QUESTIONAIRE FOR MATERIAL ENGINEERS EXAMINATION

A. Soils
1. The different tests for soil classification are:
a. Compaction and FDT
b. Hydrometer test and moisture content
c. Grading LL & PL test (ans.)
2. The apparatus/ equipment used in the liquid limit and plastic limit tests:
a. Sieves and chisel
b. Mortar and pestle
c. Atterberg’s device and glass plate (ans.)
3. Method of laboratory sampling
a. By mixing
b. By proportion
c. By mechanical splitter/ quartering (ans.)
4. In laboratory compaction test/ moisture density relations of soil, what is the specification rammer?
a. 10 lbs (4.5 kgs) in wt. with 18 inches drop
b. 8 lbs (3.6 kgs) in wt. with 16 inches drop
c. 5.5 lbs (2.5 kgs) with 12 inches drop (ans.)
5. What is the specifications for mass percent passing on sieve 0.075 mm Grading ‘A’ aggregate base course?
a. 2 – 14
b. 0 – 6
c. 0 – 12 (ans.)

B. Concrete
1. The number of specimen samples in testing concrete hollow blocks
a. 6 pieces/ 10,000 units (for 3 absorption tests and 3 for strength test) (ans.)
b. 4 pieces/ 20,000 units
c. 3 pieces/ 20,000 units
2. It is really necessary to cure concrete specimen
a. Yes (ans.)
b. No
c. None of the two
3. The kind of test that test the consistency of concrete?
a. Slump test (ans.)
b. Abrasion test
c. Specific gravity
4. What is the dimension of concrete cylindrical sample?
a. 6” diameter and 12” high (ans.)
b. 8” diameter and 14” high
c. 4” diameter and 8” high
5. In the absence of concrete beam molds at the project site, are concrete cylindrical molds allowed by specifications to be
used in sample for Item 311 – PCCP?
a. Yes (ans.)
b. No
c. Maybe

C. SPECIFICATIONS
1. The minimum percent compaction for embankment
a. 90%
b. 95% (ans.)
c. 97%
2. The minimum perfect compaction for base of the road
a. 100% (ans.)
b. 115%
c. 110%
3. The CBR value of aggregate base course is not less than
a. 80% (ans.)
b. 85%
c. 90%
4. The CBR value of aggregate subbase course is not less than
a. 25%
b. 30% (ans.)

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 c. 35%

5. The minimum compressive strength for class A concrete is

a. 3000 psi (20.7 Mpa) (ans.)
b. 2400 psi (16.5 Mpa)
c. 5000 psi (37.7 Mpa

D. MISCELLANEOUS CONSTRUCTION MATERIAL

1. Significance in the determination of the tensile properties of the reinforcing steel bars
a. This method is intended to determine the yield and tensile strength of the bar as well as its elongation,
and is used to classify the bars into its grade (ans.)
b. This method is intended to evaluate the ductile properties of the reinforcing bars
c. None of the above
2. A tie bar should be
a. Deformed bar (ans.)
b. Round bar
c. Flat bar
3. A dowel bar should be
a. Deformed bar (ans.)
b. Plain round bar
c. Flat bar
4. Mortar for masonry shall consist of
a. One part Portland cement and two parts sand (ans.)
b. One part Portland cement and three parts sand
c. One part Portland cement and four parts sand

E. Miscellaneous Questions

1. If the soil consist mostly of fine-grains soil, what test must be conducted to determine each grain size?
Sieve analysis and hydrometer test. (ans.)
2. Significance in calibrating the sand in the field density test.
To determine the unit weight of sand which will be used in determining the volume of the hole.
3. Difference between PL and LL and its significance.
The liquid limit (LL) is the moisture content in which soil closes at 25 blows while the plastic limit (PL) is
the moisture content where soil thread breaks or crumbles at 1/8 inch diameter.
Significance: It indicates the amount of clay.
4. What is Plasticity Index (PI)?
PI is the numerical difference between the LL and PL (ans.)
5. Significance of compaction test.
This is to determine the maximum dry density (MDD) and the optimum moisture content (OMC).
6. Difference between AASHTO T-180 and T-99.
The weight of the rammer used in T-180 is 10 lbs. (4.54 kgs) while in T-99 is 5.5 lbs. (2.5 kgs)
7. If there are larger than ¾ inch materials to be used for compaction test, what remedy would you do?
Discard or disregard materials larger than ¾ inch and replace it with and equal volume which passes ¾ inch of the sieve.
8. Border line between gravel and sand and between coarse and fine-grained sand.
Borderline between gravel and sand is sieve no. 10
Borderline between coarse and fine-grained sand is sieve No. 200
9. How can you determine whether the batch weights obtained from design mix shall be adopted?
If the strength requirement is met after testing the trial mix, then the design mix shall be adopted.
10. If the soil consist mostly of fine-grained soils, what test must be conducted to determine its grain size?
Sieve analysis and hydrometer tests are to be conducted to determine its grain size.
11. What test must be conducted to determine the consistency of concrete?
Slump test checks the consistency of concrete.
12. What specimens are required for paving concrete?
Concrete beam samples are required for paving concrete.
13. If the plasticity index of soil is 15% and specifications required RI of 4 to 9, what will you do?
Blend materials from the sources with lower PI, then test it again using PL and LL to determine whether it passes the
required specs.
14. Name the three general types/group of soil
Coarse-Grained Soil - sand and gravel
Fine-Grained Soil - silt and clay
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 Organic Soil - peat and much
15. What is the significance of field density test?
It is the control test in embankment construction to ensure adequate compaction
16. What is the difference between the hygroscopic moisture content and natural moisture content?
Hygroscopic moisture content (HMC) is a moisture in an air dried soil while natural moisture content (NMC) is a
moisture in an oven dried soil.
17. What do you mean by job-mix formula?
a. Grading of aggregates
b. Percentage of asphalt in the mix
c. Temperature of aggregates and asphalt
d. Temperature of mixture at the time of compaction
% tolerance of asphalt is ± 4
Tolerance of temperature of mix is ± 10°C
18. How does the water-cement ratio affect concrete strength?
The lower the water-cement ration, the higher the concrete strength and the higher the water cement
ratio, the lower the concrete strength.
19. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or height of compacted bituminous paving mixture
a. Ruler
b. Vernier Caliper (ans.)
c. Steel Tape
20. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the mixture and the degree of compaction of the asphalt pavement.
a. Bulk Specific gravity of compacted bituminous mixtures using saturated surface dry specimens
b. Dry unit weight of compacted bituminous mixtures
c. Mass of the specimen in water
21. The test which covers the quantitative determination of the bitumen in hot mixed paving mixtures and pavement samples
for specification acceptance service evaluation control and research.
a. Extraction
b. Spot test
c. Flash point
22. The solvent used in extraction of bitumen
a. Diesel oil
b. Gasoline
c. Water
23. The percent of bitumen content is computed based on
a. By mass of raw sample
b. By mass of dry-aggregate
c. By mass of asphalt
24. The method used to determine the grading of aggregates extracted from bituminous mixes
a. Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregates
b. Stability test
c. Viscosity
25. The drying temperature of samples
a. 110 ± 5°C
b. 100 ± 5°C
c. 100 °C
26. It is a solid asphalt which is a basic constituent of all other asphalt called as hot asphalt or penetration grade asphalt.
a. Asphalt Cement
b. Emulsified asphalt
c. Cutback asphalt
27. It is a kind of liquid asphalt which is a mixture of asphalt cement and oil
a. Slow curing cutback
b. Emulsified asphalt
c. Blown asphalt
28. It is a kind of liquid asphalt which is a mixture of asphalt cement and kerosene
a. Medium curing cutback
b. Asphalt cement
c. Rapid curing cutback
29. It is a kind of liquid asphalt which is a mixture of asphalt cement and gasoline.
a. Rapid curing cutback
b. Blown asphalt
c. Joint filler
30. Asphalt as defined as
a. A petroleum product

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 b. A dark brown to black cementitious materials whose consistency ranges from solid to semi-solid and
whose main constituent is called bitumen which is either found in nature or as residue in petroleum
refining.
c. None of the above

31. A kind of liquid asphalt which is a mixture of asphalt cement and water with emulsifier with pungent odor.
a. Emulsified asphalt
b. Asphalt cement
c. Rapid curing asphalt
32. A joint filler in concrete pavement is a
a. Blown asphalt
b. Hot asphalt
c. Liquid asphalt
33. A device used to measure the relative hardness of asphalt
a. Penetrometer
b. Spectometer
c. Vicat Apparatus
34. A property of asphalt cement to stretch without breaking
a. Ductility
b. Durability
c. Tensile
35. A point where the volatile component of asphalt will evaporate
a. Fire point
b. Flash point
c. Center point
36. Determines whether asphalt is overheated or not during the process of manufacture
a. Spot test
b. Boil test
c. Extraction test
37. Apparatus used in the specific gravity of asphalt
a. Metal Pycnometer
b. Glass Pycnometer
c. Any bottle
38. Consistency test on asphalt
a. Viscosity
b. Slump test
c. Loss in heating
39. Volatilization test which measures the relative proportion of asphalt to oil.
a. Distillation
b. Extraction
c. Float test
40. Measurement wherein asphalt begins to melt
a. Softening point
b. Boiling point
c. Fire point
41. The sampling requirement for asphalt is
a. 1 sample for every 200 drums or 40 M.T.
b. 1 sample for every 100 drums
c. 1 sample for every shipment
42. The component of bituminous mixes which range from 92% to 96%
a. Bituminous blended aggregates
b. Concrete aggregates
c. Sand
43. It is a property of bituminous mixes in pavement, a resistance to deformation or displacement due to an impose load or
repeated loading.
a. Stability
b. Flexibility
c. Hardness
44. A property of bituminous mixes in pavement, a resistance to disintegration or deterioration due to the action of water,
traffic and changing climate.
a. Durability
b. Flexibility
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 c. Ductility
45. A property of bituminous mixes in pavement, the ability to adjust itself to the settlement.
a. Flexibility
b. Rigidity
c. Hardness
46. Factors affecting workability of bituminous mixes.
a. Gradation of aggregate, quality of asphalt, and temperature of mix
b. Surface texture and temperature of mix
c. Quantity of aggregates and asphalt cement
47. In the immersion-compression stability test, the molded sample has a diameter of 4 inches and the height is 4 inches of
which the wet molded asphalt sample is submerged in water for
a. Four days
b. Four hours
c. Two days
48. The dry molded asphalt sample in the immersion compression test is submerged in water for
a. 24 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 12 hours
49. The percent index retention is computed in the formula
a. Wet stability/dry stability x 100
b. Dry stability/wet stability x 100
c. Wet stability – dry stability/dry stability x 100
50. The sampling requirement of bituminous mixes is
a. One sample for every 75 m3
b. One sample for every 150m3
c. One sample per delivery per day
51. The application of liquid asphaltic material on a prepared untreated base is
a. Prime coating
b. Seal coating
c. Tack coating
52. The application of liquid asphaltic material to an existing surface of a base
a. Tack coat
b. Prime coat
c. Seal coat
53. The application of liquid asphaltic material and aggregate to an existing surface for the purpose of sealing it against the
infiltration of water or surface moisture.
a. Seal coat
b. Tack coat
c. Prime coat
54. The rate of application of prime coating using cutback asphalt is
a. 1 to 2 li/m2
b. 0.5 to 1 li/m2
c. 2 to 3 li/m2
55. The prime coat shall be left undisturbed for at least
a. 24 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 6 hours
56. The rate of application of tack coating using liquid or emulsified asphalt is
a. 0.2 to 0.7 li/m2
b. 0.1 to 0.5 li/m2
c. 2 li/m2
57. The rate of application of seal coat using asphalt cement is
a. 0.9 to 1.8 li/m2
b. 10 to 11 li/m2
c. 8 to 9 li/m2
58. The rate of application of seal coat using cutback asphalt is
a. 1.5 to 3.0 li/m2
b. 2.0 to 3.0 li/m2
c. 1.0 to 2.0 li/m2
59. The primary quality control mechanism for the production of asphalt mixes with high degree of uniformity that will satisfy
job requirements.
a. Job-mix formula
b. Quality control formula

