450 EnP

PRACTICE
QUIZ
1. Presidential Decree 1308 Sec. 2a defines it as referring to 'all activities concerned with
the management and development of land, as well as the preservation, conservation and
management of the human environment

A. Urban Planning
B. Human Ecology
C. Environmental Management
D. Environmental Planning

2. Urban planning is "concerned with providing the right place at the right site at the right
time" for the right people.

A. John Ratcliffe
B. Lewis Keeble
C. Brian Mcloughlin
D. George Chadwick
E. Alan Wilson

3. Which is not a key feature of 'professional' planning process?

A. Proactive
B. Problem-solving
C. Algorithmic
D. Futuristic
E. People-driven

4. As defined by PD 1517 and by National Statistics Office, 'urban' area has the following
characteristics except one:

A. It exports substantial quantities of processed products

B. Core district's density is at least 500 per square kilometer
C. Overall density of at least 1000 persons per square kilometer in its entirety
D. Exhibits a street pattern

5. The most recent re-definition of 'urban' by NSCB (2003) does not include one of the
following.

A. If a barangay has more fishery output and shellcraft activities compared to farms,
then it is considered urban
B. If a barangay has population size of 5,000 or more, then it is considered urban;
C. If a barangay has at least one establishment with 100 employees or more, then it
is considered urban
D. If a barangay has 5 or more establishments with a minimum of 10 employees, and
5 or more facilities within the two-kilometer radius from the barangay hall, then it is
considered urban

6. A 'city' is a significantly-large urban area which has:

A. A cluster of skyscrapers
B. A charter or legal proclamation
C. A rectilinear or orthogonal street design
 D. A seaport or an airport

7. In a November 2008 ruling of the Supreme Court upholding RA 9009's amendment of

Sec. 450 of RA 7160 LGC, the statutory requirements for an LGU's elevation to citihood are

A. Contiguous territory of at least 100 km2 except for island/group of islands

B. Minimum annual income of P100 million based on 1991 constant prices
C. Population of at least 150,000
D. All of the choices

8. Under RA7160 Sec 452, what is the minimum population requirement to approve a Highly
Urbanized City?

A. At least 200,000
B. At least 500,000
C. At least 1 million
D. At least 10 million

9. This pertains to the process wherein large numbers of people, driven by demographic
factors, live together in important locations --a process that is always accompanied by
economic agglomeration, spatial alteration, and socio-cultural change

A. Industrialization
B. Urbanization
C. Social Transformation
D. Modernization

10. If 'pre-industrial society' was mainly agricultural, kinship-based, self-sufficient, and

relatively parochial, 'industrial society' in contrast

A. Minimizes farming to channel capital into factories

B. Prioritizes mining of minerals and precious stones
C. Aims for mass production thru mechanization & automation
D. Relies on the output of white-collar professionals

11. Due to greater 'division of labor', there is more heterogeneity of population and classes
of workers beginning with

A. Primitive subsistence society

B. Pre-industrial society
C. Industrial society
D. Post-industrial society

12. The expansion of human populations away from central urban areas into low-density,
mono-functional and usually car-dependent communities, in a process
called suburbanization. In addition to describing a particular form of urbanization, the term
also relates to the social and environmental consequences associated with this
development.

A. Decentralization
B. Dispersion
 C. Exurbanization
D. Urban Sprawl

13. In Michael P. Todaro's Labor Migration Model of Urbanization (1976), the central pull
factor or main attraction of Third World cities to rural migrants even when these cities are
unprepared to accept migration, is

A. "bright lights effect" or lure of city life and neon-lit entertainment

B. Possible benefits derived from proximity to seat of power and prestige of central
city address
C. Abundance and plenitude in cities versus hunger and famine due to insurgency
wars in the countryside
D. Substantial wage differentials between urban labor and rural labor for the same
level of skill, task, or occupation

14. According to Dr. Francis Stuart Chapin Jr in the first comprehensive textbook on urban
planning ever written (1965 ), the explicit goals of urban planning are the following, except
one:

A. Health & safety

B. Convenience & amenity
C. tolerance & plurality
D. Efficiency & economy

15. The following are the stated goals of 'urban development policy' (NUDHF) in the
Philippines, except one:

A. To achieve a more balanced urban-rural interdependence

B. To slow down rural-to-urban movement by means of migration control and
population management
C. To optimally utilize land and resources to meet the requirements of housing and
urban development
D. To undertake a comprehensive and continuing program of urban development
which will make available housing and services at affordable cost

16. According to Dr Garrett Hardin, in an open access regime without defined property
rights, individuals enjoy free unlimited access to natural resources and right to use without
exclusion; each individual is motivated to maximize his or her own benefit from exploiting the
resource. When no individual has adequate incentive to conserve the public resource, the
resource will likely become overused and overexploited.

A. The Stewardship of Nature

B. Communitarian Paradox
C. Fencesitter's Dilemma
D. Tragedy of the Commons

17. Related to Thomas Malthus' concept of 'k' as the population size constrained by
whatever resource is in silo rt est supply, this principle refers to "the maximum population of
a given species that can be supported indefinitely in a defined habitat without causing
negative impacts that permanently impair the productivity of that same habitat."
 A. Limits to growth
B. Tipping point
C. Range and threshold
D. Carrying capacity

18. In general, this refers to the characteristic of a process or state that can be maintained at
a certain level indefinitely; in particular, it refers to the potential longevity of ecological
systems to support humankind and other species.

A. Resilience
B. Endurance
C. Sustainability
D. Perpetuity
E. Durability

19. Which basic principle of 'Sustainable Development' means responsibility and

accountability to future populations?

A. Common Heritage of Humankind

B. Enter-generational Equity
C. Caring Capacity
D. Parity 0f Compeers

20. This type of planning has also been called 'synoptic,' 'static', 'normative,' and 'Utopian',
because it assumes a prior that professional planners have the intelligence noble intentions.
and expertise to synthesize extensive data, analyze a relatively predictable world, and
decide rightly on crucial questions ,of broader public interest.

A. Equity or activist or advocacy planning

B. Strategic Planning
C. Traditional planning or command planning or imperative planning
D. Rational-Comprehensive Planning

21. The concepts of "input-throughput--output-feedback" comes from what school of

planning?

A. Communicative Planning
B. Liberal Pluralistic Planning
C. Incremental Planning
D. Systems Theory of Planning

22. The main contribution of Norbert Weiner's 'Cybernetics' to the Systems Theory of
planning is the principle that planning should be -

A. Cyclical, iterative, and self-correcting

B. Free-wheeling and open-ended
C. Wide-ranging and exhaustive
D. Rigorous, exact, and mathematical
23. Under the Systems Theory of Planning by George Chadwick and Alan Wilson, under
which stage do policy-makers or decision-makers make a firm resolve to pursue a specific
course of action?

A. System Description
B. System Modeling
C. System Projection
D. System Synthesis
E. System Control

24. 'Allocative' or 'regulatory' or 'policy planning' in the tradition of Herbert Gans and T J
Kent is concerned with solving chronic problems of society by allocating resources efficiently
and enacting laws, rules and standards. It is therefore closest to which planning approach?

A. Rational-comprehensive
B. traditional or command planning
C. Strategic planning
D. Communicative planning

25. Which principle of Strategic Planning rallies the organization and unifies its members
around a common purpose?

A. Solve major issues at a macro level

B. Avoid excessive inward and short-term thinking
C. Be visionary to convey a desired end-state but be flexible enough to allow and to
accommodate changes
D. Engage stakeholders to pull together behind a single game plan for execution
E. Establish priorities on what will be accomplished in the future
F. Communicate to everyone what is most important

26. In the "Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats" tool as popularized by

exponents of Strategic Planning, the elements, aspects or characteristics that need to be
reinforced, are enumerated under which quadrant?

A. 'S'
B. 'W'
C. 'O'
D. 'T'

27. Which is a significant accomplishment of "Advocacy Planning" movement as fathered by

Paul Davidoff (1965)?

A. Single women with children were assisted to find employment.

B. Social planning was moved from 'backroom negotiations' into the open public
forum.
C. Documentation of long-lasting environmental changes was intensified
D. Affirmative action and social amelioration were mainstreamed into national policy
E. Businesses were compelled to draw their employees from the ranks of the poor.
28. A member of the advocacy/activist/equity school of planning, this planner wrote the
classic "Eight policies, Rungs in the Ladder Citizen Participation" which describes the
varying degrees of people's involvement in policies, plans, and programs.

A. Ralph Nader
B. Susan S. Fainstein
C. Dr. Martin Luther King Jr
D. Sherry Arnstein

29. Of the Eight-Rungs in the Ladder of Citizen Participation (1969) which 'steps' would
require the planner to perform 'facilitation' role rather than 'advice,' 'direction,' or
'manipulation'?

A. Counseling; therapy
B. Consultation; placation
C. Informi�g
D. Partnership; delegated power; citizen control

30. For his grid-iron design of ancient Greek settlements such as Priene, Piraeus and
Rhodes, he is acknowledged as the Father of Town Planning in Western Civilization

A. Vitruvius of Rome
B. Ptolemy
C. Hippodamus of Miletus
D. Appolodorus of Damascus

31. Which is a major contribution of classical Greek civilization 700-404 BCE to town
planning?

A. Polytheism or pantheon of Greek gods which sanctified all elements of Nature as

being animated by divine spirit
B. The delineation between religious space & secular civic space as separate but
complementary spheres in society
C. The concept of 'polis' or (Latin) 'civitas' which means that only residents of cities
can truly be called 'civilized'.
D. The practice of direct democracy and the notion of citizenship which included
women, the poor,slaves, and aliens.

32. Built below the Acropolis in the heart of the citystate, the 'marketplace' was the site
where ancient Greeks came together not only for trading and buying of foodstuffs but also
for political, social, and other secular activities

A. 'parthenon'
B. 'gymnasium'
C. 'erechtheum'
D. 'agora'
E. 'sumposion'

33. They were considered the earliest regional planners in history (27 BCE -410 AD)
because they planned their cities and settlements with transport network, civil works,
utilities, and military defense, foremost in their minds?
 A. Macedonian Greeks under Alexander The Great
B. Romans under the dictatorial Emperors
C. Persians under Cyrus the Great
D. Egyptians under Ramses, Thutrnoses, and Nefertiti

34. Recognized as 'father of landscape architecture,' he also began the 'Parks and
Conservation Movement' in the United States which advanced the idea that city parks and
greenways can structure urban space, stimulate mixed uses, dampen class conflict,
heighten family and religious values, and serve as aid to social reform.

A. Frederic Law Olmstead Sr

B. John Muir
C. Gifford Pinchot
D. George Perkins Marsh

35. He wrote the famous book "Garden Cities of Tomorrow"(1902) and became a most
influential thinker with his effort to combine the best features of 'country' as shown in his
diagrams of three (3) magnets.

A. Sir Frederic Osborn

B. Sir Ebenezer Howard
C. Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie
D. Sir Raymond Unwin

36. The Garden City Movement in the United Kingdom directly addressed large-scale
problems caused by the __?

A. The Scientific Revolution

B. British-American War of Independence
C. Industrial Revolution
D. World War II and the Holocaust

37. The Garden City Movement shaped the British policy of "urban containment", with
following features, except one:

A. Greenbelts, green girdles, and clear edges for all cities

B. Mass transit to link 'mother city' with 'garden cities'
C. Homestead of about one acre per family
D. Preservation of more farmland & open space

38. Considered as the "Father of City Planning in America," he prepared plans for the City of
Manila and the City of Baguio from 1903 to 1911 with the assistance of Pierce Andersson.

A. John Hay
B. William Howard Taft
C. Robert Kennon
D. Daniel Hudson Burnham
E. Francis B. Harrison
39. "Make no little plans. They have no magic and probably themselves will not be realized.
Make big plans; aim high in hope and work, remembering that a noble, logical diagram once
recorded will never die ... "

A. Leon Battista Alberti

B. Daniel H. Burnham
C. Baron Georges Eugenes Hausmann
D. Pierre Charles L'Enfant

40. "First we shape our buildings; thereafter, our buildings shape us." This quotation is
attributed to

A. Winston Churchill
B. George Washington
C. Theodore Roosevelt
D. Napoleon Bonaparte

41. This was an American movement in the 1890s that stressed the design of settlements
according to the principles of "grandeur, exuberance, monumentality, drama and tension,
cohesiveness, and symmetry" as demonstrated in the planning of Washington DC, Paris,
Chicago, San Francisco, among others:

A. City Beautiful Movement

B. City Functional Movement
C. City Efficient Movement
D. New Towns Movement

42. The US Supreme Court's decision in 1926 to uphold the power of an LGU to regulate
land use through ordinance in the landmark case of "Village of Euclid vs. Ambler Realty
Company is reckoned as the watershed moment for.

A. City Beautiful Movement

B. City Functional Movement
C. City Efficient Movement
D. Regional City Movement

43. The major objective of Le Corbusier's (Charles-Edouard Jeanneret) cubist "Radiant City'
design (1923) meant for 3 million people consisting of 'uniform 60-storey tower-blocks set in
a huge park' was to:

A. Use high-rise structures to improve safety of people and security of vital

institutions
B. Increase city density by building high on a small part of land
C. Increase the public's enjoyment of environmental amenities and viewscapes from
varying heights
D. Capture the retail market which justifies why prices are necessarily high in central
locations or CBDs

44. Don Arturo Soria y Mata, a Spanish engineer, suggested that the logic of utility
connections (electricity, sewer, concept of telephone lines, gas and water pipes) be the
basis of city layout; thus he considered the impact of technology in his concept of an
elongated urban form running from Cadiz, Spain up to St. Petersburg, Russia

A. Ciudad Conectada
B. Ciudad Alongada
C. Ciudad Lineal
D. Ciudad Larga

45. Tony Garnier (1917) conceptualized a lush green city of about 35,000 inhabitants where
'man would rule by himself.' thus there would be no police, no churches, no rigid forms of
social control in this Utopian place complete with landscaped homes, factories, trade
schools, transport and leisure facilities.

A. Esplanade
B. Axle lndustrielle
C. Post-Industrial Motor City
D. Linear IndustriaI City

46. In Clarence Stein's Six (6) Principles of Regional Planning (1920), which one concerns
traffic congestion caused by roadside parking?

A. Plan simply, but comprehensively

B. Provide ample Site in the right places for community use
C. Put factories and industrial buildings where they can be used without wasteful
transportation of people and goods
D. Cars should be stored in homes
E. Bring private land and public land into relationship
F. Arrange for the occupancy of houses

47. Frank Lloyd Wright proposed an alternative (1932) to the congestion in huge metropolis
by way of urban decentralization wherein each American family would be granted at least
one acre of federal land in a self-contained agro-industrial settlement.

A. Eco-city
B. Broadacre city
C. Exurbia
D. Micropolis
E. Suburbia

48. The New Towns Movement of 1920s might have contributed to scattered and
uncontrolled development in continental America but the main reason for its suburban
sprawl after World War II was__?

A. Rapid fall of real estate prices in the countryside due to financial meltdown from
sub-prime lending
B. Increased value of rural land due to Hoover's Interstate Highway Act of 1956
which funded federal highways and freeways across many states
C. The widespread use of commuter trains and monorail
D. The popularity of automobile as means of transportation
49. Which of the following is not a feature of Frank Lloyd Wright's 'Broadacre City' (1932)?

A. Each person regardless of age has one acre of federal land

B. Food garden or small farm would be right next to the house
C. Manufacture &commerce set up in twelve 15-storey buildings
D. Work within walking distance from the home
E. Railroad and freeway to interconnect cities
F. Densification would preserve much open space

50. He proposed the 'neighborhood unit' (1929) as a self-contained 'garden suburb' bounded
by major streets, with shops at intersections and a school in the middle; its size would be
defined by school's catchment area with a radius of quarter-mile or 402 meters. This
incorporated Garden City ideas and attempted at some kind of social engineering.

A. Clarence Perry
B. Clarence Stein
C. Clarence Thomas
D. Clarence McKay

51. A Scottish biologist who authored the masterpiece entitled "Cities in Evolution" (1915)
and who coined the terms 'folk- work-place', 'city-region' and 'conurbation' is acknowledged
as the 'father of regional planning'

A. Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie

B. Sir Patrick Geddes
C. Lewis Mumford
D. Barry Parker

52. He led the crafting of the regional 'Greater London Plan of 1944', he designed some of
30 post-war New Towns approved by the British Parliament, including Doncaster area and
East Kent, in which he used open space as structuring element.

A. Sir Patrick Leslie Abercrombie

B. Sir Patrick Geddes
C. Lewis Mumford
D. Charles Abrams

53. She was called a 'superwoman' who single handedly sparked environmental activism in
the 1960s-70s with her research ('Silent Spring) on biomagnification of pesticides and
chemicals in the human food chain; her advocacies bore fruit in the creation of US
Environmental Protection Agency and Environmental Impact Assessment system in the
1970s.

