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Production Technology
(Classroom Practice Questions)

04. In a non pressurized gating system, an

1. Metal Casting
aluminum alloy is poured at a flow rate of

01. The permeability of molding sand was 1.6×10-3 m3/sec through a sprue with a base

determined using a standard AFS sample by cross sectional area of 800 mm2. If the friction

passing 2000 cc of air at a gage pressure of losses in the sprue are neglected, the height

5 g/cm2. If the time taken for the air to of the sprue is

escape was 2 min, the permeability number (a) 200 mm (b) 150 mm

is: (c) 250 mm (d) 300 mm

(a) 112.4 (b) 100.2

05. A cylinder of 150 mm dia. & 200 mm height
(c) 75.3 (d) 50.1
is to be cast with out any riser. The cylinder is
02. In sand casting of hollow part of lead, a moulded entirely in the drag of a green sand
cylindrical core of diameter 120 mm and flask & is top gated. The cope of the flask
height 180 mm is placed inside the mould is 200 mm height & the height of the metal
cavity. The densities of core material and during pouring is 50 mm above the cope.
lead are 1600 kg/m3 and 11300 kg/m3 A tapered sprue is employed & the gating
respectively. The net force (in N) that tends ratio is 1:1.5:2. The time taken (in seconds)
to lift the core during pouring of molten to fill the casting cavity neglecting energy
metal will be losses, if the in-gate area is 400 mm2.
(a) 19.7 (b) 64.5 (a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 193.7 (d) 257.6 (c) 8 (d) 15

03. The height of the down sprue is 175 mm and

its CS area at the base is 200 mm2. The CS 06. The pouring basin in a sand mold is 200 mm

area of the horizontal runner is also 200 mm2. diameter 100 mm height. The mold cavity is

Assuming no losses, indicate the correct a cube of 35 mm side and must be filled in

choice for the time (seconds) required to fill 25 seconds. The maximum velocity must

a mold cavity of volume 2×106 mm3. (Use g ensure laminar flow into the mold cavity and

=10 m/s2) in the gates of circular cross section.

(a) 5.34 (b) 8.45 Assume

(c) 26.72 (d) 84.50 (a) constant temperature,

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(b) no loss in the velocity head and
(c) diameter of gate = 8 times diameter
at the sprue base. Properties of the
molten metal are ν = 0.9 cm2/sec, ρ =
700 kg/m & Cp = 33.6 J/mol-K.
3
The diameter of sprue to avoid aspiration
effect (c) cannot say due to insufficient data
(a) 3 cm (b) 2.2 cm
(c) 1.21 mm (d) none
07. A 200 mm long down sprue has an area of
cross section of 650 mm where the pouring
2
basin meets the down sprue (i.e. at the
beginning of the down sprue). A constant
head of molten metal is maintaining by the
pouring basin. The molten metal flow rate is
6.5×10 mm /s. Considering the end of down
5 3
sprue to be open to atmosphere and an
acceleration due to gravity of 10 mm/s ,
the area of the down sprue in mm2 at its end
(avoiding aspiration effect) should be
Pouring
Basin
650 mm2
200 mm
Area of
down sprue
at its ends
(a) 650 (b) 350 the same conditions. What is the ratio in the
(c) 290.7 (d) 190.0
Common Data for Questions 08 & 09
A sprue is 250 mm long and has a diameter of
225 mm at the top, molten metal above top of
sprue is 100 mm. If a desired flow rate of 40× 10
mm /sec, assuming the atmospheric pressure at
3
the bottom of the sprue.
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2 Production Technology
08. The dia. of the bottom of the sprue is
(a) 50 (b) 80 (c) 115 (d) 140
09. Will this sprue aspirate?
(a) yes
(b) No
Common Data for Questions 10 & 11
Three castings are of the same material, volume
and cast under similar conditions. One is a sphere,
another is a cube and the third is cylinder with its
length being equal to its diameter.
10. The ratio of solidification times of sphere to
the cube is
(a) 1.54 (b) 0.65
(c) 0.848 (d) 1.3
4 2
11. The solidification time of the sphere to the
cylinder.
(a) 0.767 (b) 1.3 (c) 1.18 (d) none
12. A round casting is 20 mm in diameter and
50 mm in length. Another casting of the
same metal is elliptical in cross-section, with
a major to minor axis ratio of 2, and has the
same length and cross-sectional area as the
round casting. Both pieces are cast under
solidification times of the two castings ?
13. Heat is removed from a molten metal of
mass 2 kg at a constant rate of 10 kW till it
is completely solidified. The cooling curve is
6
shown in the figure.

1100
(0s, 2023K)
1000
Temperature (K)
900 (20s, 873K)
800 (10s, 873K)
700
600
(30s, 600K)
500
0 10 20 30
Time (s)
Assuming uniform temperature throughout
the volume of the metal during solidification,
the latent heat of fusion of the metal (in kJ/
kg) is __________
14. If the freezing ratio equal to (casting area/
casting volume)/(riser area /riser volume) &
the volumetric ratio equal to riser volume/
casting volume, for a disc casting of 20 cm
diameter and 10 cm thick are 1.4 and 0.8
respectively. The corresponding values for a
square disc of 20 cm side and 10 cm thick
if the same cylindrical riser with a height to
diameter ratio of unity is used in both cases.
(a) 1.4 & 0.68 (b) 1.4 & 0.8 min in the riser, the diameter (in mm ) of the
(c) 1.2 & 0.8 (d) 1.2 & 0.68
15. A steel plate 40 cm × 30 cm × 0.3 cm is to be
cast. The volume shrinkage of steel during
solidification is 3%. A cylindrical side riser with
diameter 4cm and height 4cm is used. The
riser volume should at least be 3 times that
the dictated by shrinkage consideration. Is
the riser volume sufficient if not what is the
riser size?
(a) 4.35 cm (b) 4.0 cm
(c) 10 cm (d) none
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3 Objective Practice Questions
Common Data for Questions 16 & 17
For true centrifugal casting process with the axis of
rotation in horizontal direction, an acceleration of
75g, where ‘g’ is the acceleration due to gravity,
is required for sound casting.
16. The relation between diameter ‘D’ (in mm)
and the rotational speed N (1rev/s) for this
casting is N2D = constant, the constant
is
40 (a) 37273 (b) 7273
(c) 3727 (d) none
17. The mould speed (in rev/sec) for casting CI
pipes of 5 m long with outside and inside
diameters of 0.52 m and 0.5 m respectively is
(a) 8.5 (b) 85 (c) 270 (d) 27
18. For sand casting a steel rectangular plate
with dimensions 80 mm X 120 mm X 20 mm.
A cylindrical riser has to be designed. The
height of the riser is equal to its diameter.
The total solidification time for the casting is
2 min. in Chvorinov’s law for the estimation
of the total solidification time , exponent is
to be taken as 2. For a solidification time of 3
riser is ______
19. Calculate the gating dimensions to avoid
aspiration effect with a gating ratio of 1:2:2 for
a ductile iron casting with top gating system
having mass of molten metal to be poured
is 30 Kg and density is 7.8 g/cc. Take the
time taken for filling the molten metal is 12.6
seconds and height of molten metal during
pouring is 250 mm with height of sprue as
200 mm.
 4 Production Technology

20. A pressure die casting set-up was tested Codes:

by injecting water (density 1000kg/m ) at a 3
(a) P–1, Q–2, R–3, S–4
pressure of 200 bar. Mould filling time was (b) P–2, Q–1, R–4, S–3
found to be 0.05s. Afterwards, the actual (c) P–3, Q–4, R–1, S–2
casting is made by injecting the liquid metal (d) P–4, Q–3, R–2, S–1
(2000 kg/m ) at an injection pressure of 400
3

bar. Neglect all losses ( friction, viscous, etc.). 23. The characteristics of investment casting are
The approximate mould filling time (in sec.) is 1. Wax is used as pattern material
___________ 2. Excellent surface finish
3. Any material any size can be casted
21. Match the following List – I (sand property) 4. Turbine and jet engine blades can be
with List – II (method of testing) produced by using this
List – I List – II (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4
(Sand property) (method of testing) (c) 1, 2, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4
P. Porosity 1. Sieve analysis
Q. Grain size 2. Shear test 24. The typical considerations to be taken during
R. Cohesiveness 3. UTM designing of gating system are
S. Strength 4. Permeability test 1. Pouring time should be as high as possible
2. No part of the cavity should start before
Codes: solidifying completely filling of the cavity
(a) P–1, Q–2, R–3, S–4 3. The cross section of runner and ingate
(b) P–4, Q–1, R–2, S–3 should be trapezoidal
(c) P–3, Q–4, R–1, S–2 4. 1:2:1 for pressurized gating system
(d) P–4, Q–3, R–2, S–1
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
22. Match the following (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
List – I (Casting process)
P. Shell Mold Casting 25. Which of the following statements are correct
Q. Investment casting with respect to riser design in casting process
R. Die casting 1. For the top cylindrical riser, the optimum
S. Centrifugal casting relation between diameter “D” and
height “H” is D = H
List – II (Limitation) 2. For the side cylindrical riser, the optimum
1. Axis of rotation is only in horizontal relation between diameter “D” and
2. Only for low Melting point materials height “H” is D = 2H
3. Upto 5 kg castings 3. For uniform cross section castings, the
4. Phenolic Resin as mold material riser is provided at the top most point of
5. Only wood pattern casting cavity.

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 5 Objective Practice Questions

4. In modulus method, modulus of riser is 28. Match the following List-I (Additives) with List
taken as 20% higher than modulus of –II (Application) :
casting List – I
P. Coal powder
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1, 2 & 4 Q. Dextrin
(c) 3 & 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4 R. Wood powder
S. Starch
26. The shrinkage allowance on pattern depends
on List – II
1. Size of casting 1. Increasing Porosity property
2. Coefficient of linear thermal expansion of 2. Increasing Refractoriness
metal 3. Increasing Resistance to deformation
3. Melting point temperature of metal 4. Increasing flowability
4. Room temperature
5. Pouring temperature Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 & 4 (b) 2, 3 & 5 (a) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
(c) 3, 4 & 5 (d) 1, 2, 3 & 5 (b) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
(c) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4
27. Match the following : (d) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
List – I (Defect in Casting)
P. Shrinkage Cavity 29. The following elements are used in casting
Q. Misrun process.
R. Sand Inclusion 1. Strainer is used to filter impurities present in
S. Blister molten metal
2. Skim-bob is used to avoid air aspiration
List – II (Remedy) effect
1. Venting 3. Pouring basin is used as reservoir for
2. Providing strainer supplying molten metal to compensate
3. Chills liquid shrinkages
4. Chaplets 4. Splash core is used to avoid sand erosion
5. High pouring temperature during pouring of molten metal into cavity
6. Providing Splash core
Which of the above accessories and their
Codes : usages are correct ?
(a) P–4, Q–2, R–6, S–5 (a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 2, 3 & 4
(b) P–3, Q–4, R–2, S–6 (c) 1, 3 & 4 (d) 1 & 4
(c) P–3, Q–5, R–6, S–1
(d) P–4, Q–6, R–2, S–5

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 6 Production Technology

30. Match list – I (Casting defect) with list – II 32. Which of the following statements are
(Remedy) : INCORRECT
List – I In casting process
(P) Shrinkage cavity 1. Strainer is used for filtering impurities
(Q) Misrun present in molten metal.
(R) Blister 2. Skim bob is used to avoid sand erosion
(S) Rat tail during pouring of molten metal
List – II 3. Riser is used for compensating solid
1. Adding additives such as saw dust, cereal shrinkage during solidification
hulls, cow dung or horse manure. 4. Straight tapered circular cross section
2. Providing vent holes. sprue is used in casting to avoid aspiration
3. Increasing degree of superheat of molten effect.
metal. (a) 1 & 2 (b) 2 & 3
4. Providing chaplets. (c) 3 & 4 (d) 2 & 4
5. Providing chills.
Codes: 33. In a gating system, the cross sectional area of
P Q R S the
(a) 4 3 2 1 1. Runner is 400 mm2,
(b) 5 3 2 1 2. Sprue is 200 mm2,
(c) 4 3 1 2 3. Ingate is 300 mm2,
(d) 5 3 1 2 In the definition of the gating ratio the above
areas are arranged from left to right are
31. Match list I and list II :
List – I (a) 1 – 2 – 3 (b) 2 – 3 – 1
(P) Strainer (c) 2 – 1 – 3 (d) 3 – 2 – 1
(Q) Splash core
(R) Skim bob 34. Assertion (A): No core is required for producing
(S) Tapered sprue hallow parts using centrifugal casting process.
List – II Reason (R): In centrifugal casting the speed
1. Filters the slag of rotation is high so that the centripetal
2. Separate lighter and heavier impurities. acceleration is as high as 75g.
3. Avoids aspiration. (a) A & R are true and R explains A
4. Avoids sand erosion. (b) A&R are true and R doesn’t explains A
Codes : (c) A true but R is False
(a) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (d) A is false but R is true
(b) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
(c) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
(d) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3

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35. Assertion (A): Core prints are used for
supporting, locating and positioning of cores.
Reason (R): In addition to the supporting,
chaplets, also gives directional solidification.
36. Assertion (A): Cores are generally made by
using dry sand with CO2 molding process.
Reason (R): The high strength obtained in the
core due to formation of silica gel will lost
longer period and makes the process easier.
37. Assertion (A): Parabolic curvature sprue is not
commonly used because they are difficult to
manufacture.
Reason (R): Parabolic curvature sprue gives
“zero” gauge pressure all along its length.
38. Assertion (A): Investment casting process can
be used for producing complex and intricate
shapes with the use of semi-permanent
moulds and the casting produced will have
hardened skin and soft interior.
Reason (R): Wax patterns can be removed
very easily in the form of liquid by heating the
mould and if the cement concrete is used as
mould material in investment casting process.
39. Assertion (A): Saw dust is used in molding can
improve porosity property of molding sand.
Reason (R): Inhalation of air
aspiration effect in casting and produces
blow holes in casting
40. The following are the stages under which the
shrinkage is taking place during casting
1. Shrinkage of molten metal when reducing
from pouring temperature to freezing
temperature.
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7 Objective Practice Questions
2. Shrinkage of molten metal during freezing
3. Shrinkage of solid metal when reducing
from freezing temperature to room
temperature
The Riser in casting is provided to compensate
(a) 1 & 2 (b) 2 & 3
(c) 1 & 3 (d) 1, 2 & 3
KEY
01. (d) 02. (c) 03. (a) 04. (a) 05. (c)
06. (c) 07. (c) 08. (d) 09. (b) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (1.205) 13. (50) 14. (a) 15. (b)
16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (51.84mm)
19. (13.25 mm) 20. (0.05) 21. (b) 22. (d)
23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (c)
28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (b)
33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (b)
38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (a)
2. Welding
01. A DC welding machine with a linear power
source characteristic provides open circuit
voltage of 80 V and short circuit current of
800 A. During welding with the machine, the
measured arc current is 500 A corresponding
promotes to an arc length of 5.0 mm and the measured
arc current I 460 A corresponding to an arc
length of 7.0 mm. The linear voltage (E) – arc
length (L) characteristic of the welding arc
can be given as (where E is in Volts and L is in
mm)
(a) E = 20 + 2L (b) E = 20 + 8L
(c) E = 80 + 2L (d) E = 80 + 8L

