Mark The Letter A, B, C, or D On Your Answer Sheet To Indicate The Correct Answer To Each of The Following Questions

ĐỀ 31 (TNPTQG)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. intend B. medal C. compete D. defend
Question 2: A. clothes B. bosses C. boxes D. couches
(Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. Solidarity B. effectively C. documentary D. dedication
Question 4: A. royal B. unique C. remote D. extreme
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: My purse ______ at the station while I ______ for the train.
A. must have been stolen/was waiting B. should have stolen/had been waiting
C. will be stolen/am waiting D. had to steal/would be waiting
Question 6: The handwriting is completely ______. This note must have been written a long time ago.
A. inedible B. indelible C. illegible D. unfeasible
Question 7: I suggest our rooms ______ before Tet Holiday.
A. should decorate B. is decorated C. were decorated D. be decorated
Question 8: The curriculum at this public school is as good ______ of any private school.
A. as or better that B. as or better than that C. as or better than those D. better than
Question 9: - Daisy: “Are you ill? You look terrible!” - Liz: “Well, I am a bit ______. The doctor says I must rest.”
A. run-up B. run-off C. run-out D. run-down
Question 10: He'd hardly finished doing his homework when you arrived, ______?
A. didn't he B. had he C. would he D. hadn't he
Question 11: ______ he arrived at the bus stop when the bus came.
A. Not until had B. No longer had C. Hardly had D. No sooner had
Question 12: My mother often ______ our mistakes, whereas my father is very strict and punishes us for even the
slightest one.
A. appreciates B. overlooks C. avoids D. enjoys
Question 13: Be sure to ______ a real effort to answer all the questions the interviewer asks you.
A. hide B. set C. train D. make
Question 14: We were made ______ hard when we were at school.
A. to study B. study C. studying D. studied
Question 15: Arranging flowers ______ among my sister's hobbies.
A. were B. have been C. are D. is
Question 16: We regret to tell you that the materials you ordered are ______.
A. out of stock B. out of reach C. out of work D. out of practice
Question 17: Laura didn't enjoy her first year at college because she failed to ______ her new friends.
A. come in for B. look down on C. go down with D. get on with
Question 18: If it had not rained last night, the roads in the city ______ so slippery now.
A. must not be B. would not be C. could not have been D. would not have been
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: We should find ways to improve our products in terms of quality and service.
A. for considering aspects B. in spite of C. with a view to D. in regard to
Question 20: We really appreciate your help, without which we couldn't have got our task done in time.
A. depreciate B. are proud of C. feel thankful for D. request
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined bold word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: Never punish your children by hitting them. This might teach them to become hitters.
A. bring B. reward C. give D. accept
Question 22: The first year at university was probably the most challenging year of her life, which caused her
plenty of troubles.
A. tricky B. tough C. difficult D. easy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following exchanges.
Question 23: John's in Hanoi and wants to change some money. He asks the local passer-by the way to the bank.
- John: “Can you show me the way to the nearest bank, please?”
- Passer-by: “______.”
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A. Not way, sorry B. Just round the corner over there C. Look it up in a dictionary D. There's no traffic near here
Question 24: Rebecca's in a fashion store in Trang Tien PlazA.
- Rebecca: “How can this bag be so expensive?”
- The shop assistant: “______.”
A. Yes, it's the most expensive B. You're paying for the brand C. What an expensive bag D. That's a good idea
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to choose the word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Reasons to Not Hit Your Kids
The practice of hitting children teaches them to become hitters themselves. Extensive research data is now available
to support the direct correlation (25)_____ corporal punishment in childhood and violent behavior in the teenage and
adult years. Virtually, all of the most dangerous criminals (26)_____ regularly threatened and punished in
childhood.
Punishment gives the message that "might make right," that it is okay to hurt someone smaller and less powerful
than you are. The child then feels it is appropriate to mistreat younger or smaller children, and when he becomes an
adult, feels little (27) _____ for those less fortunate or powerful than he is, and fears those who are more so. Thus it
is difficult for him to find (28) _____ friendships.
Children learn best through parental modeling. Punishment gives the message that hitting is an appropriate way to
express one's feelings and to solve problems. If the child rarely sees the parents handle anger and solve problems in
a creative and positive way, he can never learn how (29) _____ that himself. Thus inadequate parenting continues
into the next generation.
(Adapted from "Reasons to Not Hit Your Kids" by Jan Hunt)
Question 25: A. among B. about C. between D. above
Question 26: A. Were B. be C. could D. might
Question 27: A. jealousy B. compassion C. greediness D. appreciation
Question 28: A. meaningless B. meaning C. meaninglessly D. meaningful
Question 29: A. to do B. do C. doing D. done
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
As heart disease continues to be the number-one killer in the United States, researchers have become increasingly
interested in identifying the potential risk factors that trigger heart attacks. High-fat diets and „life in the fast lane”
have long been known to contribute to the high incidence of heart failure. But according to new studies, the list of
risk factors may be significantly longer and quite surprising.
Heart failure, for example appears to have seasonal and temporal patterns. A higher percentage of heart attacks
occur in cold weather, and more people experience heart failure on Monday than on any other day of the week. In
addition, people are more susceptible to heart attacks in the first few hours after waking. Cardiologists first
observed this morning phenomenon in the mid-1980s and have since discovered a number of possible causes. An
early-morning rise in blood pressure, heart rate, and concentration of heart-stimulating hormones, plus a reduction of
blood flow to the heart, may all contribute to the higher incidence of heart attacks between the hours of 8:00 A.M
and 10 A.M.
In other studies, both birthdays and bachelorhood have been implicated as risk factors. Statistics reveal that heart
attack rates increase significantly for both females and males in the few days immediately preceding and following
their birthdays. And unmarried men are more at risk for heart attacks than their married counterparts. Though stress
is thought to be linked in some way to all of the aforementioned risk factors, intense research continues in the hope
of further comprehending why and how heart failure is triggered.
Question 30: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. cardiology in the 1980s B. risk factors in heart attacks
C. diet and stress as factors in heart attacks D. seasonal and temporal patterns of heart attacks
Question 31: In line 2, the word “potential” could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. possible B. harmful C. primary D. unknown
Question 32: The phrase “susceptible to” could best be replaced by
A. aware of B. affected by C. prone to D. accustomed
Question 33: Which of the following is NOT cited as a possible risk factor?
A. having a birthday B. getting married C. eating fatty foods D. being under stress
Question 34: Which of the following does the passage infer?
A. We now fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
B. We recently began to study how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
C. We have not identified many risk factors associated with heart attacks.
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D. We do not fully understand how risk factors trigger heart attacks.
Social networks
Business applications
Social networks connect people at low cost; this can be beneficial for entrepreneurs and small businesses looking to expand
their contact base. These networks often act as a customer relationship management tool for companies selling products
and services. Companies can also use social networks for advertising in the form of banners and text ads. Since
businesses operate globally, social networks can make it easier to keep in touch with contacts around the world.
Medical applications
Social networks are beginning to be adopted by healthcare professionals as a means to manage institutional
knowledge, disseminate peer to peer knowledge and to highlight individual physicians and institutions. The
advantage of using a dedicated medical social networking site is that all the members are screened against the state
licensing board list of practitioners. The role of social networks is especially of interest to pharmaceutical companies
who spend approximately “32 percent of their marketing dollars” attempting to influence the opinion leaders of
social networks.
Languages, nationalities and academia
Various social networking sites have sprung up catering to different languages and countries. The popular site
Facebook has been cloned for various countries and languages and some specializing in connecting students and faculty.
Social networks for social good
Several websites are beginning to tap into the power of the social networking model for social good. Such models
may be highly successful for connecting otherwise fragmented industries and small organizations without the
resources to reach a broader audience with interested and passionate users. Users benefit by interacting with a like-
minded community and finding a channel for their energy and giving.
Business model
Few social networks currently charge money for membership. In part, this may be because social networking is a
relatively new service, and the value of using them has not been firmly established in customers' minds. Companies
such as MySpace and Facebook sell online advertising on their site. Hence, they are seeking large memberships, and
charging for membership would be counter productive. Some believe that the deeper information that the sites have
on each user will allow much better targeted advertising than any other site can currently provide. Sites are also
seeking other ways to make money, such as by creating an online marketplace or by selling professional information
and social connections to businesses.
Privacy issues
On large social networking services, there have been growing concerns about users giving out too much personal
information and the threat of sexual predators. Users of these services need to be aware of data theft or viruses.
However, large services, such as MySpace, often work with law enforcement to try to prevent such incidents. In
addition, there is a perceived privacy threat in relation to placing too much personal information in the hands of
large corporations or governmental bodies, allowing a profile to be produced on an individual's behavior on which
decisions, detrimental to an individual, may be taken.
Investigations
Social network services are increasingly being used in legal and criminal investigations. Information posted on sites
such as MySpace and Facebook, has been used by police, probation, and university officials to prosecute users of
said sites. In some situations, content posted on MySpace has been used in court.
Question 35: According to the text, social networks
A. are about friendships B. are being used by businesses for marketing
C. can damage business reputations D. advertise on business web sites
Question 36: Why do advertisers like social network sites?
A. They are cost-effective to advertise on. B. Detailed information on each user allows targeted ads.
C. Most users have high disposable income. D. They can influence consumer behavior.
Question 37: What does the expression “sprung up” in the part Languages, nationalities and academia mean?
A. The development of social networking is unplanned. B. Everybody is trying to copy Facebook.
C. Social networking works in all languages. D. There has been rapid development of social networking sites.
Question 38: What does the word “Few” at the beginning of the part Business model mean?
A. Not any B. Some C. Hardly any D. Only
Question 39: What should users not do on social networks?
A. download viruses B. be too free with their personal information C. contact predators D. upload copyrighted music
Question 40: What does the word “deeper” in the part Business model mean?
A. more detailed B. more spiritual C. more profound D. more emphatic
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Question 41: Personal information on social network sites
A. is sold to the government B. gives a good description of the user's personality
C. is translated into many languages D. can be used in court
Question 42: Social networking is great for
A. academic organizations B. people writing too much information about themselves
C. groups of people separated over wide areas D. the law enforcement agencies
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 43: I saw (A) the blind woman (B) crossed the busy road (C) without any (D) help.
Question 44: (A) A paragraph is a portion of a text (B) consists of one or more (C) sentences related (D) to the
same idea.
Question 45: (A) While the campaign, young volunteers helped (B) build bridges, (C) roads and houses for some of
Viet Nam's most (D) disadvantaged families.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 46: Had he known more about the information technology, he would have invested in some computer companies.
A. Not knowing about the information technology help him invest in some computer company.
B. He didn't know much about the information technology and he didn't invest in any computer companies.
C. Knowing about the information technology, he would have invested in some computer companies.
D. He would have invested in some computer companies without his knowledge of the information technology.
Question 47: My uncle didn't recognize me until I spoke.
A. My uncle recognized me not until I spoke. B. Only when my uncle recognized me did I speak.
C. Not until I spoke did my uncle recognize me. D. When I spoke, my uncle didn't recognize me.
Question 48: “Why don't you complain to the company, John?” said Peter.
A. Peter suggested that John should complain to the company. B. Peter advised John complaining to the company.
C. Peter threatened John to complain to the company. D. Peter asked John why he doesn't complain to the company.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You have just passed your final examination. This makes your parents happy
A. Having just passed your final examination making your parents happy.
B. You have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
C. That you have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
D. You have just passed your final examination which it makes your parents happy.
Question 50: You cannot completely avoid stress in your life. You need to find ways to cope with it
A. As long as you can completely avoid stress in your lives, you need to find ways to cope with it
B. After you can completely avoid stress in your life, you need to find ways to cope with it.
C. Because stress can completely be avoided in your life, you need to find ways to cope with it
D. As you cannot completely avoid stress in your life, you need to find ways to cope with it
ĐỀ 32 (TNPTQG)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. enroll B. promote C. require D. danger
Question 2: A. optimistic B. diversity C. environment D. assimilate
Question 3: A. terrified B. influenced C. averaged D. accompanied
Question 4: A. identity B. final C. applicant D. decide
Question 5: It is not until December 25 _______ the exam will be designed.
A. when B. what C. which D. that
Question 6: _______ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.
A. Had you arrived B. If you arrived C. Were you arrived D. If you hadn’t arrived
Question 7: In some parts of the country, prices are _______ than in others.
A. the highest B. highest C. higher and higher D. more and more high
Question 8: There is no excuse for your late submission! You _______ the report by last Monday.
A. should have finished B. mightn’t have finished C. needn’t have finished D. must have finished
Question 9: _______ university is an institution of higher education and research, which grants academic degrees.
A. A B. An C. The D. Some
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Question 10: My parents lent me the money. _______, I couldn’t have afforded the trip.
A. Therefore B. Otherwise C. Only if D. However
Question 11: Mr.Paulson has three daughters of _______ age, which concerns him much.
A. married B. marriageable C. marrying D. unmarried
Question 12: If you’re lonely, you should go out and try to _______ a friendship with someone you like.
A. take up B. break up C. hold up D. strike up
Question 13: A lot of different conservation efforts have been made to save _______ species.
A. endangered B. available C. plant-eating D. contaminated
Question 14: It is stated that we are now in the first stages of a battle for the _______ of life on the earth.
A. responsibility B. reservation C. sustainability D. purification
Question 15: My college graduation was a real _______ day for my whole life.
A. red brick B. red ink C. red tape D. red letter
Question 16: My New Year’s _______ this year is to spend less time on Facebook and more time on my
schoolwork. But I’m not sure I will keep it.
A. resolution B. salutation C. wish D. pray
Question 17: The company allows some customers to buy goods on _______ and pay for them later.
A. card B. cheque C. credit D. cash
Question 18: Mr. Park Hang Seo, a Korean coach, is considered a big _______ in Vietnam football.
A. bread B. cheese C. sandwich D. egg
Question 19: Tony and Bob are talking in their classroom.
Tony: “We are buying Lily a graduation present.” - Bob: “______________”
A. She’s out of my league. B. Can you all be more down-to-earth?
C. I’m raking in money now. D. Could I chip in?
Question 20: Mai and Joey are talking about their favorite pastimes.
Joey: “What sort of things do you like doing in your free time?” - Mai: “______________”
A. I love checking out the shops for new clothes. B. None. Been starved since 9 yesterday.
C. I hate shopping. D. Nothing special. Just some photos I took on the trip to Nepal.
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 21: You’re not trying to suggest I should turn a blind eye and forget all about it?
A. criticize for B. look into C. wink at D. worried about
Question 22: If that was done on a national scale, we would wipe out this infectious disease.
A. establish B. retain C. maintain D. eliminate
Question 23: “Do you think it’s OK for me to wear jeans to a job interview or do I need something a bit more
upmarket?”
A. cheap and poor quality B. high quality or expensive C. trendy and fashionable D. brand-name but old
Question 24: Polish artist Pawel Kuzinsky creates satirical paintings filled with thought-provoking messages about the world.
A. inspirational B. cost-effective C. discouraging D. weather-bitten
Question 25: We should participate in the movement who is organized to conserve the natural environment.
A. should private B. who C. to conserve D. individual
Question 26: Buying clothes are often a very time-consuming practice because those clothes that a person likes are
rarely the one that fit him or her.