A. Gro Harlem Brundtland

B. Catherine Bauer Wurster
C. Rachel Louise Carson
D. Marthc1 C. Nussbaum

54. If 'Earth Hour' is observed on the last Saturday of March, 'Earth Day USA' is celebrated
annually on April 22, 'World Town Planning Day' falls on November 8, 'World Environment
Day' is marked on the 51h day of the month of
 A. May
B. June
C. September
D. October

55. If 'World Heritage Day' is marked each year on April 18, 'World Biodiversity Day' is
observed on May 22, 'World Ocean Day' on June 8, 'World Indigenous Peoples Day' on
August 9, 'World Animal Day' on October 4, and 'World Food Day' on October 16, when is
'World Water Day' celebrated?

A. January 13
B. March 22
C. June 24
D. October 31

56. Based on his landmark book, "Design with Nature," 'map overlay' to identify 'ecological
constraints' was a tool devised in 1967 by the first modem environmental planner.

A. Ian L. McHarg
B. Konstantinos Doxiadis
C. Francis Stuart Chapin Jr
D. Erma Bernbeck

57. This started as a US federal program in 1949 which aimed to rehabilitate the outworn or
decaying sections of any town by extending fund assistance to LGUs to undertake
improvements in streetscapes, parks, green ways, housing, community centers, etc based
on anticipation that future tax revenues from real estate will pay for present costs.

A. Land re-adjustment
B. Urban restructuring
C. Infill and densification
D. Urban renewal

58. As chief planner of New York City, he collaborated with Thomas Adams in crafting the
"Regional Plan of New York and its Environs 1922-1931 ;" he also conceived, and executed
public works costing $27 billion between 1324 and 1968 and was responsible for virtually
every parkway, expressway, and public housing project in New York metropolitan area.

A. William Levitt
B. Fiorello La Guardia
C. Robert Murray Haig
D. Robert Moses
E. Warren Buffett

59. The design of this city by Lucio Costa and Oscar Niemeyer (1957) features large open
areas relating to one other to demonstrate 'freedom' and an overall city layout resembling a
'dove in flight'.

A. Brasilia
B. Sydney
 C. Chandigarh
D. Canberra
E. Islamabad

60. 'Ekistics' or the 'science of human settlements' by Dr Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951) was
built upon the concept of "basic needs," which were later categorized by Johann Galtung
into "material survival & security needs," "social or enabling needs," and non-material
"human needs". Which grouping of needs was elaborated on by Abraham Maslow?

A. Food, water, clothing, shelter, sanitation, health care, energy/fuel, employment,

peace and order,
B. Self-expression, sex, procreation, recreation, education, communication, and
transportation
C. Physiological needs, physical safety, love and belongingness, esteem, self-
actualization/self-realization
D. Freedom, security, identity, well-being, ecological balance

61. The following are the basic elements of 'human settlements' according to Dr.
Konstantinos Doxiadis. Which one pertains to the built environment or physical capital?
A. Anthropos
B. Nature
C. Shells and networks
D. Society
E. Social structure

62. What is the smallest unit in the 'human settlements planning' or Ekistics by Dr
Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951)?

A. House
B. Anthropos
C. Organism
D. Neighborhood
E. Hamlet

63. Which of the following is not part of typology of cities under Ekistics school of Dr
Konstantinos Doxiadis (1951)?

A. ecumenopolis
B. Megalopolis
C. Metropolis
D. Agropolis
E. Eperopolis

64. In "Death and Life of Great American Cities" (1961) and "Economy of Cities" (1969), this
planner maintains that 'diversity' promotes innovation among proximate firms and spurs the
growth of cities, thus s/he advocated for heterogeneity, variety, and mixture in the
geographic clustering of firms as well as in the composition of city districts and
neighborhoods.

A. Herbert Gans
B. James Howard Kunstler
 C. Joel Garreau
D. Jane Jacobs

65. An approach in urban planning that puts premium on people and nature by building upon
the historic city or traditional neighborhood in such a way that workplaces, shops, and
homes would be within walking distance of each other.

A. Nee-Populism
B. Eco-Village
C. New Urbanism
D. Dynapolis
E. Transit-Oriented Development

66. All of the following schemes are associated with 'New Urbanism' except:

A. Mixed Use Zoning

B. Neo-Traditional Design
C. Exclusionary Zoning
D. Pedestrianization
67. Because Pre-Spanish aboriginal communities in the Philippines were relatively small
and based on kinship relations, the most common practice of land tenure in pre-colonial
society, wherein one would merely enjoy the 'fruits' of land, was called

A. Primitive communism
B. Islamic feudalism
C. Usufruct
D. Tenancy
E. Swidden slash-and-burn

68. This was the Spanish spatial strategy of forming dense settlements from scattered
dwellings for purposes of greater, military defense and political control - literally bringing
together dispersed population within hearing distance of church bells -- which policy was
applied on most Spanish colonies from 16th to18th centuries.

A. El Alcance del Campanario

B. Presidio y Fortaleza
C. Reduccion
D. Evangelizacion

69. Under the plaza complex pattern described in 'Le yes de las lndias' (1573), what would
be located next to each other around a Greco-Roman quadrangle of a Spanish colonial
settlement?

A. Garden, fountains, monuments, statues, gallery and promenade

B. Governor's mansion, bishop's palace, general's manor, hacendero's villa, military
garrison
C. Church, town hall, school, public market
D. Houses of peninsulares, insulares, creoles, mestizos, principales and ilustrados
70. Through Presidential Letter of Instruction 367 in 1950 combining National Urban
Planning Commission, Real Property Board, and Capital City Planning Commission, the
government created this first physical planning body.

A. National Planning Commission

B. National Disaster Coordinating Council
C. National Environmental Protection Agency
D. Human Settlements Regulatory Commission

71. In 1964, Republic Act 4341 established this center to create a pool of professional
planners in the Philippines.

A. Local Government Academy

B. Development Academy of the Philippines
C. Institute of Planning
D. UPLB Institute of Environmental Science and Management

72. Presidential Decree No. 01 Integrated Reorganization Plan on September 24, 1972
increased the number of Philippine regions to 11, regionalized key ministries and line
departments , and created a major planning agency of government which is known today as,

A. Philippine Economic Zone Authority

B. National Land Use Committee
C. Congressional Planning and Budget Office
D. National Economic and Development Authority

73. In 2012, how many administrative regions does the Philippines have?

A. 13
B. 15
C. 16
D. 17

74. Under RA 7160 LGC Sec. 25, which of the following is not among the types of cities in
the Philippines.

A. Highly Urbanized Cities

B. Independent Cities
C. Megacities
D. Component Cities

75. In 2011, which Philippine city had the biggest population, net income and IRA?

A. City of Manila
B. Makati City
C. Quezon City
D. Cebu City

76. This 1997 document is the Philippines' official response to 1992 'UNCED Earth Summit'
and contains a policy framework that redefines development as the 'drawing out of full
human potential' according to the 'appropriate productivity' of nature, rather than optimal or
maximum exploitation of natural resources to achieve GDP growth.

A. Philippine Strategy for Sustainable Development

B. Philippine Philippine Strategy Covenant for on Total Sustainable Human
Development Development
C. Strategic national Action program
D. Philippine Agenda 21

77. This School of Thought holds that the settlements form in a balanced manner; they tend
to be spread evenly and symmetrically in isotropic space, displaying both hierarchy and
equilibrium arising from the interdependence between big and small settlements and from
the complementation between their respective scopes of functions

A. Galaxy of Settlements Theory

B. Central Place Theory
C. Geographic Determinism
D. Dependency Theory

78. This School of Thought maintains that cities are 'theaters of capital accumulation',
largely a consequence of class-based struggle among groups for strategic dominance and
control surplus. Such conflict is usually won by the rich and powerful through agents of
capital such as multi-national corporations which use the city to amass wealth by raising
property values through commercialization, gentrification, manipulation, and land
speculation.

A. Capital Theoretic Model

B. Political Economy
C. Natural Capitalism
D. David Harvey's Circuit of Capital

79. This School of Thought describes a borderless global economy characterized by free
trade and free movement of capital wherein nation-states would have 'lean and mean'
governments which pursue policies of liberation, deregulation, privatization, de-
bureaucratization, 'unbundling', 'de-coupling', and similar structural adjustments.

A. World Systems Theory

B. State Corporatism
C. Neo-Liberalism
D. Liberal Democracy

80. Johann Heinreich von Thunen's theory of agricultural rent is symbolized as "LR=Y(p-c)-
Ytd' where "Y" is yield or total harvest, "P" is price of crop, "C"is production cost of crop, "t"
is transport cost and "D" is distance to market. If yield of palay is 3,500 kgs,NFA buying
price is P17.00 per kilo, distance is 5km., given farmer's gross production cost of 45 cents
per square meter per day for unit production cost of P12.00 per kilo,would palay cultivation
be profitable at this specific farm location if transport cost is P1.00 per kilo of palay?

A. Yes
B. No
C. It depends on the weather
 D. It depends on quality of road & capacity of vehicle

81. In Walter Christaller's Central Place Theory, The catchment area of a central place takes
the shape of a hexagon rather than a perfect circle. If a particular service or function such as
elementary school enrolment is represented by the formula,"C=2.6r2d," what would be the
catchment area of elementary school if its radius is 0.50km and diameter is one km?

A. 0.65 sq.km
B. 0.75 sq.km
C. 0.85 sq.km
D. 0.95 sq.km

82. In Walter Christaller's Central Place Theory (1933), neighborhood store is an example of
first- order services while grocery store, gas station, furniture shop, and post office are
examples of

A. Secondary services
B. Tertiary services
C. Quaternary services
D. Quinary services

83. In central place theory (1933), this refers to the minimum population required to make a
'service' viable.
A. Resident population
B. Captive market
C. Threshold population
D. Population explosion

84. A chart-like tool to measure 'centrality' of a place particularly its range of economic and
social functions, is called

A. Matrix
B. lsotims
C. Lsodapanes
D. Scalogram

85. All of the following are practical applications of Central Place Theory in the Philippines,
except one.

A. Location of health centers

B. Location of trial courts
C. Location of beach resorts
D. Location of police stations

86. What Christallerian principles form the basis why a state university, a consumer mall, a
huge sports stadium, or a tertiary-level hospital cannot be established in each and every
Philippine municipality?

A. Spatial equity and bio-geographic equity

B. Specialization and concentration
C. Market range and threshold population
 D. Profitability and pecuniary interest

87. The 'hierarchy of settlements' in Walter Christaller's Central Place Theory is

characterized by

A. Equally-sized large cities in every region

B. Only one large city, many small settlements
C. Only medium-sized and small settlements
D. A few large cities, some medium cities, many small settlements

88. According to the Chicago school of human ecology, 'Invasion' refers to how pioneers
and opportunists push the 'land frontier' farther out; when immigrants settle in waves, they
define new land uses for themselves in a process called

A. 'evolution'
B. 'co-location'
C. 'succession'
D. 'acclimatization'
E. 'cohabitation'

89. In the model of mono-centric cities, it is assumed that manufacturers locate close to
transport arteries, blue-collar workers locate close to their jobs, while traders and retailers
pay higher for choice locations in city center to have command of the market.This pattern of
land use is explained better by which theory of spatial planning?

A. Urban Bid-Rent by Alonso, Muth, and Mills

B. Cumulative Causation by Gunnar Myrdal
C. Urban Land Nexus Theory by David Harvey
D. City as Growth Machine by John Logan & Harvey Molotch

90. "When all land is identical and there is perfect competition among profit-maximizing
firms, land is sold to the highest willing bidder. As a firm moves closer to the center of a
place, transport costs fall which increases the amount a firm is willing to pay for land. Thus,
land at the center always has the highest value.

A. Johann Henreich von Thunen, Walter Christaller, and George Kingsley Zipf
B. William Alonso, Richard E. Muth and Edwin S. Mills
C. Alfred Weber, August Losch, and Walter lsard
D. Roderick D. McKenzie, Amos H. Hawley, Robert Park

91. In William Alonso's Bid-Rent Theory (1960), the most appropriate use of the innermost
circle in the diagram is

A. Farming of the most expensive crops

B. Terminal for commuters, central rail station
C. Central park
D. Shopping & retail services

92. It in 'Ernest Burgess' concentric Model (1925), factories and work-shops would most
likely locate in
 A. The innermost circle,
B. The outermost circle
C. The second circle from the center
D. The third circle from the center

93. It in Homer Hoyt's model (1939), where would the elite class place their high-end
subdivisions?

A. Section 'A'
B. Section 'B1'
C. Section 'C'
D. Section 'D'

94. 'Leapfrog development' and 'sprawl' are what you commonly see in what Peirce F. Lewis
calls

A. Circumferential City
B. Multi-cellular city
C. Stellar City
D. Galactic City

95. The 'multiple nuclei' model of Harris and Ullmann (1945) posits that

A. Cities have varied natural res.ources that stimulate progress in different locations
B. Diversified economic functions of cities cluster around several points of growth
C. Zoning of cities closely follows the flow or 'circuits of capital'
D. Air transport, sea transport, land transport facilities are the logical growth zones of
cities

96. 'Urban development' tends to occur along major transportation routes because

A. Power/water connections and other utilities are naturally linear

B. Business cannot take place without roads and vehicles
C. Migration usually occurs lineally from point A to point B such as in exodus,
processions, or diasporas
D. People tend to locate where exchange, interchange, and access to other land
uses are at maximum

97. Which theorist of urban land use states categorically that land use follows transport in
the same manner that both population and business follow roads?

A. Ernest Burgess
B. Homer Hoyt
C. Chauncey Harris & Edward Ullman
D. Peirce Lewis

98. Which of the following land-use models describes the pattern of radial or axial growth
along lines of least resistance?

A. Multiple Nuclei
B. Concentric Zone
 C. Sector Model
D. Polycentric Model

99. In the model of Homer Hoyt, the sections of urban land with the highest values are
those:

A. Downtown sections facing seas, lakes & near waterfronts

B. On top of hills and elevated areas called 'uptowns'
C. Immediately around public offices I institutional sector
D. Along major roadways

100. The original concept of 'megalopolis' as an extended or super-sized urban area is

attributed to

A. Jean Gettman
B. Konstantinos Doxiadis
C. Dennis Rondinelli
D. Andreas Faludi

101. Which characteristic of megalopolis describes its tendency to develop a multi-nuclei or

multi-nodal spatial pattern?

A. Is an expansive urban region with over 10 million population (Giles Clarke)

B. Tends to be dependent on food, water, and energy supplies of its neighboring
regions
C. Has complex form as 'mother city' breeds smaller offspring-cities in sprawling
manner
D. Requires broad type of regional governance beyond the capacity and resources of
a single LGU authority

102. This process deals with efficient placement of activities and land uses such as farms,
settlements, industries, transport hubs, infrastructure, wilderness etc across a significantly
large area broader than a single city or town.

A. Watershed Planning
B. Area Development Planning
C. Regional Planning
D. Physical Planning

103. Klaasen enumerates the criteria for creating planning regions as follows. Which
criterion pertains to the role of a leading center or a complex of exporting firms or lead
industries?

A. Must be large enough to take investment decisions of an economic size

B. Must be able to supply its own industries with necessary labor
C. Should have a homogenous economic structure
D. Must contain at least one growth point
E. Must have a common approach to and awareness of its own problems

104. Which is not a method to delineate a region?

 A. Force field analysis
B. Gravitational analysis
C. Factor analysis
D. Flow analysis
E. Ethno-lirguistic and socio-cultural profiling
F. Weighted index number method

105. "High-growth regions with expanding economic activity will attract net migration from
other parts of the country, thus favoring them further. Capital investments tend to have a
similar effect: increased demand in expanding centers spur additional investments, which in
turn will increase incomes and demand or cause a further round of investments."

A. Cumulative Causation
B. Positive Reinforcement
C. Economic Modernization
D. Circuits of Capital

106. According to Gunnar Myrdal, 'forward linkage' refers to the 'development of external
economies for an industry's products" while 'backward linkage' refers to

A. Connection with lagging or backward enterprises in the rural countryside

B. Development of auxiliary industries to supply input
C. Attraction of capital and enterprises to exploit expanding demands
D. Expansion of service industries and others serving the local market

107. 'Residentiary services' refers to domestic living-related services such as housing,

grocery, catering, recreation, etc while 'services that cut across varied types of firms such as
security, banking, insurance, courier services, etc are called

A. Logistical
B. Financial
C. Diagonal
D. Interlocal
E. Messengerial
F. Transborder

108. Which thrust of regional planning addresses core-periphery, center-hinterland

economic exchange & spatial integration?