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 c. Assurance
60. The objective of designing the asphalt mixture is determination of
a. Type and grade of asphalt, proportion of coarse, fine and mineral filler, if used and asphalt content.
b. To produce a desirable characteristics of pavements which are stable, durable, flexible and skid resistant.
c. All of the above
61. The percent asphalt content in the hot laid bituminous mixtures ranges from
a. 5 to 8 %
b. 4 to 6 %
c. 5 to 10 %
62. Placing temperature for bituminous mixture measured in the truck prior to dumping.
a. At least 107 °C
b. 120 °C
c. 150 °C
63. The first phase of rolling the spread bituminous mixture rolled breakdown. Rolling which is carried out by steel wheeled
rollers. The temperature requirement is
a. 220 to 225 °F
b. 190 to 199 °F
c. 160 to 180 °F
64. The second phase of rolling the spread bituminous mixture is called intermediate rolling which is the one responsible to
attain the maximum density. The rolling is carried out by the use of
a. Pneumatic roller
b. Steel roller
c. Sheepsfoot roller
65. The significance of final rolling is to remove the roller marks to previous rolling in order to have a good finish pavement
with a temperature of 160 °F.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
66. The proper way of rolling should begin at.
a. The sides and proceeds longitudinally toward the roads center, each strip overlapping on-half the roller
width, gradually progressing the crown of the road.
b. The center and proceeding longitudinally toward the side of the road.
c. Any part of the road provided each strip overlapping on-half the roller width.
67. What is the minimum degree of compaction of asphalt pavement?
a. Not less than 95% of the density of the laboratory compacted specimens.
b. Not less than 100% of the density of the laboratory compacted specimens.
c. Not less than 85% of the density of the laboratory compacted specimens.
68. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcooked.
a. Yellowish brown
b. Black
c. Gray
69. How many gradation ranges for hot plant mix bituminous pavements are there in the blue book?
a. Seven
b. Six
c. Five
70. What is the plasticity index of mineral filler?
a. Not greater than 4
b. Not greater than 8
c. Zero
71. Determines the thickness and density of compacted asphalt pavement.
a. Core test
b. Field density test
c. X-ray
72. A core sample of asphalt pavement is measured at
a. Approximately quarter points
b. Three points
c. Two points
73. If no core has been taken at the end of each day’s operation, and the project has been already completed, a core shall be
taken.
a. For every 100 L.M./land of fraction thereof
b. For every 200 L.M./lane of fraction thereof
c. For every 100 L.M. on both lane
74. Too much asphalt content on the bituminous mixes causes

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 a. Bleeding
b. Potholes
c. Cracks
75. The wearing away of the pavement surface caused by dislodging of aggregate particle
a. Raveling
b. Alligator crack
c. Rutting
76. Interconnected cracks forming a series of small block resembling an alligator’s skin or chicken wire
a. Alligator cracking
b. Reflection cracking
c. Bleeding
77. The type of cement to be used in DPWH infrastructure projects as indicated in the Blue Book.
a. Portland cement type I
b. Pozzolan cement
c. Portland cement type II
78. If the fine aggregates is subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weight loss should not exceed
a. 10 mass percent
b. 5 mass percent
c. 3 mass percent
79. If the coarse aggregates is subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed
a. 12 mass percent
b. 15 mass percent
c. 10 mass percent
80. Mass percent of wear of coarse aggregates for item 311 when tested by AASHTO T 96 is not greater than
a. 40%
b. 45%
c. 50%
81. The design of concrete mix specified by the blue book is based on
a. Absolute Volume Method
b. Area Method
c. American Method
82. The minimum flexural strength requirement of beam sample when tested by third point loading method
a. 3.5 Mpa
b. 3.8 Mpa
c. 4.0 Mpa
83. The minimum flexural strength requirement of beam sample when tested by midpoint loading method
a. 4.5 Mpa
b. 3.5 Mpa
c. 5.0 Mpa
84. The additives used in mixing concrete
a. Sodium chloride
b. Admixtures
c. Curing agent
85. Determines the consistency of concrete
a. Slump test
b. Consolidation test
c. Viscosity
86. Equipment used in consolidation of fresh concrete
a. Jack hammer
b. Vibrator
c. Drilling machine
87. The prescribed form to be used on concrete paying
a. Steel
b. Wooden
c. Combination of steel and wood
88. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less than
a. 30 min.
b. 60 min.
c. 90 min.
89. The final setting time of Portland cement I
a. 10 hrs
b. 24 hrs
c. 36 hrs.

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90. The standard sand used in testing the mortar strength of Portland cement
a. Ottawa sand
b. Beach sand
c. River sand
91. The apparatus used in determining the fineness of Portland cement by air permeability
a. Blaine air permeability apparatus
b. Sieve no. 200
c. Gillmore
92. A mixture of cement and water is called
a. Cement paste
b. Mortar paste
c. Concrete paste
93. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting of cement in the laboratory
a. Gillmore needles
b. Bailey needles
c. Vicat apparatus
94. The compressive strength of cement mortar samples in seven days is not less than
a. 19.3 Mpa
b. 20 Mpa
c. 24 Mpa
95. What is the appearance of molded cement paste which fails to meet the autoclave expansion
a. Crumble
b. Shiny
c. Change color
96. The dimension of beam sample for paving concrete.
a. 6” x 6” x 21”
b. 6” x 6” x 24”
c. 4” x 4” x 18”
97. The critical number of days of curing concrete
a. First seven days
b. First 10 days
c. 28 days
98. The standard dimension of concrete cylindrical sample.
a. 6” diameter and 12”
b. 6” diameter and 6”
c. 6” diameter and 8”
99. There are two layer in performing sampling of beam samples. How many number of blows are required per layer?
a. 63 blows
b. 75 blows
c. 35 blows
100.The formula which determines the proportion of the mix which can meet the desired strength requirement of concrete.
a. Design of concrete mix
b. Boyle’s formula
c. Bernoulli’s formula
101.The minimum testing requirement for every project is indicated in a duly approved
a. Quality control program
b. Program of work
c. Work sched
102.It is prescribed in each project based on estimated quantities and specifies the kind and number of test for each item of
work.
a. Minimum number of work
b. Minimum testing requirement
c. Work sched
103.Embankment materials delivered at the jobsite was about 12,000 m3. The minimum test requirements calls for I-G, P, C
for every 1,500 m3. What is the number of minimum test?
a. 10 GPC
b. 8 GPC
c. 6 GPC
104.There is I-Q of cement required for every
a. 4,000 bags or fraction thereof
b. 2,000 bags of fraction thereof
c. 10,000 bags

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105.There is I-Q of steel bars required for every
a. 20,000 kg
b. 10,000 kg or fraction thereof
c. 15,000 kg or fraction thereof
106.How many set of beam samples taken for every 75 m3 of concrete poured per day?
a. One set
b. Two sets
c. Three sets
107.In a completed pavement, what is the minimum core samples required before payment is affected? (assuming that the
thickness is 23 cm)
a. Five holes per km. Per lane
b. One hole per km per lane
c. P.E. Certificate
108.In a barangay road, what is the minimum requirement for thickness determination of its completed pavement?
a. Five holes per km. per lane
b. P.E. Certificate
c. One hole
109.A quality test is one of the minimum requirement for item 200-aggregate subbase course.
a. True
b. False
c. Optional
110.There is no CBR for item 300-aggregate surface course.
a. True
b. False
c. Optional
111.In item 311 and 405, grading is performed
a. For every 75 m3 of fraction thereof
b. For every 300 m3
c. None
112.For pipe culverts and storm drains, the minimum test is 1-pipe for every 50 pcs. What is the alternative requirement?
a. 1-set consisting of 3 concrete cylinder samples for not more 25 pipes cast in the field and 1-inspection
report for each size for not more than 25 pcs cast in the field.
b. Inspection report is enough
c. Mill certificate
113.The minimum test requirement for paint is
a. 1-sample for every 100 cans or fraction thereof
b. 1-sample for every 50 cans or fraction thereof
c. Mill certificate
114.The minimum test requirement for water used in concrete for a questionable source is
a. P.E. certificate
b. 1-quality test
c. Inspection report
115.The minimum quantity of cement for testing
a. 10 kg
b. 1 sack
c. 5 kg
116.The minimum quantity of sample for asphalt mix for a complete test
a. 20 kg
b. 10 kg
c. 15 kg
117.The minimum quantity of steel pipe (galvanized samples for testing)
a. 2 pcs. Of 100 mm long taken from ends without thread
b. One piece of long from one end with thread
c. 2 pieces of 50 pieces long taken from both ends
118.The minimum quantity of concrete cylinder samples for testing
a. One set of three cylinders
b. One set of 4 cylinders
c. One cylinder
119.The minimum number of core for asphalt pavement
a. One core for every 100 meters
b. 1-core for every km.
c. None