A. are B. a very time-consuming C. becaus D. are rarely the one
Question 27: Chandler was shocked when his entire class seemed to come down with the same imaginative disease.
A. was shocked B. entire class C. come down with D. imaginative disease
Question 28: “You had better see a doctor if the headache does not wear off.” she said to me.
A. She suggested that I see a doctor if the headache did not wear off.
B. She ordered me to see a doctor if the headache did not wear off.
C. She insisted that I see a doctor unless the headache did not wear off.
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D. She reminded me of seeing a doctor if the headache did not wear off.
Question 29: My American friend finds it difficult to pick up food with chopsticks.
A. My American friend doesn’t feel like picking up food with chopsticks.
B. My American friend can’t find chopsticks to pick up food.
C. My American friend didn’t used to pick up food with chopsticks.
D. My American friend is not used to picking up food with chopsticks.
Question 30: I couldn’t help admiring the way he managed to finish the programme even after such a bad fall.
A. The way he finished the programme was certainly admirable, as the fall had shaken him up badly.
B. It was really a very bad fall, but somehow he was still able to finish the programme and I had to admire him for that.
C. In spite of the fall, he should have finished the programme and we could have admired him for that.
D. I really admire the way he got up after the fall and completed the programme.
Question 31: George graduated with a good degree. However, he joined the ranks of the unemployed.
A. If George graduated with a good degree, he would join the ranks of the unemployed.
B. George joined the ranks of the unemployed because he graduated with a good degree.
C. Although George graduated with a good degree, he joined the ranks of the unemployed.
D. That George graduated with a good degree helped him join the ranks of the unemployed.
Question 32: He must have canceled his e-mail account. I can’t get hold of him.
A. Since I’m unable to get in contact with him, it seems certain that he’s closed his e-mail account.
B. If no one is able to get in contact with him, he ought to get an e-mail account for himself.
C. I must have got his e-mail address wrong, because he’s not giving me any reply.
D. He may have closed his e-mail account, but I won’t know for sure until I get in touch with him.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Urbanization programmes are being carried out in many parts of the world, especially in densely (33) _______
religion with limited land and resources. It is the natural outcome of economic development and industrialization. It
has brought a lot of benefits to our society. However, it also (34) _______ various problems for local authorities and
town planners in the process of maintaining sustainable urbanization, especially in developing countries.
When too many people cram into a small area, urban infrastructure can’t be effective. There will be a (35) _______
of livable housing, energy and water supply. This will create overcrowded urban districts with no proper facilities.
Currently, fast urbanization is taking place predominantly in developing countries where sustainable urbanization
has little relevance to people's lives. Their houses are just shabby slums with poor sanitation. Their children only
manage to get basic education. Hence, the struggle for (36) _______ is their first priority rather than anything else.
Only when the quality of their existence is improved, can they seek (37) _______ other high values in their life.
Question 33: A. popular B. crowed C. populated D. numerous
Question 34: A. poses B. offers C. leads D. imposes
Question 35: A. appearance B. plenty C. loss D. lack
Question 36: A. survive B. survival C. survivor D. survived
Question 37: A. about B. for C. with D. on
to each of the questions.
Accidents do not occur at random. People eighty-five years of age and older are twenty-two times likely to die
accidentally than are children five to nine years old. The risk for native Americans is four times that for Asian-
Americans and twice that for white Americans or African-Americans. Males suffer accidents at more than twice the
rate of females, in part because they are more prone to risky behavior. Alaskans are more than three times as likely
as Rhode Islanders to die in an accident. Texans are twenty-one times more likely than New Jerseyites to die in a
natural disaster. Among the one hundred most populous counties, Kern County, California (Bakersfield), has an
accident fatality rate three times greater than Summit County, Ohio (Akron).
Accidents happens more often to poor people. Those living in poverty receive inferior medical care, are more apt to
reside in houses with faulty heating and electrical systems, drive older cars with fewer safety features, and are less
likely to use safety belts. People in rural areas have more accidents than city or suburban dwellers because farming
is much riskier than working in a factory or office and because emergency medical services are less readily
available. These two factors – low income and rural residence – may explain why the south has a higher accident
rate than the north.
(Source: Proficiency Reading)
Question 38: Which of the following is true according to the passage?
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A. Children aged five to nine face the greatest accident risk. B. All people face an equal risk of having an accident.
C. One in every 22 people aged 85 and over will die in an accident.
D. The risk of having an accident is greater among certain groups of people.
Question 39: The word “inferior” in the passage is closest in meaning to _______.
A. modern B. low-quality C. well-equipped D. unsafe
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following groups of people in America face the highest risk of
having an accident?
A. Native Americans B. Asian-Americans C. White Americans D. African-Americans
Question 41: What does the word “that” in the passage refer to?
A. males B. native Americans C. the risk D. African-Americans
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for a higher accident rate among the poor?
A. Little knowledge about safety. B. Inadequate medical services.
C. Poor housing and working conditions. D. Use of cars which incorporate fewer safety features.
The concept of being environmentally conscious, or “green”, has become more prevalent in twenty first-century
U.S culture. It has begun to affect the manufacturing of everything from non-toxic household cleaning products to
motor vehicles powered by alternative sources of energy. However, one way of being “green” that is perhaps not as
apparent to the viewer but of equal importance in being environmentally conscious, is the construction of buildings
that are considered “sustainable”. Sustainable buildings are those that do not impose on the environment or rely on
the over-utilization of energy or natural resources. There are four main principles of sustainability, which includes
consideration of the health and stability of all living things and their environmental diversity, as well as the
economic opportunities of humanity.
Sustainable architecture consists of environmentally conscious design techniques. In the past, the demolition of an
old building meant that all or most of the debris of the building would end up in a landfill or a waste disposal site.
Today, architects can plan and design a building that uses recycled materials, such as wood, concrete, stone, or
metal. These materials are salvaged from the demolition of an older building and can be appropriately incorporated
into a new construction. Architects and construction supervisors may also choose to recycle more organic parts of
demolished buildings, such as wooden doors, windows and other glass, ceramics, paper, and textiles.
A problem that has often arisen has been with how a site crew-whether it is demolition or construction crew
determines and sorts what is “waste” and what is recyclable. Architects and environmental scientists have to decide
whether or not a material is appropriate for use in new construction and how it will impact the environment. They
must evaluate the materials from the demolition and determine what those materials contain, and if they meet the
standards set by the U.S, government’s Environmental Protection Agency (the EPA). If the debris from the
demolition contains hazardous materials that are harmful to the environment or to the consumer, such as asbestos,
then the material is not salvageable. Use of the asbestos for insulation and as a form of fire retardation in buildings
and fabrics was common in the nineteenth century. Asbestos was once used in shingles on the sides of buildings, as
well as in the insulation in the interior walls of homes or other construction. In new “green” construction, insulation
that once asbestos-based can be replaced with recycled denim or constructed with cellulose-a fibrous material found
in paper products. The same-assessment applies to wood or wallboard painted with toxic lead-based paints. In
addition, gas-flow regulators and meters on both water and gas heating systems constructed prior to 1961 must be
carefully evaluated to determine that they do not contain dangerous substances such as mercury. Mercury can be
harmful to humans and the environment if it is spilled during the removal of these devices.
Question 43: The word “prevalent” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. rare B. unusual C. widespread D. valuable
Question 44: In paragraph 1, the author implies that ______.
A. some companies manufacture vehicles that are not powered by gasoline
B. the concept of being green has not influenced manufacture
C. uses of alternative energy are apparent to the consumer D. all buildings impose on the environment
Question 45: According to paragraph 1, which of the following is true?
A. All construction follows the concept of sustainable architecture.
B. Sustainable buildings do not overuse electricity, oil, or gas.
C. Today’s cleaning products and appliances harm the environment . D. Construction of “green” buildings is an old idea.
Question 46: In paragraph 2, the word “salvaged” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. lost B. destroyed C. buried D. saved
Question 47: According to paragraph 2, environmentally conscious design incorporates _______.
A. safe, organic, recycled materials B. new wood, stone, or concrete
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C. debris from a demolished building D. materials from a landfill
Question 48: In paragraph 3, the author mention both demolition and construction crews in order to _______.
A. give an example of how choosing materials is not easily determined on a site
B. illustrate the types of crews that sort waste and recyclables
C. demonstrate that choosing recyclable materials is challenging for both crews
D. contrast the work of the two types of crews on a site
Question 49: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. the EPA B. the site crew C. architects and environmental scientists D. the materials from the demolition
Question 50: In paragraph 3, the author mentions all of the following hazardous materials found in a debris from a
demolition site EXCEPT _______.
A. cellulose B. mercury C. asbestos D. lead
ĐỀ 33 (TNPTQG)
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. familiar B. uncertainty C. impatient D. arrogantly
Question 2: A. affectionate B. kindergarten C. respectable D. occasional
Question 3: A. takes B. laughs C. volumes D. develops
Question 4: A. carpet B. contact C. facial D. school
Question 5: If it……….their encouragement, he could have given it up.
A. hadn’t been for B. wouldn’t have been for C. had been for D. hadn’t been
Question 6: I am not sure how old he is but he must be _________ for 70.
A. getting on B. going by C. getting up D. going off
Question 7: Last year she earned _______ her brother.
A. twice as much as B. twice as many as C. twice as more as D. twice more than
Question 8: _______ the airport, I was very worried to find that no one ______ for me.
A. When arriving at/ was waiting B. On arriving in/ had waited
C. On arriving at/ was waiting D. On arriving at/ had waited
Question 9: She is attending the seminar with a view to.......more qualifications.
A. acquire B. acquiring C. have acquired D. having acquired
Question 10: _________ every major judo title, Mark retired from international competition.
A. When he won B. Having won C. On winning D. Winning
Question 11: When she __________ her mistake, she apologized.
A. realized B. realize C. has realized D. was realizing
Question 12: Not only.......among the largest animals that ever lived, but they are also among the most intelligent.
A. some whales B. they are whales C. whales D. are whales
Question 13: _______, he couldn’t finish that test in 60 minutes.
A. Intelligent as was the boy B. As intelligent the boy was C. As the boy was intelligent D. Intelligent as the boy was
Question 14: Over the last few months garages _________ the price of petrol three times.
A. have gone up B. have put up C. raised D. have risen
Question 15: Final year students ____________ attend lectures. It’s optional.
A. shouldn’t B. mustn’t C. ought to D. don’t have to
Question 16: Quite soon, the world is going to _________ energy resources.
A. come up against B. keep up with C. get into D. run out of
Question 17: He has been waiting for this letter for days, and at _________ it has come.
A. present B. the moment C. last D. the end
Question 18: If only he _______ accept some help with the work instead of trying to do it alone!
A. were B. would C. may D. will
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) or phrase(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 19: The teacher gave some suggestions on what could come out for the examination.
A. effects B. hints C. demonstrations D. symptoms
Question 20: He was asked to account for his presence at the scene of crime.
A. arrange B. exchange C. complain D. explain
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) or phrase(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined part in each of the following questions.
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Question 21: The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.
A. odd B. explicit C. implicit D. obscure
Question 22: Biologists long regarded it as an example of adaptation by natural selection, but for physicists it
bordered on the miraculous
A. adjustment B. inflexibility C. agility D. flexibility
Question 23: John: " You're already leaving? The ball is only starting." Peter: " But it's very late, so _."
A. take care B. goodbye for now C. have a good day D. it's great fun, thanks
Question 24: John: "Why don't we go to a baseball game?". Jimmy:"______".
A. I'd rather go to the art gallery B. It's good to play baseball C. No, thanks. I'd like to sit here D. No, I don't.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Polar bears are in danger of dying out. ….(25)… some other endangered animals, it's not hunters that are the
problem, it's climate change. Since 1979, the ice cap at the Arctic Circle where the polar bears live has reduced in
size by about 30 per cent. The temperature in the Arctic has slowly been rising and this is ….(26)… the sea ice to
melt, endangering the polar bears' home. The polar bears' main sources of food are the different types of seals found
in the ArctiC. They catch them by waiting next to the air holes seals have made in the ice. ….(27)… the bears are
very strong swimmers, they could never catch seals in water. This means that the bears really do rely on the ice to
hunt. Polar bears also need sea ice to travel. They can cover a huge territory and often swim from one part of the ice
to another. They have been ….(28)… to swim up to 100 km, but when there is less ice, they may have to swim
further and this can ….(29)… fatal to the bears. A number of bears have drown in the last few years and scientists believe that
it is because they were not able to reach more ice before they became too tired and couldn't swim any further.
(Adapted from “A Wild Life: My Adventures Around the World” by Martin Hughes - Games)
Question 25: A. Opposite B. Different C. Compared D. Unlike
Question 26: A. turning B. resulting C. causing D. making
Question 27: A. Although B. Despite C. Even D. As
Question 28: A. learnt B. experienced C. known D. noticed.
Question 29: A. end B. come C. prove D. happen.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the following questions.
The word robot first appeared in a 1921 stage play by Czech writer Karel Capek. In the play, a man makes a
machine that can think, which he calls a robot and which ends up killing its owner. In the 1940s, the American
science fiction writer Isaac Asimov wrote a series of stories about robots and invented the term robotics, the science
of robots. Meanwhile, in the real world, the first robots were developed by an engineer, Joseph F. Engelberger, and
an inventor, George C. Devol. Together they started Unimation, a manufacturing company that produces the first
real robot in 1961, called the Unimate. Robots of this type were installed at a General Motors automobile plant and
proved to be a success. They worked reliably and saved money for General Motors, so other companies were soon
acquiring robots as well.
These industrial robots were nothing like the terrifying creatures that can often be seen in science fiction films. In
fact, these robots looked and behaved nothing like humans. They were simply pieces of computer-controlled
machinery, with metal “arms” or “hands”. Since they were made of metal, they could perform certain jobs that were
difficult or dangerous for humans, particularly jobs that involve high heat. And since robots were tireless and never
got hungry, sleepy, or distracted, they were useful for tasks that would be tiring or boring for humans. Industrial
robots have been improved over the years, and today they are used in many factories around the world. Though the
use of robots has meant the loss of some jobs, at the same time other jobs have been created in the design,
development, and production of the robots.
Rise of the Robots, Silicon Valley Entrepreneur, Martin Ford, 1988.
Question 30: What is Unimation?
A. It’s the name of a robot inventor B. It’s the name of a robot
C. It’s a robot making program D. It’s the producer of the first robot
Question 31: What can be said about Karel Capek?
A. He was the first to create the word “robot” B. He is an American writer
C. He made a robot D. He made a robot in order to kill a person
Question 32: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of robots?
A. They don’t need food B. They are not distracted C. They are tiring D. They can do jobs involving high heat
Question 33: What are industrial robots like?
A. They behave like humans B. They controlled machinery
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C. They look like humans D. They are computer-controlled machines
Question 34: When did the word “robot” appear?
A. in the 1920s B. in the 19th century C. in the 40s D. in the 60s
PHOTOSYNTHESIS
Almost all living things ultimately get their energy from the sun. In a process called photosynthesis, plants, algae,
and some other organisms capture the sun's energy and use it to make simple sugars such as glucose. Most other
organisms use these organic molecules as a source of energy. Organic materials contain a tremendous amount of
energy. As food, they fuel our bodies and those of most other creatures. In such forms as oil, gas, and coal, they heat
our homes, run our factories and power our cars.