A. Enforce urban growth control such as greenbelts or analogous schemes to protect

the natural environment
B. Cultivate a role for each component-settlement such as administrative center,
manufacturing hub, tourism, zone, etc
C. Develop transport corridors in 'hub and spokes design' with major infrastructure
reaching out to population centers
D. Resist development in flood plains or on earthquake fault zones by utilizing these
areas as parks, farms, buffers, etc

109. A region that is defined by common physical features such as resource base, lake,
coast, ecosystem is called 'natural or ecological region'; while that which is defined by extent
of economic connectedness or market exchange is called a "functional region"; that which is
created by law regardless of natural or economic commonality is called

A. Homogenous region
B. formal region
C. Historic region
D. Virtual region

110. 'Industrial dispersal' began with Memorandum Circular dated Dec 16, 1973 which
banned establishment of additional medium and heavy industries in the national capital
within a 50 kilometer radius from

A. Rizal Monument, Luneta

B. Malacariang Palace
C. Bonifacio Monument
D. Quezon Memorial Circle

111. The first export processing zone in the Philippines which became operational in 1972
was

A. Bataan EPZ
B. Mactan EPZ
C. Baguio EPZ
D. Zamboanga de Ayala EPZ
E. Phividec Misamis Oriental

112. Although theoretically flawed, "Super-Region" as conceived by the administration of

Pres. Gloria Macapagal Arroyo sought to build upon perceived comparative advantage of a
cluster of territories such as agri-processing, tourism, commodity logistics chain, or cyber-
services. Which 'super-region' ought to focus on 'agri-business'?

A. Northern Luzon Quadrangle

B. Metro Luzon Urban Beltway
C. CALABARZON Industrial Heartland
D. Central Philippines (Visayas, Palawan and parts of Mindanao)
E. Subic - Clark Freeport complex
F. Bangsa Moro Juridical Authority

113. Under the 'super-region' concept of the PGMA administration, Central Luzon as part of
the Mega Manila 'Extended Urban Region', would focus on

A. Hacienda farming
B. Meat processing
C. Commodity logistics chain
D. Cyber services
E. Tourism

114. Of the so-called 'super-regions,' which one is being promoted as having the
comparative advantage in 'tourism'?
 A. North Luzon
B. Central Philippines
C. Baguio & Cordillera Autonomous Region
D. Davao Silicon Gulf

115. Under Medium Term Philippine Development Plan 2011-2016, what is closest to the
meaning of 'inclusive growth'?

A. Compromise
B. Transactional
C. Equality
D. Beneficial to all particularly lagging groups
E. Only for the Yellow Army

116. The 'center-down' paradigm of neo-classical economics of the 1960s assumed that
benefits from the national-level or macro-economic growth trend to_____component regions
and lower-level communities.

A. Cascade
B. Sprinkle around in spurts
C. Pour down
D. Trickle down

117. In John Friedman's (1966, 1973) taxonomy of regions according to economic condition,
which refers to 'fagging regions'?

A. Core regions
B. Upward transitional areas
C. Resource frontier areas
D. Downward transitional areas
E. Special problem areas
F. Latifundio-minifundio

118. The phenomenon of 'urban primacy' mostly in Third World countries wherein a single
metropolis corners a disproportionate share of a country's population, resources, and
investments by reason of historical or political precedence, or as a result of foreign colonial
influence, is also called "Manila imperialism" in the Philippines.

A. It is desirable because of the efficient use of space and economies of scale.

B. It proves that benefits from agglomeration outweigh the disbenefits from
congestion and overconcentration
C. It demonstrates that Third World countries remain as colonies of Western
imperialist powers.
D. It shows polarization within a country and siphoning off of economic assets and
human talent from hinterland

119. Which of the following is not among the Philippine government strategies to attain
'concentrated decentralization'?

A. Regional industrial centers

B. Special economic zones
 C. Growth corridors, growth triangles, growth polygons
D. Agora and agurbia

120. According to Francois Perroux (1955), this phenomenon in economics refers to a

propulsive or expanding firm/industry, or cluster of such firms/industries, which induces
development of other firms/industries that are technically or functionally related to it, and
stimulates prosperity of the locality or region through the flow of goods and services.

A. Market town
B. Entrepot
C. Axis Mundi
D. Growth Pole
E. Ecozone

121. Which is not an element of Special Economic Zone or ecozone under PEZA?

A. Free trade zone

B. Financial banking center
C. Export processing zone
D. Industrial park or industrial estate

122. According to RA 7916 Sec 4, this refers to a tract of land of at least 50 contiguous
hectares which is subdivided and developed according to a comprehensive plan under a
unified continuous management and with provisions for basic infrastructure and utilities, with
or without pre-built standard factory buildings (SFBs)

A. Industrial corridor
B. Regional manufacturing hub
C. Export processing zone
D. Industrial estate

123. RA 7916 reiterates Sec. 12, Art XII of Philippine Constitution,"The State shall promote
the preferential use of Filipino labor, domestic materials and locally produced goods and
adopt measures that help make them competitive." What technical planning concept
pertains most aptly to this?

A. Inflow - outflow - backflow

B. Trickle up and trickle down
C. Economic nationalism or Filipinism
D. Forward linkages and backward linkages in production

124. An industrial estate that is established to develop new industries is called

"developmental" while an industrial estate meant to advance, improve or increase the level
of industrial activjty particularly in poor regions is called

A. "specialized"
B. "ancillary"
C. "promotional"
D. "survival"
E. "subsistential"
125. The following central variables except one were used by Alfred Weber, August Losch,
Walter lsard, Melvin Greenhut and others, in so-called classical theories of industrial
location.

A. The costs of distributing and marketing finished goods to the end-user

B. Wages of labor
C. The costs of transporting raw materials to the factory
D. Perks and privileges for managers

126. When a firm locates close to sources of natural resources such as Pittsburg or Ruhr
valley, it is called "materials-oriented;" when a firm locates close to where there are large
populations such as Shanghai or Tokyo, it is called --

A. Customer-friendly
B. Client-centered
C. Demographicaily-responsive
D. Market-oriented

127. According to Walter lsard, firms or industries that are indifferent to the physical
attributes of geographic location to carry out profitable business are called:

A. Vagabond
B. Wanderlust
C. Itinerant
D. Footloose

128. An American car company breaks up its production process because of high wage cost
of unionized Iabor in Detroit and moves its manufacturing plants to China where labor costs
are low and sources of refined metals are close by. What theory of firm location likely
underpins this decision?

A. Market-Oriented Approach by August Losch

B. Least Cost Approach by Alfred Weber
C. Profit-Maximizing Approach by Walter lsard
D. Organizational Theory (Segmentation & Mergers)

129. A Swedish computer company relocates to Silicon Valley, California, where despite
high wage costs, IT companies boast of highest IQ points per square-meter of floorspace,
and have vibrant linkages with topnotch universities to create state-of-the-art technologies.
What theory of firm location is operational here?

A. Theory of Human Capital

B. Profit Maximizing Approach
C. Satisficing Theory
D. Behavioral Theory

130. Despite global economic recession and decline of demand for luxury goods, a watch
company decides to stay put in Switzerland because of its secure market niche and proven
track record in producing Rolex timepieces. What theory of firm location is likely at work
here?
 A. Comparative Advantage
B. Profit Maximizing Approach
C. Satisficing Theory
D. Behavioral Theory

131. In 1970, the Presidential Advisory Council on Public Works and Community
Development and the UP Institute of Environmental Planning together drafted the first-ever
national physical framework plan that attempted to address spatial inequity or imbalance
among regions using the concept of

A. Integrated area development

B. Growth pole/growth center
C. Selective territorial closure
D. New society

132. The declared strategy of the national government since the 1980s to promote greater
complementarity between agriculture and industry sectors and between urban and rural
places is called

A. Import Substitution Industrialization

B. Export Oriented Industrialization (EOI)
C. Countrywide urban-Rural Linkages (CURL)
D. Balanced Agro-Industrial Development Strategy (BAIDS)

133. "Development process should be redefine in such a way that urban development
promotes rural development while rural development supports urban development." (John
Friedman)

A. Agropolis / agropolitan approach

B. Rurban interlink
C. Agro-based countryside development
D. Michael Lipton model

134. This sub-national development approach of government from the mid-1970s to mid-
1990s refers to the necessary combination of agricultural, industrial, and institutional
activities in mutually reinforcing manner - fostering the growth of viable market towns or mid-
size cities that offer broad services and amenities meant to achieve both stability of
population movement and agro-industrial growth; closely tied to, and integrated with,
efficient agricultural production.

A. Autonomous Autarchic Development

B. Integrated Area Development
C. Endogenous Self-Reliant Development
D. Selective Territorial Closure

135. As conceptualized in 1989, the private-led "Agro-Industrial Development Area (AIDA)"

scheme analogous to Japan's "One Town One Product" model would cluster several
villages to carry out the following components except:

A. Family farm school or folk school

B. Small-scale agro-processing industries
 C. Rural development center
D. Roll-on-roll-off (RORO) port

136. RA 8550 Fisheries Code defines it is a band of dry land and adjacent ocean space in
which terrestrial processes and uses, as well as oceanic processes and uses directly affect
each other; its geographic extent has a landmark limit of one (1) kilometer from the shoreline
at high tide to a seaward limit of 200 meters isobath.

A. Seashore land
B. Foreshore land
C. Coastal Zone
D. Aqua Marine Zone

137. This refers to the part of a seashore which is alternately covered by the ebb and flow of
tide, technically, to a string of land margining a body of water, between the low-water line
usually at the seaward margin of a low tide terrace and the upper limit of wave wash at high
tide usually marked by a beach scarp or berm.

A. Seaside
B. Seaboard
C. Foreshore
D. Seagrass bed
E. Beachfront

138. Under RA 8550, what is the extent of municipal waters of a seaside town as measured
from its shoreline?

A. 7 km
B. 10 km
C. 15 km
D. 20 km

139. Under RA 8550 Fisheries Code of 1998, if the total width of water body between two
seaside municipalities is less than 30 km, each one's municipal waters is determined by
using

A. Comparative sizes of fishing population

B. A median line on common water body
C. Preponderance of maritime and aquatic activities
D. Ratio and proportion according to length of shoreline

140. Philippines is one of 18 mega-diverse countries which together contain two-thirds of the
world's biodiversity. Philippines has over 30% of Southeast Asia's coral reef cover, a square
kilometer of which can produce between 30 to 40 metric tons of seafood annually. Which
area is considered among the most serious hotspots in rapid coral reef destruction?

A. Sulu
B. Boracay
C. Palawan
D. Mindoro
141. According to 1997 study on 775 coral formations by Dr Edgardo Gomez, Dr Helen Yap
of UP Marine Science Institute, 30% of total Philippine coral reef cover is dead, 39% dying,
25% in fair condition, how much remains in excellent condition?

A. approximately 5%
B. Approx. 8%
C. Approx. 26%
D. Approx. 31 %

142. The following are illegal and destructive forms of fishing in Philippine marine waters,
except one.

A. Use of crude, traditional, or artisanal gadgets

B. use of dynamites and other explosives
C. Use of fine mesh nets
D. Muro-ami
E. Use of cyanide on reef-based or pelagic species
F. Use of beach seine and bottom-scouring trawls

143. Wilson (1992) estimated that 90% habitat loss of an area results in 50% reduction of
number of species Under RA 9174 "Wildlife Resources Conservation & Protection Act", a
species or sub-species that faces high risk of extinction in the immediate future is called

A. Acutely Threatened Species

B. Critically Endangered Species
C. Species Vulnerable to Extinction
D. Rapidly Vanishing Species

144. Because land use changes affect a species' ability to migrate, __ are necessary to give
species a route to reach their new habitats.

A. Science Reserves & Ranches

B. Zoos & Botanical Gardens
C. Lifelines
D. Wildlife Corridors

145. The Convention on International Trade of Endangered Species (CITES) on March 3,

1973 has been helpful in protecting endangered animals and plants, of which the Philippines
has over 800, by

A. Listing all species that can be hunted, traded, and used commercially
B. Listing those species and products whose international trade is controlled
C. Funding projects for breeding endangered plants and animals
D. Preventing the hunting of whales and dolphins
E. Specifying prices for certain plant and animal products

146. This refers to the totality of cultural properties preserved and developed through time
and passed on for posterity.

A. National patrimony
B. Customs & traditions
 C. Patriotic legacy
D. Cultural heritage
E. Bequeaths & bequests

147. Which of the following is not a major Heritage Site in the Philippines as declared by
UNESCO?

A. Baroque churches of Manila, Sta. Maria, Paoay & Miag-ao

B. Tubattaha Reef Marine Park
C. Magellan's Cross in Cebu
D. Rice Terraces of the Philippines
E. Puerto Princesa Underground River
F. Historic Town of Vigan

148. According to RA 10066 National Cultural Heritage Act of 2009, this refers to "historical
sites or structures hallowed and revered for their history or association as declared by the
National Historical Institute"

A. Epochal Landmark
B. National Treasure
C. National Cultural Property
D. Historic Shrine
E. Sacred Place

149. Basic principle of Heritage Conservation which holds that historic structures and
treasures should be utilized by preserving as much of their exteriors as possible while
adopting more modern uses in their interiors.

A. Total Makeover
B. Reconfigurative Renovation
C. Converted Property
D. Adaptive Re-use

150. Presidential Decree 2146 defines 'amenity areas' as those with high aesthetic values
such as the following, except one.

A. Outstanding landscapes, seascapes, and viewscapes

B. Planetarium, space observatory, and science centrum
C. Heritage sites and historic places
D. Municipal plazas and public parks

151. Which is not a benefit from having large green space in cities?

A. Absorbs air pollution

B. Gives off oxygen
C. Cools the air as water transpires
D. Provides habitat to wild beasts
E. Provides shade with 1ess electricity required
F. Muffles noise and creates an island of peace
152. A 'drainage basin' is the total land area that contributes runoff to a given stream. What
characteristic of a drainage basin causes it to have an 'efficient' response to rainfall?

A. Sloping topography in bowl-like formation

B. Permeable soils
C. Plasticity of clay bottom
D. Filtration by its wetlands

153. Under RA 8371, this refers to "all areas generally belonging to ICCs/lPs comprising
lands, inland waters, coastal areas, and natural resources therein, held under a claim of
ownership, occupied or possessed by ICCs/lPs, by themselves or through their ancestors,
since time immemorial, continuously up to the present."

A. Tribal land
B. Cultural heritage
C. Autonomous region
D. Ethnic realm
E. Ancestral domain

154. According to RA 8749, this geographic-based document integrates primary data and
information on natural resources and anthropogenic activities on the land as evaluated using
various risk assessment and forecasting methodologies, and evaluates environment quality
and carrying capacity of an area in such a way that enables planners and government
decision-makers to anticipate the type of development control necessary in the
planning area.

A. Natural Resources Inventory

B. Environmental Accounting
C. Biogeographic Compendium
D. Eco-Profile

155. In HLURB Guidelines for CLUP, which of the following does not fall under the 'social
sector'?

A. Education
B. Tourism
C. Health
D. Police Protective Services
E. Sports and Recreation

156. In HLURB Guidelines for CLUP, which of the following does not fall under the
'economic sector'?

A. Housing
B. Mining
C. ICT and Business Process Outsourcing
D. Mariculture
E. Small Scale Industries

157. This process defines the physical platform of development at the local level, and
proceeds by systematically evaluating alternative patterns of resource use,choosing that use
which meets specified goals, and drawing-up appropriate policies and programs, directed to
the best use of land in view of accepted objectives, and of environmental and societal
opportunities and constraints.

A. Framework Planning
B. Strategic Planning
C. Land Use Planning
D. Development Planning

158. This document consists of specific proposals to guide growth in a locality including
statements about community goals, priorities, strategies, and socially-desired mix of
resource uses. These are illustrated by maps,diagrams,charts,tables that show a coherent
spatial framework for environment protection, economic production, settlements, and
infrastructure.

A. Charrette
B. Chatroulette
C. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
D. Strategic Plan
E. Framework Plan

159. An essential part of land-use planning, this activity occurs after strategic planning but
before the detailed layout of location, and aims to characterize and design a parcel of land
or specific section of town so that it can function effectively in relation to the complexity and
scale of proposed development and the range of land uses around it.

A. Estate Planning
B. Wards and Precincts Planning
C. Parcellary Planning
D. Site Planning
E. Project Planning

160. This concerns the arrangement, appearance and functionality of a whole town or city,
in particular the shape and form of the city blocks, the uses of public space, the articulation
of physical features in three dimensions, so that residents and visitors alike can make high-
quality connections between people, places and buildings.

A. Architectural Master Plan

B. Cityscape and Streetscape
C. Urban Design
D. Form and Style
E. Visual Panorama

161. This refers to the division of a community into districts or sections according to present
and potential uses of land in order to maximize, regulate, and direct their use and
development.

A. Wards & Precincts Planning

B. Subdivision Plats
C. Land Allocation and Apportionment
D. Zoning
162. It is an integrated development scheme wherein a defined area is comprehensively
planned as a unitary entity such that innovations in site design and building design are
rewarded by government with some flexibility in zoning, usually relaxation of standards or
their replacement with negotiated agreement between the developer and the LGU.