02. In MIG welding the power source characteristic
I
is VP = 36 − and the arc characteristic is Va =
60
2la + 27 where Vp and Va voltage, I current, la
arc length in mm. Find the change in power
of the arc if the arc length is changed from 2
mm to 4 mm. If the maximum current capacity
of the power source is 360 amps, find the
minimum arc length sustainable ? done to account for weld crowning and Take root
03. The voltage – length characteristic of a direct
current arc in an arc welding process is
V = (100 + 40l), where l is the length of the
arc in mm and V is arc voltage in volts.
During a welding operation, the arc length
varies between 1 and 2 mm and the welding
current is in the range 200-250 A. Assuming a
linear power source, the short circuit current is
_________ A.
04. A resistance welder is rated at 50 KVA, at
50% duty cycle. Secondary voltage is always
constant at 25 volts. If a job requires 1500
Amps current, the maximum welding time in
a total cycle time of 30 secs is ___
05. Two plates with symmetrical
penetration of V angle 60 deg are to be arc
welded in a single pass. The power P(KW) -arc
length L (mm) characteristic is given by P = 4
+ 0.8L - 0.1L . Assuming that the top surface
2
of the weld is flat & flush with the plate top
surface, & the energy losses are 20%, The
density of filler material is 8 gm/cc and the
energy required to melt 1 gm is 1400 joules.
The plate dimensions are 1000 mm length & 5
mm thickness. The maximum welding speed is
________
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8 Production Technology
Common Data for Questions 06, 07 & 08
Multi pass SMAW is to be used to make a butt
weld 1m long in 30 mm thick MS plate. The single
V- joint configuration with 60 deg V- angle is done.
Assume that 4 mm dia 450 mm long electrodes
are used for welding. The stubbing loss is 50 mm
length of electrode and 10% extra filling is to be
gap = 4 mm.
06. The no. of electrodes required for doing this is
(a) 28 (b) 50
(c) 100 (d) 140
07. If the welder deposits 200 mm length of weld
bead per electrode, the no of passes required
is
(a) 5 (b) 10
(c) 22 (d) 28
08. The total welding time if the welding speed is
100 mm/min (assume that arc-on time 60% of
the total welding time) is
(a) 50 min (b) 100 min
(c) 466.67 min (d) 280 min
V joint
09. The cross section weld bead is shown in fig the
profile of the bead and the fusion zone are
taken circular for convenience. Bead width
and radii of curvature of circular profiles are
given in fig. The bead height and depth of
penetration are ________
10mm
r = 7 mm
r=20mm
 9 Objective Practice Questions

Common Data for Questions 10 & 11
A weld is made using MIG welding process with
the following welding parameters:
Current: 200 A; Voltage: 25 V; spherical bridge is 0.2 mm and the number of
Welding speed: 18 cm/min;
Wire diameter: 1.2 mm;
Wire feed rate: 4 m/min;
Thermal efficiency of the process: 65%
10. The heat input per unit length of the weld in
kJ/cm is:
(a) 0.18 (b) 0.28 case to the 2nd case is _______
(c) 10.83 (d) 16.66
11. The area of cross section of weld bead in
mm2 is:
(a) 16.3 (b) 25.1 current for 0.1 second through the electrodes.
(c) 30.3 (d) 38.6
Common Data for Questions 12 & 13
Two sheets of low carbon steel 1.5 mm thick each
are spot welded by passing a current 10000 amps
for 5 Hz in 50 Hz main supply.
12. The heat generated due to the supply of
power if effective resistance has 200 micro
ohms, is_____
13. The maximum indentation is 10% of sheet
thickness and density of the spot weld nugget
8 gm/cc. If 1380 joules are required to melt
1gm of steel, The heat required for welding
operation if D = 6 SQRT (t) to determine
nugget diameter D and assume the nugget
size to be equal to metal between the two
electrodes is_______
14. Two different pairs of sheets of same material
are welded by resistance-spot welding. In
one pair, the average radius (r) of each
bridges per cm2 (n) is 25. In another pair, the
number of bridges per cm2 is 50 with the same
‘r’ of bridge. The contact resistance (Rc) per
unit area is given by Rc = 0.85 (ρ/nπr) where ‘ρ’
is the resistivity of metal. If the voltage applied
is 5 volts and the resistivity of metal is 2 x 10-5
ohm-cm. The ratio of heat generated from 1st
15. Spot welding of two 1 mm thick sheets of
steel (density = 8000 kg/m3) is carried out
successfully by passing a certain amount of
The resultant weld nugget formed is 5 mm
in diameter and 1.5 mm thick. If the latent
heat of fusion of steel is 1400 kJ/kg and the
effective resistance in the welding operation
is 200 µΩ, the current passing through the
electrodes is approximately
(a) 1480 A (b) 3300 A
(c) 4060 A (d) 9400 A
Common Data for Questions 16 & 17
Resistance spot welding of two steel sheets is
carried out in lap joint configuration by using a
welding current of 3KA and a weld time of 0.2
sec. A molten weld nugget of volume 20 mm3 is
obtained. The effective contact resistance is 200
µΩ. The material properties of steel are given as (i)
latent heat of melting 1400 kJ/kg, (ii) density 8000
kg/m3, (iii) melting temp 1520oC, (iv) specific heat
0.5 kJ/kgC. The ambient temp is 20oC.

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16. Heat (in Joules) used for producing weld
nugget will be (assuming 100% heat transfer
efficiency)
(a) 324 (b) 334
(c) 344 (d) 354
17. Heat (joules) dissipated to the base metal will
be (neglecting all other heat losses)
(a) 10 (b) 16 (c) 22
18. In a welding experiment where a 300 mm
long weld bead was deposited on a plate,
the measured power input was to 2 KW. The
welding speed was 200 mm/min & the total
heat content in weld plate immediately
after the experiment was found to be 40
Kcal,. (in kW) consumed at the interface of welding
(i) The efficiency of heat input of the process
(a) 93.33% (b) 107%
(c) 6.67% (d) none
(ii) For this the welding process used is
(a) Gas welding (b) Arc welding
(c) Resistance welding (d) GTAW
19. In spot pulsed laser welding of aluminum
plates (density = 2700 kg/m3, specific heat =
896 J/kg, melting temp = 933 K, latent heat of
melting = 398 KJ/kg) at a temp of 30C, pulse
with energy of 0.5J is focused onto an area
of 0.05 mm2. If the entire energy is coupled
into the material, what will be the depth of
weld assuming the CS area of the weld is
circular and is uniform throughout its depth
and only heat conduction in the direction of
penetration
(a) 5.34 mm (b) 2.15 mm
(c) 4.23 mm (d) 3.85 mm
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10 Production Technology
20. Two pipes of inner diameter 100 mm and
outer diameter 110 mm each are joined by
flash butt welding suing 30V power supply.
At the interface, 1 mm of material melts from
each pipe which has a resistance of 42.0
Ohms. If the unit melt energy is 64.4 MJ/m3,
then time required for welding (in S) is
(a) 1 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 20
(d) 32
21. Two steel bars each of diameter 10 mm are
coaxially friction welded end to end at an
axial pressure of 200 MPa and at a rotational
speed of 4000 rpm. The coefficient of friction
between the mating faces of the rotating
bars is 0.50. The torque is assumed to act at
the 3/4th radius of the rotating bar. The power
is
(a) 12.33 (b) 16.44
(c) 18.50 (d) 24.66
22. Volume of weld nugget produced by
spot welding process is 80 mm . Welding is 3
performed using 10000 A current. Energy
required for melting of unit volume of metal
is 10 J/mm3. Assume that heat lost to the
surrounding base metal is 550 J and contact
resistance is 0.0002 ohms. The time (in sec) for
which the welding current is supplied is ______
23. Volume of weld nugget produced by
spot welding process is 80 mm . Welding is 3
performed using 10000 A current. Energy
required for melting of unit volume of metal
is 10 J/mm3. Assume that heat lost to the
surrounding base metal is 550 J and contact
resistance is 0.0002 ohms. Thermal efficiency
of the spot welding process if other heat
losses are negligible___
 11
24. The maximum output current that can be
drawn at 100% duty cycle from a welding
power source rated at 600 A at 60% duty
cycle is _______
25. Manual metal arc welding is to be used
for welding two plates each measuring
800 x 200 x 19 mm. Given that length of weld
is 180 mm, length of electrode is 450 mm, stub
length is 50 mm, diameter of electrode is 3
mm, weld reinforcement is 10%, spatter and
other loses are 15%, root gap = land = 2 mm.
Angle of groove is 60 deg. Specify the weld
joint using the standard symbols, sketch the
edge preparation for the joint, the number of
electrodes for the welding operation is _____
26. In a butt-welding process using arc welding,
the arc power is found to be 2.5 KVA. The
process is used to weld two steel plates of
thickness 3 mm each with a V-joint, which has
angle 60 deg. The maximum possible welding
speed by assuming that the arc is on for 85%
of the total time and 2-dimensional heat
transfer. α for steel =1.2 × 10-5 m2/sec and K for
steel = 43.6 W/m°C _______
27. Increase in which of the following will NOT
influence the torch angle
1. Melting point temperature of plates to be
joined
2. Thickness of plates to be joined
3. Length of plates to be joined
4. Thermal conductivity of plates to be
joined
5. Diameter of filler rod
6. Flux powder used
(a) 1, 2 & 4 (b) 2, 3, 5, & 6
(c) 3, 5 & 6 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, & 6
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Objective Practice Questions
28. Which of the following statements are correct
with respect to Oxy-acetylene gas welding
process :
1. In reducing flame the volume of O2
consumed from O2 cylinder is greater
than acetylene from C2H2 cylinder.
2. Oxidizing flame should not be used for
welding of highly reactive metals.
3. Acetylene is produced from the Calcium
Carbide mixed with water.
4. O2 is produced from water because it is
cheaper and safer than producing from
air.
5. For complete combustion of one liter of
C2H2, the total O2 required is at least 2.5
liters.
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 2, 3, & 4
(c) 2, 3 & 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5
29. Read the following statements :
1. Soldering & Brazing operations are used for
the metal which has very small difference
in the melting point temperatures.
2. Soldering & Brazing operations are used
for metals which can not produce the
molten metals at all.
3. Brazing & Braze welding operations are
used for components where change in
mechanical properties are not allowed.
4. Soldering & Brazing operations are used
for where the increase weight of the
system is not allowed.
5. Soldering & Brazing operations are used
for joining of very thick component into
the very thin component.
6. Soldering, Braze welding & Brazing
operations are used for the components
where the leak proof joints are to be
produced.
 12 Production Technology

Which of the above statement Incorrect? 4. Lower contact resistance at faying

(a) 2, 3, 5 (b) 1, 2, 3, 5 surfaces.
(c) 2, 3, 5, 6 (d) 1, 4, 6 (a) 1 & 2 (b) 2 & 3
(c) 1 & 4 (d) 2 & 4
30. Match the following list-1 (welding process) 32. Match the following:
with List-2 (Feature) and select the correct List – I List – II
answer given below. (Type of flame) (Maximum temperature in
List-1 (Welding Process) flame in °C)
P. Electro-slag welding P. Neutral flame 1. 2880
Q. Laser beam welding Q. Oxidizing flame 2. 3260
R. Resistance welding R. Reducing flame 3. 3040
S. Soldering S. Oxy-Hydrogen flame 4. 3380
T. Brazing
List-2 (Feature) Codes:
1. Vacuum P Q R S
2. Non-fusion welding of metals having (a) 1 2 3 4
MP < 427°C (b) 2 4 3 1
3. Non-fusion welding of metals having (c) 2 1 4 3
MP > 427°C (d) 1 4 3 2
4. Absorptivity of the material
5. Non-fusion welding process 33. The voltage-length characteristic of a direct
6. Silicon based flux current arc in an arc welding process is
7. Without use of filler rod V = (100 + 40L), where L is the length of the
Codes arc in mm and V is arc voltage in volts.
P Q R S T During a welding operation, the arc length
(a) 6 4 7 3 2 varies between 1 and 2 mm and the welding
(b) 6 4 7 2 3 current is in the range 200-250 A. Assuming a
(c) 5 4 7 2 3 linear power source, the short circuit current is
(d) 5 7 4 3 2 _________ A.

31. Which of the following are not recommended 34. Assertion (A): Thermit welding is used for
in resistance welding process welding of thick sections of metals.
1. Low electrical conductivity of electrode Reason (R): In Thermit welding Barium
material peroxide is used for initiating the chemical
2. Lower contact resistance between tip of reaction to be taken place in thermit mixture.
electrode and work piece surface
3. Higher electrical conductivity of plate (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
material correct reason for (A).

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 13 Objective Practice Questions

(b) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is not the 2. Endothermic reaction of molecular
correct reason for (a). hydrogen
(c) Both (a) and (r) are false. 3. Burning of hydrogen
(d) (a) is true but (r) is false. 4. Producing the arc fan
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 4-3-2-1
(c) 4-2-1-3 (d) 4-1-2-3
35. Assertion (A): It is difficult to weld Cast Iron
without the use of pre-heating. 40. The characteristics of Electron beam welding
Reason (R): Pre-heating of Cast iron increases are
the heat loss from the plates and makes it 1. more amount HAZ
easier to weld. 2. vacuum must be required
3. no contamination of welds
36. Assertion (A): Resistance welding cannot be 4. used for welding of zinc and lead
used for welding of Aluminum
Reason (R): aluminum has very low electrical (a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4
resistance. (c) 2, 3 (d) 2, 4

37. Assertion (A): The submerged arc welding 41. Which of the following factors will influence
is economically used for welding of upto the weldability of aluminum?
75 mm thickness plates in single pass welding 1. Melting point temperature
operation. 2. Thermal conductivity
Reason (R): In submerged arc welding, the flux 3. Coefficient of thermal expansion
powder required will increase with increase in 4. Reactivity with oxygen
thickness of plates to be welded 5. Electrical resistance
(a) 1, 2 & 5 (b) 1, 2 & 4
38. Assertion (A): In Resistance welding operation, (c) 1, 2, 4 & 5 (d) 2, 3, 4 & 5
the heat required for melting of the plates is
obtained due to the electrical resistance of 42. Match the following:
the circuit and current passing through the List – I (Welding process)
circuit and equal to I .R.τ. 2
P. TIG welding
Reason (R): In Resistance welding operation, Q. SAW
the plates which have the very high resistance R. MIG welding
only can be resistance welded. S. Electroslag welding
List – II (Application)
39. The sequence of operations performed during 1. Greater than 150 mm
atomic hydrogen welding 2. Greater than 75 mm
1.
Exothermic reaction of atomic 3. 30 to 75 mm
hydrogen 4. 5 to 30 mm
5. Less than 5 mm

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 14
Codes : 03. A single point right handed turning tool is
P Q R S
(a) 5 3 4 1
(b) 4 5 3 2
(c) 5 3 4 2
(d) 4 1 3 5
KEY
01. (a) 02. (4860 W, 1.5 mm) 03. (425)
04. (26.67 sec) 05. (27.78 mm/sec) 06. (d)
07. (d) 08. (c) 09. (0.64 mm & 2.1 mm)
10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (2000 J) 13. (1264 J)
14. (2.3 & 4.6 MJ) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b)
18. i (a) ii (b) 19. (d) 20. (c) 21. (a)
22. (0.065) 23. (61.53 %) 24. (464 A)
25. (16.3) 26. ( ) 27. (c) 28. (c)
29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (c) 32. (b) 3 3 .
(425A)
34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (c)
39. (c) 40. (c) 41. (b) 42. (b)
3. Metal Cutting
Common Data for Questions 01 & 02
In an orthogonal cutting operation, the cutting
velocity is 40 m/min and the chip velocity 20 m/
min. If the rake angle of the tool is 100.
01. The shear angle is
(a) 28.33 (b) 30.34
(c) 45
(d) can not be calculated
02. Shear velocity with the help of a velocity
triangle.
(a) 7.5 m/min (b) 12 m/min
(c) 25 m/min (d) 41 m/min
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Production Technology
used for straight turning. The feed is 0.25 mm/
rev and the uncut chip thickness is found to
be 0.25 mm. The inclination angle of the main
cutting edge is 10o. The back rake angle (in
degrees) is _______
Common Data for Questions 04, 05 & 06
In an orthogonal cutting operation, the depth of
cut = 2 mm, width of cut = 15 mm, cutting speed =
60 m/min and the rake angle = 0 deg. The cutting
force and the thrust force are respectively 1200 N
and 800 N and the shear angle = 30 deg.
04. The average coefficient of friction between
the chip and the tool is
(a) 1/3 (b) 3/5
(c) 2/3 (d) none
05. The cutting power in watts is
(a) 300 (b) 1200 (c) 600 (d) 750
06. The length of the shear plane is
(a) 30 mm (b) 15 mm
(c) 10 mm (d) 4 mm
07. A single point cutting tool with 6o rake angle
is used for orthogonal machining of a ductile
material. The shear plane angle for the
theoretically minimum possible shear strain to
occur.
(a) 48 (b) 42
(c) 30 (d) none
 15 Objective Practice Questions