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120.The type of sample to be tested for structural/sheet.
a. Reduced section as prescribed
b. Square
c. Circular
121.The minimum volume of water sample for analysis
a. 500 ml
b. 500 li.
c. 500 mm
122.The minimum volume of curing compound for testing
a. 1 li
b. 1 drum
c. 1 gal.
123.The length of wire (strand wire strap) for testing.
a. 2 meters
b. 2 feet
c. 2 cm.
124.The dimension of gabion sample for testing
a. 1mx2m
b. 1 ft. x 2 ft.
c. 1mx1m
125.The minimum quantity of CHB samples for complete test
a. 6 units
b. 10 units
c. 8 units
126.The quantity of soil aggregate for classification test
a. 20 kg
b. 10 kg
c. 30 kg
127.The quantity of soil aggregate for Moisture – Density Test
a. 50 kg
b. 20 kg
c. 30 kg
128.The quantity of joint filler (pre-molded) sample for testing
a. 1-400 mm x 400 mm
b. 1-400 cm x 400 cm
c. 1-400 m x 400 m
129.The size of steel bar sample for testing
a. 1 meter
b. 2 meter
c. 12 inches
130.The minimum test requirement for boulders
a. Inspection Report
b. Abrasion Test
c. Grading

F. Soil Engineering

1. In soil engineering the term “soil” includes

a. Sand and gravel
b. Mud and muck
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
2. Clay can be distinguished from silt by
a. Dilatancy test
b. Plasticity test
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
3. The particle size distribution of sandy gravel is determined by
a. Hydrometer test
b. Sieve test
c. Dilatancy test
d. Any of the preceding test

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4. The Atterberg’s limits tests are performed on the soil fraction passing sieve no,
a. 4
b. 16
c. 40
d. 200
5. Disturbed soil samples may be used for
a. Sieve test
b. Liquid limit test
c. Compaction test
d. Any of the preceding test
6. Optimum water content of a soil is determined by
a. Compaction test
b. Field density test
c. Either a or b
d. Neither a nor b
7. An undisturbed soils sample is needed for
a. Consolidation test
b. Direct shear test
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
8. Liquid limit is numerically
a. Less than plastic limit
b. Greater than shrinkage limit
c. Either a or b
d. Neither a nor b
9. Moisture content of soil is generally based on
a. Total weight of soil
b. Weight of solids
c. Density
d. Degree of saturation
10. A-7 soils have a higher Group Index than A-1 soils
a. True
b. False
c. It depends on the gradation of soils
11. Sandy soils have a higher plasticity index than clayey soils
a. True
b. False
c. It depends on the moisture of soil
12. The best soils for a road subgrade would have a group index of
a. Less than 5
b. 5 to 10
c. 11 to 15
d. 16 to 20
13. The porosity of a soil which has a void ratio of one (1) is
a. 50%
b. 80%
c. 75%
d. 25%
14. Upon what depends the density to which any soil can be compacted?
a. Moisture content
b. Compactive energy
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
15. Which void ratio will you prefer for the soil after compaction in the road
a. ¼
b. ½
c. ¾
d. 1
16. The degree of compaction of a rolled subgrade is determined by
a. Compaction test
b. Density test
c. Consolidation test
d. Compression test

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17. For a given compactive energy, the maximum density of a soil is obtained when its water content is:
a. At the optimum amount
b. Lower than the optimum
c. Higher than the optimum
d. Almost zero
18. Which percent silt and clay content would you prefer for base course of an asphalt road?
a. 5
b. 25
c. 50
d. 75
19. The porosity of a certain soil will increase if there is an increase in the void ratio
a. True
b. False
c. It depends on the moisture content
20. If 95% of a soil passes the no. 200 sieve, its particle size distribution is determined by
a. Hydrometer test
b. Sieve test
c. Either a or b
d. Neither a nor b
21. The density of a certain soil will increase if the void ratio decreases
a. True
b. False
c. It depends on porosity
22. A soil which is classified A-7 by the Highway Research Board Method has a subgrade rating of
a. Excellent
b. Good
c. Fair
d. Poor
23. Which plasticity index would you prefer for the base course of a Portland cement concrete pavement?
a. Less than 6
b. 6 to 9
c. 10 to 12
d. More than 1
24. The standard compaction test on predominantly fine-grain soils is performed on soil fraction passing sieve no.?
a. 200
b. 40
c. 16
d. 4
25. The flow curve obtained when liquid limit test results are plotted on semi-log scale is in the form of
a. Straight line
b. Arc
c. Parabola
d. Hyperbola
26. The soil particles remaining in suspension one hour after sedimentation starts in hydrometer test will be predominantly
a. Clay
b. Silt
c. Silty sand
d. Sand
27. The opening of a no. 4 sieve is bigger than the opening of a ¼ sieve
a. True
b. False
c. They are the same
28. What is the effect of increasing the compactive effort in compacting a soil?
a. Higher density
b. Lower optimum water content
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
29. Sand has a greater load carrying capacity than clay
a. True
b. False
c. It depends on water content
d. It depends on gradation
30. The most commonly used method of soil exploration is

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 a. Core boring
b. Plate bearing
c. Electrical resistivity
d. Load test

G. QUALITY CONTROL
1. Moisture content of soil is generally based on
a. Degree of saturation
b. Weights of solids
c. Total weight of soils
2. Sandy soils have higher plasticity index than clayey soils
a. True
b. False
c. It depends on size distribution
3. A fine-grained soil will decrease in volume if water content decreases while the soil is in the:
a. Plastic state
b. Semi-solid state
c. Both of the preceding
4. The imperical number used in the design is:
a. Plasticity index
b. Group index
c. Both of the preceding
5. The degree of compaction of soil affects the CBR value
a. True
b. False
c. It depends on the void ratio
6. A soil is fully saturated at optimum moisture content
a. True
b. False
c. It depends on the void ratio
7. Shrinkage limit is the minimum volume of soil when dried
a. True
b. False
c. It depends on porosity
8. High cohesion makes a soil more desirable for a roadbase or subbase
a. True
b. False
c. It depends on specific gravity
9. Sand has a faster rate of consolidation than clay
a. True
b. False
c. It depends on in-place density
10. Fine-grained soils are preferable than coarse-grained soils for construction of highways embankments
a. True
b. False
c. It depends on grading
11. In soil engineering the term “soil includes
a. Clay
b. Gravel
c. Sand
d. All of the preceding
12. Water content of soils is generally based on the
a. Total weight of soils
b. Total volume of soil
c. Weight of solids
d. Unit weight
13. Optimum water content of a soil is determined by the
a. Field density test
b. Liquid limit test
c. Compaction test
d. Compaction test
14. A soil is fully saturated if the water content is
a. At optimum amount

13
 b. 100%
c. More than 100%
d. None
15. Which property of soil is not to be disturbed in undisturbed sample?
a. Structure
b. Density
c. Moisture content
d. All of the preceding
16. Sand has a greater load-carrying capacity than clay
a. True
b. It depends on gradation
c. False
d. It depends on water content
17. The particle size distribution of a soil is determined by
a. Liquid limit test
b. Plastic limit test
c. Sieve analysis test
d. Any of the preceding test
18. Most suitable for the construction of highway embankment
a. Granular
b. Fine-grained
c. Plastic
d. Clayey soils
19. Void-ratio is numerically greater than porosity
a. True
b. False
c. Depends on the water content
20. The density to which soil can be compacted is related to
a. Compactive effort
b. Water Content
c. Both a and b

PRE-EXAMINATION QUESTIONNAIRES FOR MATERIALS ENGINEERS

1. One of the duties of the materials engineer is to

a. Check the geometric control of the project
b. Recommend to the project engineer remedial measures for the correction of satisfactory conditions of material
c. Prepare as built plans
2. Which of the following is not the work of the materials engineer
a. To prepare design mixes for concrete and bituminous mixtures
b. To ensure that samples are properly cured by standard procedures
c. To check the required equipment needed in the project
3. The materials engineer of the contractor is directly under the supervision of the
a. Material Engineer of the DPWH
b. Project Engineer of the Contractor
c. Project Engineer of the Consultant
4. The requisites in transporting samples of the laboratory is
a. Well packed in durable containers to avoid damages in transit, accompanied by the sample card filled
up in detail and duly signed by the Materials Engineer.
b. Transported in any vehicle without cushions, accompanied by the sample card duly signed by anybody in the project
c. Well packed in durable containers to avoid damaged transit.
5. Which of the following is a duty of a Materials Engineer
a. To see that all laboratory equipment are protected from dust and other foreign matters that tend to
destroy their sensitivity
b. To evaluate the work accomplishment of the contractor
c. To supervise corrections of physical defects in the project
6. The materials engineer must base his/her recommendation for the acceptance and rejection of construction materials on
a. Visual inspection only
b. Test results
c. Conscience
7. The calibration of the universal testing machine is conducted
14
 a. Once a year
b. Every quarter
c. Every semester
8. Who is recommended to the acceptance on rejection of construction material intended for use in the project, based on
test results
a. Project engineer of the Contractor
b. Materials Engineer of the Contractor
c. Materials Engineer of DPWH
9. The following are physical properties of asphalt except
a. Consistency
b. Temperature susceptibility
c. Gradation
d. Cohesion
10. Which of the following is a physical test of asphalt
a. Field density test
b. Ductility test
c. Triaxial test
d. Rebound test
11. It is a chemical composition of asphalt that gives color and hardness
a. Asphaltene
b. Maltene
c. Resin
d. Oil
12. Which of the following is not a manufactured asphalt
a. Asphalt cement
b. Blown asphalt
c. Liquid asphalt
d. Rock asphalt
13. In bituminous mixture composition, percent of aggregates ranges from
a. 90-95%
b. 92-95%
c. 93-96%
d. 95-97%
14. The mineral filler is used in the bituminous mix passes sieve number
a. 100
b. 200
c. 40
d. 60
15. Which of the following is not a property of aggregates for bituminous mix composition
a. Strength
b. Particle shape
c. Absorption and Specific Gravity
d. Penetration
16. The percent of asphalt used in bituminous mix ranges from
a. 5-8%
b. 6-8%
c. 4-8%
d. 3-8%
17. Determined the effect of water on the cohesion of the bituminous mixture
a. Marshall test
b. Immersion-compression test
c. Extraction test
18. Asphalt cement, liquid asphalt and blown asphalt are
a. Natural asphalt
b. Manufactured asphalt
c. Mix asphalt
19. Cold mix asphalt is used in
a. Paving
b. Pothole patching
c. Additive
20. VMA means
a. Voids in Material Aggregates
b. Voids in Mineral Air