Photosynthesis begins when solar energy is absorbed by chemicals called photosynthetic pigments that are contained
within an organism. The most common photosynthetic pigment is chlorophyll. The bright green color characteristic
of plants is caused by it. Most algae have additional pigments that may mask the green chlorophyll. Because of these
pigments, algae may be not only green but brown, red, blue or even black.
In a series of enzyme-controlled reactions, the solar energy captured by chlorophyll and other pigments is used to
make simple sugars, with carbon dioxide and water as the raw materials. Carbon dioxide is one of very few carbon-
containing molecules not considered to be organic compounds. Photosynthesis then converts carbon from an
inorganic to an organic form. This is called carbon fixation. In this process, the solar energy that was absorbed by
chlorophyll is stored as chemical energy in the form of simple sugars like glucose. The glucose is then used to make
other organic compounds. In addition, photosynthesis produces oxygen gas. All the oxygen gas on earth, both in the
atmosphere we breathe and in the ocean, was produced by photosynthetic organisms. Photosynthesis constantly
replenishes the earth's oxygen supply.
Organisms that are capable of photosynthesis can obtain all the energy they need from sunlight and do not need to
eat. They are called autotrophs. Plants are the most familiar autotrophs on land. In the ocean, algae and bacteria are
the most important autotrophs. Many organisms cannot produce their own food and must obtain energy by eating
organic matter. These are called heterotrophs.
Advances in Photosynthesis and Respiration, Hardback.1990.
Question 35: From the passage, we can see that ______.
A. Algae are a kind of simple plants. B. Most plants have additional pigments.
C. Oxygen helps the process of photosynthesis. D. Autotrophs obtain energy by eating organic matter.
Question 36: It can be inferred from the passage that the author considers solar energy to be ______.
A. a perfect solution to the energy problem B. a permanent and everlasting source of energy
C. useless to most bacteria and algae D. essential for every organism on earth
Question 37: The word “pigments” is closest in meaning to ______.
A. colours B. chemicals C. organisms D. characteristics
Question 38: The word “replenishes” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. renews B. refines C. refills D. regulates
Question 39: The phrase “this process” refers to the process of ______.
A. storing chemical energy B. absorbing solar energy C. photosynthesis D. carbon fixation
Question 40: The word “fuel” is similar in meaning to ______.
A. provide nutrients for B. produce organic materials C. give fuel to D. help to function
Question 41: What can be inferred about algae?
A. Green algae are less common than other colors of algae. B. Algae are photosynthetic organisms.
C. They are chemically different from other plants. D. They are ineffective producers of sugars.
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT true?
A. Organic materials contain an amount of energy. B. Plants capture the sun's energy to make sugars.
C. Plants are familiar heterotrophs. D. Photosynthesis produces oxygen gas.
Question 43: It is important that you turned off the heater every morning before you leave for class.
A. before B. turned off C. It D. leave for
Question 44: The children had such difficult time when they began school in their new neighborhood that their
parents decided never to move again.
A. Began B. never C. such difficult time D. to move
Question 45: Alike other forms of energy, natural gas may be used to heat homes, cook food, and even run automobiles.
A. may be used B. run C. to heat D. Alike
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Question 46: The noise next door didn’t stop until midnight.
A. Not until midnight did the noise next door stopped.
B. Hardly had the noise next door stopped than it was midnight.
C. It was not until midnight that the noise next door stopped.
D. Only when midnight did the noise next door stopped.
Question 47: He can shout even louder, but I won’t take any notice.
A. No matter how loud he can shout, I won’t take any notice.
B. He can shout even louder won’t take any of my notice.
C. Whatever ability he shout won’t take notice of me.
D. However loud he can shout, but I won’t take any notice.
Question 48: It wouldn’t be a waste of time to look at that house again.
A. Did you find that look at that house again was a waste of time ?
B. It was worth looking at that house again.
C. Would we consider to look at that house again ?
D. You shouldn’t waste your time to look at that house again.
Question 49: He is very intelligent. He can solve all the problems in no time.
A. An intelligent student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
B. He is very intelligent that he can solve all the problems in no time.
C. So intelligent a student is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
D. So intelligent is he that he can solve all the problems in no time.
Question 50: He didn’t take
his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work now.
A. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work now.
B. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work now.
C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work now.
D. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work now.
ĐỀ 34 (TNPTQG)
Question 1: In most _______ developed countries, up to 50% of _______ population enters higher education at
some time in their lives.
A. the / Ø B. Ø / Ø C. the / the D. Ø / the
Question 2: But for his kind support, I _______.
A. would not have succeeded B. did not succeed C. had not succeeded D. would succeed
Question 3: - Jean: “Why didn’t you tell me about the plans for the merge?”
- Jack: “I would have told you _______.”
A. if you asked me to B. had you asked me to C. you had asked to me D. you were asking me
Question 4: This year, so far, we ________ 28,000 dollars and are still counting.
A. are raising B. have been raised C. have raised D. raised
Question 5: It is now over seventy years since Lindbergh _______ across the Atlantic.
A. has been flying B. flew C. had flown D. has flown
Question 6: All applications to courses at tertiary institutions are made through UCAS, a central agency _______
UK universities and colleges of higher education.
A. standing for B. instead of C. on behalf of D. representative of
Question 7: Books are still a cheap _______ to get knowledge and entertainment.
A. means B. way C. method D. measure
Question 8: Galileo proved that the earth _______ round the sun.
A. goes B. went C. is going D. was going
Question 9: Getting promotion also means getting more _______.
A. responsibility B. ability C. advisability D. creativity
Question 10: Fire engines and ambulances have _______ over other traffic.
A. prior B. priority C. before D. precedence
Question 11: By the end of last March, I _______ English for five years.
A. had been studied B. had been studying C. will have been studying D. will have studied
Question 12: _______ he hasn’t had any formal qualifications, he has managed to do very well.
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A. Despite B. Although C. If D. Whereas
Question 13: We are considering having ______ for the coming lunar New Year.
A. redecorated our flat B. our flat redecorated C. to redecorate our flat D. our flat to be redecorated
Question 14: Tim looks so frightened and upset. He _______ something terrible.
A. must experience B. ought to have experienced C. should have experienced D. must have experienced
Question 15: A. certificate B. compulsory C. remember D. information
Question 16: A. administrative B. productivity C. electricity D. opportunity
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 20 to 21.
Question 17: A. decided B. hatred C. sacred D. warned
Question 18: A. manufacture B. mature C. pasture D. agriculture
Question 19: Did she get the better of you in the argument?
A. try to beat B. gain a disadvantage over C. gain an advantage over D. try to be better than
Question 20: I didn’t go to work this morning. I stayed at home due to the morning rain.
A. thanks to B. on account of C. in spite of D. in addition to
Question 21: It was a very wonderful opportunity for us to catch.
A. break B. destroy C. hold D. miss
Question 22: I could only propose a(n) partial solution to the crisis in the company.
A. whole B. halfway C. half D. effective
Question 23: “What a boring lecture!” – “_______”
A. Yes, it was dull, wasn’t it? B. I don’t agree. It’s dull. C. It’s interesting, wasn’t it? D. I’m sorry not.
Question 24: “Oh, I’m sorry! Am I disturbing you? – “_______”
A. Sure, you’re a real nuisance! B. No, never mind. C. You’re such a pain in the neck! D. No, you’re OK.
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
People of different countries have quite different life styles. We American are wasteful people, (25) _______ saving.
Our grandfathers began this pattern, for nature’s resources seemed so plentiful that no one ever imagined a shortage.
Within a few years of the first Virginia settlement, for example, pioneers burned down their houses when they were
ready to move to west. They only wanted to have the nails for (26) _______ use. No one ever gave a thought to the
priceless hardwoods that went up in smoke. We the people in the United States destroy many things that other
peoples save. I (27) _______ this when I was living in Britain. I received a letter from one of England’s largest
banks. It was enclosed in a used envelop that had been readdressed to me. Such a practice would be (28) _______ in
the United States. American banks, (29) _______ the smallest, always use expensive stationery with the names of all
twenty-eight vice-presidents listed on one side of the page.
Question 25: A. accustomed to B. dislike C. enjoy D. not used to
Question 26: A. urgent B. practical C. various D. future
Question 27: A. noticed B. notified C. remembered D. reminded
Question 28: A. common B. aggressive C. unthinkable D. inadequate
Question 29: A. excluding B. however C. even D. usually
Question 30: Safari is an organized trip to hunting or photograph wild animals, usually in Africa.
A. organized B. hunting C. wild animals D. usually in
Question 31: There is estimated that the Orion nebula contains enough matter to form 10,000 stars.
A. There B. contains C. enough D. to form
Question 32: Great apes are in crisis of becoming extinct.
A. Great B. are C. crisis D. extinct
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Sylvia Earle, a marine botanist and one of the foremost deep-sea explorers, has spent over 6,000 hours, more than
seven months, underwater. From her earliest years, Earle had an affinity for marine life, and she took her first
plunge into the open sea as a teenager. In the years since then she has taken part in a number of landmark
underwater projects, from exploratory expeditions around the world to her celebrated “Jim dive” in 1978, which was
the deepest solo dive ever made without cable connecting the diver to a support vessel at the surface of the sea.
Clothed in a Jim suit, a futuristic suit of plastic and metal armor, which was secured to a manned submarine, Sylvia
Earle plunged vertically into the Pacific Ocean, at times at the speed of 100 feet per minute. On reaching the ocean
floor, she was released from the submarine and from that point her only connection to the sub was an 18-foot tether.
For the next 2½ hours, Earle roamed the seabed taking notes, collecting 15 specimens, and planting a U.S. flag.
Consumed by a desire to descend deeper still, in 1981 she became involved in the design and manufacture of 20
deep-sea submersibles, one of which took her to a depth of 3,000 feet. This did not end Sylvia Earle’s
accomplishments.
Question 33: When did Sylvia Earle discover her love of the sea?
A. In her childhood B. During her 6,000 hours underwater.
C. After she made her deepest solo dive. D. In her adulthood.
Question 34: It can be inferred from the passage that Sylvia Earle _______.
A. is not interested in the scientific aspects of marine research B. is uncomfortable in tight spaces
C. does not have technical expertise D. has devoted her life to ocean exploration
Question 35: The author’s opinion of Sylvia Earle is _______.
A. critical B. supportive C. ambivalent D. disrespectful
Question 36: What will the paragraph following this passage probably be about?
A. Sylvia Earle’s childhood. B. More information on the Jim suit.
C. Earle’s achievements after 1981. D. How deep-sea submersibles are manufactured.
Question 37: The main purpose of this passage is _______.
A. to explore the botany of ocean floor B. to present a short biography of Sylvia Earle
C. to provide an introduction to oceanography D. to show the historical importance of the Jim dive
Question 38: Which of the following is not true about the Jim dive?
A. It took place in 1981. B. Sylvia Earle took notes while on the ocean floor.
C. It was performed in the Pacific Ocean. D. The submarine that Sylvia Earle was connected to was manned.
Long before they can actually speak, babies pay special attention to the speech they hear around them. Within the
first month of their lives, babies' responses to the sound of the human voice will be different from their responses to
other sorts of auditory stimuli. They will stop crying when they hear a person talking, but not if they hear a bell or
the sound of a rattle. At first, the sounds that an infant notices might be only those words that receive the heaviest
emphasis and that often occur at the ends of utterances. By the time they are six or seven weeks old, babies can
detect the difference between syllables pronounced with rising and falling inflections. Very soon, these differences
in adult stress and intonation can influence babies' emotional states and behavior. Long before they develop actual
language comprehension, babies can sense when an adult is playful or angry, attempting to initiate or terminate new
behavior, and so on, merely on the basis of cues such as the rate, volume, and melody of adult speech.
Adults make it as easy as they can for babies to pick up a language by exaggerating such cues. One researcher
observed babies and their mothers in six diverse cultures and found that, in all six languages, the mothers used
simplified syntax, short utterances and nonsense sounds, and transformed certain sounds into baby talk. Other
investigators have noted that when mothers talk to babies who are only a few months old, they exaggerate the pitch,
loudness, and intensity of their words. They also exaggerate their facial expressions, hold vowels longer, and
emphasize certain words.
More significant for language development than their response to general intonation is observation that tiny babies
can make relatively fine distinctions between speech sounds. In other words, babies enter the world with the ability
to make precisely those perceptual discriminations that are necessary if they are to acquire aural language.
Babies obviously derive pleasure from sound input, too: even as young as nine months they will listen to songs or
stories, although the words themselves are beyond their understanding. For babies, language is a sensory-motor
delight rather than the route to prosaic meaning that it often is for adults.
A. How babies differentiate between the sound of the human voice and other sounds.
B. The differences between a baby's and an adult's ability to comprehend language
C. How babies perceive and respond to the human voice in their earliest stages of language development
D. The response of babies to sounds other than the human voice
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Question 40: Why does the author mention a bell and rattle in paragraph 1?
A. To contrast the reactions of babies to human and nonhuman sounds.
B. To give examples of sounds that will cause a baby to cry.
C. To explain how babies distinguish between different nonhuman sounds.
D. To give examples of typical toys that babies do not like.
Question 41: The word “diverse” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. surrounding B. divided C. different D. stimulating
Question 42: The word “They” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. mothers B. investigators C. babies. D. words
Question 43: The passage mentions of the following as ways adults modify their speech when talking to their babies
EXCEPT _______.
A. giving all words equal emphasis B. speaking with shorter sentences
C. speaking more loudly than normal D. using meaningless sounds
Question 44: What point does the author make to illustrate that babies are born with the ability to acquire language?
A. Babies begin to understand words in songs. B. Babies exaggerate their own sounds and expressions.
C. Babies are more sensitive to sounds than are adults. D. Babies notice even minor differences between speech sounds.
Question 45: According to the author, why do babies listen to songs and stories, even though they cannot
understand them?
A. They understand the rhythm. B. They enjoy the sound.
C. They can remember them easily. D. They focus on the meaning of their parents’ words.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
Question 46: The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.
A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice.B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.
C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice. D. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious.
Question 47: He did not remember the meeting. He went out for a coffee with his friends then.
A. Not remembered the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.
B. Not to remember the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.
C. Not remember the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.
D. Not remembering the meeting, he went out for a coffee with his friends.
Question 48: I’m sure it wasn’t Ms. Katie you saw because she is in Norway.
A. It couldn’t be Ms. Katie you saw because she is in Norway.
B. It can’t have been Ms. Katie you saw because she is in Norway.
C. It mustn’t have been Ms. Katie you saw because she is in Norway.
D. It mightn’t be Ms. Katie you saw because she is in Norway.
Question 49: She asked if I had passed the English test the week before.
A. “Had you passed the English test the week before?” she asked.
B. “Had you passed the English test the week before?” she asked
C. “Did you pass the English test last week?” she asked
D. “If you passed the English test last week?” she asked.
Question 50: They stayed for hours, which tired us.
