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SIMPLE COMPLETION ITEMS

DIRECTIONS: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions.
Write the appropriate letter in the space provided on the Answer Sheet.

11. The main long-term hazard of a fractured patella is

A. osteoarthritis of the knee joint


B. recurrent dislocation of the patella
C. chondromalacia patellae
D. osteochondritis dessicans
E. none of the above

12. Which of the following is the most common event preceding the formation of a false aneurysm?

A. myocardial infarction
B. injury to the arterial wall
C. treatment of a dissecting aneurysm with a beta-blocker
D. thrombosis of a saccular aneurysm
E. erosion of a saccular aneurysm by tumour

13. Whilst on weekend duty you review a child who is having amoxycillin for otitis media. Your partner who
prescribed this has specifically told the child's mother that he can take Amoxil with food.

What property(ies) of amoxycillin enables your partner to make this statement?

A. broad spectrum
B. acid stability-
C. food does not affect absorption
D. different side chain
E. all of the above

14. In which of the following conditions of the colon is malignant change most like to occur?

A. adenomatous polyp
B. melanosis coli
C. diverticulitis
D. familial intestinal polyposis
E. ulcerative colitis

15. Intestinal sugar malabsorption may be suspected if the child

A. vomiting each time a particular sugar is eaten


B. stool pH 6
C. salmonella in the faeces
D. glycosuria and excess of sugar in the faeces
E. diarrhoea

16. Which of the following is the most desirable drug to use long term management of a patient with Addison's disease?

A cortisone
B. hydrocortisone
C. prednisolone
D. betamethasone
E. dexamethasone

17. After appendicectomy, which of the following local complications is commonest?


A. peri-caecal abscess
B. psoas abscess
C. sub-phrenic abscess
D. wound abscess
E. pelvic abscess

18. You recently thought on clinical grounds that Pat Frey might have been thyrotoxic. Her T4 was elevated, but
subsequent evaluation of thyroid function showed her to be euthyroid. Reason for the elevation of the T4 assay
lay in Pat's current therapeutic regime.

Which of the following agents was Pat taking?

A. Lasix (frusemide)
B. prednisolone
C. a combined (oestrogen/progestogen) contraceptive
D. potassium iodide supplements
E. insulin

19. A four year old child is brought to you by the kindergarten teacher. She states that the child was not well that
morning and has vomited once and has complained of central abdominal pain She has found the child's
temperature to be 39 degrees C. clinical examination is most likely to reveal

A. numerous pus cells on microscopy of urine


B. inflamed ear drums
C. neck stiffness
D. inflamed tonsils
E. tenderness localised to the R.I.F.

20 The most satisfactory results in the treatment of infertility are obtained when the cause is

A. azo-spermia
B. Stein-Leventhal syndrome
C. tubal occlusion
D. pelvic tuberculosis
E. Turner's syndrome

21. The commonest cause of ano-rectal bleeding in children is

A. colitis
B. rectal polyp
C. intussusception
D. fissure-in-ano
E. peptic ulcer

22. Elevation of the ST segment in an electrocardiogram may be associated with all of the following EXCEPT

A. coronary artery occlusion


B acute rheumatic fever
C. ventricular aneurysm
D. acute pericarditis
E. digitalis toxicity

23. Numerous spider haemangiomata often are found in association with another physical signs. This is

A. blue spots on the buccal mucosa


B. redness of the thenar and hypothenar eminences
C dilated neck veins
D 'spoon' nails
E.. acrocyanosis

24. A 55 year old woman develops frequency and dysuria. Microscopic examination of her centrifuged urine shows
100 leucocytes per high power field and numerous organisms. Therapy with su1phamethizole (Urolucosil) is
begun in a dose of 1g six hourly. 48 hours later, the patient's symptoms are relieved, but the result of the initial
urine culture is to hand revealing a heavy growth of E. coli sensitive to all. antibiotics except the sulphonamides.
The next step should therefore be

A. to change the antibiotic


B. to alkalinise the urine
C to promote a high urine volume
D. to repeat the microscopic examination and culture of the urine
E . to increase the dose of the sulphonamide

25. Hyperparathyroidism results in

A. high serum calcium, low serum phosphorous, normal urinary calcium


B. high serum calcium, high serum phosphorous. high urinary calcium
C. high serum calcium. low serum phosphorous. high urinary calcium
D. low serum calcium. high serum phosphorous. high urinary calcium
E. low serum calcium. low serum phosphorous, low urinary calcium

26. A kerato--acanthoma is most likely to be confused with

A. sebaceous cyst
B. basal cell carcinoma
C. carbuncle
D. squamous cell carcinoma
E. granuloma fissuratum

27. A 10 month old infant is admitted with a wheeze and rapid respiratory rate following 2 days of
rhinorrhoea and irritable cough. A chest X-ray shows hyper-inflated lungs but is otherwise normal.