Common Data for Questions 08 & 09 thickness is also measured and found to be
In an orthogonal machining experiment using a 0.43 mm. The machining constant for the
tool having 6 . Rake angle, the following data
o
work material is …..
were collected. Cutting speed 60 m/min, width
of cut 3 mm, depth of cut 1 mm, chip thickness 13. A cutting tool is designated in ‘Orthogonal
1.5 mm. Assuming that shearing takes place under Rake System’ as:
minimum energy condition, 0o-0o-6o-6o-25o-75o-0.8 mm.
The following data were given
08. The coefficient of friction between the chip So = feed = 0.12 mm/rev
tool interface will be t = depth of cut = 2.0 mm
(a) 0.235 (b) 0.339 a2 = chip thickness = 0.22 mm
(c) 0.467 (d)none Vf = chip velocity = 52.6 m/min
τs = dynamic yield shear strength
09. Area of shear plane is = 400 MPa
(a) 3 mm 2
(b) 4 mm 2
Pz = main cutting force
(c) 5.2 mm 2
(d) 7.1 mm 2
= So t τs (ζ Secγ – tanγ + 1)

Common Data for Questions 10 & 11 Where ζ = chip reduction coefficient and
A seam less tube 32 mm outside diameter is γ = orthogonal rake. The main cutting force
turned on a lathe. Cutting velocity of the tool (Pz) and cutting power assuming orthogonal
relative to the work piece 10 m/min, rake angle is machining are
35 , depth of cut is 0.125 mm, length of chip is 60
o

mm, horizontal cutting force is 200 N and vertical 14. In orthogonal cutting test, the cutting force
cutting force is 80 N. = 1200 N, the thrust force = 800 N and chip
shear angle is 30o. Then the chip shear force
10. The coefficient of friction is is
(a) 1.52 (b) 0.86 (a) 1079.4 N (b) 969 N
(c) 0.93 (d) 0.54 (c) 479.4 N (d) 640 N

11. The velocity of chip relative to the tool and

velocity of chip relative to work piece m/min
are respectively
(a) 8.42 & 5.9 (b) 10 & 8.42
(c) 5.9 & 9.6 (d) 5.9 & 8.42
12. During orthogonal machining with a rake
angle 10 and an uncut chip thickness 0.125
o
mm, the values of Fc and Ft are found to be
517 and 217 N respectively. The average chip
Statement for Linked Answer Q. 15 & 16
In an orthogonal turning of bar of 100 mm diameter
with a feed of 0.25 mm/rev, depth of cut of 4 mm
and cutting velocity of 90 m/min, it is observed
that the main cutting force is perpendicular to the
friction force acting at the chip-tool interface. The
main cutting (tangential) force is 1500 N.

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 16 Production Technology

15. The orthogonal rake angle of the cutting tool
in degrees is lathe, the minimum number of parts required
(a) zero (b) 3.58 to make the turret lathe more economical to
(c) 5 (d) 7.16
16. The normal component at the chip tool
interface in N is
(a) 1000 (b) 1500
(c) 2000 (d) 2500
Common Data for Questions 17 & 18
A generalized tool life equation for carbide tool for
machining steel is given by VTaFbDc = K, Where V =
Cutting speed, meters/min, T = Tool life, minutes, F
= feed, mm/rev, D = depth of cut in mm, Indices
have magnitudes a = 0.3, b = 0.3, c = 0.15,
17. If the feed is halved and depth of cut
doubled, for identical tool life of 60 minutes,
the percentage change in speed
(a) 5 % (b) 11 % (c) 25 % (d) 130 %
18. The change in productivity for the new
processing conditions with one cutting tool at 60 rpm?
(a) 5 % (b) 11 % (c) 25 % (d) 130 %
for the engine lathe and Rs. 160 for the turret
use, for the operation
(a) 15 (b) 21 (c) 28 (d) none
21. Tool life testing on a lathe under dry cutting
conditions gave ‘n’ and ‘C’ of Taylor tool life
equation as 0.12 and 130 m/min, respectively.
When a coolant was used, ‘C’ increased
by 10 %. The increased tool life with the use
of coolant at a cutting speed of 90 m/min
is
(a) 47.4 min (b) 37.4 min
(c) 27.4 min (d) 17.4 min
22. A batch of 10 cutting tools could produce
500 components while working at 50 rpm
with a tool feed of 0.25 mm/rev and depth
of cut of 1mm. A similar batch of 10 tools of
the same specification could produce 122
components while working at 80 rpm with a
feed of 0.25 mm/rev and 1 mm depth of cut.
How many components can be produced
(a) 29 (b) 31 (c) 37 (d) 42

19. If under a condition of plain turning the life
of the cutting tool decreases by 50% due to
increase in the cutting velocity by 20%, then
what is the % increase in tool life due to
reduction in the cutting velocity by 10% from
its original value _______
20. A part can be machined in 30 minutes on an
engine lathe where as it can be machined
in 6 minutes on a turret lathe. However, it
would cost additionally Rs. 500 to tool up the
turret lathe for the operation. If the hourly
rate including labour and overhead is Rs. 80
23. Determine the optimum cutting speed for
an operation on a lathe machine using the
following information:
Tool change time = 3 min
Tool regrind time = 3 min
Machine running cost = Rs. 0.50 per min
Depreciation of tool regrind = Rs. 0.50
The constants in the tool life equation are 60
and 0.2.

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24. For a certain job, the cost of metal cutting is
Rs. 18 C/V and the cost of tooling is
Rs. 270 C/(TV). Where C is a constant, V is the
cutting speed in m/min and T is the tool life
in minutes. The Taylor’s tool life equation is
VT 0.25
= 150. The cutting speed (in m/min) for
the minimum total cost is ________
25. A 0.2% C-steel is machined on Lathe with
a triple carbide cutting tool having tool
designation 0 -10 -6 -6 - 8 -75 -1 mm ORS
o o o o o o
shape, a feed of 0.15 mm/rev have been
employed. A chip thickness of 0.36 mm
has been obtained. The chip reduction
coefficient and shear angle are ________
26. In slab milling operation with straight teeth
cutter, the cutter has 15 teeth with 10 rake
angle and rotates at 200 rpm. The diameter of
the cutter is 80 mm and table feed is 75 mm/
min, the depth of cut is 5 mm, the width of
slab is 50 mm and ultimate shear stress of work
material is 420 MPa. Assuming the coefficient
of friction between chip and cutter to be
0.7 and using Lee and Shaffer relation, the
average power consumption is _______
27. The ratio of machinabilities of material A to
that of material B, based on 60min tool life
using the following data.
Material Tool life Equation
A VT 0.11
= 67
B VT 0.13
= 77
[V = cutting speed (m/min), T = tool life (min)]
28. During turning process with 7-α-6-6-8-30-1 mm
(ASA) tool the un-deformed chip thickness
of 0.2 mm and width of cut of 2.5 mm were
used. The side rake angle of the tool was a
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17 Objective Practice Questions
chosen that the machining operation could
be approximated to be orthogonal cutting
with inclination angle zero. The tangential
cutting force and thrust force were 1177 N
and 560 N respectively. The side rake angle
of tool is _____
29. A cast iron block of 200 mm length is being
shaped in a shaping machine with a depth
of cut of 4 mm, feed of 0.25 mm/stroke and
the tool principal cutting edge angle of 30°.
Number of cutting strokes per minute is 60.
Using specific energy for cutting as 1.49 J/
mm3, the average power consumption (in
Watt) is _______
30. The decreasing order of hot hardness of the
o
cutting tools used in machining process are
1. Diamond
2. UCON
3. HC steel tools
4. HSS
5. Sialon
6. Ceramic
7. Cermets
(a) 3 – 4 – 6 – 7 – 1 – 2 – 5
(b) 2 – 5 – 1 – 7 – 6 – 4 – 3
(c) 5 – 2 – 1 – 7 – 6 – 4 – 3
(d) 5 – 2 – 1 – 6 – 7 – 4 – 3
31. Match the following tool materials with their
Hot hardness temperatures
List – I List – II
P. HC steel 1. >1500°C
Q. Cermets 2. 250°C
R. CBN 3. 800°C
S. Stellite 4. 1200°C
5. 600°C

(a) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(b) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(c) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(d) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
32. Read the following statements:
1. CBN can be used as a substitute tool
material for machining of Ferrous work
materials in place of the diamond cutting
tools.
2. Out of the heat generated in the
machining operation the
heat is carried away by the chip during
machining with cutting fluids.
3. For a given machining condition the
tool life of the tool can be increased by
reducing the cutting velocity.
4. For obtaining better surface finish on
component during machining,
optimum nose radius used is 0.2 to 1.2
mm.
5. During machining operation the surface
finish on the component can be increased
by increasing the side cutting edge angle
and reducing the end cutting edge
angle.
Which of the above statement Correct?
(a) 1, 3 & 4 (b) 1, 3, 4 & 5
(c) 2, 3, 4 & 5 (d) 1, 2 & 5
33. The Taylors tool life equation is given as
follows:
VT = C (where n = Taylors exponent)
n
Match the following cutting tool materials
with their Taylors exponent values:
List – I List – II
P. HSS 1. 0.05 to 0.1
Q. Diamond 2. 0.1 to 0.2
R. H.C steel 3. 0.2 to 0.4
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18 Production Technology
S. Carbide 4. 0.4 to 0.6
T. Ceramics 5. 0.7 to 0.9
Codes :
(a) P-2, Q-2, R-1, S-4, T-5
(b) P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-4, T-3
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2, T-5
(d) P-2, Q-5, R-1, S-3, T-4
34. Assertion (A): As the Chip thickness ratio
increases, the shear plane angle also
maximum increases.
Reason (R): Surface finish produced on the
work piece will be affected by back rake
angle.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
correct reason for (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not
the the correct reason for (A).
(c) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(d) (A) is true but (R) is false.
35. Assertion (A): In high speed steels, alloying
elements tungsten, chromium and vanadium
are added to make them suitable to work
at higher speeds than tool steel or low alloy
steels.
Reason (R): Vanadium adds to the property
of red hardness and tungsten and chromium
add to high wear resistance.
36. Assertion (A): Non-ferrous materials are best
machined with diamond tools.
Reason(R): Diamond tools are suitable for
high speed machining.
 19 Objective Practice Questions

37. Assertion (A): The machinability of a material
can be measured as an absolute quantity.
Reason (R): Machinability index indicates the
ease with which a material can machined.
38. Assertion (A): Cutting tools made of high
carbon steel have shorter tool life.
Reason (R): During machining, the tip of the
cutting tool is heated to 600/700°C which
cause the tool tip to lose its hardness.
KEY
02. Double start right hand metric threads with
0.5 mm pitch are machined in a general
purpose lathe having a lead screw of 6 mm
lead. Gears, one number each of 20 teeth in
steps of 5 teeth are available. A compound
gear train for transmitting the required motion
from the spindle to lead screw is used .the
hand of the thread can be changed by
(a) by introducing odd number of idle
gears
(b) by introducing even number of idle gears
(c) any number of idle gears
(d) no idle gears

01. (a) 02. (d) 03. (10o) 04. (c) 05. (b) 03. A non standard thread of pitch 3.175 mm is to
06. (d) 07. (a) 08. (c) 09. (c) 10. (d) be cut on a lathe having lead screw of pitch
11. (d) 12. (56.23) 13. (272 N & 436 W) 6 mm. A change gear set provided with the
14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) lathe has one gear each with the following
19. (49.2%) 20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (a) number of teeth: 20, 30, 40, 50, 60, 70,
23. (30.8 m/min) 24. (57.91) 80, 90, 100, 110, 120, 127. The correct pairs
25. (2.48 & 23 ) o
26. (42 W) 27. (0.944) of change gears (a/b×c/d) for machining
28. (12°) 29. (298W) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (b) the given thread are (assuming that the
33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (d) transmission ratio of the rest of the kinematic
38. (a) train between the lathe spindle and lead
screw is equal to 1)

4. Machining 127 # 20 127 # 20

(a) b)
30 80 40 120

127 # 30 127 # 30
01. Cylindrical bars of 100 mm diameter and (c) (d)
20 120 50 80
576 mm length are turned in a single pass
operation. The spindle speed used is 144 rpm 04. Consider the following operations:
and the total speed is 0.2 mm/rev., Taylor tool 1. Under cutting
life equation is VT 0.75
= 75, where V = cutting 2. Plain turning
speed in m/min and T = tool life in min. 3. Taper turning
(i) The time for turning one piece is …….. 4. Thread cutting
(ii) The average total change time per The correct sequence of these operation in
piece given that it takes 3 minutes to machining a product is
change the tool each time is …… (a) 2,3,4,1 (b) 3,2,4,1
(c) 2,3,1,4 (d) 3,2,1,4

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 20 Production Technology

05. It is required to cut screw threads with double min, the planing time for a single pass will
start and 2 mm pitch on a lathe having lead be
screw pitch of 6 mm. What is the speed ratio (a) 50 min (b) 100 min
between lathe spindle and lead screw? (c) 200 min (d) 220 min
(a) 1:3 (b) 3: 1
(c) 2: 3 (d) 3: 2 08. A planer has a maximum stroke length of 2
meters. Return stroke occurs at twice the
06. The figure shows an incomplete schematic of speed of the forward stroke. Six rectangular
a conventional lathe to be used for cutting blokes of 900 mm × 300 mm are to be planned
threads with different pitches. The speed gear in one pass with three tools equispaced
box Uv is shown and the feed gear box Us is arranged. On the cross slide as shown in
to be placed. P, Q, R and S denote locations fig. (The triangles in the fig. represents initial
and have no other significance. Changes in position of the tools) cutting speed is 1 m
Uv should NOT affect the pitch of thread being sec and feed is 1 mm/stroke. Over travel on
cut and changes in Us should NOT affect the either side lengthwise is 50 mm and widthwise
cutting speed. is 5 mm on either side. The machining time
per piece is ……….
Spindle
50 900 100 900 50
Work Piece
Motor Uv
R S
40 300

Cutting tool 3
Us E
Lead
300 40 300

scre
5 2
w
The correct connections and the correct
5 1
placement of Us are given below
(a) Q & E are connected. Us is place between
(a) 930 sec (b) 465 sec
P and Q
(c) 155 sec (d) none
(b) S & E are connected. Us is place between
R and S
09. The ratio of time of return stroke to time
(c) Q & E are connected. Us is place between
of forward stroke of a shaping machine
Q and E
is 0.6. The stroke is 500 mm and it makes 15
(d) S & E are connected. Us is place between
double strokes per minute. What is the overall
S and E
average speed of operation?
(a) 3.75 m/min (b) 5.0 m/min
07. A work-piece of 2000 mm length and 300 mm
(c) 7.5 m/min (d) 12 m/min
width was machined by a planning operation
with the feed set at 0.3 mm/stroke. If the
machine tool executes 10 double strokes/