A. Enterprise Zone
B. Sites and Services model
C. Zonal Improvement Program
D. Planned Unit Development

163. This type of land regulation says that man-made structures should be of such height,
bulk, or design so as not to upstage, play down, or draw attention away from a landmark
(e.g. Rizal Monument ), natural landscape, or character of place

A. Design Aesthetics
B. Architectural Masterplan
C. Cultural Mapping
D. Form-Zoning

164. An innovation in land-use regulation in which the right to develop a property can be
separated or severed from ownership of land in a particular zoning district, then sold or
passed on to another property owner, and exercised in connection with the development of
land in some other part of the jurisdiction.

A. Market-based instrument
B. Commutation of Rights
C. Property Conversion
D. Transfer of Development Rights

165. Which is not considered 'production land' in a Philippine LGU?

A. Agro-industrial estate
B. Cropland
C. Orchard
D. Fishpond
E. Fishpen

166. Which type of land use is not described as 'urban'?

A. Residential
B. Institutional
C. Industrial
D. Mineral

167. Which type of land use is most easily reversible or convertible to its original state?

A. Forest land
B. Memorial park
C. Infrastructure land
D. Commercial
168. What is the percent slope of a land parcel that has a change in elevation ('rise') of 8
meters and is 160 meters long?

A. 8%
B. 7%
C. 6%
D. 5%
E. 4%

169. In slope analysis, land with slope 0% to 3% is described as

A. Even and smooth

B. Flat to gently sloping
C. Level to nearly level
D. Gently to moderately undulating

170. Which of the following soil types has the greatest permeability, and hence has the least
nutrient-holding capacity?

A. Sand
B. Clay
C. Silt
D. Loam
E. Humus

171. Which of the following is not a factor to determine suitability of land for agricultural
use?

A. Climate and rainfall

B. Soil quality
C. Geologic fault lines
D. Slope

172. These are lands capable of intensive use or cultivation over time and can sustain the
productivity levels of crops in a given climatic region without adversely affecting the
immediate or adjoining environment.

A. Agro-industrial estate
B. Prime agricultural land
C. Alluvial fans
D. Icefields or mud paddies

173. The recommended map scale for provinces is 1:50,000 while that for town/city CLUP
should be at least

A. 1:200,000
B. 1:100,000
C. 1:25,000
D. 1:10,000
174. Which of those listed below is not a 'thematic' map?

A. Political - administrative boundaries

B. NPAAAD map
C. Slope map
D. Forest cover map

175. 'Contour lines' on a topographic map indicate

A. Soil classes
B. Layers of vegetative cover
C. Demarcation lines
D. Elevation intervals

176. An 'analytical' map is a composite or overlay of two or more

A. Base maps
B. Thematic maps
C. Aspect maps
D. Choropleth maps

177. In agricultural land use planning, the soil characteristics of solum depth and clay-silt
fraction that would ensure good plant growth are

A. <50 cm and <80%

B. >100 cm and >80%
C. 50-100 cm and 40-80%
D. 10-50 cm and 10-40%

178. It is a computer system consisting of software and hardware components that are used
to organize, store, process, analyze and display multiple layers of spatially-referenced
information about geographically located features.

A. Geodesy and Geodetics

B. Global Positioning System
C. Electronic Cadastral System
D. Geographic Information System

179. These are geometric coordinates for designating the location of places on the surface
of the Earth; the First gives the location of a place above or below the equator, expressed by
angular measurements ranging from 0° at the equator to 90° at the poles, while the Second
gives the location of a place east or west of an upright line called the prime meridian, and is
measured in angles ranging from 0° at the prime meridian to 180° at the International Date
Line.

A. Landmass and ocean

B. Cartesian x,y, points
C. North pole & south pole
D. Latitude and longitude
180. Prior to the development of computer mapping software in the mid-1970s, spatial
analysis was done manually by overlaying different thematic maps of the same scale,
principally to determine

A. Geohazards and physical constraints

B. Areas that are ideal for urban development
C. Critical areas for rehabilitation or intervention
D. All of the choices

181. This refers to aerial photographs that have been rectified to produce an accurate image
of the Earth by removing tilt of planet, relief displacements, and topographic distortions
which occurred when the photo was taken from an airplane

A. Photogrammetry
B. Orthophotography
C. Remote sensing
D. Geomatics
E. Geodetics

182. In a computer graphics/mapping system, this is a data structure for representing point
and line data by means of x,y,z geometric coordinates; it can also be a set of line segments
joined end-to-end to make a curved path in space.

A. Vector
B. Raster
C. Curvature
D. Field
E. Node

183. According to Prof. Ernesto Serote, this is the process of putting two or more thematic
maps on top of each other to determine areas of convergence of certain features of land
contributing to the suitability of the area to a particular purpose, and conversely, to eliminate
or screen out areas that are not suitable for that purpose.

A. Thematic superimposition
B. Cartographic merging
C. Sieve analysis
D. Spatial modeling

184. What rational tool do planners use in selecting from alternative land use schemes?

A. Checklist of criteria
B. Linear programming
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Computer simulation

185. By taking into account both quantitative values and non-quantitative values, 'Planning
Balance Sheet' is an 'extended' 'multiple-criteria' form of

A. Cost-revenue analysis
B. Cost-benefit analysis
 C. Cost-effectiveness analysis
D. Cost-estimate analysis

186. This refers to the wise and prudent use of any resource that is held in trust.

A. Technocracy
B. Shepherding
C. Protectionism
D. Championing
E. Stewardship

187. In all but one of the following measures, Land Use Planning works with Nature by
conserving natural resources.

A. Interconnect open space and greenways to provide corridors and refuge for
wildlife
B. Delineate clear town edges or greenbelts to protect surrounding farmland
C. Encourage quarrying near main rivers to generate substantial revenues for the
municipality
D. Create neighborhood pocket-parks and urban mini-forests to serve as lungs of the
city/town

188. This is the legal term for forest at 1,000 meters elevation or more or with steep
gradients at 50% or more, which perform vital ecological functions and must therefore be
kept perpetually in natural state and free from human intrusion.

A. Everlasting Forest
B. Permanent Forest
C. Virginal Forest
D. Primeval Forest

189. This is the scientific term for old-growth forest in tropical countries that is dominated by
broad-leaf trees which form thick canopy thus allowing little sunlight on the forest floor, and
includes much-prized hardwood species such as red lauan, white lauan, red narra, tanguile,
tiaong, almon, bagtikan, apitong, kamagong, yakal, and mayapis.

A. Dipterocarp Forest
B. Deciduous Forest
C. Coniferous or 'Pine' Forest
D. Tropical Scrub Forest
E. Mossy Forest
F. Sub-marginal Forest
G. Mangrove Forest
H. Ever-green Forest

190. All but one of the following are sub-categories of Forest Reserve.

A. Permanent Forest
B. Critical River Watershed
C. Mangrove Forest
D. Military and Civil Reservations
191. Under RA 7586, these are identified portions of land and water, remarkable areas,
biogeographic zones, habitats of rare and endangered species- all set aside by reason of
their unique physical and biological significance, to be managed to enhance biological
diversity, and to be secured from destructive human exploitation.

A. National Heritage Parks and Reservations

B. Resource Reserve
C. Ecological Zones
D. Protected Areas

192. A 'watershed' is principally a source of

A. Timber for processing into lumber, shelter materials, paper

B. Charcoal for grill requirements of five-star restaurants
C. Food and prey for biodiverse species in rivers, streams
D. Water for humans, animals, plants, and other species

193. Under RA 7586, poor communities occupying sections of forestland continuously for at
least 5 years prior to legal proclamations, who are dependent on the forest for subsistence,
are considered "tenured migrant communities" and are engaged by government to
undertake reforestation and upland management under this specific program.

A. Agro-Forestry
B. Sloping Agricultural Land Technology
C. Integrated Social Forestry
D. Industrial Forestry

194. Under Executive Order 23 dated February 1, 2011 declaring "moratorium on the cutting
and harvesting of timber," which of the following is exempted from the total log ban until the
year 2016?

A. Concessions signed by DENR secretary

B. Conversion of mangrove forests
C. Selective or rotational harvesting in industrial and commercial plantations
D. Small-scale tree cutting, 'carabao logging,' and kaingin

195. Under Executive Order 26 series of 2011 which declared the National Greening
Program as DA-DAR-DENR Convergence Initiative, how many tree seedlings should each
government employee plant each year, a requirement that also applies to students identified
by DEPED and CHED?

A. 10
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
E. 35

196. Under RA 9175 Chainsaw Act of 2002, one of the following does not possess a
chainsaw in a legal manner.
 A. Has a subsisting timber license agreement, production sharing agreement, or a
private land timber permit
B. Is duly elected official of upland barangay
C. Is an orchard and fruit tree farmer
D. Is a licensed wood processor who cuts only timber that has been legally sold
E. Is an industrial tree farmer

197. This broad category refers to land deliberately kept undeveloped for its contribution to
the amenity value of the environment. It offers opportunities for adventure recreation or
passive leisure at low-cost, and at the same time, serves as protection buffer around
sensitive areas and hazardous installations.

A. Wilderness
B. Tourism & Recreation Zone
C. Rangeland
D. Open Space

198. PD 705 Revised Forestry Code Section 16 affirms that, after a salvage zone of 40
meters from the high tide-mark or shoreline, there shall be protective strips of mangroves or
swamps along the coast with width of at least

A. 20 meters
B. 25 meters
C. 30 meters
D. 35 meters
E. 40 meters

199. Republic Act that provides for "conservation and protection of wildlife resources and
their habitats" is numbered as

A. RA 9147
B. RA 9714
C. RA 4791
D. RA1479

200. PD 1067 Water Code of 1976 Article 51 requires a three-meter easement from the
banks of creeks, canals, and esteros, in urban areas, but MMDA Resolution 3 s. 1996, has
expanded the easement for Metro Manila areas adjoining water bodies as measured from
the banks of Pasig River, tributary streams and the shoreline, to be at least

A. 10 meters
B. 20 meters
C. 40 meters
D. 5 meters
201. Because of public need for salvage zone, how far should a residential property be from
the banks of rivers, streams and waterways in a rural farming area?

A. 5 meters
B. 20 meters
C. 40 meters
D. 100 meters
202. What would be the most suitable land use of geologic fault with buffer strip of at least 5
m on both sides from the line?

A. Aqueduct or tunnel
B. Floodway
C. Venice-like canals
D. Open space or farm
E. Wildlife refuge

203. What kind of use would be most compatible around a huge oil depot and Petrol-LPG
gas depository?

A. Transport terminals
B. Commercial
C. BPO call centers
D. Open space
E. Hospitals

204. The following data help planners identify the appropriate industrial areas in an LGU,
except one.

A. Indicated as Class A in SAFDZ/NPAAAD maps of the Bureau of Soils and Water

Management
B. Part of growth area or growth corridor as stated in the Medium-Term National
Development Plan
C. Among sites previously identified in 1970 NPFP national policy on industrial
dispersal & decentralization of development
D. already surveyed and positively evaluated by PEZA under RA 7916

205. Which of the following is not a factor to determine suitability of land for heavy industrial
use?

A. Load-bearing capacity
B. Location
C. Slope
D. Soil characteristics

206. Which of the following is not considered a criterion to select industrial estates in the
Philippines?

A. Presence of natural resources

B. Physical boundary
C. Availability of labor
D. Existing infrastructure and utilities
E. Logistics or efficient movement of goods and products

207. This document serves as basis for adopting land use and physical planning-related
guidelines and standards to guide the formulation of long-term framework plans and
particularly city/municipal land use plans and zoning ordinances.
 A. Long-Term Philippine Investment Plan
B. Medium-Term Philippine Development Plan
C. National Framework for Physical Planning
D. Regional Physical Framework Plan

208. In the National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030, "Settlements",

"Production", "Protection," and "Infrastructure" are discussed as

A. Key Economic Functions of any Local Government Unit

B. Land Use Zones that exclude one another
C. Land Use Policy Areas whose functional relationships have to be fleshed out at
the local level
D. Primary Districts in urban design that have to be delineated in each town or city

209. One goal of land use planning as stated in the 'National Framework for Physical
Planning 2001-2030' is the utilization of the country's land and water resources in a manner
that provides sufficient and affordable food products to all Filipinos of the present and future
generations through local production and/or importation.

A. "Green Revolution"
B. "Agricultural Development"
C. "Food Security"
D. "Self-Sufficiency in Grains"

210. 'National Framework for Physical Planning 2001-2030' notes a shift from rural
resource-based environmental problems to urban-based man-made environmental
problems. Which of the following NFPP measures pertains to development control and
urban growth management (UGBs)?

A. Delineate land available for or restricted from settlement expansion

B. Identify and manage environmentally critical areas
C. Match land uses and densities with environmental capacities and service
capacities of infrastructure
D. Encourage appropriately planned mixed use developments, transit use,
pedestrianization and cultural/ historical preservation in large urban centers

211. Which of the following is not a basic step in preparing a CLUP?

A. Identify stakeholders and analyze the situation

B. Develop a detailed organizational management profile
C. Formulate goals and translate them into strategies
D. Anticipate economic trends and build scenarios
E. Identify the needed infrastructure and utilities
F. Involve participants in Goals Achievement Matrix
212. Which of the following steps are common to both CLUP and Comprehensive
Development Plan?

A. Urban morphology and physiognomy

B. Data collection, problem analysis, sectoral forecasting, formulation of overall
vision, goals, objectives
C. Investment programming, zero-based budgeting, earmarking and appropriation
 D. Community-based monitoring system, local government poverty monitoring
system

213. All of the following tools are relevant to land use planning but one is least used in land
use allocation?

A. Land Use Accounting

B. Scenario Analysis
C. Life Cycle Analysis
D. Spatial Modeling

214. In Ernesto Serote's land use accounting, the following measures increase overall land
supply for planning, except one.

A. Reclamation of coastal area

B. Infill and densification
C. Urban renewal and redevelopment
D. NPAAAD

215. In Ernesto Serote's method of estimating land supply, the following are deducted from
total, except one.

A. Environmentally critical areas

B. Grasslands and idle lands
C. High-risk geohazard zones
D. Military and civil reservations

216. UN-FAO standards state that at least 5.7 hectares of aggregate urban land (residential,
commercial, industrial, etc) and 6 hectares of farmland need to be reserved for every 1,000
population. How much urban land is needed for a town of 22,000?

A. 62.7 hectares
B. 125.4 hectares
C. 220 hectares
D. 11.4 hectares

217. UN-FAO standards state that at least 0.60 hectares should be devoted to educational
space (public and private) per thousand population. How much combined area of schools is
the minimum for a town of 40,000 people?

A. 40 hectares
B. 24 hectares
C. 10 hectares
D. 240 hectares

218. HLURB standards state that at least 2.5 hectares of industrial land needs to be
reserved for every 1,000 population. How much total industrial land is needed for an
independent chartered city of 200,000 people?

A. 200 hectares
B. 400 hectares
 C. 500 hectares
D. 2,500 hectares

219. Like a mould needed to control shape, the spatial strategy in CLUP is the creative
physical arrangement of space- using activities used to influence the shape, direction, and
intensity of the built environment so as to preserve and conserve the unbuilt environment.

A. City Image
B. City Metaphor
C. Spatial Modeling
D. Urban Form
E. Urban Template

220. According to Kevin Andrew Lynch (1961), a good 'urban design' is one where residents
and visitors can use a 'cognitive image' or 'mental map' of the city as they navigate through
the territory in the process of 'wayfinding·. He identified the elements of legibility of place
as:

A. Circumferentials, arterials, radials, crossroads

B. Skyscrapers, skyways, multi-nodals, junctions
C. Arched gateways, waterfronts, boulevards, anci promenades
D. Paths, edges, nodes, districts, and landmarks

221. Under the design elements of Kevin Lynch, 'Quiapo church' would be a landmark while
Divisoria would be termed as

A. Flea Market
B. Icon
C. District
D. Nodule
E. Transshipment

222. Under Kevin Lynch's scheme (1961), what would best describe Rockwell Makati and
Ortigas Center?

A. Landmark
B. Cosmopolitan
C. District
D. Downtown
E. Estate

223. What are the elements of 'urban form'?

A. Infill, densification, property conversion, retro-fitting

B. Vertical, horizontal, diagonal, curvilinear
C. Beauty, amenity, safety, convenience, functionality
D. Land use, transport network, layout, building types, density

224. Which the following indicates good site planning?

A. Best orientation to sun, sea and wind

 B. Congruence and compability with its surrounding
C. Proactive features to anticipate possibility of disaster
D. Maximized space
E. Efficient circulation
F. All of the choices

225. 'Smart Growth USA,' with its ten declared principles, deliberately combats 'amorphic
sprawl' by means of

A. Mixed use zoning rather than conventional exclusionary zoning

B. Design of walkable, bikable, sociable, health-oriented settlements
C. Residential, commercial, institutional uses are integrated & clustered
D. Interconnected modes of transport
E. Compact development through infill in�
F. All of the choices

226. Which one is not an innovative element of 'Planned Unit Development'?

A. Cul de sac, horseshoe design, and motorcourt

B. Usable open space
C. Complementarity of building types
D. Preservation of significant natural land features

227. This refers to the establishment of mini-forests or small nature parks, lining roads and
highways with trees, shrubs, or ornamental plants, and ground landscaping of schools,
hospitals, and other government agencies in order to improve the environment in built-up
areas.

