SEC : SR BIPC (CHAINA & ELITE) NEET MODEL Date: 30-01-2019

Time : 3 Hrs GRAND TEST-4 Max. Marks: 720M

Note: Important Instructions
 Duration of test is 3 hours and question paper contains 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
 Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing
of answer is harmful.
 The candidate has to write his/her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble
with the help of Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted
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PHYSICS
1. The dominant mechanism for motion of charge carriers in forward and reverse biased silicon p-n junction
are
1) diffusion in forward biased, drift in reverse bias
2) drift in forward biased, diffusion in reverse biased
3) diffusion in both forward and reverse bias
4) drift in both forward and reverse bias
2. The power factor of the circuit shown in figure is

1) 0.2 2) 0.8 3) 0.4 4) 0.6

C
3. Two capacitors having capacity C and are connected to a V volt battery, as shown in figure. Then
2
work done in charging both the capacitors fully is

3 1 1
1) CV 2 2) CV 2 3) 2CV 2 4) CV 2
4 4 2
4. If E denotes electric field in a uniform conductor, I is corresponding current through it and vd is drift
velocity of e-, then the correct graph is

1) 2) 3) 4)
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5. Two batteries of emf E1 and E2 ( E2 > E1 ) and internal resistance r1 and r2 respectively are connected in
parallel as shown in figure.

1) The equivalent emf E is smaller than E1 2) The equivalent emf E = E1 + E2

3) The equivalent emf E is greater than E2
4) The equivalent emf Eeq of two cell is between E1 and E2 always
6. In an inductor, the current I varies with time t as I = 4 + 4t. If the emf induced in the inductor is 8 mV,
what is self-inductance? (Here current is in ampere and time is in second)
1) 8  10 6 H 2) 6  106 H 3) 4  103 H 4) 2  103 H
7. A moving particle has kinetic energy K and wavelength  then, the correct graph related to the particle is

1) 2)
3) Both 1 and 2 4) None of the above
8. In a photoelectric effect measurement, the stopping potential for a given metal is found to be V0 volt when
radiation of wavelength 0 is used. If radiation of wavelength 2 0 is used with the same metal then the
stopping potential (in volt)will be
V hc hc
1) 0 2) 2 V0 3) V0  4) V0 
2 2e0 2e0
9. The diode used in the circuit shown in the figure has a constant voltage drop of 0.5 V at all currents and a
maximum power rating of 100 m-W. What should be the value of the resistor R, connected in series with
the diode, for obtaining maximum current I?

1) 200 2) 6.67 3) 5 4) 1.5

1
10. If shunt of 4 is attached to a galvanometer, the deflection is reduced to th . If an additional shunt of
5
2 is attached. The deflection will be reduced to
1 1
1) th of initial 2) th of initial 3) remain same 4) None of these
10 13
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11. If force F is given by relation F  M x  Nt 2 , where x is distance and t is time, then the dimensions of
M/N will be
1) [ L2T 2 ] 2) [ L1/2T 2 ] 3) [ L1/ 2T 2 ] 4) [ MLT 2 ]
2
12. A string of length l fixed at one end carries a mass m at the other end. The string makes rev/s around

the horizontal axis through the fixed end as shown in the figure, the tension in the string is

1) 16m 2) 4m 3) 8m 4) 2m
13. If a solid cylinder of mass 3kg is rolling on a horizontal surface with velocity of 4 m/s. it collides with a
horizontal spring of force constant 200 N/m. The maximum compression produced in the spring will be
1) 0.6 m 2) 0.5 m 3) 0.7 m 4) 0.2 m
14. The acceleration a of a particle moving in a straight line varies with displacement “s” according to
relation a = 2s, then velocity of the particle vary with displacement as (given that velocity is zero at zero
displacement)
1) s 2) 2s 3) s 2 4) 3s
R
15. A circular disc of radius R have mass 9M, if a small disc of radius and mass M is removed
3
concentrically. The moment of inertia of remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the
disc and passing through centre is
4 40
1) MR 2 2) 4MR 2 3) MR 2 4) MR 2
9 9
16. The activity of a radioactive substance decreased to one-third of the original activity number N 0 in a
period of 9 yr. After a further lapse of 9 yr, its activity will be
3 N N
1) N 0 2) 0 3) N 0 4) 0
4 9 6
17. Assuming Bohr model of hydrogen atom. If an electron jumps from first excited state to the ground state
of hydrogen atom. What will be the percentage change in the speed of electron?
1) 25% 2) 50 % 3) 100 % 4) 200 %
t x 1
18. A wave equation is given by y  4sin[ (   )] where x is in cm and t in second. Which of the
5 9 6
following is true?
1)   18cm 2) v  4ms 1 3) A  0.4m 4) f  50 Hz
2
19. If a solenoid of magnetic moment of 0.2 Am in a uniform magnetic filed 0.16 T experiences a torque
0.016 Nm, then angle made by a solenoid axis with magnetic field is
1) 30 0 2) 450 3) 60 0 4) 90 0
20. If 1 , 2 and 3 are wavelength of waves giving resonance with fundamental, first and second overtones
respectively of a closed organ pipe, then the ratio of wavelengths 1 : 2 : 3 is
1) 1 : 3 : 5 2) 5 : 3 : 1 3) 15 : 5 : 3 4) 1 : 2 : 3
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21. A copper rod is suspended in a non-homogenous magnetic field region. The rod when in equilibrium will
align itself
1) in the region where magnetic field is strongest
2) in the region where magnetic field is weakest and parallel to direction of magnetic field there
3) in the direction in which it was originally suspended
4) in the region where magnetic field is weakest and perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field there
22. The maximum number of possible interference maxima for slit-separation equal to twice the wavelength
in Young’s double slit experiment is
1) infinite 2) five 3) three 4) zero
 