Which of the following is likely to be true?

A. bronchoscopy would be the treatment of choice


B. haemophilus influenzae is often cultured from the sputum
C. chloramphenicol is the drug of choice if deterioration occurs
D. the patient has probably not been immunised with triple antigen
E. recurrence of a similar illness is suggestive of an asthmatic diathesis

28. Among the following drugs stimulation of cardiac contraction. is achieved with least vasoconstrictor effect by

A. adrenaline
B. isoprenaline
C. pitressin
D. ephedrine
E. noradrenaline

29. Mr. Chris Roberts, aged 20, presented on a Tuesday morning complaining of 10 days cough He was producing a
small amount of yellowish sputum. He had mild exertional dyspnoea and was a ‘bit wheezy’ the night before. He
smoked 10--15 cigarettes per day. He had no past history of respiratory illness. Examination: Afebrile, Pulse 80,
BP 125/80, Cardiovascular system normal. Chest resonant with scattered wheeze.

What is the likely cause of Mr. Roberts' symptoms?

A . ‘flu’
B bronchitis
C asthma
D. mycoplasma
E. sinusitis

30. The commonest early symptom of chronic renal failure is

A. haematuria
B. dysuria
C. backache
D. nocturia
E. oliguria

31. In haemolytic jaundice, bilirubin is absent from the urine because

A. the serum bilirubin level does not rise sufficiently


B. the serum bilirubin is conjugated and not water soluble
C. the serum bilirubin is unconjugated and not water soluble the
D. serum bilirubin is all protein bound and thus not filterable
E. there is an associated increase in urobilinogen excretion

32. All of the following are true EXCEPT

A. limb survival is generally greater when arteries of the upper extremity are acutely occluded than when
arteries of the lower extremity are so involved
B. delay in treatment of acute arterial occlusion adversely affects limb survival
C. a limb acutely deprived of arterial circulation should be positioned below the level of the heart
D. the main reason that ischaemic skin is vulnerable to injury is because of loss of pain perception
E. the larger the artery that is acutely occluded. the greater the mortality and the more often the loss of limb

33. Hirsutism in the adult female is most commonly due to

A. administration-of androgens
B. constitutional factors
C. Stein-Leventhal syndrome
D. virilizing tumours of the ovary or adrenal gland
E. none of the above

34. Which of the following drugs has been shown to be of value in the treatment of herpes zoster?

A. protamide
B. vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin)
C. hydrocortisone
D. pituitary extract
E. none of the above

35. The chancre of syphilis usually develops within

A. 24 hours
B. 2-4 days
C. 5-8 days
D. 10-60 da
E. 1 year

36. A seven year old boy passes a large bloody stool. The most likely cause is

A. Meckel’s diverticulum
B. duodenal ulcer
C. polyps of the colon
D. diverticulitis of the colon
E. intussusception

37. The most common cause of vaginal lacerations in a primigravida

A. precipitate delivery
B. persistent occipito-posterior position
C. forceps delivery
D. failure to cut an episiotomy
E. large baby

38. Breast feeding should be terminated in the presence of

A. inverted nipples
B. cracked nipples
C. engorged breast
D. infection in a breast
E. none of the above

39. The greatest defect in artificial limbs for upper limb amputees is

A. cosmetic
B. lack of sensory feed--back
C. lack of motor effectiveness
D. weight of the prosthesis
E. none of the above

40. The most sensitive prognostic indicator in Rh disease of pregnancy is

A. the antibody titre


B. the past history
C. an amniocentesis
D. the presence of maternal toxemia
E. the presence of foetal movements

41. A 30 year old housewife complains of' intermittent muscular weakness for 6 months, and has experienced double
vision after prolonged reading. There was a vague history also of difficulty in swallow. On physical examination
the woman has an expressionless facies, unequal palpebral fissures and facial weakness. Further neurological
examination is negative except for generalised diminution in deep tendon reflexes. Routine laboratory
investigations are all normal.