A. Reforestation
B. Miniature Forestry
C. Urban Forestry
D. Silvicuture
E. Agro-f�orestry

228. This spatial strategy deliberately directs growth towards major roadways that emanate
from a center like rays of a star

A. Radial/axial/sectoral
B. Central & nodal
C. Multi-centric & poly-nodal

D. Concentric
E. Bi-polar & tri-polar

229. A 'tri-polar' or 'bi-polar' form in municipal CLUP would focus on comprehensively

developing new sections as magnets or complete attractions for population and business,
inorder to ease pressure on· traditional center, and is an example of

A. Simple Dispersion
B. Concentrated Dispersion
C. Simple Concentration
 D. Compact Development

230. Which of the following urban street layout creates the most severe transport
congestion?

A. Grid-iron or rectilinear
B. Circumferential & radial
C. Uni-linear or strip development
D. Irregular free pattern

231. What are the tools or levers of authority of city/town Local Government Units to
implement their local plans?

A. Clearance, non-conformance, variance, exemptions, licenses, and permits

B. Condemnation, legal expropriation, seizure, confiscation, closure and takeover of
property
C. Zoning and regulation, subdivision controls, taxation, public investment, incentives
to private investment
D. Levies, duties, charges, tolls, and tariffs

232. Under Philippine zoning codes, a family-run commercial-scale piggery with more than
10 heads of swine should be properly located in

A. General residential zone (R-1)

B. Slaughterhouse and abbatoir zone
C. Agro-industrial zone
D. Rangeland and pastureland

233. Under Philippine zoning codes, a mixed-use seven-storey structure with residential
condominiums, offices, gyms, shops and boutiques should be properly located in -

A. General residential zone R-1

B. Commercial zone C-3
C. Tourism recreational zone
D. Special economic zone

234. An area within an LGU where the average density is 35 dwelling units per hectare or
below with majority of lot sizes between 120 to 800 square meters or more, is zoned as·

A. R-1
B. R-2
C. R-3
D. R-4
E. Mixed Use Zone

235. An area in certain cities with regional shopping centers, huge consumer malls, sports
stadiums, high-rise hotels, office towers, is zoned as

A. C-1
B. C-2
C. C-3
 D. Tourism zone
E. Financial District

236. What color is used to represent industrial areas in zoning map?

A. Black
B. Gray
C. Violet
D. Yellow

237. What color is used to represent institutional areas in zoning map?

A. Brown
B. Beige
C. Blue
D. Maroon

238. What color is used to represent tourism areas in zoning map?

A. Orange
B. Red
C. Purple
D. Fuchsia

239. An example of positive easement is one that

A. Preserves a certain habitat

B. Protects a certain stream
C. Allows the right to harvest a natural crop
D. Stipulates not to drain a wetland

240. Exemptions, special permissions, and relief from provisions of land use and zoning
ordinance are obtained from

A. Office of the Mayor/ Local Chief Executive

B. Planning Commission or Planning & Dev't Office
C. Local Board of Zoning Appeals and Adjustments
D. Office of the Vice Mayor as head of Sanggunian

241. A type of land use control where there may be no possibility of the application of the
'right of reverter' is called

A. Restrictive covenants
B. Telluric
C. Deed of sale
D. Monolithic

242. The total area of permitted building space expressed as a proportion of the total site is
known as:

A. Gross Leasable Area

 B. Buildable Site Formula
C. Floor Area Ratio
D. Location Quotient

243. When a proponent of a proposed project applies for 'locational clearance,' which
consideration is first and foremost from the perspective of the approving authority?

A. Community disruption, relocation and the required land acquisition

B. Consistency with local land use plan and with zoning map
C. Likely impacts on town traffic and local parking
D. Carbon Footprint from the use of fossil fuels in power generation, company bus
shuttles, executives' luxury cars
E. Amount of tax and non-tax revenues to be received by the Local Government Unit
F. Consumption of power, water, and other utilities

244. A mixed-use building has 6 storeys of 1,000 sq.m each, on a lot area of 2,000 sq.m.
What is the FAR?

A. 2:1
B. 3:1
C. 4:1
D. 5:1
E. 6:1

245. Floor Area Ratio of 1.5 and below is considered as low density. What FAR is labeled as
'very high density'?

A. 2 and above
B. 3 and above
C. 4 and above
D. 5 and above

246. This refers to a kind of ad-hoc or arbitrary zoning that allows a small piece of land to
deviate from the district or zone regulations for reasons not found in the officially-approved
CLUP.

A. Flexible zoning
B. Mixed use zoning
C. Euclidean zoning
D. Spot zoning
E. Optional zoning

247. A device usually given at the enactment of Zoning Ordinance which grants property
owner relief from certain provisions of ordinance because the application of the same would
result in a particular hardship to the owner.

A. Exceptionality
B. Certificate of Non-Conformance
C. Quasi-judicial relief
D. Variance
248. If there are 12 signatures needed to approve construction of a building and 32
signatures needed to thoroughly develop a parcel of non-agricultural land, whose signature
is needed for the issuance of a development permit?

A. Planning Consultant
B. Real Estate Broker
C. Natural Scientist
D. Head Local Planner
E. Legislator-Sponsor

249. What document makes possible that funds for priority projects enumerated in LDIP are
budgeted and released yearly?

A. Special Allotment Release Order (SARO)

B. Notice of Cash Availability (NCA)
C. Annual Investment Plan
D. PBBS
E. Memorandum of Undertaking
F. Program of Work and Expenditure Plan

250. Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceilings under various legal
issuances. Under AFMA, only 5% of the SAFDZ areas may be converted to other uses,
while RA 7160 Local Government Code Sec. 20 limits it to

A. 15% of the agricultural land in highly urbanized and independent chartered cities
B. 20% of total arable land in any LGU
C. 10% of total cultivable land in any city
D. 25% of total alienable and disposable land

251. The counterpart of Geddes in the University States is Lewis Mumford. Hiss treatise is
entitled:

A. Culture and Cities

B. Cities and Culture
C. The Cities of Culture
D. The Culture of the Cities

252. The advocates of the systems view planning does not include one of the following:

A. G. Wilson
B. George Chadwick
C. J.B. McLoughlin
D. Stuart Chapin
E. Andreas Faludi

253. What does reviews Comprehensive Land Use Plans (CLUPs) of component cities and
municipalities?

A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB
 D. None of the choices
E. All of the choices except none

254. What body ratifies CLUPs of highly urbanized cities?

A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB
D. None of the choices
E. All of the choices except none

255. What body reviews CLUPs of independent component cities?

A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB
D. None of the choices
E. All of the choices except none

256. What Body ratifies CLUPs of Metro Manila Cities and Municipalities?

A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB
D. None of the choices
E. All of the choices except none

257. What body reviews CLUPs of provinces?

A. RLUC
B. PLUC
C. HLURB
D. None of the choices
E. All of the choices except none

258. A comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP) must meet the following criteria:

A. Technical feasibility
B. Socio-economical and financial possibility
C. Political viability
D. Administrative operability
E. All of the choices

259. Choose the relevant criteria for the best strategic option

A. Sustainability
B. Feasibility
C. Desirability
D. Critical and urgent
E. None of the choices
F. All of the choices except none
260. What are the techniques relevant to land use planning?

A. Sieve Mapping
B. Area Ecological Profiling
C. Land Use Accounting
D. Critical and urgent
E. None of the choices
F. All of the choices except none

261. What technique is useful for determining strategies?

A. Situational analysis
B. SWOT analysis
C. Land use survey
D. Critical and urgent
E. None of the choices
F. All of the choices except none

262. What are the legal basis for the state’s regulation of land use?

A. Police power
B. Laws against nuisance and pollution
C. The policy that property has social function
D. The rule that a person must not do wrong to another person

263. What kind of project requires an environmental compliance certificate?

A. Environmentally critical projects

B. Projects in environmentally critical areas
C. All of the choices except none
D. None of the choices

264. Where can we find the highest level policy statements on environmental protection?

A. Constitution
B. PD 1151
C. All of the choices except none
D. None of the Choices

265. What projects require an environmental impact statement (EIS)

A. Environmentally critical projects

B. Projects in environmentally critical areas
C. Gold courses, major roads and bridges, infrastructure
D. All of the choices except none
E. None of the choices

266. What law lays down the mandates and functions of the Housing and Land Use
Regulatory Board?
 A. EO 949
B. EO 90
C. PD 933
D. PD 957

267. A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting land use is:

A. Comprehensive Land Use Plan

B. Zoning Ordinance
C. Cadastral Survey
D. Tax Declaration

268. A special locational clearance which grants a property owner relief from certain
provisions of the zoning ordinance where, because of the particular physical surrounding,
shape or topographical conditions of the property, compliance with height, area, bulk,
setback and/or density would result in particular hardship upon the owner is called:

A. Certified of Non-Conformance
B. Exception
C. Variance
D. None of the choices

269. A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of a Zoning
ordinance where, because of the specific use would result n a particular hardship to the
owner.

A. Variance
B. Certificate of Non- Conformance
C. Exception
D. Development

270. This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise the poblacion and other
built-up areas including the urbanizable land in and adjacent to said areas and where at
least 50% of the population area engaged in non-agricultural activities:

A. Central business district

B. Urban area
C. City center
D. Suburban area

271. The process of arranging activities and plans among different interest or planning
groups for the purpose of systemizing, harmonizing and facilitating operations is called:

A. Public hearing
B. Consultation
C. Coordination
D. Scooping

272. The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which may not be followedis
called.
 A. Consultation
B. Coordination
C. Public hearing
D. Citizen participation

273. This document is a series of written statements accompanied by maps, illustrations and
diagrams which describes what the community wants to become and how it wants to
develop. It is essentially composed of community goals, objectives, policies, programs and
physical development plan which translates the various sectoral plan:

A. Land Use Plan

B. Action Plan
C. Strategic Plan
D. Development Plan

274. The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations that support policies of
Government with regard to optimizing the use of land as a resource is:

A. NEDA
B. DAR
C. HLURB
D. DPWH

275. What is zoning?

A. It is the designation of species areas of a community as functional land uses of

land may be allowed or regulated on accordance with the development plan.
B. It is a tool to implement the development plan
C. It is a means of redistributing land acquisition and disposition
D. None of the choices

276. What are the tools for plan implementation?

A. Zoning ordinance, taxation and eminent domain

B. Zoning, subdivision and building ordinance
C. Zoning ordinance, local investment
D. Urban land reform

277. What higher level plans guides Local Government Units (LGUs) in preparing their own
comprehensive land use plans (CLUPs)?

A. National Physical Framework Plans and Medium-Term Development Plans

B. Regional Physical Framework Plans and Regional Development Plans
C. Provincial Physical Framework and Provincial Development Plans
D. All of the choices except none
E. None of the choices

278. What is the highest planning body at the regional level?

A. NEDA
 B. The Regional Development Council
C. HLURB
D. None of the choices
E. All of the choices except none

279. The law requiring LGUs to prepare their comprehensive, multi-sectoral development
plains initiated by their development councils and approved by their Sanggunian is:

A. PD 399
B. Executive Order No.72
C. RA 7160
D. PD 1517

280. The new law regulating the practice of environmental planning is:

A. RA 10587
B. PD 1517
C. PD 957
D. None of the above

281. The law proclaiming certain areas and types of projects as environmentally critical and
within the scope of the EIS system:

A. PD 1586
B. Proclamation No. 2146
C. PD 1152
D. DAO 96-37

282. Reclassification of the land highly in urbanized areas, after conducting public hearings
for the purpose, shall be limited to:

A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%

283. Under the Local Government Code, reclassification of agricultural land in component
cities and to first to third class municipalities shall be limited to:

A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 5%

284. The enforcement of PD 1308 as well as the monitoring and inspection of educational
institutions offering courses in environment planning is the responsibility of the,

A. Commission on Higher Education

B. Philippine Institute of Environmental Planners
C. Board of Environmental Planning
D. School of Urban and Regional Planning
285. A consulting firm, partnership, company, corporation, or association may engage on
the practice of environmental planning in the Philippines, provided that:

A. At least 75% of the entire membership of the Board of the entity shall be
registered environmental planners
B. At least 70% of the total capitalization of the entity is owned by registered
environmental planners
C. At least 70% of the entire membership of the Board is composed of ENPs and
75% of the capitalization is owned by them
D. At least 75% of the entire membership and 75% of the capitalization is owned by
registered environmental planners

286. Ancestral domains refer to areas that:

A. Belong to ICCs/iPPs compromising lands. Inland waters, coastal areas and

natural resources therein
B. Bare within protected areas which have actually been occupied by communities
for 5 years before the designation of the same as protected areas in accordance with
the NIPAS Act.
C. Are set aside to allow the way of life of societies living in harmony with the
environment adapt to modern technology at their pace
D. Are extensive and relatively isolated and uninhabited, are normally with difficult
access.

287. This law provides for the establishment and management of National Integrated
Protection Areas System:

A. RA 8371
B. RA 7586
C. RA 7279
D. None of the above

288. RA 8435 or the Agriculture and Fishery Modernization Act (AFMA) of 1997strives to
provide full and adequate support to the sustainable development of ahighlt modernized
agriculture and fishery industry in the Philippines. Under AFMA, one of the following has
been d-prioritized

A. Identification and establishment of model farm

B. On-farm production enhancement technologies
C. Small-scale irrigation systems
D. Research, development and training facilities

289. Along with the Network of Protected Areas for Agriculture and Agro-Industrial
Development (NPAAAD), it provides the physical basis for the proper planning of
sustainable agriculture and fishery development and in the identification of24 suitable crops,
livestock for local and international markets without creating irreversible environmental and
human health problems.

A. The watershed areas

B. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
 C. Integrated Area Development
D. Strategic Agriculture and Fishery Development Zone

290. Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceiling under various legal issuances,
e.g. Local Government Code. Under the AFMA, only 5% of the SAFDZ areas may be
converted to other uses, while the LGC limits to:

A. 15% of total arable lands on chartered cities and 1st class Municipalities
B. 10% of total arable lands in any town
C. 5% of total arable land in any city
D. All of the above

291. The 1987 Constitution seeks to classify all lands in the public domain into four
categories. Name of the one that is not among four

A. Agricultural land
B. Mineral land
C. National park
D. Ancestral domain
E. Forest land
292. Based on the principle of devolution of powers to local government units, the National
Government transfers these funds to LGUs for their administrative, public order and safety
operations

A. Internal Revenue Allotments

B. Budgetary Allocation
C. Local Development Allotment
D. LGU Budgetary Allotment

293. As provided for in the Water Code and the HLURB zoning guidelines, the required
easement in urban areas from the banks of rivers/streams, seas and lakes is:

A. 3 meters
B. 20 meters
C. 40 meters
D. 100 meters

294. Variances and exemptions from the land use plan/zoning map are secured from the:

A. Zoning Administrator/Officer
B. Municipal Mayor
C. Municipal Planning and Development Coordinator (MPDC)
D. Local Zoning Board of Adjustments and Appeals (LZBAA)

295. A kind of ad-hoc zoning that allows a small piece of land to deviate from the approved
zone of the area for certain reason is called:

A. Spot zoning
B. Flexible zoning
C. Euclidean zoning
D. Large lot zoning
296. Any amendment to the provisions of the zoning ordinance for component cities and
municipalities can only take effect approval and authentication by the:

A. Sangguniang Panlalawigan
B. HLURB
C. Local Zoning Review Committee
D. Local Zoning Board of Adjustment and Appeals (LZBAA)

297. Alarm over increasing world population may be traced to Thomas Malthus’theory that
states

A. Population grows geometrically while food supply grows arithmetically

B. Population grows arithmetically while food supply grows geometrically
C. Population and food grows geometrically
D. Population and food grows arithmetically

298. Many industries want to locate near urban cities because they want to be

A. Close to large market

B. Close to a major transportation hub
C. Avail of urban services and facilities
D. All of the choices

299. In general, an Economic Base ration or Economic Base Multiplier expressed in terms of
employment indicates:

A. A total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a number of jobs created

in an industry
B. The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of number of jobs created
in the entire country
C. The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a number of jobs
created in the entire region
D. The total number of jobs created in a set of industries as a result of a number of
jobs created in an industry.