23. If a force F  6t 2 i  4t j is acting on a particle of mass 3kg, then velocity of particle at t = 3s is (at t=0,
particle is at rest)
     
1) 2 i  3 j 2) 4 i  6 j 3) 18 i  6 j 4) None of these
24. A syringe containing water is held horizontally with its nozzle at a height h above the ground as shown in
figure. The cross-sectional areas of the piston and the nozzle are A and a respectively. The piston is
pushed with a constant speed V. The horizontal range R of the stream of water on the ground is

2h h aV 2h AV 2h
1) R  V 2) R  V 3) R  4) R 
g 2g A g a g
25. A block of weight 5 N is pushed against vertical wall by a force 12 N. The coefficient of friction between
the wall and block is 0.6. The magnitude of the force exerted by the wall on the block is

1) 12 N 2) 5 N 3) 7.2 N 4) 13 N
 
26. Which of the following is not true ? If A  3iˆ  4jˆ and B  6iˆ  8jˆ where A and B are the magnitudes of
A and B
  A 1  
1) A  B  0  2) 3) A.B  48 4) A = 5
B 2
27. Two identical bodies are made of a material for which the heat capacity increases with temperature. One
of these is at 100 0C, while the other one is at 00C. If the two bodies are brought into contact, then
assuming no heat loss, the final common temperature is
1) 50 0C 2) more than 500C 3) less than 500C but greater than 00C 4) 00C
28. If in a wire Young’s modulus Y, longitudinal strain X is produced then the potential energy stored in its
unit volume will be
1) 0.5 YX2 2) 0.5 Y2X 3) 2YX2 4) YX2
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29. An engine has an efficiency of 1/6. When the temperature of sink is reduced by 62 0C, its efficiency is
doubled, then the temperature of source is
1) 62 0C 2) 99 0C 3) 370C 4) 124 0C
30. A bullet losses 19% of its kinetic energy when passes through an obstacle. The percentage change in its
speed is
1) increase by 10% 2) decrease by 10% 3) increase by 20% 4) decrease by 20%
31. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the first law of thermodynamics?
1) It is a restatement of the principle of conservation of energy
2) It is not applicable to any cyclic process
3) It introduces the concept of the entropy 4) Both 2 & 3
2
32. A particle performing SHM has time period and path length 4 cm. The displacement from mean
3
position at which acceleration is equal to velocity is
1) zero 2) 0.5 cm 3) 1 cm 4) 1.5 cm
33. A particle undergoes uniform circular motion. About which point on the plane of the circle, will the
angular momentum of the particle remain conserved?
1) centre of the circle 2) on the circumference of the circle.
3) inside the circle 4) outside the circle
34. Which of the following phenomenon is not common to sound and light wave?
1) Interference 2) Diffraction 3) Polarisation 4) Coherence
0
35. A body is projected with velocity v1 at angle 60 from point A as shown in figure, at the same instant
another body is projected vertically upward with velocity v2 from point B (as shown in figure). The
v
value of 1 so that both bodies will collide
v2

3 2
1) 1 2) 3) 4) None of these
2 3
36. A body of mass m kg.starts falling from a point 2R above the Earth’s surface. Its kinetic energy when it
has fallen to a point ‘R’ above the Earth’s surface [R-Radius of Earth, M-Mass of Earth, G-Gravitational
Constant]
1 GMm 1 GMm 2 GMm 1 GMm
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 R 6 R 3 R 3 R
37. Let g be the acceleration due to gravity at earth's surface and K be the rotational kinetic energy of the
earth. Suppose the earth's radius decreases by 2% keeping all other quantities same, then
1) g decreases by 2% and K decreases by 4%
2) g decreases by 4% and K increases by 2%
3) g increases by 4% and K increases by 4%
4) g decreases by 4% and K increases by 4%
38. The volume of a metal sphere increases by 0.24% when its temperature is raised by 40°C. The coefficient
of linear expansion of the metal is .......... °C
1) 2  10 –5 2) 6  10 –5 3) 2.1  10–5 4) 1.2  10–5
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39. A cylinder containing an ideal gas is in vertical position and has a piston of mass M that is able to move
up or down without friction. If the temperature is increased,

1) both p and V of the gas will change. 2)only p will increase according to Charle’s law.
3) V will change but not p. 4) p will change but not V.
40. A wheel of radius 10 cm can rotate freely about an axis passing through its centre. A force 20 N acts
tangentially at the rim of wheel. If moment of inertia of wheel is 0.5kgm2, its angular acceleration is
1) 2rad /s2 2) 2.5rad /s 2 3) 4rad /s2 4) 5rad /s2
41. Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each other. The
current flowing in them are I and 2I, respectively. The resultant magnetic field induction at the centre will
be
50 I 30 I I I
1) 2) 3) 0 4) 0
2R 2R 2R R
42. In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean square value of the electric field is Erms =6 V/m.
The peak value of the magnetic field is
1) 1.4  10 8 T 2) 2.83  108 T 3) 0.70  108 T 4) 4.23  108 T
43. Match the corresponding entries of Column 1 with Column 2. [Where m is the magnification produced
by the mirror]
Column 1 Column 2
m = -2 Convex mirror
m = -1/2 Concave mirror
m = +2 Real image
m = + 1/2 Virtual image

1) A → a and c; B → a and d; C → a and b; D → a and d

2) A → a and d; B → b and c ; C → b and d; D → b and c
3) A → c and d; B → b and c; C → b and c; D → a and d
4) A → b and c; B → b and c ; C → b and d; D → a and d
44. Two beams of light of intensities I1 and I 2 interfere to give an interference pattern. If the ratio of
25
maximum intensity to minimum intensity is , then I1 / I 2 is
9
1) 5/3 2) 4 3) 81/625 4) 16
45. The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z) in space is given according to relation
V  2 x 2 volt. The electric field intensity at the point (2m, 0, 2m) will be
1) -4 Vm1 2) +4 Vm1 3) -8 Vm1 4) 8 Vm1