The most likely diagnosis is

A. thyrotoxic myopathy .
B. acute ascending polyneuritis
C. multiple sclerosis
D. myasthenia gravis
E, muscular dystrophy

42. Neonatal hypoglycaemia may be treated

A. oral or tube fed sweetened condensed milk 1:8


B. I.V.-glucose
C. glucocorticoid injection
D. glucagon injection
E. all of the ahove

42. A 2 year old child presents with a 3 week history of cough and wheeze. The most important diagnosis to exclude
is

A. whooping cough
B. inhaled foreign body
C. mycoplasma pneumoniae infection
D. cystic fibrosis
E. bronchial asthma

44. In differentiating chronic congestive heart failure from cirrhosis of the liver, which of the following is the most
useful single physical sign?

A. blood pressure
B. ascites
C. jaundice
D. raised jugular venous pressure
E. oedema of the ankles

45. Which of the following combinations is characteristic of mitral stenosis

A. loud second heart sound, opening snap and mid-diastolic murmur at the apex
B. loud first heart sound, opening snap and pansystolic murmur at the apex
C. loud first heart sound. opening snap and mid-diastolic murmur at the apex
D. loud second heart sound. opening snap and pansystolic murmur at the apex
E. none of the above

.
46. A 40 year old labourer who smokes two packets of cigarettes daily has a rapidly history of bilateral calf and
thigh pain that forces him to stop walking after approximately, 100 metres. He has a history strongly suggestive
of angina pectoris. Even before examining this patient you can surmise that he probably has one of the following

A. arteriosclerosis, obliterans with lesions in both superficial femoral arteries


B. a hypercoagulable state with lesions in both popliteal arteries or higher
C. a saddle embolus of cardiac origin at onset?
D. occlusive arterial disease involving each common femoral artery or involvement at a higher level
E. diabetes mellitus, hyperlipoproteinemia or hypertension

47. Partial occlusion of either the coeliac axis or the superior mesenteric artery may lead to

A. Ludwig's angina
B. xangina pectoris
C. Vincent Is angina
D. status anginosus
E. abdominal angina

48. Surviving premature infants may be expected to lag behind other children of the same age, in physical
accomplishments during the first

A 2 years of life
B. 4 years of life
C. 8 years of life
D. 6 months of life
E. 12 months of life

49. A 36 year old female presents with chronic pe1vic pain menorrhagia deep dyspareunia and secondary infertility.
Examination reveals bilateral tender adnexial swelling. A hysterosalpingogram shows both fallopian tubes to be
patent.

The most likely diagnosis is

A. chronic salpingo-oophoritis
B. uterine fibromyomata
C. pelvic tuberculosis
D. endometriosis
E. carcinoma of the ovary

50. Silent myocardial infarction can be expected to occur most commonly in patients with

A. polycythemia vera
B. hypertension
C. diabetes mellitus
D. hypercholesterolaemia
E. alcohol dependence

51. Internal version and breech extraction is least dangerous when performed for

A. placenta praevia
B. delivery of the second twin
C. prolapse of the cord
D. transverse lie with cervix fully dilated
E. brow presentation with cervix fully dilated

52. Which is the best indication of successful treatment of the nephrotic syndrome?
A. loss of oedema
B. a normal blood urea
C. absence of urinary protein .
D. massive diuresis
E. normal blood pressure

53. A 65 year old man presents with the complaint that he experiences attacks of numbness of the left side of his
body accompanied by poor vision of his right eye. The most likely diagnosis is

A. meningioma
B. parietal lobe neoplasm
C. posterior cerebral artery insufficiency
D. arteriovenous malformation
E internal carotid artery insufficiency

54. The greatest single cause of poor school performance is

A. mental retardation
B. emotional deprivation
C. paediatric psychiatric disorders
D. specific learning difficulties
E. none of the above

55. A 35 year old homosexually active man presents with a two week history of intermittent watery diarrhoea.
Physical examination including sigmoidoscopy is normal. Your next step in management should be

A. prescribe an empirical course of cotrimoxazole


B. screening for HIV antibodies
C. take a swab from around the anal crypts
D. arrange culture for cytomegalovirus
E. inject 1.5 mega units of procaine penicillin

56. In X-ray of the feet, the os trigonum is most common mistaken for a fracture of

A. cuboid
B. tibia
C. fifth metatarsal
D. ta1us
E. calcaneum

57. The blood urea nitrogen is 1.5 mmol/L; blood sugar level normal; C02 combining power 39 mmol/L (N 24-29);
serum sodium normal; serum potassium 2.4 mmol/L.