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10. A MS plate 800×400×30 mm is to be machined
to 800×400×27 mm. The ratio of return time to
cutting time is 2 : 3 and the feed per cycle
and depth of cut are 0.5 mm and
respectively. Tool approach and over travel
respectively are 50 mm each on length wise
and 5 mm each on width wise. The machining
time with HSS tool of 60 m / min speed………
(a) 20.5 min (b) 31 min
(c) 41 min (d) 62 min
11. The time taken to drill a hole through a 25 mm
thick plate with the drill rotating at 300 rpm
and moving at a feed rate of 0.25 mm/rev
is be cut = 30, module = 3 mm and pressure
(a) 10 sec (b) 20 sec angle = 20o. The radial depth of cut to be
(c) 60 sec (d) 100 sec
12. A 15 mm diameter HSS drill is used at a cutting
speed of 20 m/min and a feed rate of 0.2
mm/rev. Under these conditions, the drill life
is 100 min. The drilling length of each hole is
45 mm and time taken for idle motions is 20 s.
The tool change time is 300 s.
(i) The Number of holes produced using
one drill is ……….
(ii) The Average production time per hole is
13. Consider the following statements:
The helical flute in a twist drill provides the
necessary
1. Clearance angle for the cutting edge.
2. Rake angle for the cutting edge.
3. Space for the chip to come out during
drilling.
4. Guidance for the drill to enter into the
work piece.
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21 Objective Practice Questions
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
2 mm (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
14. The ratio between two consecutive spindle
speeds for a six – speed drilling machine using
drills of diameter 6.25 to 25 mm size and at a
cutting velocity of 18 m / min is
(a) 1.02 (b) 1.32
(c) 1.06 (d) 1.82
15. For the manufacture of full depth spur gear
by hobbing process, the number of teeth to
employed should be equal to
(a) 3.75 mm (b) 4.50 mm
(c) 6.00 mm (d) 6.75 mm
16. A rectangular block 200×80×60 mm is to be
face milled on a vertical-milling machine.
A face milling tool of 100 mm diameter,
having 12 teeth of carbide inserts is used for
machining the 200×80 mm face. Suggested
cutting speed is 50 m/min and feed per tooth
0.1 mm.
(i) The machining time for one pass
removing a layer of 2 mm thickness from
the surface, with an approach of 5 mm
and a over run of 5 mm with Symmetrical
milling is………
(ii) The machining time for one pass
removing a layer of 2 mm thickness
from the surface, with an approach
of 5 mm and an over run of 5 mm with
asymmetrical milling having offset 5 mm
is……..
 22
17. One brand of milling machine has the
following two index plates supplied along
with the indexing head:
Plate 1: 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20 hole circles.
Plate 2: 21, 23, 27, 29, 31, 33 hole circles.
It is proposed to mill a spur gear of 28 teeth
using simple indexing method. Which one
of the following combinations of index plate
and number of revolutions is correct?
(a) Plate 1 : 1 revolution and 9 holes in 18
hole circles
(b) Plate 2 : 1 revolution and 9 holes in 21
hole circles
(c) Plate 2 : 1 revolution and 9 holes in 33
hole circles
(d) Plate 1 : 1 revolution and 9 holes in 15
hole circles
18. A milling cutter of 70 mm dia. with 12 teeth
is operating at a cutting speed of 22 m/min
and a feed of 0.05 mm/tooth. The feed per
minute is
(a) 110 mm/min (b) 35 mm/min
(c) 6 mm/min (d) 60 mm/min
19. If the index crank of a dividing head is turned
through one complete revolution and 10
holes in a 30 hole circle plate, the work piece
turns through (in degrees)
(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 240 (d) 480
20. A 15 cm dia carbide inserted milling cutter
is to be used to cut a key way on medium
hardened steel, with a feed of 0.08 mm/rev. If
the depth of the cut is to be 0.5 mm and the
length of work is 20 cm. If cutting speed used is
120 m/min, the time taken for key depth upto
2 mm is
(a) 10.2 min (b) 41 min
(c) 11 min (d) 44 min
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Production Technology
21. The maximum power capacity of a
broaching machine is 1.5 kw. Using this
machine, a circular hole of diameter 20 mm
in a 25 mm thick MS plate has to be enlarged
to a diameter of 26 mm. A cut per tooth of
0.0075 mm is used and the pitch of the teeth
is 10 mm/tooth. The minimum possible time
in which one port can be machined if the
cutting speed of 0.5 m/min is ………..
22. The cutting length of the broach for the key
way cutting in a 150 mm long cast iron gear
hub. Given that width of the key way is 9 mm
depth of key way is 4.5 mm no. of finishing
teeth = 4 and no. of semi finishing teeth =
8.
Rise per tooth Pitch
Roughing Teeth 0.1 mm 22 mm
Semi finishing Teeth 0.0125 mm 20 mm
Finishing teeth ------- 20 mm
(a) 968 mm (b) 160 mm
(c) 1208 mm (d) None
23. Specific energy requirements in a grinding
process are more than those in turning for the
same metal removal rate because of the
(a) specific pressures between wheel and
work being high
(b) size effect of the larger contact areas
between wheel and work
(c) high cutting velocities
(d) high heat produced during grinding
24. Consider the following alignment tests on
machine tools:
1. Straightness 2. Flatness
3. Run out 4. Parallelism
 23 Objective Practice Questions

Which of the above alignment tests on 28. The bore of an alloy steel component is to
machine tools are common to both lathe be finish broached to 31.75+0.01 mm diameter.
and shaper? The bore prior to broaching is 31.24 + 0.05 mm
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 diameter, if the length of hole = 25 mm, rise
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 per tooth = t = 0.025 mm, force per teeth =
k = 5000 N and No. of teeth in contact at
25. The drawing shows a machined shaft. The any given point of time = S = 5, force to pull
purpose of providing rounded grooves at M broach through the work is ……
and N is to 29. Assertion (A): Catalogue price of the product
is equal to sum of selling price and discount.
20
0 Reason (R): In estimating the cost of a
40φ product, profit is always taken on percentage
N of total cost.
M
30. Match the type of lathe center with the

(a) Supply lubricating oil for bearing usage:

mounting List – I List – II

(b) Facilitate facing operation A. Half center 1. For supporting hallow

(c) Facilitate grinding of bearing mounting jobs

surface B. Tipped center 2. For taper turning

(d) Reduce stress concentration C. Ball center 3. Wear resistant

D. Pipe center 4. Facing without disturbing

26. Lathe machine operations takes 40 min to the setting

produce a product. If the efficiency of the Codes :

lathe machine is 80% and rejection is 20%, (a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (b) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

then the number of lathe machines required (c) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3 (d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

for producing 800 pieces per week. Assume

31. Which of the following statements are correct
52 weeks per year and 48 hour per week as
with respect to drilling :
working hours available is ………. .
1. Standard point angle of drill is 118°
2. Helix angle of flutes of drill are varying
27. The bore of an alloy steel component is to
from maximum at center to the minimum
be finish broached to 31.75+0.01 mm diameter.
at the periphery
The bore prior to broaching is 31.24+0.05 mm
3. Back rake angle of drill is varying from
diameter, the length of cutting portion of
minimum at center to the maximum at
broach if the length of hole = 25 mm, rise per
the periphery
tooth = t = 0.025 mm, force per teeth =k =5000
4. During drilling of very soft materials like Al
N and No. of teeth in contact at any given
& Cu, the point angle of drill is 45 to 50°
point of time = S = 5 is ___________
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 2, 3 & 4
(c) 1, 3 & 4 (d) 1 & 4
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 24 Production Technology

32. Read the following statements: 34. Consider the following statement :
1. The circumference of a job cannot be 1. Counter boring is the operation of
divided into 76 divisions using simple enlarging the hole.
indexing method. 2. Spot facing is done by using end mill
2. The keyway on the shaft can be produced cutter with vertical milling machine or
by using end mill cutter. drilling machine.
3. For producing R.H. Threads on lathe 3. Trepanning can be done by using
machine, No idler gears are to be used eccentric single point cutting.
if compound gear train is designed in the 4. Counter sinking is done by using large size
feed gear box. drill bit than the existing hole.
4. Ratchet and Pawl mechanism is used for 5. Honing is the operation performed by
obtaining the intermittent feed required in
using flexible grinding wheel.
shaping operation.

5. In grinding, open structure will be used in
Select the correct answer using codes given
grinding of Aluminium.
bellow :
6. Honing can be used for producing Zig-
(a) 1, 2 & 3 are correct
Zag hole.
(b) 2, 3 & 4 are correct
Which of the above statement Correct ?
(c) 3, 4 & 5 are correct
(a) 1, 2 & 6 (b) 1, 3, 4 & 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 & 5 are correct
(c) 3, 4 & 5 (d) 1, 2, 4 & 5

33. Read the following statements with respect 35. Match the following List – I (Machine tool)
to Indexing in milling with List – II (type of job)
1. In compound indexing both of the List – 1
indexing plate and Crank will rotate P. Lathe machine
simultaneously. Q. Milling machine
2. It is not possible to divide the R. Broaching
circumference of job into 79 divisions
using simple indexing method. List – II
3. The externally mounted gear train is used 1. Reducing diameter of cylindrical job
in the differential indexing method. 2. Keyways on shafts
4. Direct indexing uses an indexing plate 3. External helical gears
with 24 Holes circle. 4. Rectangular holes
5. In angular indexing, the crank rotation
C.R = 40/N, where ‘N’ is the number of (a) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 3
divisions by which the circumference of (b) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 4
the job is to be divided. (c) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 4
Pick up the correct statements (d) P – 5, Q – 4, R – 2
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 2, 3 & 4
(c) 3, 4 & 5 (d) 1, 2, 3,4 & 5

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 25
36. The following statements are correct with
respect to grinding.
1. Large grain size number is used for rough
grinding
2. Soft G. W are used for hard work grinding
3. Silicon carbide (SiC) abrasives are used for
grinding of hard and brittle work pieces.
4. Open structure is used for grinding soft
work
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 & 4
(c) 1, 3 & 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
37. A component requires a hole which must be
within the two limits of 25.03 and 25.04 mm
diameter. Which of the following statement
about the reamer size are correct?
1. Reamer size cannot be below 25.03 mm.
2. Reamer size cannot be above 25.04 mm.
3. Reamer size can be 25.04 mm.
4. Reamer size can be 25.03 mm.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
38. Assertion (A): The specific cutting energy in
grinding is higher than other conventional
machining methods
Reason (R): The abrasive particles in grinding
wheel are randomly oriented.
(a) A & R are true and R explains A
(b) A&R are true and R doesn’t explains A
(c) A true but R is False
(d) A is false but R is true
39. Assertion (A): In Grinding process, glazing of
grinding wheel will takes place when hard
wheels are used for grinding of soft work
pieces.
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Objective Practice Questions
Reason(R): If open structure is used for
grinding soft work pieces, the loading of
grinding wheel will takes place.
40. Assertion (A): Gears produced by employing
form cutting principle using gear milling cuter
on a milling machine are not very accurate.
Reason (R): Production of the gear teeth
profile employing form cutting principle would
require a separate cutter for cutting different
numbers of teeth even for the same module
and also errors are associated with inaccurate
operation of indexing mechanism.
KEY
01. i (20 min) ii (50 min) 02. (a) 03. (b)
04. (c) 05. (d) 06. (d) 07. (b) 08. (b)
09. (d) 10. (c) 11. (b)
12. i (162) ii (59 sec)
13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (d)
16. i (1.2 min) ii (1.25 min) 17. (b)
18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (8.05 min)
22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (a)
26. (18) 27. (100 mm) 28. (25000 N)
29. (c) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (b)
34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (a)
39. (d) 40. (c)
5. Metal Forming Processes
01. The true stress-true strain curve is given by
σ = 1400 ε0.33, where the stress σ is in MPa. The
true stress at maximum load (in MPa) is
(a) 971 (b) 750 (c) 698 (d) 350
 26
02. By application of tensile force, the sectional
area of bar ‘P’ is first reduced by 30% and then
by an additional 20%. Another bar ‘Q’ of the
same material is reduced in cross sectional
area by 50% in a single step by applying
tensile force. After deformation, the true strain
in bar ‘P’ and bar ‘Q’ will, respectively, be
(a) 0.5 and 0.5 (b) 0.58 and 0.69
(c) 0.69 and 0.69 (d) 0.78 and 1.00
03. An annealed copper wire of 25 mm dia is
drawn into a wire of 5 mm dia. The average
yield stress in this operation if the flow curve of
the material is given σ = 315 ε0.54 MPa
(a) 592 MPa (b) 458 MPa
(c) 342 MPa (d) none
04. A metal strip is to be rolled from an initial
wrought thickness of 4.5 mm to a final rolled
thickness of 2.5 mm in a single pass rolling mill
having rolls of 450 mm diameter. The strip is 450
mm wide. The average coefficient of friction
in the roll gap is 0.1. Taking plane strain flow
stress of 180 MPa, for the metal and assuming
negligible spreading, the roll separating force
is
05. In a rolling process, thickness of a strip is
reduced from 4 mm to 3 mm using 300 mm
diameter rolls rotating at 100 rpm. The velocity
of the strip (in m/sec) at the neutral point is
(a) 1.57 (b) 3.14
(c) 47.10 (d) 94.20
06. In a single pass rolling operation, a 20 mm
thick plate with plate width of 100 mm, is
reduced to 18 mm thick. The roller radius is
250 mm and rotational speed is 10 rpm. The
average flow stress for the plate material is
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Production Technology
300 MPa. The power required for the rolling
operation in kW is closer to
(a) 15.2 (b) 18.2
(c) 30.4 (d) 45.6
07. The thickness of metallic sheet is reduced
from an initial value of 16 mm to a final value
of 10 mm in one single pass rolling with a pair
of cylindrical rollers each of diameter of 400
mm. The bite angle in degrees will be
(a) 5.936 (b) 7.936
(c) 8.936 (d) 9.936
08. A steel plate 30 mm thick is to be rolled to
14 mm in a four high mill having roll diameter
680 mm. If yield stress is 200 MPa, if the
thickness of the sheet at neutral plane is17.2
mm, the Forward slip and Backward slip are
respectively
(a) 23 % & 43 % (b) 43 % & 23 %
(c) 23 & 9 % (d) none
09. In a two high rolling mill having roller dia of 600
mm a metal strip of thickness 30 mm is reduced
to a thickness of 25 mm with coefficient of
friction of 0.2. The Roll separation distance is
(a) 630 (b) 625 (c) 330 (d) 325
10. A wire of 0.1 mm dia is drawn from a rod of
15 mm dia. Dies giving reductions of 20%, 40%
and 80% are available. For minimum error
in the final size, the number of stages and
reduction at each stage respectively would
be
(a) 3 stages and 80% reduction for all three
stages
(b) 4 stages and 80% reduction for first three
stages followed by a finishing stage of
20% reduction
 27 Objective Practice Questions

(c) 5 stages and reduction of 80%, 80%, 40%, 15. The minimum number of passes required by
40%, 20% in sequence assuming maximum reduction per pass is
(d) none of the above obtained with µ = 0.2 and half die angle as 6o.
if the flow strength of the material is 60 MPa.
11. In wire drawing operation, The following data
is given, initial wire diameter = 6 mm, final wire 16. The dia of wire after 2nd stage is ______.
diameter = 5.2 mm, die angle = 18° , die land
= 4 mm, Coefficient of friction = 0.15, yield Common Data for Questions 17 & 18
stress = 260 MPa. The drawing stress and total A steel wire of length 100 m and dia 12.214 mm
drawing load are is drawn to a final dia of 10 mm. Tensile tests of
(a) 130 MPa & 3.74 kN specimen made before and after the drawing
(b) 3.78 kN & 130 MPa operation gave yield stress as 200 MPa and 400
(c) 150 MPa & 5 kN MPa respectively,
(d) None
17. The length of drawn wire is
Common Data for Questions 12, 13 & 14 (a) 100 m (b) 125 m
In tube drawing process a steel tube having inside (c) 150 m (d) 175 m
dia of 52 mm and wall thickness 2.6 mm is to be
reduced to 50 mm inside dia and a wall thickness 18. The yield stress of the steel at a true strain 0.2,
of 1.8 mm. Taking die angle 24 and µ as 0.12.
o
by assuming linear strain hardening law.
(a) 200 MPa (b) 300 MPa
12. With stationary mandrel the ratio σ2/σy is (c) 400 MPa (d) 600 MPa
(a) 0.367 (b) 0.638
(c) 0.518 (d) none 19. In a wire drawing process a 15 mm dia rod is
reduced to 6 mm wire, two specimens taken
13. With movable mandrel the ratio σ2/σy is … one before drawing and other after drawing
(a) 0.367 (b) 0.638 and the tensile tests shows that young’s
(c) 0.518 (d) none modulus for the respective specimens are 200
MPa and 350 MPa, the wire drawing process is
14. With floating mandrel the ratio σ2/σy is … a
(a) 0.367 (b) 0.638 (a) hot working process
(c) 0.518 (d) none (b) cold working process
(c) any of the above
Common Data for Questions 15 & 16 (d) none
In a wire drawing operation dia of 6 mm is reduced
in stages to a dia of 1.34 mm. Assuming ideally rigid
plastic material and ideally lubricant condition,

