to be
exercised.
A. Venue
B. Jurisdiction
C. Jurisprudence
D. Trial courts
57. The procedure in witness examination is:
A. Direct, cross, re-direct, re-cross examination
B. Direct, re-direct, cross, re-cross examination
C. Cross, direct, re-direct, re-cross examination
D. Cross, direct, re-cross, re-direct examination
58. In the Philippine setting the system of criminal procedure is:
A. Fixed
B. Mixed
C. Inquisitorial
D. Accusatorial
59. A sworn statement charging a person with an offense subscribed by
the offended party, any peace officer or other peace officer charged
with the enforcement of the law violated.
A. Complaint
B. Charge sheet
C. Blotter
D. Information
60. Refers to the authority to hear and decide a case.
A. Venue
B. Jurisdiction
C. Jurisprudence
D. Hearing
61. Incoming telephone call at the police headquarters should be…
A. Channeled in order importance
B. Given immediate importance
C. Given low priority
D. Answered only after regular business is completed
62. Good personnel practice indicates that large public organization
should have some sort of a program for systematically dealing with
suggestions made by employees. Such program is usually most valued to
an organization is term of…
A. giving an objective basis for employees evaluation and rating.
B. fostering a sense of participation in individual employees.
C. developing a competitive spirit between employees and employee
group.
D. effecting long range monetary savings to the organization.
63. The supervisor of division B, who receives work from division A and
past it in to division C, decides that total flow of work could be
speeded up by the addition of a cover sheet indicating status of the
items of work at all times, whenever practicable the first step for
supervisor to take would be to…
A. discuss the change informally with supervisor A and C
B. discuss the change thoroughly with the staff of his division
C. examine the operations of divisions A and C in detail, to
determine how the change will affect them
D. develop a description of the revised procedures and forward it
to his superior indicating the savings that will result if it is
adopted
64. As a supervisor delegates to other his responsibility for
assignment or review of work, his own work will be increasingly likely
to…
A. Become simplified and less demanding
B. Emphasize coordinating activities
C. Become more complex and detailed
D. Diminished in scope
65. How often should personnel be transferred into new assignments? Is
the public interest best serve by long-term familiarity with one task,
or by a perspective born of varied police experience? From the police
administrators standpoint this problem is best solved by…
A. Frequent transfer of newer officers, letting them fit into place
as they gain experience.
B. Frequent transfer among desirable assignments but long-term
assignments to undesirable posts.
C. A firm policy of regular and automatic rotation between the
various line function of the department.
D. Fixed and permanent assignment of personnel, using transfers
largely a disciplinary tool
66. One of the following factors which is the most important
determinant of the degree to which the patrolman may resist the ever-
present temptation to corruption is the
A. Amount of participation in the activities of national
professional police organization.
B. Quality of leadership exerted by superior officers, especially
those in the immediate contact with the patrolman.
C. Thoroughness of training in department procedures given to new
members of the department.
D. Salary, hours of work, promotion opportunities, and type of
crime involve.
67. SPO 4 Maligalig, a police officer is doing very satisfactory work
on a rather simple and repetitive assignment. Test shows him to be
above average intelligence. A position, to which he could properly be
assigned, requiring exercise of some judgment and initiative, is
vacant. When told of the vacancy, he shows no particular desire
enthusiasm for the change. In the interest of good management, it
would be best to…
A. Give him trial on vacancy
B. Look for some else to fill the vacancy
C. Give him some instruction and see how he respond
D. Talk to his wife and family
68. A high degree of specialization, or division of work, is most
likely to create problems of…
A. Coordinating
B. Staffing
C. Controlling
D. Directing
69. A good executive is least likely to delegate responsibility for
A. Planning, involving investigation and experimentation
B. Coordination of the functions of the organization
C. The issuance of orders relating to employee conduct on the job
 D. The issuance of orders relating to method and processes
70. A specialist or expert rather than “all around” man is placed in
charged in which one of the following types of organization?
A. Line
B. Line and staff
C. Functional
D. Matrix