15
 c. Voids in Mineral Aggregates.
21. The allowable air voids in compacted asphalt mix is
a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 8%
22. In Marshall test, the specimens are tested for stability and flow at
a. 50°C
b. 60°C
c. 70°C
23. The compaction temperature in molding the bituminous mixture specimens
a. 100°C
b. 124°C
c. 135°C
24. The mixing temperature of bituminous mix is
a. 163°C
b. 165°C
c. 170°C
25. The heating temperature of bituminous mix is
a. 100°C – 100°C
b. 121°C – 188°C
c. 125°C – 140°C
26. The heating temperature of aggregates ranges from
a. 150°C – 160°C
b. 177°C – 191°C
c. 180°C – 190°C
27. The average minimum strength requirement of non-load bearing concrete masonry is 4.14 Mpa (600 psi). What is the
minimum individual strength requirement?
a. 3.45 Mpa (500 psi)
b. 5.5 Mpa (800 psi)
c. 6.9 Mpa (1000 psi)
28. The average individual strength requirement of load bearing concrete masonry units is 5.5 Mpa (800 psi). What is its
average strength requirements?
a. 5.5 Mpa (800 psi)
b. 6.9 Mpa (1000 psi)
c. 3.45 Mpa (500 psi)
29. The maximum absorption content of CHB
a. 230 Kg./cu.m
b. 240 Kg./cu.m
c. 250 Kg./cu.m
30. The maximum moisture cement of CHB
a. 40%
b. 43%
c. 45%
31. SPT means
a. Standard Penetration Time
b. Standard Penetration Test
c. Sampling Procedure Time
32. A tube sampler used in sampling undisturbed sample
a. Piston tube
b. Shelby tube
c. Split tube
33. Used in sealing undisturbed sample
a. Masking tape
b. Wax
c. Asphalt
34. A tube sampler used in sampling disturbed sample
a. Split spoon sampler
b. Shelby tube
c. Anger
35. It is dynamic test used in the field to obtain rapid empirical results which can be used to estimate shear strength and
bearing capacity
a. Load test
b. Standard penetration test

16
 c. California bearing ratio test
36. A type of coring bit used in rock coring
a. Diamond bit
b. Gold bit
c. Brass bit
37. CQCA means
a. Certificate of Quality Control Assurance
b. Certificate of Quantity Control Aspect
c. Control of Quality Center Assurance
38. CQCA is prepared and submitted every
a. Month
b. Every Week
c. Every Quarter
39. It is a test required prior to final payment of Portland Cement Concrete Pavement and Asphalt Pavements
a. Rebound hammer test
b. Coring test for thickness determination
c. Compression test
40. It is a document 1 the field that narrates the quality control activities and is mandated in memorandum circular no, 80
dated 30 June 1978
a. Logbook
b. Monthly status of test
c. Blue Book
41. The specific gravity of asphalt cement ranges from
a. 1.01 – 1.04
b. 0.99 – 1.0
c. 1.1 – 1.2
42. Thy type of electron present in rapid setting emulsified asphalt
a. Cationic
b. Anionic
c. Protons
43. How many group of 3 in situ densities are required if the compacted volume of embankment laid were estimated to be
1,500 cu.m with a thickness of 0.20m/layer?
a. 20
b. 15
c. 10
44. The selvage wire of a gabion per specification has a minimum diameter of
a. 3.4 cm
b. 3.4 mm
c. 3.4 in
45. The selvage wire of a mattress per specification has a minimum diameter of
a. 2.2 mm
b. 3.4 mm
c. 2.7 mm
46. The minimum zinc coating requirements of gabions and mattress is
a. 0.244 kg./m2
b. 0.344 kg./m2
c. 0.255 kg./m2
47. The minimum diameter requirement of a tire wire is
a. 3.2 mm
b. 2.2 mm
c. 4.2 mm
48. The allowable % variation in mass of deformed reinforcing steel bar is
a. 5.0% max. under nominal mass
b. 6.0% max under nominal mass
c. 7.0% max under nominal mass
49. The bending requirement of deformed reinforcing steel bar is
a. No cracking on the inside bent portion
b. No cracking on the outside bent portion
c. No craking at 45%
50. The maximum allowable % phosphorus content of a deformed and plain billet steel bar is
a. 0.6%
b. 0.06%
c. 0.006%

17
51. The minimum tensile strength of grade 40 steel bar per specification is 483 Mpa. What is its minimum yield point?
a. 276 Mpa
b. 376 Mpa
c. 476 Mpa
52. What is the percent permissible error in the calibration of the universal testing machine/portable flexural/ compression
machine?
a. ±0.1%
b. ±1.0%
c. ±0.5%
53. How do you compute for the plasticity index of the soil?
a. LL-PL
b. PL-LL
c. LL-GI
54. The liquid limit is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to
a. 15 blows
b. 25 blows
c. 35 blows
55. Plasticity index is an indication of percent
a. Sand content
b. Clay content
c. Impurities content
56. Laboratory compaction test of a soil is also known as
a. Moisture-density relation test
b. Triaxial test
c. Consolidation test
57. The significance of laboratory compaction test is to
a. Determine the bearing capacity of soil
b. Determine the maximum dry density and optimum moisture content
c. Determine the load bearing capacity of soil
58. The condition of soil sample to be tested in the laboratory compaction test is
a. Wet condition
b. Oven-dried condition
c. Air-dried condition
59. The weight of hammer to be used in the laboratory compaction of soil for embankment is
a. 2.5 kg
b. 3.5 kg
c. 4.0 kg
60. The weight of hammer used in the laboratory compaction of subbase and base course materials
a. 4.0 kg
b. 4.54 kg
c. 4.64 kg
61. The method in the determination of density of soil-in-place
a. Sand cone method
b. Compaction method
c. Triaxial method
62. A control test in embankment construction to ensure adequate compaction
a. Hydrometer test
b. Field density test
c. Soundness test
63. Air dry sand used in the density apparatus is passing
a. Sieve no. 10 and retained sieve no. 200
b. Sieve no. 30 and retained sieve no. 200
c. Sieve no. 50 and retained sieve no. 200
64. Which of the following items does not need a CBR
a. Subbase materials
b. Surfacing materials
c. Base course materials
65. In the Field density test conducted in embankment result showed that the computed dry unit weight was 1,650 kg/m 3,
Laboratory compaction data showed that maximum dry density was 1,721 kg/m 3 and the optimum moisture content was
12%. What is the degree of compaction?
a. 94%
b. 96%
c. 96.8%

18
66. The test that determined the resistance of aggregates to disintegration by saturated solutions of sodium sulfate or
magnesium sulfate
a. Autoclave
b. Soundness test
c. Abrasion test
67. Given the following data of coarse aggregates
Weight of sample - 2480 g
Weight of oven-dry test sample in air - 2100 g
Weight of SSD test sample in air - 2390 g
Weight of saturated test sample in water - 1605 g
What is the computed specific gravity?
a. 2.5
b. 3.04
c. 2.80
68. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge shall consist of cast-iron spheres or steel spheres. Using grading A, how many are
the number of spheres?
a. 12
b. 11
c. 8
69. The total weight of sample in abrasion test using grading A, B, C, & D is
a. 4500 g
b. 4800 g
c. 5000 g
70. The curve in logarithmic scale where the 25th blow is projected in order to determine the liquid limit of the soil
a. Parabolic curve
b. Flow curve
c. Highway curve
71. Percentage of wear represents the value of
a. Abrasion loss
b. Absorption loss
c. Weight loss
72. The ratio of the weight/mass of water in the soil to the weight/mass of dry soil after it has been dried to constant
weight/mass at a temperature of 110±5°C
a. Moisture content
b. Water density
c. Water specific gravity
73. Right after sampling, concrete cylindrical specimen samples shall be removed from its mold after
a. 20±8 hours
b. 24±8 hours
c. 42±8 hours
74. The temperature in standard curing of concrete sample is
a. 20±1.7 °C
b. 23±1.7 °C
c. 25±1.7 °C
75. The rate of loading in the determination of compressive strength of cylindrical concrete specimen is at a constant rate
within the range of
a. 20 to 50 psi/sec
b. 10 to 50psi/sec
c. 30 to 50 psi/sec
76. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of water in the concrete mix that produces a slump of 76.2 mm
a. 25.7
b. 24.7
c. 23.7
77. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about
a. 2.65
b. 2.75
c. 2.85
78. The standard packaging weight of cement
a. 50kg/bag
b. 40kg/bag
c. 60kg/bag
79. What is the minimum cement factor of concrete pavement?
a. 8.5 bags/m3

19
 b. 9.0 bags/m3
c. 9.5 bags/m3
80. How many holes of core tests are required in a 2-lane 1.8 km. of completed concrete pavement?
a. 16
b. 18
c. 20
81. What is the minimum test requirement for the water if source is questionable?
a. Certificate from project engineer
b. Quality test
c. Resident certificate
82. It is an impervious membrane applied to concrete pavement before its initial setting that prevents rapid evaporation of
water from the mix
a. Curing compound
b. Accelerator
c. Retarder
83. The maximum time which the concrete beam sample attained its strength requirement is
a. 14 days
b. 28 days
c. 30 days
84. When do you take fresh concrete samples during pouring of concrete?
a. First batch
b. Last batch
c. Middle batch
85. The type of paint that is for zone marking, traffic lanes and parking spaces which is rapid drying, resistant to abrasion and
weather conditions and possess improve visibility at night.
a. Latex paint
b. Reflectorize paint
c. Aluminum paint
86. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during night time
a. Vehicle
b. Glass beads
c. Pigment
87. The paint which is used on concrete or masonry units
a. Red lead
b. Latex
c. Aluminum
88. The average loss in weight of three specimens in zinc coating test
a. Coating bend test
b. Single spot test
c. Triple spot test
89. One of the three specimens in the triple spot test with lightest coating
a. Single spot test
b. Coating bend test
c. Triple spot test
90. The paint that is used on wood surfaces, a special type of paint made with varnish as the vehicle
a. Latex
b. Rubberized
c. Enamel
91. A group classification of soil, which has significant constituent materials of fine sand
a. A-1
b. A-2
c. A-3a
92. Includes those materials with high plasticity indexes in relation to liquid limit and which are subject to extremely high
volume change.
a. A-7-5
b. A-7-6
c. A-2-6
93. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0 to 20 under average conditions of good drainage and adequate
compaction, the supporting value of a material as subgrade may be assumed as an inverse ratio to its group index: that is
a group index of zero indicates
a. Very poor subgrade material
b. Good subgrade material
c. Fair to poor subgrade material