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 CHEMISTRY
46. Which of the following is a wrong statement?
1) HCl can not be used to create acidic medium during permanganate titrations.
2) KMnO4 is isostructural with KClO4 .
3) During permanganate titrations, Mn+2 ion acts as an autocatalyst.
4) KMnO4 oxidizes H 2 S to H 2 SO4 in acidic medium.
47. Which of the following halides of Xenon undergoes disproportionation during hydrolysis?
1) XeF2 2) XeF4 3) XeF6 4) All of these

48. is a derivative ofpenicillin. Which of the following functional group

is not seen in the above compound.

1) Tertiary amino group 2) Amide group 3) Allyl group 4) Keto group
49. During the estimation of nitrogen present in an organic compound by Kjeldahl method, the ammonia
evolved from 0.25 gm of the compound is neutralized by 100ml of 0.05M H 2 SO4 . The percentage of
nitrogen present in the compound is
1) 26% 2) 44% 3) 4.8% 4) 56%
50. A living cell contains a solution which is isotonic with 0.2 M glucose solution. What osmotic pressure
develops when the cell is placed in 0.05 M BaCl2 solution at 300K?
1) 1.23atm 2) 3.69 atm 3) 6.15 atm 4) 7.2 atm
51. Three solutions X, Y, Z of HCl are mixed to produce 100 mL of 0.1 M solution. The molarities of X, Y
and Z are 0.07M, 0.12 M and 0.15 M respectively. What respective volumes of X, Y and Z should be
mixed?
1) 50 mL, 25 mL, 25 mL 2) 20 mL, 60 mL, 20 mL
3) 40 mL, 30 mL, 30 mL 4) 55 mL, 20 mL, 25 mL
52. Which of the following complex exhibits both geometrical and optical isomerism?
1) cis  Pt[Cl2 (en) 2 ] 2) Co[(NH3 )3 (NO2 )3 ] 3) Trans  Pt[(NH3 )2 (en) 2 ] 4) [ Pt ( NH 3 ) 2 Cl2 ]
53. The reaction Cr2O3  2 Al  Al2O3  2Cr is spontaneous at
1) low temperatures 2) high temperatures 3) At all temperatures
4) The reaction is not at all thermodynamically feasible.
54. The poison to the catalyst during the manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process is
1) Molybdenum 2) Fe2O3 3) Carbon monoxide 4) Cobalt nitrate
55. When an acidic oxide, Pis dissolved in water forms an acid along with the formation of a neutral oxide,
Q.The same neutral oxide is also obtained when a nitrate salt is treated with FeSO4  aq  in presence of
concentrated sulphuric acid. P&Q combine at low temperatures to form a blue solid, R.Q is oxidized to
reddish brown colored compound, S when exposed to oxygen. Incorrect statement regarding the above
information
1) S and P are same compounds 2) Compound R is an oxide of nitrogen
3) P causes atmospheric pollution that leads to acute respiratory disease in children
4) R is a neutral oxide of nitrogen
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56. An alkene ‘A’ contains Four C-C bonds, ten C-H  bonds and one C-C  bond. ‘A’ on ozonolysis gives
two moles of aldehyde, one with molar mass of 44u and another with 58u. The IUPAC name of ‘A’ is
1) 2-Butene 2) 1-Butyne 3) 1-Pentene 4) 2-Pentene
57. During developing of an exposed camera film, one step involves in the following reaction:

Which of the following best describes the role of quinol?

1) It acts as an acid 2) It acts as reducing agent
3) It acts as oxidant 4) It acts as a base
th
58. The correct order of reducing character of 16 group hydrides is
1) H 2O  H 2 Se  H 2Te  H 2 S 2) H 2O  H 2 S  H 2 Se  H 2Te
3) H 2O  H 2 Se  H 2 S  H 2Te 4) H 2Te  H 2 Se  H 2 S  H 2O
59. Which of the following physical constant is lower for D2O than H 2O ?
1) Boiling point 2) Enthalpy of vaporization
3) Density 4) Dielectric constant

60. Which of the following species represents B in the

above graph.

1) 2) 3) 4)
61. The number of water molecules which form water of crystallization in Borax is
1) 10 2) 4 3) 8 4) 2
62. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
1) CO2 2) SiO2 3) CrO3 4) PbO2

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63. A 1 M solution of H 2 SO4 is electrolysed. Select correct statement in respect of products obtained at
anode and cathode respectively:
Given : SO42  S 2O82  2e; E o SO2 / S O2  2.01V
4 2 8

H 2O(l )  2H (aq)  1/ 2O2 ( g )  2e ; E o H2O/ O2  1.23V



1) concentration of H 2 SO4 remain constant; H 2 , O2

2) concentration of H 2 SO4 increases; O2 , H 2
3) concentration of H 2 SO4 decreases; O2 , H 2
4) concentration of H 2 SO4 remains constant S2O82 , H 2
64. If internuclear axis is taken to be in Z direction,
1) Linear combination of 2pz orbitals of two atoms form two  molecular orbitals
2) Linear combination of 2px orbitals of two atoms form two  molecular orbitals
3) Linear combination of 2pz orbitals of two atoms form two  molecular orbitals
4) Linear combination of 2py orbitals of two atoms form two  molecular orbitals
65. For an exothermic chemical process occurring in two steps as follows
(i) A + B → X (slow) (ii) X → AB (fast)
The progress of reaction can be best describe by:

1) 2)

3) 4)

66. Which of the following species has bond order equal to that of O2 ?
1) B2 2) C2 3) CN  4) SO3
67. Which of the following species in the pair the central atom undergoes same type of hybridization?
1) ClF3 ; NH 3 2) H 2 SO4 ;SO3 3) PCl5 ;ClF3 4) XeF4 ;SF4
68. The common component of photochemical smog is
1) CFCs 2) PAN 3) CF2Cl2 4) CO2

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69.
Where number of moles of Cl 2 are
1) X = Y 2) X > Y
3) X < Y 4) Reaction 2 is electrophilic substitution
70. Aniline can be converted into 2-Bromo aniline by treating with
1) Br2 / H 2O 2) Ac2 O , pyridine ; Br2 / AcOH ; H 3O 
3) Br2 / FeBr3 4) CH3 Br / AlCl3
71. Which of the following is an acid chloride?
1) Benzoyl chloride 2) Benzyl chloride 3) Benzal chloride 4) Benzo Chloride
72. Four elements A, B, C and D have first ionization enthalpies as 786 KJ/mol; 737 KJ/mol; 577KJ/mol and
1012KJ/mol respectively. The elements A, B, C and D respectively might be
1) Mg, Si, P& Al 2) Si, Mg, Al & P 3) P, Si, Mg & Al 4) Si, P, Al & Mg
73. For the zero order reaction A→B+C; initial concentration of A is 0.1 M. If [A]=0.08M after 10 minutes,
then its half-life and completion time are respectively:
1) 10 min; 20 min 2) 2 X 10-3 min; 4 X 10-3 min
3) 25 min; 50 min 4) 25 min; the reaction never goes for completion
74. An aqueous solution containing 1 M each of Au , Cu2+, Ag+, Li+ is being electrolysed by using inert
3+

electrodes. The value of standard reduction potentials are:

o o o
E Ag 
/ Ag
 0.80V , E Cu 2
/ Cu
 0.34V , and E Au 3
/ Au
 1.50V , ELio  / Li  3.03V ,
With increasing voltage, the sequence of deposition of metals on the cathode will be:
1) Li, cu, Ag, Au 2) Cu, Ag, Au 3) Au, Ag, Cu 4) Au, Ag, Cu, Li
75. Which of the following is a good conductor of electricity ?
1) Polypyrrole 2) Polyacetylene 3) Graphite 4) All of these
76. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
1) The concepts of “penetration” and “shielding” are important in deciding the energetic ordering of
orbitals in multi-electron atoms.
2) A wave-function can have positive and negative values
3) “Radial nodes” can appear in radial probability distribution functions
4) The number of electrons in a subshell depends on the principal quantum number.
77. The energy of an electron of 2 py orbital is:
1) greater than 2 px orbital 2) less than 2 pz orbital
3) equal to 2s orbital 4) same as that of 2 px and 2 pz orbital
78. In which of the following compounds there is no racemization during SN1 reaction?
1) 3-Bromo pentane 2) 2-Bromo 2-phenyl propane
3) 2-Bromo octane 4) 1-Bromo – 1- phenyl propane

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79.

Out of A, B, C, D and E, the one which is used in the manufacture of Aspirin is

1) D 2) C 3) E 4) A
80. Select the incorrect statement:
1) we can condense vapour simply by applying pressure
2) To liquefy a gas one must lower the temperature below TC and also apply pressure
3) at TC , there is no distinction between liquid and vapour state hence density of the liquid is nearly equal
to density of the vapour
4) However great the pressure applied, a gas cannot be liquefied below it’s critical temp.
81. Benzene Diazonium chloride treated with Cu2Cl2 /HCl is called
1) Sandmeyer reaction 2) Gattermann reaction
3) Baltz –Shieman reaction 4) Hund’s Dieker reaction
82. Which of the following is not feasible?

1) 2)

3) 4) All of these
83. The enthalpies of neutralization of a week base AOH and a strong base BOH by HCl are -12250 cal/mol
and - 13000 cal/mol respectively. When one mole of HCl is added to a solution containing 1 mole of
AOH and 1 mole of BOH, the enthalpy change was -12500 cal/mol. Ratio of the acid distribution
between AOH and BOH is
1) 2 : 1 2) 2 : 3 3) 1 : 2 4) 1 : 1
84. The product in the following reaction is

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 1) 2) 3) 4)

85. Isomers of hexane, based on their branching, can be divided into three distinct classes as shown in the
figure

The correct order of their boiling point is

1) I > II > III 2) III > II > I 3) II > III > I 4) III > I > II
86. According to Hardy – Schulze Law the incorrect statement is
1) The ions carrying more opposite charge to that of sol particle are effective in coagulation.
2) The ability of an ion to bring about coagulation of a given colloid depends upon both magnitude and
sign of its charge.
3) For the coagulation of As2 S3 , Al2 ( SO4 )3 is a better coagulating agent than MgSO4 .
4
4)For the coagulation of positively charged sol,  Fe  CN 6  ion has less coagulating power than PO4
3