71. While it is desirable in one sense to minimize the police

executive’s span of control, this reduction may tend to block the
vertical flow of information, which is vital to the exercise of proper
executive control. One answer to this problem is for the police
executive to retain control of certain key activities. In this
context, “key activities” includes all of the following except
A. General patrol C. Vice control
B. Internal discipline D. Public relation

72. Staff is the of the commander.

A. Alter ego C. Reserve force
B. Extension D. Administrative bodyguard
73. The most important distinction between the operating unit and
service function of an administrative organization is that…
A. Service activities involve public relation to a greater extent
than operating activities
B. Service activities are functional while operating activities are
often termed “housekeeping”
C. Operating activities are an end in themselves, service
activities are a mean to an end.
D. Operating activities maybe thought of as institutional, while
service activities are of primary importance.
74. Command is synonymous with initiative and self-reliance in meeting
and accepting responsibilities. It follows from the statement that, in
attaining office rank, a man will be expected to consider that he
should…
A. Perform his duties without relying on his subordinates at all.
B. Stands on his own feet and assume full responsibilities for his
conduct.
C. Define responsibilities as identical with his acceptance.
D. Not take advice or suggestion from the members of the
department.
75. Ordinarily the best approach to the problem of simplification of
procedures is to…
A. Prepare and analyze a functional organization chart
B. Prepare and analyze a work flow chart
C. Analyze the job classification scheme
D. Do a job analysis by point rating
76. With respect to the allocation of authority in a public agency,
integration means nearly…
A. Delegating the responsibility for each integral department to a
department head
B. Placing responsibility for final decision in the hand of an
advisory council
C. Appoint an advisory committee to integrate activities
D. Providing for the administrator to refer all decision to the
chief executive for approval
77. Inspector Jack Ibagbaga is assigned to collect available
information concerning the activities of the Bukas Kotse Gang. He is
with what unit of the police?
A. Patrol C. Investigation
B. Vice D. Intelligence
78. Inspector Jack Ibagbaga submitted an intelligence report evaluated
as B-2. What does that mean?
A. Information is usually from reliable source and is possibly true
 B. Information is usually from unreliable source and is improbable
C. Information is usually from reliable source and probably true
D. Information is usually from unreliable source and is doubtfully
true
79. Home of the husband and wife.
A. House
B. Dwelling place
C. Home
D. Conjugal dwelling
80. It consists of any reprehensible deed or word that offends public
conscience.
A. Scandal
B. Unjust vexation
C. Indignity
D. Disgrace
81. What is needed to be proven that scandalous circumstance is an
element in the crime of concubinage?
A. If the man is legally married
B. If the mistress is kept outside the conjugal dwelling
C. If the mistress is a relative
D. If the mistress is a virgin
82. It means dwelling together as husband and wife.
A. Cohabit
B. Marriage
C. Live-in
D. Joint household
83. Which among the following may be considered as subjects requiring
expert opinion?
A. Medical science
B. Forensic science
C. Undeciphered writings
D. All of the foregoing
84. When it prompts the witness to give an answer the examiner wants to
hear it is said to be:
A. Leading question
B. Misleading question
C. Compound question
D. General question
85. The following are the criteria used to determine whether or not a
child regardless of age may be considered as a competent witness,
except:
A. Capacity of observation
B. Capacity of recollection
C. Capacity of communication
D. Capacity to think
86. What must be established, in addition to sexual intercourse in
cases of rape?
A. Use of force or intimidation by the offender
B. Resistance on the part of the victim
C. Position on the part of the offender
D. All of the foregoing
88. When taking a photograph with the purpose of showing a view that a
witness might have seen the camera, position would normally be