300. Traditional location theory analyzes the location of industries by considering

A. The cost of marketing and advertising

B. Labor wages
C. The cost of transporting raw materials to the factory and finished goods to the
market
D. The costs of transporting consumers to market centers

301. The slope range that is prescribed as production land use is

A. 0-18%
B. Above 50%
C. 16-50%
D. 0-8%
E. None of the choices
302. The elevation reserved for protection land use is

A. Above 500
B. Above 100
C. Above 2,000
D. Above 1,000 mtrs.
E. None of the choices

303. Under the 1998 Evolutionary Soil Classification System, the classification level
depicted in the Bureau of Soils and Water Management is the

A. Soil order
B. Soil type
C. Soil great group
D. Soil series
E. None of the choices

304. A Philippine climatic type characterized by rainfall evenly distributed throughout the
years refers to:

A. Type III
B. Type II
C. Type IV
D. Type I
E. None of the choices

305. The Philippine forest type that is adapted to growing in steep slopes and in places with
a distinct wet and dry season is the

A. Pine/saleng
B. Diptrocarp
C. Molave/molawin
D. Mangrove
E. None of the choices

306. The law requiring LGUs to prepare their comprehensive, multi-sectoral development
plan initiated by their development councils and approved by theirSanggunians is:

A. PD 399
B. Executive Order No. 72
C. RA 7160
D. PD 1517
E. None of the choices
307. The law regulating the practice of environmental planning is

A. PD 1308
B. PD 1517
C. PD 957
D. None of the choices
E. PD1096
308. The Law proclaiming of land certain areas and types of projects as environmentally
critical and within the scope of the EIS system

A. PD 1586
B. Proclamation No. 2146
C. PD 1152
D. DAO 96-37
E. None of the choices

309. Reclassification of land in highly urbanized areas, after conducting public hearing for
the purpose, shall be limited to

A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 20%
D. 25%
E. None of the choices

310. A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting the land use is

A. Comprehensive Land Use Plan

B. Zoning Ordinance
C. Cadastral Survey
D. Tax Declaration
E. None of the choices

311. A special locational clearance which grants a property owners relief from certain
provisions of the zoning ordinance where, because of the particular physical surrounding,
shape or topographical conditions of the property, compliance with height, area bulk,
setback and/or density would result in a particular hardship to the owner

A. Certificate of Non-Conformance
B. Exception
C. Variance
D. None of the choices
E. Zoning Clearance

312. A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of aZoning
ordinance where, because of the specific use would result in a particularhardship to the
owner
A. Variance
B. Certificate of Non-Conformance
C. Exception
D. Development
E. None of the choices

313. This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise the poblacion and other
built-up areas including the urbanizable land in and adjacent to said areas and where at
least 50% of the population area engaged in non-agricultural activities:
 A. Central business district
B. Urban area
C. City center
D. Suburban area
E. None of the choices

314. Cities with a minimum population of 200,000 inhabitants as certified by the National
Statistics Office and with latest annual income of at least P 50,000,000based on 1996
constant prices as certified by the City Treasurer are called

A. Independent Component Cities

B. Regional Centers
C. Highly Urbanized Cities
D. Component Cities
E. None of the choices

315. Urbanization began around 4,000 B.C. in the area known as the

A. Fertile Crescent
B. Mediterranean
C. Babylon
D. Asia
E. None of the choices

316. The primary factor/s in the location of cities during the Bronze Age along the Indus
Valley is/are:

A. Transport
B. Agriculture
C. Defense
D. None of the choices
E. All of the choices except none

317. He developed the first theoretical basis for physical planning

A. Hippodamus
B. Nicodemus
C. Nostradamus
D. Aristotle
E. None of the choices

318. They understood the importance of transportation and thus emerges as the first
regional planners of the world.

A. Greeks
B. Romans
C. Sumerians
D. Egyptians
E. None of the choices
319. It was during this period that the concept of urban design was established

A. Renaissance
B. Bronze Age
C. Medieval Period
D. Atomic Age
E. None of the choices

320. The Garden City as a solution to urban planning problems

A. Malthus
B. Ebenezer Howard
C. Nicodemus
D. Adam Smith
E. None of the choices

321. He theorized that physical planning could not improve urban living conditions unless it
was integrated with social and economic planning in a context on environmental concerns.

A. William Penn
B. Patrick Geddes
C. Peirre L’ Enfant
D. None of the Choices
E. Allan Carreon

322. The Architect Planner who designed Luneta, Tagaytay and Baguio.

A. Burnham
B. Concio
C. Faithful
D. None of the choices
E. Lynch

323. Rectangular streets are examples of the

A. Grid Iron Pattern

B. Axial
C. Radial
D. Ribbon-Type
E. None of the choices

324. What was the most important factor in designing settlement patterns during theSpanish
Period in the Philippines?

A. Plaza
B. Economy
C. Transportation
D. Religion
E. None of the choices
325. Aside from volume and growth, what is the other key point that a tourism analyst
should consider in analyzing tourist arrivals?

A. Qualitative changes in tourist arrivals

B. Socio-cultural changes
C. Political changes
D. None of the choices
E. Tourist Comfort

326. The tourist market can be classified into business, mass holiday, and _____markets.

A. Eco-tourism
B. Historical
C. Location specific natural and cultural
D. None of the choices
E. Global

327. Tourist may create the type of employment opportunities in the area. These are direct,
indirect and ____ jobs.

A. Multiplier
B. Induced
C. Locational
D. Service
E. None of the choices

328. The four in typical economic cycle are recession ______, recovery and boom.

A. Slump
B. Deflation
C. Inflation
D. Sustainable growth
E. None of the choices

329. In formulating its industrial program, the government should consider equity, technical
efficiency and ______

A. Allocative efficiency
B. Comparative advantages
C. Resource collection
D. Availability of skilled labor
E. None of the choices

330. Under RA 9003, LGUs are required to divert at least 25% of their solid wastes from
existing disposal facilities within a period of:

A. 10 years
B. 2 years
C. 5 years
D. 1 year
E. None of the choices
331. At the national level, RA 9003 mandates the creation of National Solid Waste
Management Commission under the office of:

A. President
B. DENR
C. DILG
D. NEDA
E. None of the choices

332. Republic Act 9003, otherwise known as the National Ecological Solid Waste
Management Program seeks to:

A. Promote public health and environment protection

B. Encourage greater private sector participation while retaining the primary
enforcement and responsibility with the LGUs
C. Mandates all LGUs to divert at least 25% of all solid wastes from disposal facilities
through reuse, recycling, composting and other resource recovery activities
D. All of the choices except none
E. None of the choices

333. The National Solid Waste Management Framework shall be formulated and shall
include the following:

A. Analysis and evaluate of the current state, trends, projections of solid waste
management on the national, provincial, ad municipal levels
B. Characteristics and conditions of collection, storage, processing, and disposal,
operating methods, techniques and practices are conducted, taking into account the
nature of the waste
C. All of the choices except none
D. None of the choices

334. It refers to the discipline associated with the control of generations, storage, collection,
transfer and transport, processing and disposal of solid wastes in a manner that is in accord
with the best principles of public health, economies, engineering, conservation, aesthetics,
and other environmental considerations and which is also responsive to public attitudes

A. Environmental Impact Assessment

B. Development Planning
C. Waste Segregation
D. Solid Waste Management
E. None of the choices

335. The Local Government Solid Management Plan shall include, but not limited to the
following components:

A. City or Municipal profile

B. Waste characterization
C. Collection and transfer
D. Source reduction
E. All of the choices
336. Article 2, Sec 21 of RA9003 provides for the mandatory segregation of solid wastes.
Specifically, the LGUs shall promulgate regulations, requiring the owner or person in charge
of premises containing:______________to provide for the residents a designated area and
containers in which to accumulate source separated recyclable materials to be collected by
the municipal or private center.

A. Five residential units

B. Six residential units
C. Six or more residential units
D. At least ten residential units
E. None of the choices

337. The following are the minimum criteria siting of sanitary land fills

A. The site selected must be consistent with the overall land use plan of the LGU
B. The site must be accessible from major roadways or thoroughfares
C. The site should have adequate quantity of earth cover material that is easily
handled and compacted
D. All of the Choices except none
E. None of the choices

338. Guidelines for identification of common solid waste management problems and are
appropriate for clustered solid waste management services shall be based on the following:

A. Available means of cording local government planning between and among LGUs
and for the integrated of such with the national plan
B. Size and location of areas which should be included
C. Volume of solid waste which should be generated
D. Possible life span of the disposal facilities
E. All of the choices

339. The LGU shall impose fees in amounts sufficient to pay the cost preparing, Adopting,
and implementing a solid waste management plan. Such fees shall be based on the
following minimum factors:

A. Type of solid waste

B. Amount/volume of solid waste
C. Distance of transfer station to the waste management facility
D. All of the choices except none
E. None of the choices

340. Areas with high biodiversity value which shall be closed to all human activity except for
scientific studies and/or ceremonial or religious use by indigenous communities

A. Restoration Zone
B. Habitat Management Zone
C. Bypass Zone
D. Strict Protection Zone
E. None of the choices
341. Each establishment protected area shall be administered by:

A. Office of the Mayor

B. Sanggunian Bayan
C. Planning Officer
D. Protected Area Management Board
E. None of the choices

342. This is an organizational process for determining systematically and objectively the
relevance, efficiency, effectiveness and impact of activities in the light of their objectives

A. Planning
B. Project Identification
C. Resource Generation
D. Evaluation
E. None of the choices

343. This is undertaken at full development, i.e. some years after project completion when
full project benefits and impact are expected to have been realized.

A. Terminal Evaluation
B. On-going Evaluation
C. Ex-post Evaluation
D. Pre-Evaluation

344. The Monitoring & Evaluation (M&E) strategy should carefully examine

A. The contents, i.e. the date and indicators used

B. The format
C. The frequency of existing reports
D. All of the choices
E. None of the choices

345. A project with negative Net Present Value (NPV) means;

A. Benefit cost ration is higher than 1

B. Present value of benefits is higher than present value of roots
C. IRR is higher than prevailing interest rate
D. Discount rate used is higher than IRR
E. None of the choices

346. When projecting market demand for a project, which of the following combination of
techniques is not advisable:

A. Survey/planning standards
B. Market testing/time series analysis
C. Experts’ opinion/census
D. Statistical demand analysis/time series analysis
E. None of the choices
347. This indicate the number of years it would take to recoup the investments in the project.

A. Payback Period
B. Retention Period
C. Return on Investment
D. Profit Margin
E. None of the choices

348. Money is more valuable now that tomorrow not because of

A. Uncertainty of risk
B. Income opportunities now
C. Better prospects in the future
D. Present consumption
E. None of the choices

349. Millennium Development Goals (2000-2015) except:

A. Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger

B. Promote gender equality and empower women
C. Reduce Child mortality
D. Minimize Government Corruption
E. Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria and other diseases

350. As per RA7279 of 1992, the acquisition of land at values based on existing use in
advance of actual need to promote planned development and socialized housing programs
is called

A. Land banking
B. Land assembly or consolidation
C. Land swapping
D. Land promotion

351. Under RA 7160 Sec. 107, who should prepare the multi-sectoral development plan at
the village level?

A. Sangguniang Barangay
B. Lupong Tagapamayapa ng Pook
C. Federation of Village Neighborhood and Homeowners Associations
D. Barangay Development Council

352. This principle encourages shared responsibility between government and the private
sector in infrastructure development and management through joint venture schemes such
as BOT, BTO, BLT, BOO, and the like.

A. GO-NGO Cooptation
B. Rapprochement
C. Detente
D. Public-Private Partnership
E. State & Non-State Collaboration
353. A contractual arrangement whereby a project proponent undertakes the financing of
construction of a given infrastructure or development facility and after its completion turns it
over to the government agency or local government unit concerned, which shall pay the
proponent on an agreed schedule its total investments expended on the project, plus a
reasonable rate of return thereon.

A. Build and transfer

B. Build, own and operate
C. Build, transfer and operate
D. Develop, operate and transfer

354. A part of BOT, it is a contractual arrangement whereby the supplier of equipment and
machinery for a given infrastructure facility, if the interest of the Government so requires,
operates the facility providing in the process technology transfer and training to Filipino
nationals.

A. Purchase and activate

B. Supply and operate
C. Canvass, Procure and Install
D. PBAC - prequalify, bid-out and award

355. As per RA 7718 BOT Law, a Build-Operate-Transfer undertaking at the local level with
value between PhP 200M- 300M has to be approved by what government body?

A. Local Development Council

B. Regional Development Council
C. Cabinet Committee or Cabinet Cluster
D. Investment Coordination Committee

356. As in the case of the ZTE-National Broadband Network deal, when a joint venture or
negotiated contract at the national level exceeds the value of PhP 300M, the approving
government body is

A. Cabinet of the President

B. Council of State
C. Investment Coordination Committee
D. NEDA Board

357. It is the process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing a

project or undertaking and then designing appropriate preventive, protective, mitigating, and
enhancement measures.

A. Environmental Risk Assessment

B. Environmental Impact Assessment
C. Environmental Accounting and Audit
D. Strategic Environmental Assessment

358. Which environment assessment methodology addresses long-term frameworks,

policies, and regulatory regimes more substantively than project impacts and activity
outcomes?
 A. Environmental Risk Assessment
B. Environmental Impact Assessment
C. Environmental Accounting and Audit
D. Strategic Environmental Assessment

359. The use of a set of scientific methods to define the probability and magnitude of
potentially adverse effects which can result from exposure to toxic and hazardous materials,
compounds, and substances is called

A. Chemical Containment and Control

B. Toxic Prevention Protocol
C. Environmental Risk Assessment
D. Strategic Environmental Assessment

360. What are the basic elements of an EIA study?

A. Market Aspect, Technical Aspect, Social Aspect, Financial Aspect, Economic

Aspect, and Institutional Aspect
B. Problem, Objectives, Review of Lit, Conceptual Framework, Methods, Analysis of
Data, Conclusions, Recommendations
C. Location & Area, Characteristics of Project Undertaking, Magnitude of Impact,
Spatial Extant. Duration, and Complexity
D. Baseline Data, Mid-stream Data, Operational Conditions, Control Interventions,
Post Implementation

361. Which of the following is most useful in an EIA study?

A. Performance standards
B. 'LOS' or 'accommodation' standards
C. Design standards
D. Convenience standards

362. RA 8749 Clean Air Act, Sec. 20, generally bans burning which results in poisonous and
and toxic fumes, but with a few exceptions. What agency oversees cremation and
incineration of pathological, biological, contagious wastes?

A. Bureau of Fire Protection

B. Department of Interior and Local Government
C. Philippine Hospitals Association
D. Department of Health

363. According to RA 9367 Renewable Energy Act of 2006, what are the 'additives' to
gasoline that are harmful to both people and nature?

A. Methyl tertiary butyl ether

B. Isooctane and heptane
C. Molybdenum oxide
D. tetraethyl
364. Which category of industries tend to be generally 'non-pollutive and non-hazardous'?

A. Transient and fleeting

B. Light
C. Cyber-spatial
D. Medium
E. Heavy

365. The following are generally non-pollutive and non-hazardous except one.

A. Manufacture of bread, pastries, cakes, donuts, biscuits, hopia, and noodles

B. Assembly and repair of personal computers, home electronic devices, appliances,
and appurtenances
C. Manufacture of paints, paint removers, solvents, lacquers, varnishes, shellac,
coating materials
D. Manufacture of small leather goods such as handbags, luggage, wallets, belts,
shoes, and sandals
E. Publishing and printing of school books, pamphlets, flyers, receipts, greeting
cards, social communications

366. All of these projects, except one, need not submit Project Description, or Environmental
Impact Statement but need only to comply with registration and documentary requirements
of city, town or barangay.

A. Municipal waterworks system

B. Sari-sari or neighborhood variety store
C. Backyard fowl-raising of less than 10 heads
D. Private-practice office in home garage with 5 employees

367. These projects need not submit an Environmental Impact Statement but one has to
submit a simple Project Description.

A. An urban grocery store of around 2,500 sq.m. total area

B. Cluster of stalls selling goto, lugaw, arrozcaldo, and pares in historic lntramuros,
Manila
C. Palay marketing warehouse of Samahang Nayon or rural farmers' cooperative
D. Home-based aquaculture using drums, metal tanks, and concrete ponds

368. What are the proper sections of a Project Description for projects seeking Certificate of
Non-Coverage?

A. Proponent, Goals, Key Result Areas, Project Mechanics, Resources Needed,

Loans to be contracted, Expected ROI
B. Rationale, Location & Area, Development Plan & Phases, Alternatives, Manpower
Requirements, Cost, Duration & Schedule
C. Description of Land, Capital, Machines, Materials, Manpower, Management. and
Marketing
D. Objectives, Scope, Methodology, Program of Work, Resource Requirements,
Participating Entitites
369. Except one, the following are considered environmentally-critical areas where all major
projects are subject to IEE

A. Tubattaha Reef
B. Chocolate Hills
C. Mount Banahaw
D. Tawi-tawi Seaweed Farms

370. Which of these projects should be subjected to Initial Environmental Examination (IEE)
by DEN R's regional field units?