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20. The capacity of the press required to extrude
Al channels having a cross sectional area of
3 cm2 from round billet of 100 mm dia. The
yield stress for Al is 10 kg/mm2 and the process
efficiency for the case of extrusion is 0.4 is
……..
(a) 100 tons (b) 150 tons components
(c) 200 tons (d) none
21. A round billet made of brass is to be extruded
(extrusion constant = 250 MPa) at 700oC. The
billet diameter is 100 mm and the diameter
of the extrusion is 50 mm. The extrusion force
required (in MN) is
(a) 1.932 (b) 2.722
(c) 3.423 (d) 4.650
22. Two solid cylinders of equal diameter have
different heights. They are
plastically by a pair of rigid dies to create
the same percentage reduction in their
respective heights. Consider that the die-
workpiece interface friction is negligible.
The ratio of the final diameter of the shorter
cylinder to that of the longer cylinder is
__________
23. A cylindrical billet of 100 mm dia is forged
from 50 mm height to 40 mm at 1000oC. The
material has constant flow stress of 80 MPa.
The work of deformation is _______
24. A cylindrical billet of 100 mm dia is forged
from 50 mm height to 40 mm at 1000oC. The
material has constant flow stress of 80 MPa.
If a 10 kN drop hammer is used to complete
the reduction in one blow. What will be the
height of fall ____________
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28 Production Technology
25. Consider the following statements
(1) When load is fluctuating and impact
conditions prevail, forged parts are
preferred
(2) Drop forging method is the most
extensively used method for forged
(3) Forged components are ideally suitable
for applications like crankshaft and
connecting rods, the chief reason being
that the cost of production is low.
Which of the statements are correct?
(a) 1 & 2 (b) 2 & 3
(c) 1 & 3 (d) 1, 2 & 3
26. In a two pass wire drawing process, there is a
40% reduction in wire cross sectional area in
1st pass and further 30% reduction in 2nd pass.
compressed The overall reduction ( in percentage) is …..
27. A 10 mm thick plate is rolled to 7 mm thickness
in a rolling mill using 1000 mm diameter rigid
rolls. The neutral point is located at an angle
of 0.3 times the bite angle from the exit. The
thickness (in mm ) of the plate at the neutral
point is ……..
28. A round rod of annealed brass 70-30 is being
drawn from a diameter of 6 mm to 3 mm at
a speed of 0.6 m/s. Assume that the frictional
and redundant work together constitutes
35% of the ideal work of deformation.
(yield stress σy = 200 MPa)
(i) power required in this operation is …..
(ii) die pressure at the exit of the die is …..
 29
29. An aluminium rod, 6.25 mm diameter, is drawn
into a wire 5.60 mm diameter. Neglecting
friction between the rod and the dies, the
drawing stress and the reduction in area
when the yield stress for aluminium is 35 N/
mm respectively are _________.
2
30. A piece of lead, size, 25×25×150 mm, having
a yield strength of 0.7 kg/mm is pressed 2
between two at dies to a final size of 6.25×100
×150 mm. Assuming that µ = 0.25, the forging
load required is _________
31. To obtain 30% reduction in area on a 10mm
diameter copper wire, the following data is
given. Yield stress 240 MPa, 2α = 12, μ = 0.10,
the power of electric motor if the drawing
speed is 2.5 m/s. Take efficiency of the motor
as 95 % is ______
32. Roll separating force can be reduced
by 1. The ram and the extruded product travel
1. Reducing roll radius
2. Increasing friction
3. With back tension
4. With front tension
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 2, 3 & 4
(c) 1, 2 & 4 (d) 1, 3 & 4
33. In rolling process a neutral point is the one at
which (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
1. Pressure is maximum
2. Pressure is minimum
3. No slip occurs
4. Thickness of strip is equal to (H0+H1)/2
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 2, 3, & 4
(c) 1, 2 & 4 (d) 1 & 3
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Objective Practice Questions
34. Match the following conditions with their
VALUES AND NAMES
List – I
P. Value of co-efficient of friction in cold
working
Q. Value of co-efficient of friction in hot
working
R. Material is squeezed between two dies to
alter its shape & size
S. Makes cuts part away through metal
without producing scrap
List – II
1. 0.1 2. 0.6
3. Lancing 4. Nibbling
5. Forging
(a) P-2,Q-1,R-5,S-4 (b) P-2,Q-1,R-5,S-3
(c) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-5 (d) P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-5
35. Consider the following statements:
In Indirect extrusion process
in the same direction
2. The ram and the extruded product travel
in the opposite direction
3. The speed of travel of the extruded
product is same as that of the ram
4. The speed of travel of the extruded
product is greater than that of the ram
Which of these statements are correct?
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
36. Read the following statements :
1. In Rolling operation the cambering of
the rollers means that making rollers like
Concave shape.
 30 Production Technology

2. In Rolling operation the cambering of
the rollers means that making rollers like
Convex shape.
3. In 4-high rolling mill 3 reductions can be
obtained.
4. In rolling operation the surface of rollers
can be made rough for increasing the
maximum reduction possible in the rolling
process.
5. In Rolling operation the Bite angle should
be less than or equal to the friction angle.
Which of the following statements are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 & 5 (b) 3, 4 & 5
(c) 1, 3 & 4 (d) 2, 4 & 5
39. Assertion (A): In Forging operation, for
reducing the height of the part and increasing
the diameter, the barreling shape is produced
at the beginning of forging.
Reason (R): In the beginning of forging
operation the shear stress induced between
the dies and the part due to sticking friction
is less than the hoop stresses induced in the
part.
40. Assertion (A): Because of provision of gutter
in the dies of closed die forging, flash is
produced on the forged component
Reason (R): The trimming operation is always
done on closed die forged component.

37. Assertion (A): Hydrostatic extrusion is similar 41. Assertion (A): In rolling process, along the
to the indirect extrusion, in which the billet deformation zone the pressure varies from
is deformed in a rigid closed container such minimum at the entrance to maximum at
that the billet is in contact with the container. neutral and again reduces to minimum at the
Reason (R): In hydrostatic extrusion, the exit.
hydrostatic liquid will act as a lubricant Reason (R): In Rolling process, along the
between container and billet so that cracking deformation zone the relative velocity
tendency during extrusion of brittle materials between the sheet and Roller reduces first
can be eliminated. and then increases again.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R
is the correct explanation of A. 42. Match the following list – 1 ( Metal forming
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is process) with List – 2 (Application) and select
not the correct explanation of A. the correct answer given below :
(c) A is true but R is false List – 1
(d) A is false but R is true P. Rolling
Q. Extrusion
38. Assertion (A): Recrystallisation temperature R. Forging
of the steel decreases with increase of Cold S. Spinning
work imparted on it. List – 2
Reason (R): Presence of internal residual 1. Solid and hallow section
stresses always increases the Recrystallisation 2. Shallow circular containers
temperature 3. Plate and sheet
4. Simple shapes

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 31 Objective Practice Questions

Codes : P Q R S 45. Match List I (Forging operations) with List II

(a) 3 1 4 2 (Descriptions) and select the correct answer

(b) 2 1 4 3 using the codes given below:

(c) 2 4 1 3 List I

(d) 3 4 1 2 P. Edgering
Q. Upsetting
43. Match the following : R. Fullering
List – I (Lubricant used) S. Trimming
P. Graphite powder List II
Q. Air 1. Distributing the material from center
R. Soap solution 2. Collecting the material at localized areas
3. Rod is deformed so that diameter is
List – II (Type of surface produced on wire) increased
1. Bright shining surface 4. Removing flash from forged part
2. Dull surface
3. Burnt surface Codes: P Q R S
4. Coarse surface (a) 2 3 1 4
5. Smooth surface (b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 3 1 2 4
Codes : P Q R (d) 4 2 1 3
(a) 4 3 5
(b) 5 4 1 KEY
(c) 5 2 1
(d) 1 3 2 01. (a) 02. (b) 03. (a) 04.(1.98 MN)
05. (a) 06. (a) 07. (d) 08. (a) 09. (b)
44. Rolling is generally treated as hot working
10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a)
process because
1. Above recrystallisation temperature, the 15. (6) 16. (3.4 mm) 17. (c) 18. (b)

yield strength is low 19. (b) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (1)
2. Above recrystallisation temperature, 23. (7068 J) 24.(0.354 m) 25. (b)
ductility is low 26. (58 %) 27. (7.269 mm)
3. At high temperature, the coefficient of
28. (1.586 kW, 374 MPa)
friction is high
29.(7.687 MPa, 19.7%) 30. (29.85 tons)
Of these, the correct statements are
(a) 1, 2 & 3 are correct 31. (20.52) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (d)
(b) 1 & 3 are correct 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (b)
(c) 2 & 3 are correct 41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (a)
(d) 1 & 2 are correct

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 32
6. Sheet Metal Operations
Common Data for Questions 1 to 5
A washer has a 12.7 mm hole and an outside
diameter of 25.4 mm. it is 1.25 mm thick and made
by SAE 1020 steel having shear strength of 800
MPa. If the radial clearance is taken as 0.04 mm.
01. The piercing punch size and the piercing die
opening size are …
(a) 12.7 & 25.4 (b) 12.7 & 12.78
(c) 12.78 & 12.7 (d) 12.78 & 25.48
02. The blanking die opening size and blanking
die punch size is …
(a) 25.4 & 25.32 (b) 25.32 & 25.4
(c) 25.48 & 25.32 (d) 25.4 & 25.4
03. The force required if compound die is used.
Take clearance as 0.04 mm…..
(a) 40 kN (b) 120 kN
(c) 80 kN (d) 200 kN
04. If the progressive die system is used with
staggering of punches, the max force
required
(a) 40 kN (b) 120 kN Common Data for Questions 10 & 11
(c) 80 kN (d) 200 kN
05. Assume 60% penetration for steel and shear
for both provided as 1 mm, the force needed
if both punches act together in progressive
die working is
(a) 40 kN (b) 51.5 kN 400
(c) 63.25 kN (d) none
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Production Technology
Common Data for Questions 06, 07 & 08
The part shown in fig is to be blanked from a steel
strip of 2 mm thickness. Assuming the penetration
to be 40 % and the ultimate shear strength of the
material to 145 MPa,
100mm
50mm
45 deg
80 mm
06. The force required for blanking operation
would be …………….
07. Work done in blanking operation would be.....
08. The shear to be provided to carried out this
operation on a 24 kN press is…………
09. The force requirement in a blanking
operation of low carbon steel sheet is 5.0 kN.
The thickness of the sheet is ‘t’ and diameter
of the blanked part is ‘d’. for the same work
material, if the diameter of the blanked part
is increased to 1.5d and thickness is reduced
to 0.4t, the new blanking force in kN is
(a) 3.0 (b) 4.5 (c) 5.0 (d) 8.0
In shear cutting operation, a sheet of 5mm thickness
is cut along a length of 200 mm. the cutting blade
is 400 mm long (see figure) and zero – shear (S =
0) is provided on the edge. The ultimate shear
strength of the sheet is 100 MPa and penetration
to thickness ration is 0.2. neglect friction
 33
10. Assuming force Vs displacement curve to be
rectangular, the work done in J is
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 250 (d) 300
11. A shear of 20 mm (S 20) is now provides on
the blade. Assuming force Vs displacement
curve to be trapezoidal, the maximum force
(in kN) exerted is
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 40
12. A φ 25 mm hole is pierced in a t = 2.5 mm
thick steel sheet having shear strength τ =
350 MPa. If the diametral clearance is given
by the expression c = 0.0064 t , the die
diameter (in mm), punch diameter (in mm)
and punch force in (kN) respectively are
(a) 25.0, 25.3, 171.8 (b) 25.0, 24.7, 68.75
(c) 24.7, 25.0, 171.8 (d) 25.3, 25.0, 68.75
13. Calculate the punch size in mm, for a circular
blanking operation for which details are given
below. is ………
Size of the blank 25 mm,
Thickness of the sheet 2 mm
Radial clearance between punch and die
0.06 mm, Die allowance 0.05 mm
(a) 24.83 (b) 24.89
(c) 25.01 (d) 25.17
Common Data for Questions 14 & 15
A cup 5 cm in dia and 7.5 cm in deep is to be
drawn from 1.5 mm thick drawing steel with a
tensile yield strength of 315 MPa. The corner radius
is negligible.
14. The least number of drawing operations with
draw ratio of 1.8 is …………….
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
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Objective Practice Questions
15. The force and energy for the first draw with
draw ratio of 1.8 and neglect friction, bend
and blank holding force is…..
(a) 197 kN & 8 kJ (b) 8 kN & 197 kJ
(c) 197 kJ & 8 kN (d) none
Common Data for Questions 16 & 17
A cylindrical cup of diameter 12 mm & height
16 mm has a corner radius of 0.5 mm, it is made
out of a sheet of 2 mm thick & the material has
a constant flow of 35 MPa. Neglecting the corner
radius,
16. The number of draws required is to draw the
part if the draw reduction ratio for first and
subsequent draws is 40% and 25% is …....
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
17. The drawing stress for the first draw based on
idle deformation (neglecting friction, blank
holding force & effect of punch corner radii)
(a) 52 MPa (b) 68 MPa
(c) 98 MPa (d) 106 MPa
Common Data for Questions 18 & 19
Cylindrical shell 30 mm diameter & 150 mm deep
is to be drawn from aluminum sheet 1 mm thick
the limits on draw ratio (diameter of drawn part
/ diameter before drawing) are 0.6 & 0.8 for the
first & each of the subsequent draws respectively,
neglecting corner radius & trimming allowance
18. The no. of draws needed is …….
19. The diameter of third draw is ………
 34 Production Technology

20. A circular cup of 100 mm out side diameter & 24. In sheet metal working, the spring back
25 mm height is to be drawn from an aluminum increase when
sheet of 1 mm thickness. The corner radius of P : Ratio of bend radius to sheet thickness is
cup is 6 mm. Assuming a trimming allowance small
of 3 mm, the diameter of the blank require is Q : Young’s modulus of the sheet is low
……………….. R : Yield strength of the sheet is high
S : Tension is applied during bending
21. Identify the stress strain in the FLANGE portion (a) P, Q, R (b) Q, R
of a PARTIALLY DRAWN CYLINDRICAL CUP (c) P, Q, S (d) P, Q, S
when deep drawing without a blank holder 25. A cup, of 50 mm diameter and 100 mm height,
(a) tensile in all three directions is to be drawn from low carbon steel sheet.
(b) no stress in the flange at all, because Neglecting the influence of thickness and
there is no blank hole corner radii, if maximum reduction permitted
(c) tensile stress in one direction and is 40%, the number draws required is ……
compressive stress in other direction
(d) tensile in two directions and compressive 26. For punching a 10 mm circular hole, and
in third direction cutting a rectangular blank of 50×200mm
from a sheet of 1 mm thickness (mild steel,
22. A cylindrical cup of 80 mm diameter, 250 mm shear stress = 240 N/mm2), Force required if
height with a flange diameter of 150 mm is the operation is carried out using compound
produced by using deep drawing operation die working (N) ……...
from a sheet of thickness 4 mm and ultimate
shear strength of 285 MPa. The no. of ears KEY
(earing defects) produced around the
circumference of the flange is 01. (b) 02. (a) 03. (b) 04. (c) 05. (b)
(a) 27 (b) 48 (c) 64 (d) 480
06. (83.6 N) 07. (66.88 J)
08. (1.98 mm) 09. (a) 10. (a) 11. (b)
23. The developed length of the part shown
below is …………… 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b)
17. (b) 18. (6) 19. (53 mm) 20. (145)
15 mm 2 mm 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (467 mm) 24. (b)
15
8 mm 25. (3) 26. (7.536 kN)
98mm
6 mm 100 mm

220 mm

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 35 Objective Practice Questions

04. Diameter of a hole after plating needs to be

7. Metrology
controlled between 30 ++00..05
010 mm. If the plating

thickness varies between 10 – 15 microns,

diameter of the hole before plating should be
7.1 Introduction & Limits, Fits & Tolerances
(a) 30 ++00..07
030 (b) 30 ++00..65
020

01. Which one of the following is a clearance fit (c) 30 ++00..08

030 (d) 30 ++00..070
40

(a) H50 ++00..015

005 h50 +0.000
-0.01

05. Determine the dimension and tolerances on

(b) H50 ++00..010
000 h50 +0.015
+0.025
flange thickness T in Fig.
(c) H50 +0.015
+0.000 h50 +0.025
+0.005

(d) H50 ++00..010

000 h50 +0.005
-0.030

118 +−00..08
09
02. A hole is specified as 40 00..050
000 mm. The mating

shaft has a clearance fit with minimum T A B C

clearance of 0.01mm. The tolerance on the
shaft is 0.04 mm. The maximum clearance in A = 25.20 +-00..01
02 B = 30.4 ± 0.01 C = 32.7 ± 0.02

mm between the hole and the shaft is (a) 30 ± 0.04 (b) 30 ± 0.13
(a) 0.04 (b) 0.05 (c) 30 ± 0.05 (d) 30 --00..17
43