A. We are tiring from their staying for hours. B. That they stayed for hours made us tired
C. Staying for hours with us made them feel tired. D. We are tired so they stayed for hours.
ĐỀ 35 (TNPTQG)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
Question 1: It is necessary and required that dental technicians and others who work with X-rays limit their
exposure to these highly penetrating rays.
A. and required B. and others C. highly D. their
Question 2: In a survey of suburban homeowners, a lawn-mower was rated one of the most important equipments.
A. a lawn mower B. equipments C. In a survey D. the
Question 3: Walking reduces depression and anxiety, lessens stress, self-esteem is raised, and increases energy.
A. self-esteem is raised B. Walking C. lessens stress D. depression
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Question 4: A. enthusiasm B. punctuality C. anniversary D. intercultural
Question 5: A. treasure B. appoint C. advance D. diverse
Question 6: We haven't received any reply to our letter. It is such an insult.
A. We see it an insult to have received no reply to our letter.
B. We haven't received any reply to our letter yet because it is insulting.
C. We have been insulted by the reply to our letter.
D. We don't find it insulting for not receiving any reply to our letter.
Question 7: Pete had acquired the money through hard work. He was reluctant to give it away.
A. Having acquired the money through hard work, Pete was reluctant to give it away.
B. Although Pete had acquired the money through hard work, he was reluctant to give it away.
C. Having worked hard to earn the money, it couldn't be given away by Pete.
D. Pete had acquired the money through hard work so that he was reluctant to give it away.
Question 8: In 2018 there was a craze for Bitcoin mining in Vietnam due to the belief that it would bring
impressive profits.
A. inclination B. fever C. sorrow D. indifference
Question 9: If Jeff Bezos and his wife split their assets equally. MacKenzie could become the richest woman in the
world overnight.
A. uniformly B. fifty-fifty C. unevenly D. symmetrically
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the correct answer
In the past, technology and progress was very slow. People “invented” farming 12,000 years ago but it took 8,000
years for the idea to go around the world. Then, about 3,500 years ago, people called “potters” used round wheels to
turn and make plates. But it took hundreds of years before some clever person thought, if we join two wheels
together and make them bigger, we can use them to move things
In the last few centuries, things have begun to move faster. Take a 20th-century invention like the aeroplane, for
example. The first acroplane flight on 17 December 1903 only lasted 12 seconds, and the plane only went 37 metres.
It can't have been very exciting to watch, but that flight changed the world. Sixteen years later, the first plane flew
across the Atlantic, and only fifty years after that, men walked on the moon. Technology is now changing our world
faster and faster. So what will the future bring?
One of the first changes will be the materials we use. Scientists have just invented an amazing new material called
graphene, and soon we will use it to do lots of things. With graphene batteries in your mobile, it will take a few
seconds to charge your phone or download a thousand gigabytes of information! Today, we make most products in
factories, but in the future, scientists will invent living materials. Then we won't make things like cars and furniture
in factories - we will grow them!
Thirty years ago, people couldn't have imagined social media like Twitter and Facebook. Now we can't llve without
them. But this is only the start. Right now, scientists are putting microchips in some disabled people's brains, to help
them see, hear and communicate better. In the future, we may all use these technologies. We won't need
smartphones to use social media or search the internet because the internet will be in our heads!
More people will go into space in the future, too. Space tourism has already begun, and a hundred years from now,
there may be many hotels in space. One day, we may get most of our energy from space too. In 1941, the writer
Isaac Asimov wrote about a solar power station in space. People laughed at his idea then, but we should have
listened to him. Today, many people are trying to develop a space solar power station. After all, the sun always
shines above the clouds!
Question 10: The writer says that in the past
A. people didn't invent many things B. people didn't want to use wheels
C. most inventions were to do with farming D. it took time for new ideas to change things
Question 11: Why does the writer use the example of the aeroplane?
A. To explain why transport changed in the 20th century.
B. Because he thinks It's the most important invention in history.
C. To explain how space travel started. D. To show how an invention developed quickly.
Question 12: What does the writer say about the future of communication?
A. We can't know what the most popular social media will be. B. Microchips will become faster.
C. We won't use the internet as much. D. We won't need devices like smartphones.
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Question 13: What does the writer say about space solar power?
A. It's an old idea, but people are only starting to develop it now.
B. It's a science fiction idea, and nobody really thinks it will work.
C. It's much easier to build a solar power station in space than on Earth.
D. People tried it in 1941, but they didn't succeed.
Question 14: The best title for the article would be
A. Man in space B. Will computers rule the world? C. More and more inventions D. Progress now and then
[1] Advertising helps people recognize a particular brand, persuades them to try it, and tries to keep them loyal to it.
Brand loyalty is perhaps the most important goal of consumer advertising. Whether they produce cars, canned foods
or cosmetics, manufacturers want their customers to make repeated purchases. [2] The quality of the product will
encourage this, of course, but so, too, will affect advertising.
Advertising relies on the techniques of market research to identify potential users of a product. [3] Are they
homemakers or professional people? Are they young or old? Are they city dwellers or country dwellers? Such
questions have a bearing on where and when ads should be placed. By studying readership breakdowns for
newspapers and magazines as well as television ratings and other statistics, an advertising agency can decide on the
best way of reaching potential buyers. Detailed research and marketing expertise are essential today when
advertising budgets can run into thousands of millions of dollars. [4]
Advertising is a fast-paced, high-pressure industry. There is a constant need for creative ideas that will establish a personality
for a product in the public's mind. Current developments in advertising increase the need for talented workers.
In the past, the majority of advertising was aimed at the traditional white family - breadwinner father, non-working
mother, and two children. Research now reveals that only about 6 percent of American households fit this stereotype.
Instead, society is fragmented into many groups, with working mothers, single people and older people on the rise. To be most
successful, advertising must identify a particular segment and aim its message toward that group.
Advertising is also making use of new technologies. Computer graphics are used to grab the attention of consumers
and to help them see products in a new light. The use of computer graphics in a commercial for canned goods, for
instance, gave a new image to the tin can.
A. How to develop a successful advertising plan. B. New techniques and technologies of market research
C. The central role of advertising in selling products. D. The history of advertising in the United States.
Question 16: The word “this” in the first paragraph refers to
A. repeatedly buying the same brand B. the most important goal C. the quality of the product D.effective advertising
Question 17: It can be inferred from the second paragraph that advertisers must
A. aim their message at homemakers and professional people B. know about the people who will buy the product
C. place several ads in newspapers and magazines D. encourage people to try new products
Question 18: According to paragraph 2, market research includes
A. searching for talented workers B. hiring researchers with background in many fields
C. studying television ratings D. determining the price of a product
Question 19: The author implies that the advertising industry requires
A. a college-educated workforce B. government regulation C. innovative thinking D. millions of dollars
Question 20: According to the passage, most advertising used to be directed at
A. working mothers with children B. older adults C. unmarried people D. two-parent families with children
Question 21: The word “fragmented” in the fourth paragraph is closet in meaning to
A. divided B. moved C. forced D. collated
Question 22: The following sentence can be added to the passage.
Advertising is an essential part of the marketing process that can be tremendously influential in selling products.
Where would it best fit in the passage?
A. [1] B. [2] C. [3] D. [4]
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 23: We ______ on the beach now if we hadn't missed the plane.
A. will lie B. could be lying C. will be lying D. might have lain
Question 24: My older brother is extremely fond of astronomy, he seems to ___ a lot of pleasure from observing the stars.
A. possess B. seize C. reach D. derive
Question 25: More out-of-school activities are expected to be incorporated in the new school ______ proposed by
Ministry of Education and Training.
A. curriculum B. handout C. agenda D. schedule
Question 26: It turned out that I ______ have bought Frank a present after all.
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A. oughtn't B. mustn't C. needn't D. mightn't
Question 27: _______, Stan Lee, passed away at the age of 95 due to heart and respiratory failure.
A. Who is the Marvel Comics icon B. Marvel Comics icon C. The Marvel Comics icon is D. That Marvel Comics icon
Question 28: Most teenagers go through a rebellious ______ for a few years but they soon grow out of it.
A. duration B. stint C. phase D. span
Question 29: I've just been offered a new job! Things are ______.
A. clearing up B. making up C. looking up D. turning up
Question 30: The children had to ______ in the principal's office after they took part in a fight.
A. hit the right notes B. beat around the bush C. play second fiddle D. face the music
Question 31: I didn't like the town at first, but I grew _____ it eventually.
A. loving B. to be loved C. to love D. to be loving
Question 32: The narrow streets were lined with ______ shops.
A. bright-lit B. brightly-lit C. brightly-lightning D. bright-litting
Question 33: According to psychologists, children raised with high ______ of fear in unpredictable or violent
environments experience negative emotions for extended periods of time.
A. grades B. numbers C. quantities D. levels
Question 34: Reports are coming in of a major oil spill in ______ Mediterranean.
A. an B. ø C. the D. a
Question 35: In Hawaii it is _______ to greet visitors to the country with a special garland of flowers.
A. unaccustomed B. accustomed C. customary D. customized
Question 36: ______ Alan for hours but he just doesn't answer his mobile. I hope nothing's wrong.
A. I call B. I've been calling C. I'm calling D. I've called
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
Question 37: Two friends Nic and Mat are talking about a sports match.
Nic: “G'day mate. Did you catch the game last night?”
Matt: “_______.”
A. I heard you do taekwondo. B. Yes, you're getting a bit closer. C. You must be right after all. D.No, who played?
Question 38: Charlott is feeling umwell and has to see the doctor, Ben.
Ben: “Do you have a temperature?”
Charlotte: “_______.”
A. Yes I think so. It's been a bit high. B. I have a sore back.
C. What seems to be the problem? D. I need a prescription, please.
Question 39: A. chocolate B. champagne C. challenge D. cheerful
Question 40: A. flora B. trophy C. glory D. orally
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 41: Researchers have found that people are sleeping almost two fewer hours a night than they were in the
1960s, and our health is deteriorating as a result.
A. improving B. degrading C. purifying D. elevating
Question 42: It was the book "Brief History of Time" that rocketed the physicist Stephen Hawking to stardom.
A. reputation B. unimportance C. obscurity D. universe
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheel to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
Question 43: Realizing the environmental impact of the fashion industry, some bloggers, vloggers and influencers
are now entering the “no-buy” movement.
A. It is a new trend that some bloggers, vloggers and influencers now refuse to buy new stuff regardless of the
environmental impact of the fashion industry.
B. Instead of using the things they have already owned, some bloggers , vloggers and influencers make a
commitment to buy new stuff because of the environmental impact of the fashion industry.
C. With the fashion industry's environmental impact under consideration, there's a move to avoid new stuff among
some bloggers, vloggers and influencers.
D. Some bloggers, vloggers and influencers, taking fashion industry's environmental impact into account, now deny
buying new products.
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Question 44: Right after Vietnam national football team won the AFF Cup 2018, thousands of fans flocked to the
streets to celebrate.
A. No sooner had thousands of fans flocked to the streets to celebrate than Vietnam national football team won the
AFF Cup 2018.
B. Only after thousands of fans flocked to the streets to celebrate did Vietnam national football team win the AFF
Cup 2018.
C. Hardly had Vietnam national football team won the AFF Cup 2018 than thousands of fans flocked to the streets
to celebrate.
D. Scarcely had Vietnam national football team won the AFF Cup 2018 when thousands of fans flocked to the
streets to celebrate.
Question 45: “What a silly thing to say!”, Martha said.
A. Martha threatened that it was a silly thing to say. B. Martha exclaimed that it was a silly thing to say.
C. Martha suggested that it was a silly thing to say. D. Martha offered that it was a silly thing to say.
MENTORING
Many adults in America and increasing numbers elsewhere take part in mentoring schemes. A mentor is an adult
who provides support and friendship to a young person. There are numerous different (46)_____ of mentoring:
passing on skills, sharing experiences, offering guidance. Sometimes the most helpful thing to do is just listen.
Mentoring is open to anybody - no particular (47) _____ experience is required, just a desire to make a difference to
the life of a young person who needs help. This may seem a difficult thing at first, but many people find they have a
real talent for it.
The support of a mentor can play an important part in a child's development and can often make up (48) _____ a
lack of guidance in a young person's life. It can also improve young people's attitudes towards society and build up
their confidence in dealing with life's challenges. For the mentor, it can be incredibly rewarding to know that they
have had a significant influence on a child and helped to give the best possible (49) _____ in life. Indeed, it is not
only adults who are capable of taking on this role. There is now an increasing (50) _____ for teenagers to mentor
young children, for example by helping them with reading or other school work.
Question 46: A. times B. approach C. ways D. supplies
Question 47: A. difficult B. trained C. skilled D. professional
Question 48: A. with B. for C. over D. to
Question 49: A. difficulty B. chance C. availability D. risk
Question 50: A. wish B. want C. demand D. lack
ĐỀ 36 (TNPTQG)
Drone racing is an exciting new sport, that has become popular faster than (1)______ other sport before it. Pilots
steer small and lightweight, but high-powered drones along courses with obstacles. They fly through gates and
around flags at speeds of over a hundred miles an hour.
They control the drones using VR-like headgear. Every drone has a camera (2)______ to it so that spectators can
also view flights either on a big screen or with special headgear.
The races take place either outdoors - in big stadiums, or indoors in old warehouses and sports arenas. (3)______ are
short because the battery time of drones is limited.
(4)______ drone racing started only a few years ago there are already international competitions that take place all
over the world. In professional leagues, drone pilots compete for thousands of dollars. In March, the World Drone
Prix was staged in Dubai. A 16-year old British teenager not only one the race but also received a prize money of
250 000 dollars.
Television and other media have become aware of drone racing. ESPN, an Amercian sports channel, will be
broadcasting international drone races starting this August. Races are also recorded and uploaded to YouTube and
other video platforms (5)______ they can be viewed over and over again.
Question 1: A. no B. none C. neither D. not
Question 2: A. linked B. attached C. taken D. connected
Question 3: A. Competitors B. Competitions C. Compete D. Competitiveness
Question 4: A. However B. Moreover C. Although D. Because
Question 5: A. where B. that C. if D. as
Question 6: On being told about her sack, ________.
A. her boss felt sorry for Mary B. Mary was shocked C. Mary's face turned pale D. her boss changed his attitude
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Question 7: Now, don't tell anyone else what I have just told you. Remember it is ________.
A. confidential B. confident C. confidence D. confidant
Question 8: He bought three shirts; one for him and ______ for his children.
A. others B. the other C. another D. the others
Question 9: Let me please ______ my memory before I get down to answering the questions.
A. resume B. ease C. awake D. refresh
Question 10: This is ______ the most difficult job I've ever had to do.
A. by heart B. by chance C. by far D. by myself
Question 11: ______ non-verbal language is _______ important aspect of interpersonal communication.
A. The - a B. ø – an C. A - the D. The - ø
Question 12: Solar energy is not widely used _______ it is friendly to the environment
A. since B. although C. despite D. because
Question 13: The sign warns people ______ the dangers of swimming in this river.
A. about B. against C. to D. from
Question 14: They always kept on good ______ with their next-door neighbors for the children's sake.
A. terms B. friendship C. relationship D. words
Question 15: _______ her fiction describes women in unhappy marriage.