87. I. ReO3 and CrO2 are good electrical conductors.

II. npn and pnp sandwiched semi conductors are used as transistors.
III. Metal excess defect is a type of stoichiometric defect.
IV. Frenkel defect is also called dislocation point defect.
Select the incorrect statements
1) I, III & IV 2) I only 3) III only 4) I, II & IV
Diastase Maltase
2(C6 H10O5 ) n  H 2O   n(A)  2n(B)
88.
Starch
A and B in the given sequence of reactions respectively are
1)Maltose, D-glucose 2) Lactose, D-glucose 3) Sucrose, D-glucose 4) Maltose, fructose
89. In the cyanide extraction process of silver from argentite ore, the oxidizing and reducing agents used are
1) O2 and CO respectively 2) O2 and Zn dust respectively
3) HNO3 and Zn dust respectively 4) HNO3 and CO respectively
90. Calculate the standard enthalpy of reaction for the following reaction using the listed enthalpies of
reaction: 3Co( s )  2O2 ( g )  Co3O4 ( s)
2Co(s)  O2 ( g )  2 CoO(s);  H1o  475.8kJ
6CoO( s)  O2 ( g )  2 Co3O4 ( s);  Ho2  355.0kJ
1) -891.2 kJ 2) -120.8 kJ 3) +891.2kJ 4) -830 kJ
BOTANY
91. Select the correct match
Column I Column II
a. Red tide (i) Cyanobacteria
b. Red sea (ii) A photosynthetic protist
c. White rust (iii) Algal fungi
d. Red rot (iv) Imperfect fungi
1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv) 2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) 4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

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92. Mixotrophic protistans found in stagnant fresh water is
1) Euglenoids 2) Diatoms 3) Dinoflagellates 4) Sporozoans
93. Recycling of most of the minerals like N, P, Fe, S is carried out by a group of autotrophic bacteria which
are nutritionally
1) Photolithotrophs 2) Saprotroph 3) Chemoautotrophs 4) Phototorganotrophs
94. Keys are
1) Generally analytical in nature
2) Same for all taxonomic categories
3) Based on contrasting characters in pair called lead
4) Non-analytical in nature.
95. The term viroid was used by T.O. Diener because of
1) Its obligate parasitic nature
2) The presence of nucleic acid as infectious particle
3) The absence of protein coat
4) Its pathogenic property to plants only
96. Read the following statements w.r.t. double fertilization.
a. PEC develops into endosperm
b. One male gamete fuse with haploid secondary nucleus
c. It is an event unique to gymnosperm.
d. One of the male gamete fuses with the diploid secondary nucleus to produce PEN
Mark the option representing incorrect statements
1) a, d 2) a, b c) c, d 4) b, c
97. Meiosis in the zygote results in the formation of haploid spores in
1) Horsetail 2) Dryopteris 3) Ulothtix 4) Sphagnum
98. Strobili or cones are found in
1) Selaginella, Equisetum 2) Selaginella, Azolla
3) Equisetum, Azolla 4) Selaginella, Sphagnum
99. Which of the following plant growth regulator plays an important role in seed development, maturation
and dormancy?
1) Ethylene 2) Abscisic acid 3) Auxins 4) Cytokinins
100. Cytokinins are synthesized in
1) Root apices 2) Developing shoot buds
3) Young fruits 4) More than one option is correct
101. During photorespiration, the decarboxylation reaction occurs in
1) Peroxisomes 2) Chloroplast of mesophyll
3) Mitochondria 4) Chloroplast of bundle sheath
102. Consider the following statements
a) PEP is regenerated in mesophyll b) Few number of chloroplasts in bundle sheath
c) RUBP carboxylase is absent in mesophyll d) Multilayered bundle sheath
How many above statements is/are incorrect w.r.t. C4 plants?
1) Three 2) Two 3) Four 4) One
103. Transpiration and root pressure cause water to rise in plants by (respectively)
1) Pulling it upward 2) Pushing and pulling 3) Pushing it upward 4) Pulling and pushing
104. During fermentation
1) The oxidation of NADH to NAD+ is faster
2) Glucose is completely degraded to CO2 and H 2O
3) Pyruvic acid is converted to CO2 and ethanol by yeast
4) The net gain of eight molecules of ATP for each molecule of fructose

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105. Match the following.
Column I Column II
a. Boron (i) Constituent of chlorophyll
b. Chlorine (ii) Carbohydrate translocation
c. Manganese (iii) Anion-cation balance
d. Magnesium (iv) Nitrogen metabolism
1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) 2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
3) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) 4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii)
106. ___________ acts as a mobile carrier for transfer of electrons between complex III and IV in ETS.
1) Cytochrome-b 2) Cytochrome-a 3) Cytochrome-c 4) Cytochrome - a3
107. Active transport as well as facilitated diffusion both
1) Require ATP (energy) 2) Are highly selective
3) Show downhill movement 4) Show uphill movement
108. Trimerous actinomorphic flowers, tricarpellary syncarpous ovary and fruit as capsule, rarely berry are
characteristic features of
1) Perennial herbs with underground bulb/corms/rhizomes
2) Green plants with descending imbricate in corolla
3) Plants possessing simple and stipulate leaves
4) Plant with perianth and non-endospermic seeds
109. Endosperm is consumed during seed development and the food is stored in cotyledons. This statement is
true for
1) Onion, Maize, Orchid 2) Crotolaria, Glycirrhiza
3) Gram, Tulip, Piper 4) Wheat, Pisum, Sorghum
110. False fruits with fleshy and edible thalamus are
1) Strawberry, Tomato 2) Pear, Apple and Strawberry
3) Coconut, Apple 4) Pear, Date palm
111.