(c) 0.10 (d) 0.11

06. Inspection using 6 σ limits in manufacturing
03. Tolerance on the dimension ‘x’ in the two means
component assembly shown below is (a) lot having without any defect
(b) 99.999999% acceptability
50 ± 0.02
(c) lot having upto 6 defective parts per
million parts is acceptable
(d) lot having upto 6 defective parts per lac
parts is acceptable
N
07. Fig shows the position of two holes on the face
10 ± 0.01 38 ± 0.015 of a casting 250 ± 0.2 mm high. Considering
extreme values of dimensions
x
φ25Hz
245±0.05 X
(a) ±0.025 (b) ±0.030
(c) ±0.040 (d) ±0.045 φ30Hz
30±15′ 250±0.2
+0.2
60+0.0

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 36 Production Technology

(i) The vertical distance between the holes 10. A plate with two pins, another plate with two
and its tolerances is holes is to be assembled with the pins entering
(a) 245 ± 0.05 (b) 245 ± 0.08 the holes as shown in fig. In Assembly the pins
(c) 245 ± 0.03 (d) 122.5 ± 0.95 touch the outer most points of the holes as
(ii) The tolerance on X (40 mm) when shown, the limits on center distance between
tolerance on 30H7 and 25H7 is 0 to 25 µm the holes is
(a) 1.15 mm (b) 1.37 mm
(c) 2.52 mm (d) 2.3 mm 100±0.1 φ9.9 ± 0.025
φ14.9 ± 0.025
08. Nominal diameter of a cylinder bore & the
fitting piston is 65 mm. Tolerance on both
piston & bore is specified as 0.05 mm & the
required allowance 0.09 mm and take values
based on basic hole standard φ15 ± 0.05 10 ± 0.05
(i) The limit size of the piston is
(a) 65 +-00..05
09 (b) 65 +-00..00
11. For the above fig, the center distance
09

(c) 65 --00..09
14 (d) none between the holes, when the size of the holes
(ii) The limit size of bore is and the center distance between pins are
(a) 65 ++00..05
00 (b) 65 ++00..05
01 at their maximum limits, and pins are at the
(c) 65 +0.09
+0.00 (d) none minimum limit and also specify whether the
(iii) The largest clearance between the two. assembly is possible or not
(a) 0.14 (b) 0.19
(c) 0.09 (d) 0.20 12. The limits of a shaft designated as 100h5
are 100.000 mm and 100.014 mm. Similarly,
09. A product shown in Figure is turned, step turned
the limits of a shaft designated as 100h8
and parted off from a rod to get dimension
are 100.000 mm and 100.055 mm. If a shaft
‘A’ in the second setting it is through drilled
is designated as 100h6, the fundamental
and counter bored to get dimension ‘B’.
deviation (in µm) for the same is
Calculate the dimension A and B and their
(a) –22 (b) zero (c) 22 (d) 24
tolerances ΔA and ΔB

20 ± 00
φ 0.1
φ M X M 13. The hole size of a bush is 20 0+.000.03 mm. The shaft
φ
X 45.00 ± 0.05 size (in mm) if the required minimum and
20.00 ± 0.07 maximum interferences are 0.03 and 0.08 mm
15.00 ± 0.06
respectively is………….

A ± ∆A 30.00 ± 0.10
B ± ∆B
14. A shaft and hole are specified as 25 H7/f8 fit.
Being given with usual notations:
10± 00 φ
(a) i(microns) = 0.45 3 D +0.001D (D in mm),
30.00± 0.10 IT7 = 16i and IT8 = 25i

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 37 Objective Practice Questions

(b) the upper deviation for f shaft = -5.5 D0.41
(c) 25 mm falls in the diameter step of 18
and 30
(i) Type of fit is
(a) clearance (b) interference
(c) transition (d) none
(ii) Allowance for the above fit is (in mm) are
(a) 0.2 mm (b) 0.02 mm
(c) 0.33 mm (d) 0.033 mm
(iii) max clearance is
(a) 0.74 mm (b) 0.074 mm
(c) 0.053 mm (d) 0.04 mm
(iv) size of GO plug gage
(a) 25.00 (b) 25.02 step of 50 – 80 mm Fundamental tolerance
(c) 24.9 (d) 24.946
15. The following data are given for calculating
limits of dimensions and tolerances for a hole:
Tolerance unit ‘i’ (microns) = 0.45 ((D)1/3 +
0.001D. The unit of D is mm. Diameter step is
18 – 30. If the fundamental deviation for hole
H is zero and IT8 = 25i, the maximum and
minimum limits of dimension for a 25H8 hole
(a) 24.984 & 24.967
(b) 25.017 & 24.984
(c) 25.033 & 25.00
(d) 25.00, 24.967
16. What are the upper and lower limits respectively
of the shaft represented by 60f8 Use the
following data Diameter 60 lies in the diameter
unit , i in microns = 0.45 D1/3+0.001D, where D is

(v) size of NOGO plug gage is the respective size in mm. tolerance value for
IT8 = 25i, Fundamental deviation for “f” shaft
(a) 25.00 (b) 25.02
= – 5.5D0.41
(c) 24.98 (d) 24.946 (a) 59.970 & 59.924 (b) 60.00 & 59.954
(vi) size of GO ring gage (c) 60.016 & 59.970 (d) 60.046 & 60.00
(a) 25.00 (b) 25.02
17. A small bore is designated as 25H7. The lower
(c) 24.98 (d) 24.946
(minimum) and upper (maximum) limits of the
(vii) size of NOGO ring gage
bore are 25.000 mm and 25.021 respectively.
(a) 25.00 (b) 25.02 When the bore is designated as 25H8, then
(c) 24.98 (d) 24.946 the upper (maximum) limit is 25.033 mm.

(viii) wear allowance is provided When the bore is designated as 25H6, then
the upper (maximum) limit of the bore (in
(a) Go gage
mm) is
(b) NOGO gage (a) 25.001 (b) 25.005
(c) both Go and NOGO (c) 25.009 (d) 25.013
(d) none

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 38 Production Technology

18. A medium force fit H7 p6 is specified for an 21. GO and NO-GO plug gages are to be
assembly of a hand wheel on a shaft of 50 designed for a hole 01 mm. Gauge
20.00 ++00..05
mm nominal dia. Given the following: tolerance can be taken as 10% of the hole
Limits of tolerance for p6 tolerance. Following ISO system of gage
Normal size
shaft in micron design, sizes of GO and NO-GO gage will be
Over Upto and es ei respectively.
Including + + (a) 20.010 mm and 20.050 mm
40 50 42 26 (b) 20.014 mm and 20.046 mm
50 65 51 32 (c) 20.006 mm and 20.054 mm
Limits of tolerance for H7 hole in microns (d) 20.014 mm and 20.054 mm

Es E1
22. In a shaft-hole system, the dimensions with
30 50 25 0
tolerance ( in mm ) are as follows:
50 80 30 0
shaft: φ20±x, hole: 20 --0y.03 , where both x and
(i) The dimensions of hole y are positive real numbers. Which one of the
(a) 50 +0.025
+0.00 (b) 50 +0.03
+0.00 following will provide an interference fit
(a) x = 0.05, y= 0.040 (b) x = 0.04, y = 0.035
(c) 50 ++00..025
03
(d) none
(c) x = 004, y = 0.032 (d) x = 0.02, y = 0.035

(ii) The dimensions of shaft

KEY
(a) 50 ++00..042
026 (b) 50 ++00..051
032

(c) 50 ++00..042
026 (d) none
01. (a) 02. (c) 03. (d) 04. (c) 05. (d)
(iii) Maximum interference
06. (c) 07. i (d) ii (c) 08. i (c) ii (a)iii (b)
(a) 0.042 (b) 0.068
(c) 0.026 (d) 0.051 09. (45±0.16 = A±∆A & 25±0.23=B+∆B)

(iv) Minimum interference. 10. ]c = 100 +-00..075

275 g

(a) 0.025 (b) 0.017 11. (C=99.925 & Possible) 12. (b)
(c) 0.001 (d) 0.000 13. ]20 ++00..0806g
19. In the tolerance specification 25 D6, the letter 14. i. (a) ii. (b) iii. (b)iv. (a) v. (b) vi. (c) vii. (d) viii. (a)
D represents 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (d)
(a) grade of tolerance (b) upper deviation 18. i. (a) ii.(a)iii. (a) iv. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b)
(c) lower deviation (d) type of fit
21. (a) 22. (d)
20. The dimensional limits on a shaft of 25h7 are
(a) 25.000, 25.021 mm
(b) 25.000, 24.979 mm
(c) 25.000, 25.007 mm
(d) 25.000, 24.993 mm

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 39 Objective Practice Questions

04. A 125 mm sine bar is to be set up to an angle

7.2 Angular Measurement
of 30°
(i) Determine the slip gauges needed
01. A 200 mm sine bar is to be set to an angle of (a) 125 mm (b) 108.253 mm
32°5’6”. Find the length of the gauge blocks (c) 62.5 mm (d) 72.168 mm
required using any appropriate set of gauge (ii) Determine the error in the actual angle
blocks. set, if it is found that
(a) 106.235 mm (b) 169.452 mm
(c) 53.117 mm (d) none (A) The roller distance is 125.005 mm, with
same height
02. The angle of a wedge – shaped block is (a) 5” (b) 8” (c) 12” (d) none
being checked using a 200 mm sine bar. With
gauge blocks of 28.87 mm height under one (B) Upper roller of sine bar is 0.002 mm bigger
end of the sine bar the dial gauge readings in diameter than the lower roller; by
at each end of the workpiece vary by 0.08 keeping the length and height remain
mm, the gauge block end being low. same as 125 and 62.5 mm
(a) 2” (b) 4” (c) 6” (d) none
(i) If the work piece is 50 mm long what
should be the next height of the gauge (C) The gauging face is out of parallelism
block tried? from rollers by + 0.002 mm;
(a) 28.55 mm (b) 29.19 mm (a) ±4” (b) 4” (c) – 4” (d) ± 2”
(c) 28.95 mm (d) none
(D) The slip gauge stack has an unsuspected
(ii) If this height is correct, calculate the errors of 0.005 mm (the actual height
angle of the work piece. being 62.500 ± 0.005).
(a) 8°23’32” (b) 8°36’3” (a) 8” (b) ±8 (c) 10” (d) ±10”
(c) 81°36’27” (d) none
05. The least count of a 200 mm long spirit level is
03. The various factors on which the accuracy of given as 10 seconds per division. The gradient
a sine bar does not depends is of the spirit level expressed as mm over one
1. size of rollers meter is …….…
2. center distance between rollers
3. parallelism of roller axis with top surface 06. A sine bar and set of slip gauge blocks (slip
4. flatness of top and bottom surface gauges) are used to measure the angles of
5. total length of the sine bar taped components. Neglecting errors due
(a) 1 & 2 (b) 1, 2 & 3 to the use of slip gauges, a given sine bar
(c) all (d) 5 alone achieves greater accuracy while measuring
smaller angles than while measuring larger
angles because

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 40
(a) there is a possible slippage during
measuring larger angles
(b) error will be more in slip gages when we
go for measuring larger angles
(c) error will be less in slip gages when we go
for measuring smaller angles
(d) sine curve is linear in smaller angles and
slope reduces at larger angles
07. A 100 mm sine bar is used to find the included
angle of a plug gauge as shown in fig. Height
of slips below the lower cylinder is 25 mm.
(i) If angle is 30°, what is the height of slips
below the upper cylinder.
(a) 50 mm (b) 75 mm
(c) 125 mm (d) 150 mm
(ii) If length of sine bar is 100.005 mm and
upper cylinder is 0.005 mm larger, what is
the height of slips below upper cylinder.
(a) 75 mm (b) 75.0025 mm
(c) 75.005 mm (d) 75.0075 mm
08. A Sine bar has a length of 250 mm, each roller
has a diameter of 20 mm. During taper angle
measurement of a component , the height
from the surface plate to the center of a roller
is 100 mm. The calculated taper angle (in
degrees) is
(a) 21.1 (b) 22.8
(c) 23.6 (d) 68.9
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Production Technology
09. The height (in mm) for a 25 mm sine bar to
measure a taper of 27°32’ on a flat work
piece is ……………..
KEY
01. (a) 02. i. (b) ii. (a) 03. (d)
04. i. (c) ii. A (a) B (a) C (b) D (d)
05. (0.048 mm/m) 06. (d) 07. i.(b) ii. (d)
08. (a) 09. (11.55 mm)
7.3 Taper and Internal Diameter
Measurements
01. Balls of dia 30 mm and 15 mm were used
to measure the taper of a taper ring gage.
During inspection, the ball of 30 mm dia was
protruding by 2.5 mm above the top surface
of the ring. This surface was located at a
height of 50 mm from the top of 15 mm dia
ball. The taper angle is …………
02. The measurement of angle of a single dovetail
is shown below with d1 = 10 mm, d2 = 20 mm,
M1 = 36.34 mm, M2 = 50 mm. The angle of a
dovetail is …….
M2
d2
d1
M1
 41 Objective Practice Questions

03. The dia of a recessed hole is measured as 07. With reference to the fig given, write down
follows: d1 = 100 mm, d2 = 50 mm, h1 = 70 mm, the equation relating the dimension “h” with
h2 = 30 mm. The dia of the recessed hole is …. the diameter “D” and the angle “α”. If a unit
increase in D has to result in a unit increase in
h2 “h”, what must be the angle “α”?
h1
d2 α
d1

h
D

04. The bore dia “D” of a plain ring having a

08. An experimental setup is planned to
height of 35 mm was measured using two
spherical balls, each of dia d = 25 mm. The determine the taper of work piece as shown

ring was placed on a surface table and then in the figure. If the two precision rollers have
both balls were placed inside the ring. In radii 8 mm and 5 mm and the total thickness
this position, the height “h” of the top of the of slip gauges inserted between the rollers is
upper ball from the surface table was found 15.54 mm, the taper angle “θ” is
to be 42.00 mm. the dia of the ring is
05. The angles are unequal on the V-block shown.
Workpiece
The angles are θ and φ have been previously
measured. The roller dia is 25 mm, θ = 45° 50’, θ
φ = 29° 10’, M = 110.89 mm, determine the
Roller
Roller 3
value of X. Slip gauges
28.54
Roller

(a) 6 Deg (b) 10 Deg

φ M
(c) 11Deg (d) 12 Deg
θ
X
09. A taper hole is inspected using a CMM, with
a probe of 2 mm diameter. At a height, Z=10
06. A ‘V’ block is produced with a 90° angle
mm from the bottom, 5 points are touched
cutter. The height difference measured over
and a diameter of circle (not compensated
two standard rollers of diameter difference
for probe size) is obtained as 20 mm. similarly,
10mm placed in this ‘V’ block is 12.138. Find
a 40 mm diameter at a height Z = 40 mm. The
the error in the angle of the ‘V’ block.
smaller diameter (in mm) of the hole at Z = 0 is

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 42 Production Technology

02. When measuring the minor dia of an external

screw thread for ISO metric threads, a
Z=40
30.5 mm dia cylindrical standard was used.
Z=20
The micrometer readings over the standard
Z=0 and prisms, and thread and prisms were
15.3768 mm and 13.5218 mm respectively.
(a) 13.334 (b) 15.334
The minor dia of thread gauge is
(c) 15.442 (d) 15.542
(a) 32.355 mm (b) 30.5 mm
(c) 28.645 mm (d) none
10. For the situation shown in the figure below the
expression for H in terms of r, R and D is
03. When measuring the effective dia of a Metric
D external screw thread of 3.5 mm pitch, a
30.500 mm dia cylindrical standard and
r
2.00 mm wires were used. The micrometer
R H readings over the standard and wires, and
thread and wires used 13.3768 and 12.2428
mm respectively. The thread Eff. dia is
(a) H  D  r  R 2 2
(a) 26.3349 (b) 30.3973
(b) H  ]R  r g  ]D  r g (c) 31.3973 (d) None