A. Many of B. A large number of C. Much of D. A few of
Question 16: Jane would never forget ______ the first prize in such a prestigious competition.
A. to have awarded B. to be awarded C. having awarded D. being awarded
Question 17: Drinking too much alcohol is said to _______ harm to our health
A. do B. make C. lead D. take
Question 18: I'm said to be ______ my brother is.
A. nowhere like so ambitious as B. nothing near as ambitious as
C. nothing as ambitious as D. nowhere near as ambitious as
Question 19: I feel terrible, I didn't sleep ______ last night.
A. a jot B. a wink C. an inch D. an eye
Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
Question 20: A. half B. calm C. chalk D. culture
Question 21: A. decorate B. passionate C. undergraduate D. temperate
Question 22: A. conceal B. contain C. conserve D. conquer
Question 23: A. technology B. environment C. superstition D. predominance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 24: He didn't bat an eye when he realized he failed the exam again.
A. didn't want to see B. didn't show surprise C. wasn't happy D. didn't care
Question 25: Mary has finally managed to get round her strict parents to let her go on a three-day excursion with
her classmates.
A. persuade B. offer C. support D. permit
Question 26: I could only propose a partial solution to the crisis in the company
A. half B. halfway C. effective D. complete
Question 27: Sorry, I can't come to your party. I am snowed under with work at the moment.
A. busy with B. relaxed about C. free from D. fond of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
Question 28: Susan accidentally stepped on Denise's foot.
- Susan: “Oops! I'm sorry, Denise.”
- Denise: “________.”
A. You shouldn't do that. B. It's alright C. You're welcome. D. It's nonsense
Question 29: Hana and Jennifer are talking about the book they have read.
- Hana: “The book is really interesting and educational.”
- Jennifer: “________.”
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A. I'd love to B. Don't mention it C. It's nice of you to say so. D. I can't agree more.
In addition to providing energy, fats have several other functions in the body. The fat soluble vitamins, A, D, E and
K, are dissolved in fats, as their name implies. Good sources of these vitamins have high oil or fat content, and the
vitamins are stored in the body's fatty tissues. In the diet, fats cause food to remain longer in the stomach, this
increasing the feeling of fullness for some time after a meal is eaten. Fats add variety, taste, and texture to foods,
which accounts for the popularity of fried foods. Fatty deposits in the body have an insulating and protective value.
The curves of the human female body are due mostly to strategically located fat deposits.
Whether a certain amount of fat in the diet is essential to human health is not definitely known. When rats are fed a
fat-free diet, their growth eventually ceases, their skin becomes inflamed and scaly, and their reproductive systems
are damaged. Two fatty acids, linoleic and arachidonic acids, prevent these abnormalities and hence are called
essential fatty acids. They also are required by a number of other animals but their roles in human beings are
debatable. Most nutritionists consider linoleic fatty acid an essential nutrient for humans.
Question 30: This passage probably appeared in which of the following?
A. A diet book B. A book on basic nutrition C. A cookbook D. A popular women's magazine
Question 31: The phrase “stored in” in line 3 is closest in meaning to
A. manufactured in B. attached to C. measured by D. accumulated
Question 32: The author states that fats serve all the following body functions EXCEPT to
A. promote a feeling of fullness B. insulate and protect the body C. provide energy D. control weight gain
Question 33: Linoleic fatty acid is mentioned in the passage as
A. an essential nutrient for humans B. more useful than arachidonic acid
C. preventing weight gain in rats D. a nutrient found in most food
Question 34: The phrase “these abnormalities” in line 10 and 11 refers to
A. a condition caused by fried food B. strategically located fat deposits
C. curves on the human female body D. cessation of growth, bad skin, and damaged reproductive systems
A newborn baby can see, hear and feel. By the age of five, a child can talk, ride a bike and invent imaginary friends.
How does this development happen? We don't understand the way language, thinking and planning develop very
well. Now scientists are using new technology to ‘see’ into children's brains. And they are discovering new
information about the way a baby's brain develops.
A study in 2010 showed that the experiences a child has in their first few years affect the development of the brain.
It showed that children who received more attention often had higher IQs. The brain of a newborn baby has nearly a
hundred billion neurons. This is the same number as an adult's brain. As they grow, a baby receives information
through the senses of sight, hearing, smell, taste and touch. This information creates connections between different
parts of the brain. At the age of three, there are a hundred trillion connections.
One experiment looked at images of babies' brains while they were listening to different sounds. The sounds were in
different sequences. For example, one sequence was mu-ba-ba. This is the pattern „A-B-B‟. Another sequence was
mu-ba-ge. This is the pattern „A-B-C‟. The images showed that the part of the brain responsible for speech was
more active during „A-B-B‟ patterns. This shows that babies can tell the difference between different patterns. This
experiment is interesting because sequences of words are important to grammar and meaning. Compare two
sentences with the same words in a different order: „John killed the bear‟ is very different from „The bear killed
John.‟ So babies are starting to learn grammatical rules from the beginning of life.
Researchers also know that babies need to hear a lot of language in order to understand grammar rules. But there is a
big difference between listening to television, audio books or the internet, and interacting with people. One study
compared two groups of nine-month-old American babies. One group watched videos of Mandarin Chinese sounds.
In the other group, people spoke the same sounds to the babies. The test results showed that the second group could
recognise different sounds, however the first group learned nothing. The scientist, Patricia Kuhl, said this result was
very surprising. It suggests that social experience is essential to successful brain development in babies.
Question 35: The purpose of the article is to
A. explain new studies into the development of babies' brains. B. describe how a new-born baby's brain works.
C. compare the brains of adults and children. D. prove that nowadays babies are more intelligent than in the past.
Question 36: According to the first paragraph
A. most aspects of child development are understood quite well. B. some five-year-olds have imaginary friends.
C. children use technology more these days. D. technology has been used in children's brain surgery.
Question 37: Which statement is supported by the second paragraph?
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A. Adult brains have more neurons than new-born babies' brains.
B. Babies and three-year-olds have the same number of neurons.
C. Early experiences have an effect on brain development
D. The connections between parts of the brain stay the same as a child grows up.
Question 38: According to the second paragraph, which of the following can affect IQ?
A. being with adults a lot B. connecting with other babies
C. paying attention to a baby D. having access to information as early as possible
Question 39: It can be inferred from the passage that
A. A pattern like „A-B-C‟ is easier to understand. B. Babies' brains cannot recognise different sound patterns.
C. It's not known which area of a baby's brain processes speech.
D. Children can actually learn grammatical rules in their very early age.
Question 40: According to the article, which statement is true?
A. Experiments focusing on language have given researchers new information.
B. Children who hear different languages develop differently.
C. The development of language is the easiest thing to study in babies.
D. Babies are able to understand grammar rules of a language only in specific period.
Question 41: What did the study described in the last paragraph do?
A. compared the effects of different languages B. divided babies into two groups with different treatment
C. investigated if babies can learn Chinese D. taught babies foreign languages through listening to videos.
Question 42: What is the main conclusion from the study described in the last paragraph?
A. Babies can understand television at the age of nine months. B. Social interaction has a big influence on the brain.
C. Watching videos is a good way to develop a child's brain.
D. Mandarin Chinese is not too hard to be learned for American babies.
Question 43: You ought to make up your mind now.
A. It is high time you made up your mind B. Making up your mind is necessary.
C. You should have made up your mind D. It is possible to make up your mind
Question 44: “No, no, you really must stay a bit longer!” said the boys.
A. The boys denied my staying a bit longer B. The boys refused to let me stay a bit longer.
C. The boys didn't agree to let stay a bit longer. D. The boys insisted on my staying a bit longer.
Question 45: You should have persuaded him to change his mind
A. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn't
B. You didn't persuade him to change because of his mind C. You should persuade him to change his mind
D. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn't listen.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
Question 46: She gave in her notice. She planned to start her new job in January
A. She gave in her notice, plan to start her new job in January
B. She gave in her notice with a view to starting her new job in January
C. Her notice was given in with an aim to start her new job in January
D. Her notice was given in order for her to start her new job in January
Question 47: The plan may be ingenious. It will never work in practice.
A. Ingenious as it may be, the plan will never work in practice.
B. Ingenious as may the plan, it will never work in practice.
C. The plan may be too ingenious to work in practice. D. The plan is as impractical as it is ingenious.
Question 48: A football match begins with the ball kicking forwards from a spot in the centre of the field.
A. begins B. with C. kicking forwards D. in the centre
Question 49: Information on the Romans can find not only in these books but also on the Internet.
A B C D
Question 50: Students suppose to read all the questions carefully and find out the answers to them.
A B C D
ĐỀ 37 (TNPTQG)
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
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HOME LIFE
"Parents today want their kids spending time on things that can bring them success, but (1)_________, we've
stopped doing one thing that's actually been a proven predictor of success-and that's household chores," says
Richard Rende, a (2)_________ psychologist in Paradise Valley, Ariz, and co-author of forthcoming book “Raising
Can-Do Kids." Decades of studies show the benefits of chores-academically, emotionally and even professionally.
Giving children household chores at an early age (3)_______ to build a lasting sense of mastery, responsibility and
self-reliance, according to research by Marty Rossmann, professor emeritus at the University of Minnesota. In 2002,
Dr. Rossmann analyzed data from a longitudinal study (4)_______ followed 84 children across four periods in their
lives-in preschool, around ages 10 and 15, and in their mid-20s. She found that young adults who began chores at
ages 3 and 4 were more likely to have good relationships with family and friends, to achieve academic and early
career success and to be self-sufficient, as (5)_______ with those who didn't have chores or who started them as
teens. Chores also teach children how to be empathetic and responsive to others' needs, notes psychologist Richard
Weissbourd of the Harvard Graduate School of Education.
(Adapted from http://www.wsj.com/articles/why-children-need-chores)
Question 1. A. ironically B. especially C. brutally D. bitterly
Question 2. A. develop B. developing C. developed D. developmental
Question 3. A. help B. helps C. helped D. has helped
Question 4. A. whom B. that C. what D. when
Question 5. A. compared B. compare C. comparing D. to compare
Question 6. A. link B. handkerchief C. donkey D. handful
Question 7. A. mineral B. miniature C. minor D. minimum
Question 8. A. impatient B. arrogant C. familiar D. uncertain
Question 9. A. forgettable B. philosophy C. humanism D. objectively
Question 10. In most ________ developed countries, up to 50% of ________ population enters higher education at
some time in their lives.
A. the – Ø B. Ø – the C. Ø – Ø D. the-a
Question 11. The launch of the first liquid-fuelled rocket in 1926 _______ by flight historians ______ as significant
as the Wright Brothers' flight.
A. has considered/ to have been B. was considered/ being C. is considered/ to be D. is considered/ to have been
Question 12. Only three of the students in my class are girls; __________ are all boys.
A. the others B. other student C. others D. the other
Question 13. Although ________, he has been to more than 30 countries in the world and gained a lot of
knowledge.
A. his young age B. young C. his youth D. he was young
Question 14. To protect ________ hackers, security experts advise longer passwords_______ combinations of
upper and lowercase letters, as well as numbers.
A. from/to B. on/between C. against/in D. against/with
Question 15. The incredible thing about telephone _______ across the continents, but that you can recognize the
other person's voice.
A. is it provides instant talking to each other. B. is it allows people to talk instantly
C. is not that people can instantly talk to each other D. is that people can talk instantly
Question 16. Jack has a collection of ________ .
A. old valuable Japanese postage stamps B. old Japanese valuable postage stamps
C. valuable Japanese old postage stamps D. valuable old Japanese postage stamps
Question 17. There are _______ that not only governments but also individuals should join hand to tackle.
A. such a lot of environmental problems B. too numerous environmental problems
C. so fewer environmental problems D. such many environmental problems
Question 18. To solve this problem, it is advisable ________ .
A. a drastic measure to be adopted B. that a drastic measure be adopted
C. that a drastic measure is adopted D. that a drastic measure to be adopted
Question 19. She _______ for her parents' support during her university education, but she preferred to work part-
time and support herself.
A. must have asked B. could have asked C. should have asked D. ought to ask
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Question 20. After the interview, don't neglect the thank-you note or ________ letter.
A. follow-up B. turn-up C. start-up D. break-up
Question 21. _______ the film's director, Ben Affleck, was famously left off the 85th Oscar's Best Director list of
nominees surprised everyone.
A. What B. Due to C. Although D. That
Question 22. The goal is to make higher education available to everyone who is will and capable _______ his
finacial situation.
A. regardless of B. owing to C. in terms of D. with reference to
Question 23. Timmy dropped the _______ on doing this task again because of his carelessness. I can't stand him anymore.
A. pin B. needle C. botton D. ball
The food we eat seems to have profound effects on our health. Although science has made enormous steps in
making food more fit to eat, it has, at the same time, made many foods unfit to eat. Some research has shown that
perhaps eighty percent of all human illnesses are related to diet and forty percent of cancer is related to the diet as
well, especially cancer of the colon. People of different cultures are more prone to contact certain illnesses because
of the characteristic foods they consume.
That food is related to illness is not a new discovery. In 1945, government researchers realized that nitrates nitrites
(commonly used to preserve color in meat) as well as other food additives caused cancer. Yet, these carcinogenic
additives remain in our food, and it becomes more difficult all the time to know which ingredients on the packaging
label of processed food are helpful or harmful.
The additives that we eat are not all so direct. Farmers often give penicillin to cattle and poultry, and because of this,
penicillin has been found in the milk of treated cows.
Sometimes similar drugs are administered to animals not for medical purposes, but for financial reasons. The
farmers are simply trying to fatten the animals in order to obtain a higher price on the market. Although the Food
and Drug Administration (FDA) has tried repeatedly to control these procedures, the practices continue.
A healthy diet is directly related to good health. Often we are unaware of detrimental substances we ingest.
Sometimes well-meaning farmers or others who do not realize the consequences add these substances to food
without our knowledge.
Question 24. How has science done to disservice to people?
A. Because of science, disease caused by contaminated food has been virtually eradicated.
B. The scientists have preserved the color of meats, but not of vegetables .
C. It caused a lack of information concerning the value of food.
D. As a result of scientific intervention, some potentially harmful substances have been added to our food.
Question 25. The word "prone" is nearest meaning to ________ .
A. supine B. unlikely C. healthy D. predisposed
Question 26. All of the following statements are TRUE except _______ .
A. Food may cause forty percent of the cancer in the world
B. Drug are always given to animals for medical reasons
C. Researchers have known about the potential hazard of food additives for more than 45 years
D. Some of the additives in our food are added to the food itself and some are given to the living animals
Question 27. The word "additives" is closest meaning to _______ .
A. dangerous substance B. natural substance C. begin substance D. added substance
Question 28. What is best title for this passage?
A. The food you eat can affect your health B. Harmful and Harmless substances in food
C. Avoiding injurious substances in food D. Improving health through a Natural Diet
Question 29. When a country in an early stage of development, investments in fixed capital are vital.
A. a country B. investments C. fixed D. are vital.
Question 30. Bacteria that live in soil and water play a vital role in recycling carbon, nitrogen
sulfur, and another chemical elements used by living things.
