The Developing Person Through the

Life Span 9th Edition By Kathleen

Stassen Berger – Test Bank

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Sample Questions
 

Cindy is doing a presentation on prenatal development and wants to present the thre
1. main periods of prenatal development in order from conception to birth. Cindy’s
presentation uses the following order:

  A) embryonic, germinal, and fetal

  B) fetal, embryonic, and germinal

  C) germinal, embryonic, and fetal

   D) germinal, fetal, and embryonic

2. Many obstetricians date the onset of pregnancy from the date of _____.

  A) conception

  B) the woman’s last menstrual period

  C) implantation

  D) when the woman had intercourse

During the germinal period of prenatal development, some cells become part of the b
3. some become part of the leg, and some become part of the stomach, etc. The term fo
process is _____.

  A) duplication

  B) division

  C) differentiation
   D) specialization

4. During the germinal period, the first task of the zygote’s outer cells is _____.

  A) differentiation

  B) duplication

  C) germination

  D) implantation

5. About _____ percent of natural conceptions never implant.

  A) 10

  B) 25

  C) 50

  D) 75
 

About a week after conception, the outer layer of the multiplying cells forms a protec
6.
circle, or shell, that will become the _____.

  A) placenta

  B) umbilical cord

  C) vernix

  D) infant

7. The germinal period ends approximately _____ after conception.

  A) 2 days

  B) 3 months

  C) 2 weeks

  D) 12 weeks

 
 

Jenny just learned that she is 6 weeks pregnant.  She is in the _____ period of prenat
8.
development.

  A) germinal

  B) embryonic

  C) fetal

  D) second

At the onset of the embryonic period, the _____ appears. It will eventually become the
9.
neural tube.

  A) stem cells

  B) spinal cord

  C) primitive streak

  D) placenta

 
 10. As part of embryonic development, the neural tube will become the _____.

  A) reproductive organs

  B) intestinal tract

  C) backbone, legs, and arms

  D) central nervous system, brain, and spinal cord

11. The head begins to take shape in the _____ week after conception.

  A) fourth

  B) fifth

  C) sixth

  D) seventh

12. In the fourth week after conception, a miniscule blood vessel that will become the __
 begins to pulsate.

  A) lungs

  B) stomach

  C) kidneys

  D) heart

A pregnant woman is having an ultrasound done eight weeks into prenatal developme
13. She is surprised by the size of the embryo’s head when she sees the image on the sc
The doctor reassures her that this is typical and due to the _____ pattern of developm

  A) proximodistal

  B) cephalocaudal

  C) neurogenesis

  D) synaptogenesis

 
 14. Prenatally, development happens in a “near-to-far” pattern known as _____.

  A) proximodistal

  B) cephalocaudal

  C) neurogenesis

  D) synaptogenesis

15. The longest period of prenatal development is the _____ period.

  A) embryonic

  B) fetal

  C) proximodistal

  D) germinal

16. Johnny’s mom is four months pregnant. Johnny is anxious for the new baby and asks
many more months until I’m a big brother?” His mother says he has to wait about ____
 more months.

  A) 2

  B) 3

  C) 4

  D) 5

17. The third period of gestation is the _____ period.

  A) zygotic

  B) embryonic

  C) germinal

  D) fetal

18. By the end of the ____prenatal month, sex organs develop and are soon visible via
 ultrasound.

  A) second

  B) third

  C) fourth

  D) fifth

19. What happens to the brain during the fetal period of development?

  A) It goes through a process of regeneration.

  B) Synapses decrease in number.

  C) It increases in size.

  D) The number of neurons decreases.

20. The age of viability is the time when the preterm newborn _____.
   A) might survive outside the uterus

  B) begins to move

  C) will be born without defects

  D) has developed all its major organs

Harry was a preterm newborn who was born after 26 weeks of prenatal development
21. now is a healthy, happy 2-year-old. Harry’s ability to survive after being born so early
due in part to his reaching the _____.

  A) term of postnatal development

  B) germinal period

  C) neurogenesis point

  D) age of viability

22. The critical factor in attaining the age of viability is _____.

   A) weighing at least 5 pounds (2.3 kg)

  B) having adequate brain development

  C) having functioning digestive and respiratory systems

  D) surviving at least 28 weeks past conception

On average, fetuses gain about _____ pounds during the last trimester of pregnancy, w
23.
brings the average birth weight to about 7.5 pounds.