20
94. It determines the target density which is constructed at the beginning of the work on each course of material to be
compacted.
a. Geometric control
b. Quality control
c. Control strips
95. The most common method of assessing strength stiffness of both subgrade and pavement.
a. Water cement ratio
b. California Bearing Ratio
c. Consolidation
96. The class of concrete used in their reinforced section, railing and for filler in steel grid floors with required minimum
compressive strength of 20.7 Mpa.
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
97. The maximum water-cement ratio of Class A concrete
a. 0.53
b. 0.55
c. 0.49
98. The range of slump used in placing concrete by pumping
a. 5 to 20 cm
b. 10 to 20 cm
c. 25 to 30 cm
99. What is the % hygroscopic moisture of the soil sample tested in the laboratory with the following data?
Weight in grams
Wet Soil 48.9
Oven dry soil plus container 52.4
Air dry soil plus container 53.4
Container 16.2
a. 1.3%
b. 2.8%
c. 3.8%
100.What is the % natural moisture content in problem #99.
a. 35.1 %
b. 36.1 %
c. 37.1 %
101.What is the plasticity Index of the soil based on the following laboratory data?
% Passing
No. 10 - 100
No. 40 - 80
No. 200 - 60
LL - 45
PL - 30
a. 15
b. 20
c. 15

102.A field density test was run on a rolled soil-aggregate subbase layer. The following results where obtained
Weight per cu.m of calibrated sand - 1532 kg
Weight of moist soil taken from hole - 7.62 kg
Moisture content of soil - 11.1 kg
Weight of calibrated sand to fill the hole - 4.5%

What is the density of the rolled soil-aggregate?

a. 2300.5
b. 2330.5
c. 2335.5
103.It is confirmed that the rolled soil-aggregate subbase layer in problem 102 passed the specifications. What is the degree
of compaction if the maximum dry density obtained in the laboratory compaction is 2172.7 kg/m 3?
a. 105.5%
b. 106.5%
c. 107.5%
104.Given a grading test result of sand sample

21
 Sieve size % Passing %Retained
12.5 100 0
9.5 100 0
4.75 96 4
2.36 65 35
1.18 60 40
0.60 30 70
0.30 20 80
0.150 5 95
0.075 2 98

What is the fineness Modulus?

a. 3.04
b. 3.14
c. 3.24
105.A 5000 grams of coarse aggregate was tested for abrasion. After 500 revolution at the Los Angeles abrasion machine the
aggregate retained on sieve no. 12 were 4440 grams. What is the abrasion loss?
a. 10.2
b. 11.2
c. 12.2
106.Calculate the absorption of coarse aggregates retained at the sieve no. 9.5 mm with the following data.

Weight in air of 550 grams - 1974

Weight of sample in water, grams - 1276
Weight of air of oven dried sample - 1958
a. 0.82
b. 0.85
c. 0.88
107.Based on the data of problem 106, what is the specific gravity of the coarse aggregates?
a. 2.73
b. 2.83
c. 2.93
108.Based on the preliminary data on tests conducted on fine aggregates, the following compacted batch weights were
determined
Uncorrected Corrected
Cement 40 40
Fine Aggregate 100.23 99.13
Coarse Aggregate 81.05 85.31
Water 23.2

How much is the amount of water needed in the corrected weights?

a. 20.04
b. 19.04
c. 18.04
109.If the packaging of cement available in the market is 50 kg per bag, what is the batch weights of 98 kg fine aggregate
which was based on 40 kg per bag of cement?
a. 120.5 kg
b. 121.5 kg
c. 122.5 kg
110.A sample of bituminous mixture was taken for extraction test to determine its asphalt content. The laboratory data as
follows:
Original weight of sample - 880 grams
Weight of sample after extraction - 839.7 grams

What is the asphalt content?

a. 4.8%
b. 5.0%
c. 5.8%
111.A sample was cored in an asphalt pavement to determine its degree of compaction. Per laboratory test conducted, the
measured specific gravity (Gmb) was 2.230. Percent asphalt content was 6.0, specific gravity of asphalt was 1.02, and
specific gravity of aggregates was 2.66. What is the compacted degree of compaction
a. 85.63%
b. 90.63%

22
 c. 95.63%
112.A bituminous material was tested by standard method and showed the following results. The penetration of 5 seconds at
25 °C was 8.6 mm, 8.9 mm and 9.0 mm. What is the average penetration of bituminous material?
a. 88.33
b. 89.33
c. 90.33
113.What is the ductility of the bituminous material if the sample broke after 25 minutes with rate of stretching of 5 cm/min?
a. 120
b. 125
c. 130
114.In the three-edge bearing method of testing pipes, how many inches of the crack does the ultimate load produces?
a. 0.1 in
b. 0.01 in
c. 1.0 in
115.A beam 6” x 6” was beaten with application of 7000 lbs. by third point leading method. The fracture occurred within the
middle third. What is the modulus of rupture?
a. 580 psi
b. 583 psi
c. 585 psi
116.When the strength test result of concrete beam or cylinder samples are not acceptable, how many representative cores
shall be taken from each member or area of concrete in place considered deficient?
a. At least two
b. At least three
c. At least four
117.Concrete in the area represented by cores will be considered adequate if the average strength of the cores is at least
a. 80% of the required strength
b. 85% of the required strength
c. 90% of the required strength
118.If the deficiency in strength of concrete specimens is 5 to less than 10%, how much percent will be allowed for payment
a. 100%
b. 80%
c. 70%
119.In the evaluation of core sample, for each core sample, how many measurements of length are made?
a. 8
b. 9
c. 10
120.If concrete is mixed in the central mixing plant, the mixing time shall not be less than 50 seconds nor more than
a. 60 seconds
b. 90 seconds
c. 120 seconds
121.What is the maximum time required in transporting mixed concrete from the time water is added to the mixed until it is
deposited in place at the site when hauled in non agitating trucks?
a. 45 min
b. 50 min
c. 60 min
122.Vibrators shall not be operated longer than how many seconds in any one location?
a. 10 sec
b. 15 sec
c. 30 sec
123.What is the maximum time required in transporting mixed concrete from the time water is added to the mix until the
concrete is deposited in place t the site when hauled in truck mixers or truck agitators?
a. 45 min
b. 90 min
c. 100 min
124.The minimum compressive requirement of pre-stressed concrete structures and members
a. 16.5 Mpa
b. 20.7 Mpa
c. 37.7 Mpa
125.The class of concretedeposited in water
a. Class A
b. Class b
c. Seal
126.The class of concrete used in all superstructure and heavily reinforced structures

23
 a. Class a
b. Class b
c. Class c
127.The minimum cement content of concrete deposited in water
a. 380 kg/m3
b. 400 kg/m3
c. 500 kg/m3
128.The slump maintained in placing concrete in water
a. 10-20 cm
b. 20-30 cm
c. 40-50 cm
129.The instrument used in placing concrete in water in a compact mass in its final position
a. Truck mixer
b. Tremie
c. Chute
130.The maximum consistency range in slump in class P concrete
a. 50 mm
b. 100 mm
c. 200 mm
131.The maximum specific gravity of thermoplastic paint
a. 2.15
b. 3.15
c. 4.15
132.The softening point of a thermoplastic paint
a. 100.5 °C
b. 102.5 °C
c. 105.5 °C
133.The maximum drying time of a thermoplastic paint.
a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
134.The minimum percentage of glass beads contained in a thermoplastic paint
a. 15%
b. 20%
c. 25%
135.The minimum weight of sample of reflectorized paint.
a. 10 kg
b. 15 kg
c. 20 kg

REVIEW QUESTIONS

1. Spreading of soil poising solution for building construction is done

a. 12 hours
b. 6 hours
c. 1 hour
d. Right before pouring of concrete on foundation
2. In field mixing, using one bagger mixer, the proper sequence used is;
a. Water-cement-gravel-sand
b. Gravel-cement-sand-water
c. Sand-gravel-cement-water
d. Gravel-sand-cement-water
3. In manual mixing which of the above sequence is used?
a. Water-cement-gravel-sand
b. Gravel-cement-sand-water
c. Sand-gravel-cement-water
d. Gravel-sand-cement-water
4. The maximum volume of concrete mix represented by one (1) concrete test specimen
a. 75 cu.m
b. 85 cu.m
c. 100 cu.m
d. 50 cu.m
5. CHB are subjected for

24
 a. Compressive
b. Tensile
c. Flexural
d. Bending stress
6. What is the ideal inclination of chute in pouring concrete?
a. 45
b. 30
c. 15
d. Just enough for the concrete for flow
7. Mortar topping for cement flooding shall be __ parts of cement and __ parts fine aggregate by loose volume
a. 1:2
b. 1:3
c. 1:4
d. 2:3
8. Minimum concrete compressive strength shall be attained at __ days.
a. 3
b. 7
c. 14
d. 28
9. Samples of the fine and coarse aggregate to be use shall be selected by the engineer for test at least 30 days before
concreting operations are to begin
10. In how many hours before batching, thus all washed aggregates be used in concreting the pavement?
a. 24 hours
b. 18 hours
c. 10 hours
d. 12 hours
11. In mixing water in the throat of the transit mixer, how many seconds before loading of cement and aggregates to free
flow into the drum?
a. 30 seconds
b. 20 seconds
c. 10 seconds
d. 15 seconds
12. Bonus
13. In using white polyethylene sheet to cover the entire surface of the pavement, it shall be maintained after the concrete
has been placed?
a. 72 hours
b. 36 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 48 hours
14. Bituminous materials prime coat MC-30 shall be applied by means of pressure distributor at what max temperature?
a. 30 C
b. 43 C
c. 40.5 C
d. 48.9 C
15. At what rate of application of bituminous tack coat rapid curing cut back on emulsified Asphalt?
a. 1-2 lts/m2
b. 0.5-0.7 lts/m2
c. 0.2-0.7 lts/m2
d. 0.3-0.5 lts/m2
16. During mixing operation of bituminous concrete surface coarse (hot laid), what mass of hydrated lime dry aggregates
basis shall be added to the mixture?
a. 1 to 2
b. 1.5 to 2
c. 0.5 to 1
d. 0.3 to 1
17. For mixer having a capacity greater than 1.5 cu.m, the mixing time shall not be less that;
a. 60 seconds
b. 90 seconds
c. 45 seconds
d. 30 seconds
18. After loading all the material in the mixing concrete truck, the mixing speed shall not be less than?
a. 2 rpm
b. 4 rpm or more than 6 rpm