The two diagrams given above represents respectively

1) (a) Dicot stem and (b) monocot stem 2) (a) Dicot stem and (b) monocot root
3) (a) Monocot stem and (b) dicot stem 4) (a) Monocot root and (b) dicot root
112. Radial and exarch vascular bundles are characteristic of
1) Root 2) Dicot stem 3) Monocot stem 4) Leaf
113. Bark does not include
1) Phellem 2) Secondary phloem 3) Phellogen 4) Secondary xylem
114. Polysome refers to
1) Chain of ribosomes attached to mRNA 2) Chain of ribosomes attached to rRNA
3) Chain of ribosomes attached to tRNA 4) Chain of ribosomes attached to RER
115. (a) The (i) and (ii) may be traversed by plasmodesmata.
(b) The (iii) holds the different neighbouring (iv) cells together.
(c ) In (v) cells, lipid likes steroidal hormones are synthesized in (vi).
1) (i) Middle lamella; (ii) only secondary wall 2) (v) Animal cells; (vi) RER
3) (iii) Middle lamella; (iv) Plant 4) (ii) Primary wall; (v) Bacterial
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116. Salivary glands of Chironomus larvae are useful to study
1) Lamp brush chromosome 2) Polytene chromosome
3) Giant chromosomes 4) More than one option is correct
117. Biomacromoelcules include the acid insoluble fraction of the living tissue having high molecular weight
greater than 10000 daltons. Mark the odd one out from the list of given biomolecules
1) Lipids 2) RNA 3) Haemoglobin 4) Glycogen
118. Which of the following is the incorrect pair?
1) Trypsin - Enzyme
2) Collagen - Intracellular ground matrix
3) Glut-4 - Enables glucose transport into the cells
4) Insulin - Hormone
119. Prophase – I of meiosis differ from prophase of mitosis being
1) Shorter, more complex 2) Longer, less complex
3) Shorter, less complex 4) Longer, more complex
120. In coconut liquid endosperm is developed as a result of
1) KK →(+), CK → (+) 2) KK → (+), CK → (-)
3) KK → (-), CK → (+) 4) KK → (-), CK → (-)
[Here + → Present, - → absent, KK → Karyokinesis, CK → Cytokinesis]
121. How many types of gametes are produced from genotype AaBbCc if genes B and C are completely
linked?
1) Four 2) Two 3) Eight 4) Six
122. Which of the following option do not follow the law of independent assortment?
1) Segregation of one pair of character is independent of the other pair of character in a typical dihybrid
cross.
6
2) Formation of phenotypic recombinants in F2 generation of a typical dihybrid cross.
16
3) Very close genes present on same chromosome
4) F2 phenotypic ratio 9:3:3:1 of a typical dihybrid cross.
123. Recessive trait of Pisum sativum is
1) Axial flower position 2) Constricted pod shape
3) Violet flower colour 4) Round seed shape
124. Percentage of offsprings with genotype AabbCc expected from the parents AaBbCc and aaBbcc will be
1) 25% 2) 3.12 % 3) 12.5% 4) 6.25%
125. Synergids in female gametophyte
1) Also known as polar nuclei 2) Have filiform apparatus at chalazal end
3) Are present towards chalazal end 4) Has micropylar nucleus
126. In nucellus, megaspore mother cell
1) Divides by free nuclear divisions to form embryo sac
2) Small in size but possesses prominent nucleus
3) Generally differentiates at micropylar end
4) Possess dense cytoplasm and inconspicuous nuclei
127. Vital link between two successive generations
1) Is always one celled 2) Contains a pair of genome
3) Is called zygote 4) All are correct
128. Select the mismatched pair:
1) QB Bacteriophage – DNA as genetic material
2) DNase – Inhibit transformation
3) Ligases – Joining of Okazaki fragments
4) Hershey and Chase experiment – Unequivocal proof that DNA is genetic material
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129. RNA polymerase III can catalyse the synthesis of all, except
1) hnRNA 2) 5SrRNA 3) snRNA 4) tRNA
130. The triplet nature of genetic code was suggested by
1) Nirenberg and Matthaei 2) George Gamow
3) Hargobind Khorana 4) Watson and Crick
131.

Choose the odd one w.r.t the above diagram.