  A) 1.5

  B) 2.5

  C) 4.5

  D) 6.5

24. In a first birth, the average length of active labor is _____.

  A) several days
   B) about 12 hours

  C) about 8 hours

  D) a few minutes

25. In the third stage of labor, the _____.

  A) cervix begins to dilate

  B) baby’s head moves into the birth canal

  C) mother experiences intense contractions

  D) placenta is delivered

At around 38 weeks after conception, the _____ starts the sequence of events that pre
26.
the fetus for delivery and starts labor.

  A) fetal brain
   B) maternal brain

  C) placenta

  D) germinal period

27. When healthy babies are born, they usually _____.

  A) do not breathe on their own until the umbilical cord is cut

  B) do not cry until the umbilical cord is cut

  C) breathe and cry on their own immediately

  D) breathe on their own, and cry when the umbilical cord is cut

28. Each of the following is usually done immediately after birth EXCEPT the _____.

  A) mucus in a baby’s throat is removed

   B) baby is weighed and examined

  C) umbilical cord is cut

  D) baby is assessed for eye color

29. The Apgar scale is used at one minute and five minutes after birth to _____.

  A) evaluate the newborn’s sensory abilities

  B) evaluate the health of the new mother

  C) help the mother recover from childbirth

  D) evaluate the health of the newborn

A baby is assessed at one minute after birth according to the Apgar scale. Three of th
30. vital signs are good, but the baby is weak and inactive and grimaces. The two vital s
the medical team is concerned about are _____.

  A) muscle tone and heartbeat

   B) respiratory effect and color

  C) muscle tone and reflex irritability

  D) reflex irritability and respiratory effect

31. Henry was just given the five-minute Apgar and his score was 4. This means Henry is

  A) experiencing good health

  B) a slow-to-warm-up infant

  C) in need of emergency medical attention

  D) in average health

32. The birth process depends on all of the following EXCEPT _____.

  A) customs of the culture

  B) position and size of the fetus

   C) parents’ preparation

  D) parents’ genetic heritage

A surgical birth, in which incisions through the mother’s abdomen and uterus allow th
33.
fetus to be removed quickly, is also referred to as a(n) _____.

  A) epidural

  B) cesarean section

  C) induced labor

  D) doula

34. In the United States, more than _____ of births occur via c-section.

  A) 1/3

  B) 1/2

  C) 2/3
   D) 3/4

35. Compared to vaginal births, c-section births _____.

  A) are less expensive

  B) increase the risk of complications after birth

  C) usually take longer

  D) are less safe for the baby

Epidurals, often used in hospital births to manage pain during childbirth, have been s
36.
to _____.

  A) help prevent unnecessary c-sections

  B) encourage breast-feeding from the beginning

  C) decrease the newborn’s readiness to suck

   D) induce labor

37. Labor that is started, speeded, or strengthened with a drug is referred to as _____.

  A) a home birth

  B) induced labor

  C) a cesarean section

  D) an epidural

Holly was two weeks over her due date. The doctor decided it was best for Holly to _
38.
labor due to the increasing size of the fetus.

  A) postpone

  B) induce

  C) skip over
   D) decrease

39. Currently in the United States, newborn mortality is about _____.

  A) 1 in 100

  B) 1 in 150

  C) 1 in 200

  D) 1 in 250

40. Which of the following is TRUE about rates for c-sections and epidurals?

  A) They have been relatively steady over the past three decades.

  B) They are the same in the United States as in most other developed nations.

  C) They vary by doctor, hospital, and even day of the week.

   D) They are higher for births attended by midwives.

41. Most births in the United States take place in _____.

  A) birthing centers

  B) hospital labor rooms

  C) homes

  D) pools of water

An alternative to giving birth in a hospital is to arrange to give birth at home. In the U

42.
States, less than _____ of births occur at home.

  A) 1 percent

  B) 5 percent

  C) 10 percent

  D) 15 percent
 

A person who supports a mother through the birth process from early labor at home
43.
through delivery at home or in a hospital is called a _____.