The most likely cause of these disturbances in your patient is

A. acute nephritis
B vomiting
C. dehydration
D. diabetes mellitus
E. chronic renal failure

58. Usually the first sign of salicylate poisoning in children is

A. delerium
B. coma
C. hyperventilation.
D. hyperpyrexia
E. convulsions

59. A patient presents with acute gout but has a normal serum uric acid. Which of the following drugs can be
responsible for a low reading?

A. colchicine
B. prednisolone
C. indomethacin
D. naproxyn
E. salicylates

60. Following delivery which was induced at 38 weeks because of materna hydramnios, an infant is noted to have
excessive salivation. When fed at 6 hours the infant went blue. What is the most probably diagnosis?

A. meningitis
B. hypoglycaemia
C. duodenal atresia
D. tracheo-oesophageal fistula
E. pneumonia

61. When the doctor is convinced his patient is evasive to the point of lying to him the best course is to

A. ignore the lie


B. make no response until the patient spontaneously acknowledges the lie
C. confront the patient with his behaviour
D. terminate the interview
E. interpret the patient's unconscious hostility

62. The diagnosis of acute gonorrhoea in the male is made by

A. gonococcal complement fixation test


B. VDRL reaction
C. dark. ground illumination of urethral pus
D. gram stain and culture of urethral- s
E. prostatic massage

63. Patent ductus arteriosus is associated with all the following statements EXCEPT

A. it occurs frequently as an isolated phenomenon


B. it is more common in males
C. it is associated with maternal rubella in pregnancy
D there is a wide pulse pressure.
F. there are usually nosymptoms

64. Which of the following is the sequence of events usually seen in acute small bowel obstruction?

A. vomiting, pain. distension


B. vomiting. distension, pain
C. pain. distension. vomiting
D pain. vomiting. distension
E. distension. pain. vomiting

65. A "portion" in the diabetic diet represents

A. 1g of carbohydrate
B. 5g of carbohydrate
C. 10g of carbohydrate
D. 15g of carbohydrate
E. 20g of carbohydrate

66. A 2 year old child has had a cold for a few days and has been crying on and off for the past three hours.
Examination reveals a rectal temperature of 39 degrees C. a "running nose" & bilateral bulging and reddened
tympanic membranes. You prescribe analgesics and ephedrine nasal drops. In addition, you should:

A. advise the parents that the most likely cause is a virus and that the inflammation will shortly resolve
B. reassure the parents and review the child's progress in 24 hours
C. prescribe antihistamines
D. prescribe amoxycillin syrup and review within 3
E. prescribe amoxycillin and arrange for a myringotomy

67. The initial management of a spontaneous pneumothorax in a patient without dyspnoea at rest and a uniform 2
cm separation of the lung from the chest wall on a radiograph should consist of

A observation-
B. single needle aspiration
C. positive pressure respiration
D. underwater drainage
E. underwater drainage with suction

68. A 3 year old boy presents because he can say a few words and tends to communicate by gesticulation. Physical
examination including auroscopic examination is normal. The most likely reason for his presentation is

A. mental deficiency
B. dyslexia
C. behavioural disorder
D. deafness
E. variation of normality

69. Which of the following is the most sensitive test of renal function?

A. .I.V.P.
B. blood urea
C. serum creatinine
D. blood urea nitrogen
E urinary specific gravity

70. In a twin pregnancy after the first twin is delivered and the cord tied. The next step in management is to

A. rupture the membranes


B. wait half an hour and review
C. commence an oxytocin drip
D. perform a pelvic examination
E. palpate the abdomen

71. In acute appendicitis which of the following is NOT true

A. the physical findings depend upon the position of the caecum and the relation of the appendix to the caecum.
B. the illopsoas test and obturator test are never positive in the pelvic variety
C. the abdominal findings may be perfectly normal in pelvic appendicitis
D. localised tenderness is a very reliable physical sign
E. anorexia and vomiting are common symptoms

72. Which of the following family situations would lead to the highest recurrence risk for future children

A. asymptomatic parents of two sons with haemophilia


B. asymptomatic parents of two girls with congenital dislocation of the hips
C. deaf mute parents with two deaf mute sons.
D. A father with hypophosphataemic rickets who has two daughters who also have the condition.
E. An achondroplastic mother with two achondroplast- children

73. A ten month old infant presents with extreme pallor but is otherwise well nourished and healthy. Haemoglobin is
6.5g/dl (N 9.5-14.0) and serum iron 25 umol/L (N 10-27) occult blood is negative on several stool examinations.