A. 30 sq.m. DOST field instruments station on the slopes of Mount Apo national park
B. 5,000 sq.m. viewdeck for tourists and watchers of migratory birds in Candaba
swamps, Pampanga
C. Six-classroom extension of an existing public elementary school
D. Beach house measuring 400 sq.m near world-famous Pagudpud, Ilocos Norte

371. The following are all examples of environmentally-critical projects (ECPs) except one:

A. Laiban Dam, Kaliwa River, Tanay, Rizal

B. Ring Dike - Circumferential around Laguna de Bay
C. Petrol Refineries & Oil Depots in Batangas City
D. Perimeter work on centuries-old Plazu Miranda

372. Which of these projects should submit a full-blown Environmental Impact Statement?

A. Tree planting on urban parks by 6,000 students

B. High-end residential subdivision of more than 10 hectares with additional area for
golf course
C. Rain-fed farming of around 50 hectares
D. Hydroponic and aeroponic farming inside greenhouse tents and cages

373. Which project in a declared tribal land does not require a full-blown Environmental
Impact Assessment?

A. Mining
B. Dam for reservoir & hydroelectric power
C. Sericulture & vermi-composting
D. National highway

374. Which of the following conditions requires the most serious consideration in the EIA of
a major Sanitary Landfill for any city or urban LGU?

A. Around 20 kilometers from the city

B. Has an in-take capacity of 6 years only
C. About 100 meters from a river used for water supply
D. About 1000 meters from an active geologic fault line
375. Which would not be a priority for EIA investigation of a proposed limestone quarrying-
cement production complex?

A. Environmental Justice, impacts on sensitive communities, critical habitats,

heritage sites, and endangered species
B. Management of water quality, air quality, noise, traffic, common industrial wastes,
and toxic/hazardous wastes
C. Consumption of electricity, water, and other utilities
D. Company policies on 'hiring and firing' and management training

376. Which of the following is the best example of 'environmental remediation'?

A. A species of trout becomes extinct in a eutrophic lake.

B. The annual volume of sewage flowing into a stream is decreased by one half.
C. The height of a factory smokestack is increased.
D. PCB-consuming bacteria are sprayed on an area that has soil contaminated with
PCBs.
E. A parcel of forest land is declared a state park.

377. According .to RA 9003, which three 'environmentally sensitive resources' should a
Sanitary Landfill be most concerned about?

A. Bionetwork, germplasm, and wildlife habitats

B. Aquifer, groundwater reservoir, watershed area
C. Flora, fauna, and biota
D. Landscapes, seascapes, and viewscapes

378. A reduction in overall water quality due to an increase in the concentration of chemical
nutrients in a waterbody would be an example of

A. Osmosis
B. Hypoalimentation
C. Eutrophication
D. Fertilization
E. Denitrofication
379. If excessive amounts of hot water are discharged into a lake in a case of 'thermal
pollution', the immediate result will most likely be

A. An increase in the sewage content of the lake

B. A decrease in amount of dissolved oxygen in the lake
C. An increase in the amount of PCB pollution in the lake
D. A decrease in the amount of phospates in the lake

380. According to RA 9003, segregation of 'solid wastes' into bio-degradable and non-
biodegradable should be done

A. At the factory level

B. At source
C. At the end of production/consumption
D. At the option of family concerned
381. This is a garbage recycling center in a village, or for a cluster of villages, which also
serves as drop-off center for sorted wastes, composting center, and processing center to
consolidate segregated recyclables for remanufacturing.

A. Barangay Waste Recycling Center

B. Community Junk Shop
C. Waste Exchange Facility
D. Materials Recovery Facility

382. According to the 1997 Code of Ethics for Environmental Planners in the Philippines,
Sec.11, the "primary obligation of the Environmental Planner is to"

A. Contribute to the incessant development of the profession by sharing and

improving knowledge.
B. Strive for high standards of professional integrity, proficiency, and knowledge
C. Develop and enhance a healthy professional relationship with colleagues and
other professionals
D. Serve the country and in so doing safeguard public interest
E. Maintain a harmonious working relationship with client or partner in a noble
undertaking.

383. Which of the following is unethical practice of a registered environmental planner?

A. Falsely injures the practice of other environmental planners

B. Provides unjust compensation to colleagues and subordinates
C. Affixes signature on plans he did not prepare or supervise
D. Enters competitions where s/he has direct involvement in program formulation
E. All of the above

384. Which of the following ethical principles directly pertains to a planner's responsibility to
his/her private client?

A. Do not plagiarize.
B. Do not accept work that cannot be performed in a timely fashion
C. Do not coerce others to reach findings which are not supported by evidence
D. Do not disclose, without sufficient legal cause, privileged information clearly kept
restricted by concerned party
E. When in authority and facilitating public hearings, do not make secret deals with
participants.

385. Which act of the planner is not enumerated as punishable under PD 1308 of 1978,
"Regulating the Practice of Environmental Planning in the Philippines"?

A. Having his/her professional seal done by informal businesses along CM Recto

Ave., Manila
B. Engaging in the practice of environmental planning in the Philippines without
having been registered
C. Assuming, using or advertising any title or description tending to convey the
impression that he is an environmental planner without holding a valid certificate of
registration
D. Environmental planner without holding a valid certificate of registration
386. Under PD 1308, a consulting firm, partnership, or company of registered environmental
planners should have

A. At least 75% of entire membership and 75% of capitalization owned by registered

environmental planners
B. At least 50% of entire membership and 50% of capitalization owned by registered
environmental planners
C. The fifty-plus-one rule of membership and capitalization
D. 60%-40% combination of licensed planners and unlicensed planners.

387. You are the Local Planning and Development Coordinator of an LGU. Which of the
following does NOT constitute a conflict of interest?

A. Accepting a monetary gift from a local building firm

B. Working for a developer who has an action before the Local Board of Zoning
Appeals and Adjustment
C. Applying for business permit and health clearance to operate a private fruit stand
in Farmers' Market
D. Processing a rezoning application of your own property

388. You are the Local Planning and Development Coordinator of an LGU. Your wedded
spouse runs the recreational Country Club and applies for a permit to construct an Olympic
size swimming pool that would utilize water from a public spring. What is the most rational
action for you to do?

A. Hire an independent consultant for an objective analysis of the application

B. Ask for job transfer or reassignment
C. Just keep quiet about it.
D. File for divorce.

389. In a case of sexual harassment in a planning consulting company, the following ethical
principles apply except one.

A. A planner should not be penalized for sexual urges that have nothing to do with
his/her profession.
B. A planner must not commit a deliberately wrongful act, which reflects adversely on
the planner's professional fitness
C. A planner must respect the rights of others and must not discriminate.
D. A planner must have special concern for the long-range consequences of present
actions.

390. Which of the following is an actual conflict of interest?

A. Voting in a public election on an environmental issue that directly affects your

consulting services
B. Making official government recommendations on a site plan that you developed
when previously employed in the private sector
C. Accepting souvenir gifts from a housing developer at the vendors' and sponsors'
area of a planners' convention
 D. Reporting to PRC an act of dishonesty by a planner about his supposed work
experience in a job originally occupied by you.

391. A housing developer contacts you with an opportunity to use your expertise as a paid
consultant in a matter not pertaining to your employer's jurisdiction. You would work only on
your off-days and holidays. You should

A. Report the housing developer for unethical behavior

B. Make courtesy notification to your immediate supervisor
C. Decline the offer
D. Keep quiet about it

392. Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002, what is the most
preferred manner of government procurement of goods and services?

A. Selective bidding or limited source bidding

B. Negotiated procurement
C. Single source procurement or direct contracting
D. Competitive bidding

393. In cases where open public biddings have failed on two (2) consecutive occasions and
no suppliers have qualified to participate or win in the bidding, LGUs, through the local chief
executive with the approval of the Sanggunian may undertake procurement of supplies and
services without public bidding through:

A. Selective bidding or limited source bidding

B. Negotiated procurement
C. Single source procurement or direct contracting
D. Competitive bidding

394. In emergency cases such as typhoon or earthquake damage where the need for
supplies and services is exceptionally urgent or absolutely indispensable and in order to
prevent imminent danger to, or loss of, life or property, LGUs may make emergency
purchases or place repair orders, without open public bidding, provided

A. Public safety and vital public services, infrastructure and utilities, would be
endangered if contracts are rescinded, abandoned, terminated, or not taken over,
B. It is the best offer and most advantageous price among quotations submitted by at
least three pre-selected suppliers kept in the database of the government agency as
having reliable, positive track record
C. Amount is within the range of 50,000-250,000 or even higher according to ceilings
previously approved by the Government Procurement Policy Board
D. Goods and commodities of any amount are procured from another government
agency under LOI 755 and E0359
E. All of the choices

395. Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act of 2002, the Bids and Awards
Committee with five to seven members has to be headed by

A. Chief of procuring entity

B. Resident Ombudsman
 C. Resident auditor detailed by COA
D. At least third ranking permanent official

396. Under the rule cited in immediately-preceding question, which of the following should
not chair the Bids and Awards Committee?

A. Chief of Administrative Division

B. Audio-Visual Technician
C. Head of Engineering Section
D. Planning Officer V

397. The acceptable form of security furnished by a contractor of a public project as a

guarantee of good faith on his/her part to execute the contracted work in accordance with
the terms of the approved contract.

A. Insurance
B. Collateral
C. Performance Bond
D. Retention or Retained Earnings
E. Surety Bond
F. Completion Guarantee

398. What type of bond guarantees payment on all obligations arising from a contract?

A. Surety
B. Assurance
C. Performance
D. Warranty
E. Reparation

399. Under RA 9184 Government Procurement Reform Act, Sec 5i, government may hire
Consulting Services for the following functions, broadly matching the competencies of
Registered EnPs. For which function are Environmental Planners generally least prepared?

A. Advisory and review services

B. Pre-investment or feasibility studies, special studies
C. Design
D. Construction supervision
E. Management-related service� and technical services

400. A Highly-Urbanized City (HUG) bids out in transparent manner the revision of its CLUP-
ZO for an approved budget of contract (ABC) of 6 million. Four companies participated in
open bidding. In the BAC evaluation of technical proposals, Company A got 89 points,
Company B earned 64 points, Company C, 78 points, and Company D, 42 points as the last
company missed out on the required GIS-RS component. After technical examination, the
sealed financial proposals were opened and the bid amounts were revealed as follows:
Company A = 6.3 million; Company B = 6.2 million; Company C = 5.9 million; and Company
D = 4.5 million. Overall, which company offered the "most responsive bid" or "lowest
calculated complying bid" and should receive the Notice of Award of Contract from the head
of agency.
 A. Company A
B. Company B
C. Company C
D. Company D

401. These are areas of less than 500 people per km2 whose inhabitants are primarily
engaged in agriculture or in extraction of raw materials, with dwellings which are spaced
widely apart and often with little or no services or utilities

A. Tribe
B. Purok
C. Provincial
D. Rural
E. Hamlet

402. This refers to the unprecedented phenomenon occurring in megacities wherein the rate
of increase of local population overwhelms the natural 'carrying capacity' of cities as
ecosystems and outpaces the 'caring capacity' of city institutions in terms of resources and
personnel to address complex problems.

A. Metropolitanization
B. Conurbation
C. Hyper-Urbanization
D. False or Pseudo-Urbanization

403. A direct result of leapfrog' or 'checkerboard' development, this phenomenon irreversibly

converts rural space into urban space even before the populations meant to use it could be
present

A. Anticipatory Development
B. Premature Urbanization
C. Commercialization
D. Upscale Zoning

404. In causal order, which should come first in this series or chain of intertwined, multi-
dimensional problems?

A. Climate Change
B. Unmanaged Population Growth
C. Poverty
D. Land Use Changes
E. Pollution and Environmental Degradation
F. Carbon Footprint

405. According to David Satterthwaite, 95% of deaths and serious injuries from major
disasters in the period 1950-2007 occurred in low-income to middle-income countries, and
90% of these deaths happened to the poorest people. Which conclusion is supported by this
information?
 A. Poverty which means low income and low education, is the major cause of
disaster
B. Countries in typhoon belts and Ring-of-Fire region of the world tend to be poor
because of frequent disasters
C. Poverty and its physical dimensions, i.e. location of homes and livelihoods,
increases people's vulnerability to disaster
D. The poorer a country, the higher the illiteracy rate, hence the less informed and
less prepared people tend to be.

406. Settlements in high-risk zones; buildings on natural wetlands; rivers and waterways
used as sewers; recurrent shortages of food, water and power; segments of idle prime land
pockmark the city center; lack of distinctive city image and coherent urban form, all taken
together, are manifestations of -

A. Population Explosion
B. Disaster Management
C. Splattered Development
D. Unmanaged Urbanization

407. Dr Edward L Glaeser of Harvard University (1995, 2003) correlates 'urban development
with 'democratization' in the following observations. Which statement pertains the most to
so-called 'annihilation of space' in urban areas?

A. Information travels at high-speed in cities; transactions between producers and

consumers are faster; cities practically eliminate the transport cost of moving ideas,
goods, and people
B. Cities facilitate human contact and social connection; the demand for cities is
fueled by the demand for interaction
C. Because people in cities have high level of awareness, it is much harder for rulers
to be despotic or tyrannical
D. Ineffective governments find it much harder to ignore mass poverty & other social
problems in cities than in the countryside
E. Revolutions, labor uprisings, and riots are usually born and bred in cities

408. He formulated the Basic Laws of Ecology in layman's vernacular (National Geographic,
1970) as follows: "Nature knows best." "There is no such thing as a free lunch." "Everything
is connected to everything else." 'We can never do merely one thing." "Everything goes
somewhere." ''There's no 'away' to throw to."

A. John Holdren
B. Dr. Francis Stuart Chapin Jr.
C. Dr. Barry Commoner
D. Dr. Eugene Pleasants Odum

409. In contrast to the environmentalism which highlights 'community' and 'communitarian'

solutions, this type of environmentalism centers on respect for all life forms in an atomistic or
species-centered manner, such that humans would be on equal moral footing with sentient
animals like pets and non-sentient organisms like plants, insects, etc.

A. Eco-centrism
B. Bio-centrism
 C. Anthropo-centrism
D. Geo-centrism
410. They are inveterate optimists who believe that "necessity is the mother of invention"
and hence they assert that all environmental problems can be solved by ever-advancing
science and technology, and limitless human knowledge.
A. Cornucopians
B. Soroptimists
C. Utopians
D. Dystopians

411. Which principle of 'Sustainable Development' most directly supports the saying "Think
Global, Act Local."

A. Principle of Subsidiarity
B. Polluter Pays Principle
C. Common but Differentiated Responsibilities
D. Duty to Care and Not Cause Environmental Hann

412. According to theorists of 'Social Development' and 'Sustainable Development,' what is

the relationship between the concepts of 'Growth' and 'Development'?

A. These two realities are essentially similar, hence, interchangeable in use

B. Growth refers to the entire macro-economy while development refers to people
and society
C. Growth is a pre-condition to development but not enough in itself; it is necessary
but not sufficient condition
D. Growth is merely quantitative while development is thoroughly qualitative
E. Growth is indicated by income and infrastructure, while development is indicated
by tranquility, peace and order

413. The following are the central questions of planning and management. Which question
seeks to determine efficacy or success of a chosen option or course of action?

A. "where are we now?"

B. "where are we going?"
C. "where do we want to be?"
D. "how do we get there?"
E. ''what resources de we need to get there?"
F. "how do we know if it is working?"

414. In what sense does 'professional planning' differ from 'generic,' 'common-sensical,' or
'everyday' planning?

A. There is no difference because planning is 'ubiquitous' and can be done by

anyone, anytime, anywhere.
B. Professional planning has scope and goals that transcend one person ·or
group·while generic planning is essentially action-planning on familiar problems with
much latitude for personal flexibility.
C. Professional planning examines only the "natural, environment" while Business
Planning considers both "policy environment" and "market environment."
 D. Object of Professional Planning is "society and nature" while beneficiary of
everyday planning is 'oneself.'

415. Which school of thought maintains that planners should abandon their presumed
neutral stance and instead adopt the side of 'the poor and the disadvantaged' to demand for
corrective or remedial measures from the State and from the Market through 'pressure from
below' by way of conflict confrontation, creative mass actions and backroom negotiations?

A. Equity or Activist or Advocacy Planning

B. Communicative Planning
C. Liberal Pluralistic Planning
D. Disjointed lncrementalism

416. These thinkers started the 'school of transactive planning' which later advocated the
radical /critical notion that planning should smash myths and mobilize people to change
structures of domination and subjugation in society.

A. Francis Stuart Chapin, George Chadwick, Rexford Tugwell

B. Norman Krumholtz, John Friedman
C. Paul Plumberg, Carole Paterman, Paul Bernstein
D. Charfes Lindbloom, Robert Dahl, Mel Webber

417. According to David Harvey and Ray Pahl, planning is less a means for urban renewal,
but more of "an agent of change and development in its own right, linked to alternative
theories of the city that seek to address poverty and inequality. Planners should be regarded
as creators of urban space, not merely value-neutral arbiters of development proposals.