A. soil and water B. a vital role C. another D. living things.
Question 31. Genes have several alternative form, or alleles, which are produced by mutations.
A. several alternative B. form C. which D. produced by
Question 32. Urbanization is the shift of people moving from rural to urban areas, and the result is the growth of cities.
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A. movement B. maintenance C. variation D. transposition
Question 33. Salish's point of view was correct but his behavior with his father was quite impertinent.
A. inadequate B. smooth C. healthy D. respectful
Question 34. The expression "out of the frying pan and into the fire" means to go from one dilemma to a worse one.
A. situation B. solution C. predicament D. embarrassment
Question 35. With so many daily design resources, how do you stay-up-date with technology without spending too
much time on it?
A. get latest information B. connect to the Internet all day C. use social network daily D. update new status
to each of the questions
Belgium is a very old country, with a fascinating mixture of old customs and modern laws. Belgium weddings may
be performed as a civil ceremony or as a religious ceremony.
Traditionally, when a couple in Belgium wishes to announce their marriage, the wedding invitations are printed on
two sheets of paper, one from the bride's family and one sheet from the groom's family. These wedding invitations
symbolize the union of the two families and the partnership of the new union.
An ancient Belgium custom that is designed to unite the two families calls for the bride to stop as she walks up the
isle and to hand her mother a single flower. The two then embrace. Then, during the recessional, the bride and
groom walk to the groom's mother and the new bride hands her new mother-in-law a single flower and the two of
them embrace, symbolizing the bride's acceptance of her new mother.
One of the most important and enduring traditions of the Belgium wedding is for the bride to carry a specially
embroidered handkerchief that has her name embroidered on it. After the wedding this handkerchief is framed and
hung on the wall in a place of honor. When the next female member of the bride's family is to be wed, the
handkerchief is removed from its frame, the new bride's name is embroidered onto it, and it is passed down. The
wedding handkerchief is passed from generation to generation, and is considered an important family heirloom.
During the wedding mass, the bride and the groom are enthroned in two large chairs placed near the altar,
symbolizing that on this day and in this place they are the king and the queen. At the conclusion of the ceremony,
the groom slips the wedding ring onto the third finger of his bride's left hand. The ring, being an endless circle,
symbolizes never-ending love, and the third finger of the left hand is believed to hold the vein that travels to the
heart, symbolizing love. At the conclusion of the ceremony, the bride and groom share their first kiss as husband and
wife. The kiss is considered a symbolic act of sharing each other's spirit as the couple each breathes in a portion of
their new mate's soul.
The bridesmaids traditionally take up a collection of coins and as the bride and groom exit the church, the
bridesmaids toss the coins to the poor outside the church. Giving gifts of money to the poor helps to insure
prosperity for the new bride and groom.
Following the wedding the bride and groom are off on their honeymoon. In ancient times the honeymoon, which
was celebrated by the drinking of mead, or honey wine, would last 28 days, one complete cycle of the moon. This
was to make sure that the bride's family did not try to steal their daughter back from her new husband.
(Adapted from http://www.best-country.com/)
Question 36. Which of the following could be the best title of this passage?
A. Belgium's wedding ceremony B. Belgium's wedding customs and traditions
C. The bride's and groom's traditional activities in their wedding day
D. The differences between an ancient wedding and a modern one in Belgium
Question 37. What does the word "them" in the third paragraph refer to?
A. the bride and her mother B. the bride and the groom
C. the bride and her mother-in-law D. the groom and his mother-in-law
Question 38. The following is true about Belgium's wedding, EXCEPT _______ .
A. The weddings in Belgium are not only a civil event but also a religious one
B. The wedding invitations are the symbol of both the bride's and the groom's families
C. Each mother of the couple is given a single flower in their children's wedding
D. The bride often hugs her mother-in-law before embracing her mother
Question 39. It can be inferred from the passage that the wedding handkerchief _______ .
A. is prepared for the bride by her mother before the wedding B. is highly appreciated in the home of Belgian people
C. is only replaced by another person in their house
D. is embroidered in most important occasions in Belgium
Question 40. The word "heirloom" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______ .
A. dowry B. inheritance C. representation D. pride
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Question 41. According to paragraph 5, what is CORRECT about the wedding ring?
A. It is wom onto the third finger of the bride's right hand.
B. The groom wears the ring for his mate at the beginning of the ceremony.
C. The ring represents the boundless love of the couple.
D. The ring is presented by the queen and the king of their country.
Question 42. The word "insure" in the paragraph 6 could be best replaced by _______ .
A. determine B. indemnify C. express D. affirm
Question 43. The author mentioned honeymoon in the past in the last paragraph as a period that ________
A. the bride and the groom live far from each other B. lasts for a fortnight after wedding
C. protects the new bride from her family's effort to take her back
D. the new couple serves the guests honey wine
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D or your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
Question 44. Sometimes having professional assistance with your CV can increase your chance of finding a job.
A. Having your CV professionally prepared determines whether you'll get the job or not.
B. The prospects for finding employment can possibly be enhanced by a professionally produced CV.
C. Having a professional help you with your CV is a sure way to find a job.
D. Without a professional CV, it is impossible to find a job.
Question 45. For reasons hygiene, it's forbidden to try on the earrings in the jewellery department.
A. Customers who care for hygiene are advised in the jewellery department not to try on any earrings.
B. Earrings are considered unhygienic and so forbidden for sale in this jewellery department.
C. Because it is not hygiene, customers in the jewellery department are not allowed to try on the carrings.
D. Being hygiene in the jewellery department is the decision of the customers and not the management.
Question 46. "You should have finished the report by now," the boss said to his secretary.
A. The boss scolded his secretary for not finishing the report on time.
B. The boss suggested his secretary should have finished the report on time.
C. The boss reminded his secretary of finishing the report on time.
D. The boss advised his secretary to finish the report on time.
Question 47. She was the first woman in the Philippines. She was elected as the president of the country.
A. She was the first woman who is elected as the president of the Philippines.
B. She was the first woman elected as the president of the Philippines.
C. She was the first woman being elected as the president of the Philippines.
D. She was the first woman to be elected as the president of the Philippines.
Question 48. We arrived at the conference. Then we realized that our reports were still at home.
A. No sooner had we realized that our reports were at home than we arrived at the conference.
B. Only after we arrived at the conference did we realize that our reports were still at home.
C. Not until we arrived at the conference that we realized that our reports were still at home.
D. Hardly had we arrived at the conference that we realized that our reports were still at home.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
Question 49. – “Excuse me. Where's the parking lot?” – “ ______”
A. You missed the turn. It's back that way. B. Do you get lost? I do too.
C. You are going the wrong way. It's not here D. Why do you ask me? I don't know.
Question 50. Hoa is asking Hai, who is sitting at a corner of the room, seeming too shy.
- Hoa: "Why aren't you taking part in our activities? _______________ .” - Hai: "Yes, I can. Certainly."
A. Shall I take your hat off? B. Can you help me with this decorations?
C. Can I help you? D. Could you please show me how to get the nearest post office?
ĐỀ 38 (TNPTQG)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions from 1 to 14.
Question 1. In some families, younger people seem more _______ to save money than their parents.
A. supposed B. objected C. suspected D. inclined
Question 2. Politicians _______ blame the media if they don't win the election. They're so predictable.
A. variety B. various C. invariably D. variable
Question 3. When the first child was born, they ______ for three years.
A. have been married B. had been married C. will been married D. will have been married
Question 4. For holistic development schools should ______ families as partners in their children's education.
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A. draft В. recruit C. engage D. enlist
Question 5. _______ , I decided to stop trading with them.
A. Being the biggest dealer B. Though being the biggest dealer
C. Despite of the fact that they were the biggest dealer
D. Even though they were the biggest dealer
Question 6. Only in the last few years ______ to use home computers.
A. people have begun B. when people began C. have begun people D. have people begun
Question 7. It is the recommendation of many counselors _____ that their survival is attributed to their true love.
A. that Katniss convince the Mayor B. that Katniss convinces the Capitol
C. the Capitol is convinced D. that Katniss must convince the Capitol
Question 8. The authorities _____ actions to stop illegal purchase of wild animals and their associated products
effectively. However, they didn't do so.
A. should have taken B. needed have taken C. must have taken D. had to take
Question 9. ______ in large quantities in the Middle East, oil became known as black gold because of the large
profit it brought.
A. Discovered B. Discovering C. Which was discovered D. That when discovered
Question 10. If a machine stops moving or working normally, you can say that it has ______ .
A. cut off B. seized up C. gone off D. wiped out
Question 11. Last night, ________ nothing to watch on TV, we went out.
A. having had B. being C. there having D. there being
Question 12. ________ that he had no choice but to leave early.
A. He found himself in so embarrassing a situation B. In such a situation he did find himself
C. In such a situation he found himself D. He found himself in a situation where
Question 13. I refuse to believe a word of it, it's a cock-and- _______ story.
A. bull B. hen C. duck D. goose
Question 14. Paul is a very ________ character , he is never relaxed with strangers.
A. self-conscious B. self-directed C. self-satisfied D. self-confident
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions from 15 to 16.
Question 15. A. biomass B. barrister C. asthma D. drama
Question 16. A. well-established B. worshiped C. poached D. self-directed
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 17 to 18.
Question 17. S. Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr Mayo's outstanding
humanitarianism.
A. charitable B. remarkable C. exhaustive D. widespread
Question 18. I had to pay through the nose to get my car repaired at a service station in the middle of the desert.
A. cost a lot of money B. pay too much for something C. spend less money than usual D. make a lot of money
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 19 to 23.
Culture Clash
In Africa a famous food company tried to sell its baby food by advertising it with the picture of a baby on the label.
They did not know that this particular country used labels only to (19)_________ a picture of the food inside. When
Pepsico used the slogan "Come alive with Pepsi' in Taiwan, they had no idea that it would be translated into Chinese
as 'Pepsi (20) ________ your ancestors back from the dead’.
Misunderstandings such as these about language or about culture are sometimes comical but can also cause genuine
hurt or anger. Business styles (21) ________ widely in different countries and what is normal in one culture can be
completely unacceptable in another.
Socialising in different countries can be tricky. In Arabic countries, for example, people do not discuss business (22)
_________ meals. Giving gifts is another potential problem: in the UK most people take presents to a dinner party,
but in many countries this is not polite because it (23) _________ you think the host is poor.
Question 19. A. express B. display C. record D. show
Question 20. A. leads B. returns C. brings D. takes
Question 21. A. exchange B. vary C. differentiate D. disagree
Question 22. A. over B. in C. through D. about
Question 23. A. recommends B. indicates C. suggests D. proposes
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or Don your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions from 24 to 26.
Question 24. Upon reaching the destination, a number of personnel is expected to change their reservations and
proceed to Hawaii.
A. reaching B. proceed to C. is D. to change
Question 25. They had discussion about training not only the new employees but also giving them some challenges.
A. giving B. training not only C. some challenges D. about
Question 26. If you have some sufficient knowledge of English, you can make yourself understand almost everywhere.
A. understand B. some C. almost D. of
answer to each of the questions from 27 to 31.
The Progressive Movement
The progressive movement was a powerful and broad-based movement of reform that had lasting effects on the
American political system in the first two decades of the twentieth century. It arose in reaction to the domination of
the social and political system by business interests and rampant corruption throughout the political party system
during the period following the end of the Civil War in 1865. Progressivism emerged as a force during the presidency of
Theodore Roosevelt, from 1901 to 1909, and reached its height in the presidential campaign of 1912. By the time the
United States entered World War I in 1917, progressivism as a force had faded from the political scene.
The progressive movement was focused on instigating, or initiating change in three different areas. One area that
was of major interest to the progressive movement was the imposition of legal and government control over
big business, which had usurped an extraordinary amount of power in the era of the wealthy industrial
barons such as Rockefeller and Carnegie. A second area of interest to the progressive movement was the
improvement of the social system in order to rid society of the poverty, slum housing, and exploitation of immigrant
and child labor that were a part of the era. A final area of interest was the cleaning up of the political system to move
political decisions back into the realm of direct democratic control and away from the corrupt backroom deals that
plagued the world of politics.
Progressivism was a grassroots movement that first gained force at the local level. In cities such as Cincinnati and
Cleveland, effective urban reform movements took hold, and city officials were appointed or elected to run their
respective cities along nonpartisan lines and out from under the control of political parties and bosses. The
progressive movement then worked its way from the local level to the state level and then on to the national level. In
the state of Wisconsin, for example, "Fighting Bob" La Follette led the drive for change, first in his role as governor of the
state (1901-1906) and later as the U.S. senator representing the state (1906-1925). Under his leadership, numerous reforms
were instituted: state regulation of the railroads increased, policies directed at improving the lives of workers -- such
as workers' compensation and unemployment insurance -- were instituted, and in the political arena, selection of
party candidates was determined by direct democratic vote rather than through backroom political wrangling.
Question 27. It can be inferred from the passage that the progressive movement strongly influenced the American
political system for _____.
A. a decade or two B. one year C. a half a century D. five years
Question 28. Which of the sentences below expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in
paragraph 2?
A. The progressive movement came about as a result of legal and government controls.
B. Big business used the progressive movement in an attempt to gain influence over government.
C. The progressive movement sought to reduce the power of the huge industrialists.
D. The success of the wealthy industrial barons grew out of the progressive movement.
Question 29. The word “rampant” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _____ .
A. widespread B. insubstantial C. nonexistent D. potential
Question 30. The word “instigating” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______ .
A. ending B. understanding C. causing D. improving
Question 31. The author mentions “workers' compensation and unemployment insurance” in paragraph 3 in
order to ______ .
A. prove that workers in Wisconsin were needier than workers in other states
B. indicate areas that were the focus of party candidates
C. provide examples of reforms intended to help the working class
D. demonstrate the need for direct democratic vote
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions from 32 to 33.
Question 32. Biologists long regarded it as an example of adaptation by natural selection, but for
physicists it bordered on the miracle.
27
A. flexibility B. agility C. adjustment D. inflexibility
Question 33. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.
A. implicit B. explicit C. odd D. obscure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closet meaning to each of
the following questions from 34 to 36.
Question 34. As long as you stay calm, you have nothing to fear from the interview.
A. You have remained calm for a long time in spite of your fear of the interview.
B. Even if you are afraid of the interview, it is important not to let it show.
C. Interviews are only intimidating for people who are not extremely calm.
D. Provided you do not get nervous, the interview won't go badly for you.
Question 35. Despite his early retirement, he found no peace in life.
A. He found no peace in life because he retired early. B. Early as he retired, he found no peace in life.
C. His early retirement has brought him peace in life. D. Athough he retired early, but he found no peace in life.
Question 36. My impression of him was that he was a very capable person.
A. He struck me when I was impressed by his capability.
B. It struck me as an impression that he was a very capable person.
C. He struck me as being a very capable person. D. I struck him with the impression that he was very capable.
answer to each of the questions from 37 to 44.
Life Writings
The diary and the letter were the most extensively practiced forms of life writings in eighteenth-century America.
From the numerous examples of these two types of writing from the period, a portrait of daily life of the period can
be gleaned.