1) The diagram represents replication synthesizing daughter DNA strands.
2) ‘A’ is the leading strand which is synthesizing continuously.
3) The parent DNA template with polarity 5’→3’ shows discontinuous replication.
4) ‘B’ is synthesized in 3’ → 5’ direction.
132. Find the correct match w.r.t crop variety and their special trait
Column I Column II
a. Pusa Swarnim (i) Resistant to fruit borer
b. Pusa Sawani (ii) High protein content
c. Parbhani Kranti (iii) Resistance to yellow mosaic virus
d. Atlas – 66 (iv) White rust resistant
1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) 2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) 4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
133. Eleven membered cyclic oligopeptide which acts as immunosuppressive agent is produced by
1) Fusarium monoliforme 2) Trichoderma polysporum
3) Penicillium 4) Clostridium butylicum
134. Chief reservoir is Earth’s crust for _________ cycling.
1) Carbon 2) Oxygen 3) Phosphorous 4) Nitrogen
135. Find the correct statement w.r.t secondary succession.
1) Has more seral stages 2) Rate of succession is much slower
3) Since some soil or sediment is present, it is faster 4) Lichen is pioneer species
ZOOLOGY
136. Thermo conformers among the following
1) Pavo and psittacula 2) Aptenodytes and Archaopteryx
3) Trygon and pterophyllum 4) Delphinus and Didelphis
137. Choose the incorrect one
1) Logistic growth curve – more realistic growth curve
2) r value = more for flour beetle than Norway rat
3) Carrying capacity = A population is stable as no births and deaths occur
4) Bamboo = breed only once in life
138. Statement I : Biomass pyramid and number pyramid are inverted in sea.
Statement II : The energy is always more in Secondary Carnivores than Secondary consumers.
1) Statements I and II are correct 2) Statement I is correct and II is false
3) Statements I and II are false 4) Statement I is false and II is correct
139. More binding of CO2 with haemoglobin occurs in
1) Tissues when P O2 is high, P CO2 is low. 2) Lungs when P O2 is high, P CO2 is low.
3) Lungs when P O2 is low, P CO2 is high. 4) Tissues when P O2 is low, P CO2 is high.
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140. Blood group of children would never be same as those of blood groups of parents when the parents
possess
1) A and B 2) B and AB 3) AB and O 4) O and A
141. “NaCl is returned to the interstitium by the ascending portions of Vasa recta”. This steps helps in the
1) Conditional water Reabsorption in PCT 2) Unconditional water Reabsorption in DCT
3) Formation of urine isotonic to Blood plasma 4) Formation of urine hypertonic to Blood plasma
142. Match the Column I with Column II
Column I Column II
1) Smooth muscle a. Myoglobin
2) Trophomyosin b. Thin filament
3) Red muscle c. Sutures
4) Skull d. Involuntary
a b c d a b c d a b c d a b c d
1) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c 2) 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a 3) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c 4) 1-d, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c
143. In the Brain of Human being, Association areas exist in
1) Cerebellar Arborivitae 2) Cerebral white matter
3) Cerebellar White matter 4) Cerebral grey matter
144. The region of the vertebrate eye, where the optic nerve passes out of the retina is called the
1) Fovea 2) Iris 3) Blind spot 4) Optic chiasma
145. Statement I : Entire blood that reach pulmonary artery and then Arteriole participate in the respiratory
gaseous exchange without dead space in alveoli.
Statement II : Two pulmonary arteries receive deoxygenated blood directly from Right ventricle of heart.
1) Statement I is false, Statement II is correct 2) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
3) Both statements are false 4) Both statements are true
146. Choose the incorrect one
1) Thymosins - helps in cell-mediated immunity and humoral immunity
2) Catecholamines - stimulate the breakdown of glycogen, lipids and proteins
3) Thyroid hormones - control the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
4) Parathormone - It stimulate the reabsoprtion of calcium in intestine and increases the
absorption of PO4 in PCT and decreases the bone resorption.
147. Which of the following events occur simultaneously at the time of “deglutition”.
1) Contraction of upper oesophageal sphincter and shutting of glottis by epiglottis.
2) Contraction of upper oesophageal sphincter and unshutting oof glottis by epiglottis.
3) Relaxation of upper oesophageal sphincter and unshutting of glottis by epiglottis.
4) Relaxation of upper oesophageal sphincter and shutting of glottis by epiglottis.
148. An injury or trauma initiated blood clotting mechanism. During this, which is formed as a result of
cascade process?
1) Thrombin 2) Fibrin 3) Thrombokinase 4) Thromboplastins
149. Statement 1 : High cardiac output results in increased oxygen delivery to the exercing muscle.
Statement 2 : The cardiac output of an athlete will be much higher than that of an ordinary man
1) Statement -1 is correct, Statement -2 is wrong 2) Statement -1 is wrong, Statement -2 is correct
3) Both statements are correct 4) Both Statements are wrong
150. Note the correct from the following
a) Arterioles join arteries and veins
b) All arteries carry blood away from the Heart except pulmonary artery
c) Portal veins never carry blood directly to the heart
d) Lymphatic system is the transporting medium between tissues and veins
1) a and b 2) b and c 3) c and d 4) b, c and d

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151. “Vasa recta” receive blood from
1) afferent arterioles of cortical nephrons 2) afferent arterioles of juxta medullary nephrons
3) efferent arterioles of cortical nephrons only 4) efferent arterioles of juxta medullary nephrons
152. Statement-1: The urine in the descending limb of Henle’s loop is hypotonic and it is hypertonic in the
ascending limb of Henley.
Statement-2: The descending limb of Henle’s loop is impermeable to Na+ while ascending limb is
permeable to H 2O .
1) Statement-1 is correct, statement-2 is wrong 2) Statement-1 is wrong, statement-2 is correct
3) Both statements are correct 4) Both statements are wrong
153. Match the scientific name, salient feature and phylum or class to which the animal belongs
Scientific name Salient feature Belonged to
A. Pleurobrachia a. Radula is for rasping the food i. Arthropoda
B. Limulus b. Comb plates for locomotion ii. Osteichthyes
C. Pila c. Air bladder for buoyancy iii. Ctenophora
D. Clarias d. Book gills for respiration iv. Mollusca
1) A-c-iii; B-d-i; C-a-iv; D-b-ii 2) A-b-iii; B-d-ii; C-a-iv; D-c-i
3) A-b-iii; B-d-i; C-a-iv; D-c-ii 4) A-a-iii; B-d-i; C-c-iv; D-b-ii
154. Cannabis sativa is a source of
1) morphine 2) cocaine 3) hashish 4) LSD
155. Choose the correctly matched pair
1) Wall of the blood vessel – Cuboidal epithelium.
2) Tendon – Dense irregular connective tissue.
3) Biceps – A typical muscle provided with fusiform muscle fibres
4) Cartilage – Solid, pliable and resists compression
156. Hisardale is a/an
1) inbreed 2) out cross 3) cross breed 4) sterile hybrid
157. Identify the incorrect statement from the following:
1) IgE antibodies are produced in response to allergic reactions
2) IgM antibodies exists in blood plasma of O group person
3) IgA antibodies can pass through placenta and reach the foetus
4) IgG antibodies are responsible for erythroblastosis foetalis.
158. Which of the following statements is correct?
1) The mechanics of breathing follows Boyle’s law which states that the pressure and volume have an
inverse relationship.
2) QRS complex of ECG represents depolarization of atria.
3) Number of true ribs is equal to number of false ribs in adult humans.
4) For unmyelinated fibers, impulse propagation velocity decreases with increase in diameter.
159. Acetabulum forms ‘socket’ of ball and socket joint of
1) shoulder joint 2) knee joint 3) hip joint 4) elbow joint
160. Choose the incorrect statement from the following
1) Saccule and utricle contain Macula.
2) Daltonism, is the colour blindness especially the inability to distinguish red from green.
3) Vestibular apparatus consist of 3 semi-circular canals.
4) Organ of Corti is a structure located on the tectorial membrane of internal ear which contains hair cells
that acts as auditory receptors.
161. Identify the correct statements from the following
1) Presence of hymen is a reliable indicator of virginity in females.
2) Urethra of male differs from female by the transporation of gametes and shares the transportation of
urine.
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 3) After ovulation, the remains of Graffian follicle does not produce progesterone.
4) Human placental lactogen is essential for increasing the milk production by pregnant mother due to its
insulin like properties.
162. Which of the following depicts the correct sequence pertaining to developmental activites?
1) Lactation → Ovulation → Fertilization → Implantation → Parturition.
2) Ovulation → Fertilization → Implantation → Parturition → Lactation.
3) Fertilization → Ovulation → Implantation → Parturition → Lactation.
4) Ovulation → Fertilization → Lactation → Parturition → Implantation.
163. Read the following
Column I Column II Column III
A Condom Avoids ejaculated semen into female
Intra uterine device B Suppress sperm motility
Oral contraceptive Saheli C
Surgical method D Blocks the sperm transport
From the above table find out the missing features A, B, C and D.
1) A-Barrier method; B-LNG 20; C-Inhibits ovulation ; D-Tubectomy.
2) A-Barrier method; B-Cu T; C- Once a week pill; D-Vasectomy.
3) A-Natural method; B-Multiload 375; C-Inhibits ovulation; D-Vasectomy.
4) A-Barrier method; B-Multiload 375; C-Inhibits coitus; D-Vasectomy.
164. Which of the following statement is correct?
1) Alpha thalassemia is a Mendelian disorder caused due to defective gene on chromosome 11.
2) Acromegaly is a hormonal disorder in which male members only sufferers.
3) Kwashiorkar is a nutritional disorder in which protein deficiency accompanied by caloric deficiency.
4) Down’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder due to error in cell division called non-disjunction.
165. If ‘+’ sign is given to beneficial interaction, ‘-‘ sign to detrimental and ‘O’ sign to neutral interaction,
then population interaction represented by ‘+’ and ‘-‘ interaction can be explained by observing the
following example
1) Clown fish and sea anemone 2) Goat and Calotropis
3) Mycorrhiza – Vascular plants 4) Cuscuta and hedge plant
166. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given in figure and select the correct conclusion which can be
drawn for the character with respective to a recessive disorder