(c) H  ]R  r g  D2  R2
(d) H  ]R  r g  2D ]R  r g  D2
KEY
01. (19.2) 02. (60) 03. (112.41 mm)
04. (43.33 mm) 05. (78.075)
07. (38.94) 08. (d) 09. (c) 10. (d)
7.4 Screw Thread Measurement
04. When measuring an ISO metric external
screw thread gauge, the following results
were obtained E = 30.6651 mm, p = 3.500 mm,
∆p = 0.004 mm, Thread angle error (RH flank)
= 7’ Thread angle error (LH flank) = 9’. The VED
06. (1.06)
of the gauge is ______
(a) 30.6842 mm (b) 31.6842mm
(c) 32.6842mm (d) none
05. The gauge shown in figure is used to check

01. When measuring the major dia of an

external screw thread, a 35.500 mm, 1.25 mm
diameter cylindrical standard was used.
The micrometer readings over the standard
(a) The pitch of screw threads
and thread were 9.3768 and 11.8708 mm
(b) The major dia of screw threads
respectively. The major dia of thread gauge is
(c) The thread angle of screw thread
(a) 28.00 mm (b) 30.5 mm
(d) The minor dia of screw threads
(c) 33.00 mm (d) 37.994 mm

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 43 Objective Practice Questions

06. In measuring the thread angle of standard 10. An ISO metric thread has a pitch error of
metric thread the diameters measured over 0.2 mm over its length of engagement. The
the wires of 0.8660 and 1.4434 are 20.320 and virtual change in effective diameter (in mm)
22.060 mm respectively. The thread angle is… is
(a) 29° 50’ (b) 59° 40’ (a) 0.057 (b) 0.100
(c) 59° 50’ (d) 59°33’23” (c) 0.173 (d) 0.346

07. Fig shows the 3 wire method of inspecting
screw threads. Assuming ISO metric thread
of size M16 with pitch = 2 mm and effective
dia is 14.701 mm. The over wire measurement
“M” when the dia of the roller used for the
measurement is 1.155 mm.
(The best wire size) is………..
Statement for Linked Answer Q 11 & 12
In a three wire inspection of external thread of
M16 × 2, the measurement over the wires was
found to be 16.455 mm
11. The best wire size is
(a) 1.155 mm (b) 2 mm
(c) 2.309 mm (d) 4 mm

M 12. The effective pitch diameter of the thread is

(a) 14.723 (b) 16.705
(c) 17.122 (d) 17.455

13. In a V-thread a wire is fitted such that it makes

08. For measurement of pitch of double start contact with the flank of the thread on the
metric screw threads using pitch measuring pitch line. If the pitch “p” of the thread is 3 mm
machine with stylus. During measurement of and the included angle is 60°, the diameter in
linear movement of 3 mm was noted for one mm of the wire is ____________
revolution of the machine. The pitch of the
screw thread is 7.4 Screw Thread Measurement
(a) 6.0 mm (b) 4.5 mm
(c) 3 mm (d) 1.5 mm
01. (d) 02. (a) 03. (a) 04. (a) 05. (a)
09. A threaded nut of M16, ISO metric type, 06. (d) 07. (16.43 mm) 08. (d) 09. (d)
having 2 mm pitch with a pitch diameter 10. (d) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (1.732 mm)
of 14.701 mm is to be checked for its pitch
diameter using two or three numbers of balls
or rollers of the following sizes
(a) Rollers of 2 mm φ
(b) Rollers of 1.155 mm φ
(c) balls of 2 mm φ
(d) Balls of 1.155 mm φ

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7.5 Surface Finish
01. In measurement of surface roughness, heights
of 10 successive peaks and troughs were
measured from a datum were 35, 25, 40, 22,
35, 18, 42, 25, 35, 23 microns.
(i) The value of max peak to valley height
‘Rt’ is
(a) 13 µm (b) 18 µm below.
(c) 24 µm (d) 42 µm
(ii) The CLA (Ra) value is
(a) 10 µm (b) 20 µm
(c) 30 µm (d) none
(iii) The average over definite ordinates is
(a) 10 µm (b) 15 µm
(c) 20 µm (d) 30 µm
(iv) The root mean square value of roughness
(a) 10 µm (b) 33 µm
(c) 17 µm (d) 20 µm
(v) The international grade of roughness is
(a) N 9 (b) N 10
(c) N 11 (d) N 12
02. The following information is obtained during
measurement of surface finish
ε areas above center line = 480 mm
ε areas below center line = 480 mm2
Vertical magnification = 15000
Horizontal magnification = 100
Sampling length = 0.8 mm
The CLA value of the above surface is
(a) 0 (b) 0.5 µm (c) Lay
(c) 0.8 µm (d) 1 µm
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44 Production Technology
03. A 90° symmetrical V – tool is used in turning a
work piece with a depth of cut of 0.2mm and
a feed of 0.1mm/rev. The theoretical peak to
valley height in µm of the surface produced is
(a) 26 (b) 45
(c) 86 (d) 50
04. During measurement of surface finish, a
sampling length of 2.5 mm is taken, profile
obtained with a magnification of 1000, shown
40micron
50µm Am = 0.105mm2
10micron
2.5mm
The form factor is
(a) 1.25 (b) 1.00
(c) 0.8 (d) 0.6
05. The surface finish of the component produced
by a grinding process was measured. Based
on roughness parameters obtained, which
one of the following is true
(a) Ra < Rs < Rz < Rt (b) Rs < Ra < Rz < Rt
(c) Rz < Ra < Rs < Rt (d) Ra < Rz < Rs < Rt
2
06. What is the dominant direction of the tool
marks or scratches in a surface texture having
a directional quality called
(a) Primary texture
(b) Secondary texture
(d) Flaw
 45 Objective Practice Questions

07. The geometric tolerance that does not need 02. For a 3-axes CNC table, the slide along the
a datum for its specification is vertical axis of the table driven by a DC servo
(a) Concentricity (b) Run out motor via lead screw nut mechanism. The
(c) perpendicularity (d) Flatness lead screw has a pitch of 5 mm. this lead
screw is fitted with a relative (incremental)
08. The roughness profile of a surface is depicted circular encoder. The basic length unit (BLU)
below. of the slide along the vertical axis of the table
is 0.005 mm. When the table moves along
Profile the vertical axis by 9 mm. the corresponding
height
number of pulses generated by the encoder
is
2 µm (a) 1400 (b) 1800 (c) 4200 (d) 9000
centre-line
of the 03. In a point to point control NC m/c, the slides
X
profile
2 µm are positioned by an integrally mounted
stepper motor drive. If the specification of
the motor is 1 deg/pulse, and the pitch of the
lead screw is 3.6 mm, what is the expected
5 mm
positioning accuracy?
The surface roughness parameter Ra (in µm) is (a) 1 micron (b) 10 micron
_______. (c) 50 micron (d) 100 micron

KEY 04. A DC servomotor is directly driving an NC

table. The pitch of the lead screw of the
01. i. (c) ii. (d )iii. (b) iv. (d) v. (c) 02. (c) 03. (d) table is 5 mm. The motor rotates at 100 rpm
for an applied voltage of 10 V. if the voltage
04. (c) 05. (a) 06. (c) 07. (a) 08. (2)
speed characteristic of the motor is linear,
the applied voltage for a table of 3m/min is
8. Advanced Machining Methods equal to:
(a) 30 V (b) 60 V
(c) 33 V (d) 50 V
01. The total angular movement (in degrees) of a
lead screw with a pitch of 5.0 mm to drive the
Statement for Linked Answer Q. 05 & 06
work table by a distance of 200 mm in a NC
In the feed drive of a point to point open loop CNC
machine is
drive, a stepper motor rotating at 200 steps/rev
(a) 14400 (b) 28800
drives a table through a gear box and lead screw-
(c) 57600 (d) 72000
nut mechanism (pitch = 4 mm, number of starts =
1). The gear ratio = Output speed / input speed
is given by U = 1/4. The stepper motor (driven by

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 46 Production Technology

voltage pulses from a pulse generator) executes (c) remain the same
1 step / pulse of the generator. The frequency of (d) become zero
the pulse train from the pulse generator is f = 10000
pulses per minute. 08. A single axis CNC table is driven by a DC servo
Pulse motor that is directly coupled to a lead screw
Generator Gear Box
Table of 5 mm pitch. The circular encoder attached
Stepper
motor U Nut to the lead screw generates 1000 voltage
Lead Screw
pulses per revolution of the lead screw.
The table moves at a constant speed of
05. The basic length unit (BLU), i.e. the table 6 m/min. The corresponding frequency (in
movement corresponding to 1 pulse of the kHz) of the voltage pulses generated by the
pulse generator circular encoder is ________
(a) 0.5 microns (b) 5 Microns
(c) 50 Microns (d) 500 Microns 09. The following part program refers to the
machining of a circular slot on a CNC milling
06. A customer insists on a modification to Machine _______ Metric Units, Absolute
change the BLU of the CNC drive to 10 Coordinate System
Microns without changing the table speed.
N 0050 G01 X50.0 Y 75.0 Z-1.0 F100.0;
The modification can be accomplished by
N 0060 G02 X70.0 Y 55.0 R 20.0 F 80.;
(a) Changing U to ½ and reducing f to f/2
(b) Changing U to 1/8 and increasing f to 2f The centre of the circular slot is
(c) Changing U to ½ and keeping f (a) (50, 75) (b) (70, 55)
unchanged (c) (50, 55) (d) (70, 75)
(d) Keeping U unchanged and increasing f
to 2f 10. NC code
P. G03
07. In an open loop, point-to-point controlled Q. G41
CNC drilling machine, a stepper motor, R. M05
producing 200 angular steps per revolution, S. M08
drives the table of a drilling machine by one
angular step per each pulse generated by Machine action
a pulse generator (shown in figure). Each 1. Spindle stop
angular step moves the table by one Basic 2. Constant surface speed
Length Unit (BLU) along X axis with a lead 3. Tool nose radius compensation left
screw having a pitch of 4 mm. If the frequency 4. Circular interpolation counter clockwise
of pulse generator is doubled, the BLU will 5. Coolant on
(a) become double of previous value
(b) become half of previous value

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 47 Objective Practice Questions

Codes: P Q R S 15. For machining a rectangular island

(a) 4 2 3 5 represented by coordinates P(0,0), Q(100,0),
(b) 4 3 1 5 R(100,50) and S(0,50) on a casting using CNC
(c) 5 4 1 2 milling machine, an end mill with a diameter
(d) 1 3 2 4 of 16 mm is used. The trajectory of the cutter
centre to machine the island PQRS is
11. During the execution of a CNC part program (a) (−8, −8),(108,−8),(108,58),(−8,58),(−8,−8)
block (b) (8,8), (94,8), (94,44), (8,44), (8,8)
NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0 R5.0 (c) (−8,8), (94,0), (94,44), (8,44), (−8,8)
The type of tool motion will be (d) (0,0), (100,0), (100,50), (50,0), (0,0)
(a) circular Interpolation – Clockwise
(b) circular Interpolation –counterclockwise 16. The figure below represents a triangle PQR
(c) linear Interpolation with initial coordinates of the vertices as P(1,
(d) rapid feed 3), Q (4, 5) and R(5, 3.5). The triangle is rotated
in the X-Y plane about the vertex P by angle θ
12. In a 2-D CAD package, clockwise circular in clockwise direction. If sin θ = 0.6 and cos θ =
arc of radius 5, specified from P1 (15,10) to 0.8, the new coordinates of the vertex Q are
P2(10,15) will have its center at
Q
(a) (10, 10) (b) (15, 10) Y (4,5)
(c) (15, 15) (d) (10, 15)
R
(5,3.5)
13. The tool of an NC machine has to move along P(1,3)
a circular arc from (5, 5) to (10, 10) while
O X
performing an operation. The centre of the
arc is at (10, 5). Which one of the following (a) (4.6, 2.8) (b) (3.2, 4.6)
NC tool path commands performs the above (c) (7.9, 5.5) (d) (5.5, 7.9)
mentioned operation?
(a) N010 G02 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5 17. A point P (1, 3, –5) is translated by 2 ti  3tj  4kt
(b) N010 G03 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5 and then rotated counter clockwise by 90°
(c) N010 G01 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5 about the z-axis. The new position of the point
(d) N010 G02 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5 is
(a) (–6, 3, –9) (b) (–6, –3, –9)
14. A CNC instruction G91G01X30Y40F100 (c) (6, 3, –9) (d) (6, 3, 9)
commands the movement of tool along
the path at a feed rate of 100 mm/min 18. Group-1
(G91- incremental format and G01- linear P. Machanized ware housing
interpolation). The feed rate of the tool (in Q. To inspect more than one dimension in
mm/min) along the X axis will be ______ one setting

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 48 Production Technology

R. Automatic transportation of parts in a 22. An open loop type NC machine has a

manufacturing system stepper motor with a step of 0.9 degree. The
S. Make range of products in small batches lead screw of the machine is of 4mm pitch.
Group-2 if the motor is rotating at 15 r.p.m, the pulse
1. AGV frequency and feed rate of the machining
2. S/RS operation is ____
3. CMM
4. PLC 23. With reference to the following figure, the
5. FMS program for movement of the tool in the path
Codes: P Q R S of O – A – B – C is
(a) 1 3 4 5 1. N001 G90 G01 X5.0 Y10.0 F5000 LF
(b) 2 3 1 5 2. N005 X25.0 Y15.0 LF
(c) 2 3 4 1 3. N010 X35.0 Y5.0 LF
(d) 3 1 2 5 4. N015 M30 LF

Y
19. A CNC vertical milling machine has to cut a
straight slot of 10 mm width and 2 mm depth
by a cutter of 10 mm diameter between points
B
(0, 0) and (100, 100) on the XY plane 15
A
(dimensions in mm). The feed rate used for 10
milling is 50 mm/min. Milling time for the slot C
5
(in seconds) is
(a) 120 (b) 170 (c) 180 (d) 240 0 5 25 35 X
Which of the above statements are
20. A DC servomotor is coupled directly to a true
lead screw which drives the table of an NC (a) 1, 2, 3 & 4 (b) 1, 2 & 3
machine tool. A digital encoder which emits (c) 2, 3 & 4 (d) 1, 2 & 4
500 pulses per revolution is mounted on the
other end of the lead screw. If the lead screw 24. Match the following.
pitch is 5mm and the motor rotates at 650 List – I (NC Program Code)
rpm, calculate P. G90
(a) The linear velocity of the table. Q. G91
(b) The BLU of the NC system R. G70
S. G71
21. An open loop type NC machine has a List – II (Application)
stepper motor with a step of 0.9 degree. The 1. Absolute mode of programming
lead screw of the machine is of 4 mm pitch. 2. Incremental mode of programming
If the tool has to be moved by 2.87 mm, the 3. Programming in inches
pulses will have to be feed is ________ 4. Programming in mm.