  A) humanitarian

  B) doctor

  C) postpartum nurse

  D) doula

Tina went into labor at her home. Joan arrived soon after and began to time her
contractions and give gentle massages. She assisted Tina and her partner when it w
44.
time to leave for the hospital and accompanied them through the birth process. Joan
Tina’s _____.

  A) postpartum nurse

  B) doctor

  C) couvade
   D) doula

45. Research indicates that _____ can benefit from a doula-assisted birth.

  A) low-income women

  B) married women

  C) mothers of multiples

  D) all women

46. A teratogen is any agent or condition that increases the risk for _____.

  A) prenatal abnormalities

  B) damage to the placenta

  C) extra chromosomes
   D) male infertility

Rita is one month pregnant and consults with her doctor about the different categorie
47. teratogens. The doctor tells her that all of the following are categories of teratogens
EXCEPT _____.

  A) drugs

  B) pollutants

  C) the media

  D) viruses

Agents and conditions that can harm the prenatal brain, impairing the future child’s
48.
intellectual and emotional functioning, are called _____.

  A) chromosomal abnormalities

  B) genetic mutations

  C) cell differentiation
   D) behavioral teratogens

Jill is 5 years old. She has been diagnosed with ADHD and shows signs of learning
49. disabilities. Her doctor suggests that Jill’s problems could be the result of prenatal
exposure to _____, though he stresses that the link is not straightforward at this time.

  A) chromosomal abnormalities

  B) genetic abnormalities

  C) cell differentiation

  D) behavioral teratogens

50. With respect to prenatal development, teratogens _____.

  A) increase the risk of prenatal abnormalities

  B) decrease the risk of prenatal abnormalities

  C) always cause prenatal abnormalities

   D) do not cause prenatal abnormalities

Chantal and Larry are considering having a baby. Chantal’s doctor recommends that
51.
stop using recreational drugs and update their immunizations _____.

  A) before Chantal gets pregnant

  B) as soon as Chantal knows she is pregnant

  C) anytime during the first trimester of pregnancy

  D) as soon as the baby is born

The first days and weeks after conception (the germinal and embryonic periods) are _
52.
for body formation, but health during the entire fetal period affects the _____.

  A) sensitive; heart

  B) critical; brain

  C) sensitive; brain
   D) critical; heart

53. Some teratogens have a threshold effect, which means that they are _____.

  A) harmful no matter what the level of exposure

  B) rarely harmful

  C) harmless until exposure reaches a certain level

  D) always harmless

Thresholds, as they relate to harm from any teratogen, are difficult to set because on
54.
teratogen may _____ the threshold of another teratogen.

  A) reduce

  B) increase

  C) cancel

  D) improve
 

Mandy is pregnant yet she still has four alcoholic drinks each day. Her baby may be a
55.
increased risk for the development of _____.

  A) fetal alcohol syndrome

  B) fetal anoxia syndrome

  C) fetal alcohol situation

  D) functional alcohol syndrome

A woman carrying dizygotic twins drinks alcohol. The twins’ blood alcohol levels are
yet one twin may be more severely affected than the other because their alleles for t
56.
enzyme that metabolizes alcohol differ. This is evidence that the _____ influence the e
of teratogens.

  A) kinds of substance

  B) genes of the parent

  C) genes of the embryo/fetus

   D) doses of teratogen

57. All of the following factors influence the effects of teratogens EXCEPT for _____.

  A) timing of the teratogen

  B) awareness of the parent

  C) genes of the embryo/fetus

  D) dose and/or frequency of teratogen

58. Low folic acid during pregnancy can result in _____.

  A) heart defects

  B) lung defects

  C) limb deformities
   D) neural-tube defects

Alice is pregnant and wants to ensure that she does everything she can to prevent th
59. occurrence of a neural-tube defect in her child. She makes sure that she has the prop
amount of _____ in her diet.

  A) vitamin D

  B) zinc

  C) folic acid

  D) vitamin K

Early prenatal care can help decrease the risk of prenatal abnormalities; however, it
60.
CANNOT provide pregnant women with information about _____.