1) Generation I : The female has an X-linked recessive trait

2) Generation II : Affected males and females are x-linked dominants.
3) Generation III : Affected males are y-linked.
4) Generation I : Males and females are heterozygous and the trait studied is autosomal recessive.
167. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Sweet potato and potato are the examples for analogy.
(ii) Darwin finches are classical example of adaptive radiation.
(iii) Selection of dark winged moths in England in polluted area is an evolution by anthropogenic action
but not natural selection.
(iv) Evolution of giraffe is a typical example of disruptive selection.
1) (i) and (ii) only 2) (i), (iii) and (iv) only 3)(i) , (ii) and (iii) only 4) (ii) and (iii) only
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168. Match the disease in column – I with the appropriate item in column – II
Column – I Column – II
A. Malaria i. Fungus
B. Ringworm ii. Internal bleeding
C. Typhoid iii. Widal test
D. Ascariasis iv. Gambusia
E. Tuberculosis v. BCG vaccine
1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv, E-v 2) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii, E-v
3) A- ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv, E-v 4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-v, E-iv
169. Which is not correct approach to reduce global warming?
1) Cutting down use of fossil fuels. 2) Improving the efficiency of energy usage.
3) Cutting trees and increasing growth of human population. 4) Reducing aforestation.
170. In a population, 100 individuals are with recessive phenotype, with allelic frequency of 0.4 the total
populations is
1) 625 2) 400 3) 600 4) 250
171. Lichens are used as industrial-pollution indicators because
1) They are more on polluted areas 2) They are absent in non polluted areas
3) They do not grow in polluted areas 4) Not related to pollution
172. Choose the incorrect one
1) End result of Adaptation is Fitness. 2) Adaptive ability is inherited trait.
3) Reproductive success is required for evolution 4) In nature, population size grow exponentially.
173. Tiger cat and Banded anteater showing adaptive radiation belong to
1) Placental mammals 2) Marsupial mammals 3) Prototherians 4) Eutherians
174. Choose the incorrect one w.r.t. Detritus
1) Leaching – water soluble inorganic nutrients go down in to the soil horizon.
2) Fragmentation – done by detrivores.
3) Catabolism – Bacterial and Fungal enzymes degrade detritus in to simplar inorganic substance inside
their body.
4) Humification – Formation of humus.
175. In cockroach, Tergite and sternite are joined to each other by Arthroidal membrane. This membrane is
flexible as
1) Epicuticle is absent 2) Endocuticle is absent 3) Exocuticle is absent 4) no cuticle exist
176. In earthworm, S-shaped setae are embedded in
1) Mesodermal pits 2) Endodermal pits 3) Epidermal pits 4) Setae not embedded in any pits
177. In Frog, conus arteriosus
1) exist an dorsal side of heart 2) carry oxygenated blood to Aorta
3) carry deoxygenated blood to Aorta 4) carry mixed blood to Aorta
178. Benthic organisms are adapted to face
1) Low pressure 2) high pressure 3) Mountain pressure 4) Desert condition
179. Darwin’s inter specific competition is not for
1) Food 2) Shelter 3) Reproduction 4) abiotic resources
180. Immunity attained due to Vaccination through which an antigen is introduced in to host
1) Passive – Natural 2) Passive – Artificial 3) Active – Natural 4) Active – Artificial

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