25
 c. 3 rpm
d. 3.5 rpm
19. What minimum spacing of weep holes shall be placed on slope protection?
a. 3 mts c.c.
b. 1.5 mts c.c.
c. 2.0 mts c.c.
d. 1 mt. c.c.
20. Class of concrete used in prestressed concrete structure and members?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class P
21. How many holes are there on a no. 4 sieve
a. 16
b. 4
c. 32
d. 12
22. What is the ideal height of fall of concrete in road construction?
a. 4 ft.
b. 3 ft.
c. 5 ft.
d. 10 ft.
23. What is the significance of cutting concrete pavement within 24 hours after pouring
a. To avoid shrinkage cracks
b. Blocking of concrete
c. To avoid scaling
d. To provide a weakened plane joint
24. It is the type of admixture to delay the curing time of concrete?
a. Plasticizer
b. Accelerator
c. Retarder
d. Delayer
25. Concrete shall be thoroughly consolidated by means of vibrators in a?
a. Vertical position
b. Horizontal position
c. Inclined position
d. Both A & B
26. Transverse construction joint is also known as
a. Cold joint
b. Expansion joint
c. Contraction joint
27. Weakened plane joint is also known as?
a. Longitudinal construction joint
b. Transverse construction joint
c. Expansion joint
d. Cold joint
28. What is the maximum depth of brooming in concrete pavement?
a. 1.5 mm
b. 0.5 mm
c. 1 mm
d. 2 mm
29. What are the ideal length, spacing and size of a Dowell in road construction?
a. 0.7 m , 0.7 m, ¾ diameter
b. 0.75 m, 0.75m, ¾ diameter
c. 1 m, 1 m, ¾ diameter
d. 0.5 m, 0.5 m, ¾ diameter
30. Dowell’s are placed parallel on a pavement for the purpose of?
a. As load transfer device
b. To hold the pavement together
c. As temperature bars
31. In base preparation for road construction to be compacted base is extended from the side form of a length of?
a. 0.60 m
b. 0.50 m

26
 c. 0.40 m
d. 0.30 m
32. What is the maximum time for concrete mix from the time water is added to the mix until the concrete is poured at the
site (travel time in included using a truck mixer?)
a. 45 minutes
b. 1 hour
c. 1 hour and 30 minutes
d. 2 hours
33. Construction joint are usually located at?
a. Within the middle third of weakened plane joint
b. Within 1.5 m from the weakened plane joint
c. Between weakened plane joint
34. What is the ratio of cement mortar for grouted riprap?
a. 1:2
b. 1:3
c. 1:1.5
d. 1:3.5
35. Using a concrete vibrator in a concrete pouring operation means?
a. Compacting a concrete
b. Making the concrete durable
c. Making the concrete workable
36. Slump test is a measurement of
a. Consistency of concrete
b. Workability of concrete
c. Durability of concrete
37. How do you reduce the field samples of soil aggregates to its testing size?
a. By mechanical splitter
b. By dividing the samples into two
c. By quartering
d. Both a and c
38. What is the height of drop using a 10.0 lb rammer in a laboratory compaction test?
a. 12 in.
b. 15 in.
c. 20 in.
d. 8 in.
39. Test to be conducted to measure the shearing resistant of a soil when mixed with water
a. Shrinkage limit
b. Liquid limit
c. Plastic limit
d. Laboratory compaction
40. Basic activities in the implementation of quality control
a. Sampling
b. Testing
c. Inspection
d. All of the preceding
41. Measure the thickness of completed concrete pavement and verify strength of concrete in place that is considered
deficient
a. Sieve test
b. Plastic limit test
c. Core test
d. All of the above
42. What is the minimum cutting for construction joint?
a. 75 mm
b. 25 mm
c. 50 mm
d. 100 mm
43. The item consists of preparing and treating an aggregate base course with materials in accordance with plans and
specification?
a. Item 302 – tack coat
b. Item 310 – bituminous concrete surface course
c. Item 301 – prime coat
44. This item consist of preparing and treating an existing bituminous or cement concrete surface with bituminous materials?
a. Item 302 – tack coat

27
 b. Item 311 – PCCP
c. Item 301 – prime coat
45. It is bowl shape of various size in the pavement resulting from localized disintegration or breaking up of a pavement into
small loose fragments?
a. Alligator cracking
b. Raveling
c. Potholes
46. The ___ of the surface course depends upon the traffic volume that will use the load structure?
a. Type
b. Thickness
c. Composition
d. Width
47. Added in concrete for workability and strength.
a. Plasticizer
b. Retarder
c. Riprap
d. None of the obove
48. Unsuitable material such as ___ contain organic materials and are saturated with water that makes it unit for the
formation of embankment.
a. Topsoil
b. Organic soil
c. Peat and muck
d. Both a and b
49. Aggregate for subbase shall consist of
a. Lumps
b. Crushed slag
c. Base of clay
50. Asphalt mixed with solvent to reduce their viscosity and make them easier to use at ordinary temperature
a. Liquid asphalts
b. Asphalt emulsion
c. Asphalt cement
51. Aggregates that have been crushed and screened in preparation for use
a. Natural aggregates
b. Processed aggregates
c. Synthetic aggregates
52. It is the best type of asphalt to be used for hot mixes
a. Asphalt cement
b. Emulsified asphalt
c. Rapid curing
53. It is bituminous material used in treating an existing bituminous surface.
a. Tack coat
b. Prime coat
c. Seal coat
54. The volume of concrete in newly poured concrete pavement represented by set of beam sample.
a. 50 cu. m.
b. 75 cu. m.
c. 65 cu. m.
d. 80 cu. m.
55. Sample for beam sample in concrete pouring of pavement must be taken at the
a. First pouring
b. Middle pouring
c. Last pouring of every load
56. The primary quality control mechanism for the production of asphalt
a. Design mix
b. Job-mix formula
c. Quality control program
d. Field test
57. What sieve number is the dividing line between gravel and sand.
a. No. ¾
b. No. 3/8
c. No. 4
d. No. 10
58. The minimum distance allowed as construction point in pavement concrete pouring

28
 a. 1.3 m
b. 1.4 m
c. 1.5 m
d. 1.75 m
59. Substance in the paint which gives as film continuity and provides adhesion for the surface or substrate
a. Vehicle
b. Solvent
c. Pigments
d. Additives
60. Soils susceptible to volume change under vibratory load, if not adequately compacted
a. Granular
b. Fined grained
c. Organic
d. Muck
61. Low viscosity liquid used in coating to improve application properties
a. Vehicle
b. Solvent
c. Pigments
d. Additives
62. The test used to evaluate the potential strength of the subgrade, subbase coarse material for use in road and airfield
pavement.
a. CBR test
b. Density Test
c. Stability Test
d. None
63. Solid grains on particles of uniform and controlled sizethat generally insoluble in the vehicle of coating.
a. Vehicle
b. Solvent
c. Pigments
64. Dry compressive strength of asphalt mix
a. 1.4 Mpa
b. 3.8 Mpa
c. 20.75 Mpa
d. 24.1 Mpa
65. If concrete is well cured at any particular age, the most important single factor affecting strength is
a. Water-cement ratio
b. Cement hydration
c. Temperature
d. Volume of paste
66. A lot shall be considered as ___ of pavement when a single traffic lane is poured.
a. 500 l.m.
b. 1000 l.m.
c. 1500 l.m.
d. 2000 l.m.
67. The surface of the near by placed concrete shall be cured for a period of
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 46 hours
d. 72 hours
68. A important item in the installation of subdrains is
a. Grain size of filter material
b. M.C of the filter material
c. Grain size filling material
d. M.C. of the filling material
69. In fresh concrete mix the volume of paste including air voids is about
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 40%
d. 50%
70. In fresh concrete mix the volume of aggregate is about
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 70%

29
 d. 80%
71. Listed below are three important test performed in billet steel bars except for one
a. Chemical
b. Malleability
c. Tension
d. Cold-bend
72. What does the indicated grade on the steel bars mean?
a. Yield Point
b. Density
c. Strain limit
d. Hardness
73. A physical property of concrete in which a uniform mass of freshly mixed concrete can be removed without segregation to
final position which is allowed to harden
a. Workability
b. Strength
c. Durability
d. None
74. Fine the degree of compaction
If MDD = 2,185 g/cm3, OMC=7.50%, MC=7.96%, Dry Unit Weight=2,198.55 g/cm3 Wet unit weight =2,373.60 g/cm3,
unit weight of dry sand = 1,440.55 g/cm3
a. 99%
b. 100%
c. 101%
75. How many core specimen should be taken for thickness determination from a 1700 linear meter 2 lane concrete pavement
a. 9
b. 18
c. 8
d. 16
76. Concrete in the area represented by the core will be considered adequate if the average strength of the cores is equal to
at least ___.
a. 70%
b. 75%
c. 80%
d. 85%
77. Period before formworks for PCCP shall remain undisturbed after concrete pouring.
a. Not less than 24 hours
b. Between 12-24 hours
c. Not less than 12 hours
d. None
78. The average length of the core is obtained from ___ measurements
a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 11
79. Water reducing admixtures that are used to produce flowing concrete
a. Accelerators
b. Retarders
c. Water reducers
d. Superplasticizers
80. The minimum average compressive strength of mortar cubes in 28 days
a. 12.4 Mpa
b. 19.3 Mpa
c. 24 Mpa
d. 27.6 Mpa
81. DPWH policy on sampling and testing of construction materials
a. DPWH memo No. 13, 1987
b. D.O. No, 57, 1992
c. DPWH Memo No. 83, 1991
d. D.O. No. 11, 1990
82. During mixing and compaction, it is of great significance in the strength of the resulting asphalt pavement
a. Control in temperature
b. Control in water-cement ratio
c. Control in asphalt cement