  A) substances to avoid

  B) proper nutrition

  C) exact thresholds for teratogens

   D) treatments for preexisting conditions

61. Pregnant women should _____.

  A) rely on self-education for information about pregnancy

  B) never trust their doctors’ advice and treatment recommendations

consider their doctors’ advice and treatment recommendations and engage in s

  C)
self-education about pregnancy

  D) avoid prenatal care in the early months of pregnancy

62. When it comes to the research on prenatal development and teratogens, scientists __

  A) always agree on the interpretation of research

  B) can disagree on the interpretation of research

  C) have not yet started to analyze the data

  D) tend to disagree with doctors

 

Gabby received good quality prenatal care from the care team at her local hospital. S
63. was informed about what to eat and what to do. They also coached her on what to __
such as cigarette smoking and very high stress.

  A) avoid

  B) seek out

  C) experience

  D) continue

64. Genetic counseling may be most useful to parents at which of the following stages?

  A) before becoming pregnant

  B) during the last month of pregnancy

  C) during delivery
   D) after the birth of a special needs child

65. A common reason that couples do not seek genetic counseling is that _____.

  A) they have never been exposed to teratogens

  B) they already eat a well-balanced diet

  C) their pregnancy is unplanned

  D) they are well over the age of 35

With respect to test results, a false negative is the result of a laboratory test that rep
66.
something as _____.

  A) true when in fact it is not true

  B) false when in fact it is not false

  C) true when in fact it is true

  D) false when in fact it is false

 

67. Babies born under 1,000 grams (2 pounds 3 ounces) are considered _____.

  A) low birthweight

  B) very low birthweight

  C) extremely low birthweight

  D) ultra low birthweight

68. Babies born slightly under 1,500 grams (3 pounds 5 ounces) are considered _____.

  A) low birthweight

  B) very low birthweight

  C) extremely low birthweight

  D) ultra low birthweight

 

69. Babies born slightly under 2,500 grams are considered _____.

  A) low birthweight

  B) very low birthweight

  C) extremely low birthweight

  D) ultra low birthweight

70. A baby born three or more weeks early is called _____.

  A) premature

  B) preterm

  C) low birthweight

  D) small for gestational age

 
 A baby whose birthweight is significantly lower than expected given the time since
71.
conception is referred to as _____.

  A) preterm

  B) premature

  C) low birthweight

  D) small for gestational age

72. Cigarette smoking is implicated in _____ percent of all low-birthweight births worldwid

  A) 10

  B) 15

  C) 20

  D) 25

73. Bruno and Juliana moved to the United States from Mexico two years ago and just ha
 their first baby. Although Bruno and Juliana’s SES is lower than their native-born pee
their baby was born at a healthy weight, due in part to the support of their social netw
This phenomenon is called the _____.

  A) immigrant paradox

  B) Hispanic paradox

  C) native-born paradox

  D) SES paradox

74. Adults who were low-birthweight babies have higher rates of _____.

  A) diabetes

  B) malnutrition

  C) normal-range weight

  D) obesity

 
 75. Which is NOT a possible consequence of low birthweight?

  A) infant death (within the first year of life)

  B) delayed walking

  C) hearing impairment

  D) speech impediment

The frequency of low birthweight in the United States _____ throughout most of the
76.
twentieth century, and then _____ in the 1990s and early 2000s.

  A) decreased; increased

  B) increased; decreased

  C) decreased; remained stable

  D) increased; remained stable

77. Statistically, which woman is MOST apt to have a baby with low birthweight?
   A) Ashley, who is 27 years old and middle-class SES

  B) Jody, who has been diagnosed with diabetes

  C) Kate, who regularly misses meals

  D) Delfina, who is a Hispanic immigrant

In the United States, which is NOT a potential reason for the rise in the frequency of
78.
birthweight babies?

  A) food insecurity

  B) drug use

  C) cigarette use

  D) genetic factors

79. Birth complications are likely EXCEPT when _____.

   A) a baby is preterm

  B) a mother is over age 40

  C) a baby has a genetic abnormality

  D) a mother is unmarried

Sammy is 5 years old and spends his day in a wheelchair, assisted by an aid. Sammy
80. control any of his muscles due to brain damage, but he is extremely intelligent. Samm
condition has been evident since birth. Sammy has _____.