_______________.
A. in its normal position B. parallel to the subject matter
C. at eyes level D. Overhead
87. The last option in a hostage situation.
A. Negotiation B. Crowd control
C. Assault D. Giving in to demands
89. As a general rule, the warrant is directed to be served in
____________.
A. Any time of the day or night B. Any time
 C. Day time D. Any time of the day
90. Which of the following are crimes reported according to “arrests”
made by the police rather than crimes reported to the police?
A. Victimless crimes B. Non-index crimes
C. Hate crimes D. Index crimes
91. When do you post a “close case” stamp on a criminal case report?
A. Upon failure to establish a corpus delicti C. Upon death of
the subject
C.Upon completion of investigation D. facts are incomplete
92. Who among the following scientific aiders in crime detection can
inform the investigator as to the death of a person?
A. Fingerprint expert B. Medical examiner
C. Ballistician D. Cardiologists
93. Which refers to an inquiry or proceeding conducted by duly trained
members of a multidisciplinary team to determine whether child abuse
was of a committed?
A. Custodial interrogation B. Police interrogation
C. Police interview D. Disclosure interview
94. What is the modern procedure for coping with streets and highway
traffic by improving road efficiency?
A. Traffic engineering C. Traffic education
C. Traffic management D. Traffic direction
95. What is the key in gaining an inside informant from a terrorist
group?
A. Knowledge of frustration within the organization
B. Knowledge of the person and organization
C. Knowledge of the person
D. Knowledge of the organization
96. Refers to the state repeated administration of a drug or on a
periodic or on a continuing basis?
A. Habituation B. Drug dependence
C. Drug addiction D. Physical dependence
97. In crime scene photography, the crime photographer should be
interested only in _________.
A. taking the picture of relatives B. taking the view only
C. portraying the facts of the case D. taking good photographs
98. Which of the words below is NOT related to the others?
A. Reinstate
B. Augment
C. Fortify
D. Reinforce
99. What privilege can be availed of only once, by first offenders for
penalties of imprisonment not exceeding six (6) years?
A. Parole B. Probation
C. Psychological service D. Home life services
100. “dovetail” means _____________________.
A. Join
B. To agitate
C. End abruptly
D. Taper
101. When there is a collision between a train and a bus, which unit of
the police takes charge?
A. Homicide Division B. General investigation unit
C. Traffic investigation unit D. Traffic Management group
102. What is the most difficult challenge for an investigator regarding
informants?
A. Tapping outside source
B. Convincing an insider to “spill the beans”
C. Outsourcing information
D. Convincing a peripheral informant to act as witness
103. If a ball-point pen is used to write a document that is being
questioned, dictated standards to be obtained must be taken in which
of the following manner?
A. The whole dictated writing must be done also in ball-point pen.
B. Two sets of 10 sufficient standards must be taken. One set using
ball-point
pen and the other set using fountain pen.
C. One half of the dictated writing should be done using a ball-
point pen and
the other half in fountain pen.
D. Two sets of 10 sufficient standards must be taken. One set in
ball-point pen and the other is pencil.
104. Evidence which shows that best evidence existed as to the proof of
the fact in question.
A. Real evidence
B. Best evidence
C. Secondary evidence
D. Res gestae
105. Means sanctioned by the rules of court to ascertain the truth
respecting a matter of fact.
A. Proof
B. Intent
C. Motive
D. Evidence

KEY ANSWER
1. B 51. A
2. B 52. B
3. D 53. B
4. B 54. D
5. B 55. C
6. A 56. B
7. A 57. A
8. D 58. A
9. A 59. A
10. B 60. B
11. A 61. B
12. C 62. B
13. C 63. A
14. B 64. C
15. A 65. C
16. C 66. D
17. B 67. A
18. D 68. A
19. A 69. A
20. B 70. A
21. A 71. C
22. C 72. A
23. C 73. A
24. B 74. C
25. C 75. C
26. B 76. A
27. A 77. D
28. A 78. C
29. C 79. D
30. A 80. A
31. B 81. A
32. B 82. B
33. C 83. D
34. D 84. A
35. C 85. D
36. B 86. B
 37. B 87. C
38. D 88. C
39. B 89. A
40. A 90. D
41. A 91. C
42. C 92. B
43. D 93. D
44. C 94. C
45. D 95. B
46. C 96. C
47. C 97. D
48. D 98. A
49. C 99. B
50. C 100.A

101. C 102. D 103. A

104. A 105. D