30
 d. None of the above
83. Tests that determine the asphalt content and particle size distribution of coarse and the fine aggregates respectively
a. Immersion
b. Extraction
c. Grading
d. Both b & c
84. A physical property of concrete that withstand deterioration due to exposure to weathering action
a. Workability
b. Strength
c. Durability
d. None
85. If liquid limit = 45% and plastic limit = 35%, then the plasticity index is equal to
a. 10%
b. 55%
c. 65%
d. 80%
86. The minimum CBR for base course is
a. 60%
b. 70%
c. 80%
d. 90%
87. If there is necessity of increasing the water content for better place ability
a. Water should be added
b. Mixture should be redesigned
c. Admixture should be added
d. Cement should be added
88. The dividing size between coarse and fine aggregate is
a. 0.425 mm
b. 2.36 mm
c. 4.75 mm
d. None
89. The following are inherent properties of asphalt that affects curing except for one
a. Volatility of solvent
b. Amount of solvent
c. Penetration of base asphalt
d. Asphalt cement content
90. The most commonly used method in the design and evaluation of bituminous concrete mixes
a. Compression test
b. Laboratory density test
c. Marshall Stability Test
d. Extraction & Grading
91. The most important material in Portland cement concrete is
a. Water
b. Portland cement
c. Aggregate
d. Admixture
92. Kind of asphalt formed by the natural process of evaporation
a. Rock asphalt
b. Lake asphalt
c. Both a & b
d. Blown asphalt
93. Soil properties can be improved by
a. Adequate compaction
b. Addition of binder
c. Maximizing water content
d. Stabilization
94. Soils can be compacted to 100% if it is
a. Dry
b. Wet
c. Either a or b
d. At optimum moisture content
95. The sampling of concrete cylinder, concrete shall be placed in ___ equal layers
a. 2

31
 b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
96. The temperature when the bituminous mix should be rejected
a. Less than 185 °F
b. 185 F to 325 °F
c. More than 185 °F
d. More than 325 °F
97. The safe working temperature of asphalt
a. Loss in heating
b. Flash point
c. Spot test
d. Softening point
98. Pavement resistance to repeated bending under wheel loads
a. Fatigue
b. Skid
c. Durability
d. Stability
99. Ability to resist factors such as aging of asphalt, disintegration of the aggregate, and stripping of the asphalt film from the
aggregates
a. Fatigue
b. Skid
c. Durability
d. Stability
100.Examines the effect of changes in moisture content on the plasticity of clay soils
a. Plastic limit
b. Liquid limit
c. Atterberg limit
d. Plasticity index
101.Admixture used to obtain a higher strength by decreasing water/cement ratio at the same time workability as an ordinary
mix
a. Accelerators
b. Retarders
c. Water reducers
d. Superplasticizers
102.The bituminous material commonly used in item 310
a. Asphalt cement
b. Liquid asphalt
c. Asphalt emulsions
d. Tar
103.The standard penetration resistance of crushed stone at 0.2” penetration
a. 1000 psi
b. 1500 psi
c. 2000 psi
d. 3000 psi
104.Widely used in the classification and identification of soils
a. Grain size distribution
b. Grain size analysis
c. Sieve analysis
d. Soil exploration
105.The grade of asphalt cement normally used
a. 60/70
b. 200/300
c. Between a & b
d. Below a
106.When the brown color of emulsified asphalt changes to black it means that the asphalt will
a. Break
b. Liquefy
c. Harden
d. None
107.The quality control test common to emulsified and cutback asphalt
a. Flash point
b. Viscosity

32
 c. Spot test
d. Sieve test
108.The structural layer which accepts greater compressive stress thus reduces the deformation of pavement under traffic
loading.
a. Subgrade
b. Subbase
c. Base
d. Embankment
109.It gives an indication of clay content in soil
a. Plastic limit
b. Liquid limit
c. Atterberg limit
d. Plasticity index
110. The major component of concrete are
a. Paste and mineral aggregate
b. Cement and mineral aggregate
c. Water & Cement
d. Cement and admixture
111.Limits expressed in terms of water content
a. Plastic limit
b. Liquid limit
c. Consistency limit
d. Plasticity index
112.Actually an asphalt cement mixed with volatile or non-volatile oil
a. Slow curing cut-back asphalt
b. Medium curing cut back asphalt
c. Rapid curing cut back asphalt
d. Blown asphalt
113.A dark brown to black cementitious materials whose consistency ranges from solid to semi-liquid in which the
predominant constituents are bitumen
a. Asphalt
b. Asphalt cement
c. Blown asphalt
d. Emulsified asphalt
114.The determined penetration resistance of a compacted soil in question which is compared to the standard penetration
resistance for crushed stone
a. Water Cement Ratio
b. California Bearing Ratio
c. Air-Void Ratio
d. Marshall Stability
115.An important index test for clayey soils
a. Plastic limit
b. Liquid limit
c. Atterberg limit
d. Plasticity index
116.Defined as the lowest moisture content at which a soil mass can be readily molded without crumbling
a. Plastic limit
b. Liquid limit
c. Atterberg limit
d. Plasticity index
117.Defined as the highest moisture at which the mass attains its minimum volume but continues to lose weight
a. Plastic limit
b. Liquid limit
c. Shrinkage limit
d. Plasticity Index
118.At moisture contents lower than the ___, the color of the mass becomes lighter due to the entry of air into the voids.
a. Plastic limit
b. Liquid limit
c. Shrinkage limit
d. Plasticity index
119.Required temperature for oven drying
a. 110 + 5 °C
b. 110 – 5 °C

33
 c. 110 ± 5 °C
d. 115 °C
120.It is a measure of the relative hardness of asphalt cement
a. Penetration Grade
b. Softening Point
c. Flash Point
d. Both a & b
121.Water content in air dry soil
a. Moisture content
b. Hydroscopic Moisture
c. Consistency
d. None
122.The following are the test method used except for one in determining the percentage of maximum density
a. AASHTO T-99
b. AASHTO T-180
c. A and B
d. Sand-cone
123.All are activities involved in CBR test except for one
a. Compaction
b. Soaking
c. Penetration
d. Compression
124.The fine aggregate may be used if the relative strength at 7 and 28 days is when tested for the effect of organic
impurities on mortar strength
a. Not less than 80%
b. Not less than 85%
c. Not less than 90%
d. Not less than 95%
125.Fineness modulus must be
a. 1.2 to 2.2
b. 2.3 to 3.1
c. 3.2 to 3.5
d. 3.6 to 4.2
126.The length of concrete core specimen, when capped, shall be as nearly as ___ its diameter
a. Twice
b. Thrice
c. One-third
d. One-fourth
127.Concrete hollow blocks are tested for its
a. Absorption & Dimension
b. Tensile
c. Compression
d. Both a & c
128.For 1900 sq. m. poured in 0.23 m pavement in one day, how many sets of samples are required
a. 5
b. 6
c. 25
d. 26
129.Steel bars for concrete pavement is tested for its
a. Tensile
b. Compression
c. Bending
d. Both a & c
130.Asphalt cement mixed with gasoline
a. Slow-curing cut back asphalt
b. Medium curing cut back asphalt
c. Rapid Curing cut back asphalt
d. Both a & c
131.The type of concrete test specimen to be obtained from concrete to be used in pavement
a. Cube
b. Cylinder
c. Beam
d. Either b or c

34
132.The asphalt mix shall have a mass percent air void with the range
a. 1 to 3
b. 3 to 5
c. 5 to 8
d. 8 to 11
133.The compaction of soil material in embankment should be done in
a. 15 cm loose layer
b. 20 cm loose layer
c. 25 cm loose layer
d. 30 cm loose layer.
134.The cement factor for concrete Class A based on 94 lb. bag cement
a. 9 bags/cu. m.
b. 11 bags/cu. m.
c. 14 bags/cu. m.
d. 18 bags/cu. m.
135.A bituminous coating applied to an existing base or road surface
a. Prime Coat
b. Tack Coat
c. Seal Coat
d. Zinc Coat
136.Core samples with individual measurements less than the specified thickness by ___ shall not be included in the average
a. More than 25 mm
b. Less than 25 mm
c. More than 5 mm
d. Less than 5 mm
137.Stones shall be placed be laid with their longest axis faces horizontal in full beds of mortar and joints shall be flushed with
mortar
a. Grouted Riprap
b. Stone Masonry
c. Gabions
d. Both a & b
138.The compacted flexible pavement shall have a density equal to or greater than ___ of the laboratory compacted density.
a. 93%
b. 95%
c. 97%
d. 99%
139.It is sometimes called as Hot Asphalt, since it has to be heated before use
a. Asphalt Cement
b. Blown Asphalt
c. Liquid Asphalt
d. Both b & c
140.The accelerated test on the loss of volatile component of asphalt
a. Loss on Heating
b. Flash Point
c. Spot Test
d. Softening Point
141.Fineness Modulus is a cumulative percentages retained on sieves ___ divided by 100
a. 3/8” to No. 100
b. 3/8” to No. 50
c. No. 4 to No. 50
d. No. 4 to No. 100
142.Maximum abrasion requirement for coarse aggregate is
a. 30%
b. 40%
c. 50%
d. 60%
143.Slump requirement when not vibrated
a. 20 to 40 mm
b. 40 to 75 mm
c. 50 to 100 mm
d. 100 to 200 mm
144.Penetration grade of Asphalt cement
a. 40/300

35
 b. 0/30
c. 40/50
d. None
145.Concrete hollow blocks are tested for its
a. Absorption & Dimension
b. Tensile
c. Compression
d. Both a & c
146.Steel bars for concrete pavement is tested for its
a. Tensile
b. Compression
c. Bending
d. Both a & c
147.Asphalt Cement mixed with gasoline
a. Slow-curing cut back asphalt
b. Rapid curing cut back asphalt
c. Medium curing cut back asphalt
d. Both a & c
148.The type of concrete test specimen to be obtained from concrete to be used in pavement
a. Cube
b. Cylinder
c. Beam
d. Either b & c
149.The asphalt mix shall have a mass percent air void with the range
a. 1 to 3
b. 1 to 5
c. 1 to 8
d. 1 to 11
150.The surface of the near by placed concrete shall be cured for a period of
a. 10 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 38 hours
d. 48 hours
151.The concrete mix arrived at the jobsite 45 minutes after batching. When the samples are about to be taken you found out
that the cylinder mold will be used instead of beam mold, as a Project Engineer (the Materials Engineer is absent) What
will you do?
a. Allow sampling using the cylinder mold
b. Require the supplier to return to plant to get the beam mold
c. Allow pouring without sample
d. Reject the concrete mix
152.The computation of soil material in embankment should be done in
a. 15 cm loose layer
b. 20 cm loose layer
c. 25 cm loose layer
d. 30 cm loose layer
153.The cement factor for concrete Class A based on 88 lb bag cement
a. 9 bags/ cu. m
b. 11 bags/ cu. m
c. 14 bags/ cu. m
d. 18 bags/ cu. m
154.For optimum compaction, the embankment materials should be at its ___ at the time of rolling
a. Optimum Moisture Content
b. Plasticity Index
c. Liquid Limit
d. All of the above
155.Formula of Quality Control is
a. HS (M+W) = (HQ +S) E
b. M (HQ + W) = S(HQ + E)
c. HQ (M+W)=(HQ+E)S
d. HQ-M +W= HQ x SE
156.Angular coarse aggregates with a volume of 5,500 cm. m requires ___ quality test
a. 74
b. 10