  A) anoxia

  B) cerebral palsy

  C) Huntington disease

  D) Parkinson’s disease

 
 Cerebral palsy was once thought to be the result of something that happened during
81.
birth procedure, but we now know it can result from each of the following EXCEPT __

  A) genetic vulnerability

  B) teratogens

  C) maternal infection

  D) Huntington disease

82. Anoxia refers to _____.

  A) cerebral hemorrhaging

  B) signs of cerebral palsy

  C) a lack of oxygen

  D) toxic substances in the bloodstream

83. When Alexia was born, she had a lack of oxygen for a small amount of time. Alexia
 experienced _____.

  A) cerebral hemorrhaging

  B) cerebral palsy

  C) couvade

  D) anoxia

Parents of newborn Renata are amazed at their daughter’s responsiveness and reflex
84.
when a professional administers the _____.

  A) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale

  B) Apgar scale

  C) Child Behavioral Checklist

  D) Strange Situation

85. When infants turn their heads and suck in response to a touch on the cheek, they are
 demonstrating the _____.

  A) Moro reflex

  B) rooting reflex

  C) sucking reflex

  D) thrashing reflex

86. Newborn babies do NOT have reflexes designed to _____.

  A) maintain oxygen supply

  B) maintain a constant body temperature

  C) adjust to the difference between day and night

  D) manage feeding

87. A father’s presence at a child’s birth _____.

   A) has no impact on birth complications

  B) only has an impact on birth complications if the mother and father are married

  C) reduces the likelihood of birth complications

  D) increases the likelihood of birth complications

The phenomenon in which fathers experience symptoms of pregnancy and birth is kn

88.
as _____.

  A) postpartum depression

  B) couvade

  C) false labor

  D) the Moro reflex

While Bill’s wife was pregnant, he experienced weight gain and indigestion. When she
89.
birth, he felt sharp physical pain as well. Bill was experiencing _____.
   A) postpartum depression

  B) couvade

  C) false labor

  D) the Moro reflex

90. Postpartum depression _____.

  A) is a normal development and no cause for concern

  B) has no treatment

  C) does not typically interfere with the care of a newborn

  D) can be mitigated by successful breast-feeding

Julia had a baby three weeks ago. She has been feeling sad and inadequate as a mot
91.
which has made caring for her newborn difficult. Julia may be experiencing _____.

  A) post-traumatic stress disorder

   B) postpartum depression

  C) generalized anxiety disorder

  D) separation anxiety

Kelley just had a baby and now is experiencing a sense of inadequacy and sadness. S
92.
may have _____.

  A) couvade

  B) behavioral teratogens

  C) kangaroo care

  D) postpartum depression

93. Studies indicate that _____ may mitigate maternal depression.

  A) breast-feeding
   B) having a home birth

  C) couvade

  D) epidurals

A commitment by both parents to cooperate in raising the child is referred to as pare

94.
_____.

  A) alliance

  B) cooperation

  C) commitment

  D) support

95. Rebecca and Bob just had a baby. They agreed that they would each be responsible f
baby every other evening to give the other parent a break from childcare. They have
discussed how to share responsibility for daycare drop off and pick up once they are
 back at work. Rebecca and Bob are demonstrating _____.

  A) parental alliance

  B) bonding

  C) postpartum depression

  D) couvade

The strong, loving connection that forms as parents hold, examine, and feed their new
96.
is called _____.

  A) couvade

  B) a doula

  C) kangaroo care

  D) the parent–infant bond

97. Phil is holding his newborn child for the first time and is overwhelmed by the love he
 for his child. What Phil is experiencing is called _____.

  A) couvade

  B) a doula

  C) kangaroo care

  D) the parent–infant bond

A form of newborn care in which mothers (and sometimes fathers) rest their babies o
98.
their naked chests is called _____.

  A) couvade

  B) a doula

  C) kangaroo care

  D) parent–infant bond

99. Rumasia places her baby on her chest so that they are skin to skin. This is called ___
   A) couvade

  B) a doula

  C) kangaroo care

  D) parent–infant bond

Kangaroo care has been associated with a newborn doing all of the following EXCEPT
100.
_____.

  A) sleeping more deeply

  B) gaining weight more quickly

  C) spending more time alert

  D) smiling at a younger age

1. Every person starts life as a single cell called an embryo.

   A) True

  B) False

2. The first two weeks of prenatal development are called the fetal period.

  A) True

  B) False

3. Couvade is when the zygote embeds itself into the lining of the uterus.

  A) True

  B) False