Correct management would include

A. small transfusion of packed red cells


B. small whole blood transfusion
C. intramuscular iron
D. oral iron
E. exclude thalassaemia major by appropriate studies

74. The most important personal determinant of morbidity and mortality is

A. occupation
B. nutritional status
C. sex
D. smoking habit
E. age

75. A50 year old man who suffers from rheumatoid arthritis and who has been treated with prednisolone for 3 years
developed peripheral neuropathy of the lower extremities. This neuropathy is most likely due to

A. arsenic poisoning
B. thiamine deficiency
C. development of necrotising arteritis
D. ruptured intervertebral disc
E. vitamin B12 deficiency

76. Itching is commonly a presenting symptom in all of the follow. EXCEPT

A. atopic eczema
B. lichen planus
C. Hodgkin's disease
D. secondary syphilis
E. scabies

77 A 46 Year old man suffered his first myocardial infarction. Recovery was uneventful. Two days after admission
to hospital, the patient's fasting blood glucose was 5.8 mmol/L (upper limits of normal 6.2 mmol/L); a 2 hr
postprandial blood glucose was 8.3 mmol/L. Four weeks later an oral glucose tolerance test was performed with
the following results - fasting 6.5 mmol/L. 1 hr. 9.0 mmol/L, 2 hr. 7.2 mmol/L. Blood glucose values in this
patient indicate

A. definite diabetes mellitus


B. possible diabetes mellitus
C. normal tolerance
D. reactive hypoglycaemia
E. functional hyperinsulinism

78. In which spinal cord segments are the motor neurones responsible for the knee jerk located?

A. S1
B. S1, 2
C. L2. 3. 4
D. L4. 5
E. L5, S1

79. An infant at one minute after birth is deeply cyanosed in body and limbs, makes no reaction to a catheter
inserted into the nose, is limp but takes an occasional gasp.- What is the apgar score?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. insufficient data

80. In iritis the pupil is


A. eccentric and reacts briskly to light
B. concentric, dilated and reacts briskly to -light
C. eccentric and reacts sluggishly to light
D. concentric, constricted, and reacts sluggishly to light
E. concentric. dilated and reacts sluggishly to light

81. The sister of a boy with cystic fibrosis is married to a man whose nephew has cystic fibrosis. The couple want to
know whether cystic fibrosis will appear in a child of theirs. They should be told that

A. sweat chloride tests will show whether they are both carriers for the cystic fibrosis gene.
B. they should have no children. because there is a 33% risk of cystic fibrosis affecting their child.
C. prenatal diagnostic tests will reliably detect an affected foetus. which can then be aborted
D. they need not be concerned about having a child with cystic fibrosis because it can be detected reliably in the
newborn.
E. their risk of having a child with cystic fibrosis is less than 10%

82. During a home visit to a rather confused 78 year old woman the doctor is asked whether all her five prescribed
drugs can be taken with meals.

Which one should she be advised NOT to take with meals?

A. digoxin (Lanoxin)
B. frusemide (Lasix)
C. potassium chloride (Slow-K)
D. phenytoin (Dilantin)
E. glibenclamide ( Daonil)

83. A typical finding at cardiac catheterisation in mitral stenosis of moderate severity would be

A. normal left atrial and left ventricular diastolic pressures


B. high left atrial and normal left ventricular diastolic pressure
C. normal left atrial and high left ventricular diastolic pressure
D high left ventricular systolic pressure and normal left atrial pressure
E. left ventricular hypertrophy

84. In a patient with bronchogenic carcinoma, which one of the following most strongly suggests inoperability

A. brachial neuritis
B. hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy
C. hypercalcaemia
D. Horner's syndrome
E. Cushing's syndrome

85. The usual cause of iron deficiency Anaemia in Australian children is

A. worms
B. malabsorption
C. dietary_
D. peptic ulceration
E. occult blood loss from a Meckel’s diverticulum

86. Mitral regurgitation is associated with

A. pansystolic basal cardiac murmur


B. late diastolic basal cardiac murmur
C. accentuation of the second heart sound
D. pansystolic-apical cardiac murmur
E. midsystolic basal cardiac murmur
87. If one child is born with spina bifida,, the chances that a second child will be similarly affected if born to the
same parents are

A. 2%
B 5%
C 10%
D 20%
E 50%

88. In a patient with symptoms of bronchial asthma, it is characteristically found that the

A. vital capacity is increased. but the forced expiratory volume in 1 second (F.E.V.1) is normal
B . vital capacity is normal. but F.E.V.1 is reduced
C. vital capacity is increased but F.E.V.1 is reduced
D. vital capacity is reduced but F.E.V.1 is normal
E. vital capacity is reduced and F.E.V.1 is reduced .