Many of the diaries that were kept during this period were life diaries by authors interested in maintaining day-to-
day records of reflective self-examination, but some of the most compelling were situational diaries; those prompted
by and limited to lengthy descriptions of personal reflections about a particular event. Three of the many situational
journals of this period are those written by Sarah Kemble Knight, William Burd II, and Dr. Alexander Hamilton.
Sarah Kemble Knight's diary of her five-month trip at the end of 1704 and the beginning of 1705 from Boston to
New Haven to New York and back again to Boston was published more than a century later as The Journal of
Madam Knight. Though this diary does include an account of the hardship that she encountered along the way, it is
principally composed of humorous descriptions of and commentary on the hospitality that she was offered and the
manners of those that she encountered. William Burd II kept two diaries to describe his experiences on a 1729
surveying expedition to settle a border dispute between Virginia and North Carolina. One of the diaries, History of
the Dividing Line between Virginia and North Carolina, was published in 1842, while its companion, Secret Diary,
was published in 1929. In these diaries, Burd used a humorous and satirical approach to describe not just the day-to-
day events of the trip but also the characteristics which set his beloved Virginia culture apart from the (in his
opinion) decidedly less praiseworthy culture of those non-Virginians that he encountered in his trip. Dr. Alexander
Hamilton's Itinerarium (1744) describes a four-month voyage of discovery undertaken by Hamilton through the
mid-Atlantic and New England colonies; in the diary that he kept of this trip. Hamilton provides considerable
commentary on the social customs of various areas, comparing the customs and culture of the better homes of the
American colonies with those of the great salons of Europe.
Letter-writing also held a place of importance in eighteenth-century America (indeed, the ability to produce cultured
letters was considered a form of art), and many letters extant from that period provide insights into the culture,
mores, and styles of written communication of that era. Many of the letter writers employed devices in common
usage in European models of the time, demonstrating that letter writers felt a sense of cohesiveness with the
cultured classes of Europe: John and Abigail Adams signed the names Lysander and Constantia to their
early letters, while Thomas Jefferson created an elaborate dialogue between his head and his heart to discuss
the nature of friendship in a 1786 letter to Maria Cosway. The variety of purposes that these letters served
provides additional insight into the priorities of the society of the time. The letters were used to cement love matches
and friendships, as the previously mentioned letters did; they were the primary method for relaying news among
family and friends who were scattered across various geographic locations; they were often used as a means of
carrying out business in this era before more rapid long-distance communication; they were often used used as a
way of sharing professional, social, or political ideas among leaders in various fields who perhaps had no other way
to get together and exchange ideas.
Question 37. The word “gleaned” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by ______.
A. left out B. pulled up C. taken back D. put together
Question 38. What is stated in the passage about the works by Knight, Burd, and Hamilton?
28
A. Each gave details about business ventures B. Each provided insight into the culture
C. Each was published soon after it was written D. Each described visits to nice homes
Question 39. Which of the following is NOT listed in paragraph 3 as a purpose served by eighteenth century
letters?
A. Conducting business B. Maintaining relationships C. Discussing various ideas D.Developing newspapers
Question 40. The phrase “extant from” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______ .
A. created during B. written about C. existing from D. prepared since
Question 41. The word “companion” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by _______ .
A. associated product B. faithful pet C. longtime friend D. respected colleague
Question 42. The phrase in parentheses (in his opinion) is included in paragraph 2 in order to indicate ____.
A. that Burd had not actually made the trip B. that the author might not share Burd's opinion
C. that the non-Virginians shared the opinion of the Virginians
D. that Burd had little knowledge of the culture of Virginia
Question 43. Which of the sentences below expresses the essential information in the highlighted sentence in paragraph 3?
A. Examples from the time show that American letter writers were interested in following the style of letters that
was fashionable in Europe
B. European letter writers were greatly influenced by Americans such as John and Abigail Adams and Thomas Jefferson
C. The use of letter-writing devices by some American authors was criticized by cultured Europeans.
D. The devices used in letter writing from the period made the writing appear more cultivated and cohesive.
Question 44. What can be inferred from the passage about situational diaries?
A. They were limited to reflective self-examination B. They were not ongoing journals of the details of daily life
C. Very few of them still exist D. They were the only type of eighteenth-century diary
sentences in the following questions from 45 to 46.
Question 45. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping. We know relatively little about sleep.
A. We know relatively little about sleep; as a result, we spend about one-third of our lives sleeping.
B. We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping so that we know relatively little about sleep.
C. Despite spending about one-third of our lives sleeping, we know relatively little about sleep.
D. We shall know more about sleep if we spend more than one-third of our lives sleeping.
Question 46. His academic record at high school was poor. He failed to apply to that prestigious institution.
A. The academic record at high school was poor because he didn't apply to that prestigious institution.
B. His academic record at high school was poor as a result of his failure to apply to that pression institution.
C. His academic record at high school was poor; as a result, he failed to apply to that prestigious
D. Failing to apply to that prestigious institution, his academic record at high school was poor.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges from 47 to 48.
Question 47. Kien: "Do you feel like going out for a drink this evening?" Trung: “______”
A. That would be great. B. No, I don't. I am busy. C. Yes. I like very much. D. Thank you very much for your kind invitation.
Question 48. Chau and Phuong bumped into each other after their graduation three years ago.
Chau: "Hi! Phuong. How have you been?” Phuong: “_______”|
A. I've been to Beijing recently. B. Badly. And how are you? C. Oh, I've done a lot of things D. Oh, pretty good. And you?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions from 49 to 50.
Question 49. A. distinguished B. anonymous C. diagnose D. achievement
Question 50. A. centralise B. candidate C. applicant D. motivation
ĐỀ 39 (TNPTQG)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each
of the following sentences.
Question 1. "Stop smoking or you'll be ill," the doctor told me.
A. The doctor advised me to give up smoking to avoid illness. B. The doctor suggested smoking to treat illness.
C. I was warned against smoking a lot of cigarettes. D. I was ordered not to smoke to recover from illness.
Question 2. If we can solve this problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.
A. It would be better for all concerned if we can solve this problem soon.
B. The sooner we solve this problem, the better it will be for all concerned.
C. If we could solve this problem soon, it would be better for all concerned.
D. If all concerned are better, we can solve this problem soon.
Question 3. He survived the operation thanks to the skillful surgeon.
A. He wouldn't have survived the operation without the skillful surgeon.
29
B. Though the surgeon was skillful, he couldn't survive the operation.
C. He survived because he was a skillful surgeon. D. There was no skillful surgeon, so he died.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSET in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 4. They have been forced to live in marginal environments, such as deserts and arctic wastelands.
A. suburban B. forgotten C. abandoned D. disadvantaged
Question 5. Only during the nineteenth century did silent reading become commonplace.
A. attracting attention B. widely used C. for everybody's use D. most preferable
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part the needs correction in each of
Question 6. They asked us whether we thought that the statistics had presented fairly and accurately.
А. whether B. thought C. had presented D. fairly
Question 7. Sam found it hard to concentrate on his work because the noise.
А. it B. concentrate C. work D. because
Question 8. Ms Phuong hardly never misses an opportunity to play in the tennis tournaments.
A. hardly never B. an C. to play D. in
Question 9. We didn't want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.
A. Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
C. We didn't stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend.
D. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money.
Question 10. I left the office. There was a power cut just then.
A. I left the office after there was a power cut. B. Hardly I had left the office when there was a power cut.
C. No sooner had I left the office than there was a power cut. D. I left the office long before there was a power cut.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks
A YEAR WITH OVERSEAS VOLUNTEERS
I was with Overseas Volunteers (OV) for a year after leaving university, and I was sent to an isolated village in
Chad, about 500 kilometers from the capital N'Djamena. Coming from a rich country, I got quite a shock, as
conditions were much harder than I had expected. But after a few days I got used to (11)_______ there. The people
were always very friendly and helpful, and I soon began to appreciate how beautiful the countryside was.
One of my jobs was to supply the village (12)______ water. The well was a long walk away, and the women used to
spend a long time every day (13)______ heavy pots backwards and forwards. So I contacted the organization and
arranged to have some pipes delivered. (14)______ these pipes were not really perfect, they still made a great
difference to the villagers.
All in all, I think my time with OV was a good experience. Although it was not paid, it was well worth doing and I
would recommend it to anyone (15)______ was considering working for a charity.
Question 11. A. live B. living C. lively D. lived
Question 12. A. on B. for C. with D. from
Question 13. A. holding B. drinking C. wearing D. carrying
Question 14. A. Because B. When C. Although D. If
Question 15. A. when B. which C. who D. where
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
Question 16. A. popular B. reduction C. romantic D. financial
Question 17. A. cover B. balance C. invent D. ancient
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 18. We _______ in silence when he suddenly ________ me to help him.
A. walked - was asking B. were walking - asked
C. were walking - was asking D. walked - asked
Question 19. Xoan singing is a vocal art of villages in the ancestral land of Phu Tho. It has been ________ for
generations and the oral tradition is still very much alive today.
A. handed down B. landed on C. passed by D. taken over
Question 20. Any pupil caught ________ was made to stand at the front of the class.
A. misbehaved B. misbehave C. misbehavior D. misbehaving
Question 21. There is _________ in my bedroom.
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A. an old square wooden table B. a square wooden old table
C. an old wooden square table D. a wooden old square table
Question 22. If I were in charge, I ________ things differently.
A. had done B. would do C. would have done D. will do
Question 23. The latest heritage at risk register revealed that 5,831 listed buildings, monuments,
archaeological sites, and landscapes in England are at ________ of being lost.
A. edge B. risk C. ease D. danger
Question 24. Next year, I have to decide which area of medicine I want to ________ in.
A. focus B. hand C. specialise D. come
Question 25. Is it acceptable to touch ______ person on _______ shoulder in a conversation?
A. a – the B. the – a C. the – the D. a - a
Question 26. ________ he had no money for a bus, he had to walk all the way home.
A. As B. Thus C. For D. So
Question 27. The Complex of Hue Monuments was the first site in Viet Nam ________ as a World Heritage Site by
UNESCO.
A. recognised B. to be recognised C. recognising D. to recognise
Question 28. We need _______ actions and interventions of the local authorities to prevent national parks from
being destroyed by pollution.
A. timely B. excitedly C. reckless D. threateningly
Question 29. After a six-year relation, Martha and Billy have decided to ________ .
A. break the bank B. tie the knot C. turn the page D. make ends meet
Question 30. Being helpful is good, but don't allow others to _______ advantage of your generosity.
A. get B. take C. use D. make
Question 31. Peter lost the race because he ______ petrol on the last lap.
A. put out of B. got out of C. made out of D. ran out of
It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that have existed have become extinct. What causes extinction?
When a species is no longer adapted to a changed environment, it may perish. The exact causes of a species' death
vary from situation to situation. Rapid ecological change may render an environment hostile to a species. For
example, temperatures may change and a species may not be able to adapt. Food resources may be affected by
environmental changes, which will then cause problems for a species requiring these resources. Other species may
become better adapted to an environment, resulting in competition and, ultimately, in the death of a species.
The fossil record reveals that extinction has occurred throughout the history of Earth. Recent analyses have also
revealed that on some occasions, many species became extinct at the same time- a mass extinction. One of the best-
known examples of mass extinction occurred 65 million years ago with the demise of dinosaurs and many other
forms of life. Perhaps the largest mass extinction was the one that occurred 225 million years ago, when
approximately 95 percent of all species died.
Mass extinction can be caused by a relatively rapid change in the environment and can be worsened by the close
interrelationship of many species. If, for example, something were to happen to destroy much of the plankton in the
oceans, then the oxygen content of Earth would drop, affecting even organisms not living in the oceans. Such a
change would probably lead to a mass extinction.
One interesting, and controversial, finding is that extinctions during the past 250 million years have tended to be
more intensive every 26 million years. This periodic extinction might be due to intersection of the Earth's orbit with
a cloud of comets, but this theory is purely speculative. Some researchers have also speculated that extinction may
often be random. That is, certain species may be eliminated and others may survive for no particular reason. A
species' survival may have nothing to do with its ability or inability to adapt. If so, some of evolutionary history may
reflect a sequence of essentially random events.
Question 32. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as resulting from rapid ecological change?
A. Availability of food sources B. Temperature changes C. Introduction of new species D. Competition among species
Question 33. According to paragraph 2, evidence from fossil fuels suggests that ________ .
A. extinction of species has occurred from time to time throughout Earth's history
B. dinosaurs became extinct much earlier than scientists originally believed
C. extinction on Earth have generally been massive
D. there has been only one mass extinction in Earth's history
Question 34. The word "ultimately" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
A. exceptionally B. dramatically C. unfortunately D. eventually
Question 35. In paragraph 3, the author makes which of the following statements about a species survival?
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A. It reflects the interrelationship of many species. B. It is associated with astronomical conditions.
C. It doesn't vary greatly from species to species. D. It may depend on chance events.
Question 36. The word "demise" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______ .
A. recovery B. survival C. death D. change
Question 37. According to the passage, it is believed that the largest extinction of a species occourred _______.
A. 26 million years ago B. 250 million years ago C. 225 million years ago D. 65 million years ago
Ouestion 38. What does the author say in paragraph 1 regarding most species in Earth's history?
A. They have been able to adapt to ecological changes. B. They have caused rapid changes in the environment.
C. They have remained basically unchanged from their original forms. D. They are no longer in existence.
Question 39. Which of the following can be inferred from the theory of periodic extinction mentioned in paragraph 3?
A. The theory is no longer seriously considered B. Many scientists could be expected to disagree with it
C. Most scientists believe the theory to be accurate D. Evidence to support the theory has recently been found
In the twentieth - century, people depend on unlimited energy to power their everyday lives. A wide range of
energy-run devices and modern conveniences are taken for granted, and although it may seem that we will never be
in danger of living without those conveniences, the fact is that many supplies of energy are dwindling rapidly.
Scientists are constantly searching for new sources of power to keep modern society running. Whether future
populations will continue to enjoy the benefits of abundant energy will depend on the success of this search.
Coal, oil, and natural gas supply modern civilization with most of its power. However, not only are supplies of these
fuels limited, but they are a major source of pollution. If the energy demands of the future are to be met without
seriously harming the environment, existing alternative energy sources must be improved or further explored and
developed. These include nuclear, water, solar, wind, and geothermal power, as well as energy from new,
nonpolluting types of fuels. Each of these alternatives, however, has advantages and disadvantages.
Nuclear power plants efficiently produce large amounts of electricity without polluting the atmosphere; however, they are
costly to build and maintain, and they pose the daunting problem of what to do with nuclear waste. Hydroelectric power is
inexpensive and environmentally safe, but impractical for communities located far from moving water. Harnessing energy
from tides and waves has similar drawbacks. Solar power holds great promise for the future but methods of
collecting and concentrating sunlight are as yet inefficient, as are methods of harnessing wind power.
Every source of energy has its disadvantages. One way to minimize them is to use less energy. Conservation efforts
coupled with renewable energy resources, such as a combination of solar, water, wind, and geothermal energy and alternative
fuels, such as alcohol and hydrogen, will ensure supplies of clean, affordable energy for humanity's future.
Question 40. The word "dwindling" in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. diminishing B. changing C. increasing D. limiting
Question 41. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Our present energy sources must be eliminated and replaced with alternative sources.