36
 c. 4
d. 5
157.The required temperature for oven drying is
a. 110 ± 5°C
b. 110 + 5°C
c. 110 - 5°C
d. 115 °C
158.All are activities involved in CBR test except for one.
a. Compaction
b. Soaking
c. Penetration
d. Compression
159.It is used to determine the relative hardness of asphaltic materials.
a. SayboltFurol Viscometer
b. Ductility Machine
c. Penetrometer
d. None of the above
160.The test that measures the cohesion or adhesion of bituminous material in a dry or wet mixture is known as
a. Marshall Stability Test
b. Specific Gravity
c. Immersion-Compression Test
d. None of the above
161.Viscosity test is a ___ for liquid asphaltic material
a. Quality Test
b. Consistency test
c. Spot Test
d. None of the above
162.Strength D-load to produce .3 mm crack for reinforced concrete pipe
a. 50 N min
b. 75 N min
c. 50 N max
d. 75 N max
163.Compressive strength requirement in testing mortar cubes of Portland cement in 7 days
a. 19.3 Mpa
b. 12.4 Mpa
c. 27.5 Mpa min
d. None of the above
164.Soil classification of stone fragments gravel and sand
a. A-1-a
b. A-1-b
c. A-2-4
d. A-7-5
e. Both a and b
165.Specific specification requirements for soundness test of fine aggregates
a. 10 max
b. 10 min
c. 12 max
d. 12 min
166.Is a fine grained soil smaller than 0.001
a. Colloids
b. Clay
c. Silt
d. Sand
167.Sawing joints shall commence as soon as the concrete has hardened sufficiently usually within
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 30 hours
d. 36 hours
168.Rate of penetration is uniform at ___ per minute when applying loads to the penetration piston for CBR test
a. 1.3 mm
b. 2.0 mm
c. 3.0 mm
d. 1.5 mm

37
169.Simple test which indicates the amount of volatile matter including moisture in the cement
a. Loss of ignition
b. Soundness
c. Specific gravity
d. Fineness
170.Substance in the cement which when added to cement delays the setting time that often add to the strength, but too
much will lead to slow expansion
a. Magnesia
b. Gypsum
c. Sulfur Trioxide
d. Insolube Residue
171.Term applied to characteristic of steel which makes it brittle when cold
a. Cold joint
b. Fineness
c. Ductility
d. Cold shortness
172.Physical tests performed on the cement except one.
a. Soundness
b. Loss of ignition
c. Specific gravity
d. Time of setting
173.Physical properties of concrete which is defined as the ease with which a uniform mass of freshly mixed concrete can be
moved without segregation into final position in which it is allowed to harden.
a. Workability
b. Durability
c. Strength
d. Impermeability
174.For every lean mixes, it determines the flexural strength of lean concrete.
a. Mortar strength
b. Grading
c. Strength of Aggregates
d. Temperature
175.For rich mixes, the controlling factor in the strength of concrete.
a. Mortar strength
b. Grading
c. Strength of Aggregates
d. Temperature
176.Required temperature when placing concrete.
a. 23 °C
b. 26 °C
c. 29 °C
d. 32 °C
177.Cracks that are predominantly perpendicular to the pavement centerline
a. Transverse Cracks
b. Diagonal Cracks
c. Longitudinal Cracks
d. Restraint Cracks
178.It is the resulting differences in elevation across a joint or crack
a. Transverse Cracks
b. Diagonal Cracks
c. Faulting
d. Restraint Cracks
179.Cracking, breaking and chipping of slab at the longitudinal and transverse joints
a. Pumping
b. Scaling
c. Spalling
d. Faulting
180.The upward movements in an asphalt pavement resulting in the formation of film of asphalt on the surface.
a. Raveling
b. Bleeding
c. Rutting
d. Shoving

38
181.It determines the time which elapses before the paste ceases to be fluid and plastic and also the time required for it to
harden to a certain degree
a. Time of setting
b. Curing
c. Initial set
d. Final set
182.Interconnected cracks forming a series of large blocks usually with sharp corners or angles
a. Alligator Cracks
b. Reflection Cracks
c. Shrinkage Cracks
d. Join Cracks
183.The localized upward displacement of a pavement due to swelling of the subgrade or some portion of the pavement
structure.
a. Potholes
b. Depressions
c. Upheaval
d. Corrugation
184.The progressive loss of surface material by weathering and/or traffic abrasion.
a. Bleeding
b. Raveling
c. Loss of cover aggregate
d. Polished aggregate
185.Alternative lines and heavy lines of asphalt running parallel to the center line of the road.
a. Transverse streaking
b. Longitudinal streaking
c. Channeling, grooving or rutting
d. Slippage Cracks
186.This method covers the determination of the loss in mass of oil and asphaltic compounds (volatiles) when heated
a. Loss on heating
b. Solubility of asphalt
c. Ductility of Bituminous
d. Specific Gravity
187.The ability of asphalt to stick to the aggregate in the paving mixture
a. Cohesion
b. Adhesion
c. Durability
d. Hardening
188.Apparatus use in the determination of Flash Point test on asphalt
a. Thermometer
b. Oven
c. Cleveland Open Cup
d. Ignition dish

39
 The California bearing ratio (CBR) is a penetration test for evaluation of the mechanical strength
of natural ground, subgrades and basecourses beneath new carriageway construction. It was
developed by the California Department of Transportation before World War II.

Saturated surface dry (SSD[citation needed]) is defined as the condition of an aggregate in which the surfaces of the
particles are "dry" (i.e., surface adsorption would no longer take place), but the inter-particle voids are saturated
with water. In this condition aggregates will not affect the free water content of a composite material.[1][2]
The water adsorption by mass (Am)) is defined in terms of the mass of saturated-surface-dry (Mssd) sample and
the mass of oven dried test sample (Mdry) by
A= Mssd -M dry/ M dry

The Atterberg limits are a basic measure of the critical water contents of a fine-grained soil:

its shrinkage limit, plastic limit, and liquid limit. As a dry, clayey soil takes on increasing amounts of
water, it undergoes distinct changes in behavior and consistency. Depending on the water content of the
soil, it may appear in four states: solid, semi-solid, plastic and liquid. In each state, the consistency and
behavior of a soil is different and consequently so are its engineering properties. Thus, the boundary
between each state can be defined based on a change in the soil's behavior. The Atterberg limits can be
used to distinguish between silt and clay, and it can distinguish between different types of silts and clays.
These limits were created by Albert Atterberg, a Swedish agriculturist.[1] They were later refined by Arthur
Casagrande. These distinctions in soil are used in assessing the soils that are to have structures built
on. Soils when wet retain water and some expand in volume. The amount of expansion is related to the
ability of the soil to take in water and its structural make-up (the type of atoms present).

Shrinkage limit[edit]
The shrinkage limit (SL) is the water content where further loss of moisture will not result in any more volume
reduction.[2] The test to determine the shrinkage limit is ASTM International D4943. The shrinkage limit is much
less commonly used than the liquid and plastic limits.

Plastic limit[edit]
The plastic limit (PL) is determined by rolling out a thread of the fine portion of a soil on a flat, non-porous
surface. The procedure is defined in ASTM Standard D 4318. If the soil is at a moisture content where its
behavior is plastic, this thread will retain its shape down to a very narrow diameter. The sample can then be
remolded and the test repeated. As the moisture content falls due to evaporation, the thread will begin to break
apart at larger diameters. The plastic limit is defined as the moisture content where the thread breaks apart at a
diameter of 3.2 mm (about 1/8 inch). A soil is considered non-plastic if a thread cannot be rolled out down to
3.2 mm at any moisture possible.

Liquid limit[edit]

Casagrande cup in action

The liquid limit (LL) is conceptually defined as the water content at which the behavior of a clayey soil changes
from plastic to liquid. However, the transition from plastic to liquid behavior is gradual over a range of water
contents, and the shear strength of the soil is not actually zero at the liquid limit. The precise definition of the
liquid limit is based on standard test procedures described below.
The original liquid limit test of Atterberg's involved mixing a pat of clay in a round-bottomed porcelain bowl of 10–
12 cm diameter. A g

CALCULATION 9.1
Use the following calculation to determine percent water content:

40
 W= (A-B) x 100
(B-C)
Where:
W = percent water content
A = mass of wet sample + tare, g
B = mass of dry sample + tare, g
C = mass of tare, g.

Calculate the water content of the soil at the time of the accepted groove closure according to Part I:

WN =100[(Mass of Water)/ (Mass of Oven Dry Soil )]

OR

100[(A − B) (B − C)]

Calculate the liquid limit by one of the two following equations:

LL=W N ( N / 25) 0.121

-OR

LL= K( WN )

Where:
N = No. of blows causing closure of the groove
K = A factor given in Table 1
WN =Water content at N blows
A = mass of wet sample + tare, g
B = mass of dry sample + tare, g
C = mass of tare, g

Calculate the Plasticity Index (LS = linear shrinkage in percent):

PI= LS(1.6)

Calculate the Liquid Limit:

LL = PI+ PL

PLASTIC LIMIT

Plastic limit defined as the moisture content in percentage, at which the soil crumbles,
when rolled into threads of 3 mm in diameter.

Determination No.
Sl. No. Observations and Calculations
1 2 3
Observation
41
 1 Moisture content container number      
2 Mass of empty container ( )      
3 Mass of container + wet soil ( )      
4 Mass of container + dry soil ( )      
Calculations
5 Mass of water =       
6 Mass of dry  soil =       
7 Water content = w = [(5) / (6)] x 100      
 

Calculate the percent moisture as follows:

A = [(B – C)/C] x 100

A = Percent moisture
B = Mass of original sample
C = Mass of dry sample
Calculate moisture to the nearest 0.1%.
The percent moisture is the plastic limit.
Report the plastic limit to the nearest whole number.

PLASTICITY INDEX CALCULATION

The plasticity index of soil is the difference between its liquid limit and its plastic limit.
Plasticity Index = Liquid Limit - Plastic Limit
Report the plasticity index to the nearest whole number.

Sieve analysis. A sieve analysis (or gradation test) is a practice or procedure used (commonly used in
civil engineering) to assess the particle size distribution (also called gradation) of a granular material.
The size distribution is often of critical importance to the way the material performs in use.

%Retained= (W sieve/W total)x100

42
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