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 49 Objective Practice Questions

(a) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 Which of the above statements are true in
(b) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 case of flexible manufacturing system ?
(c) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (a) 1 & 2 (b) 2 & 3
(d) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (c) 1 & 3 (d) 1, 2 & 3

25. Which of the following statements are 28. The following are the codes used in the CNC
incorrect in part programming of CNC part programming,
Machines : 1. G03 – Circular interpolation Counter
(1) G00 X 100 Y150 LF clockwise movement
(2) G01 X 200 Y 250 : 2. G71 – metric dimension Coordinate
(3) M01 F50 ; system
(4) G05 F80 LF 3. G90 – Incremental mode of programming
(5) M04 S500 4. M17 – End of the Sub-program
(a) 1 & 3 (b) 1, 3 & 5 Of the above statements the correct
(c) 2, 4, & 5 (d) 1, 4, & 5 statements are
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1, 2 & 4
26. Match the following : (c) 1, 3 & 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
List – I (Codes) List –II (Meaning)
P. M00 1. Clamp 29. Match the following List–I (Track number in
Q. M01 2. De-clamp NC tape) with List–II (application)
R. M06 3. Program stop List – I List – II
S. M10 4. Tool change P. 1 to 4 1. Numerals
5. Planned stop Q. 5 2. Parity check
6. Spindle stop R. 6 to 7 3. Alphabets
Codes : S. 8 4. EOB
P Q R S Codes:

(a) 3 5 4 2 (a) P – 2, R – 3, S – 1, T – 4

(b) 5 3 6 1 (b) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 1

(c) 5 3 6 2 (c) P – 3, Q – 2, S – 4, T – 1

(d) 3 5 4 1 (d) P – 3, R – 2, S – 1, T – 4

27. Consider the following statements : 30. Which of the following are valid statements
1. It uses CNC machine for manufacturing during defining a line in APT language?
2. It uses Host computer for controlling the 1. L1 = LINE/2.0, 1.0, 0.0, 5.0, 3.0, 0.0
CNC machines 2. L2 = LINE/P1, P2 but points P1 and P2 are
3. It uses AGV’s for retrieving the Raw defined later
material from the stores 3. L3 = LINE/P1, P2 but points P1 and P2 are
defined before

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 50 Production Technology

4. L4 = LINE /P1, LEFT, ATANGL, 30, L3 but 33. Assertion (A): Machining center is a general
point P1 and line L1 are defined later purpose CNC machine used for producing
5. L4 = LINE /P1, LEFT, ATANGL, 30, L3 but different varieties of components.
point P1 and line L1 are defined before Reason (R): Machining center consists of a
Select the correct answer using the codes tool magazine which can hold 32 varieties of
given below: tools in it for machining.
(a) 1, 2 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 4 (a) A & R are true and R explains A
(c) 1, 3 and 5 (d) 3 and 5 (b) A&R are true & R doesn’t explains A
(c) A true but R is False
31. With reference to the fig, the tool has to move (d) A is false but R is true
A – B – C sequence.
34. Assertion (A): Feed back is necessary in any
C⊗ automatic control system.
(30, 60) Reason (R): Feed back improves accuracy of
the system.
B
⊗
(70, 40) 35. Assertion (A): In DNC system CNC machines
are used
A Reason (R): FMS is a part of CIM system.
⊗
(30, 10)
36. Assertion (A): If the program is written in
Which of the following statements are true
absolute mode, it is easy to trace the position
1. N01 G00 G90 X 30 Y 10 LF
of the tool in case of power failure during the
2. N02 G91 G01 X 40 Y 30 F 500 LF
process.
3. N03 G90 G01 X 30 Y 60 F 200 LF
Reason (R): Absolute method of programming
4. N04 M02
is easy to write because the present position
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 2, 3 & 4
of tool can be taken as reference for
(c) 1, 2 & 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4
programming to the next position.

32. Which of the following are the post processor

37. A part program for positioning of drill bit
statements ?
successively at points A, B, C and D are given
1. SPINDL / 500
below
2. RAPID
1410.MPF
3. FEDRAT / 2000
N02 G71;
4. INTTOL / 0.01
N05 G00 G90 X30 Y10;
5. PARTNO / 100
N10 G91 X40 Y30;
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 2, 3 & 4
N15 X – 40 Y20;
(c) 3, 4 & 5 (d) All
N20 X –20 Y – 20;
N25 M02;

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 51 Objective Practice Questions

The units of data input and positioning

NTM Methods
method of tool from B to C are
(a) metric & absolute
(b) metric and incremental 01. In USM the metal removal rate would…………
(c) English and absolute with increasing mean grain diameter of the
(d) English and incremental abrasive material
(a) increase
38. Match List – I (type of NC machine) with List – (b) decrease
II (feature) (c) increase and then decrease
List – I (d) decrease and then increase
P. PTP control
Q. Contour control 02. Ultrasonic machines used in material removal
R. closed loop control process, requires ultrasonic transducers.
S. 4D control The transducers work on different working
List – II principles. One of the working principles of
1. two tools can simultaneously work such ultrasonic transducers is based on
2. making a spherical end (a) Eddy current effect
3. feed back system (b) Seebeck effect
4. drilling machine (c) Piezoresistive effect
Codes: P Q R S (d) Piezoelctric effect
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 3 2 4 1 03. The mechanism of material removal in EDM
(c) 4 3 2 1 process is
(d) 2 3 4 1 (a) Melting and Evaporation
(b) Melting and Corrosion
(c) Erosion and Cavitation
KEY (d) Cavitation and Evaporation

01. (a) 02. (b) 03. (b) 04. (b) 05. (b) 04. In EDM, if the thermal conductivity of tool is

06. (a) 07. (c) 08. (20) 09. (c) 10. (b) high and the specific heat of work piece is low,
then the tool wear rate and material removal
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (60) 15. (a)
rate are expected to be respectively.
16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (b)
(a) high and high (b) low and low
20. (54.166 mm/sec, 10 microns)
(c) high and low (d) low and high
21. (287) 22. (100 Pulses, 60 mm/min) 23. (b)
24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (b)
29. (d) 30. (c) 31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (a)
34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (a)

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 52 Production Technology

05. A titanium sheet of 5.0 mm thickness is cut by 08. Selection of electrolyte for ECM is as follows
wire cut EDM process using a wire of 1.0 mm (a) non-passivating electrolyte for stock
diameter. A uniform spark gap of 0.5 mm on removal and passivating electrolyte for
both sides of the wire is maintained during finish control
cutting operation. If the feed rate of the wire (b) passivating electrolyte for stock removal
into the sheet is 20 mm/min, the material and non-passivating electrolyte for finish
removal rate (in mm /min) will be
3
control
(a) 150 (b) 200 (c) 300 (d) 400 (c) selection of electrolyte is dependent on
current density
06. Keeping all other parameters unchanged, the (d) electrolyte selection is based on tool-
tool wear in electrical discharge machining work electrodes.
(EDM) would be less if the tool material has
(a) High thermal conductivity and high 09. In ECM, the metal removal rate is directly
specific heat proportional to
(b) High thermal conductivity and low (a) density of work material
specific heat (b) gram atomic weight of the work material
(c) Low thermal conductivity and low (c) concentration of the electrolyte
specific heat used
(d) Low thermal conductivity and high (d) thermal conductivity of the work material
specific heat
10. Which one of the following process conditions
07. In an EDM process using RC relaxation circuit, leads to higher MRR in ECM?
a 12 mm diameter through hole is made in a (a) Higher current, large atomic weight
steel plate of 50 mm thickness using a graphite (b) Higher vallency, lower current
tool and kerosene as dielectric. Assume (c) Lower atomic weight, lower vallency
discharge time to be negligible. Machining is (d) Higher valency, lower atomic weight
carried out under the following conditions.
11. In an electrochemical machining (ECM)
Resistance = 40 Ω, operation, a square hole of dimensions
Capacitance = 20 µF 5 m×5 mm is drilled in a block of copper.
Supply voltage = 220 V The current used is 5000A. Atomic
Discharge voltage = 110 V weight of copper is 63 and valence of
(i) The time for one cycle, in milliseconds, is dissolution is 1. Faradays constant is 96500
(a) 0.55 (b) 0.32 coulomb. The material removal rate
(c) 0.89 (d) 0.24 (g/s ) is
(ii) Average power input (in KW) is (a) 0.326 (b) 3.26
(a) 0.373 (b) 0.137 (c) 3.15 × 10 3
(d) 3.15 ×105
(c) 0.218 (d) 0.5

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 53 Objective Practice Questions

12. Electrochemical machining is performed to
remove material from an iron surface of
20 × 20 mm under the following conditions
Inter electrode gap = 0.2 mm
Supply voltage (DC) =12 V
Specific resistance of electrolyte = 2 ohm-cm
Atomic weight of iron = 55.85
Valency of iron = 2
Faradays constant = 96540 Couloumbs
The material removal rate (in g/s) is
(a) 0.3471 (b) 3.471 velocity (in m/s) of the abrasive water jet at
(c) 34.71 (d) 347.1
14. In abrasive water jet machining, the velocity
of water at the exit of the orifice, before mixing
with abrasives, is 800 m/s. The mass flow rate of
water is 3.4 kg/min. The abrasives are added
to the water jet at a rate of 0.6 kg/min with
negligible velocity. Assume that at the end
of the focusing tube, abrasive particles and
water come out with equal velocity. Consider
that there is no air in the abrasive water jet.
Assuming conservation of momentum, the
the end of the focusing tube is _________

13. The surface irregularities of electrodes used 15. A zigzag cavity in a block of high strength
in an electrochemical machining (ECM) alloy is to be finish machined.
process are 3 µm and 6 µm as shown in the
figure. If the work-piece is of pure iron and 12
V DC is applied between the electrodes, the
largest feed rate is ________ mm/min.

Conductivity of the 0.02 Ohm–1mm–1 This can be carried out by using

electrolyte (a) Electric discharge machining
Over-potential voltage 1.5 V (b) Electro-chemical machining
Density of iron 7860 kg/m3 (c) Laser beam machining
Atomic weight of iron 55.85 gm (d) Abrasive flow machining

Assume the iron to be dissolved as Fe+2 and 16. Assertion (A): In electron beam welding
the Faraday constant to be 96500 Coulomb. process, vacuum is an essential process
parameter.

Tool
Reason (R): Vacuum provides a highly
efficient shield on weld zone.
6 µm

Nominal Gap 17. Arrange the processes in the increasing order

3 µm
of their maximum material removal rate
(a) USM, LBM, EBM, EDM, ECM
Work-piece (Iron) (b) EBM, LBM, USM, ECM, EDM
(c) LBM, EBM, USM, ECM, EDM
(d) LBM, EBM, USM, EDM, ECM

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 54 Production Technology

18. Consider the following statements in relation

to the NTM
1. Different forms of energy directly
α
applied to work piece to have shape
transformation or material removal from
A
work surface
2. Relative motion between the work and 100
the tool is essential 80
3. Cutting tool is not in physical contact 100kg 100kg
with work piece
Which of the above statements given above
are correct 60
(a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 2 only
100
(c) 2 & 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(a) calculate the magnitude of the clamping
force
Jigs and Fixtures
(b) direction of the clamping force with
respect to vertical axis of symmetry
19. A keyway of 5 mm depth is to be milled in (c) position (A) with respect to the vertical
a shaft of diameter 60 ±0.1
by positioning the axis of symmetry.
shaft in a V-block of angle 120 deg and setting
the tool with reference to the intersection of 21. A jig with 90o V – locater and clamps as shown
the face lines of the V-block. The error due to in fig is used to drill holes on cylindrical work
shaft tolerance which would be transfer on to piece of 120 mm diameter. Drill guide bush
the component is axis is aligned with respect to job axis. To drill
(a) 0.09 mm (b) 0.19 mm an eccentric hole block P of 12 mm thickness
(c) 0.22 mm (d) 0.30 mm and block Q 9 mm thickness and placed on
the V-faces of the block and then the job is
20. A square block is located on 3 pins (two on located and clamped,
one side and the one on the second side) as
indicated in fig. If the reactions on the pins Block ‘P’
are to be the same as 100 kgs after clamping
DRILL BUSH
from the top side. AXIS
CLAMP
F

900
V - LOCATOR Block ‘Q’

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 55 Objective Practice Questions

(i) What is the eccentricity achieved. 24. Arrange the following heat treatment
(a) 7.93 mm (b) 1.33 mm processes in the sequence
(c) 4.08 mm (d) 15.00 mm 1. Sub-zero treatment
2. Hardening
(ii) For a same eccentricity of block of 3. EDM
identical thickness used on either face, 4. Tempering
what should be the thickness of block (a) 2 – 1 – 3 – 4 (b) 3 –2 – 1 – 4
used? Which of the two methods are (c) 2 – 1 – 4 – 3 (d) 2 –1 –3 – 4
selected and why.
25. Match the List – I (NTM) with List – II (Limitation)
22. A cylindrical work piece can be clamped by List – I List – II
using P. USM 1. High specific cutting energy
(a) fixed rectangular block and movable Q. EDM 2. Machining of soft materials
V-clamp. R. EBM 3. Square corner holes
(b) fixed V-block and movable rectangular S. ECM 4. Vacuum
block
(c) fixed V-block and movable V- block (a) P–1, Q–4, R–2, S–3
for making axial hole in vertical drilling (b) P–2, Q–3, R–4, S–1
machine of the diameter of the work (c) P–1, Q–4, R–3, S–2
piece is given as 60 +0.05
-0.00 mm and (d) P–2, Q–3, R–1, S–4
included angle of V-block 120 degrees.
26. Match the following Four of list – I (NTM) with
Calculate the positional error of the hole in list – II (limitations of the process)
each case. Also recommend the choice of List – I
location for fixture design P. USM Q. EDM
R. ECM S. LBM
23. Match the following T. WJM
List – I List – II List – II
(Machining process) (Medium used) 1. Sharp corners of holes cannot be produced
A. USM 1. Kerosene 2. Vacuum is compulsory
B. EDM 2.Abrasive Slurry 3. High power requirements
C. ECM 3.Vacuume 4. Soft materials are not machined
D. EBM 4. Salt solution 5. Work-piece should be electrically
Codes: A B C D conductive

(a) 2 3 4 1 (a) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-2

(b) 2 1 4 3 (b) P-4, Q-5, S-3, T-2

(c) 4 1 2 3 (c) P-4, Q-1, R-5, S-3

(d) 4 3 2 1 (d) Q-5, R-1, S-3, T-4

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 56 Production Technology

27. Consider the following statements about 3. Perfect square corners cannot be
abrasive water-jet machining: produced
1. A water-jet thoroughly mixed with 4. Hardness of work piece will takes place
abrasive particles acts as cutting 5. Annealing heat treatment of work piece
agent will takes place.
2. Abrasive particles increases the cutting (a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 2, 3 & 4
efficiency (c) 1, 2 & 4 (d) 1, 3 & 4
3. It is mainly suitable for electronic industry
4. Abrasive particles such as Aluminum 30. Match List I with List II and select the correct
oxide and Silicon carbide are used in the answer using the codes given below.
process. List – I (NTM)
Of these statements P. LBM
(a) 1, 2 & 3 are true (b) 1, 2 & 4 are true Q. EDM
(c) 2, 3 & 4 are true (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4 are R. ECM
true S. AJM

28. Match the following list – 1 (Parts) with List–2 List – II (Mechanism of MR)
(NTM process) and select the correct answer 1. Brittle fracturing
given below. 2. Melting and evaporation with cavitation
List – 1 List – 2 3. Ion displacement
P. Cutting of rubber sheets 1. AJM 4. Errosive action
Q. Cutting of granite 2. ECM 5. Plastic deformation & Fracturing
R. Turbine blades 3. EDM
S. Holes in diesel injection nozzle 4. USM (a) P–4, Q–2, R–3, S–1
5. WJM (b) P–4, Q–2, R–3, S–5
6. EBM (c) P–2, Q–4, R–3, S–1
Codes : (d) P–4, Q–3, R–2, S–5
P Q R S 31. Assertion (A): ECM cannot be used for

(a) 5 6 4 2 producing holes

(b) 6 5 2 4 Reason (R): In ECM melting and vaporization

(c) 5 1 2 3 is the mechanism of metal removal.

(d) 6 1 3 2
32. Which of the following principle is not satisfied
29. Which of the following are the limitations of by the 3 – 2- 1 locating method
the EDM process 1. Principle of minimum number of pins
1. It gives highest MRR out of all the NTM 2. Principle of perpendicular planes
processes 3. Principle of extreme positions
2. Work piece material must be electrically (a) 1, 2 & 3 (b) 1 & 3
conductive (c) 2 & 3 (d) None
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 57 Objective Practice Questions

33. In fabrication of Jigs and Fixtures using KEY

1. Casting
2. Welding 01. (c) 02. (d) 03. (c) 04. (d) 05. (b)
3. Assembling 06. (a) 07. i. (a) ii (c) 08. (b) 09. (b)
The above processes in the decreasing order 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (51.542)
of their expendability to use it for different 14. (680) 15. (c) 16. (Both are correct)
parts are 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (c)
(a) 1 > 2 > 3 (b) 2 > 1 > 3 20. a.(223.6 N)b.(10 mm) c.( 26.56o)
(c) 3 > 2 > 1 (d) 3 > 1 > 2 21. i. (d), ii (10.6 mm)
22. a.(0.025 mm) b. (0.028 mm) c. (0.028 mm)
34. Match the following List – I (Manufacturing 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (b)
process used for Jigs and Fixtures) with List – II 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b) 31. (c) 32. (d)
(Advantage) 33. (c) 34. (b)

List – I
P. Casting
Q. Welding
R. Fabrication

List – II
1. Property of absorbing and damping out
the vibrations
2. Expandability is very high
3. Fast construction

(a) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 3 (b) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 2
(c) P – 2, Q – 3, R – 1 (d) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 2

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