B. Demands for energy in the future are likely to decrease.
C. The search for alternative energy sources is not over.
D. Alternative sources of energy on this planet are very limited.
Question 42. It can be inferred from the passage that _______ .
A. Many alternative energy sources are environmentally hazardous
B. solar and wind power are not promising for the future
C. most alternative energy sources have proven to be impractical
D. nuclear power solves one problem while creating others
Question 43. The passage suggests that _______ .
A. people use energy without giving great thought to where it's coming from
B. modern society requires a minimum amount of energy to keep it running
C. the search for energy sources is mainly a problem for the future
D. scientists believe we will never have to go without our modern conveniences
Question 44. From the passage, it can be inferred that to solve our energy problems ________ .
A. a combination of conservation and invention will be needed
B. we will have to stop using many of our modern conveniences
C. scientists will have to find ways to increase our supplies of coal, oil, and gas
D. scientists will have to find one major source of nonpolluting energy
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 45. Jenny: "Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!"
Peter: “_________”
A. Thanks. My mother bought it for me. B. Certainly. Do you like it, too?
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C. I like you to say that. D. Yes, of course. It's expensive.
Question 46. Stranger: “Excuse me! Can you show me the way to Main Street, please?”
Man: “___________”
A. Continue. B. It's easy to do it. C. Um, I am sorry I have no idea. D. Am I going right?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 47. Though built almost five hundred years ago, the church remained practically intact.
A. in perfection B. in completion C. in chaos D. in ruins
Question 48. After a long time working incessantly, all my efforts ended in failure.
A. breakdown B. loss C. success D. collapse
Exercise 12: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 49. A. asked B. danced C. cashed D. studied
Question 50. A. chapter B. chemistry C. bachelor D. teacher
ĐỀ 40 (TNPTQG)
VEGETARIANISM
Until recently, vegetarianism was fairly uncommon in Britain, and it is still considered strange by some. But since
the 1960s its popularity has increased greatly, to the (1) ________ that high street stores stock a huge variety of
products for vegetarians. The reasons people give for not eating meat are numerous. Perhaps (2) _________
vegetarians do it for moral reasons, arguing that it is wrong to kill. The opposing point of view is that it is natural for
us to kill for food, and that we have evolved to do so. Still, there are societies where eating meat is not allowed
because it is (3) _________ their religion. There are other good reasons to give up meat, one of which is the
inefficiency of livestock farming. A single field of soya bean plants can actually produce 200 times as much protein
as the number of cattle which could be raised on the same area of land, so a vegetarian world might be a world
without hunger. (4) ________ it is, in theory, cheaper to eat only vegetables, vegetarianism is most popular in richer
countries such as Germany and Britain, where many people exclude meat for health reasons. In these countries, at
least, it (5) ________ to be a matter of choice rather than necessity
Question 1: A. extent B. distance C. length D. measure
Question 2: A. lots B. much C. almost D. most
Question 3: A. opposite B. against C. beside D. across
Question 4: A. Although B. Since C. Despite D. Therefore
Question 5: A. finishes off B. goes through C. comes up D. turns out
TEXAS
A Texas middle school is under fire after students say they have been banned from speaking Spanish in class. The
students say their principal announced the rule last month over the intercom. Inside the walls of Hemptead Middle
School, a language controversy is brewing. “There’s one teacher that said, „If you speak Spanish in my class, I’m
gonna write you up,” 8th grader Tiffani Resurez says. Four students say their principal’s announcement – banning
them from speaking Spanish in class – has given teachers and fellow students a hall pass to discriminate. “She was
like, „No speaking Spanish.’ She told me that. I was like, „That’s my first language.’ She said, „Well, you can get
out,” fellow classmate Yedhany Gallegos says. A letter sent home by the superintendent says, “Neither the district
nor any campus has any policy prohibiting the speaking of Spanish.” The four students feel that the statement from
the superintendent has not been made entirely clear that their school. “People don’t want to speak it anymore and
don’t want to get caught speaking it because they’re going to get into trouble,” 6th grader Kiara Lozano says.
Parents, like Cynthia Zamora, believe the school is not getting to the root of the problem. She wants to know why
the “No Spanish” announcement was ever made in the first place. “I was very surprised that she would even go to
such lengths,” Zamora says. Many students at the school grew up speaking Spanish at home, and they say it often
comes as second nature when they’re talking to each other at school. “I’m not scared. I’m gonna keep speaking my
language. That’s my first language, and I’m gonna keep doing it,” Lozano said. The principal has been placed on
paid administrative leave while the district investigates. A spokeswoman for Hempstead Independent School District
has released a statement saying, in part, “The district is committed to efficiently and effectively resolving this matter
with as little disruption to our students and their learning environment as possible.”
Question 6: In the passage, the word “root” is closest in meaning to _______.
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A. solution B. cause C. ground D. time
Question 7: Why was the policy introduced?
A. The superintendent wants students to speak only English at school B. No one at school is Spanish
C. The principal hates Spanish D. The reason is not mentioned
Question 8: What can we infer about the policy on no speaking Spanish?
A. All the students and school staff were irritated by the policy.
B. Students were against the rule at first but then compromised.
C. The principal who made this announcement hated Spanish.
D. Only people inside of the school knew about the rule when it was announced.
Question 9: What will the district do?
A. Dismiss the principal B. Solve the problem
C. Ask all students to remain silent about the issue D. Apologize for their mistake
Question 10: In the passage, the word “it” refers to _________.
A. the local accent B. Spanish C. English D. slang
'A good book for children should simply be a good book in its own right.' These are the words of Mollie Hunter, a
well known author of books for youngsters. Born and bred near Edinburgh, Mollie has devoted her talents to writing
primarily for young people. She firmly believes that there is always and should always be a wider audience for any
good book whatever its main market. In Mollie's opinion it is essential to make full use of language and she enjoys
telling a story, which is what every writer should be doing: 'If you aren't telling a story, you're a very dead writer
indeed,' she says.
With the chief function of a writer being to entertain, Molly is indeed an entertainer. 'I have this great love of not
only the meaning of language but of the music of language,' she says. This love goes back to early childhood. 'I've
told stories all my life. I had a school teacher who used to ask us what we would like to be when we grew up and,
because my family always had dogs, and I was very good at handling them, I said I wanted to work with dogs, and
the teacher always said "Nonsense, Mollie dear, you'll be a writer." So eventually I thought that this woman must
have something, since she was a good teacher - and I decided when I was nine that I would be a writer.‟
This childhood intention is described in her novel, A Sound of Chariots, which although written in the third person
is clearly autobiographical and gives a picture both of Mollie's ambition and her struggle towards its achievement.
Thoughts of her childhood inevitably brought thoughts of the time when her home was still a village with buttercup
meadows and strawberry fields - sadly now covered with modern houses. 'I was once taken back to see it and I felt
that somebody had lain dirty hands all over my childhood. I'll never go back,' she said. 'Never.' 'When I set one of
my books in Scotland,' she said, 'I can recapture my romantic feelings as a child playing in those fields, or watching
the village blacksmith at work. And that's important, because children now know so much so early that romance
can't exist for them, as it did for us.'
To this day, Mollie has a lively affection for children, which is reflected in the love she has for her writing. 'When
we have visitors with children the adults always say, "If you go to visit Mollie, she'll spend more time with the
children." They don't realise that children are much more interesting company. I've heard all the adults have to say
before. The children have something new.'
Question 11: In Molie Hunter‟s opinion, one sign of a poor writer is ________.
A. complicated ideas B. the weakness of the description C. lifeless characters D. the absence of a story
Question 12: What does “its” in paragraph 3 refer to?
A. ambition B. picture C. novel D. struggle
Question 13: How does Mollie feel about what has happened to her birthplace?
A. surprised B. ashamed C. disappointed D. confused
Question 14: What do we learn about Mollie Hunter as a very young child?
A. She didn‟t enjoy writing stories B. She didn‟t have any particular ambitions
C. She didn‟t expect to become a writer D. She didn‟t respect her teacher‟s views
Question 15: In comparison with children of earlier years, Mollie feels that modern children are _____.
A. better informed B. more intelligent C. less interested in fiction D. less keen to learn
Question 16: What does Mollie Hunter feel about the nature of a good book?
A. It should be based on original ideas B. It should not aim at a narrow audience
C. It should not include too much information D. It hould be attractive to young readers
Question 17: What is the writer‟s purpose in this text?
A. to provide information for Mollie Hunter‟s exsisting readers
34
B. to introduce Mollie Hunter‟s work to a wider audience
C. to describe Mollie Hunter‟s most successful books D. to share her enjoyment of Mollie Hunter‟s books
Question 18: Mollie‟s adult visitors generally discover that _____.
A. she talks a lot about her work B. she is a very generous person
C. she pays more attention to their children D. she is interesting company
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in the following questions.
Question 19: A. pleased B. released C. ceased D. increased
Question 20: A. profile B. stomach C. postpone D. cyclone
3Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in the following questions.
Question 21: A. compass B. comedy C. comfort D. command
Question 22: A. atmosphere B. Vietnamese C. entertain D. picturesque
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in the
following questions.
Question 23: The children are extremely excited about the visit to the town where their grandparents were born in.
A. about B. were C. where D. the town
Question 24: Some of the jobs described in the job interview were writing essays, correcting papers, and reports typing.
A. essays B. were C. reports typing D. described
Question 25: She always wishes to be chosen for the national ballet team, just alike her mother.
A. alike B. her mother C. for D. to be chosen
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the
following questions.
Question 26: - Ben: “You didn‟t go to school yesterday, did you?”
- Jasmine: “ _______. I saw you, but you were talking to someone”
A. No, I didn‟t B. Yes, I did C. Let me see D. I went
Question 27: - Mother: “How come you didn‟t tell me that you would quit your job?”
- Lisa: “__________.”
A. I‟d love to tell you now B. Because I knew that you would make a fuss about it
C. I have no idea D. Because I‟m so bored with it
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
Question 28: The renovation of the national museum is now nearing completion.
A. intervention B. restoration C. maintenance D. repairing
Question 29: The problem of salary didn‟t come up in the meeting last week.
A. mention B. approach C. raise D. arise
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 30: Although not essential, some prior knowledge about the company when applying is desirable.
A. subsequent B. preceding C. respective D. bygone
Question 31: Your suggestions are not in harmony with the aims of our project.
A. incompatible with B. indifferent to C. disagreeable with D. unaccompanied by
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions .
Question 32: The biologists have found more than one thousand types of butterflies in the forest, ______ its special characteristics.
A. each one has B. which has C. each having D. having
Question 33: If you are ______ of hearing, these hearing aids will be invaluable.
A. poor B. weak C. hard D. short
Question 34: _______ Steve to help, I‟m sure he would agree. He is so kind a person.
A. Even if you asked B. If you ask C. Were you to ask D. Should you ask
Question 35: Jenny has an _______ command of Japanese cuisine.
A. intensive B. utter C. impressive D. extreme
Question 36: The new airport has ______ a lot of changes on this island.
A. brought about B. taken to C. counted in D. turned up
Question 37: The new secretary is really asking for trouble, ______ the boss‟s requests like that.
A. to ignore B. ignore C. is ignoring D. ignoring
Question 38: The way in which we work has _______ a complete transformation in the past decade.
A. undercovered B. undertaken C. undergone D. underdone
Question 39: He was accused to theft, but then he ______ as the real thief confessed to the police.
35
A. appeared in broad daylight B. cleared his name
C. kept it up his sleeve D. caught himself red-handed
Question 40: The government has made a big effort to tackle the two most important _______ issues of our country.
A. society B. socialize C. sociable D. social
Question 41: They have signed an agreement to protect the forests _______ all over the world.
A. being cut down B. that cut down C. which are cut down D. are being cut down
Question 42: Pat, put all your toys away _______ someone slips and falls on them.
A. otherwise B. in case C. provided that D. so long as
Question 43: Vietnam has played _______ high spririts and had an impressive 2-0 victory over Yemen.
A. at B. in C. on D. with
Question 44: By the time the software _______ on sale next month, the company ______ $2 million on developing
it.
A. went – had spent B. will go – has spent C. has gone – will spend D. goes – will have spent
Question 45: The excursion is ______ unique opportunity to discover _______ wild in its natural beauty.
A. an – Ø B. a – the C. the – the D. an – the
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
Question 46: The only members of the cat family that can roar are lions, leopards, tigers and jaguars, but lions are
by far the loudest.
A. Lions, leopard, tigers and jaguars are the only four cats that can roar; however, the others can’t roar as loudly as lions.
B. Like leopard, tigers, and jaguars, lions are among the members of the cat family that can roar.
C. Lions, leopard, tigers and jaguars can roar, however the roar of a lion is not as frightening as that of the others.
D. Since lions come from the same cat family as leopards, tigers and jaguars do, they can roar as loud as the others.
Question 47: The likelihood of suffering a heart attack rises as one becomes increasingly obese.
A. Heart attack are happening more and more often, and most of the suffers are obese.
B. The more obese one is, the higher the chances for a heart attack become.
C. Obesity results in only a slight increase in the probability of having a heart attack.
D. Anyone who is obese is likely to experience a heart attack at any time.
Question 48: It seems to me that we’ve taken the wrong train.
A. The trained turned out to be not the one we were supposed to have taken.
B. There is no chance that we’ll catch the train that we’re supposed to.
C. I have a feeling that this train is not the one we should be on.
D. I wish we had been more careful and taken the right train from the station.
Question 49: My sisters used to get on with each other. Now they hardly speak.
A. My sisters rarely speak because they have never liked each other.
B. Because they have never got on, my sisters do not speak to each other.
C. My sisters were once close, but they rarely speak to each other now.
D. My sisters do not speak to each other much, but they are good friends.
Question 50: We should quickly find a solution to the problem. Otherwise, its impact on those concerned will
increase.
A. If we can solve this problem soon, we will lower the impact on all of our concerns.
B. The sooner we find a solution to the problem, the lower the impact it has on those concerned.
C. If all those concerned lower their impact, the problem will be better solved.
D. By the time we solve this problem, the impact on those concerned will have been lower.
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ĐỀ 31 (TNPTQG)
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31-D 32-C 33-A 34-D 35-D 36-C 37-C 38-D 39-B 40-A
41-C 42-D 43-A 44-A 45-A 46-C 47-D 48-C 49-D 50-B
ĐỀ 40 (TNPTQG)
37
1-A 2-D 3-B 4-A 5-D 6-B 7-D 8-B 9-B 10-B
11-D 12-A 13-C 14-C 15-A 16-B 17-B 18-C 19-A 20-B
21-D 22-A 23-C 24-C 25-A 26-B 27-B 28-B 29-D 30-A
31-A 32-A 33-C 34-C 35-C 36-A 37-D 38-C 39-B 40-C
41-A 42-B 43-B 44-D 45-B 46-A 47-B 48-C 49-C 50-B
38

Mark The Letter A, B, C, or D On Your Answer Sheet To Indicate The Correct Answer To Each of The Following Questions

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Mark The Letter A, B, C, or D On Your Answer Sheet To Indicate The Correct Answer To Each of The Following Questions

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ĐỀ 31 (TNPTQG)

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