A. Critical/radical planning
B. Communicative planning
C. Liberal planning
D. Activist planning

418. Strategic Planning as described by Henry Mintzberg is called 'Innovative Planning' for
following reasons except one

A. because, as in strategies and tactics, a plan has to be calculating and even

Machiavellian
B. Because it seeks to introduce a novel goal, product, process, or pattern
C. Because it centers on organizational 'fitness' to create or shape change
D. Because it mobilizes the whole organization to move towards a new direction

419. According to Karl Wittfogel's 'Hydraulic Civilization' model of Urbanization (1957), what
would explain the emergence in Antiquity (40 00-200 BCE) of the earliest cities also known
as 'necropolis' and temple-towns?

A. Irrigation for farms revolutionized both economic production and social

organization as it resulted in food surplus. Which necessitated large storage
warehouses in preparation for war or drought
 B. Strongman rule was hastened by the need to distribute water for irrigation and to
ration food.
C. With abundant food, classes of non-farming workers emerged which eventually
led to "division of labor" and "occupational specialization.·
D. City-building centered on immortalizing kings and heroes in godlike worship
through grandiose monuments, tombs, funeraries, pyramids, mausoleums, shrines,
altars, temples, ziggurats, obelisks, etc.
E. All of the above

420. Dr Gideon Sjoberg (1933) claims that cultural exchange from overland trade and
commerce in pre-industrial ear fostered the formation of cities, as literate individuals,
craftsmen, and tool-makers came together to debate and test each other's ideas.
Competition among non-farming specialists gave birth to the 'scientific method' as well as to
technological advances m plant cultivation and animal breeding.

A. Acculturation and lnculturation

B. Socio-Cultural Theory of Urbanization
C. Diffusion of Technology Information
D. The Scientific Revolution

421. What theory of urbanization by RL Carneiro (1970) best explains 'Fortress Cities' during
the Dark Ages 476-800AD?

A. Urbanization was hastened by cultural exchange resu!ting from overland trade

caravans
B. People settled together around strategic places which could benefit from maritime
trade.
C. Strongman rule was necessitated in order io distribute water foi iirigation
D. After the collapse of army-based imperial government, people had to congregate
in cities for better protection from plunderers and marauders.

422. 2,500 'Cathedral Towns' during the Middle Ages 800-1440 AD showcased the
ascendancy of the Church in all affairs whether religious or secular, and these medieval
cities displayed the following physical characteristics except one:

A. Narrow, twisty, irregular street radiating from the main center (radiocentric)
B. Congestion was common; infrastructure for garbage and sewage was absent;
sanitation was poor;
C. Vulnerable to epidemics such as bubonic plague. cholera, typhoid fever, scarlet
fever, etc.
D. Loss of privacy due to overcrowding resulted in loose sexual morals of the
population

423. Outside the walls of Medieval towns and cities, land was used collectively and defined
as follows: 'common of pasture,' 'common of turbary,' 'common of piscary,' 'common of
estovers,' and 'common of soil.' Which one refers to everyone's right to take fish, game, or
fowl from communal land?

A. Common of pasture
B. Common of piscary
C. Common of soil
 D. Common of turbary

424. Except for one city below, 'Mercantile Cities' during the Renaissance period served as
trading ports for overseas commerce and played key role in the accumulation of gold and
silver by European monarchies and principalities.

A. Venice, Italy
B. Amsterdam, The Netherlands
C. Dortmund, Germany
D. Lisbon, Portugal

425. According to Max Weber in The Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism (1904),
what was the key factor in transition for mercantile economies controlled by European
monarchies to profit-driven individual enterprise or laissez faire?

A. endemic corruption in highly structured Catholic society made people less

imaginative and less entrepreneurial
B. Early Protestants generally emphasized hardwork, simplicity, thrift, discipline,
savings, & re-investment of savings
C. Royal treasuries went bankrupt due to Catholics' culture of excess, lavish
celebrations, overindulgence, etc.
D. Protestants work without the baggage of Seven Capital Sins such as greed,
avarice, envy, lust, gluttony, etc.

426. The first grid-iron orthogonal street pattern in continental America was designed in
1682 by

A. William Penn for Philadelphia, Pennsylvania

B. Pierre Charles L'Enfant for Washington DC
C. Peter Minuit for Manhattan Island, New York
D. John Winthrop for Trimountaine, Boston Common

427. Before the rise of 'scientific socialism' based on concept of class-struggle, 'normative or
Utopian socialism' based on Christian values was showcased by this philanthropist in New
Lanark, Scotland (1799) where excellent working conditions, decent housing, and cheap
services for the working class increased productivity and profit. Its founder was
lateracknowledged as the father of the cooperative movement.

A. Robert Owen
B. John Cadbury
C. James Buckingham
D. Sir Christopher Wren

428. The milestone that marked the start of the Industrial Age in 1769 and changed the
primary mode of economic production was

A. Discovery of crude oil, coal, and gas fuels

B. Invention of steam engine as source of power
C. Invention of printing press to propagate scientific knowledge
D. Invention of trains, trams, and rail for faster movement of goods
429. At the start of 19th century industrialization in England before the emergence of full-
fledged professional planners, who were the earliest urban planning practitioners who
addressed city-wide problems including 'germ versus filth' dilemma?

A. Microbiologists, biochemists, pharmacists

B. Shelter specialists, housing developers, contractors
C. Industrial engineers, machine engineers, civil engineers
D. Doctors, epidemiologists, sanitarians, public health personnel

430. In 1907, what university offered the first academic degree course in city planning under
its landscape architecture department, which program later spun of to become the first ever
school of planning in 1929.

A. Oxford University
B. Harvard University
C. Cambridge University
D. University of Heidelberg

431. Among the City Beautiful Movement planners, he was the earliest to articulate the
principles of urban design in "City Planning According to Artistic Principles" (1889)

A. Camilo Sitte
B. Lldefons Cerda
C. Lucio Costa
D. Oscar Niemeyer
E. William Burtey Griffin

432. A town is a tool for free man to overcome chaos and lack of order. A city is the grip of
man upon nature.Geometry is the means whereby we perceive the external world and
express the world within us.Geometry is the foundation.Machinery is the result of
geometry.The age in which we live is therefore essentially a geometric one. Town Planning
demands uniformity in detail and a sense of movement in general layout ."

A. Gordon Cullen
B. Le Corbusier
C. Aldo Rossi
D. Thomas Sharp
E. Roy Worskett

433. Which of the following valid critiques of Le Corbusier's (CharlesEdouard Jeanneret)

modernist city design pertains to the so-called 'spatial paradox'?

A. Architectural determinism or the belief that physical design and visual aesthetics
are sufficient to address the basic problems of population.
B. Devoid of thorough studies on demographic, social, economic, and transport
aspects
C. Goal to decongest the city by increasing congestion at its core.
D. Rejection of historic precedents as inspiration for overall design
 E. Lack of humanscale as uniform tall structures tend to be disorienting while
extremely-vast open spaces look inhospitable to humans

434. Which of the following features does not describe the New Town concept of Clarence
Stein as showcased at Radbum, New Jersey; Columbia, Maryland; Greenbelt, Maryland;
Greenhills, Ohio; Greendale, Wisconsin; and Greenbrook NJ?

A. Huge manufacturing firm at the center

B. separation between pedestrian traffic and motor traffic
C. green spaces which are interconnected
D. Series of superblocks
E. Prior land assembly
F. Neighborhood clusters

435. The planner who said that survey is a requisite for planning in the famous framework
Survey-Analysis Plan was

A. Demogriphus
B. Herodotus
C. Geddes
D. Pericles

436. 'Social Engineering' refers to

A. Designing and building social facilities and infrastructure for the public
B. Manipulating age, sex, ethnicity, and other demographic factors of social groups
C. Implementing service-oriented social programs to marginalized social sectors
D. Changing values, mindsets, habits, and behaviors of people towards desired
societal goals

437. "Sierra Club" is to John Muir, "Audubon Society" to John James Audubon, "Living
Earth" to Eugene Ple.asants Odum, "Spaceship Earth" to Kenneth Boulding, and "Gaia-
Mother Earth" is to.

A. James Lovelock
B. Henry David Thoreau
C. Delfin Ganapin
D. Ame Naess

438. Dr William Rees coined this concept in 1992 to approximate the amount of productive
space, measured in terms of global hectare (gha) per capita, needed to sustain a population
which consumes food, water, energy, building materials -etc end requires the sink functions
of Nature for human waste and pollution.

A. Land-population ratio
B. Consumer price index
C. index of environmental impact
D. Ecological footprint
439. Considered as the father of wildlife ecology, he advocated in 1948 a "personal land
ethic" for humans to become 'stewards of the land' and member-citizens of land-community
rather than its conquerors or dominators.

A. Karol Wojtyla or 'John Paul II'

B. Ralph Waldo Emerson
C. Henry Wright
D. Aldo Leopold

440. The major objective of 'New Urbanism' movement identified with Jane Jacobs, Leon
Krier, Andres Duany, Elizabeth Plater-Zyberk, et al. is to

A. Rebuild the architectural fayade of old cities using post-modern methods and
technologies
B. Revitalize urban communities by creating centers' and by reviving traditional civic
values
C. Design gated subdivisions as urban collage and multi-ethnic tapestry
D. Integrate development of both urban and rural areas in order to save as much
farmland as possible

441. The critique of 'New Urbanism' against so-called 'Gentrification' or upscaling of inner-
city neighborhoods was

A. The latter is more interested in new businesses than in community rebuilding;

hence soul-less and centerness
B. The latter leads to the exclusion of low-income groups
C. the latter does not create mixed communities of varied socio-economic &
demographic groups
D. All of the choices

442. The following planners were most concerned about "human scale and the social usage
of urban space"

A. David Harvey, Manuel Castells, Ray Pahl

B. Jane Jacobs, Kevin Lynch, William H. Whyte
C. Robert Moses, William Levitt, Richard King Mellon
D. T J Kent, Edwin c. Banfield, Albert Z. Guttenberg

443. During the period 1565-1896, the urban control points designated by the Spanish
colonial government were the

A. alcaldias y pueblos
B. barrios y sitios
C. Haciendas y villas
D. cabeceras y poblaciones

444. During the Spanish colonial period, there were four major forms of land tenure or land
holding. Which one refers to the right of a 'servant' of Spanish Crown to collect tribute from
residents of a territory without any ownership claim over that territory?
 A. 'friar lands'
B. 'encomiendas'
C. 'haciendas'
D. 'townships'

445. Public Lands Act of 1903 granted homesteads to 14 million Filipino families covering
5.3 million hectares, principally in

A. Negros Island
B. Palawan
C. Mindanao
D. Samar Island

446. The Torrens Title System which entrenched the concept of absolute private ownership
of land in the Philippines is a 7 legacy from what colonial period of Philippine history?

A. Spanish
B. American
C. Japanese
D. British

447. According to Dr. Ernesto Pernia (1983), the major blunder in Philippine economic policy
and industrialization strategy occurred in the latter period of American colonial rule when

A. Free trade agreements with USA narrowed Philippine agricultural output to cash
crops for export such as sugar, tobacco, hemp, coconut, palm, rice, and timber.
B. Progress of Philippine agricultural regions was directly tied to fluctuations of
American market during Great Depression,instead of Filipino production being
responsive to domestic demand by inter1inking Philippine regions with one another
C. Post-war' import substitution' policy beginning in 1947 focused on capital-intensive
urban consumer goods rather than on resource-based agro-industlialization in
provincial centers utilizing agricultural surplus
D. All of the choices

448. Republic Act 2264 empowered LGUs to form local planning boards to craft their
development plans under the close guidance of national government agencies.

A. Local Governance and Planning Act of 1945

B. Local Autonomy Act of 1949
C. Decentralization and Devolution Act
D. Transparency and Accountability Standards Act

449. In 1954, Reorganization Plan 53-A of the Government Survey and Reorganization
Commission delineated regions

A. Nine -representing 9 rays of the sun in Philippine flag or 9 historic territories which
fought Spain
B. Eight -representing major ethno-linguistic groups
C. Four -representing major island-groupings plus Muslim territories
D. Six -representing possible component units of a federal system
450. Presidential Decree 824 on February 27, 1975 created the Metro Manila Commission
as the first ever structure of metropolitan governance in the Philippines following the
organizational model called

A. Annexation and Amalgamation (one-tier government)

B. Jurisdictional Fragmentation (Council of Local Governments)
C. Voluntary clustering and lnter-LGU cooperation
D. Functional Consolidation (two-tier metropolitan government)
 ANSWER KEY 450 EnP PRACTICE QUIZ

1. D 36. C 71. C 106. B

2. A 37. C 72. D 107. C
3. C 38. D 73. D 108. A
4. A 39. B 74. C 109. B
5. A 40. A 75. C 110. A
6. B 41. A 76. D 111. A
7. D 42. B 77. B 112. A
8. A 43. B 78. B 113. C
9. B 44. C 79. C 114. B
10. C 45. D 80. B 115. D
11. C 46. D 81. A 116. D
12. D 47. B 82. A 117. E
13. D 48. D 83. C 118. D
14. C 49. F 84. D 119. D
15. B 50. A 85. C 120. D
16. D 51. B 86. C 121. B
17. D 52. A 87. D 122. D
18. C 53. C 88. C 123. D
19. B 54. B 89. A 124. C
20. D 55. B 90. B 125. D
21. D 56. A 91. D 126. D
22. A 57. D 92. C 127. D
23. D 58. D 93. D 128. B
24. A 59. A 94. D 129. A
25. D 60. C 95. B 130. A
26. A 61. C 96. D 131. B
27. B 62. B 97. B 132. D
28. D 63. D 98. C 133. A
29. D 64. D 99. D 134. B
30. C 65. C 100. A 135. D
31. B 66. C 101. A 136. C
32. D 67. C 102. C 137. C
33. B 68. C 103. D 138. C
34. A 69. C 104. A 139. B
35. B 70. A 105. A 140. A
141. A 178. D 215. B 252. E
142. A 179. D 216. B 253. B
143. B 180. D 217. B 254. C
144. D 181. B 218. C 255. C
145. B 182. A 219. D 256. C
146. D 183. C 220. D 257. A
147. C 184. C 221. C 258. E
148. D 185. B 222. C 259. F
149. D 186. E 223. D 260. F
150. B 187. C 224. F 261. E
151. D 188. B 225. A 262. A
152. A 189. A 226. A 263. C
153. E 190. D 227. C 264. A
154. D 191. D 228. A 265. D
155. B 192. D 229. B 266. B
156. A 193. C 230. C 267. B
157. C 194. C 231. C 268. C
158. C 195. A 232. C 269. C
159. D 196. B 233. B 270. B
160. C 197. D 234. A 271. C
161. D 198. A 235. C 272. A
162. D 199. A 236. C 273. D
163. D 200. A 237. C 274. C
164. D 201. B 238. A 275. A
165. E 202. D 239. C 276. A
166. D 203. D 240. C 277. C
167. A 204. A 241. A 278. B
168. D 205. D 242. C 279. C
169. C 206. B 243. B 280. A
170. A 207. C 244. B 281. B
171. C 208. C 245. D 282. B
172. B 209. C 246. D 283. A
173. D 210. A 247. D 284. C
174. A 211. B 248. D 285. D
175. D 212. B 249. C 286. A
176. B 213. C 250. A 287. B
177. B 214. D 251. D 288. B
289. D 326. C 363. A 400. C
290. A 327. B 364. B 401. D
291. D 328. A 365. C 402. C
292. A 329. A 366. A 403. B
293. A 330. C 367. B 404. B
294. D 331. A 368. B 405. C
295. A 332. D 369. D 406. D
296. A 333. C 370. B 407. A
297. A 334. D 371. D 408. C
298. D 335. E 372. B 409. B
299. A 336. C 373. C 410. A
300. C 337. D 374. C 411. A
301. A 338. E 375. D 412. C
302. D 339. D 376. D 413. F
303. D 340. D 377. B 414. B
304. C 341. D 378. C 415. A
305. C 342. D 379. B 416. B
306. C 343. C 380. B 417. A
307. A 344. D 381. D 418. A
308. A 345. D 382. D 419. E
309. B 346. C 383. E 420. B
310. B 347. A 384. D 421. D
311. C 348. D 385. A 422. D
312. C 349. D 386. A 423. B
313. B 350. A 387. C 424. C
314. C 351. D 388. A 425. B
315. A 352. D 389. A 426. A
316. E 353. A 390. B 427. A
317. A 354. B 391. B 428. B
318. B 355. D 392. D 429. D
319. A 356. D 393. B 430. B
320. B 357. B 394. E 431. A
321. B 358. D 395. D 432. B
322. 359. C 396. B 433. C
323. A 360. C 397. C 434. A
324. D 361. A 398. A 435. C
325. A 362. D 399. D 436. D
437. A
438. D
439. D
440. B
441. D
442. B
443. D
444. B
445. C
446. B
447. D
448. B
449. B
450. A