89. Wasting of the thenar muscles as an isolated sign is most likely due to

A. syringomyelia
B. median nerve compression at the wrist
C. motor neurone disease
D. ulnar nerve lesion
E. C7-T1 lesion

90. In which one of the following is the combination of sallow skin colouration and hyperventilation most likely to be
seen

A. Addison's disease
B. hypoglycaemia
C. haemochromatosis
D. renal failure
E. pneumothorax

91. A three year old child who has swallowed kerosene is brought immediately to casualty., Your management
would include which of the following

A gastric lavage
B. an emetic
C. chest x-r,ay
D. intravenous saline
E. methicillin

92. In making a diagnosis of myocardial infarction from an ECG tracing , the most significant finding is

A. prolongation of the PR interval


B. the presence of pathological Q waves
C. a raised ST segment in V leads
D. inverted T waves
E. depression of the ST segment in affected leads

93. A 35 year old multigravida who has experienced an uncomplicated pregnancy presents at 40 weeks with the
head above the pelvic brim. Your next step in management should be to arrange

A. pelvimetry
B. caesarean section
C. ultrasonography
D. an oxytocin infusion
E. review at 41weeks
94. Ischiorectal abscess is commonly followed by

A. anal carcinoma
B. stricture
C, anal fissure
D anal fistula
E. haemorrhoids

95. The daily fluid requirement of a healthy 4.5 Kg infant in a temperate climate is

A. 400 ml (14 OZ)


B. 500 mI (17.5 oz)
C. 750 M1 (26. 5 OZ
D. 1250 mI (44 oz)
E. 1500 ml (52 oz)

96. In. ulcerative colitis

A. the bowel is usually involved in a discontinuous or "skip,' type fashion


B. there is diarrhoea, but little or no blood in the faeces
C. segments of small bowel are involved in the same pathologic process
D microscopic examination of the affected bowel usually shows that only the mucosa is involved
in the pathological process
E. there is usually an associated anal fissure or fistula

97 A 20 year old man was admitted to hospital because of the sudden onset of intense headache and neck stiffness.
For the past 4 years, the patient had had occasional focal motor seizures on the right side of the body.

Which of the following is the most likely dia2nosis?

A. ruptured saccular ("berry") aneurysm


B. hypertensive cerebral haemorrhage
C. haemorrhagic infarction
D. haemorrhage in cerebral neoplasm
E. arteriovenous malformation of brain

98. In severe alveolar hypoventilation causing respiratory failure the arterial blood will have (with thepatient
breathing air).

A. high p02,and high pCO2


B. high p02and low pC02
C. low p02 and low pC02
D. low j202 and high ]2C02
E. low p02 and normal pC02

99. Which of the following would be most helpful in distinguishing cerebral infarction from cerebral neoplasm

A history of headache
B. hemiplegia
C. chronology of development
D. carotid bruit
E. focal abnormality on electroencephalogram

100. The treatment of choice for uterovaginal prolapse. in a 70 old woman is

A. pelvic floor exercises


B. oestrogens
C. ring pessary
D. uterovaginal repair.
E. vaginal hysterectomy

ANSWERS TO THE 1989 PAPER

1. D 21. D 41 D 61 C 81 E
2. E 22. E 42 E 62 D 82 E
3. B 23. B 43 B 63 B 83 B
4. A 24 D 44 D 64 D 84 D
5. C 25 C 45 C 65 C 85 C
6. A 26 D 46 D 66 D 86 D
7. D 27 E 47 E 67 A 87 B
8. B 28 B 48 A 68 D 88 E
9. C 29 C 49 D 69 C 89 B
10. E 30 D 50 C 70 E 90 D
11. A 31 C 51 B 71 B 91 C
12. B 32 D 52 C 72 C 92 B
13. C 33 B 53 E 73 E 93 E
14. D 34 E 54 D 74 E 94 D
15. E 35 D 55 B 75 C 95 C
16. A 36 A 56 D 76 D 96 D
17. D 37 D 57 B 77 B 97 E
18. C 38 E 58 C 78 C 98 D
19. D 39 B 59 E 79 E 99 C
20. B 40 D 60 D 80 D 100 D

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